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ORG all MCQ answers
Organisational Behaviour (Swinburne University of Technology)
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WEEK 1 ENTERING OB
1. In the field of organisational behaviour, organisations are best described as: d) Groups of people who
work interdependently towards some purpose
2. Organisational behaviour knowledge: d) Helps us to understand, predict and influence the behaviours
of others in organisational settings
3. According to the authors of Organisational Behaviour, organisational behaviour knowledge:
d) Is relevant to everyone who works in organisations
4. Workforce diversity:
a) Includes the entry of younger people into the workforce
b) Can potentially improve decision making and team performance in organisations
c) Includes the increasing proportion of women in the workforce
d) All of the options listed here are correct
5. Which of the following is a surface-level category of diversity?
a) Physical qualities, b) Gender, c) Ethnicity, d) All of the options listed here are correct
6. Personalities, beliefs, values and attitudes are: a) Deep-level categories of workforce diversity
7. Which of the following statements is TRUE? b) Deep-level diversity is evident in a person's decisions,
statements and actions
8. Which of the following statements about Australia's population and workforce is FALSE? a) More than
half of immigrants to Australia over the past decade were born in Europe
9. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Employment relationships are shifting towards the idea
that companies must provide employees with a high degree of job security, possibly even a job for life
10. What effect can teleworking have in the workplace?
a) Teleworking can improve the teleworker's work–life balance, b) Teleworking forces corporate leaders to
evaluate employees more for their work results rather than their 'face time', c) Teleworking increases the
risk that employees feel socially isolated from each other, d) All of the options listed here are correct
11. The triple bottom line philosophy says that:
d) Companies should try to support the economic, social and environmental spheres of sustainability
12. Which of the following concepts are closely associated with corporate social responsibility?
d) Triple bottom line and stakeholders
13. Which of these statements about corporate social responsibility (CSR) is FALSE?
a) All Australian companies now publicly report on their CSR practices
14. Which of the following is NOT a conceptual anchor in organisational behaviour?
a) Contingency anchor, b) Systematic research anchor, c) Economic anchor
d) Multidisciplinary anchor
15. Which of the following statements about the field of organisational behaviour is FALSE?
a) OB is the study of what people think, feel and do in and around organisations
b) OB emerged as a distinct field of inquiry in the 1940s
c) OB is a self-contained discipline, independent of other disciplines
d) OB theories are usually tested using the scientific method
e) Many OB theories are contingency-oriented
16. Which discipline has provided organisational behaviour with much of its theoretical foundation for
team dynamics, organisational power and organisational socialisation? a) Sociology
17. Which of the following is identified as an emerging field from which organisational behaviour is
acquiring new knowledge? b) Information systems
18. Organisational behaviour scholars use which of the following to discover knowledge?
a) They use form research questions
b) They systematically collect data
c) They test hypotheses
d) All of the options listed here are correct
19. The contingency anchor of organisational behaviour states that:
d) A particular action may have different consequences in different situations
20. According to the multiple levels of analysis anchor:
b) Organisational behaviour topics typically relate to the individual, team and organisational levels of
analysis
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WEEK 2 PERSONALITY AND VALUES
1. Aptitudes and learned capabilities are closely related to: b) Competencies
2. Motivation represents the forces within a person that affects his or her direction intensity and a)
Persistence of voluntary behaviour.
3. Motivation and ability are important influences on individual behaviour and performance,
but employees also require accurate: c) Role perceptions
4. Extroversion characterises people who are outgoing, talkative sociable and: c) Assertive
5. All of these factors directly influence an employee's voluntary behaviour and performance
EXCEPT: a) Motivation, b) Role perceptions, c) Situational factors, d) Moral intensity
6. Motivation affects a person's a) Direction, intensity and persistence of voluntary behaviour.
7. Which of the following ensures that job incumbents have appropriate aptitudes to perform
the job when they start? a) Hire applicants with appropriate aptitudes
8. The practice of giving simple accounts to newly hired employees, then adding more
challenging accounts as employees master the simple tasks is mainly to: a) Improve role perceptions
9. Which of these refers to a person's beliefs about what behaviours are appropriate,
necessary and preferred, in a particular situation? b) Role perceptions
10. Companies can improve employee performance through situational factors by: d) Identifying problems
employees experience with time and resources, and then removing
those obstacles to job performance
11. Which of the following would be considered a work-related behaviour?
a) Completing required job duties above the minimum performance standard or helping a coworker even
though it isn't part of your job, b) Showing up for work at scheduled times, c) Accepting the organisation's
offer of employment, d) All of the options listed here are correct
12. Which of the following statements about values is FALSE?
d) A person's hierarchy of values typically changes a few times each year
13. Which of the following is LEAST connected to the topic of values? d) Neuroticism
14. The main reason why a person's values do not influence his or her behaviour is that:
d) Values tend to be too abstract to see the connection to specific situations
15. Which of the following values represents people who value duty to groups to which they
belong, and to group harmony? d) High collectivism
16. Employees from cultures with a high power distance are more likely to: d) Readily accept the high
status of other people in the organisation
17. Ethics is most closely related to: a) Values
18. People who have high ethical sensitivity: d) Tend to have higher empathy and tend to have more
information about the specific
situation
19. An individual's personality:
c) Is less evident in situations where social norms, reward systems and other conditions
constrain behaviour
20. Which 'Big Five' personality dimension is most valuable for predicting job performance?
c) Conscientiousness
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Week 3 – Perception and Decision Making
1. Which of the following refers to the process of receiving information about and making sense of the
world around us? d) Perception
2. Generally, the brands placed on the upper shelves of supermarkets receive greater attention than those
on the lower shelves. This is an example of a) selective attention .
3. c) Categorical thinking is the unconscious process of organizing people and objects into preconceived
categories that are stored in our long-term memory.
4. Mental models cause us to: c) believe the behavior of others is caused more by their ability or
motivation than the situation.
5. George believes that women have difficulty coping with the stress of executive decisions. Sally is
promoted into a senior management position and George soon complains that Sally won't be able to cope
with this job. George is exhibiting which of the following perceptual errors? b) Stereotyping
6. The a) attribution process involves deciding whether an observed behavior or event is caused mainly by
the person or by the environment.
7. Consistency, consensus and distinctiveness are the:
c) three rules that determine whether to make an internal or external attribution.
8. If John takes credit for work done on time, but blames his co-workers for his delays, his attitude is
reflective of the: a) fundamental attribution error.
9. How can a self-serving bias be observed in a corporate annual report?
c) The report would exclude any bad news about the organization's performance.
10. Which of the following perceptual processes cause self-serving bias? a) Attribution
11. Which perceptual error occurs when a supervisor incorrectly rates an employee at a similar level
across all performance dimensions based on an overall impression of that employee? d) Halo effect
12. Which of the following is a perceptual error where we tend to believe that other people hold the
same beliefs and attitudes as we do? c) False-consensus effect
13. The statement "First impressions are lasting impressions" best represents the: a) primacy effect.
14. The recency effect is most common when: a) making an evaluation involving complex information.
15. The objective of the Johari Window is to: a) improve our perceptual process.
16. In the Johari Window, feedback from others helps us to: a) increase our open area by reducing our
blind area.
17. Which of the following is true about meaningful interaction? d) Meaningful interaction potentially
improves empathy toward others.
18. c) Empathy refers to understanding and being sensitive to the feelings, thoughts, and situations of
others.
19. Which of the following is true about a global mindset? e) A global mindset includes an awareness of,
openness to, and respect for other views and practices in the world.
20. Elaine got a job transfer from Italy to New York. Soon, she started to understand the mental models
held by colleagues from other cultures, as well as their emotional experiences in a given situation.
Further, she started to effectively use words and behaviors that were compatible with the local culture of
New York. Which of the following features of a global mindset occurred in Elaine's life?
b) The capacity to empathize and act effectively across cultures.
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Week 4 – Moods, Emotions, Attitudes, Job Satisfactions and Stress
1. Emotions will have a greater influence on our perceptions, attitudes, decisions, and behavior than
cognition because:
a) emotional processes often occur before cognitive processes.
2. Which of the following differences is similar to the difference between emotions and attitudes?
b) experiencing something versus judging something.
3. Beliefs, feelings, and behavioral intentions are components of:
a) attitudes.
4. As soon as we receive sensory information, we nonconsciously tag some of that information with
emotional markers. These markers are:
d) innate emotional responses to thin slices of sensory information.
5. After working weeks on a difficult proposal for a client, Jack learns that the client has accepted the
proposal and will award the contract to Jack's firm. When Jack hears this from his boss, he yelps
'Yahoo!' and automatically thrusts his fisted hand in the air. This action is an example of:
e) emotions directly influencing behavior.
6. Many companies try to create positive experiences at work. Which of the following is the major reason
for this?
b) Work conditions can have an emotional influence on employee attitudes.
7. Which of the following statements is true of an individual's conscious logical evaluation of a
situation?
a) Emotional responses influence the conscious logical evaluation.
8. The uncomfortable tension felt when our behavior and attitudes are inconsistent with each other is
called:
d) cognitive dissonance.
9. Which of these statements about emotional labor is true?
c) Emotional labor increases with the extent to which employees must abide by emotional
display rules.
10. Emotional dissonance occurs when:
b) we experience conflict between the required emotions and our true emotions.
11. Social awareness, self-management, and relationship management are three elements of:
c) emotional intelligence.
12. Which of the following is a competency representing the highest level of emotional intelligence?
c) managing dysfunctional emotions among staff.
13. Which of the following questions does not correctly estimate the level of job satisfaction among
employees?
c) "How satisfied are you with your job?"
14. Shawna is dissatisfied with her boss for not supporting her work or recognizing her job
performance. In spite of these problems, Shawna does not complain and does not intend to move
elsewhere. Instead, she maintains her level of work effort and hopes the company will eventually
correct these problems. According to the EVLN model, Shawna's response is: d) loyalty.
15. Employees with an emotional attachment to, identification with, and involvement in a particular
organization are said to have:
a) a high level of work motivation.
16. Which of the following terms refers to the necessary stress that activates and motivates people to
achieve goals and change their environments? d) eustress
17. What effect does providing childcare support and offering employees flexible work hours have on
work-related stress?
c) It removes stressors from the workplace.
18. Which of the following reduces stress by withdrawing from the stressor?b) sabbaticals (paid leave)
19. Which of these stress management activities helps employees improve their perceived ability to
cope with the stressor and possibly remove the stressor? b) social support
20. To ward off stress, a film director likes to have a good laugh. When under pressure, the director
will crack jokes and ensure everyone has a good laugh during the hard work. These actions mainly
reduce stress: c) by changing stress perceptions.
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WEEK 5 MOTIVATION THEORIES AND PRACTICES
1. Which of these theories states that we are motivated by several needs, but the strongest source
is the lowest unsatisfied need?
b) Needs hierarchy theory
2. Which of the following is a major criticism of Maslow's needs hierarchy theory?
d) People do not progress through the hierarchy as the theory predicts.
3. Which of the following statements was not considered by the needs hierarchy theory?
e) Needs are strongly influenced by each individual's self-concept.
4. Four-drive theory recommends that companies should:
b) provide sufficient rewards, learning opportunities, and social interaction at the same time.
5. Expectancy theory helps us to predict an individual's:
a) effort.
6. Which of the following does the expectancy theory explain about employees?
d) They base their work effort on the performance level they expect.
7. ABC Corp. brought in a performance-based reward system that accurately identified employees
who performed better than others. This practice improves employee motivation by:
d) improving P-to-O expectancies.
8. Goal setting influences employee behavior and performance mainly by improving:
c) motivation and role perceptions.
9. Goal setting is most effective when:
a) the supervisor sets the goals before discussing them with the employee.
10. Which of the following theories suggests that employee motivation is influenced by what other
people contribute to and receive from the organization? b) Equity theory
11. The distributive justice rule employs the concept of: c) equity.
12. When people experience procedural injustice, they tend to:
a) focus on organizational citizenship acts.
b) engage in counterproductive work behaviors.
13. Which of the following rewards represent the largest part of most paychecks?
a) Membership-based rewards
14. Which reward system tends to discourage poor performers from voluntarily leaving the
organization?
a) Performance-based pay
15. Steelweld, a car parts manufacturer, pays employees a higher hourly rate as they learn to master
more parts of the work process. Employees earn $10 per hour when they are hired and they can
earn up to $20 per hour if they master all 12 work units in the production process. Which of
these reward systems is being applied by Steelweld?
a) Skill-based pay
16. Which of the following is most consistent with employability—namely, that employees are
expected to continuously learn skills that will keep them employed?
c) Competency-based rewards
17. Which of the following refers to the result of the division of labor in which work is subdivided
into separate jobs assigned to different people? c) Job specialization
18. Employees at CyberTech perform repetitive jobs that have resulted in boredom as well as
repetitive strain injury. Technology makes it difficult to combine existing jobs, but the company
wants to make employees more multiskilled. Which of the following would best help CyberTech
to improve this situation? d) Introduce job rotation.
19. A video journalist's job consists of operating the camera, reporting the story, and often editing
the work, whereas these three tasks are traditionally performed by three people. Video
journalism is an example of: e) job enrichment and job enlargement.
20. A cable TV company redesigned jobs so that one employee interacts directly with customers,
connects and disconnects their cable service, installs their special services and collects overdue
accounts in an assigned area. Previously, each task was performed by a different person and the
customer interacted only with someone at the head office. This change is an example of:
a) increasing job enrichment by establishing client relationships.
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WEEK 6 TEAM DYNAMICS
1. Groups are considered teams only when:
c) employees directly interact with each other and coordinate work activities.
2. The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people:
a) join informal groups.
3. In team dynamics, process losses are best described as:
c) resources expended toward team development and maintenance.
4. Brooks's Law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later. This law
is mainly referring to:
b) existence of process losses.
5. Social loafing occurs:
b) when the task is boring.
6. Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's
performance is measurable are two ways to:
d) minimize social loafing.
7. The phenomenon where people exert less effort when working in groups than when working
alone is referred to as _____.
e) social loafing
8. High-performance teams depend on organizational leaders who provide support and strategic
direction while team members focus on:
b) operational efficiency and flexibility.
9. Which of the following types of task interdependence is seen among production employees
working on assembly lines?
a) Sequential interdependence
10. Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head
office for a capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be
best described as:
e) pooled interdependence.
11. Pooled interdependence is:
e) is the lowest level of interdependence.
12. Employees with _____, in which work output is exchanged back and forth among individuals,
should be organized into teams to facilitate coordination in their interwoven relationship.
b) reciprocal interdependence
13. A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team:
a) when designing and launching a new product or service.
14. Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development?
e) Members try to establish norms of appropriate behavior and performance standards.
15. During the _____ stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from
task orientation to a relationship focus.
d) adjourning
16. Which of the following is a major problem associated with team building activities?
e) They are used as general solutions rather than specific solutions.
17. How do norms affect the behavior of team members?
c) They help the team regulate and guide the behaviors of its members.
18. If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained in a team, the best strategy is probably to:
b) disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms.
19. High-cohesion teams perform poorer than low-cohesion teams when:
d) team norms undermine the organization's performance.
20. Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams?
b) Lack of co-location and dependence on information technology
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WEEK 7 COMMUNICATIONS
1. Effective communication occurs when:
d) information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.
2. According to the communication process model:
a) information flows through channels between the sender and receiver.
3. The encoding-decoding process is generally more effective when both parties:
d) are skilled in using the selected communication channel.
4. Which of the following is an advantage of using e-mail communication?
e) It significantly alters the flow of information within groups.
5. Which of the following communication media tends to be the best for transmitting emotions?
d) Face-to-face meetings
6. Which of the following is a factor in social acceptance? a) The symbolic meaning of the chosen channel
7. The capacity of a communication medium to transmit information is referred to as: a) media richness.
8. Several employees in a newly formed group must work together to develop a new product. No one in
this group has worked with anyone else in this group before and the development of this product has not
been attempted previously. According to the media richness model, which of the following
communication channels is most appropriate in this situation? c) Face-to-face meetings
9. Safety representatives in each of the six plants of a manufacturing company need to communicate to
each other every week the number and type of health and safety incidents in their plant. Each
representative has a safety reporting document where he or she notes the type and number of infractions
during the previous week. These incidents are well known to other representatives, so there are rarely
any surprises. This weekly communication calls for: e) lean media.
10. Employees can expand the data-carrying capacity of lean media channel if they:
b) are highly proficient with that communication channel.
11. Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in
persuading people? c) It is better in presenting technical details.
12. Language differences can produce communication noise even when people speak the same language.
This occurs because of the: e) cultural differences among people.
13. Senior executives at a large tire company learned that a line of tires had a tendency to fall apart in very
warm weather. This resulted in several vehicle accidents in the Middle East and South America. However,
the executives did not hear about these problems until several weeks after the lower-level managers
learnt about the same. Although the senior executives encourage staff to openly communicate all
information, the lower-level staff held back the information for fear that they might lose their jobs. Which
communication concept best describes this communication situation? c) Filtering
14. You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed
partnership between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very
silent during the presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as:
e) a lack of communication.
15. Which of the following is specifically identified as a strategy to improve communication across the
organizational hierarchy, and not just at a micro-level? d) Open workspace design
16. Research suggests that effective workspace design mainly balances the trade-off between:
e) buffering and information overload.
17. Management by walking around refers to: c) a practice in which executives get out of their offices and
learn from others in the organization through face-to-face dialogue.
18. Which of the following is true about the organizational grapevine?
e) The typical pattern of a grapevine is a cluster chain, whereby a few people actively transmit
rumors to many others.
19. The organizational grapevine is useful because it:
d) bonds employees together and fulfills their need for interaction.
20. Which of the following should corporate leaders do with the organizational grapevine?
b) Use the grapevine as a signal of employee anxiety and view it as a valid competitor to the
company's formal communication system
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WEEK 8 POWER AND POLITICS
1. In organizational settings, power is defined as: b) the capacity to influence others.
2. Power is the c) potential to change someone's behavior.
3. Which of the following statements about power is true?
b) Power requires interdependence in the relationship.
4. Which of the following statements about countervailing power in organizational relationships is
true? c) Countervailing power is the weaker party's power to maintain the stronger party's continued
participation in the relationship.
5. Employees are more likely to comply with a supervisor's legitimate power when the:
a) employees have a high power distance value.
6. Employees also have b) reward power over their bosses through their feedback and ratings in 360degree feedback systems.
7. Employees have e) coercive power, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers
conform to team norms.
8. As our society moves from an industrial to a knowledge-based economy, employees are gaining:
d) expert power.
9. Employees have c) referent power, when others identify with them, like them, or otherwise respect
them.
10. Your team has been put in charge of a major project involving a client. Although the organization
has many clients, this particular project is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of
several other teams in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the
client, so any problem with the client is immediately felt by others in the organization. According
to the model of power, your team has:
b) a high degree of centrality.
11. A new employee in the finance department prominently displays diplomas and past awards
indicating his financial expertise. What contingency of power is this person trying to increase?
e) Visibility
12. Which of the following is a consequence of power? c) Increasing power over others can potentially
undermine an individual's effectiveness and interpersonal relations.
13. Many job applicants falsify information on their resume. Which of the following influence tactic does
this refer to? d) Impression management
14. e) Resistance occurs when people or work units oppose the behavior desired by the influencer and
consequently refuse, argue, or delay engaging in the behavior.
15. b) Commitment is the strongest outcome of influence, whereby people identify with the influencer's
request and are highly motivated to implement it even when extrinsic sources of motivation are
no longer present.
16. Organizational politics typically involves: c) attempts to influence others to promote personal
objectives.
17. Organizational politics is more common where decisions are: b) based on complex and ambiguous
rules.
18. People with high Machiavellian values tend to:
d) are comfortable using power to manipulate others toward their own personal goals.
19. Introducing clear rules for resource allocation is one way of:
c) reducing organizational politics regarding that decision.
20. Organizational politics may be reduced by:
b) encouraging leaders to become role models of organizational citizenship instead of symbols
of successful organizational politicians.
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WEEK 9 - CONFLICT MANAGEMENT
1. Conflict is ultimately based on: a) perceptions of people.
2. Which of the following is an advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?
d) It energizes people to evaluate alternatives.
3. Constructive conflict:
b) encourages employees to reexamine their basic assumptions about a problem and its possible
solutions.
4. Relationship conflict usually causes people to: b) reduce communication and information sharing with
the other party.
5. Effective managers should: e) minimize the relationship conflicts that exist in the organization.
6. Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process
model? b) Manifest conflict
7. Salespeople at Widget Co. complain that they lose sales bonuses when the production department is
out of stock of a particular item. This sometimes causes customers to buy from elsewhere rather than
wait for the next production run. Meanwhile, production employees complain that salespeople don't
appreciate the need to minimize inventory costs, for which production staff is rewarded. This instance is
an example of conflict due to: e) goal incompatibility.
8. Which of the following sources of conflict is typically associated with mergers and acquisitions, where
everyone wants the company to succeed, but they fight over the "right way" to do things because of their
unique experiences in the separate companies? b) Differentiation
9. Which of the following produce the highest risk of conflict?
d) Scarce resources and high task interdependence
10. The potential for conflict between two employees would be highest under conditions of _____
interdependence. c) reciprocal
11. The collaborating/problem-solving interpersonal style of conflict has:
e) medium assertiveness and medium cooperativeness.
12. Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the
other party will take advantage of information sharing and other cooperative strategies?
a) Competing/Forcing
13. Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low
assertiveness?
e) Avoiding
14. You have resolved a conflict with another department by offsetting your losses by equally valued
gains. Which of the following conflict handling styles is used here?
d) Compromising
15. You are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of an organization. Both parties have
equal power. Both the parties are under time pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the
parties lack trust/openness for problem solving. You are actively searching for a middle ground between
the interests of the two parties. Which of the following conflict resolution styles would you use in this
situation?
c) Compromising
16. Direct communication minimizes conflict by:
b) reducing reliance on stereotypes about the other party.
17. Third-party dispute resolution activities are classified in terms of their:
b) level of process control and level of decision control.
18. Which of the following types of third-party intervention approaches do managers usually adopt?
a) Inquisitional
19. For everyday disputes between two employees, managers should use _____ as a third-party
intervention.
b) mediation
20. Initial offer points, target points, and resistance points represent three elements in:
b) the bargaining zone model.
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WEEK 10 LEADERSHIP
1. A decade ago, 54 leadership experts from 38 countries reached a consensus that leadership is
about: a) Influencing, b) Motivating, c) Enabling others to contribute to the effectiveness and success of
organisations of which they are members, d) All of the options listed here are correct.
2. According to recent writing on the subject, which of the following competencies is
characteristic of effective leaders? a) High need for achievement and high integrity, b) Motivation to
become a leader, c) High self-concept of their leadership ability, d) All of the options listed here
3. According to the path–goal theory of leadership:
c) Leadership behaviours are clustered into people-oriented and task-oriented groups
4. According to the path–goal theory of leadership:
c) Directive leadership is ineffective when employees are experienced and work in routine jobs
5. Cross-cultural implications in leadership affect what leaders do in terms of:
d) Leaders' values and norms and expectations followers have of their leaders
6. The competency perspective of leadership: a) Is one of the most recently studied perspectives of
leadership, b) Is no longer accepted as an approach to understanding leadership in organisations, c) Takes
a contingency approach by identifying the best leadership competencies under different conditions, d)
None of the options listed here is correct
7. Recent leadership writing suggests that emotional intelligence: b) Is an important characteristic of
effective leaders
8. The competency (trait) perspective of leadership:
b) Is often applied by organisations when selecting executives and future leaders
9. One problem with the competency (trait) perspective of leadership is that:
d) It implies a universal rather than contingency approach to leadership
10. What do the competency and transformational leadership theories have in common?
b) They generally assume a 'one best way' (universal) approach to leadership
11. Leadership styles in path–goal theory are derived from: c) Expectancy theory of motivation
12. Servant leadership is most closely associated with: a) Path–goal leadership
13. Gusher Oil Ltd expects all of its executives and supervisors to act as coaches, stewards and
facilitators to employees. Its main objective is to make it easier for employees to perform their
jobs. Gusher Oil is mainly encouraging which of the following? c) Servant leadership
14. Which of the following would be a leadership substitute? a) Skilled employees and employees with
strong self-leadership competencies, b) Performance-based reward systems, c) Supportive colleagues
d) All of the options listed here are correct
15. The implicit theory of leadership states that:
c) Leadership is a perception of followers, not just actual behaviours and competencies of
people called leaders
16. Shared leadership flourishes in organisations where formal leaders are willing to:
d) Delegate power and encourage employees to operate in a learning orientation culture
17. Job dissatisfaction is higher among employees who work for supervisors with:
c) Very high levels of task-oriented leadership and low levels of people-oriented leadership
18. Which of these statements about leadership is TRUE?
a) Leadership includes the process of influencing others
b) Leadership includes actions that change the work environment so that employees are better
able to achieve team or organisational objectives
c) Leadership applies to people in any position in the organisation, not just those in executive
positions
d) All of the options listed here are correct
19. Which of these statements about leadership is FALSE?
a) Anyone may be a leader at an appropriate time and place
20. The competency (trait) perspective takes the view that:
d) Leadership is a characteristic of the person
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Week 11 Organizational Culture
1. Which of these statements about shared assumptions is true?
b) They are so deeply embedded they probably cannot be discovered by surveying employees.
2. Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by risk taking, and low
cautiousness? b) Innovation
3. The themes shared most widely by employees represent: a) the organization's dominant culture.
4. One advantage of countercultures is that they:
b) maintain surveillance over and critique of the company's dominant culture.
5. One of the functions of c) a subculture is that it is a spawning ground for emerging values that keep the
firm aligned with the needs of customers, suppliers, society, and other stakeholders.
6. What is the significance of artifacts in organizational culture?
c) Artifacts represent the directly observable symbols and signs of an organization's culture.
7. Which of these statements about organizational stories is true?
d) Stories are most effective at communicating corporate culture when they describe real
events with real people.
8. At meetings of a major consumer products firm, employees habitually stand up when the most
senior executive at the meeting enters the room. This practice represents:
c) a ritual that probably symbolizes the organization's dominant culture.
9. Whenever a team in Ads Today, an advertising firm, wins a new contract, the successful team
rings a loud bell and breaks out a bottle of champagne. In organizational culture, this practice
would be considered:
b) a ceremony.
10. Which of the following is true about organizational culture?
e) The strength of an organization's culture refers to how widely and deeply employees hold
the company's dominant values and assumptions.
11. Which of the following statements about the strength of organizational culture and
organizational performance is true?
a) Organizations with stronger cultures tend to perform better than those with weak cultures
when the culture content fits the external environment.
12. Which of the following tends to happen when an organization's culture is misaligned with its
external environment?
c) The organization has more difficulty anticipating and responding to stakeholder needs.
13. Employees at SuperTech Services seek out opportunities rather than wait for them to arrive.
They also have a strong sense of responsibility for the organization's performance. This implies
that SuperTech has e) an adaptive culture.
14. One of the first steps to minimize a cultural clash in a merger is to b) conduct a bicultural audit.
15. When merging two organizations, a separation strategy is most commonly applied when:
c) the two organizations operate in distinct industries.
16. A deculturation strategy of merging two corporate cultures should be applied:
c) when employees in the acquired firm want to hold on to their firm's culture even though it
does not fit the external environment.
17. Which of the following is true about using the strategy of integration for merging different
corporate cultures?
e) It creates a new composite culture that preserves the best features of the previous cultures.
18. An organization's culture begins with its d) founders
19. Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most appropriate when the two merging
companies are in unrelated industries or operate in different countries, because the most
appropriate cultural values tend to differ by industry and national culture?
c) Separation
20. Which of the following statements is consistent with the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA)
theory?
b) Organizations have a natural tendency to attract, select, and retain people with values that
are consistent with the organization's own culture.
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WEEK 12 ORGANISATIONAL CHANGE
1. The main objective of force field analysis is to help change agents to:
c) diagnose the situation better by understanding the driving and restraining forces for change.
2. Which model of organization change explicitly refers to unfreezing the current situation and
refreezing the desired state? e) Force field analysis
3. Which of these forces pushes organizations toward a new state of affairs? b) Driving forces
4. Which of these forces are commonly called resistance to change? d) Restraining forces
5. The emerging view among change management experts is that resistance to change:
a) needs to be seen as a resource.
6. The chief executive of a large telecommunications company wanted to restructure the
organization so product leaders would have more power than the executives in charge of each
region. The regional executives tried to prevent this restructuring just because it would
weaken their power and reduce their salaries in the long term. This action by the regional
executives is mainly an example of resistance due to: a) direct costs.
7. Which of the following types of resistance to change is a strategy to "prove" that the decision
is wrong or that the change agent is incompetent? b) Saving face
8. Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would:
a) make the change process more difficult to implement.
9. Creating urgency for change is most closely associated with: d) the process of increasing the driving
forces.
10. Senior executives at a large retail organization want employees to become more customerfriendly.
Employees think they are serving customers well enough and the company is the
dominant player in the market. What should the executives do to create an urgency to change
in this situation?
d) Inform employees about the driving forces in the external environment indicating that the
company's dominant position will be threatened unless they become more customerfriendly.
11. The highest priority and first strategy required for any organizational change is to:
d) communicate the need for change and keep employees informed about what they can
expect from the change effort.
12. One problem that communication, learning, and employee involvement have in minimizing
resistance to change is that they:
d) are time-consuming.
13. BusCorp wants to introduce a new procedure for processing customer requests. If this change
will require employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns, the preferred
strategy for dealing with resistance to this change such as this is:
b) learning.
14. Employee involvement is almost an essential part of the change process unless the:
c) change must occur quickly in the organization.
15. Bezel Systems is introducing a few organization-wide changes. A coalition of employees will
clearly lose out from the proposed changes and they have enough power to cause the change
effort to fail. Assuming that the change effort can proceed slowly and cost is not an issue, the
preferred strategy for dealing with this resistance to change is: d) negotiation.
16. Which of the following strategies to reduce the restraining forces should be used only if all
other strategies fail? a) Coercion
17. b) Transformational leaders are agents of change because they develop an appealing vision of the
desired future state, communicate that vision in ways that are meaningful to others, make decisions
and act in ways that are consistent with that vision, and build commitment to that vision.
18. In the organizational change process, strategic visions:
c) could minimize fear of the unknown.
19. Which of the following is true about organizational change?
d) Change occurs more informally through social networks.
20. Which of the following statements is true concerning Lewin's Force Field model in the context
of changes in other cultures?
b) Lewin's model, like the Western perspective on change, views change as linear.
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