1 Problem: Define π = 1−π₯. Compute π 1999 (2000). Solution: Get my hands dirty: π₯ = 2000 π 2 (π₯) 1999 2000 π(π₯) 1 − 1999 1 π 3 (π₯) 2000 π 4 (π₯) 1 − 1999 π 5 (π₯) 1999 2000 1999 The pattern is π 4π (2000) = − 1999 , π 4π+2 (2000) = 2000 , π 4π+3 (2000) = 2000 → π 1999 (2000) = 2000. Problem(Putnam 1990): Let π0 = 2, π1 = 3 , π2 = 6, πππ πππ π ≥ 3: ππ = (π + 4)ππ−1 − 4πππ−2 + (4π − 8)ππ−3 The first few terms are: 2, 3, 6, 14, 40, 152, 784, 5168, 40576, 363392, … Find a formula for ππ of the form ππ = π΄π + π΅π , π€βπππ (π΄π ) πππ (π΅π ) πππ π€πππ − ππππ€π π πππ’πππππ . Solution: 152 and 784 and kinda like 125 and 720, which is 5! πππ 6!. So we have ππ = π! + 2π . We prove it by induction. The first few ones are obvious. Assume the argument is true with π = π − 1(π > 0). We have: ππ = (π + 4)ππ−1 − 4πππ−2 + (4π − 8)ππ−3 = (π + 4) ((π − 1)! + 2π−1 ) − 4π ((π − 2)! + 2π−2 ) + (4π − 8) ((π − 3)! + 2π−3 ) = 2π + π!. Case closed. Problem: Consider a function π that satisfies π(1) = 1, π(2π) = π(π), π(2π + 1) = π(2π) + 1 for all π ∈ π. Find a nice algorithm for π(π). Your algorithm should be a single sentence long, at most. Solution: π(1) = 1, π(2) = 1, π(3) = 2, π(4) = 1, π(5) = 2, π(6) = 2, π(7) = 3, π(8) = 1, π(9) = 2, π(10) = 2, π(11) = 3, π(12) = 2 So, π(2π ) = 1, π(3π) = 2, π(2π) = 2(π€ππ‘β π ≠ 2π ). It’s obvious that our function can not be a polynomial. What can it be? What if it doesn’t exist such an algorithm? It’s clear that f is π → π. I’ll leave it for now. Problem: For each integer n > 1, find distinct positive integers π₯ and π¦ such that 1 1 1 + = π₯ π¦ π Solution: First we see that π₯ and π¦ can not be smaller than n. 1 1 Lets transform the expression: π(π₯ + π¦) = 1. 1 π₯ 1 π¦ But again by BCS: π ( + ) ≥ 4π π₯+π¦ → π₯ + π¦ ≥ 4π We observe that π₯ + π¦ ≠ 4π for π > 1. πβπππππππ π₯ + π¦ > 4π Thus one number must be greater than 2π. By that we can also obtain that one number must smaller than 2n. (1) But we’re stuck here. Let’s get our hands dirty. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 + 2 = 3 + 6 , 3 = 4 + 12 , 4 = 5 + 20 , … We see a pattern here: (π₯, π¦) = (π + 1, π2 + π) Is that true? We have (π + 1)2 1 1 1 + 2 = = . 2 π + 1 π + π π(π + 2) π Case closed ! ANOTHER QUESTION: Is there another pair? Assume that there is another pair of (π₯, π¦). Let π₯ = π + π, π < π. We have 1 1 1 π = − = π¦ π π + π π(π + π) → π|π(π + π) So our problem becomes: Given a natural number n. With 1 < π < π, can π|π(π + π)? We have π(π + π) = π2 (πππ π) However, with 1 < π < π then n is not divisible by a. DONE. Problem: For each positive integer n, find positive integers solutions π₯1 , π₯2 , π₯3 , … , π₯π to the equation: 1 1 1 1 + + β―+ + =1 π₯1 π₯2 π₯π π₯1 π₯2 … π₯π Solution: No ideas pop up yet. Lets get our hands dirty. π = 2: (π₯1 , π₯2 ) = (2,3) π = 3: (π₯1 , π₯2 , π₯3 ) = (2,3,7) π = 4: (π₯1 , π₯2 , π₯3 , π₯4 ) = (2,3,7,43) Til here we can predict that π₯π is the smallest prime number that is not smaller than π₯1 π₯2 … π₯π−1 . But then it doesn’t work with n=5. Problem(BMO 1996): Define π π(π) = [ ]. [√π] Determine all positive integers for which π(π) > π(π + 1). Solution: Well, lets get our hands dirty: π(1) = 1, π(2) = 2, π(3) = 3, π(4) = 2, π(5) = 2, π(6) = 3, π(7) = 3, π(8) = 4, π(9) = 3 So we predict that π = π 2 − 1 then π(π) > π(π + 1) We have: π(π 2 − 1) = [ π 2 −1 [√π 2 −1] π 2 −1 ] = [ π−1 ] = π + 1, πππ π(π 2 ) = π. One side finished. Now we prove that this is the only solution. Conjecture: π(π 2 ) ≤ π(π 2 + π) π π’πβ π‘βππ‘ π 2 + π < (π + 1)2 − 1. πβππ πππ ππ πππ πππ¦ ππππ£ππ. Case closed. Problem: Find infinitely many positive integer solution to the equation π₯2 + π¦2 + π§2 = π€ 2 Solution: 1 Problem(Germany 1995): Let π₯ be a real number such that π₯ + π₯ is an integer. Prove that π₯ π + π₯ −π is an integer, for all positive integers π. Solution: We have: π−1 π₯ π + π₯ −π 1 π π = (π₯ + ) − ∑ ( ) π₯ 2π−π π₯ π π=1 π−1 We prove ∑ π=1 π π 2 2 (ππ)π₯ 2π−π ππ ππ πππ‘ππππ. π΅ππ ππππ , ([π−π]) π₯ −π + ([π+π]) π₯ π ππ ππ πππ‘ππππ. By the hypothesis of induction we completed the proof. Problem(Putnam 1995): Let S be a set of real numbers that is closed under multiplication ( that is, if π and π are in S, then so is ππ). Let T and U be disjoint subsets of S whose union is S. Given that the product of any π‘βπππ (not necessarily distinct) elements of T is in T and that the product of any π‘βπππ (not necessarily distinct) elements of U is in U. Show that at least one of the two subsets T, U is closed under multiplication. Solution: Assume that U has element π and π such that ππ is not in U. And T has element π and π such that ππ is not in T. Because T and U are disjoint subsets of S and S is closed under multiplication, ππ and ππ are in T and U, respectively. We multiply three elements of T: π. π. ππ = ππππ and three elements of U: π. π. ππ = ππππ. Therefore, T and U has a common element ( contradiction ). Problem(Russia 1995): Is it possible to place 1995 different natural numbers along a circle so that for any two of these numbers, the ratio of the greatest to the least is a prime? Solution: 99% no. Let the circle be placed with π0 , π1 , π2 , … , π1995 (we added π0 π π’πβ π‘βππ‘ π0 = π1995 ) ππ−1 ππ is either a prime or the reciprocal of a prime, suppose the former occurs π times and the latter occurs 1995 − π times. The product of all these ratios is π0 π1995 = 1. This can only occur when π = 1995 − π(absurd). Therefore we’re done. Problem: Consider a 21999 × 21999 π ππ’πππ, π€ππ‘β π π πππππ 1 × 1 square removed. Show that no matter where the small square is removed, it is possible to tile this “giant square minus tiny square” with ells. Solution: Problem(IMO 1997): An π × π matrix (square array) whose entries come from the set π = {1,2, … ,2π − 1} is called a silver matrix if, for each π = 1,2, … , π; the ππ‘β row and the ππ‘β column together contain all the members of S. Show that silver matrices exist for infinitely many values of π. Solution: Problem: Let π0 be any real number that’s smaller than 1 and greater than 0. Define (ππ ) by ππ = √1 − ππ−1 , π = 1,2,3, … Prove that lim ππ = √5−1 . 2 After a few dirty-hand things, we separate ππ into π2π and π2π+1 . We have π2π − π2π−2 = √1 − π2π−1 − √1 − π2π−3 = (π2π−3 − π2π−1 )/ … π2π+1 − π2π−1 = √1 − π2π − √1 − π2π−2 = (π2π−2 − π2π )/ … So with induction we can prove that (π2π ) , (π2π+1 ) converges. Thus ππ converges. We can easily obtain lim ππ = √5−1 . 2 Problem: An evil wizard has imprisoned 64 math geeks. The wizard announces, "Tomorrow I will have you stand in a line, and put a hat on each of your heads. The hat will be colored either white or black. You will be able to see the hats of everyone in front of you, but you will not be able to see your hat or the hats of the people behind you. (You are not allowed to tum around.) I will begin by asking the person at the back of the line to guess his or her hat color. If the guess is correct, that person will get a cookie. If the guess is wrong, that person will be killed. Then I will ask the next person in line, and so on. You are only allowed to say the single word 'black' or 'white ' when it is your tum to speak, and otherwise you are not allowed to communicate with each other while you are standing in line. Although you will not be able to see the people behind you, you will know (by hearing) if they have answered correctly or not." The geeks are allowed to develop a strategy before their ordeal begins. What is the largest number of geeks that can be guaranteed to survive? Solution: Think outside the box. The geeks can all agree that the first person to be asked will says “white” if the number of black hats is odd and “black” if it is even. That first person has 50% percent to survive. The others can count the hats in front of them and will have enough information due to the first person’s answer to make the right choice. So the answer is 63. Problem: Assume an 8 x 8 chess board with the usual coloring. You may repaint all squares (a) of a row of a column (b) of a 2 x 2 square. The goal is to obtain just one black square. Can you reach the goal? Solution: A white square represents zero and a black square represents number one. Let S be the sum of all square. At first, π = 32. (a) If we change a column or a row that means π will gain or lose 4 unit. That means π will be invariant in module 4. Which means 32 = 1(πππ 4)(absurd). (b) Same to (a) Problem: We start with the state (π, π) where π and π are positive integers. To this initial state we apply the following algorithm: πππππ π > π, π π ππ π < π ππππ (π, π) → (2π, π − π) ππππ (π − π, 2π). For which starting positions does the algorithm stop? In how many steps does it stop, if it stops? If it stops? What can you tell about periods and tails The same questions, when a, b are positive reals. Soltion: We have no clue ( besides that the algorithm stops when π = π). So let’s just get our hands dirty. (5,9) → (10,4) → (6,8) → (12,2) → (10,4) → β― (ππ¦ππππ) (5,6) → (10,1) → (9,2) → (7,4) → (3,8) → (6,5) → (1,10) → (2,9) → β― (ππ¦ππππ) (3,9) = (6,6). Stops. So if (π, π) = (π‘, 3π‘)(π£πππ π£πππ π) then the algorithm stop after one step. This can easily be proved be the comment that the algorithm stops when π = π. Which means that 2π = π − π → 3π = π We obtain the result. This also works with positive real numbers. Problem: There are π white, π black, π red chips on a table. In one step, you may choose two chips of different colors and replace them by a chip of third color. If just one chip will remain at the end, its color will not depend on the evolution of the game. When can this final state be reached? Solution: Yes. All three numbers a, b, c change their parity in one step. If one of the numbers has different parity from the other two, it will retain this property to the end. This will be the one which remains. Problem: There are π white, π black, π red chips on a table. In one step, you may choose two chips of different colors and and replace each one by a chip of the third color. Find conditions for all chips to become of the same color. Suppose you have initially 13 white 15 black and 17 red chips. Can all chips become of the same color? What states can be reached from these numbers? Solution: (a, b, c) will be transformed into one of the three triples (a + 2, b − 1, c − 1), (a − 1, b + 2, c − 1), (a − 1, b − 1, c + 2). In each case, I a − b mod 3 is an invariant. But b − c 0 mod 3 and a − c 0 mod 3 are also invariant. So I 0 mod 3 combined with a + b + c 0 mod 3 is the condition for reaching a monochromatic state. Problem:There is a positive integer in each square of a rectangular table. In each move, you may double each number in a row (call this move 1) or subtract 1 from each number of a column(call this move 2). Prove that you can reach a table of zeros by a sequence of these permitted moves. Solution: If there are numbers equal to 1 in the first column, then we double the corresponding rows and subtract 1 from all elements of the first column. This operation discussed the sum of the numbers in the first column until we get a column of ones, which is changed to a column of zeros by subtracting 1. Then we go to the next column, etc. Problem: There is an integer in each square of an 8 × 8 chessboard. In one move, you may choose any 4 × 4 or 3 × 3 square and add 1 to each integer of the chosen square. Can you always get a table with each entry divisible by (a) 2, (b) 3? a) Let S be the sum of all the numbers on board except for those that are on 3rd and 6th column. S is invariant mod 2. b) Let S be the sum of all the numbers on board expect for those that are on 4th and 8th column. S is invariant mod 3. Problem: There is a checker at point (1, 1) of the lattice (x, y) with x, y positive integers. It moves as follows. At any move it may double one coordinate, or it may subtract the smaller coordinate from the larger . Which points of the lattice can the checker reach? Solution: We know that gcd(π₯, π¦) = gcd(π₯, π₯ − π¦) so our invarience is the greatest common divisor of x and y. And at each move, gcd(π₯, π¦) either invariant or get doubled. So if gcd(π₯, π¦) = 2π , π = 1,2,3 … then (x,y) can be reached. Problem: Each term in a sequence 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0,...starting with the seventh is the sum of the last 6 terms mod 10. Prove that the sequence ..., 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 1,... never occurs. Solution: Let π = 2π₯π + 4π₯π+1 + 6π₯π+2 + 8π₯π+3 + 10π₯π+4 + 12π₯π+5 , π = 1,2,3, … We obtain that π₯π+6 = π₯π + π₯π+1 + π₯π+2 + π₯π+3 + π₯π+4 + π₯π+5 (πππ 10), π = 1,2,3, … (1) Consider the ππ‘β number of the sequence, we have: ππ − ππ−1 = 2π₯π + 4π₯π+1 + 6π₯π+2 + 8π₯π+3 + 10π₯π+4 + 12π₯π+5 − 2π₯π−1 − 4π₯π − 6π₯π+1 − 8π₯π+2 − 10π₯π+3 − 12π₯π+4 = 12π₯π+5 − 2π₯π+4 − 2π₯π+3 − 2π₯π+2 − 2π₯π+1 − 2π₯π − 2π₯π−1 From (1) we have ππ = ππ−1 (πππ 10) That’s our invariance. Problem: A game for computing gcd(π, π) and πππ(π, π) We start with π₯ = π, π¦ = π, π’ = π, π£ = π and move as follows: If π₯ < π¦ then, set π¦ → π¦ − π₯ and π£ → π£ + π’ If π₯ > π¦, then set π₯ → π₯ − π¦ and π’ → π’ + π£ The game ends with π₯ = π¦ = gcd(π, π) and π’+π£ 2 = πππ(π, π). Show this. Solution: The invariences are i. ii. iii. gcd(π₯, π¦) = gcd(π₯ − π¦, π¦) = gcd(π₯, π¦ − π₯) π₯, π¦ > 0 π₯π£ + π’π¦ = 2ππ Problem: Three integers a, b, c are written on a blackboard. Then one of the integers is erased and replaced by the sum of the other two diminished by 1. This operation is repeated many times with the final result 17, 1967, 1983. Could the initial numbers be (a) 2, 2, 2 (b) 3, 3, 3? Solution: Initially, if all components are greater than 1, then they will remain greater than 1. Starting with the second triple the largest component is always the sum of the other two components diminished by 1. If, after some step, we get (a, b, c) with a ≤ b ≤ c, then c a + b − 1, and a backward step yields the triple (a, b, b − a + 1). Thus, we can retrace the last state (17, 1967, 1983) uniquely until the next to last step: (17, 1967, 1983) ← (17, 1967, 1951) ← (17, 1935, 1951) ← ··· ← (17, 15, 31) ← (17, 15, 3) ← (13, 15, 3) ← ··· ← (5, 7, 3) ← (5, 3, 3). The preceding triple should be (1, 3, 3) containing 1, which is impossible. Thus the triple (5, 3, 3) is generated at the first step. We can get from (3, 3, 3) to (5, 3, 3) in one step, but not from (2, 2, 2). Problem: