Specification of Summative Assessment on the subject of «Physics»
For grade 12 (advanced level)
2022-2023
1. Aim of the Internal Summative Assessment (ISA)
Summative assessment (SA) is aimed to assess learners’ success in terms of the learning
objectives achievement and reveal their level of knowledge and skills acquired during the term.
Summative assessment checks the achievement of learning objectives for the term planned in the
course plan.
2. The document defining the content of the ISA
AEO «Nazarbayev Intellectual Schools» Educational Programme – NIS-Programme
Course Plan «Physics » Grade 12 (Advanced level)
3. Expected outcomes on the subject «Physics», Grade 12
A learner
Students will be:
- analyze the physical phenomenon;
- analyze the response received;
- consistently perform the stages of solving the problem;
- choose a rational way to solve the problem;
- allocate time for all tasks;
- solve combined tasks;
- Develop a sufficient level of literacy reading the conditions of the task.
4. Level of thinking skills
Level of thinking
skills
Knowledge and
understanding
Application
Higher order
thinking skills
Description
Knowledge:
- concepts, formulas, laws and physical constant
magnitudes of the section’s mechanics (kinematics,
dynamics, conservation laws);
- units of measurement physical quantities;
- physical phenomena;
Understanding:
- the physical meaning of quantities, basic terms and
laws of mechanics, astronomy;
- the significance physical phenomena;
Application:
- basic physical concepts and terms for describing
processes and phenomena;
- laws and formulas of physics in solving problems,
performing practical and laboratory work;
- graphical methods of presenting results;
- acquired knowledge to explain the conditions for
the occurrence of physical phenomena and
processes;
Analysis:
-Distinguished between facts and inferences;
Type of question
Questions with
multiple choice
answers. (MCH)
Questions that
require short
answer. (ShA)
Questions that
require short
answer. (ShA)
Questions that
require an
extended answer.
(EA)
Questions that
require short
Demonstrate the ability to gather information and/or
results and interpret them by breaking the material or
concepts into parts, determining how the parts relate
to one another relevant to the grade and subject as
described in the Subject Programme.
Synthesis:
- Demonstrate the ability to reconstruct different parts
of prior knowledge into a new context relevant to the
grade and subject as described in the Subject
Programme.
Evaluation:
- Form judgements about the value of ideas or
materials against defined criteria as described in the
Subject Programme.
answer. (ShA)
Questions that
require an
extended answer.
(EA)
5. DISTRIBUTION OF LEARNING OBJECTIVES BY LEVELS OF THINKING
SKILLS IN THE SECTION OF TERMS
I
Knowledge and
understanding
25 %
62 %
Higher order thinking
skills
13 %
II
22 %
67 %
11 %
III
22 %
72 %
6%
Total
23 %
67 %
10 %
Term
Application
6. Administration rules
During the Assessment cover all visual materials like, diagram, schemes, posters and maps
that can serve as prompts for the learners.
At the beginning of the Assessment read out the instructions and inform the learners about
the assessment duration. Remind learners that they are not allowed to talk with each other during
the Summative Assessment. After the instructions, make sure they have understood given
instructions and ask if they have any questions before the start of the assessment.
Ensure that the learners are working individually and not helping each other. During the
Summative Assessment learners should not have any access to additional recourses that can help
them, for example, dictionaries (excluding the cases when it is allowed in specification)
Recommend learners to cross the wrong answers instead of using an eraser.
During the assessment you can answer learners’ questions, regarding the instructions and
the assessment duration. You should not spell, paraphrase or provide any information that could
give the learner an advantage.
Always tell the learners that they have 5 minutes left before the end of the Summative
Assessment.
Tell the learners to stop writing and put down their pens/pencils on the desks at the end of
the Summative Assessment.
7. Moderation and marking
All teachers use the same version of the mark scheme. During the moderation process it is
necessary to check learner sample papers with the marks awarded to ensure there are no
deviations from the standardized mark scheme.
SPECIFICATION OF INTERNAL SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR TERM 1
Review of the internal summative assessment for term 1
Duration of the internal summative assessment – 80 minutes
Total marks - 60
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the internal summative assessment
This option consists of 24 tasks, including tasks with multiple choice of answers, with brief and
detailed answers.
 Multiple Choice / Closed questions: The learner choses the correct answer from a list. This
can be choosing an answer from four alternatives, sentence completion by choosing the
correct word from a list, joining linked words in two lists, etc.
 Short response: This is a question requiring a written answer between one word and a few
sentences in length, usually worth 1 or 4 marks.
 Structured: The question is divided into several shorter sub-parts, usually containing Closed
Questions and Short Response, usually of increasing difficulty on the same area.
1
Characteristic of tasks for internal summative assessment for the 1 term
Unit
Electromagnetic
oscillations and
electromagnetic
waves
Learning objective
Levels of thinking
skills
12.1.1.2 - describe sources of
electromagnetic oscillations;
12.1.1.4 - know the types and characteristics
of electromagnetic waves in accordance
with the scale of electromagnetic waves;
12.1.1.13 - give examples of the use of
electromagnetic waves;
12.1.1.3 - understand the term modulation
and be able to distinguish between
amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency
modulation (FM);
12.1.1.5 - recall the advantages of the
transmission of data in digital form,
compared to the transmission of data in
analogue form;
12.1.1.6 - understand that the digital
transmission of speech or music involves
analogue-to-digital conversion (ADC) on
transmission and digital-to-analogue
conversion (DAC) on reception;
12.1.1.17 - appreciate that information may
be carried by a number of different channels,
including wire-pairs, coaxial cables, radio
and microwave links and optic fibres;
12.1.1.9 - know the relative merits of both
geostationary and polar orbiting satellites;
Total:
Note: * - sections that can be changed
*Total
numbe
r of
tasks
*Questio
n№
*Type of
question
*Time
*Mark
Higher order
thinking skills
14
Sha
5
2
Knowledge and
understanding
1,2,3,8,9
13,16
MCH
ShA
10
11
Application
12
ShA
5
7
Application
4,5,7
11
MCH
ShA
10
6
Application
18
ShA
10
3
Application
6
24
21
MCH
EA
ShA
15
12
Application
10
17
19,20
MCH
ShA
15
13
Knowledge and
understanding
15,22,23
ShA
10
6
24
80 min
Total
marks
60
60
Sample questions and mark scheme
Tasks for the Internal Summative Assessment for the term 1
QUESTIONS WITH MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS
1. Which list shows electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?
A. radio waves → gamma rays → ultraviolet → infra-red
B. radio waves → infra-red → ultraviolet → gamma rays
C. ultraviolet → gamma rays → radio waves → infra-red
D. ultraviolet → infra-red → radio waves → gamma rays
[1]
2. Which one of the following statements concerning the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave in
a vacuum is true?
A. The wavelength is inversely proportional to the speed of the wave.
B. The wavelength is the same for all types of electromagnetic waves.
C. The wavelength is directly proportional to the frequency of the wave.
D. The wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.
[1]
3. The Y-input terminals of a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) are connected to a supply of
amplitude 5.0V and frequency 50Hz. The time-base is set at 10ms per division and the Y-gain at
5.0V per division.
Which trace is obtained?
[1]
4. Amplitude modulation is
A. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal
B. Change in frequency of the carrier according to modulating signal
C. Change in amplitude of the modulating signal according to carrier signal
D. Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal frequency
[1]
5. In an AM wave useful power is carrier by ………….
A. Carrier
B. Sidebands
C. Both sidebands and carrier
D. None of the above
[1]
4
6. Calculate the power in one of the side band in SSBSC modulation when the carrier power is
124W and there is 80% modulation depth in the amplitude modulated signal.
A. 89.33 W
B. 64.85 W
C. 79.36 W
D. 102 W
[1]
7. What is the carrier frequency in an AM wave when its highest frequency component is 850 Hz
and the bandwidth of the signal is 50Hz?
A. 80 Hz
B. 695 Hz
C. 625 Hz
D. 825 Hz
[1]
8. The functions of radio receiver are
A. Receive the Incoming modulated carrier by antenna
B. Select the wanted signal and reject the unwanted signals and noise
C. Detection and amplification of the information signal from the carrier
D. All of the above
[1]
9. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false?
A. Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
B. X-rays have longer wavelengths than radio waves.
C. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed.
D. Lower frequency electromagnetic waves can be produced by oscillating circuits.
[1]
10. Coaxial cable offers a band width approximately MHz
A. 1
B. 20
C. 250
D. 1000
[1]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE SHORT ANSWER
11. A radio station on the MW network transmits with a carrier frequency of 500 kHz, amplitude
modulated by an audio baseband of 100 Hz to 3.5 kHz.
(i) Sketch the frequency spectrum of the station
[2]
(ii) calculate the bandwidth of the AM signal.
[1]
5
12. Find matches/ Each Technology may be used only once
Electromagnetic Radiation
X rays
Microwaves
Gamma rays
Radio waves
Infrared waves
Ultraviolet waves
Radar
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Technology
TV broadcast signals
In a hospital to keep surgical equipment sterile
Examining the inside of a weld in a steel oil pipe
Lamp used to warm a baby chick
Measuring the speed of a passing car
Used by an oncologist (a physician who studies and
treats cancer)
Cell phone
[7]
13. If the statement is true, write “T” on the line in front of the statement. If it is false, write “F”
1)_________Electromagnetic radiation includes only visible light waves
[1]
2) _________Microwaves are a type of infrared wave
[1]
3) _____ Radio waves, microwaves and ultraviolet waves all have longer wavelengths than
visible light.
[1]
4)_________Both X rays and gamma rays have higher frequencies than ultraviolet rays.
[1]
14. Describe sources of electromagnetic oscillations
_______________________________________________________________________
[2]
15. a) Describe the orbit of a geostationary satellite.
[3]
16. Determine the frequency of a microwave 6.0 cm in length. (A microwave is an electromagnetic
wave. It travels through space at a speed of 3.0 x 108 m/s)
[2]
17. What is coaxial cable?
_________________________________________________________________________ [2]
Advantages_______________________________________________________________
[1]
Disadvantages_____________________________________________________________
[1]
18. What are the Advantages of digital transmission over analog?
[3]
19. In the original telephone system of 1876, every telephone was connected to every other
telephone by a pair of wires. Today the telephone is used worldwide as the result of the
invention of the exchange and the use of sampling using digital electronics.
Describe how each of these developments has meant that many telephone conversations
can take place at once.
.....................................................................................................................................
[4]
20. In the modern telephone system, more and more coaxial cable has been replaced for longdistance transmission of telephone signals by optic fibre.
State and explain two reasons for this change.
6
.....................................................................................................................................
[4]
21. State and explain the effect on the transmitted analogue waveform of increasing, for the ADC
and the DAC, both the sampling frequency and the number of bits in each sample.
.....................................................................................................................................
[3]
22. State a typical wavelength for communication between the Earth’s surface and a geostationary
satellite.
[1]
23. State one advantage and one disadvantage of the use of a geostationary satellite rather than a
satellite in polar orbit for telephone communication.
[2]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE AN EXTENDED ANSWER
24. The digital transmission of speech may be represented by the block diagram of Fig.1
(a) State the purpose of the parallel-to-serial converter.
.....................................................................................................................................
[2]
(b) Part of the signal from the microphone is shown in Fig.2
The ADC (analogue-to-digital converter) samples the analogue signal at a frequency of 5.0 kHz.
Each sample from the ADC is a four-bit digital number where the smallest bit represents 1.0 mV.
The first sample is taken at time zero.
7
Use Fig.2 to determine the four-bit digital number produced by the ADC at times
(i) 0.4 ms, ............................................................................................................................. [1]
(ii) 0.8 ms. ............................................................................................................................. [1]
(c) The digital signal is transmitted and then converted to an analogue form by the DAC
(digital-to-analogue converter). Using data from Fig.2, draw, on the axes of Fig.3, the output
level of the transmitted analogue signal for time zero to time 1.2 ms.
[4]
Total: 60
8
Mark scheme
Task
№
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answer
B
D
D
A
B
C
D
D
B
B
11
(i)
Mark
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
(ii) Bandwidth = 503.5-497.5 = 7kHz
1
12
13
14
15
1)
2)
3)
4)
Electromagnetic Radiation
C
X rays
G
Microwaves
A.
B
F
Gamma rays
C
A
D
Radio waves
Infrared waves
D
E
B
Ultraviolet waves
F
E
Radar
G
Technology
TV broadcast signals
In a hospital to keep surgical
equipment sterile
Examining the inside of a weld in
a steel oil pipe
Lamp used to warm a baby chick
Measuring the speed of a passing
car
Used by an oncologist (a physician
who studies and treats cancer)
Cell phone
False
False
True
True
correctly describes sources of oscillation
gives examples
Orbits around the Earth’s equator.
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
Takes one day for a complete orbit.
16
7
Stays over one point on the Earth OR height of orbit 36 000 km
above Earth’s surface.
5*109 Hz
9
1
2
Additional
information
17
18
Single copper wire surrounded by at least three layers
Often used for cable television wiring
ADVANTAGES No cables needed/ Multiple channels available/
Wide bandwidth
Disadvantages Line-of-sight will be disrupted if any obstacle,
such as new buildings, are in the way
or
Signal absorption by the atmosphere. Microwaves suffer from
attenuation due to atmospheric conditions
or
Towers are expensive to build
1
1
1
1) Digital signals do not get corrupted by noise etc. You are sending
a series of numbers that represent the signal of interest (i.e. audio,
video etc.)
1
2) Digital signals typically use less bandwidth. This is just another
way to say you can cram more information (audio, video) into the
same space.
3) Digital can be encrypted so that only the intended receiver can
decode it (like pay per view video, secure telephone etc.)
19
1
1
a) The public switched telephone network connects every
telephone through exchanges.
1
Without exchanges too many telephones and interconnecting wires
are needed.
1
One cable can handle many telephone conversations at once.
Sampling places a series of digital bits from many telephone
conversations on one cable.
20
1
1
1
Any two reasons and explanation/Less attenuation so fewer
repeater/regeneration amplifiers needed.
1
More bandwidth so more data can be sent per second/
more telephone calls made at once.
1
Less interference/noise so fewer regeneration amplifiers needed.
1
Lower diameter/ weight so easier to handle/cheaper.
1
21
increasing number of bits reduces step height
increasing sampling frequency reduces step depth / width
reproduction of signal is more exact
1
1
1
22
First satellites used wavelengths of about 5 cm; typically now
between 1 mm and 1 cm.
1
10
23
24
Advantage: permanent link with ground station/dishes do not
have to be moved.
Disadvantage: greater time delay for signal OR further away so
signal weaker.
(a) takes all the simultaneous digits for one number
and ‘sends’ them one after another (along the transmission line)
(b) (i) 0111
(ii) 0110
(c) levels shown
(–1 for each error or omission)
correct basic shape of graph i.e. series of steps
with levels staying constant during correct time intervals
(vertical lines in steps do not need to be shown
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
60
Total:
11
SPECIFICATION OF INTERNAL SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR TERM 2
Review of the internal summative assessment for term 2
Duration of the internal summative assessment – 80 minutes
Total marks - 60
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the internal summative assessment
This option consists of 24 tasks, including tasks with multiple choice of answers, with brief and
detailed answers.
 Multiple Choice / Closed questions: The learner choses the correct answer from a list. This
can be choosing an answer from four alternatives, sentence completion by choosing the
correct word from a list, joining linked words in two lists, etc.
 Short response: This is a question requiring a written answer between one word and a few
sentences in length, usually worth 1 or 4 marks.
 Structured: The question is divided into several shorter sub-parts, usually containing Closed
Questions and Short Response, usually of increasing difficulty on the same area.
12
Characteristic of tasks for internal summative assessment for the 2 term
Unit
12.1.A
Alternate
current
Learning objective
12.1.2.3 - describe the processes occurring in an
alternating current circuit that has active resistance;
12.1.2.5 - be able to apply the Ohm’s law for
alternating-current circuit that has reactive
resistance;
12.1.2.8 - present a sinusoidally alternating current
or voltage by an equation of the form x=xmaxsinωt
12.1.2.7 - deduce that the mean power in a resistive
load is half the maximum power for a sinusoidal
alternating current;
12.1.2.9 - describe the principle of operation of a
transformer and solve problems using
N1/N2=V1/V2=I2/I1 for an ideal transformer;
12.1.2.11 - explain the principle of alternating
current transmission over distance;
12.1.2.14 - distinguish graphically between halfwave and full- wave rectification;
12.1.2.15 - explain the use of four diodes (bridge
rectifier) for the full-wave rectification of an
alternating current;
12.1.2.16 - analyse the effect of a single capacitor
during rectification, including the effect of the value
of capacitance in relation to the load resistance;
Total:
Note: * - sections that can be changed
Levels of
thinking
skills
Higher order
thinking skills
*Total *Question № *Type of
number
question
of tasks
19, 20,
ShA
21
Application
7, 10
13, 18
Application
*Tim
e
*Mark
15
13
MCH
ShA
7
7
11
ShA
3
3
Application
2
12
24 a(i)(ii)(iii)
MCH
ShA
EA
5
6
Application
1, 3,9
15, 14 (b)
MCH
ShA
15
11
4, 5
17
MCH
ShA
5
4
6, 8
24 (b, с)
MCH
EA
10
8
Application
14 (a)
22
ShA
EA
10
4
Application
16, 23
ShA
10
4
Knowledge
and
understanding
Knowledge
and
understanding
24
Total
marks
60
80
min
60
Sample questions and mark scheme
Tasks for the Internal Summative Assessment for the term 2
QUESTIONS WITH MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS
1. If a secondary coil has 40 turns, and, a primary coil with 20 turns is charged with 50 V of
potential difference, then potential difference in secondary coil would be
A. 50 V in secondary coil
B. 25 V in secondary coil
C. 60 V in secondary coil
D. 100 V in secondary coil
[1]
2. What is the peak value of a household appliance that uses a 230 V ac source?
A. 325 V
B. 163 V
C. 480 V
D. 230 V
[1]
3. In transformer, alternating current is induced in
A. primary coil
B. secondary coil
C. iron core
D. resistor
[1]
4. Why is ac current transfer more effective than dc current transfer over long distances?
A. due to step-up and step-down transformers reducing I-R losses
B. due to the use of ac generators
C. due to the height of power lines
D. due to very high voltages
[1]
5. A high-voltage powerline operates at 500 000 V-rms and carries an rms current of 500 A. If the
resistance of the cable is 0.050Ω/km, what is the resistive power loss in 200 km of the
powerline?
A. 250 kW
B. 500 kW
C. 1 Megawatt
D. 2.5 Megawatt
[1]
6. An alternating current (a.c.) supply is connected to a resistor through a rectifier as shown in the
diagram.
15
Which pattern will be viewed on the screen of an oscilloscope connected across the resistor?
[1]
7. The graph shows the variation with time of the alternating current in a resistor.
The resistor has a resistance of 2.0 .
What is the mean power?
A. 0
B. 1.0 W
C. 1.4 W
D. 2.0 W
[1]
8. An alternating voltage is rectified using a diode and a capacitor C. The output is not constant;
there is a small variation in the current I in the resistor R.
[1]
16
9. The number of turns on the transformers is as shown in the figure. What is the output voltage of
the transformers, in volts, if the input voltage of the transformers is 5 V?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10
15
30
35
[1]
10. In an ac circuit, a 0.025-H inductor is connected to a generator that has an rms voltage of 25 V
and operates at 50.0 Hz. What is the rms current through the inductor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.62 A
2.0 A
3.2 A
7.1 A
[1]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE SHORT ANSWER
11. An alternating current is represented by the equation: I = 2 sin 50t
(a) What is the peak value of the current?
_____________________________________________________________________ [1]
(b) Calculate the frequency of the supply
____________________________________________________________________ [2]
12. An alternating current (ac) source is connected to a resistor to form a complete circuit. The
trace obtained on an oscilloscope connected across the resistor is shown in the diagram below.
The oscilloscope settings are:
Y gain 5.0 V per division
time base 2.0 ms per division
(i) Calculate the peak voltage of the ac source.
answer = ....................................... V [1]
(ii) Calculate the rms voltage
answer = ....................................... V [1]
13. Calculate the inductive reactance of a 3.00 mH inductor when 10.0 kHz AC voltages are
applied.
What is the rms current if the applied rms voltage is 120 V?
17
____________________________________________________________________
[3]
14. A student is asked to design a circuit by which a direct voltage of peak value 9.0 V is obtained
from a 240 V alternating supply.The student uses a transformer that may be considered to be
ideal and a bridge rectifier incorporating four ideal diodes. The partially completed circuit
diagram is shown in Fig.
(a) On Fig., draw symbols for the four diodes so as to produce the polarity across the load as
shown on the diagram.
[2]
(b) Calculate the ratio
number of turns on the secondary coil
number of turns on the primary coil
ratio = ................................................ [3]
15. An electrician uses a transformer to step the 230 V r.m.s. mains voltage down to 115 V r.m.s.
The secondary coil has 500 turns and is connected to a resistor of 5000 .
(a) Calculate the number of turns on the primary coil.
[1]
(b) Calculate the current in the secondary coil.
[1]
(c) Calculate the current in the primary coil. Assume that the transformer is 100 % efficient. [1]
(d) The electrician connects cables to the secondary coil that break down when the p.d.
between the wire and earth is larger than 130 V. Explain whether the cables will break
down when the transformer is switched on.
[2]
16. (i) On Fig, draw the symbol for a capacitor, connected into the circuit so as to provide
smoothing.
(ii) State how the amount of smoothing may be increased.
18
[1]
[1]
17. Transformer A produces a very high voltage to transmit the electrical energy through the
National Grid. Explain why electrical energy is transmitted at a very high voltage
[2]
18. A resistor of 200 Ω and a capacitor of 15.0 µF are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac
source. Calculate the current in the circuit.
[2]
19. Which component, the resistor or the capacitor, will drop more voltage in this circuit?
20. Calculate all voltages and currents in this circuit, as well as the total impedance
[1]
[4]
21. An alternating voltage is applied across each of the components as shown below.
In each case, sketch a graph to show the current through and voltage across the component.
State the phase relationship for each component.
[6]
19
22. The output from the transformer is to be full-wave rectified. Fig. shows part of the rectifier
circuit.
On Fig, draw diode symbols to complete the diagram of the rectifier such that terminal A of the
resistor R is positive with respect to terminal B
[2]
23. Suggest one advantage of full-wave rectification as compared with half-wave rectification.
[1]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE AN EXTENDED ANSWER
24. A sinusoidal alternating voltage supply is connected to a bridge rectifier consisting of four ideal
diodes. The output of the rectifier is connected to a resistor R and a capacitor C as shown in
Fig.1
The function of C is to provide some smoothing to the potential difference across R. The variation
with time t of the potential difference V across the resistor R is shown in Fig.2.
20
(a) Use Fig.2 to determine, for the alternating supply,
(i) the peak voltage,
peak voltage = ............................................. V [1]
(ii) the root-mean-square (r.m.s.) voltage,
r.m.s. voltage = ............................................. V [1]
(iii) the frequency. Show your working.
frequency = ........................................... Hz [3]
(b) (i) determine the change in potential difference
[1]
(ii) determine the change in charge on each plate of the capacitor
[2]
(iii) show that the average current in the resistor is 1.1 × 10–3 A
[2]
(c) Use the graph and the value of the current given in (b)(iii) to estimate the resistance of
resistor R.
[2]
Total: 60
21
Mark scheme
Task
№
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
Answer
Mark
D
A
B
A
D
C
D
D
C
C
10 V
7.1 V
I = V/XL
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
1
1
1
188 Ω
1
0.637 A
1
a) all four diodes correct to give output, regardless of polarity connected
for correct polarity
1
1
b) Ns / Np = Vs / V p
V0 = √2 Vrms
ratio = 9.0 / (√2 × 240)
= 1/38 or 1/37 or 0.027
1
1
1
a) 2A
b) 2f = 50; f = 25Hz;
15
a) Number of turns on the primary 
115
 500  1000 turns
230
Vs
115

= 0.023 A r.m.s.
R
5000
500
c) Ip  0.023 
= 0.0125 A  0.013 A r.m.s.
1000
1
d) Peak voltage  115 2  162 V
so the cables will break down
(i)
correct symbol, connected in parallel with R
(ii) larger capacitor / second capacitor in parallel with R (not
increase R)
To minimize losses for Joule heating
ohmic and resistive heating - process of heating up the conductor as
electric current flows through it.
1
1
1
b) Is 
16
17
1
22
1
1
1
1
Additional
information
18
19
20
Z= 291.5 Ω
0.755 A
The resistor will drop more voltage.
Ztotal = 6.944 kΩ
I = 4.896 mARMS
VL = 23.07 VRMS
VR = 24.97 VRMS
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
21
1
1
1
1
1
1
22
23
24
1
1
more (output) power available/ less ripple for same smoothing
capacitor/ any sensible suggestion
(a)
(i)
peak voltage = 4.0V
(ii) (ii) r.m.s. voltage (= 4.0/√2) = 2.8V
(iii) ii) period T = 20ms
frequency = 1 / (20 × 10–3)
frequency = 50Hz
1
1
1
1
1
1
(b) (i) ΔV = 4.0 - 2.4 (see graph) = 1.6V
(ii) ΔQ = CΔV
ΔQ = 8.0 x 10-6 C
(iii) t = 7.0 x 10-3s (see graph)
I = (8.0 x 10-6)/(7.0 x 10-3)
1
1
1
1
1
(c) Average voltage = 3.2V
R = 2900 Ω
Total:
1
1
60
23
SPECIFICATION OF INTERNAL SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR TERM 3
Review of the internal summative assessment for term 3
Duration of the internal summative assessment – 80 minutes
Total marks - 60
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the internal summative assessment
This option consists of 24 tasks, including tasks with multiple choice of answers, with brief and
detailed answers.
 Multiple Choice / Closed questions: The learner choses the correct answer from a list. This
can be choosing an answer from four alternatives, sentence completion by choosing the
correct word from a list, joining linked words in two lists, etc.
 Short response: This is a question requiring a written answer between one word and a few
sentences in length, usually worth 1 or 4 marks.
 Structured: The question is divided into several shorter sub-parts, usually containing Closed
Questions and Short Response, usually of increasing difficulty on the same area.
24
Unit
12.3.A
Charged
particles
12.3.B
Quantum
physics
12.3.С
Nuclear
physics
Characteristic of tasks for internal summative assessment for the 3 term
Learning objective
Levels of
*Total
*Questio *Type of
thinking
number
n№
question
skills
of tasks
12.2.1.1 - show an understanding of the main
Knowledge
principles of determination of electron charge by
and
2
MCH
Millikan’s experiment;
understanding
2
12.2.1.3 - describe and analyse qualitatively the
deflection of beams of charged particles by
Application
6
MCH
uniform electric and uniform magnetic fields;
12.2.2.2 - recall and use E=h f;
Application
5
MCH
12.2.2.6 - explain the photoelectric phenomenon
in terms of photon energy and work function
Application
4
MCH
energy;
12.2.2.7 - explain why work function is
independent of light intensity, whereas
Application
12
ShA
photoelectric current is proportional to intensity;
12.2.2.8 - know and apply the formula hf = A +
mv2ma x/2; when solving problems, and understand
Application
9
23
EA
as an expression resulting from the Law of
conservation of energy;
12.2.2.10 - know and use the relation for the de
Application
20
ShA
Broglie wavelength: λ = h/P;
12.2.2.12 - distinguish between emission and
Knowledge
8
MCH
absorption line spectra;
and
17
ShA
understanding
12.2.2.13 - recall and solve problems using the
9
MCH
Application
relation h f = E1 - E2;
18
ShA
12.2.3.1 - infer from the results of the α-particle
Higher order
7
MCH
scattering experiment the existence and small size
thinking skills
24
EA
of the nucleus;
13
12.2.3.6 - know that nucleon number, proton
Knowledge
1
MCH
number, and mass-energy are all conserved in
and
19
ShA
*Time
*Mark
1
1
Total
marks
2
2
1
2
1
2
1
3
3
5
8
5
2
5
4
5
3
8
7
22
36
5
3
nuclear processes;
12.2.3.7 - represent simple nuclear reactions by
nuclear equations of the form
𝟒
𝟏𝟕
𝟏
𝟏𝟒
𝟕𝑵 + 𝟐𝑯𝒆 → 𝟖𝑶 + 𝟏𝑯;
12.2.3.8 - show an understanding of the
spontaneous and random nature of nuclear decay;
12.2.3.16 - know the concepts of activity and
decay constant, and solve problems using the
formula A=λN;
12.2.3.18 - define half-life;
12.2.3.9 - show an understanding of the nature and
properties of α-, β- and γ-radiations;
12.2.3.12 - show an appreciation of the association
between energy and mass as represented by E =
mc2, and solve problems using this formula;
12.2.3.13 - understand and calculate the variation
of binding energy per nucleon with nucleon
number (specific binding energy);
Total:
Note: * - sections that can be changed
understanding
Application
11
ShA
5
3
Application
16
ShA
5
4
Application
15
ShA
5
4
Application
Knowledge
and
understanding
14
ShA
5
4
3,10
13
MCH
ShA
4
5
Application
21
ShA
8
3
ShA
5
3
Application
22
24
80
60
Sample questions and mark scheme
Tasks for the Internal Summative Assessment for the term 3
QUESTIONS WITH MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS
1. A nucleus of magnesium decays into a nucleus of sodium by emitting a β+ particle. The decay is
represented by the equation shown.
23
0
𝑀𝑔12
→ 𝑁𝑎𝑄𝑃 + 𝛽+1
What are the values of P and Q?
P
Q
A
22
11
B
22
13
C
23
11
D
23
13
[1]
2. What information did Millikan use to determine the charge on an electron?
A. The rate at which the oil drop was rising from the plate.
B. The strength of the electric field.
C. The mass of the oil drop.
D. All of the above.
[1]
3. Alpha, beta and gamma radiations have various depths of penetration in matter and different
charges. Which row best summarises the penetration and charge of each radiation?
A
B
Alpha
absorbed by a sheet of card
negative charge
absorbed by a sheet of card
negative charge
C
absorbed by a sheet of card
positive charge
D
absorbed by several mm of
aluminium
positive charge
beta
absorbed by several mm of
aluminium
no charge
absorbed by several mm of
aluminium
positive charge
absorbed by several mm of
aluminium
negative charge
not fully absorbed by several cm
of lead
negative charge
gamma
not fully absorbed by several cm of
lead
no charge
not fully absorbed by several cm of
lead
no charge
not fully absorbed by several cm of
lead
no charge
absorbed by a sheet of card
no charge
[1]
4. Which change will not change the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emitted in the
photoelectric effect?
A. changing the brightness of the light
B. changing the frequency of the light
C. changing the metal the light is hitting
D. all of the above will change the electron’s kinetic energy
[1]
5. If barium has a work function of 2.60 eV, what is its cutoff wavelength when used as a
phototube target? (h = 6.63 × 10−34 J⋅s, c = 3.00 × 108 m/s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10−19 J, and 1 nm =
10−9 m)
A. 398 nm
B. 478 nm
C. 497 nm
D. 596 nm
[1]
6. A particle is in a uniform field. The particle experiences a force in the opposite direction to the
field.
Which field is the particle in, and on which property of the particle is the field acting?
[1]
7. Two α-particles with equal energies are deflected by a large nucleus.
Which diagram best represents their paths?
[1]
8. When an electron falls from an orbit where n = 2 to n = 1:
A. a photon is emitted.
B. A photon is absorbed.
C. No change in atomic energy.
D. The atomic energy decreases to zero.
[1]
9. When an electron jumps from an orbit where n = 1 to n = 4, its energy in terms of the energy of
the ground level (E1) is:
A. E1/9
B. E1/16
C. 4 E1
D. 16 E1
[1]
10. What can be assumed to be the maximum range of an 𝛼-particle in air?
A. a few millimetres
B. a few centimetres
C. a few metres
D. a few kilometres
[1]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE SHORT ANSWER
11. This question is about nuclear binding energy.
The table below gives the mass defect per nucleon of deuterium
 He.
 H  and helium-4
2
1
4
2
Mass defect per nucleon / u
 H
0.00120
 He
0.00760
2
1
4
2
(a)
Explain the term mass defect.
[1]
(b) Calculate the energy, in joule, that is released when two deuterium nuclei fuse to
form a helium-4 nucleus.
[2]
12. (i) True or False: Maximum Kinetic Energy of emitted electrons is independent of frequency
and directly proportional to intensity of incident light
________________________[1]
(ii) True or False: Photons are electrically neutral and not deflected by electric or magnetic
fields
______________________[1]
(iii) True or False: In a photon-particle collision, photon may be absorbed in a collision or a
new one created.
______________________[1]
13. What is the difference of alpha beta and gamma radiation?
_____________________________________________________________________[3]
14. a) Define the half-life of a radioactive isotope.
[1]
b) The half-life of a particular isotope is 20 minutes. A sample initially contains N0 nuclei
of this isotope. Determine the number of nuclei of the isotope left in the sample after:
i) 20 minutes
[1]
ii) 1.0 hour.
[2]
15. The half-life of the radon isotope 220
86 Rn is 56 s.
a) Determine the decay constant in s−1.
b) Calculate the activity of a sample containing 6.0  1010 nuclei of
220
86 Rn
.
[2]
[2]
16. a) Distinguish between the random and the spontaneous nature of radioactive decay. [2]
b) In each case below, write a nuclear decay equation.
i) The polonium isotope 210
84 Po emits an α-particle and changes into an isotope of
lead (Pb).
[1]
ii) The strontium isotope
yttrium (Y).
90
38 Sr
emits a β-particle and changes into an isotope of
[1]
17. White light is incident on a cloud of cool hydrogen gas, as illustrated in Figure
.
The spectrum of the light emerging from the gas cloud is found to contain a number of dark lines.
Explain why these dark lines occur.
_______________________________________[3]
18. Some electron energy levels in a hydrogen atom are illustrated in Figure
One dark line is observed at a wavelength of 435 nm.
Calculate the energy, in eV, of a photon of light of wavelength 435 nm.
energy = ................................................... eV [ 2]
19. Complete the following nuclear reactions:
?
0
a. 226
88 Ra  ? ? + 1 e
b.
209
84
Po 
205
82
Pb + ?? ?
[2]
20. An electron is accelerated from rest in a vacuum through a potential difference of 4.7 kV.
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of the accelerated electron.
[2]
21. a) Write down Einstein’s famous equation relating mass and energy.
b) Determine the change in energy equivalent to a change in mass:
i) of 1.0 g
ii) equal to that of an electron (9.1  10−31 kg).
[1]
[1]
[1]
22. a) Explain why external energy is required to ‘split’ a nucleus.
[1]
b) Use the data given below to determine the binding energy and the binding energy per
nucleon of the nuclide 235
mass of
92 U (mass of proton  1.007 u mass of neutron  1.009 u
uranium-235 nucleus  234.992 u)
[2]
QUESTIONS THAT REQUIRE AN EXTENDED ANSWER
23. (a) The following equation describes the release of electrons from a metal surface illuminated
by electromagnetic radiation.
hf = Φ + mv2ma x/2
Explain briefly what you understand by each of the terms in the equation.
hf ................................................................................................................................[1]
k.e.max .........................................................................................................................[1]
Φ.....................................................................................................................[1]
(b) Calculate the momentum p of an electron travelling in a vacuum at 5% of the speed of light.
p = ..........................................................[2]
What is the de Broglie wavelength of electrons travelling at this speed?
λ = ..........................................................[2]
Why are electrons of this wavelength useful for studying the structure of molecules?
[1]
24. (a) An experiment in which α-particles were deflected by a gold foil produced new insights
into the structure of the atom. Which conclusion can be drawn from the results of the
experiment?
[1]
(b)
(c)
If there was air between the alpha source and the gold foil, the air would become
ionised. Explain what is meant by the term "ionised"
[2]
Describe the results of the experiment and explain clearly how he linked his results to
his conclusion
[3]
Total: 60
Mark scheme
Tas
k№
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
Answer
Mar
k
C
B
C
A
B
A
A
A
D
B
(a) difference in mass between mass of nucleus;
and mass of (totally) separate nucleons;
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
(b) mass of helium-4 = 4  0.00760 = 0.0304 u
and mass of two deuterium = 4  0.00120 = 0.0048u;
1
mass defect = 0.0256u;
1
energy = 0.0256  1.66  1027  (3  108)2; = 3.8  1012 J;
12
13
14
(i)
False
(ii)
True
(iii) True
Alpha radiation: corpuscular radiation, helium atoms
Beta radiation: electrons
Gamma radiation: electromagnetic radiation of high energy
a) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the mean time taken for the
number of nuclei of the isotope to decrease to half the initial
number.
b) i) 20 minutes is 1 half-life, so number of nuclei left 
ii) 1.0 hour is 3 half-lives.
1
2
3
Number of nuclei left    N 0 
15
a) t1/2 
0.693
λ

so
λ
N0
8
0.693
t1/2
1
1
1
1
1
0.693
56
λ  1.238  102 s1  1.2  102 s1
b) A  λN
A
N0
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
0.693
 6.0  1010
56
A  7.4  108 Bq
1
1
1
Additiona
l
informati
on
random
• a particular nucleus can decay at any time/ count rate or
readings fluctuate/ no-one can predict when a nucleus will
decay
spontaneous
• each nucleus decays independently of any other
• each nucleus has the same chance of decaying as any other
• the decay of nuclei cannot be affected by external factors
16
i)
17
18
19
20
21
22
210
4
206
84 Po  2 He  82 Pb
0
90
90
1 e  39Y
38
ii)
Sr 
photon ‘absorbed’ by electron
B1 photon has energy equal to difference in energy of two energy levels
electron de-excites emitting photon (of same energy) in any direction
E = hc /λ
2.86 eV (2 s.f)
a) A=226, Z=89
b) He4 2
energy = p2 /2m or EK = ½mv2 and p = mv p=3.7 × 10–23 N s
λ = h/p=1.8 × 10–11 m
a) change in energy  change in mass  (speed of light)2 or ΔE
 Δmc2
b) ΔE  9.0  1013 J
c) ΔE  8.2  1014 J
(a) The nucleons within the nucleus are held tightly together by the
strong nuclear force.
(b) binding energy  3.219  1027  (3.0  108)2  2.897  1010 J
binding energy per nucleon 
23
(b) p = mv
p = 1.37 × 10–23 N s/kg m s–1
λ = 4.84 × 10–11 m
24
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
2.897  10 10
 1.233  1012  1.2
235
 1012 J
(a) hf Energy of a photon
k.e.max Kinetic energy of emitted electron/equivalent
φ Energy to release electron from surface / equivalent
λ</ similar to size/spacing
1
1
1
1
2
2
atoms/molecules
(a) Atomic nuclei occupy a very small fraction of the volume of an
atom
(b) Ionize describes the process where radiation knocks electrons out of
atoms turning the atoms into (positive) ion
1
1
1
1
(c) 1) Most of the alpha particles went straight through.
1
2) Some of the alpha particles were deflected/deviated because the
nucleus was positively charged and repelled the positively charged alpha
1
no ecf for
incorrect
mass
particles.
3) A few of the alpha particles were repelled straight back/at large
angles
Because the mass of the atom was concentrated in the nucleus/the
nucleus is very dense (not “large or heavy”).
1
Total:
60