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PPL AIRLAW
1. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
a) Fixed; uni‐directional; red.
b) Fixed; omni‐directional; red.
c) Fixed; uni‐directional; green.
d) Fixed; omni‐directional; green.
2. An A/C marshaller with his right arm down and his left arm repeatedly moved upwards
and backwards is indicating to the pilot of an aircraft to:
a) Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to port.
b) Increase the RPM of the port engine.
c) Proceed under guidance of another marshaller.
d) Open up the starboard engine/s or turn to stbd.
3. 3 All fixed aerodrome signs that are mandatory shall:
a) Be comprised of a red inscription on a black background.
b) Be comprised of a yellow inscription on a black background.
c) Be comprised of a red inscription on a white background.
d) Be comprised of a white inscription on a red background.
4. When located within an aerodrome signals square, the signal used to indicate that owing
to the bad state of the maneuvering area, or for any other reason, special precautions
must be observed in approaching to land or in landing is:
a) A horizontal red square with two yellow diagonals.
b) A horizontal yellow square with one red diagonal.
c) A horizontal red square with one yellow diagonal.
d) A horizontal yellow square with two red diagonals.
5. Civil aerodrome identification beacons normally comprise:
a) A white beacon flashing a two‐letter Morse group.
b) A green beacon flashing a two‐letter Morse group.
c) A red beacon flashing a two‐letter Morse group.
d) A blue beacon flashing a two‐letter Morse group.
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6. A taxiway marking comprised of a pair of parallel yellow lines together with a pair of
parallel broken yellow lines painted at 90° across a taxiway delineate:
a) The intersection of two taxiways.
b) A holding position at the end of a taxiway and runway entry point beyond which
no part of an aircraft may project without prior permission from ATC.
c) The entry point of a pre‐departure run up area.
d) The exit point of an apron to a taxiway.
7. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal directed from an aerodrome ATSU
towards an aircraft either in the air or on the ground?
a) Do not land, the aerodrome is unavailable for landing. / Move clear of the Landing
Area.
b) Do not land, orbit and await permission to land. / Return to your starting point.
c) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. / Stop.
d) Proceed to finals upon completion of the current orbit. / Line up after traffic on finals
has landed.
8. Which of the following combinations offer the correct meaning of white flashes directed
from an aerodrome to an aircraft?
a) Return to the aerodrome / Return to the parking bay.
b) Land immediately. / Clear the runway.
c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green light. / Return to the
starting point on the aerodrome and then, after green flashes, proceed to apron.
d) Land at your discretion. / Take‐off at your discretion.
9. A continuous red light directed to an aircraft in flight from an aerodrome means:
a) Do not land, aerodrome unavailable for landing.
b) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c) Do not land, wait for permission.
d) Proceed to finals after completion of current orbit.
10. ICAO specify that the element of a paved taxiway surface that should be marked is:
a) Centre line.
b) Sides.
c) Centre line and sides.
d) Centre line, sides, entry and exit points.
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11. ICAO specifies that the fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights should be colored:
a) Red.
b) White.
c) Green.
d) Alternate green and red.
12. The definition of Alerting Service is a:
a) Unit of the air traffic service specifically for the co‐ordination of search and rescue.
b) Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of
search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
c) Branch of the air traffic service under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defense
providing a communication network between all agencies both civil and military
providing search and rescue facilities.
d) A land based search and rescue co‐ordination unit.
13. If a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants (alert phase); responsibility for alerting the necessary search and rescue units
lies with:
a) The air traffic unit who received the distress message albeit 121.5MHz.
b) The Rescue Co‐ordination Centre.
c) Any responsible person.
d) The pilot in distress.
14. A PPL holder may:
a) Operate as co‐pilot on a revenue earning flight.
b) Operate as commander for remuneration on a private flight.
c) Operate as any crew member for remuneration on a private flight.
d) Not operate as either commander or co‐pilot on a revenue earning flight.
15. What are the minimum number of dual instruction hours required to be flown by a JAA
PPL candidate?
a) 20 hours.
b) 30 hours.
c) 22 hours.
d) 25 hours.
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16. The minimum number of flying hours required for the issue of a JAR FCL Private Pilot
License (Aero plane) is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
40.
35.
50.
45.
17. The minimum age at which a student pilot may undertake her/his first solo flight is:
a) 16 years.
b) 17 years.
c) 18 years.
d) 19 years.
18. The holder of a JAA License must hold a current Medical Certificate in order to exercise
the privileges of that license. The prescribed Medical Certificate must be issued in
accordance with:
a) JAR FCL ‐ Part 1.
b) JAR OPS ‐ Part 1.
c) JAR FCL‐ Part 3.
d) JAR OPS ‐ Part 2.
19. A JAA pilot license (A) holder must not act as pilot in command of a single pilot aero
plane unless she/he is in possession of a valid:
a) Valid VFR type rating.
b) Valid JAA OPS group rating.
c) Valid JAA FCL type rating.
d) Medical Certificate together with a valid class or type rating appropriate to the
aero plane to be flown.
20. Flight time entered into a pilot's log book is defined as being:
a) The time from when the aero plane takes off until it finally lands with the intention
of shutting down the engine.
b) The time from when the engine starts before take‐off until it is shut down after
landing.
c) The time from when the aero plane first moves under its own power until it next
comes to rest after landing.
d) The time from when the aero plane first enters the maneuvering area until it next
comes to rest after landing.
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21. A license holder having been advised that invasive medical surgery has become
essential:
a) Should undertake such treatment without reference to the aviation medical
authority as such action is voluntary.
b) Should advise the aviation medical authority only if the treatment involves a general
anesthetic.
c) Should seek the advice of the aviation medical authority as expeditiously as
possible.
d) Should seek the advice of her/ his general practitioner as expeditiously as possible.
22. Alternate aerodrome is:
a) A planned en‐route aerodrome where an aircraft may land if necessary to uplift fuel
but where passengers may not be embarked or disembarked.
b) An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or
inadvisable to land at the planned destination.
c) Any aerodrome that may be used for a landing in an emergency.
d) An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it becomes impracticable or
inadvisable to land at the first diversion.
23. The transition layer is defined as:
a) The layer between the transition level and the transition altitude.
b) The layer between the transition altitude and the transition level.
c) The layer between 3000ft altitude and the transition altitude.
d) The layer between the transition altitude and the planned operating flight level.
24. Terminal Control Areas may be defined as:
a) Airspace at the confluence of airways not available to IFR traffic.
b) Airspace for specific use of arriving traffic
c) Airspace for specific use of departing traffic.
d) Airspace at the confluence of airways and other routes adjacent to one or more
major aerodromes.
25. No aircraft is allowed to fly over a congested area below 1000ft above the highest fixed
obstacle within 600 meters of the aircraft, except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
During a low level navigation exercise.
When practicing a forced landing under the direction of a qualified flying instructor.
When taking off or landing.
When orbiting to try and establish position.
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26. What altimeter sub‐scale setting should be used when flying underneath a Terminal
Control Area (TMA)?
a) The Regional QNH.
b) The QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA
c) Either the Regional QNH or the QNH of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA,
whichever is the lower.
d) The QFE of an aerodrome situated beneath the TMA or CTA.
27. If a flight plan has been filed and the Pilot in Command lands at an aerodrome other
than the filed destination, she/he must notify the ATCU unit at the planned destination:
a) Within 45 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.
b) Within 45 minutes of the landing time at the diversion airfield.
c) Within 30 minutes of the scheduled arrival time at the diversion airfield.
d) Within 30 minutes of the ETA at the planned destination.
28. For the purpose of submitting a flight plan, if there is not available at the departure
aerodrome an air traffic services unit, the flight plan should be submitted:
a) Two days before departure by post to the unit serving or designated to serve the
departure aerodrome.
b) In person to the nearest ATC unit serving or designated to serve the departure
aerodrome.
c) In person or by telephone or fax or if these services are not available, by radio to
the unit serving or designated to serve the departure aerodrome.
d) At least 24 hours before the planned departure time to the unit serving or
designated to serve the departure aerodrome using the National Aeronautical
Telecommunications Service.
29. If the visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling are equal to or better than the
specified minima, ICAO defines such conditions as:
a) IMC or Instrument Meteorological Conditi
b) RVR or Runway Visual range.
c) VMC or Visual Meteorological Conditions.
d) CAVOK or Cloud and Visibility OK.
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30. If, during a daytime flight an aircraft commander noticed that the aircraft's anti‐collision
light had failed, the correct course of action would be to:
a) Continue with daytime operations provided the light is repaired at the earliest
opportunity.
b) Land as soon as possible and have the light repaired.
c) Complete the flight, at which time the aircraft must not be flown again until the light
is repaired.
d) Have the light repaired prior to completion of the next day's 'Check A'.
31. The ICAO definition of radar vectoring is:
a) The directional control of aircraft for the purpose of nautical navigation and collision
avoidance.
b) Collision and adverse meteorological avoidance derived from specified advisory
headings based on the use of radar.
c) Provision of nautical guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings, based on
the use of radar.
d) Provision of headings and altitudes based on the use of radar.
32. An aircraft commander aware that the fuel state has become critical whilst waiting for a
landing clearance within a busy Control Zone should transmit .......(i)...... in order to alert
ATC that a priority landing is required.
a) Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel, Minimum Fuel.
b) May Day, May Day, May Day or Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.
c) Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum, Fuel Minimum.
d) Land Now, Land Now, Land Now.
33. The air traffic control service provided for all controlled arriving and departing flights is:
a) An Approach Control Service.
b) Precision Approach Radar (PAR).
c) An Area Control Service.
d) Delivery Service
34. If ATC reports the active runway conditions as “wet wet wet”, it is understood that the
runway:
a) Has visible areas contaminated by standing water.
b) The runway is covered by at least 2mm of standing water.
c) The runway is wet but there is no standing water.
d) The runway is covered by patches of standing water at least 2mm in depth.
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35. When extensive water patches are visible on a runway surface the conditions are
reported as:
a) Damp, damp, damp.
b) Wet, wet, wet.
c) Braking action reduced.
d) Flooded.
36. Flight Information Service (FIS) provides:
a) Advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
b) Safe separation for participating aircraft.
c) To all aircraft within controlled airspace such information relevant to to the safe
conduct of all flights.
d) Updated information regarding aerodrome runway status, weather and en‐route
frequencies within the FIR.
37. A special air report should be made to an air traffic service:
a) If the forecast weather deviates from the pre‐flight forecast.
b) Only if the forecast visibility changes to the extent that an aircraft commander must
change her/ his operating conditions to IMC.
c) After encountering and becoming clear of any moderate weather phenomena such
as icing, wind shear and turbulence.
d) After encountering and becoming clear of any severe weather phenomena such as
icing, wind shear and turbulence, mountain wave or other phenomena that was
not forecast.
38. If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as equal to or in
excess of the specified minimum weather provisions and the distance from cloud is seen
also to be above specified minima, the prevailing weather conditions are referred to as:
a) IMC.
b) VMC.
c) SMWP.
d) VFR.
39. If you overtake another aircraft, you must overtake to the:
a) Left of the other aircraft in the air, but to its right on the ground.
b) Left of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
c) Right of the other aircraft, both in the air and on the ground.
d) Right of the other aircraft in the air, but to its left on the ground.
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40. If aero plane 'X' is converging with aero plane 'Y' from the rear and is within 70° of aero
plane 'Y's extended center line, aero plane 'X' is considered to be in an overtaking
position and must pass to:
a) The left of aero plane 'Y'.
b) The right of aero plane 'Y'.
c) The closest side of aero plane 'Y'.
d) The furthest side of aero plane 'Y'.
41. When two or more aircraft are on final approach, without overriding instruction from an
ATCU or in an emergency, the aircraft having the right of way is:
a) The one that has the greatest rate of descent.
b) The one that is closest to the runway threshold, regardless of altitude.
c) The one that is at the lower altitude.
d) The one that is at the greater altitude.
42. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:
a) Heading and speed.
b) Heading and height.
c) Height and speed.
d) Heading, height and speed.
43. Two aircraft are closing on a constant relative bearing almost head on, both aircraft
should avoid collision by:
a) Turning left.
b) Turning right.
c) Turning either left or right.
d) Turning in the directing that will best facilitate collision avoidance.
44. The PIC of an aircraft during the course of a night flight notices that a navigation light has
failed. She/he should:
a) Transmit an Urgency Message on the RTF frequency in use and continue with the
plan flight to the first point of landing.
b) Establish that an all‐round anti‐collision light is still functional and if so, select the
navigation lights to 'off' and continue to the planned destination.
c) Continue to the planned destination, enter the defect in the technical log which must
be repaired before the next flight.
d) Land as soon as is practicably possible unless given permission to continue to the
planned destination by an appropriate Air Traffic Control Unit.
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45. ICAO recommends that a minimum of.............. shall be applied between a light or
medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft or a light aircraft taking off behind a
medium aircraft when the aircraft are using the same runway if the projected flight path
of the second aircraft will cross the projected flight path of the first aircraft at the same
altitude or less than 300m (1000ft) below. Select the time that correctly completes this
statement.
a) one minute.
b) three minutes.
c) four minutes.
d) two minutes.
46. The term 'Air Traffic' is defined as:
a) Airborne aircraft.
b) Airborne aircraft and those occupying an active runway.
c) Any aircraft maneuvering under its own power.
d) All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome.
47. In the context of Search and Rescue, the term “Distress phase” means:
a) An aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and of
requiring immediate assistance.
b) A 'Pan Pan' call has been transmitted.
c) There is apprehension concerning the safety of an aero plane and its occupants.
d) A flight requires the assistance of the emergency services.
48. The vertical extent of a Control Zone is:
a) From the surface up to a specified upper limit.
b) From the surface up to 2000ft AGL.
c) From 1500ft AGL to the base of the TMA.
d) From the surface to an altitude of 2000ft.
49. An airspace where flight information and alerting services are given shall be designated
as:
a) Uncontrolled airspace.
b) Flight information regions (FIR).
c) Advisory routes and class F airspace.
d) Controlled airspace.
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50. While taxiing you notice the following sign. It is a/an ............sign and it appears with
...Annex numarası verilecek düzenlenecek........
a) Mandatory – White inscription on red background.
b) Information – Yellow inscription on black background.
c) Direction – Black inscription on yellow background.
d) Location – Black inscription on yellow background.
51. Which of the following can not be used as registration markings?
a) 4 letter Q‐codes.
b) Emergency signals in Morse Code.
c) 3 letter combinations used as code of signals (prescribed by ITU).
d) All 3‐letter repetitive markings like LLL, SSS, YYY.
52. If the edge lights are ……., centerline lights are ……….. and markings are ……….. you are
definitely on a …………..
a) White, white, white, taxiway.
b) White, red, white, runway.
c) Blue, green, yellow, taxiway.
d) White, white, yellow, runway.
53. What do nationality and registration marks consist of?
a) Numbers only.
b) It must be a combination of numbers and letters.
c) Letters only.
d) Numbers or letters, or a combination.
54. A report from an aircraft in flight prepared under requirements for position, and
operational and/or meteorological reporting is what?
a) A PIREP.
b) A SIGMET.
c) A NOTAM.
d) A position report.
55. Which of the following nationality and registration markings would be permitted?
a)
b)
c)
d)
G‐YLLL.
N‐YQNH.
A81TTT.
AS2PAN.
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56. Which states can join EASA as full members?
a) All European Union States.
b) Selected European States.
c) All JAA States.
d) All ICAO Contracting States.
57. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or
land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern
when the;
a) ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
b) ceiling is less than 1.500 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c) ceiling is less than 1.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
d) ceiling is less than 2.000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km
58. The highest priority for landing has:
a) an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state),
b) a military aircraft.
c) an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention,
d) an aircraft that is emergency landing.
59. An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state.
Which freedom of the air will be exercised?
a) 1st freedom
b) 2nd freedom
c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom
60. What does Annex 14 on international civil aviation contain?
a) none of all
b) Facilitation
c) Aerodromes
d) Security
61. What is a STAR
?
a) Standard instrument routes
b) Special terminal arrival
c) Supplementary terminal arrival
d) Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
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62. According to JAR‐FCL, single pilot single‐engine class ratings are valid for
a) two years
b) one year
c) two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter
d) five years after licence issue
63. According to JAR‐FCL 3, Medical certificates classes are
a) 1, 2,3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1,2
d) class 1 only
64. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum
specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a) Annex 11
b) Annex 14
c) Annex 10
d) Annex 6
65. When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a:
a) Runway
b) Movement area
c) Taxiway
d) Parking area
66. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a) Annex 11
b) Annex 14
c) Annex 10
d) Annex 6
67. The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around a navigation
aids, is in general valid within a sector of:
a) 30 NM.
b) 10 NM.
c) 25 NM.
d) 15 NM.
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68. The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA), which must be established around:
a) navigation aids
b) runway
c) tower
d) airport reference point (ARP)
69. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require medical
assistance?
a) X
b) N
c) y
d) i
70. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require assistance?
a) X
b) N
c) y
d) > ( V )
71. The period of validity of a JAR‐FCL PPL (A) is
a) 3 years
b) life time
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
72. The minimum number of dual instructional hours to be completed by a candidate for a
JAR‐FCL PPL (A) is:
a) 25 hours
b) 45 hours
c) 10 hou
d) 30 hours
73. A JAR‐FCL PPL (A) holder may:
a) Not fly in controlled airspace
b) Not operate as a pilot on a revenue‐earning flight or flight for "valuable
consideration"
c) Not operate above the transition level
d) Not fly in accordance with the lnstrument Flight Rules
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74. In order to transfer a JAR‐FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence lssue to anather
JAA member state the licence halder must:
a) Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 days per year) or have taken
up full‐time employment within that State
b) Have residedin the new State for at !east 30 consecutive days.
c) Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.
d) Must have become a citizen of the new State
75. Does each state have the right to search, without reasonable delay, the aircraft of other
contracting states on landing and departure?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes but this applies only to commercial aircraft
d) Yes but this applies only to non‐commercial aircraft
76. You are flying a Turkey registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air must
you obey?
a) ICAO's
b) Turkey’s
c) JAA's
d) Germany's
77. When can an ICAO aircraft make flights into the airspace of another contracting state
without permission?
a) If it is a non‐scheduled flight
b) If it is a scheduled flight
c) Never
d) If it is not carrying passengers
78. When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot‐inCommand must
have been approved by the authority of:
a) The state of aircraft registration
b) Any JAA member state
c) The State of Manifacturer
d) Any contracting ICAO state
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79. Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air traffic into and
out of a foreign state?
a) ICAO's
b) The foreign state's
c) International Rules and Regulations
d) IATA's
80. A state must recognise as valid the C of A of another member state if the C of A:
a) Was issued in accordanca with ICAO requirements and standards
b) Was issued in accordanca with international requirements and standards
c) ls valid and current
d) Was issued in accordanca with the State of Registry
81. The C of R (Registration) must be:
a) Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original
b) Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued
c) Signed by the Pilot‐in‐Command
d) Held in safe‐keeping at the aerodrome of departure
82. All contracting states recognise that every state has (i)complete and (ii)exclusive
sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. ls this statement true?
a) Yes
b) No
83. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as 'The Chicago
Convention?"
a) The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation
b) The Convention on International Civil Aviation
c) The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation
d) The Convention on International Civil Transportation
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84. According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents,amongst others,
are required to be carried in the aircraft on an international flight?
a) Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R) and crew
passports
b) Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable, Radio Station
Licence
c) Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest and a
detailed declaration of the cargo
d) Passports for all crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A),
Certificate of Registration (C of R)
85. Can a state search a visiting aircraft from another contracting state without permission?
a) No
b) Yes
86. What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?
a) Personnal Licensing
b) Facilitation
c) Rules of the Air
d) Aerodromes
87. What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?
a) Annex 8
b) Annex 9
c) Annex 12
d) Annex 14
88. What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?
a) IATA
b) ECAC
c) EU
d) EASA
89. Under the Chicago Convention, the Territory of a State consists of:
a) lts total land area
b) The land areas and its adjacent territorial waters
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90. Which sign indicate a runway unfit for he movement of aircraft ?
a) yellow ‘’X’’
b) white ‘’X’’
c) yellow “Y”
d) White “Y”
91. Which sign indicate a taxiway unfit for the movement of aircraft ?
a) yellow ‘’X’’
b) b. white ‘’X’’
c) yellow “Y”
d) White “Y”
92. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
a) 1500 ft.
b) 2500 ft.
c) 3000 ft.
d) 1000 ft.
93. Where is the number and composition of the flight crew specified?
a) In ICAO Annex 6 part 2
b) In JAR‐OPS 1
c) On the C of A
d) In JAR‐FCL
94. Which aircrafts are permitted to fly at night displaying only a single red light ? (4)
a) a glider or free balloon
b) a glider ,free balloon or airship
c) a helicopter or free balloon
d) a microlight or airship
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PPL Yeni Eklenen Sorular
95. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is
:
a) the Rome Convention
b) the Tokyo Convention
c) the Warsaw Convention
d) the Paris Convention
96. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :
a) information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
b) mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.
c) mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
d) information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
97. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes
to the convention
b) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of
such licenses
c) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
d) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
98. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the
responsibility of:
a) air traffic control and flight information centers.
b) air traffic coordination centres.
c) control centres only.
d) search and rescue coordination centres.
99. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
a) 5 nautical miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the
direction from which approaches may be made.
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b) 10 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction
from which approaches may be made.
c) 15 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction
from which approaches may be made.
d) 20 miles from the center of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction
from which approaches may be made.
100. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :
a) as flight level.
b) as height.
c) as altitude.
d) According to pilot's choice.
101. The runway edge lights shall be :
a) white
b) blue
c) green
d) red
102. In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium
aircraft?
a) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ‐ 2 minutes
b) medium aircraft other medium aircraft ‐ 2 minutes
c) light aircraft behind medium aircraft ‐4 minutes
d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ‐ 3 minutes
103. Runway threshold lights shall be:
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
runway.
b) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
d) Fixed lights green colours.
104. Taxiway centerline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing green.
b) Fixed lights showing blue.
c) Fixed lights showing yellow.
d) Fixed lights showing white.
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105. The information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the
following part of the AIP:
a) ENR
b) AD
c) MAP
d) GEN
106. In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with “location indicators”?
a) GEN
b) AGA
c) ENR
d) AD
107. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft
a) 6 NM
b) 3 NM
c) 2 km
d) 10 km
108. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is
impossible, than :
a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
b) you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to
provide for continuation of the flight;
c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
d) you are not allowed to commence the flight
109. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan
form...
a) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed
by the name of the airport.
b) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed
by the name of the airport.
c) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed
by the name of the airport
d) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed
by the name of the airport
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110. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
a) as altitude.
b) as flight level.
c) according pilot's choice.
d) as height.
111. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
a) Area Control Centre ‐ Flight Information Centre ‐ Approach Control Office ‐
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
b) Area Control Centre ‐ Flight Information Region ‐ Approach Control Office and Tower.
c) Advisory Centre ‐ Area Control Centre ‐ Approach Control Office and Aerodrome
Control Tower.
d) Area Control Centre ‐ Advisory Centre ‐ Flight Information Centre ‐ Approach Control
Office and Tower.
112. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
a) The over‐all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage width.
b) The overall length of the longest aeroplane.
c) The longest aeroplane maximum width only
d) The over‐all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.
113. Taxiway edge lights shall be:
a) Fixed showing blue.
b) Fixed showing green.
c) Fixed showing yellow.
d) Flashing showing blue.
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