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AAPC Final Exam 2022.pdf

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Home / My courses / 2022CE1.MED.3030W3.52160 / Week 16: 4/25-5/1/22 / Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1
Started on Wednesday, April 27, 2022, 9:05 AM
State Finished
Completed on Wednesday, April 27, 2022, 12:11 PM
Time taken 3 hours 6 mins
Grade 80.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What does CMS-HCC stand for?
Select one:
a. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services – Hospital Correct Coding Initiative
b. County Mandated Services – Heightened Control Center
c. Country Mandated Services – Hospital Correct Coding Initiative
d. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services – Hierarchal Condition Category!
The correct answer is: Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services – Hierarchal Condition Category
Question 2
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Evaluation and management services are often provided in a standard format such as SOAP notes. What does the acronym SOAP
stand for?
Select one:
a. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan!
b. Scope, Observation, Action, Plan
c. Standard, Objective, Activity, Period
d. Source, Opinion, Advice, Provider
The correct answer is: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
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Question 3
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the definition of medical coding?
Select one:
a. Deciphering explanation of benefits provided by an insurance carrier.
b. Translating documentation into software compatible notes.
c. Translating services a provider performs into documentation.
d. Translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement.!
The correct answer is: Translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement.
Question 4
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Which of the following choices is NOT a benefit of an active compliance plan?
Select one:
a. Increases accuracy of provider documentation.
b. Eliminates risk of an audit.!
c. Fewer billing mistakes.
d. Faster, more accurate payment of claims.
The correct answer is: Eliminates risk of an audit.
Question 5
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommended?
Select one:
a. Starting with the procedure listed.
b. Reading the body of the report.
c. Highlighting unfamiliar words.
d. Coding from the header without reading the body of the report.!
The correct answer is: Coding from the header without reading the body of the report.
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Question 6
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What are chemicals which relay, amplify and modulate signals between a neuron and another cell?
Select one:
a. Interneurons
b. Hormones
c. Myelin
d. Neurotransmitters!
The correct answer is: Neurotransmitters
Question 7
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Lacrimal glands are responsible for which of the following?
Select one:
a. Production of mydriatic agents
b. Production of vitreous
c. Production of tears!
d. Production of zonules
The correct answer is: Production of tears
Question 8
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the function of the thyroid gland?
Select one:
a. It secretes hormones regulating body metabolism and blood calcium!
b. It secretes hormones regulating the secretion of insulin and hemoglobin
c. It secretes hormones regulating the immune system and blood calcium
d. It secretes hormones regulating mood and growth hormones
The correct answer is: It secretes hormones regulating body metabolism and blood calcium
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Question 9
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
The word describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity is:
Select one:
a. Hemoptysis
b. Pleural effusion
c. Hemothorax!
d. Hydrothorax
The correct answer is: Hemothorax
Question 10
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
The term for pain in the ear is:
Select one:
a. Otalgia!
b. Neuralgia
c. Arthralgia
d. Myalgia
The correct answer is: Otalgia
Question 11
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What does ICD-10-CM stand for?
Select one:
a. International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision, Clinical Modification!
b. International Class Diagnosis 10th Book, Clinical Medicine
c. Infections Classified Diseases 10th Revision, Clinical Modification
d. International Code Diagnosis-10, Coding Medical
The correct answer is: International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision, Clinical Modification
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Question 12
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
What is the ICD-10-CM code for eyestrain?
Select one:
a. H57.811, H57.812
b. H53.10
c. H57.813 "
d. H53.10, H53.10
The correct answer is: H53.10
Question 13
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the ICD-10-CM code for nausea?
Select one:
a. T75.3XXA
b. R11.11
c. R11.2
d. R11.0!
The correct answer is: R11.0
Question 14
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for primary osteoarthritis in both knees?
Select one:
a. M17.0, M17.0
b. M17.0!
c. M17.4
d. M17.11, M17.12
The correct answer is: M17.0
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Question 15
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What diagnosis codes should be reported for spastic cerebral palsy due to previous illness of meningitis?
Select one:
a. G80.1, G09!
b. G09, G80.1
c. G03.9, G80.1
d. G80.1, G43.909, G03.9
The correct answer is: G80.1, G09
Question 16
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis?
Select one:
a. When it occurs after admission.!
b. The patient has any other condition at the same time.
c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first.
d. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath.
The correct answer is: When it occurs after admission.
Question 17
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient returns to the provider for an injection to relieve low back pain from a car accident. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are
reported?
Select one:
a. G89.21, M54.50
b. M54.50!
c. G89.11, M54.50
d. M54.50, G89.11
The correct answer is: M54.50
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Question 18
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient presents to a clinic with palpitations, weight loss, bulging eyes, and extreme nervousness. The tests ordered come back
positive for Graves™ disease. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. E05.00, R00.2, R63.4, H57.89, R45.0
b. E05.00!
c. R00.2, R63.4, H57.89, R45.0, E05.01
d. E05.01
The correct answer is: E05.00
Question 19
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Mrs. Johnson is here today to receive an intercostal nerve block to mitigate the debilitating pain of her malignancy. Her cancer has
metastasized to her bones in her thoracic spine. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. C79.51, G89.3, C80.1
b. M54.6, C79.51, C80.1
c. G89.3, C79.51, C80.1!
d. C79.51, G89.3, M54.6, C80.1
The correct answer is: G89.3, C79.51, C80.1
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Question 20
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
The patient has a history of unstable angina, hypertension, and chronic systolic heart failure. He is seen in the ED after prolonged
chest pain that was not relieved by medication. Cardiac enzymes are elevated, and EKG shows anterior infarct. A decision was
made to perform a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography. Left heart catheterization was performed in order to perform
a left ventriculogram. He tolerated the procedure well and will be discharged. His final diagnosis is chronic systolic heart failure and
hypertension. The two conditions are unrelated. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. I11.0, I50.22 "
b. I50.22, I10
c. I11.0, I10
d. I11.0
The correct answer is: I50.22, I10
Question 21
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Chapter 15: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium
(O00-O9A), codes in this range have sequencing priority over what codes?
Select one:
a. Codes from all other chapters.!
b. Codes from Chapter 1: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases (A00-B99).
c. Chapter 15 codes do not have sequencing priority over other codes.
d. All codes including Z33.1
The correct answer is: Codes from all other chapters.
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Question 22
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported on the maternal record for a delivery of triplets that are all liveborn at 32 weeks of
pregnancy?
Select one:
a. Z37.9, Z3A.32
b. O30.109, Z37.9, Z3A.00
c. Z37.61, O30.103, Z3A.32
d. O30.103, Z37.51, Z3A.32!
The correct answer is: O30.103, Z37.51, Z3A.32
Question 23
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A pregnant woman in her 40th week has gestational diabetes which is controlled by diet. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. O24.410, Z3A.40!
b. O24.410, O24.913
c. O24.913
d. O24.113, O24.410, Z3A.40
The correct answer is: O24.410, Z3A.40
Question 24
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 47-year-old male was treated in the ED after being involved in a fight at a local pub. The patient sustained two lacerations, one
to the left cheek and one to the left forearm. Abrasions were also on the left cheek. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. S01.412D, S51.812D, Y04.0XXD, Y92.29
b. S01.412A, S51.812A, Y04.0XXA, Y92.29!
c. S01.412A, S51.812A, S00.81XA, Y04.0XXA, Y92.29
d. S01.412D, S51.812D, S00.81XD, Y04.0XXD, Y92.29
The correct answer is: S01.412A, S51.812A, Y04.0XXA, Y92.29
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Question 25
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
A patient is dependent on a respiratory ventilator and has a tracheostomy in need of revision due to redundant scar tissue
formation surrounding the site at the skin of the neck. Under general anesthesia and establishing the airway to maintain
ventilation, the scar tissue is resected and then repair is accomplished using skin flap rotation from the adjacent tissue of the neck.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. J95.09, L90.5, Z43.0, Z99.11 "
b. L90.5, Z43.0
c. J95.09, J39.8, Z43.0
d. J95.09, L90.5, Z99.11
The correct answer is: J95.09, L90.5, Z99.11
Question 26
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the correct CPT® code for a complicated nephrolithotomy on a patient with a congenital kidney abnormality?
Select one:
a. 50075
b. 50065
c. 50060
d. 50070!
The correct answer is: 50070
Question 27
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What type of CPT® code is “modifier 51 exempt†even though there is no modifier 51 exempt symbol next to it?
Select one:
a. Mandated services
b. Add-on codes!
c. Bilateral procedures
d. Surgery codes
The correct answer is: Add-on codes
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Question 28
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What codes are voluntarily reported to payers and provide evidence-based performance-measure data?
Select one:
a. CPT® Category I codes
b. CPT® Category III codes
c. HCPCS Level II codes
d. CPT® Category II codes!
The correct answer is: CPT® Category II codes
Question 29
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient is seen in the physician’s office for a 2,400,000 U injection of Bicillin L-A. What code represents this drug and the
units given?
Select one:
a. J0558 x 24
b. J0561 x 24!
c. J2510 x 4
d. J2540 x 4
The correct answer is: J0561 x 24
Question 30
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the correct anesthesia CPT® code for surgery performed on the frontal lobe of the brain?
Select one:
a. 00216
b. 00218
c. 00210!
d. 00212
The correct answer is: 00210
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Question 31
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Most categories in ICD-10-CM Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning, and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes have three main
7th character extenders (with the exception of fractures). What does 7th character D indicate?
Select one:
a. Initial encounter
b. Subsequent encounter!
c. 7th character extenders are not applicable for injury and poisoning.
d. Sequela
The correct answer is: Subsequent encounter
Question 32
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What CPT® code(s) would best describe treatment of 9 plantar warts removed and 6 flat warts all destroyed with cryosurgery
during the same office visit?
Select one:
a. 17110, 17003
b. 17110
c. 17111!
d. 17110, 17111-52
The correct answer is: 17111
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Question 33
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
A 45-year-old male with a previous biopsy positive for malignant melanoma presents for definitive excision of the lesion. After
induction of general anesthesia, the patient is placed supine on the OR table, the left knee prepped and draped in the usual sterile
fashion. IV antibiotics are given as the patient had previous MRSA infection. The previous excisional biopsy site on the left knee
measured approximately 4 cm and was widely ellipsed with a 1.5 cm margin. The excision was taken down to the underlying
patellar fascia. Hemostasis was achieved via electrocautery. The resulting defect was 11cm x 5cm. Wide advancement flaps were
created inferiorly and superiorly using electrocautery. This allowed skin edges to come together without tension. The wound was
closed using interrupted 2-0 Monocryl and 2 retention sutures were placed using #1 Prolene. Skin was closed with a stapler. What
CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 15738, 11606-51
b. 15758
c. 14301, 11606-51 "
d. 14301
The correct answer is: 14301
Question 34
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 56-year-old pro golfer is having Mohs micrographic surgery for skin cancer on his forehead. The surgeon performs the surgery
with two stages. The first stage includes 4 tissue blocks and the second stage includes 6 tissue blocks. What are the codes for both
stages?
Select one:
a. 17311, 17315
b. 17313, 17314, 17315
c. 17311, 17312, 17315!
d. 17311, 17312
The correct answer is: 17311, 17312, 17315
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Question 35
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Operative Report
Diagnosis: Basal Cell Carcinoma
Procedure: Mohs micrographic excision of skin cancer.
Site: Face left lateral upper canthus eyelid
Pre-operative size: 0.8 cm
Indications for surgery: Area of high recurrence, area of functional and/or cosmetic importance. Discussed procedure including
alternative therapy, expectations, complications, and the possibility of a larger or deeper defect than expected requiring significant
reconstruction. Patient’s questions were answered.
Local anesthesia 1:1 Marcaine and 1% Lidocaine with Epinephrine. Sterile prep and drape.
Stage 1: The clinically apparent lesion was marked out with a small rim of normal appearing tissue and excised down to
subcutaneous fat level with a defect size of 1.2 cm. Hemostasis was obtained and a pressure bandage placed. The tissue was sent
for slide preparation. Review of the slides show clear margins for the site.
Repair: Complex repair.
Repair of Mohs micrographic surgical defect. Wound margins were extensively undermined in order to mobilize tissue for closure.
Hemostasis was achieved. Repair length 3.4 cm. A layered closure was performed. Multiple buried absorbable sutures were placed
to re-oppose deep fat. The epidermis and dermis were re-opposed using monofilament sutures. There were no complications; the
patient tolerated the procedure well. Post-procedure expectations (including discomfort management), wound care and activity
restrictions were reviewed. Written Instructions with urgent contact numbers given, follow-up visit and suture removal in 3-5 days
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 13152, 11642-51, C44.311
b. 13152, 11442-51, C44.311
c. 17311, 13152-51, C44.1191!
d. 17313, 13152-51, C44.1191
The correct answer is: 17311, 13152-51, C44.1191
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Question 36
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What information is required to accurately code osteoarthritis in ICD-10-CM?
Select one:
a. Whether the osteoarthritis is a result of a fracture.
b. Whether the osteoarthritis is related to a neoplasm.
c. Whether the osteoarthritis is primary, secondary, post-traumatic, the site and laterality.!
d. Whether the osteoarthritis is healed or healing.
The correct answer is: Whether the osteoarthritis is primary, secondary, post-traumatic, the site and laterality.
Question 37
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient presented with a right ankle fracture. After induction of general anesthesia, the right leg was elevated and draped in the
usual manner for surgery. A longitudinal incision was made parallel and posterior to the fibula. It was curved anteriorly to its distal
end. The skin flap was developed and retracted anteriorly. The distal fibula fracture was then reduced and held with reduction
forceps. A lag screw was inserted from anterior to posterior across the fracture. A 5-hole 1/3 tubular plate was then applied to the
lateral contours of the fibula with cortical and cancellous bone screws. Final radiographs showed restoration of the fibula. The
wound was irrigated and closed with suture and staples on the skin. Sterile dressing was applied followed by a posterior splint.
What CPT® code is reported?
Select one:
a. 27784-RT
b. 27814-RT
c. 27792-RT!
d. 27823-RT
The correct answer is: 27792-RT
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Question 38
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
The patient fell and fractured his left femoral shaft in three places. The fracture is treated with an ORIF of the left femur with an
intramedullary nail and interlocking screws (peritrochanterically). The orthopedist also places the leg in a plaster splint prior to
leaving the OR. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 27506!
b. 27507, 29505
c. 27245
d. 27513, 29505
The correct answer is: 27506
Question 39
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient is seen in the hospital’s outpatient surgical area with a diagnosis of a displaced fracture of the lateral condyle, right
elbow. An ORIF (open reduction) procedure was performed and included the following techniques: An incision was made in the area
of the lateral epicondyle. This was carried through subcutaneous tissue, and the fracture site was easily exposed. Inspection
revealed the fragment to be rotated in two places about 90 degrees. It was possible to manually reduce this quite easily, and the
manipulation resulted in an almost anatomic reduction. This was fixed with two pins driven across the humerus. The pins were cut
off below skin level. The wound was closed with plain catgut subcutaneously and 5-0 nylon for the skin. Dressings and a long arm
cast were applied. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 24579-RT, S42.451A!
b. 24577-RT, S42.451A
c. 24579-RT, 29065-51-RT, S42.434B
d. 24575-RT, S42.434B
The correct answer is: 24579-RT, S42.451A
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Question 40
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
The patient has a torn medial meniscus. An arthroscope was placed through the anterolateral portal for the diagnostic procedure.
The patellofemoral joint showed grade 2 chondromalacia on the patellar side of the joint only, this was debrided with a 4.0-mm
shaver. The medial compartment was also entered and a complex posterior horn tear of the medial meniscus was noted. It was
probed to define its borders. A meniscectomy was carried out to a stable rim. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 29881, 29877-59
b. 29881
c. 29880 "
d. 29870, 29877-59
The correct answer is: 29881
Question 41
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What CPT® code is reported for a major thoracotomy for post-op hemorrhage following an endoscopic upper lobectomy?
Select one:
a. 32100
b. 32110
c. 32120!
d. 32310
The correct answer is: 32120
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Question 42
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What ICD-10-CM code is reported for pyopneumothorax with fistula?
Select one:
a. J95.811
b. J86.0!
c. J86.9
d. J93.9
The correct answer is: J86.0
Question 43
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 20-year-old patient is seen for 5 transbronchial lung biopsies of 2 separate lobes. One biopsy is taken in one lobe and 4 biopsies
in another lobe. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 31628
b. 31628, 31632 x 4
c. 31629, 31632
d. 31628, 31632!
The correct answer is: 31628, 31632
Question 44
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
How are multiple moderate lacerations of the spleen, initial encounter coded in ICD-10-CM?
Select one:
a. S36.032A
b. S36.039A
c. S36.030A
d. S36.031A "
The correct answer is: S36.032A
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Question 45
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient with laryngeal spasms undergoes therapeutic injection of the vocal cords. Topical anesthesia is administered to the oral
cavity, pharynx and larynx. Using an operating microscope, a direct laryngoscope is inserted into the patient’s mouth. The
interior larynx is examined and the surgeon injects the vocal cords at two sites with glycerin. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes
are reported?
Select one:
a. 31571, J38.5!
b. 31535, J38.5
c. 31570, 69990, J38.5
d. 31571, 69990, J38.5
The correct answer is: 31571, J38.5
Question 46
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
____ is a term standing for enlargement of the heart.
Select one:
a. Cardiorenal
b. Cardiomegaly!
c. Valvuloplasty
d. Angiomegaly
The correct answer is: Cardiomegaly
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Question 47
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Patient is diagnosed with acute systolic heart failure due to hypertension with CKD stage 4. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. I13.0, I50.21, N19
b. I13.0, I50.21, N18.4!
c. I10, I12.9, I50.21, N18.4
d. I11.0, I12.9, I50.21, N18.4,
The correct answer is: I13.0, I50.21, N18.4
Question 48
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What information is required to accurately code PVD with diabetes in ICD-10-CM?
Select one:
a. The state of gangrene.
b. Whether the patient has gangrene.!
c. The side of the body affected.
d. The state of PVD.
The correct answer is: Whether the patient has gangrene.
Question 49
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
In the cardiac suite, an electrophysiologist performs an EP study. With programmed electrical stimulation, the heart is stimulated to
induce arrhythmia. Observed is right atrial and ventricular pacing, recording of the bundle of His, right atrial and ventricular
recording and left atrial and ventricular pacing and recording from the left atrium. What CPT® coding is reported?
Select one:
a. 93620, 93618, 93621
b. 93619, 93621
c. 93600, 93602, 93603, 93610, 93612, 93618, 93621, 93622
d. 93620, 93621, 93622!
The correct answer is: 93620, 93621, 93622
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 50
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
What is the eponym for a pancreatoduodenectomy?
Select one:
a. Kasai procedure
b. Meckel’s procedure "
c. Whipple procedure
d. Hartmann’s procedure
The correct answer is: Whipple procedure
Question 51
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for a 30-year-old obese patient with a BMI of 32.5?
Select one:
a. E66.9, Z68.32!
b. E66.9, Z68.30
c. E66.3, Z68.32
d. E66.01, Z68.35
The correct answer is: E66.9, Z68.32
Question 52
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the correct coding for a physician who performs an UGI radiological evaluation of the esophagus, stomach and first portion
of the duodenum with barium and double-contrast in the hospital GI lab? (Physician is not employed by the hospital)
Select one:
a. 74246-26!
b. 74251
c. 74246
d. 74251-26
The correct answer is: 74246-26
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 53
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Margaret has a cholecystoenterostomy with a Roux-en-Y. Five hours later, she has an enormous amount of pain, abdominal swelling
and a spike in her temperature. She is returned to the OR for an exploratory laparotomy and subsequent removal of a sponge that
remained behind from surgery earlier that day. The area had become inflamed and was demonstrating early signs of peritonitis.
What is the correct coding for the subsequent services on this date of service? (The same surgeon took her back to the OR as the
one who performed the original operation.)
Select one:
a. 49000-58
b. 49000-77
c. 49402-77
d. 49402-78!
The correct answer is: 49402-78
Question 54
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Transurethral resection of a medium-size (3.0 cm) bladder tumor was performed in an outpatient setting. What CPT® code is
reported for this service?
Select one:
a. 52235!
b. 52224
c. 52234
d. 52240
The correct answer is: 52235
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 55
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Patient is status post radical retropubic prostatectomy with erectile dysfunction, presenting for penile implant. An inflatable penile
prosthesis is inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service?
Select one:
a. 54400
b. 54408
c. 54416
d. 54401!
The correct answer is: 54401
Question 56
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Patient is admitted for acute bilateral pyelonephritis. What is the appropriate ICD-10-CM code?
Select one:
a. N11.1
b. N11.8
c. N10!
d. N11.9
The correct answer is: N10
Question 57
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Circumcision with adjacent tissue transfer was performed on a 2-month-old. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?
Select one:
a. 54161-22
b. 14040, 54161-51!
c. 54163
d. 14040
The correct answer is: 14040, 54161-51
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 58
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient presents in her 15th week of pregnancy with cramping, cervix dilated to 2 cm and bulging amniotic sac. The physician
confirms a threatened abortion and decides to manage the patient expectantly with monitoring. What is the ICD-10-CM code?
Select one:
a. O03.6
b. O20.0, Z3A.15!
c. O20.9, Z3A.15
d. O03.4
The correct answer is: O20.0, Z3A.15
Question 59
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
What modifier is appropriate for a separately billable antenatal service during the global OB package period?
Select one:
a. 24 "
b. 25
c. 57
d. No modifier is needed
The correct answer is: No modifier is needed
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 60
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A diabetic woman delivered her child and now returns to obstetrician’s office for follow up. She has had type 1 diabetes
controlled with insulin for most of her life. Her obstetrician will monitor her closely for several weeks to be sure her pregnancy does
not cause her permanent problems. What diagnosis code is used for her visit 2 weeks after her delivery?
Select one:
a. P70.1
b. O24.019, E10.9
c. O24.33
d. O24.03!
The correct answer is: O24.03
Question 61
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 27-year-old woman’s regular obstetrician delivers her twins. The first is delivered vaginally but the second is delivered by
cesarean delivery. Both are delivered without complications. Patient will return in two weeks for a postpartum visit. What is/are the
CPT® code(s) reported for this service?
Select one:
a. 59510, 59409-51!
b. 59400, 59514-51
c. 59510
d. 59400, 59409-51
The correct answer is: 59510, 59409-51
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 62
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What does contralateral mean?
Select one:
a. Contractions occurring on opposite sides of the body.
b. Pertaining to the same side of the body.
c. Lateral contractions.
d. Affecting or originating in the opposite side.!
The correct answer is: Affecting or originating in the opposite side.
Question 63
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient is receiving pain management treatment for chronic cervical pain caused by a motor vehicle accident. What ICD-10-CM
code(s) and sequencing is/are reported?
Select one:
a. M54.2, G89.21
b. G89.21, M54.2!
c. G89.21
d. M54.2
The correct answer is: G89.21, M54.2
Question 64
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient with a neoplasm of the spinal meninges has a programmable pump implanted for chemotherapy administration. What
CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 96522, C41.2
b. 62360, C41.2
c. 62361, C70.1
d. 62362, C70.1!
The correct answer is: 62362, C70.1
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 65
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 36-year-old male suffered back pain after heavy lifting and was found to have bilateral disc herniation. The patient was placed
prone and general anesthesia given. Incision was then made with a 10-blade knife and dissection was carried downward through
the thick adipose tissue to the fascia in a subperiosteal plane. The paraspinous muscles were reflected off L5 and S1. A laminotomy
was drilled with the Midas Tex AMB on the inferior end of L5. The thecal sac was retracted medially. The microscope was brought in,
direct with microdissection there was a massive disk herniation on the right side underneath the nerve root as well as the left. The
disc was incised with an 11-blade knife and was cleaned out with a series of straight and angled curettes and rongeurs. The disc
was intertwined with the posterior longitudinal ligament. The space was cleaned out, the foramina were checked and no further
compression was found on any of the neural elements. What CPT® codes are reported for this procedure?
Select one:
a. 63047-50, 69990
b. 63030-50, 63035-50, 69990
c. 63030-50, 69990!
d. 63005-50, 69990
The correct answer is: 63030-50, 69990
Question 66
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Which option best describes what is being done during strabismus surgery?
Select one:
a. Corrects the muscle misalignment.!
b. Removes the opaque covering on or in the lens.
c. Corrects the condition in which the refractive surfaces of the eye are unequal.
d. A repair of the cornea.
The correct answer is: Corrects the muscle misalignment.
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 67
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient with a cyst like mass on his left external auditory canal was visualized under the microscope and a microcup forceps was
used to obtain a biopsy of tissue along the posterior superior canal wall. What CPT® code is reported?
Select one:
a. 69105-LT!
b. 69145-LT
c. 69140-RT
d. 69100-RT
The correct answer is: 69105-LT
Question 68
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient has heavy skin and muscle (myogenic) that is drooping down and blocking his vision due to myogenic ptosis of the upper
eyelid. The provider performed a bilateral upper blepharoplasty. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is (are) reported?
Select one:
a. H02.31, H02.34
b. H02.423!
c. H02.531, H02.534
d. H02.421, H02.422
The correct answer is: H02.423
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 69
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Repair of right eye retinal detachment with a giant tear is performed for an accidental injury sustained from a baseball
to the eye at fastball practice. Vitrectomy, drainage of subretinal fluid, silicone oil tamponade, and endolaser
photocoagulation are performed to correct the tear. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?Â
Select one:
a. 67113, H33.031, W21.03XA!
b. 67145, H33.001, T15.01XA
c. 67108, H33.051, W50.0XXA
d. 67141, H33.8, W50.0XXA
The correct answer is: 67113, H33.031, W21.03XA
Question 70
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What intraperitoneal organs are found in the lower abdomen?
Select one:
a. Spleen, liver, appendix, stomach, cecum
b. Gallbladder, cecum, spleen, ileum, sigmoid colon
c. Liver, appendix, gallbladder, ileum, sigmoid colon
d. Appendix, cecum, ileum, sigmoid colon!
The correct answer is: Appendix, cecum, ileum, sigmoid colon
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 71
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What time is used to report the start of anesthesia time?
Select one:
a. Surgery start time
b. During the pre-anesthesia assessment
c. Entering the operating room
d. When the anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia!
The correct answer is: When the anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia
Question 72
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
What is the anesthesia code for a cholecystectomy?
Select one:
a. 00790!
b. 00797
c. 00842
d. 00840
The correct answer is: 00790
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 73
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
An 11-month-old patient presented for emergency surgery to repair a severely broken arm after falling from a third story window.
What qualifying circumstance code(s) may be reported in addition to the anesthesia code?
Select one:
a. 99100
b. 99140
c. 99116
d. 99100, 99140!
The correct answer is: 99100, 99140
Question 74
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
An anesthesiologist is medically supervising six cases. What modifier is reported for the CRNA’s medically directed service?
Select one:
a. QZ
b. AD
c. QX!
d. QK
The correct answer is: QX
Question 75
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves?
Select one:
a. Coronal!
b. Sagittal
c. Axial
d. Transverse
The correct answer is: Coronal
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 76
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A 52-year-old female is sent to radiology for a lymphangiography of both arms. The patient has swelling in both arms which is
suspected to be lymphangitis. She also has a history of breast cancer having had a double mastectomy 5 years ago. What CPT®
and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 75801, L03.123, L03.124, Z80.3, Z90.13
b. 75801, M79.89, Z80.3, Z90.13
c. 75803, M79.89, Z85.3, Z90.13!
d. 75803, L03.123, L03.124, Z85.3, Z90.13
The correct answer is: 75803, M79.89, Z85.3, Z90.13
Question 77
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Tomographic axial images (CT or CAT scan) through the abdomen were obtained without administration of intravenous contrast.
This showed a 3 cm diameter mass in the upper pole of the right kidney abutting the liver. Cryoablation of the lesion was
performed utilizing two freezing cycles with good cosmetic results. What CPT® codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 50593, 77022-26
b. 47381, 77012-26
c. 50250, 77013-26!
d. 50250, 76940-26
The correct answer is: 50250, 77013-26
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 78
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A CT study of the lumbar spine (L2–L4) was performed with IV contrast in the hospital outpatient radiology department and the
interpretation of the images is performed by the radiologist. What CPT® code(s) should be reported by the radiologist who is not
an employee of the hospital?
Select one:
a. 72132-26!
b. 72132
c. 72132-26, 72132-TC
d. 72132-TC
The correct answer is: 72132-26
Question 79
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient presents with worries she is at risk for cancer. She asks for tests to verify whether she has cancer. The test comes back
normal. What type of service is this considered?
Select one:
a. Abnormal findings
b. Signs and symptoms
c. Screening services!
d. Cancer
The correct answer is: Screening services
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 80
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A young man is bitten by a dog found to have rabies. Although he shows no symptoms of rabies, testing is done to see if he has
the infection. The tests come back negative. What diagnosis code is used to establish the medical necessity for the service?
Select one:
a. A82.9
b. Z23
c. Z20.3!
d. None of the code choices
The correct answer is: Z20.3
Question 81
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient has a cholecystectomy and a soft tissue lipoma removed during the same operative session. Both specimens were sent to
pathology in separate containers are examined by the pathologist. What CPT® code(s) are reported?
Select one:
a. 88304 x 2!
b. 88304, 88302
c. 88305 x 2
d. 88305, 88304
The correct answer is: 88304 x 2
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 82
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Esther Glass has a primary cancer located in the intra-hepatic biliary tract and had a cholecystectomy and biopsy of the duodenum
done. Two separate specimens (gall bladder, biopsy of duodenum) were sent to the pathologist working at a hospital laboratory.
The technician prepared the slides and the pathologist (self-employed) read them. Select the best code or codes for the
pathologist’s services.
Select one:
a. 88304-26 x2
b. 88305-26 x2
c. 88304, 88305
d. 88304-26, 88305-26!
The correct answer is: 88304-26, 88305-26
Question 83
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A provider admits Mrs. Smith to the hospital. She is there for five days. The provider sees her each day she’s in the hospital.
What subcategory of E/M codes would be used for days two, three and four?
Select one:
a. Subsequent Hospital Care!
b. Subsequent Observation Care
c. Initial Hospital Care
d. Office or Other Outpatient Services; Established patient
The correct answer is: Subsequent Hospital Care
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 84
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
Mr. Flintstone is seen by his oncologist just two days after undergoing extensive testing for a sudden onset of petechiae, night
sweats, swollen glands and weakness. After a brief review of history, Dr. B. Marrow re-examines Mr. Flintstone. The exam is
documented and the medical decision making is of moderate complexity. The oncologist spends an additional 45 minutes discussing
Mr. Flintstone’s new diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, treatment options and prognosis and history review.
What is/are the appropriate procedure code(s) for this visit?
Select one:
a. 99215, 99417!
b. 99253
c. 99215,99354
d. 99204, 99354
The correct answer is: 99215, 99417
Question 85
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A patient is in the hospital after a wedge resection of the left lung due to cancer. He has not been able to keep the lung inflated
without a ventilator. A 45-minute team conference between the general surgeon who performed the surgery, a pulmonologist, an
oncologist and a neurologist is held to discuss the best treatment for the patient. The patient and/or patient’s family is not
present. What CPT® code is reported?
Select one:
a. 99367!
b. 99366
c. 99252
d. 99368
The correct answer is: 99367
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
Final Exam- due Sunday, 5/1: Attempt review
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Question 86
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
ICU - CC:Â Multi-system organ failureÂ
INTERVAL HISTORY: Patient remains intubated and sedated. Overnight events reviewed. Tolerating tube feeds. Systolic
pressures have been running in the low 90s on LEVOPHED. Cultures remain negative. Kidney function has worsened, but patient
remains non-oliguric.
PHYSICAL EXAM: BP 96/60, Pulse 112, Temp 100.8. Lungs have anterior rhonchi. Heart RRR with no MRGs. Abdomen is soft
with positive bowel sounds. Extremities show moderate edema.
LABS: BUN 89, creatinine 2.6, HGB 10.2, WBC 22,000. ABG: 7.34/100/42 on 50% FiO2. CXR shows RLL infiltrate.
IMPRESSIONÂ
Hypoxic respiratory failure
Community acquired pneumonia
Septic shock
Non-oliguric acute renal failure
PLAN: Continue NS at 75 cc/hr. Decrease ZOSYN to 2.25 grams IV Q 6H
Follow cultures. Continue tube feeds. Titrate LEVOPHED to maintain SBP > 90
Usual labs ordered for tomorrow.
Critical care time: 35 minutes
What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 99291, 99292
b. 99233
c. 99232
d. 99291!
The correct answer is: 99291
Question 87
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A cardiologist provided an interpretation and report of an EKG. What CPT® code is reported?
Select one:
a. 93000-52
b. 93272
c. 93010!
d. 93005
The correct answer is: 93010
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 88
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
A 59-year-old male experienced left arm pain while cleaning the garage. There was no injury. His provider scheduled a 30-minute
stress test using the Bruce Protocol at the hospital. There was no arm pain while on the treadmill; he did have a slight heart
rhythm abnormality. The patient rested for 2 minutes. He had no further symptoms or pain. The cardiologist supervised the study,
interpreted the test and dictated a report. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
Select one:
a. 93015
b. 93016, 93018
c. 93018
d. 93015-26 "
The correct answer is: 93016, 93018
Question 89
Incorrect
0.00 points out of 1.00
A 70-year-old patient with chronic obstructive asthma is brought to the urgent care center with increased wheezing and coughing.
The provider initiated an albuterol inhalation treatment, one dose, delivered by nebulizer. After treatment, the patient’s
exacerbation was somewhat improved but the provider determined a second treatment was necessary. What codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 94680, J7609, J45.901
b. 94640, 94640-76, J7609 x 2, J44.1
c. 94644-76, J7609, J45.909
d. 94664, J7609, J44.1 "
The correct answer is: 94640, 94640-76, J7609 x 2, J44.1
5/2/22, 10:10 AM
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Question 90
Correct
1.00 points out of 1.00
A pregnant female is Rh negative and at 28 weeks gestation. The child’s father is Rh positive. The mother is given an injection
of a high-titer Rho (D) immune globulin, 300 mcg, IM. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
Select one:
a. 90384, 96372, O36.0130, Z3A.28!
b. 90386, 90471, P55.0, Z3A.00
c. 90386, 96372, O36.0130, Z3A.28
d. 90384, 90471, P55.0, Z3A.00
The correct answer is: 90384, 96372, O36.0130, Z3A.28
◀ Chapter 20 Review Exam
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