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Part 1
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
Section 1
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
1.To the factors influencing
for balanced growth
bacteria include:
a) oxygen pressure;
b) the content of inorganic ions;
bacteria can be used in the
following ways:
a) the method of silvering according to Morozov;
b) hanging drop method;
c) sowing according to Shukevich;
d) Weinberg's method.
c) partial pressure of carbon dioxide;
6. The main functions of
d) the nature of the
bacterial spores are:
organic compounds present in the reserve.a) provides adhesiveness;
b) protection from adverse
2. Conditions that stimulate
environmental factors;
capsule formation of bacteria,
c) participates in the
are:
transfer of genetic material;
a) the growth of bacteria in the
d) the formation of enzymes.
human or animal body;
b) growth on synthetic media;
7. The following methods
c) cultivation at low temperatures;
are used to identify disputes:
a) Gram method;
b) Ziehl-Neelsen method;
c) Neisser method;
d) Oÿeski method;
e) Burri-Gins method.
d) growth on media containing a
large amount of carbohydrates.
3.Polysaccharide capsule
provides:
a) virulence;
b) resistance to phagocytosis;
c) resistance to antibiotics.
8. The following methods are
used to detect volutin inclusions:
a) Gram method;
b) Ziehl-Neelsen method;
c) Neisser method;
d) Oÿeski method;
e) Burri-Gins method.
9. To identify the cell wall, use
the following
4. Motility of bacteria
provided:
a) rotation of the flagella;
b) fimbria; (drank)
c) contraction of the cell wall;
d) saws.
5. To determine mobility
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methods:
14. The cell wall of bacteria performs
the following functions:
a) transport of substances;
a) Gram method;
b) Ziehl-Neelsen method;
c) Neisser method;
d) Oÿeski method;
e) Burri-Gins method.
b) performs a catalytic function;
c) protects from external
influences;
d) determines the antigenic
structure.
10. The following methods are
used to detect capsules:
a) Gram method;
b) Ziehl-Neelsen method;
c) Neisser method;
d) Oÿeski method;
e) Burri-Gins method.
15. Fimbria carry out
the following features:
a) promoting the attachment of bacteria
to animal cells
11. During sporulation,
dipikaline is synthesized
acid. It can be found:
a) in vegetative cells;
b) in the spore protoplast;
c) in the spore shell;
and man;
b) participation in the
transfer of genetic material;
c) locomotor function.
16. Pili perform the following
functions:
1) provide adhesiveness;
2) participate in the transfer
of genetic material;
3) adsorb bacteriophages.
d) in the nucleoid of the cell.
12.Conditions,
conducive to spore
formation,
are:
a) 1, 2 are correct;
a) lack of nutrients in the
environment;
b) accumulation of metabolic products;
c) accumulation of reserve
substances inside the cells;
d) adding glucose to the
nutrient medium.
b) 2, 3 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 3 are correct.
17. A bacterial cell is
distinguished from a eukaryotic
cell by the following features:
1) the absence of the endoplasmic
reticulum;
2) absence of a nuclear membrane;
3) the presence of a cytoplasmic
membrane;
4) the relationship of enzymes of oxidative
phosphorylation with the plasma
membrane.
13. Pigments of bacteria
perform the following
functions:
a) protection from the action of light;
b) performing a catalytic function;
c) protection from the
action of infrared rays;
a) 1, 2, 4 are correct;
d) determines the antigenic structure.
c) 1, 3, 4 are correct.
b) 2, 3, 4 are correct;
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21. The main structural elements
of the cell wall of gram-positive
bacteria
are:
1) teichoic acids;
2) lipopolysaccharides;
18. The main functions of
the cytoplasmic membrane
are:
1) regulation of transport of
metabolites and ions;
2) the formation of enzymes;
3) the formation of toxins;
4) participation in the synthesis of
cell wall components;
5) participation in spore formation;
6) controlling the metabolism
between the cell and the
environment;
7) control of exchange between
organelles and cytoplasm.
3) proteins;
4) lipids;
5) peptidoglycan.
a) 1.5 is correct;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
c) 4, 5 are correct.
22.For the cell wall
Gram-positive bacteria are
characterized by:
a) the presence of one-, two-layer
murein bag;
b) the presence of a
multilayer murein sac;
c) the presence of teichoic acids;
d) the
presence of mesodiaminopimeline
a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 are correct;
b) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 7 are correct;
d) 1,2,3,4,5 are correct.
19. When spores germinate,
the following physiological
processes occur:
a) the water content increases;
acids.
23. The cell wall of gramnegative bacteria is characterized
by:
a) the presence of one-, two-layer
b) enzymatic processes are activated;
c) energy is activated
and biosynthetic processes;
d) dipicaline accumulates
murein bag;
b) the presence of teichoic acids;
20. The main structural elements
of the cell wall of gram-negative
c) the
presence of
mesodiaminopimelic acid;
d) the presence of a
multilayer murein sac.
bacteria
are:
24. Mandatory external structures
of bacterial
1) teichoic acids;
2) lipopolysaccharides;
3) peptidoglycan;
cells are:
acid.
1) flagella;
2) capsule;
3) cell wall;
4) drank;
5) cytoplasmic membrane.
4) proteins;
5) lipids.
a) 1, 3 are correct;
a) 1.3 is correct;
b) 3.5 is correct;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
c) 4, 5 are correct.
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c) 2.3 is correct;
b) the presence of chromosomes;
d) 4.5 is correct.
c) division by mitosis;
25. Mandatory internal
structures for a bacterial
cell
are:
d) the absence of histones.
depends:
1) cytoplasm;
a) from the development phase;
2) disputes;
b) from a violation
of synchronization between the rate
of cell growth and the rate of cell
division;
30. Number of nucleoids
bacterial cell
3) nucleoid;
4) grains of volute.
a) 1.3 is correct;
c) 1.4 is correct.
c) on the number of extrachromosomal
DNA molecules.
26. Mesosomes of bacteria
31. Carriers of genetic
participate in:
information in bacteria
are:
b) 2.3 is correct;
a) cell division
b) spore formation;
c) synthesis of cell wall material;
a) DNA molecules;
b) RNA molecules;
c) plasmids;
d) transposons.
d) energy metabolism;
e) secretion of substances.
32. To extrachromosomal factors of
bacterial heredity
27. Ribosomes of bacterial
cells are involved in:
relate:
a) protein synthesis;
b) the formation of a polysome;
a) plasmids;
b) transposons;
c) IS sequences;
d) nucleoid.
c) DNA replication.
28. Nucleoid of bacteria
performs the following functions:
33. Plasmids perform the
following functions:
a) regulatory;
b) encoding;
c) synchronizing;
d) transcription.
a) carries out the transport of
substances;
b) performs a catalytic function;
c) protects from external
influences;
d) contains the bacterial genome
34. Recombination is called:
a) changes in the primary
structure of DNA, which
expressed in a hereditarily fixed
change or loss of any trait;
cells.
29. For nucleoid
bacterial cell is
characterized by:
a) absence of a membrane;
b) recovery process
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hereditary material;
material from the donor cell to the
c) the process of transferring the genetic
material of the donor to the recipient
recipient cell by direct contact
cell.
cells.
35. Transformation is:
a) the process of transferring genetic
material from one bacteria to another
with the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic
material in a dissolved state when the
recipient is cultivated on a medium with
donor DNA;
38. Reparations include:
a) changes in the primary
the structure of DNA, which
are expressed in a hereditarily
fixed change or loss of any trait;
b) the process of restoring
hereditary material;
c) the process of transferring the genetic
material of the donor to the recipient
c) the process of transferring genetic
material from a donor cell to a recipient
cell by direct contact
cell.
39. Mutation is:
a) in changes in the primary
structure of DNA, which are
expressed in a hereditarily
fixed change or loss of any trait;
cells.
36. Conjugation is called:
a) the process of transferring genetic
material from one bacteria to another
with the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic
material in a dissolved state when the
recipient is cultivated on a medium with
donor DNA;
b) in the process of restoring
hereditary material;
c) in the process of
transferring the genetic material of
the donor to the recipient cell.
c) the process of transferring genetic
material from a donor cell to a recipient
cell by direct contact
40. Synthesis of enterotoxins
controlled:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
cells.
37. Transduction is:
a) the process of transferring genetic
material from one bacteria to another
with the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic
material in a dissolved state when the
recipient is cultivated on a medium with
donor DNA;
41. Synthesis of genital villi is
controlled by:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
c) the process of transferring genetic
42. Synthesis of bacteriocins
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b) DNA fragments about 1000
base pairs long;
c) ring-shaped
supercoiled DNA molecules
containing 1500-400000
base pairs.
controlled:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
43. Bacterial drug resistance
is determined by:
47.Main components
nucleic acids are:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
a) pentoses;
b) nitrogenous bases;
c) phosphoric acid residue;
d) histones.
44. Is-sequences are:
48. In protein synthesis, the role
of the matrix is performed by:
a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000–20500
base pairs;
b) DNA fragments about 1000
base pairs long;
c) ring-shaped
superspialized DNA molecules
containing 1,500–400,000 base pairs.
a) i-RNA;
b) t-RNA;
c) p-RNA;
d) small RNA.
49. The composition of DNA includes:
1) ribose;
2) deoxyribose;
3) analogues of nitrogenous bases;
4) phosphoric acid residue.
a) 1,2,3 are correct;
45. Transposons are:
b) 2,3,4 are correct;
c) 1,3,4 are correct.
a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000–20500
base pairs;
b) DNA fragments about 1000
base pairs long;
c) ring-shaped
superspialized
DNA molecules
containing 1500–400,000 base
pairs.
50. The composition of RNA includes:
1) ribose;
2) deoxyribose;
3) analogues of nitrogenous bases;
4) phosphoric acid residue.
a) 1,2,3 are correct;
b) 1,3,4 are correct;
c) 2.4 is correct.
51. The gene is discrete and
includes a unit:
46. Plasmids are:
a) mutations;
a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000–20500
base pairs;
b) recombination;
c) functions.
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57. The process of bacterial DNA
replication is characterized by
52. Phenotype is:
a) a set of external features;
b) interaction of genotype and
environment;
c) the manifestation of external signs
organism as a result of the
interaction of the organism with
the following signs:
a) associated with cell division;
b) starts at a single unique site;
c) requires the synthesis of RNA primer;
d) depends on the synthesis of permeases;
e) is determined by IS
sequences.
external environment.
53. The genetic code has a number
of features, the main of which is:
58. Specify RNA-containing
morphological types of
bacteriophages:
a) 1st, 2nd type;
b) 2nd, 3rd type;
c) 3rd, 4th type;
d) 5th, 4th type.
a) degeneracy;
b) non-overlapping;
c) versatility.
54. A bacterial cell is endowed
with virulent
plasmid properties:
59. Of the 5 morphological types, it
includes both RNA- and DNAcontaining phages only:
a) 1st type;
b) 2nd type;
c) 3rd type;
d) 4th type;
e) 5th type.
ÿ) R, Col, Hly;
b) Vir, R, F;
ÿ)Ent, F, Hly;
ÿ) Hly, Ent, Vir.
55. Gene mutations appear as a result
of:
a) fallout of base pairs;
b) insertion of bases;
c) replacement of base pairs;
d) movement of transposons.
60. According to the chemical
structure, bacteriophage virions consist of:
a) from nucleic acids;
56. All bacteria are
characterized by the
following properties:
b) from protein;
c) from carbohydrates;
d) from phospholipids;
e) from fatty acids.
a) they are haploid;
b) their genetic material is
organized into a single chromosome;
61. Productive bacteriophage
infection ends:
a) cell death
b) reproduction of phages without cell
death;
c) have separate DNA fragments plasmids, transposons,
IS sequences;
d) they use the same genetic code as
eukaryotes;
e) their genotypes and phenotypes
are the same.
c) reproduction of phage particles in the
cell;
d) the formation of protein particles.
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62. During lysogeny, the phage is located
in a cell like this:
a) Gracia method;
b) Appelman's method;
a) mature particles;
b) prophage;
c) associated with the DNA of the host cell.
c) the Otto method;
d) Peretz method.
68. In practical work, phages are
used for:
a) prevention of infectious diseases;
63. Virulent phages
correspond to the following
features:
a) do not cause the formation of
phage particles;
b) do not cause cell lysis;
c) are not present in cells as a
prophage;
d) are found in cells as a prophage.
b) therapy of infectious
diseases;
c) diagnosis of infectious diseases;
d) identification of bacterial cultures;
e) typing of bacterial cultures.
64. Phage conversion is
changes in cell properties
69. The taxonomy,
classification and nomenclature of
bacteria are based on the study of:
a) morphology;
b) biochemistry;
c) structure and hybridization of DNA;
d) cell wall structures.
host that are called:
a) prophage;
b) defective phage
particles;
c) virulent phages.
65. Transduction is different
from phage conversion
70. Numerical taxonomy of bacteria
is based on:
a) on the similarity of the totality
of signs of microorganisms;
on the following grounds:
a) transduction is carried out at a
low frequency;
b) the transducing phage is defective;
c) the transducing phage is
normal;
d) bacterial genes are transferred.
b) on the similarity of the
minimum of the most important
features of microorganisms;
c) on the similarity of a wide range
of features;
66. Lysogenization is beneficial:
d) taking into account the similarity of
a) only a microbial cell;
b) only phage particles;
c) microbial cell and
bacteriophage.
the largest possible number of
features of the studied microorganisms.
71. Complex
staining methods are most often
used for staining microorganisms:
67. The following methods are used to
isolate a bacteriophage.
methods:
a) according to Tsil-Nilson;
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material.
b) according to Romanovsky-Giemsa;
c) by Gram;
76. Phase contrast
microscopy is used to study:
d) according to Burri-Gins.
72. The following
dyes are most often used for
staining microorganisms:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained preparations;
a) magenta;
c) during time-lapse microphotography;
b) gentian violet;
c) methylene blue;
d) erythrosine;
e) ink.
73. Fluorescent
microscopy is used in the
study of:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained preparations;
d) in the study
pathological
material.
77. To the main methods
luminescence microscopy used in
medical bacteriology includes:
a) direct fluorochrome;
b) direct
immunofluorescence reaction;
c) indirect immunofluorescence
reaction;
d) determination of
spontaneous fluorescence of colonies.
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study of
pathological material.
74. Electron microscopy is used
in the study of:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained preparations;
78. For the isolation of microorganisms, it is preferable
usenutrient
environments:
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study of
pathological material.
1) simple;
2) complex;
3) elective;
4) enrichment environments.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
75. Darkfield
b) 3, 4 are correct;
microscopy is used in the study of:
c) 1.4 is correct.
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained preparations;
79. To control the quality of
the nutrient medium in
practical laboratories, the
following are more often used:
1) determination of amine nitrogen;
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study
2) determination of pH;
3) titrated inoculation of the control
pathological
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strain;
most often found:
4)determination of oxidizing
a) obligate aerobes;
recovery potential.
b) obligate anaerobes;
a) 1, 2 are correct;
c) facultative anaerobes;
b) 3, 4 are correct;
d) extremely oxygen sensitive.
c) 2, 3 are correct.
80. The most common method of
84. Pathogenic bacteria by
sterilizing culture media is:
cultivation temperature
a) dry heat;
relate:
b) autoclaving;
a) to psychrophiles;
b) to mesophiles;
c) to thermophiles.
c) filtration;
d) boiling.
81. The most commonly
85. Optimum temperature
used method in practical laboratories
m mode for growing psychrophilic
is infection
bacteria is
animals:
I am:
1) intravenous;
a) 6–30°ÿ;
2) oral;
b) 30–40°ÿ;
3) intraperitoneal;
c) 40–50 ° ÿ.
4) subcutaneous;
5) dermal.
86. Optimal
a) 1, 2 are correct;
The temperature regime for growing
b) 3, 4 are correct;
mesophilic bacteria is:
c) 2, 5 is correct.
a) 6–30°ÿ;
82. For cultivation
b) 30–40 °ÿ;
microorganisms most
c) 40–50 ° ÿ.
important is:
1) compliance with temperature
87. Optimum temperature
mode;
2) certain value
The mode for growing
thermophilic bacteria is:
medium pH;
a) 6–30°ÿ;
3) providing a certain
b) 30–40°ÿ;
degree of aeration of the environment;
c) 40–50 ° ÿ.
4) determination of oxidizing
recovery potential
88. The most recognized
environment.
classification of antibiotics
a) 1, 2 are correct;
based on:
b) 3, 4 are correct;
a) on the chemical structure;
c) 2, 4 are correct.
b) on the spectrum of antibacterial action;
83. Among pathogenic bacteria
c) on the mechanism of action;
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93. To determine the
sensitivity
microorganisms to
antibiotics in practical laboratories
are most widely used:
d) side effects.
89. The main groups of
antibiotics include:
a) ÿ-lactam antibiotics;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) polysaccharides;
d) macrolides.
a) method of diffusion in
agars using disks;
b) the method of serial dilutions
in a liquid nutrient medium;
c) the method of serial dilutions
in a dense nutrient medium;
d) accelerated method with blood;
90. The main mechanism of action
of ÿ-lactam antibiotics
comes down to:
a) inhibition of synthesis
e) accelerated method with performance characteristics.
cell walls;
b) to the violation of protein synthesis;
94. To establish a quantitative
characteristic of the degree of
sensitivity of the studied strain
(MZK in units / ml) allows
use at work:
a) agar diffusion method;
b) serial dilution method;
c) accelerated method with blood;
d) accelerated method with TTX.
c) disruption of nucleic
acid synthesis;
d) to dysfunction of the
cytoplasmic membrane.
91. The most common
mechanism of antibiotic
resistance is:
a) breach of permeability
microbial cell;
b) removal of the antibiotic
95. A preliminary assessment
of the sensitivity of microflora by
direct seeding of pathological
material cannot be obtained using
the method:
from the cell;
c) modification of targets;
d) enismatic inactivation
antibiotic.
a) serial dilutions;
b) diffusion into agar;
c) accelerated methods
for determining sensitivity using
chemical and biological oxidation
92. To indicators of
the pharmacokinetics
of antibiotics available for
setting by the micromethod
in the practical laboratory
are:
a) concentrations of antibiotics in
the blood;
recovery indicators.
96. Agar diffusion method
allows you to get the following
assessment of the degree of
sensitivity of the pathogen to
antibiotics:
b) the concentration of antibiotics in
the urine;
c) the concentration of antibiotics
in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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a) quality;
b) semi-quantitative;
c) quantitative.
b) 3, 4 are correct;
c) 4, 5 are correct.
99. The virulence factors of
microorganisms are mainly
are:
97. For a semiquantitative assessment
degree
1) aggressiveness;
sensitivitymicroorganism
2) adhesiveness;
ma
3) the presence of a capsule;
to antibiotics in work it is
necessary to use:
1) standard nutrient media;
2) industrial indicator disks with
antibiotics;
3) a dosed sowing dose of the
microbe;
4) study of the sensitivity of
directly pathological material;
4) toxins;
5) mobility.
a) 1, 3 are correct;
b) 2, 4 are correct;
c) 3, 5 are correct.
100. Side effects of antibiotic
therapy
relate:
a) toxic reactions;
b) dysbiosis;
c) allergic reactions;
d) immunosuppressive effect;
e) meningitis.
101. To the
principles of
rational antibiotic therapy
5) in special cases, the use of discs
prepared in the laboratory.
a) 1,2,3 are correct;
6) 3, 4, 5 are correct;
c) 2,4,5 are correct.
98. To reduce the
time of research and
issuance of a preliminary answer
on the sensitivity of microorganisms
in the range from 3 to 5 hours, the
application of the method allows:
include the following:
a) microbiological principle;
b) genetic principle;
c) clinical principle;
d) epidemic principle;
e) pharmacological principle;
f) pharmaceutical principle.
1) serial dilutions in a liquid nutrient
medium;
2) serial dilutions in solid nutrient
medium;
3) standard diffusion method
102. To inhibitors of bacterial
cell wall synthesis
include the following groups of
antibiotics:
in agar;
4) agar diffusion method
with the use of oxyhemoglobin;
5) agar diffusion method
using TTX.
a) penicillins;
b) cephalosporins;
c) aminoglycosides;
d) polymyxins;
a) 1, 2 are correct;
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e) transduction.
e) rifampicin.
107. To the main tasks
solved within the framework
of microbiological analysis,
103. The inhibitors of the
functions of the cytoplasmic
membrane of bacteria include
the following groups of
antibiotics:
relate:
a) confirmation of the clinical
diagnosis;
b) confirmation
a) penicillins;
b) cephalosporins;
c) aminoglycosides;
d) polymyxins;
e) rifampicin.
epidemiological diagnosis;
c) tracking
epidemiologically dangerous
situations
(work in the surveillance system);
d) clarification of the tactics of
therapeutic measures.
104. Inhibitors of bacterial
protein synthesis include the
following groups of antibiotics:
108.Basic principles
microbiological analysis
are:
a) isolation and identification of
pure culture;
b) microscopy of the test
material;
c) identification of immunological
changes caused by infection;
d) express diagnostics;
e) detection of microbial antigens.
a) penicillins;
b) cephalosporins;
c) aminoglycosides;
d) polymyxins;
e) rifampicin.
105. Inhibitors of
transcription and synthesis
of bacterial nucleic acids include
the following groups of antibiotics:
109. The following
methods are used to create
anaerobic conditions:
a) use of an anaerostat;
b) Fortner's method;
c) the Vignal-Veyon method;
106. When studying the
d) Zeissler method.
genetics of bacteria, the following are used
methods:
110. For cultivation of
a) fine-structured
anaerobic microorganisms use
genetic mapping;
the following
b) complementary
nutrient media:
a) penicillins;
b) cephalosporins;
c) aminoglycosides;
d) polymyxins;
e) rifampicin.
testing;
(a) the Kitta-Tarozzi environment;
c) transformations;
d) meiotic segregation;
b) Chistovich's environment;
c) Wilson-Blair medium;
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d) problems in detecting
auxotrophic (“fastidious”) bacteria;
d) thioglycol medium.
111. Indicate the provisions
that are valid for the cultural
method of microbiological
analysis:
a) is widely used in the
diagnosis of viral infections;
b) the basic method for diagnosing
bacterial infections;
c) is widely used in the
diagnosis of fungal infections;
e) difficulties associated with
the isolation of obligate
anaerobes.
114. K
the virtues of cultural me
Toda can be attributed:
a) the possibility of preserving
isolated strains;
b) absolute sensitivity and specificity;
d) based on the identification of
pure microbial cultures;
e) is based on the identification of
genetic fragments of microorganisms.
c) the ability to determine the
sensitivity of isolates
to antimicrobial drugs;
d) the possibility of conservation
of the material under study;
e) the possibility
of phenotypic/genotypic study of
"new" (previously unknown) bacteria.
112. Cultural method of
microbiological diagnostics
involves:
a) the use of selective nutrient
media;
b) use of differential diagnostic
environments;
c) characterization of individual
(isolated) colonies;
d) study of the phenotype
of enrichment cultures;
e) the possibility of studying the genotype;
e) the possibility of determining
sensitivity to antibiotics.
115. Specify the principle
underlying the rapid diagnosis of
infectious
diseases:
a) determination of the
titer of serum antibodies;
b) detection of qualitative
seroconversion;
c) detection of quantitative
seroconversion;
d) isolation and identification of pure
culture;
e) identification of the pathogen
without isolating a pure culture.
113. Fundamental
shortcomings of cultural
methods are:
a) the duration of the analysis;
b) the impossibility of identifying
"uncultivated"
116. List the methods used in
the express version of
microbiological
microorganisms;
c) the likelihood
of false-negative results against the
background of antimicrobial therapy;
analysis:
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a) microscopy of the test
material;
b) detection of microbial
antigens;
the following ways:
a) inoculation on Hiss media;
b) use of NIBs;
c) use of biochemical
identification panels;
d) use of automated
identification systems.
c) detection of antibodies;
d) detection of genetic
fragments;
e) detection of specific microbial
enzymes and metabolites.
120. Benefits
microbiological analysis based
on express diagnostics are:
117.In a universal way
increase sensitivity and
specificity direct
a) the possibility of identifying
"non-cultivated" and difficultto-cultivate microorganism
microscopy of the material under
study is:
a) polymerase chain reaction
(PCR);
b) immunoblotting;
c) the study of tinctorial
features of bacteria;
d) reactions based on labeled
antibodies;
e) detection of qualitative
seroconversion.
nisms;
b) the possibility of preserving
isolated strains;
c) the speed of obtaining the result;
d) absolute sensitivity and
specificity;
e) the possibility of conservation
of the test material.
121. The provisions
that are valid for the
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
include:
a) detection of microbial antigens;
118. To the most universal
and reliable methods for rapid
diagnosis of infectious diseases
include:
a) direct microscopy
b) detection of antibodies;
the material under study;
c) detection of microbial
genome fragments;
d) the possibility of detecting RNA;
e) possibility of DNA detection.
122. Specify the microbial
markers used in the express
version of the microbiological
analysis:
a) DNA;
b) RNA;
c) antigens;
d) toxins;
b) detection of microbial
antigens;
c) detection of antibodies
to the pathogen;
d) detection of microbial
genome fragments;
e) detection of microbial
enzymes and toxins.
119. For the identification
of microorganisms,
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e) enzymes
f) antibodies.
127. Specify antibiotics,
included in the class
123. Indicate the provisions
that are valid for the polymerase chain
reaction (PCR):
a) a variant of express diagnostics of
infectious diseases;
b) can be useful for identifying
latent
aminoglycosides:
a) polymyxin;
b) streptomycin;
c) gentamicin;
d) tetracycline.
128. List which antibiotics
are
persuasions;
c) based on the detection of
DNA fragments;
d) can be used to detect RNA
viruses;
e) absolute sensitivity and specificity.
for polypeptides:
a) cephalosporins;
b) polymyxin;
c) penicillin;
d) tetracycline.
129. Specify antibiotics,
124. The following ingredients
are required for DNA detection
using polymerase chain reaction:
glycopeptides included in the class:
a) polymyxin;
b) streptomycin;
c) vancomycin;
d) tetracycline.
a) specific primers;
b) deoxyribonucleotide
triphosphate;
c) reverse transcriptase;
d) thermostable DNA
polymerase;
e) reference DNA
(“comparison DNA”).
130. Specify the features
characteristic of penicillins:
a) disrupt the synthesis of the
bacterial cell wall;
b) have a bacteriostatic effect;
c) have a bactericidal effect;
125. List the methods of
obtaining antibiotics:
a) biological synthesis;
b) combined method;
c) biochemical synthesis;
d) chemical synthesis.
126. List which antibiotics
belong to ÿ-lactams:
d) inhibit protein synthesis.
131. Specify the features
characteristic of tetracyclines:
a) disrupt the synthesis of the
bacterial cell wall;
b) are effective against
gram-positive bacteria;
c) are effective against
gram-negative bacteria;
d) inhibit protein synthesis.
a) cephalosporins;
b) polymyxin;
c) penicillin;
d) tetracycline.
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a) beta-lactams;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) tetracyclines;
d) macrolides;
e) lincosamides;
e) rifamycins;
g) polypeptides;
132. Select properties
characteristic of glycopeptides:
a) are effective against
gram-positive bacteria;
b) inhibit the functions of the CPM;
c) disrupt the synthesis of the
bacterial cell wall;
d) are effective against
gram-negative bacteria.
h) chloramphenicol.
137. To antibiotics with
bactericidal action
relate:
133. Specify the signs
characteristic for
a) beta-lactams;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) tetracyclines;
d) macrolides;
e) lincosamides;
e) rifamycins;
g) polypeptides;
aminoglycosides:
a) are effective against
gram-positive bacteria;
b) inhibit protein synthesis;
c) disrupt the synthesis of the
bacterial cell wall;
d) are effective against
gram-negative bacteria.
h) chloramphenicol.
138. Specify the classes
of antibiotics used against
intracellular parasites
(chlamydia, rickettsia, etc.):
134. Select properties
characteristic of macrolides:
a) disrupt the synthesis of the
bacterial cell wall;
b) are effective against
gram-positive bacteria;
c) are effective against
gram-negative bacteria;
d) inhibit protein synthesis.
a) beta-lactams;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) tetracyclines;
d) macrolides;
e) lincosamides;
e) rifamycins;
g) polypeptides;
135. Specify the classes
h) chloramphenicol.
of antibiotics that have a toxic
effect on
139. According to the chemical
structure, etiotropic antiviral drugs
are divided into:
a) abnormal nucleosides
(nucleoside analogues);
b) adamantane derivatives;
c) synthetic peptides;
d) thiosemicarbozone derivatives.
140. By mechanism of action
human cells:
a) tetracyclines;
b) macrolides;
c) polypeptides;
d) polyenes.
136. Antibiotics with
bacteriostatic action
include:
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adamantane derivatives
144. Sulfonamides are classified as:
a) antibiotics;
b) synthetic
antimicrobial
chemotherapy drugs;
c) antiviral drugs.
refer to:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic
acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter
populations.
141. According to the mechanism
of action, abnormal nucleosides
(nucleoside analogues) are classified as:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic
acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
145. Antimicrobial therapy can
lead to the following
complications from the
macroorganism:
a) dysbacteriosis;
b) endotoxic shock;
c) anaphylactic shock;
d) beriberi.
146. The microbiological
principle of rational
antibiotic therapy includes:
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter
populations.
142. By the mechanism of action
a) determination
of antibiotic resistance
synthetic peptides are
etiological
To:
agent
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic
acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
b) pharmacokinetics
of the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of
the patient;
d) resistance of strains of the
given region;
d) inhibitors of the assembly
of daughter populations.
e) the expiration date of the drug.
147. The clinical principle of
143. According to the mechanism
of action, thiosemicarbozone derivatives rational antibiotic therapy
refer to:
includes:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic
acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
a) determination
of antibiotic resistance
etiological
agent
b) pharmacokinetics
of the medicinal product;
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter
populations.
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c) the individual characteristics of the
patient;
etiological
d) resistance of strains of the
b) pharmacokinetics of
the medicinal product;
c) individual characteristics
agent
given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
148. The pharmacological
principle of rational antibiotic
therapy includes:
the patient;
d) resistance of strains of the
given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
a) determination
of antibiotic resistance
150. The pharmaceutical principle of
rational antibiotic therapy includes:
etiological
agent
a) determination
of antibiotic resistance
b) pharmacokinetics of
the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of the
patient;
etiological
agent
d) resistance of strains of the
given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
b) pharmacokinetics of
the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of the
patient;
149. The epidemiological
d) resistance of strains of the
given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
principle of rational antibiotic
therapy includes:
a) determination
of antibiotic resistance
Section 2
ECOLOGY OF MICROORGANISMS
1. A mutually beneficial way for the
b) in drying
from the frozen state;
c) in freezing under vacuum;
d) drying under vacuum.
existence of microorganisms is:
a) commensalism;
b) mutualism;
c) neutralism;
d) parasitism;
e) satellite.
3. The composition of soil microflora
depends on the following factors:
a) type of soil;
b) composition of vegetation;
2. Lyophilization is:
a) drying under vacuum from a frozen
state;
c) ambient temperature;
d) relative humidity;
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biocenosis;
c) the totality of all
microorganisms of a given
biocenosis.
e) pH values.
4. Into the autochthonous
microflora of water includes
the following representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcuscandicans;
ÿ) Pregnancy;
ÿ)Bacillus cereus;
ÿ)Escherichia coli;
ÿ)Bacillus anthracis.
microflora of the water are included
8. Into the autochthonous
air microflora includes the
following representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcuscandicans;
ÿ) Sarcinaflava;
ÿ)Bacillus subtilis;
ÿ)Escherichia coli;
ÿ)Bacillus anthracis.
the following representatives:
9. Compositionallocthonous
ÿ) Micrococcuscandicans;
ÿ) Pregnancy;
ÿ)Bacillus cereus;
ÿ)Escherichia coli;
ÿ)Bacillus anthracis.
air microflora enter
5. Compositionallocthonous
the following representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcuscandicans;
ÿ) Sarcinaflava;
ÿ)Bacillus subtilis;
ÿ)Escherichia coli;
ÿ) Staphylococcus aureus.
6. Relate to autochthonous microflora
10. The goals and objectives of
sanitary bacteriology are:
a) early and rapid indication of
bacterial contamination of
environmental objects;
b) in carrying out measures to
reduce and prevent infectious
diseases;
c) in the use of
sensitive, unified
research methods to obtain
reliable and demonstrative
research results;
tsya:
a) a set of microorganisms that
accidentally got into a given biocenosis
and remain in it for a limited
period of time;
b) a set of microorganisms permanently
living in a given biocenosis;
c) the totality of all
microorganisms of a given
biocenosis.
7. Allochthonous microflora
d) in the study of the microflora
of the environment involved in the
processes of self-purification.
is an:
a) a set of microorganisms that
accidentally got into a given biocenosis
and remain in it for a limited
11. Sanitary indicative
microorganisms must meet the
following mandatory requirements:
period of time;
b) the totality of microorganisms
permanently living in a given
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a) the constancy of detection
in the studied objects of the
environment;
b) sufficient number;
c) should not multiply in the
external environment;
d) the life span should be
significantly less than that of
pathogenic microorganisms.
5) the ability to survive,
surpassing that of pathogenic
bacteria.
12. Evaluation principles
a) characterizes the general
contamination of the object;
a) 1, 3, 2 are correct;
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 are correct;
c) 2, 3, 5 are correct;
d) 1, 4, 5 are correct.
15. Specify the definitions
corresponding to the microbial number:
hygienic condition
environmental objects by
bacteriological
b) characterizes the
presence of sanitaryindicative microorganisms;
c) this is the total number of microbes
contained in a unit volume or mass
of the object under study;
indicators are:
a) in determining the microbial
number;
b) in determining the index
of sanitary indicative
microorganisms;
c) in the choice of tests depending on
the tasks;
d) this is the number of
sanitary indicative microorganisms
contained in a unit volume or mass
of the object under study.
d) in the indication of pathogenicity
of microflora.
16.Indicators
bacterial contamination, which
are used to assess the
epidemiological risk of soils in
settlements, are:
a) Escherichia coli;
b) enterococci;
c) pathogenic enterobacteria;
d) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) enterovirus.
13. Objects of study of
sanitary microbiology
are not:
a) water;
b) soil;
to the air;
d) food products;
e) stools.
14. The main features that
must have
17. To assess the bacterial
contamination of the soil by
sanitary indicative microorganisms
are:
a) BGKP; (bacteria of the
group of Escherichia coli)
b) hemolytic streptococci;
ÿ)C.perfringens;
d) thermophilic bacteria;
sanitary-indicative microorganisms
are:
1) the ability to grow at 20°C;
2) constancy of detection in
the studied substrates;
3) sufficient number;
4) the ability to grow on complex
nutrient media;
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d) staphylococci;
e) nitrifying bacteria.
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) clostridia;
d) thermophilic bacteria;
18. To assess bacterial air pollution,
sanitary indicative microorganisms
are:
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) nitrifying bacteria.
22. Fecal contamination is evidenced
a) BGKP; (bacteria of the group
of Escherichia coli)
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) clostridia;
d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) nitrifying bacteria.
by the presence of:
a) bacteria of the genus Proteus;
ÿ)Streptococcusfaecalis;
c) thermophilic bacteria;
ÿ)Staphylococcusaureus.
23. Putrid decay in the soil is
evidenced by
19. Sanitary-indicative microorganisms
in the study of indoor air are:
Availability:
a) bacteria of the genus Proteus;
ÿ)Streptococcusfaecalis;
c) thermophilic bacteria;
a) green and hemolytic
ÿ)Staphylococcusaureus.
streptococcus;
24. Soil contamination with
decaying waste is evidenced by
the presence of:
b) Staphylococcus aureus;
c) clostridia;
a) bacteria of the genus Proteus;
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
e) enterococci.
ÿ)Streptococcusfaecalis;
c) thermophilic bacteria;
ÿ)Staphylococcusaureus.
20. For the assessment of bacterial
contamination of food products by
25. About the presence of a process
sanitary indicative microorganisms are:
soil self-purification
indicates an increased concentration
a) BGKP;
of the following microorganisms:
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) clostridia;
a) BGKP;
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) clostridia;
d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) nitrifying bacteria.
d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) bacteria of the Proteus group.
21. To assess the bacterial
contamination of household items by
sanitary indicative microorganisms
26. Bacteria of the Escherichia coli
group (BCG)
are:
a) BGKP; (bacteria of the
are characterized by the following
Escherichia coli group)
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properties:
b) by the method of membrane filters;
c) titration method;
d) by aspiration method.
a) unable to ferment
glucose and lactose;
b) lactose is fermented at 37°C to acid
and gas;
c) oxidase-negative;
d) grow only at 20°C.
31. The main methods of
sterilization include:
1) autoclaving;
2) tindalization;
3) boiling;
4) treatment with microbicidal
substances;
5) pasteurization;
6) processing in a drying and
sterilization cabinet (Pasteur
oven).
27. With sanitary and bacteriological
logical study of the soil
determine:
a) total microbial count;
b) coli-titer;
c) perfringens titer;
d) titer of thermophilic bacteria.
a) 1, 2, 6 are correct;
28. During sanitary
virological examination in soil and
waste water, the presence of:
b) 1,3,4 are correct;
c) 3,4,5 are correct;
d) 4,5,6 are correct.
32. The main disinfection
a) respiratory viruses;
b) neurotropic viruses;
c) intestinal viruses;
d) immunodeficiency viruses
methods include:
1) autoclaving;
2) tindalization;
3) boiling;
4) flaming;
5) pasteurization;
6)microbicide treatment
substances.
person.
29. If the titer of water is:
a) the minimum amount of water (ml) in
which CGBs are found; (bacteria of the
Escherichia coli group)
a) 1, 2, 6 are correct;
b) 1,3,4 are correct;
b) the minimum amount of water (ml) in
which E. coli is found;
c) 3,4,5 are correct;
d) 3,5,6 are correct.
33. The quality of drinking water
supplied for consumption from
centralized water supply systems,
c) the minimum amount of water (ml) in
which Enterococcus faecalis is found;
d) the minimum amount of water (ml) in
which bacteria of the genus Proteus
are found.
regulated:
a) GOST 2874-82
"Drinking water";
b) sanitary regulations No.
1226-75;
c) SNiP “Water supply.
30. If-titer and if-index determine:
a) sedimentation method;
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37. Traditional modern methods
of water treatment
External networks and facilities”;
d) SNiP "Internal water
supply and sewerage";
e) GOST 2761-84 "Sources of
centralized domestic drinking water
supply".
allow:
1) improve organoleptic properties;
2) get safe in
toxicologically
34. Indicators that
determine the safety of water
after treatment in terms of the
content of viruses in it are:
water;
3) get epidemiologically safe
water.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 1, 3 are correct;
1) index of Escherichia coli;
2) total microbial count;
3) turbidity.
c) 2.3 is correct.
c) 2.3 is correct.
38. To obtain a
bactericidal and
virucidal effect, optimal
chlorination is carried out:
35. Main factors
a) taking into account chlorine absorption;
self-cleaning of reservoirs
b) with preammonization;
c) free chlorine;
d) double;
e) normal doses.
a) 1, 3 are correct;
b) 1, 2 are correct;
are:
a) antagonism and bacterophagy;
b) the action of ultraviolet;
c) increased water temperature and
pH;
d) the presence of planktonic algae;
e) the presence of organic
substrates.
39. When monitoring the quality of water
in the network, it is necessary to determine:
a) secondary water pollution;
b) compliance of water with GOST;
c) water treatment efficiency.
40. Requirements for the quality
of water in an open reservoir are
imposed:
a) to the point of water use;
36. An open or underground
water source cannot serve as a
source of domestic drinking water
supply if:
a) it is impossible to organize a
sanitary protection zone;
b) the water contains chemicals in
concentrations exceeding the MPC;
b) to the wastewater discharge point;
c) to a point 1 km above the point
of water use;
d) to a point 1 km below the place
of wastewater discharge;
c) household sewage is discharged
into the reservoir upstream from
the water intake
water.
e) all of the above.
41. During the main sanitary
bacteriological examination of
water
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epidemic danger in the reexamination of drinking water:
swimming pools metered
are subject to:
a) BGKP;
b) enterococci;
c) Staphylococcus aureus;
a) if the index is more than 3;
b) if the index is more than 10;
c) if the index is more than 20;
d) if the index is more than 100.
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
e) coagulase-negative
staphylococci.
46. In the study of water from
surface water sources, indicators
of fecal contamination are the
following microorganisms:
42. To bacteriological
indicators to be taken into account
when assessing the quality of
drinking water include:
a) general contamination;
b) coli-index;
c) the presence of fecal
pollution;
ÿ) E.coli;
ÿ) Streptococcus faecalis;
ÿ)Citrobacterfreundii;
ÿ) Staphylococcus aureus.
d) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) enterococci.
47.Most stable
indicator
43. Speed up the time for
microorganisms that
issuing a response on the quality of drinkingcharacterize
water
allows:
anthropogenic pollution of
sea water are:
a) enterococci;
b) vibrins;
c) pseudomonads;
d) aeromonads.
a) fermentation method;
b) membrane filter method;
c) oxidase test;
d) test for proteolytic
activity.
44. Indicate the coli-index
indicating the potential for
the spread of pathogens of
intestinal infections by water during
the study of drinking water
48. Atmospheric air is
characterized by the presence of
the following microorganisms:
a) green and hemolytic streptococci;
b) Staphylococcus aureus;
c) pigment forms;
d) molds;
e) soil spore-bearing
ammonifying and putrefactive bacteria.
centralized water
supply:
a) more than 3;
b) more than 10;
c) more than 100.
49. For sampling of
atmospheric air use:
45. Indicate if the index
indicates
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a) Krotov's apparatus;
54. Objects of research during
b) membrane filtrates;
bacteriological control
c) POV-1;
d) PAB-1;
complex
sanitary and hygienic measures
50. Greatest
in medical and preventive
epidemiological significance
institutions are:
belongs:
a) large droplet phase of
a) air environment;
bacterial aerosol;
b) small droplet phase of
b) various objects of the external
environment;
bacterial aerosol;
c) surgical instruments;
c) the “bacterial dust” phase.
d) suture material;
51. When examining the air for the
e) hands of surgeons and
skin of the operating field.
content of S.aureus:
55. Sanitary
a) for sowing use JSA;
microbiological control of health
facilities includes a survey of personnel
b) identify the
microorganism by the presence of
mobility;
for carriers:
c) identify the microorganism by its ability to
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
ferment mannitol under aerobic and anaerobic
b) hemolytic streptococcus;
conditions;
c) Staphylococcus aureus;
d) BGKP.
d) Kitt-Tarozzi medium is used for
seeding.
56. Planned
bacteriological
52. The main sources of bacterial
and viral contamination of household
examination of microbial
contamination of environmental
items
are:
objects of medical and preventive
institutions
a) water used for wet cleaning;
does not provide
detection:
b) a sick person;
a) staphylococcus;
c) bacteria carrier;
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
d) wild animals;
c) bacteria of the intestinal
daddy group;
d) pets.
53. Sampling from surfaces is carried
d) general microbial
contamination.
out by the method:
a) flush;
b) sedimentation;
57. Bacteriological study of
environmental objects of medical and
c) filtering.
preventive institutions
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according to epidemiological indications
poisoning is divided into:
provides for the identification of:
a) toxic infections;
a) staphylococcus;
b) toxicosis;
b) bacteria of the group of intestinal
daddies;
c) mixes;
d) poisoning unspecified
c) pathogenic bacteria;
etiology.
d) conditionally pathogenic
62. Food poisoning is
microorganisms.
characterized by:
58. Bacteriological control of
a) isolation from the food product
wet, current and final disinfection in
of a certain type of microorganism;
the foci of intestinal infections
b) massive isolation of a
certain type of microorganisms;
carried out by detecting:
a) Escherichia coli;
b) staphylococcus;
c) identification of toxins.
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
63. Staphylococcal food toxicosis
59. Bacteriological control of
is characterized by:
wet, current and final disinfection in
a) accumulation of staphylococcal enterotoxin
the foci of drop infections is carried out by
in the food product;
detecting:
b) the absence
of viable staphylococcus cells
a) Escherichia coli;
in the food product;
b) staphylococcus;
c) massive accumulation of living
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
cells of Staphylococcus aureus in the food
60. Food poisoning
product.
are characterized by:
a) acute sudden onset
diseases;
64. Criteria for the diagnosis of
microbial food poisoning
b) the simultaneity of the disease in a
group of persons;
etiologies are:
c) the relationship of the
of a massive amount
disease with the consumption of a single
a certain type of potentially pathogenic
food product or dish;
microorganisms;
G)
b) isolation of an identical
territorial limitation
microorganism from
diseases at the place of consumption or
pathological
purchase of a food product;
material from victims;
a) release from the food product
c) isolation of identical
e) acute short course of the disease.
microorganisms from the majority of victims;
61. According to the pathogenetic
d) increase in antibody titer
basis, microbial food
in the serum of victims
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suspect microorganisms.
c) neuropsychic stress;
65. Intestinal dysbacteriosis
d) the use of hormones;
called:
e) acute intestinal infections.
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in
Escherichia coli
68. For the complex treatment of
dysbacteriosis, the following drugs
in the intestines;
should be used:
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the
own bacterial microflora of the intestine;
a) probiotic preparations;
b) beta-lactams;
c) corticosteroids;
d) nystatin;
c) quantitative
d) vitamins.
and quality changes
pathogenic microorganisms in the
69. To probiotic preparations
intestine;
relate:
d) qualitative changes in the own
a) bifidumbacterin;
bacterial microflora of the intestine.
b) colibacterin;
c) lactobacterin;
d) nystatin;
66. Intestinal dysbiosis
e) linex.
called:
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in the
70. Indications for
bacterial microflora in the intestine;
bacteriological diagnosis
of intestinal dysbacteriosis are:
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the
own bacterial, viral, fungal intestinal microflora;
a) long-term infections and
disorders in which it is not possible to
isolate pathogenic enterobacteria;
b) a protracted period of
c) quantitative and qualitative
convalescence after an infection;
changes in pathogenic
microorganisms in the intestines;
d) qualitative changes in the own
c) dysfunction of the
gastrointestinal tract after antibiotic therapy;
bacterial microflora of the intestine.
d) cancer patients suffering from
dyspeptic
67. To the most frequent
disorders;
causes of dysbacteriosis include:
e) premature or injured
newborns.
a) the use of antibiotics;
b) surgical operations on the organs
71. In the intestines of practically
of the gastrointestinal tract;
healthy people, the following should
prevail
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microorganisms:
a) the brain
a) anaerobic;
b) aerobic;
c) microaerophilic;
d) facultative anaerobic.
72. Bifidobacteria
predominate in infants
b) half of the mouth;
c) stomach;
d) blood;
e) cerebrospinal fluid.
78. The obligate microflora of
the oral cavity includes the
following types of
microorganisms:
ÿ)Streptococcus mutans;
6) Streptococcus mitis;
ÿ)Bifidobacteriumbifidum;
d) Veilonella parvula; (veilonella)
type:
ÿ) B.bifidum;
6)B.Adolescent
ÿ)B.longum.
73. In older people, bifidobacteria
of the species predominate:
e) E. coli.
ÿ) B.bifidum;
6)B.Adolescent
ÿ)B.longum.
79. The etiological factor of
gastritis and gastric ulcer is:
ÿ) Clostridium.botulinum;
74. When sowing for
ÿ)Helicobacter pylori;
dysbacteriosis, it is better to dilute feces:
) Candida albicans;
a) physiological saline;
ÿ)Staphyloccus aureus.
b) thioglycol buffer;
c) distilled water.
80. Obligatory microflora
the human intestine includes
75. For research on
dysbacteriosis, feces are
delivered to the laboratory
into yourself:
a) bifidobacteria;
b) lactobacilli;
c) streptococci;
d) Klebsiella;
e) E. coli.
during:
a) 1 hour;
b) 3 hours;
c) 1 day.
81. Resident microflora
76. To conclude on the presence
of intestinal dysbacteriosis, the
examination of feces in a patient
is carried out:
the human intestine includes
into yourself:
a) 1 time;
b) 2 times;
c) 3 times.
a) bifidobacteria;
b) lactobacilli;
c) streptococci;
d) Klebsiella;
e) E. coli.
77. Sterile is normal
are:
82. Normal human microflora
has the following
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from the digestive tract of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi to
increase the body's resistance;
meaning:
a) destroys carcinogens in the
intestine;
b) is a factor
nonspecific resistance of the organism;
c) participates in water-salt
metabolism;
c) the state of dynamic balance
of representatives of normal
microflora with each other and with
the human body.
d) has antagonistic
properties against pathogenic flora;
85. To the selective
decontamination:
a) a set of protective factors of
the body and properties
normal intestinal microflora,
which give stability to the microflora
and prevent the colonization of the
mucous membranes by pathogenic
e) participates in colonization
resistance.
83. Colonial
resistance is:
a) a set of protective factors of
the body and properties
normal intestinal microflora,
which give stability to the microflora
and prevent the colonization of the
mucous membranes by pathogenic
microorganisms;
b) selective removal of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi from
the digestive tract to increase the
body's resistance;
microorganisms;
b) selective removal of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi from
the digestive tract to increase the
body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic balance
of representatives of normal
microflora with each other and with
the human body.
c) the state of dynamic balance
of representatives of normal
microflora with each other and with
the human body.
86. To the resident microflora
skin include:
a) epidermal staphylococcus aureus;
b) micrococci;
c) sarcins;
d) diphtheroids;
84. Eubiosis is defined as:
a) a set of protective factors of
the body and properties
normal intestinal microflora,
e) hemolytic streptococci.
87. Transient microflora
skin are:
a) Staphylococcus aureus;
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) non-hemolytic streptococci;
d) epidermal staphylococcus aureus;
e) micrococci.
which give stability to the microflora
and prevent colonization of the
mucous membranes
pathogenic microorganisms;
b) selective removal
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88. To normal microflora
92. List the representatives of
epiphytic microflora:
ÿ) Erwiniaherbicola;
ÿ) Pseudomonas fluorescens;
ÿ) Bacillus antracis;
ÿ) Bacillus megaterium.
relate:
a) bacteria dominating in the studied
samples;
b) saprophytic species;
c) pathogenic species with reduced
virulence;
d) species more or less frequently
isolated from the body of a
healthy person.
89. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the normal
microflora of the human body:
a) bacteria colonize all
organs;
b) there are sterile areas;
93. Objects of
microbiological control
in pharmacies
are:
a) intermediate and finished
products and materials;
b) hands and sanitary clothing
of personnel;
c) air environment;
d) surfaces of premises and
c) the composition of
microbiocenoses is the same in each individual equipment;
d) tap water.
organ;
d) differences in the composition of
94. When sanitary
microbiological
microbial communities are individual.
pharmaceutical research
90. Specify the microorganisms
dominating in distal
equipment and
medicines determine:
parts of the human intestine:
a) species of Bacterioides; (bacteriodes) b)
a) bacteria of the
Enterobacteriaceae family;
ÿ) Staphylococcusaureus;
ÿ) Pseudomonasaeruginosa;
d) yeast;
e) yeast-like and mold fungi.
species of Clostridium;
c) Streptococcus species;
d) species of Lactobacillus;
e) Enterobacter species.
91. Specify the microorganisms
that are part of the normal human
microflora and can cause diseases:
95. Air intake of pharmacies
during sanitary and microbiological
examination is carried out in:
a) service hall;
b) aseptic block;
c) a dining room;
d) sterilization.
a) pathogenic species;
b) saprophytes;
c) none;
d) any.
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c) 150;
96. The following drugs
must be sterile:
d) 200.
a) solutions for injections;
b) oral solutions;
c) eye drops;
d) tablets.
99. Phytopathogenic
microorganisms include the
following species:
ÿ) Erwiniaamylovora;
ÿ) Escherichiacoli;
97. Sources of microbial
drug contamination can be:
ÿ) Pseudomonas syringae;
d) Xanthomonascampestris.
a) staff;
b) laboratory glassware;
to the air;
100. Bacterioses include the
following pathological
processes:
a) necrosis of plant tissues;
b) development of tumors on plants;
c) the occurrence of rot
different localization;
d) plant wilt.
d) medicinal raw materials.
98. TMC for topical medicinal
products should not exceed:
a) 50;
b) 100;
Section 3
INFECTIOUS IMMUNOLOGY
1. To the stages of
development of the infectious process
characteristic clinical
symptoms.
relate:
3. Abortive forms
infectious process are
characterized by:
a) very severe course;
b) absence of clinical
symptoms;
c) sudden spontaneous cessation
of the infectious process;
a) cyclical period;
b) incubation period;
c) the period of convalescence;
d) prodromal period;
e) the period of development of the disease.
2. Inapparant forms
infectious process are
characterized by:
a) very severe course;
b) the absence of clinical
symptoms;
c) sudden spontaneous
termination of the infectious
process;
d) rapid development
d) the rapid
development of characteristic clinical
symptoms.
4. Manifest forms
infectious process
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d) are representatives
normal microflora of the human
body;
e) lack of nosological specificity.
are characterized by:
a) very severe course;
b) absence of clinical symptoms;
c) sudden spontaneous cessation
of the infectious process;
8. Pathogenicity factors
causing adhesion and
colonization include:
a) plasma coagulase;
b) capsule;
c) hyaluronidase;
d) fibrinolysin;
e) adhesins.
d) the rapid development of characteristic
clinical symptoms.
5. Specify properties,
characteristic of mixed
infections:
a) occur against the
background of an existing disease;
b) are formed from the primary
focus that has undergone
9. Pathogenicity factors that
determine invasiveness and
aggressiveness include:
a) plasma coagulase (aggression)
b) capsule; (aggression)
c) hyaluronidase;
d) fibrinolysin;
e) adhesins.
inadequate treatment;
c) characterized by antagonism
between pathogens;
d) characterized by synergistic
action of pathogens;
e) is characterized by an extended
incubation period;
e) none of the above
definitions.
10. To pathogenicity factors
that determine antiphagocytic
activities include:
a) plasma coagulase;
b) capsule;
c) hyaluronidase;
d) fibrinolysin;
e) adhesins.
6. Pathogenic microorganisms
have the following properties:
a) the presence of pathogenicity factors;
b) nosological specificity;
c) organotropic;
d) are representatives of the
normal microflora of the human
body;
e) lack of nosological specificity.
11. Bacterial exotoxins are
characterized by the following
properties:
1) are proteins;
2) thermolabile;
3) are proteinpolysaccharide complexes;
7. Conditionally
pathogenic microorganisms
have the following properties:
a) the presence of pathogenicity factors;
b) nosological specificity;
c) organotropic;
4) thermostable;
5) active antigens;
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formalin, devoid of its toxic
properties, but retaining antigenic
properties.
6) can pass into toxoid.
a) 1,2,3,4 are correct;
b) 1,2,5, 6 are correct;
c) 2.3, 4.5 are correct;
d) 3,4,5,6 are correct.
15. An antitoxin is:
a) an antibody formed in response
to an introduction into the body
12. Bacterial endotoxins are
characterized by the following
properties:
human exotoxin
and neutralizing it;
b) exotoxin, after treatment with
formalin, devoid of its toxic properties,
but retaining antigenic properties;
1) are proteins;
2) are released during cell death;
3) are proteinpolysaccharide complexes;
4) thermostable;
5) weak antigens;
6) can pass into toxoid.
c) endotoxin, after treatment with
formalin, deprived of its toxic
properties, but retained antigenic
properties.
a) 1,2,3,4 are correct;
b) 1,2,5,6 are correct;
c) 2,3,4,5 are correct;
d) 3,4,5,6 are correct.
16. Toxigenicity includes:
13. By mechanism of action
exotoxins are divided
a) the property of bacteria to release
endotoxins into the environment when
they are destroyed;
b) the ability of bacteria to
form protein exotoxins;
to the following groups:
a) cytotoxins;
b) adhesins;
c) membranotoxins;
d) exofoliatins;
e) functional blockers. (proteases)
c) the ability of exotoxins to pass
into toxoid when treated with
formalin.
14. Anatoxin is:
17. Toxicity includes:
a) an antibody formed in response
to an introduction into the body
a) the property of toxins to cause
pathological changes;
b) the ability of bacteria to
form protein exotoxins;
human exotoxin
and neutralizing it;
b) exotoxin, after treatment with
formalin, deprived of its toxic
properties, but retaining antigenic
properties; (antigens) c) endotoxin,
after treatment
c) the ability of exotoxins to pass
into toxoid when treated with
formalin.
18. Bacteremia is understood as:
a) the process of occurrence
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secondary distant foci in the internal
b) a process in which the presence of
organs;
microorganisms is observed in the blood and
b) a process in which the presence of
lymph;
microorganisms is observed in the blood and
c) a process in which the presence and
lymph;
reproduction of microorganisms is observed
c) a process in which the presence and
in the blood and lymph;
reproduction of microorganisms is observed
d) a process in which the
presence of toxins in
in the blood and lymph;
d) a process in which the
presence of toxins in the blood is observed.
blood.
22. Cellular factors of nonspecific
defense of the body include:
19. Under septicopyemia
understand:
a) mast cells;
a) the process of occurrence of
b) leukocytes;
secondary distant foci in the internal
c) macrophages;
organs;
d) natural killer cells;
b) a process in which the presence of
e) lymphocytes.
microorganisms is observed in the blood and
lymph;
23. The following are true for the
c) a process in which the presence and
complement system.
reproduction of microorganisms is observed
provisions:
in the blood and lymph;
a) it is a group of blood serum proteins
d) a process in which the
presence of toxins in
that take
participation in nonspecific
blood.
defense reactions;
b) complement proteins are globulins or
20. Sepsis is:
glycoproteins;
a) the process of occurrence of
c) complement proteins are
secondary distant foci
produced by macrophages, leukocytes,
in the internal organs;
hepatocytes and
b) a process in which the presence of
constitute
microorganisms is observed in the blood and
5–10% of all blood proteins;
lymph;
d) the complement system is
c) a process in which the presence and
represented by 20–26 blood serum
reproduction of microorganisms is observed
proteins that circulate in the form of
in the blood and lymph;
separate fractions.
d) a process in which the
presence of toxins in
blood.
24. There are following ways to
activate the system
21. Toxinemia is:
a) the process of occurrence of
complement:
secondary distant foci in the internal
a) classic
organs;
b) pectin;
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c) alternative;
27. Lectin activation pathway
d) lectin.
complement meet
the following properties:
25. An alternative way
a) can be activated by
complement activation
polysaccharides,
meet the following properties:
lipopolysaccharides of bacteria, viruses
a) the complement system can be
and other antigens without the participation
activated by antigens
of antibodies;
without the participation of antibodies;
b) due to the presence of a mannan-
b) the initiator of the process is the C3b
binding agent in the blood
component, which binds to the surface
lectin (MSL);
molecules of microorganisms;
c) mannan-binding lectin is able to bind
residues
c) is launched and proceeds with
mannose on the surface
microbial cells, which leads to the
activation of the protease, which
cleaves the C2 and C4 components;
the participation of the antigen-complex
antibody;
d) the process ends with
membrane perforation and lysis
d) the process ends with
of microbial cells;
membrane perforation and lysis
e) this activation pathway takes place
of microbial cells;
in the early stages
e) the process of activation of the
protease, which cleaves the
components C2 and C4, starts the
process of formation of the lysing
infectious process.
26. Classic way
complement activation
complex membrane.
meet
the following properties:
28. For antigens of the main
a) starts and proceeds with the
system complex
participation of the antigen–
Histocompatibility is characterized by the
antibody;
following features:
b) the process ends with
a) MHC antigens are unique for each
membrane perforation and lysis of microbial
organism and determine its biological identity;
cells;
c) can be activated by antigens
without the participation of antibodies;
b) according to the chemical
d) due to the presence of a mannan-
structure and functional purpose, the MHC
binding agent in the blood
is divided into two classes;
lectin (MSL);
c) MHC is the same for all warm-
e) the initiator of the process is the C3b
blooded organisms;
component, which binds to the surface
d) MHC class I antigens are
molecules of microorganisms.
located on the surface of all nucleated
cells;
e) by chemical structure
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and the functional purpose of the MHC is
and secretory forms;
divided into four classes;
c) does not pass through the placental
barrier.;
f) MHC class II antigens are located
d) exists in the form of a monomer, with 2
antigen-binding
on the membrane of
centers and in polymer form in
form
immunocompetent cells.
di- or trimer;
29. For class G immunoglobulin, the
e) prevents the adhesion of microbes
following are true
on epithelial cells and
provisions:
generalization of infection within
the mucous membranes;
a) is a monomer, has 2 antigen-binding
centers;
f) phylogenetically - the most ancient
b) easily passes through the
immunoglobulin.
placental barrier;
c) provides neutralization, opsonization
32. For class E immunoglobulin, the
and labeling of the antigen;
following are true
provisions:
d) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-
a) it is a monomer that has 2 antigen-
binding centers;
binding centers;
e) exists in serum and secretory forms;
b) content in blood serum about 0.00025 g/l;
e) it is the largest molecule of all Ig.
c) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigenbinding centers;
d) has a pronounced cytophilicity
30. For class M immunoglobulin, the
- tropism for mast cells and basophils;
following are true
provisions:
e) participates in the
development of hypersensitivity
a) it is the largest molecule of all Ig;
immediate
b) it is a pentamer, which has
10 antigen-binding centers;
type - type I reaction;
f) detection requires the use
of highly sensitive diagnostic
methods.
c) it accounts for about 5–
10% of all serum Ig;
d) phylogenetically - the most ancient
immunoglobulin;
33. Class D immunoglobulin is
e) does not pass through the placenta.
characterized by the following
31. Class A immunoglobulin is characterized
signs:
by the following features:
a) does not pass through the placental
barrier;
a) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-
b) has a molecular weight of 160 kDa;
binding centers;
c) is a monomer;
b) exists in the serum
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d) also called reagin;
e) is a receptor for Blymphoid precursors;
f) has a pronounced
cytophilicity-tropism
to mast cells and basophils.
repeated exposure to the allergen;
d) hypersensitivity of this type can
be transmitted to an intact organism
only by introducing a suspension of
sensitized donor lymphocytes;
e) reactions appear 20–30
minutes after a second encounter
with the allergen.
34. Allergens can be:
a) animal sera;
b) food products;
37. In a primary
immune response, the first
c) poisons of bees, wasps;
d) hormones;
e) enzyme preparations;
f) latex;
g) antibiotics.
appear:
ÿ) IgA;
b) IgM;
c) IgE;
ÿ)IgG;
ÿ)IgD.
35. For immediate
type hypersensitivity
reactions (ITH) the following
are true
38. In primary immune
answer:
provisions:
a) only Ig M are produced;
b) only IgG are produced;
c) Ig M are produced first,
and then IgG.
a) these are T-dependent allergies;
b) their development is due to
the production of antibodies of
different classes;
c) the pathological process
develops 24–48 hours after
repeated exposure to the allergen;
39. According to the clonal
d) these are B-dependent allergies;
inhibition of the corresponding
selection theory of F. Burnet
To
e) the pathological process
manifests itself 20-30 minutes
after the second encounter with
the allergen.
about a clone of lymphocytes leads to:
a) contact with an extremely high dose
of the corresponding antigen;
b) contact with an abnormally low
amount of the corresponding
antigen;
c) genetic
predisposition.
36. For delayedtype hypersensitivity
reactions (DTH)
the following
signs:
40. In the laboratory, artificially
obtained polypeptides with
molecular weights:
A - 50, B - 500,000, C - 5,000,000.
Of these substances:
a) all are antigens;
a) these are T-dependent allergies;
b) due to the presence of Tlymphocytes in the body;
c) the pathological process
develops 24–48 hours after
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b) none is an antigen;
c) only substance C is an
antigen;
d) only substance A is not an
antigen.
macrophages;
d) humoral factors of bone
brain.
41. Indicate which of the following
characteristics best determine the
properties of haptens:
45. In the three-cell system of
cooperation of the immune
response are involved:
a) T-lymphocytes;
b) B-lymphocytes;
a) are immunogenic and react with antibodies;
c) macrophages;
b) are immunogenic and do not react
with AT;
d) undifferentiated cells
and neutrophils.
c) react with antibodies, but
are not immunogenic;
46. The main features,
d) do not react with AT and
characterizing antigens.
are:
are non-immunogenic;
a) foreignness;
b) antigenicity;
c) immunogenicity;
d) specificity.
e) chemically complex
macromolecular structures.
42. Non-specific factors of body
protection include:
(a) complement system and phagocytosis;
b) antitelogenesis;
c) interferon;
d) bactericidal substances
tissues, hydrolytic enzymes;
d) lysozyme, NK and K cells.
47. Primary immune response
after antigen injection
develops:
a) in 1-2 days;
b) in 3–4 days;
c) in 5–6 days;
d) in 7–10 days;
e) in 10-12 days.
43. Immunocompetent
cells include:
48. Phenomena of specific
interaction of serum
a) T-lymphocytes;
b) B-lymphocytes;
antibodies antigens are:
c) macrophages;
a) agglutination;
b) precipitation;
c) lysis;
d) cytotoxicity.
d) NK cells.
44. Humoral regulation of the
immune response is carried out by:
a) humoral factors of the
thymus gland;
b) factors that enhance and
suppress the functional activity of
cells;
c) humoral factors
49. Antigenic specificity of a
bacterial cell
determine:
1) complete antibodies;
2) haptens;
3) semi-haptens;
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4) heterogeneous antibodies;
antimicrobial resistance
includes:
a) lysozyme;
b) interferon;
c) the properdin system;
d) the function of natural killers.
5) species antigens;
6) typical antigens.
a) 2, 5, 6 are correct;
b) 1, 3, 4 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 3 are correct.
50. Interferons violate:
a) adsorption of the virus;
b) the penetration of the virus;
c) virus deproteinization;
d) processes of transcription
and translation of viral RNA;
55. The excretory
mechanisms of antimicrobial
resistance include:
a) excretory function of the kidneys;
b) cough;
c) phagocytosis;
d) sneezing.
e) assembly of virions;
e) release of virions from the cell.
56. In the process of
51. Specific factors of body protection
include:
a) antibody formation;
b) hypersensitivity
phagocytosis, the following stations are distinguished:
a) recognition;
b) taxis;
c) adhesion;
d) intracellular digestion.
immediate type;
c) immunological memory;
d) immunological protection
provided by complement, interferon,
some blood proteins.
57. Completed phagocytosis
ends:
a) intracellular digestion;
b) absorption;
c) killing.
52. Lymphokines are:
a) factors that determine the mobility
of lymphocytes;
b) immune response mediators
produced by lymphocytes;
c) substances produced by
bacteria and killing lymphocytes.
58. Antigens are:
a) substances or bodies bearing
signs of alien
genetic information;
b) all substances of the body;
c) high molecular weight
connections.
53. Tissue mechanisms of
antimicrobial resistance include:
59. To the main properties
antigens include:
a) barrier function of the skin
and mucous membranes;
b) complement system;
c) inflammation;
d) phagocytosis.
54. To humoral mechanisms
a) the ability to induce the
development of an immune response;
b) the ability to penetrate into
the interstitial fluid;
c) the ability to join
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in interaction with products of the immune
65. On the basis of specificity
response,
antigens secrete:
induced by a similar
a) species-specific;
antigen.
b) variant-specific;
c) fimbrial;
60. Hapten is called:
d) group-specific.
a) an antigen that does not
have the ability to induce the
development of an immune
response, but is able to interact
with the products of the immune
66. Cross-reacting
antigens are called:
a) antigens common to bacteria, human
tissues and organs;
answer;
b) antigens that cause a full-
b) different antigens within the
same species;
fledged immune response;
c) any antigens.
c) inorganic compounds.
67. Antibodies are called:
61. An antigen molecule consists of the
a) serum proteins formed in
following functional parts:
response to the introduction (hit) of the
antigen;
a) determinant group;
b) all whey proteins;
b) domain;
c) proteins of the complement system.
c) carrier.
68. Basic properties
antibodies are:
62. By chemical nature, an antigen
can be:
a) specificity;
a) proteins;
b) heterogeneity;
b) inorganic substances;
c) foreignness.
c) polysaccharides;
69. List the main classes of
d) nucleic acids.
immunoglobulins:
63. From the point of view of an
a) Ig A;
immunologist, a microbial cell is:
ÿ) Ig G;
a) an antibody;
ÿ) Ig C;
b) a complex of antigens;
d) IgM;
e) Ig B.
c) a macroorganism.
64. By features
70. The role of immunoglobulins
localization in the cell antigens are:
consists in:
a) implementation of the cellular type
a) group-specific;
of the immune response;
b) somatic;
c) superficial;
b) implementation of the humoral type
of immune response;
d) cross-reactive;
c) implementation of nonspecific resistance
e) flagella.
factors.
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71. Immunoglobulin molecule
globulin;
c) Fab fragments.
76. With the determinant group of the
antigen, they are capable of
consists of:
a) light chains;
b) polysaccharides;
c) heavy chains.
interact with the following fragments
of immunoglobulin G:
72. Heavy chains of
a) heavy chains;
immunoglobulins can
b) light chains;
relate
c) Fc fragment;
to the following classes:
d) Fab fragment.
a) gamma
b) my;
77. By specificity,
c) omega;
immunoglobulins are divided into:
d) alpha;
e) epsilon;
e) delta.
a) group-specific;
b) species-specific;
c) cross-reactive;
d) normal;
73. List the signs,
which differ immunoglobulins
of different classes, but the
same specificity:
e) variant-specific.
78. By origin,
immunoglobulins are divided into:
a) cross-reactive;
a) the structure of heavy chains;
b) the structure of the active center;
b) normal;
c) post-infectious;
c) H and L variable regions
d) post-vaccination;
chains of an immunoglobulin molecule.
e) infectious.
74. List the signs by which
immunoglobulins of the same
class, but with different specificity,
differ:
79. Complete antibodies
are considered:
a) antibodies having at least
two active centers;
a) the structure of heavy chains;
b) the structure of the active center;
c) constant regions of the H and
L chains of the immunoglobulin
molecule.
b) antibodies having one active
center;
c) antibodies produced by one
clone of plasma cells.
80. Monoclonal
75. The active center of antibodies
is represented by:
a) constant sections H and L
antibodies are called:
a) antibodies having at least
chains of an immunoglobulin molecule;
two active centers;
b) variable regions H and L
chains of the immuno molecule
b) antibodies having one active
center;
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a) for cell identification;
85. Peripheral organs of the
immune system include:
a) thymus;
b) lymph nodes;
c) spleen;
b) for the implementation of modern
d) blood.
c) antibodies produced by one
clone of plasma cells.
81. Monoclonal antibodies are used:
antibody detection methods
and antigens;
86. The main cells of the
c) to determine the localization of
antigens in the body and deliver
medicinal substances to them;
immune system are:
a) phagocytes;
d) for the preparation
of immunosorbents, which make
it possible to isolate or remove
antigens or cells of a given
specificity from the body.
c) lymphocytes.
b) macrophages;
87. T-lymphocytes are formed:
a) in the thymus;
b) in the spleen;
c) in the lymph nodes.
82. The immune response can be
of the following types:
88. Agglutination reaction
called:
a) antibacterial;
b) antitoxic;
c) antiallergic;
d) antiviral;
e) antiprotozoal;
e) antifungal.
a) reaction using erythrocyte
diagnosticums;
b) specific gluing and precipitation
of corpuscular antigens under the
action of antibodies
in the presence of an electrolyte;
83. Sterile immunity
c) dissolution of the cellular
antigen under the action of
is an:
a) immunity that persists in the
absence of the microorganism;
antibodies in the presence of
complement.
b) immunity that exists only in the
presence of a pathogen in the body;
89. Agglutination reactions
c) immunity due to
relate:
antibodies.
a) indirect Coombs reaction;
b) flocculation reaction;
c) enzyme immunoassay;
d) Vidal's reaction;
e) Ascoli reaction.
84. The central organs of the
immune system include:
a) red bone marrow;
b) lymph nodes;
c) thymus;
d) spleen;
d) blood.
90. Precipitation reactions
relate:
a) indirect Coombs reaction;
b) flocculation reaction;
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serological research
methods include:
1) precipitation reaction;
2) reactions of diffuse
precipitation in the gel;
3) agglutination reaction;
4) passive
hemagglutination reaction;
5) enzyme immunoassay;
6) binding reaction
c) enzyme immunoassay;
d) Vidal's reaction;
e) Ascoli reaction.
91. Immunoblotting is:
a) a highly sensitive method for
diagnosing infectious diseases;
b) a method based on a combination of
electrophoresis and ELISA;
c) a method based on a combination of
double immunodiffusion and RIF;
d) a method based on a combination of
electrophoresis and RIA;
e) diagnostic method for HIV
infection.
complement.
a) 1.2 is correct;
b) 4.6 is correct;
c) 3.5 is correct.
95. Specify the analytical
technique most widely used to
detect microbial antigens in the
test material:
92. Indirect (passive)
hemagglutination reaction
called:
a) reaction using erythrocyte
diagnosticums;
b) specific bonding and
precipitation of corpuscular
antigens under the action of antibodies
in the presence of an electrolyte;
a) immunoelectrophoresis;
b) reaction of indirect
hemagglutination;
c) enzyme immunoassay;
d) immunofluorescence;
e) polymerase chain reaction (PCR);
c) precipitation of the antigen from solution
under the action of antibodies in the
presence of an electrolyte.
e) complement fixation
reaction;
g) immunoblotting.
93. Precipitation reaction
is an:
a) specific bonding and
precipitation of corpuscular
antigens under the action of antibodies
in the presence of an electrolyte;
96. The basis
of immunoserological
diagnostics
infectious diseases
b) precipitation of the antigen from solution
under the action of antibodies in the
is an
following principle:
a) detection of bacteremia
(viremia);
b) detection of antigenemia;
c) detection of circulating fragments
of the microbial genome;
presence of an electrolyte;
c) reaction using erythrocyte
diagnosticums.
94. To the most widely
used in bacteriology
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to microbial antigens.
d) identification of specific (immune)
changes associated with infection;
100. The study of qualitative
immunoconversion is based on the
following parameters of the immune
response to microbial
e) identification
of non-specific reactions
associated with infection.
97. Specify the indicators used
in the immunoserodiagnosis
of infectious
antigens:
a) single titer determination
antibodies;
b) dynamic study of antibody titers;
diseases:
c) isotopic characteristics of antibodies
(in the dynamics of the disease);
d) idiotypic characteristics of antibodies
(in the dynamics of the disease);
e) dynamic study of the spectrum
a) fragments of genomic molecules;
b) antigens;
c) antibodies;
d) cytokines;
e) cultural properties of bacteria.
antibodies.
98. List the provisions that are
fair for immunoserological
diagnostics
101. Serodiagnosis
called:
a) a method for recognizing
diseases in humans, animals and plants,
infectious diseases:
a) retrospective;
b) absolute sensitivity and specificity;
based on the ability of blood serum
antibodies to specifically react with the
corresponding antigens;
c) analysis of blood serum;
d) the need to isolate microbial
cultures;
e) obligatory use of immunochemical
methods
b) a method for recognizing
human diseases based on
on the principle of complementarity
of DNA;
c) a method for recognizing
human diseases based on the body's
analysis.
99. Indicate the immunological
parameters used in
immunoserodiagnostics
infectious diseases:
a) determination of antibody titer;
b) detection of qualitative
seroconversion;
c) identification of quantitative
seroconversion;
d) detection of microbial
antigens;
e) statement of allergy
ability to produce HRT;
d) a method for recognizing
human diseases based on
on
the ability of antibodies and antigens to
diffuse into the agar.
102. The laboratory assistant forgot to
warm up the patient's serum before
setting up the RSC. Therefore:
a) the reaction will be
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false positive;
b) the reaction will
be false negative;
c) agglutination of erythrocytes will be
observed.
c) drugs that contain killed pathogens.
107. The intensity of the immune
response is determined by:
a) the strength of the antigen;
103. To agglutination reactions
b) the impact of environmental factors;
relate:
a) coagglutination reactions;
b) RTGA;
c) immunoelectrophoresis;
d) Coombs reaction.
c) the genetic characteristics of the
responding organism;
d) the primary or secondary
nature of the immune response.
108. Phases of formation of
immunoglobulins are:
a) productive;
b) recessive;
c) inductive.
104. The number
of immunoglobulins of different
classes is determined by the
following methods:
a) RNGA;
b) the precipitation reaction
according to Mancini;
109. According to the method of
preparation, vaccines are classified into:
a) alive;
b) monovaccines;
c) killed;
d) chemical.
c) immunofermental;
d) radioimmunological;
e) RSK.
105. Quantity
110. According to the number of
components, vaccines are classified into:
a) attenuated;
b) monovaccines;
c) polio vaccines;
d) subcellular.
immunoglobulins of different
classes are determined for:
a) assessment of the state of the Bsystem of immunity;
b) assessment of the state of the Tsystem of immunity;
c) assessment of the state of a
111. The composition of live
single system of macrophages.
vaccines includes:
a) attenuated strains of the
pathogen;
b) inactivated cultures of pathogens;
106.Vaccines are called:
a) drugs that are used to
create an acquired artificial
c) chemical components of
pathogens;
e) toxoids of pathogens.
active
immunity;
b) drugs that contain antibodies
against pathogen antigens;
112.In the composition of killed vaccines
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includes:
b) hereditary pathology
a) attenuated strains
complement systems;
pathogens;
c) HIV;
b) inactivated cultures of pathogens;
d) hereditary
insufficiency of T-cell function;
c) chemical components of
pathogens that are immunogenic.
e) the use of steroids and
antibiotics.
113.In the composition of chemical vaccines 116. Causes of primary immunodeficiencies
includes:
can be attributed:
a) attenuated strains of pathogens;
a) protein-caloric deficiency;
b) inactivated cultures of pathogens;
c) chemical components of
b) hereditary pathology of the
complement system;
pathogens that are immunogenic;
c) HIV;
d) hereditary deficiency of T-cell function;
d) antibodies to the idiotype of
e) the use of steroids and
antibiotics.
immunoglobulin, specific for
the corresponding
117. To tests of the 1st level for
assessing the immune status of a person
antigen.
relate:
114.To the composition
a) determination of the ratio of
subpopulations of T-lymphocytes
+
+
(CD4 and CD8 );
anti-idiotypic vaccines
includes:
a) attenuated strains of pathogens;
b) determination of the
percentage of T- and B-lymphocytes in
b) killed cultures of pathogens;
the blood;
c) chemical components of
c) determination in the blood
pathogens that are immunogenic;
the absolute number of T- and B
lymphocytes;
immunoglobulin, specific for the
d) determination of the
level of blood immunoglobulins;
corresponding
e) definition of phagocytic
antigen.
activity of blood leukocytes.
115. Causes of secondary
118. To tests of the 2nd level for
assessing the immune status of a person
d) antibodies to the idiotype of
immunodeficiencies
relate:
can be attributed:
a) determination of the ratios of
subpopulations of T-lymphocytes
+
+
(CD4 and CD8 );
a) protein-caloric
failure;
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b) assessment of the
functional activity of subpopulations
+
and CD8 + );
T-lymphocytes (CD4
c) analysis of cytokines
and their receptors;
d) determination of the functional
activity of lymphocytes by the
number of blast forms;
e) determination in the
blood of the absolute
manifestation of GNT;
c) due to the pathogenic action
of circulating immune complexes;
d) are IgE-dependent;
e) are a manifestation of HRT.
122. Type III
hypersensitivity reactions are
characterized by:
a) these reactions are a
manifestation of GNT;
b) reactions occur when immune
complexes (IC) are formed in the body;
number of T- and B-lymphocyte forms.
119. For anaphylactic
reactions, the following
statements are true:
a) refer to type II
hypersensitivity reactions;
b) are IgE-dependent;
c) refer to type I
hypersensitivity reactions;
d) are accompanied by the release
of mediators;
e) are a manifestation of HRT.
c) lead to the development
of allergic inflammation,
hemorrhages and necrosis;
d) lesions are local or general;
e) are IgE-dependent.
123. For
hypersensitivity reactions
Type IV
120. Autoimmune processes
occur in the following cases:
a) the entry into the internal
environment of the body of
antigens of physiologically isolated
tissues;
b) in violation of the functions
of the immune system;
c) when cross-reacting antigens
enter the body, violating the
state of tolerance.
characteristic:
a) are IgE-dependent;
b) these are cell-mediated reactions;
c) the interaction is carried out between
the antigen and sensitized
immunocompetent cells;
d) used for allergic
diagnosis of infectious
diseases;
e) these reactions are
manifestations of GNT.
124. The following main groups of
drugs are used for
immunoprophylaxis and
immunotherapy:
a) preparations of microbial
origin for the prevention
121. Type II
hypersensitivity reactions are
characterized by:
a) antibodies are produced
to cellular components
cell membranes of the body;
b) these reactions are
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125. To serum
immune preparations
and therapy (vaccines, eubiotics,
bacteriophages);
b) therapeutic immune preparations
(Ab);
relate:
a) immunomodulators;
b) immune sera;
c) immunoglobulins;
d) "pure" antibodies;
e) monoclonal antibodies;
f) inactivated vaccines.
c) diagnostic immune
preparations, allergens;
d) immunomodulators;
e) antibiotics.
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ANSWERS
Section
1 GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
1. a, b,
d 2. a, b,
c, d 3. a, b
4. a 5. a,
b, c 6. b 7.
d 8. c 9. a,
b 10. e 11.
c 12. a, b,
c 13. a 14.
a, c, d 15.
a, b 16. c
17. a 18.
d 19. a, b,
c 20. b 21.
a 22. b, c
23. a, c
24. b 25.
a 26. a, b,
c, d, e 27.
a, b 28. d
29. a, d
30. a, b
31. a, c, d
32. a ,b,c
33. a, b
34. c 35. b 36.
c 37. a 38. b
39. a
40. d
41. b
42. c
43. a
44. b
45. a
46. c
47. a, b, c
48. a 49.
b 50. b
51. a, b, c
52. c 53.
c 54. d
55. a, b, c
56. a, b,
c, d 57. a,
b, c 58. b
59. c 60. a,
b, c, d 61. a
62. b 63. c
64. a 65. a,
b, d 66. c
67. a, b, c
68. a, b, c,
d, e 69. a,
b, c, d 70. d
71. c 72. a,
b, c 73. a,
c, d 74. a, c, d
75. b, c, d 76.
b, c, d
77. b
78. b
79. c
80. b
81. b
82. a
83. c
84. b
85. a
86. b
87. c
88. a
89. a, b,
d 90. a
91. d 92 b
93. a 94.
b 95. a
96. a, b
97. a 98.
c 99. b
100. a, b,
c, d 101.
a, c, d, e,
f 102. a, b
103. d 104. c
105. e 106. a,
b, c, e 107. a,
b, c, d 108. a,
b, c, d 109. a,
b, c, d 110. a,
c ,d 111. b,c,d
112. a,b,c,d,f
113. a,b,c,d,e
114. a,b,c,d,e
53
115. e
116. a, b, c, d,
e 117. d 118. b,
d 119. a, b, c, d
120. a, c, d 121.
c, d, e 122. a,
b ,c,d,e,f 123.
a,b,c,d 124.
a,b,c,d,e 125.
a,b,d 126. a,c
127. b,c 128. b
129. c 130. a, c
131. b, c, d 132.
a, c 133. a, b, d
134. b, c, d 135.
c, d 136. c, d, e,
h 137. a, b, f, g
138. c, d, e, h
139. a, b, c, d
140. a 141. b 142.
c 143. d 144. b
145. a, b, c 146.
a 147. c 148. b
149. d 150. e
Machine Translated by Google
Section
2 ECOLOGY OF MICROORGANISMS
1. b
26. b, c
51. a, c
76. b
2. a
52. b, c
53. a
77. a, d, e
3. a, b, c, d,
27. a, b, c, d
28. c 29. a
d 4. a, b, c 5.
30. b, c 31.
d, d 6. b 7. a
8. a, b, c 9.
a 32. d 33. a
34. b 35. a,
54. b, c, d, e
55. c 56. d
d, d 10. a , b,
b, d, e 36. a,
c 11. a, b, c
78. a, b, c, d
79. b 80. a,
57. a, b, c, d
b, c, e 81. d
82. a, b, c,
b, c 37. b
58. a 59. b
60. a, b,
d, e 83. a 84.
c 85. b 86. a,
12. d 13. d
38. c 39. a
c ,d,e
b, c, d 87. a, b,
14. c 15. a, c
40. c 41. a,
61.a,b,c 62.b
c 88. b, c, d
16. a, b, c, d
17. a, c, d, e
b, c, d 42. a,
b, c, e 43. b,
63.a,b
64.a,b,c,d 65.b
89. b, c, d 90.
18. b, d 19.
a, b, d, e 20.
c, d 44. a
66.b 67.a,b,c,d,e
b, d 93. a ,b,c,d
45. a 46. a,
a, e, e 21. a,
b, c 47. a 48.
68.a 69. a, b,
c, e 70. a, b, c,
94. a,b,c,d,e
95. a,b,d 96.
e 22. b 23. a
c, d, e 49. a,
d, e 71. a 72.
a,c 97. a,b,c,d
24. c 25. e
b, c, d 50. b
a 73. b 74. b
75. a
98. b 99. a,c,d
54
a 91. d 92. a,
100. a B C D
Machine Translated by Google
Section
3 INFECTIOUS IMMMUNOLOGY
1. b, c, d,
e 2. b 3. c
33. a, b, c, e
97. b, c
34. a, b, c, d, e, f, g
65. a, b, d
66. a 67. a
4. d 5. f 6.
35. b, d, e 36. a, b,
68. a, b 69.
99. a, b, c, e
a, b, c 7. d,
a, b, d 70. b
e 8. e 9. a,
c, d 37. b 38. c 39.
a 40 d 41. c 42. a,
b, c, d 10.
c, d, e 43. a, b, c 44.
71. a, c 72.
a, b, d, e, f
100. b, c, e
101. a 102.
a, b 11. b
a, b, c, d 45. a, b, c
73. a 74. b
d 104. b, c,
12. c 13. a,
46. a, b, c, d 47. b
c, d, e 14.
48 a, b, c, d 49. a
75. b 76. d 77.
a, b, c, e 78. b,
d 105. a 106.
a 107. a, c,
b 15. a 16.
a, b 17. a
50. a, b, c, d, f 51.
c, d, e 79. a
d 108. a, c
a, b, c 52. b 53. a,
80. c 81. a, b,
109. a, c, d
18. b 19. a
c, d 54. a, b, c 55.
c, d 82. a, b, d,
110. b, c
20. c 21. d
22. a, b, c,
a, b, d 56. b, c, d
e, f 83. a 84. a,
111. a 112.
57. a 58. a 59. a, c
60. a 61. a, c 62. a,
c 85. b, c, d 86.
b, c 87. a 88. b
b 113. c 114.
d 115. a, c,
c, d 63. b 64. b, c, e
89. a, d 90. b,
e 116. b ,d
e 91. a, b, e
117. b,c,d,e
92. a 93. b 94 at
95 at 96
118. a,b,c,d
d 23. a, b,
c, d 24. a, c,
d 25. a, b,
d, e 26. a, b
27. b, c, d,
98. a, c, e
b 103. a, b,
119. b,c,d
e 28. a, b, d,
120. a,b,c
f 29. a, b, c
121. a,b 122.
30. a, b, c,
a,b,c,d 123.
d, e 31. b, c,
b, c, d 124. a,
d, e 32. a, b,
b, c, d 125. b,
d, e, e
c, d, e
55
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Part 2
PRIVATE MICROBIOLOGY
Section 1
CAUSES OF BACTERIAL INTESTINAL
INFECTIONS
O antigen
1. Specify enterobacteria causative
agents of nosocomial
infections of the urinary tract
in serological reactions
are:
a) H-antigen;
b) K-antigen;
c) peptidoglycan;
d) fimbria;
e) outer membrane proteins.
systems:
ÿ)Escherichia;
ÿ)Salmonella;
ÿ)Shigella;
ÿ)Yersinia;
e) Proteus.
5. Fermentation of lactose
is typical for:
a) E. coli;
ÿ)Sh. flexneri;
ÿ)S. typhi;
ÿ)S. Typhimurium.
2. The most common foodborne
enterobacterial infection is:
a) dysentery;
b) salmonellosis;
c) escherichiosis;
d) typhoid fever;
e) yersiniosis;
f) pseudotuberculosis.
6. Enterobacterial
anthroponoses include the
following diseases:
a) escherichiosis;
3. For serotyping
enterobacteria, a serological
reaction is used:
a) agglutination;
b) precipitation;
c) complement binding;
d) immunofluorescence;
e) enzyme immunoassay
b) typhoid fever;
c) dysentery;
d) pseudotuberculosis;
e) salmonellosis;
f) plague.
7. To enterobacterial
zoonoses include
analysis.
the following diseases:
4. Factors
a) escherichiosis;
shielding
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d) pseudotuberculosis;
a) O-antigen;
b) K-antigen;
c) H-antigen.
e) salmonellosis;
f) plague.
12. O-antigen of enterobacteria is:
b) typhoid fever;
c) dysentery;
a) lipid;
b) polysaccharide;
c) protein;
d) lipopolysaccharidoprotein
8. For the classification of
Enterobacteria at the level of
generic taxa, the following features
are used:
a) morphology;
b) tinctorial properties;
c) enzymatic activity;
d) sensitivity to
bacteriophages;
e) sensitivity to
bacteriocins;
f) antigenic profile.
complex.
13. O-antigen of enterobacteria
located in:
a) flagella;
b) cell wall;
c) plasma membrane;
d) capsule;
e) fimbria.
9. The main criterion for
intraspecific
differentiation of
enterobacteria is:
a) enzymatic activity;
b) antibiotic resistance;
c) antigenic features;
14. H-antigen enterobacteria
is included in:
a) cell wall;
b) plasma membrane;
c) capsules;
d) saws;
e) flagella.
d) degree of pathogenicity;
e) features of ecology.
15. K-antigen of enterobacteria is
an integral part of:
10. For the classification of
enterobacteria to species,
the following features are
used:
a) morphology;
b) tinctorial properties;
c) enzymatic activity;
d) sensitivity to
bacteriophages;
e) sensitivity to
bacteriocins;
f) antigenic profile.
a) cell wall;
b) saws;
c) plasma membrane;
d) capsules;
e) flagella.
16. H-antigen enterobacteria
is an:
a) lipopolysaccharide;
b) polysaccharide;
c) protein;
d) lipid.
17. K-antigenenterobacteria
11. The antigenic structure of
enterobacteria is characterized
by the presence of:
is an:
a) lipopolysaccharide;
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b) polysaccharide;
c) protein;
d) lipid.
Enterobacteria is characterized
by the following type of breathing:
a) aerobic;
b) anaerobic;
c) facultative anaerobic.
18. Specify the
genus of Enterobacteriaceae,
which includes obligate
representatives of normal microflora
24. Enterobacteria have:
a) catalase;
b) cytochrome oxidase;
c) oxidase.
person:
ÿ) Escherichia;
ÿ) Salmonella;
ÿ)Shigella;
ÿ) Yersinia;
e) Proteus;
ÿ) Klebsiella;
ÿ) Enterobacter.
25. For all enterobacteria, a
characteristic feature is the
utilization of:
a) glucose;
b) lactose;
c) sucrose;
d) mannitol.
19. Specific
prophylaxis is designed for:
a) cholera;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) salmonellosis
26. For the diagnosis
of enterobacteria, the following
identification tests are used:
gastroenteritis;
d) typhoid fever;
e) shigellosis.
a) reaction with methyl red;
b) utilization of glucose;
c) reduction of nitrates to
nitrites;
d) formation of plasma coagulase;
e) Voges-Proskauer reaction
20. Representatives
of enterobacteria are stained by
Gram:
a) positively;
b) negative;
c) variable.
e) hemolysis of erythrocytes.
27. For enterobacteria
the following pathogenicity
factors are characteristic:
a) endotoxin;
b) fibrinolysin;
c) cytotoxin;
d) enterotoxin.
21. The form of cells
in enterobacteria is:
a) rod-shaped;
b) coccoid;
c) spiral.
22. Enterobacteria can form:
28. The Enterobacteria family
includes representatives of the
following genera:
ÿ) Escherichia;
ÿ) Salmonella;
ÿ) Campylobacter;
a) disputes;
b) capsules;
c) cysts.
23. For
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ÿ)Yersinia;
the following
ÿ) Vibrio;
ÿ) Klebsiella.
features:
a) gram-negative rods;
b) formation of endospores;
c) mobility;
d) capsule formation;
e) facultative anaerobes;
e) chemoorganotrophs.
29. Specify which
enterobacteria most often cause
ascending urinary tract infections:
ÿ) Klebsiellapneumoniae;
ÿ) Serratiamarcescens;
ÿ)Citrobacterfreundii;
ÿ)Enterobacter cloacae;
ÿ) Esherihia coli.
34. Serodiagnosis is
not used to diagnose
diseases,
called:
a) shigellami;
b) Escherichia;
ÿ)S. typhi;
d) yersinia.
30. Of the listed
pathogens, the family
Enterobacteriaceae
pathogens belong to:
a) shigellosis;
b) tuberculosis;
c) cholera;
d) typhoid fever;
d) pseudotuberculosis;
f) yersiniosis.
35. E. coli
belongs to the genus:
ÿ) Escherichia;
ÿ) Salmonella;
ÿ)Shigella;
ÿ) Yersinia;
ÿ)Klebsiella;
e) Enterobacter.
31. For etiotropic therapy of
intestinal infections, the following are used:
36. Pathogenic Escherichia
a) antibiotics;
differentiate from
b) sulfonamides;
conditionally pathogenic:
c) nitrofuran preparations;
a) by the color of the colonies on the Endo
d) bacteriophages, sera,
medium;
immunoglobulins;
b) by antigenic properties;
d) rifampicin.
c) by the ability to
ferment lactose;
32. Nosocomial strain of
d) by the ability to
enterobacteria has the following
ferment glucose.
properties:
a) polyresistance
to antibiotics;
b) high virulence;
c) polyagglutinability.
37. Clinic and pathogenesis
of diseases caused by
enteroinvasive Escherichia
coli,
are
33. For all members of the
Enterobacteriaceae family
similar to the clinic
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and pathogenesis:
enterohemorrhagic;
a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
d) pathogenicity factor of
enterotoxigenic Escherichia;
c) typhoid fever;
e) the cause of diarrhea secretory
d) salmonellosis
type.
gastroenteritis;
41. For enteropathogenic
e) yersiniosis;
e) cholera.
Escherichia are
characterized by the following features:
38. Clinic and pathogenesis of
a) colonize enterocytes
small intestine;
b) invade enterocytes;
c) have adhesins acting as "contact toxins";
diseases caused by
enterotoxigenic
coli ,
d) dangerous for adults;
e) cause diarrhea of the
secretory type;
e) belong to a limited number of Oserogroups.
are similar
clinic and pathogenesis:
a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) typhoid fever;
d) salmonellosis
42. Escherichia are characterized
gastroenteritis;
main antigens:
e) yersiniosis;
a) O;
e) cholera.
b) K;
c) H;
39.
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia
is characterized by the
following symptoms:
a) colonization of the
small intestine;
b) colonization of the
large intestine;
g) Vi.
43. Antigens, on the basis of which
Escherichia is divided into serogroups,
are:
a) O;
b) N;
VC;
c) production of enterotoxins;
d) cause cholera-like infection;
g) Vi.
e) cause a
44. For the diagnosis of
diseases caused by
dysentery-like infection.
pathogenic intestinal
40. Enterotoxin secretion
are:
chopsticks,
a) pathogenicity factor of
a) on Endo medium;
enteroinvasive Escherichia;
b) on bismuth-sulfite agar;
b) pathogenicity factor of
enteropathogenic Escherichia;
c) of the JSA;
sowing feces is carried out:
d) on alkaline agar;
e) Ploskirev's medium.
c) pathogenicity factor
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45. Of the biochemical tests in case
Escherichia is characterized by the
presence of the following signs:
of Escherichia growth, they are often
positive:
a) the main factor of
pathogenicity is the invasion factor;
1) citrate utilization test;
2) mobility test;
3) inositol;
4) Voges-Proskauer reaction;
5) reaction with methyl red;
b) causes cholera-like
disease;
c) the localization of the
pathogenic process is the large intestine.
6) the formation of indole;
a) 1, 2, 4 are correct;
Development of a dysentery-like
disease 50. To detect Escherichia
b) 2, 5, 6 are correct;
O-antigen in RA, you must first:
c) 3, 4, 5 are correct;
d) 3, 4, 6 are correct.
46. For
enterohemorrhagic escheriches
It is characterized by the
presence of the following features:
a) the ability to synthesize
shiga-like toxins; (uremic
syndrome)
b) the main path of surrender alimentary;
c) cause dysentery-like diseases;
a) extract O-antigen
acetone;
b) destroy the Vi-antigen by
boiling;
c) destroy the K-antigen by
boiling;
d) neutralize the Vi-antigen with
serum.
51. Escherichia can be
differentiated
e) cause cholera-like
diseases.
from shigella with
the following tests:
1) mobility;
47. To set up serological
reactions, Escherichia should
be grown:
a) on Kligler's medium;
b) on nutrient agar;
c) on Simmons medium.
2) the presence of lysine decarboxylase;
3) lactose fermentation;
4) glucose fermentation;
5) Voges-Proskauer reaction.
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct;
b) 3, 4, 5 are correct;
c) 1, 3, 4 are correct.
48. First of all, generic
groups need differentiation from
Escherichia:
a) shigelly;
b) salmonella;
c) citrobacter.
52. For the genus Shigella
stable is:
a) lack of mobility;
b) fermentation of mannitol;
c) no emission of hydrogen
sulfide.
49. For enteroinvasive
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53. S. sonnei is characterized by the
58. The presence of blood and mucus
in the feces is a symptom,
following features:
typical for:
1) fermentation of mannitol;
a) shigellosis;
2) isolation of indole;
b) salmonellosis
3) fermentation of sucrose;
gastroenteritis;
4) release of hydrogen sulfide;
c) yersiniosis;
5) splitting of urea.
d) typhoid fever;
e) cholera.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 1.3 is correct;
59. Shigella are characterized by
c) 2, 3 are correct.
main antigens:
54. The main method for
a) O;
diagnosing dysentery
b) K;
is an:
c) H;
a) express diagnostics;
g) Vi.
b) serodiagnosis;
c) allergy diagnostics;
60. Flexner-Sonne alcohol dysentery
d) cultural method.
vaccine
55. The causative agents of bacillary
is used for:
dysentery belong to the genus:
a) early prevention of
ÿ) Escherichia;
dysentery;
ÿ) Salmonella;
b) emergency prevention of dysentery;
ÿ)Shigella;
ÿ) Yersinia;
c) treatment of chronic
e) Proteus;
dysentery.
ÿ) Klebsiella.
61. Reproduction of the pathogen
56. Of the following bacteria do not
in epithelial cells
have flagella:
large intestine -
a) salmonella;
leading link
(b) shigelly;
pathogenesis:
c) escherichia;
a) shigellosis;
d) Yersinia.
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) salmonellosis
57. The most severe clinical
gastroenteritis;
forms of dysentery cause:
d) yersiniosis;
e) typhoid fever;
ÿ) Sh. Sonnei;
e) cholera.
ÿ) S. disenteriae I; (shigeladisenteri ae I) ÿ)
Sh. flexneri;
62. Isolation of hydrogen sulfide in
Kligler's medium in combination with
ÿ) Sh. bydii.
the absence of fermentation
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lactose is
68. Specify Shigella
producing strong exotoxin
(Shiga toxin):
ÿ) Sh. dysenteriae 1;
ÿ) Sh. flexneri;
ÿ) Sh. boydii;
g) Sh. sonnei;
e) Sh. dysenteriae (all types).
characteristic
sign:
a) salmonella;
b) shigell;
c) Klebsiella;
d) Yersinia.
63. For S. dysenteriae
characteristic:
a) exotoxin production
(cytotoxin);
b) release of hydrogen sulfide;
c) lactose fermentation.
69. Specify the factors
that determine the increased
pathogenicity of Sh. dysenteri
ae:
a) exotoxin;
b) capsule;
c) endotoxin;
d) intraepithelial
(enterocyte) invasion;
64. The most active in terms of
biochemical properties
among the shigella are:
ÿ) S.dysenteriae;
e) stability in the external environment.
ÿ)S.flexneri;
ÿ)S.boydii;
70. Vi-antigen
( POLYSACCHARIDE)
a) is a type
O antigen;
b) is a variety
H-antigen;
c) is a type
K-antigen;
ÿ) S.sonnei.
65. For Shigella, the optimal
transport medium is:
a) glycerin preservative;
b) Kitta-Tarozzi environment;
c) salt broth.
d) characteristic of the genus Salmonella;
66. To isolate S.dysenteriae
e) characteristic of S. typhi.
environment should be taken:
a) Endo;
b) Ploskirev;
c) Wilson-Blair.
71. Specify the factors
and mechanisms that determine
the damage to the small intestine
in typhoid fever:
a) intraepithelial invasion of bacteria;
67. Shigella species is
determined by the following
features:
a) morphology;
b) tinctorial properties;
c) enzymatic activity;
d) features of O-antigens;
e) features of H-antigens.
b) enterotoxins;
c) endogenous reinfection of the
intestine;
d) allergic (T-dependent)
inflammation in the intestinal wall;
e) the action of endotoxin.
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72. During the incubation period
S. typhi breed:
a) in enterocytes of the
small intestine;
b) in hepatocytes;
c) in the lumen of the small intestine;
d) in the lumen of the large intestine;
e) in Peyer's macrophages
plaques and solitary follicles.
77. The main method
diagnosis of salmonellosis
is an:
a) bacteriological;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) biological;
d) allergy diagnostics.
78. Salmonella is characterized by
73. The causative agents of typhoid
and paratyphoid belong to the genus:
ÿ) Escherichia;
ÿ) Salmonella;
ÿ)Shigella;
ÿ) Yersinia;
e) Proteus;
ÿ) Klebsiella.
74. Salmonella form black
colonies:
a) on Ploskirev's medium;
b) on Endo medium;
c) on bismuth-sulfite agar;
d) on alkaline MPA.
main antigens:
a) O;
b) K;
c) H;
g) Vi.
79. Intestinal
salmonellosis affects:
a) small intestine
b) rectum;
c) large intestine.
80. The classification of
salmonella according to the
Kaufman-White scheme is based on:
a) biochemical properties;
b) pathogenicity for animals;
c) pathogenicity for humans;
d) antigenic properties.
( Serological groups)
75. When diagnosing typhoid
fever, to isolate a blood culture,
blood culture is performed on the
medium:
a) Endo;
b) Ploskirev;
c) bismuth-sulfite agar;
d) Rappoport.
81. Salmonella carriers
produce immunoglobulins
class:
ÿ) IgA;
b) IgM;
ÿ)IgG.
76. When diagnosing typhoid
fever for blood culture isolation,
the ratio of blood and nutrient
medium should be:
82. Intrahospital
salmonella strain
is different:
a) 1/1;
b) 1/2;
c) 1/10;
d) 1/100.
1) multiple drug
resistance;
2) stability in the external
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b) anti-H antibodies;
c) diagnostic antibody titer;
d) qualitative seroconversion;
e) salmonella antigens.
environment;
3) the ability to produce
quantities.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
87. Specify the S. typhi antigen
absent in the vast majority
c) 1, 3 are correct.
83. Salmonella can be
differentiated from Escherichia
others
salmonella:
with the help of the following
tests:
a) O;
b) N;
VC;
g) Vi;
d) lipopolysaccharide.
1) methyl red;
2) release of hydrogen sulfide;
3) indole;
4) mobility;
5) utilization of citrate;
6) hydrolysis of urea.
88. State "Statustyphosus"
(clouding of
consciousness, lethargy,
headache, etc.) in typhoid fever
is due to the action of:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) neurotoxin;
d) Vi-tifina.
89. The test material for
bacteriological research in
typhoid during fever
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct;
b) 2, 3, 5 are correct;
c) 1, 3, 6 are correct;
d) 2, 4, 6 are correct.
84. The earliest
and reliable method
diagnosing typhoid fever
is an:
a) isolation of coproculture;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) isolation of blood culture;
d) isolation of urine culture.
is an:
a) blood;
b) bile;
c) urine;
d) stools.
85. Bismuth sulfite refers
collectively
differential
nutrient media for:
90. The test material for
bacteriological examination in
typhoid fever, starting from
the second week of the disease,
is:
a) blood;
b) bile;
c) urine;
d) stools.
a) Escherichia;
b) salmonella;
c) shigell;
d) cholera vibrios.
86. In the Vidal reaction
reveal:
a) anti-O antibodies;
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c) thermophiles.
91. For early prevention of
typhoid fever, the following is
used:
a) live vaccine;
b) chemical vaccine;
c) bacteriophages;
d) antibiotics;
e) a killed vaccine; A
f) toxoid.
96. To isolate
Yersinia, you should use the
medium
savings:
a) saline broth;
b) phosphate buffer;
c) magnesium environment.
97. Optimum temperature
for cultivation of yersinia
92. Roseolous-papular rash in
typhoid fever appears due to:
is an:
a) +28°ÿ;
b) +37°ÿ;
a) sensitization of the microorganism
by allergens of the pathogen;
b) capillary damage by exotoxin;
c) + 3 ° C;
d) +10°ÿ.
98. Y. enterocolitica can be
c) inflammatory changes in the
surface layers of the skin at the
site of the pathogen.
differentiated from E.
pseudotuberculosis using the
following tests:
1) rhamnose;
a) typhoid fever;
b) salmonella
2) sucrose;
3) maltose;
4) Simmons citrate;
5) raffinoses;
6) ornithine carboxylase.
gastroenteritis;
a) 1, 3, 5 are correct;
c) paratyphoids A and B;
b) 1, 2, 6 are correct;
d) dysentery.
c) 2, 4, 6 are correct.
93. A short incubation period
(several hours) is typical for:
94. High titers of antibodies to the
99. The genus Ervinia mainly
includes microorganisms:
O antigen and low titers to the Hantigen of Salmonella typhi are characteristic
a) pathogenic
of:
for humans;
a) for the onset of the disease;
b) conditionally pathogenic
for humans;
b) for bacteriocarrier;
c) for the end of the disease;
c) phytopathogenic.
d) for post-infectious immunity.
100. Representatives of the
genus Yer sinia can cause the
95. Yersinia are:
following diseases:
a) mesophiles;
a) pseudotuberculosis;
b) psychrophiles;
b) pneumonia;
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c) plague;
106. As the main method of
laboratory diagnosis of
cholera, the following is used:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological;
c) serodiagnosis;
d) allergy diagnostics.
d) intestinal yersiniosis;
e) bacterial dysentery.
101. The following
identification tests are used
to identify the causative
agent of intestinal yersiniosis:
107. Specify the features
characteristic of
representatives of the
genus Vibrio:
a) splitting of urea;
b) the presence of lecithinase;
c) fermentation of sucrose;
d) liquefaction of gelatin.
a) the presence of oxidase;
b) mobility;
102. ÿÿÿ Y. pseudotuberculosis
characteristic:
c) the formation of hydrogen sulfide;
d) sensitivity to 0/129. (o\139)
a) the presence of a capsule;
b) ability to spore formation;
108. To identify the causative
agents of cholera, the
following is used:
a) Voges-Proskauer reaction;
b) sensitivity to specific
bacteriophages;
c) hexamine test;
d) citrate utilization.
c) mobility at temperatures below 37°C;
d) bipolar staining.
103. Representatives of the genus Vibrio
can cause the following
infections:
a) gastroenteritis;
b) meningitis;
c) cholera;
d) wound infections;
e) septicemia.
109. According to Heiberg's
classification, the causative agent of cholera
refers to:
a) 5th group;
b) 3rd group;
c) 2nd group;
d) 1st group.
104. To the family Vibrionaceae
include the following genera:
ÿ) Vibrio;
b) Pseudomonas;
ÿ) Plesiomonas;
ÿ) Aeromoines.
110. The causative
agent of classical
cholera is characterized
by the following properties:
a) sensitivity to
classical monophage;
b) hexamine test;
c) hemolytic activity;
105. Vibrio cholerae is:
a) peritrichous;
b) lofotrich;
c) monotrich;
d) amphitrichous.
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d) O1 agglutination sera.
to polymyxin;
e) product capability
hemolysins.
111. The causative agent of
115. To determine the Heiberg
cholera serovar O 139 is
characterized by the following symptoms: group, it is necessary to take
a) sensitivity to
polymyxin;
b) hemolytic activity;
c) sensitivity to
bacteriophage El Tor;
d) positive Voges-Proskauer
reaction.
into account the fermentation
features of the following
compounds:
a) mannose;
b) glucose;
c) sucrose;
d) arabinose;
e) lactose.
112. The factor
causing the development of
diarrhea in cholera is:
116. Cholerogen:
a) causes the formation of ulcers on
the surface of the intestinal epithelium;
b) activates adenylacticyclase;
c) promotes the invasion of cholera
vibrios.
a) invasion of the intestinal epithelium;
b) the action of exotoxin;
c) the formation of defects
in the intestinal wall;
d) pathogen circulation in the
bloodstream;
e) the action of endotoxin.
117. The feces of a
patient brought to the
laboratory look like rice water.
This is typical for:
113. The following methods are
used for express diagnostics of
cholera:
a) RSK;
b) PCR;
a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) typhoid fever;
d) salmonellosis
gastroenteritis;
c) ELISA;
e) yersiniosis;
e) cholera.
d) bioassay on animals;
e) immobilization with specific serum.
118. For the prevention of cholera
114. Classical vibrio cholerae
differs from Vibri
ocholeraeeltorpo:
a) antigenic properties;
b) the ability to ferment sugars;
can be used:
a) cholera bacteriophage;
b) antibiotics;
c) cholerogen toxoid;
d) bivalent vaccine;
e) anti-cholera O-serum.
c) by lisability
specific phages;
d) sensitivity
119. The causative agents of
food intoxication can be:
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a) staphylococci;
b) proteins;
c) Escherichia coli;
environments for:
a) Escherichia;
b) salmonella;
c) shigell;
d) cholera vibrios.
d) C. cereus;
e)S. botulinum;
e) enterococci.
123. Representatives of the
Vibrionaceae family are Gramstained:
a) positively;
b) negative;
c) variable.
124. For Campylobacter
characteristic:
a) Gram stain
120. The cause
of toxic infection can be:
a) staphylococci;
b) proteins;
c) Escherichia coli;
d) Klebsiella;
e) C. botulinum
f) Salmonellaspp.
positively;
121. Pronounced mucous
capsule is a characteristic
b) the absence of spore formation;
c) there is a capsule;
d) S-shaped cell.
125. Campylobacter
are:
a) peritrichous;
b) monotrichs;
c) amphitriches;
d) lofotrichami.
sign:
a) salmonella;
b) shigell;
c) Klebsiella;
d) Yersinia.
122. Alkaline agar refers
to elective nutrients
Section 2
MICROBIOLOGY OF INFECTIONS CAUSED BY
CONDITIONALLY
PATHOGENIC (OPPORTUNISTIC) ORGANISMS
1. Opportunistic infections
are characterized by:
a) are caused only by
pathogenic microorganisms;
and fabrics.
b) are called by UPM;
relate:
c) occur in
immunosuppressive conditions;
d) can affect any organs
ratio
2. To the features
of opportunistic infections
a) combined treatment
antibacterial
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infection is:
a) an infectious disease
acquired and manifested in a
hospital;
b) infection acquired inside
the hospital and manifested
in the hospital or after
discharge from it;
therapy with immunomodulatory;
b) widespread in hospitals;
c) flow complexity;
d) highly contagious.
3. Diagnosis of
opportunistic infections is
characterized by:
a) the main diagnostic method microbiological;
b) the main diagnostic method biological;
c) the use of qualitative and
quantitative criteria;
d) use only a qualitative
criterion.
c) acquired infection
before admission to the hospital and
manifested or identified
in the hospital.
7. Staphylococci may have
the following
antigens:
a) protein M;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) K-antigen;
4. Bacteremia is called:
a) the phase of the pathogenesis of
infectious diseases, during which
bacteria enter the bloodstream;
d) protein A.
8. Streptococci may have
the following
b) the phase of the pathogenesis of
infectious diseases, during which
viruses enter the bloodstream;
antigens:
a) protein M;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) K-antigen;
c) a generalized disease during
which the pathogen is located and
multiplies in the blood).
d) protein A.
9. Staphylococcal
infections include:
a) scalded baby syndrome;
5. Sepsis is called:
a) the phase of the pathogenesis of
infectious diseases, during which
bacteria enter the bloodstream;
b) the phase of the pathogenesis of
infectious diseases, during which
viruses enter the bloodstream;
c) a generalized disease during
which the pathogen is located and
multiplies in the blood.
b) scarlet fever;
c) carbuncle;
d) toxic shock syndrome.
10. Plasma coagulase
calls:
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid
acids;
b) violation of blood clotting;
c) destruction of lecithin;
6. Nosocomial
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d) dissolution of fibrin.
16. Staphylococcus aureus
11. Hyaluronidase
call:
calls:
a) only diseases of the nasopharynx;
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid
b) only suppuration of wounds;
acids;
c) purulent
inflammatory lesions of any
organs and tissues;
d) only septic processes.
b) violation of blood clotting;
c) destruction of lecithin;
d) dissolution of fibrin.
17. Specify the
pathogenicity factors of staphylococci:
12. Lecithinase causes:
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid
a) the presence of a microcapsule;
acids;
b) the presence of disputes;
b) violation of blood clotting;
c) the presence of coagulase;
d) the presence of catalase;
c) destruction of lecithin;
d) dissolution of fibrin.
e) the presence of beta-lactamase.
acids;
18. All representatives of the
Micrococcus family are
characterized by the following
features:
b) violation of blood clotting;
1) the existence of disputes;
13. Fibrinolysin causes:
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid
2) mobility;
3) positive Gram stain;
c) destruction of lecithin;
d) dissolution of fibrin.
4) positive catalase test;
5) presence of pigment;
6) spherical form cells;
7) positive oxidase test.
14. L-forms of staphylococci are
characterized by:
a) resistance to penicillin antibiotics;
b) the ability to persist in the
body for a long time;
c) the presence of a thick cell
wall;
d) change in morphology.
a) 1, 3, 5 are correct;
b) 3, 4, 6 are correct;
c) 2, 5, 7 are correct.
19. Human diseases
cause representatives of the
following genera of the
Micrococcus family:
a) micrococci;
b) stomatococci;
c) planococci;
d) staphylococci.
15. Staphylococci belong to the
family:
ÿ) Bacteroidaceae;
Neisseriaceae;
ÿ)Pseudomonadaceae;
ÿ)Micrococcaceae;
ÿ)Enterobacteriaceae.
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20. The following features are
characteristic of the genus
Staphylococcus:
1) arrangement of cells in the form
of clusters;
2) the ability to break down
mannose;
3) the ability to aerobically
decompose beckons;
2) the presence of disputes;
4) the presence of plasma coagulase;
3) mobility;
4) anaerobic fermentation of
glucose;
5) growth on agar with furazolidone;
6) resistance to lysostaphin;
7) the presence of teichoic acids.
5) presence of sensitivity to
novobitsin.
1) the presence of phosphatase;
a) 1, 3, 5 are correct;
b) 3, 2, 4 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 5 are correct.
a) 1, 4, 7 are correct;
25. For S. saprophyticus
b) 2, 4, 6 are correct;
the following features are
characteristic:
c) 1,3, 5 are correct.
a) the presence of the enzyme DNase;
b) the ability to break down
sucrose;
21. According to the
type of breathing, staphylococci are:
a) aerobes;
b) anaerobes;
c) microaerophiles;
d) facultative anaerobes.
d) the presence of phosphatase.
22. For intraspecific
differentiation of the genus
of staphylococci, the following
tests are used:
a) Levenstein-Jensen medium;
c) the presence of plasmacoagulase;
26. The following media can be
used for primary isolation of
staphylococci:
b) Endo environment;
c) simple nutrient agar;
d) JSA.
a) the presence of plasmacoagulase;
b) the presence of hyaluronidase;
c) the presence of catalase;
27. The following
nutrient media can be used
to isolate streptococcus:
d) the presence of fibrinolysin.
23. Among the coagulase-negative
species of staphylococci, the most
common human diseases
a) blood agar;
b) salt agar;
c) serum agar;
d) Endo medium.
calls:
ÿ) S.epidermidis;
ÿ) S.warneri;
ÿ)S.haemolyticus;
ÿ)S.saprophyticus.
28. For intraspecific
differentiation of
streptococci
use:
a) morphological features;
24. For epidermal
Staphylococcus is characterized
by the following symptoms:
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b) signs of hemolytic activity;
c) serological studies;
d) study of biochemical
2) hyaluronidase;
3) oxidase;
4) catalase;
5) urease.
activity.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 3.4 is correct;
29. The serological method
of grouping streptococci
according to R. Lensfield is based on:
a) study of biochemical activity;
c) 2, 4 are correct.
33. For Str. pneumoniae
the following features are
characteristic:
a) ÿ-hemolysis;
b) sensitivity to optochin;
c) bile lysis;
d) lack of growth on salt media;
b) on the detection of a specific
group polysaccharide of the cell wall;
c) on the
determination of streptolysins;
d) on the determination of hyaluronidase;
e) on the determination of streptokinase.
e) negative Gram stain.
34. The ability to synthesize
exfoliatins by Staphylococcus
aureus can cause:
a) scarlet fever;
b) activation of cAMP formation;
c) staphylococcal toxic shock
syndrome;
d) scalded skin syndrome.
30. In human pathology
the main role belongs to streptococci:
a) serological group A;
b) serological group C;
c) serological group B.
31. In human pathology
35. Gram-positive
The main role belongs to the
cocci are:
following types of streptococci:
a) gonococci;
b) pneumococci;
c) enterococci;
g) staphylococci;
e) meningococci
g) streptococci.
1) S.pyogenes;
2) S.agalactiae;
3) S.pneumoniae;
4) S.salivarius;
5) Blood
a) correct 1, 2, 3;
36. Gram-negative
b) 2, 3, 5 are correct;
cocci are:
c) 1, 3, 4 are correct.
a) staphylococci;
b) pneumococci;
c) enterococci;
d) gonococci;
e) streptococci
e) meningococci.
32. For streptococci of
serological group A, the
following features are
characteristic:
1) hemolysis;
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37. For the
treatment of staphylococcal
infections, the following is used:
42. For streptococcal infections, the
main method of laboratory diagnostics
a) staphylococcal toxoid;
b) staphylococcal vaccine;
is an:
c) diagnostic
a) bacterioscopic;
staphylococcal phages;
b) bacteriological;
d) anti-staphylococcal
c) biological;
immunoglobulin.
d) allergy diagnostics.
38. For the specific prevention
43. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
of staphylococcal infections,
on blood agar form:
the following can be used:
a) colonies surrounded by
a transparent colorless zone of
hemolysis;
a) staphylococcal toxoid;
b) anti-staphylococcal
b) colonies surrounded by green
hemolysis zone;
immunoglobulin;
c) O-streptolysin;
c) colonies with hemolysis,
indistinguishable to the naked eye
d) antibiotics.
eye.
39. The main method of
laboratory diagnosis of
44. Beta-hemolytic
staphylococcal infections
streptococci on blood agar form:
is an:
a) bacterioscopic;
a) colonies surrounded by
a transparent colorless zone of
hemolysis;
b) bacteriological;
c) serodiagnosis;
d) allergy diagnostics.
b) colonies surrounded by a green
hemolysis zone;
40. To the causative agents of scarlet fever
c) colonies with hemolysis,
indistinguishable to the naked eye
relate:
ÿ) S. aureus;
ÿ) S. pyogenes;
eye.
c) E. faecalis;
ÿ) S. pneumoniae;
d) S. salviarius.
45. Gamma hemolytic
streptococci on blood agar form:
a) colonies surrounded by a
41. The composition of normal intestinal
transparent colorless zone
microflora includes:
hemolysis;
ÿ) S. salviarius;
b) colonies surrounded by a green
hemolysis zone;
ÿ) S. pyogenes;
c) E. faecalis;
ÿ) S. pneumoniae;
ÿ) S. aureus.
c) colonies with hemolysis,
indistinguishable to the naked eye
eye.
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staphylococci and
streptococci include:
a) the absence of spore formation;
46. S. aureus is characterized by:
a) pyogenic invasiveness;
b) do not have organ tropism;
c) mobile;
b) the presence of cytochromes;
c) catalase activity;
d) spherical shape of cells;
d) the presence of plasmacoagulase;
e) positive Gram stain.
e) is an obligate
representative of normal human
microflora.
51. To signs, various
for staphylococci and
streptococci, include:
a) the absence of spore formation;
47. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
is characterized by:
a) exhibits the properties
of a superantigen;
b) the presence of cytochromes;
c) catalase activity;
d) spherical shape of cells;
e) positive Gram stain.
b) is produced by all strains
of S. aureus;
c) is represented by several
antigenic variants;
d) is responsible for the
development of food poisoning;
e) resistant to the action
of digestive enzymes.
52. All anaerobes are
characterized by:
a) obtaining energy by substrate
phosphorylation;
.
b) the presence of disputes;
48.ÿÿÿ S. epidermidis
characteristic:
a) refers to conditionally
pathogenic microorganisms;
b) is part of the normal microflora
of the skin;
c) ferments mannitol;
d) is able to colonize polymeric
materials;
c) the presence of capsules;
d) positive Gram stain.
53. To anaerobic Gr(+)
non-spore-forming
anaerobic bacteria
relate:
a) r. Bacteroides;
ÿ)ÿ.Clostridium;
ÿ) ÿ.Veillonella;
ÿ)ÿ.Bifidobacterium;
e) peptococcus.
e) the presence of coagulase.
49. S. pyogenes is characterized by:
a) belongs to group A;
b) is an obligate anaerobe;
c) is a representative of normal
microflora;
d) is the causative agent of
erysipelas;
e) alpha hemolysis.
54. To the family Bacillacea
include microorganisms with the
following characteristics:
a) sticks;
b) gram-positive;
c) forming endospores;
50. To the signs common to
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d) only facultative anaerobes;
59. Criteria for etiological diagnosis
conditionally
e) only strict anaerobes.
pathogenic
microorganisms
are:
55. Indicate which
microorganisms are characterized
by the presence of spores
exceeding the cell diameter:
ÿ) Bacillus anthracis;
ÿ) P.aeruginosa;
ÿ)Clostridiumperfringens;
ÿ) Bacillussubtilis.
a) massive isolation of
homogeneous microorganisms;
b) an increase in the titer of
antibodies to the isolated microbe
in the patient's blood serum;
c) repetitive isolation of
identical microorganisms;
d) isolation of microorganisms from
the enrichment medium.
60. Which of these microorganisms can cause gangrene
in humans:
ÿ) Clostridium perfringens;
ÿ) Clostridium septicum;
ÿ) Clostridium chavoei;
ÿ)Clostridiumnonovyi;
ÿ) Escheriacoli.
56. Indicate which
microorganisms are characterized
by the presence of spores not
exceeding the cell diameter:
ÿ) Bacillus anthracis;
ÿ) P.aeruginosa;
ÿ)Clostridiumperfringens;
ÿ) Bacillussubtilis.
57. All representatives of the
genus Clostridium are
characterized by the following features:
1) anaerobes;
2) the presence of disputes;
3) optional anaerobes;
4) gram-positive rods;
5) gram-negative rods.
61. For the prevention of
nosocomial infections, the
following is used:
a) vaccination of patients;
b) compliance with the norms of
sanitary indicative microorganisms for
the relevant medical institutions;
a) 2, 3, 5 are correct;
c) carrying out control of
the sterility of medicines, surgical
instruments, suture material, etc.;
b) 1, 2, 4 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 5 are correct.
58. For the cultivation of
anaerobes are used
d) improving the quality of
medical care for patients.
the following nutritional
environments:
a) Kitta-Tarozzi environment;
b) Kligler Wednesday;
c) Wilson-Blair medium;
d) Zeissler medium.
62. The pathogenesis of
tetanus is mainly due to:
a) the action of exotoxin;
b) the action of endotoxin;
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67. For early prevention of
botulism use:
c) the invasiveness of the pathogen.
63. For specific therapy of
botulism use:
a) anti-botulinum antitoxic
serum;
b) antibotulinum
antimicrobial serum;
c) botulinum toxoid;
d) botulinum bacteriophage.
a) DTP vaccine;
b) the AS vaccine;
c) anti-tetanus serum;
d) typhoid vaccine with
sextanatoxin;
e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi
antigen.
64. For emergency
tetanus prophylaxis
use:
a) tetanus toxoid;
b) DPT vaccine;
c) anti-tetanus serum;
68. Differential signs of
Clostridial gas gangrene are:
a) the presence of mobility;
b) inulin fermentation;
c) utilization of citrate;
d) features of growth on media
d) tetanus bacteriophage.
with milk.
65. For early prevention of
tetanus, the following are
used:
a) DTP vaccine;
69. For C.perfringens is characteristic:
a) lack of mobility;
b) the presence of hemolysis;
c) no liquefaction of
gelatin;
d) lack of glucose fermentation.
b) the AS vaccine;
c) anti-tetanus serum;
d) typhoid vaccine with
sextanatoxin;
e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi
antigen.
70. For C.novyi, it is
characteristically mobile)
a) lack of mobility;
b) the presence of hemolysis;
c) no liquefaction
66. For the early prevention
of gas gangrene, the
following are used:
a) DTP vaccine;
gelatins;
d) lack of fermentation
glucose.
b) the AS vaccine;
71. C.septicum is characterized by:
a) lack of mobility;
c) anti-tetanus serum;
b) the presence of hemolysis;
d) typhoid vaccine with
sextanatoxin;
e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi
antigen.
c) no liquefaction
gelatins;
d) lack of fermentation
glucose.
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74. For growing anaerobes
72. C.tetani is characterized by:
can be used:
a) the presence of a capsule;
b) are peritrichous;
a) Fortner method;
b) anaerostat;
c) terminal location of spores;
c) the Veyon-Venyal method;
d) Ehrlich's method.
75. A biological sample can
be used:
a) for the diagnosis of tetanus;
b) for the diagnosis of gas
gangrene;
c) for the diagnosis of botulism;
d) for the diagnosis of erysipelas
d) the formation of indole.
73. For C.botulinum exotoxin
characteristic:
a) is a neurotoxin;
b) leads to visual impairment;
c) refers to
membrane toxins;
d) causes a syndrome
inflammation.
toxic shock.
Section 3
MICROBIOLOGY OF AIRDROP INFECTIONS
1. The biological method
is used to diagnose:
a) pneumococcal pneumonia;
b) diphtheria;
pneumonia research
are subject to:
a) throat swab;
b) sputum;
c) blood;
d) bile.
c) whooping cough;
d) leprosy;
e) scarlet fever.
4. Primary sputum culture in
case of suspected pneumococcal
pneumonia is preferable to carry
out on:
2. Key Representatives
resident microflora of the
upper respiratory tract
are:
a) streptococci;
b) bacteroids;
c) staphylococci;
a) Bordet-Gangu environment;
b) Clauberg's environment;
c) Levenshtein-Jensen environment;
d) serum agar
d) mushrooms.
sristomycin;
3. With pneumococcal
e) blood agar.
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b) the material is taken before the
start of antibiotic therapy;
c) the material before sowing
should be transported and stored
at a temperature of 37°C;
d) the material is pre-centrifuged.
5. The causative agent of diphtheria
is characterized by:
a) the existence of a dispute;
b) the presence of capsules;
c) mutual arrangement of cells at
an angle to each other;
d) the presence of currency grains.
(Babes-Ernst grains)
10. For primary culture of
corynebacterium diphtheria
use:
6. Microorganisms of the
genus Corynebacterium are:
a) gram-positive rods;
a) Bordet-Gangu environment;
b) Clauberg's medium;
c) Levenshtein Jensen
medium;
d) serum agar
b) gram-negative
chopsticks;
c) gram-positive cocci;
with ristomycin;
e) blood agar.
d) gram-negative cocci.
7. The main factor of
pathogenicity of Corynebacterium
diphteriae is:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) cell wall LPS;
d) drank;
e) protein M.
11. The composition of the Clauberg
environment includes the following
Components:
a) blood;
b) potassium tellurite;
c) suspension of fresh eggs;
d) glycerin;
d) potatoes.
12. For the primary sowing
of meningococci, use:
8. The causative agent of
diphtheria has:
a) urease activity;
b) toxicogenic properties;
c) cystinase activity;
d) hemolytic activity;
e) the ability to reduce nitrates to
nitrites.
a) Bordet-Gangu environment;
b) Clauberg's environment;
c) Levenshtein-Jensen environment;
d) serum agar
with ristomycin;
e) blood agar.
13. To identify the causative agent
of diphtheria in a smear, staining
can be used:
a) by Gram;
9. With laboratory
diphtheria diagnosis:
a) the material
before the study is treated with
acid to eliminate the
accompanying flora;
b) according to Neisser;
c) according to Ziehl-Nielsen;
d) in Oÿeÿko.
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14. For specific therapy of
diphtheria use:
a) antidiphtheria antitoxic
serum;
b) diphtheria toxoid;
c) sulfonamides.
19. The composition of
the Levenshtein-Jensen environment includes
the following components:
a) blood;
b) potassium tellurite;
c) suspension of fresh eggs;
15. For early specific
prevention of diphtheria, apply:
d) glycerin;
d) potatoes.
a) DTP vaccine;
b) BSG vaccine;
20. After suffering from
scarlet fever, a person
develops:
a) persistent intense
antimicrobial immunity;
b) short antimicrobial
immunity;
c) persistent intense
antitoxic immunity;
d) short-term antitoxic
immunity.
c) the Mantoux test;
d) Dick test;
e) ADSM.
16. For the identification
of C. diphtheria, signs are
used:
1) morphological;
2) cultural;
3) biochemical;
4) serological;
5) toxigenic.
21. The composition of the Borde-Jangu
environment includes the following components:
a) blood;
a) 1,2,3 are correct;
b) potassium tellurite;
b) 2, 3, 4 are correct;
c) suspension of fresh eggs;
c) 3, 4, 5 are correct;
d) glycerin;
d) potatoes.
d) 1, 3, 5 are correct;
e) 2, 3, 5 are correct.
22. Dick test is used
to identify:
17. The toxigenicity of
diphtheria is determined using:
a) precipitation reactions in agar;
b) antibody neutralization reactions;
c) agglutination reactions.
a) antimicrobial immunity in
streptococcal infections;
b) sensitization to
streptococci in rheumatism;
c) antitoxic immunity in scarlet
fever.
18. Diphtheria toxin is
characterized by:
a) its formation encodes tox+ ;
b) the toxin consists of two
components;
c) has a blocking effect on
protein synthesis;
d) is an endotoxin.
23. The main method of
laboratory diagnostics
whooping cough is:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological;
c) serological;
d) allergic.
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a) factors 1-6;
24.
b) factor 7;
Bordetellapertussis is characterized by c) factor 12;
the following signs:
d) factor 14.
a) mobility;
b) growth on plain agar;
29. Specific (species)
c) pigment formation;
d) splitting of urea;
antigens are
e) the presence of a catalog.
Bordetellapertussis:
a) factors 1-6;
b) factor 7;
c) factor 12;
d) factor 14.
25. For
ÿordetellaparapertussischaracter
we have the
following signs:
a) mobility;
b) growth on plain agar;
c) pigment formation;
d) splitting of urea;
30. Taking the test
material (mucus from the
upper respiratory tract) in case
of suspected whooping cough
is carried out:
a) posterior pharyngeal swab;
b) nasopharyngeal swab;
e) the presence of a catalog.
26. For
ÿordetellabronchiseptica character
c) by the method of "cough plates";
rny the following
d) flushing from the oral cavity.
signs:
a) mobility;
b) growth on plain agar;
31. Specific (species)
antigens of ÿordetella
c) the presence of pigment;
d) splitting of urea;
bronchiseptica are:
a) factors 1-6;
b) factor 7;
c) factor 12;
d) factor 14.
e) the presence of a catalog.
27. After suffering
whooping cough is formed:
a) persistent intense
antimicrobial immunity;
b) short antimicrobial
immunity;
c) persistent intense
antitoxic immunity;
d) short-term antitoxic
immunity.
32. Common antigens for all
representatives of the genus
Bordetella are:
a) factor 1-6;
b) factor 7;
c) factor 12;
d) factor 14.
28. Specific (species)
antigens of ÿordetella
paraper tussis are:
33. In which of the clinical
stages is whooping cough the
most contagious:
a) catarrhal stage;
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b) paroxysmal stage;
c) stage of incubation;
d) stage of recovery?
suspected
meningococcal
nasopharyngitis is carried out:
a) posterior pharyngeal swab;
b) nasopharyngeal swab;
c) by the method of "cough
plates";
d) by flushing from the oral cavity.
34. Nutrient media
are used to isolate
Bordetellapertussis:
a) Bordet-Gangu environment;
b) Clauberg's environment;
39. For rapid diagnosis of
meningococcal infection, the
following are used:
a) agglutination reactions
on glass;
b) RNGA;
c) precipitation reactions;
d) counter
immunoelectrophoresis methods.
c) Levenshtein-Jensen environment;
d) serum agar
with ristomycin;
e) blood agar.
35. For the early specific
prevention of whooping cough,
the following are used:
A) DTP vaccine;
b) BSG vaccine;
40. To differentiate
meningococcus from other
representatives of the genus Neisseria
c) the Mantoux test;
d) Dick's trial.
36. For Neisseriameningitidis.
the following pathogenicity
factors are characteristic:
a) protein M;
b) capsule;
c) endotoxin;
d) drank.
37. All representatives of the
genus Neisseria are characterized
by the following features:
a) negative Gram stain;
apply the following tests:
a) fermentation of carbohydrates;
b) the formation of indole;
c) the ability to form a
polysaccharide on agar with 5%
sucrose solution;
d) no growth on serumfree agar at 37°C.
41. For serodiagnosis of
meningococcal infection, the
following are used:
a) agglutination reactions on glass;
b) RNGA;
c) precipitation reactions;
d) methods of counter
immunoelectrophoresis.
b) lack of mobility;
c) have a spherical shape;
d) have a rod-shaped form;
e) are aerobes;
e) are not demanding
on nutrient media.
42. Identification of Neisseri
ameningitides is carried out on
the basis of the following properties:
a) glucose fermentation;
b) presence of pigment;
38. Taking the test material
(mucus from the upper
respiratory tract) when
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c) urease activity;
d) catalase test.
d) meningitis;
e) sepsis.
43. Cause of spotted rash and
petechial hemorrhages in
generalized forms
47. For early specific
prevention of tuberculosis, the
following is used:
a) DTP vaccine;
b) BSG vaccine;
meningococcal
diseases are:
a) capsular polysaccharides;
b) protein exotoxin;
c) endotoxin;
d) outer membrane proteins.
c) the Mantoux test;
d) Dick's trial.
48. Mycobacteria cannot
cause in humans:
44. In case of
laboratory diagnosis of
meningococcal infection:
a) the material before the study is
treated with acid to eliminate the
accompanying flora;
a) tuberculosis;
b) leprosy;
c) actinomycosis;
d) mycoplasmosis.
49. To isolate a pure culture
of the causative agent of
tuberculosis, it is necessary:
b) the material is preheated
to eliminate the accompanying
flora;
a) 1-2 days;
b) 5–7 days;
c) 30-45 days.
c) the material before sowing
should be transported and stored
at a temperature of 37°C;
50. The main method
of laboratory diagnosis of
tuberculosis is:
a) bacterioscopic;
b) bacteriological;
c) biological;
d) allergic;
e) serodiagnosis.
51. Tuberculosis in humans can
d) pre-centrifuged.
45. For specific
prevention of meningitis,
you can use:
a) immunoglobulin;
b) meningococcal vaccine;
c) meningococcal
diagnosticum;
d) antibiotics.
call:
ÿ) ÿ.tuberculosis;
6) M.bovis;
ÿ) M.microbi;
ÿ) M. Africanum.
46. Nosological forms of
meningococcal infection
relate:
52. Representatives of the
genus Mycobacterium are
characterized by the following features:
a) gastroenteritis;
b) bacteria carrier;
c) nasopharyngitis;
a) are
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elimination of accompanying
flora;
b) heating the material to
eliminate the accompanying flora;
gram-positive microorganisms;
b) are gram
negative
microorganisms;
c) are acid-resistant microorganisms;
c) the material before sowing
should be transported and stored
at a temperature of 37°C;
d) the material is precentrifuged.
d) form disputes;
e) have a capsule.
53. Tuberculosis can be diagnosed
put:
57. Mantoux test is used for:
a) based on the isolation of
a pure culture;
b) using serological methods;
a) diagnosis of tuberculosis;
b) diagnosis of diphtheria;
c) selection of persons to be
vaccinated with the BCG vaccine;
d) selection of persons to be
vaccinated with the DTP vaccine.
c) microscopy of
pathological material.
54. Mycobacteria grow:
a) quickly on any nutrient media;
58. For the treatment of
tuberculosis are used:
a) antibiotics
b) slowly on any nutrient
media;
c) quickly on special media for
mycobacteria;
d) slowly on special media for
mycobacteria.
and chemotherapy drugs;
b) bacteriophages;
c) therapeutic serums;
d) tuberculin.
55. Of the following
microorganisms, the least
resistant in the external
environment are:
a) enterococci;
b) staphylococci;
c) meningococci;
d) gonococci.
59. In clinical practice, leprosy
is used to diagnose leprosy .
a) bacteriological method;
b) bacterioscopic method;
c) biological method.
60. To detect the causative agent
of tuberculosis in a sputum smear
with the help of light
56. In the laboratory
diagnosis of tuberculosis
fulfill the following
requirements:
a) treatment of the material
before the study with acid, for
microscope, you can
use coloring:
a) according to Ziehl-Nielsen;
b) according to Buri-Gins;
c) in Oÿeÿko;
d) according to Neisser.
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d) facultative anaerobes;
e) thermophiles.
61. For differentiation of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
from other mycobacteria
apply:
65. Tuberculosis pathogens:
a) form disputes;
b) prone to polymorphism;
c) lack peptidoglycan;
d) form endospores;
e) have an increased rate of
reproduction.
a) release of hydrogen sulfide;
b) glucose fermentation;
c) Price microculture method;
d) formation of niacin;
e) staining according to Ziehl-Neelsen.
62. Indicate the correct provisions for
the tuberculin test:
66. List the nutrients
media for the cultivation of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
a) yolk-salt agar;
b) meat-peptone agar;
c) Endo medium;
d) chocolate agar;
e) Levinstein-Jensen medium.
a) the sample is considered positive
when a papule exceeds 10 mm;
b) the most widespread intradermal
administration of tuberculin (Mantoux
reaction);
c) repeated administration
of tuberculin can cause the conversion
of a negative sample into a positive
one;
d) a negative answer should not
be considered as a fact indicating the
absence of a tuberculous process;
67. Mitsuda's test is used
for:
a) diagnosis of leprosy;
b) diagnosis of tuberculosis;
c) selection of persons to be
vaccinated with the BCG vaccine;
d) to characterize the
clinical course of leprosy.
e) the sample is more
epidemiological than
68. For Mycobacterium leprae
diagnostic value.
the following features are
characteristic:
63. For the treatment of
leprosy are used:
a) is a gram-positive microorganism;
a) antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs;
b) bacteriophages;
b) is a gram-negative microorganism;
c) immunoglobulin;
d) lepromin.
c) is an acid-resistant microorganism;
d) forms disputes;
e) has a capsule.
64. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
are:
a) mesophiles;
b) psychrophiles;
c) aerobes;
69. Leprosy in a person can
call:
ÿ) ÿ.tuberculosis;
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6) M.leprae;
ÿ) M.microbi;
ÿ) M. Africanum.
b) RNGA;
c) PCR;
d) methods of counter
immunoelectrophoresis.
70. Incubation period for leprosy:
73. For S. pneumonia
characteristic:
a) positive staining according
to the Gram method;
b) sensitivity to optochin;
c) release of ammonia;
d) sensitivity to bile.
a) 5-7 days;
b) 14-21 days;
c) 3–30 years;
d) 2–3 months.
71. BSG vaccine consists of:
a) weakened culture of
M.tuberculosis;
b) a weakened culture of M. bovis;
c) a killed culture of M.
tuberculosis;
d) weakened culture of M.
africanum;
e) killed M.bovis culture
f) a killed culture of M. africanum.
74. S. pyogenes is characterized by:
a) negative Gram stain;
b) sensitivity to optochin;
c) the presence of hemolysis;
d) the presence of oxidase.
75. Scarlet fever is caused by:
ÿ) S.pyogenes;
ÿ) S.pneumoniae;
ÿ) S.salivarius;
Blood
72. For express diagnostics of
diphtheria, the following are used:
a) agglutination reactions
on glass;
Section 4
MICROBIOLOGY OF PARTICULARLY DANGEROUS INFECTIONS
1. In the laboratory
diagnosis of especially
dangerous infections, one must
b) 2, 4, 6 are correct;
c) 1, 2, 4 are correct.
2. To work with pathogens of
especially dangerous infections, it
is necessary:
1) use of a special protective suit;
be used:
1) isolation and study of pure culture;
2) serological methods;
3) express diagnostics;
4) accelerated methods;
5) setting bioassays;
6) isolation of a specific
bacteriophage.
2) availability of permission
to work with UN pathogens;
3) the constant use of dez. funds;
a) 1, 3, 5 are correct;
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4) the presence of experimental
6. Causative agents of
especially dangerous diseases
are:
animals;
5) centralized provision of standard
nutrient media;
b) 2, 3, 4, 6 are correct;
1) Y. pestis;
2) P.aeruginosa;
3)Bacillusanthracis;
4) P.cepacia;
5) P.stutzeri;
6) S.intermedius.
c) 1,2,3,5 are correct.
a) 1, 3 are correct;
3. For indication of ROI in
practical laboratories use:
c) 2.6 is correct.
6) the use of growth media tested
for growth quality.
a) 1, 2, 5, 6 are correct;
b) 4, 5 are correct;
7. Sporulation is
characteristic of the pathogen:
a) anthrax;
b) plague;
c) tularemia;
d) brucellosis.
a) immunofluorescence method;
b) RPGA;
c) PCR;
d) isolation of microorganisms in
pure culture;
e) bioassay on animals.
8. Y. pestis must be
cultured on:
a) meat-liver agar;
b) MPA;
c) blood marathon;
d) Hottinger agar;
e) vitelline environment.
4. The objects to be examined
during the indication, first of all, of
the ROI are:
1) air;
2) water;
3) soil;
4) remains of ammunition;
5) food products;
6) warm-blooded animals;
7) insects;
8) affected contingents of people.
9. Y. pestis can cause the
following clinical forms of the
disease:
a) each;
b) bubonic;
c) intestinal;
d) septic;
e) pulmonary.
a) 3, 5, 6, 7 are correct;
b) 1, 2, 4, 8 are correct;
c) 1,2,3,4 are correct.
10. In the case of the cutaneous
form of plague, the test material
can be:
5. The pathogen has the
maximum level of resistance in
the environment:
a) tularemia;
b) brucellosis;
c) anthrax;
a) sputum;
b) contents of carbuncles;
c) ulcer discharge;
d) urine.
d) plague.
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11. The main methods of
laboratory diagnosis of
plague are:
a) serodiagnosis;
b) bacterioscopic;
c) bacteriological;:
d) allergy diagnostics.
b) capsular;
c) F1 antigen;
d) flagella.
17. For express diagnosis of
plague, the following are used.
methods:
a) immunofluorescence
12. A bioassay for plague is
placed on the following laboratory
analysis;
b) RNGA;
c) PCR;
d) counter immunodiffusion
animals:
a) white mice;
b) guinea pigs;
c) hamsters;
d) rabbits.
in gel;
e) enzyme immunoassay.
13. The method of
infecting animals when
placing a bioassay for plague is:
a) intramuscular;
18. The right to a final positive
response in the study of
plague gives:
a) radioimmunoassay;
b) enzyme immunoassay;
c) isolation of pure culture and
its identification;
d) RNGA;
e) immunofluorescent analysis.
b) subcutaneous;
c) intraperitoneal;
d) endolumbar;
e) oral.
14. To identify Y. pestis
the following tests apply:
19. Pathogenicity factors of Y.
pestis include:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) W-antigen;
d) V-antigen.
20. Y. restis is characterized
by the following features:
a) cocci;
b) coccobacteria or short sticks;
a) fermentation of sucrose;
b) fermentation of rhamnose;
c) liquefaction of gelatin;
d) cell morphology;
e) the nature of growth on
liquid and solid nutrient media.
15. Y. pestis is
resistant to the following
antibiotics:
a) tetracyclines;
b) beta-lactam;
c) polymexin;
d) rifampicin;
e) chloramphenicol.
c) long sticks;
d) capable of spore formation;
e) do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive.
16. Antigenic structure of Y. pestis
includes the following antigens:
a) somatic;
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21. The reservoir of the plague
agent in nature are:
Machine Translated by Google
a) gophers;
b) fleas;
c) marmots;
27. ÿÿÿ Bacillusanthracis
characteristic:
d) rats.
a) the presence of a capsule;
b) spore formation;
c) mobility;
d) exotoxin production;
e) sensitivity to penicillin.
22. With transmissible
transmission, the patient initially
develops:
a) bubonic plague
b) pneumonic plague;
c) primary septic form of plague.
28. The main method of
laboratory diagnosis of
anthrax is:
a) serodiagnosis;
b) bacterioscopic;
c) bacteriological;
d) allergy diagnostics;
e) biological.
23. Specific
plague vectors by transmissible
transmission
are:
a) fleas;
b) gophers;
c) mice;
d) lice.
29. In the pulmonary form
of anthrax, the test material is:
24. Plague is:
a) sapronosis;
b) zoonosis;
c) anthroponosis.
a) sputum;
b) contents of carbuncles;
c) blood;
d) rejected scab.
25. Plague patients are the most
dangerous as a source of infection:
30. Bacillusanthracis must be
cultured on:
a) meat-liver agar;
b) MPA;
a) in bubonic form;
b) in the pulmonary form;
c) in the primary septic form;
d) in the intestinal form.
26. Bacillusanthracis has the
following cultural properties:
c) blood marathon;
d) Hottinger agar;
e) vitelline environment.
31. The following methods are
used for express diagnostics of
anthrax:
a) immunofluorescent analysis;
b) radioimmunoassay;
c) ELISA;
d) precipitation reaction;
d) PCR.
a) are not demanding on
nutrient media;
b) cultivated for 24 hours;
c) grow only on nutrient media of
complex composition;
d) cultivated for 21 days.
32. Bioassay in Siberian
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ulcer is carried out on the
following laboratory animals:
a) white mice;
b) guinea pigs;
c) hamsters;
d) rabbits.
b) capsular;
c) F1 antigen;
d) flagella.
33. The causative agent of anthrax
is resistant to the following
antibiotics:
a) imidazole;
b) tetracycline;
c) erythromycin;
d) ampicillin;
e) ciprofloxacin.
a) cocci;
b) long sticks;
c) form disputes;
37. ÿÿÿ Bacillusanthracis
are characterized by the
following properties:
d) do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive;
e) Gram-negative.
38. For serodiagnosis of
anthrax, the following are used:
a) RPGA;
b) latex reaction
34. For capsules
Bacillus anthracis is characterized
by the following properties:
agglutination;
1) represented by polymers
D-glutamic acid;
2) unique in their chemical
structure (among other
bacteria);
3) antiphagocytic virulence
factor;
4) antibodies to capsular
antigens have protective
properties.
a) if answers 1,2 and 3 are correct;
b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct;
c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct;
d) if the answer is 4.
c) Vidal's reaction;
d) Ascoli precipitation
reaction.
39. Bacillusanthracis ÿÿÿÿÿ
cause the following
clinical forms of the
disease:
a) each;
b) bubonic;
c) intestinal;
d) septic;
e) pulmonary.
35. Bacillusanthracis
pathogenicity factors include:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) W-antigen;
d) capsule.
40. The most severe
clinical forms of anthrax
are:
a) pulmonary;
b) each;
c) intestinal.
41. To determine the
infestation of Bacillusanthracis
36. Bacillusanthracis has
the following antigens:
agricultural raw materials, it
a) somatic;
is necessary to apply the reaction:
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a) agglutination;
b) ring precipitation;
c) RSC;
d) RIA.
b) release of hydrogen sulfide;
c) liquefaction of gelatin;
d) cell morphology;
e) the nature of growth on liquid
and dense nutrient media.
42. Anthrax is:
a) sapronosis;
b) zoonosis;
c) anthroponosis.
48. The main method of
laboratory diagnosis of
tularemia is:
a) serodiagnosis;
b) bacteriological;
c) biological;
d) allergy diagnostics.
43. Francisella
pathogenicity factors
tularensis include:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) W-antigen;
d) Vi antigen.
49. For cultivation of the
causative agent of
tularemia use:
1) yolk agar McCoy;
2) blood glucose
cysteine agar;
3) 5% blood agar.
44. ÿ Francisellatularensis
there are the following
antigens:
a) somatic;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) F1 antigen;
d) flagella.
a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
c) 1, 3 are correct.
50. For serodiagnosis of
the causative agent of
tularemia, use:
a) complement fixation
reaction;
b) Wright's reaction;
c) ELISA;
d) agglutination reaction;
e) Ascoli reaction.
45. For Francisellatularensis
are characterized by the
following properties:
a) cocci;
b) sticks;
c) form disputes;
d) do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive;
e) Gram-negative.
51. Diseases of tularemia in
Russia are caused by the
following subspecies:
a) Holarctic;
b) Nearctic;
c) Central Asian.
52. The main ways of
transmission of the pathogen
46. Tularemia is:
a) sapronosis;
b) zoonosis;
c) anthroponosis.
47. The following tests are used
to identify Francisel latularensis:
a) hemolytic activity;
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c) rats;
tularemia are:
1) airborne;
2) transmissive;
3) alimentary;
4) contact-household.
d) mosquitoes.
57. Tularemia reservoir in vivo
are:
a) 1, 2 are correct;
a) ixodid ticks;
b) hares;
c) rats;
b) 3, 4 are correct;
c) 1, 3 are correct;
d) 2, 4 are correct.
d) mosquitoes.
53. In the absence
of specialized
laboratories for the
diagnosis of tularemia, the
following are most often used:
a) bacteriological method;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) allergy diagnostics;
d) biological method.
58. In the absence
of specialized
laboratories for the
diagnosis of tularemia, the
bacteriological method is not
used, because:
a) the pathogen does not
grow on nutrient media;
b) animals are immune to
tularemia;
c) isolation of pure culture is
allowed only in specialized
laboratories;
54. A bioassay for suspected
tularemia is carried out at the
following laboratory
animals:
a) white mice;
b) guinea pigs;
c) hamsters;
d) rabbits.
d) the pathogen does
not perceive aniline dyes well.
55. Research material
59. The most common disease in
for suspected tularemia
humans is caused by Brucella.
is an:
type:
a) blood;
b) urine;
c) pus from buboes;%
1) B.ovis;
2) B.melitensis;
3) B.abortus
4) B. am;
5) B.neotomae;
6) B.canis.
d) scraping from the bottom of the ulcer.
56. With a transmissible way of
infection with tularemia
transmission of the
pathogen occurs
through:
a) fleas;
b) hares;
a) 1, 5, 6 are correct;
b) 2, 3, 4 are correct;
c) 1,2,3 are correct.
60. To the express
method of laboratory diagnostics
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brucellosis include: a)
bacteriological method; b)
Wright's reaction; c) PCR; d)
complement fixation reaction; e)
Burne test.
65. When brucellosis
is observed: a)
arthritis; b) fever; c)
the formation of
carbuncles; d) skin rashes.
61. Brucella must be
cultivated on: a) liver agar;
b) MPA; c) blood marathon;
d) Hottinger agar; e) McCoy's
yolk agar.
66. For serodiagnosis of
brucellosis, the following
are used: a) Vidal test; b)
Wright's reaction; c)
Huddelson reaction; d)
RNGA.
67. Test material for
suspected brucellosis: a) blood;
b) urine; c) pus from buboes; d)
scraping from the bottom of the
ulcer.
62. Brucella is characterized
by the following features: a)
cocci; b) coccobacteria or short
sticks; c) long sticks; d) form
disputes; e) do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive; g) Gramnegative.
68. The following tests
are used to identify
brucellosis pathogens: a) gelatin
liquefaction; b) the formation of
hydrogen sulfide; c) fermentation
of carbohydrates; d) hemolytic
activity.
63. In brucellosis, a source of
infection for humans
are:
a) bacteria carriers; b)
domestic animals; c) wild
artiodactyls; d) rodents; e)
wild birds; e) predatory
animals.
of the causative agent of brucellosis
69. Burne reaction
is used for: a)
brucellosis allergy
diagnostics; b) allergic
diagnosis of tularemia;
c) serodiagnosis of
anthrax; d) serodiagnosis of
plague.
are:
a) alimentary; b)
contact; c)
aerogenic; d)
transmissive; e)
sexual.
70. The bacterioscopic
method is not used for
laboratory diagnostics of: a)
plague;
64. Ways of transmission
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a) white mice;
b) guinea pigs;
b) tularemia;
c) brucellosis;
d) anthrax.
c) hamsters;
d) rabbits.
71. Pathogenicity factors of
brucellosis pathogens
74. Brucella are:
a) obligate aerobes;
b) obligate anaerobes;
c) facultative anaerobes.
relate:
a) exotoxin;
b) endotoxin;
c) Vi-antigen;
d) capsule.
75. The causative agents
of brucellosis have the
following cultural
72. Brucellosis pathogens
have the following antigens:
a) somatic;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) capsular;
d) flagella.
properties:
a) are not demanding
on nutrient media;
b) cultivated for
24 h;
c) grow only on nutrient media of
complex composition;
d) cultivated for 21 days.
73. A bioassay for suspected
brucellosis is carried out on
the following laboratory
animals:
Section 5
VENERAL DISEASE CAUSES
1. For Neisseriagonorrhoeae
d) form long chains of cells;
the following features are
d) capable of education
L-form.
characteristic:
a) negative Gram stain;
b) aerobic type of respiration;
3. Main methods
laboratory diagnostics of
gonorrhea are:
1) bacteriological method;
2) biological method;
2. The morphology of
Neisseriagon orrhea is
3) serodiagnosis;
characterized by the following features: 4) bacterioscopic method;
5) allergy diagnostics.
a) the presence of spore forms;
c) oxidase-positive;
d) ferment glucose;
e) catalase-positive.
b) the presence of capsules;
a) 1, 2 are correct;
c) are diplococci;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
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d) 1, 4 are correct.
c) casein;
d) lecithin.
4. The test material for suspected
gonorrhea can be:
9. When taking material for
gonococcus, it is necessary:
c) 3, 4 are correct;
a) eliminate the local use of
disinfectants for 2–3 days;
a) discharge of the urethra;
b) discharge of the cervix;
c) vaginal discharge;
d) detachable mucous membrane of the
rectum;
e) detachable conjunctiva;
e) throat swab.
b) exclude chemical provocation;
c) cancel treatment with antibiotics
and sulfonamides 3 days before
taking the material;
5. The biochemical properties of
d) take material from the urethra
Neisseriagonorrhea are characterized by: after prolonged abstinence from
a) release of hydrogen sulfide;
urination (4-5 hours);
b) the formation of indole;
e) take material from the cervix
c) the presence of catalase;
during menstruation.
e) release of ammonia.
10. For laboratory
diagnosis of chronic
gonorrhea, it is necessary to
use:
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) PCR;
c) bacteriological method;
d) biological method.
6. Specify the main pathogenicity
factors of Neisseriagonorrhea:
a) capsule;
b) endotoxin;
c) drank;
d) hyaluronidase.
7. For growing Neisseri agonorrhea
11. For acute gonorrhea
main method
The following nutrient media are
used:
laboratory diagnostics
a) ascites-agar;
is an:
b) Endo environment;
c) JSA;
d) blood agar;
e) agar with bovine heart and
liver extract.
a) bacterioscopic;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) bacteriological;
d) biological.
8. Culture media for growing
Neisseriagonor rhea must contain:
12. Neisseriagonorrhoeae
are:
1) gram positive
microorganisms;
a) blood serum;
b) penicillin;
2) gram-negative
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ÿ)Treponemaorale.
17. Gonorrhea refers to:
a) zoonoses;
b) sapronosis;
c) anthroponoses.
microorganisms;
3) anaerobes;
4) aerobes;
5)optional
anaerobes.
a) 2, 3 are correct;
18. The main ways of transmission
of infection caused by
Neisseriagonorrhoeae are:
a) contact-household;
b) airborne;
d) contact-sexual;
e) transmissive;
e) transplacental.
b) 2, 4 are correct;
c) 3, 5 are correct.
13. To identify Neisseri
agonorrhoeae using
microscopic method, the
following staining methods
are used:
a) Gram decoration;
b) staining with methylene blue;
19. To detect treponema using
a microscopic method, the
following staining methods are
used:
a) Gram stain;
c) coloring according to Ziehl-Neelsen;
d) staining according to Ozheshka.
14. Gonococcal vaccine is
used for:
a) specific prevention of gonorrhea;
b) staining according to Romanovsky
Giemsa;
c) coloring according to Ziehl-Neelsen;
b) treatment of chronic gonorrhea;
c) “provocations” for laboratory
diagnosis of gonorrhea;
d) staining according to Ozheshka.
d) treatment of acute gonorrhea.
the following
20. “Treponemapallidum
antigens:
15. A pure culture of Neisseri
agonorrhoeae can be obtained
by cultivation:
a) on ordinary nutrient media;
a) thermostable protein antigen;
b) Vi-antigen;
c) lipoid antigen;
d) H-antigen.
b) on complex nutrient media;
21. The morphology of Trepo
nemapallidum is characterized
by the following features:
a) the presence of spore forms;
c) on special nutrient media under
anaerobic conditions;
d) in the body of a rabbit.
b) the presence of capsules;
16.Special meaning
c) have 8–12 symmetrical curls;
in human pathology have:
ÿ) Treponema pallidum;
ÿ)Treponemadenticola;
ÿ)Treponemacarateum;
d) form long chains of cells;
e) have 8–12 asymmetrical
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d) cardiolipin antigen;
e) ultrasonic
treponemal antigen;
g) complement;
g) angigenKana;
h) sheep erythrocytes;
i) luminescent serum.
Looks like rsk
wrapped.
22. ÿÿÿTreponemapallidum
the following features are
characteristic:
a) release of hydrogen sulfide;
b) are microaerophiles;
c) catalase-positive;
e) oxidase-negative.
28. To perform RIT for
the purpose of syphilis
serodiagnosis, you must have:
a) the patient's blood serum;
b) culture of treponema strain
Nichols;
c) hemolytic serum;
d) cardiolipin antigen;
e) ultrasonic treponemal
23. Syphilis refers to:
a) anthroponoses;
b) sapronosis;
c) zoonoses.
24. For diagnostics
primary seronegative syphilis
is used:
a) serological method;
b) bacteriological method;
c) bacterioscopic method;
d) biological method.
antigen;
g) complement;
g) angigenKana;
h) sheep erythrocytes;
i) luminescent serum.
25. The main ways of
transmission of syphilis are:
a) airborne;
b) transmissive;
c) contact-sexual;
d) contact household;
e) transplacental.
29. At screening
tests for syphilis are usually
used:
a) Wasserman reaction;
b) RIT;
c) RIF;
d) precipitation microreaction.
26. For the diagnosis
of secondary seropositive
syphilis, use:
a) serological method;
b) bacteriological method;
c) microscopic method;
d) biological method.
30. Positive
the result of the
Wassermann reaction indicates:
a) the presence of hemolysis;
b) the presence of sediment;
c) absence of hemolysis;
d) no sediment.
27. To set up the Wasserman
reaction, you must have:
a) the patient's blood serum;
b) culture of treponema strain
Nichols;
c) hemolytic serum;
31. Representatives of the
genus Trepo nema can cause
the following diseases
person:
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b) blood;
c) detachable hard chancre;
d) detachable soft chancre.
a) soft chancre;
b) syphilis;
c) yaws;
d) pint;
e) relapsing fever.
32. In the bacterioscopic method
of laboratory diagnosis of
syphilis, the following are used:
36. For the treatment of
syphilis, apply:
a) beta-lactams;
b) polyenes;
c) polymyxins;
d) rifampicin.
a) dark-field microscopy;
b) electron microscopy;
c) phase-contrast
37. Trichomonas are
microscopy;
to the empire:
d) fluorescent
a) viruses;
b) bacteria;
c) plants;
microscopy.
33. A pure culture of Trepo
nemapallidum can be obtained
by cultivating:
a) on ordinary nutrient media;
d) mushrooms;
e) animals.
b) on complex nutrient media;
38. With
bacterioscopic diagnosis
ke Trichomonas most often in
practical laboratories use coloring:
c) on special nutrient media under
anaerobic conditions;
d) in the body of a rabbit.
a) according to Ziehl-Nielsen;
b) according to Romanovsky-Giemsa;
c) genitian violet;
d) methylene blue.
34. For laboratory
diagnosis of syphilis, you can
use the material:
1) blood;
39. For laboratory
diagnosis of trichomaniasis
2) cerebrospinal fluid;
apply:
3) detachable chancre;
4) stools.
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) PCR;
c) bioassay;
d) cultural method.
a) 1,2,3 are correct;
b) true 1,3, 4;
c) correct 2,3, 4;
d) true4.
40. For cultivation of T.
vaginalis apply:
a) alkaline MPA;
b) medium with casein hydrolyzate
and yeast;
c) JSA;
d) media with potassium tellurite.
35. For bacterioscopic
examination in case of syphilis,
the following material is taken
for examination:
a) cerebrospinal fluid;
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d) you need blood
41. For laboratory
diagnosis of soft chancre, the
following are used:
a) microscopic method;
b) bacteriological method;
c) allergy diagnostics;
d) bioprbu.
42. The causative agent of
soft chancre is:
ÿ) Haemofilusinfluezeaegiptius;
ÿ) Gardnerellavaginalis;
ÿ) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis;
ÿ) Haemophilus ducrei.
in the environment.
46. Microorganisms of the genus
Haemophilus are characterized by:
a) negative Gram stain;
b) there are flagella;
c) positive Gram stain;
d) have polymorphism;
e) are aerobes.
47. Nutrient media for
growing H. ducreyi
must contain:
a) fresh blood
b) penicillin;
c) increased
concentration of table salt;
43.
ÿÿÿH.ducreyiÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ
the following signs:
a) grow well on ordinary nutrient
media;
b) grow on a blood mare;
c) positive Gram stain;
d) lecithin.
d) do not form a dispute;
48. In human pathology, the
e) immobile;
e) do not form capsules.
largest share
have:
ÿ) Haemophilusinfluenza;
e)H.aphrophilus;
ÿ)H.egyptius;
ÿ)H.parainfluenzae;
ÿ)H.parahaemolyticus;
ÿ) H.ducreyi.
44. With the microscopic
method of diagnosing H.ducreyi
The following staining methods are used:
a) by Gram;
b) methylene blue;
c) according to Neisser;
d) in Oÿeÿko.
45. For cultivation of micro
organisms of the genus Haemophilus:
a) the presence of growth
factors in the medium is necessary;
b) it is necessary to have
serum in the medium;
c) the presence of adsorbents
49. Specify the
pathogenicity factors of
pale treponema:
a) PPE;
b) outer membrane proteins;
c) exotoxins;
d) capsule.
50. III stage of disease
development (visceral
in the medium is necessary;
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syphilis) is characterized by:
a) the formation of a hard chancre;
b) the formation of rashes;
c) the formation of granulomas.
Section 6
MICROBIOLOGY OF RICKETSIOSIS,
SPIROCHETOSIS, LEPTOSPIROSIS,
CHLAMIDIOSIS
d) dense nutrient media with
amino acids;
e) arthropods - carriers.
4. The causative agent of Q fever
1. For serodiagnosis of
rickettsiosis, the following are used:
a) complement fixation
reaction;
b) agglutination reaction;
c) RNGA;
d) enzyme immunoassay;
e) precipitation reaction.
is an:
ÿ) Borreliareciurrentis
ÿ) Coxiellaburnetii;
ÿ)Leptospirainterrogans;
ÿ) Rickettsia prowazekii;
d) Borreliaburgdorferi.
2. Representatives of the genus
Rickettsia are characterized by
the following features:
5. ÿÿÿCoxiellaburnetii
a) grow on liquid media of
complex composition;
b) grow on media in
the presence of host
cells;
c) positive Gram stain;
the following
signs:
a) are obligate intracellular
parasites;
b) polymorphic;
c) positively
stained by Gram;
d) form disputes.
d) negative Gram stain;
e) are obligate intracellular
6. For the cultivation of Coxiel
laburnetii use:
a) cell cultures;
b) liquid nutrient media with
native protein;
c) chicken embryos;
d) dense nutrient media with
amino acids;
e) arthropods - carriers.
parasites;
e) cause transmissible
infections;
g) not pathogenic
for arthropods.
3. For the cultivation of
rickettsia use:
a) cell cultures;
b) nutrient media with blood;
c) chicken embryos;
7. For serodiagnosis of
Q fever, the following are used:
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a) complement fixation
reaction;
predominantly used:
a) biological method;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) bacterioscopic method;
d) allergological method;
e) bacteriological method.
13. For the specific
prevention of epidemic
typhus, the following are used:
b) agglutination reaction;
c) RPGA;
d) enzyme immunoassay;
e) precipitation reaction.
8. For treatment
epidemic typified
typhus is used:
a) antitoxic serum;
b) tetracyclines;
a) antitoxic serum;
b) live combined
vaccine;
c) inactivated vaccine;
d) antimicrobial serum;
e) penicillins.
c) bacteriophages;
d) penicillins.
9. In humans, Rickett siaprowazekii
breed in:
a) intestinal epithelial cells;
b) endothelial cells
blood vessels;
c) liver cells;
epidemic typified
d) cells of the mucous membrane
of the upper respiratory tract.
ÿ) Rickettsia tiphi;
14. Pathogens
typhus are:
(a) Rickettsia prowazekii;
Borreliarecurentis;
ÿ) Borreliaburgdorferi;
ÿ) Rickettsiasibirica.
10. For differential diagnosis of
epidemic and endemic typhus, use:
15. Pathogens of
endemic typhus
are:
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) bioassay on guinea pigs;
c) serodiagnosis;
d) bacteriological method.
(a) Rickettsia prowazekii;
ÿ) Rickettsia tÿphi;
Borreliarecurentis;
ÿ) Borreliaburgdorferi;
ÿ) Rickettsiasibirica.
11. For the differential diagnosis
of epidemic typhus and Brill's
disease, use:
16. The causative agents of
Brill's disease are:
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) bioassay on guinea pigs;
(a) Rickettsia prowazekii;
c) ELISA;
ÿ) Rickettsia tiphi;
d) precipitation reaction.
Borreliarecurentis;
ÿ) Borreliaburgdorferi;
ÿ) Rickettsiasibirica.
12. For laboratory
diagnosis of typhus
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17. The following features are typical
b) growth in the form of uniform
for mycoplasmas:
granular, convex, partially growing
a) do not grow on nutrient media;
into agar colonies;
b) do not have a cell wall;
c) growth under anaerobic conditions;
c) are membrane parasites;
d) growth on a simple dense
d) capable of spore formation.
18. To the main
nutrient medium.
biochemical properties
22. For laboratory diagnosis
of mycoplasmosis
M.pneumoniae include:
apply the following methods:
1) liquefaction of gelatin;
a) cultural method;
2) hemolytic activity;
b) serodiagnosis;
3) hydrolysis of urea;
c) bacterioscopic method;
4) the absence of esculin hydrolysis.
d) allergy diagnostics.
a) 1.2 is correct;
b) 2.3 is correct;
23. Pathogenicity factors
c) 3.4 is correct;
mycoplasmas are:
d) 2.4 is correct.
a) capsule;
b) adhesins;
c) endotoxins;
d) neurominidase.
19. For microplasmas
not typical:
a) the presence of a true cell wall;
24. To the order of Spirochaetales
include the following genera:
b) the presence of a three-
ÿ) Treponema;
(b) Rickettsia;
ÿ) Chlamydia;
ÿ)Borrelia;
d) Leptospira.
layer membrane;
c) cell polymorphism;
d) negative Gram stain.
20. In humans, diseases are most
25. Signs characteristic of all
spirochetes:
a) are obligate intracellular
parasites;
b) absence of
peptidoglycan;
often caused
mycoplasma species:
ÿ) M.mycoides;
6) M. of the lungs;
ÿ)M.pneumoniae;
ÿ)M. of man.
c) representatives have a
spiral shape;
d) mobility;
e) membrane parasitism.
21. For the species M.pneumoniae
the following features are
characteristic:
26. Hard chancre is:
a) growth on a dense special medium in
the presence of yeast extract;
a) the location of the input
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gate of infection;
b) the place of primary reproduction of
treponemas;
c) manifestation of a generalized
infection;
d) the result of the action
of bacterial toxins;
e) focus of nonspecific
granulomatous
31. The causative agent of
epidemic relapsing fever is:
ÿ) Borreliareciurrentis
ÿ) Borreliapersica;
ÿ)Leptospirainterrogans;
ÿ) Rickettsia prowazekii;
d) Borreliaburgdorferi.
32. For differential
inflammation.
diagnosing an epidemic
and endemic relapsing fevers are
used:
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) bioassay on guinea pigs;
c) serodiagnosis.;
d) allergy diagnostics.
27. The most susceptible spirochetes
to aniline dyes are:
a) treponema;
b) borrelii;
c) leptospira;
d) mycoplasmas.
33. Microscopy of blood products
stained according to RomanovskyGiemsa,
28. Borrelia can cause the following
infections:
a) lousy relapsing fever;
b) tick-borne relapsing fever;
c) Lyme disease;
d) typhoid fever;
e) epidemic typhus.
used for diagnosis:
a) typhus;
b) relapsing fever;
c) seronegative syphilis;
d) seropositive syphilis;
e) leptospirosis.
29. The causative agent of
Lyme disease is:
34. Detection of a pathogen in the
blood of a patient with the help of
bacterioscopy of preparations in a
dark field of vision is
basic methods and
(a) Rickettsia prowazekii;
ÿ) Rickettsia tiphi;
Borreliarecurentis;
ÿ) Borreliaburgdorferi;
ÿ) Rickettsiasibirica.
laboratory diagnostics:
a) leptospirosis;
b) seropositive syphilis;
c) seronegative syphilis;
d) relapsing fever;
e) typhus.
30. The following methods
are used for laboratory diagnosis of
relapsing fever:
a) microscopy of blood
obtained at the height of fever;
b) serological reactions;
c) isolation of blood culture;
d) bioprobe.
35. For laboratory
diagnosis of Lyme disease, use:
a) bacterioscopic method;
b) PCR;
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C. trachomatis inside
the affected cell can be used:
c) ELISA;
d) isolation of the pathogen in
pure culture.
a) Gram decoration;
b) staining according to Romanovsky
Giemsa;
36. The following features are
typical for T. pallidum:
a) high stability in the
external environment;
b) do not grow on nutrient media;
c) light microscopy of native
micropreparations;
d) immunofluorescent
method;
e) staining according to the Neisser method.
c) have periplasmic fibrils;
41. Biological method
used for diagnosis:
d) poorly perceive aniline
dyes;
e) the possibility of a placenta
ary transmission.
a) syphilis;
b) epidemic relapsing fever;
c) endemic relapsing fever;
37. Chlamydia include:
a) to viruses;
b) to gram-negative bacteria;
d) chlamydia.
42. For the cultivation of
chlamydia use:
a) cell cultures;
b) liquid nutrient media with native
protein;
c) chicken embryos;
d) dense nutrient media with amino
acids;
e) arthropods - carriers.
c) to gram-positive bacteria;
d) to the simplest.
38. Reproduction of chlamydia
can occur:
a) in the external environment;
b) on simple nutrient media;
43. Chlamydia are:
a) obligate
intracellular parasites;
b) facultative parasites;
c) saprophytes;
d) opportunistic pathogens.
c) in cell culture;
d) in a chick embryo.
39. For laboratory
diagnostics
chlamydia use:
a) PCR;
b) ELISA;
44. Chlamydial infection is
characterized by:
a) the presence of
strong post-infectious immunity;
b) the probability of persistence
of the pathogen;
c) the possibility of intrapartum
infection;
c) staining according to Romanovsky
Giemsa;
d) isolation of a pure culture of the
pathogen.
40. To discover
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d) the possibility of secondary
infections;
e) high infectivity.
e) the possibility
of immunoprophylaxis.
48. Chlamydia reticular
bodies have the following
properties:
a) metabolic inertia;
b) metabolic activity;
c) stability in the external
environment;
d) the ability to divide;
e) intracellular localization;
e) low infectivity.
45. Features
chlamydia reproductions
are:
a) cells divide by binary fission;
b) alternation of phases of elementary
and reticular bodies;
c) protein synthesis on the
ribosomes of the host cell;
49. In the human body, Coxiel
laburnetii reproduces in:
a) intestinal epithelial cells;
b) endothelial cells of
blood vessels;
c) in mononuclear macrophages;
d) cells of the mucous membrane
of the upper respiratory tract;
e) in histiocytes.
d) reproduction inside
phagosomes; from
e) dependence on
energy metabolism
host cells.
46. The following signs are
typical for chlamydia:
a) obligate intracellular parasites;
50. After the transferred
chlamydial infection:
a) immunity is not formed;
b) intense
antitoxic immunity
is formed;
c) unstressed antibacterial immunity
is formed;
d) intense antibacterial immunity
is formed.
b) resistance to beta-lactams;
c) have 18 serovars;
d) saprophytes;
e) resistant to tetracycline
drugs.
47. Chlamydia elementary
bodies have the following
properties:
a) metabolic inertia;
b) metabolic activity;
c) stability in the external environment;
d) the ability to divide;
e) intracellular localization;
Section 7
VIRUSOLOGY
1. For all representatives
kingdoms Vira characteristically
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a) detection of the virus in the
chick embryo;
b) detection of the virus in cell
culture;
c) virus identification;
d) serodiagnosis of viral
diseases.
the presence of the
following main features:
a) lack of
cellular structure;
b) the presence of only one type
of nucleic acid;
c) the presence of a proteinsynthesizing system;
6. Respiratory infections can
be caused by the following
viruses:
a) paramyxoviruses;
b) adenoviruses;
c) rotaviruses;
d) arboviruses;
e) picornaviruses
e) coronaviruses.
d) disjunctive type of
reproduction;
e) the presence of a nucleoid.
2. The material intended for
virological examination must first:
a) treat with an alkali solution;
b) treat with antibiotics;
c) warm up at a temperature
of 80 °C for 20 minutes;
d) centrifuge.
7. To identify viruses
can be used:
a) RTGA;
b) Salk color sample;
c) RSC;
g) RIT;
e) pH.
3. The following phenomena
are used to indicate viruses
in cell culture:
a) the phenomenon of hemadsorption;
8. Viral gastroenteritis can
cause
b) the phenomenon of interference;
members of the following families:
c) Salk test;
d) plaque formation;
a) paramyxoviruses;
b) adenoviruses;
c) rotaviruses;
d) arboviruses;
e) rhinoviruses;
e) coronaviruses.
e) the phenomenon of diffraction.
4. The following phenomena
are used to indicate viruses
in chicken embryos:
a) the death of the embryo;
9. The following viruses are
resistant to ether:
a) RNA-containing;
b) having a supercapsid;
c) DNA-containing;
d) do not have a supercapsid.
b) the phenomenon of interference;
c) Salk test;
d) plaque formation;
e) change of shells.
5. Haemadsorption reaction
is used for:
10. The following types are available
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interactions between viruses
and cells
c) formation of a new generation of virions.
a) disjunctive;
b) productive;
14. Symplast is called:
c) abortive;
a) giant multinucleated cell;
d) integrative.
b) a set of erythrocytes adsorbed on
11. For a productive type of
the surface of a cell affected by a virus;
interaction between a virus and a
cell, it is typical:
a) interruption of the infectious process
c) viral inclusions in the cell;
in the cell at a certain stage;
d) sponge-like accumulations of
nervous tissue that have arisen
under the influence of prions.
b) integration of viral DNA in the
form of a pravirus into the chromosome
15. Peplos is called:
cells and joint
a) nucleocapsid;
Existence;
b) supercapsid;
c) the formation of a new generation of
c) capsomer;
virions.
d) virion.
12. For the integrative type of
16. Simply arranged viruses are
interaction of a virus with a cell, it is
characterized by the presence of:
characteristic:
a) capsid;
a) interruption of the infectious process
b) supercapsid;
in the cell at a certain stage;
c) capsomeres;
d) ash meters.
b) integration of viral DNA in the form
of a pravirus into the chromosome
17. Complex viruses are
cells and joint
characterized by the presence of:
Existence;
a) capsid;
c) formation of a new generation of virions.
b) supercapsid;
c) capsomeres;
d) ash meters.
13. For the abortive type of
interaction of the virus with the
18. The capsid consists of
cell, it is characteristic:
morphological subunits, which are:
a) interruption of the infectious process
in the cell at a certain stage;
a) polypeptides;
b) capsomeres;
b) integration of viral DNA in the
form of a pravirus into the chromosome
c) polysaccharides;
d) ash meters.
cells and joint
Existence;
19. The phenomenon of interference
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ÿÿÿÿ;
used to detect:
a) viruses that do not give
c) treatment and emergency
prevention of viral infections.
distinct cytopathic
actions;
b) viruses with distinct
manifestations of cytopathic
actions;
24. Influenza virus belongs to the
family:
a) orthomyxoviruses;
c) vesicular somatitis virus;
d) DNA-containing viruses.
b) rhabdoviruses;
c) retroviruses;
d) adenoviruses.
20. To the main
taxonomic categories used in virology,
25. Polyvalent influenza serum is
used for:
a) emergency prevention;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) express diagnostics;
d) treatment.
26. Live antiviral
the vaccine is used for:
a) prevention;
b) serodiagnosis;
c) express diagnostics;
d) treatment.
relate:
(a) families;
b) tribes;
c) childbirth;
d) subfamilies;
e) departments.
21. The classification of viruses
is based on the following categories:
a) type of nucleic acid;
b) size and morphology of virions;
c) tinctorial properties;
27. Family Orthomixoviridae
includes the following generic
taxa:
d) the presence of a supercapsid;
e) antigenic properties.
ÿ) Influence;
ÿ)Pneumovirus;
ÿ)Enterovirus;
ÿ)Rhinovirus;
d) Rotavirus.
22. The main types of crops
cells are:
a) primary;
b) secondary;
c) semi-transplantable;
28. All members of the
family Orthomixoviridae
are:
d) transplanted.
23. Human leukocyte
a) complex viruses;
b) (-) RNA viruses;
c) do not have extrahuman
reservoir;
interferon
use for:
a) diagnosis of viral infections;
d) pathogens of acute respiratory infections;
b) determining the level of
natural resistance in
e) have a nucleocapsid
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spiral symmetry.
34. Replication of
29. Influenza viruses A, B, C
differ in the following ways:
orthomyxoviruses
initiate:
a) protease;
a) ecology;
b) the scale of antigenic
variability;
b) RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase;
c) reverse transcriptase;
d) neuraminidase;
c) the structure of the virion;
e) endonuclease.
d) spectrum of virion enzymes;
e) degree of "epidemicity".
35. Hemagglutinin
orthomyxoviruses:
30. Spikes of orthomyxoviruses are:
a) initiates the interaction of the virus
with the cell;
b) acquires activity after limited
proteolysis;
c) is a confluence factor;
a) matrix protein;
b) polysaccharide;
c) hemagglutinin;
d) nucleoprotein;
e) neuraminidase.
31. Proteins (glycoproteins)
supercapsid
d) is protective
antigen;
e) different epiotropic
conservatism;
orthomyxoviruses are:
f) present in all types (species) of the
genus Influenza.
a) neuraminidase;
b) matrix protein;
c) hemagglutinin;
d) nucleoprotein;
e) RNA polymerase complex.
36. Orthomyxovirus
neuraminidase:
a) is protective
32. Nucleocapsid proteins
antigen;
orthomyxoviruses are:
b) ensures the reception of
a) nucleoprotein;
b) M-protein;
c) hemagglutinin;
d) neuraminidase;
e) enzymes of the RNA
polymerase complex.
virions;
c) is a factor
distribution;
d) different epiotropic
variability;
33. The genome
of orthomyxoviruses is characterized by:
a) fragmentation;
b) high mutability;
c) (-) RNA;
d) transcription / replication in the
cytoplasm;
e) DNA.
109
e) present in all types (species) of
the genus Influenza.
37. Antigenic shift
flu viruses:
a) is characteristic only for type A;
b) has an ecological
determination;
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c) is accompanied by a
change in subtypes of surface proteins
d) hemagglutination
inhibition reaction;
e) indirect reaction
virion;
hemagglutination.
d) contributes to the emergence
pandemic strains;
41. Influenza viruses can cause
epidemics:
a) type A;
b) type B;
e) accompanied by a change in
the antigenic (epiotropic) profile of
nucleocapsid proteins;
c) types A and C.
e) has a genetic
determination.
42. The genome of influenza A
virus is represented by:
38. Modern subtypes
a) 8 fragments of a single-filament
linear "minus-filament"
human influenza A virus
are:
an RNA molecule;
e) HN1.
39. Specify the life cycle stage of
b) double-stranded DNA
with a single-stranded region;
c) fragments of single-stranded linear
“minus-stranded” RNA;
d) unfragmented
single-filament linear "plusfilament"
the influenza A virus that is
sensitive to adamantane derivatives
(rimantadine, etc.):
RNA molecule.
43. Influenza virus reproduction
occurs:
a) H2N2;
b) H3N2;
c) H5N1;
d) H3N3;
a) in the cells of the
a) virion reception;
epithelium of the respiratory tract;
b) penetration of the virion
into the cell;
b) in the cells of the lymph nodes
of the respiratory tract;
c) intraendosomal
c) in macrophages of lymph nodes;
"undressing" of the virion;
d) transport of the nucleocapsid into the nucleus;
d) in erythrocytes.
e) transcription and replication of viral
RNA;
44. For the treatment of influenza, you can
use:
f) assembly of virions (at the
stage of "budding").
a) remantadine;
b) penicillin;
c) interferon;
d) anti-influenza gamma
globulin;
e) inactivated influenza
vaccine.
40. For serodiagnosis
influenza infection is used:
a) complement fixation
reaction;
b) precipitation;
c) immunoblotting;
45. Specify generic taxa
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a) DNA-containing;
b) RNA-containing;
c) paramyxovirus.
family Paramyxoviridae:
ÿ) Rotavirus;
ÿ)Paramyxovirus;
c) Rubulavirus;
ÿ)Rhinovirus;
ÿ)Morbillivirus;
f) Pneumovirus.
50. The measles virus
can cause:
a) sclerotizing
encephalitis;
b) acute encephalitis;
c) herpetic eruptions on the
surface of the skin.
46. Select the provisions
that are valid for
paramyxoviruses:
a) the probability of shift variations;
b) antigenic (epiotropic)
conservatism;
c) ability to
symplast formation;
d) ecological heterogeneity;
e) universal tendency to
persistence.
51. Rhinoviruses cause in
humans:
a) contagious rhinitis;
b) gastroenteritis;
c) encephalomeningitis.
52. Adenoviruses can cause:
47. Serological
heterogeneity of
paramyxoviruses:
a) is a reflection
shift variations;
b) is the result
drift variations;
c) fixed in stable (conservative)
immunotypes;
a) conjunctivitis;
b) SARS;
c) hepatitis;
d) encephalitis;
e) gastroenteritis.
53. Viruses, causative
agents of the following
diseases, have a tropism
for nervous tissue:
a) polio;
b) tick-borne encephalitis;
c) mumps;
d) hepatitis A;
e) rabies;
e) hepatitis B.
d) manifests itself at the level
supercapsid proteins;
e) has pathogenetic parallels.
48. For early prevention of
measles use:
54. Of the listed viral infections,
the transmissible mechanism of
transmission
a) live measles vaccine;
b) killed measles vaccine;
c) anti-measles
gamma globulin.
typical for:
a) bark;
b) tick-borne encephalitis;
c) mumps;
49. The measles virus is:
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d) hepatitis A;
e) rabies;
f) AIDS.
common for enteroviruses:
a) entrance gate of infection;
b) zones of primary reproduction;
c) pathogenetically significant
viremia;
d) identity of pathogenetically significant
targets;
e) a high percentage of
asymptomatic infections;
f) antigenic conservatism;
g) stability in the external
environment.
55. Specify the provisions
that are valid for human
adenoviruses:
a) serological (antigenic) heterogeneity;
b) pathogenetic
heterogeneity;
c) universal ability
k persuasions;
d) universal oncogenicity (for animals);
59. To the genus of enteroviruses
belong to:
a) rhinoviruses;
b) ECHO viruses;
c) poliomyelitis virus;
d) hepatitis A virus;
e) rotaviruses;
e) hepatitis B virus;
e) tendency to shift and
drift mutations.
56. For persistence
adenoviruses are characterized
by the following features:
g) measles virus;
a) a universal property of all
adenoviruses;
b) associated with lymphoid tissue
(lymphocytes);
c) supported by antiapoptotic factors of adenoviruses;
h) Coxsackie viruses.
60. The following features
are characteristic of
picornaviruses:
a) cubic (icosahedral) type of symmetry;
d) associated with the antigenic
variability of adenoviruses (selection
of immunoresistant / "escaping" mutants);
b) (+) RNA;
c) replication in the cytoplasm;
d) cytolysis of target cells;
e) high antigenic
e) is supported by the active antiimmune strategy of adenoviruses.
variability.
61. Specify picornaviruses excreted
with faeces:
a) Coxsackieviruses;
b) polioviruses;
c) ECHO viruses;
d) aphthoviruses;
e) rhinoviruses;
e) hepatitis A virus.
57. The genome of adenoviruses
is represented by:
a) one single-stranded linear "minusstranded" RNA molecule;
b) double-stranded linear DNA;
c) 8 fragments of single-stranded linear
“minus-stranded” RNA.
58. List the provisions,
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62. List the
picornaviruses
represented by
the largest number of serotypes:
a) polioviruses;
b) ECHO viruses;
c) rhinoviruses;
d) Coxsackie viruses;
e) hepatitis A virus.
c) hepatitis viruses;
d) ECHO viruses.
63. Indicate the
zones of the most intense
c) attenuated strains of
poliomyelitis viruses;
d) attenuated strains of rabies
viruses;
e) antibodies against
poliomyelitis viruses;
e) antibodies against rabies
viruses.
67. Polio
Sebina oral vaccine
contains:
a) inactivated poliomyelitis
viruses;
b) inactivated rabies viruses;
primary reproduction of
enteroviruses:
a) tonsils;
b) enterocytes;
c) Peyrov's patches;
d) epithelial cells of the
oral cavity;
e) respiratory epithelium;
e) regional
lymph nodes.
68. Zones of primary
replication of polioviruses
are:
a) lymphoid tissue of the oropharynx;
64. Polioviruses affect:
b) enterocytes;
c) lymphoid tissue
associated with the small
intestine;
d) epithelial cells of the oral cavity;
e) CNS neurons;
e) regional lymph nodes.
a) neurons of the
anterior horns of the spinal cord;
b) neurons
of the medulla oblongata;
c) forebrain neurons.
65. Polioviruses by antigenic
properties
subdivided into:
a) 4 serovars;
b) 3 serovars;
c) 7 serovars.
69. The genome of the polio virus
is represented by:
a) single-filament "plus-filament"
RNA;
b) double-stranded linear DNA;
66. Of enterovirus
infections, specific
prophylaxis is currently
developed for diseases
c) double-stranded circular DNA
with single strand.
70. For serodiagnosis
called:
poliomyelitis with
a) Coxsackie viruses;
b) polyviruses of groups 1–3;
CPE neutralization reactions
must have:
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a) paired sera of the patient;
(VIEF);
b) diagnostic sera
against polioviruses;
c) RSC;
d) RNGA;
c) diagnosticum;
e) RIF;
d) reference strains of viruses
f) ELISA.
poliomyelitis;
76. Hepatitis B is
transmitted in the following ways:
e) culture of HeLa cells;
f) suspension of goose erythrocytes.
a) parenteral;
b) sexual;
c) food;
d) transmissive;
e) water.
71. With viral hepatitis B, the
incubation period
is:
a) 50–180 days;
b) 7–14 days;
c) 15–45 days.
77. For hepatitis B
serodiagnosis, the following are used:
a) RTGA;
72. With viral hepatitis A, the
b) precipitation reaction (VIEF);
c) flocculation reaction;
incubation period
is:
d) RNGA;
a) 50–180 days;
b) 7–14 days;
c) 15–45 days.
e) RIF;
f) ELISA.
78. Hepatitis B virus genome
is represented by:
73. Hepatitis A virus genome
is represented by:
a) single-filament "plus-filament"
RNA;
a) single-filament "plus-filament"
RNA;
b) double-stranded linear RNA;
b) double-stranded linear DNA;
c) two-stranded
c) double-stranded circular DNA
with a single-stranded region.
74. Hepatitis B is characterized by:
a) transition of an acute form
circular DNA with
a single-stranded region.
79. Hepatitis viruses belong to the
following families:
into chronic;
b) the presence of a more
severe clinical picture than with
hepatitis A;
ÿ) Hepadnaviridae;
ÿ) Flaviviridae;
ÿ) Caliciviridae;
ÿ)Picornaviridae;
ÿ)Adenoviridae;
e) Orthomyxoviridae;
c) parenteral route of transmission.
75. For serodiagnosis of
hepatitis A, the following are used:
e) Herpesviridae.
a) agglutination reaction;
b) precipitation reaction
80. Specify "parenteral"
hepatitis viruses:
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a) hepatitis B virus (HBV);
b) hepatitis C virus (HCV);
c) hepatitis A virus (HVA);
d) hepatitis E virus (HVE);
e) hepatitis D virus (HBD).
for the following hepatotropic viruses:
a) hepatitis B virus;
b) hepatitis C virus;
c) hepatitis D virus;
d) hepatitis A virus;
e) hepatitis E virus.
81. Specify hepatitis viruses with
fecal-oral transmission mechanism
(“intestinal”
86. Vaccination has been
developed for the following viral
hepatitis:
a) HBV;
b) NBA;
c) NVS;
ÿ)HBD;
d) NVE.
viruses):
a) hepatitis B virus (HBV);
b) hepatitis C virus (HCV);
c) hepatitis A virus (HVA);
d) hepatitis E virus (HVE);
e) hepatitis D virus (HBD).
82. The genus Hepatovirus of the
picornavirus family includes:
a) hepatitis B virus;
b) hepatitis C virus;
c) hepatitis D virus;
d) hepatitis A virus;
e) hepatitis E virus.
87. Hepatitis A virus:
a) belongs to the
Hepadnaviridae family;
b) belongs to the Picornaviridae
family;
c) belongs to the Fla viviridae
family;
d) belongs to the genus Hepatovirus;
e) belongs to the genus Enterovirus.
83. Choose a defective virus
hepatitis A:
88. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the hepatitis
A virus genome:
a) (-) RNA;
b) (+) RNA;
c) defective DNA;
d) retroRNA;
e) segmentation.
a) hepatitis B virus;
b) hepatitis C virus;
c) hepatitis D virus;
d) hepatitis A virus;
e) hepatitis E virus.
84. Specify the general signs of
viral hepatitis:
a) anthroponosis;
b) zoonoses;
c) fecal-oral transmission mechanism;
89. Specify the provisions
that are valid for viral
hepatitis A:
d) vertical transmission
mechanism;
e) persistence of the pathogen.
a) persistent post-infectious
immunity;
b) type-specific
85. Persistence is characteristic
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core HBV virion:
a) HBs;
b) HBs;
c) HBe;
d) HBpol;
e) Dane particles.
immunity;
c) tendency to chronicity;
d) prolonged viremia;
e) “virological recovery”.
90. List
characteristics
modern HAV vaccine:
a) live attenuated virus;
b) killed virus;
c) recombinant HAV antigen;
d) polytype vaccine;
e) DNA vaccine.
95. HBs antigen of
hepatitis B virus :
a) is a component
core of the virus
b) contains protective
B epitopes common to all
HBV strains;
c) performs the functions
of a virion receptor;
d) is universal
indicator of HBV infection;
e) can circulate in the form of free
(not associated with virions)
aggregates.
91. Hepatitis B virus belongs to
the following family:
a) retroviruses;
b) hepadnaviruses;
c) picornaviruses;
d) orthomyxoviruses;
e) poxviruses.
96. HBe-antigen of
hepatitis B virus has the
following properties:
a) is formed as a result of
proteolysis of the HBs antigen;
b) is formed as a result of
proteolysis of the HBc antigen;
c) structural (virion) protein;
d) serological marker of
integrative HBV infection;
e) indicator of replicative HBV
infection.
97. Specify the factors
contributing to the wide
spread of HBV infection:
92. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the
hepatitis B virus :
a) simple (shellless)
virus);
b) RNA virus;
c) tendency to shift and drift
mutations;
d) tendency to persistence;
e) reproduces well in cell
cultures.
93. Name the structural
(virion) components of
hepatitis B virus :
a) HBs;
b) HBs;
c) HBe;
d) Hbpol;
e) HBx.
a) asymptomatic
(asymptomatic) viremia;
b) high sensitivity to the virus;
c) the presence of an epidemic
significant virus concentrations
94. Specify components
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in outer secrets;
d) multiple ways of transmission;
101. Select the mechanisms
that contribute to the persistence
of the hepatitis C virus:
e) the existence of
"extrahuman" reservoirs of infection;
a) high antigenic variability
of the virus;
b) selection of immunoresistant clones;
f) resistance of the virus in
the external environment.
c) integrative virogeny;
d) the existence of extrahepatic reservoirs
of infection;
e) active anti-immune strategy.
98. Modern specific
prevention of viral hepatitis B is
based on the use of the following
drugs:
102. After tick-borne
a) live vaccine;
b) a killed vaccine;
c) recombinant HBs antigen;
d) donor HBs antigen;
e) DNA vaccine.
encephalitis is formed:
a) short type-specific
immunity due to IgG;
99. List the provisions that are
valid for the hepatitis D virus:
c) lifelong immunity due to IgM.
b) lifelong immunity due to IgG;
103. To arbovirus (flaridae)
infections
a) a defective virus;
b) helper virus;
c) RNA virus;
d) replicates only in the
presence of HBV;
e) uses the HBs antigen to build
a supercapsid
e) enhances the aggressiveness of HBV.
relate:
a) polio;
b) sclerosing panencephalitis;
c) tick-borne encephalitis;
d) hemorrhagic fevers;
d) rage.
104. To prevent infection
with tick-borne encephalitis,
it is enough to do the following:
100. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the hepatitis
C virus:
a) (+) RNA virus;
b) complex (enveloped) virus;
c) genotypic
heterogeneity;
d) tendency to persistence;
e) ability to integrative virogeny;
a) removal of the ixodid tick;
b) the introduction of inactivated
sorbed serum; (killed vaccines)
c) treatment of the
penetration site with iodine.
105. Tick-borne
encephalitis virus refers to:
a) flaviviruses;
e) high antigenic
variability.
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a) bark;
b) hepatitis B;
c) rabies;
d) tick-borne encephalitis.
b) picornavirus;
c) retroviruses.
106. Common
to pathogens of
arbovirus infections
111. Rabies is transmitted:
a) transmissible;
b) contact;
c) fecal-oral.
is an:
a) the genome is represented by RNA;
b) the genome is represented by DNA;
c) airborne transmission;
112. One of the first signs
of rabies is:
a) mimic paralysis
muscles;
b) general malaise,
irritability, insomnia;
c) increased salivation.
d) transmissible transmission path;
e) natural foci.
107. Infection with arbovirus infections
occurs when:
a) an arthropod bite; (tick)
b) animal tastes;
c) contact with the skin of the saliva
of a sick animal;
113. Rabies virus has tropism:
a) to the intestinal epithelium;
d) caring for sick animals.
b) to the nervous tissue;
c) to nervous tissue and tissue
108. Of the listed serovar
viruses
salivary glands.
do not have viruses:
114. Drugs used for specific
prevention of rabies:
a) hepatitis B;
b) adenoviruses;
ÿ)ECHO;
a) killed whole virion
d) poliomyelitis;
e) Coxsackie;
f) bark.
vaccine;
b) live attenuated vaccine;
c) subunit vaccine;
d) DNA vaccine;
109. Babes-Negri bodies these are specific
e) specific immunoglobulin.
cytoplasmic
115. Anti-rabies cultural
vaccine contains:
inclusions that can be found in
cells:
a) the liver;
a) inactivated poliomyelitis viruses;
b) hippocampus;
c) epithelium of the nasal passages;
d) kidneys.
110. Babes-Negri bodies can be
found in cells affected by the virus:
b) inactivated rabies viruses;
c) attenuated strains of poliomyelitis
viruses;
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ÿ)Retroviridae;
2) Orthomixoviridae.
d) attenuated strains of rabies
viruses;
e) antibodies against
poliomyelitis viruses;
e) antibodies against rabies
viruses.
120. Select the provisions
that are valid for the HIV genome:
a) (+) RNA;
b) (-) RNA;
c) DNA;
d) retro-RNA;
e) diploidy;
e) fragmentation.
116. Rabies virus belongs to the
following taxa (family, genus):
ÿ) Reoviridae;
ÿ)Rhabdoviridae;
ÿ)Retroviridae;
ÿ)Lyssavirus;
ÿ)Adenoviridae;
ÿ) Poxviridae;
e) Paramyxoviridae.
121. Biological
substrates that contain an
epidemically significant
concentration of HIV,
are:
a) saliva
b) lacrimal fluid;
c) blood;
d) urine;
e) cervical secret;
f) semen;
g) breast milk.
117. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the rabies
virus:
a) the presence of a supercapsid;
b) viremia;
c) intraaxonal transport;
d) antigenic variability;
e) neurotropism;
f) asymptomatic wildlife reservoir.
122. Indicate the main
pathogenetically significant
target for HIV:
a) macrophages;
118. Absence of antibodies
to the causative agent of AIDS:
a) always indicates the
absence of infection;
b) it is natural for the
seronegative period of
infection;
c) observed in the terminal stage of
AIDS.
b) dendritic cells;
c) CD 8 T-lymphocytes;
d) CD 4 T-lymphocytes;
e) B-lymphocytes;
e) plasma cells.
123. Choose a virion
enzyme that starts HIV
infection:
a) reverse transcriptase;
b) RNAase;
c) integrase;
d) protease;
e) RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase.
119. Specify a family
viruses to which HIV
belongs:
ÿ) Picornaviridae;
ÿ) Paramixoviridae;
ÿ)Herpesviridae;
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124. Specify the virion
enzyme that terminates
HIV replication:
a) reverse transcriptase;
b) RNAase;
c) integrase;
d) protease;
e) RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase.
128. Select the provisions
that are valid for the latent
(chronic) phase of HIV infection:
a) lack of clinical
symptomatic;
b) seropositivity
(anti-HIV antibodies);
c) high level of HIV
viremia;
d) progressive decrease in the
number of CD4 T-lymphocytes;
e) self-stopping;
e) clinically significant
immunodeficiency.
125. Targets for HIV
protease are:
a) regulatory (non-structural) HIV
peptides;
b) virion proteins;
c) precursors of virion proteins;
129. Specify serological markers
that can be
d) precursors of
regulatory HIV peptides;
e) host cell proteins.
used in diagnostics
HIV infections:
a) HIV antibodies;
b) HIV-RNA;
c) HIV provirus;
d) HIV antigens;
d) CD4.
126. Specify the cells,
supporting HIV
persistence:
a) macrophages;
b) neutrophils;
c) CD 8 T-lymphocytes;
d) CD 4 T-lymphocytes;
e) B-lymphocytes.
130. Vaccination is used for
the following paramyxovirus
infections:
a) mumps;
b) RSV infection;
127. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the acute
phase of HIV infection:
a) clinical specifics;
b) mandatory seropositivity (anti-HIV
antibodies);
c) drop in the ratio between CD4
and CD8 T-lymphocytes (CD4 /
CD8 ratio);
d) high level
HIV viremia;
e) fast (weeks) selfstopping.
c) measles;
d) parainfluenza infection;
e) all of the above.
131. Specify the features
that unite viruses of the
Herpesviridae family:
a) the structure and morphology of the virion;
b) DNA homology;
c) antigenic relationship;
d) community of natural
reservoirs;
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e) the presence of
reverse transcriptase;
f) tendency to persistence.
drugs:
a) RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase;
b) DNA-dependent
RNA polymerase;
c) RNA-dependent
DNA polymerase (reverse
transcriptase);
d) DNA-dependent DNA
polymerase (DNA polymerase);
e) campingamRNA enzymes.
132. List the provisions that are
fair for herpesvirus infections
person:
a) anthroponosis;
b) have a limited
distribution;
c) may be epidemic in nature;
136. Specify the provisions
that are valid for the genome
of herpesviruses:
a) defective DNA;
b) transcription phase;
c) high (for viruses) genetic
capacity;
d) relative autonomy
(transcription/replication) from
the host cell;
e) a high degree of homology for
different herpesviruses.
d) usually end with
clinical recovery;
e) usually end with
"virological recovery".
133. Specify the most
probable outcome of infection
with the majority of herpesviruses:
a) clinically significant infection;
b) asymptomatic infection;
c) rapid elimination of the virus
from the body;
d) latent persistence;
e) aggressive persistence.
137. Signs
characteristic of the
cytopathic effect of most
herpesviruses are
are:
a) intranuclear inclusions;
b) cytoplasmic inclusions;
134. List the mechanisms that
ensure the persistence of
herpesviruses:
a) integrative virogeny;
b) non-integrative virogeny;
c) limited expression of the viral
genome;
d) self-regulation of viral
genome expression;
e) reverse transcription.
c) apoptosis;
d) the formation of a symplast;
e) the formation of multinuclear
cells with intranuclear
inclusions.
138. Specify pathogenetically
significant mechanisms
herpesvirus infections:
a) latent persistence;
b) aggressive persistence;
c) the formation of symplasts;
135. Choose
virus-specific targets for modern
antiherpetic drugs.
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d) reactivation;
e) high antigenic
c) ends with the elimination of
the virus;
d) may have clinical
endogenous variability
(persistent) viruses;
e) virus-induced
manifestations;
e) ends with viral
persistence.
143. Name the reservoir
of persistent infection of
herpes simplex virus of the
first type:
immunodeficiency.
139.
In lymphotropic herpesvirus
person is:
a) herpes simplex virus, type 1;
b) herpes simplex virus, type 2;
c) varicella-zoster virus /
herpes zoster;
d) cytomegalovirus;
e) Epstein-Barr virus.
a) neurons of the ganglia of the trigeminal
nerve;
b) neurons of the lumbar ganglia;
c) neurons of the central nervous system
systems;
d) epithelial cells of the oral
mucosa;
140.
Epitheliotropicherpesvirus
e) epitheliocytes of the mucous
membrane of the genital tract.
human beings are:
a) Epstein-Barr virus;
b) herpes simplex viruses;
c) herpesvirus-8;
d) cytomegalovirus;
e) varicella zoster virus /
herpes zoster.
144. For virus reactivation
Herpes simplex type 1 is characterized
by the following manifestations:
a) relapses of ophthalmic herpes;
b) relapses of herpes zoster;
141. Name the
causative agent of the "classic"
infectious mononucleosis:
a) herpesvirus, type 6;
b) herpesvirus, type 7;
c) herpesvirus, type 8;
d) herpes simplex viruses;
e) cytomegalovirus;
e) Epstein-Barr virus;
g) VZ virus.
c) relapses of genital herpes;
d) herpes of newborns;
e) relapses of labial herpes;
f) CNS lesions.
145. For persistent
varicella-zoster virus infection,
the following are true:
142. Specify the provisions
that are valid for primary infection
with the herpes simplex virus of
the first type:
a) occurs in early childhood;
b) occurs during sexual
intercourse;
a) formation after an
asymptomatic infection;
b) formation after a
clinically significant infection;
c) localization
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148. Choose a pathogenetically
significant manifestation of
reactivation of endogenous
cytomegalovirus infection:
a) viremia of pregnant women;
b) herpes zoster;
c) ophthalmic herpes;
d) genital herpes;
e) opportunistic infections (patients
with immunodeficiency).
in the spinal ganglia;
d) localization in the ganglia
of the trigeminal and facial nerves;
e) basis for relapses of
genital herpes;
f) the basis for relapses of
herpes zoster.
146. Sensitive ganglia serve as a
zone of persistence for the
following herpesviruses:
a) Epstein-Barr virus;
b) herpes simplex viruses;
c) cytomegalovirus;
d) herpesviruses-6.7;
e) varicella zoster virus /
herpes zoster.
149. Family Herpesviridae
includes the following
subfamilies:
(a) Alphaherpesvirinae;
ÿ) Betaherpesvirinae;
ÿ)Gammaherpesvirinae;
)Deltaherpesvirinae.
147. Specify the herpesviruses
associated
150. HIV has a tropism for:
a) macrophages;
b) hepatocytes;
c) T-lymphocytes;
d) alveocytes;
e) B-lymphocytes;
e) neutrophils.
with malignant
human tumors:
a) herpes simplex viruses;
b) cytomegalovirus;
c) Epstein-Barr virus;
d) VZ virus;
e) herpesvirus, type 8.
*What color will Gram-negative organisms have on a Gram stain? Choose one answer:
Red
*What is the mechanism of the antibacterial action of aminoglycosides?
Choose one answer:
Inhibit protein synthesis by blocking the 30S subunit of ribosomes
*Phage conversion is a change in the properties of the host cell that is caused by: Choose
one answer:
Profagom
*Morphology of Clostridial tetanus
Select one answer: Gram-positive rods
with terminal spores *A 1.5-year-old child was admitted to the
clinic after antibiotic treatment. On the mucosa of his cheeks and palate, dotted raids of white and
yellowish color were found, in some places merging into curdled films. When the films are separated,
a hyperemic mucous membrane with a smooth surface is found. What picture is most likely to be
observed under microscopy?
Choose one answer:
Gram-positive elongated budding cells
*A toxin that binds to the surface structures of nerve cells and causes convulsions Select one
answer: Tetanospasmin *A pure culture of Gram-status bacillus was isolated from exudate
obtained from the root canal. What nutrient media are most often used to determine
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saccharolytic properties of such bacteria?
Choose one answer: Wednesday Hiss
*The main mechanism of action of B-lactam antibiotics is: Choose one
answer: By destroying the cytoplasm of the cell
*Applies to picornaviruses
Select one answer: Polio virus
*The patient's doctor diagnosed
dental caries and found out from the anamnesis that he often eats foods rich in carbohydrates, in
particular sweets, but his diet is poor in vegetables and fruits. What microbe caused caries? Select
one answer: Streptococcus mutans *Used for laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B Select one answer:
ELISA
*What intraplasmic inclusions are detected using the Neisser method? Choose one answer:
Metaphosphate granules (valyutin)
*Microscopic examination of the infiltrate, which was removed from the mandibular
region of the skin of a 30-year-old patient, revealed foci of purulent fusion, surrounded by
maturing granulations and mature connective tissue, in the pus - drusen, consisting of numerous
short, rod-shaped elements attached to a homogeneous center. Determine what disease the patient
has. Choose one answer: Actinomycosis *Microorganisms NOT classified as oral cariogenic
microorganisms: Choose one answer: lactobacilli
* Microscopy of a smear prepared from a purulent discharge of a patient with acute purulent
periostitis revealed gram-positive bacteria located in clusters resembling grapes. What
microorganisms have the indicated morphology? Choose one answer: Staphylococci *Indicate the
association of oral microbial species that is most aggressive to periodontal tissues, therefore called
the "red complex", involved in the induction and progression of periodontitis. Choose one answer:
Bacteroides forsythus, Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, Prevotella intermedia
*As you know, the gram-negative bacterium Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, which is part
of the natural microflora of the oral cavity, is involved in the development of juvenile rapidly
progressive periodontitis. Which of the following pathogenicity factors of this microorganism causes
damage to periodontal tissues, as a result of which the integrity of the periodontal attachment is
violated and a periodontal pocket is formed? Choose one answer: Collagenase enzyme synthesis
*A sick woman in the dental department was given a preliminary diagnosis of gonorrheal
stomatitis. What method of microbiological diagnostics can be used to clarify the diagnosis? Choose
one answer: Microscopy of the discharge of the oral mucosa *The patient went to the doctor with
complaints of pain when swallowing and bad breath. When examining the oral cavity, inflammation
of the right-sided tonsil was noted with a yellow-white coating, which, when removed, opened the
ulcerative surface. Submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged and painful on palpation. A diagnosis
of Simanovsky-Plaut-Vincent's angina was made. What microorganisms cause this disease? Choose
one answer: Fusobacteria and spirochetes
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revealed the presence of supragingival calculus. What microorganisms are actively involved in
the formation of tartar, forming plexuses on the surface of the tooth, contributing to the retention
of hard deposits and the creation of a crystallization center? Choose one answer: Actinomycetes
and leptotrichia
*Dental surgeries are at the highest risk of infection for the surgeon Select one answer:
Hepatitis B *Dental clinic workers should be vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which drug
should be used? Choose one answer: Recombinant HBs vaccine *The patient went to
the dentist with complaints of paroxysmal acute spontaneous pain in the region of the 7th tooth,
radiating to the temple. Examination of the tooth revealed caries, the carious cavity was not opened.
When probing its bottom, the patient feels pain. When the cavity was opened, pus was released. A
diagnosis of caries (stage IV) complicated by purulent pulpitis was made. What microorganisms
cause purulent inflammation of the pulp? Choose one answer: Streptococcus mutans and
Streptococcus salivarius
*Tuberculin Koch can be tested Select one answer: Mantoux
*What is characteristic of primary syphilis Select one answer:
Chancre
*Name a representative of the autochthonous microflora of the oral cavity, which has the following
properties: anaerobic polymorphic, often fusiform, immobile asporogenic gram-negative rods that form
butyric acid. Choose one answer: Fusobacteria *Specify the microorganism that causes blennorrhea:
Choose one answer: Gonococcus *The reverse transcriptase enzyme in retroviruses performs a
function Choose one answer: Determines DNA synthesis on a virion RNA template
*After the extraction of the tooth, the patient developed a purulent-inflammatory process.
Microscopic examination of purulent foamy secretions revealed a thick, gram-positive,
immobile rod surrounded by a capsule. Which of the listed pathogens can be the etiological cause
of pyoinflammatory process? Choose one answer: Clostridium perfringens *Bacteroides fragilis
was isolated from a patient with gingivitis in a bacteriological laboratory. Which of the following
groups of microorganisms does this pathogen belong to? Choose one answer: Asporogenic
anaerobes
*The patient was admitted to the dental department in an extremely serious condition: temperature
39°C, delirium, swelling of the right half of the face, a perforated defect with tissue necrosis in the
cheek area, a deep ulcer on the gum. Affected tissues have the appearance of a dirty gray mass with
a fetid odor. A diagnosis of noma was made. Which of the following microorganisms can cause
gangrenous tissue damage? Choose one answer: Clostridium perfringens *Peptostreptococcus is
characterized by all but: Choose one answer: form spores *Fecal-oral transmission disease Choose
one answer: Dysentery
* Microscopic examination of a smear taken from the urethra revealed gram-negative paired
diplococci located inside leukocytes. It can be
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Choose one answer:
Gonococci *The leading
role in the development of caries is played by:
Choose one answer: S. mutans *A 68-yearold patient underwent chemotherapy for
chronic lymphoproliferative disease. In the last days of this treatment, the
patient developed a whitish plaque on the oral mucosa, which was easily removed. Microscopic
examination of a plaque smear revealed the presence of large (2-5 ÿm), gram-positive
microorganisms, round in shape, which suggested oral candidiasis. How to continue the
microbiological diagnosis of the disease? Choose one answer: Inoculate the material on Sabouraud's
medium to isolate a pure culture of the pathogen
*Ways of HIV infection Choose one
answer: Sexual, parenteral, vertical
*Which enzymes of aggression with histolytic
action do porphyromonas have: Choose one answer: collagenase *For actinomycetes,
all are characteristic, except: Choose one answer: belong to fungi
*A milkmaid turned to the dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form of aphthae (small painful
ulcers). The doctor found similar rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands. What
pathogen caused this disease? Choose one answer: Foot-and-mouth disease virus * RNA-containing
viruses include Choose one answer: Orthomyxoviridae * Causative agents of purulent pulpitis:
Choose one answer: hemolytic streptococci and staphylococci
*Which of the following microorganisms are cariogenic? Choose one answer:
Streptococcus mutans *Dental instrument sterility tests have isolated clumplike Gram-positive cocci that ferment mannitol under anaerobic conditions
and have lecithinase and plasmacoagulase activity. What microorganism is isolated?
Choose one answer: Staphylococcus aureus *Treponema pallidum: Choose one answer: Has
10-12 even curls, does not accept dyes well
* Cells are susceptible to HIV due to the presence of Select
one answer: CD-4 receptor * The following methods are
used for laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19 disease:
Choose one answer:
PCR and ELISA
*Specific tuberculosis prophylaxis: Choose one
answer: Carried out by administration of BCG
*A patient who has been using removable dentures for a long time consulted a dentist. He complained
of frequent painful cracks in the corners of his mouth, inflammation of the gums under the prostheses.
Which of the microorganisms is the most likely cause of this process? Choose one answer: Candida
albicans * Factors preventing the development of caries. Everything is true, except:
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Choose one answer: the
action of lactic acid *A 12-year-old
boy complains of joint pain, shortness of breath, heart pain and palpitations during exercise. A dental consultant
found caries in many teeth. What investigations should be carried out in connection with suspected rheumatism?
Choose one answer: Set the titer of antibodies to O-streptolysin
*The doctor is instructed to organize vaccination against tuberculosis. What drug can he use to justify the correct
implementation of specific prophylaxis Select one answer: Tuberculin * Corynebacteria are characterized by:
Select one answer: Spore formation *Location in the smear in the form of Roman numerals V, Synthesis of
genital villi is controlled by: Select one answer: F-plasmid
1. The main components of nucleic acids are ... nitrogenous bases
2. According to the method of obtaining energy, the metabolism of facultative anaerobes is ... mixed
3. In the reproduction cycle of +RNA viruses, there is no stage ... genome transcription
Name the reservoir of persistent infection of the herpes simplex virus type 1 … trigeminal ganglion
neurons;
Inhibitors of bacterial cell wall synthesis include antibiotics ... cephalosporins
The influenza A virus genome is represented by ... 8 fragments of a single-stranded linear minusstranded RNA molecule
Bacterial exotoxins have the properties of … immunogenicity
Sanitary-indicative microorganisms in the assessment of air pollution are ... Staphylococcus aureus or hemolytic
streptococcus
Recombination is called ... the process of transferring genetic material during meiosis
In the study of surface water sources, indicators of fecal contamination were determined, which were
established by the presence of the following three microorganisms ...
E. coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Citrobacter freundii
A 5-year-old child was admitted to the infectious hospital with complaints of headache, weakness, sore throat
when swallowing. The body temperature is elevated to 39 C, there is a small punctate rash on the skin, there is a
sharp contrast between the bright red "flaming" cheeks and the pale nasolabial triangle. The pharynx is hyperemic
(hyperemia is limited to the palatine arches), there are purulent deposits on the tonsils, a "raspberry tongue" with
enlarged papillae is noteworthy. Name the probable diagnosis ……. Scarlet fever
Specify the family of viruses to which HIV belongs.... Retroviridae
According to the mechanism of action, to which group of antibiotics do cephalosporins ... cell wall
inhibitors belong?
The main method of laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis is ... bacteriological
Detection of HBs antigen in serum in the absence of anti-HBc antibodies indicates ... carriage of the
hepatitis B virus
The advantage of the immersion system is ... an increase in resolution
light microscope Choose
positions that are valid for the genome of paramyxoviruses ... (-) RNA
The patient was prescribed a course of etiotropic antibiotic therapy. What drugs can prevent the
occurrence of dysbacteriosis when taking antibiotics ... eubiotics
Specify the main pathogenetically significant target for HIV … CD 4 T-lymphocytes
Toxigenicity of diphtheria is determined using ... agar precipitation reaction
In the history of a young man for 2 years, there were periodically appearing purulent discharge from the urethra.
Laboratory examination confirmed the diagnosis of gonorrhea. This case can be assessed as .... chronic infection
.
The genus Hepatovirus of the picornavirus family includes:….hepatitis A virus
Four students living in the same dormitory room were taken to the infectious diseases department of the
hospital with a diagnosis of acute gastroenteritis. The disease came on after eating fresh eggs. What
microorganisms could cause acute gastroenteritis in them ....
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Salmonella
For the primary culture of meningococci, use ... serum agar with ristomycin
A bacteriological study of purulent discharge from the urethra revealed the presence of bacteria that stained negatively according to
Gram, resembled coffee beans, were located in leukocytes, and fermented glucose to acids. What microorganisms can it be ...
Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
A patient with hepatitis A excretes the virus with feces starting ... ... from the last week of the incubation period
Autopsy of the body of a 67-year-old woman on the mucous membrane of the rectum and sigmoid colon revealed multiple brown-green
layers, hemorrhages, in the intestinal lumen - mucus, a small amount of blood, histologically - fibrous colitis. During bacteriological examination
of the contents of the intestines, S. flexneri were sown. What is the most likely diagnosis... dysentery
Reproduction of the influenza virus occurs ... in the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract
Select among the listed organisms those that are sanitary indicative for
air of the room where drugs are prepared ... hemolytic streptococci
Specify the virion enzyme providing the start of transcription and replication of the genome RNA dependent RNA polymerase
paramyxoviruses ... After
scarlet fever, a person develops ... a persistent intense antitoxic
immunity
A family of 3 was hospitalized with symptoms of difficulty swallowing, hearing loss, visual disturbances, respiratory failure. In a 9-yearold child, the disease had a fatal outcome. Before the onset of the disease, he used canned mushrooms. What preliminary diagnosis can be
made to the patient ... botulism
A 30-year-old patient complains of severe headache and vomiting. Objectively, the muscles of the neck are stiff, vomiting, temperature is
39.5 C. A culture of gram-negative cocci arranged in pairs, capable of fermenting glucose and maltose to acid, was isolated from the patient.
What could it be
microorganisms ... meningococci
Turberculosis is characterized by ... non-sterile immunity
The pharmacy of the phthisiopulmonological center received a number of antimicrobial drugs. Which one is used to treat tuberculosis...
rifampicin
The main factor in the pathogenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is ... exotoxin
For the action of antiviral chemotherapy drugs, everything is characteristic, except ... they violate metabolic
reactions
A few minutes after the repeated administration of penicillin, the patient developed shortness of breath,
numbness of the tongue, loss of consciousness, hyperemia, and then pallor of the skin. What pathology has
developed in the patient? Anaphylactic shock
What unites such diseases as diphtheria, poliomyelitis, tetanus ... are prevented by active immunization
The manifest forms of the infectious process are characterized by ... the rapid development of characteristic
clinical symptoms
Name the reservoir of persistent infection of the herpes simplex virus type 1 ... trigeminal ganglion neurons
On the fruits, stems and leaves of blueberries, as a result, spots appeared on them, soft rot. What disease was caused by
phytopathogenic microorganisms in this case? …Bacteriosis
For serodiagnosis of hepatitis A, ... ELISA is used
In the production of eubiotics, in order to preserve the viability and stability of reference strains of microorganisms, they are dried in a
vacuum at a low temperature. What is the name of this method? Lyophilization The haemadsorption reaction is used to detect the virus
in cell culture .
Spore-forming bacteria include ... clostridia
In the pharmacy, distilled water is used to prepare dosage forms. What indicator is used to assess microbial contamination of
water?
The number of microorganisms in 1 ml of water
Cause of spotted rash and petechial hemorrhages in generalized forms
meningococcal diseases are ... endotoxin
Patient B., aged 35, complains of sweating, weakness, fatigue, fever
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up to 37.2-37.50 during the last month , occasional cough. An x-ray examination revealed a focal shadow
in the region of the upper lobe of the right lung, an increase in bronchial lymph nodes. What is the preliminary
diagnosis?
focal tuberculosis of the upper lobe of the right lung
A 54-year-old woman developed a cough with a large amount of purulent sputum against the background of
influenza at a temperature of 39°C. X-ray examination revealed focal pneumonia. Bacteriological examination of
sputum revealed gram-positive cocci located in irregular clusters, having hemolytic, plasma-coagulating,
lecithinase and DNase activity. What microorganisms have been isolated?
Staphylococcus aureus
When sowing a sample of the drug collection on a nutrient medium, colonies were formed in the form of a
black fluffy coating. In the preparation prepared from the colony, unseptated mycelium filaments with spherical
thickenings at the ends were found. Specify this microorganism. Mukor
Name the causative agent of "classic" infectious mononucleosis ... Epstein Barr virus
The pharmaceutical company received a batch of medicinal raw materials for the preparation of herbal
medicines. What microbiological test should be carried out to assess the suitability of this raw material?
Determination of the total number of microorganisms in 1 g of raw materials
Babes-Negri bodies are specific cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found in the cells of … Hippocampus
In the laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria
the material is taken before the start of antibiotic therapy
To determine the infestation of Bacillius anthracis with agricultural raw materials, it is necessary to apply the following reaction:
Ring precipitation
Poliomyelitis viruses are classified according to their antigenic properties into:
3 serovars
With the transmissible route of transmission, the patient initially develops the
bubonic form of the plague .
What group of microorganisms does a bacteriophage belong to?
Viruses
For early specific prevention of tuberculosis, apply:
BSG vaccine
B-lymphotropic human herpesvirus is ... Epstein-Barr virus
The pharmacy carried out air sterilization in an aseptic box. What sterilization method was used?
ultraviolet irradiation
Intelligence information indicates that the army of country Z. has a bacteriological weapon
(anthrax) in its arsenal. What drug should be administered to the soldiers of the neighboring state N., which is
going to launch military operations on the territory of the country Z.? STI vaccine
Specify the most universal method for the detection of microorganisms at very low
concentration in the test material
polymerase chain reaction
In a 20-year-old patient, inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, dense, painless. On the mucous membrane of the
genitals of a small size, an ulcer with compacted edges and a varnished bottom of a grayish color. Microscopic
examination of the discharge of the ulcer revealed convoluted mobile microorganisms that were poorly stained.
Specify the causative agent of the disease ... treponemapal lidum
The composition of the Sebin vaccine includes:
live attenuated polio pathogens
An 8-year-old girl had a fever of 38. These symptoms appeared 2 weeks after the child's contact with an elderly
person who suffered from unilateral painful papular-vesicular lesions of the skin of the chest. A child has a
polymorphic maculo-vesicular rash on the skin of the face of the hands and chest on the mucous membranes of
the oral cavity and eyes. Vesicles are filled with transparent contents. For the defeat of which pathogen, the listed
symptoms in patients are characteristic.
chickenpox virus - herpes zoster
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A phytopathogenic microorganism was isolated from a medicinal plant, which forms on the nutrient
environment of the colony in the form of "fried eggs - fried eggs". Specify the most likely pathogen.
Mycoplasmas
Which of the following diseases is prevented by a vaccine from live attenuated bacteria?
Tuberculosis
In pharmaceutical practice, in the manufacture of a number of drugs, a sterile isotonic solution is
required. Choose the best method to sterilize it. Steam pressure sterilization
Staphylococcus aureus was isolated from a patient with phlegmon of the thigh. What method can be used to
determine the minimum, inhibiting the growth of staphylococcus, the concentration of the antibiotic planned for
the treatment of this patient?
serial dilutions
A pure culture of Treponema pallidum can be obtained by cultivating:
in the body of a rabbit
The pathogen has the maximum level of resistance in the environment:
anthrax
A 25-year-old man
villager, was bitten by a cat in the region of the left calf muscle, in
did not apply to a medical institution. After 3 months, the victim developed malaise, headaches, body temperature
increased to 37.5, inflammatory phenomena were noted in the area of the scar. Behavior became restless; at the
sight of water and an attempt to drink, there were painful spasms of the muscles of the pharynx and larynx, difficulty
in breathing. The patient was taken to the hospital. Name the presumptive diagnosis.
,
Rabies
Specify the main signs of viral hepatitis ... anthroponosis
The rabies virus has a tropism ... for nervous tissue and salivary gland tissue For
serodiagnosis of influenza infection, ... hemagglutination inhibition reaction is used
EPP is differentiated from E. coli
by antigenic properties
Targets for HIV protease are ... -precursors of virion proteins
In a patient with the following symptoms: headache, fever, chills, cough, ovoid gram-negative rods with bipolar
color were isolated from sputum. What microorganism is this typical for?... Yersinia pestis
The tick-borne encephalitis virus belongs to ... flaviviruses
A pharmacist with a long history of working in a pharmacy developed conjunctivitis and nasal discharge.
Blood serum studies revealed a high level of class E immunoglobulins. How can this symptom complex be
characterized? Allergic reaction
Of the listed viral infections, the transmissible transmission mechanism is characteristic of ... tick-borne
encephalitis
Sanitary-microbiological study of tap water yielded the following results: total microbial count - 60, coli-index
- 2, coliphages were not detected. How to evaluate the result of the study?
Water is usable
A pharmacy firm received an order to supply a laboratory with diagnostic preparations used to study the antigenic
properties of the pathogen. What are these drugs? Diagnostic sera
Taking the test material (mucus of the upper respiratory tract) in case of suspected meningococcal
nasopharyngitis is carried out with ...
A 5-year-old child has asthma attacks during sunflower flowering. What type of allergic reaction according
to Gell and Coombs underlies the pathogenesis of this condition .... one
Capsule of bacteria ... virulence factor
An anatoxin is: an exotoxin, after treatment with formalin, devoid of its toxic properties, but retaining its
antigenic properties
A patient was delivered to the clinic with a severe general condition, high fever, shortness of breath, and the
presence of gray-white films on the tonsils. Bacterioscopic examination
material from the pharynx showed the presence of thin yellow sticks with dark blue grains at the ends.
What disease should be considered?
about diphtheria
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Spirochete staining method ... Romanovsky Giemsa
To determine the sensitivity to antibiotics, the patient was injected intradermally with 0.2 ml of penicillin solution. After
10 minutes, hyperemia and edema appeared at the injection site. What type, according to the classification of Coombs
and Gell, does this reaction belong to? Anaphylactic reaction (Overy phenomenon)
In the primary immune response, the first to appear are ... Ig M
Phytopathogenic microorganisms belong to different taxonomic groups. Which of them most often cause diseases
of medicinal plants?
…Mushrooms
Primary sputum culture in case of suspected pneumococcal pneumonia is preferable to carry out on ... blood
agar
The influenza A virus genome is
represented by 8 fragments of a single-stranded linear minus-stranded RNA molecule
Indicate which of the following characteristics best determine the properties of haptens:
react with antibodies, but are not immunogenic
What characterizes IgA.
It is found in secrets that come into contact with epithelial cells of the mucous membranes of the
gastrointestinal tract, respiratory and genitourinary tracts
Natural active immunity is produced as a result of ... a past disease
The patient went to the doctor about a carbuncle on his face. During the examination, a loose, painless edema of
the subcutaneous tissue was found, a black scab in the center of the carbuncle, and vesicular rashes around.
Bacterioscopic examination of the preparation prepared from the detachable carbuncle revealed immobile
streptobacilli forming capsules. What drug could help to avoid this serious illness?
-STI vaccine
101. During the microbiological control of medicinal raw materials, capsular bacteria were found. What staining
method was used by... Burri-Gins
102. A pathogen was isolated from a patient with gastroenteritis, which, according to morphological,
cultural and biochemical properties, belongs to the genus Salmonella. What diagnostic preparations should
be used to identify the type of pathogen by antigenic properties?
Monoreceptor O- and H-sera 103.
Antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs are used to treat tuberculosis.
Primary school children who received food prepared in a dairy kitchen developed nausea,
vomiting, and a fever. Gram-positive cocci were found in dairy products, forming clusters.
It was not possible to isolate the pathogen from the body of the diseased. The most likely
cause of the disease is the accumulation in foods
Enterotoxin
In the blood of a febrile patient, on the 3rd-8th day of the disease, microscopy in a dark field
of vision revealed bacteria in the form of the Latin letter "S", having thickenings in the form
of beads and curved ends. Gram stained negatively. What pathogen could cause fever?
Leptospira
What specific prophylaxis is used to create individual and collective immunity against
tuberculosis?
Live attenuated BCG vaccine
The carriers of genetic information in bacteria are:
DNA molecules
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An outbreak of acute intestinal disease was registered in a kindergarten. In sick
children, a variant of pathogenic Escherichia coli was isolated. How to determine the serovar
of an isolated culture?
Set up an agglutination reaction with sera to O-, K- and H- antigens
A 40-year-old man went to the doctor with complaints of chest pains,
high fever, cough with the separation of a large amount of liquid, foamy
sputum mixed with blood. Bacterioscopic examination revealed in the sputum
small bipolar stained gram-negative rods surrounded by a capsule. Which of
the following microorganisms is the most likely cause of this disease?
Yersinia pestis
A 42-year-old patient addressed a dermatologist with complaints of rashes on
the skin of the trunk, burning and itching at the sites of rashes. On examination,
erythematous and maculo-papular elements were found, which then turned into
confluent groups of vesicles, located mainly along the intercostal nerves. The doctor
suspected a viral infection. The studied material (the contents of the vesicles) were
infected with chicken embryos and a culture of human embryonic fibroblasts.
Changes were noted only in cell culture. Specify the most probable virus - the
causative agent of the disease.
.
Varicella zoster virus - herpes zoster In the study of water
from surface water sources, indicators of fecal contamination were determined, which
were established by the presence of three
the following microorganisms
E.coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Citrobacter freundii
Name the reservoir of persistent infection of herpes simplex virus type 1:
trigeminal ganglion neurons
For laboratory diagnostics, the blood of a febrile patient was injected intraperitoneally to a
guinea pig. After 72 hours, a dark-field microscopy of the abdominal exudate was performed
and a large number of thin spiral-shaped microorganisms with small curls in the form of the
Latin letter S or C, up to 20 ÿm in length, with mobility were found. The causative agent of what
disease was found?
Leptospirosis
A 35-year-old female patient, who recently returned from a trip to Europe, has a
fever, swollen cervical lymph nodes, pain when swallowing, and gray film-like deposits on the
tonsils. What complication can develop in the course of this disease?
Pneumonia
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Persistent speech disorder
Myocarditis
Encephalitis
Paralysis of the respiratory center
Early latent syphilis is characterized by
The presence of rashes on the body
Microorganisms common in nature in association with blue-green algae and amoeba cause
respiratory diseases. Infection of people occurs by inhalation of water aerosols contaminated by
them, which are formed in air conditioners, showers, rooms with a forced ventilation system.
Specify this microorganism.
. Legionella pneumophila
From a patient with acute intestinal infection, a virus was isolated, which is assigned to the genus
of enteroviruses. To establish the serotype of the virus, diagnostic sera are used. Specify which
antibodies these sera should contain. . Against capsid proteins
Bacterial exotoxins have properties:
? Immunogenicity?
intracellular localization
thermal stability
Heterogeneity
?Universality of action?
The child for 3 years has been marked by progressive disorders of motor function, changes in the
psyche. From the anamnesis it is known that at the age of 2 years he had measles. A diagnosis
of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) was made. What type of infection is SSPE?
A. Slow infection
.
4 months after treatment in the surgical department of the Central District Hospital, four patients
developed viral hepatitis. The clinical picture was characterized by a gradual onset of the disease,
the appearance of a rash, yellowness of the sclera, mucous membranes and skin. During the
epidemiological examination, it was found that all patients during the treatment period underwent
a transfusion of small amounts of donor blood of one series. What virus is most likely the
etiological factor of hepatitis in these patients? A. Hepatitis B virus
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As a preventive measure for the occurrence of nosocomial staphylococcal infection, material
from the nasopharynx of medical personnel was routinely sown to identify the carriage of
pathogenic staphylococci. Which of the following media were inoculated?
A. Yolk-salt agar
The most common method of sterilizing culture media is:
Autoclaving
The SES received an urgent message about a case of a disease suspected of cholera. A
bacteriological study of the patient's stools revealed gram-negative, slightly curved, short rods
that form a film in 1% peptone water, and on alkaline nutrient agar small transparent colonies
that are not agglutinated by O1, O139, RO - by sera. What kind of bacteria could it be?
A. Non-agglutinating vibrios
The main components of nucleic acids are:
Nitrogenous bases
A group of miners, two days after performing work in a mine equipped with forced ventilation,
was hospitalized in an infectious diseases hospital with a temperature of 40 ° C, chills, headache,
cough with sputum mixed with blood. A preliminary diagnosis of legionellosis was made. What
test is used to quickly detect pathogenic legionella in sputum?
A. Statement of direct RIF The
reaction of indirect (passive) hemagglutination is called:
reaction using erythrocyte diagnosticums
A woman at an early stage of pregnancy (8 weeks) fell ill with rubella. The diagnosis was
confirmed by a serological test. It was decided to artificially terminate the pregnancy. What
serological test was used to detect specific Ig M? ELISA
The fur farm worker has a small scratch on the tip of her nose, which was inflicted on her by a
black-brown fox while feeding him. The victim did not attach importance to this minor injury and
did not take any preventive measures. What disease can she develop and after how long?
A. Rabies, after 10-14 days
A man came to the emergency room with a deep wound in his foot caused by a piece
of glass. The injury was received more than a day ago. The patient underwent initial
treatment of the wound. Two days later, the patient went to the surgeon with complaints of
pressing pains in the area of the wound, swelling of the leg, and rapid pulse. What mistake
was made while treating the wound?
Rabies vaccine not administered
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Rabies immunoglobulin not administered
Wound closure
Tetanus toxoid not administered
Anti-tetanus serum not administered
A man who was bitten by a cat on the street turned to the doctor. The wounds are localized on
the arm. What treatment and preventive care should be provided to the patient? Remove
residual saliva from wounds and start immunization with rabies vaccine
The reason for the primary resistance of bacteria to antibiotics is:
Transfer of the R-plasmid by conjugation
Patient K., 60 years old, fell ill on the day after receiving a stab wound to the foot while
working in the garden. There was tension and twitching of the muscles around the wound,
malaise. As a result, she sought medical help. What kind of wound infection can we talk about?
Stolbnyak
In what phase of growth do bacteria produce the most exotoxin?
Exponential Phase
Lag phase
Phase of negative acceleration of growth
Cell death phase
Stationary phase
A universal express method for diagnosing bacterial infections
serves:
Identification of fragments of the bacterial genome
7 days after visiting the forest, a 35-year-old man developed a fever and severe headaches.
The doctor suspected encephalitis in the patient. What is the most likely mode of infection?
. Tick bite
Vibrio cultures were isolated from the feces and vomit of a patient with suspected cholera.
Which reaction allows you to determine the type of microbe,
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causing this disease?
Agglutinations with serum containing O-antibodies
Damage to the body's own tissues with COVID-19 is mainly due to:
The production of excessive amounts of cytokines by cells
"cytokine storm"
The influenza virus belongs to the family:
Orthomyxoviruses
Major receptor for SARS-CoV-2 attachment on human cells
is an:
Angiotensin converting enzyme 2
The carriers of genetic information in bacteria are:
DNA molecules
There is no stage in the reproduction cycle of +RNA viruses:
Virion transport within the cell
Exit from the cell by budding
Transcription of the genome
Translation of viral proteins
Genome replication
RNA is made up of:
ribose
Due to the influence of gamma radiation, a section of the DNA chain turned by 1800.
Which of the following types of mutations occurred in the DNA chain?
Inversion
Plasmids of microorganisms, which have an important property - autonomous
replication, are:
Ring-shaped supercoiled double-stranded DNA molecules containing
1500-400000 base pairs
A patient turned to the doctor, the clinical picture of the disease of which was
characterized by an acute onset, the appearance of icterus of the sclera, mucous
membranes and skin. Improvement in well-being coincides with the beginning
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scrap of the icteric period. From the epidemiological anamnesis it is known
that the patient 45 days before the onset of signs of the disease consumed
water from a suspicious source. The doctor diagnosed him with viral hepatitis
A. What examination is necessary to clarify the diagnosis? Linked
immunosorbent assay
Sputum microscopy of a patient with lobar pneumonia revealed gram-positive
significant
number
lanceolate diplococci
surrounded by a capsule.
What pathogen was found?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Modern specific prevention of viral hepatitis B
based on the application:
Recombinant vaccine
A 5-year-old child has severe intoxication, extensive swelling of the neck, films
on the tonsils of a gray-white color. The patient's condition improved after the
introduction of a specific antitoxic serum. Suggest the causative agent.
. Corynebacterium diphtheria toxigenic
A 38-year-old patient has an enlarged liver and spleen against the background
of high temperature. He has a history of staying in Central Asia, where he
spent a long time on an expedition in the steppes, was attacked by ticks.
Bacterioscopic and bacteriological examination of blood taken during an attack
gave a negative result. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q fever S.
aureus was isolated from a patient's purulent wound and its sensitivity to
antibiotics was determined using the standard disc method. The following
sizes of staphylococcus growth inhibition zones were obtained: penicillin - 8
mm, streptomycin - 7 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, ampicillin - 10 mm, oxacillin 9 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen to treat the patient?
Gentamicin
Plasmids perform the following functions .. coding
The genome of the polio virus is represented by ... single-stranded plus-stranded RNA
The laboratory received the blood of a patient with typhoid fever (15th day of illness) for the agglutination
test. Specify the biological product with which a positive reaction is expected .... Typhoid O-diagnosticum
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.
A patient was sent to the hospital with characteristic nodular formations on the skin of the face and hands,
anesthesia was observed in the lesions. The doctor suspected leprosy. What method should be used to establish the
diagnosis of leprosy? .... Bacterioscopy of smears from skin scrapings stained according to Ziehl-Neelsen
The causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid belong to the genus: ... .. Salmonella
Microscopic examination of native blood smears in the dark field of vision revealed convoluted forms with uneven
curls and mobile microorganisms in two miners who were hospitalized in the infectious department in summer with a
high temperature (39°C) and flu-like clinical symptoms of the disease. What convoluted forms of microorganisms that
cause the disease described above are characterized by such a morphology? ……..Borrelia
The body of a 39-year-old man with signs of cachexia was delivered for autopsy. About 5 years ago he underwent
several surgeries. I have lost a lot of weight in the last 2 years. Fever of unknown origin and diarrhea were observed.
During the last six months, pneumonia was repeatedly diagnosed. 3 weeks before death, the patient developed bilateral
polysegmental pneumonia. Microscopic examination revealed pneumocysts in the lung tissue. Which of the following
diseases most likely had the deceased? …HIV infection
A 10-year-old boy has fever, temperature 38°C. These symptoms appeared 2 weeks after the child's contact with an
elderly man who suffered from unilateral painful papular-vesicular lesions of the chest skin. A child has a polymorphic
maculo-vesicular rash on the skin of the face, hands and chest, on the mucous membranes of the mouth and eyes.
Vesicles are filled with transparent contents. For defeat by what pathogen are the listed symptoms in patients typical?
…..Varicella-zoster virus
Select the defective hepatitis virus … hepatitis D virus
After a comprehensive examination, the patient was diagnosed with HIV infection. Which of the tests used
was the main one in making the diagnosis?
Detection of antibodies to HIV by immunoblotting
Specify the family of viruses to which HIV belongs.... Retroviridae
Specify the structural protein on the surface of SARS-CoV-2 that selectively interacts with ACE2 (angiotensinconverting enzyme 2), the receptor of the host cells…. Spike protein containing S1 and S2 subunit
During bacteriological examination of water on Endo's medium, red colonies with a metallic sheen grew. In
smears prepared from these colonies, polymorphic gram-negative rods with rounded ends were found randomly.
To what genus can the isolated culture be attributed?
. Escherichia
. A typhoid bacillus was isolated from the faeces of a woman who applied for a job in a catering department.
Currently, there are no symptoms of the disease, but from the anamnesis it was revealed that several years ago she
had been ill with typhoid fever. What research should be done to establish the fact of bacteriocarrier?
Determination of antibodies to Vi-antigen
Sabin's oral polio vaccine contains: - Attenuated virus strains
poliomyelitis
The patient went to the doctor about a carbuncle on his face. During the inspection, a loose,
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without pain, swelling of the subcutaneous tissue, a black scab in the center of the carbuncle, and around
vesicular rashes. Bacterioscopic examination of the preparation prepared from the detachable carbuncle revealed
immobile streptobacilli forming capsules. What microorganism is the causative agent of this disease?
Bacillus anthracis
The influenza A virus genome is
8 fragments of a single-stranded linear minus-stranded RNA molecule
An otolaryngologist, when examining a patient, noted hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa, a significant
swelling of the tonsils with a gray coating. Microscopy of the preparation prepared from plaque revealed grampositive rods located at an angle to each other, with thickenings at the ends. What disease should be considered?
About diphtheria
A clinically healthy man applies for a job as a cook. To establish the carriage of pathogenic enterobacteria in
the laboratory, a study of feces was carried out. The detection of which microorganisms will be a
contraindication for admission to work?
Salmonella enteritidis
The gonococcal vaccine is used for:
chronic gonorrhea treatment
The morphology of Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following features:
have 8–12 symmetrical whorls
A man at work in the field suffered a hand injury. What kind of help should be given to the patient?
Carry out primary surgical treatment of the wound, introduce antitetanus serum and
columnar anatoxin
Recombination is called ... the process of transferring genetic material during meiosis
According to the method of obtaining energy, the metabolism of facultative anaerobes is ... mixed
A 2-year-old child has a sharp rise in temperature to 39.5 C, periodic vomiting is noted, and a stellate rash of
various sizes on the body. Examination revealed tension in the occipital muscles. The child was urgently hospitalized
with a preliminary diagnosis of ... meningococcal infection
It is known that the measles virus persisting in neuroglial cells causes the death of neurons and oligodendrocytes.
As a result of this process, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) develops. What stage of the interaction
of the measles virus with the cell does not occur during its reproduction?
Assembly and release of the virion
A patient's sputum smear showed thin, long Gram-positive rods. When stained by Ziehl-Neelson, these bacteria
were red. What pathogen could cause the disease ... MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS corynebacterium
diphtheria ???
What specific prophylaxis is used to create individual and herd immunity against tuberculosis ... live attenuated
BCG vaccine
Sepsis is a process in which ... in the blood and lymph, the presence and
reproduction of microorganisms
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In a micropreparation stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, made from a punctate of the patient's
regional lymph node, the doctor found thin, pale pink microorganisms with 12-14 uniform curls. The causative
agents of what infectious disease can be discussed in this case?
syphilis
A batch of beef was withdrawn from sale, as large, gram-positive, capsular rods arranged in
chains were found in smears-imprints from meat, lungs and lymph nodes of carcasses. What disease
could be caused by eating meat contaminated with this pathogen?
anthrax
The virulence of bacteria is a property of ... a bacterial strain
A 44-year-old man, who breeds muskrats, has a fever up to 38°C, headaches, severe swelling of the eyelids,
hyperemia of the conjunctiva, a shallow ulcer has formed on the skin in the neck area, and the upper cervical
lymph nodes are enlarged. Specify the probable causative agent of the disease.
Francisella tularensis
A disinfectant has a bacteriological effect when it ... delays the growth of microorganisms under certain
conditions, but does not lead to their death
The essential structures of a bacterial cell are ... the cell wall or the cytoplasmic membrane???
Coronavirus (SARS - CoV), the causative agent of SARS that causes SARS in humans, belongs to the
genus ... Betacoronavirus
When examining the patient's sputum using the Price method, red-colored rod-shaped bacteria were
found, forming convoluted strands. What substance causes such an arrangement of bacteria and their
growth in the form of bundles?
Cord factor
In a 5-year-old child, the disease began acutely: body temperature increased to 38.5°C, headaches and
malaise, vomiting, diarrhea, pain in the muscles of the legs appeared. On the third day of illness, paralysis
of the muscles of the thigh and lower leg of the left leg developed. What disease is this picture typical of?
Polio
During protein synthesis, the role of the matrix is performed by .... Small RNA
Select the virion enzyme that triggers HIV infection... reverse transcriptase
The SARS-CoV 2 genome is… single-stranded plus stranded RNA
The main difference between viruses and bacteria is ... the absence of a cellular structure
After eating canned meat, the patient developed double vision, severe headache, impaired swallowing, shortness
of breath, palpitations, and muscle weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Botulism
. The patient has a deep wound on the palm, inflicted with a fishing hook. What drug should be used for
emergency prevention of a possible disease? Antitoxic tetanus immunoglobulin
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Swabs from the pharynx and nasopharynx were delivered to the virological laboratory for research
patients with SARS. How to process prepared preparations for accelerated diagnosis and what method
should be used?
Treat with a fluorescent immunoconjugate to set up a direct RIF
The main functions of bacterial spores are:
Protection from adverse environmental factors
The properties of bacteria are studied microscopically:
Morpho-tinctorial
The Mantoux test is used for:
Tuberculosis diagnostics
What diagnosis should the doctor make to the patient if the virologist detected antibodies to gp120 and
gp41 in the studied serum of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency?
HIV infection
What character can be used to differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other types of mycobacteria?
Niacin formation
A patient with severe general intoxication, high temperature (39-40°C), severe headaches was
admitted to the infectious department on the 8th day of the disease. On the skin of the chest and abdomen, he
had single, small roseolas, 3-3.5 mm in diameter, of the correct form. In connection with the suspicion of
typhoid fever, the patient's blood serum was taken for examination and a reaction was made with a diagnosticum
from Salmonella. What type of serological reactions does it belong to?
Agglutination reaction
Microscopic examination of the sputum of a patient with a preliminary diagnosis of "acute pneumonia"
revealed chaotically arranged ovoid microorganisms, up to 2 µm long, more intensely stained at the
poles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pneumonic plague
If, during the Salk color test, the color of the nutrient medium in the test tube changed from red to yellow,
this indicates
About the absence of pathogenic bacteria
On the absence of a virus
About changing the pH of bacteria
About the presence of the virus
About the presence of pathogenic bacteria - NOT SUITABLE !!!!
During dental operations, the risk of infection is highest
surgeon
Hepatitis B
The laboratory received material from a patient with suspected botulism. What
nutrient medium should be inoculated to isolate Clostridium botulism?
Kitta - Tarotzi
The advantage of the immersion system is:
Increasing the resolution of a light microscope
Several workers from the construction team were having lunch in the canteen. For dinner, everyone ordered
pork cutlets. After 8-10 hours, they developed signs of acute gastroenteritis: nausea, vomiting, abdominal
pain, frequent stools, fever up to 38°C. Two of them were hospitalized in a critical condition in the infectious
diseases department. What microorganisms could cause acute gastroenteritis in them?
Salmonella
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A 25-year-old patient was admitted to the clinic of infectious diseases with a preliminary
diagnosis of food poisoning. Clinical findings: body temperature - 39.5°C, headache, chills, body
aches, nausea, repeated vomiting, frequent loose stools. Epidemiological data: on the day before
the disease, she consumed cakes with cream. Within 2 days, 4 more similar cases were registered
in the region. During an epidemiological examination of a cafe where the sick people ate cakes, the
confectioner was found on his finger
felon. What microorganisms could cause food poisoning in this situation?
Staphylococcus aureus
Among the vacationers of the camp site, located on the shore of the reservoir, there are cases of
the disease, accompanied by a sharp increase in temperature, jaundice, swollen lymph nodes. The
reservoir is filled with water from small rivers, on the banks of which there are livestock farms.
Specify a possible causative agent
Leptospira interrogance
The morphology of Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following features:
have 8–12 symmetrical whorls
An otolaryngologist, when examining a patient, noted hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa, a
significant swelling of the tonsils with a gray coating. Microscopy of the preparation prepared
from plaque revealed gram-positive rods located at an angle to each other, with thickenings at the
ends. What disease should be considered?
Diphtheria
A man turned to the emergency room of the infectious diseases hospital, who received an
envelope with a suspicious powder by mail. In this area, cases of sending powder with spores of
the anthrax pathogen have already been noted. The man was hospitalized in the isolation ward,
and the powder from the envelope was sent to the laboratory in order to detect the anthrax
pathogen. What research makes it possible to quickly detect the alleged pathogen?
Immunofluorescence method
Patient S. suddenly developed a fever with chills, accompanied by headache and muscle pain and a
staggering gait. Enlarged lymph nodes were found in the axillary region and in the neck region,
soldered to each other and to the surrounding subcutaneous tissue, dense, painful. The skin over
the lymph nodes is smoothed, cyanotic. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
Bubonic plague
Sebina oral polio vaccine contains:
Attenuated strains of polio viruses
In the pediatric department of maxillofacial surgery, the incidence of acute respiratory
viral infections caused by different groups of viruses has sharply increased. Human leukocyte
interferon should be used to prevent the spread of infections. In what way is it introduced?
intranasally
The causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid belong to the genus:
Salmonella
What type of nucleic acid do orthomyxoviruses have?
Fragmented negative RNA
In what phase of growth of periodic culture bacteria have the highest physiological activity?
Logarithmic
In a micropreparation stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, made from a punctate
of the patient's regional lymph node, the doctor found thin, pale pink microorganisms
with 12-14 uniform curls. The causative agent of what infectious disease can be discussed in this
case?
syphilis
The capsule of most bacteria consists of
Polysaccharides
S. aureus was isolated from a patient's purulent wound and its sensitivity to antibiotics was
determined using the standard disc method. The following sizes of staphylococcus growth inhibition
zones were obtained: penicillin - 8 mm, streptomycin - 7 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, ampicillin - 10 mm, oxacillin 9 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen to treat the patient?
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Gentamicin
A patient with stomatitis, fever, dysfunction of the nervous and digestive systems was
provisionally diagnosed with AIDS. What methods should be used to confirm the diagnosis?
ELISA, immunofluorescence reaction, immunoblotting, radioimmunoassay
Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis A virus genome:
(+) RNA
Due to the influence of gamma radiation, a section of the DNA chain turned by 1800.
Which of the following types of mutations occurred in the DNA chain?
Inversion
To indicate the virus, the cell culture was processed by the virologist with the test material and,
under microscopy, cells were identified that had clusters of erythrocytes. What is the name of the
virus detection test?
Haemadsorption reaction
A patient was delivered to the hospital with a lacerated wound of the lower leg, obtained as a
result of a bite by a sick animal with a diagnosis of rabies. What vaccine should be administered
to the victim to prevent rabies?
Rabies vaccine.
In stained smears prepared from pus, microscopy revealed spherical microorganisms located in
the form of irregular clusters. What bacteria is characterized by such a morphology?
Staphylococcus
A milkmaid turned to the dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form of aphthae (small
painful ulcers). The doctor found similar rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands.
What pathogen caused this disease?
FMD virus
The SES received an urgent message about a case of a disease suspected of cholera.
Bacteriological examination of the patient's feces revealed gram-negative, slightly curved, short
rods that form a film in 1% peptone water, and on alkaline nutrient agar small transparent colonies
that do not agglutinate O1, O139, RO sera. What kind of bacteria could it be?
Non-agglutinating vibrios
What disease is caused by a DNA genomic virus?
adenovirus infection
Features of the reproduction of chlamydia are:
alternation of phases of elementary and reticular bodies
The gonococcal vaccine is used for:
chronic gonorrhea treatment
The most severe clinical forms of dysentery cause:
Sh.disenteriae I
Dental clinic workers need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which drug should be used?
Recombinant HBs vaccine
The symplast is:
Giant multinucleated cell
A pure culture of Treponema pallidum can be obtained by cultivating:
in a chick embryo
on conventional nutrient media
in the body of a rabbit
on special nutrient media under anaerobic conditions - NOT SUITABLE!!!!
on complex nutrient media
A patient after eating homemade canned meat developed diplopia, difficulty breathing and
swallowing. On examination, it was found: decreased visual acuity, ptosis, disturbance of
accommodation. Which drug is most appropriate for a specific
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treatment prior to laboratory diagnosis?
Polyvalent anti-botulinum antitoxic serum Of the 5 morphological
types, the following have a filamentous form:
2nd
type
1st
type 5th type 3rd type
WRONG!!!! Type 4
Synthesis of hemolysins is
controlled by: Hly-plasmid
The patient was hospitalized in the infectious disease hospital with
a diagnosis of hepatitis. What type of hepatitis is caused by an RNA
genomic virus that cannot reproduce without the presence of HBsAg?
Hepatitis D Endotoxin pathogens have: Cholera What type of parasitism is
typical for viruses? Intracellular obligate To cultivate cell cultures, Eagle 's
medium is used . For RS-dissociation, everything is characteristic, except:
It is the result of transformation . General questions on virology 1. Complex
viruses differ from chlamydia in the following ways: B. Viruses reproduce by
transverse fission. C. Viruses have neither RNA nor DNA.
D. The shell contains lipopolysaccharides.
E. They have ribosomes. 2. Material
containing the minimum concentration of viral particles has been delivered to
the virological laboratory. What modern immunological method does a doctor
use to detect viral particles? A. Enzyme immunoassay. B. Method using
monoclonal antibodies. C. Radioimmune method.
D. Polymerase chain reaction. E.
All of the above. 3. What method
is used to detect the presence of provirus in blood lymphocytes? A. Molecular
hybridization using radioactive probes. B. Cellular hybridization using cell
culture. C. Enzyme immunoassay.
D. Detection of antibodies using immunofluorescence reaction. E.
Complement binding reactions. 4. Serological diagnosis of viral
diseases is based on the specific interaction of antibodies with antigens. What is
the name of a serological test in which antibodies labeled with fluorochromes are
used? A. Immunofluorescence reaction. B. Reaction with enzyme-labeled
antibodies. C. Polymerase chain reaction.
D. Complement binding reaction. E.
Molecular hybridization reaction. 5. The
main method of virological diagnosis of the disease is the isolation of the virus in cell
culture, in which the presence of the virus is determined by its
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specific effect on cell culture. What is the name of this action?
A. JRS (cytopathic action).
B. RN.
S. RIF.
D. RP.
E. RIA.
6. Autoimmune pathological reactions can manifest themselves in the following diseases:
A. Chronic hepatitis.
B. Systemic connective tissue disease.
C. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis.
D. Hashimoto's thyroid.
E. With all of the above.
7. When examining a sick breeder on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity and nose, on the
skin between the fingers, the doctor revealed vesicular-erosive lesions (aphthae). The patient
complained of burning sensation in the mouth, excessive salivation, bowel dysfunction and pain
during urination. Preliminary diagnosis of foot-and-mouth disease. What diagnostic test does the
virologist use to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Bioassay - the contents of the aft will be rubbed into the paw pads of guinea pigs.
B. Isolation of the pathogen during its cultivation in cell culture.
C. Examination of the contents of the stomach for the presence of a pathogen.
D. Biopsy of damaged tissue.
E. Laboratory studies are not carried out.
8. To indicate viruses in cell culture, a method based on changing the pH of the nutrient
medium during the cultivation of viruses in vitro is used. What is the name of this virus
detection method?
A. "Color reaction".
B. Cytopathic action of viruses.
C. Hemagglutination reaction.
D. Hemadsorption reaction.
E. Plaque formation reaction.
9. In a kindergarten, an epidemiologist registered an outbreak of an infection
of presumably viral etiology. It is urgent to draw up a plan of anti-epidemic measures.
What reaction or method of laboratory diagnostics should be used in the first place to
quickly and timely establish the etiology of the disease?
A. Fluorescent microscopy.
B. Electron microscopy.
C. Virological method.
D. Serological method.
E. Light microscopy of native material.
10. When obtaining vaccines, microorganisms are cultivated on synthetic nutrient media.
What microorganisms do not grow on synthetic nutrient media?
A. Viruses.
B. Mushrooms.
C. Actinomycetes.
D. Protozoa.
E. Mycoplasmas.
11. To indicate the virus, the virologist processed the cell culture with the test
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material and microscopy revealed cells on which there were accumulations of erythrocytes.
What is the name of the virus detection test?
A. Hemadsorption reaction.
B. Hemagglutination reaction.
C. Cytopathic action.
D. "Color reaction".
E. Plaque formation.
12. With the serological method for diagnosing viral diseases, the test serum is diluted twice in
the wells of the tablet, the viral diagnosticum is added, and then a suspension of erythrocytes is
added. What is the name of this reaction?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
B. Hemagglutination reaction.
C. Passive hemagglutination reaction.
D. Reverse passive hemagglutination reaction.
E. Complement binding reaction.
13. When indicating the pathogen, the virologist detected the virus in the allantoic fluid of
the chicken embryo. What reaction did the virologist use?
A. Hemagglutination reaction.
B. Neutralization reaction.
C. Hemadsorption inhibition reaction.
D. Complement binding reaction.
E. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
14. Virus cultivation is planned in the laboratory. What medium should be used to obtain a cell culture
in the form of a monolayer?
A. Wednesday Needle.
B. Wednesday Endo.
C. Yolk-salt agar.
D. Blood agar.
E. Gall broth.
Causative agents of acute respiratory viral infections
15. The corpse of a suddenly deceased person with a clinical diagnosis of flu was delivered from
the infectious diseases hospital to the pathoanatomical department. What research is needed to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Isolation and identification of the influenza virus.
C. Detection of intracellular inclusions by light microscopy.
C. Detection of high antibody titers in the hemagglutination inhibition test.
D. Electron microscopic detection of the virus.
E. Detection of antibodies in the complement fixation reaction.
16. To prevent the seasonal rise in the incidence of influenza in educational institutions,
active immunization of children and adolescents was carried out. What drug was used for
immunization?
A. Inactivated (killed) vaccine.
W. Remantadin.
C. Normal human immunoglobulin.
D. Oksolin.
E. Interferon.
17. According to the results of viroscopy of the cell monolayer, which was infected with material
from the patient, the doctor diagnosed “respiratory syncytial virus infection”. What change in cell
culture was caused by this virus?
A. Formation of multinucleated cells.
B. Complete destruction of the cell monolayer.
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C. Peeling of the monolayer.
D. Round cell degeneration.
E. Formation of Babesh-Negri calves.
18. In a virological laboratory, chicken embryos were infected with a nasopharyngeal wash
of a patient with an acute respiratory infection. The virologist isolated a virus that caused
agglutination of a 1% suspension of chicken erythrocytes. What virus was isolated by a virologist?
A. Influenza virus.
B. Respiratory syncytial infection virus.
C. Parainfluenza virus.
D. Rhinovirus.
E. Adenovirus.
19. To determine the type of inactive parainfluenza virus, use:
A. RTGads (hemadsorption inhibition reaction).
B. RTGA (hemagglutination inhibition reaction).
S. RPGA.
D. RSC.
E. ÿÿ.
20. An epidemiologist registered an outbreak of an acute respiratory infection in a kindergarten.
To confirm the diagnosis of influenza, the virologist conducted an express diagnosis based on
the detection of a specific viral antigen in the test material (in a nasopharyngeal wash). What
reaction did the virologist use?
A. Immunofluorescence reaction.
B. Complement binding reaction.
C. Agglutination reaction.
D. Precipitation reaction.
E. Opsonization reaction.
21. Serological diagnosis of influenza involves the detection of an increase in the titer of antibodies
against the pathogen in the study of paired blood sera of the patient. How many times should the
antibody titer increase in order for the result to be considered reliable?
A. 4 or more times.
B. 2 times.
C. At one time.
D. 3 times.
E. Half a titre.
22. The influenza virus contains internal antigens: nucleoprotein (NP), polymerase (P1,
P2, P3), matrix protein (M) and external antigens hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). What antigens play the main role in creating antiinfluenza immunity?
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
B. Nucleoprotein antigens.
C. Matrix protein.
D. Polymerase proteins.
E. Neuraminidase.
23. For virological diagnosis of influenza, 10-day-old chicken embryos are used. What model
should be used for the cultivation of parainfluenza viruses?
A. Cell culture.
B. Chicken embryo.
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C. white mice.
D. White rats.
E. Guinea pigs.
24. For the diagnosis of what disease is it advisable to use RTHA?
A. Influenza.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Herpes simplex type I.
D. Rabies.
E. HIV infection.
25. Imprint swabs from the nasal cavity of a patient with suspected influenza were delivered
to the laboratory. What research should a virologist conduct to identify the virus?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Agglutination reaction.
C. Precipitation reaction.
D. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
E. Complement binding reaction.
26. There is a flu epidemic in the city. What drug would you recommend to people for nonspecific disease prevention?
A. Leukocyte interferon.
B. Influenza vaccine.
ÿ. Penicillin.
D. Anti-influenza immunoglobulin.
E. Anti-influenza serum.
27. In order to effectively vaccinate the population against influenza, it is necessary to assume a likely
virus that will cause an epidemic. As a rule, the causative agent is the subserotype of the virus
against which a significant part of the population does not have antibodies. What reaction should be
performed to detect antibodies in human serum?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
B. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
C. Hemagglutination reaction.
D. Reaction of neutralization of cytopathic action.
E. Complement binding reaction.
28. An influenza virus was identified in the virological laboratory. For this, the culture of the virus
after accumulation was mixed in two rows of test tubes with chicken erythrocytes. Type A diagnostic
serum was added to the first row (the formation of agglutinate in the form of an "inverted umbrella"
up to the serum titer was observed), and type B was added to the second row (the formation of
agglutinate in the form of a "button" was observed). The virus type was determined to be type B.
What serological test was used to identify the virus?
A. RTGA.
V. RPGA.
S. RSK.
D. PH.
E. RIF.
29. Infection of chick embryos is the main method of accumulation of influenza virus. What is
preliminarily added to the test material (wash from the nasopharynx) before the introduction of
the material into the chick embryo?
A. Streptomycin and penicillin.
B. Potassium periodate.
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C. Wednesday Needle.
D. Formalin.
E. Ether.
30. According to the anamnesis and clinical data, the doctor diagnosed the patient with
symptoms of acute respiratory disease as influenza. What family do influenza viruses
belong to?
ÿ Orthomyxoviridae.
. Hepadnaviridae.
ÿ. Herpesviridae.
D. Picornaviridae.
E. Togaviridae.
31. A patient with signs of pneumonia was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital.
Signs of the disease appeared on the 6th day of influenza. What study will most reliably
confirm the influenza etiology of pneumonia?
A. Detection of influenza virus antigens in sputum by ELISA.
B. Study of paired sera.
C. Infection of chick embryos.
D. Immunoluminescent examination of smears-imprints from the nasal passages.
E. Detection of antibodies against influenza virus hemagglutinins.
32. In the department of newborns, the incidence of ARVI in children has sharply increased.
What drug should be prescribed to children for treatment?
A. Interferon.
B. Influenza subunit vaccine.
C. Influenza vaccine for oral administration.
D. Antibiotics.
E. Sulfonamides.
33. To prevent a seasonal increase in the incidence of influenza in the medical institutions
of the city, the sanitary and epidemiological station ordered the immunization of medical
workers. Which of the following preparations should be used for immunization?
A. Subunit vaccine.
V. Interferon.
S. Gamma globulin.
D. Remantadin.
E. Amantadine.
34. A patient with signs of pneumonia, which developed on the 6th day of the flu, was
admitted to the infectious diseases hospital. What method most likely confirms the influenza
etiology of pneumonia?
A. Detection of influenza virus antigens in sputum by ELISA.
B. Paired sera studies.
C. Infection of chick embryos.
D. Immunoluminescent examination of nasal swabs.
E. Detection of antibodies against influenza virus hemagglutinins.
35. With the approach of an influenza epidemic, the district epidemiologist draws up an
application for prophylactic drugs. Which of them will contribute to the formation of active
specific immunity and is the least reactogenic?
A. Subunit vaccine.
B. Live vaccine.
C. Killed vaccine.
D. Donor gamma globulin.
E. Leukocyte interferon.
36. During an outbreak of an acute respiratory infection, influenza is diagnosed
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express diagnostics, which is based on the detection of a specific viral antigen in the test material
(wash from the nasopharynx). What serological reaction is used for this?
A. Opsonization.
B. Complement binding.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Precipitation.
E. Immunofluorescence.
37. Serological diagnosis of influenza involves the detection of an increase in the titer of antibodies
to the pathogen in the patient's blood serum. How many times should the antibody titer increase in
the study in paired sera for the result to be considered reliable?
A. 3.
IN 2.
C. 1.
D. 4 and more.
E. 0.5.
38. Pathological material (nasopharyngeal lavage) was taken from a patient with suspected
influenza, which was used to infect chicken embryos into the allantoic cavity. What reaction can be
used to determine the presence of the influenza virus in the allantoic fluid?
A. Precipitation.
B. Agglutinations.
C. Hemadsorption.
D. Hemagglutination.
E. Hemolysis.
39. For virological diagnosis of influenza, 10-day-old chicken embryos are used. What model for the
cultivation of parainfluenza viruses should be chosen?
A. Tissue cultures.
B. Chicken embryo.
C. white mice.
D. White rats.
E. Crawley.
40. An epidemiologist registered an outbreak of a respiratory viral infection in a maternity
hospital for newborns. In a virological study, it was found that the virus is not cultivated in
chicken embryos, but on transplanted cell cultures it is characterized by a cytopathic effect with
the formation of symplasts and rounded cells with processes. What pathogen most likely caused
the outbreak?
A. RS infection virus.
B. Orthomyxoviruses.
C. Herpesviruses.
D. Adenovirus.
E. Picornaviruses.
41. A virologist infected a cell culture with material containing viruses. What virus can be detected
using the hemadsorption test?
A. Influenza virus type A.
B. Poliovirus type I.
C. Poliovirus type II.
D. Poliovirus type III.
E. Hepatitis A virus.
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42. A doctor diagnosed a 2-year-old child with acute bronchopneumonia. In bronchial
secretions, the virologist revealed large multinucleated cells. What pathogen caused the
disease?
A. RS infection virus.
B. Influenza virus.
C. Rhinovirus.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. Bordetella pertussis.
43. A pathological material (mucus from the nasal passages) taken from a patient with a
preliminary diagnosis of influenza was delivered to the virological laboratory. What reaction of
the express method will make it possible to detect a specific viral antigen in the test material?
A. Direct and indirect RIF.
B. Direct and indirect ELISA.
S. RTGA.
D. RPGA.
E. RIA.
44. In connection with the approaching influenza epidemic, the district epidemiologist
draws up an application for prophylactic drugs. Which of the drugs will contribute to the
formation of active specific immunity and is the least reactogenic for the human body?
A. Subunit vaccine.
B. Attenuated (live) vaccine.
C. Inactivated vaccine.
D. Donor ÿ (gamma) - globulin.
E. Leukocyte interferon.
45. What feature of the virus is associated with the high variability of type A influenza virus and
is realized through the "shift" mechanism?
A. The virus has a fragmented genome.
B. The virus has a negative RNA (-RNA).
C. The virus can cause disease in both humans and animals.
D. The composition of the virion includes lipids and carbohydrates.
E. The virus has a single-stranded RNA.
46. In the department for newborns, the incidence of ARVI in children, which are caused
by various types of viruses, has sharply increased. To prevent the spread of infection, it is
recommended to prescribe human leukocyte interferon. In what way is it introduced?
A. Into the nasal passages.
B. Inhalation.
C. Subcutaneously.
D. Orally.
E. Intramuscularly.
47. After examining the child on the second day from the onset of the disease, the doctor
made a provisional diagnosis of respiratory syncytial infection to the patient. What laboratory
test can confirm the diagnosis in this child during the first days of his stay in the hospital?
A. Detection of antigens of the RS virus in the discharge from the nasopharynx.
B. Serological examination (fourfold increase in antibody titer).
C. Detection of IgG - antibodies in the discharge from the nasopharynx.
D. Detection of IgM - antibodies in the discharge from the nasopharynx.
E. High titers of antibodies in the patient's serum to the antigens of the RS virus infection.
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48. A child complains of a sharp dry (“barking”) cough, runny nose and fever. The doctor
made a preliminary diagnosis of parainfluenza infection. What laboratory test result can
confirm the patient's diagnosis?
A. Identification of a hemadsorbing agent upon infection of a cell culture
nasopharyngeal flush.
C. Detection in blood serum of antibodies to antigens of parainfluenza viruses.
C. Death of mice after infection with nasopharyngeal lavage.
D. Detection of spherical virions by electron microscopy.
E. Formation of plaques under agar coating upon infection of cell culture
nasopharyngeal flush.
49. The avian influenza virus can cause massive illness in people in all countries of the
world. In this case, we will talk about:
A. Pandemics.
B. Epidemics.
ÿ. Epizootics.
D. Superinfections.
E. Reinfections.
50. A patient complains of headache, general weakness, cough, fever. The doctor made
a clinical diagnosis of SARS. Which of the following viruses can be the causative agent
of this disease?
A. Influenza virus.
B. Adenovirus.
C. Respiratory syncytial virus.
D. Coronavirus.
E. Any of the above.
51. A family doctor recommended that patients take interferon to prevent influenza. What
is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Blocks translation initiation and destroys virus-specific mRNA.
B. Disrupts the process of formation of new viruses.
C. Inhibits the release of viruses from the cell.
D. Blocks the "undressing" of the virus.
E. Blocks the adsorption of the virus on cell receptors.
52. Material from a patient with a diagnosis of SARS was delivered to the virological
laboratory. What is the purpose of typing viruses isolated from the material from the patient?
A. For the etiological diagnosis of a viral infection.
B. To study the biological properties of viruses.
C. To study the physico-chemical properties of viruses.
D. To develop methods for non-specific prophylaxis.
E. To study the resistance of viruses to the action of environmental factors.
53. The doctor made a preliminary diagnosis of influenza to the patient and sent the material
taken from the patient for examination. During the virological examination of the material, the
virologist set up a hemadsorption reaction. What viruses can this reaction be used to detect?
A. Viruses that have hemagglutinin on their surface.
B. All simple viruses.
C. All complex viruses.
D. DNA genomic viruses.
E. Any viruses.
54. An industrial enterprise carried out immediate prophylaxis of type A influenza. What antiviral
drug was used for this purpose?
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A. Remantadin.
W. Bonafton.
C. Interferon.
D. Dibazole.
E. Gamma globulin.
55. A pediatrician diagnosed a paramyxovirus infection in a 7-year-old female patient. How is
the cytopathic effect of this virus manifested?
A. The formation of a symplast.
B. Formation of intranuclear inclusions.
C. Formation of Bábesh-Négri bodies.
D. Formation of Lúpschutz inclusions.
E. Cell damage.
56. In a patient with suspected influenza, a virologist isolated a virus with hemagglutinating
properties from nasopharyngeal swabs. What serological reaction should be performed to identify
the virus?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
B. Agglutination reaction.
C. Precipitation reaction.
D. Coombs reaction.
E. Hemagglutination reaction.
57. For laboratory confirmation of the diagnosis of “acute respiratory viral infection”, the
doctor decided to use a serological diagnostic method. When is it necessary to take material
from a patient for this diagnostic method?
A. At the onset of the disease (as early as possible) and after 2-3 weeks.
B. At the onset of the disease, as early as possible.
C. At the end of the disease, during the period of extinction of clinical symptoms.
D. At the peak of the disease, at the time of manifestation of all clinical symptoms.
E. At the moment of maximum rise in temperature.
58. A doctor diagnosed inflammation of the sublingual and submandibular salivary
glands in a sick child. What pathological material should be taken from a patient to confirm the
diagnosis of mumps?
A. Saliva, urine.
B. Feces.
C. Purulent discharge.
D. Biopsy material.
E. Vomit.
59. When examining a sick child, 5 years old, a dentist, on the basis of clinical data, diagnosed
parotitis. Which of the following ways can this disease be transmitted?
A. Transmissive.
B. Airborne.
C. Through the bite of animals.
D. Fecal-oral.
E. Parenteral.
60. During a clinical examination of a patient, a pediatrician noted a slight increase in
temperature, an increase in the parotid salivary glands. From the patient's saliva, the
virologist isolated a virus that reproduced in chicken embryos, had hemagglutinating properties and
caused the formation of symplasts in cell culture. What other organs can be affected by this
infection?
A. Sex glands.
B. Liver.
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C. Lungs.
D. Tonsils.
E. Brain.
61. In the material from the patient, the virologist detected measles RNA viruses. What
enzyme is needed to increase the number of viral RNA molecules?
A. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B. Reverse transcriptase.
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D. Translocation.
E. DNA ligase.
62. A child attending a kindergarten fell ill with measles. Measles is known to be 100%
contagious. What drug for prevention will the doctor prescribe to children who have been
in contact with a sick child?
A. ÿ (gamma) - globulin for all children.
B. ÿ (gamma) - globulin for children who have not been vaccinated against measles.
C. It is enough to confine oneself to observation of contact children.
D. Measles vaccine for all children.
E. Measles vaccine for children who have not been vaccinated.
63. Scheduled vaccination of children against measles has been carried out in the
kindergarten. What method can be used to check the formation of post-vaccination immunity?
A. Serological.
B. Bacteriological.
C. Virological.
D. Skin-allergic test.
E. Express diagnostic method (ELISA).
64. After the transferred measles develops:
A. Tense immunity.
B. Frequent relapses.
C. Immunological tolerance.
D. Nonspecific immunity.
E. Areactivity of cells.
65. In kindergarten, a child got measles. The use of which drug to contact persons will
protect them from getting measles?
A. Measles immunoglobulin.
B. Tuberculosis vaccine.
C. Immunostimulators.
D. Antibiotics.
E. Acyclovir.
66. In the family, the elder sister fell ill with measles. The youngest child (age 1 year
7 months) who was not vaccinated against measles and did not have measles, was due
for routine DTP vaccination. What should the pediatrician do in this situation?
A. Suspend routine DTP vaccination, administer anti-measles immunoglobulin to
the child.
C. Give your child the measles vaccine.
C. Vaccinate with DPT and at the same time prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D. Give your child the DTP vaccine and the measles vaccine at the same time.
E. Vaccinate with DPT and concomitantly prescribe narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
67. An 8-year-old boy's body temperature increased to 38.8°C, a runny nose appeared,
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conjunctivitis, cough. A large-spotted rash appeared on the skin, while examining the oral
cavity, a whitish pityriasis rash appeared on the mucous membranes of the cheeks. Suddenly,
heavy breathing appeared and death occurred with signs of asphyxia. What disease are these
symptoms typical for?
A. Corey.
B. Scarlet fever.
C. Diphtheria.
D. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis.
E. Influenza.
68. The disease in a 7-year-old child is characterized by a sharp increase in body
temperature, severe catarrh of the upper respiratory tract, conjunctivitis with lacrimation.
Large spots of papular rash appeared on the skin, whitish spots appeared on the mucous
membrane of the cheeks, respectively, up to the small molars (Koplik-Filatova). In the lungs
- the phenomena of bronchitis, moist rales. What diagnosis would you give the patient?
A. Scarlet fever.
V. Measles.
C. Diphtheria.
D. Bronchopneumonia.
E. Acute respiratory viral infection.
69. An epidemiologist registered an outbreak of measles in a maternity hospital. It can
be assumed that children whose mothers have previously had measles will not get sick.
Which class of antibodies will protect newborns from the disease?
ÿ. Age.
ÿ. IgG.
ÿ. IgD.
D. IgM.
E. IgE.
70. A 1.5-year-old boy who was not vaccinated against measles in accordance with
the Immunization Schedule came into contact with a patient with measles. For
emergency specific prophylaxis, the child was administered donor ÿ-globulin. What kind of
immunity has been created?
A. Natural.
B. Passive.
C. Antitoxic.
D. Post-vaccination.
E. Local.
71. Specific prophylaxis for measles is included in the recommended mandatory vaccination plan.
What vaccine can be used to prevent measles?
A. Attenuated (live).
B. Inactivated.
C. Chemical.
D. Anatoxin.
E. Anti-idiotypic.
72. Two weeks ago, an epidemiologist at the Orphanage registered the illness of several
children. On the basis of clinical manifestations, epidemiological data, he suggested an
outbreak of measles infection. What method of laboratory diagnostics will confirm this
assumption?
A. Serological testing.
B. Rhinocytoscopy.
C. Express method: RIF.
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D. Virological: infection of chick embryos.
E. Skin-allergic test.
73. A child recovering from measles developed pneumonia caused by opportunistic bacteria.
What form of infection is this?
A. Reinfection.
B. Secondary infection.
C. Superinfection.
D. Persistent infection.
E. Mixed infection.
74. Scheduled vaccination against measles was carried out in the children's team.
What method can be used to check the effectiveness of the vaccination?
A. Biological
B. Allergy test
C. Viruscopic
D. Serological
E. Virological
75. Antibodies to the measles virus were detected in the blood serum of a newborn. What kind of
immunity does this indicate?
A. Artificial passive.
B. Natural active.
C. Natural passive.
d.artificial active.
E. Hereditary.
76. A 1.5-year-old boy who did not receive routine vaccinations came into contact with a
measles patient. For the purpose of emergency specific prophylaxis, the child was injected
with donor ÿ-globulin. What kind of immunity was created in this case?
A. Passive.
B. Natural.
C. Antitoxic.
D. Post-vaccination.
E. Local.
77. A pediatrician, while talking with parents about measles prevention, noticed that a certain
category of children has a natural passive immunity to this disease. What kind of children did the
doctor have in mind?
A. Those who received routine vaccinations.
B. Over 14 years old.
C. Those who had measles in the first year of life.
D. Newborns.
E. Those whose parents did not have measles.
78. A 7-year-old child fell ill acutely. On examination, the pediatrician noted that the mucous
membrane of the pharynx was hyperemic, edematous, covered with a large amount of
mucus. There are whitish spots on the mucous membrane of the cheeks. The next day, the
child developed a large-spotted rash on the skin of the face, neck, and trunk. What disease
can you think of? A. Diphtheria
V. Measles
S. Scarlet fever
D. Meningococcemia
E. Allergic dermatitis
79. A pregnant woman (gestation period 2 months) fell ill: her body temperature rose to 38.5°C,
she developed a severe headache, pain in the neck muscles, skin rashes.
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The doctor noted an increase in lymph nodes and diagnosed rubella. What reaction will a
virologist use to determine the presence of antibodies when examining paired blood sera taken
from a pregnant woman?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition reactions.
B. Immunofluorescence reactions.
C. Complement binding reactions.
D. Immunosorption reactions.
E. Thermo-ring precipitation reactions.
80. What vaccines are used to effectively prevent rubella?
A. Rudivaks.
B. Salk vaccine.
S. L-16 (vaccine from an attenuated strain of the measles pathogen).
D. L-3.
E. Subunit.
81. A woman was diagnosed with rubella at the beginning of her pregnancy. The virologist
confirmed the diagnosis with a serological test. Which of the serological reactions did the
virologist use to diagnose rubella?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
B. Agglutination reaction.
C. Complement binding reaction.
D. Precipitation reaction.
E. Opsonization reaction.
82. A pediatrician revealed developmental anomalies in a newborn and found out from the
anamnesis that the mother suffered a viral infection during pregnancy, which was characterized by
a rash and inflammation of the lymph nodes. Which of the following viral infections caused
abnormalities in the development of the fetus?
A. Rubella.
B. Influenza.
C. Mumps.
D. Polio.
E. Crimean hemorrhagic fever.
83. When registering a pregnant woman at the antenatal clinic, a comprehensive examination
of the patient for a number of infections was carried out. In the patient's blood serum, the virologist
detected IgM to the rubella virus. What does the test result indicate?
A. About the primary infection of a pregnant woman.
B. About the chronic process.
C. The woman is healthy.
D. About the exacerbation of a chronic process.
E. Re-infection with rubella virus.
84. A pregnant woman in the first trimester of pregnancy, who was in contact with a patient with
rubella, consulted a doctor. What would be your recommendations?
A. Artificial termination of pregnancy.
B. Prescribe vitamins A and E.
C. Prescribe immunoglobulin.
D. Prescribe antibiotics.
E. Prescribe vitamins.
85. A doctor diagnosed a three-year-old girl with rubella. Her ten-year-old sister did not contract
this infectious disease, although she was in contact with her younger sister all the time. Pediatrician
finds out that 10-year-old patient had rubella
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Five years ago. What type of immunity protected the older sister from rubella?
A. Natural active.
B. Natural passive.
C. Artificial active.
D. Artificial passive.
E. Species.
86. A pediatrician revealed anomalies in a newborn: hydrocephalus, cataract, heart disease.
From the anamnesis, the pediatrician found out that the mother had a small-spotted pink rash in the
second month of pregnancy against the background of subfebrile body temperature. Name the most
likely etiological factor that caused intraplacental infection of the fetus.
A. Rubella virus.
B. Toxoplasma.
C. Cytomegalovirus.
D. Herpes simplex virus type II.
E. Varicella zoster virus.
87. What disease is caused by a DNA genomic virus?
A. Adenovirus infection.
B. AIDS.
C. Respiratory syncytial infection.
D. Influenza.
E. Paragripp.
88. An outbreak of the disease occurred in the team with symptoms of damage to the
respiratory system, pharyngitis, keratoconjunctivitis. What viruses could cause this disease?
A. Adenoviruses.
B. Rhinoviruses.
C. ECHO viruses.
D. Coxsackie viruses.
E. Herpesviruses.
89. What virus will be affected by a drug that in an infected cell interferes with the process of
virus replication by inhibiting DNA synthesis?
A. Adenoviruses.
B. Orthomyxoviruses.
C. Rhabdoviruses.
D. Polioviruses.
E. Togaviruses.
90. An outbreak of the disease occurred in the army team, which was accompanied by dysuria,
pain during urination, fever. What viruses caused this disease?
A. Adenoviruses.
B. Herpesviruses.
C. ECHO viruses.
D. Coxsackie viruses.
E. Rotaviruses.
91. A doctor suspected adenovirus infection in a 1.5-year-old child with acute respiratory
disease (ARI). With the help of RSK in the patient's serum, the virologist detected
antibodies to adenovirus in a titer of 1:20. During the recovery period (after 2 weeks), the
serological examination was repeated. What result will confirm the preliminary diagnosis?
A. An increase in antibody titer.
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B. Decreased antibody titer.
C. The antibody titer will remain unchanged.
D. Negative result of the RSK reaction.
E. Incomplete antibodies will be detected.
92. A child was hospitalized with a viral disease of the upper respiratory tract. Which
family of viruses are "dual-acting viruses", i.e. are both oncogenic viruses and capable
of causing an infectious disease?
ÿ. Adenoviridae.
ÿ. Rhabdoviridae.
ÿ. Picornaviridae.
D. Orthomyxoviridae.
E. Coronaviridae.
Causative agents of intestinal infections of viral etiology5
Causative agents of acute intestinal viral infections
93. In early childhood, routine preventive immunization against poliomyelitis is carried out with a
live vaccine that is administered orally. What immunoglobulins are not responsible in this case for
the creation of post-vaccination immunity?
A. Serum IgA.
V. Ig M.
C Ig G.
D. IgD.
E. Secretory IgA.
94. In a sick boy, 5 years old, on the fifth day after the onset of the disease, the causative agent
of poliomyelitis was isolated from the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx and tonsils. What
reaction should be used to determine the serotype of the pathogen?
A. Passive hemagglutination.
B. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
C. Inhibition of hemadsorption.
D. Virus neutralization of cytopathic action.
E. Complement binding.
95. A patient (milkmaid) consulted a dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form of aphthae.
The doctor found rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands. What pathogen caused
this disease?
A. Foot-and-mouth disease virus.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Vesicular stomatitis virus.
D. Herpesvirus.
E. Coxsackie virus B.
96. The feces of a patient with suspected intestinal viral infection were prepared for virus isolation.
Then primary and transplanted cell cultures were infected. After 2-3 days, a cytopathic effect was
detected in infected cell cultures. How are enteroviruses identified?
A. Using the immunofluorescence reaction. B. With
the help of a cytopathic neutralization reaction.
C. With the help of hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
D. Using the agglutination reaction.
E. Using the precipitation reaction.
97. For serological diagnosis of poliomyelitis, paired sera of the patient are examined. What
should be used as an antigen in a neutralization reaction
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cytopathic action?
A. Viruses inactivated by formalin.
B. Complement-fixing antigens of the virus.
C. Live viruses.
D. Hemagglutinin antigens.
E. Antigens of capsid viral proteins.
98. A child with clinical signs of diarrhea was diagnosed by a doctor with rotavirus gastroenteritis.
The result of what laboratory test will confirm the preliminary diagnosis?
A. Determination of the nucleic acid electrophoretype.
B. Accumulation of virus in 1-day-old suckling mice.
C. Accumulation of the virus in chick embryos.
D. Detection of antibodies in RTGA.
E. Accumulation of the virus in cell culture.
99. A group of children with a preliminary diagnosis of rotavirus gastroenteritis was
hospitalized in the infectious diseases department of the children's city hospital. In the same
children's group, an epidemiologist registered an outbreak of influenza. What is the main laboratory
diagnostic principle used by the virologist to confirm the preliminary diagnosis?
A. Detection of a viral antigen in the test material.
C. Determination of the phenomenon of luminescence in the cytoplasm of cells when the
test material is stained with acridine orange.
C. Infection of laboratory animals.
D. Detection of specific inclusions in cells during the study of the material.
E. Isolation of the virus in cell culture and its further identification.
100. What virus can be isolated from the patient's feces within 2-3 weeks from the onset of the
disease?
A. Polio virus.
B. Influenza virus.
C. Hepatitis B virus.
D. Rubella virus.
E. Bark virus.
101. Material from a patient with poliomyelitis has been delivered to the laboratory. How can
a virologist isolate a virus?
A. When cultivating the virus in cell culture.
C. When cultivating the virus on a synthetic medium 199.
C. When cultivating the virus on a differential diagnostic medium.
D. When the virus is cultivated in an elective medium.
E. When cultivating the virus on a selective medium.
102. What vaccine against poliomyelitis should be used to create humoral and local
immunity?
A. Attenuated (live) vaccine.
B. Subunit vaccine.
C. Chemical vaccine.
D. Inactivated vaccine.
E. Vector vaccine.
103. In the material from a patient with acute intestinal infection, a virologist isolated a virus that
belongs to the genus Enterovirus. To determine the serotype of the virus, the virologist used
diagnostic sera. What antibodies should these sera contain?
A. Against capsid proteins.
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B. Against supercapsid proteins.
C. Against non-structural proteins of the virus.
D. Against viral enzymes.
E. Against viral hemagglutinins.
104. During the serological diagnosis of poliomyelitis, the virologist examined the paired sera of
the patient. What should a virologist use as an antigen when setting up a neutralization reaction?
A. Live viruses of three types.
B. Complement-fixing antigens of the virus.
C. Formalin inactivated antigens.
D. Hemagglutinin antigens.
E. Antigens from the capsid proteins of the virus.
105. In a 5-year-old boy on the fifth day of the disease, a doctor isolated the causative
agent of poliomyelitis in the material from the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx and
tonsils. What reaction did the virologist use to determine the serotype of the pathogen?
A. The reaction of neutralization of the cytopathic action.
B. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
C. Hemadsorption inhibition reaction.
D. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
E. Complement binding reaction.
106. What drug is used for specific prevention of poliomyelitis?
A. Attenuated (live) vaccine.
B. DPT vaccine.
S. Anatoxin.
D. Bacteriophage.
E. Chemical vaccine.
107. A mother came from a remote village to the district hospital. In her son, the doctor
diagnosed a flaccid paresis of the foot, which developed after an acute illness, which was
characterized by fever and diarrheal syndrome. What test will confirm the diagnosis of
poliomyelitis?
A. Study of paired sera.
B. Isolation of the virus from the blood.
C. Detection of antibodies in blood serum.
D. Detection of viral antigen.
E. Infection of chicken embryos with faecal filtrate.
108. A child who attended a kindergarten and fell ill 3 days ago was provisionally diagnosed by an
infectious disease doctor as poliomyelitis. The epidemiological anamnesis states that 3 cases of
poliomyelitis have already been registered in this kindergarten. What material from the patient will
the doctor send for research? What method of laboratory diagnostics will be used by a virologist to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Faeces for virological examination for culture infection
cells.
B. Nasopharyngeal swab for virological testing to infect suckling mice.
C. Vomit for virological examination.
D. Faeces for virological examination for infection of suckling mice.
E. Serum for virological testing to infect suckling mice.
109. The first vaccination against poliomyelitis is given to children 3 months of age with the Sabin
vaccine. What class of immunoglobulins is not involved in the creation of post-vaccination immunity?
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A. IgE.
ÿ. IgG.
C. IgA secretory.
D. Igÿ.
E. Serum IgA.
110. An 8-year-old girl suddenly had a fever, catarrhal changes appeared in the respiratory
tract. On the 5th day of the disease, paralysis of the muscles of the lower extremities
developed and respiratory failure joined. In the spinal cord, the doctor revealed the
proliferation of neuroglia around the dead neurons. What disease are these signs typical for?
A. Poliomyelitis.
W. Corey.
C. Diphtheria.
D. Meningococcemia.
E. Scarlet fever.
111. In the faeces of a three-year-old child with severe diarrhea, who has been sick for 3 days,
according to the method of immune electron microscopy, viruses with a two-layer capsid and
pseudo-envelope, which resemble small wheels with spokes, were found. What viruses are
most likely detected?
A. Coxsackieviruses
B. Reoviruses C.
Coronaviruses D.
ECHO viruses E.
Rotaviruses
112. On the eve of the New Year holidays, an outbreak of an intestinal infection was
registered in a children's preschool institution. During bacteriological examination of the
feces of sick pathogenic bacteria were not isolated. Electron microscopy revealed a
rounded formation with a clear rim and a thick sleeve resembling a wheel. Specify the
most likely causative agent of this infection:
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Coxsacki-virus
D. E.coli E.
P.vulgaris
113. In the faeces of a 3-year-old child with severe diarrhea, who fell ill three days ago, a
virus with a two-layer capsid and a pseudoenvelope was detected by a virologist using
immune electron microscopy. The virus resembled small wheels with spokes. What virus is
characterized by the above morphological features?
A. Rotavirus.
V. Coxsackie virus.
C. ECHO virus6.
D. Coronavirus.
E. Reovirus.
114. A patient who returned from India was given a preliminary diagnosis of poliomyelitis
by a doctor. What investigations should be carried out by a virologist to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Isolation of the virus from faeces and its identification, serological
examination of paired blood sera.
B. Indication of the virus in faeces by electron microscopy.
C. Blood microscopy using the “crushed” and “hanging” drop method.
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D. Examination of gastric lavage using immunofluorescence
reaction.
E. Sow feces in the environment for the accumulation of the pathogen.
115. To confirm the diagnosis of Coxsackie B virus infection, a doctor sent material
taken from a 16-year-old patient to a virological laboratory. What research will a
virologist conduct for the accumulation of the virus?
A. For the accumulation of the pathogen uses a continuous cell culture (Hep 2,
HeLa).
B. The test material will be inoculated onto Endo medium.
C. The test material will be plated on blood agar.
D. The test material will be inoculated into the meat-peptone broth.
E. For the accumulation of the pathogen uses a chicken embryo.
116. In the material from a patient with signs of enterovirus infection, a virologist
isolated a strain containing antigens of various serotypes of Coxsackie A viruses and
ECHO infection. What is the name of the process in which the exchange of capsid proteins
occurred with the simultaneous reproduction of related viruses in one cell?
A. Phenotypic mixing.
B. Phenotypic camouflage.
C. Bilateral complementation.
D. Interference.
E. Genetic reactivation.
117. In a kindergarten, 5 children fell ill within a few days. Children were
hospitalized with a diagnosis of "polio?". Name the mechanism of infection in children.
A. Fecal-oral.
V. Alimentary.
C. Contact.
D. Air and dust.
E. Transmissive.
118. The child was hospitalized in the infectious disease hospital with a
diagnosis of “enterovirus infection?”. For the accumulation of viruses, the virologist
used a cell culture of monkeys (Vero) and suckling mice. On cell culture, the virologist
did not reveal a cytopathic effect, but registered the death of suckling mice. What
enterovirus caused the disease in a child?
A. Coxsackie virus A.
B. Coxsackie virus B.
C. ECHO virus.
D. Poliomyelitis virus.
E. Unclassified enteroviruses 68-71.
119. Various biological preparations can be used for the specific prevention of
poliomyelitis. What drug will create the longest local immunity of the intestinal
mucosa?
A. Oral vaccination with an attenuated (live) vaccine.
B. Parenteral vaccination with an inactivated vaccine.
C. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin.
D. Parenteral vaccination with an attenuated (live) vaccine.
E. Parenteral administration of donor immunoglobulin.
120. A patient was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of enterovirus infection. To
accumulate the pathogen, the virologist used a cell culture. How can virus reproduction be
detected in cell culture?
A. According to the cytopathic effect of the virus on cell culture.
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B. Having stained the micropreparation according to the Gram method.
C. Using phase contrast microscopy.
D. Using the agglutination reaction.
E. By flocculation reaction.
The causative agents of hepatitis of viral etiology
121. In a locality, an epidemiologist registered an outbreak of hepatitis associated with the
water factor of infection transmission. What virus could cause an outbreak of hepatitis?
A. Hepatitis A virus.
B. Hepatitis D virus.
C. Hepatitis C virus.
D. Hepatitis B virus.
E. Hepatitis G virus.
122. After the accident in the water supply system, the incidence of acute intestinal infections
increased among the population. According to the results of the clinical picture of the disease
and the epidemiological situation, the doctor diagnosed the patients who were hospitalized in
the infectious diseases hospital with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. What material from patients did
the doctor send for examination to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Stools.
B. Blood.
C. Urine.
D. Nasopharyngeal lavage.
E. Bile.
123. In the older group of the kindergarten, the doctor identified a child with hepatitis A.
What drug will you prescribe to contact children for the specific prevention of hepatitis A?
ÿ. Immunoglobulin.
B. Serum.
S. Anatoxin.
D. Plasma.
E. Vaccine.
124. In a locality, an epidemiologist registered an outbreak of hepatitis associated with the
water factor of infection transmission. Which hepatitis virus could have caused the outbreak?
A. Hepatitis E virus.
B. Hepatitis D virus.
C. Hepatitis C virus.
D. Hepatitis B virus.
E. Hepatitis G virus.
125. A patient with viral hepatitis A was delivered to the infectious diseases hospital.
What class of antibodies will be synthesized first in response to the action of the
pathogen?
A. IgM.
ÿ. IgG.
ÿ. Age.
D. IgD.
E. IgE.
126. In the epidemiology of which viral hepatitis does seasonality occur?
A. Hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. Hepatitis C.
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D. Hepatitis D.
E. Hepatitis G.
127. Name the main mechanism of human infection with hepatitis A.
A. Fecal-oral.
B. Airborne.
C. Contact household.
D. Parenteral.
E. Transmissive.
128. Dental clinic workers should be vaccinated against viral hepatitis B, which will create artificial
active immunity. What drug should be used?
A. Inactivated virus grown on a chick embryo.
B. ÿ-globulin from donated blood.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Monoclonal antibodies.
E. Recombinant vaccine from viral antigens.
129.At present, in the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B, the presence of viral DNA in the patient's
blood is determined. Which of the following reactions is used to do this?
A. Complement binding reactions.
B. Reactions of indirect hemagglutination.
C. Polymerase chain reaction.
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E. Hemagglutination inhibition reactions.
130. Due to the severe course of hepatitis B, the patient was prescribed an examination to identify
a possible companion agent that aggravates the course of the underlying disease. Name this agent.
A. HBs antigen.
B. Hepatitis C virus.
C. Hepatitis G virus.
D. Hepatitis E virus.
E. Delta virus.
131.To test the blood of donors for the presence of hepatitis B virus antigens, highly sensitive
methods must be used. Which of the following reactions should be used?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
B. Immunoelectrophoresis.
C. Passive hemagglutination.
D. Complement binding.
E. Indirect immunofluorescence.
132. A patient, a dentist by specialty, was hospitalized in the infectious department with signs of
liver damage. What methods of laboratory diagnostics should be prescribed to establish the
diagnosis of viral hepatitis B?
A. Detection of HBs antigen in blood serum.
B. Virological study of feces.
C. Virological examination of urine.
D. Determination of liver function tests (bilirubin and blood cholesterol).
E. Detection of enzyme activity (aldolase, transaminase, etc.).
133. Dentists belong to the risk group of professional infection with viral hepatitis B. Specify an
effective means for specific active prevention of this disease among dentists.
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A. Vaccination with a recombinant vaccine.
B. Reliable sterilization of medical instruments.
C. Performing work in rubber gloves.
D. Administration of specific immunoglobulin.
E. Administration of interferonogens.
134. HBS antigen was detected in the blood serum during the ELISA test. What disease
does this indicate?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. Viral hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. Syphilis.
135. The hepatitis B virus gene, which is responsible for the formation of the HBs antigen,
has been integrated into the vaccinia virus genome. The recombinant virus is planned to be
used as a vaccine preparation. What type of vaccine is received?
A. Combined.
B. Genetic engineering.
C. Associated.
D. Synthetic.
E. Chemical.
136. Dentists belong to the group of increased risk of occupational infection with viral hepatitis
B. Select the drug that should be used for reliable active prevention of this disease.
A. Recombinant HvsAg Protein Vaccine
B. Live vaccine against viral hepatitis B.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Antihepatitis serum.
E. Monoclonal antibodies to HBsAg.
137. Dentists have been vaccinated according to professional indications. The vaccine
should protect them from a viral infection, the causative agent of which may be present in the
blood of dental patients who have had an infection or are chronic carriers. What vaccine was
used?
A. Live measles vaccine B.
Subunit influenza vaccine C. Inactivated
hepatitis A vaccine D. Rabies vaccine
E. Genetically engineered HBs antigen
138. Four months after the operation, the doctor noticed yellowing of the sclera, mucous
membranes, and skin of the patient and found that the patient had been transfused with donor
blood. What preliminary diagnosis did the doctor make to the patient?
A. Hepatitis B.
B. Yersiniosis.
C. Hepatitis A.
D. Sepsis.
E. Leptospirosis.
139. After suffering from hepatitis B, a patient developed hepatocellular carcinoma.
In what type of infection is the viral genome incorporated into the genome of the host
cell, causing oncological disease?
A. Integrated.
B. Latent.
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S. Abortive.
D. Acute.
E. Chronic.
140. During a surgical operation, a doctor gave a blood transfusion to a patient. What antigens did
the doctor check the blood for?
A. Hepatitis B virus.
V. Adenoviruses.
C. Hepatitis A virus.
D. Hepatitis E virus.
ÿ. Enteroviruses.
141. The causative agent of what disease is the most resistant to the action of chemical and
physical factors?
A. Hepatitis B.
W. Corey.
C. Poliomyelitis.
D. Influenza.
E. Mumps.
142. A dentist applied to a polyclinic with a request to vaccinate him against hepatitis B. What
vaccine will be used for vaccination?
A. Recombinant vaccine.
B. Inactivated vaccine.
C. Attenuated (live) vaccine.
D. Anatoxin.
E. Chemical vaccine.
143. 4 months after treatment in the surgical department, the doctor diagnosed four patients
with viral hepatitis. The clinical picture was characterized by the gradual development of the
disease: the appearance of a rash, yellowing of the sclera, mucous membranes and skin. During
the epidemiological examination of the sick, the doctor found out that during the treatment they
received a transfusion of a small amount of donor blood of one series. What viral hepatitis is
diagnosed in patients?
A. Hepatitis B.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Hepatitis A.
D. Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis).
E. Hepatitis E.
144. What highly sensitive reaction should be used to test donor blood for the presence of
hepatitis B antigens?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
B. Immunoelectrophoresis.
C. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
D. Complement binding reaction.
E. Indirect immunofluorescence reaction.
145. Three blood sera were delivered to the laboratory: a patient with chronic hepatitis
B, a patient with hepatitis B, and a patient with asymptomatic hepatitis B. What antigen will be
detected in all sera?
A. HÿsAg.
B. HBeAg.
C. HBcAg.
D. HBcAg ÿ HÿeAg.
E. HBcAg and HBsAg.
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146. When examining a donor who had not donated blood for a long time, a doctor detected
anti-HBs antibodies using ELISA. What does a positive ELISA result indicate?
A. A person has been ill with hepatitis B.
B. About acute hepatitis B.
C. About acute hepatitis C.
D. About chronic hepatitis B.
E. About chronic hepatitis C.
147. A patient was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of hepatitis B. To diagnose the
disease, the doctor put a serological test based on the interaction of the antigen with the
antibody, which is chemically associated with peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase. What serological
reaction was given by the doctor?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Radioimmune method.
C. Immunofluorescence reaction.
D. Complement binding reaction.
E. Immobilization reaction.
148. A patient who was injured in a traffic accident was taken to the hospital. The patient
urgently needs a blood transfusion. What reaction will the doctor use to check donated blood for the
presence of hepatitis B virus antigens?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Hemagglutination inhibition reactions.
C. Hemadsorption inhibition reactions.
D. Complement binding reactions.
E. Immobilization reaction.
149. The causative agent of hepatitis D (delta agent) is a defective virus that can reproduce only
in cells infected with one of the following viruses:
A. Hepatitis B virus.
B. Hepatitis A virus.
C. Hepatitis E virus.
D. Epstein-Barr virus.
E. Human immunodeficiency virus.
150. In a laboratory study of material from a patient with jaundice, a doctor obtained the following
data: HBsAg -, HBeAg -, anti-HBsG +, anti-HBsM
based on -,the
HCAg
results?
+. What diagnosis was made by the doctor
A. Hepatitis C, history of hepatitis B.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Chronic hepatitis B with low replicative activity.
D. Hepatitis B recurrence.
E. Re-infection with hepatitis B.
151. Due to the severe course of hepatitis B, the doctor prescribed an examination to the patient
in order to identify a satellite agent that complicates the course of the underlying disease. Name
this agent?
A. Delta virus.
B. Hepatitis C virus.
C. Hepatitis E virus.
D. Hepatitis A virus.
E. HBs antigen.
152. What material from a patient should be examined in order to
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confirm or refute the diagnosis of hepatitis B?
A. Blood.
B. Feces.
C. Nasopharyngeal lavage.
D. Bile.
E. I can.
153. A student who had never had serum hepatitis was forbidden by a doctor to be a donor
because a serological marker was found in him, which indicates infection of the body with the
corresponding virus. What marker did the doctor reveal in the donor?
ÿ. HBsAg.
ÿ. HBcAg.
C. HBeAg.
D. HBcIg.
E. HBsIg.
154. Scientists have integrated the hepatitis B virus gene, which is responsible for the
synthesis of HBsAg, into the vaccinia virus genome. The recombinant virus is planned to be
used as a vaccine preparation. What type of vaccine is the vaccine obtained in this way?
A. Genetic engineering.
B. Combined.
C. Associated.
D. Synthetic.
E. Chemical.
155. The doctor detected the HBs antigen in the patient's blood serum using enzyme
immunoassay. In what disease is this antigen detected?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. Viral hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. Syphilis.
156. After examining the patient and according to the medical history, the doctor diagnosed the
patient with hepatitis D (delta). What laboratory test result can confirm the diagnosis?
A. Detection of markers of hepatitis B and D in the blood.
B. Detection of markers of hepatitis A and B in the blood.
C. Detection of markers of hepatitis E and D in the blood.
D. Detection of markers of hepatitis C and D in the blood.
E. Detection of markers of hepatitis F and D in the blood.
157. A patient has jaundice, fever, lack of appetite, the liver is enlarged by 3 cm. What reaction,
first of all, should be made to clarify the diagnosis?
A. ELISA to detect HBs antigen.
B. Vidal's reaction.
C. Weigl reaction.
D. Wasserman reaction.
E. RNGA with chlamydial diagnosticum.
158. A patient was hospitalized in an infectious disease hospital with a diagnosis of hepatitis.
What type of hepatitis is caused by an RNA genomic virus that cannot reproduce without the
presence of HBsAg?
A. Hepatitis D.
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B. Hepatitis A.
C. Hepatitis B.
D. Hepatitis C.
E. Hepatitis E.
159. A month after returning from the summer camp, the child was taken to the infectious disease
hospital with symptoms, on the basis of which the doctor diagnosed him with viral hepatitis A?. What is the most
likely mechanism for infection in the child?
A. Fecal-oral.
B. Contact.
C. Air-dust.
D. Transmissive.
E. Parenteral.
160. When examining a donor's blood, a doctor identified one of the markers of hepatitis B. The
detection of which of the markers of this hepatitis does not allow the use of donor blood for blood transfusion?
A. HBs - antigen.
B. HBc - antigen.
ÿ. SEA.
D. HBe - antibodies.
E. HBe - antigen.
161. In a 25-year-old patient, the doctor noted fever and emerging jaundice. In a laboratory study of the
patient's blood, the doctor did not detect either HBsAg or antibodies to HBsAg in it. Which of the additional
tests can most reliably confirm that a patient is infected with hepatitis B?
A. Detection of antibodies against HBcAg.
B. Detection of HBcAg.
C. Detection of antibodies against HBeAg.
D. Detection of HBxAg.
E. Detection of the delta antigen.
162. A patient was hospitalized to the infectious diseases hospital with complaints of general weakness,
subfebrile temperature, yellowing of the sclera and skin. From the anamnesis, the doctor learned that 2
weeks ago the patient had a rest on the sea and ate seafood without heat treatment. What markers will allow
the doctor to confirm the diagnosis of “acute hepatitis E”?
A. IgM anti-HEV.
B. IgM anti-HAV.
C. IgG anti-HEV.
D. IgG antiHAV.
E. IgG antiHBV.
163. A patient was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital with complaints of general malaise, fever
up to 38ºÿ, jaundice. Considering that a few months ago the patient received a blood transfusion, the doctor
made a provisional diagnosis of “viral hepatitis B” to the patient. Name the main methods of laboratory
diagnostics of this disease.
A. Serological and molecular genetic.
B. Virological: accumulation of the virus in cell culture and indication of the pathogen by CPP.
C. Detection of virions in the blood by electron microscopy.
D. Virological: Identification of a virus in laboratory animals by means of a neutralization test.
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E. Virological: accumulation of the virus in the chicken embryo.
164. When checking the blood of one of the donors, the doctor detected HBsAg. The
donor reported that he was recently treated and received parenteral infusion of solutions.
Assess the quality of donated blood for transfusion.
A. Blood should not be used for transfusion.
B. Blood can be used for transfusion.
C. Only blood plasma can be used for transfusion.
D. Only red blood cells may be used for transfusion.
E. Blood can be used for transfusion only after pretreatment.
165. In a patient with a severe course of viral hepatitis, a doctor detected
antibodies against pathogens of hepatitis B and D in the blood. It is known that the delta
virus cannot independently reproduce in hepatocytes. What process allows the
reproduction of the hepatitis D virus in the presence of the hepatitis B virus?
A. Unilateral complementation of viruses.
B. Virus interference.
C. Genetic reactivation of defective viruses.
D. Phenotypic mixing.
E. Mutations in the delta virus genome.
166. In the blood of a patient who recovered from jaundice 10 weeks ago, a doctor detected
HBsAg. In what disease is this antigen detected?
A. With viral hepatitis B.
B. With viral hepatitis A.
C. With viral hepatitis C.
D. In viral hepatitis E.
E. In viral hepatitis F.
167. Among the biological preparations obtained by genetic engineering and used
in practice, there is a vaccine. What virus infection is this vaccine used to protect
against?
A. Hepatitis B.
B. Poliomyelitis.
S. Corey.
D. Mumps.
E. Adenovirus infection.
168. A patient consulted a doctor with complaints of subfebrile temperature, poor health,
jaundice. From the anamnesis, the doctor learned that three months ago the patient
underwent intravenous manipulations. The doctor made a preliminary diagnosis of viral
hepatitis. What tests should be done to confirm or reject the diagnosis?
A. Determination of the total HBs antigen in the patient's blood serum.
B. Bacteriological examination of the patient's feces.
C. Investigation of the nasopharyngeal lavage for the presence of the causative agent of hepatitis A.
D. Investigation of nasopharyngeal lavage for the presence of the causative agent of hepatitis C.
E. Determination of the total pool of IgA in the patient's blood serum.
The causative agent of rabies
169. A 40-year-old man, bitten by a fox, after 4 weeks had a fever, developed
depression, apathy, respiratory and swallowing disorders. The patient died of heart
failure 6 days later. In preparations-prints from a section of the brain of the deceased,
the virologist identified Babes-Negri bodies. What family does the virus that caused
death belong to?
ÿ. Rhabdoviridae.
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ÿ. Adenoviridae.
ÿ. Herpesviridae.
D. Retroviridae.
E. Orthomyxoviridae.
170. The patient went to the clinic about dog bites, the dog succeeded
catch and establish that the animal is ill with rabies. What vaccine should be used for the
specific prevention of rabies in humans?
A. Killed.
B. Anatoxin.
S. Chemical.
D. Recombinant.
E. Synthetic.
171. A man who was bitten by an unknown dog came to the surgical room.
Wide lacerations are localized on the face. What treatment and preventive care should be
provided to prevent rabies?
A. Start immunization with rabies vaccine.
B. Prescribe combined antibiotic therapy.
C. Urgently administer the DTP vaccine.
D. Hospitalize the patient and keep him under medical supervision.
E. Urgent administration of normal gamma globulin
172. The fox bit the hunter's fingers. 10 years ago, the victim received a full course of
vaccination with rabies vaccine. What should be the doctor's tactics for the prevention
of rabies in this case?
A. Combined administration of anti-rabies immunoglobulin and antirabies vaccine according to the full scheme.
B. Combined administration of tetanus toxoid and rabies vaccine according to the
full scheme.
C. Combined administration of rabies immunoglobulin and 50% injections of rabies
vaccine.
D. Combined administration of tetanus toxoid and 50% rabies vaccine injections.
E. Combined administration of tetanus toxoid and rabies vaccine according to the full
scheme.
173. A man who was bitten by a stray dog turned to the surgical room. The victim
has extensive lacerations on his face. What treatment and preventive care should
be provided to the victim to prevent rabies?
A. Start immunization with rabies vaccine.
B. Prescribe combined antibiotic therapy.
C. Urgently vaccinate with DTP vaccine.
D. Hospitalize the patient and observe the victim.
E. Urgently introduce ÿ (gamma) - globulin.
174. The Research Institute of Virology has started production of an anti-rabies vaccine.
What strain of the rabies virus was used to make the vaccine?
A. Fixed virus.
B. Inactivated virus.
C. Virus neutralized by ultraviolet rays.
D. Virus synthesized using genetic engineering methods.
E. Virus isolated from dogs.
175. A patient was delivered to the hospital with a lacerated wound of the lower leg, obtained
as a result of a bite by a sick animal with a diagnosis of rabies. What vaccine is needed
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administer to the victim to prevent rabies?
A. Rabies vaccine.
B. DTP.
S. ADS.
D. BCG.
E. TAVTe-vaccine.
176. The hunter needs medical help - his hand was bitten by a wounded fox. What
assistance should the victim receive for specific rabies prophylaxis?
A. Administration of the rabies vaccine.
B. Surgical treatment of the wound.
C. Introduction of antibiotics.
D. Washing the wound with soapy water.
E. Treatment of the wound with an alcoholic solution of iodine.
177. With direct RIF of a preparation prepared from a section of the brain of a dog with
suspicious behavior, a virologist observed the luminescence of the preparation. What is
revealed by this study?
A. Antigens in combination with antibodies.
B. Viruses.
C. Antibodies.
D. Babes-Negri bodies.
E. Taurus Pashén.
178. Serum was administered to a patient who was bitten by a dog to prevent rabies.
After 7 days, the patient developed symptoms of serum sickness: fever, urticaria,
swelling and pain in the joints, enlarged lymph nodes. What is the mechanism of serum
sickness?
A. Circulation of immune complexes.
B. Synthesis of class E immunoglobulin.
C. Synthesis of class G immunoglobulin.
D. Decreased T-lymphocytes.
E. Activation of macrophages.
179. In the brain cells of a fox that was caught within the city, a virologist identified
Babesh-Negri bodies. The source of what disease is this animal?
A. Rabies.
B. Aseptic meningitis.
C. congenital rubella.
D. Mumps.
E. Infectious mononucleosis.
180. A patient came to the polyclinic because of numerous dog bites. The dog was
caught. The animal was found to have rabies. What vaccine should be used to vaccinate
the victim for the specific prevention of rabies?
A. Inactivated.
V. Anatoxin.
S. Chemical.
D. Recombinant.
E. Synthetic.
181. How can control be ensured to prevent the spread of the rabies pathogen?
A. Immunization of domestic and farm animals.
B. Immunization of people from adolescence.
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C. Immunization of wild animals - natural hosts of the virus.
D. Destruction of bats.
E. None of the above.
182. In an area where an epidemiologist registered an epicenter of rabies among
wild animals, a man who had been bitten by a stray dog turned to the polyclinic. With
the preventive purpose of the victim, they began to vaccinate with an anti-rabies
vaccine. What type of vaccine is this drug?
A. Attenuated (live).
B. Inactivated.
C. Molecular.
D. Anatoxin.
E. Synthetic.
The causative agents of herpesvirus infections
183. The laboratory of the diagnostic center received a modern test system for
detecting TORCH infections, which makes it possible to diagnose toxoplasmosis, ruby
infection, cytomegalovirus infection, herpes infection. Which of the following diseases
are caused by viruses?
A. Ruby infection, cytomegalovirus infection, herpes infection.
B. Rubyinfection, herpesinfection.
C. Cytomegalovirus infection, herpes infection.
D. Ruby infection.
E. All diseases listed in the test.
184.There have been several cases of illness among children in the kindergarten. The
clinical picture was characterized by an increase in body temperature and the appearance
of a vesicular rash in the throat, mouth and skin. Provisional diagnosis: chicken pox.
Which of the above materials should be sent to the virological laboratory for express
diagnostics?
A. The contents of the vesicles.
B. Phlegm.
C. Hand washings.
D. Urine.
E. Bile.
185. A patient went to a dentist with complaints about the appearance of bubbles with
liquid on the lips, localized at the border of the skin and mucous membrane. What
microorganisms can cause such a pathology?
A. Mycobacteria.
B. Streptococcus.
C. Herpesviruses.
D. Orthomyxoviruses.
E. Staphylococcus.
186. A patient has a fever and the appearance of vesicles, which are located on the
border of the skin and mucous membranes. What research methods can be used to
confirm the presence of the herpes simplex virus in the body of a patient?
A. Microscopic and allergic.
B. Virological and biological.
C. Serological and biological.
D. Microscopic and biological.
E. Virological and serological.
187. For the diagnosis of generalized herpesvirus infection, blood serum was examined
in order to identify specific antibodies of a certain class. What class of antibodies indicate
the initial stage of a viral infection?
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A. IgG.
V. Ig A.
. Ig E.
D. Ig M.
E. IgD.
188. A patient has vesicular vesicles on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, nose and lips.
The dentist suspected vesicular stomatitis. What study will provide an opportunity to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of the vesicular fluid B. Isolation
of the virus from the vesicular fluid
C. Isolation of bacteria from vesicular fluid D. Allergy test
E. Infection of animals with vesicular fluid
189. A patient went to the doctor with complaints of periodic rashes of herpetic vesicles on the lips
and on the wings of the nose. This condition has been observed for 10 years, each time after a
decrease in the body's defenses. The doctor diagnosed her with labial herpes. What is the name of
this form of infection?
A. Acute
B. Latent C.
Persistence D.
Protracted E.
Exogenous
190. Vesicles appeared on the skin, mucous membranes of the lips and nose in a patient with
herpes virus infection. What rapid diagnostic reaction is used by a virologist to detect the
herpes virus in the material from vesicles?
A. Immunofluorescence reaction.
B. Neutralization reaction.
C. Complement binding reaction.
D. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
E. Precipitation reaction.
191. To diagnose a generalized herpesvirus infection in a patient, a virologist examined
the blood serum to identify specific antibodies of a certain class. What class of antibodies
indicate the acute stage of a viral infection?
A. IgM.
ÿ. Age.
ÿ. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgD.
192. In connection with suspected cytomegalovirus infection, a virologist examined the blood
serum of a newborn, in which he identified specific immunoglobulins of class G. The virologist also
detected antibodies of the same class in the mother. The virologist did not detect antibodies of
other classes either in the mother or in the child. How to explain the obtained results?
A. Transplacental transfer of antibodies.
B. Transplacental infection of the fetus.
C. Immune response of an infected fetus.
D. Infection of the newborn during childbirth.
E. Defect in the B-system of the immune system of the newborn.
193. A doctor diagnosed Burkitt's lymphoma in a student from Africa. What herpes virus
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most likely, is the etiological factor of the disease?
A. Epstein-Barr virus.
B. Herpes zoster virus.
C. Herpes simplex virus type I.
D. Herpes simplex virus type II.
E. Human cytomegalovirus.
194. Acquired immunodeficiencies are often caused by infectious lesions of
the body, in which the pathogen directly reproduces in the cells of the immune system
and destroys them. For pathogens of what diseases is this typical?
A. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS.
B. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis.
C. Poliomyelitis, hepatitis A.
D. Dysentery, cholera.
E. Q-fever, typhus.
195. A patient who received immunosuppressant therapy due to a systemic disease
developed signs of activation of cytomegalovirus infection. What test should a
virologist use to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Detection of specific IgM using ELISA.
B. Infection of white mice.
C. Study of paired sera.
D. Study of the state of cellular immunity.
E. Detection of antibody levels using pH.
196. A doctor suspected infectious mononucleosis in a student hospitalized to an infectious
diseases hospital on the second day of illness. The result of what laboratory test will
confirm the patient's diagnosis on the day of his hospitalization?
A. Detection of IgM - antibodies against the Epstein-Barr virus.
B. Detection of antibodies against cytomegalovirus.
C. Isolation of the herpes virus.
D. Detection of a fourfold increase in antibody titer against Epstein Barr virus.
E. Detection of IgM - antibodies against the herpes simplex virus.
197. Painful vesicles characterized by itching appeared on the skin of the face along
the right facial nerve after hypothermia in a 60-year-old patient. Antibiotic ointment was
ineffective. The causative agent of this disease can be:
ÿ. Herpesvirus.
ÿ. Adenovirus.
ÿ. Streptococcus.
D. Staphylococcus.
ÿ. Bacillus.
198. A patient consulted a doctor with complaints of painful vesicles that appeared
along the 4-5th intercostal spaces. As a child, the patient had been ill with chicken pox.
What diagnosis did the doctor make to the patient?
A. Shingles.
B. Herpes simplex.
C. Allergic dermatitis.
D. Erysipelas.
E. Krapivnitsa.
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199. A patient with infectious mononucleosis has been taking glucocorticoids for
two weeks. There was a remission, but at the same time there was an exacerbation
of chronic tonsillitis. What action of glucocorticoids is the result of this complication?
A. Immunosuppressive.
V. Antishock.
C. Antitoxic.
D. Antiallergic.
E. Anti-inflammatory.
200. During a virological study of material from a 15-year-old patient, in whom the
doctor suspected infectious mononucleosis, a virologist detected the Epstein-Barr
virus. What sequence of reproduction of DNA-containing viruses in a cell is correct?
A. Deproteinization, transcription, protein synthesis, viral DNA synthesis.
B. Deproteinization, protein synthesis, transcription, viral DNA synthesis.
C. Transcription, protein synthesis, deproteinization, viral DNA synthesis.
D. Protein synthesis, deproteinization, transcription, viral DNA synthesis.
E. None of the above.
201. An elderly woman was admitted to the neurological department with complaints
of shingles. On the skin of the trunk, the rashes are painful, look like vesicles with
serous contents. What virus caused this disease?
A. Alpha herpesvirus.
B. Beta herpesvirus.
C. Gamma herpes virus.
D. HIV.
E. Poxvirus.
202. A child was admitted to the hospital with fever, swollen lymph nodes, and a rash. In
the blood test, the doctor revealed an increase in the number of monocytes, atypical
lymphocytes. The doctor suspected infectious mononucleosis. What virus caused this
disease?
A. Epstein-Barr virus.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Varicella zoster virus.
D. Poxvirus.
E. HIV.
203. In a patient, a doctor noted an increase in body temperature, hyperemia and
swelling of the buccal mucosa with a painful small rash and clinically diagnosed acute
herpes. What drug do you recommend to prescribe to the patient for treatment?
A. Acyclovir.
B. Herpetic immunoglobulin.
ÿ. Immunoglobulin.
D. Ribavirin.
E. Attenuated (live) vaccine.
204. In a 3-year-old child, the doctor noted an increase in body temperature for a
long period, an increase in lymph nodes, and a significant increase in the number of
lymphocytes in the blood. Using ELISA, the virologist identified the Epstein-Barr
virus. What diagnosis would you make to the patient?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
W. Burkitt's lymphoma.
C. Herpetic adenopathy.
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D. Generalized infection caused by herpes-zoster.
E. Cytomegalovirus infection.
205. A patient after kidney transplantation received the necessary treatment to prevent
organ rejection, but after transplantation, the patient developed signs of a generalized
cytomegalovirus infection. Specify the reason for the development of this disease?
A. The use of immunosuppressive therapy.
B. Graft-versus-host reaction.
C. Manifestation of histone incompatibility reaction.
D. Polyclonal stimulation of B-lymphocytes.
E. Derepression of the viral genome.
206. A blistering rash in the form of a hoop with pain syndrome appeared in a patient with
rheumatism along the intercostal nerves. What study is the most effective for rapid diagnosis
of herpes zoster?
A. RIF with monoclonal antibodies.
B. Accumulation of the virus in cell culture.
S. RN.
D. ELISA.
E. RSK.
207. An 8-year-old schoolboy went to the dentist with a herpetic rash on his lower lip. What
is the most effective remedy to prescribe?
A. Oxacillin
V. Furadonin
ÿ. Ampicillin
E. Ketoconazole
E. Acyclovir
Retroviruses
208. During the study of blood serum in a patient with signs of immunodeficiency, antibodies to
gp120 and gp41 proteins were detected. What infection in the patient is confirmed by this result?
A. HLTV-1 infection.
B. HIV infection.
C. TORCH infection.
D. HBV infection.
E. ECHO infection.
209. After a laboratory examination of a patient with recurrent opportunistic
infections, the doctor diagnosed the patient with HIV infection. The result of what
research allowed to confirm this diagnosis to the patient?
A. The result of enzyme immunoassay.
B. The result of the hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
C. The result of a passive hemagglutination reaction.
D. The result of the complement fixation reaction.
E. The result of the precipitation reaction in the gel.
210. In a laboratory study of the patient's blood serum using ELISA, a virologist detected
antibodies to HIV. What additional examination should a virologist use to confirm the diagnosis
of “HIV infection”?
A. The study of blood serum using immuno-blotting.
B. Immunofluorescence reaction.
C. In-depth immunological examination.
D. The study of blood serum in the reaction of immunodiffusion.
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E. Electron microscopic examination of blood cells.
211. In a patient with suspected HIV infection, a virologist detected antibodies to one of the
HIV proteins, gp41, using immunoblotting. The result obtained was rated as doubtful. What
test should a virologist perform to confirm the diagnosis?
A. ELISA.
B. Examine the immunogram.
S. RSK.
D. Radioimmunoprecipitation reaction.
E. RNGA.
212. When examining a 16-year-old drug addict, a doctor revealed: dramatic weight loss,
swollen lymph nodes, subfebrile temperature, prolonged diarrhea. The preliminary diagnosis is
AIDS. What study will finally confirm the diagnosis?
A. Immunoblotting.
B. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
C. Radioimmunoassay.
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E. Immunofluorescence reaction.
213. A young man complains of frequent inflammatory diseases of various localization. The
doctor revealed that the patient was an injection drug addict. The study of the patient's blood
serum for HIV infection gave a positive result. Which cells of the immune system are most
commonly infected with HIV?
A. T-helpers.
B. Plasma cells.
C. Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
D. Neutrophils.
E. T-suppressors.
214. A scientist introduced oncogenic RNA viruses into the body of an experimental
animal. Which enzyme will replicate their genome?
A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
B. DNA ligase.
C. DNA polymerase.
D. Translocases.
E. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
215. What protein-enzyme of HIV provides reverse transcription?
A. Revertase.
B. RNA polymerase.
C. Protease.
D. Integrase.
E. Endonuclease.
216. In what way does a person not become infected with HIV infection?
A. Contact household (with fecal-oral transmission mechanism).
B. Transfusion.
C. Injectable.
D. Sexual.
E. Transplacental.
217. Specify the transmission factor through which a person is not infected with HIV
infection?
A. Urine.
B. Saliva.
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C. Blood.
D. Vaginal discharge.
E. Sperm.
218. A 25-year-old patient has lost 11 kg in the last year, suffers from diarrhea, was hospitalized
with a diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia. The doctor gave the patient a clinical diagnosis of
AIDS. What laboratory test will most accurately confirm the clinical diagnosis?
A. Immunoblotting.
B. Determination of the ratio of CD4+/CD8+ cells.
C. Determination of the number of T- and B-lymphocytes.
D. Reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
E. ELISA method.
219. A patient went to a doctor with complaints that allowed the doctor to make a provisional
diagnosis of “HIV infection” to the patient. What laboratory test is most often used in HIV
infection?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Coagglutination reaction.
C. Radioimmunoassay.
D. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
E. Immunoblotting.
220. Which virus family contains RNA-dependent DNA polymerase as a component virion?
ÿ. Retroviridae.
ÿ. Adenoviridae.
ÿ. Orthomyxoviridae.
D. Rhabdoviridae.
ÿ. Reoviridae.
221. During the initial examination of the material from the patient, the virologist used enzyme
immunoassay and detected antibodies to HIV in the patient. What should the doctor do next?
A. Make a confirmatory diagnosis by immunoblotting.
B. Prescribe antiretroviral therapy.
C. Conduct a re-examination of the material after 1 year.
D. Accumulate virus in cell culture.
E. Diagnose with tuberculin.
222. In an 18-year-old boy, a doctor revealed an increase in inguinal lymph nodes, prolonged
subfebrile temperature and oral candidiasis. Specify the most reliable laboratory test that will
confirm the fact that the patient is infected with HIV infection.
A. Western blotting.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to detect antibodies.
D. Immunofluorescence reaction.
E. Enzyme immunoassay for detection of antigens.
223. A doctor diagnosed AIDS in a 20-year-old patient. What populations of cells are most
sensitive to the human immunodeficiency virus?
A. T-helpers.
B. Hepatocytes.
C. Endotheliocytes.
D. Epitheliocytes.
E. B-lymphocytes.
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224. Human immunodeficiency virus is known to belong to the Retroviridae family.
What is the main feature that characterizes this family? A. Presence of reverse
transcriptase enzyme. B. Contains "minus" RNA. C. Simple viruses that cause disease
only in humans.
D. Nucleic acid does not integrate into the host genome. E. A
DNA-containing virus that causes chronic infections. 225. When examining the blood
serum of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency, antibodies to gP120 and gP41 proteins
were found. The presence of what infection in the patient confirms this result? A. TORCH
infection. B. HIV infection. C. ECHO infection.
D. HBV infections.
E. HLTV infections.
226. Reproduction of viruses of which family does NOT include the integration of its genome
into the genome of the host cell? A. retroviridae. B. herpesviridae. C. Orthomyxoviridae.
D. Papilomaviridae.
E. Hepadnaviridae.
227. When examining a young man at the AIDS Center, the patient received a positive
ELISA result with HIV antigens. The patient has no complaints about the state of health.
What does a positive ELISA result indicate? A. About HIV infection. B. About AIDS. C.
About infection with the causative agent of hepatitis B.
D. About the transferred disease AIDS. E.
Persistence of the causative agent of hepatitis
B. 228. To diagnose HIV infection in a patient, a virologist examined the blood serum to
detect specific antibodies using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. What enzymelabeled antibodies were used? A. Against human immunoglobulins. B. Against HIV
antigens. C. Against the glycoprotein gp120.
D. Against p17 protein.
E. Against gp41 glycoprotein.
229. The human immunodeficiency virus differs from other viruses: A. The
presence of reverse transcriptase. B. The complexity of the structure. C.
The ability to integrate into the cell genome.
D. The presence of two types of nucleic acids: RNA and DNA.
E. The ability to reproduce in the chick embryo. 230. The main
method of laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is: A. Serological. B. Virological. C.
Biological.
D. Skin-allergic test. E. Electron
microscopy.
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231. A virologist detected Pneumocystis carinii in the sputum of a patient with
pneumonia. Only in what infectious disease can this etiological form of pneumonia
develop?
A. With HIV infection.
B. With the plague.
C. In ornithosis.
D. With legionellosis.
E. With Q fever.
232. A 35-year-old woman consulted a doctor with complaints of general weakness, fatigue,
and swollen lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy). From the anamnesis, the doctor found out that
the patient had been taking drugs parenterally for several years. A serological blood test
(ELISA) revealed antibodies to the HIV 1 virus in the patient. A second blood test gave a
positive result. What should be the doctor's actions to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Put the reaction of immunoblotting (western blotting).
C. Immediately screen all sexual partners for HIV infection.
C. The diagnosis does not require confirmation.
D. Put Vidal's reaction.
E. Put the Wasserman reaction.
233. The human immunodeficiency virus, having gp41 and gp120 antigens on its surface,
interacts with target cells of the body. Select antigens of human lymphocytes with which
virus gp120 binds complementary.
A. CD4.
B. CD3.
C. CD8.
D. CD19.
E. CD28.
234. The patient was informed that serological testing for AIDS will consist of two stages.
What reaction does the virologist use at the first stage of the study to determine the presence
of antiviral antibodies in the patient's blood serum?
A. ELISA.
B. Immunoblotting.
S. RIA.
D. REEF.
E. RNGA.
235. At the blood transfusion station, a doctor detected antibodies to the human immunodeficiency
virus in the blood serum of one of the donors. What test should a virologist use to confirm the
diagnosis of “HIV infection”?
A. Western blotting (immunoblotting).
B. Electron microscopy.
C. Enzyme immunoassay.
D. Immunofluorescence reaction.
E. Radioimmunoassay.
236. A patient approached the anonymous AIDS examination room with a request to be
examined and to determine whether he was infected with HIV. What reaction should a virologist
use for serodiagnosis of HIV infection?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Polymerase chain reaction.
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D. Immune electrophoresis.
E. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
237. A doctor periodically examines an HIV-infected patient to identify signs of activation of the
process. What is the sign that indicates the transition of HIV infection to AIDS.
A. Kaposi's sarcoma. The number of T-helpers is below 200 cells/µl.
B. Reducing the number of neutrophils.
C. Decrease in the number of T-helpers.
D. The number of T-helpers is below a critical level.
E. Detection of antibodies to gp41.
237. In a specialized clinic, a doctor prescribed a combination of drugs that inhibit the reproduction of
HIV to a patient. To which group do drugs belong, which are necessarily included in complex antiviral
treatment?
A. Nucleoside analogues.
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C. Interleukins.
D. Indinavir (synonymous with kriksivan).
E. Biseptol.
239. A patient has been treated for a long time for pneumonia of unknown etiology, resistant to
standard therapy. From the anamnesis, the doctor learned that the patient had been on a business
trip to the United States for a long time. While on a business trip, he was injured, was treated in the
hospital. After recovery, he returned to his homeland. Analyzing the anamnesis and clinical picture
of the disease, the doctor made a preliminary diagnosis of AIDS to the patient. The results of what
test will confirm the patient's preliminary diagnosis?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Vidal reactions.
C. Complement binding reactions.
D. Electron microscopy.
E. RTGA (hemagglutination inhibition reactions).
240. After a laboratory examination of a patient with recurrent viral, bacterial and mycological
“opportunistic” infections, the doctor diagnosed the patient with “HIV infection”. What test results
confirmed the diagnosis?
A. Immunoblotting.
B. Hemagglutination inhibition reactions.
C. Reactions of passive hemagglutination.
D. Complement binding reactions.
E. Enzyme immunoassay.
241. In a 25-year-old patient from numerous skin pustules, a bacteriologist sown Staphylococcus
aureus in association with Staphylococcus epidermidis, revealed Pneumocystis carinii in sputum,
cryptosporidium, Proteus vulgaris and fungi of the genus Candida in feces. In what disease is
such a numerous infection of the patient with opportunistic microorganisms observed?
A. AIDS.
B. Dysbacteriosis.
S. Sepsis.
D. Drug agranulocytosis.
E. Diabetes mellitus.
242. A 35-year-old woman with a clinically diagnosed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome died of
pneumonia with severe respiratory failure.
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What etiology of pneumonia is most likely in this case?
A. Pneumocysts.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Mycobacterium.
D. Legionella.
E. Cryptosporidium.
243. What diagnosis should a doctor make to a patient if a virologist has detected antibodies to
gp120 and gp41 in the studied serum of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency?
A. HIV infection.
B. ECHO infection.
C. TORCH infection.
D. HLTV-1 infection.
E. HBV infection.
244. A doctor detected a decrease in the absolute and relative number of circulating
CD4+ lymphocytes in the patient's blood. What study enabled the virologist to identify
these indicators?
A. Reaction with labeled monoclonal antibodies.
B. Reaction of rosette formation with ram erythrocytes.
C. Opsonization reaction.
D. Reaction of blast transformation of lymphocytes with phytohemagglutinin.
E. Reaction of blast transformation of lymphocytes with lipopolysaccharide.
245. A 27-year-old patient has enlarged submandibular, axillary and inguinal lymph nodes.
During a biopsy of the lymph nodes, the doctor revealed follicular hyperplasia and clinically
diagnosed HIV infection. What period of HIV infection is characterized by such changes?
A. The period of persistent generalized lymphadenopathy.
B. Incubation period.
S. Prespid.
D. AIDS.
E. Latent period.
246. Using immunoblotting, a virologist found glycoprotein gp120 in the patient's blood serum.
In what disease is this glycoprotein detected?
A. HIV infection.
B. Viral hepatitis B.
S. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Poliomyelitis.
247. A fairly common cause of acquired immunodeficiencies is an infectious lesion of the body, in
which pathogens directly multiply in the cells of the immune system and destroy it. Choose among
the listed diseases in which the above occurs:
A. Q fever, typhus
B. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis
C. Dysentery, cholera
D. Poliomyelitis, hepatitis A
E. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS
248. During the artificial ventilation of the lungs by the "mouth-to-mouth" method, the
blood of a patient with HIV infection entered the oral cavity of a doctor. What solution should a
doctor use to rinse the mouth for emergency prevention of HIV infection?
A. 70% ethyl alcohol.
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B. 2% sodium carbonate solution.
C. 2% chloramine solution.
D. 3% bleach solution.
E. 6% hydrogen peroxide solution.
249. A driver, 40 years old, has been ill for two months, complains of general weakness,
sweating, frequent prolonged diarrhea and recurrent respiratory infections, lost 12 kg. Objectively
- generalized lymphadenopathy, symptoms of oral candidiasis; in faeces - an admixture of mucus
and blood. The number of T-helpers in the blood is reduced, CD4+/CD8+ < 0.5. What preliminary
diagnosis did the doctor make to the patient?
A. AIDS.
B. Chronic dysentery.
S. Amoebiasis.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. Cytomegalovirus infection.
250. When examining a donor, a doctor detected antibodies to HIV infection in the patient's
blood. The donor has no complaints. On examination, the patient is practically healthy. What
preliminary diagnosis did the doctor make to the donor?
A. HIV infection.
B. AIDS.
C. All answers are correct.
D. All answers are wrong.
E. -.
251. A patient who had a questionable sexual relationship six months ago complains of weight
loss, diarrhea, prolonged fever, dermatitis. What cells are infected by the pathogen?
A. T-helpers.
V. TGZT.
C. CD8+ (regulatory, suppressors).
D. B-lymphocytes.
E. CD8+ (effector, cytotoxic).
252. A young man received a positive response to the presence of antibodies to HIV (based
on ELISA results). The patient insists on an additional study that would confirm the presence
of antibodies to this pathogen. What test will confirm the presence of antibodies to HIV
infection in a patient?
A. Immunoblotting.
V. RPGA.
S. RIF.
D. PCR.
E. RTGA.
253. A clinically healthy 25-year-old male prospective donor should be tested for the
presence of human immunodeficiency virus. What will be revealed during the analysis of
the donor's blood if he is really infected with HIV?
A. Antibodies to viral glycoproteins.
B. Viral RNA.
C. Revertase enzyme.
D. Provirus.
E. Decrease in the number of T-lymphocytes.
254. A 3-year-old child was transfused with blood containing the AIDS virus. During
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the next 6 months, the signs of the disease did not develop, but the state of the virus carrier
was formed, associated with the transition of the pathogen into the form of a provirus. What is
a provirus?
A. Double-stranded DNA integrated into the genome of the host cell.
B. Single-stranded RNA.
C. Complex of viral enzymes.
D. Virus nucleocapsid without supercapsid.
E. Glycoprotein component of the supercapsid.
255. One of the promising directions in the treatment of HIV infection is the creation of drugs that
competitively block receptors on lymphocytes and prevent adsorption of the virus on them. What cell
structures are responsible for virus adsorption?
A. CD4.
B. gp120.
S. gp41.
D. CD28.
E. CD29.
256. The most common causative agent of opportunistic pneumonia in HIV/AIDS are:
A. Pneumocysts.
B. Staphylococci.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Cytomegaloviruses.
E. Klebsiella.
257. What is the most informative laboratory test for diagnosing HIV infection during the
seronegative period of the disease?
A. PCR.
B. ELISA to detect antibodies.
C. Western blot for detection of antibodies.
D. Hemagglutination reaction.
E. ELISA for the detection of antigens.
258. Immunological studies were performed in a patient with clinical signs of immunodeficiency. A
significant decrease in the number of cells forming rosettes with ram erythrocytes was found. What
conclusion should be drawn based on the analysis data?
A. Decreased levels of natural killer (NK) cells
B. Decrease in the level of T-lymphocytes
C. Decreased levels of the complement system
D. Decrease in the level of B-lymphocytes
E. Insufficiency of effector cells of humoral immunity
259. A doctor has detected infection of T-lymphocytes with the HIV virus in a patient. What viral
synthesis is catalyzed by the enzyme reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase)?
A. DNA on a viral RNA matrix.
B. Viral DNA on a DNA template.
C. DNA on viral rRNA.
D. mRNA on a viral protein matrix.
E. Viral mRNA on the DNA template.
260. Quite often, the cause of acquired immunodeficiencies is an infectious lesion of
the body, in which the pathogen reproduces directly in the cells of the immune system and
destroys them. For which of
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the listed diseases it is characteristic?
A. AIDS.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Poliomyelitis.
D. Cholera.
E. Typhoid fever.
261. When examining the immune status of a patient with a malignant tumor of the stomach
in the peripheral blood, a doctor revealed a significant decrease in the relative number of Tlymphocytes. What can the result of the study indicate?
A. On the violation of the T-cell link of immunity.
B. On the reproduction of the virus in neurons, microglial cells of the brain.
C. On the persistence of the virus.
D. About hypoimmunoglobulinemia.
E. Impaired immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
262. Despite the fact that the causative agent of HIV infection is sufficiently studied, at present
there is no drug for the specific prevention of AIDS. One of the reasons for the impossibility of
obtaining an effective vaccine is the high variability of HIV. What processes are associated with
pathogen variability?
A. Genetic recombinations and spontaneous mutations.
B. Phenotypic mixing.
C. Genetic reactivation.
D. Lethal mutations.
E. Phenotypic camouflage.
263. In the material from a patient, a virologist detected an RNA-genomic virus with oncogenic
properties. What family does the isolated virus belong to?
ÿ. Retroviridae.
ÿ. Picornaviridae.
ÿ. Rhabdoviridae.
D. Coronaviridae.
E. Orthomyxoviridae.
264. A doctor diagnosed a tumor of viral etiology in a patient. Describe the mechanism of
interaction of an oncogenic virus with a susceptible cell?
A. Integration of the viral genome into the genome of the host cell.
B. Virus reproduction and exit from the cell by budding.
C. Persistence of the virus in the cell.
D. Reproduction of the virus and exit from the cell with the help of an explosion.
E. Reproduction of the virus and the formation of cytoplasmic inclusions.
265. A doctor diagnosed a patient with AIDS. Among the listed parameters, select the
parameter that is most important in determining the severity of the disease.
A. The ratio of CD4+/CD8+- cells.
B. Complement titer.
C. Content of IgG.
D. Phagocytic activity.
E. The number of natural killers.
266. In a 25-year-old patient, Staphylococcus aureus is sown from numerous skin pustules in
association with Staphylococcus epidermidis. In the analysis of sputum, pneumocystis carinia
was found, in the feces - cryptosporidium, Proteus vulgaris and fungi of the genus Candida. In
what disease does such multiple infection with opportunistic microorganisms occur?
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A. Dysbacteriosis
B. Drug agranulocytosis
S. Sepsis
D. AIDS.
E. Diabetes mellitus
267. HIV infection of T-lymphocytes has been established. In this case, the virus enzyme
reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. Viral mRNA on a DNA template.
B. DNA on viral rRNA.
C. Viral DNA on a DNA template.
D. i-RNA on a viral protein matrix.
E. DNA on a viral mRNA matrix.
268. RNA containing the human immunodeficiency virus penetrated into a leukocyte and,
with the help of the reverse enzyme, forced the cell to synthesize viral DNA. This process
is based on: A. Depression of the operon
B. Operon repression
C. Reverse transcription
D. Reverse Broadcast
E. Convariant replication
269. When examining a young man at the AIDS Center, a positive ELISA with HIV antigens
was obtained. There are no health complaints. What can a positive ELISA result indicate?
A. About HBV infection
B. About AIDS
C. About HIV infection
D. About persistence of HBV
E. About having had AIDS
270. Human immunodeficiency virus, having on its surface antigens gp 41 and gp
120 interacts with target cells in the body. Choose among the listed human lymphocyte
antigens, with which gp 120 of the virus binds complementary:
ÿ. CD 19 B.
CD 4 C.
CD 3 D.
CD 28 E.
CD 8
271. A young man was given a positive answer regarding the presence of antibodies to HIV
(ELISA was used). However, the subject insists on a study that would reliably prove the
presence of antibodies to this virus in him. What research should be done to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Immunoblotting
B. RIF C. RTHA D.
PCR E. RPHA
272. In patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), immunological
reactivity sharply decreases, which is manifested by the development of chronic
inflammatory processes, infectious diseases, and tumor growth. What type of cells are
damaged by HIV infection, resulting in a decrease in immune defense?
A. T4 helpers
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B. Natural killer cells (NK)
C. T-suppressors
D. T8-effectors E. Blymphocytes
273. A 20-year-old patient has been diagnosed with AIDS. What populations of cells are most
sensitive to the human immunodeficiency virus?
A. T-helpers
B. Hepatocytes
C. Endotheliocytes
D. Epitheliocytes
E. B-lymphocytes
274. Lymphocyte is affected by the retrovirus HIV (AIDS). In this case, the direction of the flow
of information in the cell will be:
A. RNA ÿ DNA ÿ i-RNA ÿ polypeptide D
B. NDNKA ÿ mRNA ÿ polypeptide
C. DNA ÿ polypeptide ÿ i-RNA
D. i-RNA ÿ polypeptide ÿ DNA
E. RNPC ÿ olipeptide ÿ RNA ÿ DNA 275. In a
30-year-old deceased HIV-infected drug addict, pathomorphological examination
revealed that both lungs were compacted, dark maroon-gray, low-air, interalveolar septa were
densely infiltrated with lymphocytes, part of the alveolocytes were transformed into large cells
with a centrally located round nucleus with a light rim resembling an "owl's eye". What opportunistic
infection caused pneumonia in this patient?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Carinia pneumocyst
C. Atypical mycobacterium
D. Herpes virus
E. Toxoplasma
276. A 25-year-old man was admitted to the admission department of the infectious diseases
hospital. Diagnosis: AIDS. Damage to which cells causes the state of immunodeficiency?
A. Mast cells (tissue basophils)
B. T-suppressors
C. Plasmocytes
D. T-killers
E. T-helpers
277. In a patient with fever of unknown etiology, immunodeficiency, damage to the nervous and
digestive systems,
AIDS. What diagnostic methods should be used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Polymerase chain reaction, immunoblotting, enzyme immunoassay.
B. Complement binding reaction.
C. Agglutination reaction.
D. Hemadsorption reaction.
E. Hemagglutination reaction.
278. When blood of donors was tested at a blood transfusion station, antibodies to the human
immunodeficiency virus were found in the serum of one of them. What method is recommended to
confirm the diagnosis of HIV infection?
A. Western blotting (immunoblotting).
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B. Electron microscopy. C.
Enzyme immunoassay.
D. Immunofluorescence. E.
Radioimmunoassay. 279.
An HIV-infected patient is periodically examined to identify signs of activation of the
process. What is the most significant sign that indicates the transition of HIV infection to
AIDS. A. Reducing the number of neutrophils. B. Kaposi's sarcoma, the number of Thelpers is below the critical level. C. Increase in the number of T-suppressors.
D. The number of T-helpers is below a critical level.
E. Detection of antibodies to gp 41. 280. In a
specialized clinic, a patient was prescribed a combination of drugs that inhibit the
reproduction of HIV. Indicate to which group the drugs belong, which are necessarily
included in complex antiviral treatment. A. Interleukins. B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C. Nucleoside analogues.
D. Crixivan.
E. Biseptol.
281. Quite often, the cause of acquired immunodeficiencies is an infectious lesion of the
body, in which the pathogens directly multiply in the cells of the immune system and
destroy them. Choose among the listed diseases similar. A. Tuberculosis,
mycobacteriosis. B. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS. C. Poliomyelitis, hepatitis A.
D. Shigellosis,
cholera. E. Q fever, typhus.
282. A 20-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with AIDS. What cell populations
are most sensitive to the human immunodeficiency virus? A. Hepatocytes. V. T-helper.
C. Endotheliocytes.
D. Epitheliocytes.
E. B-lymphocytes.
283. It is known that the human immunodeficiency virus belongs to the family of
Retroviruses. Indicate the main feature that characterizes the representatives of this
family. A. Presence of reverse transcriptase enzyme. B. Contain negative RNA. C.
Simple viruses that infect only humans.
D. Nucleic acid does not integrate into the host genome. E.
Resistance to environmental factors. 284. During the
immunoblotting reaction, the gp120 protein was found in the blood serum. What disease
does this indicate? A. Viral hepatitis B. B. HIV infection. C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Polio.
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285. In order to diagnose HIV infection, blood serum is examined for specific enzyme-linked immunosorbent
identifying
assay. What enzyme-labeledantigens
antibodies are used?method
A. Against the gp14 protein.
B. Against the p24 protein.
C. Against gp120 protein.
D. Against gp17 protein.
E. Against human immunoglobulins.
286. A patient came to the dentist with symptoms of oral candidiasis, which constantly recurs and cannot be
treated. During the interview, it turned out that the patient had a high temperature and weight loss for a long
time. What research should be done for the patient?
A. Immunological and serological tests for HIV infection.
B. Bacteriological studies for dysbacteriosis.
C. Isolate a pure culture of the pathogen and test sensitivity to antibiotics.
D. Check the state of humoral immunity.
E. Investigate the level of specific antibodies to Candida fungi.
287.A laboratory has been set up in a large dental clinic, which provides for the diagnosis of HIV infection. What
diagnostic tools should such a laboratory be equipped with?
A. Cell cultures for virus isolation.
B. Test systems for the detection of specific antibodies by enzyme immunoassay
method.
C. Sets of special nutrient media.
D. Standard diagnostic sera.
E. Antigens and hemolytic system for complement fixation reaction.
288. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. What body
cells are targets for this virus
A. Eosinophils.
B. Natural killers (NK-cells).
C. T-lymphocytes-helpers.
D. Basophils.
E. Plasma.
289. The human immunodeficiency virus, having gp41 and gp120 antigens on its surface, interacts with target
cells of the body. Choose among the named antigens of human lymphocytes, with which gp120 of the virus
binds complementarily.
A. CD4.
B. CD3.
C. CD8.
D. ÿD19.
E. CD28.
Smallpox
290. The contents of the vesicles of a patient with smallpox were sent to a virological laboratory. Which
of the following changes will be detected during smear microscopy?
A. Syncytium.
B. Babesh-Negri bodies.
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C. Symplasts.
D. Babesh-Ernst bodies. E.
Taurus Pashen. Tuberculosis is
characterized by:
- non-sterile immunity
For the serodiagnosis of hepatitis A are used:
-IFA
Natural active immunity is produced as a result of:
- past illness
A pharmacy firm received an order to supply a laboratory with diagnostic preparations used to study the antigenic
properties of the pathogen. What are these drugs?
- diagnostic sera
Reproduction of the influenza virus occurs:
-in the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract
In accordance with the requirements of the State Pharmacopoeia, sterile products must be: ophthalmic, for
parenteral use, substances and excipients used in their manufacture. What method is used to control their sterility?
- Membrane filtration followed by inoculation on nutrient media
Manifest forms of the infectious process are characterized by:
-rapid development of characteristic clinical symptoms
What group of microorganisms does a bacteriophage belong to?
-viruses
Specify the family of viruses that HIV belongs to:
-Retroviridae
In the primary immune response, the first to appear are:
-IgM
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During the collection of medicinal raw materials on plantations, a large number of herbs with mosaic leaf disease
were identified. A sharp decrease in the amount of active substance in them was revealed. What agents caused such
damage to the leaves?
-Phytopathogenic viruses
In the production of eubiotics, in order to preserve the viability and stability of reference strains of microorganisms,
they are dried in a vacuum at a low temperature. What is the name of this method?
-Lyophilization
A family of 3 was hospitalized with symptoms of difficulty swallowing, hearing loss, visual disturbances,
respiratory failure. In a 9-year-old child, the disease had a fatal outcome. Before the onset of the disease, he used
canned mushrooms. What is the preliminary diagnosis for the patient?
-botulism
Select the provisions that are valid for the genome of paramyxoviruses:
(-) RNA
All of the following are characteristic of antiviral drugs except:
- disrupt metabolic reactions
Specify the main pathogenetically significant target for HIV:
-CD 4 T-lymphocytes
B-lymphotropic human herpesvirus is:
- Epstein-Barr virus
What unites such diseases as: diphtheria, poliomyelitis, tetanus?
- prevented by active immunization
The rabies virus has a tropism:
- to the nervous tissue and tissue of the salivary glands
According to the mechanism of action, which group of antibiotics do cephalosporins belong to?
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-inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
EPP is differentiated from E. coli
- by antigenic properties
What characterizes IgA.
- It is found in secrets that come into contact with epithelial cells of the mucous membranes of the
gastrointestinal tract, respiratory and genitourinary tracts
Specify the most universal method for the detection of microorganisms at very low
concentration in the test material.
-Polymerase chain reaction
The pharmacy carried out air sterilization in an aseptic box. What sterilization method was used?
-UV irradiation
For early specific prevention of tuberculosis, apply:
- BSG vaccine
Which of the following diseases is prevented by a live attenuated bacteria vaccine?
-Tuberculosis
To determine the infestation of Bacilliusanthracis with agricultural raw materials, it is necessary to apply the following reaction:
- ring precipitation
Primary sputum culture for suspected pneumococcal pneumonia is preferred
exercise on:
- blood agar
A pure culture of Treponemapallidum can be obtained by cultivating:
-in the body of a rabbit
Targets for HIV protease are:
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-precursors of virion proteins
With the transmissible route of transmission, the patient initially develops
-Bubonic clinical form of plague
In a 20-year-old patient, inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, dense, painless. On the mucous membrane
of the genitals of a small size, an ulcer with compacted edges and a varnished bottom of a grayish color.
Microscopic examination of the discharge of the ulcer revealed convoluted mobile microorganisms that were
poorly stained. Specify the causative agent of the disease.
- Treponema pallidum
A 5-year-old child was admitted to the infectious hospital with complaints of headache, weakness, sore
throat when swallowing. The body temperature is elevated to 39, there is a small punctate rash on the skin,
there is a sharp contrast between bright red flaming cheeks and a pale nasolabial triangle. The pharynx is
hyperemic (hyperemia is limited to the palatine arches), there are purulent deposits on the tonsils, a crimson
tongue with enlarged papillae attracts attention. Name the presumptive diagnosis.
-scarlatin
In a 20-year-old patient, inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, dense, painless. On the mucous membrane of the
genitals of a small size, an ulcer with compacted edges and a varnished bottom of a grayish color. Microscopic
examination of the discharge of the ulcer revealed convoluted mobile microorganisms that were poorly stained.
Specify the causative agent of the disease.
-herpesimplevirus ÿÿÿ II
- herpessimplexvirus ÿÿÿ I
-treponema pallidum
-leptospira interroqans
-borrelia reccurentis
Taking the test material (mucus from the upper respiratory tract) with suspicion of meningococcal
nasopharyngitis is carried out:
- nasopharyngeal swab
The cause of a spotted rash and petechial hemorrhages in generalized forms of meningococcal
diseases are:
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Endotoxin
An 8-year-old girl had a fever of 38. These symptoms appeared 2 weeks after the child's contact with an elderly
person who suffered from unilateral painful papular-vesicular lesions of the skin of the chest. A child has a
polymorphic maculo-vesicular rash on the skin of the face of the hands and chest on the mucous membranes of the
oral cavity and eyes. Vesicles are filled with transparent contents. For the defeat of which pathogen, the listed
symptoms in patients are characteristic.
chickenpox virus - herpes zoster
When sowing a sample of the drug collection on a nutrient medium, colonies were formed in the form of a
black fluffy coating. In the preparation prepared from the colony, unseptated mycelial filaments with spherical
thickenings at the ends were found. Specify this microorganism.
-Mukor
In pharmaceutical practice, in the manufacture of a number of drugs, a sterile isotonic solution is
required. Choose the best method to sterilize it.
A. Steam pressure sterilization
A bacteriological study of purulent discharge from the urethra revealed the presence of bacteria that stained
negatively according to Gram, resembled coffee beans, were located in leukocytes, and fermented glucose to
acids. What disease is caused by these microorganisms?
- Neisseriagonorrhoeae
A few minutes after the repeated administration of penicillin, the patient developed shortness of breath,
numbness of the tongue, loss of consciousness, hyperemia, and then pallor of the skin. What pathology has
developed in the patient?
A. Anaphylactic shock
The influenza A virus genome is
-8 fragments of a single-stranded linear minus-stranded RNA molecule
The haemadsorption reaction is used to
-detection of the virus in cell culture
A pathogen was isolated from a patient with gastroenteritis, which, according to morphological, cultural and
biochemical properties, was assigned to the genus Salmonella. What diagnostic drugs should
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use to identify the type of pathogen by antigenic properties?
A. Monoreceptor O- and H-sera
A 5-year-old child was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital. The body temperature is increased to
38.2, the liver is enlarged. Fell ill a few days ago, when there was lethargy, lack of appetite. Then abdominal
pains, nausea, vomiting joined. The parents sought medical attention when they noticed jaundice and darkcolored urine in the child. The child is vaccinated according to age. Name the suspected pathogen.
- hepatitis A virus
Staphylococcus aureus was isolated from a patient with phlegmon of the thigh. What method can be used to
determine the minimum, inhibiting the growth of staphylococcus, the concentration of the antibiotic planned for
the treatment of this patient?
A. Serial dilutions
Used for serodiagnosis of influenza infection
- hemagglutination inhibition reaction
The toxoid is:
- exotoxin, after treatment with formalin, deprived of its toxic properties, but retained antigenic properties
In the laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria
- the material is taken before the start of antibiotic therapy
In the pharmacy, distilled water is used to prepare dosage forms. What indicator is used to assess
microbial contamination of water?
A. The number of microorganisms in 1 ml of water
Select among the listed microorganisms those that are sanitary indicative
for the air of the room where medicines are prepared.
A. Hemolytic streptococci
After scarlet fever, a person develops:
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- persistent intense antitoxic immunity
A pharmacist with a long history of working in a pharmacy developed conjunctivitis and nasal discharge. Blood serum studies
revealed a high level of class E immunoglobulins. How can this symptom complex be characterized?
A. Allergic reaction
Phytopathogenic microorganisms belong to different taxonomic groups. Which of them most often cause diseases of medicinal plants?
A. Mushrooms
The advantage of the immersion system is
- increasing the resolution of the light microscope
A 30-year-old patient complains of severe headache and vomiting. Objectively: stiff neck muscles, vomiting, temperature 39.5 º C. A
culture of gram-negative cocci located in pairs, capable of fermenting glucose and maltose to acid, was isolated from the patient. What kind of
microorganisms can it be?
- meningococci
Besch-Negeri bodies are specific cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found in
cells:
-gipocamp
Specify the virion enzyme providing the start of transcription and genome replication
paramyxoviruses:
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
A 54-year-old woman developed a cough with a large amount of purulent sputum against the background of influenza at a temperature of
39°C. X-ray examination revealed focal pneumonia. Bacteriological examination of sputum revealed gram-positive cocci located in irregular
clusters, having hemolytic, plasma-coagulating, lecithinase and DNase activity. What microorganisms have been isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Four students living in the same dormitory room were taken to the infectious diseases department of the hospital with a diagnosis of
acute gastroenteritis. The disease came on after eating fresh eggs. What microorganisms could cause acute gastroenteritis in them?
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-salmonella
A patient with hepatitis A excretes the virus with feces starting:
- from the last week of the incubation period
Spore-forming bacteria include:
- clostridia
A 25-year-old man did , villager, was bitten by a cat in the region of the left calf muscle, in
not apply to a medical institution. After 3 months, the victim developed malaise, headaches, body temperature
increased to 37.5, inflammatory phenomena were noted in the area of the scar. Behavior became restless; at the sight
of water and an attempt to drink, there were painful spasms of the muscles of the pharynx and larynx, difficulty in breathing.
The patient was taken to the hospital. Name the presumptive diagnosis.
-rabies
The patient was prescribed a course of etiotropic antibiotic therapy. What drugs can prevent the occurrence
of dysbacteriosis when taking antibiotics?
A. Eubiotics
The pharmaceutical company received a batch of medicinal raw materials for the preparation of herbal medicines.
What microbiological test should be carried out to assess the suitability of this raw material?
A. Determination of the total number of microorganisms in 1 g of raw materials
The pharmacy prepared a medicinal solution for the treatment of vaginitis. The presence of which
microorganism is unacceptable in this dosage form, according to the requirements specified in the regulatory and
technical documentation?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Poliomyelitis viruses are classified according to their antigenic properties into:
-3 serovars
To determine the sensitivity to antibiotics, the patient was injected intradermally with 0.2 ml of penicillin solution. After 10
minutes, hyperemia and edema appeared at the injection site. What type, according to the classification of Coombs and
Gell, does this reaction belong to?
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A. Anaphylactic reaction (Overi phenomenon)
An autopsy of the body of a 67-year-old woman revealed multiple brown-green stratifications and hemorrhages on the
mucous membrane of the rectum and sigmoid colon; in the lumen of the intestine - mucus, a small amount of blood; histologically fibrinous colitis. During bacteriological examination of the contents of the intestines, S. flexneri were sown. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
-Dysentery
In a patient with the following symptoms: headache, fever, chills, cough, ovoid gram-negative rods with bipolar color were isolated
from sputum. What microorganism is this typical for?
- Yersinia pestis
The composition of the Sebin vaccine includes:
live attenuated polio pathogens
The microbiological control of medicinal raw materials revealed capsular bacteria. What coloring method was used?
-Burry-Ginsa
In the history of a young man for 2 years, there were periodically appearing purulent discharge from the urethra. Laboratory
examination confirmed the diagnosis of gonorrhea. This case can be evaluated as
A. Chronic infection
The toxigenicity of diphtheria is determined using:
- agar precipitation reactions
The strain of staphylococcus that caused the outbreak of nosocomial infection turned out to be resistant to penicillin. What is the
reason for its resistance to penicillin?
A. Synthesis of beta-lactamase
On the fruits, stems and leaves of blueberries, as a result, spots appeared on them, soft rot. What disease was caused by
phytopathogenic microorganisms in this case?
A. Bacteriosis
The patient went to the doctor about a carbuncle on his face. During the inspection, a loose,
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without pain, swelling of the subcutaneous tissue, a black scab in the center of the carbuncle, and around
vesicular rashes. Bacterioscopic examination of the preparation prepared from the detachable carbuncle
revealed immobile streptobacilli forming capsules. What drug could help to avoid this serious illness?
-STI vaccine
The tick-borne encephalitis virus refers to:
-flavirusam
The genus Hepatovirus of the picornavirus family includes:
- hepatitis A virus
A phytopathogenic microorganism was isolated from a medicinal plant, which forms colonies in the form of "fried
eggs - fried eggs" on a nutrient medium. Specify the most likely pathogen.
A. Mycoplasmas
For the treatment of tuberculosis are used:
- antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs
Patient S., who was injured in a car accident, developed the first symptoms of tetanus 7 days later. In this
regard, he was prescribed a course of treatment with anti-tetanus serum 200,000 IU three times, and there was an
improvement in his condition. After 2 weeks, the patient's temperature rose to 38.5 ° C, lymph nodes increased,
swelling of the joints, a rash such as "urticaria", skin itching and disorders of the cardiovascular system were noted.
What complication arose in the patient?
A. Serum sickness
The pharmacy of the phthisiopulmonological center received a number of antimicrobial drugs. Which one is used
to treat tuberculosis?
A. Rifampicin
Of the listed viral infections, the transmissible mechanism of transmission is typical for?
- tick-borne encephalitis
Name the reservoir of persistent infection of herpes simplex virus type 1:
- trigeminal ganglion neurons
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Indicate which of the following characteristics best determine the properties of haptens:
-reactive with antibodies, but not immunogenic
A pure culture of the pathogen was isolated in the bacteriological laboratory. For its identification by antigenic
structure, a serological reaction with diagnostic sera was used. What serological reaction is most often used in this
case?
A. Agglutinations
Specify the general signs of viral hepatitis:
-anthroponoses
Bacteria capsule:
-virulence factor
Name the causative agent of classical infectious mononucleosis:
- Epstein-Barr virus
Spirochete staining method:
-Romanovsky- Giemsa
Sanitary-microbiological study of tap water yielded the following results: total microbial count - 60, coli-index 2, coliphages were not detected. How to evaluate the result of the study?
A. Water is drinkable
Patient B., aged 35, complains of sweating, weakness, rapid fatigue, fever up to 37.2-37.50 during the last month,
periodic cough. An x-ray examination revealed a focal shadow in the region of the upper lobe of the right lung, an
increase in bronchial lymph nodes. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
-focal tuberculosis of the upper lobe of the right lung
The main pathogenic factor of Corynebacteria ediphtheria is:
-exotoxin
A 3-year-old child has asthma attacks during the flowering of ambrosia. What type of allergic reaction according to
Gell and Coombs underlies the pathogenesis of this condition?
A. I
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A patient was delivered to the clinic with a severe general condition, high fever, shortness of breath, and the
presence of gray-white films on the tonsils. Bacterioscopic examination
material from the pharynx showed the presence of thin yellow sticks with dark blue grains at the ends. What disease
should be considered?
- about diphtheria
The main method of laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis is:
-bacteriological
The pathogen has the maximum level of resistance in the environment:
- anthrax
The laboratory received material from a patient with suspected botulism. What nutrient medium should be inoculated
to isolate Clostridium botulism?
-Kitta-Tarotzi
A pure culture of Treponema pallidum can be obtained by cultivating:
-in the body of a rabbit
An otolaryngologist, when examining a patient, noted hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa, a significant
swelling of the tonsils with a gray coating. Microscopy of the preparation prepared from plaque revealed grampositive rods located at an angle to each other, with thickenings at the ends. What disease should be considered?
-About diphtheria
Used for culturing cell cultures
- Wednesday Needle
In a micropreparation stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, made from a punctate of the patient's regional
lymph node, the doctor found thin, pale pink microorganisms with 12-14 uniform curls. The causative agent of
what infectious disease can be discussed in this case?
-syphilis
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The properties of bacteria are studied microscopically:
Morpho-tinctorial
A patient with severe general intoxication, high temperature (39-40°C), severe headaches was
admitted to the infectious department on the 8th day of the disease. On the skin of the chest and abdomen, he
had single, small roseolas, 3-3.5 mm in diameter, of the correct form. In connection with the suspicion of typhoid
fever, the patient's blood serum was taken for examination and a reaction was made with a diagnosticum from
Salmonella. What type of serological reactions
refer?
- Agglutination reaction
The Mantoux test is used for:
-Tuberculosis diagnostics
A milkmaid turned to the dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form of aphthae (small painful ulcers).
The doctor found similar rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands. What pathogen caused this
disease?
-FMD virus
The capsule of most bacteria consists of
-Polysaccharides
If, during the Salk color test, the color of the nutrient medium in the test tube changed from red to yellow, this
indicates:
On the absence of a virus
The patient was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital with a diagnosis of hepatitis. What type of hepatitis
is caused by an RNA genomic virus that cannot reproduce without the presence of HBsAg?
- Hepatitis D
Sebina oral polio vaccine contains:
- Attenuated strains of polio viruses
The most severe clinical forms of dysentery cause:
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-Sh.disenteriae I
To indicate the virus, the cell culture was processed by the virologist with the test material and, under
microscopy, cells were identified that had clusters of erythrocytes. What is the name of the virus detection test?
-Hemadsorption reaction
Of the 5 morphological types, the filiform form is:
-1st type
The main functions of bacterial spores are:
-Protection from adverse environmental factors
Among the vacationers of the camp site, located on the shore of the reservoir, there are cases of the disease,
accompanied by a sharp increase in temperature, jaundice, swollen lymph nodes. The reservoir is filled with
water from small rivers, on the banks of which there are livestock farms. Specify a possible causative agent
-Leptospira interrogance
During dental operations, the risk of infection of the surgeon is highest.
- Hepatitis B
The advantage of the immersion system is:
- Increasing the resolution of the light microscope
In what phase of growth of periodic culture bacteria have the highest physiological activity?
-Logarithmic
Dental clinic workers need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which drug should be used?
- Recombinant HBs vaccine
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A patient after eating homemade canned meat developed diplopia, difficulty breathing and swallowing. On
examination, it was found: decreased visual acuity, ptosis, disturbance of accommodation. What drug is most
appropriate for specific treatment even before a laboratory diagnosis is established?
-Polyvalent anti-botulinum antitoxic serum
The gonococcal vaccine is used for:
-treatment of chronic gonorrhea
Several workers from the construction team were having lunch in the canteen. For dinner, everyone ordered
pork cutlets. After 8-10 hours, they developed signs of acute gastroenteritis: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain,
frequent stools, fever up to 38°C. Two of them were hospitalized in a critical condition in the infectious diseases
department. What microorganisms could cause acute gastroenteritis in them?
-Salmonella
The synthesis of hemolysins is controlled by:
-Hly-plasmid
The causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid belong to the genus:
-Salmonella
A 25-year-old patient was admitted to the clinic of infectious diseases with a preliminary diagnosis of food poisoning.
Clinical findings: body temperature - 39.5°C, headache, chills, body aches, nausea, repeated vomiting, frequent
loose stools. Epidemiological data: on the day before the disease, she consumed cakes with cream. Within 2 days,
4 more similar cases were registered in the region. During an epidemiological survey of a cafe where the sick people
ate cakes, a panaritium was found on the confectioner's finger. What microorganisms could cause food poisoning in
this situation?
-Staphylococcus aureus
Microscopic examination of the sputum of a patient with a preliminary diagnosis of "acute pneumonia" revealed
chaotically arranged ovoid microorganisms, up to 2 µm long, more intensely stained at the poles. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
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- pneumonic plague
The symplast is:
-Giant multinucleated cell
What type of parasitism is typical for viruses?
-Intracellular obligate
What diagnosis should the doctor make to the patient if the virologist detected antibodies to gp120
and gp41 in the studied serum of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency?
-HIV infection
A man turned to the emergency room of the infectious diseases hospital, who received an envelope with a
suspicious powder by mail. In this area, cases of sending powder with spores of the anthrax pathogen have
already been noted. The man was hospitalized in the isolation ward, and the powder from the envelope was sent
to the laboratory in order to detect the anthrax pathogen. What research makes it possible to quickly detect the
alleged pathogen?
-Immunofluorescence method
In the pediatric department of maxillofacial surgery, the incidence of acute respiratory viral infections caused
by different groups of viruses has sharply increased. Human leukocyte interferon should be used to prevent
the spread of infections. In what way is it introduced?
-Intranasally
All of the following are characteristic of RS dissociation except:
- Is the result of transformation
In stained smears prepared from pus, microscopy revealed spherical microorganisms located in the form of
irregular clusters. What bacteria is characterized by such a morphology?
-Staphylococcus
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Features of the reproduction of chlamydia are:
- alternation of phases of elementary and reticular bodies
Endotoxin have pathogens:
-Cholera
What type of nucleic acid do orthomyxoviruses have?
- Fragmented negative RNA
Patient S. suddenly developed a fever with chills, accompanied by headache and muscle pain and a staggering
gait. Enlarged lymph nodes were found in the axillary region and in the neck region, soldered to each other and to
the surrounding subcutaneous tissue, dense, painful. The skin over the lymph nodes is smoothed, cyanotic. What is
the preliminary diagnosis?
-Bubonic plague
A patient with stomatitis, fever, dysfunction of the nervous and digestive systems was provisionally diagnosed with
AIDS. What methods should be used to confirm the diagnosis?
- ELISA, immunofluorescence reaction, immunoblotting, radioimmunoassay
analysis
The morphology of Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following features:
-have 8-12 symmetrical curls
S. aureus was isolated from a patient's purulent wound and its sensitivity to antibiotics was determined using the
standard disc method. The following sizes of staphylococcus growth inhibition zones were obtained: penicillin 8 mm, streptomycin - 7 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, ampicillin - 10 mm, oxacillin - 9 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen
to treat the patient?
-Gentamycin
Due to the influence of gamma radiation, a section of the DNA chain turned by 1800. Which of the following types of
mutations occurred in the DNA chain?
-Inversion
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Swabs from the pharynx and nasopharynx of ARVI patients were delivered to the virological laboratory for research.
How to process prepared preparations for accelerated diagnosis and what method should be used?
- Treat with a fluorescent immunoconjugate for setting up a direct RIF
A patient was delivered to the hospital with a lacerated wound of the lower leg, obtained as a result of a bite
by a sick animal with a diagnosis of rabies. What vaccine should be administered to the victim to prevent
rabies?
-Arabic vaccine.
The SES received an urgent message about a case of a disease suspected of cholera. A bacteriological
study of the patient's stools revealed gram-negative, slightly curved, short rods that form a film in 1% peptone
water, and on alkaline nutrient agar small transparent colonies that are not agglutinated by O1, O139, RO - by sera.
What kind of bacteria could it be?
- Non-agglutinating vibrios
What disease is caused by a DNA genomic virus?
- adenovirus infection
Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis A virus genome:
(+) RNA
What character can be used to differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other types of mycobacteria?
-Niacin formation
A man came to the emergency room with a deep wound in his foot caused by a piece of glass. The injury was
received more than a day ago. The patient underwent initial treatment of the wound. Two days later, the patient
went to the surgeon with complaints of pressing pains in the area of the wound, swelling of the leg, and rapid pulse.
What mistake was made while treating the wound?
Anti-tetanus serum not administered
Rabies vaccine not administered
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Wound closure
Rabies immunoglobulin not administered
Tetanus toxoid not administered
Damage to the body's own tissues with COVID-19 is mainly due to:
The production of excessive amounts of cytokines by cells - "cytokine storm"
Oncogenic properties of the virus
Coronavirus only persists in cells
Virus synthesis of toxic substances
All answers are wrong
In the study of water from surface sources of water supply, indicators of fecal contamination were
determined, which were established by the presence of the following three microorganisms:
E. coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Haemophilus influenzae
E. coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Citrobacter freundii
Staphylococcus aureus, Candida albicans, Salmonella enteritidis
Yersinia pestis, Streptococcus faecalis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E. coli, Staphylococcus aureus, Yersinia pestis
Recombination is called:
the process of doubling genetic material
the process of transferring genetic material during meiosis
changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a hereditarily fixed change or loss of
any trait
effects of mutagens on the DNA molecule
breaking hydrogen bonds between DNA molecules
Bacterial exotoxins have properties:
intracellular localization
Heterogeneity
Universality of action
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thermal stability
Immunogenicity
Detection of HBs antigen in blood serum in the absence of anti-HBs and anti-HBc antibodies
testifies to:
- carrier of hepatitis B virus
For the primary sowing of meningococci, use:
Serum agar with ristomycin
Intelligence information indicates that the army of country Z. has a bacteriological weapon
(anthrax) in its arsenal. What drug should be administered to the soldiers of the neighboring state N., which is
going to launch military operations on the territory of the country Z.?
STI vaccine
BCG vaccine
DPT vaccine
Salk vaccine
1. Gram-positive lanceolate-shaped diplococci surrounded by a capsule were found in smears from lumps of sputum
pus in a patient with a clinical diagnosis of lobar pneumonia. The bacteriologist concluded that Streptococcus
pneumoniae was present in the sputum. What research method was used by the bacteriologist?
*
Bacterioscopic
2. German microbiologist R. Koch
*
Discovered the causative agent of tuberculosis
3. In the "infectious" area of the microbiological laboratory there should not be
* Lounges and dining areas
4. Dark-field microscopy is used to study
*
Mobility of microorganisms
5. What method of microscopy uses fluorochromes?
*
Fluorescent microscopy
6. Resolution of the immersion objective
*
0.2 micrometers
7. The Pasteur period in the development of microbiology covers
*
Second half of the 19th century
8. There are no microbiological laboratories in the “clean” zone
* Room for serological testing
9. When performing microbiological studies, it is prohibited
* Pick up with a pipette by mouth and pour the solutions from the vessel to the vessel over the edge
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10. Immersion oil is used for
The concentration of light rays
*
11. Bacteria are known to be measured in micrometers (µm). In the system of international units
micrometers are:
* 10-6 m
12. Resolution of the electron microscope
0.2 nanometers
*
13. What is the basis for the classification of bacteria in the second edition of Bergey, s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology?
* Sequence analysis of ribosomal RNA
14. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes are distinguished among microorganisms according to the structural features of the cell.
Which of the following microorganisms are prokaryotes?
*
bacteria
15. Name the method of studying the morphology of bacteria.
Microscopic
*
16. A simple method of staining smear preparations allows you to determine in bacteria
form
*
17. In stained smears prepared from pus, microscopy revealed spherical microorganisms located in the form of irregular
clusters. What bacteria is characterized by such a morphology?
* Staphylococcus
18. In stained smears prepared from pus, gram-positive cocci were found, arranged in the form of irregular clusters “clusters of grapes”. What is the reason for such an arrangement of staphylococci? * With the division of bacteria in different
planes
19. Determine the groups of microorganisms related to prokaryotes.
Bacteria, archaebacteria
*
20. Gram stain is used for
*
Studying the structure of the cell wall
21. What are the properties of bacteria determined by microscopy of stained preparations called?
*
Tinctorial
22. Who created the optical microscope and described the main cell forms of microorganisms?
* A. Levenguk
23. Smears of purulent discharge from the surface of the tonsils were taken from a patient with tonsillitis with a cotton swab.
The smears contained coccoid-shaped microorganisms arranged in short chains. What microorganisms have been identified?
*
Streptococcus
24. In a smear prepared from pus from a patient with a purulent-inflammatory process of the hand, gram-positive spherical
bacteria were found, which were located in chains. What presumably bacteria could cause an infectious process?
*
Streptococcus
25. In a patient with furunculosis, pus was cultured on blood agar. Microscopic examination of the culture revealed grampositive cocci, located in the form of grape clusters. What are these bacteria? * Staphylococci
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26. Catgut used in surgical interventions was sent to the bacteriological laboratory to test sterility. Bacilli were
found in it. What sign allowed to attribute the isolated bacteria to bacilli?
* Presence of disputes
27. What component of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is identified with endotoxin? * LPS
28. Which structures of a bacterial cell are responsible for adhesion?
* Drank
29. What structure of a bacterial cell protects it from destruction by macrophages?
*
Capsule
30. In a microbiological laboratory, a laboratory assistant applied a few drops of 1% phenolic fuchsin to a smear
covered with filter paper and heated it until vapors appeared. Then he removed the paper, dipped the smear in
5% sulfuric acid, washed with water and stained with methylene blue. Which microorganisms are identified by this
method of staining?
* M. tuberculosis
31. What bacteria have the highest mobility?
*
Monotrichs
32. When staining a smear from the sputum of a patient with suspected lobar pneumonia, the following dyes and
reagents were used: gentian violet solution, Lugol's solution, 96 ° ethyl alcohol, fuchsin aqueous solution. What
coloring method is used in this case?
*
Gram
33. What structure is required for L-forms of bacteria?
* Cytoplasmic membrane
34. How do clostridia and bacilli differ from bacteria?
* sporulation
35. What components does the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of?
*
Peptidoglycan, teichoic acids
36. What are L-forms of bacteria?
*
Bacteria with cell wall defects
37. Indicate the staining method for detecting capsules.
*
Burry-Ginsa
38. Bacilli differ from clostridia
*
Spore size
39. What structure of a bacterial cell determines its relation to Gram stain?
* Cell wall
40. What structure is required for all bacterial cells?
*
Cytoplasmic membrane
41. Which of the following features is not characteristic of the cytoplasmic membranes of bacteria?
*
Shaping the bacterial cell
42. What staining method is used to detect volutin granules?
*
Neisser
43. The capsule of most bacteria consists of
*
Polysaccharides
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44. Specify the method of staining for the detection of spores.
* Pedestrian
45. What is characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
*
Nucleoid
46. For microbiological research in the laboratory, it is necessary to prepare sterile glass Petri dishes and pipettes. What
is the most commonly used sterilization method?
*
dry heat
47. Antiseptic and disinfectants:
* In applied concentrations bactericidal only for pathogenic microorganisms
48. Differential diagnostic environments are used for
*
Definitions of enzymatic activity of bacteria
49. A patient was taken to the hospital with complaints of headache, fever, frequent stools, abdominal pain, tenesmus.
The doctor made a preliminary diagnosis of “dysentery?” and sent the test material (feces) to the bacteriological
laboratory. What method of laboratory diagnostics should be used to determine the type of pathogen?
*
Bacteriological
50. What is the name of a group of bacteria that uses CO2 to produce carbon, and sunlight as an energy source?
* Photoautotrophs
51. It is necessary to sterilize culture media containing native proteins in a bacteriological laboratory. Which sterilization
method is suitable for this?
*
Gentle warming (tindalization)
52. Sterilization is an activity aimed at the destruction in / at facilities
* All viable microorganisms and their spores
53. Meat-peptone broth was prepared for sterilization in the bacteriological laboratory. What sterilization method should
be used? Steam under pressure (autoclaving) at 120°C 45 minutes
*
54. Name the research method based on the study of the physiology of bacteria.
*
Bacteriological
55. Specify the environment that is not related to the differential diagnostic.
* Meat-peptone agar
56. Specify the nutrient medium related to the universal.
* Meat-peptone agar
57. A patient with suspected diphtheria was taken to the infectious diseases hospital. What method of laboratory
diagnostics should be used to determine the type of pathogen and make the final diagnosis of the disease?
*
Bacteriological
58. What is the name of a group of bacteria that uses organic compounds as a source of carbon and receives energy
through redox reactions?
* Chemoheterotrophs
59. Disinfection is a set of measures aimed at the destruction of / at facilities
* Pathogenic microorganisms
60. Indicate a property that is uncharacteristic of microbial communities.
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*
Show intraspecific antagonism
61. Aeration of the nutrient medium is used in cultivation
* Obligate aerobes
62. Bacteria multiply
*
transverse division
63. Indicate the mechanism of nutrient entry into the cell, which is not characteristic of bacteria.
*
Particle phagocytosis
64. What are microaerophiles characterized by?
*
They use oxygen for energy, but grow at a reduced oxygen partial pressure.
65. What is the rate of reproduction under optimal conditions for most types of bacteria?
* 20 - 40 minutes
66. What are obligate aerobes characterized by?
*
Use oxygen and grow at its partial pressure characteristic of the earth's atmosphere
67. In what phase of growth of periodic culture do bacteria have the highest physiological activity?
* Logarithmic
68. The phase of negative acceleration in the development of a bacterial population in a liquid nutrient medium comes
after the Exponential Phase
*
69. What enzyme “crosslinks” short fragments of newly synthesized DNA on the complementary strand of maternal DNA
during its replication during bacterial cell division?
*
DNA ligase
70. It is known that some non-spore-forming pathogenic bacteria can go into an uncultivated (resting) state under
adverse environmental conditions. All of the following are characteristic of uncultivated forms of bacteria except:
*
Active transport of substances into the cell
71. Due to the influence of gamma radiation, a section of the DNA chain turned by 1800. Which of the listed types of
mutations occurred in the DNA chain?
*
Inversion
72. On what day of a bacteriological study can a conclusion be made about the species belonging of the isolated
bacteria, if the duration of their generation is 20-40 minutes?
*
Fourth
73. Isolation and accumulation of pure culture is carried out for the purpose of subsequent study of the properties of
bacteria, except * Morphological
74. Biochemical properties of bacteria are revealed by decomposition
*
carbohydrates
75. What properties of bacteria are studied at the second stage of bacteriological research?
*
Cultural
76.Characterization of colonies does not include its study *
Relation to Gram stain
77. Biochemical properties of bacteria are revealed by the decomposition
of *Peptone
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78. Differential diagnostic media with carbohydrates include
*
Hiss media
79. With the help of the catalase enzyme, bacteria destroy
*
Hydrogen peroxide
80. A patient has been taking broad-spectrum antibiotics for a long time, which caused a decrease in appetite, nausea, and diarrhea
with a putrid odor. What is the side effect of the drug?
* Dysbacteriosis
81. To detect hydrogen sulfide, use filter paper strips soaked in a solution
*
lead acetate
82. When studying the result of inoculation of the test material on a plate with MPA, "suspicious" colonies were identified. What
should be done to isolate and accumulate a pure culture of bacteria?
*
Transfer marked colonies to MPA slant
83. Enzymes that break down carbohydrates are determined by inoculation of bacteria on/in
*
Hiss media
84. To determine the catalase activity of microbes, a 3% solution of hydrogen peroxide is applied to the surface of a 24-hour
culture.
85. Proteolytic enzymes are determined by inoculation of bacteria on/in
* Meat-peptone gelatin
86. To detect indole by the method of Morel, the strips of filter paper are moistened with a solution
*
oxalic acid
87. In what nutrient medium is the accumulation of a pure culture of obligate anaerobes produced?
* Kitta - Tarotzi
88. What is characteristic of obligate anaerobes?
A. Do not use oxygen for energy
89. To control the sterility of the dressing material, the swabs obtained from it were inoculated into test tubes with the Kitt-Tarozzi
medium. After cultivating the crops in a thermostat, turbidity of the medium and gas formation were revealed. In smears prepared
from the accumulation medium and stained by Gram, gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria that form subterminal spores were found.
The presence of clostridia in the material is suspected. What medium should be subcultured from the Kitt-Tarozzi medium to obtain
isolated colonies?
A. In test tubes with a high column of molten sugar agar
90. Resistance to oxygen in aerotolerant anaerobes is due to
ÿ. Superoxide dismutase
91. The laboratory received material from a patient with suspected botulism. What nutrient medium should be inoculated to isolate
Clostridium botulism?
A. Kitta - Tarozzi
92. What is characteristic of obligate anaerobes?
A. Vegetative cells die in the presence of oxygen
93. Cultivation of obligate anaerobes is carried out under conditions
A. Replacing air with an inert gas
94. What solid nutrient medium is used to isolate a pure culture of obligate anaerobes?
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A. Wilson - Blair
95. Aerotolerant anaerobes
A. Do not use oxygen for energy, but remain viable in its presence
96. A family of 4 was hospitalized after eating canned fish with symptoms characteristic of botulism. The
patients' gastric lavage and the remains of canned fish were delivered to the laboratory. What nutrient medium
is used to isolate Clostridium botulism?
A. Kitta - Tarozzi
97. Human immunodeficiency virus is known to belong to the Retrovirus family. Indicate the trait that
characterizes the representatives of this family.
A. Presence of reverse transcriptase enzyme
98. Indicate which of the following properties does not apply to the characteristics of viruses:
A. Reproduce by binary fission
99. Prions are
A. Infectious protein molecules
100. Which of the enzymes is unique for retroviruses?
A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
101. What microscopy is used to determine the size of virions?
A. Electronic
102. Specify the microscopy method used to determine the morphology and structure of virions.
A. Electronic
103. What type of parasitism is typical for viruses?
A. Intracellular obligate
104. What family of viruses contains the enzyme reversetase as a component of the virion?
A. Retroviruses
105. Which of the following properties does not apply to the characteristics of viruses?
A. Form toxins
106. What is not characteristic of the genetic apparatus of viruses?
A. Consists of DNA and RNA
107. Specify the type of virus reproduction.
A. Disjunctive
108. Complicated virions differ from simple ones by the presence
A. Outer shell
109. Virion sizes are determined using A.
Ultrafiltration
110. Virion capsid consists of
A. Proteinov
111. A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time developed candidiasis of the mucous
membranes. What drug should be prescribed for its treatment? A. Itraconazole
112. What is characteristic of an integrative type of interaction between a virus and a cell?
A. Provirus formation
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113. Productive type of virus-cell interaction
A. Ends with the reproduction of new virions
114. During productive interaction of a virus with a cell, the stage of virus deproteinization follows the stage
A. Penetration of the virus into the cell
115. For the action of antiviral chemotherapy drugs, everything is characteristic, except:
A. Disrupt metabolic reactions
116. Azidothymidine blocks the function of the viral
A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
117. Which of the following stages of virus reproduction is not an energy-dependent process?
A. Adsorption
118. What is not characteristic of virogeny?
A. Reproduction of new virions occurs
119. With a productive viral infection, the eclipse phase occurs after
A. Stages of virus deproteinization
120. In what group of viruses is the synthesis of viral proteins carried out without the act of transcription?
A. Plus-stranded RNA-containing
121. The mechanisms of action of antiviral chemotherapy drugs are aimed at everything except:
A. Block metabolic reactions
122. The mechanism of action of acyclovir is due to
A. Inhibition of the process of replication of viral genomes
123. When conducting a virological method for examining material from a patient with suspected tick-borne
encephalitis, the accumulation of the virus is carried out
A. In chick embryos
124. Cytopathic action in cell culture is used to indicate
A. Viruses
125. Cultivation of viruses is carried out in A. Cell
cultures
126. Specify the nutrient medium for cell cultures.
A. Wednesday 199
127. What phenomenon, used to indicate viruses in a cell culture, makes it possible to judge not only the reproduction
of viruses, but also makes it possible to determine their concentration in the test material?
A. Plaque formation
128. The hemagglutination test is used to indicate in the allantoic fluid of an infected chick embryo viruses that have
a supercapsid A. Hemagglutinin
129. For cultivation of cell cultures apply
A. Wednesday Needle
130. The reproduction of viruses in cell culture can be judged on the basis of all the listed phenomena, except for:
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A. virogenii
131. From sick children diagnosed with acute respiratory viral infections, possibly caused by parainfluenza
viruses, the test material (nasopharyngeal wash) was sent to the virological laboratory. For the isolation and
accumulation of viruses, it is necessary to use
A. Cell cultures
132. The hemadsorption reaction (RGads) in cell culture is used to indicate viruses containing supercapsid
A. Hemagglutinin
133. When performing a hemagglutination reaction (HHA) with the allantoic fluid of an infected chicken embryo,
it is possible to determine the presence of only those viruses that are in the supercapsid
have
A. Hemagglutinin
134. Lysogenic bacteria are those that:
A. Contains provirus
135. Specify the properties of a bacteriophage used to determine the fagovar.
A. Specificity, virulence, lytic action
136. What phages are used to determine the type of bacteria?
A. Monovalent
137. In connection with a suspected nosocomial infection, examinations were carried out in the neonatal
department of the maternity hospital. Staphylococcus aureus was found in several children and on some items
of care. What property of isolated cultures makes it possible to establish their origin from a single source?
A. Fagovar
138. When cultivating the plague agent on cups with the growth of a culture sown with a “lawn”, there appeared
areas of lack of growth of a rounded shape with a diameter of 1-1.5 mm. What is the reason for this?
A. Presence of bacteriophages in culture
139. Phage conversion is:
A. Changes in the properties of bacteria under the influence of a prophage
140. Specify which of the listed phases is not observed during the interaction of a temperate phage with a
bacterium.
A. Cell lysis
141. In a kindergarten, a few hours after eating curd mass, most children suddenly developed symptoms of
gastroenteritis. Staphylococcus aureus was isolated during bacteriological examination of vomit and curd mass
residues. What study will clarify the source of infection?
A. Phage typing of isolated strains
142. Toxigenic diphtheria corynebacteria are characterized by the location of the tox+ gene in the prophage.
Describe a prophage.
A. Is in an integrated state
143. Where are bacterial viruses cultivated?
A. Bacterial culture
144. What phages are used to determine the fagovar of bacteria?
A. Typical
145. What is not characteristic of the phenomenon of lysogeny?
A. Formation of phage progeny occurs
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146. F+- and F-- strains of E. coli were used in the experiment of bacterial conjugation. What nutrient medium
should be chosen to isolate recombinants sensitive to streptomycin and auxotrophic for lysine?
A. Minimal lysine agar without streptomycin
147. Specify the mechanisms of genotypic variability.
A. Transformation, transduction, conjugation and mutation
148. Postoperative complications caused by antibiotic-resistant strains of S. aureus were observed in patients in the
surgical department. What genetic factor determined the multiple resistance of bacteria to antibiotics?
A. R -plasmid
149. The process in which DNA isolated from one bacterium is introduced into the second, leading to a change in
the phenotype of the second bacterium, is called
A. Transformation
150. During transduction, a fragment of the bacterial chromosome of the donor cells is transferred to the recipient
cells with the help of
A. bacteriophage
151. What does not correspond to the characteristics of plasmids?
A. Represented by an RNA molecule
152. Cases of meningitis caused by Escherichia coli have been reported in the neonatal ward. During the sanitarybacteriological examination of the premises, E. coli was also found. What research will establish the identity of the
isolated strains?
A. Quantity typing
153. Everything is characteristic of non-hereditary variability, except:
A. Changes in the primary structure of DNA occur
154. R-plasmid determines the following properties of bacteria:
A. Multiple resistance to antibiotics 155. Which of the
following is not characteristic of conjugation?
A. Presence of chromosome DNA isolated from a donor cell
156. What does not correspond to the molecular mechanism of mutations?
A. Crossing over
157. Transformation is carried out with the help of
A. An isolated DNA chromosome
158. RS-dissociation is characterized by everything except:
A. Is the result of transformation
159. When adding the DNA of capsular pneumococci to the culture of pneumococci that do not have a capsule, the
latter acquired the ability to synthesize it. This is an example
A. Transformations
160. What method is used to determine the presence of human immunodeficiency provirus in blood lymphocytes?
A. Molecular hybridization using radioactive probes
161. In recent years, the method of gene indication of pathogens has been used, which makes it possible to identify
fragments of nucleic acids of pathogens in the studied samples. Choose from the given reactions the one that is
suitable for this purpose.
A. Polymerase chain reaction
162. Molecular - genetic research methods are aimed at identifying
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A. Specific genes of microorganisms
163. What property of nucleic acids is the basis for molecular genetic research methods?
A. Complementary principle of connection of nitrogenous bases
164. What process of setting up the method of molecular hybridization ensures its specificity?
A. Hybridization of a DNA fragment under study with a complementary reference DNA fragment
165. Specify the most universal method for detecting microorganisms at very low concentrations in the test material.
A. Polymerase chain reaction
166. What determines the specificity of molecular genetic research methods?
A. Individuality of nucleotide sequences in nucleic acid in microorganisms
167. What method will allow detecting hepatitis B virus DNA in a patient's blood?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
168. What process of PCR setting provides its high sensitivity and diagnostic value?
A. Cyclic repetition of reaction modes aimed at amplifying a specific DNA region
169. What is not applied during the method of molecular hybridization?
A. Adding primers
170. After prolonged antibiotic therapy, a patient complains of intestinal dysfunction. Examination of feces revealed a
sharp decrease in the number of bifidobacteria, Escherichia and an increase in hemolytic E. coli. What is the reason for
this condition of the patient?
A. Dysbacteriosis
171. S. aureus was isolated from a purulent wound of a patient and its sensitivity to antibiotics was determined by the
method of standard disks. The following sizes of staphylococcus growth inhibition zones were obtained: penicillin - 8
mm, streptomycin - 7 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, ampicillin - 10 mm, oxacillin - 9 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen
to treat the patient?
A. Gentamycin
172. Specify what can reduce the effectiveness of antibiotics. A. Empirical
prescription of the drug
173. Which of the following microorganisms have species resistance to penicillin?
A. Mycoplasmas
174. When determining the sensitivity of staphylococci to antibiotics, it was found that they are most sensitive to
amoxicillin. What is the mechanism of antibacterial action of penicillins?
A. Violate the synthesis of peptidoglycan of the cell wall
175. It is known that aminoglycosides (streptomycin, kanamycin, gentamicin and others) have a bactericidal effect and
are effective against many gram-positive and gram-negative microorganisms. What is the mechanism of their
antibacterial action?
A. Inhibit protein synthesis by blocking the 30S subunit of the ribosome
176. It is known that macrolides (erythromycin, oleandomycin and others) are used as reserve antibiotics. Their
antibacterial spectrum is wide. What is the mechanism of their antibacterial action? A. Interact with the 50S subunit of
the ribosome, which leads to disruption of protein synthesis
177. A 50-year-old patient was prescribed chloramphenicol for the treatment of typhoid fever, but the next
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day the patient's condition worsened, the temperature rose to 39°C. How to explain the deterioration of the
patient's condition?
A. The action of endotoxins of the causative agent of the disease
178. Specify what reduces the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy.
A. Intracellular parasitism of microorganisms
179. What does not apply to the mechanisms of acquiring resistance to antibiotics by microorganisms?
A. Binding of antibiotics to body proteins
180. Penicillins have the following mechanism of antibacterial action:
A. They disrupt the synthesis of cell wall components
181. It is known that polyene antibiotics are used to treat diseases caused by fungi, while bacteria have species
resistance to them. Specify the mechanism of antimycotic action of this group of drugs.
A. Interact with sterols of the cytoplasmic membrane
182. Tetracyclines are known to be broad-spectrum antibiotics. They have a bacteriostatic effect on sensitive
microorganisms. What is the mechanism of their antimicrobial action?
A. Interact with the 30S subunit of the ribosome and block the connection of the transfer RNA with the
messenger RNA-ribosome complex, disrupting protein synthesis
183. The sensitivity of a culture of S. aureus isolated from a patient to tetracycline was determined by the method
of serial dilutions. Reproduction of bacteria (turbidity of the medium) was noted in test tubes with antibiotic
concentrations in the BCH of 4 ÿg/ml and 8 ÿg/ml, as well as in the control culture (without antibiotic). In test
tubes with tetracycline concentrations of 16 µg/ml, 32 µg/ml and 64 µg/ml, there is no bacterial growth (the
medium remained transparent). Specify the minimum, inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, concentration
(MIC) of tetracycline. A. 16 mcg/ml
184. Symbiotic relationships between microorganisms suggest the following:
A. Both populations live in the same biotope and benefit for themselves
185. To assess the suitability of water for drinking, a sanitary-microbiological study was carried out. What
indicator characterizes the number of bacteria of the Escherichia coli group in 1 liter of water?
A. Coli index
186. During the sanitary-microbiological study of water by the method of membrane filters, two lactose-positive
colonies were found on a membrane filter placed on Endo medium. It is known that 500 ml of the studied water
was passed through this filter. Indicate the coli-index and coli-titer of the test water.
A. 4 and 250
187. When determining the total microbial number of air in a hospital ward, it was found to be 1500 CFU/m3.
What groups of microorganisms were taken into account in this case?
A. All mesophilic aerobic and facultative anaerobic
188. The territory of the old cattle burial ground, which has not been used for 50 years, is planned to be allocated
for housing construction. However, a microbiological study of the soil revealed the presence of viable spores of
the pathogen of a particularly dangerous disease. Which of these microorganisms could survive in the soil for
such a long time?
A. Bacillusanthracis
189. When assessing the sanitary condition and the ability to self-purify, the soil is considered the most
unfavorable, A. Having long-standing fecal contamination
190. For what external environment is Clostridium perfringens a sanitary-indicative microorganism?
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A. Soil
191. During the sanitary-microbiological study of the soil to determine the perfringens titer, 10-fold dilutions of
the soil suspension were inoculated on sugar-blood agar in Petri dishes. The crops were cultivated in a
thermostat at a temperature of 37o C. A day later, no clostridia colonies were detected. What is the most likely
reason for the lack of Clostridial growth?
A. Anaerobic conditions were not provided
192. When determining the quality of well water, it was found that its total microbial number is 200, if the titer
is 100. Determine the coli index of water.
A. 10
193. Sanitary-microbiological examination of tap water yielded the following results: total microbial count - 80,
coli-index - 3, coliphages were not found. How to evaluate the result of the study?
A. Water is drinkable
194. What OMCh/m3 of air is a criterion for sanitary well-being and the possibility of carrying out operations in
operating rooms?
A. 500
195. During the sanitary-microbiological examination of the operating room air before the operation by the
sedimentation method on a nutrient medium, 5 rounded colonies of medium size were found, around which
the hemolysis zone is clearly visible. On what nutrient medium were crops made?
A. Bloody MPA
196. When assessing the sanitary condition of the soil in an urban recreation area, a high perfringens titer was
found in the studied samples, which indicates
A. Long-standing faecal soil contamination
197. In the bacteriological laboratory, studies were carried out on the quality of samples of drinking water from
centralized water supply. Its total microbial count was 900. What microorganisms were taken into account?
A. Mesophilic aerobic and facultative anaerobic
198. Nutrient media containing carbohydrates were sterilized in the laboratory. In order to speed up the
process, sterilization was carried out in the morning, afternoon and evening for 30 minutes. How should
sterilization be done?
A. Sterilize three times with an interval of 24 hours
199. A patient who has been taking antimicrobial agents for a long time had a bacteriological examination of
the contents of the vagina and a determination of pH. The absence of lactobacilli and an increase in the pH
level were established. What should be prescribed to the patient to normalize the natural microflora of the
vagina?
A. Lactobacilli
200. A patient with oncopathology has almost completely removed the large intestine. What drugs should be
prescribed to the patient to replace the function of the large intestine microflora?
A. Vitamins and colibacterin
201. Indicate the numerically predominant group of microorganisms in the large intestine of a healthy
person.
A. Bifidobacteria B.
Enterobacteria C.
Enterococci D. Yeastlike fungi of the genus Candida E. Clostridia
202. Specify the main method for diagnosing diseases caused by opportunistic microorganisms.
A. Bacteriological
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B. Bacterioscopic
C. Serological
D. Allergological
E. Biological
203. What drugs are used to restore the natural microflora of the human body?
A. Probiotics
204. Indicate the criterion that does not characterize an opportunistic microorganism as the causative agent of
an infectious disease.
A. Participation in the synthesis of vitamins
205. Everything is characteristic of the natural microflora of the body, except:
A. The composition of microbiocenoses of various biotopes remains stable throughout life.
206. A patient developed intestinal dysbacteriosis after prolonged antibiotic treatment. What drugs should be
prescribed to restore normal microflora?
A. Eubiotics
207. Identification of what group of microorganisms allows determining the degree of microecological
disturbances in the large intestine?
ÿ. Bifidobacterium
208. Specify the name of the science that studies the microbial life of macroorganisms.
A. Gnotobiology
PART II
INFECTOLOGY and IMMUNOLOGY
1. Bacterial endotoxins
A. They are lipopolysaccharides of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
2. What are infections caused by medical procedures called? A. Iatrogenic
3. A person living in an endemic focus has been ill with malaria. A year and a half after moving to another area,
he fell ill with malaria again. What is the most likely form of this disease? A. Relapse
4. A child recovering from measles develops pneumonia caused by opportunistic bacteria. What is the most
likely form of this infection? A. Secondary infection
5. An infectious disease of low prevalence that persists in a given
areas, these
are: A. Endemic
6. A young man suffered from gonorrhea, from which he was completely cured. After 2 years, he again fell ill
with gonorrhea. How should this case be assessed?
A. Reinfection
7. What is the name of the form of infection in which the incidence spreads very quickly and covers several
countries and continents within a short time? A. Pandemic
8. In the history of a young man for 2 years, there were periodically appearing purulent discharge from the
urethra. Laboratory examination confirmed the diagnosis of gonorrhea. This case can be evaluated as
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A. Chronic infection
9. Relapsing fever caused by Borrelia caucasica occurs only in certain areas where there is a carrier - a tick of the
genus Ornithodoros. What is the name of such an infection?
A. endemic
10. The patient recovered from Sonne's dysentery and was re-infected with the same pathogen. What is the name of
this form of infection?
A. Reinfection
11. One of the forms of the infectious process leading to complications, for example, with influenza, is a secondary
infection. What should be understood by this term? A. An infection caused by another pathogen joins the underlying
disease
12. Specify the mechanism of transmission of infection through the bites of blood-sucking ectoparasites.
A. Transmissive
13. An infection resulting from the transfer of a pathogen from one biotope of an organism to another is referred to as
A. Autoinfections
14. The presence of a glycolipid cord factor in the cell wall of mycobacterium tuberculosis leads to the fact that this
microorganism is absorbed by phagocytes, but is not digested. What term most accurately defines this property of a
microorganism?
A. Aggressiveness
15. Immunoglobulins play a decisive role in humoral immunity. Choose what characterizes Ig A.
A. Exists in serum and secretory form
16. A patient applied to the dermato-venereologist's office. Smears were prepared from the patient's purulent
discharge from the urethra and stained by Gram. Microscopy revealed gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci, which
were located in the cytoplasm of leukocytes. The results of what process are found in the preparation?
A. Incomplete phagocytosis
17. Natural killers. All of the following are true about their characterization except:
A. Recognize target cells by the histocompatibility antigen (MHC) on their surface
18. In the department of newborns, the incidence of ARVI in children caused by different groups of viruses has
sharply increased. In order to prevent the spread of infection, the appointment of human leukocyte interferon is
recommended. How is interferon administered?
A. Into the nasal passages
19. The main function of gamma-interferon is:
A. Immunomodulatory
20. Proteins of the complement system increase the efficiency of phagocytosis due to the presence of receptors on
macrophages and neutrophils for
A. C3b
21. Anaphylatoxins are of great importance in the development of the allergic process in the body. Select
anaphylatoxins from the listed substances.
A. C3a and C5a complement subfractions
22. Activation of the complement system through an alternative pathway is called
A. Bacterial lipopolysaccharide
23. In a patient, genetic deficiency of C6 protein causes
A. Reduced resistance to bacterial infections
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24. A patient with pneumonia had an increase in body temperature. What biologically active substance plays a leading role in the
occurrence of this phenomenon?
A. Interleukin 1
25. In the body's defense system against foreign agents, a significant place belongs to the complement system. Specify which
complement fraction is the final link in system activation
complement.
A. C 9
26. In a practical session, students studied a stained mouse blood smear with bacteria phagocytosed by leukocytes. What organelles
complete the digestion of these bacteria?
A. Lysosomes
27. When examining the patient's immune status, a reaction was set to determine the phagocytic activity of leukocytes in relation to
Staphylococcus aureus. Accounting for the reaction showed that during cultivation, the number of microorganisms in phagocytes does
not decrease and they remain viable. What property of phagocytes is possibly disturbed?
A. Mechanism of microbicidal activity
28. Natural killers (NK) play an essential role in the antitumor and antiviral defense of the body. When EK interacts with the target cell,
the latter is destroyed. Specify the mechanism of death of the target cell.
A. Apoptosis
29. The classical way of activation of the complement system begins with the binding of C1 protein to
A. Antigen-IgG complex 30. Interferon
inhibits the reproduction of the virus, causing cell synthesis
A. Ribonuclease and protein kinase
31. In the laboratory serving the point for the reception of furs, when examining sheep skins, a serological reaction with anthrax serum
was used. When taking into account the reaction after 5 minutes, a whitish ring appeared at the interface of the liquids. What serological
reaction was used in this case?
A. Precipitation reaction
32. A pure culture of the pathogen was isolated in a bacteriological laboratory. For its identification by antigenic structure, a serological
reaction with diagnostic sera was used. What serological reaction is most often used in this case?
A. Agglutinations
33. The laboratory received a kit for serological tests, which included: Vi diagnosticum erythrocyte from the causative agent of typhoid
fever, buffered isotonic solution, standard serum with antibodies to the Vi antigen of the causative agent of typhoid fever. What
serological test is the kit intended for?
A. Passive hemagglutination
34. Haptens are: A.
Defective antigens
35. Class I histocompatibility antigens are present on the surface of A. All nucleated cells
36. The recovery of the body from an infectious disease is accompanied by the neutralization of antigens by specific antibodies. What
cells produce antibodies?
A. Plasmacytes
37. What area of immunoglobulins is associated with their specificity as antigens?
A. Heavy and light chain stable domains
38. To confirm the Rh-conflict of a Rh-negative mother and a Rh-positive fetus, the following is determined:
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A. Incomplete antibodies in the Coombs reaction
39. The causative agent of the disease was isolated from the body of a patient with acute gastroenteritis. It should be
identified by antigenic structure. What serological reaction should be used for this?
A. Agglutinations
40. To determine the toxigenicity of corynebacterium diphtheria, a standard filter paper disc containing diphtheria
antitoxin was placed on a dense nutrient medium, and next to it, at a certain distance, the studied bacterial culture
and a toxigenic control strain were sown in the form of plaques. If the bacterial culture under study produces an
exotoxin, then
can be identified
A. Merging precipitation lines
41. Minced beef seized from a market seller was delivered to the food hygiene laboratory of the sanitary and
epidemiological station. The buyer had doubts about the quality of minced meat. He believes that minced meat is
made from dog meat. What serological reaction can be used to determine the falsification of a product?
A. Precipitation
42. A pathogen was isolated from a patient with gastroenteritis, which, according to morphological, cultural and
biochemical properties, belongs to the genus Salmonella. What diagnostic preparations should be used to identify the
type of pathogen by antigenic properties?
A. Monoreceptor O- and H-sera
43. Immune diagnostic sera are used for A. Serological identification
of microorganisms and their toxins
44. The annotation to the drug states that it contains antigens of the causative agent of typhoid fever adsorbed on
stabilized ram erythrocytes. For what purpose is this drug used?
A. To detect antibodies in the passive hemagglutination test
45. Class II histocompatibility antigens are located on the surface
A. Antigen presenting cells
46. With an increase in the number of cases of diphtheria, a 3-fold immunization of the population with an adsorbed
diphtheria vaccine was carried out. As a result, the level of immunoglobulins in the blood plasma of immunized people
increased. What cells are the producers of these proteins?
A. Plasmacytes
47. When CSC was performed with the patient's blood serum, it turned out to be negative in all dilutions. How to
determine visually the phenomenon of negative RSK?
A. By the presence of hemolysis in test tubes
48. Immunoglobulins play a decisive role in humoral immunity. Choose what characterizes Ig A.
A. It is found in secrets that come into contact with epithelial cells of the mucous membranes of the
gastrointestinal tract, respiratory and genitourinary tracts
49. Serological diagnosis of influenza involves the detection of an increase in the titer of antibodies to the pathogen in
the patient's blood serum. How many times should the antibody titer increase in the study of paired sera in order for
the result to be considered reliable?
A. 4 times or more
50. Antibodies that interact with antigens that enter the body are of great importance in immune defense. Specify
which part of the immunoglobulin molecule reacts with the antigen determinant.
A. Variable regions of H- and L- chains
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51. How is complement activated in the RSC indicator system?
A. Classic
52. A patient with a festering thigh wound has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. A biopsy in the cortical layer of
the lymph node revealed enlarged follicles with pronounced reactive centers and an increased number of
plasmacytes in the medulla. What process has developed in the lymph node?
A. Antigenic stimulation
53. Examination of a patient revealed an insufficient amount of immunoglobulins in the blood serum. Which of
the following cells of the immune system produce immunoglobulins?
A. Plasma
54. When staging the complement fixation reaction in a test tube with the test patient's serum, an
antigen+antibody+complement complex was formed. What is the indicator for the visual identification of this
complex?
A. Hemolytic system
55. Upon admission to the infectious diseases hospital, the patient was found to have antibodies to the probable
causative agent of the disease, but their titer was insufficient to confirm the diagnosis. What decision of the
doctor do you think is correct?
A. Re-determination of antibody titer after 10 days
56. Local immunity is determined by the presence
A. Ig A
57. A bacteriological laboratory is testing canned meat for the content of botulinum toxin. To do this,
experimental groups of mice were injected with an extract from the test material and antitoxic anti-botulinum
serum types A, B, E; the control group of mice was injected with an extract without anti-botulinum serum.
What serological reaction was used?
A. Toxin neutralization
58. For the serological diagnosis of syphilis in order to perform the Wasserman reaction, the laboratory
assistant prepared the following reagents: cardiolipin antigen, a suspension of ram erythrocytes, hemolytic
serum, saline and test sera. What other component is needed to set up the reaction?
A. Complement
59. In the market, citizen A. was selling sausage called “home-made pork”. Employees of the State Sanitary
and Epidemiological Service suspected that the sausage was falsified. What serological reaction can be used
to identify a food product?
A. Precipitation
60. On environmental objects and food products, Shigella Sonne antigens are detected in a reaction using a
diagnostic test system, the set of which includes a polystyrene tablet with adsorbed specific antibodies.
Specify this reaction.
A. ELISA
61. In the body's immune defense, the effector functions of immunocompetent cells are of decisive importance.
Indicate which of the following statements characterize B lymphocytes.
A. They differentiate into antibody-producing cells
62. Hemolytic serum against sheep erythrocytes is necessary for work in a laboratory where serological
diagnostics of infectious diseases is carried out. For what purpose is it used?
A. As a component of the hemolytic system in the complement fixation reaction
63. Some antigens can cause the production of specific antibodies without the participation of T-helpers.
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They are called
A. thymus-independent antigens
64. Solid-phase radioimmunoassay (RIA) was used to diagnose a viral infection in the laboratory. For what
purpose could RIA be used in this case?
A. To detect antigen or antibodies
65. Immunofluorescence reaction is widely used for express diagnostics of many bacterial and viral infections.
Choose a condition without which it is impossible
determine the outcome of the reaction.
A. Availability of a fluorescent microscope
66. In the event of an outbreak of an acute respiratory infection, in order to establish a diagnosis of influenza,
an express diagnostics is carried out, which is based on the detection of a specific viral antigen in the test
material (nasopharyngeal lavage). What serological reaction is used for this?
A. Immunofluorescence
67. The reliability of the bacterioscopic method of research increases with the use of the immunofluorescence
reaction. Indicate what the antibodies used in its setting are labeled with.
A. Fluorochrome (FITC, rhodamine)
68. In a patient with suspected anthrax, for accelerated diagnosis, a direct method of immunofluorescence
reaction should be used. What ingredient is used to set up this reaction?
A. Immunofluorescent serum
69. A patient was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of hepatitis B. To confirm the diagnosis, a
serological test was performed based on the interaction of antigens with peroxidase-conjugated antibodies.
What is the name of the applied serological test?
A. ELISA
70. The patients admitted to the hospital had fever, severe intoxication, and hemorrhagic manifestations. A
preliminary diagnosis was made of Crimean-Congo fever (the disease is endemic in the area). The test
material from patients was sent to the diagnostic laboratory to detect antigens of the Crimean Congo
hemorrhagic fever virus. What reaction is appropriate to use to solve the problem?
A. Immunofluorescence
71. The microscopic method for diagnosing infectious diseases is insufficiently informative due to the
morphological similarity of many types of microorganisms. What serological reaction can significantly increase
the information content of this method?
A. Immunofluorescence
72. For the purpose of diagnosing HIV infection, blood serum is examined to detect specific antibodies by
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. What enzyme-labeled antibodies are used?
A. Against human immunoglobulins
73. In many infectious diseases, pathogen antigens can be detected in the patient's blood. What reaction
should be applied, given that the level of antigens is low?
A. Solid phase ELISA
74. What label is used in ELISA?
A. Enzyme
75. An 18-year-old boy has an increase in inguinal lymph nodes, prolonged subfebrile temperature and oral
candidiasis. A provisional diagnosis of HIV infection was made. Specify the most reliable serological method
for diagnosing HIV infection.
A. Immunoblotting
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76. In the mechanism of development of delayed-type hypersensitivity, the main role is played by
A. Type 1 T-helpers and macrophages
77. A 3-year-old child has asthma attacks during the flowering of ragweed. What type of allergic reaction according
to Gell and Coombs underlies the pathogenesis of this condition?
A. I
78. In a hairless mouse, there were no delayed-type cellular reactions. For this pathology, the most likely is A.
Absence of the thymus
79. A 9-year-old child with a severe toxic form of pharyngeal diphtheria was injected with horse diphtheria antitoxic
serum. The child's condition improved, but after 10 days a rash, itching appeared on the skin, swelling and
tenderness of the joints were noted, protein was found in the urine. What is the most likely cause of these
phenomena?
A. Serum sickness
80. If tuberculosis is suspected, a Mantoux test was performed on a sick child. After 48 hours, swelling, hyperemia
and soreness appeared at the allergen injection site. What are the main components that determine this reaction
of the body?
A. Mononuclear cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
81. After taking amidopyrine, a patient developed leukopenia. Anti-leukocyte antibodies were found in the blood.
What type of allergic reaction according to Coombs and Gell occurred in this case?
A. Cytotoxic
82. IgE plays a decisive role in the pathogenesis of anaphylactic and atopic reactions. Indicate which of the
following is typical for this class of immunoglobulins.
A. Cytophilicity
83. Specify the class of immunoglobulins that determine the development of atopic allergic reactions.
A. IgE
84. Patient S., who was injured in a car accident, developed the first symptoms of tetanus 7 days later. In this
regard, he was prescribed a course of treatment with anti-tetanus serum 200,000 IU three times, and there was
an improvement in his condition. After 2 weeks, the patient's temperature rose to 38.5 ° C, lymph nodes increased,
swelling of the joints, a rash such as "urticaria", skin itching and disorders of the cardiovascular system were
noted. What complication arose in the patient?
A. Serum sickness
85. Allergic tests are used to diagnose some infectious diseases (tuberculosis, brucellosis, tularemia, etc.). At the
injection site of the microbial allergen, the patient develops a papule and redness. What caused this reaction?
A. Interaction of AG, T-lymphocytes and macrophages
86. What is the main mechanism of immunological damage characteristic of the reaction induced by IgE?
A. Release of mediators of immediate allergy
87. A patient who received a course of penicillin was found to have a decrease in the number of erythrocytes in
the blood - anemia. The patient was diagnosed with drug allergy to penicillin. What type of reaction underlies this
phenomenon?
A. Type II hypersensitivity
88. A 27-year-old man underwent a Mantoux tuberculin test. After 3 days, an infiltrate of 40x35 mm was noted at
the injection site, the skin over which was hyperemic. What biologically active substance determined the
development of this allergic inflammation?
A. Lymphokines
89. Which of the following statements is not true for the thymus:
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A. Site of immunoglobulin synthesis
90. When opening the box with the ADS vaccine, it was found that some of the ampoules were without labels. By
external signs, the vaccine in these ampoules does not differ from the vaccine in labeled ampoules. What should be
done with unlabeled ampoules?
A. Do not use
91. You received the following immunobiological preparations for work: live plague vaccine, killed cholera vaccine,
adsorbed tetanus toxoid; tetanus toxoid "Diaferm-III"; anti-anthrax immunoglobulin. What kind of immunity do these
drugs create?
A. Artificial active and passive immunity
92. A child diagnosed with diphtheria of the tonsils was prescribed an anti-diphtheria antitoxic serum by a doctor.
What is the purpose of this drug?
A. For the purpose of treatment
93. Which of the following diseases is prevented by a vaccine from live attenuated bacteria?
A. Tuberculosis
94. What property of immunoglobulins determines the possibility of creating anti-idiotypic vaccines?
A. Ability of the paratope structure to induce antibody synthesis
95. What group does the vaccine used for the prevention of tetanus belong to?
A. Anatoxin
96. A 40-year-old patient was delivered to the surgical department of the hospital on the occasion of a lower limb
injury. A diagnosis of anaerobic wound infection was made and a polyvalent antigangrenous serum was prescribed.
How to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock with the introduction of serum?
A. Enter fractionally by Bezredka
97. What method can be used to most reliably and completely determine the number and ratio of various
subpopulations of lymphocytes?
A. Reaction using monoclonal antibodies
98. A patient with diphtheria needs to urgently administer antitoxic serum. How to prevent the occurrence of
anaphylactic shock?
A. Enter fractionally using the Bezredka method
99. To study the properties of a killed bacterial vaccine, it was administered parenterally to laboratory animals. In their
blood, a high titer of antibodies was found, but the animals died from the introduction of a small dose of a live culture
of the pathogen of the same species. What properties were found in the tested vaccine?
A. Weak immunogenicity, strong antigenicity
100. Toxin neutralized with formalin (0.4% solution) at 37-40°C for four weeks is used for vaccination. For the first
time, such a drug was used for the prevention of diphtheria by Ramon. What is this drug?
A. Anatoxin
101. To create artificial active immunity, it is necessary to use a drug, one of the most important characteristics of
which is indicated among the answers. Select this feature.
A. Contains pathogen antigens
102. The gene of hepatitis B virus, which is responsible for the formation of HBsAg, has been integrated into the
nucleus of a yeast cell. The recombinant strain is planned to be used to produce a vaccine. What type of vaccine is
this?
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A. Genetic engineering
103. A rabbit is immunized with a suspension of a certain type of bacteria according to the scheme. After 3 weeks,
blood was taken from him, and serum was obtained from it. For what purpose can this drug be used?
A. To determine the antigenic structure of bacteria
104. Which of the following stimulates the production of antitoxic immunity?
A. Exotoxin
105. Indicate the factors of innate immunity that protect the body from bacteria.
A. Phagocytes, complement, lysozyme, EC
106. A T-independent form of immune response is formed to polysaccharide AGs of bacteria repeating in their
structure. What antibodies are produced against such antigens?
A. Low affinity Ig M
107. To assess the level of antitoxic immunity, use the reaction
A. Indirect hemagglutination
108. During the serological test of Vidal on the 7th day of illness in a patient with suspected typhoid, O-ATs were
found in a titer of 1: 200. The result did not allow confirming the diagnosis, and therefore the doctor sent the
patient's blood again for serological examination 5 days later . How many times should there be an increase in the
titer of antibodies to the causative agent of the disease in order to make a diagnosis?
A. 4 times or more
109. What property of bacteria causes the development of cellular immunity in the body, caused by T-lymphocytes
- effectors of inflammation?
A. Facultative intracellular parasitism
110. What property is characteristic for genes of B-lymphocytes encoding the synthesis of immunoglobulins?
A. Organized fragmentarily
111. Recombinations in the genes of B-lymphocytes encoding the synthesis of immunoglobulins and the formation
of their populations with a wide range of specificity are completed by the time
A. Encounters of a B-lymphocyte with an antigen
112. The formation of a B-lymphocyte clone capable of synthesizing antibodies specific to any antigen is explained
by the molecular genetic theory of S. Tonegawa. Specify which of the following processes is not involved in the
formation of antibody specificity.
A. Antigen presentation by MHC I
113. What is not related to the rearrangement of the genes of the T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) and the formation
of a unique antigen-recognizing ability of specific T-lymphocytes?
A. Somatic mutations occur in genes
114. Specify the mechanism of death of virus-infected target cells after their contact with T killers.
A. Apoptosis
115. A patient was admitted to the infectious department with a diagnosis of influenza. For the serological method
of research, blood was taken from him on the 3rd day of illness, and then on the 10th day. How many times should
there be an increase in the titer of antibodies in the blood serum in the dynamics of the disease to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. 4 times
116. Specify the population of immune system cells involved in the recognition of viral antigens on target cells with
subsequent destruction of cells infected with the virus.
A. Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
117. A 2-year-old child, starting from the age of 2 months, has frequent bacterial
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infections. Allergic reaction to tuberculin is positive. What deficiency of the immune system is most likely in this
patient? A. Congenital B-cell deficiency
118. A patient with 3-B degree burns on 20% of the body surface was admitted to the burn department of the
regional hospital. Which of the following conditions can develop in the patient?
A. Combined cellular and humoral immunodeficiencies
119. A 5-year-old child suffers from chronic pneumonia with frequent relapses and candidiasis for a long time.
The patient was diagnosed with hypergammaglobulinemia. In the blood and bronchopulmonary secretion,
phagocytes were found, containing in the cytoplasm undestroyed cells of fungi of the genus Candida and
enterobacteria. Violation of the function of which cells of the patient's body leads to the development of such a
pathology?
A. Macrophages and neutrophils
120. In a newborn child, the following results were obtained during immunological examination: the reaction of
spontaneous rosette formation is negative, the percentage of rosettes in the reaction of specific rosette
formation is 25%, the reaction of blast transformation with phytohemagglutinin is 0%, with the mitogen of lakona
mitogen is 40%, the concentration of immunoglobulins in the blood serum is slightly reduced. Which organs of
the immune system are not functioning?
A. Thymus gland
121. Autoimmune processes do not develop
A. According to the mechanisms of type I hypersensitivity
122. One of the tests that characterize the immune status of a person is phagocytic activity. In some cases, it
can be enhanced by antibodies, and then phagocytosis is called immune. What antibodies contribute to the
uptake of antigens by phagocytes?
A. Opsonins
123. A 3-year-old boy suffering from chronic pneumonia was diagnosed with Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia.
Specify the consequence of insufficiency of the B-lymphocyte system.
A. Decreased body resistance to pyogenic coccal flora
124. A 2-year-old child suffers from chronic, often recurrent pneumonia and colitis with severe diarrhea. He
showed a sharp decrease in the levels of immunoglobulins of all classes. The number of lymphocytes in
peripheral blood is less than 1000 per 1 ml. There is no tuberculin reaction. What disease does the patient
suffer from?
A. Primary immunodeficiency with defective T- and B-lymphocytes
125. Examination of a patient with clinical signs of immunodeficiency with an unchanged number and functional
activity of T- and B-lymphocytes revealed a defect at the molecular level, in which the function of antigen
presentation to immunocompetent cells was affected. Which cell function is impaired?
A. Macrophages, monocytes
126. An immunological examination of a patient revealed hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following
cells produce immunoglobulins?
A. Plasma
127. A 38-year-old patient died during an intractable attack of bronchial asthma. Histological examination
revealed accumulations of mucus in the lumen of the bronchi, in the wall of the bronchi many mast cells (labrocytes), many of them in a state of degranulation, as well as many eosinophils. What is
the pathogenesis of these changes in the bronchi?
A. Atopy
128. A patient is diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis. Antithyroid antibodies were found in the blood. What type of
allergic reaction according to Coombs and Gell is observed during the development of this disease?
A. Stimulant
129. What type of allergic reaction is the Arthus reaction, which manifests itself in superficial vasculitis, mucosal
necrosis?
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A. Immunocomplex
130. A patient has an allergic reaction, accompanied by itching, swelling and redness of the skin. The
concentration of what biogenic amine increases in tissues?
A. Histamine
131. A 27-year-old patient put drops into her eyes, which include penicillin. A few minutes later, itching
and burning appeared, swelling of the lips and eyelids, wheezing cough; decreased blood pressure. What
immunoglobulins are involved in the development of this allergic reaction?
A. Ig E and Ig G
132. Novocaine was used during surgical manipulations for the purpose of anesthesia. After 10 minutes,
the patient developed pallor of the skin, shortness of breath, hypotension. What type of allergic reaction
did the patient develop?
A. Anaphylactic
1. A patient with stomatitis, fever, dysfunction of the nervous and digestive systems was
given a preliminary diagnosis of AIDS. What methods should be used to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. ELISA, immunofluorescence reaction, immunoblotting, radioimmunoassay
analysis
2. Swabs from the pharynx and nasopharynx of ARVI patients were delivered to the virological
laboratory for research. How to process prepared preparations for accelerated diagnosis and what
method should be used?
A. Treat with fluorescent immunoconjugate for direct RIF
3. Employees of the dental clinic need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which drug should be
used?
A. Recombinant HBs vaccine
4. A milkmaid turned to the dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form of aphthae (small
painful ulcers). The doctor found similar rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands.
What pathogen caused this disease?
A. FMDV
5. During dental operations, the risk of infection of the surgeon is highest
A. Hepatitis B
6. In the children's department of maxillofacial surgery, the incidence of acute respiratory
viral infections, caused by different groups of viruses, has sharply increased. Human leukocyte
interferon should be used to prevent the spread of infections. In what way is it introduced?
A. Intranasal
7. To prevent the rise in the incidence of influenza in the dental clinic, it was decided to carry
out specific immunization of health workers. What drug should be used?
A. Subunit vaccine
8. In the children's department of the dental hospital, the incidence of acute respiratory viral infections has
increased. What drug is prescribed for the treatment of sick children?
A. Interferon
9. When checking the sterility of dental instruments, gram-positive cocci were
isolated, arranged in clusters, fermenting mannitol under anaerobic conditions and having
lecithinase and plasma-coagulase activity. What microorganism is isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
10. During bacteriological examination of patients with caries of teeth, various microorganisms
were isolated. Which of the microorganisms plays a leading role in the occurrence of caries?
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A. Streptococcus mutans
11. In the etiology of dental caries, the leading role belongs to Streptococcus mutans. What pathogenic factors
do these streptococci have?
A. Able to attach to the smooth surface of the teeth and form plaques, produce lactic acid
12. On the 5th day after tooth extraction, the patient was taken to the clinic with a purulent abscess and
high fever. During blood culture, pathogenic staphylococcus aureus was isolated. What is the name of this
form of distribution of microbes in the body?
A. Bacteremia
13. A 12-year-old boy complains of pain in the joints, shortness of breath, pain in the heart and
palpitations during physical exertion. A dental consultant found caries in many teeth. What investigations
should be carried out in connection with the suspicion of rheumatism?
A. Set the titer of antibodies to O-streptolysin
14. Which of the following microorganisms are cariogenic?
A. Streptococcus mutans
15. A sick woman in the dental department was given a preliminary diagnosis of gonorrheal stomatitis.
What method of microbiological diagnostics can be used to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of the discharged oral mucosa
16. The strain of staphylococcus that caused an outbreak of a nosocomial infection in the department
of maxillofacial surgery turned out to be resistant to penicillin. Which of the following factors is associated with
the resistance of microorganisms to antibiotics of the group to which penicillin belongs?
A. With the synthesis of beta-lactamase
17. When determining the sensitivity to antibiotics of staphylococci isolated from a patient with
stomatitis, it was found that they are most sensitive to amoxicillin. What is the mechanism of
antibacterial action of penicillins?
A. They disrupt the synthesis of cell wall components
18. Staphylococcus aureus was isolated from pus from a patient with a diagnosis of facial phlegmon. What
method will allow to determine the minimum, inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, the concentration of the
antibiotic planned for the treatment of this patient?
A. Serial dilutions
19. A patient consulted a dentist about caries. Which of the listed representatives of the normal
microflora of the oral cavity are not involved in the development of dental caries?
A. Waylonella
20. From the exudate obtained from the root canal, a pure culture of gram-negative bacillus
was isolated. What nutrient media is used most often to determine the saccharolytic properties of
such bacteria?
A. Hiss environment
21. A wash from the mucous membrane of the oral cavity of a patient with chronic stomatitis was
sent to the bacteriological laboratory. One of the likely causative agents of the disease is Klebsiella
pneumoniae. Which of the following staining methods makes it possible to reveal the capsule of this
microorganism during bacterioscopy?
A. Burry-Gins
22. Microscopy of smears prepared from purulent secretions of a patient with periodontitis and stained
according to the Burri-Gins method revealed sticks with capsules. Which of the following microbes form
capsules?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
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23. Bacteroides fragilis was isolated from a patient with gingivitis in a bacteriological laboratory. Which
of the following groups of microorganisms does this pathogen belong to?
A. Asporogenic anaerobes
24. A patient injured in a car accident with a fracture of the lower jaw was given emergency care and antitetanus antitoxic serum was introduced. After 2 months the patient was delivered to the infectious department
with symptoms of "late" tetanus. How should tetanus prophylaxis be carried out in order to prevent the
development of the disease?
A. Provide active-passive tetanus prophylaxis
25. After a traffic accident, a victim with a maxillofacial injury was taken to the hospital. Two days later, the
patient's condition worsened and he was diagnosed with an "anaerobic wound infection". On which of the
following nutrient media are clostridia of anaerobic infection cultivated?
A. Kitta-Tarozzi environment
26. A group of Ukrainian dentists must go on a business trip to one of the African countries. In this country, an
average of several hundred people are ill with plague every year. What vaccine should be used to prevent plague
in the doctors of this group before a business trip?
A. Live EV vaccine
27. A child was admitted to the clinic, on the mucous membrane of the cheeks, palate and tongue of which a white
coating was found, which is characteristic of candidiasis. What material should be taken for research?
A. Plaque from different parts of the oral cavity
28. Microscopic examination of the discharge of the oral mucosa revealed fungi. Which feature of the
following is characteristic of the structure of fungi?
A. Mycelium formation
29. In a patient, a smear was prepared from an ulcer located on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity and
stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa. It revealed thin, spiral-shaped microorganisms, pale pink in color, with
12-14 curls and pointed ends. What microorganism was found in the test material?
A. The causative agent of syphilis
30. As a result of activation of resident microorganisms of the oral mucosa, a purulent-inflammatory process
of periodontal tissues occurred in a patient. What form of infection does the disease belong to?
A. Autoinfection
31. A dentist diagnosed a child with oral candidiasis. From the anamnesis it is known that the child recently
underwent a course of antibiotic therapy for staphylococcal pneumonia. What form of infection can be attributed to
the disease?
A. Secondary
32. After tooth extraction, a patient developed a purulent-inflammatory process. Microscopic
examination of purulent foamy secretions revealed a thick, gram-positive, immobile rod surrounded
by a capsule. Which of the following pathogens can be the etiological cause of pyoinflammatory process?
A. Clostridium perfringens
33. A patient with odontogenic abscess was admitted to the Department of Maxillofacial Surgery. In a laboratory
blood test, a culture of Staphylococcus aureus was isolated. What form of infectious process does the patient
have?
A. Sepsis (septicemia)
34. In the oral cavity of a clinically healthy 39-year-old man, along with S. mutans and S. salivarius, S.pneumoniae
was also detected. Which term best describes the observed phenomenon?
A. Bacteriocarrier
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35. On the oral mucosa of a young woman, a dentist noticed a rounded ulcer with a dense bottom and
smooth edges, which resembles a hard chancre. What diagnostic method should be used to make a
diagnosis?
A. Bacterioscopic
36. A 36-year-old man was treated with antibiotics penicillin and tetracycline for a long time.
This led to qualitative and quantitative changes in the composition of the normal microflora of the oral
cavity. The increase in the number of which microorganisms will be most likely?
A. Candida albicans
37. A dentist performed a tooth extraction on an HIV-infected person. During this manipulation, the
patient's blood got on the doctor's skin. What is the most appropriate means to use for disinfection of
the skin?
A. Ethyl alcohol 70º
38. A patient admitted to a dental clinic for the removal of a carious tooth was given novocaine for
anesthesia. A few minutes later, the patient developed the following symptoms: shortness of breath,
drop in blood pressure, loss of consciousness, puffiness of the face. The doctor suspected the
development of an allergic reaction to novocaine. What type of allergic reaction is the complication in
this patient?
A. Atopic.
39. From the purulent exudate of a patient with odontogenic phlegmon, a pure culture of
gram-positive spherical microbes with lecithinase activity, coagulating blood plasma, degrading
mannitol under anaerobic conditions, was isolated. Which of the following microorganisms was
isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
40. After examining a patient with recurrent aphthous stomatitis and concomitant candidiasis, the
doctor decided to check for HIV infection. What study will help clarify the situation and make a
preliminary diagnosis?
A. ELISA
41. Due to the fact that dentists are at increased risk of contracting viral hepatitis B, they should be
routinely vaccinated. What vaccine should be used in this case?
A. A vaccine that contains the HBs antigen
42. The doctor found dental caries in a patient and found out from the anamnesis that he often
eats foods rich in carbohydrates, in particular sweets, but his diet is poor in vegetables and fruits. What
microbe was the cause of caries?
A. Streptococcus mutans
43. In the scientific literature, there are reports of obtaining drugs that create active immunity
against cariogenic streptococci and prevent the development of caries. What components should
be used to create such preparations?
A. Antigens of streptococci of the S. mutans group
44. In connection with suspected odontogenic streptococcal infection, which led to rheumatic
heart disease in a boy with carious lesions of all milk teeth, the blood serum was examined and
a high level of specific antibodies against streptococcal toxins was detected. What do the research
results indicate?
A. Activity of the rheumatic process
45. A patient came to the dentist with manifestations of oral candidiasis, which constantly recurs and
cannot be treated. From the anamnesis, it turned out that the patient had a high temperature and
weight loss for a long time. What research should be assigned to the patient?
A. Immunological and serological tests for HIV infection
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46. A 68-year-old patient underwent chemotherapy for chronic lymphoproliferative disease. In the last days of
this treatment, the patient developed a whitish plaque on the oral mucosa, which was easily removed.
Microscopic examination of a plaque smear revealed the presence of large (2-5 ÿm), gram-positive
microorganisms, round in shape, which suggested oral candidiasis. How to continue the microbiological
diagnosis of the disease?
A. Inoculate the material on Sabouraud's medium to isolate a pure culture of the pathogen
47. When examining the patient's oral cavity, a dentist revealed an increase and redness of one of the
tonsils. When touched with a spatula, the tonsil was painless, the submandibular lymph nodes were
enlarged. Microscopy of the preparation prepared from plaque on the tonsils revealed spiral-like, mobile
microorganisms in the dark field of vision. What disease does the patient have?
A. Syphilis
48. 7 days after a plastic surgery performed by a dentist, a patient developed tetanus. It was suspected
that the cause was a tetanus-contaminated suture material. The latter was delivered to the bacteriological
laboratory. What nutrient medium should be used for the primary seeding of the material?
A. Kitta-Tarozzi
49. In a 60-year-old woman with a severe form of periodontal disease, microscopic examination of a
scraping from the gums revealed mononuclear protozoa 30-60 microns in size, with wide pseudopodia.
What protozoa were found in the patient?
A. Entamoeba gingivalis
50. A month after prosthetics, the patient went to the dentist with complaints of redness and swelling of
the oral mucosa. A diagnosis of allergic stomatitis was made. What type of hypersensitivity reaction
according to Gell and Coombs underlies this disease?
A. Immunocomplex
51. Microscopy of a smear prepared from a purulent discharge of a patient with acute purulent periostitis
revealed gram-positive bacteria located in clusters resembling grapes. What microorganisms have the indicated
morphology?
A. Staphylococci
52. When examining a patient, a dentist found tension in the masticatory muscles and limited ability to
open the mouth. What infectious disease is characterized by such symptoms?
A. Tetanus
53. A 35-year-old patient consulted a dentist complaining of mobility and loss of front teeth. On examination,
the doctor found a yellow tubercle on the gum in the region of the upper front teeth, in the center of which
there was an ulcer. What lesion of the oral cavity can be assumed in this patient?
A. Tuberculous
54. A patient, who has been using removable dentures for a long time, consulted a dentist. He complained of
frequent painful cracks in the corners of his mouth, inflammation of the gums under the prostheses. Which of
the microorganisms is the most likely cause of this process?
A. Candida albicans
55. A 25-year-old man at a dentist's appointment a few minutes after washing his mouth with a solution of
furacilin developed a significant swelling of the lips. What type of allergic reaction was observed in this
case?
A. Anaphylactic (atopic)
56. A patient went to the dentist with complaints about the occurrence of spontaneous aching pains in the
area of the 6th tooth, aggravated by eating and brushing the teeth. Objectively: percussion of the tooth,
palpation of the gums and transitional folds are painful, the tooth is slightly mobile.
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Diagnosed with acute serous periodontitis. Which of the following groups of oral microorganisms are involved
in the development of acute serous periodontitis?
A. Viridescent and non-hemolytic streptococci
57. A patient went to the doctor with complaints of pain when swallowing and bad breath. When examining the oral
cavity, inflammation of the right-sided tonsil was noted with a yellow-white coating, which, when removed, opened the
ulcerative surface. The submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged and painful on palpation. A diagnosis of SimanovskyPlaut-Vincent's angina was made. What microorganisms cause this disease?
A. Fusobacteria and spirochetes
58. In case of acute herpetic stomatitis, a patient was prescribed an antiviral drug, available in tablets and as
an ointment for topical application. What is the drug?
A. Acyclovir
59. During a preventive examination, a dentist revealed the presence of supragingival tartar in one of the
vocational school students. What microorganisms are actively involved in the formation of tartar, forming plexuses
on the surface of the tooth, contributing to the retention of hard deposits and the creation of a crystallization
center? A. Actinomycetes and leptotrichia
60. Indicate the association of types of microorganisms of the oral cavity, which has the most pronounced aggressiveness
towards periodontal tissues, therefore called the "red complex", involved in the induction and progression of periodontitis.
A. Basteroides forsythus, Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, Prevotella intermedia
61. As you know, the gram-negative bacterium Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, which is part of the natural
microflora of the oral cavity, is involved in the development of juvenile rapidly progressive periodontitis. Which of the
following pathogenicity factors of this microorganism causes damage to periodontal tissues, as a result of which the
integrity of the periodontal attachment is violated and a periodontal pocket is formed?
A. Synthesis of the collagenase enzyme
62. When examining a patient with complaints of recurrent pain when sweet or sour gets on a tooth, a dentist,
while brushing his teeth, found a shallow defect with a rough surface on the chewing surface of the 5th tooth. Probing
it was slightly painful and revealed the presence of a cavity. A diagnosis of "superficial caries" was made. It is known that
streptococci of the mutans group are cariogenic. What property of these streptococci determines their attachment to the
tooth surface? A. Synthesis of extracellular insoluble polysaccharides
63. A patient went to a dentist with complaints of severe headache and bleeding gums, inability to eat, fever up to
37.5ºÿ, general weakness, insomnia, aching joints and muscles. Examination of the oral cavity revealed swelling
and hyperemia of the gums and buccal mucosa, white-gray plaque on the tops of the interdental papillae and the
marginal zone of the gums, putrid odor from the oral cavity. The submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged and
painful. A diagnosis of acute ulcerative necrotic Vincent gingivostomatitis was made. What microorganisms cause this
disease?
A. Fusobacteria and spirochetes
64. A patient went to the dentist with complaints of paroxysmal acute spontaneous pain in the region of the 7th tooth,
radiating to the temple. Examination of the tooth revealed caries, the carious cavity was not opened. When probing its
bottom, the patient feels pain. When the cavity was opened, pus was released. A diagnosis of caries (stage IV)
complicated by purulent pulpitis was made. What microorganisms cause purulent inflammation of the pulp? A.
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
65. The patient was admitted to the dental department in an extremely serious condition: temperature
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39ºÿ, delirium, swelling of the right half of the face, in the cheek area - a perforated defect with tissue
necrosis, a deep ulcer on the gum. Affected tissues have the appearance of a dirty gray mass with a fetid
odor. A diagnosis of noma was made. Which of the following microorganisms can cause gangrenous tissue
damage? A. Clostridium perfringens
66. A 5-year-old child has a fever up to 38ºÿ, pain when swallowing, a bright red rash on the skin, an
increase in submandibular lymph nodes and their pain on palpation. Examination of the oral cavity revealed
catarrhal inflammation of the tonsils and pharyngeal mucosa (“flaming pharynx”), “crimson” tongue. A diagnosis
of scarlet fever was made. What microorganism causes this disease?
ÿ. Streptococcus pyogenes
67. Removable dentures are mainly used by elderly people with reduced immunobiological reactivity.
They develop "prosthetic" stomatitis and create conditions for the appearance of dental plaques. What
microorganisms play the leading role in the etiology of "prosthetic" stomatitis?
. Candida albicans
68. A patient went to the doctor with complaints about acute toothache. The dentist discovered caries
in 4 teeth and provided the necessary assistance. At the same time, the doctor noticed vesicular rashes
against the background of hyperemia of the mucous membrane of the pharynx. In some places, instead of
bursting bubbles, there were aphthaes with a grayish-white bottom. What disease, besides caries, did the patient have?
A. Herpetic sore throat caused by the Coxsackie A virus.
69. The boy's parents turned to the dentist with complaints that thrush that appeared in the child in
the first months of life has been constantly recurring for 2 years already. From the anamnesis it is known that
the child was born prematurely and lagged behind in development from peers. The doctor suspected
immunodeficiency in the child. Decrease of what class of immunoglobulins does this child have?
A. Ig A
70. A 9-year-old child after prolonged use of antibiotics for bronchopneumonia developed pain and
burning in the mucous membrane of the lips and tongue. Objectively: there are curdled and gray plaques on
the mucous membrane of the lips and tongue, which can be easily removed with a spatula. Microscopic
examination of plaque revealed oval, budding cells and pseudomycelium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Candidal cheilitis
71. Microscopic examination of the infiltrate, which was removed from the mandibular region of the skin of a
30-year-old patient, revealed: foci of purulent fusion, surrounded by ripening granulations and mature
connective tissue, in the pus - drusen, consisting of numerous short, rod-shaped elements attached to a
homogeneous center. Determine what disease the patient has.
A. Actinomycosis
72. A patient has herpetic stomatitis on the background of immunosuppression. What drug, used intravenously,
orally and locally, will provide an antiviral effect?
A. Acyclovir
73. Microscopy of secretions from the gums of a patient with periodontal disease revealed pear-shaped
protozoa, 6-13 microns long. The parasite has one nucleus, 4 flagella at the anterior end, and an undulating
membrane. What protozoa were found in the patient?
A. Trichomonas
74. Periodontal disease affects up to 50% of people over the age of 30 worldwide. plays an important
role in the pathogenesis of this disease
A. Autoimmune tissue damage
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75. In a newborn - hyperemia and swelling of the oral mucosa, small erosions with viscous mucopurulent
discharge. In smears from the discharge, there is a large number of leukocytes containing gram-negative
diplococci. The same microorganisms are located outside the leukocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gonococcal stomatitis
MICROBIOLOGY IN THE SPECIALTY "CLINICAL PHARMACY"
1. A pharmacy sterilized a drug that breaks down at high temperature. How was the sterilization done? A. Using
a Seitz filter
2. In a pharmacy, it became necessary to sterilize a liquid medicinal product mechanically. What was used
for this?
A. Seitz filter
46. The pharmacy of the Phthisiopulmonological Center received a number of antimicrobial drugs. Which one is used
to treat tuberculosis?
A. Rifampicin
IMMUNOPATOLOGICAL PROCESSES. ALLERGY. IMMUNODEFICIENT CONDITIONS.
1. A surgeon developed contact dermatitis, which manifested itself as inflammatory lesions of the skin
of the hands, aggravated after washing hands in preparation for surgery. What type of allergic reactions
does this form of pathology belong to?
1. Immediate type
2. Anaphylaxis
3. Atopic diseases
4. Atypical
5. *Delay type
2. A patient with acute pneumonia was intramuscularly injected with penicillin, after which the patient's
condition deteriorated sharply: shortness of breath appeared, the patient became covered with cold
sweat and lost consciousness. Pulse - 140 / min, weak filling. What complication most likely occurred in
the patient?
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. * Drug anaphylactic shock
3. Fainting
4. Infectious-toxic shock
5. Serum sickness
3. A patient with acute bronchopneumonia received an intramuscular injection of penicillin. After 30
minutes, she developed cyanosis of the lips, hyperemia of the face, tachycardia, and a decrease in blood
pressure. The doctor concluded that she had developed anaphylactic shock. Which of the listed
biologically active substances is a pathogenetic factor of anaphylactic shock in this case?
1. Adrenaline
2. Lysosomal enzymes
3. * Histamine
4. Lymphokines
5. Interleukins
4. In a patient with bronchial asthma, the level of bradykinin in the blood is three times higher. Activation
of which of the systems listed below most likely caused an increase in the amount of bradykinin in
this case?
1. Complement systems
2. Hageman factor
3. *Blood proteolytic enzymes
4. Proteolytic tissue enzymes
5. Lysosomal factors
5. During the medical examination, the children were given the Mantoux reaction. In two children it was positive.
Which of the following specific factors is responsible for a positive reaction?
1. Antibodies
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2. Leukocytes
3. Red blood cells
4. *T-lymphocytes
5. B-lymphocytes
6. After the introduction of ampicillin, the patient lost consciousness, blood pressure decreased to 80/40 mm Hg, heart rate -
90/min, RR - 24/min. What is the name of the first stage of the pathogenesis of the condition developed in the patient?
1. *Immunological
2. Stage of functional and structural disorders
3. Pathological
4. Biochemical
5. Pathophysiological
7. Over the past years, with the onset of poplar flowering, a man begins itching and hyperemia of the eyes, nose,
rhinorrhea, coughing, and a small urticarial rash of open parts of the body. The examination revealed a sharp
increase in the level of IgE. The allergist prescribed specific hyposensitizing therapy. How is this treatment carried
out?
1. Introduction of calcium chloride
2. Administration of antihistamines
3. *Repeated administration of small doses of the allergen
4. Single injection of a large dose of the allergen
5. Introduction of hormones of the adrenal cortex
8. After an injury to the right testicle, a month later the man developed pain in the left testicle. Objectively: the
skin over the testicle is red, swollen, the testicle is painful when touched, dense. What process is causing these
changes?
1. Paraallergy
2. The Arthus Phenomenon
3. Heteroallergy
4. * Autoallergy
5. Infectious process
9. After 15 years of work in the production of paints, a woman developed contact dermatitis of the upper limbs,
neck and face (hyperemia, rashes, pastosity). Which of the following conditions does this disease belong to?
1. Allergic reaction of immediate type
2. Immunodeficiency of the B-system
3. *Delayed allergic reaction
4. Late hypogammaglobulinemia
5. T-system immunodeficiency
10. A woman has pasty eyelids, lips, neck, mucous membrane of the tongue after she ate an orange. Previously,
oranges had rashes on the skin, itching. What pathogenetic mechanism is leading in the development of edema in
a woman?
1. Increase in hydrodynamic blood pressure in capillaries
2. Violation of lymphatic drainage
3. *Increased capillary permeability
4. Decreased oncotic blood pressure
5. Increased oncotic pressure of tissue fluid
11. A patient had an attack of shortness of breath at night with severe difficulty in breathing, which was heard in
the next room. Breathing was carried out with the help of auxiliary muscles. Bronchodilators improved the clinical
condition of the patient. A positive allergic reaction to poplar fluff was found. Which of the following types of
hypersensitivity reactions does this case belong to?
1. Cytotoxic reaction of immediate type
2. *Immediate type of humoral reaction due to IgE type immunoglobilins
3. Reactions of immune complexes
4. Immediate type of humoral reaction due to IgG type immunoglobulins
5. Delayed-type cellular hypersensitivity reaction
12. A man put antibiotic drops in both eyes. A few minutes later, swelling of the eyelids, lips, cheeks, cough appeared.
Which of the following conditions is typical for this clinical picture?
1. Anaphylactic shock
2. * Quincke's edema
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3. Collaptoid state 4. Bronchial
asthma attack 5. Idiosyncrasy
13. A week after the introduction with a prophylactic purpose, 3000 units. tetanus toxoid serum according to
Bezredko, the patient developed signs of serum sickness. What type of allergic reaction is most likely to cause
this disease? 1. As an autoallergic disease 2. According to the 1st type of allergy - reaginic 3. According to the
II type of allergy - cytotoxic 4. * According to the III type of allergy - immunocomplex 5. According to the
cell-mediated
14. A patient with allergies developed Quincke's edema (generalized edema of the soft tissues of the body).
Which of the pathogenetic factors of edema is triggering in this case? 1. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic
pressure 2. Decreased oncotic pressure of blood plasma 3. *Increased permeability of capillary walls 4.
Increased hydrodynamic pressure in capillaries 5. Increased osmotic pressure in tissues
15. In a patient, 48 hours after applying the ointment for rubbing "Efkamon" on the skin of the shoulder and
forearm, redness appeared, a rash in the form of bubbles, which indicated the development
allergic reaction. Determine the type of this reaction: 1.
Cytotoxic 2. Immunocomplex 3. *Delayed-type
hypersensitivity 4. Anaphylactic 5. Pseudo -allergic 16.
A 15-year-old patient developed an attack of bronchial
asthma while taking aspirin. What biologically active
substance provoked bronchospasm in this case? 1.
Bradykinin 2. Prostaglandins 3. *Leukotrienes 4. Adrenaline 5. Catecholamines
17. Examination of a patient revealed an insufficient amount of immunoglobulins. What cells of the immune
system produce immunoglobulin? 1. T-killers 2. *Plasma
3. T-helpers 4.
Macrophages 5.
Microphages
18. 2 hours after transfusion of allogeneic plasma, a patient with burns developed pain in the joints,
lower back, hemorrhagic rashes on the skin, and increased body temperature. Which of the allergic
reactions takes place in this case? 1. Autoimmune vasculitis 2. Anaphylaxis 3. Angioedema 4. Urticaria 5.
* Serum sickness 19. A 32-year-old woman was stung by a wasp. On the skin of the left cheek (at the
site of the bite) - swelling and hyperemia. What is the leading mechanism of edema in this case? 1.
Reduced blood oncotic pressure 2. *Increased capillary permeability 3. Difficulty in lymphatic drainage
4. Increased hydrodynamic blood pressure in capillaries 5. Increased tissue fluid oncotic pressure 20.
An HIV-infected person has frequent colds. What cells are primarily affected by the human
immunodeficiency virus?
1. *T-lymphocytes helpers 2.
B-lymphocytes
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3. Plasmocytes
4. Killer T-lymphocytes 5.
Suppressor T-lymphocytes
21. A sick child has an increased number of eosinophils. This may indicate: 1. Loss of a large
amount of blood 2. *Allergic process 3. Loss of a large amount of iron 4. Acute inflammatory
process 5. Chronic inflammatory process 22. During the first year of life, a child has frequent
bacterial infections. Allergic reaction to tuberculin is positive. What is immunodeficiency
associated with?
1. Congenital T-cell deficiency 2. Acquired
immunodeficiency 3. *Congenital B-cell deficiency
4. Congenital defect of T-suppressors 5. Congenital
combined (total) immunodeficiency 23. A 45-yearold woman developed an acute inflammatory disease during the
flowering period upper respiratory tract and eyes: hyperemia, edema, mucous discharge. What
type of leukocytosis will be the most characteristic in this case? 1. Basophilia 2. Neutrophilia 3.
Lymphocytosis 4. *Eosinophilia 5. Monocytosis
24. A 25-year-old man at the dentist's appointment a few minutes after washing his mouth with a
solution of furacillin developed a significant swelling of the lips. What type of allergic reaction was observed
in this case? 1. Immunocomplex 2. Delayed type hypersensitivity 3. Cytolytic 4. *Anaphylactic 5. Stimulant
25. A 25-year-old man complains of frequent inflammatory diseases of various localization. The
test for HIV infection was positive. Which of the following cell types is most significantly affected by
HIV?
1. Plasma cells 2. Killers 3.
*Helpers 4. Neutrophil
granulocytes 5. Monocytes
26. A patient developed a rejection reaction after transplantation of a foreign kidney graft. What are the
main effector cells involved in this immunological reaction? 1. *T-lymphocytes - cytotoxic 2. B-lymphocytes
3. T-lymphocytes - suppressors 4. T-lymphocytes - helpers 5. Plasmocytes
27. A patient after parenteral administration of an antibiotic after 25 minutes had nausea, weakness,
abdominal pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, rashes in the form of blisters appeared on the skin.
What stage of the allergic reaction was observed in the patient?
1. Immunological 2.
Sensitization 3.
Biochemical 4. *
Pathophysiological 5.
Pathochemical
28. It is known that bronchial asthma in patients develops according to the mechanism of immediate
type hypersensitivity, which sequentially includes 3 stages: 1. Pathophysiological, immunological,
pathochemical 2. Patochemical, immunological, pathophysiological
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3. *Immunological, pathochemical, pathophysiological
4. Pathochemical, pathophysiological, immunological
5. Pathophysiological, pathochemical, immunological
29. During the extraction of a tooth, a solution of novocaine was administered to a patient for pain relief. A few
minutes later, his blood pressure dropped, he lost consciousness, developed shortness of breath, convulsions.
What is the mechanism of anaphylactic shock?
1. Toxic effect of novocaine
2. *Sensitization to novocaine
3. Desensitization of the body
4. Autoallergic condition
5. Paraallergy
30. For pain relief during the removal of a carious tooth, a dentist introduced a novocaine solution to a patient. A
few minutes later, the patient developed symptoms of anaphylactic shock: a drop in blood pressure, increased
respiration, loss of consciousness, convulsions. What type of reactions can this condition be attributed to?
1. *Immediate type hypersensitivity
2. Cytolysis or cytotoxic reactions
3. Reactions like the Arthus phenomenon
4. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
5. Stimulating allergic reactions
31. In newborn rat pups, the thymus gland was removed in the experiment. At the same time, a disease developed,
which is characterized by a sharp decrease in lymphocytes in the blood, the development of infections,
splenomegaly, stunted growth and death. What dysfunction of the immune system is observed in this case?
1. Combined defect of T- and B-lymphocytes
2. Hyperfunction of the B-lymphocyte system
3. Hyperfunction of the T-lymphocyte system
4. Insufficiency of the B-lymphocyte system
5. * Insufficiency of the T-lymphocyte system
32. A nurse in a manipulation room with 20 years of experience developed contact dermatitis of the upper extremities.
What type of immune disorders does this disease belong to?
1. Primary immunodeficiency
2. *Delayed allergic reaction
3. Allergic reaction of immediate type
4. B-cell immunodeficiency
5. T-cell immunodeficiency
33. A patient has DiGeorge's syndrome, which is based on hypoplasia of the thymus gland. What form of immune
pathology does this disease belong to?
1. Macrophage deficiency
2. Acquired immunodeficiency in the T-lymphocyte system
3. * Congenital immunodeficiency in the T-lymphocyte system
4. Congenital immunodeficiency in the B-lymphocyte system
5. Acquired immunodeficiency in the B-lymphocyte system
34. After being vaccinated with DTP, an 11-year-old boy died with a clinical picture of scarlet fever. When studying
the history of the development of the child, it was found that he periodically had petechial rashes on the skin of the
hands and feet, eczema. The patient died due to the presence of:
1. Deficiency of the B-lymphocyte system
2. Deficiency of the T-lymphocyte system
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. *Combined immunodeficiency
5. Hemophilia
35. A patient was injected with 500 thousand units of streptomycin into a muscle. After 5 minutes, he felt nausea,
weakness, abdominal pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, rashes appeared on the skin in the form of blisters.
What stage of the allergic reaction is noted in the patient?
1. Patochemical
2. Biochemical
3. Immunological
4. Sensitization
5. * Pathophysiological
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36. A newborn baby has been in contact with a person with measles and did not get sick. What underlies this
phenomenon?
1. Acquired immunity
2. Imperfection of thermoregulation
3. Imperfect immune system
4. Features of the degree of development of the central nervous system
5. *Innate immunity
37. After a bee sting, a patient developed sharp pain, hyperemia, and edema in the area of the forearm
tissue. After 10 minutes, the patient's condition deteriorated sharply: there was a sharp pallor of the skin,
frequent pulse, cold sweat. Blood pressure dropped to 80/50 mmHg. What pathological process was
observed in this patient?
1. * Anaphylactic shock
2. Collapse
3. Acute hypotension
4. Atopic Allergy
5. Cardiogenic shock
+38. The patient developed urticaria, itching of the skin, swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, swelling
of the lymph nodes 9 days after the administration of the therapeutic serum. What disease has developed?
1. Hay fever
2. * Serum sickness
3. The Schwartzman phenomenon
4. The Overry Phenomenon
5. Quincke's edema
39. A patient has been diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis. Antithyroid bodies were found in the blood. What type
of allergic reaction according to Coombs and Gell is observed during the development of this disease?
1. Immunocomplex
2. *Stimulating
3. Anaphylactic
4. Cytotoxic
5. Delayed hypersensitivity
40. A patient with extensive burns underwent transplantation of donor skin. But on the 8th day the
graft edema, its color changed and on the 11th day it began to be rejected. What cells are involved in this?
1. B-lymphocytes
2. Red blood cells
3. Basophils
4. *T-lymphocytes
5. Eosinophils
41. A month after prosthetics, the patient went to the dentist with complaints of redness and swelling
of the oral mucosa. Diagnosis: allergic stomatitis. What type of allergic reaction according to Gell and
Coombs underlies this disease?
1. Reagin
2. Immunocomplex
3. Cytotoxic
4. Stimulant
5. *Delayed action hypersensitivity
42. An animal sensitized with tuberculin was intraperitoneally injected with tuberculin. After 24 hours,
laparotomy revealed venous hyperemia and peritoneal edema. In smears-impressions from the
peritoneum, a large number of lymphocytes and monocytes. What type of inflammation is observed in an animal?
1. Purulent
2. Serous
3. *Allergic
4. Fibrinous
5. Aseptic
43. In a child with diphtheria, 10 days after the administration of antitoxic antidiphtheria
serum, rashes on the skin appeared, which were accompanied by severe itching, body temperature
increased to 380C, pains in the joints appeared. What is the reason for these phenomena?
1. Atopy
2. Anaphylactic reaction
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3. Contact allergy
4. * Serum sickness
5. Delayed action hypersensitivity
44. In a patient with clinical signs of immunodeficiency, the number and functional activity of T- and B-lymphocytes
are not changed. Examination at the molecular level revealed a defect in which the function of antigen presentation
to immunocompetent cells was impaired. Which cell defect is most likely?
1. Fibroblasts, T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes
2. T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes
3. * Macrophages, monocytes
4. NK cells
5. O-lymphocytes
45. A 27-year-old patient dripped drops containing penicillin into her eyes. A few minutes later, itching and burning of
the skin, swelling of the lips and eyelids, wheezing cough appeared, and blood pressure began to decrease. What
immunoglobulins are involved in the development of this allergic reaction?
1. *Igÿ ÿ IgG
2. IgA and IgM
3. IgG ÿ IgD
4. IgM and IgG
5. IgM and IgD
46. A child has signs of inflammation around a scratch on the skin: pain, redness, swelling as signs of immediate
hypersensitivity. What blood cells cause these changes?
1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. * Basophils
5. Eosinophils
47. A patient with pneumonia receives benzylpenicillin sodium salt at a dose of 500,000 IU 6 times a day. After the
next injection of the drug, fever, loss of consciousness, convulsions developed. What has developed in the patient?
1. Idiosyncrasy
2. * Anaphylactic shock
3. Cumulation
4. Tolerance
5. Tachyphylaxis
48. If tuberculosis is suspected, a sick child has a Mantoux test. After 24 hours, swelling, hyperemia and
soreness appeared at the allergen injection site. What are the main components that determine this reaction of the
body?
1. Macrophages, B-lymphocytes and monocytes
2. Plasma cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
3. Granulocytes, T-lymphocytes and IgG
4. B-lymphocytes, IgM
5. *Mononuclear cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
49. A patient with periodic attacks of suffocation that occurs when inhaling various aromatic substances has
been diagnosed with bronchial asthma. An increase in IgE is determined. What type of reaction is this typical
for?
1. Delayed action hypersensitivity
2. Cytotoxic
3. Immunocomplex
4. Autoimmune
5. * Anaphylactic
50. A woman consulted a doctor with complaints that in the spring she has a runny nose, hoarseness of voice,
redness of the eyelids. What type of allergic reaction according to Gell and Coombs develops in this case?
A. Immunocomplex
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. * Anaphylactic
D. Stimulant
E. Cytoxic
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+51. A few minutes later, after repeated administration of penicillin, the patient developed shortness of
breath, numbness of the tongue, dizziness, hyperemia, and then pale skin. What caused such a serious
condition of the patient? 1. Bronchial asthma 2. Acute glomerelonephritis 3. Serum sickness 4. *Anaphylactic
shock 5. Hemolytic anemia
52. A patient has an allergic reaction, accompanied by itching, swelling and redness of the skin.
The concentration of what biogenic amine increased in tissues? 1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3.
*Histamine 4. Gamma-aminobutyric acid 5. Tryptamine
53. During blood transfusion, the patient began to develop intravascular hemolysis of erythrocytes. What
type of hypersensitivity does the patient develop?
1. Type III hypersensitivity (immunocomplex) 2. Type IV
hypersensitivity (cellular cytotoxicity) 3. *Type II hypersensitivity
(antibody-dependent) 4. Type V hypersensitivity (granulomatosis) 5.
Type I hypersensitivity (anphylactic)
54. A 10-year-old child has a Mantoux test (with tuberculin). After 48 hours, a papule up to 8 mm in diameter
appeared at the tuberculin injection site. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the introduction
of tuberculin?
1. *Type IV hypersensitivity reaction 2. Serum
sickness type reaction 3. Type III hypersensitivity
reaction 4. Atopic reaction 5. Arthus phenomenon
type reaction
55. After analyzing the immunogram, the child was diagnosed with primary immunodeficiency of the humoral link
of immunity. Which of the reasons can lead to the development of primary immunodeficiency in a child's body? 1.
Violations of the reactivity and resistance of the body 2. Toxic damage to B-lymphocytes 3. Metabolic disorders
in the mother's body 4. * Hereditary disorders in the immune system 5. Disorders in the process of embryonic
development
56. A patient has been diagnosed with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, which develops according to the cytotoxic
type. What substances are antigens in type II allergic reactions? 1. Inflammation modulators 2. Modified cell
membrane receptors 3. Hormones 4. *Whey proteins 5. Antibiotics
57. A child was born with a cleft palate. The examination revealed defects of the aorta, in the blood - a
decrease in T-lymphocytes. What is the immunodeficiency syndrome in a newborn? 1. *Di Giorgi 2.
Swiss type 3. Louis-Barr 4. Wiskott-Aldrich 5. Chediak-Higashi
58. A patient developed anaphylactic shock after the administration of novocaine. What antibodies
are responsible for the development of this allergic reaction?
1. * Ig E
2. Ig ÿ 3.
Ig D 4. Ig
ÿ 5. Ig G
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59. In case of immediate allergic reactions, degranulation of tissue basophils occurs, which secrete
biologically active substances. One of these substances is:
1. * Histamine
2. Acetylcholine 3.
Profibrinolysin 4.
Hagemann factor 5.
Complement system
60. A patient underwent kidney transplantation. A few days later, the graft was rejected.
What type of allergic reactions does this complication belong to?
1. *Delayed type 2.
Immediate type 3.
Anaphylaxis 4. Atopy
5. 61. Preventive vaccination with weakened microorganisms causes the body to produce antibodies to these
microbes. What cells are antibody-producing cells of the immune system? 1. *Plasmocytes 2. T-lymphocytes
3. Macrophages 4. NK cells 5. T-helpers
62. A child 1 hour after taking multivitamins in the form of syrup developed rashes all over
his body like urticaria with a pronounced sensation of itching. What type of allergic reaction are these
manifestations?
1. *Anaphylactic 2.
Immunocomplex 3.
Cytotoxic 4. Delayed-type
hypersensitivity 5. Autoallergic 63. A child after
eating strawberries developed itchy red spots on
the skin (urticaria). What type of allergic reactions according to the classification of Gell
and Coombs does this reaction belong to? 1. *Reaginic (anaphylactic) 2. Cytotoxic (cytolysis) 3.
Immunocomplex (Arthus reaction) 4. Cell-mediated 5. Stimulating 64. After eating strawberries, a
child developed itchy red spots on the skin, that is, urticaria appeared. What component of the
immune system did the allergen interact with in the body?
+
1. *IgE.
2. IGM.
3. IGA.
4. T-helpers 5. Teffectors
65. After eating strawberries, a girl developed itchy red spots on her skin (urticaria).
Which of the biologically active substances is released during degranulation of tissue basophils? 1. *Histamine
2. Bradykinin 3. Prostaglandin I2 4. Complement proteins 5. Interleukin-1 66. Patient P. after an injury needed
to administer tetanus toxoid, but the serum sensitivity test was positive. How to conduct specific
hyposensitization in a patient? Introduction:
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1. *Small fractional doses of a specific allergen 2.
Physiological doses of glucocorticoids 3. Permissive
doses of a specific allergen 4. Therapeutic doses of
antihistamines 5. Narcotic substances that reduce
sensitivity
67. A 2-year-old child has been diagnosed with thymus hypoplasia. What indicator of the state of the immune
system is the most typical for this immunodeficiency? 1. *Decrease in the number of T-lymphocytes 2.
Decrease in the number of B-lymphocytes 3. Deficiency of T and B-lymphocytes 4. Absence of plasma
cells 5. Decrease in immunoglobulins M . What factor of the immune system plays a decisive role in
the development of this immunopathological condition?
1. *IGE.
2. IGD.
3.IGM. 4.
Sensitized T-lymphocytes 69. Novocaine
was used during surgical procedures for pain relief. In 10 minutes. the patient developed pallor
of the skin, shortness of breath, hypotension. What type of allergic reaction can be suspected?
1. *Anaphylactic 2. Cytotoxic 3. Immunocomplex 4. Stimulating 5. Cell-mediated 70. A local
anesthetic solution was administered to a patient for pain relief. A few minutes later, the
patient developed shortness of breath, tachycardia, loss of consciousness. What kind of
shock developed in the patient?
1. *Anaphylactic 2.
Cardiogenic 3. Hemorrhagic
4. Traumatic 5. Burn
71. The hospitalized patient was diagnosed with a lack of immunity, which led to a decrease
in resistance to viral infection. Which cell deficiency is most likely?
A. *T-lymphocytes
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Neutrophils E.
Fibroblasts 72. A
patient with allergy symptoms has impaired nasal breathing, serous discharge from the nose, redness of the
eyes and lacrimation. What stage of an allergic reaction do these manifestations correspond to?
A. Biochemical B. *
Pathophysiological C.
Immunological D.
Proliferation E. Compensation
73. The patient after
parenteral administration of vitamin B6 developed anaphylactic shock with symptoms of bronchospasm,
decreased blood pressure, cyanosis and seizures. Which mediator of anaphylaxis causes a drop in blood
pressure?
A. Heparin
B. * Histamine
C. Catecholamines
D. Glucocorticoids E.
Thromboxane 74.
After injection of the drug, the patient developed itching, skin rash, difficulty breathing, blood pressure is
70/40 mm Hg, dizziness. What an allergic reaction to Coombs and Jell
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presumably developed in a patient?
A. Cytolysis
B. * Anaphylactic C.
Type of Arthus phenomenon
D. Delayed type E. Stimulating
type 75. At what stage of an
allergic reaction is the release and formation of allergy mediators?
A. Progression
B. Pathophysiological
C. Immunological D.
Exudation E. *
Pathochemical 76. A
few hours after the introduction of tuberculin at the site of its introduction there was redness, itching, tightness of
the skin. The size of the site of inflammation and the intensity of its manifestations increased within 48 hours.
What type of allergic reaction is a positive tuberculin test?
A. Stimulating.
B. Anaphylactic.
C. Cytotoxic.
D. Immunocomplex.
E. * Delayed type hypersensitivity. 77. In the
dental office of the district clinic after the introduction of lidocaine, the patient developed anaphylactic
shock. Which of these immunoglobulins cause the development of anaphylactic shock?
A. *Ig E
B. Ig M
C. Ig A
D. - E. Ig
D 78. A
patient injured in a car accident developed the first symptoms of tetanus 7 days later. He was prescribed a
course of treatment with tetanus toxoid and the patient began to recover. Two weeks later, the patient had a fever,
swollen lymph nodes, swelling of the joints, rash, itching, and a violation of the cardiovascular system. What is the
name of the condition that arose in the patient?
A. * Serum sickness B.
Urticaria C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Dysbacteriosis
E. Quincke's
edema 79. In patients with brucellosis, a positive Burne skin test is observed. What factor in the
immune system plays a crucial role in the development of an inflammatory reaction at the site of
brucellosis administration in these patients?
A. * Sensitized T lymphocytes.
B. IgA.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgD.
80. To diagnose generalized herpes infection, blood serum was examined to remove specific antibodies of a certain
class. Which class of antibodies indicate an acute stage of viral infection?
A. * Ig M
B. Ig A C.
Ig E D. Ig
G E. Ig D
81. In
order to diagnose HIV infection, blood serum is examined for the detection of specific
antibodies by solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. What enzymatic antibodies are used?
A. * Against human immunoglobulins.
B. Against HIV antigens.
C. Against gp120 protein.
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D. Against gp17 protein.
E. Against gp41 protein.
82. A 54-year-old woman, D., complained to a doctor about her recent intolerance to chicken egg intolerance.
Antihistamines prescribed by a doctor led to some improvement in the patient's condition. What antibodies
could have contributed to this reaction?
A. * Ig E
B. Ig A
C. Ig D
D. IgG
E. IgM
83. Passive sensitization was performed to model anaphylactic shock in guinea pigs. What
should be introduced for passive sensitization?
A. * Specific immunoglobulins.
B. Horse serum C.
Sensitized T-lymphocytes D. Tissue
basophils E. B-lymphocytes 84. At
development of anaphylactic reactions
the expressed hyperemia, hypostasis, pain are observed. Which mediator of anaphylaxis determines the
development of the above disorders?
A. * Histamine
B. Heparin
C. Chemotaxis factors D.
Platelet activation factor E. Complement
proteins 85. Immediately after repeated
administration of the antibiotic, the patient developed shortness of breath, fear, lower blood pressure.
What type of allergic reaction underlie this condition in a patient?
A. * Anaphylactic B.
Humoral cytotoxic C.
Immunocomplex D. Cellular
cytotoxic E. Stimulating 86. A 23year-old patient was found to
have swelling and itching of the lips after using a new lipstick, and 2 days later a red crust. lip borders. What type of
allergic reaction is most likely?
A. * Anaphylactic B.
Cytotoxic C.
Immunocomplex D.
Delayed
E. Stimulant 87. A
few minutes after intravenous administration of the drug, the patient's blood pressure dropped to 70/30 mm. rt. Art.
Which of the chemical mediators of anaphylaxis causes vasodilation and shock?
A. * Histamine
B. Heparin
C. Interleukins D.
Eosinophil chemotaxis factor E. Neutrophil
chemotaxis factor 88. Examination of a
patient who has been taking glucocorticoids for a long time revealed lymphopenia. How can we
characterize the functional state of the patient's immune system?
A. Secondary immunodeficiency
B. Primary immunodeficiency C.
Congenital immunodeficiency D.
Tolerance to auto antigens E.
Anaphylaxis , erythema and severe
itching, and after a while - urticaria, expiratory dyspnea. As a result of which factors did the patient develop expiratory
dyspnea?
A. * Histamine
B. Hageman factor
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C. Lysosomal enzymes D.
Norepinephrine E. Adrenaline 90. A
man in late spring shows signs of
rhinitis, redness of the conjunctiva. Elevated levels of eosinophils were found in the blood. What is the type of allergic reaction
in men?
A. * Anaphylactic.
B. Cytotoxic.
C. Immunocomplex.
D. Delayed type hypersensitivity.
E. Stimulant. 91. With
the repeated introduction of an allergen in a guinea pig, the release of histamine by mast blood cells begins. What level of reactivity
does such a response of the body belong to?
A. * Cellular B.
Subcellular C. Molecular
D. Organic E. Systemic
92. A patient developed
anaphylactic shock after
administration of tetanus toxoid. What cells secrete mediators in the classical variant of anaphylaxis?
A. * Fat cells B.
Eosinophils C. Tlymphocytes D.
Neutrophils E. Blymphocytes 93. An
ambulance doctor diagnosed the patient with anaphylactic shock accompanied by bronchospasm. The release of
which biologically active substance by tissue basophils causes such clinical symptoms?
A. * Histamine B.
Heparin C.
Bradykinin D.
Prostaglandins E.
Leukotrienes 94. During
haymaking, one of the workers had a fever, chills, tearing, and runny nose. The worker said that he has it every
year at such a time. What type of allergic reaction, according to Coombs and Jell, did the worker develop?
A. * Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.
E. Type V.
95. During examination by an allergist, a patient was diagnosed with polynoses. How can specific desensitization
be carried out?
A. * Small introduction of allergen B.
Antihistamines C. Glucocorticoids D. Introduction
of saline E. - 96. A woman who was injected
with anesthetic before tooth extraction, suddenly
reddened face, shortness of breath, swollen lips. What
factors determine the development of edema in this situation?
A. * Histamine B.
Immunoglobulins C.
Hageman's factor D.
Lysosomal enzymes E. Adrenaline
97. A 40-year-old man was injected
with a solution of lidocaine in the treatment of pulpitis. A few minutes later the patient developed tachycardia, a sharp decrease in blood
pressure. Which of the following conditions developed in the patient?
A. * Anaphylactic shock.
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B. Crash syndrome.
C. Bronchial spasm.
D. Stress-adaptation syndrome.
E. Opium shock.
98. A boy in the second year of life began to get sick frequently with respiratory diseases,
stomatitis, pustular lesions of the skin. Even minor damage to the gums and mucous membranes
is complicated by long-term inflammation. It has been established that there are practically no
immunoglobulins of all classes in the child's blood. Decreased functional activity of what cell
population underlies the described syndrome?
A. *B-lymphocytes
B. T-lymphocytes C.
Neutrophils D.
Macrophages E. NKlymphocytes 99.
After treatment at the dentist, a patient developed itchy red spots on the skin. Was diagnosed with
urticaria. What component of the immune system interacts with the allergen in this type of allergic reaction?
A. * IgE
B. T-helpers.
C. T-effectors D.
Ig.A E. IgM 100. 30
minutes after
treatment at the dentist, the patient developed red itchy spots on the skin of the face and oral mucosa. Was
diagnosed with urticaria. Which of the biologically active substances that cause vasodilation and itching is
released during this type of allergic reaction?
A. * Histamine
B. Prostaglandin E2 C.
Leukotriene B4 D.
Interleukin-1 E.
Bradykinin 101. Before
tooth extraction, the patient underwent conduction anesthesia with novocaine, after
which edema and hyperemia appeared around the injection site, itching of the skin, general
weakness, hypotension, motor agitation. What is the name of the complication?
A. * allergy B.
idiosyncrasy C.
tachyphylaxis D.
drug dependence E. inflammation
102. A 25-year-old man was
admitted to the admission department of an infectious disease hospital. After the examination, he was
diagnosed with AIDS. Which cells are affected by immunodeficiency?
A. *T-helpers
B. T-killers C.
T-suppressors
D. Plasma cells
E. Mast cells (tissue basophils) 103.
A 20-year-old boy has an injured right testicle. What danger can this be for the left (healthy) testicle 2-3
weeks after the injury? A. Development of atrophy B. Development of an infectious process C. *Antigen
unmasking and antibody damage D. Development of hypertrophy E. No threat 104. A 5-month-old boy's
immune status revealed a decrease in immunoglobulins, especially IgA and IgM. There are no B-lymocytes
and plasma cells in the blood and lymph nodes. The reactions of T-lymphocytes are preserved. The disease
is transmitted by heredity as sex-linked. What pathology is observed in this child?
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A.* Bruton's disease
B. Louis-Barr syndrome
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome D.
Swiss type immunodeficiency E. Early
hypogammaglobulinemia 105. In an HIVinfected patient, suppression of the immune system activity is observed. Damage of what cells to the
greatest extent determines the state of immunodeficiency in this patient? A. T-killers B. T-suppressors
C. Macrophages D. B-lymphocytes E. *T-helpers 106. The study of the state of the immune system of a
patient with chronic fungal skin lesions revealed a violation of cellular immunity. What indicators decrease
is most typical for this? A. Plasma cells B. Immunoglobulins G C. Immunoglobulins E D. B-lymphocytes
E. *T-lymphocytes 107. A 1.5-year-old boy is constantly ill with pyoderma and had pneumonia three
times. The amount of immunoglobulins G and A is reduced in the blood. What type of immunodeficiency
has developed in the child? A. Swiss type B. *Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia C. Hypoplasia of the
thymus D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome E. Louis-Barr syndrome 108. Japanese doctor Masugi caused the
development of glomerulonephritis in rats by introducing rat kidney homogenate to a rabbit. A few weeks
later, sensitized rabbit serum was injected into rats. What type of allergic reaction according to Gell and
Coombs underlies the development of glomerulonephritis in rats? A. Anaphylactic B. *Cytotoxic C.
Immunocomplex D. Delayed type hypersensitivity E. Stimulating 109. In order to reduce autoimmune
reactions after organ transplantation, a course of hormone therapy is mandatory. What hormones are
used for this purpose? A. Adrenaline.
B. Mineralocorticoids.
C. Sex hormones.
D. * Glucocorticoids.
E. Somatotropic hormone.
110. A pre-sensitized guinea pig was injected intravenously with 10 ml of horse serum and
after half a minute it was noted: the coat is ruffled, the animal sneezes, coughs, scratches
its muzzle, breathing is difficult, convulsive, involuntary defecation and urination. What
stage of anaphylactic shock is observed in an animal?
A. Pathochemical
B. Sensitization C. *
Pathophysiological D.
Immunological E. 111. After a streptococcal infection, a man was diagnosed with acute glomerolonephritis. It is
most likely that damage to the basement membrane of the glomeruli is associated with an allergic
reaction. What type? A. Delayed type B. Anaphylactic type C. Cytotoxic type
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D. *Immunocomplex type E.
Stimulating type 112. While
playing, a child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a polyclinic for administration of tetanus
toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, therapeutic serum was administered
according to Bezredka. What mechanism underlies this method of hyposensitization of the organism?
A. Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific
IgG B. Blocking the synthesis of mediators in mast cells
C. Stimulation of immunological tolerance to antigen D. *
Binding of IgE fixed on mast cells E. Binding of IgE receptors
on mast cells 113. The patient was diagnosed with
thyrotoxicosis. Antithyroid antibodies were found in the blood. What type of allergic reaction
according to Coombs and Jell is observed in the development of this disease?
A. Cytotoxic B.
Anaphylactic C. *
Stimulant D.
Immunocomplex E.
Delayed type hypersensitivity 114. A
27-year-old woman complained of itching and burning in the eyes, tearing, sneezing, and runny
nose. The symptoms appeared after a trip out of town in the summer. Diagnosed with hay fever. What
type of allergic reaction developed with the existing disease?
A. Stimulating
B. Cytotoxic C.
Reaction of immune complexes D. Delayed
sensitivity E. * Anaphylactic 115. In a 14year-old girl, expiratory dyspnea. The
condition developed after playing with a dog. Has a history of bronchial asthma. Which of the
following biologically active substance is most likely to cause spasm of the smooth muscles of the
girl's bronchioles?
A. Serotonin
B. Thromboxane
A2 C. * Leukotriene
D4 D. Bradykinin
E. Acetylcholine
116. A 6-year-old child with frequent respiratory diseases has
eczematous phenomena after taking citrus fruits, a tendency to a protracted course
inflammatory processes. What type of diathesis can be assumed in this case?
A. Asthenic
B. Hemorrhagic C.
Lymphatic-hypoplastic D.
Neuroarthritic E. * Exudativecatarrhal 117. Patient A. in August
after work in the country developed a condition characterized by a doctor as a state of increased
and qualitatively altered response to the intake of compounds antigenic or haptenic nature. Which of
the following conditions best fits the characteristics described by the doctor?
A. Paraallergy
B. Anaphylaxis
C. *Allergy D.
Tachyphylaxis
E. Immunological tolerance
protein appeared. Serum sickness was diagnosed. What is an important factor in the
pathogenesis of this syndrome?
A. Activation of T-killers.
B. Degranulation of tissue basophils.
C. *Accumulation of circulating immune complexes in the blood
D. Macrophage activation
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E. Cytolysis of blood cells
119. After taking amidopyrine, the patient developed leukopenia. Antileukocyte antibodies were found
in the blood. What type of allergic reaction according to Coombs and Jell arose in this case?
A. Immunocomplex.
B. Stimulating
C. Anaphylactic.
D. Delayed type hypersensitivity.
E. * Cytotoxic.
120. A two-year-old child was diagnosed with thymic hypoplasia. What is the most characteristic indicator of the
state of the immune system for this immunodeficiency?
A. Deficiency of T and B lymphocytes
B. Decrease in the number of B-lymphocytes
C. * Decrease in the number of T lymphocytes
D. Absence of plasma cells
E. Decrease in immunoglobulins M
121. An 18-year-old girl 5 hours after taking seafood on the skin of the trunk and distal parts of the extremities, small
itchy papules appeared, partly merging with each other. A day later, the rash spontaneously disappeared. Name the
mechanism of hypersensitivity underlying these changes:
1. Immune complex hypersensitivity
2. *Atopy (local anaphylaxis)
3. Systemic anaphylaxis
4. Antibody-mediated cell cytolysis
5. Cellular cytotoxicity
122. A patient's blood transfusion was complicated by the development of hemotransfusion shock. Name the type of
allergic reaction underlying this pathology:
1. Immunocomplex
2. Receptor-mediated
3. Delayed hypersensitivity
4. * Cytotoxic
5. Anaphylactic
+123. What condition can develop 15-30 minutes after the re-introduction of the antigen due to an increased
level of antibodies, mainly IgE, which are adsorbed on the surface of target cells - tissue basophils (mast cells)
and blood basophils?
1. * Anaphylaxis
2. Immune complex hypersensitivity
3. Serum sickness
4. Delayed hypersensitivity
5. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
124. In patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), immunological reactivity sharply
decreases, which is manifested by the development of chronic inflammatory processes, infectious diseases, and
tumor growth. What type of cells are damaged by HIV infection, resulting in a decrease in immune defense?
1. B-lymphocytes
2. T-suppressors
3. * T4 helpers
4. Natural killers (NK)
5. E8 effectors
125. A 10-year-old child developed nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria, hematuria, cylindruria) 2 weeks after suffering
from tonsillitis, which indicates damage to the basement membrane of the glomeruli of the kidneys. What is the most
likely mechanism underlying basement membrane damage?
1. *Immunocomplex
2. Grunulomatous
3. Antibody
4. Cytotoxic
5. Reaginic
126. A 36-year-old man was diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis after a streptococcal infection. It is most
likely that damage to the basement membrane of the renal corpuscles occurs
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due to an allergic reaction of this type: 1.
*Immunocomplex 2. Delayed 3. Cytotoxic 4.
Stimulating 5. Anaphylactic
127. Tuberculin was administered to a man for the diagnosis of tuberculosis. Redness appeared at the
injection site, which increased in size within two days. What type of allergic reaction has developed in a
person to tuberculin? 1. Anaphylactic 2. – 3. *Cell-mediated 4. Immune complex 5. Stimulant allergic reaction
128. In response to the use of analgesics during tooth extraction, the patient developed: severe
swelling of the soft tissues of the lower and upper jaws, rash on the skin, redness, itching. Which
of the pathological processes underlies such a reaction to the anesthetic?
A. * Allergies.
B. Toxic effect of the drug.
C. Inflammation.
D. Insufficiency of blood circulation.
E. Impaired lymphatic flow. 129.
Novocaine solution was administered to a patient for pain relief during the extraction of a carious tooth by a
dentist. A few minutes later, the patient developed symptoms: a drop in blood pressure, increased respiration,
loss of consciousness, convulsions. What type of allergic reactions can this condition be attributed to?
A. * Anaphylactic B.
Cytotoxic C. Immunocomplex
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. Stimulant 130. The dental surgeon before
extracting a tooth for analgesia administered
ultracaine to the patient. The sensitivity test was not performed. A few minutes after drug administration, the patient
developed anaphylactic shock. Which cells produce reagents involved in anaphylactic-type reactions?
A. * Plasma cells.
B. B-lymphocytes.
C. T lymphocytes.
D. Mast cells.
E. Eosinophils.
131. A teenager had a tooth removed with novocaine. After 10 minutes, he developed pale skin,
shortness of breath, and hypotension. What type of allergic reaction did the teenager have?
A. * Anaphylactic B.
Cytotoxic C.
Immunocomplex D.
Cell-mediated E. Stimulant
132. An adolescent had a
tooth removed with novocaine. After 10 minutes he developed pale skin, shortness of breath,
and hypotension. How does an allergen react to tissue basophils?
A. * IgE.
B. Igÿ.
C. Igÿ.
D. IgM.
E. T-lymphocytes
133. A bone marrow transplant was performed on the liquidator of the consequences of the accident
at the NPP, who received a large dose of radiation. Some time after the operation the patient
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diagnosed with the development of graft-versus-host disease. What antigens served
trigger for this reaction?
A. * Antigens of the HLA system of cells of the liquidator's body.
B. Antigens of the Rh erythrocyte liquidator system.
C. Antigens HBs, HBc, HBE.
D. Antigens of the ABO system of erythrocyte liquidator.
E. Antigens of the HLA system of donor cells.
134. A patient at a dental hospital is suspected of having HIV infection. Which of the following
subpopulations of immunocompetent cells damaged in AIDS in the first place?
A. T-helper
B. T-suppressors
+ C. T-killers
D. B-lymphocytes
E. Macrophages
Task 1. A young surgeon developed contact dermatitis, which manifested itself as
inflammatory lesions of the skin of the hands, aggravated after washing the hands in
preparation for the operation. What type of allergic reactions does this form of
pathology belong to?
a.Immediate type
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Atopic diseases
D. Atypical
E.Delay type
Task 2. Penicillin was administered intramuscularly to a patient with acute pneumonia,
after which the patient's condition deteriorated sharply: shortness of breath appeared,
the patient became covered with cold sweat and lost consciousness. Pulse - 140 / min,
weak filling. What is the most likely complication
sick?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Medical anaphylactic shock
C. Fainting
D. Infectious-toxic shock
E. Serum sickness
Task 3. A patient with acute bronchopneumonia received an intramuscular
injection of penicillin. After 30 minutes, she developed cyanosis of the lips, flushing of
the face, tachycardia, and a drop in blood pressure. The doctor concluded that she had
developed anaphylactic shock. Which of the listed biologically active substances is
related to the mechanism of development of anaphylactic shock in this case?
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A. Adrenaline
B. Gastrin
C. Histamine
D.Renin
E.Insulin
Task 4. The level of bradykinin in the blood of a patient with bronchial asthma is three times
higher. Activation of which of the systems listed below most likely caused an increase in the
amount of bradykinin in this case?
A. Complement systems
B. Hageman factor
C. Blood proteolytic enzymes
D. Tissue proteolytic enzymes
E. Lysosomal factors
Task 5. During the medical examination, the children were given the Mantoux reaction. In
two children it was positive. Which of the following specific factors is responsible for a
positive reaction?
A. Antibodies
B.Leukocytes
C.Erythrocytes
D.T-lymphocytes
E.B-lymphocytes
Task 6. After administration of ampicillin, the patient lost consciousness, blood pressure decreased to 80/40
mm Hg, heart rate - 90/min, respiratory rate - 24/min. What is the name of the first stage of the pathogenesis
of the condition developed in the patient?
A. Immunological
B. Stage of functional and structural disorders
C. Pathochemical
D. Biochemical
E. Pathophysiological
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Task 7. As a result of treatment with amidopyrine, the patient has a reduced number
of leukocytes, a high titer of antileukocyte antibodies. What type of allergic reaction
according to Coombs and Gill occurred in this case?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Immunocomplex
D. Stimulating
E. Delayed hypersensitivity
Task 8. Over the past years, with the onset of poplar flowering, a man begins to have
itching and hyperemia of the eyes, nose, rhinorrhea, coughing, and a small urticarial rash
of open parts of the body. The examination revealed a sharp increase in the level of IgE.
The allergist prescribed specific hyposensitizing therapy. How is this treatment carried out?
A. Introduction of calcium chloride
B. Administration of antihistamines
C. Repeated administration of small doses of the allergen
D. Single injection of a large dose of the allergen
E. Administration of adrenal cortex hormones
Task 9. After an injury to the right testicle, a month later the man developed pain in the
left testicle. Objectively: the skin over the testicle is red, swollen, the testicle is painful
when touched, dense. What process is causing these changes?
A. Paraallergy
B. The Arthus Phenomenon
C. Heteroallergy
D. Autoallergy
E. Infectious process
Task 10. A woman has pasty eyelids, lips, neck, mucous membrane of the tongue after
she ate an orange. Previously, oranges had rashes on the skin, itching. What pathogenetic
mechanism is leading in the development of edema in a woman?
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A. Increase in hydrodynamic blood pressure in capillaries
B. Violation of lymphatic drainage
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Decreased oncotic blood pressure
E. Increased oncotic pressure of tissue fluid
Task 11. A man dripped drops containing penicillin into both eyes. A few minutes later, swelling of
the eyelids, lips, cheeks, cough appeared. Which of the following conditions is typical for this
clinical picture?
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Quincke's edema
C. Collaptoid state
D. Asthma attack
E. Idiosyncrasies
Task 12. A week after the introduction of 3000 units for prophylaxis. tetanus toxoid
serum according to Bezredko, the patient developed signs of serum sickness. What type
of allergic reaction is most likely to cause this disease?
A. As an autoallergic disease
B. According to type 1 allergy - reaginic
C. According to the II type of allergy - cytotoxic
D. Type III allergy and immunocomplex
E. By cell-mediated
Task 13. A 15-year-old patient developed an attack of bronchial asthma while using
aspirin. What biologically active substance provoked bronchospasm in this case?
A. Bradykinin
B. Prostaglandins
C. Leukotrienes
D. Adrenaline
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E. Catecholamines
Task 14. A 32-year-old woman was stung by a wasp. On the skin of the left cheek (at the site of
the bite) - swelling and hyperemia. What is the leading mechanism of edema in this case?
A. Decreased oncotic blood pressure
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Difficulty in lymph flow
D. Increase in hydrodynamic blood pressure in capillaries
E. Increased oncotic pressure of tissue fluid
Task 15. A sick child (7 years old) has an increased number of eosinophils. This may
indicate:
A. Loss of a large amount of blood
B. Allergic process
C. Loss of a large amount of iron
D. Acute inflammatory process
E. Chronic inflammatory process
Task 16. A 45-year-old woman developed an acute inflammatory disease of the
upper respiratory tract and eyes during the flowering period: hyperemia, edema, mucous
discharge. What type of leukocytosis will be the most characteristic in this case?
A. Basophilia
B. Neutrophilia
C. Lymphocytosis
D. Eosinophilia
E. Monocytosis
Task 17. A 25-year-old man at the dentist's appointment a few minutes after washing his mouth
with a solution of furacillin developed a significant swelling of the lips. What type of allergic
reaction was observed in this case?
A. Immunocomplex
B. Delayed hypersensitivity
C. Cytolytic
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D.Anaphylactic
E. Stimulant
Task 18. After parenteral administration of an antibiotic, after 25 minutes, a patient had
nausea, weakness, abdominal pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, rashes appeared
on the skin in the form of blisters. What stage of the allergic reaction was observed in the
patient?
A. Immunological
B. Sensitization
C. Biochemical
D. Pathophysiological
E. Patochemical
Task 19. It is known that bronchial asthma in patients develops according to the
mechanism of immediate type hypersensitivity, which sequentially includes 3 stages:
A. Pathophysiological, immunological, pathochemical
B. Patochemical, immunological, pathophysiological
C. Immunological, pathochemical, pathophysiological
D. Pathochemical, pathophysiological, immunological
E. Pathophysiological, pathochemical, immunological
Task 20. During the extraction of a tooth, a solution of novocaine was introduced to the
patient for pain relief. A few minutes later, his blood pressure dropped, he lost
consciousness, developed shortness of breath, convulsions. What is the mechanism of
anaphylactic shock?
A. Toxic effect of novocaine
B. Sensitization to novocaine
C. Body desensitization
D. Autoallergic state E. Paraallergy
Task 21. For pain relief during the removal of a carious tooth, a dentist introduced
a novocaine solution to a patient. A few minutes later, the patient developed
symptoms of anaphylactic shock: a drop in blood pressure, increased respiration,
loss of consciousness, convulsions. What type of reactions can this condition be attributed to?
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A. Immediate type hypersensitivity
B. Reactions of cytolysis or cytotoxic action
C. Arthus type reactions
D. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
E. Stimulating allergic reactions
Task 22. In connection with the treatment of purulent pulpitis, a 39-year-old patient
then
underwent infiltration anesthesia with a solution of ultracaine with adrenaline,
skin
redness, hypersensitivity does theedema
patientwith
have?
blisters and itching. What type of sudden
A. Immune complex B.
Granulomatous C.
Antibody-dependent D.
Cell-mediated E. Anaphylactic
1.
Species: 1) A culture of a microbe obtained from one cell 2) A set
of individuals of the same species +3) A set of individuals with one
genotype 4) Grown on an artificial nutrient medium, a population of
one species 5) The correct name of taxa 2. A clone is:
1) A set of individuals of the same species 2) A
culture isolated from a specific source 3) A set of individuals having
the same genotype + 4) A culture of microorganisms obtained from
one individual 5) Microbial individuals of the same species grown on a nutrient
medium 3. The main forms of bacteria are: +1) Cocci +2) Sticks 3) Spirochetes 4)
Mushrooms 5) Rickettsia
4. The location of cocci depends on:
1) Size of cocci 2)
Quantity and arrangement of flagella +3) Divisions in
different planes 4) Differences in capsule formation 5)
Presence of spores 5. Bacilli have: 1) Coccoid shape
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2) Inclusions of volutin grains
3) Gram-negative color 4)
Rounded shape +5) Spores 6.
Bacteria are: +1) Microorganisms
that do not have a formed
nucleus particles visible in a light microscope 7.
Additional structural components in bacteria are: 1)
Cytoplasm 2) Nucleotide 3) Cell wall + 4) Spores 5)
Cytoplasmic membrane 8. Name the structural
components of a bacterial cell: 1) Differentiated nucleus + 2)
Diffusely located nuclear substance 3) Spike-like process 4) Capsid 5)
Presence of elementary bodies in the cytoplasm 9. Capsule of bacteria:
+1) Protects from phagocytes 2) Consists of lipids 3) Characterized by
acid resistance 4) It is a protein outer layer of the cytoplasm 5) Participates
in division 10. B Stained smears from the sputum of a patient with
pneumonia revealed lanceolate-shaped pairwise purple cocci with an
unstained border around. What is this border: 1) Spores 2) Cytoplasmic
membrane +3) Capsule 4) Shell 5) Adipose substances 11. What staining
methods do you use to identify capsules: 1) Aujeszki (Ozheshki) 2) ZiehlNielsen +3) Giss 4) Romanovsky-Giemsa 5) Neisser 12. Nucleoid: +1)
Double-stranded DNA molecule 2) DNA protected by a protein shell 3)
Divides by mitosis
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4) It has single-stranded
DNA 5) Fragmented RNA
13. Plasmids: +1) Doublestranded DNA circular molecules 2) They
are derivatives of the cytoplasmic membrane +3) They are
not vital for the cell 4) The supply of nutrients 5) Protein
synthesis centers 14. Ribosomes:
1) Supply of nutrients +2)
Protein synthesis centers 3)
They are derivatives of the plasma membrane 4) Serve
to preserve the species 5) Save the cell from adverse
effects 15. Cell wall of bacteria +1) Strong, elastic
structure 2) Mucous formation +3) Gives bacteria a
certain form 4) Consists only of protein 5) Contributes to
the preservation of the species 16. The main mass of
the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is: +1) Peptidoglycan
2) Carbohydrates 3) Lipids +4) Teichoic acids 5)
Proteins 17. Protoplasts are: +1) Bacteria completely
devoid of a cell wall 2) Bacteria partially devoid of a cell wall +3) Occur when
antibiotics are not used rationally 4) Bacteria with a rigid cell wall 5)
Microorganisms that do not have a cell wall, but are surrounded by a threelayer lipoprotein cytoplasmic membrane 18. Spheroplasts are : 1) Bacteria
completely devoid of a cell wall + 2) Bacteria partially devoid of a cell wall 3)
Bacteria having e rigid cell wall 4) Bacteria that do not have a cell wall, but are
surrounded by a three-layer lipoprotein cytoplasmic membrane 5) L-forms 19. Lforms of bacteria: +1) Bacteria that have lost their cell wall, but retained the
ability to develop
multiplication
2) Protoplasts
3) Surrounded by peptidoglycan
4) Have an outer membrane 5)
Bacteria with a rigid cell wall
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20. Functions of the cytoplasmic membrane:
1) Gives a certain shape to bacteria +2)
Transports dissolved substances into the cell +3) Is the site
of localization of enzymes +4) Forms mesosomes involved in
cell division 5) Protects bacteria from adverse external influences
21. Cytoplasmic membrane: 1) Formed under the influence of
penicillin +2) Three-layer structure +3) Participates in the regulation
of osmotic pressure 4) Mucous formation 5) Formed under the
influence of adverse factors 22. Flagella of bacteria: 1) Consist of
polysaccharides +2) Determine the mobility of bacteria +3 ) Consist
of flagellin protein 4) Cause resistance of bacteria to antibiotics 5)
Responsible for reproduction 23. Significance of spores in the
anthrax pathogen: 1) Participate in reproduction + 2) Contribute to
the preservation of the species in adverse conditions 3)
Accumulation of additional nutrients 4) Are signs cell degeneration
5) Participate in adhesion 24. Bacilli: +1) The size of the spore does
not exceed the diameter of the cell 2) The size of the spore exceeds
the diameter of the cell 3) They do not form spores 4) They do not
participate in human pathology 5) They look like a drumstick 25. In
the smear, rods were found arranged in a chain with an oval red,
centrally located formation. By what method the smear was stained:
1) Leffler +2) Orzeszko 3) Gram 4) Ziehl-Nielsen 5) Burri 5)
Identification of inclusions 27. Simple staining methods allow: 1)
To reveal the shell +2) To study the shape of microbes
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3) Stain the capsule
4) Study the structure of the bacterial cell 5)
Stain the flagella 28. The ability of Grampositive bacteria to stain blue-violet depends on: 1) The presence of
carbohydrates +2) The properties of peptidoglycan to interact with
the dye 3) The presence of CPM +4) The presence of teichoic acids
5 ) Wall thicknesses 29. In a microbial culture smear under the lens,
clusters of cocci shaped like blue bags or bales are visible. Name
these cocci: 1) Staphylococci 2) Micrococci + 3) Sarcines 4)
Meningococci 5) Streptococci 30. Acid resistance of microorganisms
is associated with the presence of: 1) Nucleic acids + 2) Adipose
substances 3) Capsules 4) Proteins 5) Carbohydrates 31. Acid
resistance is characteristic for: 1) Diphtheria bacillus 2) Typhoid
bacillus 3) Staphylococci 4) Rickettsia +5) Tuberculosis bacillus
membranes 33. How dark-field microscopy differs from other
methods: 1) Gives a magnification of 250 thousand times 2) Used to
study the structure of viruses and bacteria +3) The object is
illuminated by oblique side rays that do not fall into the lens 4) The
resolution of the microscope is 0.2 microns 5) The resolution depends
on the total magnification of the microscope 34. The method of
phase contrast microscopy: 1) Gives a magnification of 900-1350
times 2) Used to detect flagella +3) Main based on the transformation
of phase oscillations into amplitude oscillations by optical means
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+4) Allows you to study microbes in a living state 5) Used
to study the structure of a bacterial cell 35. Morphological
features of spirochetes:
1) Presence of
spores 2) Shaped
nucleus 3) Presence of
volutin grains 4) Contractility
of protoplasm +5) They belong to convoluted
forms of bacteria 36. Actinomycetes differ from other groups of
microorganisms in that: +1) They look like long branching filaments 2)
Gram-negative 3) Acid-resistant 4) Have volutin grains 5) Arabinose,
galactose were found in peptidoglycan
37. Rickettsiae:
+1) Gram-negative 2)
Grow on nutrient media +3)
Obligate intracellular parasites 4) Do not
have polymorphism 5) Do not participate in
human pathology 38. Rickettsiae are
characterized by:
1) Mobility +2)
Polymorphism 3)
Acid resistance 4) Rigid
shell 5) Presence of
volutin granules 39.
Morphological features of chlamydia: 1) Acidresistant microorganisms 2) Formation of
intracellular inclusions 3) They form a capsule
in the body +4) Morphology depends on the
stage of intracellular development 5 ) They have only RNA 40.
The morphology and structure of fungi is characterized by: 1)
The absence of a cell wall + 2) The formation of mycelium
3) Capsule formation
4) Diffusely located nuclear substance 5) The
presence of fatty substances 41. Chlamydia: 1)
Gram-positive 2) Grow on nutrient media +3)
Obligate intracellular parasites +4) Form reticular
and elementary bodies 5) Possess polymorphism
42. Mucor belongs to the kingdom: 1 ) Procaryotae
+2) Eucaryotae
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3) Nocardia
4) Vira 5)
Sarcodina
43. Candida is characterized by:
1) Absence of a cell wall 2) Gramnegative staining +3) Presence of a
true nucleus 4) Acid resistance 5)
Diffusely located nuclear substance
44. Actinomycetes:
1) Mold fungi +2)
Heterogeneous group of filamentous bacteria 3)
Cause subcutaneous mycoses 4) Belong to
phycomycetes 5) Infect hair 45. To determine the
motility of bacteria, the following method is used:
+1) "hanging" drop 2) fixed smear 3) cultivation in agar 4) RPHA 5)
ELISA 46. In the device of a light microscope, the following can be
distinguished: 1) dynamic system + 2) optical system 3) recording
system 4) controlling system 5) luminescent system 47. The location
of cocci in a smear preparation depends on: 1) sizes of cocci 2)
number and arrangement of flagella +3) division in different planes 4)
differences in capsule formation 5) conjugation process 5) in the form
of bunches of grapes 9. Diplococci are located in a smear: 1) singly
+ 2) in pairs 3) with the formation of packages, bales 4) in the form of
chains 5) in the form of bunches of grapes 50. What shape do
spirochetes have: 1) spherical
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2) filamentous
3) rod-shaped 4)
cone-shaped +5)
convoluted 51.
What are the names of cocci located in the form of grapes: 1) streptococci
+ 2) staphylococci 3) sarcins 4) bacilli 5) micrococci 52. The shape of
staphylococci: 1) cone-shaped 2 ) convoluted 3) rod-shaped +4) spherical
5) filamentous 53. Bacterial organelle that prevents phogocytosis: +1)
capsule 2) spore 3) cell wall 4) flagella 5) cytoplasm 54. The method
used for staining acid-resistant bacteria: 1) Romanovsky- Giemsa 2)
Gram +3) Ziehl-Nielsen 4) Zdrodovsky 5) Burri 55. Organelle of bacteria
resisting external factors: +1) spore 2) pili 3) cell wall 4) flagella 5)
cytoplasm 56. Spirochaete staining method: +1 ) Romanovsky-Giemsa
2) Gram 3) Ziehl-Nielsen 4) Zdrodovsky 5) Burri 57. The functions of
flagella: 1) protect bacteria from adverse external influences 2) give a
certain shape to bacteria +3) provide mobility 4) transport solutes into
the cell 5) participate in cell division 58. What are cocci located in chains
called:
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1) Sarcines
2) Micrococci +3)
Streptococci 4)
Staphylococci 5)
Bacilli in a smear:
1) singly 2) in pairs +3) in the form of bags, bales 4) in the form
of chains 5) in the form of bunches of grapes 61. What color
do gram-positive bacteria stain: 1) green 2) brown 3) yellow
+4) violet 5) red 62. In what units are the dimensions of
bacteria measured: 1) nanometers +2) micrometers 3)
millimeters 4) angstroms 5) centimeters particle 5) supercapsid
64. Virion dimensions are measured in: +1) nanometers 2)
millimeters 3) centimeters 4) angstroms 5) micrometers 65.
Bacteria belong to the kingdom: 1) Eucaryotae.
2) Vÿra.
3) Enterobacterÿaceae.
+4) Procarÿotae.
5) Nocardÿa.
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66. Clone:
1) A group of individuals of the same
species. 2) Culture isolated from a specific source. 3) A set of
individuals with the same phenotype. +4) Culture of
microorganisms obtained from one individual. 5) Microbial individuals
of the same species grown on a nutrient medium. 67. Bacteria: +1)
Microorganisms that do not have a formed nucleus. 2) They belong to eukaryotes.
3) They have a nuclear envelope. 4) Have a virion. 5) The smallest particles not
visible in a light microscope. 68. Characteristics of viruses include: 1) Unicellular
life forms. 2) "Infectious" protein particles. 3) Deprived of genetic material. 4)
Reproduce outside the cell. +5) They are not able to reproduce outside a living
cell. 69. The causative agent of tetanus bacillus forms: 1) Proteases 2) Endotoxin
+3) Tetanospasmin 4) Plasmocoagulase 5) Fibrinolysin kingdom: 1) Procariotae.
+2) Eukaryotae.
3) Vÿra.
4) Protozoa.
5) Animalia
72. Mushrooms consist
of: +1) Hyphae. 2)
Organelle. 3) Support
fibrils. 4) A chain of
located sticks. 5) Axial thread. 73. Yeast
looks like: +1) Oval cells. 2) Intertwined
threads. 3) Grooved clusters. 4) Druzes.
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5) V-shaped arrangement of sticks. 74.
Viruses: 1) Belong to eukaryotes.
+2) The smallest microorganisms that do not have a cellular structure. 3) They
have a nucleus with a nuclear envelope. 4) They do not participate in human
pathology. 5) Plants are not affected. 75. The division of the kingdom Vira
into sub-kingdoms is made according to: 1) By the presence of a supercapsid.
+2) According to the type of nucleic acid. 3) Morphological features. 4) By
tinctorial properties. 5) Cytopathogenic action. 76. Bacteria include: +1)
Microorganisms that do not have a formed nucleus. 2) Eukaryotes. 3)
Microorganisms with a nuclear envelope. 4) Microorganisms that have a
capsid. 5) The smallest particles not visible in a light microscope. 77. Kingdom
of bacteria: 1) Eumycota.
+2) Procarÿotae.
3) Enterobacterÿaceae.
4) Vÿra.
5) Nocardia.
78. Properties of viruses:
1) Unicellular life forms. 2) Protein
particles. 3) Deprived of genetic
material. 4) Reproduce outside the cell.
+5) They are not able to reproduce
outside a living cell. 79. Basic forms of bacteria: +1)
Cocci. 2) Viruses. 3) Spirilla 4) Mushrooms. 5) Rickettsia.
80. Bacilli are characterized by: 1) Coccoid shape. 2)
Inclusions of volutin grains. 3) Gram-negative staining.
4) Spiral shape. +5) Disputes. 81. Convoluted bacteria
include: +1) Campylobacter. 2) Mushrooms. 3)
Actinomycetes.
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4) Rickettsia.
5) Staphylococci
82. An immersion microscope is characterized by: 1)
General magnification 40-90 times. 2) Use of a closed
aperture. 3) Using a dry lens. 4) study of transparent
objects. +5) Use of a lens x 90. 3. Sizes of bacteria are
measured in: 1) Nanometers +2) Micrometers 3)
Angstroms. 4) Millimeters. 5) Sedimentation constant.
84. Structural component of a bacterial cell: 1)
Differentiated nucleus. +2) Nucleoid. 3) Golgi apparatus.
4) Mitochondria. 5) Presence of elementary bodies in
the cytoplasm. 85. Functions of the ribosome: 1) Supply
of nutrients. +2) Protein synthesis centers. 3) They are
derivatives of the cytoplasmic membrane. 4) Serve to
preserve the view. 5) Save the cell from adverse effects. 86.
Cell wall of bacteria: 1) Permanent structure of the cell. 2)
Mucous formation. +3) Gives bacteria a certain shape. 4)
Consists only of protein. 5) Formed under adverse
conditions. 87. When staining according to Gram, apply:
+1) Gentian violet. 2) Methylene blue. 3) Vesuvin. 4) Azureosin. 5) Sulfuric acid. 88. Candida belong to the kingdom:
1) Procariotae.
+2) Eukaryotae.
3) Vÿra.
4) Animalia.
5) Protozoa.
89. The structure of mushrooms
includes: +1) Hyphae. 2) Inclusions.
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3) Support fibrils. 4) A
chain of sticks. 5) Axial thread. 90.
Viruses include: 1) Eukaryotes. +2)
The smallest microorganisms that do
not have a cellular structure. 3)
Microorganisms that have a nucleus with a nuclear membrane. 4)
Microorganisms not involved in human pathology. 5) Microorganisms
that do not infect plants. 91. The kingdom of Vira is subdivided into
sub-kingdoms according to: 1) Ecological features. +2) According to
the type of nucleic acid. 3) Morphological features. 4) Coloring according
to Morozov. 5) Cytopathogenic action. 92. What method is used to
determine the mobility of bacteria: 1) ELISA 2) fixed smear 3) cultivation
in agar 4) PCR +5) "hanging" drop 93. The structure of a light
microscope can be distinguished: 1) dynamic system 2) recording
system +3) optical system 4) control system 5) electronic system 94.
Micrococci are located in the smear: +1) singly 2) in pairs 3) with the
formation of packages, bales 4) in a chain 5) in the form of bunches of
grapes 95. Diplococci are located in the smear: 1) singly + 2) in pairs
3) with the formation of packages, bales 4) in the form of chains 5) in
the form of bunches of grapes cocci, located in the form of bunches of
grapes: 1) streptococci
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+2) staphylococci
3) sarcins 4)
bacilli 5)
micrococci 98.
Staphylococci have the shape:
1) cone-shaped 2) convoluted
3) rod-shaped +4) spherical 5)
filamentous 99. Forms of
bacteria: +1) spherical, rodshaped, convoluted 2) spherical,
cone-shaped, convoluted 3)
bullet-shaped, filamentous, cubic 4) rodshaped, convoluted, cubic 5) bulletshaped, filamentous, rod-shaped
cytoplasm 101. Method used to detect
pathogenic protozoa in blood: 1) fixed
unstained smear 2) hanging drop 3) crushed drop 4)
fixed stained smear +5) thick drop 102. Method used
for staining acid-resistant bacteria: 1) RomanovskyGiemsa 2) Gram +3) Ziehl-Nielsen 4) Zdrodovsky 5)
Burri ) drank 104. Obligatn human intracellular parasite,
transmissible
mainly by transmission: 1)
mycoplasmas 2) chlamydia 3)
spirochetes 4) actinomycetes
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+5) rickettsiae
105. A pure culture of microbes, isolated from a certain source
and different from other representatives of the species, is called:
1) a clone
+2) a strain
3) a
subspecies
4) a colony
5) a variant drop 107. Spirochetes are stained
by the method: +1) Romanovsky-Giemsa 2)
Gram 3) Ziehl-Nielsen 4) Zdrodovsky 5) Burri
108. Flagella: 1) protect bacteria from adverse
external influences 2) give a certain shape to
bacteria +3) provide mobility 4) carry out the
transport of dissolved substances into the cell 5)
participate in cell division 109. What are cocci
located in chains called: 1) sarcins 2) micrococci
+ 3) streptococci 4) staphylococci 5) bacilli 110.
The importance of spore formation in bacteria
1) method of reproduction + 2) a way of
preserving a species in the external environment
3) participation in nutrition 4) a method of movement 5) a method
of protection in the human body no 4) several days 5) several
weeks 112. Streptococci are located in the smear: 1) singly 2) in
pairs
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3) with the formation of packages,
bales +4) in the form of chains 5)
in the form of bunches of grapes
grapes 114. Gram-positive bacteria
are colored: 1) green 2) brown 3)
white +4) purple 5) red 115. In what
units are the sizes of bacteria
measured: 1) nanometers +2)
micrometers 3) millimeters 4)
angstroms 5) centimeters 116. The main method of
staining bacteria: 1) according to Neisser + 2) according
to Gram 3) according to Morozov 4) according to Leffler
5) according to Burri-Gins 117. Bacteria without a cell
wall: 1) chlamydia + 2) mycoplasma 3) rickettsia 4 )
spirochetes 5) actinomycetes 118. Cap mushrooms with
septate mycelium: 1) deuteromycetes 2) zygomycetes 3)
ascomycetes +4) basidiomycetes 5) oomycetes
degreasing preparations 4) to maintain the size of bacteria
+5) to attach bacteria to the subject at the glass 120.
Each bacteriological laboratory should be provided with:
+1) rooms for preparing nutrient media and sterilizing
dishes
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2) boxes for working with individual groups of viruses
3) boxes for working with individual groups of microscopic fungi 4)
classrooms 5) preparation room Plants 5) Helminths 122. Pasteur's
merits in microbiology 1) Discovery of viruses +2) Development of
pasteurization 3) Discovery of the causative agent of tuberculosis 4) He
reproduced experimental syphilis 5) Discovery of the causative agent of
cholera 123. Bacteria belong to the kingdom +1) Procaryotae 2)
Eucaryotae 3) Vira 4) Enterobacteriaceae 5) Nocardia 124. Flagella
provide: 1) Protection of the bacteria from adverse external influences
2) A certain shape for bacteria +3) Mobility 4) Transport of dissolved
substances into the cell 5) Adhesion of the microorganism 125. What
morphological shape do spirochetes have: 1) Spherical 2) Filiform 3)
Rod-shaped 4) Cone-shaped +5) Convoluted 126. Cocci arranged in
chains: 1) Sarcines 2) Micrococci +3) Streptococci 4) Staphylococci 5)
Bacilli 127. Significance of sporulation in bacteria: 1) Method of
reproduction +2) Method of maintaining the species in the environment
3) Participation in nutrition 4) Method of movement 5) Method of protection
in the human body 128. How called cocci, located in the form of clusters
of grapes:
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1) Streptococci
+2) Staphylococci
3) Sarcines 4)
Bacilli 5)
Micrococci , cubic
5) Tortuous, filamentous, cubic 130. What
color are gram-negative bacteria stained
with: 1) Green 2) Brown 3) Yellow 4) Blue
+5) Red 131. The main method of staining
bacteria is: 1) According to Neisser +2)
According Gram 3) According to Morozov
4) According to Leffler 5) According to Burry-Gins 132. The
main taxonomic unit in microbiology is: +1) Species 2) Genus
3) Family 4) Order 5) Class 133. The fundamental difference
in the organization of a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic is:
+1) the absence of intracellular membranes 2) the absence of
ribosomes 3) the absence of intraplasmic inclusions 4) the
absence of CPM 5) the presence of a cell wall 4) RPHA 5)
ELISA 135. Cocci are arranged in a smear-preparation
depending on: 1) Size of cocci 2) Quantity and location of
flagella +3) Divisions in different planes 4) Differences in
capsule formation
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5) The process of
conjugation 136. The main functions of the cytoplasmic
membrane: 1) gives a certain shape to bacteria + 2)
transports nutrients into the cell 3) does not form mesosomes
4) protects the cell 5) does not contain respiratory chains
137. Ribosomes are: 1) a supply of nutrients substances 2)
are derivatives of the cytoplasmic membrane +3) protein
synthesis centers 4) serve to preserve the species 5)
preserve the cell from adverse effects ) by simple staining
methods 139. The value of spores in bacilli: +1) protect the
microorganism from adverse effects 2) reproduction of
bacteria 3) do not retain their appearance under adverse
conditions 4) participation in the adhesion of microorganisms
5) accumulation of nutrients 140. Conditions for the formation
of spores: +1 ) unfavorable external environment 2) when it
enters the human body 3) when exposed to sulfuric acid 4)
when oxygen is supplied by volume 5) depends on the
morphology of the ba cterium 141. The nucleoid of a
microbial cell contains: 1) Babes-Negri bodies +2) DNA 3)
Mesosomes 4) Drank 5) Volutin grains 142. The virion
represents: particle 5) Supercapsid 143. Virion dimensions are
measured: +1) Nanometers 2) Millimeters 3) Centimeters
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4) Angstroms
5) Micrometers
144. Viruses are characterized
by: +1) They parasitize inside the
cell 2) They reproduce by division
3) They have a cellular structure
4) They grow only under aerobic
conditions 5) They form spores 145.
The structure of viruses is studied by the
method: 1) Light microscopy 2 ) Dark-field
microscopy 3) Luminescent microscopy
+4) Electron microscopy 5) Phase-contrast
microscopy for: 1) Cultivation of bacteria
+2) Cultivation of viruses 3) Cultivation of
fungi 4) Obtaining antibiotics 5) Statement
of serological reactions 5) Dissociation
149. Methods for detecting (indicating)
viruses on a chicken embryo: 1)
Immunofluorescence + 2) Hemagglutination
3) Transformation 4) Hemadsorption 5)
Plaque formation 150. Bacterioph Agi
parasitize on: 1) Viruses +2) Bacteria 3)
Human cells 4) Plant cells 5) Animal cells
151. Distribution of phages in nature: +1)
Everywhere 2) Only in the human body
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3) Only in soil 4)
Only in water 5)
Only in air 152.
What methods are used for phage titration: 1) Grazia
and Krotov 2) Koch and Pasteur + 3) Grazia and
Appelman 4) Drygalsky and Vidal 5) Wright and
Wasserman 153. Scientist who first used a solution
of carbolic acid to disinfect wounds: +1) Lister 2)
Koch 3) Pasteur 4) Ivanovsky 5) Fleming 154.
Scientist who first formulated the concepts of active and
passive immunity: +1) Erlich 2) Mechnikov 3) Koch 4) Pasteur
5) Leffler 155. The figure shows (according to the location
of the spores): 1) Cl.botulÿnum +2) Cl.tetanÿ 3) Bac.ahthracÿs
4) Cl.perfrÿngens 5) Cl.septÿcum 156. The stick is: 1 )
Bacteroides +2) Clostrÿdÿum 3) Eubacterÿum 4) Veÿllonella
5) Campÿlobacter 157. The capsule is stained according
to: 1) Ziehl-Nielsen 2) Löffler +3) Burri 4) Gram 5) Neisser 158.
Which dye is used in this staining method: 1 ) Gentian violet 2)
Methylene blue +3) Collargol or ink
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4) Azur-eosin
5) Safranin
159. Determine the causative
agent: +1) Actÿnomyces 2)
M.tuberculosÿs 3) Aspergÿllus
4) Borellÿa 5) Leptospÿrae )
Spore 3) Volutin granules 4)
Nucleus 5) Ribosomes 161.
This microorganism can reproduce: +1) By disintegration of mycelium into
fragments 2) by transverse division 3) by longitudinal division 4) by sexual
method 5) by disjunctive method 162. What form of bacteria does the shown
one belong to? microorganism: 1) Rods 2) Cocci + 3) Convoluted 4)
Filamentous 5) Bacilli 163. Convoluted forms of bacteria can cause: refers to
this microorganism: 1) Head 2) Stem 3) Sheath 4) Basal lamina +5) Mycelium
165. The depicted microorganism refers to: +1) Bacteriophages 2) Bacteria
3) Actinomycetes 4) Fungi 5) Protozoa 166.
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Green glow is studied in the reaction:
+1) Immunofluorescence 2) ELISA 3)
RIA +4) Koons reactions 5) Coombs
reactions ) Lysozyme with
complement 4) Serum and antiserum
5) Erythrocytes and antibodies 168.
Name the diseases caused by this
microorganism: 1) Diphtheria +2) Scarlet fever +3) Rheumatism
4) Pemphigus 5) Cancer 169. This microorganism belongs to: 1)
Micrococcaceae +2) Streptococcaceae 3) Francÿsella 4)
Spÿrÿllaceae 5) Vibrÿonaceae 170. Name this microorganism:
1) Staphylococcus +2) Streptococcus 3) Micrococcus 4)
Diplococcus 5) Sarcina 171. The microorganism indicated in the
picture Gram+ belongs to the family: +1) ÿÿcrococcaceae 2)
Streptococcaceae 3) Francÿsella 4) Spÿrÿllaceae 5) Vibrÿonaceae
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4) Diplococcus
5) Sarcina 173.
What
microorganisms are shown in the picture: +1)
Staphylococcus +2) Streptococcus 3) Sarcina 4)
Gonococcus 5) Meningococcus 174.
What phenomenon is shown in the
picture: +1) Incomplete phagocytosis
2) Transformation 3) Bacteriophagy 4)
CPD in cell culture 5) Conjugation 176.
The microbes shown in the figure
belong to the family: 1)
Enterobacteriacea +2) Micrococcaceae
3) Bacillaceae 4) Spirillaceae +5)
Streptococcaceae Gram 4) acid
resistance 5) desiccation resistance
178. Basic taxonomic unit in
microbiology: +1) Species 2) Genus
3) Family 4) Order 5) Class 179.
Clinical microbiology studies: +1)
Opportunistic microorganisms 2) Zoonotic diseases 3) The
immune system of the body 4) Anthropogenic system
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5) Protozoa
180. Spores are stained
according to: 1) Giss 2) Gram
3) Neisser +4) Ozheshko 5)
Romanovsky-Giemsa 181.
Rickettsia are stained according
to: 1) Neisser 2) RomanovskyGiemsa 3) Ziehl-Nielsen +4)
Zdrodovsky 5) Ozheshko
100. What is the main biological function of antibodies? a)
participation in blood coagulation b) maintenance of somatic
pressure c) specific interaction with antigen d) transfer of waterinsoluble substances: lipids, vitamins, hormones 101. What class
of immunoglobulins has the highest molecular weight? a) Ig M b) Ig Y c) Ig
A d) Ig E 102. Clinical immunology considers issues related to: a) genetic control of
the immune response; b) study, development of diagnostics and treatment, mainly of
immunopathological conditions; c) mechanisms and ways to ensure the body's
resistance to various infectious agents; d) application of the achievements of
immunology in medicine. 103. Vaccination with ADS is used to prevent: a) diphtheria
and tetanus b) diphtheria and scarlet fever c) diphtheria and anthrax d) dysbacteriosis
and syphilis c) toxoid d) chemical vaccine 105. Chemical vaccine contains: a) a
suspension of killed microorganisms b) exotoxin neutralized by formalin c) microbial
endotoxin d) active antigen extracted from a microbial cell. 106. Vaccines create
immunity in humans and animals: a) passive b) active
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c) natural d)
species 107.
Antitoxins are: a)
antibodies to corpuscular antigen b)
antibodies to endotoxins c) antibodies to
exotoxins d) antibodies to H-antigen 108.
Animals are used to obtain therapeutic
sera: a) rabbit b) marine pigs c) horse, cattle d) monkeys 109.
Immunoglobulins related to prophylactic and therapeutic drugs:
a) antibiotics; b) to vaccines; c) to serum drugs, d) to
chemotherapeutic drugs. 110. What method of allergen
administration is used in the diagnosis of delayed-type allergy?
a) intradermal b) enteral c) intratracheal d) conjunctival 111. Which of these authors
created the clonal selection theory of immunity? a) Pirquet b) Jerne c) Ehrlich d)
Burnet 112. What is the timing of the onset of an immediate allergic reaction? a) 10
min. b) 2 hours c) 6 hours d) 24 hours 113. In what type of allergic lesions does the
hereditary factor play a decisive role in the development of allergy? a) reaginic b)
cytotoxic c) immunocomplex d) tuberculin 114. What types of allergies require
specific desensitization? a) anaphylaxis b) infectious allergy c) drug allergy d) food
allergy 115. Mediators of immediate allergy. a) leukocyte migration inhibition factor
b) transfer factor c) chemotoxic factor d ) histamine 116. Anaphylactic reactions (of
atopic type) occur:
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(basophils)
b) due to the formation of immune complexes around small vessels c) due
to the cytotoxic effect on the cells of the AG-AT complex d) during the
interaction of sensitized T-lymphocytes with specific allergens 117. Which of the
following immune reactions is the most sensitive? a) Complement binding (RCC)
b) Agglutination c) Precipitation d) Enzyme immunoassay 118. Select the set of
components required for RTGA: solution b) virus-containing material, erythrocytes,
lysozyme, physical. solution c) immune serum, virus-containing material,
erythrocytes, physical. solution d) erythrocytes, virus-containing material, physical.
Solution 119. What is the purpose of the complement titration reaction? a) detection
of antibodies in the serum b) detection of leukins in the blood c) determination of
the working dose of complement d) determination of antitoxins in the serum 120.
What is an antigen in the precipitation reaction? a) a suspension of bacteria; b)
erythrocytes; c) soluble antigen; d) erythrocyte diagnosticum. 121. For serodiagnosis
of an infectious disease, the following is taken from a patient as a test material: a)
isolated pure culture b) blood serum c) defibrinated blood d) material from the
affected tissue 122. Agglutination reaction. What does the word "agglutination"
mean? a) lysis b) formation of complexes c) adhesion d) precipitation 123.
Antibodies in the patient's serum can be determined using the known: a)
complement b) antigenic diagnosticum c) 5% erythrocyte suspension d) hemolytic
serum. 124. The specificity of the interaction between a virus and a cell is
determined by the stage of: a) adsorption b) translation c) penetration d) replication
b) detection of the virus in cell culture without identification of the species; c) virus
identification; d) determination of cytopathogenic action.
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126. Immune antiviral serum is necessary for the production of: a) RHA
b) RTHA c) RPHA d) RSK 127. Virus-affected cells are destroyed by: a)
interferon; b) T-helpers; c) antibodies; d) T cells (CD8). 128. Virus
replication in sensitive cells is prevented by: a) interferons b) T-lymphocytes
c) antibodies d) macrophages 129. Adsorption of viruses on specific
receptors of sensitive cells is prevented by: a) interferons; b) Tlymphocytes; c) inhibitors of viral activity; d) macrophages. 130. Interferons
are produced by: a) only neutrophils b) only macrophages c) only
lymphocytes d) all cells of the body 131. Interferons block the stages of:
a) adsorption of the virus b) penetration of the virus c) deproteinization of
the virus d) translation and destroys viral RNA 132. Viruses influenza are
divided into three types A, B, C according to: a) pathomorphological
changes caused in the chick embryo; b) according to biochemical
properties; c) ribonucleoprotein antigen (RNP); d) by surface antigens H
and N. 133. In the pathogenesis of influenza, the following are important:
a) defeat and destruction of cells of the epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract
by the virus b) intoxication due to neuraminidase of the virus c) damage to the
epithelium of the respiratory tract, capillary endothelium and increased vascular
permeability , hemorrhages. d) hemolysis of erythrocytes under the action of
hemagglutinin. 134. Frequent repeated epidemics of influenza are primarily due
to: a) short-term immunity b) insufficient immunity c ) the emergence of new
virus serovariants d) insufficient formation of cellular immunity nodes of the
respiratory tract c) in the macrophages of the lymph nodes
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d) in erythrocytes
136. Rhinoviruses cause in humans: a)
acute rhinitis b) gastroenteritis c)
encephalomeningitis d) pneumonia 137.
The following can be used to treat
influenza: a) antibiotics b) metisazon c)
interferon, rimantadine d) inactivated influenza
vaccine 138. Using the immunofluorescence
reaction in the express diagnosis of influenza
type "B", the following are detected: a) influenza
virus b) cells affected by influenza type "B" c)
antibodies against influenza type "C" d) cells affected by various viruses t "A" » 139.
Influenza dry luminescent serum t "A" contains: a) antibodies against the virus b)
antibodies against the virus labeled with fluorochrome c) inactivated virus labeled
with fluorochrome d) antibodies against the virus t "A" labeled with fluorochrome 140.
A patient with hepatitis A secretes virus with feces starting from: a) from the moment
of onset of jaundice b) from the second week of the disease c) from the last week of
the incubation period d) from the first day after infection 141. To identify polioviruses
using re to neutralize the Salk color test, you must have: a) paired sera of the patient
b ) diagnostic sera against polioviruses c ) diagnosticum d) reference strains of
poliomyelitis viruses 142. The genome of the poliomyelitis virus is represented by: )
double-stranded circular DNA with a single-stranded region d) double-stranded RNA
143. For the serodiagnosis of poliomyelitis using the neutralization reaction of CPD,
you must have: a) live polio vaccine b) diagnostic serum against polioviruses c) viruscontaining material d) paired patient sera and reference strains of polioviruses 144
Humoral immunity in poliomyelitis is due to: a) IgM - Ati IgG - Ab, neutralizing the
virus that has penetrated into the central nervous system b) IgM-Ab and IgG - Ab,
neutralizing the virus that has entered the blood c) IgM - Ab and IgG -Ab, neutralizing
the virus on mucous membranes d) IgA - AT neutralizing the virus on the mucous
membranes 145. The genome of the hepatitis A virus is represented by: a) single
strand pure plus-strand RNA
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b) double-stranded linear DNA
c) double-stranded circular DNA with a single-stranded
region d) double-stranded RNA 146. Hepatitis B is
transmitted in the following ways: a) parenteral b) food c)
transmissible d) water 147. To detect HBs antigen in blood
serum, the following is used: a a) agglutination reactions
b) ELISA c) RSC d) RIF 148. For serodiagnosis of hepatitis
B, the following is used: a) RTGA reaction b) ELISA c) p.
flocculation d) RIF 149. The hepatitis B virus genome is represented
by: a) single-stranded "plus-stranded" RNA b) double-stranded linear
DNA c) double-stranded circular DNA with a single-stranded region
d) double-stranded RNA 150. Sebin's oral polio vaccine contains: a)
inactivated viruses poliomyelitis b) inactivated rabies viruses c )
attenuated strains of poliomyelitis viruses d ) attenuated strains of
rabies viruses Micrococcacea includes the following genera: a)
Esherihia b) Streptococcus c) Staphylococcus d) Neisseria 153. The
following genera belong to the family Streptococcaceae: a) Esherichia
b) Streptococcus c) Staphylococcus d) Kingella b) Streptococcus c)
Staphylococcus d) Neisseria 155. Gr Ampositive cocci are: a)
staphylococci b) meningococci
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c) gonococci
d) enterococci
156. Gram-negative cocci are: a) staphylococci
b) streptococci c) pneumococci d ) gonococci
158. The accumulation of streptococci in a
smear looks like: a) chains of cocci b) chains
of sticks c) beans d) a bunch of grapes 159.
Staphylococci pathogenic for humans include: a) S.
aureus b) S. saprophyticus c) S. intermedius d) S.
capitis 160. Tests that determine the pathogenicity of
staphylococci include: a) inoculation on blood agar b)
Vidal reaction c) Ascoli reaction d) Yermolyeva test
161. Aggression enzymes of staphylococci include: a)
plasmacoagulase; b) peroxidase; c) lactase; d)
phosphatase. 162. Toxins of pathogenic staphylococci
include: a) enterotoxin; b) cholerogen-exotoxin; c)
Shika toxin; d) Dick's toxin. 163. Drugs used for
specific prevention of staphylococcal infection include: a)
purified staphylococcal anatoxin b) staphylococcal gamma
globulin c) staphylococcal antiphagin d) antistaphylococcal
plasma 164. The drugs used for specific treatment of
staphylococcal infection include: a) staphylococcal purified
toxoid b) staphylococcal vaccine c) native staphylococcal toxoid d)
staphylococcal antiphagin 165. The most pathogenic streptococci for
humans include: a) Str pyogenes
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b) Str kifir
c) Str viridans
d) Str. Pneumonia
166. Enzymes that determine the pathogenicity of streptococci include: a)
hyaluronidase b ) peroxidase c) lactase d) phosphatase diagnostics of
meningococcal infection are: a) bacterioscopic b) biological c) allergic d)
serological
relate:
a) meningococcal chemical vaccine A b )
dry live M-44 vaccine c) BCG vaccine d)
DTP vaccine 170. In the smear, gonococci
are arranged as follows: studies in acute
gonorrhea are: a) discharge from the urethra b) stool c)
sputum d) blood 172. Methods of laboratory diagnosis of
gonorrhea include: a) bacterioscopic b) allergic c) biological
d) bacteriological ,
are called:
a ) tularemia
b) gonorrhea
c) enteritis
d) dysbacteriosis
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are:
a)
Escherichia
b) Brucella c)
Rotavirus d)
Neisseria 176. Media necessary for differentiation of causative agents of acute
intestinal infections by biochemical properties: a) Lefleur's medium; b) Endo
environment; c) Clauberg's environment; d) Kaufman's environment. 177. Antigens
of gram-negative bacteria of the enterobacteria family are : a) HBS-antigen b) A protein c ) fimbrial d ) O-, H-, Vi - antigens ) leptospira 179. Differentiation of
enteropathogenic Escherichia is carried out according to the following properties: a)
morphological b) cultural c) antigenic d) bioassay 180. Serodiagnosis of typhoid fever
and paratyphoids is carried out by setting the following immunological reactions: a)
Vidal reaction b) Diz-Vidal reaction c) reaction Weigl d) Burne reaction 181. What
method is used to diagnose typhoid and paratyphoid fever at the 2nd week of the
disease: a) microscopic b) bacteriological c) serological d) biological 182.
Serodiagnostics is used to confirm the clinical diagnosis of: a) typhoid fever b)
colienteritis c) salmonellosis d) proteus infection gnosticum c) "Vi"-diagnosticum d)
erythrocyte "Vi" 184. Immunological reactions are used for serodiagnosis of typhoid
fever: a) agglutination
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b) complement fixation c)
precipitation d) lysis 185.
Shigella differ from
salmonella in the following features: a) cell shape b) lack of flagella
c) Gram stain d) antigenic properties 186. Escherichia differ from
salmonella in the following features: a) cell shape b) ) the presence
of flagella c ) Gram stain d ) enzymatic activity reactions: a)
agglutination b) RSC c) precipitation d) RIF 189. Microbiological
diagnosis of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever A and B on the 1st
week of the disease is carried out by the following method: a)
microscopic b) biological c) bacteriological d) serological 190. Typhoid
and paratyphoid bacteriophages are used for: a) diagnostics b)
treatment c) prophylaxis d) immunization 191. For specific prophylaxis
typhoid fever patients use the following vaccines: a) live b) genetically
engineered c) chemical d) toxoid 192. For the specific prevention of
cholera, the following vaccines are used: a) live b) killed c) artificial d)
genetically engineered 193. Vidal's serological test will be positive : a)
on the 3rd day of illness b ) on the 8th day c) on the 14th day d) on
the 21st day
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a) morphological b)
cultural c) biochemical
d) sensitivity to
antibiotics 195. Dysenteric
bacteriophages are used for: a) treatment b) prevention
c) diagnosis d) immunization 196. Cholera
bacteriophage is used for: a) treatment b) prevention
c) diagnosis d ) immunization 197. For the treatment
of intestinal dysbacteriosis, the use of drugs is
recommended: a) colibacterin; b) analgin; c) antibiotics;
d) intestifag. 198. The causative agent of Asian cholera
differs from Vibrio El-Tor in the following properties: a)
morphological b) cultural c) antigenic d) sensitivity to
phage. 199. Express diagnosis of cholera is carried
out by setting the reaction: a) hemagglutination reaction; b) RSC; c) direct RIF
method; d) immobilization of vibrios with cholera sera. 200. Biotopes for Escherichia
coli are: a) oral cavity; b) esophagus; c) stomach; d) small intestine. 201. What
biological signs distinguish Escherichia coli (EC), a representative of normal
microflora, from conditionally pathogenic EC: a) shape; b) antigenic properties; c)
dimensions; d) cultural properties. 202. What properties are related to CP - a
representative of normal microflora and conditionally pathogenic CP: a) morphology
b) angiogenic properties c) toxin formation d) biochemical properties 203. What
antigens are characteristic of CP: a) O - antigen b) A - antigen c) M - antigen
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d) Vi – antigen
204. Indicate which method of laboratory diagnostics confirms the diagnosis of “coli
infection”: a) microscopic b) bacteriological c) serological d) allergic phage titer c)
immunofluorescence reaction (direct method) d) immunofluorescence reaction
(indirect method)
it:
a) the total number of microbes isolated from 1 ml of the test water b)
the smallest amount of the test water, in which at least one Escherichia coli (EC) is
determined c) the number of ECs found in 1 liter of the test water d) the number of
ECs detected in 1 ml 207. The sanitary and bacteriological indicator of water pollution
"coli-titer" is: a) the total number of microbes isolated from 1 ml of the test water b)
the smallest amount of the test water, in which at least one Escherichia coli (EC) is
determined c) the amount CPs found in 1 liter of test water d) the minimum number
of CPs detected in the test volume of water 208. The sanitary and bacteriological
indicator of water pollution "coli-index" is: CP) b) the amount of CP found in 1 liter of
the test water c) the amount of CP found in 1 ml of the test water d) the minimum
amount of CP found in the test water volume of water 209. The main groups of
bacteria that produce exotoxin include: a) Salmonella, which cause food poisoning b)
the causative agent of tetanus c) the causative agent of tularemia d) Brucella 210.
Preventive antitoxic sera are: a) anti-brucellosis b) anti -botulinum c) anti-tularemia d )
anti-plague 211. Therapeutic antitoxic sera are: a) agglutinating anti-cholera serum b)
agglutinating serum against enteropathogenic Escherichia; c) anti-influenza; d) tetanus
toxoid. 212. Which bacteria belong to the genus Clostridium: a) Klebsiella b) Diphtheria
bacillus c) Tetanus bacillus d) Escherichia coli
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213. Main methods of laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria: a)
bacteriological b) biological c) serological d) allergic 214. Main
methods of laboratory diagnosis of tetanus in patients: a)
bacterioscopic b) bacteriological c) biological d) allergic 215.
Main methods of laboratory diagnosis of gas gangrene in
patients: a) bacterioscopic b) biological c) bacteriological d) serological
216. Main methods of laboratory diagnosis of botulism: a ) bacterioscopic
b) bacteriological c ) biological d) allergic d) branched 218. Morphology
of the causative agent of tetanus: a) rod-shaped, with spores - "drum"
stick; b) clavate; c) coccoid; d) twisted. 219. Morphology of causative
agents of gas gangrene: a ) club-shaped b) tortuous c ) coccoid d) rod- shaped )
Volutin grains randomly located in the cytoplasm of bacteria d) Gram-positive
spindle-shaped rods 221. Antitoxic anti-diphtheria serum is obtained by
hyperimmunization of horses with : anti-diphtheria antitoxic sera: a) for treatment
b) for active immunization c) for disease provocation
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d) for diagnosis
223. Tetanus toxoid according to the Ramon method is prepared by influencing
toxin:
a) temperature factor for 5 days b)
temperature factor and formalin for 20 days c) formalin for
20 days d) temperature factor and formalin for 30 days ) for
prevention c) for serodiagnosis d) for identification of the
causative agent of diphtheria 225. What elective media are used for cultivating
pathogens of gas gangrene: a) meat-peptone broth b) 1% peptone water c)
Ploskirev's medium d) Kitt-Tarozzi medium 226. What is it used for ? Shika's
toxin: a) diagnostics b) active immunization c) determination of the presence of
immunity d) treatment 227. What is the Bezredk method used for: a) to create
active immunity; b) to create passive immunity; c) to prevent anaphylactic shock;
d) to identify the pathogen. 228. How to prepare tetanus toxoid: a) keeping the
toxin in a thermostat at a temperature of 37o - 10 days b) keeping the toxin in a
mixture with formalin at a temperature of 18o - 30 days c) sorption of the resulting
toxoid on an aluminum hydroxide gel d) sorption of the resulting preparation on
calcium phosphate 229. How agglutinating antidiphtheria sera are prepared: a)
hyperimmunization of horses with a killed culture of the pathogen b) infection
with a culture of the pathogen of rabbits c ) hyperimmunization of rabbits with a
killed culture of the pathogen d) hyperimmunization of rabbits with diphtheria
toxoid identification of the type of pathogen c) identification of the serovar of the
causative agent of diphtheria d) serodiagnosis of diphtheria diphtheria d)
diphtheria seroprophylaxis 232. What pathogens secrete exotoxin that differ in
antigenic properties? a) the causative agent of tetanus;
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b) the causative agent of
diphtheria; c) the causative
agent of anthrax; d) the
causative agent of botulism. 233. What vaccine is used to prevent
tuberculosis: a) killed b ) live c) chemical d) synthetic ) with
patients with tuberculosis d) patients with other diseases 235.
When the first administration of tuberculosis vaccine is carried
out: a) on the 5-7th day after birth b) at 3 months of age c) at the
age of 12 months d) at 18 years of age 236. The high content of
lipids in the cell wall of tuberculosis bacteria is explained by: a)
resistance to acids, alcohol, alkalis b) resistance to antibiotics c)
slow growth on nutrient media d) exactingness to the nutrient medium Loeffler
b) meat-peptone agar c ) blood agar d) Lowenstein-Jensen medium 238. Rapid
diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried out using: immunofluorescence (direct
method) d) immunofluorescence reaction (indirect method) 239. A feature of
the bacteriological research method in tuberculosis
is an:
a) treatment of the test material with acid, alkali b)
inoculation on serum media c) the use of carbohydrate
media d ) the concentration of the material by the flotation
method The causative agent of tuberculosis enters the
body: a) airborne b) transmissible c) through intact skin d)
alimentary
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242. Tuberculosis inspection produces immunity: a) nonsterile b) antitoxic c) local d) sterile 243. Allergic reorganization
in tuberculosis infection is characterized by: a) immediate
type hypersensitivity b) delayed type hypersensitivity c) serum
sickness d) atopic reaction 244. Tuberculin is a biological
preparation that is used to: a) create immunity b) reveal the state of sensitization
of the body c) treat patients with tuberculosis d) for laboratory diagnosis 245. A
positive Mantoux reaction may indicate: ) the body c) the presence of postinfectious immunity in anthrax d) the presence of post-vaccination immunity in
tuberculosis 246. Tuberculin is used intradermally to detect sensitization of the
body in reactions: sensitization 248. Mass vaccination against tuberculosis is
carried out: a) according to epidemiological indications b) planned (according to
the vaccination schedule) c) taking into account the season d ) in endemic areas
249 The causative agent of leprosy is cultivated on media: a) simple b) complex
c) in cell cultures d) in the body of American armadillos 250. The following
methods are used to diagnose leprosy: a) microscopic b) bacteriological c)
serological d) biological 251. What biological preparation is used to detect
sensitization in leprosy: a) angraxin b) tetany
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c) lepromin d)
tularin 252.
Lepromin (allergen) is prepared from: a) a
culture of the causative agent of leprosy b)
waste products of the causative agent of leprosy c) biopsy
leprosy patients with leprosy d) antigens of the causative agent
of leprosy 253. The source of infection in leprosy is: a) animals
b) infected water c) a sick person d) infected food 254. The
material for research in leprosy is: a) sputum b) scraping from
the nasal mucosa c) feces, bile d) areas of affected skin, pieces
of an affected organ or tissue. 255. Which microbiological
research method is used to diagnose leprosy: a) bacterioscopic
b) bacteriological c) serological d) biological 256. Tuberculosis
vaccine (BCG) contains : glycido-lipido-polysaccharide complex
of the causative agent of tuberculosis 257. Candidiasis is a
disease that is caused by: a) filamentous fungi b) radiant fungi c)
yeast-like fungi d) mycobacteria 258. Microbiological diagnosis of superficial
candidiasis is carried out
method:
a) microscopic b)
serological c) allergic d)
biological 259.
Microbiological diagnosis
of visceral candidiasis is carried out
method:
a) macroscopic b)
bacteriological c) serological
d) biological 260. Methods
of laboratory diagnostics of
actinomycosis are: a) bacteriological b) bacterioscopic c) serological d) biological
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a) lysis reaction
b) agglutination reaction
c) CSC d) RPHA 262. To
pathogens of especially
dangerous and highly contagious bacterial infections
relate:
a) the causative agent of
syphilis b) the causative
agent of tetanus c) the
causative agent of
tularemia d ) the causative agent of diphtheria The listed causative agents
of zooanthroponic infections are gram-negative bacteria: a) the causative
agent of plague b) the causative agent of brucellosis c) the causative agent
of tularemia d) the causative agent of anthrax 265. Which of the causative
agents of zooanthroponotic infections are gram-positive bacteria: a) c. plague
b) c. brucellosis c) c. tularemia d) c. anthrax 266. What method can be used
to isolate the pathogen in the laboratory diagnosis of tularemia: a)
bacterioscopic b) bacteriological c) biological d) serological 267. What microbiological
methods are used in laboratory diagnosis of brucellosis: a) bacterioscopic b)
bacteriological c) biological d) Serological 268 In which infection is the specific
sensitization of the organism determined by the Burne test: a) plague b) tularemia c)
brucellosis d) dysentery
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c) brucellosis
d) anthrax 270.
Which infection is diagnosed with Wright's agglutination test: a) typhoid fever b) Q
fever c) plague d) brucellosis 271. Specify the diseases in which farm animals are
the main source of infection: a) cholera b) typhoid fever c) brucellosis d) tularemia
272. In which zooanthroponic infections rodents are carriers and sources of infection:
a) anthrax b) brucellosis c) plague d) tularemia a) live (attenuated) vaccine b) killed
(inactivated) vaccine c) toxoid d) genetically engineered vaccine - engineered
vaccine 275. Which of the following drugs are used to vaccinate people at risk of
brucellosis infection: a) live vaccine b) killed vaccine c) toxoid d) chemical vaccine
276. Which of the following vaccine preparations is used for the specific prevention
of anthrax: a) live vaccine b) killed c) chemical vaccine d) genetically engineered
vaccine 277. The microscopic method of preliminary diagnosis of plague is based on
detection:
a) motility b)
spore formation c)
virulence enzymes d)
bipolarity when stained with Leffler's blue 278. The
microscopic method of preliminary diagnosis of anthrax is based
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on detection:
a) capsules b)
motility c) spore
formation d) virulence
enzymes 279. What features of the
biological properties of brucellosis pathogens Br. Melitensis, Br. Bovis, Br. Suis: a) morphology b) proteolytic enzymes c) type
of respiration d) effect of fuchsin and thionine on the growth of pathogens Wright's reaction d) agglutination reaction 281. To
detect anthrax antigen in the test material, the following is used: a) bacterioscopy b) Ascoli precipitation reaction c)
agglutination reaction d) lysis reaction 282. Brucellosis infection according to the form of the course is: a) acute b) focal c)
generalized d) chronic 283. A single brucellosis diagnosticum in the Wright test allows to detect antibodies in the patient's
blood serum: a) only to Br. abortus b) only to Br. melitensis c) only to Br. suis d) to all types of the causative agent of
brucellosis 284. After immunization with a live brucellosis vaccine, immunity is formed in the human body: a) natural b)
artificial c) passive d) antitoxic 285. After immunization with anthrax live vaccine, immunity is formed in the human body: a)
natural b ) active c) local d ) passive tularemia
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b) prevention c)
diagnosis of specific sensitization of the organism d)
detection of antibodies 288. Pestin is a biological preparation
used for: a) treatment of plague b) prevention c) detection of antibodies
d) for the diagnosis of specific sensitization of the organism 289. The
causative agent of syphilis is: a a) T. pertenue b) T. pallidum c) T.
denticola d) B. Persica 290. The causative agent of leptospirosis is: a)
B. - recurrens b) T. pertenue c) L. interrogans d) T. Vincentii 291. Main
methods laboratory diagnostics of syphilis are: a) microscopic b)
bacteriological c) biological d) allergic 292. For early serodiagnostics of
leptospirosis, the following are used : Specific prevention of leptospirosis
is carried out with a vaccine: a) live b) killed c) chemical d) associated
294. Serological diagnostics of leptospirosis is carried out: from the 4th
day of the disease c) from the 2nd week of the disease d) from the 4th
week of the disease (express diagnostics of syphilis) d) TPHA 296. In
what immunological reactions, in the serodiagnosis of syphilis, do you
use cardiolipin antigen: human body
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immunity is formed: a)
artificial b) passive c) natural
d) local 298. What are the
properties of the morphology
of treponema differ from
borreliae: a) spiral shape b) the internal structure of the cell c) type of movement d) the
ability to stain with aniline dyes 299. The causative agent of syphilis - pale treponema differs from non-venereal trepanematoses pathogens: a) morphology b) exactingness to
the nutrient medium c) antigenic properties d) method of transmission from a patient to
a healthy one 300. Types of brucellosis pathogens - Br. bovis, Br. melitensis, Br. suis are
determined by the following properties: a) Gram stain b) morphology c) saccharolytic
activity d) formation of H2S during growth on BCH
1. Clinical examination made it possible to establish a preliminary diagnosis: stomach cancer.
Lactic acid was found in the gastric juice. What type of glucose catabolism occurs in cancer
cells?
A. Glucose-alanine cycle
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Pentose phosphate cycle
D. Aerobic glycolysis
*E. Anaerobic glycolysis
2. The dentist, examining the patient, drew attention to excessive salivation. The doctor used
a drug that causes dryness in the oral cavity. Specify this drug:
A. Prozerin
B. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
S. Galantamine
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D. Phentolamine
* ÿ. Atropine sulfate
3. During the operation for a granuloma in the area of the right upper incisor, bleeding occurred,
which was stopped only after 3 hours. The patient has a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
* A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Leukopenia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Lymphocytosis
E. Thrombocytopathy
4. A patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of bloating, diarrhea, flatulence after
eating protein foods, which indicates a violation of the digestion of proteins and their increased
decay. Which of the following substances is the product of this process in the intestine?
A. Bilirubin
*IN. Indole
S. Agmatin
D. Putrescine
E. Cadaverine
5. A patient developed acute heart failure against the background of hypertension.
Which of the following means is most appropriate in this case?
A. Digoxin
*V. Korglikon
S. Cordiamin
D. Caffeine
E. Cardiovalen
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6. A patient has a grayish-white focus on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity,
dense, protruding above the mucous membrane. Histologically, hyperkeratosis,
parakeratosis, and acanthosis of the epithelium were found in this area. What pathological
process has developed in the mucous membrane?
A. Leucoderma
B. Local tumor amyloidosis
C. Focal ichthyosis
* D. Leukoplakia
E. Hyalinosis
7. The patient has an allergic reaction, accompanied by itching, swelling and redness of the
skin. The concentration of what biogenic amine increased in tissues?
A. Tryptamine
B. Dopamine
C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
D. Serotonin
* E. Histamine
8. From a sick child with suspected diphtheria, a discharge from the affected mucous
membrane of the pharynx was taken for examination. A smear prepared and stained.
Microscopy revealed yellow sticks with dark blue thickenings at the ends. What structural
element of a microbial cell is determined in the detected microorganisms?
*AND. Grain volute
B. Plasmids
C. flagella
D. Capsule
E. Spores
9. In the histological preparation of the tubular bone, signs of the regenerative process (corn)
were found at the fracture site. What tissue forms this structure?
A. Loose connective
*IN. Coarse-grained bone
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C. reticular
D. Epithelial
E. Lamellar bone
10. A patient suffering from chronic renal failure has developed osteoporosis.
Violation of the synthesis in the kidneys of what regulator of mineral metabolism is
the cause of osteoporosis?
A. Proline hydroxylation
B. Hydroxylation of lysine
C. Carboxylation of glutamate
*D. Formation of 1,25(OH)2D3
E. Hydroxylation of cortisol
11. The patient has an increase in certain parts of the body (jaw, nose, ears, feet, bones)
while maintaining the proportions of the body. With the increased secretion of what
hormone it can be connected?
A. Triodthyronine
B. Tetraiodothyronine
C. Somatostatin
* D. Somatotropin
E. Cortisol
12. X-ray examination of a patient revealed a cyst in the area of the premolar, in the
cavity of which there is a tooth. Microscopically: the cyst wall is represented by
connective tissue and is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
*A. Follicular cyst
B. Primordial cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
E. Epulis
13. During a laboratory examination of a child, an increased content in
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blood and urine of leucine, valine, isoleucine and their keto derivatives. The urine had a
characteristic smell of maple syrup. Which enzyme deficiency caused this disease?
A. Aminotransferase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase
*WITH. Branched amino acid dehydrogenase
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Phosphofructomutase
14. A patient has herpetic stomatitis on the background of immunosuppression. What drug, used
intravenously, orally and locally, will provide antiviral and immunostimulatory effects?
A. Remantadin
*IN. Acyclovir
S. Metisazon
D. Levamisole
E. Amoxicillin
15. On a micropreparation made from an unknown organ, acini were found containing 10-15
cone-shaped cells with basophilic cytoplasm, a round nucleus and a well-developed granular
endoplasmic reticulum. The acinus is surrounded by a basement membrane, in the cleavage of
which myoepithelial cells are localized. What organ was the cut made from?
A. Lungs
B. Sublingual gland
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
*E. Parotid salivary gland
16. In the treatment of skin diseases with a pronounced inflammatory component in the maxillofacial
region, topical glucocorticoids are used in dental practice. Which of the following drugs has the least
resorptive effect?
A. Hydrocortisone
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*V. flumethasone pivalate
C. Triamcinolone
D. Prednisolone
E. Dexamethasone
17. An electron microscopic study of the cell revealed rounded vesicles limited by a membrane
and containing a wide variety of hydrolytic enzymes. It is known that these organelles provide
intracellular digestion and protective reactions of the cell. These elements are:
*A. Lysosomes
ÿ. Ribosomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria
E. Centrosomes
18. A married couple addressed a medical genetic consultation with a question about the
probability of having children with an X-linked form of rickets (dominant trait). The father is healthy,
the mother is heterozygous and suffers from this disease. Vitamin-resistant rickets can get sick:
A. Only daughters
B. All children
C. All children will be healthy
*D. Half of all daughters and sons
E. Only sons
19. A patient with jaundice has an increase in total bilirubin in the blood due to its indirect fraction.
Urine and feces are intensely colored. What is the most likely mechanism for these disorders?
A. Violation of the conversion of urobilinogen in the liver
B. Difficulty in the outflow of bile from the liver
C. Violation of the formation of direct bilirubin
D. Damage to the liver parenchyma
*E. Increased hemolysis of red blood cells
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20. A person's heart rate was determined by pulse. It is equal to 120 per minute. What is the
duration of the heart cycle?
A. 0.7 s
B. 0.9 s
S. 1.0 s
D. 0.8 s
* ÿ. 0.5 s
21. When determining the energy consumption of the human body by indirect calorimetry, it
was found that 1000 ml of oxygen is consumed in one minute and 800 ml of carbon dioxide is
released. What is the respiratory quotient in the examined person?
A. 1,0
B. 1.25
S. 0.84
*D. 0,8
E. 0.9
22. During the examination by doctors of the sanitary and epidemiological station of workers in
the public catering sector, asymptomatic parasite carriers are often found, when a healthy
person is a source of cysts that infect other people. For parasitism of what pathogen such a
phenomenon is impossible?
A. Dermatotropic leishmania
*IN. Dysenteric amoeba
C. Viscerotropic Leishmania
D. Intestinal Trichomonas
E. Plasmodium falciparum
23. A 20-year-old patient complains of debilitating thirst and profuse urination (up to 10 liters per
day). The concentration of glucose in the blood is within the normal range, there is no glucose in
the urine. Which hormone deficiency can cause such a clinical picture?
A. Insulin
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*V. Vasopressin
C. Cortisol
D. Oxytocin
E. Triiodothyronine
24. A patient with edema was prescribed a K+-retaining diuretic - an al-dosterone
antagonist. Define this drug:
A. Allopurinol
B. Digoxin
*WITH. Spironolactone
D. Novocainamide
E. Klofelin
25. A 30-year-old patient was diagnosed bacteriologically with amoebic dysentery. Specify the
drug for the treatment of this disease:
A. Furacillin
B. mebendazole
C. Itraconazole
D. Acyclovir
* E. Metronidazole
26. A 38-year-old patient came to the hospital with complaints that, after suffering an acute viral
respiratory disease, she lost the sensation of touching food to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, as
well as the sensation of pain and temperature (burned her tongue with hot tea). Specify which of
the branches of which nerve was damaged in this case?
*A. Lingual nerve of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. Lingual branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Lingual nerves of the hypoglossal nerve
D. Superior laryngeal nerve of the vagus nerve
E. Tympanic string of the facial nerve
27. A patient has dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia. When collecting an anamnesis,
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It was found that the main food of the patient is corn. What vitamin deficiency is associated with
these disorders?
A. Vitamin B1
*IN. Vitamin PP
C. Vitamin B8
D. Vitamin B9
E. Vitamin B2
28. A patient developed intestinal paresis after surgery. Which drug from the group of
anticholinesterases should be prescribed to him?
A. Aceclidine
B. Acetylcholine
S. Pilocarpine
D. Carbacholin
* ÿ. Proserine
29. After a cold, a patient has a violation of the release of tears. What vegetative node suffered most
in this case?
A. Ear
*V. Pterygopalatine
C. ciliate
D. Submandibular
E. Sublingual
30. A 16-year-old girl consulted a dentist about the dark color of her teeth enamel. When
studying the pedigree, it was found that this pathology is transmitted from the father to all girls, and
from the mother - 50% of boys. What type of inheritance is characterized by these features?
A. Recessive, linked to the Y chromosome
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
*D. Dominant, X-linked
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E. Recessive, X-linked
31. An increase in the content of free fatty acids (FFA) is observed in the blood of patients with diabetes
mellitus. The reason for this may be:
A. Activation of the utilization of ketone bodies
C. Activation of the synthesis of apolipoproteins A-1, A-2, A-4
C. Accumulation of palmitoyl-CoA in the cytosol
D. Decreased activity of plasma phosphatidylcholine-cholesteine acyltransferase
*E. Increased activity of triglyceride lipase of adipocytes
32. When examining the oral cavity of a 60-year-old man, the following changes were found: the 26th and
27th teeth are covered with metal crowns that go deep under the gums. Between them is a periodontal pocket
0.7 cm deep with a small amount of pus. The gingival papillae of these teeth are hyperemic, edematous, with
a qi anotic tint, and bleed when touched with a probe. On the x-ray
resorption of interdental septa by 1/2 of the root length. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic gingivitis
V. *WITH. Local periodontitis
D. Generalized periodontitis
E. Chronic catarrhal gingivitis
33. A student's mouth dries up during an exam. The reason for this is the implementation of such reflexes:
*A. Conditional sympathetic
B. Conditioned parasympathetic
C. Unconditioned parasympathetic
D. Conditional and unconditioned sympathetic E. Unconditioned sympathetic and para
sympathetic
34. During deworming with faeces, a helminth up to 2 m long was isolated. The body is segmented, with
a small head, on which there are four suckers and hooks. Determine the type of helminth:
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A. dwarf tapeworm
B. Unarmed tapeworm
C. Lentets wide
*D. Armed tapeworm
ÿ. Echinococcus
35. A patient with Itsenko-Cushing's syndrome has persistent hyperglycemia and glucosuria,
hypertension, osteoporosis, and obesity. Synthesis and secretion of what hormone increases
in this case?
A. Glucagon
B. thyroxin
C. Adrenaline
* D. Cortisol
E. Aldosterone
36. A student turned to a doctor with a request to prescribe a drug for the
treatment of allergic rhinitis, which he developed during the flowering of linden. What tool
can be used?
A. Lozartan
*V. Loratadine
S. Ambroxol
D. Norepinephrine hydrotartrate
E. Anaprilin
37. HBs-antigen was determined in the blood serum during the ELISA reaction. What
disease is this antigen associated with?
A. AIDS
B. Tuberculosis
C. Viral hepatitis A
*D. Viral hepatitis B
E. Syphilis
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38. A patient with systemic scleroderma has increased collagen breakdown. Increased
urinary excretion of what amino acid will reflect the destruction of the collagen gene?
A. Serin
B. Tryptophan
S. Phenylalanine
D. Alanine
* ÿ. Oxyproline
39. In a patient with chronic glomerulonephritis, the endocrine function of the kidneys is
impaired. Which blood cells deficiency will it lead to?
A. Red blood cells and white blood cells
B. Leukocytes and platelets
*WITH. red blood cells
D. Platelets
E. Leukocytes
40. An 18-year-old boy with an asthenic physique turned to a geneticist: narrow shoulders, wide
pelvis, tall stature, sparse facial hair. Pronounced mental retardation. A provisional diagnosis
was made: Klinefelter's syndrome. What method of medical genetics will confirm this diagnosis?
A. Genealogical
B. Dermatoglyphics
*WITH. cytogenetic
D. Gemini
E. Population-statistical
41. In the experiment, electrical impulses irritate the nerve, which leads to the release of a
small amount of thick, viscous saliva by the sublingual and submaxillary glands. What nerve
is being stimulated?
ÿ. N. vagÿs
ÿ. Facial nerve
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* ÿ. N.sytpathicÿs
DNglossopharupgeus
E. N.trigetipis
42. An athlete needs to improve sports performance. To do this, he is recommended to
use a drug containing carnitine. Which process is most activated by this compound?
A. Transport of amino acids
B. Glucose transport
*WITH. Fatty acid transport
D. Vitamin K transport
E. Transport of calcium ions
43. In a biopsy of the arches of the soft palate, taken in connection with a suspected tumor (an
ulcer with a dense bottom was determined macroscopically), mucosal necrosis was found with
infiltration of the submucosal layer with lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, plasma cells, single
neutrophils. The presence of pronounced endo- and perivasculitis is noteworthy. For what disease
the described changes are characteristic?
A. Ulcerative stomatitis
B. Aphthous stomatitis
*WITH. Primary syphilis
D. Ulcerative necrotic stomatitis of Vincent
E. Diphtheria yawns
44. A 40-year-old man with stenosing (without metastases) cancer of the esophagus has
the following changes: atrophy of skeletal muscles and adipose tissue. The skin is earthy-brown
in color, the epidermis is thinned, the heart is reduced in size. Myocardium and liver brown. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Addison's disease
B. Cancer cachexia
C. brown atrophy
*D. Alimentary cachexia
E. Myasthenia
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45. When studying a section of a tooth of a 40-year-old man, optically dense linear structures up to
l / 3 of the enamel thickness, spindle-shaped, were identified on the dentin-enamel border. What structures
did the researcher identify?
A. "Dead" paths
B. Carious damage
C. Enamel tufts
D. Denticles
* ÿ. Enamel spindles
46. During a surgical intervention, a woman had a need to re
knit the uterine artery. Which of the formations can be accidentally bandaged along with it?
A. Round ligament of uterus
B. Urethra
* ÿ. Ureter
D. Fallopian tube
E. Internal iliac vein
47. After sprinting, untrained people experience muscle strength due to the accumulation of lactate.
With the strengthening of what biochemical process in the body can this be associated?
A. Pentose phosphate cycle
B. Glycogenesis
S. Glycolysis
D. Lipogenesis
E. Gluconeogenesis
48. After a staphylococcal infection, a patient developed edematous syndrome (anasarca). Massive
proteinuria was found in the urine. In the blood: hypoproteinemia, hyperlipidemia. What pathology can
be assumed?
A. CRF
B. Pyelonephritis
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C. Urolithiasis
D. Glomeluronephritis
* ÿ. Nephrotic syndrome
49. A patient went to a polyclinic with complaints of difficulty in urination. After examination,
hypertrophy of the organ covering the proximal urethra was found. What is this organ?
A. Bulbo-urethral gland
B. Seminal vesicles
C. Epididymis
D. Bulb of the penis
*E. Prostate
50. For disinfection of non-metallic instruments in the surgical department, a
formaldehyde solution was used. What group according to the chemical structure
does this antiseptic preparation belong to?
A. Detergents
B. Halogen compounds
C. Alcohols
D. Aromatics
*E. Means of the aliphatic series
51. An outbreak of food poisoning has been reported associated with the use of
confectionery products that were stored at room temperature and in the manufacture of
which duck eggs were used. What microorganism could cause this disease?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
V. legionella
C. E. coli
D. Vibrio cholerae
*IS. Salmonella
52. A person with acute poisoning was delivered to the emergency department of the hospital
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morphine. What specific antagonist of narcotic analgesics should be used in this case?
A. Metacin
B. Paracetamol
* ÿ. Naloxone
D. Unitiol
E. Digoxin
53. A sick person has deformed jaw bones. Histologically, there was an overgrowth of cellularfibrous tumor-like tissue with primitive osteogenesis without clear boundaries in place of the
bones. What disease is this picture typical for?
* A. Fibrous dysplasia
B. Parathyroid osteodystrophy
C. osteosarcoma
D. Ameloblastoma
E. Eosinophilic granuloma
54. Examination of a child revealed: growth of the pharyngeal tonsil, which makes it
difficult for air to escape from the nasal cavity. What openings of the nasal cavity are
blocked in this disease?
A. Nostrils
B. Pterygopalatine
S. Gaymorova gap
*D. joans
E. Pear-shaped
55. A patient suffers from bradyarrhythmia against the background of hypertension.
What drug should be prescribed to him?
A. Papaverine hydrochloride
V. Klofelin
S. Reserpine
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D. Methyldopa
* ÿ. Platifillina hydrotartrate
56. A patient who had been suffering from a kidney disease for many years died with symptoms
of uremia. On autopsy: the kidneys are sharply reduced in size, dense, finely granular, light gray
in color. What are kidneys with such changes called?
*A. recycled wrinkled
V. Motley
WITH. -
D. Sebaceous
E. Primarily wrinkled
57. A 2-year-old patient in serious condition was admitted to the neurological department due
to cerebral hemorrhage. Objectively: there is an increase in the depth and frequency of breathing,
and then its decrease to apnea, after which the cycle of respiratory movements is restored. What
type of breathing did the patient have?
*A. Cheyne-Stokes
V. Kussmaul
C. Apneustic
D. Gasping breath
E. Biota
58. A 20-year-old patient complains of general weakness. dizziness, rapid fatigue. The examination
revealed: blood hemoglobin 80 g/l, microscopically reshaped erythrocytes. The reason for this may be:
A. Parenchymal jaundice
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
* ÿ. Sickle cell anemia
D. Obstructive jaundice
E. Addison's disease
59. The victim has a right-sided fracture and hemorrhage (hematoma) in the area of the anterior third
of the lower jaw, loss of skin sensitivity in the chin area. What nerve is injured?
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A. Superior alveolar nerves
B. Maxillofacial nerves
C. Buccal nerve
D. Mental nerve
*E. inferior alveolar nerve
+60. When examining the child's oral cavity, the pediatrician found 8 incisors. The development of
the child corresponds to the age norm. Determine the age of the child: A. 12-15 months
*V. 10-12 months
C. 6-7 months
D. 7-8 months
E. 16-20 months
61. Inositol triphosphates in body tissues are formed as a result of hydrolysis of
phosphatidylinositol diphosphates and play the role of second messengers (messengers)
in the mechanism of hormone action. What is their action in the cell?
*A. Release of calcium ions from cellular depots
B. Inhibition of protein kinase C
C. Activation of protein kinase A
D. Activation of adenylate cyclase
E. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
62. A 75-year-old patient with a heart rate of 40/min was implanted with a cardiac pacemaker.
After that, the heart rate rose to 70/mi. The function of which part of the heart was taken over
by the pacemaker?
A. Legs of His
B. Atrioventricular node
*WITH. sinoatrial node
D. Volokon Purkinje
E. Bundle of His fibers
63. In a blood smear of a patient after influenza, 10% of rounded
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cells 4.5-7 microns in size, which have a large rounded nucleus, basophilic stained cytoplasm in
the form of a narrow border around the nucleus. What state of the blood do they characterize?
*A. Lymphocytopenia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Monocytopenia
D. thrombopenia
E. Leukopenia
64. The characteristic signs of cholera are the loss of large amounts of water and sodium ions by
the body. What mechanism underlies the occurrence of diarrhea in this case?
A. Increased synthesis of corticotropin
*V. Enterocyte adenylate cyclase activation
C. Inhibition of vasopressin synthesis in the hypothalamus
D. Increased renin secretion by renal arteriole cells
E. Oxidation of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex
65. A doctor suspected scarlet fever in a 2-year-old child with catarrhal symptoms and a skin rash.
A small amount of serum to erythrogenic streptococcus toxin was administered intradermally to the
child, and the rash disappeared at the injection site. What do the reaction results mean?
A. The disease was caused by non-hemolytic streptococcus
B. The entire dose of serum can be administered intravenously
C. The child has hypersensitivity to erythrogenic toxin
*D. Clinical diagnosis confirmed
E. The child's immune system is very weakened.
66. The victim has arterial bleeding from an incised wound in the region of the anterior edge of the
masticatory muscle. Which vessel should be tied?
A.a.taxiIlaris
* ÿ. A.facialis
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ÿ. Aa. lower labials
DAlingualis
E. A. teptalis
67. A patient was prescribed paracetamol to reduce body temperature during fever and reduce
toothache. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Phosphodiesterase blocking
B. Blocking monoamine oxidase
C. Cholinesterase blocking
D. Blocking lipoxygenase
* ÿ. Cyclooxygenase blocking
68. A 42-year-old man has been suffering from chronic granulomatous periodontitis, chronic purulent
osteomyelitis of the lower jaw for 8 years. He died with symptoms of chronic renal failure. What
complication of purulent osteomyelitis has developed an axis in the kidneys?
A. Necrosis of the epithelium of the convoluted tubules
B. Fatty degeneration
C. atrophy
D. Hyalinosis
* ÿ. Amyloidosis
69. Man, 52 years old. 3 years ago, he underwent an operation to remove the stomach. In the blood: er.2.00 * 1012 / l, Hb - 85 g / l, CP - 1.27. Violation of the assimilation of what vitamin caused these changes?
A. B6
V. S
* ÿ. BI2
D. R
E. A
70. Macroscopic examination of the lung tissue revealed areas of increased airiness with the presence
of small blisters, and histologically - thinning and
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rupture of the alveolar septa with the formation of large cavities of various shapes.
What disease is found in the lung?
*A. Emphysema
B. Fibrosing alveolitis
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Cavernous tuberculosis
E. Bronchiectasis
71. Examination of a patient revealed a change in the secretory function of the parotid
salivary gland, which is associated with a violation of its autonomic innervation. Which of
the nodes of the autonomic nervous system gives off post-nodal parasympathetic fibers for
it?
ÿ. Ganglion ciliary
B. Gangliop pferygopalatinuut
S. Gangliop subtandibulae
D. Gÿngliÿÿ sublingllale
*ÿ. Ganglion oticuÿ
72. There is a 9-year-old boy in the endocrinology department who has several times
had fractures of the limbs associated with bone fragility. The function of which endocrine
glands (glands) is impaired?
A. Adrenal
*V. Parathyroid
S. epiphysis
D. Thyroid
E. Fork
73. As a result of pinpoint hemorrhage in the retina, the patient lost the ability to see
objects in the center of the visual field. Where did the hemorrhage occur in the retina?
A. Blind spot
B. Iridescent part of the retina
C. Ciliary part of the retina
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*D. Yellow spot
E. Choroid
74. When intervening to treat a dislocation of the lower jaw, the doctor must remember
the action of the muscle, the posterior bundles of which pull back the protruding lower
jaw. Which muscle are you talking about?
*. M.teÿporalis
V. m.tasseter
ÿ. M.pterygoideus ÿedialis
D. M.ÿylohyoideÿs
E. M.pterygoideislateralis
75. When examining a tooth, a large cavity was found in its crown, the bottom of which
is a narrow layer of softened dentin, which separates this cavity from the pulp. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Periodontitis
W. Pulpit
*WITH. deep caries
D. Superficial caries
E. Medium caries
76. A three-month-old baby has a white coating on the mucous membrane of the mouth,
tongue and lips. The doctor suspected candidiasis. On what nutrient medium is it necessary
to inoculate the test material to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Clauberg
V. Endo
S. Ru
D. Levenstein-Jensen
* E. Saburo
77. A preparation with antiseptic properties provided by free oxygen released in the
presence of organic substances was used in a patient to treat the burn surface of the skin.
Choose the correct answer:
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A. Alcoholic iodine solution
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Furacillin
D. Sodium bicarbonate
* ÿ. Potassium permanganate
78. The surgeon plans to take lymph from the patient from the thoracic duct at the place where it
flows into the venous bed. Where should the catheter be placed for this purpose?
A. Right venous angle
B. Place of formation of the superior vena cava
C. Place of formation of the inferior vena cava
*D. Left venous angle
E. Place of formation of the portal vein
79. Microscopic examination of the surgical material (part of the lip with an ulcer), near the edges
and under the bottom of the ulcer in the connective tissue of the mucous membrane, revealed
epithelial complexes of atypical stratified epithelium, with figures of pathological mitosis. In the center
of the complexes are accumulations of bright pink concentric formations. What pathology has
developed?
*A. Squamous cell carcinoma with keratinization
B. Squamous cell carcinoma without keratinization
C. Transitional cell carcinoma
D. Papilloma
E. Basal cell carcinoma
80. In the laboratory, a group of researchers experimentally obtained non-nuclear mutant cells. The
synthesis of which compounds will be disturbed in them first of all?
A. Monosaccharides
*V. Transfer RNA
C. Lipids
D. Ribosomal RNA
E. Polysaccharides
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81. When examining a tubular organ, it was found that its middle shell consists of hyaline continuous
rings. What epithelium lines the mucous membrane of this organ?
A. Single-layer prismatic with a border B. Single-layer cubic
C. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
*D.Multicore prismatic ciliated
E. Single-layered prismatic glandular
82. Thrombosis of one of the branches of the inferior mesenteric artery was found in a patient with a
blood clotting disorder. What part of the intestine is affected?
. Transverse Colon
V. Saesim
S. Ileut
D. Solop ascepdeps
* ÿ. Solop sigtoideut
83. A 7-year-old girl was admitted to the infectious diseases clinic with high fever, complaints of sore
throat, general weakness. The doctor suspected diphtheria. Which of the following is critical for confirming
the diagnosis after isolation
pure culture of the pathogen?
A. Hemolytic ability of the pathogen
*V. Test for toxigenicity
C. Detection of volutin grains in the pathogen
D. Cystinase test
E. Phagolism
84. A purulent complication has developed in a patient in the burn unit. The discharge of pus has a bluishgreen hue, indicating an infection caused by Pseudotopas aerigiposa. What is the characteristic feature of
this pathogen?
A. Mycelium formation
B. coccal form
C. Arrangement of cells in pairs
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*D. Negative Gram stain
E. Existence of disputes
85. Microscopy of discharge from the gums of a patient with periodontal disease revealed
pear-shaped protozoa with a body length of 6-13 microns. The parasite has one nucleus, 4
flagella at the anterior end, and an undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the
patient?
ÿ. Balantidi
*IN. Trichomonas
S. leishmania
D. Amoeba
E. Lamblia
86. A 42-year-old patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, vomiting; emetic masses
of the color of "coffee grounds", melena. History of gastric ulcer. In the blood: er. - 2.8 * l012 / l,
leuk. - 8 * l09 / l, Hb - 90 g / l. Specify the most probable complication that occurred in the patient:
*A. Bleeding
C. Penetration
C. Perforation
D. Rebirth into Cancer
E. Pylorostenosis
87. Histological examination in the region of the neck of the own gland of the stomach reveals
small cells with a high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio and basophilic cytoplasm. Specify the function
of these cells:
*A. Regeneration of glandular epithelium
B. Secretion of chloride ions
C. Pepsinogen secretion
D. Protective
E. Endocrine
88. The patient was admitted to the clinic with a wound in the neck. Examination revealed a
damaged nerve located anterior to the anterior scalene muscle. What nerve is damaged?
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A. Sublingual
B. Glossopharyngeal
S. Wandering
*D. Diaphragmatic
E. Cervical sympathetic trunk
89. The patient was stung by a bee in the country. On examination: the left hand is hot, pink, edematous, at
the site of a bee sting there is a large red blister. Which of the mechanisms is leading in the development of
edema?
A. Decreased tissue oncotic pressure
*V. Increased vascular permeability
C. Damage to vessels during stinging
D. Decreased blood filling of vessels
E. Reducing the osmotic pressure of the tissue
90. In the morphological study of the bottom of the carious cavity of the tooth, three zones are clearly
differentiated: softened dentin, transparent dentin, replacement dentin. What stage of caries are these
changes typical for?
A. Chronic caries
B. Superficial caries
C. Deep caries
D. Spot stage
*E. Medium caries
91. A dentist found a shallow cavity with enamel damage between the two upper central incisors.
Diagnosis: caries. On what surface of the crown does the doctor fill the tooth?
* A. Fascial contactus tesialis
ÿ. Facies labialis
ÿ. Facies occlusialis
D. Facies coÿtactus distalis
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E. Facies lipgualis
92. A patient was delivered to the emergency room with bleeding from a lacerated wound in the corner
of the mouth. The integrity of which artery is broken?
*A. Facial
B. Maxillary
C. Anterior superior alveolar
D. Infraorbital
E. Pagan
93. It is known that information about the sequence of amino acids in a protein
molecule is recorded as a sequence of four types of nucleotides in a DNA molecule,
and different amino acids are encoded by a different number of triplets - from one to six.
What is this feature of the genetic code called?
A. Versatility
B. Tripletity
C. Specificity
D. Non-overlapping
*E. degeneracy
94. In an experiment on an animal, the middle part of the cochlea was destroyed. This led to
a violation of the perception of sound vibrations of such a frequency:
A. Low
*V. Middle
C. Low and medium
D. High
E. High and medium
95. On environmental objects and food products, Shigella Sonne antigens are detected
in a reaction using a diagnostic test system, which includes a polystyrene plate with
adsorbed specific antibodies. Name this reaction:
A. Immunoelectrophoresis reaction
V. RPGA
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* ÿ. ELISA
D. RIF
E. ROPGA
96. In order to prevent inflammation of the gums and improve the regeneration of periodontal epithelial
cells, one of the following vitamins is added to toothpastes:
A. Biotin
ÿ. Thiamine
S. Phyloquinone
D. Calciferol
* ÿ. Retinol
97. In many infectious diseases, pathogen antigens can be detected in the patient's blood. What reaction
should be used given that the level of antigenemia is low?
A. Agglutination reaction
B. Latex agglutination reaction
C. Immunoelectrophoresis
*D. Solid phase ELISA
E. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination
98. At a dentist's appointment, a patient had an attack of angina pectoris. What drug belonging to the group
of nitrates should be used in this case?
A. Menthol
B. Talinolol
S. Erinite
* D. Nitroglycerin
E. Validol
99. The doctor needs to anesthetize the anterior part of the mucous membrane of the hard palate. What nerve
blockade should he do?
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A. Infraorbital nerves
B. Pharyngeal nerves
C. Inferior alveolar nerves
*D. Nasopalatine nerves
E. Zygomatic nerves
100. During a long stay in a poorly ventilated room, the student's respiratory rate
increased. What receptors responded most quickly to an increase in the concentration
of carbon dioxide in the air?
A. Irritant receptors
B. Juxtaglomerular
*WITH. Central chemoreceptors
D. Vascular chemoreceptors
E. Olfactory
101. In the first grade, a medical examination of pupils was carried out in order to select
children for revaccination against tuberculosis. Which of the following samples was used?
*AND. Mantoux test
B. Skin test with tularin
S. Byrne test
D. Chic test
E. Anthraxin test
102. A patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of duodenal ulcer in the
acute phase. Analysis of gastric juice showed an increase in the secretory and acid-forming
function of the stomach. Choose a drug that will reduce the secretory function of the
stomach due to the blockade of H2 receptors:
A. Atropine
B. Metacin
*WITH. Ranitidine
D. Platifillin
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E. Dry belladonna extract
103. A patient consulted a doctor with complaints of increased pain sensitivity of the
skin behind the auricle and external auditory canal. Objectively: palpation behind the
sternocleidomastoid muscle is painful. Irritation of which of the nerves can give such a clinical
picture?
ÿ. N. Vagus
* ÿ. N.auricularis magÿus
C. N.trapsversus solli
D. Nÿ.supraclaviculares
E. N. accipitalis tipar
104. After the laying of milk teeth at the beginning of the 5th month of embryogenesis, the
growth ability of the dental plate behind the indicated layings was damaged by some factors.
What are the possible serious consequences?
A. The formation of Hertwig's vagina will be disturbed
B. The process of formation of the vestibule of the oral cavity will suffer
C. There will be no formation of dentin of milk teeth
*D. There will be no laying of permanent teeth
E. The neck of the enamel organ will not be destroyed
105. On a liver preparation, intralobular capillaries have a wide lumen, uneven along the
entire length. The basement membrane is absent in most of the capillary. What type are
these capillaries?
A. Precapillaries
B. Postcapillaries
C. somatic type
*D. Sinusoidal type
E. Visceralunotype
106. A 35-year-old patient diagnosed with infertility underwent a diagnostic endometrial biopsy
in the gynecological department. Microscopic examination revealed that the mucous membrane
was edematous, the uterine glands were convoluted and filled with a thick secret. Excess of
what hormone causes such changes in the endometrium?
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A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. ACTH
D. Testosterone
E. Somatotropin
107. Periodontal disease affects up to 50% of the population over the age of 30 worldwide.
The decisive role in the pathogenesis of this disease is played by:
A. Damage to periodontal tissues by kallikrein
B. Immune tissue damage
* ÿ. Neurodystrophic factor
D. Formation of tartar by microflora
E. Damage to the periodontium by active cells
108. As a result of an injury, the victim suffered a fracture in the outer lower third of the right
tibia. What bone did the fracture occur in?
A. Heel
ÿ. ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ
*WITH. fibula
D. Tibial
E. Thigh
109. Examination of a patient revealed that the cause of dental hypoplasia is hypovitaminosis
A and D. These vitamins were prescribed orally, but did not achieve a therapeutic effect.
What is the possible cause of impaired absorption of vitamins?
A. Achilia
B. Hyperchlorhydria
C. Hypochlorhydria
D. Achlorhydria
*E. Deficiency of bile acids
110. A patient developed arrhythmia in the cardiology department. The doctor prescribed
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amiodarone. What is the main mechanism of antiarrhythmic action of amiodarone?
A. Changes the sensitivity of the myocardium to acetylcholine
B. Inhibits cholinergic receptors
C. Stimulates histamine receptors *D. Primarily blocks potassium
channels
E. Activates serotonin receptors
111. When opening a deep abscess of the cheek, a vertical incision was made, after which
paresis (impaired function) of the muscles on the side of the operation is observed. Which nerve
did you cut?
A. Maxillary
*V. Facial
S. Wandering
D. Nizhnechelyustnoy
E. Sublingual
112. A 5-year-old child has a fever up to 400C, a sharp headache, vomiting, anxiety, chills. After
4 days, a hemorrhagic rash on the skin, oliguria and adrenal insufficiency appeared, which caused
death. Bacteriological examination of smears from the pharynx revealed meningococcus. What
form of meningococcal infection did the patient have?
A. Meningococcal meningitis
V. -
*WITH. Meningococcemia
D. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
E. Meningoencephalitis
113. As a result of an injury, a patient has impaired swallowing. Damage to which of the
following parts of the CNS is the most likely cause of this disorder?
A. Midbrain
B. Spinal cord, Th II-IV
ÿ. Hypothalamus
D. Spinal cord, C V-VI
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*E. Medulla
114. A man was diagnosed with a protozoan disease, in which the brain is affected and loss
of vision is observed. A blood test revealed unicellular organisms of a crescent shape with a
pointed end. The causative agent of this disease is:
A. Leishmania
V. amoeba
S. Lamblia
*D. Toxoplasma
E. Trichomonas
115. Enamel is characterized by high resistance to various mechanical and chemical factors.
Synthesis of what component provides such resistance?
A. Collagen
B. Carbonate apatite
C. Chlorapatite
*D. Hydroxyapatite
E. Fluoroapatite
116. A patient went to the hospital complaining of noise and pain in the ear. Objectively: the
patient has an acute respiratory disease, rhinitis. Through which orifice of the pharynx did
the infection enter the tympanic cavity and cause inflammation?
A. Joan
*V. Pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube
C. Tympanic opening of the auditory tube
D. Entrance to the larynx
E. Zev
117. During the autopsy of a 35-year-old woman, along with an increase in many lymph nodes,
an enlarged spleen weighing 600.0 was found; on the section it is heterogeneous, dark red,
dense, with areas of necrosis of a grayish-yellowish color, up to 1 cm in diameter (porphyritic
spleen). What disease can you think of?
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* A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Chronic lymphoid leukemia
C. Cancer metastases
D. Lymphosarcoma
E. Chronic myeloid leukemia
118. What substance gives saliva a viscous mucous character, performs a protective role,
including from mechanical damage to the oral mucosa?
A. Kallikrein
*V. Mucin
C. Glucose
D. Lysozyme
+ ÿ. Amylase
119. During the autopsy of a 70-year-old man who suffered from atherosclerosis for a
long time and died due to symptoms of cardiovascular insufficiency, macroscopic examination
reveals dense, oval-shaped fibrous plaques with lime deposits in the form of dense, brittle plates
in the abdominal aorta. Specify the stage of atherosclerosis morphogenesis:
A. Ulceration
B. Lipoidosis
C. Atheromatosis
D. Liposclerosis
* ÿ. Atherocalcinosis
120. A patient was taken to the hospital by ambulance. who, in a state of severe depression,
tried to commit suicide. What pharmacological agents should be prescribed to the patient?
A. Sedatives
*V. Antidepressants
C. Antipsychotics
D. Lithium salts
E. Tranquilizers
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121. When performing a vagosympathetic blockade according to Vishnevsky, novocaine
solution is injected along the posterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle of the neck
above the place where it intersects with the external jugular vein. Within what triangle of the
neck is the blockade performed?
A. Sleepy
*V. Scapular-trapezoid
C. Pirogov's Triangle
D. Submandibular
E. Clavicular-scapular
122. A patient has a skin defect after an extensive burn. To close the defect in this place, surgeons moved a
skin flap from another part of the body of the same patient. What type of transplant was performed?
A. Homotransplantation
B. Explantation
C. Allotransplantation
* D. Autotransplantation
E. Xenotransplantation
123. A patient lost his sight after a skull injury. What area of the cerebral cortex is damaged?
A. Temporal
V. Frontal
C. Parietal and temporal
D. Parietal
*E. 3occipital
124. When examining the patient's feces by helminthological methods, oval-shaped, brown eggs with a
tuberous outer shell were found. Set the type of helminth:
A. Lentets wide
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V. Vlasoglav
S. Ostritsa
* D. Ascaris
E. dwarf tapeworm
125. In a 42-year-old patient suffering from periodontal disease, rounded calcified
formations 2-3 mm in diameter were found in the coronal part of the pulp. Name these
structures:
A. Dead dentin
B. Intertubular dentin
* ÿ. Denticles
D. Interglobular spaces
E. Sclerosed (transparent) dentin
126. A patient consulted a doctor with complaints of dizziness, memory impairment,
periodic convulsions. It has been established that the cause of such changes is the
decarboxylation product of glutamic acid. Name it:
A. TDF
*V. GABA
S. PULF
D. THFC
ÿ. ATF
127. On autopsy of a 34-year-old man who died of rheumatism, the t-surface of the
epicardium is fleecy, covered with gray films that can be easily separated. After their
separation, an edematous plethoric surface is determined. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Catarrhal pericarditis
*V. Fibrinous pericarditis
C. Proliferative pericarditis
D. Hemorrhagic pericarditis
E. Purulent pericarditis
128. An electron micrograph shows a cell of a neural
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origin, which is part of the epithelium of the mucous membrane. The distal part of the
peripheral process of the cell has a club-shaped thickening, from which 10-12 cilia
extend. What is this cell?
A. Bipolar neuron of the spinal ganglion
B. Rod visual cell
C. Sensory epitheliocytes of the organ of taste
*D. olfactory cell
E. Cone visual cell
129. A newborn has hyperemia, edema on the oral mucosa, small erosions with viscous
mucopurulent discharge. In smears from the discharge, there are a large number of
leukocytes containing gram-negative diplococci. The same microorganisms are located
outside the leukocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Staphylococcal stomatitis
S. Blennorea
*D. Gonococcal stomatitis
E. Toxoplasmosis
130. The process of segmentation of the dorsal mesoderm and the formation of somites is disturbed in
the embryo. In what part of the skin are developmental disorders possible?
A. Epidermis
B. Sebaceous glands
C. hair
* D. Derma
E. Sweat glands
131. A patient with a closed fracture of the humerus is put in a plaster cast. The next day
there was swelling, cyanosis and coldness of the hand of the injured hand. What disorder
of the peripheral circulation do these signs indicate?
A. Arterial hyperemia
B. Ischemia
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*WITH. Venous congestion
D. Embolism
E. Thrombosis
132. A 9-year-old boy, mentally and physically retarded, was admitted to the hospital. A biochemical
blood test revealed an increased content of phenylalanine. Blocking of what enzyme can lead to such a
condition?
A. Aspartate aminotransferase
B. Glutamine transaminase
C. Glutamate decarboxylase
D. Homogentisic acid oxidase
* ÿ. Phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase
133. During blood transfusion, a patient began to develop intravascular hemolysis of erythrocytes. What type
of hypersensitivity did the patient develop?
A. Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
B. Type II hypersensitivity (granulomatosis)
C. Type III hypersensitivity (immunocomplex)
*D. Type II hypersensitivity (antibody dependent)
E. Type IV hypersensitivity (cellular cytotoxicity)
134. A person has an increased number of heart contractions, dilated pupils, dry mouth. This is a
consequence of the activation in the body of such a system of regulation of functions:
A. Hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal
B. Metasympathetic
C. Parasympathetic
*D. sympathetic
E. Vago-insular
135. After injection of a local anesthetic, a patient developed anaphylactic shock. What is the leading
mechanism of circulatory disorders in this case?
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*A. Decreased vascular tone
B. Activation of the sympathetic-adrenal system
C. Decreased contractile function of the heart
D. Pain
E. Hypervolemia
136. Microscopic examination of the infiltrate, which was removed from the mandibular
region of the skin of a 30-year-old patient, revealed: foci of purulent fusion, surrounded by
maturing granulations and mature connective tissue, in pus - drusen, consisting of numerous
short rod-shaped elements attached at one end to a homogeneous center. Determine what
disease the patient has:
A. syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
*WITH. Actinomycosis
D. E. Candidiasis
137. A patient has been diagnosed with a radicular cyst that has grown into the nasal
cavity. Which tooth is most likely affected?
A. Upper canine
B. Upper first premolar
C. Upper lateral incisor
D. Upper first molar
*E. Upper medial incisor
138. The medulla of a hematopoietic organ lobule on a histological preparation has a lighter
color and contains epithelial bodies. What organ do these morphological features belong to?
*A. thymus
V. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Lymph node
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E. Liver
139. A 50-year-old man suddenly developed a strong heartbeat, pain in the heart, severe
weakness, increased blood pressure; pulse irregular with deficiency. On the ECG: the
absence of a P wave and different intervals R - R. What kind of heart rhythm disorder does
the patient have?
*A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Paroxysmal tachycardia
C. Transverse heart block
D. Respiratory arrhythmia
E. Sinus extrasystole
140. A patient who was treated for a long time in the clinic of nervous diseases with
sedatives developed a complication: cough, runny nose, lacrimation. What drug led to such
disorders?
A. Phenazepam
W. Valerian
* ÿ. Sodium bromide
D. Diazepam
E. Reserpine
141. In dental practice, local anesthesia is widely used, when adrenaline is added to the
anesthetic solution. What is the purpose of such a method?
A. Decreased blood pressure
B. Improvement of microcirculation
C. Local decrease in vascular resistance
*D. local vasoconstriction
E. Local vasodilation
142. Recovery of an organism from an infectious disease is accompanied by
neutralization of antigens by specific antibodies. What cells produce them?
A. T-lymphocytes
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B. Eosinophils
C. Fibroblasts
*D. Plasma cells
E. Tissue basophils
143. A patient on the 2nd day after the development of myocardial infarction experienced
a sharp drop in systolic blood pressure to 60 mm Hg. With tachycardia 140/min, shortness
of breath, loss of consciousness. What is the leading mechanism in the pathogenesis of
developed shock?
*A. Decreased unary blood volume
B. Intoxication with necrotic decay products
C. Paroxysmal tachycardia
D. Decrease in circulating blood volume
E. Anaphylactic reaction to myocardial proteins
144. Periodontitis is accompanied by activation of proteolysis in periodontal tissues.
An increase in what component of the oral fluid indicates the activation of proteolysis?
A. Biogenic amines
*V. Amino acids
C. Glucose
D. Organic acids
E. Cholesterol
145. A woman lost about 800 ml of blood during childbirth. There are tachycardia, BP
100/70 mm Hg, tachypnea up to 28/min. What type of hypoxia primarily develops in this
clinical situation?
A. Mixed
B. Tissue
C. Respiratory
D. Cardiovascular
*E. bloody
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146. A 30-year-old patient who was admitted to the clinic with a diagnosis of acute
glomerulonephritis has proteinuria. What disorder caused this phenomenon?
A. Increased hydrostatic blood pressure in the capillaries
*V. Increasing the permeability of the renal filter
C. Delayed excretion of nitrogen metabolism products
D. Decreased oncotic pressure of blood plasma
E. Reducing the number of functioning nephrons
147. The victim has an injury to the upper jaw with damage to the infraorbital foramen.
What surface of the jaw is damaged?
A. Orbital
*V. Front
S. Nosovaya
D. -
E. Podvisochnaya
148. A patient underwent another examination, as a result of which hyperglycemia,
ketonuria, polyuria, glucosuria were found in him. What form of BBS violation takes place
in the presence of these phenomena?
* A. Metabolic acidosis
B. gas alkalosis
C. gasic acidosis
D. Non-gaseous acidosis
E. Metabolic alkaline
149. A newborn child is not gaining weight well, an increased content of orotic acid was found
in the urine, which indicates a violation of the synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides. What
metabolite should be used to normalize metabolism?
* A. Thymidine
V. Uridine
C. Guanosine
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D. Histidine
E. Adenosine
150. The rate of conduction of excitation in its various parts was studied on an isolated heart.
Where was the slowest speed found?
A. In the bundle of His
B. In Purkinje fibers
C. In the atrial myocardium
*D. At the atrioventricular node
E. In the myocardium of the ventricles
151. The doctor recorded in the medical history that the patient has shallow breathing (reduced
depth of breathing). This means that the next while is minified.
breather:
A. Vital capacity of the lungs
B. Minute volume of breathing
C. Exhalation capacity
D. Functional residual capacity
*E. Tidal volume
152. As a result of the expression of individual components of the genome, embryonic cells
acquire their characteristic morphological, biochemical and functional features. What is the name
of this process?
A. Reception
*V. Differentiation
C. Determination
D. Capacity
E. Induction
153. A micropreparation of the soft palate was made, on which the oral and nasal surfaces are
determined. Damage to the epithelium was found on the oral surface. What epithelium is damaged?
A. Stratified prismatic non-keratinized
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B. Multilayer cubic non-keratinized
C. Stratified squamous keratinizing *D. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
E. Multi-row flickering
154. During a dispensary examination, a 7-year-old boy was diagnosed with Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome (only boys get sick). The parents are healthy, but the maternal grandfather has the same
disease. What type of inheritance of the disease?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Incomplete dominance
*D. recessive, sex-linked
E. Dominant, sex-linked
155. As a result of a maxillofacial injury, a 40-year-old patient has impaired function of the
sublingual and submandibular glands on the left - the glands began to produce a small amount of
thick saliva. What nerve function is impaired?
A. Sublingual
B. Trinity
S. Wandering
*D. Facial
E. Tongue-pharyngeal
156. During an accident, the driver sustained numerous injuries to the lateral surface of his
head, including a fracture of the zygomatic arch. Which muscle function will suffer?
. Orbicularis oculi
ÿ. M.princess
S. M.risorius
D. ÿ.bucciÿator
* ÿ. M.masseter
157. In the process of tooth development in the periodontium, the remains of Hertwig's
embryonic root sheath are preserved, which are called epithelial islets of Malas-
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see. They can be a source of development of cysts or tumors in the area of the root of the
tooth. What cells form Hertwig's vagina?
A. Mesenchymal cells
B. Pulpocytes
C. Cementoblasts
D. Odontoblasts
* ÿ. Enamel organ cells
158. Among the students of one group there are representatives of different races. One of the
students has straight black hair and an overhanging crease of the upper eyelid - the epicanthus.
What race is this student most likely to be?
A. Negroid
B. Caucasoid
* S. Mongoloid
D. Australoid
E. Ethiopian
159. A 30-year-old man was exposed to a dose of about 3 Gy. What change in the blood will be
8 hours after irradiation?
*A. Lymphopenia
B. Leukopenia
C. Granulocytopenia
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Anemia
160. A patient suffering from chronic bronchitis takes a synthetic mucolytic drug that helps
to thin the sputum. Name this drug:
A. Diazepam
V. Heparin
S. Furosemide
D. Enalapril
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* ÿ. Acetyl cysteine
161. After a tuberculin test (Mantoux test) in a child, 48 hours later, a papule up to 10 mm in
diameter formed at the tuberculin injection site. What mechanism of hypersensitivity underlies the
described changes?
A. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
B. Anaphylaxis
S. Granulomatosis
D. Immunocomplex cytotoxicity
E. Cellular cytotoxicity
162. An electron micrograph shows a cell in which the nucleus and nuclear envelope are absent.
Chromosomes are freely arranged, centrioles migrate to the poles. What phase of the cell cycle
is the cell in?
A. Telophase
B. Anaphase
*WITH. Prophase
D. Interphase
ÿ. Metaphase
163. Hydrocyanic acid and cyanides are among the strongest poisons. Depending on the
dose, death occurs in a few seconds or minutes. Inhibition of activity of what enzyme is the
cause of death?
ÿ. ATP-synthetase
B. Acetylcholinesterase
S. Katalaza
D. Methemoglobin reductase
* ÿ. Cytochrome oxidase
164. A patient with adenoma of the glomerular zone of the adrenal cortex (Conn's disease) has
arterial hypertension, seizures, and polyuria. What is the main link in the pathogenesis of these
disorders?
A. Hyposecretory of glucocorticoids
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*V. hypersecretion of aldosterone
C. Hypersecretion of catecholamines
D. Hydosecretion of aldosterone
E. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids
165. An electron micrograph of a fragment of the renal cortex reveals macula densa
cells and juxtaglomerular cells with large secretory granules. What structure of the kidney is
shown in the micrograph?
A. Prostaglandin apparatus
B. Renal corpuscle
*WITH. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D. Filtration barrier
E. Vascular glomerulus
166. After surgery, the experimental animal died from severe convulsions. What endocrine
glands were removed?
*A. Parathyroid
B. Adrenal
C. testicles
D. Ovaries
E. Thyroid
167. In a patient with diabetes mellitus after surgery (opening of an abscess in the back of
the neck), the wound healed for one and a half months, purulent contents were constantly
separated from the wound. After the wound healed, a rough scar formed in its place. How did the
wound heal?
A. Mixed
*V. Secondary
C. Epithelialization
D. Primary
E. Under the stump
168. A 9-year-old child after a long-term use of antibiotics for bronchial
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hopneumonia pain and burning sensation in the area of the mucous membrane of the lips and
tongue appeared. Objectively: there are cheesy and gray plaques on the mucous membrane
of the lips and tongue, which can be easily removed with a spatula, leaving foci of hyperemia
in their place. Microscopic examination of plaque revealed mycelium. Which is the most likely
A. Hailit Manganotti
B. Leukoplakia
C. Exfoliative cheilitis
*D. Candidal cheilitis
E. Contact allergic cheilitis
169. In diseases of the liver, accompanied by insufficient flow of bile into the intestine,
there is a deterioration in hemocoagulation. How can this phenomenon be explained?
*A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Iron deficiency
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Leucopenia
E. Erythropenia
170. Digestion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates is significantly impaired in humans.
Decreased secretion of which digestive juice is most likely the cause of this?
*A. pancreatic
B. Bile
C. gastric
D. Intestinal
E. Saliva
171. A 52-year-old patient with cancer of the lower jaw underwent a course of radiation
therapy. The size of the tumor has decreased. Which of the following mechanisms of cell
damage to the greatest extent determines the effectiveness of radiation therapy?
* A. Mutagenesis
B. Formation of free radicals
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C. Lysis by NK cells
D. Hyperthermia
E. Thrombosis
172. For vaccination, a toxin neutralized with formaldehyde (0.4%) at 37 - 400 s for four weeks
is used. For the first time, such a drug was used for the prevention of diphtheria Ramon. What
is this drug?
*A. Anatoxin
B. Adjuvant
ÿ. Immunoglobulin
D. Killed vaccine
E. Antitoxic serum
173. A man stands in a room in light clothes; air temperature + 140c. Windows and doors
are closed. Which way does it give off the most heat?
*A. Thermal radiation
C. Convection
C. Perspiration
D. Heat conduction
E. Evaporation
174. Histological examination of periapical tissue removed from a patient with chronic
periodontitis for a long time revealed granulation tissue penetrated by strands of squamous
epithelium, surrounded by a fibrous capsule. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Granulating periodontitis
B. Simple granuloma
C. Abscessing periodontitis
*D. Complex granuloma
E. Cystogranuloma
175. When working with radioactive substances, an employee received a total dose of 4 Gy as
a result of an accident. Complains of headache, nausea, dizziness. What changes in the
composition of the blood can be expected in a patient 10 hours after
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exposure?
A. Leukopenia
B. Neutropenia
C. Lymphocytosis
* D. Neutrophilic leukocytosis
E. Agranulocytosis
176. A patient with enteritis accompanied by significant diarrhea has a decrease in the
amount of water in the extracellular space, an increase in it inside the cells and a
decrease in blood osmolarity. What is the name of this violation of water-electrolyte
metabolism?
ÿ. Hypoosmolar hyperhydration
B. Hyperosmolar overhydration
C. Osmolar hypohydration
D. Hyperosmolar hypohydration
* ÿ. Hypoosmolar hypohydration
177. A patient has a myocardial infarction of the posterior wall of the right ventricle. Which artery
branches are thrombosed?
*A. Right coronary artery
B. Left subclavian artery
C. Left and right coronary artery
D. Left coronary artery
E. Right subclavian artery
178. It is necessary to disinfect the equipment in the dental office. Choose a drug
with no unpleasant odor and coloring properties:
*A. Chlorhexidine bigluconate
B. Ethacridinalactate
C. Chlorine
+D. Carbolic acid solution E.
Formalin
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179. A 5-year-old child has enamel and dentin striated with yellowish-brown stripes, dentin
exposure, multiple caries. It is known that during pregnancy the mother took antibiotics. What drug
could cause such a side effect?
ÿ. Ampicillin
B. Lincomycin
C. Streptocide
* D. Tetracycline
E. Nystatin
180. After closing the mouth and clenching the teeth, reflex opening occurs. What
receptors does this reflex begin with?
A. Proprioreceptors of the muscles that lower the lower jaw
B. Mechanoreceptors of the oral mucosa
C. Taste buds
D. Proprioceptors of the muscles that lift the lower jaw
E. Periodontal receptors
181. In the process of embryogenesis, a rudiment of an organ with an endocrine function is
formed from the trophoblast. Specify what kind of germ it is:
* A. Vorsinchaty chorion
V. allantois
ÿ. Amnion
D. Yolk sac
E. Umbilical cord
182. A patient is prescribed a drug with pronounced lipophilic properties. What will be the main
mechanism of its absorption?
A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Filtration
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D. Passive diffusion
E. Binding to transport proteins
183. A 28-year-old patient was diagnosed with an acute inflammatory process of the mucous membrane
of the nasolacrimal duct. From the anamnesis it is known that after the flu for 10 days there was
discharge from the nose. From what part of the nasal cavity could the infection enter the nasolacrimal
duct?
A. Nasal vestibule
B. Frontal sinus
C. Superior nasal passage
*D. inferior nasal passage
E. Middle nasal passage
184. Conduct research on an isolated muscle fiber. It was established that the threshold of cell
stimulation strength decreased significantly. Which of the following could be causing this?
A. Blockade of energy production in the cell
*V. Activation of sodium channels in the membrane
C. Inactivation of membrane calcium channels
D. Activation of potassium channels in the membrane E. Inactivation of sodium channels in the
membrane
185. A 5-year-old girl has a high temperature and sore throat. Objectively: swelling of the soft
palate, gray films on the tonsils, which are difficult to separate, leaving deep bleeding tissue defects.
What disease is most likely?
*A. Diphtheria pharynx
V. Angina Simanovsky-Vincent
C. Lacunar angina
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Necrotic angina
186. The use of tetracyclines in the first half of pregnancy leads to the occurrence of anomalies
in the organs and systems of the fetus, including hypoplasia of the teeth, discoloration. What type
of variability does the child's disease belong to?
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A. Combinative
B. Hereditary
*WITH. Modification
D. Mutational
E. Recombinant
187. A patient with a craniocerebral injury has respiratory arrest. Damage to which part of the
brain is most likely?
A. Midbrain
B. Cerebellum
C. diencephalon
*D. Medulla
E. telencephalon
188. A person who had been in a stuffy room for a long time lost consciousness.
Consciousness was restored after inhalation of vapors of ammonia. With a direct
influence on what structures is the action of this substance associated?
A. Vasomotor center
B. Resistive vessels
*WITH. upper respiratory tract receptors
D. Respiratory center
E. Capacitive vessels
189. In a 10-year-old child, a fixed tumor-like formation 1.5 cm in diameter was found on the
alveolar process of the lower jaw, covering the crown of premolars from the vestibular side.
The mucous membrane on its surface is reddish-brown, bleeds with a slight mechanical impact.
Biopsy data: the formation consists of small-caliber vessels separated by thin layers of
connective tissue infiltrated with plasma cells, the mucous membrane is ulcerated in some
areas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gingival fibromatosis
*V. Angiomatous form of epulis
C. Hypertrophic gingivitis
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D. Giant cell form of epulis
E. Fibrous form of epulis
190. A patient's masticatory muscles are disturbed. What nerve is damaged?
A. Lingual
B. Maxillary
*WITH. Mandibular
D. Buccal
E. Ear-temporal
191. All non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can damage the gastric mucosa. To search for substances
that do not cause this complication, you need to know what it is associated with. Influence on what molecular
substrate should be reduced in order to reduce the severity of this complication?
A. Adenylate cyclase
*IN. Cyclooxygenase 1
C. Cyclooxygenase 2
D. Kallikrein
E. Lysosomal enzymes
192. A patient applied for a carbuncle on his face. Objectively: a loose, painless swelling of the
subcutaneous tissue, a black scab in the center of the carbuncle, vesicular rashes around the carbuncle
along the periphery. Bacteriological examination revealed the presence of immobile streptobacilli, which are
able to form capsules. What microorganisms are the causative agents of this disease?
*ÿ. Bacillus aÿtracis
ÿ. Bacillus ÿegateriuÿ
ÿ. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Bacillus subtilis
E. Bacillus aphthracoides
193. With enzymatic jaundice, there is a violation of the activity of the enzyme UDP-glucuronyltransferase.
Which compound accumulates in blood serum
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with these pathologies?
A. Mesobilirubin
*V. indirect bilirubin
C. Direct bilirubin
D. Biliverdin
E. Verdoglobin
194. The cause of pellagra can be a predominant diet of corn AND a decrease in the
diet of animal products. What amino acid deficiency in the diet leads to this pathology?
* A. Tryptophan
B. Phenylalanine
C. Isoleucine
D. Methionine
E. Histidine
195. A sick person fell into an ice hole in winter, froze in the wind, fell ill. The body temperature
rose to 39.70c and fluctuated from 39.00c to 39.00c. Name the type of temperature curve in the
patient:
. fever recurs
*ÿ. Fever
ÿ. intermittent fever
D. hectic fever
. remitted fever
196. A pregnant woman consulted a doctor with complaints typical of toxoplasmosis.
Blood was taken from her to confirm the clinical diagnosis. What serological reaction should
be performed in this case?
A. Wasserman reaction
B. Precipitation reaction
*WITH. Complement fixation reaction
D. Neutralization reaction
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E. Vidal's reaction
197. A patient is hospitalized due to the danger of spreading the inflammatory
process from the occipital region to the cranial cavity. Through what anatomical formation
is this spread possible?
A. Spinous foramen
B. Foramen ovale
*WITH. condylar canal
D. Round hole
E. Parietal foramen
198. When approaching the thyroid gland from the transverse (collar-like) access, the cellular
suprasternal space is opened. Damage to what anatomical formation located in this space is
dangerous?
A. Lymph nodes
B. Subclavian artery
*WITH. Venous jugular arch
D. Internal jugular vein
E. Carotid artery
199. During the regeneration of the epithelium of the oral mucosa (cell multiplication), replication
(autoreproduction) of DNA occurred according to a semi-conservative mechanism. In this case,
the nucleotides of the new DNA strand are complementary to:
A. Enzyme RNA polymerase
B. Content codons
*WITH. mother thread
D. Intron regions of the gene
E. Enzyme DNA polymerase
200. Novocaine was used during surgical procedures for the purpose of pain relief. After 10
minutes, the patient developed pallor of the skin, shortness of breath, hypotension. What type
of allergic reaction did the patient develop?
A. Stimulant
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B. Cytotoxic
+C. Cell mediated
D. Immunocomplex
* ÿ. Anaphylactic
Gonococcal vaccine is used for: Select one
answer: specific prevention of gonorrhea
treatment of chronic gonorrhea specific
prophylaxis of blennorrhea treatment of
acute blennorrhea “provocations” for
laboratory diagnosis of blennorrhea
A symplast is: Choose
one answer:
Cell with intranuclear inclusions
Viral inclusions in the cell
Giant multinucleated cell
The set of erythrocytes adsorbed on the surface affected by the virus
cells
Spongy agglomerations of nervous tissue caused by prions
The patient was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital with a diagnosis of hepatitis.
What type of hepatitis is caused by an RNA genomic virus that cannot reproduce without
the presence of HBsAg? Choose one answer:
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E.
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hemolysin synthesis is controlled by:
Choose one answer:
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Ent-plasmid
R-plasmid
Hly-plasmid
Col-plasmid
F-plasmid
The characteristics of chlamydia reproduction are:
Choose one answer:
alternation of phases of elementary and reticular bodies
dependence on host cell energy metabolism
protein synthesis on host cell ribosomes
cells divide by binary fission
reproduction within phagosomes
The Mantoux test is used for:
Choose one answer:
Selection of persons to be vaccinated with DTP vaccine
Tuberculosis diagnostics
Diagnosis of diphtheria
Tuberculosis Prevention
Tuberculosis treatment
What type of parasitism is typical for viruses? Choose one
answer:
Membrane
Intracellular obligate
Intracellular facultative
Extracellular and intracellular
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Extracellular
The causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid belong to the genus:
Choose one answer:
Shigella
Escherichia
Salmonella
Yersinia
Proteus
In a micropreparation stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, made from a punctate of the patient's
regional lymph node, the doctor found thin, pale pink microorganisms with 12-14 uniform curls. The
causative agent of what infectious disease can be discussed in this case?
Choose one answer:
relapsing fever
Trypanosomiasis
Leishmaniasis
Leptospirosis
syphilis
All of the following are characteristic of RS dissociation except:
Choose one answer:
Is the result of a transformation
There is a transition from S- to R-form of colonies and vice versa
Gives bacteria a selective advantage (incorrect)
Simultaneously with the change in the morphology of colonies, biochemical, antigenic
properties, virulence, and resistance to environmental factors change in bacteria.
Caused by insertion mutations
A patient was taken to the hospital with a lacerated wound of the lower leg resulting from a bite
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sick animals diagnosed with rabies. What vaccine should be administered to the victim to
prevent rabies?
Choose one answer:
Rabies vaccine.
AKDS
ADS
TAVTe vaccine
BCG
Among the vacationers of the camp site, located on the shore of the reservoir, there are
cases of the disease, accompanied by a sharp increase in temperature, jaundice, swollen
lymph nodes. The reservoir is filled with water from small rivers, on the banks of which there
are livestock farms. Specify a possible causative agent
Choose one answer:
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholerae
Leptospira interrogance
Hepatitis C virus
WEB
A man turned to the emergency room of the infectious diseases hospital, who received an
envelope with a suspicious powder by mail. In this area, cases of sending powder with spores
of the anthrax pathogen have already been noted. The man was hospitalized in the isolation
ward, and the powder from the envelope was sent to the laboratory in order to detect the
anthrax pathogen. What research makes it possible to quickly detect the alleged pathogen?
Choose one answer:
Complement fixation reaction
Isolation of pure culture
Gel Precipitation Reaction
Immunofluorescence method
Bioassay on mice
The morphology of Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following features:
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Choose one answer:
the presence of one flagellum
form long chains
have 8–12 symmetrical whorls
the presence of spore forms
the presence of capsules
Of the 5 morphological types, the filamentous form is: Choose one answer:
5th type
1st type
2nd type
3rd type
4th type
The benefits of an immersion system are: Choose one answer:
Obtaining a three-dimensional image
Increasing the resolution of a light microscope
Using UV rays
Higher eyepiece magnification
Larger lens magnification
To indicate the virus, the cell culture was processed by the virologist with the test material and,
under microscopy, cells were identified that had clusters of erythrocytes. What is the name of the virus
detection test? Choose one answer:
Hemagglutination reaction
Haemadsorption reaction
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Cytopathic action
"Color Reaction"
plaque formation
A pure culture of Treponema pallidum can be obtained by cultivating:
Choose one answer:
on special nutrient media under anaerobic conditions
in a chick embryo
in the body of a rabbit
on conventional nutrient media
on complex nutrient media
A 25-year-old patient was admitted to the clinic of infectious diseases with a preliminary
diagnosis of food poisoning. Clinical data: body temperature 39.5°C, headache, chills, body aches, nausea, repeated vomiting, frequent loose stools.
Epidemiological data: on the day before the disease, she consumed cakes with cream.
Within 2 days, 4 more similar cases were registered in the region. During an epidemiological
survey of a cafe where the sick people ate cakes, a panaritium was found on the
confectioner's finger. What microorganisms could cause food poisoning in this situation?
Choose one answer:
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
Yersinia pestis
Shigella disenteriae
Salmonella enterica
The main functions of bacterial spores are:
Choose one answer:
Involved in the transfer of genetic material
Provides adhesiveness
Protection from adverse environmental factors
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Enzyme formation
reproduction
What type of nucleic acid do orthomyxoviruses have?
Choose one answer:
Fragmented negative RNA
Single-stranded DNA
Single stranded plus RNA
double stranded RNA
Double-stranded DNA
The properties of bacteria are studied microscopically:
Choose one answer:
Biochemical
Toxigenic
Cultural
Morpho-tinctorial
Antigenic
What diagnosis should the doctor make to the patient if the virologist detected
antibodies to gp120 and gp41 in the studied serum of a patient with signs of
immunodeficiency? Choose one answer:
TORCH infection
HLTV-1 infection
HBV infection
ECHO infection
HIV infection
Patient S. suddenly developed a fever with chills, accompanied by headache and muscle
pain and a staggering gait. In the armpit and in the neck
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enlarged lymph nodes were found, soldered to each other and to the surrounding
subcutaneous tissue, dense, painful. The skin over the lymph nodes is smoothed,
cyanotic. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
Choose one answer:
anthrax
Bubonic plague
Tick-borne encephalitis
Lyme disease
Leptospirosis
If, during the Salk color test, the color of the nutrient medium in the test tube changed from
red to yellow, this indicates:
Choose one answer:
About changing the pH of bacteria
About the presence of pathogenic bacteria
About the presence of the virus
About the absence of pathogenic bacteria
On the absence of a virus
Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis A virus genome:
Choose one answer:
segmentation
(-) RNA
(+) RNA
Defective DNA
RetroRNA
The most severe clinical forms of dysentery cause:
Choose one answer:
Sh.sonnei
S.enterica
Sh.boydii
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Sh.disenteriae I
Sh.flexneri
What disease is caused by a DNA genomic virus?
Choose one answer:
Flu
adenovirus infection
respiratory syncytial infection
AIDS
Parainfluenza
Endotoxin have pathogens:
Choose one answer:
Botulism
Diphtheria
cholera
Staphylococcal infection (not correct)
Pillar
11. A 5-year-old girl has a high fever and sore throat. Objectively: swelling of the soft
palate, gray films on the tonsils, which are difficult to separate, leaving deep bleeding
tissue defects. Which of the following diseases is most likely?
A. Necrotic angina
B. *Diphtheria throat
C. Lacunar angina
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Simonovsky-Vincent's angina
27. Microscopy of smears stained with methylene blue revealed rods with club-shaped
thickenings at the ends, similar to C. diphteriae. Which of the following staining methods
should be applied additionally to clarify the assumption that has arisen?
A. Ozheshko
B. *Neisser
C. Zdrodovsky
D. Kozlovsky
E. Ziel-Nielsen
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41. In the laboratory, when examining animal skins, the Ascoli reaction was used. A
few minutes after the combination of immune serum and skin extract, the formation of a
whitish ring was noted. What does this result indicate?
A. Presence of surface antigen
Escherichia
B. Presence of anaerobic toxin
feces
C. Presence of a virulent antigen
salmonella
D. *Presence of anthrax antigens
E. Presence of the causative agent of brucellosis
55. When testing the blood of donors at a blood transfusion station, the serum of one
of them found antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus. What method is
recommended to confirm the diagnosis of HIV infection?
A. Electron microscopy
B. Immunofluorescence
C. Radioimmunoassay
D. *Western blot (immunoblot)
E. ELISA
100. An outbreak of food poisoning associated with the consumption of confectionery
products that were stored at room temperature and in the manufacture of which duck
eggs were used was registered. What microorganism is most likely to cause the disease?
A. Legionella
B. Staphylococci
C. E. coli
D. *Salmonella
E. Vibrio cholerae
101. A 25-year-old man at the dentist ’s appointment a few minutes after
washing his mouth with a solution of furacillin developed a significant swelling of
the lips. What type of allergic reaction was observed in this case?
A. Immunocomplex
B. Cytolytic
C. * Anaphylactic
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
E. Stimulant
109. During microscopy of a smear taken from a patient with acute purulent periostitis, a
doctor found gram-positive bacteria arranged in clusters resembling bunches of grapes.
What microorganisms have this morphology?
A. * Staphylococci
B. Sarcina
C. Tetracocci
D. Fungi of the genus Candida
E. Streptococcus
116. A patient consulted a doctor complaining of the appearance of bubbles with
liquid on the lips, located at the border of the skin and mucous membrane. What
microorganisms can cause such a pathology?
A. Staphylococci
B. Mycobacteria
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C. *Herpesviruses
D. Orthomyxoviruses
E. Streptococcus
135. Sputum examination of a patient revealed gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs. What
microorganism is the most likely causative agent of the disease?
A. Neisseria menigitidis
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Mycoplasma pneumonia
D. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Klebsiella pneumonia
171. Patient with extensive burns
We did a donor skin transplant. But on the 8th day the graft edema, its color changed, on
the 11th day it began to be rejected. What cells are involved in this process?
A. *T-lymphocytes
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils
E. Red blood cells
176. After the introduction of the BCG vaccine to infants, immunity to tuberculosis lasts as long
as there are live bacteria of the vaccine strain in the body. What is the most correct name for
this type of immunity?
A. Cross
B. Humoral
C. Type specific
D. *Non-sterile
E. Congenital
186. In the bacteriological laboratory, home-cooked dried fish was examined, which
caused severe food poisoning. Microscopy of a culture introduced on the Kitt-Tarozzi medium
revealed microorganisms resembling a tennis racket. The development of what disease is
most likely to be caused by isolated microorganisms?
A. * Botulism
B. Typhoid fever
C. cholera
D. Dysentery
E. Salmonellosis
187. To prevent a seasonal increase in the incidence of influenza in the medical
institutions of the city, the sanitary and epidemiological station ordered medical workers
to be immunized. Which of the following drugs should be immunized?
A. *Subunit vaccine
B. Interferon
C. Remantadin
D. Gamma globulin
E. Amantadine
1) Microorganisms that do not have a cellular structure include:
1. bacteria
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*2. Meller method
3. Muromtsev method
4. Romanovsky-Giemsa
method 11) Treatment of a smear with a solution of malachite green and
additional staining with an aqueous solution of safranin is typical for: 1.
Möller method 2. Muromtsev method 3. Romanovsky-Giemsa method *4.
Schaeffer-Fulton method 12) Bacteria that have a bundle of flagella at one or
both ends of the body,
are called:
1. monotrichous
2. peritrichous
*3. lophotrichous
4. amphitrichous
13) Accumulations of bacteria that look like bunches of grapes are called: *1.
staphylococci 2. sarcinas 3. streptococci 4. diplococci 14) The percentage of water in
a microbial cell is: *1. 80-90% 2. up to 50% 3. 60-70% 4. up to 30% 15) Fresh fecal
contamination of the soil is evidenced by the detection of: 1. staphylococci 2.
salmonella 3. helminth eggs *4. enterococci 16) When polluted with organic
substances, microorganisms are found in the soil: 1. enterococci *2. families of
intestinal bacteria 3. paratyphoid A and B 4. salmonella 17) Mold fungus with white
mycelium with partitions: 1. chocolate mold 2. vine mold 3. capitate mold *4. milk
mold 18) At the end of work, the front parts of gas masks and respirators must
be thoroughly washed: 1. 0.1% potassium permanganate solution 2. 5% soda solution
*3. 2% soda solution 4. 0.5% soap solution 20) Chemical disinfectants include: 1.
thermophilic microbes *2. phenols and creons 3. UFL
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4. Ultrasound 21)
For clean soil, coli titer should be: 1. up to 50 mg 2. not more than 10 mg *3. not more than 1 g 4. 1-2 mg 22)
To determine the amount of live bacteria in nitragin, a deep
sowing:
1. on mannitol agar-agar *2. on bean
agar-agar 3. on yeast agar-agar 4. on
meat-peptone agar-agar 24) To
combat mold, use: 1. xylonaf-5 2. formalin
3. thiozon *4. sodium oxydiphenolate 25) Peritrichous
bacteria: 1. with polar bundles of flagella *2. with flagella over
the entire surface of the cell 3. without flagella 4. with two
polar flagella 26) The illumination system of a biological
microscope does not include: 1. condenser 2. diaphragm
*3. eyepiece 4. mirror 27. Test. ) To direct sanitary and
biological indicators of the epidemic
soil hazards include:
1. detection of helminth eggs and their larvae 2. detection of
salmonella and paratyphoid bacteria A and B 3. detection of staphylococci and
streptococci *4. detection of pathogenic enterobacteria and enteroviruses 28)
Actinomycetes are: 1. fungi 2. rod-shaped bacteria *3. branching bacteria 4. protozoa
30) To study the morphology of molds, preparations are prepared: 1. by the SchaefferFulton method 2. by the Moeller method 3. by the hanging drop method *4. crushed drop
method 31) Pesticides should be stored in specially equipped warehouses at a
distance from the settlement: 1. not less than 50 m 2. not less than 100 m *3. not less
than 200 m 4. not less than 500 m 32) Antibiogram is: *1. determination of the sensitivity
of microbes to antibiotics
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2. Determination of the sensitivity of antibiotics to microbes
3. Determination of the sensitivity of animals to antibiotics 4.
Determination of the sensitivity of plants to antibiotics 33) A
disinfectant has a bacteriostatic effect when it: *1. delays the growth of
microorganisms under certain conditions, but does not lead to their death 2. able to kill
the microbial cell 3. causes biochemical changes in the microbial cell 4. causes
morphological changes in the microbial cell 34) The main groups of microorganisms
do not include: 1. Bacteria 2. Actinomycetes 3. Mycoplasmas *4. Bacilli 35) Distant
root microflora of plants is located: 1. within a radius of 6-10 cm from the roots 2.
within a radius of 2-3 m from the roots *3. within a radius of 50 cm from the roots 4.
within a radius of 1 m from the roots 36) The end products of the decomposition of
organic matter by anaerobic microorganisms are: 1. carbon dioxide and water 2.
lactic acid and alcohol 3. fiber and lignin *4. acids and alcohols 37) When working
with insecticides, it is necessary to use respirators: 1. "Petal-200", U-2K 2.
"Astra-2" * 3. RSU-22, RPG-67 4. RPTs-22, F-57 Test No. 38) For soil disinfection
in greenhouse farms use: *1. Thiozon 2. Gluck 3. metafon 4. methyl bromide 39)
Thermophiles are bacteria that develop at temperatures: 1. 30-40 degrees 2. 0-10
degrees *3. 50-70 degrees 4. 70-80 degrees 40) Microorganisms occupying an
intermediate position between mold fungi and bacteria: 1. yeast 2. mold 3.
mycoplasma *4. actinomycetes 41) The system of measures for the destruction of
pathogenic or conditionally pathogenic microorganisms in the external
environment or on the body of an animal: *1. disinfection 2. disinsection 3.
deratization
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4. quartzization
42) Bacteria forming a chain during division of cocci: 1.
micrococci *2. streptococci 3. diplococci 4. sarcins 43)
Oligotrophic soil microorganisms are: *1. microorganisms
capable of assimilating organic compounds from low
concentration solutions 2. microorganisms capable of
obtaining the energy they need from the oxidation of mineral
compounds 3. microorganisms that decompose organic compounds of plant
and animal origin 4. microorganisms that can decompose humus soil
compounds 44) Bacteria are divided by type of respiration on: 1. oligotrophs
and saprophytes 2. anaerophobes and anaerophages 3. aerophobes and
anaerophobes *4. aerobes and anaerobes 45) The index of sanitary-indicative
microorganisms CGB (coliforms) and enterococci in the amount of: 1. up to
10 cells per 1 g of soil *2 indicates the possibility of soil contamination with
pathogenic enterobacteria. 10 or more cells per 1 g of soil 3. up to 100 cells per 1
g of soil 4. 10 or more cells per 10 g of soil 46) Physical disinfectants include:
1. heavy metal salts 2. thermophilic microbes *3. gamma rays and ultrasound 4.
pathogenic fungi 47) Method for determining the minimum concentration of
an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of the studied bacterial culture: 1. agar
diffusion method 2. disk method *3. serial dilution method 4. antibiogram 49)
Convoluted bacteria with thin numerous curls: 1. Vibrio 2. Spirilla *3.
spirochetes 4. streptococci 50) One of the first microscopes was invented in
1610: 1. A.-V. Leeuwenhoek 2. L. Pasteur 3. R. Hooke *4. G. Galilei 51)
Microorganisms that decompose organic compounds of plant and animal
origin are: *1. saprophytes 2. oligotrophs
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3. Aerobes
4. Anaerobes
53) When staining the preparation according to the Muromtsev method, the
microbial cell is stained: 1. blue 2. pale pink 3. violet *4. in dark blue 54)
Microorganisms that develop on the surface of plants are called: 1.
Bacteriophages 2. Oligotrophs *3. Epiphytes 4. actonomycetes 56) Microbes
that infect and suppress plants are: 1. Activators *2. Inhibitors 3. Phagocytes
4. Parasites 57 Test.) For quantitative accounting of soil microorganisms,
the following are used: 1. application method 2. titer method *3. Nutrient plate
method combined with serial dilution method 4. Root washing method
1. In the sowing of pus from a boil, spherical microbes were found, located
in the form of clusters of grapes. What morphological forms of microbes have been
identified? A. Tetracocci. B. Diplococci. C. Micrococci.
D. Streptococci.
E. Staphylococci.
2. A culture of coccal bacteria was isolated from the nasopharynx of a boy who
suffers from chronic tonsillitis. In smears, they are placed in the form of chains. What
kind of microbes could they be? A. Streptococci. B. Staphylococci. S. Escherichia.
D. Clostridia. E.
Vibrios. 3. In a
practical lesson in microbiology, students were asked to stain a mixture of bacteria
according to Gram and explain the staining mechanism. What morphological
structures of bacteria predetermine the gram-negative and gram-positive coloration
of bacteria? A. CPM. B. Cell wall. C. Capsule.
D. Flagella.
E. Cytoplasm.
4. A culture was isolated from the oral cavity of a clinically healthy man, 25 years old.
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Gram-positive cocci, which are elongated, arranged in pairs or short chains, form a capsule, give
ÿ-hemolysis on blood agar. The carrier of what pathogenic microorganism is this man?
ÿ. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ÿ. Streptococcus pyogenes.
ÿ. Streptococcus salivarium.
D. Streptococcus faecalis.
ÿ. Peptostreptococcus.
5. The detection of the ability to form capsules in many pathogens is important in carrying out
express diagnostics and is a component of bacteriological research. To identify the capsule in
the laboratory, you can use such a simple method as:
A. Burri
V. Burri-Ginsa
S. Drobotko
D. Romanovsky-Giemsa
E. Leffler
6. A man, a resident of a rural area, has a hard phlegmon-like infiltrate in the cervico-maxillary
region, the skin around it is blue-purple. In the center, the infiltrate is necrotic, pus with an
unpleasant odor is released from the ulcer. To confirm the diagnosis of actinomycosis of the
cervico-maxillary region, a microscopic examination of pus was performed. What should a
bacteriologist detect to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Gram-negative diplococci
B. Acid-resistant sticks
C. Gram-negative diplobacteria
D. Druzy
E. Grampolytic streptococci
7. Organisms have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. The genetic material is
concentrated mainly in the chromosomes, which consist of strands of DNA and protein
molecules. These cells divide mitotically. This:
A. Eukaryotes
B. Bacteriophages
C. Prokaryotes
D. Viruses
E. Bacteria
8. Due to untimely treatment of pulpitis, the patient developed osteomyelitis of the lower jaw.
Thanks to what research it is possible to detect the causative agent and choose an effective
drug for the treatment of the patient?
A. Isolation of a pure culture.
B. Detection of specific antibodies.
C. Microscopic examination of the punctate.
D. Detection of pathogen antigens .
E. Comprehensive serological testing.
9. In a bacteriological study of the feces of a patient with an intestinal infection, Shigella
sonnei was isolated. Which of the named serological reactions was used to identify the
isolated pure culture?
A. Agglutinations.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement binding.
D. Neutralization.
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E. Lysisa.
10. Organisms that in the process of evolution did not create protection against H2O2,
can only live under anaerobic conditions. Which of the following enzymes can destroy hydrogen
peroxide?
A. Peroxidase and catalase
B. Oxygenases and hydroxylases
C. Cytochrome oxidase, cytochrome B5
D. Oxygenase and catalase
E. Flavin-dependent oxidases
Infection, immunity, antibiotics, genetics
11. A pregnant woman complains of irritation of the vaginal mucosa, itching and discharge
from the genital tract. Bacterioscopy of smears from the vagina showed the presence of large
gram-positive oval elongated cells that form pseudomycelium. What is the most likely route of
infection?
A. Contact household
V. Polov
C. Endogenous infection
D. Transmissive
E. Wound infection
12. Due to the activation of own microorganisms, which are part of the microflora of the oral
mucosa, the patient has a purulent-inflammatory process of periodontal tissues. What form of
infection does the disease belong to?
A. Exogenous infection.
ÿ. Autoinfections.
C. Reinfections.
D. Superinfections.
E. Recurrence.
13. The patient recovered from Sonne's shigellosis and re-infected with this same pathogen.
What is the name of this form of infection?
A. Relapse.
B. Reinfection.
C. Superinfection.
D. Persistent infection.
E. Chronic infection.
14. A patient with syphilis underwent a course of antibiotic therapy and completely recovered.
Some time later he was again infected with Treponema pallidum. What is the name of this form
of infection?
A. Complication
B. Secondary infection
C. Reinfection
D. Relapse
E. Superinfection
15. The strain of staphylococcus that caused the outbreak of nosocomial infection showed
high resistance to penicillin. Which of the following factors is associated with resistance of
microorganisms?
A. Synthesis of ÿ-lactamases.
B. Synthesis of adenyltransferase.
C. Changes in the components of the cell wall.
D. Changes in ribosomal proteins.
E. Synthesis of phosphotransferase.
16. After prolonged antibiotic therapy in a patient on the oral mucosa
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cavities revealed areas with white plaque, which was not removed with a spatula. What disease
are these signs typical for?
A. Candidiasis.
B. Mumps.
C. Periodontal disease.
D. Influenza.
E. Typhoid fever.
17. In case of dysbiosis, which is accompanied by the process of decay (due to the reproduction
of Proteus, Pseudomonas) and an increase in the pH of feces, it is necessary to prescribe biological
preparations that oxidize the environment and have an antagonistic effect. What microorganisms can
be used?
A. Bifidumbacteria.
V. Klebsiella.
C. Azotobacteria.
D. Enterobacteriaceae.
E. Serations.
18. A 26-year-old woman with bronchitis was prescribed an etiotropic agent - a broad-spectrum
antibiotic. What is the drug?
A. Doxycycline
B. Interferon
C. BCG vaccine
D. Ambroxol
E. Dexamethasone
19. A 28-year-old patient with bacterial pneumonia was prescribed a course of treatment
with erythromycin. It is known that its antibacterial properties are due to the ability of this
substance to combine with the free 50S subunit of the ribosome. Synthesis of what substances is
blocked by this antibiotic in bacterial cells?
A. Proteins
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Fats
E. Polysaccharides
20. For the treatment of bronchitis, an 8-year-old child should be prescribed an antibacterial agent.
Which of the following drugs of the fluoroquinolone group is CONTRAINDICATED at this age?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ampicillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Sulfadimethoxine
E. Ampiox
21. A patient was prescribed the antibiotic chloramphenicol (levomycetin), which disrupts
protein synthesis in microorganisms by inhibiting the process:
A. Translation elongations
B. Formation of polyribosomes
C. Transcriptions
D. Processing
E. Gene amplifications
22. For serological diagnosis of an infectious disease, blood was taken from a patient for
examination. Blood serum was diluted with isotonic sodium chloride solution. For the reaction, the
patient's serum was used in dilutions from 1:10 to 1:1280 and erythrocytes sensitized with
microbial antigen. What
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Did you get a serological test?
A. Opsonization.
B. Precipitation.
C. Direct agglutination.
D. Coombs.
E. Passive hemagglutination.
23. An important drawback of the microscopic method for diagnosing infections is its
insufficient information content due to the morphological similarity of many types of microorganisms.
What immunological reaction can significantly increase the information content of this method?
A. Enzyme immunoassay.
B. Coombs' reaction.
C. Immunofluorescence reaction.
D. Opsonization reaction.
E. Radioimmunoassay.
24. Antibodies to the measles virus were detected in the blood serum of a newborn. What kind of
immunity does this indicate?
A. Artificial passive.
B. Natural active.
C. Natural passive.
D. Artificial active.
E. Hereditary.
25. After the administration of lidocaine, the patient developed shortness of breath,
bronchospasm, and a sharp decrease in blood pressure, which requires the dentist to use
immediate aid. What mechanism underlies such phenomena?
A. Allergic inflammatory reaction.
B. Allergic reactions involving IgE.
C. Allergic immune complex reactions.
D. Hypersensitivity due to T-lymphocytes.
E. Effects due to natural T-killers.
26. To accelerate the healing of a wound of the mucous membrane in the oral cavity, the patient
was prescribed a drug - a thermostable protein, which is found in humans in lacrimal fluid, saliva,
breast milk, and can also be found in a freshly laid chicken egg. It is known that it is a factor in the
body's natural resistance and has the name:
A. Lysozyme.
ÿ. Complement.
C. Interferon.
D. Interleukin.
E. Imanin.
27. Patient M. has a local reaction to a bee sting, which occurred in the first minutes after the
sting. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does it go through?
A. Anaphylactic.
B. Cytotoxic.
C. Immunocomplex.
D. Delayed type.
E. Idiotype-antiidiotypic.
28. The patient went to the doctor in the second week of illness, which, according
to clinical and epidemiological data, resembled a typhoid-paratyphoid disease. The
doctor decided to confirm the diagnosis by identifying specific antibodies. What drugs
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should be used for this?
A. Monoclonal antibodies.
B. Diagnostic sera.
C. Labeled sera.
D. Diagnosticums.
E. Adsorbed monoreceptor sera.
29. Immunofluorescence reaction is widely used for express diagnostics of many bacterial and
viral infections. Choose a condition without which it is impossible to determine the result of the
reaction.
A. The presence of an electron microscope.
C. The presence of a fluorescent microscope.
C. The presence of a light microscope.
D. The presence of a microscope with a phase contrast device.
E. The presence of a microscope with a dark-field condenser.
30. A 1.5-year-old boy who did not receive routine vaccinations came into contact with a
measles patient. For the purpose of emergency specific prophylaxis, the child was injected
with donor ÿ-globulin. What kind of immunity was created in this case?
A. Passive.
B. Natural.
C. Antitoxic.
D. Post-vaccination.
E. Local.
31. A pediatrician, while talking with parents about measles prevention, noticed that a certain
category of children has a natural passive immunity to this disease. What kind of children did
the doctor have in mind?
A. Those who received routine vaccinations.
B. Over 14 years old.
C. Those who had measles in the first year of life.
D. Newborns.
E. Those whose parents did not have measles.
32. The patient after 2 months. condition worsened after kidney transplantation. On the basis of
a laboratory study, it was stated that the graft rejection reaction had begun. What factor of the
immune system played a decisive role in this reaction?
A. T-killers.
ÿ. Interleukin-1.
C. Natural killers (NK-killers).
D. B-lymphocytes.
E. T-helpers.
33. To establish the toxigenicity of diphtheria pathogens isolated from patients, the
cultures were sown on a Petri dish with nutrient agar on both sides of a filter paper strip soaked in
anti-diphtheria antitoxic serum located in the center. After the incubation of the inoculations
between individual cultures and a strip of filter paper, lines of medium turbidity were revealed.
What immunological reaction was carried out?
A. Precipitation in the gel.
W. Coombs.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Ring precipitation.
E. Opsonizations.
34. After entering the body, bacteria are phagocytosed by macrophages. What
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do macrophages play a role in the cooperation of immunocompetent cells at the first stage of
the formation of an immune response?
A. T-killers are activated.
B. Provide processing and antigen presentation to T-helpers.
C. Activate NK cells.
D. Produce immunoglobulins.
E. Provide processing and antigen presentation to T-killers.
35. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction
of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of the serological reaction, which consists in the
adhesion of microorganisms during the action of specific antibodies on them in the presence of
an electrolyte?
A. Passive haemadsorption.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement binding.
D. Agglutinations.
E. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
36. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction
of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of a serological reaction in which highly dispersed
antigens are adsorbed on erythrocytes?
A. Neutralization.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement binding.
D. Inhibition of hemadsorption.
E. Indirect (passive) hemagglutination.
37. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction
of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of the precipitation reaction from the
antigen solution under the action of immune serum and electrolyte on it?
A. Complement binding.
B. Agglutinations.
S. Precipitation.
D. Hemadsorption.
E. Neutralization.
38. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction
of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of a serological reaction based on the interaction
of homologous antibodies and soluble antigens in an agar medium?
A. Precipitation in the gel.
B. Agglutinations.
C. Complement binding.
D. Ring precipitation.
E. Neutralization.
39. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction
of antibodies with antigens. What is the name of a serological reaction, for which 5 ingredients
are necessary: antigen, antibody and complement (first system), sheep erythrocytes and hemolytic
serum (second system)?
A. Passive (indirect) hemagglutination.
B. Complement binding.
S. Precipitation.
D. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
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E. Neutralization.
40. Serological diagnosis of infectious diseases is based on the specific interaction of
antibodies with antigens. What is the name of a serological test that uses antibodies labeled with
fluorescent substances?
A. Polymerase chain.
B. Enzyme-labeled antibodies.
C. Immunofluorescence.
D. Complement binding.
E. Molecular hybridization.
41. To test livestock raw materials (skin, wool) for the presence of anthrax, a soluble thermostable
antigen in a water-salt extract is isolated from the raw materials. What reaction is used for this?
A. Ring precipitation.
B. Precipitation in agar.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Passive hemagglutination.
E. Neutralization.
42. An indirect immunofluorescence reaction was used to detect antibodies to toxoplasma
in the blood serum of a pregnant woman. To do this, first a fixed smear of Toxoplasma was
treated with the studied serum. How should the preparation be processed at the next stage?
A. A solution of fluorescein.
B. Luminescent serum against human immunoglobulin.
C. Normal human immunoglobulin.
D. Diagnostic serum containing antibodies to toxoplasma.
E. Serum containing fluorescein-labeled antibodies to toxoplasma.
43. Woman D., aged 54, went to the doctor with complaints of intolerance to chicken eggs, which
appeared recently. The antihistamines prescribed by the doctor improved the patient's condition.
What antibodies caused the development of this reaction?
ÿ. Ig ÿ.
ÿ. Ig D.
S. Ig E.
D. Ig G.
E. Ig A.
44. Atopic bronchial asthma has been diagnosed in a patient with periodic attacks of
suffocation that occur when inhaling various aromatic substances . An increase in the
amount of Ig E was revealed. For what type of reactions is this characteristic?
A. Immunocomplex reactions.
B. Cytotoxic reactions.
C. Anaphylactic reactions.
D. Delayed type hypersensitivity.
E. Autoimmune reactions.
45. In a patient with clinical signs of primary immunodeficiency, violations of the function of
antigen presentation to immunocompetent cells were revealed. What cell structure defect is
possible?
A. Fibroblastov.
B. T-lymphocytes.
C. B-lymphocytes.
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D. Macrophages, monocytes.
E. B-lymphocytes.
46. A 37-year-old woman periodically developed infectious diseases of bacterial origin throughout
the year, their course was long-term with short-term remissions. Examination revealed
hypogammaglobulinemia. Violation of the functions of what cells can be its direct cause?
A. B-lymphocytes.
V. Phagocytes.
S. Neutrophils.
D. Macrophages.
E. T-lymphocytes.
47. Bloodstains were found on the clothes of the person accused of murder. What reaction can
be used to prove that it is human blood?
A. Complement binding.
B. Immunofluorescence.
S. Precipitation.
D. Agglutinations.
E. Neutralization.
48. The most important central organ of the human immune system is the thymus, which receives
part of the blood stem cells for their further maturation. What cells of the human immune system
differentiate in this organ?
A. T-lymphocytes.
B. Plasma.
C. Macrophages.
D. B-lymphocytes.
E. Microphages.
49. A patient with clinical signs of immunodeficiency underwent immunological
studies. A significant decrease in the number of cells that form rosettes with ram erythrocytes
was revealed. What conclusion should be drawn based on the analysis data?
A. Decrease in the level of T-lymphocytes.
B. Decrease in the level of B-lymphocytes.
C. Decreased levels of natural killer (NK) cells.
D. Decreases in the level of the complement system.
E. Reducing the level of interferon.
50. In many infectious diseases, pathogen antigens can be detected in the patient's blood.
Which method should be used given that the level of antigenemia is low?
A. Agglutination reaction. B. Solid phase ELISA.
C. The reaction of passive hemagglutination.
D. Latex agglutination reaction.
E. Immunoelectrophoresis.
51. The annotation to the drug states that it contains antigens of the causative agent of
typhoid fever adsorbed on stabilized ram erythrocytes. What is this drug used for?
A. To detect antibodies in the reaction of passive hemagglutination.
B. To detect antibodies in the complement fixation test.
C. To detect antibodies in the Vidal reaction.
D. To detect antibodies in the hemagglutination inhibition test.
E. For serological identification of the causative agent of typhoid fever.
52. Effective diagnosis of carriage of pathogens of intestinal infections
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is based on the detection of antibodies to certain antigens of bacteria in the reaction of
passive hemagglutination. What standard drug should be used for this reaction?
A. Antibodies against the main classes of immunoglobulins.
C. Erythrocyte diagnosticums with adsorbed bacterial antigens.
C. Monoclonal antibodies.
D. Monoreceptor diagnostic sera.
E. Sheep erythrocytes and hemolytic serum.
53. Hemolytic serum against sheep erythrocytes is necessary for work in a laboratory where
serological diagnostics of infectious diseases is carried out. What is it used for?
A. For the diagnosis of hemolytic disease of newborns with Rhesus conflict.
B. For the reaction of passive hemagglutination.
C. As a component of the hemolytic system in the complement fixation reaction.
D. For hemagglutination delay reaction.
E. To identify the species of erythrocytes in a forensic medical examination.
54. Recovery of an organism from an infectious disease is accompanied by neutralization
of antigens by specific antibodies. What cells produce them?
A. Fibroblasts
B. Plasmocytes
C. T-lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Tissue basophils
55. A patient with bronchial asthma was found to be sensitized by poplar fluff allergen
using skin tests . What factor of the immune system plays a decisive role in the development
of this immunopathological condition?
ÿ. Ig ÿ
. Ig E
ÿ. Ig D
D. Sensitized T-lymphocytes
ÿ. Ig M
56. Among lymphocytes, there is a population of cells that have membrane receptors
for IgM; they are activated under the influence of specific antigens, multiply mitotically,
differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies (immunoglobulins). What are these
cells called?
A. B-lymphocytes
B. Memory T-lymphocytes
C. Killer T-lymphocytes
D. T-lymphocytes-suppressors
E. 57. Antibodies to the measles virus were found in the blood serum of a newborn . What
kind of immunity does this indicate?
A. Natural passive
B. Natural active
C. Artificial passive
D. artificial active
E. Hereditary
58. The virulence of the diphtheria pathogen was studied in the laboratory. In this case,
intraperitoneal infection of laboratory animals was carried out. During the experiment
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the dose of bacteria causing the death of 95% of animals was established. What unit
of measure virulence was determined in the laboratory?
A. DLM
B. DCL
C. LD50
D. ID
E. LD 5
59. One of the functions of saliva is protective, which is realized, in particular, by the
formation of local mucosal immunity due to the release of the following protein by the
parotid glands:
A. Secretory immunoglobulin A
B. Collagen
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
E. Elastan
60. A microorganism isolated from the nasopharynx of a healthy bacillicarrier is biologically
identical to Corynebacterium diphtheriae, but does not produce exotoxin. As a result of
what process is this microorganism able to restore the expression and production of
exotoxin?
A. Phage conversion
B. Chromosomal mutation
C. Cultivation on Telurite Medium
D. Cultivation in the presence of antitoxic serum
E. Passage through susceptible animals
61. After finishing work in the laboratory, the student must clean his workplace, disinfect the
table, tools. What chemicals should he use to do this?
A. Perchloric acid.
B. Chloramine.
S. Formalin.
D. Chloroform.
E. Ether.
62. Studies were carried out in the laboratory to diagnose tetanus. What method of
sterilization should be used to destroy isolated cultures of tetanus pathogens?
A. Dry heat. B. Boiling. C. Tyndallization.
D. Autoclaving. E. Pasteurization.
63. In the laboratory, in order to speed up the sterilization process, they sterilized sugarcontaining media with fluid steam on one day: in the morning, afternoon and evening for 30
minutes. How should the media be sterilized correctly?
A. Sterilize 1 hour.
B. Sterilize 15 min.
C. Sterilize 45 min.
D. Sterilize three times at 24 hour intervals.
E. Steam sterilize twice.
64. The hospital decided to conduct a quality control of sterilization of instruments in an
autoclave using a biological method. What microorganisms should not be used as test
systems?
A. Capsular.
B. Spore.
C. Acid-resistant.
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D. Pathogenic.
E. Thermophilic.
65. In a bacteriological laboratory, it is necessary to sterilize nutrient media containing
substances that change at a temperature of 1000C (urea, carbohydrates). Which method of
sterilization should the laboratory assistant choose?
A. Boiling
B. Flowing steam, fractional
ÿ. Tyndallization
D. Pasteurization
E. Pressure steam autoclave
66. In order to check the quality of air purity in the operating room, air was seeded on a number
of nutrient media using the Krotov apparatus. After incubation, some of them grew colonies
surrounded by a clear zone of hemolysis. What media were used to test the air?
A. Blood MPA
B. Serum MPA
C. Yolk-salt agar
D. Endo Medium
E. Bismuth sulfite agar
67. The exotoxin of diphtheria bacillus was treated with 0.3-0.4% formalin and kept for 30 days
in a thermostat at a temperature of 40oC. What drug was obtained as a result of the manipulations?
A. Anatoxin
B. Antitoxin
C. Diagnosticum
D. Treatment Serum
E. Diagnostic serum
68. A patient developed intestinal dysbacteriosis after prolonged use of antibiotics . What drugs
should be prescribed to restore normal microflora?
A. Interferon.
B. Sulfanilamide.
C. Eubiotics (probiotics).
D. Antifungal.
E. Nitrofurans.
PRIVATE BACTERIOLOGY
Staphylococci, streptococci
1. In the sowing of pus from a boil, spherical microbes were found, located in the
form of clusters of grapes. What morphological forms of microbes have been identified?
A. Tetracoccus.
B. Diplococci.
C. Micrococci.
D. Streptococcus.
E. Staphylococcus.
2. An outbreak of a nosocomial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus occurred in the
surgical department. In this regard, the head of the department ordered a significant amount of
a rare polyvalent staphylococcal bacteriophage. How will this drug be used?
A. For phage typing.
B. For prevention and treatment.
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C. For indication of staphylococci in the reaction of increasing phage titer.
D. To detect bacterial carriage among medical personnel.
E. For the treatment of patients with chronic forms of staphylococcal infections.
3. The strain of staphylococcus that caused the outbreak of nosocomial infection showed
high resistance to penicillin. Which of the following factors is associated with resistance of
microorganisms?
A. Synthesis of ÿ-lactamases.
B. Synthesis of adenyltransferase.
C. Changes in the components of the cell wall.
D. Changes in ribosomal proteins.
E. Synthesis of phosphotransferase.
4. The faeces of a child suffering from enteritis were emulsified in an isotonic sodium
chloride solution, and a drop of the emulsion was applied to the elective medium: 10% milksalt or yolk-salt agar. What microorganisms are supposed to be isolated?
A. Staphylococci.
B. E. coli.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Klebsiella.
ÿ. Enterococci.
5. A child was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of staphylococcal sepsis. On what
nutrient medium should the patient's blood be inoculated in order to isolate the pathogen?
A. Sugar-peptone broth.
B. Meat-peptone agar.
S. Sreda Ploskireva.
D. Wednesday Buchina.
E. Yolk-salt agar.
6. Cases of purulent postoperative complications of staphylococcal nature have become
more frequent in the surgical hospital. How can you determine the source of a staphylococcal
infection in a hospital?
A. Definition of fagovars.
B. Determination of hemotoxins.
C. Determination of enzymes of aggression.
D. Definition of biovars.
E. Determination of antibiotic sensitivity.
7. From the purulent exudate of a patient with odontogenic phlegmon, a pure culture of
gram-positive spherical microbes was isolated, which has lecithinase activity, coagulates
rabbit plasma, and decomposes mannitol under anaerobic conditions. Which of the following
microorganisms could contribute to the development of a purulent complication?
ÿ. S. pyogenes
ÿ. S. viridans
ÿ. S. epidermidis
D. S. mutans
E. S.aureus
8. In kindergarten, a few hours after eating cottage cheese, almost all children suddenly
developed symptoms of gastroenteritis. During a bacteriological study of vomit and the
remains of the curd mass, Staphylococcus aureus was isolated. How expediently to continue
research for specification of a source of an infection?
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A. Carry out phage typing of isolated strains.
B. Determine the ability of strains to toxin formation.
C. Investigate the equipment of the catering unit.
D. Determine the presence of antibodies in sick children.
E. Put an allergic test.
9. During microscopy of a smear taken from a patient with acute purulent periostitis, the doctor
found gram-positive bacteria located in clusters resembling grapes. What microorganisms have
this morphology?
A. Staphylococci
B. Sarcina
C. Tetracocci
D. Fungi of the genus Candida
E. Streptococcus
10. In order to carry out mass screening of students for S. aureus before internship in the
children's department of the clinical hospital, an elective medium was used to obtain a pure
culture of this pathogen. Which of the following media was used?
A. Yolk-salt agar
B. Endo Medium
C. Meat peptone agar
D. Wilson-Blair Wednesday
E. Telurite blood agar
11. A 9-year-old child has a rapid rise in body temperature to 39oC and a sore throat. Objectively:
the pharynx and tonsils are bright red. The tongue is swollen, raspberry red with enlarged fungiform
papillae. The skin of the body and face, except for the nasolabial triangle, is covered with thick red
spots the size of a poppy seed. Submandibular lymph nodes are painful on palpation. What disease
does the child have?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Measles
C. Diphtheria
D. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
E. Poliomyelitis
12. A culture of coccal bacteria was isolated from the nasopharynx of a boy who suffers from
chronic tonsillitis. In smears, they are placed in the form of chains. What kind of microbes could
they be?
A. Streptococcus.
B. Staphylococci.
S. Escherichia.
D. Clostridia.
E. Vibrios.
13. From the oral cavity of a clinically healthy man, 25 years old, a culture of gram-positive cocci
was isolated, which have an elongated shape, are arranged in pairs or short chains, form a capsule,
give ÿ-hemolysis on blood agar. The carrier of what pathogenic microorganism is this man?
ÿ. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ÿ. Streptococcus pyogenes.
ÿ. Streptococcus salivarium.
D. Streptococcus faecalis.
ÿ. Peptostreptococcus.
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14. In a patient, sputum examination revealed gram-positive cocci arranged in pairs. What
microorganism is the most likely causative agent of the disease?
ÿ. Legionella pneumophila.
ÿ. Neisseria meningitidis.
ÿ. Klebsiella ÿnÿumÿnÿÿÿ.
D. Musorla smarneumoniae.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
15. In a child, 2 years old, with catarrhal symptoms and a rash on the skin, the doctor suspected
scarlet fever. A small amount of serum to erythrogenic streptococcus toxin was injected intradermally
to the child, and the rash disappeared at the injection site. What do the reaction results mean?
A. The clinical diagnosis was confirmed.
B. The child has hypersensitivity to erythrogenic toxin.
C. Non-hemolytic streptococcus caused the disease.
D. The entire dose of serum can be administered intravenously.
E. The immune system of the child is very weakened.
16. Gram-positive diplococci, slightly elongated, with slightly pointed opposite ends, were found in the
sputum of a patient with suspected pneumonia. What microorganisms are found in sputum?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
ÿ. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D. Neisseria meningitidis.
E. Neisseria gÿnÿrrhÿÿÿÿ.
17. During sputum microscopy of a patient with lobar pneumonia, a significant amount of grampositive lanceolate diplococci surrounded by a capsule was revealed. What pathogen can be
isolated?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
C. Chlamidia pneumoniae.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. Escherichia salt.
Gonococci and meningococci
18. Bacterioscopic examination of purulent discharge from the cervix revealed gram-negative
bean-shaped diplococci, which were localized both inside and outside the leukocytes. Name the
causative agent of purulent inflammation of the cervix
uterus.
A. Trismonas vaginalis.
B. Schlamidia trachomatis.
C. Haemorhilus vaginalis.
D. Neisseria gÿnÿrrhÿÿÿÿ.
E. Salymmatobacterium granulomatis.
19. In a sick child with symptoms of purulent keratoconjunctivitis, an ophthalmologist
suspected blennorrhea (gonorrheal conjunctivitis). What methods of laboratory diagnostics
should be used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Serological and allergic.
B. Microscopic and bacteriological.
C. Biological and phage diagnostics.
D. Biological and allergic.
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E. Microscopic and serological.
20. A pure culture of coccoid microorganisms was isolated from the discharge of the urethra of
a patient with sluggish urethritis. The isolated microorganism on the short variegated Hiss series
ferments only glucose with the formation of acid. Name the genus and species of the isolated
microorganism.
ÿ. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ÿ. Neisseria meningitides
ÿ. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Enterosossus faesalis.
21. Bacteriological examination of purulent discharge from the urethra showed the presence of
bacteria that stained negatively according to Gram, resembled coffee beans, fermented glucose
to acid and were inside leukocytes. What disease pathogens can they be attributed to?
A. Gonorrhea.
V. Syphilis.
C. Venereal lymphogranulomatosis.
D. Chancre soft.
E. Myeloidosis.
22. Delicate bluish colonies grew on a special nutrient medium after inoculation of
purulent discharge from the urethra. Microscopy of preparations revealed gram-negative
bean-shaped diplococci. What disease are they causing?
A. Chlamydia.
B. Gonorrhea.
S. Syphilis.
D. Tularemia.
E. Myeloidosis.
23. A patient was hospitalized with suspected chronic gonorrhea. What serological two-system
reaction can be used to detect specific antibodies in serum?
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B. Neutralization reaction.
C. Agglutination reaction.
D. Complement binding reaction. E. Y
E. Enzyme immunoassay.
24. A sick woman was clinically diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following tests
can be used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of pathological material
B. Decontamination of laboratory animals
C. Bacteriophage test
D. Hemagglutination reaction
E. Immobilization reaction
25. When examining blood and mucus from the nasopharynx, a bacteriologist followed certain
measures to preserve pathogens in the material. Bacterioscopic examination revealed the
presence of gram-negative cocci, which resemble coffee beans and are arranged in pairs, or
tetrads. Name the pathogen that was isolated by bacteriologist:
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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D. Moraxella lacunata
E. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus
26. A pure culture of coccus-like microorganisms was isolated from the urethral discharge of a
patient with sluggish urethritis. The isolated microorganism in a short motley row ferments only glucose to
acid. Name the genus and species of the isolated microorganism:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitides
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Enterococcus faecalis
27. After sowing the discharge of pus from the urethra, tender bluish colonies grew on a special
nutrient medium. Microscopy of preparations revealed Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci. What
disease do they cause?
A. Myeloidosis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Tularemia
D. Chlamydia
E. Syphilis
28. In a kindergarten, it is necessary to examine children and staff in order to identify meningococcal
carriage. Choose a method of microbiological research.
A. Biological.
B. Allergic.
C. Bacterioscopic.
D. Bacteriological.
E. Serological.
29. When examining mucus from the nasopharynx, a bacteriologist found gramnegative cocci that resemble coffee beans and are arranged in pairs or tetrads. Name the pathogen
that was isolated by the bacteriologist.
ÿ. Acinetobacter calcoaceticum.
ÿ. Staphylococcus aureus.
ÿ. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D. Moraxella lacunata.
ÿ. Neisseria meningitidis.
30. During a bacterioscopic examination of the nasopharyngeal mucus of a 2.5-year-old child with
nasopharyngitis, Gram-negative diplococci, similar in shape to coffee beans, were detected. What organs of
the child are most likely to be affected if these microorganisms enter the body?
A. Renal glomeruli.
B. Heart valves.
C. Meninges.
D. Genital organs and urinary tract.
E. Lymph nodes.
31. A doctor diagnosed a sick child with meningococcal nasopharyngitis. What method of laboratory
diagnostics is the most rational for confirming the diagnosis?
A. Bacteriological.
B. Biological.
C. Serological.
D. Microscopic.
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E. Allergic.
32. Turbid cerebrospinal fluid containing a large number of leukocytes was obtained
from a child with cerebrospinal meningitis. Which of the serological reactions should be used for
rapid diagnosis of the disease?
A. Complement binding.
B. Agglutinations.
C. Immunofluorescence.
D. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
E. Neutralization.
33. A 5-year-old patient complains of severe headache and vomiting. Objectively: stiff
neck muscles, vomiting without nausea, fever. On the basis of bacteriological examination
of what pathological material can the preliminary diagnosis be confirmed: cerebrospinal
meningitis?
A. Discharge of N. meningitidis from vomit.
B. Urine culture secretions of N. meningitidis
C. Coproculture isolation of N. meningitidis.
D. Discharge of N. meningitidis from cerebrospinal fluid.
E. Isolation of bacteria N. menÿngÿtÿdÿsbp of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx.
34. When examining blood and mucus from the nasopharynx, a bacteriologist adhered
to certain measures to preserve pathogens in the material. Bacterioscopic examination
revealed the presence of gram-negative cocci, which resemble coffee beans and are arranged
in pairs or tetrads. Name the pathogen that was isolated by bacteriologist:
ÿ. Moraxella lacunata
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ÿ. Neisseria meningitides
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus
Escherichia
35. A culture of E. coli with an antigenic structure of 0-111 was isolated from the feces of a
sick 6-month-old child who was bottle-fed. What diagnosis can be made?
A. Cholera-like disease.
B. Disease of the urinary tract.
C. colienteritis.
D. Neonatal meningitis.
E. Dysentery-like disease.
36. A 12-year-old boy is in the hospital with suspected food poisoning. When
sowing the patient's feces on Endo's medium, a large number of colorless colonies grew.
What microorganism can most likely be excluded from the number of possible causative
agents of the disease?
A. Salmonella enteritidis.
B. Escherichia salt.
C. Proteus vugaris.
D. Pseudomonas aeguginosa.
E. Yersinia enterosolitis.
Salmonella
37. A pure culture of the pathogen was isolated from a patient with suspected
typhoid fever, which was identified by morphological, cultural and biochemical properties
as Salmonella typhi. What research should
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apply for the final identification of the pathogen?
A. Seroidentification.
B. Serodiagnostics.
C. Allergy diagnostics.
D. Antibiogram.
E. Phagotyping.
38. The annotation to the drug states that it contains antigens of the causative agent of
typhoid fever adsorbed on stabilized ram erythrocytes. What is this drug used for?
A. To detect antibodies in the reaction of passive hemagglutination.
B. To detect antibodies in the complement fixation test.
C. To detect antibodies in the Vidal reaction.
D. To detect antibodies in the hemagglutination inhibition test.
E. For serological identification of the causative agent of typhoid fever.
39. Effective diagnostics of the carriage of pathogens of intestinal infections is based on
the detection of antibodies to certain antigens of bacteria in the reaction of passive
hemagglutination. What standard drug should be used for this reaction?
A. Antibodies against the main classes of immunoglobulins.
C. Erythrocyte diagnosticums with adsorbed bacterial antigens.
C. Monoclonal antibodies.
D. Monoreceptor diagnostic sera.
E. Sheep erythrocytes and hemolytic serum.
40. A culture of the causative agent of typhoid fever was isolated from the blood of a
patient. What cultural properties are characteristic of this pathogen?
A. Formation of colorless or pale pink colonies on Endo and Ploskirev's medium.
C. Formation of red colonies with a metallic sheen on Endo's medium.
C. Formation of colorless colonies on bismuth sulfite agar.
D. Formation of hemolysis on blood agar.
E. Formation of a delicate film on alkaline peptone water.
41. An outbreak of food poisoning associated with the use of confectionery products that
were stored at room temperature and in the manufacture of which duck eggs were used was
registered. What microorganisms could cause this disease?
ÿ. Shigelli.
B. Escherichia coli.
C. Salmonella.
D. Legionella.
E. Vibrio cholerae.
42. For serodiagnosis of typhoid fever, a reaction is performed in which diagnosticums of
three types of microorganisms are added to different dilutions of the patient's serum, and
the result of which is evaluated by the presence of a sediment of glued bacteria. This reaction
is called:
A. Wasserman.
V. Borde-Jangu.
S. Vidalya.
D. Wright.
E. Ascoli.
43. A patient (considers himself ill for 3 days) was hospitalized in an infectious disease
clinic with a preliminary diagnosis of typhoid fever. Which method can
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confirm the diagnosis?
A. Isolation of coproculture.
B. Isolation of blood culture.
C. Urine culture isolation.
D. Isolation of bilioculture.
E. Isolation of roseoloculture.
44. During a bacteriological study of the stools of a restaurant cook in order to determine the
bacteriocarrier, black colonies with a metallic sheen grew on bismuth-sulfite agar. What kind of
microorganisms can it be?
A. Salmonella.
ÿ. Shigelli.
S. Escherichia.
D. Staphylococci.
E. Streptococci.
45. An infectious disease specialist ordered a bacteriological blood test for a patient
with suspected typhoid fever. The expediency of this appointment is explained by the
fact that during the first week of the disease with typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever,
there is:
A. Bacteremia.
B. Toxinemia.
C. Septicemia.
D. Septicopyemia.
E. Viremia.
46. A patient was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital on the 8th day of illness with
complaints of headache, general weakness. Blood was taken from him for serological
examination. During the Vidal agglutination test, it was found to be positive at a dilution of 1:200.
What diagnosis can be made on the basis of this study?
A. Typhoid fever.
ÿ. Shigellosis.
S. Cholera.
D. Typhus.
E. Relapsing fever.
47. During examination for bacteriocarrier of Salmonella typhoid in the blood serum of
cook S. of the school cafeteria, Vi-antibodies were found. Which of the following reactions was
used in this case?
A. RNGA.
B. Vidal's reaction.
S. RSK.
D. ELISA.
E. RIF.
48. A culture of E. coli with an antigenic structure of 0-111 was isolated from the
stool of a 6-month-old sick child who is bottle-fed. What diagnosis can be made?
A. Coli enteritis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Cholera-like disease
D. Food poisoning
E. Dysentery-like disease
49. When repeating the Vidal agglutination test, an increase in the titers of antibodies to S. typhi
O-antigens from 1:100 to 1:400 was found in the patient's serum. How
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can you interpret the results?
A. Has typhoid fever
B. Is an acute carrier of typhoid microbes
C. Is a chronic carrier
typhoid microbes
D. Previously had typhoid fever
E. Previously vaccinated against typhoid fever
50. Vi-antibodies were found in the blood serum of a school canteen cook during examination for
typhoid bacteriocarrier. Which of the following reactions was used in this case?
A. ELISA
B. Compliment Binding Response
C. Vidal's reaction
D. Immunofluorescence reaction
E. Indirect hemagglutination reaction
51. When repeating the Vidal agglutination test, an increase in the patient's serum titers of antibodies
to S. Typhi O-antigens from 1:100 to 1:400 was found. How can the results be interpreted?
A. Previously vaccinated against typhoid.
B. Has typhoid fever
C. Is an acute carrier of typhoid microbes
D. Is a chronic carrier of typhoid microbes.
E. Previously had typhoid fever
Shigelli
52. The patient recovered from Sonne's shigellosis and re-infected with this same pathogen. What
is the name of this form of infection?
A. Relapse.
B. Reinfection.
C. Superinfection.
D. Persistent infection.
E. Chronic infection.
53. In a bacteriological study of the feces of a patient with an intestinal infection, Shigella
sonnei was isolated. Which of the named serological reactions was used to identify the
isolated pure culture?
A. Agglutinations.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement binding.
D. Neutralization.
E. Lysisa.
54. Shigella, which form exotoxin, was isolated from a patient with a diagnosis of
dysentery. What kind of shigella is it?
A. Dysentery.
V. Sonne.
S. Flexner.
D. As soon as possible.
E. Newcastle.
55. A pure culture of bacteria was isolated from a patient with signs of colitis, which, according
to morphological, cultural and biochemical properties, was assigned to the genus Shigella. Which
of the following reactions should be used for serological identification of a bacterial culture?
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A. Agglutinations with diagnostic sera.
B. Complement binding.
C. Passive (indirect) hemagglutination.
D. Precipitation.
E. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
56. A patient was admitted to the infectious disease department of a hospital with complaints of
nausea, stools with mucus and blood streaks, fever, and weakness. The doctor suspected
shigellosis. What method of laboratory diagnostics needed to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Microscopic.
B. Serological.
C. Mycological.
D. Bacteriological.
E. Protozoological.
57. Shigella Sonne was isolated from the faeces of a patient. What additional studies are
needed to establish the source of infection?
A. Carry out phage typing of the isolated pure culture.
B. Make an antibiogram.
C. Set up the precipitation reaction.
D. Set up the complement fixation reaction.
E. Set up a neutralization reaction.
58. A patient was taken to the hospital with complaints of headache, fever, frequent stools,
abdominal pain with tenesmus. The doctor made a clinical diagnosis of dysentery and sent the
test material (feces) to the bacterial laboratory. What diagnostic method should a laboratory
assistant confirm or refute a clinical diagnosis?
A. Allergic
B. Serological
C. Biological
D. Bacterioscopic
E. Bacteriological
59. Shigella Sonne was isolated from the faeces of a patient. What additional studies
should be carried out to determine the source of infection?
A. Phage typing of isolated pure culture
B. Antibiogram
C. Precipitation reaction
D. Complement fixation reaction
E. Neutralization reaction
Cholera
60. A patient was hospitalized in the infectious department with complaints of
repeated diarrhea and vomiting, pain in the muscles of the legs, and weakness. After
examination, the doctor tentatively diagnosed cholera. How is it necessary to examine the
material from the patient for express diagnostics?
A. RA.
B. RIF.
S. ELISA.
D. RIA.
E. PCR.
61. Gram-negative bacteria in the form of a comma were found in a smear from the patient's
feces. What properties should be examined first with a microscope to obtain additional information
about the identified microbes?
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A. The presence of flagella.
B. The presence of capsules.
C. The presence of spores.
D. Presence of cysts.
E. The presence of eyelashes.
62. The stool of a patient with a diagnosis of cholera was received by the laboratory of
especially dangerous infections. What method of microbiological diagnostics should be
used to confirm or refute the diagnosis?
A. Bacterioscopic.
B. Allergic.
C. Bacteriological.
D. Biological.
E. Virological.
63. From the feces of a patient with acute gastroenteritis, a pure culture of mobile, small,
slightly curved gram-negative rods was isolated, which for 6 hours grow in alkaline 1% peptone
water in the form of a delicate bluish film. What microorganisms have such properties?
A. Spirochetam.
V. Vibrios.
S. Clostridia.
D. Bacilli.
E. Spirillam.
64. Movable curved gram-negative rods, monotrichous, which give a positive reaction
with O1 diagnostic serum, were isolated from a patient. What symptoms may appear if the
patient is not treated?
A. Rash on the skin.
B. Bacteremia.
C. Dehydration of the body.
D. Endotoxic shock.
E. Ulcerative lesions of the intestine.
65. Material of a patient suspected of having cholera has been delivered to the
Laboratory of Especially Dangerous Infections. What express diagnostic method can confirm
this diagnosis?
A. RA
ÿ. RGA
S. RSK
D. RP
E. RIF
66. Microscopy of a smear from a film that appeared on peptone water 6 hours after sowing
feces and cultivating in a thermostat revealed motile bacteria bent in the form of a comma,
gram-negative, spores and capsules do not form. What are these microorganisms?
A. Vibrios
B. Spirochetes
C. Clostridia
D. Corynebacterium
E. Spirilla
67. A 27-year-old patient was hospitalized in the infectious diseases department with complaints
of repeated diarrhea and vomiting, pain in the muscles of the legs, weakness, dizziness. After
examination, the doctor established a preliminary diagnosis of cholera. How is it necessary to
examine the material for express diagnosis?
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A. Direct and indirect RIF
B. RA
C. Bacteriological method
D. Serological method
E. Biological method
Diphtheria
68. In connection with the case of diphtheria, it became necessary to carry out preventive
vaccinations in the student group. What drug should be used to create artificial active immunity?
A. Diphtheria toxoid.
B. Antidiphtheria serum.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Live bacteria vaccine.
E. A vaccine made from killed bacteria.
69. In a closed team , it became necessary to check the state of immunity against diphtheria in
order to justify the need for vaccination. What research should be done?
A. Set the level of antibodies against diphtheria bacillus.
C. Check the members of the team for the carriage of diphtheria bacillus.
C. Set the titer of antitoxins in RNGA.
D. Check medical records regarding vaccinations.
E. Interview team members about immunizations and timing.
70. To establish the toxigenicity of diphtheria pathogens isolated from patients, cultures
were sown on a Petri dish with nutrient agar on both sides of a filter paper strip located in the
center, soaked in anti-diphtheria antitoxic serum. After the incubation of the inoculations between
individual cultures and a strip of filter paper, lines of medium turbidity were revealed. What
immunological reaction was carried out?
A. Precipitation in the gel.
W. Coombs.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Ring precipitation.
E. Opsonizations.
71. A 20-year-old boy was injected with toxoid for prophylactic purposes. Which of the following
diseases was vaccinated against?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Scarlet fever.
D. Meningitis.
E. Pertussis.
72. When examining a sick child with suspected diphtheria, a swab from the pharynx revealed
rods with polarly located intensely colored inclusions. Which of the following staining methods
was used?
A. Burri-Gins.
B. Gram.
S. Ziel-Nielsen.
D. Leffler.
E. Ozheshka.
73. Microscopy of smears stained with methylene blue revealed rods with club-shaped
thickenings at the ends, similar to C. diphtheriae. Which
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of the above coloring methods should be applied additionally to clarify the assumption?
A. Zdradovsky.
V. Kozlovsky.
S. Ziel-Nielsen.
D. Neisser.
E. Ozheshka.
74. A patient has been delivered to the clinic with a severe general condition, high
body temperature, and shortness of breath. After bacterioscopic examination of the
material from the pharynx and respiratory tract, a diagnosis of diphtheria croup was made. What
staining method was used?
A. Burri-Gins.
V. Ziehl-Nielsen.
S. Neisser.
D. Peshkova.
E. Ozheshka.
75. There are cases of angina among the children of the boarding school. During the
microscopy of Neisser-stained tonsil smears, thin yellow rods with dark brown grains at the ends
were detected, which are placed in the form of a Roman numeral V. What infection can be
suspected in this case?
A. Tonsillitis.
B. Infectious mononucleosis.
ÿ. Listeriosis.
D. Diphtheria.
E. Scarlet fever.
76. A 7-year-old girl was admitted to the infectious diseases clinic with high body temperature,
complaints of sore throat, general weakness. The doctor suspected diphtheria and instructed to
take material from the pharynx and isolate a pure culture of the pathogen. Which of the following is
decisive for confirming the diagnosis after isolating a pure culture of the pathogen?
A. Test for toxigenicity.
B. Detection of volutin grains in the pathogen.
C. Test for cystinase.
D. Hemolytic activity of the pathogen.
E. Phagolism.
77. A pure culture of diphtheria corynobacteria was isolated from a patient. What
immunological reaction should be used to detect bacterial toxigenicity?
A. Agglutination reaction.
B. Precipitation reaction in agar.
C. Complement binding reaction.
D. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
E. The reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
78. A pure culture of diphtheria Corynebacterium was isolated from a patient. What
immunological reaction should be used to determine the toxigenicity of bacteria?
A. Agglutinations
B. Complement binding
C. Indirect hemagglutination
D. Inhibition of hemagglutination
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E. Gel precipitations
79. What drugs are used for specific therapy of diphtheria?
A. Placental ÿ-globulin.
B. Antitoxic serum.
C. Native plasma.
D. Quinolones.
E. Anatoxin.
80. While examining a child, a dentist found plaque on the tonsils and suspected an atypical form of
diphtheria. A smear was prepared, seeded on nutrient media, and the toxicity of the isolated pure culture
was determined. What is the reaction
used for
determination of the toxigenicity of the isolated strain of diphtheria bacillus?
A. Gel precipitation reaction
B. Agglutination reaction on glass
C. Complement fixation reaction
D. Hemolysis reaction
E. Ring precipitation reaction
81. A 4-year-old boy was diagnosed with diphtheria in the children's department of the infectious
diseases clinic. What drug should be administered to the patient in the first place?
A. Antidiphtheria Antitoxic Serum
B. Diphtheria toxoid
C. DTP
D. ADS
E. TAVt
82. When examining a patient on the tonsils, a dentist found hard-to-remove membranous
overlays of a grayish color. What disease can you think of?
A. Diphtheria pharynx
B. Influenza
C. measles
D. Follicular angina
E. Scarlet fever
83. A 4-year-old boy was diagnosed with diphtheria in the children's department of the infectious
diseases clinic. What drug should be administered to the patient in the first place?
AKDS
Diphtheria toxoid
Dept
Antidiphtheria Antitoxic Serum
ADS
84. Exotoxin of diphtheria bacillus was treated with 0.3-0.4% formalin and kept for 30 days in a thermostat
at a temperature of 40ºÿ. What drug was obtained as a result of the manipulations?
Healing serum
Anatoxin
Diagnostic serum
Antitoxin
Diagnosticum
Tuberculosis
85. A 6-year-old child with an active tuberculous process has undergone a Mantoux test. What
immunobiological preparation was used in this case?
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ÿ. Tuberculin.
B. BCG vaccine.
C. DTP vaccine.
D. Tulyarin.
E. ADS vaccine.
86. After the introduction of the BCG vaccine to infants, immunity to tuberculosis lasts as long
as there are live bacteria of the vaccine strain in the body. What is the correct name for this type
of immunity?
A. Non-sterile.
B. Humoral.
C. Type-specific.
D. Congenital.
E. Cross.
87. In the maternity hospital, a newborn should be vaccinated against tuberculosis. What drug
should be used?
ÿ. Tuberculin.
B. STI vaccine.
C. EV vaccine.
D. DTP vaccine.
E. BCG.
88. It is planned to vaccinate children against tuberculosis in the maternity hospital. Which of
the above drugs is necessary for this?
A. DPT vaccine.
B. BCG vaccine.
ÿ. Tuberculin.
D. ADS vaccine.
E. STI vaccine.
89. The bacteriological laboratory received sputum from a patient with tuberculosis. For
bacterioscopic examination of preparations and detection of tubercle bacilli, one of the
following staining methods must be used:
A. Ziel-Nielsen.
V. Burri-Gins.
S. Zdradovsky.
D. Gram.
E. Romanovsky.
90. A specimen for microscopy was prepared from a centrifugate of a portion of urine
obtained from a patient with suspected kidney tuberculosis. What method of drug staining
is used to identify the pathogen?
A. According to Ziehl-Nielsen.
V. According to Burri.
S. According to Gram.
D. According to Leffler.
E. According to Oÿeÿko.
91. When staining bacteriological preparations made from sputum, according to the ZiehlNeelsen method, the presence of bright red rods was revealed, which were placed singly
or in groups that were not sensitive to the action of acids. On nutrient media, the first signs
of growth appear on the 10-15th day. What type are microbes?
A. Misobacterium tuberculosis.
ÿ. Yÿrsÿnÿÿ pseudotuberculosis.
C. nistorlasma dubrosii.
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D. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis.
E. Sochiella burnetii.
92. A 36-year-old man with suspected kidney tuberculosis was examined for urine
sediment. During microscopy, acid-fast bacteria were detected, but according to the Price
method, the cord factor was not detected. What study will most reliably confirm or refute
the initial diagnosis?
A. Infection of laboratory animals.
B. Study of toxigenicity.
C. Phage typing of isolated culture.
D. Serological identification of the pathogen.
E. Skin allergy test.
93. Mycobacteria were not found in smears made from the sputum of a
patient with pulmonary tuberculosis. What method can increase the likelihood of
detecting mycobacteria in sputum?
A. Microscopy of preparations stained by Ziehl-Neelsen.
V. Method of microcultures of Price-Shkolnikova.
C. Dark-field microscopy.
D. Homogenization and flotation.
E. Microscopy of native micropreparations.
94. The laboratory received sputum from a patient with tuberculosis. What staining method
should be used to detect tuberculosis pathogens?
A. Ziel-Nielsen.
B. Gram.
S. Romanovsky-Giemsa.
D. Burry-Gins.
E. Neisser.
95. A patient with tuberculosis, whose anamnesis included an open pulmonary form of the
disease, underwent a microscopic examination of sputum in order to identify the pathogen.
What staining method should be used for this?
A. Ziel-Nielsen.
B. Gram.
S. Burri-Gins.
D. Romanovsky-Giemsa.
E. Neisser.
96. In a maternity hospital, a newborn should be vaccinated against tuberculosis.
What drug should be used?
A. DPT vaccine.
B. STI vaccine.
C. EV vaccine.
D. BCG vaccine.
E. ADS vaccine.
97. Microscopic examination of sputum smears of a patient with a chronic lung disease,
stained according to Ziehl-Neelsen, revealed red sticks in a bacteriological laboratory.
What property of mycobacterium tuberculosis was revealed in this case?
A. Capsulation
B. Sporulation
C. Alcohol resistance
D. Alkali resistance
E. Acid resistance
98. A 4-year-old child underwent Mantoux reaction. 60 hours after the introduction of
tuberculin into the skin, focal hardening and reddening of the skin with a diameter of 15 mm appeared,
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which was regarded as a positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction
underlies this test?
A. Immediate type hypersensitivity
B. Anaphylactic reaction.
C. Delayed hypersensitivity
D. Compliment-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
E. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
99. A 34-year-old tuberculosis patient with a history of an open pulmonary form of the disease
underwent a microscopic examination of sputum in order to identify the pathogen. What staining
method should be used for this?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen Method
B. Gram Method
C. Burry-Ginsa method
D. Romanovsky-Giemsa Method
E. Neisser method
100. In a 30-year-old man, histological examination of a biopsy from
of the cervical lymph node, granulomas were found, which consist of epithelioid,
lymphoid, multinucleated giant cells of the Pirogov Lankhgans type. In the center of the
granuloma, necrosis is determined. What pathogen should be detected in the area of
necrosis to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Mycobacterium Koch
B. Pale treponema
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Volkovich-Frisch bacillus
E. Salmonella
101. A 55-year-old patient was prescribed an anti-tuberculosis drug for complex treatment of
pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following medicines shows its antimicrobial activity only
against Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Gatifloxacin
Cycloserine
Isoniazid
Kanamycin sulfate
Sterptomycin sulfate
Leprosy
102. After a comprehensive examination, a patient was diagnosed with leprosy. What skin-allergic
reaction is crucial in establishing the diagnosis?
A. Chic.
V. Moloney.
S. Dick.
D. Coombs.
E. Mitsuda.
103. Microscopic examination of a biopsy sample from the affected area of the oral mucosa
revealed sticks arranged in clusters that resemble a pack of cigars. According to Ziehl-Neelsen,
they are painted red. What type of pathogen was found in the biopsy?
ÿ. ÿ. tuberculosis.
BM lerrae.
C. M. bovis
DM israilii
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E. M. avium
Pathogenic anaerobes
104. In a patient who was injured in a car accident, the doctor suspected the possible
development of an anaerobic infection of the wound. What is the best drug for specific
treatment to administer even before establishing a laboratory diagnosis?
A. Polyvalent specific serum.
B. Anatoxin.
C. Type-specific immune serum.
D. Native plasma.
E. Placental y-globulin.
105. After eating canned meat, patient N. developed visual disturbances, swallowing,
breathing, severe headache. Botulism was diagnosed. What pathogenicity factor is associated
with the clinical manifestations of this disease?
A. Exotoxin.
V. Hemolysin.
C. Endotoxin.
D. Plasmocoagulase.
E. Fibrinolysin.
106. In the bacteriological laboratory, home-made dried fish was examined, which
caused severe food poisoning. During microscopy of a culture isolated on Kitt-Tarozzi
medium, microorganisms similar to a tennis racket were revealed. What diagnosis can
the doctor ask?
A. Salmonellosis.
ÿ. Botulism.
S. Cholera.
D. Shigellosis.
E. Typhoid fever.
107. When examining a patient, a dentist found tension in the masticatory
muscles and limited mouth opening. For what infectious disease such symptoms are
characteristic?
A. Diphtheria.
B. Influenza.
S. Stolbnyak
D. Leptospirosis.
E. Cholera.
108. When examining a patient with necrotic phlegmon of the maxillofacial area, the
doctor suspected gas gangrene. During microscopy of purulent discharge from the
wound, gram-positive rod-shaped microorganisms were found. What nutrient medium
should be used to isolate a pure culture of the pathogen?
A. Meat-peptone agar.
B. Wednesday Endo.
S. Wednesday Levin.
D. Kitt-Tarozzi medium.
E. Milk Salt Agar.
109. A patient with an open fracture of the lower jaw was admitted to the Department of
Surgical Dentistry . What drug should be used for active immunization against tetanus?
A. Tetanus toxoid immunoglobulin.
B. Tetanus toxoid.
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C. Anti-tetanus serum.
D. Staphylococcal toxoid.
E. Gamma globulin from the blood of donors immunized against tetanus.
110. The causative agents of many purulent-inflammatory processes in the oral cavity are
anaerobes. Which of the named nutrient media can be used to control the contamination of
dressings with anaerobes?
A. Endo.
W. Kitt-Tarozzi.
S. Ru.
D. Patience.
E. Ploskireva.
111. A patient was taken to the hospital with a preliminary diagnosis of botulism. What
serological reaction should be used to detect botulinum toxin in the test material?
A. Neutralization.
B. Agglutinations.
C. Complement binding.
D. Precipitation.
E. Immunofluorescence.
112. The bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for the content of botulinum toxin. For
this, the experimental group of mice was injected with an extract from the test material and
antitoxic antibotulinum serum types A, B, E; the control group of mice was injected with the
extract without antibotulinum serum. What serological reaction was used?
A. Precipitation.
B. Neutralization.
C. Complement binding.
D. Opson-phagocytic.
E. Double immune diffusion.
113. Bacteria with a terminal arrangement of spores, giving them the appearance of "drumsticks",
were isolated from an abrasion of the right lower limb in a patient admitted to the infectious
diseases department with complaints of convulsive contraction of the muscles of the face. What
bacteria have these properties?
ÿ. Bacillus cereus B. Bacillus anthracis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium
botulinum
E. Clostridium tetani
114. After eating canned meat, a schoolboy developed
neurological symptoms. A diagnosis of botulism was made. What emergency treatments
should be used?
The introduction of sulfa drugs
Administration of antibotulinum serum
Purpose of laxatives
Administration of antibiotics
Administering the botulinum vaccine
Plague and tularemia
115. A group of Ukrainian dentists should go on business trips to Africa. However, it is
known that in this country an average of several hundred people are ill with plague every year.
Which of the following vaccines is used for prophylaxis?
A. STI.
B. Live vaccine EV.
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C. Plague toxoid.
D. Combination vaccine.
E. Chemical vaccine.
116. To confirm the diagnosis of tularemia, a hunter hospitalized on the 8th day of illness should
be prescribed for diagnosis:
A. RIF.
B. RA.
S. RNGA.
D. RSC.
E. Allergic test.
117. A punctate of inguinal lymph nodes was taken from a patient with suspicion of plague.
The material was sown on a solid nutrient medium. What kind of colony should be in case of
confirmation of the diagnosis of plague?
A. Lace handkerchief.
B. Drops of mercury.
C. Dew drops.
D. Shagreen leather.
E. Lion's mane.
118. Immobile ovoid bacteria with bipolar coloration were isolated from a patient. In the body
form a delicate capsule. On agar, they form colonies with a cloudy white center surrounded by
a scalloped border resembling lace. Produce "mouse toxin". These properties are inherent in
the pathogen:
A. Plagues
B. anthrax
C. tularemia
D. Pertussis
E. Brucellosis
119. In order to confirm the diagnosis of teleremia, a hunter hospitalized on the 5th day of illness
should be prescribed for early diagnosis:
Agglutination reaction
Immunofluorescence reaction
Allergic test
Complement fixation reaction
Indirect hemagglutination reaction
Brucellosis
120. In patients with brucellosis, a positive Burne skin test is observed. What factor of the immune
system plays a decisive role in the development of an inflammatory reaction at the injection site of
brucellin in these patients?
ÿ. Ig ÿ.
B. Sensitized T-lymphocytes.
C. Ig E.
D. Ig ÿ.
ÿ. Ig D.
121. During a routine examination of milkmaids, an allergic test was performed by Burne. This test
is used to detect hypersensitivity to:
A. Tulyarin.
V. Tuberculin.
C. Alt tuberculin.
D. Brucellin.
E. Anthraxin.
122. A veterinarian was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with suspicion of
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brucellosis. What serological test can be used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Precipitation reaction Wassermann complement fixation reaction
C. Wright agglutination test
D. Weigl agglutination test
AND. -
anthrax
123. To test livestock raw materials (skin, wool) for the presence of anthrax, a soluble
thermostable antigen in a water-salt extract is isolated from the raw materials. What
reaction is used for this?
A. Ring precipitation.
B. Precipitation in agar.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Weigl agglutination test
AND. -
124. During a biological test, smears-imprints from animal organs were found to contain streptobacilli
surrounded by a capsule. What diagnosis can be made?
A. Anthrax.
B. Tularemia.
S. Plague.
D. Brucellosis.
E. Lobar pneumonia.
125. A 34-year-old patient applied for a carbuncle on his face. During the examination, a loose,
painless edema of the subcutaneous fatty tissue was found, in the center of the carbuncle there was
a black scab, along the periphery there were vesicular rashes. During a microbiological study,
immobile streptobacilli were found that are able to form a capsule. What microorganisms are the
causative agents of this disease?
A. Vasillus subtilis.
ÿ. Staphylococcus aureus.
S. Vasillus anthracoides.
D. ÿÿÿÿllus anthracis
E. Vasillus megaterium
126. After examining a dead cow, after a certain time, a black carbuncle appeared on the cheek
of a veterinarian . Microscopic examination of its contents revealed gram-positive, large, chainlike, stub-ended rods that resemble a bamboo stick. What pathogen has these morphological
and tinctorial properties?
ÿ. ÿ. anthracis
V. S. refrÿngÿns
ÿ. Y. pestis
D. . popular
ÿ. F. tularensis
127. The microbiological laboratory was given the task of preparing for the
examination of materials suspected of being infected with anthrax spores. Which of the
following diagnostic preparations can be used to quickly detect them?
A. Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin.
B. Luminescent anti-anthrax serum.
C. Standard anthrax antigen.
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D. Anthraxin.
E. Monoclonal antibodies against anthrax.
128. The laboratory received material (extraction of animal raw materials) from the
area where cases of anthrax among animals were noted. What serological reaction
should be used to detect pathogen antigens in the test material?
A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Thermoprecipitation
C. Agar precipitation
D. Indirect hemagglutination
E. Complement binding
129. In the bacteriological laboratory, animal skins were examined using the Ascoli
immune precipitation reaction. A positive result of this reaction indicates the presence
of:
Anthrax antigens Brucellosis causative agent Yersinia surface antigen Plague causative
agent Anaerobic infection toxin
foot and mouth disease
130. A patient (milkmaid) consulted a dentist with a rash on the oral mucosa in the
form of aphthae. The doctor found a rash on the skin around the nail plates on the
hands. What pathogen caused this disease?
A. Vesicular stomatitis virus
B. FMDV
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Herpesvirus
E. Cytomegalovirus
Pathogenic spirochetes
131. For serological diagnosis of syphilis using the Wasserman reaction, a laboratory
assistant prepared the following reagents: cardiolipin antigen, alcoholic lipid extract
from the heart muscle of a bull with cholesterol, antigen from treponema destroyed by
ultrasound, hemolytic system, isotonic sodium chloride solution, test sera. What other
component is needed to set up the reaction?
ÿ. Complement
B. Live treponema
C. Sheep erythrocytes
D. Diagnostic precipitating serum
E. Antiglobulin serum
132. In a micropreparation made from a punctate of the patient's regional lymph node
and stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, the doctor found thin
pale pink microorganisms with 12-14 uniform curls with sharp ends, 10-13 microns
long. The causative agent of what infectious disease can be discussed in this case?
A. Trypanosomiasis.
V. Syphilis.
C. Leptospirosis.
D. Relapsing fever.
E. Leishmaniasis.
133. Wasserman's reaction in a patient, 30 years old, sharply positive (++++).
What infectious disease is the Wasserman reaction used to diagnose?
A. Syphilis.
B. Brucellosis.
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C. Tuberculosis.
D. Polio.
E. Influenza.
134. In a patient from an ulcer located on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, when stained
according to Romanovsky-Giemsa, thin spiral-shaped forms of microorganisms of a pale pink color
with 12-14 curls and pointed ends were found. What pathogen has such symptoms?
A. The causative agent of relapsing fever.
B. The causative agent of leptospirosis.
C. The causative agent of syphilis.
D. The causative agent of campylobacteriosis.
E. ÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿÿ ÿÿÿÿÿÿ.
135. On the oral mucosa of a 20-year-old woman, a dentist noticed a rounded ulcer with a
dense bottom and smooth edges, which resembles a hard chancre. What diagnostic method
should be used at this stage of the disease to confirm its etiology?
A. Serological.
B. Bacteriological.
C. Biological.
D. Bacterioscopic. E
. Allergic.
136. A laboratory assistant took blood serum from a patient with a preliminary diagnosis of
syphilis for a serological test, which is based on the detection of antibodies that immobilize
treponemas and lead to their death. What reaction was used for diagnosis?
A. Agglutination reaction.
B. Complement binding reaction.
C. Immobilization reaction.
D. Precipitation reaction.
E. Neutralization reaction.
137. A patient with syphilis underwent a course of antibiotic therapy and completely recovered.
Some time later he was again infected with Treponema pallidum. What is the name of this form of
infection?
A. Complication
B. Secondary infection
C. Reinfection
D. Relapse
E. Superinfection
138. A 30-year-old patient has an ulcer with a smooth lacquered surface, red color, cartilaginous
consistency, on the lower lip. A biopsy of the lesion site revealed lymphoplasmacytic infiltration and
vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Visceral syphilis
E. Gunma
139. A laboratory assistant took blood serum from a patient with a preliminary diagnosis of
syphilis to set up an immune response based on the detection of antibodies that prevent
movement of treponemas and leading to their death. What reaction was used to
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diagnostics?
A. Immobilization reaction
B. Complement fixation reaction
C. Agglutination reaction
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Neutralization reaction
140. When examining a sick man hospitalized on the 5th day of illness with symptoms of jaundice, body
temperature up to 40 ° C, vomiting, pain in the muscles of the lower extremities (shins), chills, nosebleeds.
When conducting laboratory diagnostics , the bacteriologist used dark-field microscopy of a drop of the
patient's blood. Name the causative agent of the disease.
A. Vorrelia duttony.
ÿ. Leptospira interrogans
ÿ. Calimmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Bartonella bacilloformis
ÿ. Ricketsia mooseri.
141. A patient with a preliminary diagnosis of epidemic relapsing fever was hospitalized to an
infectious disease clinic. What material taken from the patient should be investigated first of all?
A. Liquor.
B. Urine.
C. Blood.
D. Faeces.
E. Flushing from the nasopharynx.
142. During a microscopic examination of a micropreparation of blood stained according
to Romanovsky-Giemsa, a doctor found microorganisms in the form of thin filaments of blue-violet
color with several large curls 1030 microns and more. What infectious disease is characterized by such a microscopic picture?
A. Syphilis.
B. Relapsing fever.
C. Leptospirosis.
D. Trypanosomiasis.
E. Leishmaniasis.
143. After a thorough examination of a patient who returned from Central Asia to Ukraine, a preliminary
diagnosis was established: spring-summer encephalitis. Through the bite of which arthropod, the pathogen
could enter the body?
A. Dog tick
B. Taiga tick
C. Village tick
D. Scabies mite
E. Mosquito
Pathogenic protozoa
144. A pregnant woman consulted a doctor with complaints typical of toxoplasmosis. Blood was taken
from her to confirm the clinical diagnosis. What serological reactions should be performed in this case?
A. Complement binding.
B. Precipitation.
C. Neutralization.
D. Deleted.
E. Wasserman.
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145. An indirect immunofluorescence test was used to detect antibodies to toxoplasma in the
blood serum of a pregnant woman. To do this, first a fixed smear of Toxoplasma was treated
with the studied serum. How should the preparation be processed at the next stage?
A. A solution of fluorescein.
B. Luminescent serum against human immunoglobulin.
C. Normal human immunoglobulin.
D. Diagnostic serum containing antibodies to toxoplasma.
E. Serum containing fluorescein-labeled antibodies to toxoplasma.
146. A 32-year-old woman with an asymptomatic course of the disease gave birth for the
second time to a dead child with severe microcephaly. What disease should the doctor think
about first of all?
A. Toxoplasmosis.
B. Syphilis.
C. brucellosis.
D. Histoplasmosis.
E. Listeriosis.
147. A patient has a preliminary diagnosis of toxoplasmosis. What material was used to
diagnose this disease?
A. Phlegm
B. Blood
C. Duodenal contents
D. Faeces
E. Urine
148. In a 60-year-old woman with a severe form of periodontal disease, microscopic examination
of scrapings from the gums revealed mononuclear protozoa 3-60 microns in size with wide
pseudopodia. What protozoa were found in the patient?
. Trichomonas tenax
B. Entamoeba gingivalis
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Balantidium coli
149. In a patient with complaints of frequent liquid stools with blood ("raspberry jelly"), microscopic
examination revealed large cells with one nucleus and absorbed erythrocytes. Which of the
protozoa is characterized by such a morphological structure?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Balantidium coli
150. A 26-year-old woman, who had two spontaneous miscarriages, turned to the antenatal
clinic. What protozoal disease could cause miscarriage ?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Giardiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
151. A doctor, microscopically examining a blood smear stained according to Romanovsky, found
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crescent-shaped protoplasm whose protoplasm is vacuolized and stained blue, and
core in - red. What protozoa were most likely in the blood?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Trypanosomes
C. Leishmania
D. Giardia
E. Balantidii
152. According to WHO, approximately 250 million people are affected by malaria every year
on Earth. This disease occurs predominantly in tropical and subtropical regions. The boundaries
of its distribution coincide with the ranges of mosquitoes of the genus:
A. Anopheles
B. Culex
C. Aedes
D. Mansonia
E. Kulizeta
153. A punctate from a lymph node was examined in a patient with suspicion of one of the
protozoal diseases. In the preparation, stained according to Romanovsky-Gizmsa, crescentshaped bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and a red nucleus were found. What protozoa
were found in the smear?
A. Dermatotropic leishmania
B. Malarial Plasmodium
C. Viscerotropic lesions
D. Trypanosomes
E. Toxoplasma
Sanitary microbiology
154. During the sanitary-bacteriological study of tap water, the following results were obtained:
the total number of bacteria in 1 ml - 80, the coli-index - 3. How to evaluate the result of the study?
A. Water of questionable quality.
B. Water suitable for consumption.
C. Water of very dubious quality.
D. The water is polluted.
E. The water is very polluted.
155. During a sanitary-bacteriological study of water by the method of membrane
filters, two red colonies were found on a membrane filter (Endo medium), through which 500 ml of
the test water was passed. Calculate the coli-index and coli-titer of the test water.
A. 250 and 4.
B. 2 and 500.
Pp. 4 and 250.
D. 500 and 2.
E. 250 and 2.
156. The bacteriological laboratory studies the quality of drinking water. Its microbial count turned
out to be close to 100. What microorganisms were taken into account in this case?
A. Bacteria pathogenic for humans and animals.
B. Bacteria of the Escherichia coli group.
C. All bacteria that have grown on a nutrient medium.
D. Opportunistic pathogens.
E. Enteropathogenic bacteria and viruses.
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157. When determining the microbial number of air in a hospital ward, it turned out that it is 1500
CFU / m3. What groups of microorganisms were taken into account in this case?
A. Pathogens of nosocomial infections.
B. Bacteria and viruses are the causative agents of respiratory infections.
C. Staphylococci and hemolytic streptococci.
D. All bacteria that have grown on a nutrient medium.
E. All pathogenic and opportunistic bacteria.
Hospital microbiology
158. During a bacteriological study of purulent material of a postoperative wound, large mucous
colonies grew on MPA, which form a green-blue pigment with the smell of honey or jasmine.
Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichous. What culture of bacteria is contained in the
purulent material?
ÿ. ÿsÿudÿmÿnÿs aeruginosa.
B. proteus vulgaris.
C. Klebsiella osaenae.
D. Streptomyces griseum.
E. Vrusella abortion.
159. A pregnant woman complains of irritation of the vaginal mucosa, itching and discharge
from the genital tract. Bacterioscopy of smears from the vagina showed the presence of large grampositive oval elongated cells that form pseudomycelium. What is the most likely route of infection?
A. Contact household
V. Polov
C. Endogenous infection
D. Transmissive
E. Wound infection
160. During the microscopy of a micropreparation from the secretions of the mucous
membrane of the oral cavity, the doctor found rounded, ellipsoid, budding cells. The causative
agent of what fungal disease can be discussed in this case?
A. Cryptococcosis.
B. Coccidiosis.
C. Epidermophytosis.
D. Microsporia.
E. Candidiasis.
161. After prolonged antibiotic therapy in a patient on the mucous membrane of the oral
cavity, areas with white plaque were found, which were not removed with a spatula. What disease
are these signs typical for?
A. Candidiasis.
B. Mumps.
C. Periodontal disease.
D. Influenza.
E. Typhoid fever.
162. A scraping of a whitish plaque from the mucous membranes of the oral cavity was
received at the laboratory. The inoculation of the material was done on Saburo's medium.
During bacterioscopy, short reniform filaments were revealed. What group of infections do the
causative agents of this disease belong to?
A. Mikozov.
B. Spirochetosis.
S. Rickettsiozov.
D. Mycoplasmosis.
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E. Chlamydia.
163. A pediatrician during an examination of a three-month-old child noticed that the
mucous membrane of the oral cavity and tongue were covered with a dense white coating.
In the material taken from the lesion, the bacteriologist found the presence of yeast-like
fungi. What is mycosis?
A. Candidiasis.
V. Favus.
C. Epidermophytosis.
D. Actinomycosis.
E. Ringworm.
164. During a preventive examination of schoolchildren, a dentist found white cream-like plaques
on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity of student S., which were easily removed, leaving
bloody erosions. The doctor suspected candidiasis and ordered a mycological examination for the
patient. Which of the following nutrient media should be used to identify the causative agent of
candidiasis?
A. Wednesday Saburo.
B. Wednesday Ru.
C. Endo Wednesday.
D. Kitta-Tarozzi environment.
E. Hiss's environment.
165. A woman who took antibiotics for an intestinal infection for a long time developed a
complication of the oral mucosa in the form of an inflammatory process and white plaque,
in which yeast-like fungi Candida albicans were found during bacteriological examination.
Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
A. Furazolidone
B. Polymyxin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluconazole
E. Biseptol
166. A woman who took antibiotics for an intestinal infection for a long time developed a
complication of the oral mucosa in the form of an inflammatory process and
white plaque, in which, during bacteriological examination, yeast-like fungi Candida albicans
were found. Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of this complication?
A. Fluconazole
B. Biseptol
C. Tetracycline
D. Furazolidone
E. Polymyxin
PRIVATE VIROLOGY
Flu and SARS
1. To prevent a seasonal increase in the incidence of influenza in the medical institutions of the
city, the sanitary and epidemiological station ordered the immunization of medical workers.
Which of the following preparations should be used for immunization?
A. Subunit vaccine.
V. Interferon.
S. Gamma globulin.
D. Remantadin.
E. Amantadine.
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2. A patient with signs of pneumonia, which developed on the 6th day of influenza, was
admitted to the infectious diseases hospital. What method most likely confirms the influenza
etiology of pneumonia?
A. Detection of influenza virus antigens in sputum by ELISA.
B. Paired sera studies.
C. Infection of chick embryos.
D. Immunoluminescent examination of nasal swabs.
E. Detection of antibodies against influenza virus hemagglutinins.
3. With the approach of an influenza epidemic, the district epidemiologist draws up an application for
prophylactic drugs. Which of them will contribute to the formation of active specific immunity
and is the least reactogenic?
A. Subunit vaccine.
B. Live vaccine.
C. Killed vaccine.
D. Donor gamma globulin.
E. Leukocyte interferon.
4. During the outbreak of an acute respiratory infection, for the diagnosis of influenza,
express diagnostics is carried out, which is based on the detection of a specific viral antigen
in the test material (nasopharyngeal swab). What serological reaction is used for this?
A. Opsonization.
B. Complement binding.
C. Agglutinations.
D. Precipitation.
E. Immunofluorescence.
5. Serological diagnosis of influenza involves the detection of an increase in the titer of antibodies
to the pathogen in the patient's blood serum. How many times should the antibody titer increase
in the study in paired sera for the result to be considered reliable?
A. 3.
IN 2.
C. 1.
D. 4 and more.
E. 0.5.
6. Pathological material (nasopharyngeal lavage) was taken from a patient with
suspected influenza, which was used to infect chicken embryos in the allantoic cavity.
What reaction can be used to determine the presence of the influenza virus in the allantoic
fluid?
A. Precipitation.
B. Agglutinations.
C. Hemadsorption.
D. Hemagglutination.
E. Hemolysis.
7. There is a flu epidemic in the city. Which drug from the following list can be recommended
to people for nonspecific prevention of the disease?
A. Anti-influenza serum.
B. Influenza vaccine.
ÿ. Penicillin.
D. Anti-influenza immunoglobulin.
E. Leukocyte interferon.
8. The influenza virus contains internal antigens - nucleoprotein (NP),
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polymerase (P1, P2, P3), matrix protein (M) and external antigens hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). Which of them plays a major role in creating immunity
to influenza?
A. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
B. Nucleoprotein antigens.
C. Matrix protein.
D. Polymerase proteins.
E. Neuraminidase.
9. A 42-year-old man died with symptoms of severe intoxication and respiratory failure.
On the section, the lung tissue in all sections is variegated, with multiple small-focal
hemorrhages and foci of emphysema. Histologically in the lungs: hemorrhagic
bronchopneumonia with abscess formation, eosinophilic and basophilic inclusions in the
cytoplasm of bronchial epithelial cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Influenza
B. Parainfluenza
C. Adenovirus infection
D. Respiratory syncytial infection
E. Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
10. To prevent a seasonal rise in the incidence of influenza in the medical institutions of
the city, the sanitary and epidemiological station ordered medical workers to be immunized.
Which of the following drugs should be immunized?
A. Subunit vaccine
B. Interferon
C. Gamma globulin
D. Remantadin
E. Amantadine
11. For virological diagnosis of influenza, 10-day-old chicken embryos are used. What
model for the cultivation of parainfluenza viruses should be chosen?
A. Tissue cultures.
B. Chicken embryo.
C. white mice.
D. White rats.
E. Crawley.
Enteroviruses
12. In early childhood, routine preventive immunization against poliomyelitis is carried out with
a live vaccine that is administered orally. What immunoglobulins are not responsible in this case
for the creation of post-vaccination immunity?
A. Serum Ig A.
V. Ig M.
C Ig G.
D. Ig D.
E. Secretory Ig A.
13. In a sick boy, 5 years old, on the fifth day after the onset of the disease, the causative agent
of poliomyelitis was isolated from the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx and tonsils. What
reaction should be used to determine the serotype of the pathogen?
A. Passive hemagglutination.
B. Inhibition of hemagglutination.
C. Inhibition of hemadsorption.
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D. Virus neutralization of cytopathic action.
E. Complement binding.
14. A patient (milkmaid) turned to the dentist with rashes on the oral mucosa in the form
of aphthae. The doctor found rashes on the skin around the nail plates on the hands.
What pathogen caused this disease?
A. Foot-and-mouth disease virus.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Vesicular stomatitis virus.
D. Herpesvirus.
E. Virus
15. The stool of a patient with suspected intestinal viral infection was prepared for
virus isolation. Then the primary and continuous cell cultures were infected. After 2-3
days, a cytopathic effect was detected in infected cell cultures. How are enteroviruses
identified?
A. Using the immunofluorescence reaction.
B. With the help of a cytopathic neutralization reaction.
C. With the help of hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
D. Using the agglutination reaction.
E. Using the precipitation reaction.
16. From a patient with an acute intestinal infection, a virus was isolated, which is assigned
to the genus of enteroviruses. To establish the serotype of the virus, diagnostic sera are used.
Specify which antibodies these sera should contain.
A. Against viral enzymes.
B. Against supercapsid envelope proteins.
C. Against non-structural proteins of the virus.
D. Against capsid proteins.
E. Against viral hemagglutinins.
17. For serological diagnosis of poliomyelitis, paired sera of the patient are examined. What
should be used as an antigen in the cytopathic neutralization reaction?
A. Viruses inactivated by formalin.
B. Complement-fixing antigens of the virus.
C. Live viruses.
D. Hemagglutinin antigens.
E. Antigens of capsid viral proteins.
Herpesviruses
18. There were several cases of illness among children in the kindergarten. The clinical picture
was characterized by an increase in body temperature and the appearance of a vesicular rash in
the throat, mouth and skin. Provisional diagnosis: chicken pox. Which of the above materials
should be sent to the virological laboratory for express diagnostics?
A. The contents of the vesicles.
B. Phlegm.
C. Hand washings.
D. Urine.
E. Bile.
19. A patient went to a dentist with complaints about the appearance of bubbles with
liquid on the lips, localized at the border of the skin and mucous membrane. What
microorganisms can cause such a pathology?
A. Mycobacteria.
B. Streptococcus.
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C. Herpesviruses.
D. Orthomyxoviruses.
E. Staphylococcus.
20. The patient has a fever and the appearance of vesicles, which are located on the border
of the skin and mucous membranes. What research methods can be used to confirm the
presence of the herpes simplex virus in the body of a patient?
A. Microscopic and allergic.
B. Virological and biological.
C. Serological and biological.
D. Microscopic and biological.
E. Virological and serological.
21. To diagnose a generalized herpesvirus infection, blood serum was examined to
identify specific antibodies of a certain class. What class of antibodies indicate the initial
stage of a viral infection?
A. Ig G.
V. Ig A.
. Ig E.
D. Ig M.
ÿ. Ig D.
22. A patient has vesicular vesicles on the mucous membrane of the mouth, nose and
lips. The dentist suspected vesicular stomatitis. What study will provide an opportunity
to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of vesicular fluid
B. Isolation of the virus from the vesicular fluid
C. Isolation of bacteria from vesicular fluid
D. Allergy testing
E. Infection of animals with vesicular fluid
23. A patient went to the doctor with complaints of periodic rashes of herpetic
vesicles on the line of the lips and on the wings of the nose. This condition has
been observed for 10 years, each time after a decrease in the body's defenses. The
doctor diagnosed her with labial herpes. What is the name of this form of infection?
A. Acute
B. Latent
C. Persistence
D. Protracted
ÿ. Exogenous
24. A patient has herpetic conjunctivitis. What etiotropic drug should be prescribed?
A. Acyclovir
B. Ampicillin
C. Metisason
D. Furagin
E. Tetracycline
25. A woman has been diagnosed with cervical cancer. What virus (high probability) can
this pathology be associated with?
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Arenavirus
Varicella-Zoster virus
papilloma virus
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26. A patient went to the doctor with complaints of stomatitis, which was treated
with antiseptics . What drug should be prescribed to the patient if the mucosal lesions
are herpetic in nature?
Remantadin
Clotrimazole
Acyclovir
Furazolidone
Biseptol
Measles and rubella
27. Antibodies to the measles virus were detected in the blood serum of a newborn. What kind of
immunity does this indicate?
A. Artificial passive.
B. Natural active.
C. Natural passive.
D. Artificial active.
E. Hereditary.
28. A 1.5-year-old boy who did not receive routine vaccinations came into contact
with a measles patient. For the purpose of emergency specific prophylaxis, the child
was injected with donor ÿ-globulin. What kind of immunity was created in this case?
A. Passive.
B. Natural.
C. Antitoxic.
D. Post-vaccination.
E. Local.
29. A pediatrician, while talking with parents about measles prevention, noticed that a certain
category of children has a natural passive immunity to this disease. What kind of children did
the doctor have in mind?
A. Those who received routine vaccinations.
B. Over 14 years old.
C. Those who had measles in the first year of life.
D. Newborns.
E. Those whose parents did not have measles.
30. A 7-year-old child fell ill acutely. On examination , the pediatrician noted that the
mucous membrane of the pharynx was hyperemic, edematous, covered with a large amount of
mucus. There are whitish spots on the mucous membrane of the cheeks. The next day, the
child developed a large-spotted rash on the skin of the face, neck, and trunk. What disease can
you think of?
A. Diphtheria
V. Measles
S. Scarlet fever
D. Meningococcemia
E. Allergic dermatitis
31. When examining a sick child, 5 years old, a dentist, on the basis of clinical data, diagnosed
parotitis. Which of the following ways can this disease be transmitted?
A. Transmissive.
B. Airborne. C. Through the bite of animals.
D. Fecal-oral.
E. Parenteral.
Rabies
32. The patient went to the clinic about dog bites, the dog succeeded
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catch and establish that the animal is ill with rabies. What vaccine should be used for the specific
prevention of rabies in humans?
A. Killed.
B. Anatoxin.
S. Chemical.
D. Recombinant.
E. Synthetic.
33. A man who was bitten by an unknown dog came to the surgical room. Wide lacerations
are localized on the face. What treatment and preventive care should be provided to prevent
rabies?
A. Start immunization with rabies vaccine.
B. Prescribe combined antibiotic therapy.
C. Urgently administer the DTP vaccine.
D. Hospitalize the patient and keep him under medical supervision.
E. Urgently inject normal gamma globulin.
34. Employees of the dental clinic should be vaccinated against viral hepatitis B, creating artificial
active immunity in them. What drug should be used?
A. Inactivated virus grown on a chick embryo.
B. ÿ-globulin from donated blood.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
D. Monoclonal antibodies.
E. Recombinant vaccine from viral antigens.
35. Currently, in the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B, the presence of viral DNA in the patient's
blood is determined. Which of the following reactions is used to do this?
A. Complement binding reactions.
B. Reactions of indirect hemagglutination.
C. Polymerase chain reaction.
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E. Hemagglutination inhibition reactions.
36. Due to the severe course of hepatitis B, the patient was prescribed an examination to identify a
possible companion agent that aggravates the course of the underlying disease. Name this agent.
A. HBs antigen.
B. Hepatitis C virus.
C. Hepatitis G virus.
D. Hepatitis E virus.
E. Delta virus.
37. To test the blood of donors for the presence of hepatitis B virus antigens, highly
sensitive methods must be used. Which of the following reactions should be used?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
B. Immunoelectrophoresis.
C. Passive hemagglutination.
D. Complement binding.
E. Indirect immunofluorescence.
38. A patient, a dentist by profession, was hospitalized in the infectious department with signs
of liver damage. What methods of laboratory diagnostics should be prescribed to establish the
diagnosis of viral hepatitis B?
A. Detection of HBs antigen in blood serum.
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B. Virological study of feces.
C. Virological examination of urine.
D. Determination of liver function tests (bilirubin and blood cholesterol).
E. Detection of enzyme activity (aldolase, transaminase, etc.).
39. Dentists belong to the risk group of professional infection with viral hepatitis B. Specify
an effective means for specific active prevention of this disease among dentists.
A. Vaccination with a recombinant vaccine.
B. Reliable sterilization of medical instruments.
C. Performing work in rubber gloves.
D. Administration of specific immunoglobulin.
E. Administration of interferonogens.
40. HBS antigen was detected in the blood serum during the ELISA test. What disease does
this indicate?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. Viral hepatitis A.
C. AIDS.
D. Tuberculosis.
E. Syphilis.
41. The hepatitis B virus gene, which is responsible for the formation of the HBs antigen, has
been integrated into the vaccinia virus genome. The recombinant virus is planned to be used
as a vaccine preparation. What type of vaccine is received?
A. Combined.
B. Genetic engineering.
C. Associated.
D. Synthetic.
E. Chemical.
42. A patient with viral hepatitis A was hospitalized in the infectious diseases hospital. What
antibodies will be synthesized first in response to the virus?
A. Ig A.
B. Ig G.
S. Ig M.
D. Ig D.
E. Ig E.
43. A patient was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis of viral hepatitis B. To diagnose the
disease, a serological test was performed, which is based on the interaction of an antigen and
an antibody chemically bound to peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase. What is the name of the
used serological test?
A. Complement binding reaction.
B. Radioimmune method.
C. Immunofluorescence reaction.
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E. Immobilization reaction.
44. Dentists are at increased risk of occupational exposure to viral hepatitis B. Select the
drug that should be used for reliable active prevention of this disease.
A. Recombinant HvsAg Protein Vaccine
B. Live vaccine against viral hepatitis B.
C. Specific immunoglobulin.
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D. Antihepatitis serum.
E. Monoclonal antibodies to HBsAg.
45. Dentists were vaccinated according to professional indications. The vaccine should protect
them from a viral infection, the causative agent of which may be present in the blood of dental
patients who have had an infection or are chronic carriers. What vaccine was used?
A. Live measles vaccine
B. Subunit influenza vaccine
C. Inactivated hepatitis A vaccine
D. Rabies vaccine
E. Genetically engineered HBs antigen
HIV infection
46. A patient with fever of unknown etiology, immunodeficiency, damage to the nervous and
digestive systems was previously diagnosed with AIDS. What diagnostic methods should be
used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Polymerase chain reaction, immunoblotting, enzyme immunoassay
analysis.
B. Complement binding reaction.
C. Agglutination reaction.
D. Hemadsorption reaction.
E. Hemagglutination reaction.
47. When checking the blood of donors at the blood transfusion station, the serum of one of them
found antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus. What method is recommended to confirm
the diagnosis of HIV infection?
A. Western blotting (immunoblotting).
B. Electron microscopy.
C. Enzyme immunoassay.
D. Immunofluorescence.
ÿ. Radioimmunoassay.
48. An HIV-infected patient is periodically examined to identify signs of activation of the process.
What is the most significant sign that indicates the transition of HIV infection to AIDS.
A. Reducing the number of neutrophils.
B. Kaposi's sarcoma, the number of T-helpers is below the critical level.
C. Increasing the number of T-suppressors.
D. The number of T-helpers is below a critical level.
E. Detection of antibodies to gp 41.
49. In a specialized clinic, a patient was prescribed a combination of drugs that inhibit the
reproduction of HIV. Indicate to which group the drugs belong, which are necessarily included
in the complex antiviral treatment.
A. Interleukins.
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C. Nucleoside analogues.
D. Crixivan.
E. Biseptol.
50. Quite often, the cause of acquired immunodeficiencies is an infectious lesion of the body,
in which case pathogens directly multiply in the cells of the immune system and destroy them.
Choose among the listed diseases similar.
A. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis.
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B. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS.
C. Poliomyelitis, hepatitis A.
D. Shigellosis, cholera.
E. Q fever, typhus.
51. A 20-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with AIDS. What cell populations are most
sensitive to the human immunodeficiency virus?
A. Hepatocytes.
ÿ. T-helper.
C. Endotheliocytes.
D. Epitheliocytes.
E. B-lymphocytes.
52. Human immunodeficiency virus is known to belong to the Retrovirus family. Indicate the
main feature that characterizes the representatives of this family.
A. Presence of reverse transcriptase enzyme.
B. Contain negative RNA.
C. Simple viruses that infect only humans.
D. Nucleic acid does not integrate into the host genome.
E. Resistance to environmental factors.
53. During the immunoblotting reaction, the gp120 protein was found in the blood serum. What
disease does this indicate?
A. Viral hepatitis B.
B. HIV infection.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Syphilis.
E. Polio.
54. In order to diagnose HIV infection, blood serum is examined to identify specific antigens by
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. What enzyme-labeled antibodies are used?
A. Against the gp14 protein.
B. Against the p24 protein.
C. Against gp120 protein.
D. Against gp17 protein.
E. Against human immunoglobulins.
55. A patient came to the dentist with symptoms of oral candidiasis, which constantly recurs and
cannot be treated. During the interview, it turned out that the patient had a high temperature and
weight loss for a long time. What research should be done for the patient?
A. Immunological and serological tests for HIV infection.
B. Bacteriological studies for dysbacteriosis.
C. Isolate a pure culture of the pathogen and test sensitivity to antibiotics.
D. Check the state of humoral immunity.
E. Investigate the level of specific antibodies to Candida fungi.
56. A laboratory has been set up in a large dental clinic, which provides for the diagnosis
of HIV infection. What diagnostic tools should such a laboratory be equipped with?
A. Cell cultures for virus isolation.
B. Test systems for the detection of specific antibodies by enzyme immunoassay
method.
C. Sets of special nutrient media.
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D. Standard diagnostic sera. E. Antigens and
hemolytic system for complement fixation reaction. 57. Acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. What cells of
the body are targets for this virus A. Eosinophils. B. Natural killers (NK-cells). C. Tlymphocytes-helpers.
D. Basophils.
E. Plasma. 58. The
human immunodeficiency virus, having gp41 and gp120 antigens on its surface,
interacts with target cells of the body. Choose among the named antigens of human
lymphocytes, with which gp120 of the virus binds complementary. A. CD4. B. CD3. C.
CD8.
D. CD19.
E. CD28.
59. During the study of blood serum in a patient with signs of
immunodeficiency, antibodies to gp120 and gp41 proteins were detected. What
infection in the patient is confirmed by this result? A. HLTV-1 infection. B. HIV
infection. C. TORCH infection.
D. HBV infection.
E. ECHO infection.
Smallpox 60. The
contents of the vesicles of a patient with smallpox were sent to the virological
laboratory. Which of the following changes will be detected during smear microscopy?
A. Syncitius. B. Babesh-Negri bodies. C. Symplasts.
D. Babesh-Ernst bodies.
E. Taurus Pashen.
1. The factors affecting the balanced growth of bacteria include: a)
oxygen pressure; b) content of inorganic ions; c) partial pressure of carbon
dioxide; d) the nature of the organic compounds present in the reserve.
2. The conditions that stimulate capsule formation in bacteria are: a) the
growth of bacteria in the human or animal body; b) growth on synthetic media; c)
cultivation at low temperatures; d) growth on media containing a large amount of
carbohydrates.
3. Polysaccharide capsule provides:
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a) virulence; b)
resistance to phagocytosis; c)
resistance to antibiotics.
4. Mobility of bacteria is ensured by: a)
rotation of the flagella; b) fimbria; c) contraction
of the cell wall; d) saws.
5. The following methods can be used to determine the motility of bacteria: a)
Morozov's method of silvering; b) hanging drop method; c) sowing according to Shukevich;
d) Weinberg's method.
6. The main functions of bacterial spores are: a) provides
adhesiveness; b) protection from adverse environmental factors;
c) participates in the transfer of genetic material; d) the formation
of enzymes.
7. The following methods are used to identify disputes:
a) the Gram method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser
method; d) Ozheshka method; e) Burri-Gins method.
8. The following methods are used to detect volutin inclusions: a) the Gram
method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser method; d) Ozheshka method; e)
Burri-Gins method.
9. The following methods are used to identify the cell wall: a) the Gram
method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser method; d) Ozheshka method;
e) Burri-Gins method.
10. The following methods are used to detect capsules: a)
Gram method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser method; d)
Ozheshka method; e) Burri-Gins method.
11. During sporulation, dipicalic acid is synthesized. It can
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detect: a) in
vegetative cells; b) in the
spore protoplast; c) in the
spore shell; d) in the
nucleoid of the cell.
12. Conditions conducive to spore formation are: a) lack of
nutrients in the environment; b) accumulation of metabolic products; c)
accumulation of reserve substances inside the cells; d) adding glucose
to the nutrient medium.
13. Pigments of bacteria perform the following functions:
a) protection from light; b) performing a catalytic function; c)
protection from the action of infrared rays; d) determines the
antigenic structure.
14. The cell wall of bacteria performs the following functions: a)
transport of substances; b) performs a catalytic function; c) protects
from external influences; d) determines the antigenic structure.
15. Fimbria carry out the following functions: a)
promote the attachment of bacteria to animal and human cells; b) participation
in the transfer of genetic material; c) locomotor function.
16. Pili perform the following functions: 1.
provide adhesiveness; 2. participate in the
transfer of genetic material; 3. adsorb bacteriophages.
17. The following features distinguish a bacterial cell from a eukaryotic cell:
1. absence of the endoplasmic reticulum;
2. absence of a nuclear membrane; 3. the
presence of a cytoplasmic membrane; 4.
Relationship of enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation with plasma
membrane.
18. The main functions of the cytoplasmic membrane are:
1. regulation of transport of metabolites and ions; 2.
the formation of enzymes; 3. formation of toxins; 4.
participation in the synthesis of cell wall components;
5. participation in spore formation; 6. controlling the
metabolism between the cell and the environment; 7.
control of exchange between organelles and cytoplasm.
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19. During the germination of spores, the following physiological processes occur:
a) the water content increases; b) enzymatic processes are activated; c) energy and
biosynthetic processes are activated; d) dipicalic acid accumulates.
20. The main structural elements of the cell wall of gram-negative
bacteria are: 1) teichoic acids; 2) lipopolysaccharides; 3) peptidoglycan;
4) proteins; 5) lipids.
21. The main structural elements of the cell wall of gram-positive
bacteria are: 1. teichoic acids; 2. lipopolysaccharides; 3. proteins; 4.
lipids; 5. peptidoglycan.
22. The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is characterized by: a) the
presence of a one-, two-layer murein sac; b) the presence of a multilayer
murein sac; c) the presence of teichoic acids; d) the presence of
mesodiaminopimelic acid. 23. The cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
is characterized by: a) the presence of a one-, two-layer murein sac; b)
the presence of teichoic acids; c) the presence of mesodiaminopimelic
acid; d) the presence of a multilayer murein sac.
24. Mandatory external structures of a bacterial cell are:
1. flagella; 2.
capsule; 3.
cell wall; 4. drank; 5.
cytoplasmic membrane.
25. Mandatory internal structures for a bacterial cell
are:
1) cytoplasm;
2) disputes; 3)
nucleoid; 4)
volutin grains.
26. Bacterial mesosomes are
involved in: a) cell division; b) spore
formation;
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c) synthesis of cell wall material; d) energy
metabolism; e) secretion of substances.
27. Ribosomes of bacterial cells are involved in: a)
protein synthesis; b) the formation of a polysome; c) DNA
replication.
28. Nucleoid of bacteria performs the following functions:
a) transports substances; b) performs a catalytic function; c)
protects from external influences; d) contains the bacterial cell
genome.
29. The nucleoid of a bacterial cell is characterized by: a) the
absence of a membrane; b) the presence of chromosomes; c)
division by mitosis; d) the absence of histones.
30. The number of nucleoids in a bacterial cell depends: a) on
the phase of development; b) from the violation of synchronization
between the rate of cell growth and the rate of cell division; c) on the number of
extrachromosomal DNA molecules.
31. Carriers of genetic information in bacteria are: a) DNA molecules;
b) RNA molecules; c) plasmids; d) transposons.
32. Extrachromosomal heredity factors of bacteria include: a) plasmids; b)
transposons; c) IS sequences; d) nucleoid.
33. Plasmids perform the following functions: a)
regulatory; b) encoding; c) synchronizing; d)
transcription.
34. Recombination is called: a)
changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a hereditarily fixed
change or loss of any trait; b) the process of restoring hereditary material; c) the
process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient cell.
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35. Transformation is:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with the help of
phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient is
cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell
contact.
36. Conjugation is called:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with the help of
phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient is
cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell
contact.
37. Transduction is:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with the help of
phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient is
cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell
contact.
38. Reparations include:
a) changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a hereditarily fixed change
or loss of any trait;
b) the process of restoring hereditary material;
c) the process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient cell.
39. Mutation is:
a) in changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a hereditarily fixed
change or loss of any sign;
b) in the process of restoring hereditary material;
c) in the process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient cell.
40. Synthesis of enterotoxins is controlled by:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
41. Synthesis of genital villi is controlled by:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid;
c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
42. Synthesis of bacteriocins is controlled by:
a) R-plasmid;
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b) F-plasmid; c)
Col-plasmid; d)
Ent-plasmid.
43. Bacterial drug resistance is determined by: a) R-plasmid; b) F-plasmid; c)
Col-plasmid; d) Ent-plasmid.
44. Is-sequences are: a) nucleotide sequences,
including 2000-20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments about 1000 base pairs long;
c) ring-shaped superspialized DNA molecules containing 1,500–400,000 base
pairs.
45. Transposons are: a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000–20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments about 1000 base
pairs long; c) ring-shaped superspialized DNA molecules containing 1,500–400,000
base pairs.
46. Plasmids are: a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000-20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments about 1000 base
pairs long; c) ring-shaped supercoiled DNA molecules containing 1500-400000
base pairs.
47. The main components of nucleic acids are: a) pentoses; b)
nitrogenous bases; c) a phosphoric acid residue; d) histones.
48. In protein synthesis, the role of a matrix is
performed by: a) mRNA; b) t-RNA; c) r-RNA; d) small
RNAs.
49. DNA contains: 1.
ribose; 2. deoxyribose;
3. analogues of
nitrogenous bases; 4. phosphoric
acid residue.
50. RNA contains: 1.
ribose; 2. deoxyribose;
3. analogues of
nitrogenous bases; 4. phosphoric
acid residue.
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51. The gene is discrete and includes a unit: a)
mutations; b) recombination; c) functions.
52. A phenotype is: a) a
set of external features; b) interaction of
genotype and environment; c) the
manifestation of external signs of the organism as a result of the interaction of the organism
with the external environment.
53. The genetic code has a number of features, the main of
which are: a) degeneracy; b) non-overlapping; c) versatility.
54. A bacterial cell is endowed with the virulent properties of a plasmid: a) R, Col,
Hly; b) Vir, R, F; c) Ent, F, Hly; d) Hly, Ent, Vir.
55. Gene mutations appear as a result of: a) loss
of base pairs; b) base insertions; c) substitution of
base pairs; d) movement of transposons.
56. All bacteria are characterized by the following properties:
a) they are haploid; b) their genetic material is organized into a
single chromosome; c) have isolated DNA fragments - plasmids, transposons,
IS sequences; d) they use the same genetic code as eukaryotes; e) their
genotypes and phenotypes are the same.
57. The process of bacterial DNA replication is characterized by the following features:
a) associated with cell division; b) starts at a single unique site; c) requires the synthesis of
RNA primer; d) depends on the synthesis of permeases; e) determined by IS-sequences.
58. Specify RNA-containing morphological types of
bacteriophages: a) 1st, 2nd type; b) 2nd, 3rd type; c) 3rd, 4th
type; d) 5th, 4th type.
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59. Of the 5 morphological types, it includes both RNA- and DNA-containing
phages only: a) type 1; b) 2nd type; c) 3rd type; d) 4th type; e) 5th type.
60. According to the chemical structure, bacteriophage virions
consist of: a) nucleic acids; b) from protein; c) from carbohydrates; d)
from phospholipids; e) from fatty acids.
61. Productive bacteriophage infection ends with: a) cell death;
b) reproduction of phages without cell death; c) reproduction of
phage particles in the cell; d) the formation of protein particles.
62. During lysogeny, the phage is present in the cell in the
form of: a) mature particles; b) prophage; c) associated with
the DNA of the host cell.
63. The following features correspond to virulent phages: a) do
not cause the formation of phage particles; b) do not cause cell lysis;
c) are not present in cells as a prophage; d) are found in cells as a
prophage.
64. Phage conversion is a change in the properties of the host cell, which
are called:
a) a prophage;
b) defective phage particles; c) virulent
phages.
65. Transduction differs from phage conversion in the following ways: a)
transduction occurs at a low frequency; b) the transducing phage is defective; c)
transducing phage is normal; d) bacterial genes are transferred.
66. Lysogenization is
beneficial: a) only to a
microbial cell; b) only phage
particles; c) microbial cell and bacteriophage.
67. The following methods are used to isolate a bacteriophage: a) the
Gracia method;
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b) Appelman's method;
c) the Otto method; d)
Peretz method.
68. In practical work, phages are used for: a) prevention
of infectious diseases; b) therapy of infectious diseases; c)
diagnosis of infectious diseases; d) identification of bacterial
cultures; e) typing of bacterial cultures.
69. The taxonomy, classification and nomenclature of bacteria are based on the study
of: a) morphology; b) biochemistry; c) structure and hybridization of DNA; d) cell wall
structures.
70. Numerical taxonomy of bacteria is based on: a) the
similarity of the set of characteristics of microorganisms; b) on the
similarity of the minimum of the most important features of microorganisms; c)
on the similarity of a wide range of features; d) taking into account the similarity
of the largest possible number of characteristics of the studied microorganisms.
71. Complex staining methods are most often used for staining microorganisms: a)
according to Ziehl-Nielson; b) according to Romanovsky-Giemsa; c) according to Gram; d)
according to Burri-Gins.
72. The following dyes are most often used for staining microorganisms: a) fuchsin;
b) gentian violet; c) methylene blue; d) erythrosin; e) ink.
73. Fluorescent microscopy is used to study: a) stained preparations; b)
native unstained preparations; c) during microphotography; d) in the study of
pathological material.
74. Electron microscopy is used to study: a) stained preparations; b)
native unstained preparations; c) during microphotography; d) in the
study of pathological material.
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75. Dark-field microscopy is used to study: a) stained
preparations; b) native unstained preparations; c) during
microphotography; d) in the study of pathological material.
76. Phase contrast microscopy is used to study: a) stained
preparations; b) native unstained preparations; c) during time-lapse
microphotography; d) in the study of pathological material.
77. The main methods of fluorescence microscopy used in medical
bacteriology include: a) direct fluorochromoscopy; b) direct immunofluorescence
reaction; c) indirect immunofluorescence reaction; d) determination of spontaneous
fluorescence of colonies.
78. For the isolation of microorganisms, it is preferable to use nutrient
media: 1. simple; 2. complex; 3. elective; 4. enrichment environments.
79. To control the quality of the nutrient medium in practical laboratories, the
following are more often used: 1. determination of amine nitrogen; 2. determination
of pH; 3. titrated inoculation of the control strain; 4. determination of the redox
potential.
80. The most common method for sterilizing culture media
is an:
a) dry heat; b)
autoclaving; c)
filtration; d) boiling.
81. The most commonly used method in practical laboratories is infection
animals:
1. intravenous; 2.
oral; 3.
intraperitoneal; 4.
subcutaneous; 5. skin.
82. For the cultivation of microorganisms, the most important is:
1. compliance with the temperature regime;
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2. a certain pH value of the medium;
3. providing a certain degree of aeration of the
environment; 4. determination of the redox potential of the medium.
83. Among pathogenic bacteria the most common are: a)
obligate aerobes; b) obligate anaerobes; c) facultative anaerobes;
d) extremely oxygen-sensitive.
84. According to the cultivation temperature, pathogenic bacteria are:
a) psychrophiles; b) to mesophiles; c) to thermophiles.
85. The optimal temperature regime for growing psychrophilic
bacteria is: a) 6–30 °ÿ; b) 30–40 °ÿ; c) 40–50 °ÿ.
86. The optimal temperature regime for growing mesophilic bacteria is: a) 6–
30 °ÿ; b) 30–40 °ÿ; c) 40–50 °ÿ.
87. The optimal temperature regime for growing thermophilic bacteria is: a) 6–
30 °ÿ; b) 30–40 °ÿ; c) 40–50 °ÿ.
88. The most recognized classification of antibiotics is based on: a)
chemical structure; b) on the spectrum of antibacterial action; c) on the
mechanism of action; d) side effects.
89. The main groups of antibiotics include: a) ÿlactam antibiotics; b) aminoglycosides; c)
polysaccharides; d) macrolides.
90. The main mechanism of action of ÿ-lactam antibiotics is: a) inhibition
of cell wall synthesis; b) to the violation of protein synthesis; c) disruption of
nucleic acid synthesis; d) to dysfunction of the cytoplasmic membrane.
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91. The most common mechanism of resistance
to antibiotics is: a) impaired microbial cell
permeability; b) removal of the antibiotic from the
cell; c) target modification; d) enismatic inactivation
of the antibiotic.
92. Indicators of the pharmacokinetics of antibiotics, available for setting by the
micromethod in a practical laboratory, are: a) the concentration of antibiotics in the
blood; b) the concentration of antibiotics in the urine; c) the concentration of antibiotics
in the cerebrospinal fluid.
93. To determine the sensitivity of microorganisms to antibiotics in practical
laboratories, the following are most widely used: a) the method of diffusion
into agar using discs; b) method of serial dilutions in a liquid nutrient medium; c)
the method of serial dilutions in a dense nutrient medium; d) accelerated method
with blood; e) accelerated method with performance characteristics.
94. To establish a quantitative characteristic of the degree
of sensitivity of the studied strain (MZK in units/ml) allows using in the work: a) the
method of diffusion into agar; b) serial dilution method; c) accelerated method with blood;
d) accelerated method with performance characteristics.
95. A preliminary assessment of the sensitivity of microflora by direct seeding
of pathological material cannot be obtained using the method: a) serial dilutions;
b) diffusion into agar; c) accelerated methods for determining sensitivity using chemical
and biological redox indicators.
96. The method of diffusion into agar allows to obtain the following
assessment of the degree of sensitivity of the pathogen to antibiotics: a)
qualitative; b) semi-quantitative; c) quantitative.
97. To obtain a semi-quantitative assessment of the degree of sensitivity of
a microorganism to antibiotics, it is necessary to use: 1. standard nutrient
media; 2. industrial indicator disks with antibiotics; 3. dosed sowing dose of the
microbe; 4. study of the sensitivity of directly pathological material; 5. in special
cases, the use of discs prepared in the laboratory.
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98. To reduce the time for research and issuance of a preliminary answer
on the sensitivity of microorganisms in the range from 3 to 5 hours, the
use of the method allows:
1. serial dilutions in a liquid nutrient medium; 2. serial
dilutions in solid nutrient medium; 3. standard agar
diffusion method; 4. agar diffusion method using
oxyhemoglobin; 5. agar diffusion method using TTX.
99. Determination of the sensitivity of streptococci to antibiotics by diffusion
into agar should be carried out: a) on the AGV medium; b) on a nutrient medium;
c) on a nutrient medium for isolating blood cultures and cultivating streptococci; d)
on blood agar; e) on chocolate agar.
100. Virulence factors of microorganisms are mainly:
1. aggression;
2. adhesiveness;
3. the presence of a
capsule; 4. toxins; 5.
mobility.
101. Side effects of antibiotic therapy include: a) toxic
reactions; b) dysbiosis; c) allergic reactions; d) immunosuppressive
effect; e) meningitis.
102. The principles of rational antibiotic therapy include the following: a)
microbiological principle; b) genetic principle; c) clinical principle; d) epidemic
principle; e) pharmacological principle; f) pharmaceutical principle.
103. Inhibitors of bacterial cell wall synthesis include the following groups of
antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c) aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e)
rifampicins.
104. Inhibitors of the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria include
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the following groups of antibiotics:
a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c)
aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e)
rifampicins.
105. Inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis include the following groups
of antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c) aminoglycosides; d)
polymyxins; e) rifampicins.
106. Inhibitors of transcription and synthesis of bacterial nucleic acids
include the following groups of antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c)
aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e) rifampicins.
107. When studying the genetics of bacteria, the following methods
are used: a) fine-structured genetic mapping; b) complementary testing; c)
transformations; d) meiotic segregation; e) transduction.
108. To the main tasks solved within the framework of microbiological analysis,
relate:
a) confirmation of the clinical diagnosis; b)
confirmation of the epidemiological diagnosis; c)
tracking epidemiological dangerous situations (work in the surveillance system);
d) clarification of the tactics of therapeutic measures.
109. The basic principles of microbiological analysis are: a) isolation
and identification of a pure culture; b) microscopy of the studied material; c)
identification of immunological changes caused by infection; d) express
diagnostics; e) detection of microbial antigens.
110. The following methods are used to create anaerobic conditions: a)
use of an anaerobic balloon; b) Fortner method; c) Vinhal-Veyon method; d)
Zeissler method.
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111. The following nutrient media are used for growing anaerobic
microorganisms: a) Kitt-Tarozzi medium; b) Chistovich's environment; c) WilsonBlair medium; d) thioglycol medium.
112. Specify the provisions that are valid
for the cultural method of microbiological analysis: a)
is widely used in the diagnosis of viral infections; b) the basic
method for diagnosing bacterial infections; c) is widely used
in the diagnosis of fungal infections; d) based on the
identification of pure microbial cultures; e) is based on the
identification of genetic fragments of microorganisms.
113. The cultural method of microbiological diagnostics involves: a) the use
of selective nutrient media; b) use of differential diagnostic environments; c)
characteristics of individual (isolated) colonies; d) study of the phenotype of
enrichment crops; e) the possibility of studying the genotype; e) the possibility of
determining sensitivity to antibiotics.
114. The fundamental disadvantages of the cultural method are: a) the
duration of the analysis; b) the impossibility of identifying "non-culturable"
microorganisms; c) the probability of false-negative results against the
background of antimicrobial therapy; d) problems in detecting auxotrophic
(“fastidious”) bacteria; e) difficulties associated with the isolation of obligate
anaerobes.
115. The advantages of the cultural method include: a) the
possibility of preserving isolated strains; b) absolute sensitivity
and specificity; c) the possibility of determining the sensitivity of
isolates to antimicrobial drugs; d) the possibility of conservation of the
material under study; e) possibility of phenotypic/genotypic study of
"new" (previously unknown) bacteria.
116. Specify the principle underlying the rapid
diagnosis of infectious diseases: a) determination of
serum antibody titer; b) detection of qualitative
seroconversion; c) detection of quantitative seroconversion;
d) isolation and identification of pure culture; e) identification
of the pathogen without isolating a pure culture.
117. List the methods used in the express version of
microbiological analysis: a) microscopy of the test material;
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b) detection of microbial antigens; c)
detection of antibodies; d) detection
of genetic fragments; e) detection of
specific microbial enzymes and metabolites.
118. A universal way to increase the sensitivity and specificity of direct
microscopy of the test material is: a) polymerase chain reaction (PCR); b)
immunoblotting; c) the study of tinctorial characteristics of bacteria; d) reactions based
on labeled antibodies; e) detection of qualitative seroconversion.
119. The most versatile and reliable methods for express diagnostics of
infectious diseases include: a) direct microscopy of the test material; b) detection
of microbial antigens; c) detection of antibodies to the pathogen; d) detection of
microbial genome fragments; e) detection of microbial enzymes and toxins.
120. The following methods are used to identify microorganisms: a) inoculation
on Hiss media; b) use of NIBs; c) use of biochemical identification panels; d) use of
automated identification systems.
121. The advantages of microbiological analysis based on rapid diagnostics
are: a) the possibility of identifying "non-culturable" and difficult-to-cultivate
microorganisms; b) the possibility of preserving isolated strains; c) the speed of
obtaining the result; d) absolute sensitivity and specificity; e) the possibility of
conservation of the test material.
122. To the provisions valid for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR),
relate:
a) detection of microbial antigens; b)
detection of antibodies; c) detection
of microbial genome fragments; d) the
possibility of detecting RNA; e) possibility of
DNA detection.
123. Specify the microbial markers used in the express
version of microbiological analysis: a) DNA; b) RNA; c)
antigens; d) toxins;
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e) enzymes;
e) antibodies.
124. Specify the provisions that are valid for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR): a)
a variant of express diagnostics of infectious diseases; b) may be useful for detecting latent
persistence; c) based on the detection of DNA fragments; d) can be used to detect RNA
viruses; e) absolute sensitivity and specificity.
125. The following ingredients are required for DNA detection by polymerase
chain reaction: a) specific primers; b) deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates; c) reverse
transcriptase; d) thermostable DNA polymerase; e) reference DNA ("comparison
DNA").
Section
2 ECOLOGY OF MICROORGANISMS
1. A mutually beneficial way of existence of microorganisms is: a) commensalism; b)
mutualism; c) neutralism; d) parasitism; e) satelliteism.
2. Lyophilization consists in: a)
drying under vacuum from a frozen state; b) in drying from a frozen
state; c) in freezing under vacuum; d) drying under vacuum.
3. The composition of soil microflora depends on the following factors:
a) soil type; b) composition of vegetation; c) ambient temperature; d) relative
humidity; e) pH values.
4. The composition of the autochthonous microflora of water includes the following
representatives: a) Micrococcus candicans; b) Sarcina lutea; c) Bacillus cereus; d) Escherichia
coli; e) Bacillus anthracis.
5. The composition of the allochthonous microflora of water includes the following
representatives: a) Micrococcus candicans;
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ÿ) Sarcina lutea;
ÿ) Bacillus cereus;
ÿ) Escherichia coli;
ÿ) Bacillus anthracis.
6. Autochthonous microflora includes: a) a
set of microorganisms that accidentally got into a given biocenosis and remain in it
for a limited period of time; b) a set of microorganisms permanently living in a given
biocenosis; c) the totality of all microorganisms of a given biocenosis. 7.
Allochthonous microflora is: a) a set of microorganisms that accidentally got into a
given biocenosis and remain in it for a limited period of time; b) a set of microorganisms
permanently living in a given biocenosis; c) the totality of all microorganisms of a given
biocenosis.
8. The autochthonous air microflora includes the following representatives: a)
Micrococcus candicans; b) Sarcina flava; c) Bacillus subtilis; d) Escherichia coli; e) Bacillus
anthracis.
9. The composition of the allochthonous air microflora includes the following
representatives: a) Micrococcus candicans; b) Sarcina flava; c) Bacillus subtilis; d) Escherichia
coli; e) Staphylococcus aureus.
10. The goals and objectives of sanitary bacteriology are: a) early
and rapid indication of bacterial contamination of environmental objects; b) in carrying out
measures to reduce and prevent infectious diseases; c) in the use of sensitive, unified research
methods to obtain reliable and demonstrative research results; d) in the study of the microflora
of the environment involved in the processes
self-cleaning.
11. Sanitary-indicative microorganisms must meet the following mandatory
requirements: a) the constancy of detection in the studied environmental objects;
b) sufficient number; c) should not multiply in the external environment; d) the life
span should be significantly less than that of pathogenic microorganisms.
12. The principles for assessing the hygienic state of environmental objects by
bacteriological indicators are: a) in determining the microbial number;
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b) in determining the index of sanitary-indicative microorganisms; c) in
the choice of tests depending on the tasks; d) in the indication of
pathogenicity of microflora.
13. The objects of study of sanitary microbiology are not: a) water;
b) soil; to the air; d) food products; e) bowel movements.
14. The main features that sanitary indicative microorganisms
should have are: 1. ability to grow at 20 °C; 2. constancy of detection in
the studied substrates; 3. sufficient number; 4. ability to grow on
complex nutrient media; 5. the ability to survive, superior to that of
pathogenic bacteria.
15. Specify the definitions corresponding to the microbial
number: a) characterizes the general contamination of the
object; b) characterizes the presence of sanitary-indicative
microorganisms; c) this is the total number of microbes contained in a
unit volume or mass of the object under study; d) this is the number of
sanitary-indicative microorganisms contained in a unit volume or mass of the
object under study.
16. Indicators of bacterial contamination, which are used to assess the
epidemiological risk of soils in settlements, are: a) Escherichia coli; b)
enterococci; c) pathogenic enterobacteria; d) Staphylococcus aureus; e)
enteroviruses.
17. To assess the bacterial contamination of the soil by sanitary indicative
microorganisms are: a) BGKP; b) hemolytic streptococci; c) C. perfringens; d)
thermophilic bacteria; e) staphylococci; e) nitrifying bacteria.
18. For the assessment of bacterial air pollution by
sanitary indicative microorganisms are: a) BGKP; b)
hemolytic streptococci; c) clostridia; d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
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e) nitrifying bacteria.
19. Sanitary-indicative microorganisms in the study of indoor air are:
a) green and hemolytic streptococci; b)
Staphylococcus aureus; c) clostridia; d)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa; e) enterococci.
20. To assess bacterial contamination of food products, sanitary
demonstrative
microorganisms are: a)
BGKP; b) hemolytic
streptococci; c) clostridia; d)
thermophilic bacteria; e)
Staphylococcus aureus; e)
bacteria of the Proteus group.
21. To assess the bacterial contamination of household items by sanitary
indicative microorganisms are: a) BGKP; b) hemolytic streptococci; c) clostridia;
d) thermophilic bacteria; e) Staphylococcus aureus; e) nitrifying bacteria.
22. Fecal contamination is evidenced by the presence of:
a) bacteria of the genus Proteus; b) Streptococcus faecalis; c)
thermophilic bacteria; d) Staphylococcus aureus.
23. The presence of putrefactive decay in the soil is evidenced by the
presence of: a) bacteria of the genus Proteus; b) Streptococcus faecalis;
c) thermophilic bacteria; d) Staphylococcus aureus.
24. Soil contamination with decaying waste is evidenced by the presence of: a)
bacteria of the genus Proteus; b) Streptococcus faecalis; c) thermophilic bacteria; d)
Staphylococcus aureus.
25. The presence of the soil self-purification process is evidenced by an
increased concentration of the following microorganisms: a) BGKP;
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b) hemolytic streptococci; c)
clostridia; d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus; e)
nitrifying bacteria.
26. Bacteria of the Escherichia coli group (ECG) are characterized by the following
properties: a) they are not able to ferment glucose and lactose; b) ferment lactose at 37
°C to acid and gas; c) oxidase-negative; d) grow only at 20 °C.
27. During the sanitary-bacteriological examination of the soil, the following
is determined: a) the total microbial number; b) if-titer; c) perfringens titer; d) titer
of thermophilic bacteria.
28. In the course of sanitary-virological examination in soil and waste water,
the presence of: a) respiratory viruses is determined; b) neurotropic viruses; c)
intestinal viruses; d) human immunodeficiency viruses.
29. The coli-titer of water is: a)
the minimum amount of water (ml) in which CGBs are detected; b) the
minimum amount of water (ml) in which E. coli is found; c) the minimum
amount of water (ml) in which Enterococcus faecalis is found; d) the minimum
amount of water (ml) in which bacteria of the genus Proteus are found.
30. Coli-titer and coli-index are determined:
a) by the sedimentation method; b) by the
method of membrane filters; c) titration
method; d) by aspiration method.
31. The main methods of sterilization include: 1)
autoclaving; 2) tyndalization; 3) boiling; 4) treatment
with microbicidal substances; 5) pasteurization; 6)
processing in a drying and sterilizing cabinet (Pasteur
ovens).
32. The main methods of disinfection include: 1)
autoclaving; 2) tyndalization;
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3) boiling; 4)
flaming; 5)
pasteurization; 6)
treatment with microbicidal substances.
33. The quality of drinking water supplied for consumption from centralized water supply
systems is regulated by: a) GOST 2874–82 “Drinking Water”; b) sanitary regulations No.
1226-75; c) SNiP “Water supply. External networks and facilities”; d) SNiP "Internal water supply
and sewerage"; e) GOST 2761-84 "Sources of centralized domestic drinking water supply".
34. Indicators that determine the safety of water after treatment in relation to
the content of viruses in it are: 1. E. coli index; 2. total microbial count; 3. haze.
35. The main factors of self-purification of water bodies are: a)
antagonism and bacterophagy; b) the action of ultraviolet; c) increased
water temperature and pH; d) the presence of planktonic algae; e) the
presence of organic substrates.
36. An open or underground water source cannot serve as a source of domestic
and drinking water supply if: a) it is impossible to organize a sanitary protection zone;
b) the water contains chemicals in concentrations exceeding the MPC; c) household waste
is discharged into the reservoir upstream from the water intake
wastewater.
37. Traditional modern methods of water treatment allow: 1. to improve
organoleptic properties; 2. get toxicologically safe water; 3. get
epidemiologically safe water.
38. To obtain a bactericidal and virucidal effect, optimal chlorination is carried
out: a) taking into account chlorine absorption; b) with preammonization; c) free chlorine;
d) double; e) normal doses.
39. When monitoring the quality of water in the network, it is
necessary to determine: a) secondary water pollution; b) compliance of
water with GOST; c) water treatment efficiency.
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40. Requirements for the quality of water in an open reservoir are
presented: a) to the point of water use; b) to the wastewater discharge point;
c) to a point 1 km above the point of water use; d) to a point 1 km below the
place of wastewater discharge; e) all of the above.
41. In the main sanitary and bacteriological examination of the water of
swimming pools, the following are subject to registration: a) BGKP; b)
enterococci; c) Staphylococcus aureus; d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa; e)
coagulase-negative staphylococci.
42. Bacteriological indicators to be taken into account when assessing the quality
of drinking water include: a) general contamination; b) if-index; c) the presence of fecal
contamination; d) Staphylococcus aureus; e) enterococcus.
43. To speed up the time for issuing a response on the quality of drinking
water allows: a) fermentation method; b) membrane filter method; c) oxidase
test; d) test for proteolytic activity.
44. Indicate the coli index indicating the potential for the spread of pathogens of
intestinal infections by water during the study of drinking water from centralized
water supply: a) more than 3; b) more than 10; c) more than 100.
45. Indicate the coli-index indicating the epidemic danger in the repeated study of
drinking water: a) coli-index more than 3; b) if the index is more than 10; c) if the index
is more than 20; d) if the index is more than 100.
46. In the study of water from surface water sources, indicators of fecal
contamination are the following microorganisms: a) E.coli; b) Streptococcus
faecalis; c) Citrobacter freundii; d) Staphylococcus aureus.
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47. The most stable indicator microorganisms characterizing
anthropogenic pollution of sea water are: a) enterococci; b) vibrins;
c) pseudomonas; d) aeromonads.
48. Atmospheric air is characterized by the presence
of the following microorganisms: a) green and hemolytic
streptococci; b) Staphylococcus aureus; c) pigment forms;
d) molds; e) soil spore-bearing ammonifying and putrefactive
bacteria.
49. For sampling atmospheric air, use: a) Krotov's
apparatus; b) membrane filtrates; c) POV-1; d) PAB-1;
50. The greatest epidemiological significance belongs to: a)
large-drop phase of bacterial aerosol; b) small droplet phase of
bacterial aerosol; c) the “bacterial dust” phase.
51. When examining the air for the content of S.aureus:
a) for sowing, use JSA; b) identify the microorganism by
the presence of mobility; c) identify the microorganism by its
ability to ferment mannitol under aerobic and anaerobic conditions; d) KittTarozzi medium is used for seeding.
52. The main sources of bacterial and viral contamination of household items are:
a) water used for wet cleaning; b) a sick person; c) bacterial carrier; d) wild animals; d)
pets.
53. Sampling from surfaces is carried out by the
method of: a) flushing; b) sedimentation; c) filtering.
54. The objects of research in the course of bacteriological control of a
complex of sanitary and hygienic measures in medical institutions are:
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a) air environment;
b) various objects of the external
environment; c) surgical instruments; d)
suture material; e) hands of surgeons and
skin of the operating field.
55. Sanitary and microbiological control of health facilities includes examination of
personnel for carriage of: a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa; b) hemolytic streptococcus; c)
Staphylococcus aureus; d) BGKP.
56. A planned bacteriological study of microbial contamination of environmental
objects in medical institutions does not provide for the detection of: a)
staphylococcus aureus; b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa; c) bacteria of the intestinal daddy
group; d) general microbial contamination.
57. Bacteriological examination of environmental objects of medical and
preventive institutions, according to epidemiological indications, provides for the
identification of: a) staphylococcus aureus; b) bacteria of the group of intestinal daddies; c)
pathogenic bacteria; d) conditionally pathogenic microorganisms.
58. Bacteriological control of wet, current and final disinfection in the foci of
intestinal infections is carried out by detecting: a) Escherichia coli; b)
staphylococcus; c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
59. Bacteriological control of wet, current and final disinfection in the foci of
drop infections is carried out by detecting: a) Escherichia coli; b) staphylococcus;
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
60. Sanitary microbiology of food products solves the following tasks: a) development
of standards that determine the compliance of the microflora of products with hygienic
requirements; b) study of the effect of elevated temperature on the number of microorganisms
in food products; c) control over the technology of food preparation; d) study of the specific
microflora of food products.
61. The microflora of food products consists of: 1.
specific microflora; 2. nonspecific microflora;
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3. bacteria of the Escherichia coli group;
4. lactic acid microorganisms; 5. yeast.
62. The specific microflora of food products consists of:
1. pathogenic microorganisms;
2. staphylococci; 3. bacteria of
the Escherichia coli group; 4. lactic acid
microorganisms; 5. yeast.
63. Non-specific microflora of food products are: a) saprophytes; b)
causative agents of spoilage; c) pathogenic flora; d) sanitary-indicative
microorganisms.
64. The formation of the microflora of food products is influenced by: a) the
pH of the food product; b) the chemical composition of the food product; c) water
activity of the food product; d) temperature; e) aeration.
65. The bacteriological indicators used for the sanitary and hygienic
characteristics of food products are: a) sanitary indicative microorganisms;
b) pathogenic microorganisms; c) general bacterial contamination.
66. The microflora of fermented milk drinks consists
of: a) bacteria of the Escherichia coli group; b) salmonella;
c) staphylococci; d) lactic acid microorganisms.
67. Microbiological criteria for food safety include the determination of: a) the
number of mesophilic, aerobic and facultative anaerobic microorganisms; b) sanitaryindicative microorganisms; c) potentially pathogenic microorganisms; d) pathogenic
microorganisms; e) indicators of microbiological stability of the product.
68. A batch of canned food is considered unfit for human consumption if
it is found: 1. Cl.botulinum; 2. Cl. perfringens; 3. spore-forming bacilli of the
subtilis group; 4. non-spore-forming microbes; 5. thermophiles.
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69. Food poisoning is characterized by:
a) acute sudden onset of the disease;
b) the simultaneity of the disease in a group of persons;
c) the relationship of the disease with the consumption of a single food product or dish;
d) the territorial limitation of diseases by the place of consumption or purchase of
a food product;
e) acute short course of the disease.
70. According to the pathogenetic basis, microbial food poisonings are divided into:
a) toxic infections;
b) toxicosis;
c) mixes;
d) poisoning of unknown etiology.
71. Food poisoning is characterized by:
a) isolation from the food product of a certain type of microorganism;
b) massive isolation of a certain type of microorganisms;
c) identification of toxins.
72. Staphylococcal food toxicosis is characterized by:
a) accumulation of staphylococcal enterotoxin in the food product;
b) the absence of viable staphylococcus cells in the food product;
c) massive accumulation of living cells of Staphylococcus aureus in the food
product.
73. Criteria for the diagnosis of food poisoning of microbial etiology
are:
a) isolation from the food product of a massive amount of a certain type of potentially
pathogenic microorganisms;
b) isolation of an identical microorganism from pathological material from victims;
c) isolation of identical microorganisms from the majority of victims;
d) an increase in the titer of antibodies in the serum of victims to suspect
microorganisms.
74. Intestinal dysbacteriosis is called:
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in E. coli in the intestine;
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the own bacterial
microflora of the intestine;
c) quantitative and qualitative changes in pathogenic microorganisms in
intestines;
d) qualitative changes in the own bacterial microflora of the intestine.
75. Intestinal dysbiosis is called:
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in bacterial microflora in
intestines;
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the own bacterial, viral, fungal intestinal microflora;
c) quantitative and qualitative changes in pathogenic microorganisms in
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intestines;
d) qualitative changes in the own bacterial microflora of the intestine.
76. The most common causes of dysbacteriosis include: a) the use of
antibiotics; b) surgical operations on the organs of the gastrointestinal tract; c)
neuropsychic stress; d) the use of hormones; e) acute intestinal infections.
77. For the complex treatment of dysbacteriosis, the following drugs should be
used: a) probiotic drugs; b) beta-lactams; c) corticosteroids; d) nystatin; d) vitamins.
78. Probiotic preparations include: a)
bifidumbacterin; b) colibacterin; c)
lactobacterin; d) nystatin; e) Linux.
79. Indications for bacteriological diagnosis of intestinal dysbacteriosis
are: a) long-term infections and disorders in which it is not possible to isolate
pathogenic enterobacteria; b) a protracted period of convalescence after an
infection; c) dysfunction of the gastrointestinal tract after antibiotic therapy; d)
cancer patients suffering from dyspeptic disorders; e) premature or injured
newborns.
80. The following microorganisms should predominate in the intestines of
practically healthy people: a) anaerobic; b) aerobic; c) microaerophilic; d) facultative
anaerobic.
81. In infants, bifidobacteria of the species predominate:
a) B. bifidum; b) B.adolescentis; c) B. longum.
82. In older people, bifidobacteria of the species predominate: a) B.
bifidum; b) B.adolescentis; c) B. longum.
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83. When sowing for dysbacteriosis, it is better to dilute
feces: a) with physiological saline; b) thioglycol buffer; c) distilled
water.
84. To test for dysbacteriosis, feces are delivered to the laboratory in
flow:
a) 1 hour;
b) 3 hours;
c) 1 day.
85. To conclude on the presence of intestinal dysbacteriosis, the examination of feces
in a patient is carried out: a) 1 time; b) 2 times; c) 3 times.
86. Normally sterile are: a) the brain;
b) half of the mouth; c) stomach; d)
blood; e) liquor.
87. The obligate microflora of the oral cavity includes the following types of
microorganisms: a) Streptococcus mutans; b) Streptococcus mitis; c)
Bifidobacterium bifidum; d) Veilonella parvula; e) E. coli.
88. The etiological factor of gastritis and gastric ulcer is: a) Clostridium.botulinum;
b) Helicobacter pylori; c) Candida albicans; d) Staphyloccus aureus.
89. Obligate human intestinal microflora includes: a) bifidobacteria; b)
lactobacilli; c) streptococci; d) Klebsiella; e) E. coli.
90. The resident microflora of the human intestine includes: a)
bifidobacteria; b) lactobacilli; c) streptococci; d) Klebsiella; e) E. coli.
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91. Normal human microflora has the following meaning:
a) destroys carcinogens in the intestine;
b) is a factor of nonspecific resistance of the organism;
c) participates in water-salt metabolism;
d) has antagonistic properties against pathogenic flora;
e) is involved in colonization resistance.
92. Colonization resistance is:
a) a combination of protective factors of the body and the properties of the normal
intestinal microflora, which give stability to the microflora and prevent the colonization
of the mucous membranes by pathogenic microorganisms;
b) selective removal of anaerobic bacteria and fungi from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic balance of representatives of normal microflora with each other
and with the human body.
93. Eubiosis is defined as:
a) a combination of protective factors of the body and the properties of the normal
intestinal microflora, which give stability to the microflora and prevent the colonization
of the mucous membranes by pathogenic microorganisms;
b) selective removal of anaerobic bacteria and fungi from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic balance of representatives of normal microflora with each other
and with the human body.
94. Selective decontamination includes:
a) a combination of protective factors of the body and the properties of the normal
intestinal microflora, which give stability to the microflora and prevent the colonization
of the mucous membranes by pathogenic microorganisms;
b) selective removal of anaerobic bacteria and fungi from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic balance of representatives of normal microflora with each other
and with the human body.
95. The resident microflora of the skin includes:
a) epidermal staphylococcus aureus;
b) micrococci;
c) sarcins;
d) diphtheroids;
e) hemolytic streptococci.
96. The transient microflora of the skin consists of:
a) Staphylococcus aureus;
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c) non-hemolytic streptococci;
d) epidermal staphylococcus aureus;
e) micrococci.
97. Normal microflora includes:
a) bacteria dominating in the studied samples;
b) saprophytic species;
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c) pathogenic species with reduced virulence; d)
species more or less frequently isolated from the body of a healthy person.
98. Specify the provisions that are valid for the normal microflora of the body
person:
a) bacteria colonize all organs; b) there
are sterile areas; c) the composition of
microbiocenoses is the same in each individual organ; d) differences
in the composition of microbial communities are individual.
99. Specify the microorganisms dominating in the distal intestines
person:
a) Bacterioides species;
b) Clostridium species;
c) Streptococcus species;
d) Lactobacillus species;
e) Enterobacter species.
100. Specify the microorganisms that are part of the normal
human microflora and are capable of causing diseases: a)
pathogenic species; b) saprophytes; c) none; d) any.
Section
3 INFECTIOUS IMMUNOLOGY
1. The stages of development of the infectious process
include: a) cyclic period; b) incubation period; c) the period of
convalescence; d) prodromal period; e) the period of development
of the disease.
2. Inapparent forms of the infectious process are characterized by: a) a
very severe course; b) absence of clinical symptoms; c) sudden spontaneous
cessation of the infectious process; d) the rapid development of characteristic
clinical symptoms. 3. Abortive forms of the infectious process are
characterized by: a) a very severe course; b) absence of clinical symptoms;
c) sudden spontaneous cessation of the infectious process; d) the rapid
development of characteristic clinical symptoms.
4. Manifest forms of the infectious process are characterized by: a) a
very severe course; b) absence of clinical symptoms; c) sudden
spontaneous cessation of the infectious process; d) the rapid development
of characteristic clinical symptoms.
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5. Specify the properties characteristic of mixed infections: a)
occur against the background of an existing disease; b) are formed
from the primary focus that has undergone inadequate treatment; c) characterized
by antagonism between pathogens; d) characterized by synergistic action of
pathogens; e) is characterized by an extended incubation period; e) none of the
above definitions.
6. Pathogenic microorganisms have the following properties: a) the
presence of pathogenicity factors; b) nosological specificity; c)
organotropism; d) are representatives of the normal microflora of the
human body; e) lack of nosological specificity.
7. Conditionally pathogenic microorganisms have the following properties: a)
the presence of pathogenicity factors; b) nosological specificity; c) organotropism;
d) are representatives of the normal microflora of the human body; e) lack of
nosological specificity.
8. The pathogenicity factors causing adhesion and
colonization include: a) plasmacoagulase; b) capsule; c)
hyaluronidase; d) fibrinolysin; e) adhesins.
9. Pathogenicity factors causing invasiveness and aggressiveness,
relate:
a) plasmacoagulase;
b) capsule; c)
hyaluronidase; d)
fibrinolysin; e)
adhesins.
10. The pathogenicity factors that determine antiphagocytic
activity include: a) plasmacoagulase; b) capsule; c) hyaluronidase; d)
fibrinolysin; e) adhesins.
11. Bacterial exotokines are characterized by the following
properties: 1) they are proteins; 2) thermolabile; 3) are proteinpolysaccharide complexes;
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4) thermostable; 5)
active antigens; 6) can
pass into toxoid.
12. Bacterial endotoxins are characterized by the following
properties: 1) they are proteins; 2) are released during cell death; 3)
are protein-polysaccharide complexes; 4) thermostable; 5) weak
antigens; 6) can pass into toxoid.
13. According to the mechanism of action, exotoxins are divided into the
following groups: a) cytotoxins; b) adhesins; c) membrane toxins; d)
exofoliatins; e) functional blockers.
14. Anatoxin is: a) an
antibody formed in response to the introduction of an exotoxin into the human body
and neutralizing it; b) exotoxin, after treatment with formalin, deprived of its toxic
properties, but retained its antigenic properties; c) endotoxin, after treatment with formalin,
deprived of its toxic properties, but retained its antigenic properties.
15. An antitoxin is: a) an
antibody formed in response to the introduction of an exotoxin into the human body
and neutralizing it; b) exotoxin, after treatment with formalin, devoid of its toxic
properties, but retaining its antigenic properties; c) endotoxin, after treatment with
formalin, deprived of its toxic properties, but retained its antigenic properties.
16. Toxigenicity includes: a) the
property of bacteria to release endotoxins into the environment when they are destroyed;
b) the ability of bacteria to form protein exotoxins; c) the ability of exotoxins to pass into
toxoid when treated with formalin.
17. Toxicity includes: a) the
property of toxins to cause pathological changes; b) the
ability of bacteria to form protein exotoxins; c) the ability of
exotoxins to pass into toxoid when treated with formalin.
18. Bacteremia is understood as:
a) the process of occurrence of secondary distant foci in the internal organs; b) a
process in which the presence of microorganisms is observed in the blood and lymph; c)
a process in which the presence and reproduction of microorganisms is observed in the
blood and lymph; d) a process in which the presence of toxins in the blood is observed.
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19. Under the septicopyemia
understand: a) the process of occurrence of secondary distant foci in the internal
organs; b) a process in which the presence of microorganisms is observed in the blood
and lymph; c) a process in which the presence and reproduction of microorganisms is
observed in the blood and lymph; d) a process in which the presence of toxins in the blood
is observed.
20. Sepsis is: a) the
process of occurrence of secondary distant foci in the internal organs; b) a process
in which the presence of microorganisms is observed in the blood and lymph; c) a process
in which the presence and reproduction of microorganisms is observed in the blood and
lymph; d) a process in which the presence of toxins in the blood is observed.
21. Toxinemia is: a) the
process of occurrence of secondary distant foci in the internal organs; b) a process
in which the presence of microorganisms is observed in the blood and lymph; c) a process
in which the presence and reproduction of microorganisms is observed in the blood and
lymph; d) a process in which the presence of toxins in the blood is observed.
22. Cellular factors of nonspecific defense of the body include: a) mast cells; b)
leukocytes; c) macrophages; d) natural killer cells; e) lymphocytes.
23. The following provisions are true for the complement system: a) it
is a group of blood serum proteins that take part in nonspecific defense
reactions; b) complement proteins are globulins or glycoproteins; c)
complement proteins are produced by macrophages, leukocytes,
hepatocytes and make up 5–10% of all blood proteins; d) the complement system is
represented by 20–26 blood serum proteins that circulate in the form of separate
fractions.
24. There are the following ways to activate the complement
system: a) classical; b) pectin; c) alternative; d) lectin.
25. The following properties correspond to the alternative
pathway of complement activation: a) the complement system
can be activated by antigens without the participation of antibodies; b) the initiator
of the process is the C3b component, which binds to the surface molecules of
microorganisms; c) starts and proceeds with the participation of the antigen-antibody
complex; d) the process ends with membrane perforation and lysis of microbial
cells; e) this activation pathway takes place in the early stages of the infectious
process.
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26. The following properties correspond to the classical pathway of complement
activation: a) it starts and proceeds with the participation of the antigen-antibody
complex; b) the process ends with membrane perforation and lysis of microbial cells;
c) can be activated by antigens without the participation of antibodies; d) due to the
presence of mannan-binding lectin (MBL) in the blood; e) the initiator of the process is
the C3b component, which binds to the surface molecules of microorganisms.
27. The following properties correspond to the lectin pathway of complement
activation: a) it can be activated by polysaccharides, bacterial lipopolysaccharides,
viruses and other antigens without the participation of antibodies; b) due to the presence
of mannan-binding lectin (MBL) in the blood; c) mannan-binding lectin is able to bind
mannose residues on the surface of microbial cells, which leads to the activation of a
protease that cleaves C2 and C4 components; d) the process ends with membrane
perforation and lysis of microbial cells; e) the process of activation of the protease,
which cleaves the C2 and C4 components, starts the process of formation of the
membrane-lysing complex.
28. For antigens of the main complex of the histocompatibility system, the
following features are characteristic: a) MHC antigens are unique for each organism
and determine its biological individuality;
b) according to the chemical structure and functional purpose, the MHC is divided into
two classes; c) MHC is the same for all warm-blooded organisms; d) MHC class I
antigens are found on the surface of all nucleated cells; e) according to the chemical
structure and functional purpose, the MHC is divided into four classes; f) MHC class II
antigens are located on the membrane of immunocompetent cells.
29. For class G immunoglobulin, the following provisions are true: a) it is
a monomer, it has 2 antigen-binding centers; b) easily passes through the
placental barrier; c) provides neutralization, opsonization and labeling of the
antigen; d) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-binding centers; e) exists in
serum and secretory forms; e) it is the largest molecule of all Ig.
30. For class M immunoglobulin, the following provisions are true: a) it is
the largest molecule of all Ig; b) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-binding
centers; c) it accounts for about 5-10% of all serum Ig; d) phylogenetically - the
most ancient immunoglobulin; e) does not pass through the placenta.
31. Class A immunoglobulin is characterized by the following features:
a) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-binding centers; b) exists in serum
and secretory forms; c) does not pass through the placental barrier;
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d) exists in the form of a monomer, with 2 antigen-binding centers and in a polymeric form in the form
di- or trimer;
e) prevents the adhesion of microbes on epithelial cells and the generalization of infection within
the mucous membranes;
f) phylogenetically - the most ancient immunoglobulin.
32. The following provisions are valid for class E immunoglobulin:
a) it is a monomer that has 2 antigen-binding centers;
b) content in blood serum - approximately 0.00025 g / l;
c) it is a pentamer, which has 10 antigen-binding centers;
d) has a pronounced cytophilicity - tropism for mast cells and basophils;
e) participates in the development of immediate type hypersensitivity - type I reaction;
f) detection requires the use of highly sensitive diagnostic methods.
33. Class D immunoglobulin is characterized by the following features:
a) does not pass through the placental barrier;
b) has a molecular weight of 160 kDa;
c) is a monomer;
d) also called reagin;
e) is a receptor for B-lymphoid precursors;
f) has a pronounced cytophilicity - tropism for mast cells and basophils.
34. Allergens can be:
a) animal sera;
b) food products;
c) poisons of bees, wasps;
d) hormones;
e) enzyme preparations;
f) latex;
g) antibiotics.
35. For immediate type hypersensitivity reactions (IHT), the following provisions are true:
a) these are T-dependent allergies;
b) their development is due to the production of antibodies of different classes;
c) the pathological process develops 24–48 hours after repeated exposure to the allergen;
d) these are B-dependent allergies;
e) the pathological process manifests itself 20-30 minutes after the second encounter with the allergen.
36. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions (DTH) are characterized by the following symptoms:
a) these are T-dependent allergies;
b) due to the presence of T-lymphocytes in the body;
c) the pathological process develops 24–48 hours after repeated exposure to the allergen;
d) hypersensitivity of this type can be transferred to an intact organism only
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by introducing a suspension of sensitized donor lymphocytes; e)
reactions appear 20–30 minutes after a second encounter with the allergen.
37. In the primary immune response, the first to appear are: a)
Ig A; b) IgM; c) IgE; d) IgG; e) Ig D.
38. During the primary immune
response: a) only Ig M are produced; b)
only Ig G are produced; c) Ig M is produced
first, and then Ig G.
39. According to the clonal-selection theory of F. Burnet, inhibition of the
corresponding clone of lymphocytes leads to: a) contact with an extremely high
dose of the corresponding antigen; b) contact with an abnormally low amount of the
corresponding antigen; c) genetic predisposition.
40. Polypeptides with molecular weights: A - 50, B - 500000, C - 5000000 are
artificially obtained in the laboratory. Of these substances: a) all are antigens;
b) none is an antigen; c) only substance C is the antigen; d) only substance A is not
an antigen.
41. Specify which of the following characteristics best determine the properties
of haptens: a) immunogenic and react with Ab; b) are immunogenic and do not
react with AT; c) react with antibodies, but are not immunogenic; d) do not react
with AT and are non-immunogenic; e) chemically complex macromolecular structures.
42. Nonspecific factors of body defense include: a) complement
system and phagocytosis; b) antibodygenesis; c) interferon; d)
bactericidal tissue substances, hydrolytic enzymes; e) lysozyme, NKand K-cells.
43. Immunocompetent cells include: a) Tlymphocytes; b) B-lymphocytes; c) macrophages; d)
NK cells.
44. Humoral regulation of the immune response is carried out by:
a) humoral factors of the thymus gland;
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b) factors that enhance and suppress the functional activity of cells; c) humoral
factors of macrophages; d) bone marrow humoral factors.
45. Three-cell system of immune response cooperation involves: a) T-lymphocytes;
b) B-lymphocytes; c) macrophages; d) undifferentiated cells and neutrophils.
46. The main features that characterize antigens are: a) foreignness; b)
antigenicity; c) immunogenicity; d) specificity.
47. The primary immune response after the introduction of the antigen
develops: a) after 1-2 days; b) in 3-4 days; c) in 5–6 days; d) in 7–10 days; e)
in 10-12 days.
48. Phenomena of specific interaction of serum antibodies
with antigens are:
a) agglutination;
b) precipitation;
c) lysis; d)
cytotoxicity.
49. Antigenic specificity of a bacterial cell is determined by: 1)
complete antibodies; 2) haptens; 3) semi-haptens; 4) heterogeneous
antibodies; 5) species antigens; 6) typical antigens.
50. Interferons violate: a)
adsorption of the virus; b) the
penetration of the virus; c) virus
deproteinization; d) processes
of transcription and translation of viral RNA; e) assembly
of virions; e) release of virions from the cell.
51. Specific factors of body defense include: a) antibody
production; b) immediate hypersensitivity; c) immunological memory;
d) immunological protection carried out by complement,
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interferon, some blood proteins.
52. Lymphokines are: a) factors
that determine the mobility of lymphocytes; b) immune
response mediators produced by lymphocytes; c) substances
produced by bacteria and killing lymphocytes.
53. Tissue mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance include: a) barrier function of
the skin and mucous membranes; b) complement system; c) inflammation; d)
phagocytosis.
54. Humoral mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance include: a) lysozyme; b)
interferon; c) properdin system; d) the function of natural killers.
55. Excretory mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance include: a) excretory function of
the kidneys; b) cough; c) phagocytosis; d) sneezing.
56. In the process of phagocytosis, the following stations
are distinguished: a) recognition; b) taxis; c) adhesion; d)
intracellular digestion.
57. Completed phagocytosis ends with: a)
intracellular digestion; b) absorption; c) killing.
58. Antigens are: a)
substances or bodies bearing signs of alien genetic information; b) all substances of
the body; c) macromolecular compounds.
59. The main properties of antigens include: a) the
ability to induce the development of an immune response; b)
the ability to penetrate into the interstitial fluid; c) the ability to
interact with the products of the immune response induced by a similar antigen.
60. A hapten is: a) an
antigen that does not have the ability to induce the development of an immune response,
but is able to interact with the products of the immune response; b) antigens that cause a
full-fledged immune response;
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c) inorganic compounds.
61. An antigen molecule consists of the following functional parts: a) determinant group; b)
domain; c) carrier.
62. By chemical nature, an antigen can be: a) proteins; b)
inorganic substances; c) polysaccharides; d) nucleic acids.
63. From the point of view of an immunologist, a microbial cell is: a) an
antibody; b) a complex of antigens; c) macroorganism.
64. According to the features of localization in the cell, antigens are: a) groupspecific; b) somatic; c) superficial; d) cross-reactive; e) flagella.
65. On the basis of specificity, antigens are distinguished: a)
species-specific; b) variant-specific; c) fimbrial; d) group-specific.
66. Cross-reactive antigens are: a) antigens common to bacteria, human
tissues and organs; b) different antigens within the same species; c) any
antigens.
67. Antibodies are: a) serum
proteins formed in response to the introduction (hit) of an antigen; b) all whey proteins; c) proteins of the
complement system.
68. Basic properties
antibodies are:
a) specificity; b)
heterogeneity; c)
foreignness.
69. List the main classes of immunoglobulins: a) Ig A; b) IgG;
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ÿ) Ig C;
ÿ) Ig M;
ÿ) Ig ÿ.
70. The role of immunoglobulins is: a)
implementation of the cellular type of the immune
response; b) implementation of the humoral type of
immune response; c) implementation of nonspecific resistance factors.
71. An immunoglobulin molecule consists of:
a) light chains; b) polysaccharides; c) heavy
chains.
72. Heavy chains of immunoglobulins may belong to the following classes: a)
gamma; b) mu; c) omega; d) alpha; e) epsilon; e) delta.
73. List the features that distinguish immunoglobulins of different classes, but the
same specificity: a) the structure of heavy chains; b) the structure of the active center;
c) variable regions of the H and L chains of the immunoglobulin molecule.
74. List the features that distinguish immunoglobulins of the same class, but
different specificity: a) the structure of heavy chains; b) the structure of the active
center; c) constant regions of the H and L chains of the immunoglobulin molecule.
75. The active center of antibodies is
represented by: a) constant regions of the H and L chains of the
immunoglobulin molecule; b) variable regions of the H and L chains of the
immunoglobulin molecule; c) Fab fragments.
76. The following fragments of immunoglobulin G can interact with the determinant group
of an antigen: a) heavy chains; b) light chains; c) Fc fragment; d) Fab fragment.
77. By specificity, immunoglobulins are divided into: a)
group-specific; b) species-specific; c) cross-reactive; d)
normal;
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e) variant-specific.
78. By origin, immunoglobulins are divided into: a)
cross-reactive; b) normal; c) post-infectious; d) postvaccination; e) infectious.
79. Complete antibodies are: a)
antibodies having at least two active centers; b)
antibodies having one active center; c) antibodies
produced by one clone of plasma cells.
80. Monoclonal antibodies are: a) antibodies
having at least two active centers; b) antibodies having
one active center; c) antibodies produced by one clone
of plasma cells.
81. Monoclonal antibodies are used: a) for cell
identification; b) for the implementation of modern
methods for the detection of antibodies and antigens; c) to determine the
localization of antigens in the body and deliver medicinal substances to them;
d) for the preparation of immunosorbents, which make it possible to isolate or
remove antigens or cells of a given specificity from the body.
82. The immune response can be of the following
types: a) antibacterial; b) antitoxic; c) anti-allergic; d)
antiviral; e) antiprotozoal; e) antifungal.
83. Sterile immunity is: a) immunity
maintained in the absence of a microorganism; b) immunity
that exists only in the presence of a pathogen in the body; c) immunity due to
antibodies.
84. The central organs of the immune system include: a)
red bone marrow; b) lymph nodes; c) thymus; d) spleen; d)
blood.
85. Peripheral organs of the immune system include: a)
thymus; b) lymph nodes; c) spleen;
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d) blood.
86. The main cells of the immune system are: a) phagocytes;
b) macrophages; c) lymphocytes.
87. T-lymphocytes are formed: a)
in the thymus; b) in the spleen; c) in
the lymph nodes.
88. An agglutination reaction is called: a)
a reaction using erythrocyte diagnosticums; b) specific bonding
and precipitation of corpuscular antigens under the action of antibodies in the presence
of an electrolyte; c) dissolution of the cellular antigen under the action of antibodies in the
presence of
complement.
89. Agglutination reactions include: a)
indirect Coombs reaction; b) flocculation
reaction; c) enzyme immunoassay; d) Vidal
reaction; e) Ascoli reaction.
90. Precipitation reactions include: a)
indirect Coombs reaction; b) flocculation
reaction; c) enzyme immunoassay; d) Vidal
reaction; e) Ascoli reaction.
91. Immunoblotting is: a) a highly sensitive
method for diagnosing infectious diseases; b) a method based on a
combination of electrophoresis and ELISA; c) a method based on a
combination of double immunodiffusion and RIF; d) a method based on a
combination of electrophoresis and RIA; e) diagnostic method for HIV infection.
92. The reaction of indirect (passive) hemagglutination is: a) a
reaction using erythrocyte diagnosticums; b) specific bonding and
precipitation of corpuscular antigens under the action of antibodies in the presence of an
electrolyte; c) precipitation of the antigen from solution under the action of antibodies in
the presence of an electrolyte.
93. Precipitation reaction is: a) specific
bonding and precipitation of corpuscular antigens under the action of antibodies in the
presence of an electrolyte; b) precipitation of the antigen from solution under the action
of antibodies in the presence of an electrolyte;
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c) reaction using erythrocyte diagnosticums.
94. The most widely used methods of serological research in bacteriology
include:
1. precipitation reaction; 2.
reactions of diffuse precipitation in the gel; 3.
agglutination reaction; 4. passive
hemagglutination reaction; 5. ELISA method;
6. complement fixation reaction.
95. Specify the most widely used analytical method for detecting
microbial antigens in the test material: a) immunoelectrophoresis; b)
reaction of indirect hemagglutination; c) enzyme immunoassay; d)
immunofluorescence; e) polymerase chain reaction (PCR); f) complement
fixation reaction; g) immunoblotting.
96. The basis of immunoserological diagnosis of infectious diseases
is an
the following
principle: a) detection of bacteremia
(viremia); b) detection of antigenemia;
c) detection of circulating fragments of the microbial genome;
d) identification of specific (immune) changes associated with infection; e)
identification of non-specific reactions associated with infection.
97. Specify indicators used in immunoserodiagnostics of infectious
diseases: a) fragments of genomic molecules; b) antigens; c) antibodies;
d) cytokines; e) cultural properties of bacteria.
98. List the provisions that are fair for immunoserological diagnosis of
infectious diseases: a) retrospective; b) absolute sensitivity and specificity;
c) analysis of blood serum; d) the need to isolate microbial cultures; e)
obligatory use of methods of immunochemical analysis.
99. Specify immunological parameters used in
immunoserodiagnostics of infectious diseases: a)
determination of antibody titer;
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b) detection of qualitative seroconversion; c)
detection of quantitative seroconversion; d) detection
of microbial antigens; e) statement of allergy to
microbial antigens.
100. The study of qualitative immunoconversion is based on the following parameters
of the immune response to microbial antigens: a) single determination of antibody titer;
b) dynamic study of antibody titers; c) isotopic characteristics of antibodies (in the dynamics
of the disease); d) idiotypic characteristics of antibodies (in the dynamics of the disease); e)
dynamic study of the spectrum of antibodies.
101. Serodiagnostics is: a) a method of
recognizing human, animal and plant diseases based on the ability of blood serum antibodies to
specifically react with the corresponding antigens; b) a method for recognizing human diseases
based on the principle of DNA complementarity; c) a method for recognizing human diseases based
on the body's ability to respond to HRT; d) a method for recognizing human diseases based on the
ability of antibodies and antigens to diffuse into agar.
102. The laboratory assistant forgot to warm up the patient's serum before setting up the
RSC. As a result of this: a) the reaction will be false positive; b) the reaction will be false
negative; c) agglutination of erythrocytes will be observed.
103. Agglutination reactions include: a)
coagglutination reactions; b) RTGA; c)
immunoelectrophoresis; d) Coombs reaction.
104. The number of immunoglobulins of different classes is determined by the following
methods:
a) RNGA;
b) Mancini precipitation reaction; c) enzyme
immunoassay; d) radioimmunological; e) RSC.
105. The amount of immunoglobulins of different classes is determined for: a)
assessment of the state of the B-system of immunity; b) assessment of the state of the
T-system of immunity; c) assessment of the state of a single system of macrophages.
106. Vaccines are: a) drugs that
are used to create an acquired artificial
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active immunity; b) drugs
that contain antibodies against pathogen antigens; c) drugs that contain killed
pathogens.
107. The intensity of the immune response is determined
by: a) the strength of the antigen; b) the influence of
environmental factors; c) the genetic characteristics of the
responding organism; d) the primary or secondary nature of
the immune response.
108. Phases of formation of immunoglobulins are: a)
productive; b) recessive; c) inductive.
109. According to the method of preparation, vaccines are
classified into: a) live; b) monovaccines; c) killed; d) chemical.
110. According to the number of components, vaccines are
classified into: a) attenuated; b) monovaccines; c) polyvaccines; d)
subcellular.
111. Live vaccines include: a)
attenuated strains of the pathogen; b)
inactivated cultures of pathogens; c) chemical
components of pathogens; e) toxoids of pathogens.
112. Killed vaccines include: a)
attenuated strains of pathogens; b) inactivated
cultures of pathogens; c) chemical components
of pathogens that are immunogenic.
113. Chemical vaccines include: a)
attenuated strains of pathogens; b) inactivated
cultures of pathogens; c) chemical components
of pathogens that are immunogenic; d) antibodies to the idiotype of
immunoglobulin specific for the corresponding antigen.
114. Anti-idiotypic vaccines include: a) attenuated
strains of pathogens; b) killed cultures of pathogens; c)
chemical components of pathogens that are immunogenic;
d) antibodies to the idiotype of immunoglobulin specific for the corresponding
antigen.
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115. The causes of secondary immunodeficiencies include: a) protein-caloric deficiency;
b) hereditary pathology of the complement system; c) HIV; d) hereditary deficiency of T-cell
function; e) the use of steroids and antibiotics.
116. The causes of primary immunodeficiencies include: a) protein-caloric deficiency;
b) hereditary pathology of the complement system; c) HIV; d) hereditary deficiency of T-cell
function; e) the use of steroids and antibiotics.
117. Level 1 tests for assessing a person's immune status include: a)
determination of the ratios of subpopulations of T-lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+ );
b) determination of the percentage of T- and B-lymphocytes in the blood; c)
determination of the absolute number of T- and B-lymphocytes in the blood; d)
determination of the level of blood immunoglobulins; e) determination of phagocytic
activity of blood leukocytes.
118. Tests of the 2nd level for assessing the immune status of a person
include: a) determination of the ratio of subpopulations of T-lymphocytes (CD4+ and
CD8+ ); b) assessment of the functional activity of subpopulations of T-lymphocytes (CD4+
and CD8+ ); c) analysis of cytokines and their receptors; d) determination of the functional
activity of lymphocytes by the number of blast forms; e) determination in the blood of the
absolute number of T- and B-lymphocyte forms.
119. The following provisions are valid for anaphylactic reactions: a) refer to
type II hypersensitivity reactions; b) are Ig E-dependent; c) refer to type I hypersensitivity
reactions; d) are accompanied by the release of mediators; e) are a manifestation of
HRT.
120. Autoimmune processes occur in the following cases: a) entry
of antigens from physiologically isolated tissues into the internal environment of
the body; b) in violation of the functions of the immune system; c) when crossreacting antigens enter the body, violating the state of tolerance.
121. Type II hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: a)
antibodies are produced to the components of cell membranes of body cells; b) these
reactions are manifestations of GNT; c) due to the pathogenic action of circulating immune
complexes; d) are Ig E-dependent; e) are a manifestation of HRT.
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122. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by:
a) these reactions are manifestations of HIT; b) reactions occur
when immune complexes (IC) are formed in the body; c) lead to the development
of allergic inflammation, hemorrhages and necrosis; d) lesions are local or general;
e) are Ig E-dependent.
123. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: a)
they are Ig E-dependent; b) these are cell-mediated reactions; c) the
interaction is carried out between the antigen and sensitized
immunocompetent cells; d) used for allergodiagnostics of infectious
diseases; e) these reactions are manifestations of GNT.
124. The following main groups of preparations are used for
immunoprophylaxis and immunotherapy: a) preparations of microbial origin
for prophylaxis and therapy (vaccines, eubiotics, bacteriophages); b) therapeutic
immune preparations (Ab); c) diagnostic immune preparations, allergens; d)
immunomodulators; e) antibiotics. 125. Serum immune preparations include: a)
immunomodulators; b) immune sera; c) immunoglobulins; d) "pure" antibodies; e)
monoclonal antibodies; f) inactivated vaccines.
Section
1 BACTERIAL INTESTINAL INFECTIONS
1. Specify enterobacteria - causative agents of nosocomial infections of
the urinary system: a) Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c) Shigella; d) Yersinia;
e) Proteus.
2. The most common foodborne enterobacterial infection
is an:
a) dysentery;
b) salmonellosis;
c) escherichiosis;
d) typhoid fever;
e) yersiniosis; e)
pseudotuberculosis.
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3. For serotyping of enterobacteria, a serological reaction is used: a)
agglutination; b) precipitation; c) complement binding; d) immunofluorescence; e)
enzyme immunoassay.
4. Factors screening O-antigen in serological reactions are: a) H-antigen; b) Kantigen; c) peptidoglycan; d) fimbria; e) outer membrane proteins.
5. Fermentation of lactose is typical for:
a) E. coli; b) Sh. flexneri; c) S. typhi; d) S.
typhimurium.
6. Enterobacterial anthroponoses include the following diseases: a)
escherichiosis; b) typhoid fever; c) dysentery; d) pseudotuberculosis; e)
salmonellosis; e) plague.
7. Enterobacterial zoonoses include the following diseases: a)
escherichiosis; b) typhoid fever; c) dysentery; d) pseudotuberculosis; e)
salmonellosis; e) plague.
8. For the classification of enterobacteria at the level of generic taxa, the
following features are used: a) morphology; b) tinctorial properties; c) enzymatic
activity; d) sensitivity to bacteriophages; e) sensitivity to bacteriocins; f) antigenic
profile.
9. The main criterion for intraspecific differentiation of enterobacteria
is an:
a) enzymatic activity; b)
antibiotic resistance; c)
antigenic features;
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d) degree of pathogenicity;
e) features of ecology.
10. For the classification of enterobacteria to species, the following features
are used: a) morphology; b) tinctorial properties; c) enzymatic activity; d)
sensitivity to bacteriophages; e) sensitivity to bacteriocins; f) antigenic profile.
11. The antigenic structure of enterobacteria is characterized by the
presence of: a) O-antigen; b) K-antigen; c) H-antigen.
12. O-antigen of enterobacteria is: a) lipid; b)
polysaccharide; c) protein; d) lipopolysaccharidoprotein
complex.
13. O-antigen of enterobacteria is located
in: a) flagella; b) cell wall; c) plasma membrane;
d) capsule; e) fimbria.
14. H-antigen of enterobacteria is a part of: a)
cell wall; b) plasma membrane; c) capsules; d) pili;
e) flagella.
15. K-antigen of enterobacteria is an integral part of: a) cell
wall; b) saws; c) plasma membrane; d) capsules; e) flagella.
16. H-antigen of enterobacteria is: a)
lipopolysaccharide; b) polysaccharide; c)
protein; d) lipid.
17. Enterobacteria K-antigen is:
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a) lipopolysaccharide;
b) polysaccharide; c)
protein; d) lipid.
18. Specify the genus of Enterobacteriaceae, which includes obligate
representatives of normal human microflora: a) Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c)
Shigella; d) Yersinia; e) Proteus; f) Klebsiella; g) Enterobacter.
19. Specific prophylaxis has been developed for: a)
cholera; b) pseudotuberculosis; c) salmonella
gastroenteritis; d) typhoid fever; e) shigellosis.
20. Representatives of enterobacteria are stained by Gram:
a) positively; b) negative; c) variable.
21. The form of cells in enterobacteria is: a)
rod-shaped; b) coccoid; c) spiral.
22. Enterobacteria can form: a) spores; b)
capsules; c) cysts.
23. Enterobacteria are characterized by the following type of
respiration: a) aerobic; b) anaerobic; c) facultative anaerobic.
24. Enterobacteria have: a)
catalase; b) cytochrome oxidase;
c) oxidase.
25. For all enterobacteria, a characteristic feature is the utilization of: a)
glucose; b) lactose; c) sucrose;
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d) mannitol.
26. For the diagnosis of enterobacteria, the following
identification tests are used: a) reaction with methyl red; b)
utilization of glucose; c) reduction of nitrates to nitrites; d) formation
of plasmacoagulase; e) Voges-Proskauer reaction; e) hemolysis of
erythrocytes.
27. Enterobacteria are characterized by the following pathogenicity factors:
a) endotoxin; b) fibrinolysin; c) cytotoxin; d) enterotoxin.
28. Enterobacteriaceae family includes representatives of the following genera:
a) Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c) Campylobacter; d) Yersinia; e) Vibrio; f) Klebsiella.
29. Specify which enterobacteria most often cause ascending urinary tract
infections: a) Klebsiella pneumoniae; b) Serratia marcescens; c) Citrobacter
freundii; d) Enterobacter cloacae; e) Esherihia coli.
30. Of the listed pathogens, the Enterobacteriaceae family
includes the following pathogens: a) shigellosis; b) tuberculosis;
c) cholera; d) typhoid fever; e) pseudotuberculosis; e) yersiniosis.
31. For etiotropic therapy of intestinal infections, the following
are used: a) antibiotics; b) sulfonamides; c) nitrofuran preparations; d)
bacteriophages, sera, immunoglobulins; e) rifampicin.
32. Nosocomial strain of enterobacteria has the following properties:
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a) multiresistance to antibiotics; b) high
virulence; c) polyagglutinability.
33. All representatives of the Enterobacteriaceae family are characterized by the
following distinguishing features: a) gram-negative rods; b) formation of endospores;
c) mobility; d) capsule formation; e) facultative anaerobes; e) chemoorganotrophs.
34. Serodiagnosis is not used to diagnose diseases,
called:
a) shigella; b)
Escherichia; c)
S. typhi; d)
yersinia.
35. Escherichia coli belongs to the genus: a)
Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c) Shigella; d)
Yersinia; e) Klebsiella; f) Enterobacter.
36. Pathogenic Escherichia are differentiated from conditionally
pathogenic: a) by the color of the colonies on the Endo medium; b) by
antigenic properties; c) by the ability to ferment lactose; d) by the ability
to ferment glucose.
37. The clinic and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enteroinvasive
Escherichia coli are similar to the clinic and pathogenesis of: a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis; c) typhoid fever; d) salmonella gastroenteritis; e)
yersiniosis; e) cholera.
38. The clinic and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enterotoxigenic
Escherichia coli are similar to the clinic and pathogenesis of: a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis; c) typhoid fever; d) salmonella gastroenteritis; e)
yersiniosis; e) cholera.
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39. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia are characterized by the following
features: a) colonization of the small intestine; b) colonization of the large
intestine; c) production of enterotoxins; d) cause cholera-like infection; e)
cause a dysentery-like infection.
40. Escherichia enterotoxins are: a)
pathogenicity factor of enteroinvasive Escherichia; b)
factor of pathogenicity of enteropathogenic Escherichia;
c) factor of pathogenicity of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia;
d) factor of pathogenicity of enterotoxigenic Escherichia; e)
the cause of diarrhea of secretory type.
41. The following signs are typical for enteropathogenic Escherichia: a)
enterocytes of the small intestine colonize; b) invade enterocytes; c) have
adhesins acting as "contact toxins"; d) dangerous for adults; e) cause
diarrhea of the secretory type; e) belong to a limited number of O-serogroups.
42. Escherichia are characterized by the main
antigens: a) O; b) K; c) H; d) Vi.
43. Antigens, on the basis of which Escherichia is divided into serogroups,
are: a) O; b) H; VC; d) Vi.
44. For the diagnosis of diseases caused by pathogenic Escherichia coli,
sowing of feces is carried out: a) on Endo medium; b) on bismuth-sulfite
agar; c) on JSA; d) on alkaline agar; e) Ploskirev's medium.
45. Of the biochemical tests in case of Escherichia growth, there are often
positive:
1) citrate utilization test; 2)
mobility test; 3) inositol; 4)
Voges-Proskauer reaction; 5)
reaction with methyl red;
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6) formation of indole;
46. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia are characterized by the presence of
the following features: a) the ability to synthesize Shigo-like toxins; b) the main
way of betrayal is alimentary; c) cause dysentery-like diseases; e) cause choleralike diseases.
47. For setting up serological reactions, Escherichia should be grown: a)
on Kligler's medium; b) on nutrient agar; c) on Simmons medium.
48. First of all, generic groups need to be differentiated from Escherichia:
a) Shigella; b) salmonella; c) citrobacter.
49. Enteroinvasive Escherichia are characterized by the presence of the following
features: a) the main factor of pathogenicity is the factor of invasion; b) causes a choleralike disease; c) the localization of the pathogenic process is the large intestine.
50. To detect Escherichia O-antigen in RA, it is first necessary to: a) extract Oantigen with acetone; b) destroy the Vi-antigen by boiling; c) destroy the K-antigen
by boiling; d) neutralize the Vi-antigen with serum.
51. Escherichia can be differentiated from Shigella using the following
tests:
1) mobility; 2)
the presence of lysine
decarboxylase; 3) lactose
fermentation; 4) glucose
fermentation; 5) Voges-Proskauer reaction.
52. For the genus Shigella stable is: a) lack
of mobility; b) fermentation of mannitol; c) no
emission of hydrogen sulfide.
53. The following features are typical for S. sonnei:
1) mannitol fermentation; 2) isolation of indole; 3)
fermentation of sucrose; 4) release of hydrogen sulfide;
5) splitting of urea.
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54. The main method for diagnosing dysentery is: a) express
diagnostics; b) serodiagnosis; c) allergy diagnostics; d) cultural
method.
55. The causative agents of bacillary dysentery belong to the
genus: a) Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c) Shigella; d) Yersinia; e)
Proteus; f) Klebsiella.
56. Of the following bacteria, they do not have flagella: a)
Salmonella; b) shigella; c) Escherichia; d) Yersinia.
57. The most severe clinical forms of dysentery are caused by: a) Sh.
sonnei; b) S. disenteriae I; c) Sh. Flexneri; d) Sh. bydii.
58. The presence of blood and mucus in the feces is a symptom characteristic of:
a) shigellosis; b) salmonella gastroenteritis; c) yersiniosis; d) typhoid fever; e) cholera.
59. Shigella is characterized by the main antigens:
a) O; b) K; c) H; d) Vi.
60. Flexner-Sonne alcohol dysentery vaccine is used for: a) early prevention of
dysentery; b) emergency prevention of dysentery; c) treatment of chronic dysentery.
61. Reproduction of the pathogen in the epithelial cells of the large intestine is the leading
link of pathogenesis:
a) shigellosis;
b) pseudotuberculosis;
c) salmonella gastroenteritis; d)
yersiniosis; e) typhoid fever;
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e) cholera.
62. The release of hydrogen sulfide on Kligler's medium, combined with the
absence of lactose fermentation, is a characteristic feature of: a) salmonella;
b) shigella; c) Klebsiella; d) Yersinia.
63. S.dysenteriae is characterized
by: a) production of exotoxin (cytotoxin); b)
release of hydrogen sulfide; c) lactose
fermentation.
64. The most active in terms of biochemical properties among shigella are: a)
S.dysenteriae; b) S.flexneri; c) S.boydii; d) S. sonnei.
65. For Shigella, the optimal transport medium is: a) glycerol
preservative; b) Kitt-Tarozzi medium; c) salt broth.
66. To isolate S.dysenteriae, the following media should
be taken: a) Endo; b) Ploskirev; c) Wilson-Blair.
67. Shigella species is determined by the following features: a) morphology; b)
tinctorial properties; c) enzymatic activity; d) features of O-antigens; e) features of Hantigens.
68. Specify Shigella producing strong exotoxin (Shiga toxin): a) Sh. dysenteriae
1; b) Sh. flexneri; c) Sh. boydii; d) Sh. sonnei; e) Sh. dysenteriae (all types).
69. Specify the factors that determine the increased pathogenicity of Sh.
dysenteriae: a) exotoxin; b) capsule; c) endotoxin; d) intraepithelial (enterocyte)
invasion; e) stability in the external environment.
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70. Vi-antigen:
a) is a kind of O-antigen; b) is a type of Hantigen; c) is a type of K-antigen; d)
characteristic of the genus Salmonella; e)
characteristic of S. typhi.
71. Specify the factors and mechanisms that determine the damage to the
small intestine in typhoid fever: a) intraepithelial invasion of bacteria; b)
enterotoxins; c) endogenous reinfection of the intestine; d) allergic (T-dependent)
inflammation in the intestinal wall; e) the action of endotoxin.
72. During the incubation period S. Typhi multiply: a) in enterocytes
of the small intestine; b) in hepatocytes; c) in the lumen of the small
intestine; d) in the lumen of the large intestine; e) in macrophages of
Peyer's patches and solitary follicles.
73. The causative agents of typhoid and paratyphoid belong to the
genus: a) Escherichia; b) Salmonella; c) Shigella; d) Yersinia; e) Proteus;
f) Klebsiella.
74. Salmonella form black colonies: a) on Ploskirev's
medium; b) on Endo medium; c) on bismuth-sulfite agar; d)
on alkaline MPA.
75. When diagnosing typhoid fever, to isolate a blood culture, blood culture is performed
on the medium: a) Endo; b) Ploskirev; c) bismuth-sulfite agar; d) Rappoport.
76. When diagnosing typhoid fever for isolating a blood culture, the ratio of blood and
nutrient medium should be: a) 1/1; b) 1/2; c) 1/10; d) 1/100.
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77. The main method for diagnosing salmonellosis is: a)
bacteriological; b) serodiagnosis; c) biological; d) allergy diagnostics.
78. Salmonella is characterized by the main antigens:
a) O; b) K; c) H; d) Vi.
79. Intestinal salmonellosis affects: a) small
intestine; b) rectum; c) large intestine.
80. The classification of salmonella according to the Kaufman-White scheme
is based on: a) biochemical properties; b) pathogenicity for animals; c) pathogenicity
for humans; d) antigenic properties.
81. Salmonella carriers produce immunoglobulins of the following
class: a) IgA; b) IgM; c) IgG.
82. Nosocomial strain of Salmonella is characterized
by: 1) multidrug resistance; 2) stability in the external
environment; 3) the ability to produce colicins.
83. Salmonella can be differentiated from Escherichia using the
following tests: 1) methyl red; 2) release of hydrogen sulfide; 3) indole; 4)
mobility; 5) utilization of citrate; 6) hydrolysis of urea.
84. The earliest and most reliable method for diagnosing typhoid fever
is an:
a) isolation of coproculture; b)
serodiagnosis; c) isolation of
blood culture; d) isolation of
urine culture.
85. Bismuth sulfite is an elective differential nutrient
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environments
for: a)
Escherichia; b)
salmonella; c)
shigella; d) cholera vibrios.
86. In the Vidal reaction, the
following are detected: a) anti-Oantibodies; b) anti-H antibodies; c)
diagnostic antibody titer; d) qualitative
seroconversion; e) salmonella
antigens.
87. Indicate the S. typhi antigen absent in the vast majority of other Salmonella:
a) O; b) H; VC; d) Vi; e) lipopolysaccharide.
88. Status "Status typhosus" (clouding of consciousness, lethargy, headache,
etc.) in typhoid fever is caused by the action of: a) exotoxin; b) endotoxin; c)
neurotoxin; d) Vi-typhine.
89. The test material for bacteriological examination in typhoid during fever
is: a) blood; b) bile; c) urine; d) bowel movements.
90. The test material for bacteriological examination in typhoid fever, starting
from the second week of the disease, is: a) blood; b) bile; c) urine; d) bowel
movements.
91. For early prevention of typhoid fever, the following is used: a) live
vaccine; b) chemical vaccine; c) bacteriophages; d) antibiotics; e) killed vaccine;
e) toxoid.
92. Roseolous-papular rash in typhoid fever appears due to:
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a) sensitization of the microorganism by allergens of the pathogen;
b) capillary damage by exotoxin; c) inflammatory changes in the
surface layers of the skin at the site of the pathogen.
93. A short incubation period (several hours) is typical for: a) typhoid fever;
b) salmonella gastroenteritis; c) paratyphoids A and B; d) dysentery.
94. High titers of antibodies to the O-antigen and low titers to the H-antigen of
Salmonella typhi are characteristic of: a) the onset of the disease; b) for
bacteriocarrier; c) for the end of the disease; d) for post-infectious immunity.
95. Yersinia are: a)
mesophiles; b)
psychrophiles; c)
thermophiles.
96. To isolate Yersinia, the following accumulation medium should be
used: a) saline broth; b) phosphate buffer; c) magnesium environment.
97. The optimal temperature for cultivation of Yersinia is: a) +28 °ÿ; b) +37 °ÿ;
c) +3 °ÿ; d) +10 °ÿ.
98. Y. enterocolitica can be differentiated from E. pseudotuberculosis
using the following tests: 1) rhamnose; 2) sucrose; 3) maltose; 4) Simmons
citrate; 5) raffinoses; 6) ornithine decarboxylase.
99. The genus Ervinia mainly includes microorganisms:
a) pathogenic for humans; b) conditionally pathogenic for
humans; c) phytopathogenic.
100. Representatives of the genus Yersinia can
cause the following diseases: a) pseudotuberculosis;
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b) pneumonia;
c) plague; d)
intestinal yersiniosis; e)
bacterial dysentery.
101. The following identification tests are used to identify the causative
agent of intestinal yersiniosis: a) urea breakdown; b) the presence of
lecithinase; c) fermentation of sucrose; d) liquefaction of gelatin.
102. Y. pseudotuberculosis is characterized
by: a) the presence of a capsule; b) the ability
to spore formation; c) mobility at temperatures
below 37 °C; d) bipolar staining.
103. Representatives of the genus Vibrio can cause the following
infections: a) gastroenteritis; b) meningitis; c) cholera; d) wound infections; e)
septicemia.
104. The following genera belong to the Vibrionaceae family:
a) Vibrio; b) Pseudomonas; c) Plesiomonas; d) Aeromoinas.
105. Vibrio cholerae is: a)
peritrichous; b) lofotrich; c)
monotrichom; d) amphitrichous.
106. As the main method of laboratory diagnosis of cholera, the following is
used: a) bacterioscopic; b) bacteriological; c) serodiagnosis; d) allergy diagnostics.
107. Specify the features characteristic of representatives of the genus
Vibrio: a) the presence of oxidase; b) mobility; c) the formation of hydrogen
sulfide; d) sensitivity to 0/129.
108. To identify the causative agents of cholera, the following
is used: a) Voges-Proskauer reaction;
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b) sensitivity to specific bacteriophages; c) hexamine test; d)
utilization of citrate.
109. According to Heiberg's classification, the causative agent of cholera
belongs to: a) the 5th group; b) 3rd group; c) 2nd group; d) 1st group.
110. The causative agent of classical cholera is characterized by the following
properties: a) sensitivity to classical monophage; b) hexamine test; c) hemolytic activity; d)
agglutination of O1 - sera.
111. The following signs are typical for the causative agent of cholera serovar O 139: a)
sensitivity to polymyxin; b) hemolytic activity; c) sensitivity to bacteriophage El Tor; d) positive
Voges-Proskauer reaction.
112. The factor causing the development of diarrhea in cholera is: a) invasion of the
intestinal epithelium; b) the action of exotoxin; c) the formation of defects in the intestinal
wall; d) pathogen circulation in the bloodstream; e) the action of endotoxin.
113. The following methods are used for express diagnostics of cholera: a) RSK;
b) PCR; c) ELISA; d) bioassay on animals; e) immobilization with specific serum.
114. Classical vibrio cholerae differs from Vibrio cholerae eltor in: a) antigenic
properties; b) the ability to ferment sugars; c) by lysability by specific phages; d) sensitivity
to polymyxin; e) ability to produce hemolysins.
115. To determine the Heiberg group, it is necessary to take into account the fermentation
features of the following compounds: a) mannose; b) glucose; c) sucrose; d) arabinose; e)
lactose.
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116. Cholerogen:
a) causes the formation of ulcers on the surface of the intestinal
epithelium; b) activates adenylacticyclase; c) contributes to the
invasion of cholera vibrios.
117. The feces of a patient brought to the laboratory look like rice water. This is
typical for: a) shigellosis; b) pseudotuberculosis; c) typhoid fever; d) salmonella
gastroenteritis; e) yersiniosis e) cholera.
118. To prevent cholera, you can use: a) cholera
bacteriophage; b) antibiotics; c) cholerogen-anatoxin; d)
bivalent vaccine; e) anti-cholera O-serum.
119. The causative agents of food intoxication can be: a)
staphylococci; b) proteins; c) Escherichia coli; d) B. cereus; e)
C. Botulinum; e) enterococci.
120. Toxic infection can be caused by: a)
staphylococci; b) proteins; c) Escherichia coli; d)
Klebsiella; e) C. botulinum f) Salmonella spp.
121. Pronounced mucous capsule is a characteristic sign of: a) salmonella;
b) shigella; c) Klebsiella; d) Yersinia.
122. Alkaline agar refers to elective nutrient media for: a) Escherichia; b)
salmonella; c) shigella; d) cholera vibrios.
123. Representatives of the Vibrionaceae family are Gram-stained:
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a) positively; b)
negative; c)
variable.
124. Campylobacteria are characterized
by: a) positive Gram stain; b) lack of spore
formation; c) there is a capsule; d) Sshaped cell.
125. Campylobacter are: a)
peritrichous; b) monotrichs; c)
amphitriches; d) lofotrichami.
Section
2 MICROBIOLOGY OF INFECTIONS CAUSED BY OPPORTUNISTIC
ORGANISMS
1. Opportunistic infections are characterized by:
a) are caused only by pathogenic microorganisms; b)
are called by UPM; c) occur in immunosuppressive
conditions; d) can affect any organs and tissues.
2. Clinical picture of opportunistic infections: a) specific;
b) depends on the localization of the pathogen; c) does not
depend on the localization of the pathogen; d) is characterized
by a chronic course.
3. The features of opportunistic infections include: a)
treatment with a combined ratio of antibiotic therapy with
immunomodulating; b) widespread in hospitals; c) flow complexity;
d) highly contagious.
4. Diagnosis of opportunistic infections is characterized by: a)
the main diagnostic method is microbiological; b) the main diagnostic
method is biological; c) the use of qualitative and quantitative criteria;
d) use only a qualitative criterion.
5. Bacteremia is called: a)
the phase of the pathogenesis of infectious diseases, during which bacteria enter the
bloodstream; b) the phase of the pathogenesis of infectious diseases, during which
viruses enter the bloodstream; c) a generalized disease during which the pathogen is
located and
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multiplies in the blood.
6. Sepsis is called: a)
the phase of the pathogenesis of infectious diseases, during which bacteria enter the
bloodstream; b) the phase of the pathogenesis of infectious diseases, during which
viruses enter the bloodstream; c) a generalized disease during which the pathogen is
located and multiplies in the blood.
7. Nosocomial infection is: a) an infectious
disease acquired and manifested in a hospital; b) an infection acquired inside a hospital
and manifested itself in a hospital or after discharge from it; c) an infection acquired
before admission to the hospital and manifested or detected in the hospital.
8. Staphylococci may have the following antigens: a) protein M;
b) Vi-antigen; c) K-antigen; d) protein A.
9. Streptococci may have the following antigens: a) protein M; b)
Vi-antigen; c) K-antigen; d) protein A.
10. Staphylococcal infections include: a)
scalded baby syndrome; b) scarlet fever; c)
carbuncle; d) toxic shock syndrome.
11. Plasmocoagulase causes:
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid; b)
violation of blood clotting; c) destruction
of lecithin; d) dissolution of fibrin.
12. Hyaluronidase causes: a)
destruction of hyaluronic acid; b)
violation of blood clotting; c) destruction
of lecithin; d) dissolution of fibrin.
13. Lecithinase causes:
a) destruction of hyaluronic acid; b)
violation of blood clotting; c) destruction
of lecithin;
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d) dissolution of fibrin.
14. Fibrinolysin causes: a)
destruction of hyaluronic acid; b)
violation of blood clotting; c) destruction
of lecithin; d) dissolution of fibrin.
15. L-forms of staphylococci are characterized
by: a) resistance to antibiotics of the penicillin series; b) the
ability to persist in the body for a long time; c) the presence
of a thick cell wall; d) change in morphology.
16. Staphylococci belong to the family: a)
Bacteroidaceae; b) Neisseriaceae; c)
Pseudomonadaceae; d) Micrococcaceae; e)
Enterobacteriaceae.
17. Staphylococci can cause: a) only
diseases of the nasopharynx; b) only
suppuration of wounds; c) purulentinflammatory lesions of any organs and tissues; d) only septic
processes.
18. Specify the pathogenicity factors of staphylococci: a) the
presence of a microcapsule; b) the presence of disputes; c) the
presence of coagulase; d) the presence of catalase; e) the presence
of beta-lactamase.
19. The following features are characteristic of all members of the Micrococcaceae
family: 1. the presence of spores; 2. mobility; 3. positive Gram stain; 4. positive catalase
test; 5. the presence of pigment; 6. spherical shape of cells; 7. positive oxidase test.
20. Human diseases are caused by representatives of the following genera of the
Micrococcus family: a) micrococci; b) stomatococci; c) planococci; d) staphylococci.
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21. Staphylococci are representatives of the normal flora of the following
biotopes: a) skin; b) lungs; c) nasal cavity; d) ureters.
22. The following features are characteristic of the genus
Staphylococcus: 1. arrangement of cells in the form of clusters; 2.
the presence of disputes; 3. mobility; 4. anaerobic fermentation of
glucose; 5. growth on agar with furazolidone; 6. resistance to
lysostaphin; 7. the presence of teichoic acids.
23. According to the type of respiration,
staphylococci are: a) aerobes; b) anaerobes; c)
microaerophiles; d) facultative anaerobes.
24. Lipochromic pigment is present in the following species:
a) S. aureus; b) S. intermedius; c) S. epidermidis.
25. The following tests are used for intraspecific differentiation of the genus of
staphylococci: a) the presence of plasmacoagulase; b) the presence of hyaluronidase;
c) the presence of catalase; d) the presence of fibrinolysin.
26. Among the coagulase-negative species of staphylococci, most often
human diseases are caused by: a) S. epidermidis; b) S. warneri; c) S.
haemolyticus; d) S. saprophyticus.
27. Epidermal staphylococcus is characterized by the following symptoms:
1. the presence of
phosphatase; 2. the ability to break down
mannose; 3. the ability to aerobically decompose
beckons; 4. the presence of plasmacoagulase;
5. presence of sensitivity to novobitsin.
28. The following features are typical for S. saprophyticus: a)
presence of DNase enzyme; b) the ability to break down sucrose;
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c) the presence of plasmacoagulase;
d) the presence of phosphatase.
29. The following media can be used for primary isolation of staphylococci:
a) Levenshtein-Jensen
environment; b) Endo environment;
c) simple nutrient agar; d) JSA.
30. Among the representatives of Pseudomonas,
nosocomial infections are most often caused by: a) P.
malei; b) P. fluorescens; c) P. aeruginosa; d) P. maltopnilia.
31. The following features are typical for P. aeruginosa: a) negative
Gram stain; b) positive oxidase test; c) the presence of a blue pigment;
d) the presence of capsules; e) the presence of flagella.
32. The following nutrient media can be used to isolate streptococcus: a)
blood agar; b) salt agar; c) serum agar; d) Endo medium.
33. For intraspecific differentiation of streptococci, the following are used:
a) morphological features; b) signs of hemolytic activity; c) serological studies;
d) study of biochemical activity.
34. The serological method of grouping streptococci according to R. Lensfield is based
on:
a) study of biochemical activity; b) detection
of a specific group polysaccharide of the cell wall; c) on the determination of
streptolysins; d) on the determination of hyaluronidase; e) on the determination of
streptokinase.
35. In human pathology, the main role belongs to streptococci: a) serological
group A; b) serological group C; c) serological group B.
36. In human pathology, the main role belongs to the following types
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ÿÿ: 1)
S.pyogenes; 2)
S.agalactiae; 3)
S.pneumoniae;
4) S.salivarius;
5) Blood
37. For streptococci of serological group A, the following signs are
characteristic: 1. hemolysis; 2. hyaluronidase; 3. oxidase; 4. catalase; 5.
urease.
38. Representatives of the genus Enterococcus are
characterized by: a) being obligate anaerobes; b)
belonging to the family Streptococcaceae; c) are
representatives of normal intestinal microflora; d) are conditionally
pathogenic; e) belonging to the family Micrococcaceae.
39. For Str. pneumoniae is characterized by the following
features: a) ÿ-hemolysis; b) sensitivity to optochin; c) bile lysis;
d) lack of growth on salt media; e) negative Gram stain.
40. The ability to synthesize exfoliatins by Staphylococcus aureus can
call:
a) scarlet fever; b)
activation of cAMP formation; c)
staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome; d) scalded
skin syndrome.
41. Gram-positive cocci are: a) gonococci; b)
pneumococci; c) enterococci; d) staphylococci; e)
meningococci e) streptococci.
42. Gram-negative cocci are: a) staphylococci;
b) pneumococci; c) enterococci; d) gonococci; e)
streptococci e) meningococci.
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43. For the treatment of staphylococcal infections, the
following is used: a) staphylococcal toxoid; b) staphylococcal
vaccine; c) diagnostic staphylococcal phages; d) antistaphylococcal immunoglobulin.
44. For the specific prevention of staphylococcal infections, the following
can be used: a) staphylococcal toxoid; b) anti-staphylococcal immunoglobulin;
c) O-streptolysin; d) antibiotics.
45. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infections
is an:
a) bacterioscopic; b)
bacteriological; c)
serodiagnosis; d) allergy
diagnostics.
46. The main sources of staphylococcal infection are: a) animals;
b) sick; c) bacteria carriers; d) environmental objects.
47. The causative agents of scarlet fever
include: a) S. aureus; b) S. pyogenes; c) E.
faecalis; d) S. pneumoniae; e) S. salviarius.
48. Normal intestinal microflora includes: a) S. salviarius;
b) S. pyogenes; c) E. faecalis; d) S. pneumoniae; e) S. aureus.
49. For streptococcal infections, the main method of
laboratory diagnostics is: a) bacterioscopic; b)
bacteriological; c) biological; d) allergy diagnostics.
50. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci form on blood agar: a) colonies
surrounded by a transparent colorless zone of hemolysis; b) colonies
surrounded by a green hemolysis zone;
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c) colonies with hemolysis, indistinguishable to the naked eye.
51. Beta-hemolytic streptococci form on blood agar: a) colonies
surrounded by a transparent colorless zone of hemolysis; b) colonies
surrounded by a green hemolysis zone; c) colonies with hemolysis,
indistinguishable to the naked eye.
52. Gamma-hemolytic streptococci on blood agar form: a) colonies
surrounded by a transparent colorless zone of hemolysis; b) colonies
surrounded by a green hemolysis zone; c) colonies with hemolysis,
indistinguishable to the naked eye.
53. To prevent exacerbation of rheumatism, use: a) toxoid;
b) antitoxic serum; c) penicillin; d) tetracycline; e) streptolysin.
54. S. aureus is characterized
by: a) pyogenic invasiveness;
b) do not have organ tropism; c)
mobile; d) the presence of
plasmacoagulase; e) is an
obligate representative of normal human microflora.
55. Staphylococcal enterotoxin is characterized by: a)
it exhibits the properties of a superantigen; b) is produced
by all strains of S. aureus; c) is represented by several
antigenic variants; d) is responsible for the development
of food poisoning; e) resistant to the action of digestive
enzymes.
.
56. Toxin of toxic shock syndrome is characterized by: a)
represented by several serotypes; b) has the properties of a
superantigen; c) is an exotoxin; d) is produced by all strains of
S. aureus; e) is responsible for the development of food
poisoning.
57. S. epidermidis is characterized
by: a) refers to conditionally pathogenic microorganisms;
b) is part of the normal microflora of the skin; c)
ferments mannitol; d) is able to colonize polymeric
materials; e) the presence of coagulase.
58. S. pyogenes is characterized
by: a) belongs to group A; b) is
an obligate anaerobe; c) is a
representative of normal microflora;
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d) is the causative agent of erysipelas; e) alpha
hemolysis.
59. Protein M of Streptococcus pyogenes is
characterized by: a) being a type-specific antigen; b)
exhibits the properties of a superantigen; c) inhibitor of
phagocytic reactions; d) capsular antigen; e) factor of
reactive aggression in rheumatism.
60. S. Pneumonia is characterized
by: a) formation of long chains; b)
the presence of alpha hemolysis; c)
tendency to autolysis; d) negative
Gram stain; e) the presence of a
capsule.
61. Signs common to staphylococci and streptococci include: a) absence
of sporulation; b) the presence of cytochromes; c) catalase activity; d) spherical
shape of cells; e) positive Gram stain.
62. Signs that are different for staphylococci and streptococci include: a)
absence of spore formation; b) the presence of cytochromes; c) catalase activity; d)
spherical shape of cells; e) positive Gram stain.
63. All anaerobes are characterized
by: a) obtaining energy by substrate phosphorylation; b) the
presence of disputes; c) the presence of capsules; d) positive
Gram stain.
64. Anaerobic gram-positive non-spore-forming cocci include: a) p. Bacteroides;
b) r. Clostridium; c) r. Veillonella; d) r. Bifidobacterium; e) r. Peptococcus.
65. Gr(-) anaerobic bacteria that do not form spores include: a) p.
Bacteroides; b) r. Clostridium; c) r. Veillonella; d) r. Bifidobacterium.
66. Anaerobic Gr(-) cocci include:
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a) R. Bacteroides;
b) Clostridium; c)
Veillonella river;
d) R. Bifidobacterium.
67. Anaerobic Gr(+) non-spore-forming anaerobic bacteria include: a) p. Bacteroides;
b) r. Clostridium; c) r. Veillonella; d) r. Bifidobacterium; e) r. Peptococcus.
68. The Bacillacea family includes microorganisms with the following features:
a) rods; b) gram-positive; c) forming endospores; d) only facultative anaerobes; e)
only strict anaerobes.
69. Specify which microorganisms are characterized by the
presence of spores exceeding the cell diameter: a) Bacillus anthracis;
b) P. aeruginosa; c) Clostridium perfringens; d) Bacillus subtilis.
70. Indicate which microorganisms are characterized by the presence of
spores not exceeding the cell diameter: a) Bacillus anthracis; b) P. aeruginosa;
c) Clostridium perfringens; d) Bacillus subtilis.
71. All representatives of the genus Clostridium are characterized by the following features:
1. anaerobes;
2. the presence of
disputes; 3. facultative anaerobes;
4. gram-positive rods; 5. gramnegative rods.
72. The following nutrient media are used for growing anaerobes: a) Kitt-Tarozzi
medium; b) Kligler's medium; c) Wilson-Blair medium; d) Zeissler medium.
73. The criteria for the etiological diagnosis of conditionally pathogenic
microorganisms are: a) the massive isolation of homogeneous
microorganisms;
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b) an increase in the titer of antibodies to the isolated microbe in the patient's blood
serum; c) repetitive isolation of identical microorganisms; d) isolation of microorganisms
from the enrichment medium.
74. Which of these microorganisms can cause gangrene in humans: a)
Clostridium perfringens; b) Clostridium septicum; c) Clostridium chavoei; d)
Clostridiumno novyi; e) Escheria coli.
75. The source of nosocomial infection can be: a) patients in the
department; b) personnel; c) environment and tools.
76. For the prevention of nosocomial infections, the following is
used: a) vaccination of patients; b) compliance with the norms of sanitaryindicative microorganisms for the relevant medical institutions; c) carrying
out control of the sterility of medicines, surgical instruments, suture
material, etc.; d) improving the quality of medical care for patients.
77. The pathogenesis of tetanus is mainly due to:
a) the action of exotoxin; b) the action of endotoxin;
c) the invasiveness of the pathogen.
78. Trismus of chewing muscles and "sardonic smile" are
symptoms:
a) botulism;
b) tetanus; c)
gas gangrene; d)
diphtheria.
79. Changes in the organs of vision (accommodation disorder, double vision) are
symptoms of: a) botulism; b) tetanus; c) gas gangrene; d) diphtheria.
80. For specific therapy of botulism, the following are
used: a) anti-botulinum antitoxic serum; b) anti-botulinum
antimicrobial serum; c) botulinum toxoid; d) botulinum
bacteriophage.
81. For emergency prevention of tetanus use: a) tetanus
toxoid;
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b) DTP vaccine;
c) anti-tetanus serum; d) tetanus
bacteriophage.
82. For early prevention of tetanus, the following is used: a) DTP
vaccine; b) AS vaccine; c) anti-tetanus serum; d) typhoid vaccine with
sextanatoxin; e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
83. For early prevention of gas gangrene, the following is used: a) DTP
vaccine; b) AS vaccine; c) anti-tetanus serum; d) typhoid vaccine with
sextanatoxin; e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
84. For the early prevention of botulism, the following are used:
a) DTP vaccine; b) AS vaccine; c) anti-tetanus serum; d) typhoid
vaccine with sextanatoxin; e) alcohol typhoid vaccine with Vi antigen.
85. Differential signs of gas gangrene clostridia are: a) the presence of mobility;
b) inulin fermentation; c) utilization of citrate; d) features of growth on media with
milk.
86. C. perfringens is characterized
by: a) lack of mobility; b) the
presence of hemolysis; c) no
liquefaction of gelatin; d) lack of
glucose fermentation.
87. In C. perfringens, spores can be located: a)
centrally; b) subterminally; c) terminal.
88. In C. tetani spores can be located: a)
centrally; b) subterminally; c) terminal.
89. In C. botulinum, spores can be located: a)
centrally; b) subterminally; c) terminal.
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90. C.novyi is characterized
by: a) lack of mobility; b) the
presence of hemolysis; c) no
liquefaction of gelatin; d) lack of
glucose fermentation.
91. C. septicum is characterized
by: a) lack of mobility; b) the
presence of hemolysis; c) no
liquefaction of gelatin; d) lack of
glucose fermentation.
92. C. tetani is characterized
by: a) the presence of a
capsule; b) are peritrichous; c)
terminal location of spores; d) the
formation of indole.
93. Pathogenicity of C. Tetani is determined by the
presence of: a) M protein; b) tetanolysin; c)
tetanospasmin; d) exofoliatins.
94. C.botulinum exotoxin is characterized by:
a) being a neurotoxin; b) leads to visual impairment;
c) refers to membrane toxins; d) causes toxic
shock syndrome.
95. Kitt-Taroczi medium contains: a)
defibrinated blood; b) pieces of the liver; c)
glucose; d) ferric chloride solution.
96. Wilson-Blair medium contains: a)
defibrinated blood; b) pieces of the liver; c)
glucose; d) ferric chloride solution.
97. For growing anaerobes, you can use: a) the Fortner
method; b) anaerostat; c) Veyon-Venial method; d) Ehrlich's
method.
98. A biological sample may be used: a) for the
diagnosis of tetanus;
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b) for the diagnosis of gas gangrene; c) for
the diagnosis of botulism; d) for the
diagnosis of erysipelas.
99. Lactobacilli are representatives of the normoflora of: a) oral cavity;
b) skin; c) intestines; d) vagina.
100. Lactobacilli are characterized by:
a) positive Gram stain; b) capable of spore
formation; c) Gram-staining is negative; d) are
able to form chains of cells.
Section
3 MICROBIOLOGY OF AIRDROP INFECTIONS
1. The biological method is used to diagnose: a) pneumococcal
pneumonia; b) diphtheria; c) whooping cough; d) leprosy; e) scarlet
fever.
2. The main representatives of the resident microflora of the upper respiratory tract are: a)
streptococci; b) bacteroids; c) staphylococci; d) mushrooms.
3. In case of pneumococcal pneumonia, the following are subject to
examination: a) a throat swab; b) sputum; c) blood; d) bile.
4. Primary sputum culture in case of suspected pneumococcal pneumonia is preferable
to carry out on: a) Borde-Jangu medium; b) Clauberg's environment; c) Levenshtein-Jensen
environment; d) serum agar with ristomycin; e) blood agar.
5. The causative agent of diphtheria is characterized
by: a) the presence of spores; b) the presence of
capsules; c) mutual arrangement of cells at an angle to
each other;
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d) the presence of currency grains.
6. Microorganisms of the genus Corynebacterium are: a)
gram-positive rods; b) gram-negative rods; c) gram-positive
cocci; d) gram-negative cocci.
7. The main pathogenic factor of Corynebacterium diphteriae is: a) exotoxin; b)
endotoxin; c) cell wall LPS; d) drank; e) protein M.
8. The causative agent of diphtheria
has: a) urease activity; b) toxicogenic
properties; c) cystinase activity; d)
hemolytic activity; e) the ability to reduce
nitrates to nitrites.
9. In the laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria: a)
the material is treated with acid before the study to eliminate the accompanying
flora; b) the material is taken before the start of antibiotic therapy; c) the material
before sowing should be transported and stored at a temperature of 37 °C; d)
the material is pre-centrifuged.
10. For the primary culture of diphtheria corynebacteria, the following
are used: a) Borde-Jangu medium; b) Clauberg's environment; c)
Levenshtein-Jensen environment; d) serum agar with ristomycin; e) blood
agar.
11. Clauberg's medium contains the following components: a)
blood; b) potassium tellurite; c) suspension of fresh eggs; d) glycerin;
d) potatoes.
12. For the primary sowing of meningococci, the following
are used: a) Borde-Jangu medium; b) Clauberg's environment;
c) Levenshtein-Jensen environment; d) serum agar with
ristomycin; e) blood agar.
13. To identify the causative agent of diphtheria in a smear, staining can be used:
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a) according to
Gram; b) according to
Neisser; c) according to ZiehlNielsen; d) according to Ozheshka.
14. For specific therapy of diphtheria use: a) antidiphtheria
antitoxic serum; b) diphtheria toxoid; c) sulfonamides.
15. For early specific prevention of diphtheria, the following are used: a) DTP vaccine; b)
BSG vaccine; c) Mantoux test; d) Dick's test; e) ADSm.
16. To identify C.diphtheria, the following features are used: 1)
morphological; 2) cultural; 3) biochemical; 4) serological; 5) toxigenic.
17. Toxigenicity of diphtheria is determined using: a)
precipitation reaction in agar;
b) antibody neutralization reactions; c)
agglutination reactions.
18. Diphtheria toxin is characterized by: a) its
+
formation encodes tox b) the toxin consists of two
components; c) has a blocking effect on protein
synthesis; d) is an endotoxin.
;
19. The composition of the Levenshtein-Jensen medium includes the following
components: a) blood; b) potassium tellurite; c) suspension of fresh eggs; d) glycerin; d)
potatoes.
20. After suffering from scarlet fever, a person develops: a) persistent
intense antimicrobial immunity; b) short antimicrobial immunity; c)
persistent intense antitoxic immunity; d) short-term antitoxic immunity.
21. The composition of the Borde-Jangu environment includes the following components:
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a) blood;
b) potassium
tellurite; c) suspension of
fresh eggs; d) glycerin; d)
potatoes.
22. Dick's test is used to detect: a) antimicrobial
immunity in streptococcal infections; b) sensitization to streptococci
in rheumatism; c) antitoxic immunity in scarlet fever.
23. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of whooping cough is: a)
bacterioscopic; b) bacteriological; c) serological; d) allergic.
24. The following features are typical for ÿordetella pertussis:
a) mobility; b) growth on plain agar; c) pigment formation; d)
splitting of urea; e) the presence of catalase.
25. The following features are typical for ÿordetella parapertussis:
a) mobility; b) growth on plain agar; c) pigment formation; d) splitting of
urea; e) the presence of catalase.
26. The following features are typical for ÿordetella bronchiseptica:
a) mobility; b) growth on plain agar; c) the presence of pigment; d)
splitting of urea; e) the presence of catalase.
27. After suffering whooping cough, the following
is formed: a) persistent intense antimicrobial immunity;
b) short antimicrobial immunity; c) persistent intense
antitoxic immunity; d) short-term antitoxic immunity.
28. Specific (species) antigens of ÿordetella parapertussis are: a) factors 1-6; b)
factor 7; c) factor 12; d) factor 14.
29. Specific (species) antigens are ÿordetella pertussis:
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a) factors 1-6;
b) factor 7; c)
factor 12; d)
factor 14.
30. Taking the test material (mucus from the upper respiratory tract) in case of
suspected whooping cough is carried out: a) with a posterior pharyngeal swab; b)
nasopharyngeal swab; c) by the method of "cough plates"; d) flushing from the oral cavity.
31. Specific (species) antigens of ÿordetella bronchiseptica are: a) factors 1-6; b) factor
7; c) factor 12; d) factor 14.
32. Common antigens for all representatives of the genus ÿordetella are: a) factor
1-6; b) factor 7; c) factor 12; d) factor 14.
33. In which of the clinical stages is whooping cough the most
contagious: a) catarrhal stage; b) paroxysmal stage; c) stage of
incubation; d) stage of recovery?
34. To isolate Bordetella pertussis, nutrient media are used: a) Bordet-Gangu
medium; b) Clauberg's environment; c) Levenshtein-Jensen environment; d)
serum agar with ristomycin; e) blood agar.
35. For early specific prevention of whooping cough, the following are used: a) DTP
vaccine; b) BSG vaccine; c) Mantoux test; d) Dick's test.
36. For Neisseria meningitidis. the following pathogenicity factors are characteristic:
a) protein M; b) capsule; c) endotoxin; d) drinking.
37. All representatives of the genus Neisseria are characterized by the following features:
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a) negative Gram stain; b) lack of
mobility; c) have a spherical shape;
d) have a rod-shaped form; e) are
aerobes; e) are not demanding on
nutrient media.
38. Taking the test material (mucus from the upper respiratory tract) in case of
suspected meningococcal nasopharyngitis is carried out: a) with a posterior
pharyngeal swab; b) nasopharyngeal swab; c) by the method of "cough plates"; d)
by flushing from the oral cavity.
39. For rapid diagnosis of meningococcal infection, the following are
used: a) agglutination tests on glass; b) RNGA; c) precipitation reactions; d)
methods of counter immunoelectrophoresis.
40. The following tests are used to differentiate meningococcus from
other representatives of the genus Neisseria: a) fermentation of
carbohydrates; b) the formation of indole; c) the ability to form a
polysaccharide on agar with 5% sucrose solution; d) no growth on serumfree agar at 37°C.
41. For serodiagnosis of meningococcal infection, the following
are used: a) agglutination tests on glass; b) RNGA; c) precipitation
reactions; d) methods of counter immunoelectrophoresis.
42. Identification of Neisseria meningitides is carried out on the basis of the
following properties: a) glucose fermentation; b) presence of pigment; c) urease
activity; d) catalase test.
43. Causes of spotty rash and petechial hemorrhages in
generalized forms of meningococcal diseases are: a) capsular
polysaccharides; b) protein exotoxin; c) endotoxin; d) outer membrane
proteins.
44. In case of laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal infection:
a) before examination, the material is treated with acid to eliminate
associated flora; b) the material is preheated to eliminate the accompanying
flora;
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c) the material before sowing should be transported and stored at a temperature of 37
°C; d) pre-centrifuged.
45. For specific prophylaxis of meningitis, the following can be used: a)
immunoglobulin; b) meningococcal vaccine; c) meningococcal diagnosticum;
d) antibiotics.
46. Nosological forms of meningococcal infection include: a) gastroenteritis;
b) bacteriocarrier; c) nasopharyngitis; d) meningitis; e) sepsis.
47. For early specific prevention of tuberculosis, the following are used:
a) DTP vaccine; b) BSG vaccine; c) Mantoux test; d) Dick's test.
48. Mycobacteria cannot cause in humans: a)
tuberculosis; b) leprosy; c) actinomycosis; d)
mycoplasmosis.
49. To isolate a pure culture of the causative agent of tuberculosis, it is
necessary: a) 1-2 days; b) 5–7 days; c) 30–45 days.
50. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis is: a)
bacterioscopic; b) bacteriological; c) biological; d) allergic; e) serodiagnosis.
51. Tuberculosis in humans can be caused
by: a) M. tuberculosis; b) M. bovis; c) M. microbi;
d) M. africanum.
52. Representatives of the genus Mycobacterium are characterized by the following
features: a) they are Gram-positive microorganisms; b) are gram-negative microorganisms;
c) are acid-resistant microorganisms;
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d) form disputes; e)
have a capsule.
53. Tuberculosis can be diagnosed: a) on the
basis of isolation of a pure culture; b) using
serological methods; c) microscopy of pathological
material.
54. Mycobacteria grow: a)
quickly on any nutrient media; b) slowly on any
nutrient media; c) quickly on special media for
mycobacteria; d) slowly on special media for mycobacteria.
55. Of the following microorganisms, the least resistant in the external environment are:
a) enterococci; b) staphylococci; c) meningococci; d) gonococci.
56. In the laboratory diagnosis of tuberculosis, the following requirements shall
be met: a) treatment of the material before examination with acid to eliminate the
accompanying flora; b) heating the material to eliminate the accompanying flora; c) the
material before sowing should be transported and stored at a temperature of 37 °C; d)
the material is pre-centrifuged.
57. Mantoux test is used for: a) diagnosis
of tuberculosis; true b) diagnosis of
diphtheria; c) selection of persons to be
vaccinated with the BCG vaccine; ? d) selection of persons to be
vaccinated with the DTP vaccine.
58. For the treatment of tuberculosis, the
following are used: a) antibiotics and chemotherapy
drugs; b) bacteriophages; c) therapeutic serums; d)
tuberculin.
59. In clinical practice, the following methods are used to diagnose leprosy:
a) bacteriological method; b) bacterioscopic method; c) biological method.
60. To identify the causative agent of tuberculosis in a sputum smear using a light
microscope, staining can be used: a) according to Ziehl-Neelsen; b) according to BuriGins; c) according to Ozheshka;
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d) according to Neisser.
61. To differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other mycobacteria, the following is
used: a) hydrogen sulfide release; b) glucose fermentation; c) Price microculture method; d)
formation of niacin; e) staining according to Ziehl-Neelsen.
62. Indicate the correct provisions in relation to the tuberculin test: a) the test is
considered positive when a papule exceeds 10 mm; b) intradermal administration of tuberculin
(Mantoux reaction) has found the greatest distribution; c) repeated administration of tuberculin can
cause the conversion of a negative sample into a positive one; d) a negative answer should not be
considered as a fact indicating the absence of a tuberculous process; e) the sample has more
epidemiological than diagnostic value.
63. For the treatment of leprosy, the
following are used: a) antibiotics and
chemotherapy drugs; b) bacteriophages; c)
immunoglobulin; d) lepromin.
64. Mycobacterium tuberculosis are: a)
mesophiles; b) psychrophiles; c) aerobes; d)
facultative anaerobes; e) thermophiles.
65. Tuberculosis pathogens: a)
form spores; b) prone to
polymorphism; c) lack peptidoglycan;
d) form endospores; e) have an
increased rate of reproduction.
66. Specify nutrient media for cultivation of mycobacterium tuberculosis: a) yolksalt agar; b) meat-peptone agar; c) Endo medium; d) chocolate agar; e) LevinsteinJensen medium.
67. The Mitsuda test is used to: a) diagnose
leprosy; b) diagnosis of tuberculosis;
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c) selection of persons to be vaccinated with the BCG vaccine;
d) to characterize the clinical course of leprosy.
68. Mycobacterium leprae is characterized by the following features:
a) it is a Gram-positive microorganism; b) is a gram-negative microorganism;
c) is an acid-resistant microorganism; d) forms disputes; e) has a capsule.
69. Leprosy in humans can be caused by:
a) M. tuberculosis; b) M. leprae; c) M. microbi;
d) M. africanum.
70. Incubation period for leprosy: a) 5-7
days; b) 14–21 days; c) 3–30 years; d) 2–3
months.
71. BCG vaccine consists of: a)
weakened culture of M.tuberculosis; b) a
weakened culture of M. bovis; c) a killed
culture of M. tuberculosis; d) weakened
culture of M. africanum; e) a killed culture of
M. bovis; e) a killed culture of M. africanum.
72. For rapid diagnosis of diphtheria, the following are
used: a) agglutination tests on glass; b) RNGA; c) PCR; d)
methods of counter immunoelectrophoresis.
73. S. Pneumonia is characterized
by: a) positive Gram stain; b) sensitivity to
optochin; c) release of ammonia; d) sensitivity
to bile.
74. S. pyogenes is characterized
by: a) negative Gram stain; b) sensitivity to
optochin; c) the presence of hemolysis; d) the
presence of oxidase.
75. Scarlet fever is caused
by: a) S. pyogenes; b) S.
pneumoniae;
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ÿ) S. salivarius;
ÿ) S. sanguis.
Section
4 MICROBIOLOGY OF PARTICULARLY DANGEROUS INFECTIONS
1. In the laboratory diagnosis of especially dangerous infections, one must
be used:
1. isolation and study of pure culture; 2.
serological methods; 3. express diagnostics;
4. accelerated methods; 5. setting up
bioassays; 6. isolation of a specific
bacteriophage.
2. To work with pathogens of especially dangerous infections, it is
necessary: 1. to use a special protective suit; 2. availability of permission
to work with UN pathogens; 3. constant use of dez. funds; 4. presence of
experimental animals; 5. centralized provision of standard nutrient media;
6. Use of nutrient media that have been tested for growth.
3. To indicate ROI in practical laboratories, the following is used: a)
immunofluorescence method; b) RPGA; c) PCR; d) isolation of
microorganisms in pure culture; e) bioassay on animals.
4. The objects to be examined during the indication, first of all, of the ROI are: 1.
air; 2. water; 3. soil; 4. remnants of ammunition; 5. food products; 6. warm-blooded
animals; 7. insects; 8. affected contingents of people.
5. The pathogen has the maximum level of resistance in the environment:
a) tularemia; b) brucellosis; c) anthrax; d) plague.
6. The causative agents of especially dangerous diseases
are: 1. Y. pestis; 2. P. aeruginosa;
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3. Bacillus anthracis;
4. P. cepacia; 5. P.
stutzeri; 6. S.
intermedius.
7. Sporulation is characteristic of the pathogen: a)
anthrax; b) plague; c) tularemia; d) brucellosis.
8. Y. pestis must be cultivated on: a) meatliver agar; b) MPA; c) blood agar; d) Hottinger
agar; e) vitelline environment.
9. Y. pestis can cause the following clinical forms of the disease: a) skin; b)
bubonic; c) intestinal; d) septic; e) pulmonary.
10. In the skin form of plague, the test material can be: a) sputum; b)
contents of carbuncles; c) ulcer discharge; d) urine.
11. The main methods of laboratory diagnosis of plague are: a)
serodiagnosis; b) bacterioscopic; c) bacteriological; d) allergy diagnostics.
12. A bioassay for plague is placed on the following laboratory animals: a)
white mice; b) guinea pigs; c) hamsters; d) rabbits.
13. The method of infecting animals when placing a bioassay for plague is: a)
intramuscular; b) subcutaneous; c) intraperitoneal; d) endolumbar; e) oral.
14. The following tests are used to identify Y. pestis:
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a) fermentation of sucrose;
b) fermentation of
rhamnose; c) liquefaction
of gelatin; d) cell
morphology; e) the nature of growth on liquid and solid nutrient media.
15. Y. pestis is resistant to the following antibiotics: a) tetracyclines;
b) beta-lactams; c) polymexins; d) rifampicin; e) chloramphenicol.
16. The antigenic structure of Y. pestis includes the following
antigens: a) somatic; b) capsular; c) F1 antigen; d) flagella.
17. For express diagnosis of plague, the following methods are
used: a) immunofluorescent analysis; b) RNGA; c) PCR; d) counter
immunodiffusion in gel; e) enzyme immunoassay.
18. Right to a final positive test result for plague
gives:
a) radioimmunoassay; b)
enzyme immunoassay; c)
isolation of pure culture and its identification; d)
RNGA; e) immunofluorescent analysis.
19. Pathogenicity factors of Y. pestis include: a)
exotoxin; b) endotoxin; c) W-antigen; d) V-antigen.
20. Y. restis is characterized by the following
features: a) cocci; b) coccobacteria or short sticks; c)
long sticks; d) capable of spore formation; e) do not
form a dispute; e) Gram-positive.
21. The reservoir of the plague agent in nature are: a)
ground squirrels; b) fleas;
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c)
marmots; d) rats.
22. With the transmissible route of transmission, the patient initially develops:
a) the bubonic form of the plague; b) pneumonic plague; c) primary septic form of
plague.
23. Specific carriers of plague with transmissible transmission
are:
a) fleas;
b) gophers;
c) mice; d)
lice.
24. Plague is: a)
sapronosis; b)
zoonosis; c)
anthroponosis.
25. The greatest danger as a source of infection is presented by patients
with plague: a) in the bubonic form; b) in the pulmonary form; c) in the primary
septic form; d) in the intestinal form.
26. Bacillus anthracis has the following cultural properties: a) not demanding
on nutrient media; b) cultivated for 24 hours; c) grow only on nutrient media of
complex composition; d) cultivated for 21 days.
27. Bacillus anthracis is characterized
by: a) the presence of a capsule; b) spore
formation; c) mobility; d) exotoxin
production; e) sensitivity to penicillin.
28. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of anthrax is: a) serodiagnosis; b)
bacterioscopic; c) bacteriological; d) allergy diagnostics; e) biological.
29. In case of pulmonary anthrax, the test material is: a) sputum; b) contents of
carbuncles; c) blood;
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d) rejected scab.
30. Bacillus anthracis must be cultivated on: a) meatliver agar; b) MPA; c) blood agar; d) Hottinger agar; e)
vitelline environment.
31. The following methods are used for express diagnostics of anthrax: a)
immunofluorescent analysis; b) radioimmunoassay; c) ELISA; d) precipitation reaction;
e) PCR.
32. A bioassay for anthrax is carried out on the following laboratory
animals:
a) white mice; b)
guinea pigs; c)
hamsters; d) rabbits.
33. Anthrax is resistant to the following antibiotics: a) imidazole; b)
tetracycline; c) erythromycin; d) ampicillin; e) ciprofloxacin.
34. Bacillus anthracis capsules are characterized by the following
properties: 1) they are represented by polymers of D-glutamic acid; 2)
are unique in their chemical structure (among other bacteria); 3)
antiphagocytic virulence factor; 4) antibodies to capsular antigens have
protective properties.
35. Bacillus anthracis pathogenicity factors include: a)
exotoxin; b) endotoxin; c) W-antigen; d) capsule.
36. Bacillus anthracis has the following antigens: a)
somatic; b) capsular; c) F1 antigen; d) flagella.
37. Bacillus anthracis is characterized by the following
properties: a) cocci;
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b) long sticks; c) form
disputes; d) do not
form a dispute; e)
gram-positive; e) Gramnegative.
38. For serodiagnosis of anthrax, the following are
used: a) RPHA; b) latex agglutination reaction; c) Vidal
reaction; d) Ascoli precipitation reaction.
39. Bacillus anthracis can cause the following clinical forms of the
disease: a) skin; b) bubonic; c) intestinal; d) septic; e) pulmonary.
40. The most severe clinical forms of anthrax are: a) pulmonary; b) skin; c)
intestinal.
41. To determine the contamination of Bacillus anthracis with agricultural raw materials,
it is necessary to apply the following reaction: a) agglutination; b) ring precipitation; c)
RSC; d) RIA.
42. Anthrax is: a) sapronose;
b) zoonosis; c) anthroponosis.
43. Francisella tularensis pathogenicity factors include: a)
exotoxin; b) endotoxin; c) W-antigen; d) Vi antigen.
44. Francisella tularensis has the following antigens: a)
somatic; b) Vi-antigen; c) F1 antigen; d) flagella.
45. Francisella tularensis is characterized by the following
properties: a) cocci;
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b) sticks; c)
form disputes; d)
do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive; e)
Gram-negative.
46. Tularemia is: a)
sapronosis; b) zoonosis;
c) anthroponosis.
47. The following tests are used to identify Francisella tularensis: a) hemolytic
activity; b) release of hydrogen sulfide; c) liquefaction of gelatin; d) cell morphology;
e) the nature of growth on liquid and solid nutrient media.
48. The main method of laboratory diagnosis of tularemia is: a)
serodiagnosis; b) bacteriological; c) biological; d) allergy diagnostics.
49. For the cultivation of the causative agent of tularemia, the
following are used: 1. McCoy's yolk agar; 2. blood glucosecysteine agar; 3. 5% blood agar.
50. For tularemia pathogen serodiagnosis, the following are
used: a) complement fixation reaction; b) Wright's reaction; c)
ELISA; d) agglutination reaction; e) Ascoli reaction.
51. Diseases of tularemia in Russia are caused by the following
subspecies:
a) Holarctic; b)
Nearctic; c) Central
Asian.
52. The main ways of transmission of the causative agent of tularemia are:
1. airborne; 2. transmissive;
3. alimentary; 4. contacthousehold.
53. In the absence of specialized laboratories for the diagnosis of
tularemia, the following are most often used: a) bacteriological method;
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b) serodiagnosis; c)
allergy diagnostics; d)
biological method.
54. A bioassay for suspected tularemia is carried out on the following
laboratory animals: a) white mice; b) guinea pigs; c) hamsters; d) rabbits.
55. The test material for suspected tularemia is: a) blood; b) urine; c) pus
from buboes; d) scraping from the bottom of the ulcer.
56. In the transmissible way of infection with tularemia, the pathogen is
transmitted through: a) fleas; b) hares; c) rats; d) mosquitoes.
57. The reservoir of tularemia in natural conditions are: a) ixodid
ticks; b) hares; c) rats; d) mosquitoes.
58. In the absence of specialized laboratories for the diagnosis of
tularemia, the bacteriological method is not used, because: a) the
pathogen does not grow on nutrient media; b) animals are immune to
tularemia; c) isolation of pure culture is allowed only in specialized laboratories;
d) the pathogen does not perceive aniline dyes well.
59. Most often diseases in humans are caused by Brucella species:
1. B.ovis;
2. B.melitensis;
3. B.abortus; 4.
B.suis; 5.
B.neotomae; 6.
B.canis.
60. The express method of laboratory diagnosis of brucellosis includes:
a) bacteriological method; b) Wright's reaction; c) PCR; d) complement fixation
reaction;
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e) Byrne test.
61. Brucella must be cultivated on: a) liver agar;
b) MPA; c) blood agar; d) Hottinger agar; e)
McCoy's yolk agar.
62. Brucella is characterized by the following
features: a) cocci; b) coccobacteria or short sticks; c)
long sticks; d) form disputes; e) do not form a dispute;
e) gram-positive; g) Gram-negative.
63. In brucellosis, the source of infection for a person is: a) bacteria
carriers; b) domestic animals; c) wild artiodactyls; d) rodents; e) wild birds;
e) predatory animals.
64. The ways of transmission of the causative agent of
brucellosis are: a) alimentary; b) contact; c) aerogenic; d)
transmissive; e) sexual.
65. When brucellosis is observed:
a) arthritis; b) fever; c) the formation
of carbuncles; d) skin rashes.
66. For serodiagnosis of brucellosis, the following
are used: a) Vidal test; b) Wright's reaction; c)
Huddelson reaction; d) RNGA.
67. Test material for suspected brucellosis: a) blood; b)
urine; c) pus from buboes; d) scraping from the bottom of the
ulcer.
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68. The following tests are used to identify brucellosis pathogens: a) gelatin
liquefaction; b) the formation of hydrogen sulfide; c) fermentation of carbohydrates;
d) hemolytic activity.
69. Burne reaction is used for: a)
brucellosis allergy diagnostics; b)
allergic diagnosis of tularemia; c)
serodiagnosis of anthrax; d)
serodiagnosis of plague.
70. The bacterioscopic method is not used for laboratory diagnostics of: a)
plague; b) tularemia; c) brucellosis; d) anthrax.
71. Pathogenicity factors of brucellosis pathogens include: a)
exotoxin; b) endotoxin; c) Vi-antigen; d) capsule.
72. Brucellosis pathogens have the following antigens: a)
somatic; b) Vi-antigen; c) capsular; d) flagella.
73. A bioassay for suspected brucellosis is carried out on the
following laboratory animals: a) white mice; b) guinea pigs; c) hamsters;
d) rabbits.
74. Brucella are: a)
obligate aerobes; b)
obligate anaerobes; c)
facultative anaerobes.
75. The causative agents of brucellosis have the following cultural properties:
a) they are not demanding on nutrient media; b) cultivated for 24 hours; c) grow only
on nutrient media of complex composition; d) cultivated for 21 days.
Section
5 VENERAL DISEASE CAUSES
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1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is characterized by the following
features: a) negative Gram stain; b) aerobic type of respiration; c)
oxidase-positive; d) ferment glucose; e) catalase-positive.
2. The morphology of Neisseria gonorrhea is characterized by the following
features: a) the presence of spore forms; b) the presence of capsules; c) are
diplococci; d) form long chains of cells; e) capable of forming L-forms.
3. The main methods of laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhea are: 1.
bacteriological method; 2. biological method; 3. serodiagnosis; 4.
bacterioscopic method; 5. Allergy diagnostics.
4. The test material for suspected gonorrhea can be: a) urethral
discharge; b) discharge of the cervix; c) vaginal discharge; d) detachable
mucous membrane of the rectum; e) detachable conjunctiva; e) throat
swab.
5. The biochemical properties of Neisseria gonorrhea are characterized
by: a) the release of hydrogen sulfide; b) the formation of indole; c) the
presence of catalase; e) release of ammonia.
6. Specify the main pathogenicity factors of Neisseria gonorrhea:
a) capsule; b) endotoxin; c) drank; d) hyaluronidase.
7. The following nutrient media are used for growing Neisseria gonorrhea: a)
ascites agar; b) Endo environment; c) JSA; d) blood agar; e) agar with bovine heart
and liver extract.
8. Nutrient media for growing Neisseria gonorrhea must contain: a) blood serum;
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b) penicillin; c)
casein; d)
lecithin.
9. When taking material for gonococcus, it is
necessary: a) to exclude local use of disinfectants for 2–3 days; b) exclude
chemical provocation; c) cancel treatment with antibiotics and sulfonamides
3 days before taking the material; d) take material from the urethra after a
long abstinence from urination (4-5 hours); e) take material from the cervix
during menstruation.
10. For laboratory diagnosis of chronic gonorrhea it is necessary to apply: a)
bacterioscopic method; b) PCR; c) bacteriological method; d) biological method.
11. In acute gonorrhea, the main method of laboratory diagnostics is: a)
bacterioscopic; b) serodiagnosis; c) bacteriological; d) biological.
12. Neisseria gonorrhoeae are: 1.
Gram-positive microorganisms; 2. gramnegative microorganisms; 3. anaerobes; 4.
aerobes; 5. facultative anaerobes.
13. To detect Neisseria gonorrhoeae using the microscopic method, the
following staining methods are used: a) Gram stain; b) staining with methylene
blue; c) coloring according to Ziehl-Neelsen; d) staining according to Ozheshka.
14. Gonococcal vaccine is used for: a)
specific prophylaxis of gonorrhea; b) treatment
of chronic gonorrhea; c) "provocations" for
laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhea; d) treatment of acute
gonorrhea.
15. A pure culture of Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be obtained by
cultivation: a) on conventional nutrient media; b) on complex
nutrient media; c) on special nutrient media under anaerobic
conditions; d) in the body of a rabbit.
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16. Of particular importance in human pathology
are: a) Treponema pallidum; b) Treponema denticola;
c) Treponema carateum; d) Treponema orale.
17. Gonorrhea refers to:
a) zoonoses; b) sapronoses;
c) anthroponosis.
18. The main routes of transmission of infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae are
are:
a) contact-household;
b) airborne; d) contactsexual; e) transmissive; e)
transplacental.
19. The following staining methods are used to detect treponemas using a microscopic
method: a) Gram stain; b) staining according to Romanovsky-Giemsa; c) coloring according
to Ziehl-Neelsen; d) staining according to Ozheshka.
20. Treponema pallidum has the following antigens: a) thermostable
protein antigen; b) Vi-antigen; c) lipoid antigen; d) H-antigen.
21. The morphology of Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following
features: a) the presence of spore forms; b) the presence of capsules; c) have 8–12
symmetrical curls; d) form long chains of cells; e) have 8–12 asymmetrical whorls.
22. Treponema pallidum is characterized by the following features:
a) release of hydrogen sulfide; b) are microaerophiles; c) catalasepositive; e) oxidase-negative.
23. Syphilis refers to: a)
anthroponosis; b) sapronoses;
c) zoonoses.
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24. For the diagnosis of primary seronegative syphilis, the following is used:
a) serological method; b) bacteriological method; c) bacterioscopic method; d)
biological method.
25. The main ways of transmission of syphilis are: a)
airborne; b) transmissive; c) contact-sexual; d) contact
household; e) transplacental.
26. For the diagnosis of secondary seropositive syphilis, the following is used:
a) serological method; b) bacteriological method; c) microscopic method; d) biological
method.
27. To perform the Wasserman reaction, you must have: a) the
patient's blood serum; b) culture of treponema strain Nichols; c)
hemolytic serum; d) cardiolipin antigen; e) ultrasonified treponemal
antigen; e) complement; g) angigen Kana; h) sheep erythrocytes; i)
luminescent serum.
28. To perform RIT for the purpose of syphilis serodiagnosis, it is necessary to have:
a) the patient's blood serum; b) culture of treponema strain Nichols; c) hemolytic serum; d)
cardiolipin antigen; e) ultrasonified treponemal antigen; e) complement; g) angigen Kana; h)
sheep erythrocytes; i) luminescent serum.
29. In screening studies for syphilis, the following are usually used: a)
Wasserman reaction; b) RIT; c) RIF; d) precipitation microreaction.
30. A positive result of the Wassermann test is indicated by: a) the
presence of hemolysis; b) the presence of sediment; c) absence of hemolysis;
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d) no sediment.
31. Representatives of the genus Treponema can cause the following diseases
person:
a) soft chancre; b)
syphilis; c) yaws;
d) a pint; e)
relapsing fever.
32. In the bacterioscopic method of laboratory diagnosis of syphilis, the
following are used: a) dark-field microscopy; b) electron microscopy; c)
phase-contrast microscopy; d) fluorescence microscopy.
33. A pure culture of Treponema pallidum can be obtained by cultivating: a) on ordinary
nutrient media; b) on complex nutrient media; c) on special nutrient media under anaerobic
conditions; d) in the body of a rabbit.
34. For laboratory diagnosis of syphilis, the following material can be used: 1) blood;
2) liquor; 3) detachable chancre; 4) bowel movements.
35. For bacterioscopic examination in case of syphilis, the following material is
taken for examination: a) cerebrospinal fluid; b) blood; c) detachable hard chancre; d)
detachable soft chancre.
36. For the treatment of syphilis, the
following are used: a) beta-lactams; b)
polyenes; c) polymyxins; d) rifampicins.
37. Trichomonas belong to the kingdom:
a) viruses; b) bacteria; c) plants; d)
mushrooms; e) animals.
38. In the bacterioscopic diagnosis of trichomonas, the most commonly used
stain in practical laboratories is:
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a) according to ZiehlNielsen; b) according to
Romanovsky-Giemsa; c) genitian
violet; d) methylene blue.
39. For laboratory diagnosis of trichomaniasis, the following methods
are used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) PCR; c) bioassay; d) cultural method.
40. For the cultivation of T. vaginalis, the following is
used: a) alkaline MPA; b) medium with casein hydrolyzate
and yeast; c) JSA; d) media with potassium tellurite.
41. For laboratory diagnosis of soft chancre, the following is used: a)
microscopic method; b) bacteriological method; c) allergy diagnostics; d)
biopreparation.
42. The causative agent of chancre is: a) Haemofilus
influeze aegiptius; b) Gardnerella vaginalis; c) Yersinia
pseudotuberculosis; d) Haemophilus ducrei.
43. The following features are typical for H.ducreyi: a) they
grow well on ordinary nutrient media; b) grow on blood agar; c)
positive Gram stain; d) do not form a dispute; e) immobile; e)
do not form capsules.
44. The following staining methods are used for the microscopic method of diagnosing
H.ducreyi: a) by Gram; b) methylene blue; c) according to Neisser; d) according to Ozheshka.
45. To grow microorganisms of the genus Haemophilus: a) the
presence of growth factors in the medium is necessary; b) it is necessary
to have serum in the medium; c) the presence of adsorbents in the
medium is necessary; d) the presence of blood in the medium is
necessary.
46. Microorganisms of the genus Haemophilus are characterized by:
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a) negative Gram stain; b) there are flagella;
c) positive Gram stain; d) have polymorphism;
e) are aerobes.
47. Nutrient media for growing H. ducreyi must contain: a) fresh blood; b)
penicillin; c) increased concentration of table salt; d) lecithin.
48. In human pathology, the following have the largest share:
a) Haemophilus influenza; b) H. aphrophilus; c) H. aegyptius; d) H.
parainfluenzae; e) H. parahaemolyticus; e) H. ducreyi.
49. Gardnerella vaginalis is characterized
by: a) positive Gram stain; b) have flagella; c)
negative Gram stain; d) oxidase-negative; e)
catalase-negative; e) polymorphic.
50. Nutrient media for growing Gardnerella vaginalis must contain: a) fresh
blood; b) penicillin; c) increased concentration of table salt; d) vitamins; e)
pyrimidines.
Section
6 MICROBIOLOGY OF RICKETSIOSIS, SPIROCHETOSIS,
LEPTOSPIROSIS, CHLAMIDIOSIS
1. For serodiagnosis of rickettsiosis, the following
are used: a) complement fixation reaction; b) agglutination
reaction; c) RNGA; d) enzyme immunoassay; e)
precipitation reaction.
2. Representatives of the genus Rickettsia are characterized by the following
features: a) grow on liquid media of complex composition; b) grow on media in
the presence of host cells; c) positive Gram stain;
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d) negative Gram stain; e) are obligate
intracellular parasites; e) cause vector-borne infections; g)
not pathogenic for arthropods.
3. For rickettsia cultivation, the following are
used: a) cell cultures; b) nutrient media with blood;
c) chicken embryos; d) dense nutrient media with
amino acids; e) arthropods - carriers.
4. Specify the mechanisms that ensure the intracellular existence of
rickettsiae: a) blockade of phagosomal-lysosomal influence; b) the presence of
a capsule; c) violation of protein synthesis in the infected cell; d) release of
cytotoxic LPS; e) synthesis of phospholipases.
5. Rickettsia pathogenicity factors are: a) fimbriae;
b) exotoxin; c) drank; d) cell wall LPS; e) phospholipase.
6. The causative agent of Q fever is: a)
Borrelia reciurrentis; b) Coxiella burnetii; c)
Leptospira interrogans; d) Rickettsia
prowazekii; e) Borrelia burgdorferi.
7. Coxiella burnetii is characterized by the following
features: a) is an obligate intracellular parasite; b)
polymorphic; c) positively stained by Gram; d) form disputes.
8. For cultivation of Coxiella burnetii use: a) cell
culture; b) liquid nutrient media with native protein; c)
chicken embryos; d) dense nutrient media with amino
acids; e) arthropods - carriers.
9. For the specific prevention of Q fever, the following are used:
a) bacteriophage; b) a live vaccine based on the M-44 strain; c) BCG
vaccine;
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d) antitoxic serum.
10. For serodiagnosis of Q fever, the following are
used: a) complement fixation reaction; b) agglutination
reaction; c) RPGA; d) enzyme immunoassay; e)
precipitation reaction.
11. In Q-fever, the following transmission routes are realized:
a) alimentary; b) transmissive; c) water; d) sexual; e) air-dust.
12. For the treatment of epidemic typhus, apply: a) antitoxic
serum; b) tetracyclines; c) bacteriophages; d) penicillins.
13. The carriers of epidemic typhus are: a) lice; b) mice; c) marmots;
d) fleas.
14. In the human body, Rickettsia prowazekii reproduces in: a)
intestinal epithelial cells; b) endothelial cells of blood vessels; c)
liver cells; d) cells of the mucous membrane of the upper respiratory
tract.
15. Natural reservoir of causative agents of endemic typhus
are:
a) lice;
b) rats;
c) fleas;
d) mice;
d) a person.
16. Natural reservoir of causative agents of epidemic typhus
are:
a) lice;
b) rats;
c) fleas;
d) mice;
d) a person.
17. Carriers of endemic typhus are:
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a) fleas;
b) rodents;
c) cattle; d) lice.
18. For differential diagnosis of epidemic and endemic typhus, the
following are used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) bioassay on guinea pigs; c)
serodiagnosis; d) bacteriological method.
19. For the differential diagnosis of epidemic typhus and Brill's disease, the
following are used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) bioassay on guinea pigs; c) ELISA;
d) precipitation reaction.
20. For laboratory diagnosis of typhus, the following are mainly used: a) the
biological method; b) serodiagnosis; c) bacterioscopic method; d) allergological
method; e) bacteriological method.
21. The Weil-Felix reaction is used for serodiagnosis of: a)
epidemic relapsing fever; b) epidemic typhus; c) endemic typhus; d)
endemic relapsing fever; e) Q fever.
22. For the specific prevention of epidemic typhus, the following are
used: a) antitoxic serum; b) live combined vaccine; c) inactivated vaccine;
d) antimicrobial serum; e) penicillins.
23. The causative agents of epidemic typhus are: a) Rickettsia
prowazekii; b) Rickettsia tiphi; c) Borrelia recurentis; d) Borrelia
burgdorferi; e) Rickettsia sibirica.
24. The causative agents of endemic typhus are: a)
Rickettsia prowazekii; b) Rickettsia tuphi;
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ÿ) Borrelia recurentis;
ÿ) Borrelia burgdorferi;
ÿ) Rickettsia sibirica.
25. The causative agents of Brill's disease are: a)
Rickettsia prowazekii; b) Rickettsia tiphi; c) Borrelia
recurentis; d) Borrelia burgdorferi; e) Rickettsia sibirica.
26. Mycoplasmas are characterized by the following
features: a) do not grow on nutrient media; b) do not have a cell
wall; c) are membrane parasites; d) capable of spore formation.
27. Mycoplasmas can cause in humans: a)
pneumonia; b) urethritis; c) mycoses; d) meningitis.
28. The main biochemical properties of M.pneumoniae include: 1) liquefaction
of gelatin; 2) hemolytic activity; 3) hydrolysis of urea; 4) lack of hydrolysis of
esculin.
29. Microplasmas are not characterized
by: a) the presence of a true cell wall; b) the
presence of a three-layer membrane; c) cell
polymorphism; d) negative Gram stain.
30. In humans, diseases are most often caused by mycoplasmas of the following
species: a) M. mycoides; b) M. pulmonis; c) M. pneumoniae; d) M. hominis.
31. M. pneumoniae is characterized by the following features: a)
growth on a dense special medium in the presence of a yeast extract; b) growth in the
form of uniform granular, convex, partially growing into agar colonies; c) growth under
anaerobic conditions; d) growth on a simple dense nutrient medium.
32. U. urealyticum are: a) gram-negative
polymorphic bodies; b) gram-positive rods;
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c) gram-negative rods; d) grampositive cocci; e) gram-negative cocci.
33. The causative agents of clinically expressed non-gonococcal urethritis in women
are: a) Ureplasma urealiticum; b) Mycoplasma hominis; c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae; d)
Mycoplasma fermentas; e) Mycoplasma arthritidis.
34. The following methods are used for laboratory diagnosis of mycoplasmoses: a)
culture method; b) serodiagnosis; c) bacterioscopic method; d) allergy diagnostics.
35. Pathogenicity factors of mycoplasmas are: a) capsule; b)
adhesins; c) endotoxins; d) neurominidase.
36. For laboratory diagnosis of ureaplasmosis, the following are used.
methods:
a) bacteriological method; b)
serodiagnosis; c) bacterioscopic
method; d) allergy diagnostics.
37. The following genera belong to the order Spirochaetales: a)
Treponema; b) Rickettsia; c) Chlamydia; d) Borrelia; e) Leptospira.
38. Signs characteristic of all spirochetes: a) are
obligate intracellular parasites; b) absence of peptidoglycan; c)
representatives have a spiral shape; d) mobility; e) membrane
parasitism.
39. Hard chancre is: a) the site of localization of
the entrance gate of infection; b) the place of primary
reproduction of treponemas; c) manifestation of a
generalized infection; d) the result of the action of
bacterial toxins;
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e) focus of nonspecific granulomatous inflammation.
40. The most susceptible spirochetes to aniline dyes
are:
a) treponema;
b) Borrelia; c)
leptospira; d)
mycoplasmas.
41. Borrelia can cause the following infections: a) lousy
relapsing fever; b) tick-borne relapsing fever; c) Lyme
disease; d) typhoid fever; e) epidemic typhus.
42. The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
a) Rickettsia prowazekii; b) Rickettsia tiphi; c)
Borrelia recurentis; d) Borrelia burgdorferi; e)
Rickettsia sibirica.
43. For laboratory diagnosis of relapsing fever, the following
methods:
a) microscopy of blood obtained at the height of fever; b)
serological reactions; c) isolation of blood culture; d) bioassay.
44. The causative agent of epidemic relapsing fever is: a)
Borrelia reciurrentis; b) Borrelia persica; c) Leptospira interrogans;
d) Rickettsia prowazekii; e) Borrelia burgdorferi.
45. For differential diagnosis of epidemic and endemic relapsing fever, the
following is used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) bioassay on guinea pigs; c)
serodiagnosis; d) allergy diagnostics.
46. Microscopy of blood products stained according to Romanovsky
Giemsa is used to diagnose: a) typhus; b) relapsing fever; c) seronegative
syphilis; d) seropositive syphilis; e) leptospirosis.
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47. Detection of the pathogen in the patient's blood with the help of
bacterioscopy of preparations in the dark field of vision is the main method
of laboratory diagnosis of: a) leptospirosis; b) seropositive syphilis; c) seronegative
syphilis; d) relapsing fever; e) typhus.
48. For laboratory diagnosis of Lyme disease, the following are
used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) PCR; c) ELISA; d) isolation of
the pathogen in pure culture.
49. The test material for suspected leptospirosis is most often:
1. blood;
2. vomit; 3. urine;
4. sputum; 5. bowel
movements.
50. For early diagnosis of leptospirosis use:
1. PCR;
2. microscopic method; 3.
bacteriological method; 4.
bioassay.
51. For laboratory diagnosis of leptospirosis, the following is
used: a) bacterioscopic method; b) PCR; c) biopreparation on
suckling rabbits; d) isolation of the pathogen in pure culture; e) RA.
52. The following features are typical for T. pallidum:
a) high resistance in the environment; b) do not grow on
nutrient media; c) have periplasmic fibrils; d) poorly
perceive aniline dyes; e) the possibility of transplacental
transmission.
53. Chlamydia are: a)
viruses; b) to gram-negative
bacteria; c) to gram-positive bacteria;
d) to the simplest.
54. Reproduction of chlamydia can occur: a) in
the external environment;
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b) on simple nutrient media; c) in cell
culture; d) in a chick embryo.
55. Pathological processes in humans are caused by: a)
Chlamydia trachomatis; b) Chlamydia psittaci; c) Chlamydia
pnenmohiae; d) Chlamydia felus.
56. For laboratory diagnosis of chlamydia, the following are used:
a) PCR; b) ELISA; c) staining according to Romanovsky-Giemsa; d)
isolation of a pure culture of the pathogen.
57. To detect C. trachomatis inside the affected cell, the following can be
used: a) Gram stain; b) staining according to Romanovsky-Giemsa; c) light
microscopy of native micropreparations; d) immunofluorescent method; e) staining
according to the Neisser method.
58. Chlamydia infectivity is provided by: a)
inclusion bodies; b) glycogen bodies; c) elementary
bodies; d) aggregated bodies; e) initial bodies.
59. The antigenic structure of chlamydia is characterized by the
presence of: a) H-antigen; b) species-specific antigen of protein nature;
c) K-antigen; d) genus-specific glycolipid; e) protein M.
60. The biological method is used in the diagnosis of: a)
syphilis; b) epidemic relapsing fever; c) endemic relapsing fever;
d) chlamydia.
61. Chlamydia cultivation is carried out using: a) cell
cultures; b) liquid nutrient media with native protein; c)
chicken embryos; d) dense nutrient media with amino
acids; e) arthropods - carriers.
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62. Chlamydia are: a)
obligate intracellular parasites; b) facultative
parasites; c) saprophytes; d) opportunistic
pathogens.
63. Chlamydial infection is characterized by:
a) strong post-infection immunity; b) the probability of
persistence of the pathogen; c) the possibility of
intrapartum infection; d) the possibility of secondary
infections; e) the possibility of immunoprophylaxis.
64. Signs characteristic of all chlamydia include: a) inability to
grow on artificial nutrient media; b) membrane parasitism; c) the
presence of flagella; d) the ability to form reticular bodies; e) absence
of peptidoglycan.
65. A sign characteristic of both chlamydia and rickettsia: a)
disjunctive mode of reproduction; b) obligatory intracellular
parasitism; c) common ecology; d) the ability to accumulate
glycogen; e) the presence of elementary bodies.
66. The term "chlamydia" reflects the following features of bacterial cells: a)
the presence of spores; b) the presence of a capsule; c) formation of extracellular
mucus; d) the presence of a membrane around intracellular colonies; e) morphological
features of elementary bodies.
67. Peculiarities of chlamydia reproduction are: a) cells
divide by binary fission; b) alternation of phases of
elementary and reticular bodies; c) protein synthesis on the
ribosomes of the host cell; d) reproduction inside
phagosomes; e) dependence on the energy metabolism of
the host cell.
68. Chlamydia is characterized by the following
features: a) obligate intracellular parasites; b) resistance
to beta-lactams; c) have 18 serovars; d) saprophytes; e)
resistant to tetracycline drugs.
69. Chlamydia elementary bodies have the following properties: a) metabolic
inertness; b) metabolic activity;
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c) stability in the external environment;
d) the ability to divide; e) intracellular
localization; e) high infectivity.
70. Chlamydia reticular bodies have the following properties: a) metabolic
inertness; b) metabolic activity; c) stability in the external environment; d) the
ability to divide; e) intracellular localization; e) low infectivity.
71. Trachoma is caused by the following Chlamydia serovars:
a) A, B, B2, C; b) from D to K; c) L1, L2, L2a, L3.
72. Urogenital chlamydia is caused by the following chlamydia serovars: a) A,
B, B2, C; b) from D to K; c) L1, L2, L2a, L3.
73. Venereal lymphogranuloma is caused by the following chlamydia serovars: a) A,
B, B2, C; b) from D to K; c) L1, L2, L2a, L3.
74. In the human body, Coxiella burnetii multiply in: a) intestinal
epithelial cells; b) endothelial cells of blood vessels; c) in
mononuclear macrophages; d) cells of the mucous membrane of
the upper respiratory tract; e) in histiocytes.
75. After a chlamydial infection: a) immunity is not
formed; b) intense antitoxic immunity is formed; c)
unstressed antibacterial immunity is formed; d) intense
antibacterial immunity is formed.
Section
7 VIRUSOLOGY
1. All representatives of the kingdom Vira are characterized by the presence
of the following main features: a) the absence of a cellular structure; b) the
presence of only one type of nucleic acid; c) the presence of a protein-synthesizing
system; d) disjunctive type of reproduction; e) the presence of a nucleoid.
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2. The material intended for virological research must first be: a) treated
with an alkali solution; b) treat with antibiotics; c) warm up at a temperature
of 80 °C for 20 minutes; d) centrifuge.
3. The following phenomena are used to indicate viruses in cell culture: a)
hemadsorption phenomenon; b) the phenomenon of interference; c) Salk test; d) plaque
formation; e) the phenomenon of diffraction.
4. The following phenomena are used to indicate viruses in chicken
embryos: a) death of the embryo; b) the phenomenon of interference; c) Salk
test; d) plaque formation; e) change of shells.
5. The haemadsorption reaction is used to:
a) detect the virus in the chick embryo; b)
detection of the virus in cell culture; c) virus
identification; d) serodiagnosis of viral diseases.
6. Respiratory infections can be caused by the following viruses:
a) paramyxoviruses; b) adenoviruses; c) rotaviruses; d) arboviruses; e)
picornaviruses e) coronaviruses.
7. To identify viruses, you can use: a) RTGA; b) Salk
color sample; c) RSC; d) RIT; e) RN.
8. Viral gastroenteritis can be caused by representatives of the following
families: a) paramyxoviruses; b) adenoviruses; c) rotaviruses; d) arboviruses;
e) rhinoviruses;
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e) coronaviruses.
9. Microscopy should be used to record the results of the
following serological reactions: a) ELISA; b) RNCPD; c) RTGA;
d) RSK; e) RIF; e) RA.
10. The following viruses are resistant to ether: a) RNAcontaining; b) having a supercapsid; c) DNA-containing; d) do
not have a supercapsid.
11. There are the following types of interaction of viruses with a
cell: a) dejunctive; b) productive; c) abortive; d) integrative.
12. A productive type of interaction between a virus and a cell is
characterized by: a) interruption of the infectious process in the cell at a certain
stage; b) integration of viral DNA in the form of a pravirus into the cell chromosome
and coexistence; c) formation of a new generation of virions.
13. The integrative type of interaction between a virus and a cell is
characterized by: a) interruption of the infectious process in the cell at a certain
stage; b) integration of viral DNA in the form of a pravirus into the cell chromosome
and coexistence; c) formation of a new generation of virions.
14. The abortive type of interaction between a virus and a cell is
characterized by: a) interruption of the infectious process in the cell at a
certain stage; b) integration of viral DNA in the form of a pravirus into the cell
chromosome and coexistence; c) formation of a new generation of virions.
15. A symplast is: a) a giant
multinucleated cell; b) a set of
erythrocytes adsorbed on the surface of a cell affected by a virus; c) viral inclusions in
the cell; d) sponge-like accumulations of nervous tissue that have arisen under the
influence of prions.
16. If, during the Salk color test, the color of the nutrient medium in the
test tube changes from red to yellow, this indicates: a) the absence of the
virus;
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b) absence of pathogenic bacteria; c)
the presence of pathogenic bacteria; e)
the presence of a virus.
17. Peplos is called: a)
nucleocapsid; b)
supercapsid; c) capsomer;
d) virion.
18. Simply arranged viruses are characterized by the
presence of: a) a capsid; b) supercapsid; c) capsomeres; d) ash
meters.
19. Complex viruses are characterized by the presence
of: a) capsid; b) supercapsid; c) capsomeres; d) ash meters.
20. The capsid consists of morphological subunits, which are: a)
polypeptides; b) capsomeres; c) polysaccharides; d) ash meters.
21. The phenomenon of interference is used to detect: a)
viruses that do not give a distinct cytopathic effect; b) viruses
with distinct manifestations of cytopathic action; c) vesicular somatitis
virus; d) DNA-containing viruses.
22. To the main taxonomic categories used in virology,
relate:
a) families b)
tribes; c)
childbirth; d)
subfamilies; e)
departments.
23. The classification of viruses is based on the following categories:
a) type of nucleic acid; b) size and morphology of virions; c) tinctorial
properties; d) the presence of a supercapsid; e) antigenic properties.
24. The main types of cell cultures are: a) primary;
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b) secondary;
c) semi-permanent;
d) transplanted.
25. Human leukocyte interferon is used for: a) diagnosis of viral
infections; b) determining the level of natural resistance in RNGA;
c) treatment and emergency prevention of viral infections.
26. Influenza virus belongs to the family: a)
orthomyxoviruses; b) rhabdoviruses; c)
retroviruses; d) adenoviruses.
27. Polyvalent influenza serum is used for: a) emergency
prophylaxis; b) serodiagnosis; c) express diagnostics; d) treatment.
28. Live antiviral vaccine is used for: a) prophylaxis; b)
serodiagnosis; c) express diagnostics; d) treatment.
29. The family Orthomixoviridae includes the following generic taxa: a)
Influenza; b) Pneumovirus; c) Enterovirus; d) Rhinovirus; e) Rotavirus.
30. All members of the Orthomixoviridae family are: a)
complex viruses; b) (-) RNA viruses; c) do not have a non-human
reservoir; d) pathogens of acute respiratory infections; e) have a
nucleocapsid of helical symmetry.
31. Influenza viruses A, B, C differ in the following ways: a) ecology;
b) the scale of antigenic variability; c) the structure of the virion; d)
spectrum of virion enzymes; e) degree of "epidemicity".
32. Spikes of orthomyxoviruses are: a) matrix
protein; b) polysaccharide;
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c) hemagglutinin;
d) nucleoprotein;
e) neuraminidase.
33. Proteins (glycoproteins) of the supercapsid of orthomyxoviruses
are: a) neuraminidase; b) matrix protein; c) hemagglutinin; d) nucleoprotein;
e) RNA polymerase complex.
34. Nucleocapsid proteins of orthomyxoviruses are: a)
nucleoprotein; b) M-protein; c) hemagglutinin; d)
neuraminidase; e) enzymes of the RNA polymerase
complex.
35. The genome of orthomyxoviruses is
characterized by: a) fragmentation; b) high
mutability; c) (-) RNA; d) transcription / replication
in the cytoplasm; e) DNA.
36. Replication of orthomyxoviruses is initiated
by: a) protease; b) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase;
c) reverse transcriptase; d) neuraminidase; e)
endonuclease.
37. Hemagglutinin of orthomyxoviruses:
a) initiates the interaction of the virus with the
cell; b) acquires activity after limited proteolysis; c) is a
confluence factor; d) is a protective antigen; e) is
characterized by epiotropic conservatism; f) present in all
types (species) of the genus Influenza.
38. Neuraminidase of orthomyxoviruses:
a) is a protective antigen; b) ensures the
reception of virions; c) is a distribution
factor; d) differs in epiotropic variability;
e) present in all types (species) of the genus
Influenza.
39. Antigens that determine strain variants of the influenza A virus include
To:
a) nucleoprotein;
b) neuraminidase;
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c) enzymes of the RNA polymerase complex; d)
hemagglutinin; e) M-protein.
40. Antigenic shift of influenza viruses: a)
characteristic only for type A; b) has an
ecological determination; c) accompanied by
a change in the subtypes of the surface proteins of the virion; d) contributes
to the emergence of pandemic strains; e) accompanied by a change in the
antigenic (epiotropic) profile of nucleocapsid proteins; e) has a genetic determination.
41. Modern subtypes of human influenza A virus are: a) H2N2; b) H3N2; c)
H5N1; d) H3N3; e) HN1.
42. Specify the life cycle stage of the influenza A virus that is sensitive to
adamantane derivatives (rimantadine, etc.): a) virion reception; b) penetration of the
virion into the cell; c) intraendosomal "undressing" of the virion; d) transport of the
nucleocapsid into the nucleus; e) transcription and replication of viral RNA; f) assembly
of virions (at the stage of "budding").
43. For serodiagnosis of influenza infection, the following is used:
a) complement fixation test; b) precipitation; c) immunoblotting; d)
hemagglutination inhibition reaction; e) reaction of indirect hemagglutination.
44. Specify the properties of influenza viruses that determine the difficulties in
obtaining a reliable influenza vaccine: a) the absence of protective antigens; b)
antigenic differences between vaccine and epidemic strains; c) typical heterogeneity; d)
shift options; e) drift options.
45. The cause of epidemics can be influenza viruses: a)
type A; b) type B; c) types A and C.
46. The genome of the influenza A virus is
represented by: a) 8 fragments of a single-stranded linear "minus-stranded" RNA molecule;
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b) double-stranded DNA with a single-stranded
region; c) fragments of single-stranded linear “minus-stranded”
RNA; d) unfragmented single-stranded linear "plus-stranded" RNA molecule.
47. Reproduction of the influenza virus
occurs: a) in the epithelial cells of the respiratory
tract; b) in the cells of the lymph nodes of the respiratory
tract; c) in macrophages of lymph nodes; d) in erythrocytes.
48. The following can be used to treat
influenza: a) rimantadine; b) penicillin; c)
interferon; d) anti-influenza gamma globulin; e)
inactivated influenza vaccine.
49. Specify the generic taxa of the family Paramyxoviridae:
a) Rotavirus; b) Paramyxovirus; c) Rubulavirus; d) Rhinovirus;
e) Morbillivirus; e) Pneumovirus.
50. Select the provisions that are valid for paramyxoviruses: a)
the probability of shift variations; b) antigenic (epiotropic) conservatism;
c) ability to symplast formation; d) ecological heterogeneity; e) universal
tendency to persistence.
51. Specify the features by which paramyxoviruses differ from
orthomyxoviruses: a) genome structure; b) the mechanism and conditions
for "undressing" the nucleocapsid; c) intracellular localization of the viroplast;
d) antigenic variability; e) the principle of the virion structure.
52. Select the provisions that are valid for the genome of paramyxoviruses:
a) (+) RNA; b) (-) RNA; c) segmentation; d) propensity for drift variations; e)
tendency to shift-variations.
53. Specify the functions that are universal for supercapsid proteins of
all paramyxoviruses: a) hemagglutination activity; b) neuraminidase activity;
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c) interaction with cell receptors; d) protective
immunogenicity; e) fusion with the plasma
membrane.
54. List the virion enzymes of paramyxoviruses: a) protease;
b) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; c) reverse transcriptase;
d) neuraminidase; e) DNA polymerase; f) integrase.
55. Specify the virion enzyme providing the start of transcription and
replication of the genome of paramyxoviruses: a) restriction enzyme; b) RNAdependent RNA polymerase; c) DNA polymerase; d) reverse transcriptase; e)
integrase.
56. Serological heterogeneity of paramyxoviruses: a) is
a reflection of shift variations; b) is the result of drift
variations; c) fixed in stable (conservative) immunotypes; d)
manifests itself at the level of supercapsid proteins; e) has
pathogenetic parallels.
57. For early prevention of measles use: a) live measles
vaccine; b) killed measles vaccine; c) anti-measles gamma
globulin.
58. The measles virus
is: a) DNA-containing; b)
RNA-containing; c)
paramyxovirus.
59. Measles virus causes: a)
sclerotic encephalitis; b) acute
encephalitis; c) herpetic eruptions
on the surface of the skin.
60. Rhinoviruses cause in humans: a)
contagious rhinitis; b) gastroenteritis; c)
encephalomeningitis.
61. Adenoviruses can cause: a)
conjunctivitis; b) SARS; c) hepatitis;
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d) encephalitis;
e) gastroenteritis.
62. Of the listed viral infections, zoonoses include: a) poliomyelitis;
b) tick-borne encephalitis; c) parotitis; d) hepatitis A; e) rabies e) hepatitis
B.
63. Of the listed viral infections, anthroponoses include: a) poliomyelitis;
b) tick-borne encephalitis; c) parotitis; d) hepatitis A; e) rabies; e) hepatitis B.
64. Viruses, the causative agents of the following diseases, have a tropism for the nervous
fabrics:
a) poliomyelitis;
b) tick-borne encephalitis;
c) parotitis; d) hepatitis
A; e) rabies; e) hepatitis
B.
65. Of the listed viral infections, the transmissible mechanism of transmission is
typical for: a) measles; b) tick-borne encephalitis; c) mumps; d) hepatitis A; e) rabies;
e) AIDS.
66. Specify the provisions that are valid for human adenoviruses: a)
serological (antigenic) heterogeneity; b) pathogenetic heterogeneity; c)
universal capacity for persistence; d) universal oncogenicity (for animals);
e) tendency to shift and drift mutations.
67. Persistence of adenoviruses is characterized by the following
features: a) universal property of all adenoviruses; b) associated with
lymphoid tissue (lymphocytes); c) supported by anti-apoptotic factors of
adenoviruses; d) associated with the antigenic variability of adenoviruses
(selection of immunoresistant / "escaping" mutants); e) is supported by the
active anti-immune strategy of adenoviruses.
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68. Specify the provisions that are fair for the pathogenicity of adenoviruses in
respect
person:
a) "oncogenicity";
b) "polyetiology"; c)
pathogens of acute respiratory diseases; d) causative
agents of conjunctivitis; e) pathogens of acute
intestinal diseases; e) causative agents of hepatitis;
g) pathogens of infectious mononucleosis.
69. The genome of adenoviruses is
represented by: a) one single-stranded linear "minus-stranded" RNA
molecule; b) double-stranded linear DNA; c) 8 fragments of singlestranded linear “minus-stranded” RNA.
70. Indicate the provisions that are valid for the adenoviral genome:
a) DNA; b) retroRNA; c) (-) RNA; d) gene clustering (according to
functional characteristics); e) the presence of a terminal ("seed") protein.
71. List the provisions common to enteroviruses: a)
entry gates of infection; b) zones of primary reproduction; c)
pathogenetically significant viremia; d) identity of
pathogenetically significant targets; e) a high percentage of
asymptomatic infections; f) antigenic conservatism; g)
stability in the external environment.
72. Enteroviruses belong to the genus:
a) rhinoviruses; b) ECHO viruses; c)
poliomyelitis virus; d) hepatitis A virus; e)
rotaviruses; e) hepatitis B virus; g) measles
virus; h) Coxsackie viruses.
73. Picornaviruses are characterized by the following
features: a) cubic (icosahedral) type of symmetry; b) (+) RNA;
c) replication in the cytoplasm; d) cytolysis of target cells; e) high
antigenic variability.
74. The causative agents of picornavirus zoonotic infection belong to the following taxa:
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ÿ) Enterovirus;
ÿ) Cardiovirus;
ÿ) Aphthovirus;
ÿ) Rhinovirus;
ÿ) Rotavirus; ÿ)
Hepatovirus.
75. Picornaviral anthroponoses are: a) enteroviral
poliomyelitis; b) enteroviral meningitis; c) enteroviral
myocarditis; d) foot and mouth disease; e) rhinovirus
rhinitis; e) hepatitis A.
76. Specify picornaviruses excreted with faeces: a)
Coxsackieviruses; b) polioviruses; c) ECHO viruses; d)
aphthoviruses; e) rhinoviruses; e) hepatitis A virus.
77. List the picornaviruses represented by the largest number of serotypes: a) polioviruses;
b) ECHO viruses; c) rhinoviruses; d) Coxsackieviruses; e) hepatitis A virus.
78. Specify the zones of the most intensive primary reproduction of enteroviruses: a)
tonsils; b) enterocytes; c) Peyrov's patches; d) epitheliocytes of the oral cavity; e) respiratory
epithelium; e) regional lymph nodes.
79. Select enteroviruses with maximum polytropism: a) polioviruses;
b) ECHO viruses; c) Coxsackieviruses; d) rhinoviruses; e) aphthoviruses.
e) hepatitis A virus.
80. Specify the provisions that are valid for Coxsackie- and ECHO-viruses: a)
belong to the genus Enterovirus; b) belong to the Picornaviridae family; c) include
more than 100 serotypes; d) pathogenetic unequalness of individual serotypes;
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e) pathogenetically significant polyotropism; e)
type-specific immunity.
81. Polioviruses infect: a)
neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal
cord; b) neurons of the medulla oblongata;
c) forebrain neurons.
82. According to antigenic properties, poliomyelitis viruses are divided
into: a) 4 serovars; b) 3 serovars; c) 7 serovars.
83. From enteroviral infections, specific prophylaxis is currently developed
for diseases caused by: a) Coxsackie viruses; b) polyviruses of groups 1–3; c)
hepatitis viruses; d) ECHO viruses.
84. Sebin oral poliomyelitis vaccine contains: a) inactivated
poliomyelitis viruses; b) inactivated rabies viruses; c) attenuated
strains of poliomyelitis viruses; d) attenuated strains of rabies
viruses; e) antibodies against poliomyelitis viruses; e) antibodies
against rabies viruses.
85. Sebin oral poliomyelitis vaccine is used for: a) emergency specific
prophylaxis; b) early specific prevention; c) early non-specific prophylaxis;
d) treatment.
86. Zones of primary replication of polioviruses are: a)
lymphoid tissue of the oropharynx; b) enterocytes; c) lymphoid
tissue associated with the small intestine; d) epitheliocytes of
the oral cavity; e) CNS neurons; e) regional lymph nodes.
87. To identify polioviruses using the neutralization reaction of the Salk
color test, you must have: a) paired patient sera; b) diagnostic sera against
polioviruses; c) diagnosticum; d) reference strains of poliomyelitis viruses; e)
culture of HeLa cells; f) virus-containing material in a working dose; g) stool of
the patient.
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88. Poliomyelitis virus genome is represented
by: a) single-stranded “plus-stranded” RNA; b)
double-stranded linear DNA; c) double-stranded
circular DNA with a single-stranded region.
89. For serodiagnosis of poliomyelitis using the CPP neutralization reaction, it is
necessary to have: a) paired patient sera; b) diagnostic sera against polioviruses; c)
diagnosticum; d) reference strains of poliomyelitis viruses; e) culture of HeLa cells; f)
suspension of goose erythrocytes.
90. Dry diagnostic rabbit serum ECHO 15 contains: a) antibodies against
the virus; b) live virus; c) an inactivated virus.
91. A patient with hepatitis A excretes the virus with feces starting: a)
from the moment of jaundice; b) from 2 weeks of illness; c) from the last week
of the incubation period; d) from the first day after infection.
92. In case of viral hepatitis B, the incubation period is: a) 50-180
days; b) 7–14 days; c) 15–45 days.
93. In case of viral hepatitis A, the incubation period is: a) 50–180
days; b) 7–14 days; c) 15–45 days.
94. Hepatitis A virus genome is represented
by: a) single-stranded “plus-stranded” RNA; b)
double-stranded linear DNA; c) double-stranded
circular DNA with a single-stranded region.
95. Detection of anti-HBs antibodies in blood serum in the absence of HBs
antigen and anti-HBs antibodies indicates : a) chronic hepatitis B; b) carriage of
hepatitis B virus; c) acute hepatitis B; d) acute hepatitis A; e) carriage of hepatitis A
virus; e) previously transferred hepatitis B; g) previously transferred hepatitis A.
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96. Detection of HBs and HBe antigens and anti-HBc antibodies in blood serum
(IgM) in the absence of anti-HBs antibodies indicates : a)
chronic hepatitis B; b) carriage of hepatitis B virus; c) acute hepatitis
B; d) acute hepatitis A; e) carriage of the hepatitis A virus.
97. Detection of HBs antigen in blood serum in the absence of antiHBs and antiHBc
antibodies indicates : a) chronic hepatitis B; b) carriage of hepatitis B virus; c) acute
hepatitis B; d) acute hepatitis A; e) carriage of the hepatitis A virus.
98. Hepatitis B is characterized
by: a) the transition of an acute form into a
chronic one; b) the presence of a more severe clinical picture than with
hepatitis A; c) parenteral route of transmission.
99. For hepatitis A serodiagnosis, the following are
used: a) agglutination test; b) precipitation reaction (VIEF);
c) RSC; d) RNGA; e) RIF; e) ELISA.
100. Hepatitis B is transmitted in the following
ways: a) parenteral; b) sexual; c) food; d) transmissive;
e) water.
101. For hepatitis B serodiagnosis, the following are
used: a) RTGA; b) precipitation reaction (VIEF); c)
flocculation reaction; d) RNGA; e) RIF; e) ELISA.
102. Hepatitis B virus genome is represented
by: a) single-stranded “plus-stranded” RNA; b)
double-stranded linear RNA; c) double-stranded
circular DNA with a single-stranded region.
103. Hepatitis viruses belong to the following families: a)
Hepadnaviridae;
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ÿ) Flaviviridae;
ÿ) Caliciviridae;
ÿ) Picornaviridae;
ÿ) Adenoviridae;
ÿ) Orthomyxoviridae;
ÿ) Herpesviridae.
104. Specify "parenteral" hepatitis viruses: a) hepatitis
B virus (HBV); b) hepatitis C virus (HCV); c) hepatitis A
virus (HVA); d) hepatitis E virus (HVE); e) hepatitis D virus
(HBD).
105. Specify hepatitis viruses with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
(“intestinal” viruses): a) hepatitis B virus (HBV); b) hepatitis C virus (HCV); c) hepatitis
A virus (HVA); d) hepatitis E virus (HVE); e) hepatitis D virus (HBD).
106. The genus Hepatovirus of the picornavirus family
includes: a) hepatitis B virus; b) hepatitis C virus; c) hepatitis D
virus; d) hepatitis A virus; e) hepatitis E virus.
107. Choose a defective hepatitis virus: a)
hepatitis B virus; b) hepatitis C virus; c) hepatitis
D virus; d) hepatitis A virus; e) hepatitis E virus.
108. Specify the general signs of viral hepatitis: a)
anthroponosis; b) zoonoses; c) fecal-oral transmission
mechanism; d) vertical transmission mechanism; e)
persistence of the pathogen.
109. Persistence is characteristic of the following hepatotropic viruses: a)
hepatitis B virus; b) hepatitis C virus; c) hepatitis D virus; d) hepatitis A virus; e)
hepatitis E virus.
110. Vaccination has been developed for the following viral hepatitis:
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a) HBV;
b) NBA;
c) NVS;
d) HBD;
e) NEE.
111. Hepatitis A virus: a)
belongs to the Hepadnaviridae family; b)
belongs to the Picornaviridae family; c)
belongs to the Flaviviridae family; d) belongs
to the genus Hepatovirus; e) belongs to the
genus Enterovirus.
112. Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis A virus genome: a)
(-) RNA; b) (+) RNA; c) defective DNA; d) retroRNA; e) segmentation.
113. Specify the provisions that are valid for viral hepatitis A: a)
persistent post-infection immunity; b) type-specific immunity; c) tendency to
chronicity; d) prolonged viremia; e) "virological recovery".
114. List the characteristics of a modern HAV vaccine: a) live
attenuated virus; b) killed virus; c) recombinant HAV antigen; d) polytype
vaccine; e) DNA vaccine.
115. Hepatitis B virus belongs to the following family: a)
retroviruses; b) hepadnaviruses; c) picornaviruses; d)
orthomyxoviruses; e) poxviruses.
116. Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis B virus :
a) simple (non-enveloped virus); b) RNA virus; c) tendency to shift and
drift mutations; d) tendency to persistence; e) reproduces well in cell
cultures.
117. Name the structural (virion) components of hepatitis B virus : a) HBs; b)
HBs;
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c) HBe;
d) Hbpol;
e) HBx.
118. Specify the components of the HBV-virion core: a)
HBs; b) HBs; c) HBe; d) HBpol; e) Dane particles.
119. HBs-antigen of hepatitis B virus :
a) is a component of the core of the virus; b)
contains protective B-epitopes common to all HBV strains; c) performs the
functions of a virion receptor; d) is a universal indicator of HBV infection; e)
can circulate in the form of free (not associated with virions) aggregates.
120. HBe-antigen of hepatitis B virus has the following properties: a) is formed
as a result of proteolysis of HBs-antigen; b) is formed as a result of proteolysis of
the HBc antigen; c) structural (virion) protein; d) serological marker of integrative
HBV infection; e) indicator of replicative HBV infection.
121. Specify the factors contributing to the wide spread of HBV infection: a)
asymptomatic (low-symptomatic) viremia; b) high sensitivity to the virus; c) the presence
of epidemically significant concentrations of the virus in external secretions; d) multiple
ways of transmission; e) the existence of "extrahuman" reservoirs of infection; f)
resistance of the virus in the external environment.
122. Modern specific prevention of viral hepatitis B is based on the use of the following
drugs: a) live vaccine; b) a killed vaccine; c) recombinant HBs antigen; d) donor HBs antigen;
e) DNA vaccine.
123. List the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis D virus: a) a
defective virus; b) helper virus; c) RNA virus; d) replicates only in the presence
of HBV; e) uses the HBs antigen to build a supercapsid; e) enhances the
aggressiveness of HBV.
124. Specify the provisions that are valid for the hepatitis C virus:
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a) (+) RNA virus;
b) complex (enveloped) virus; c)
genotypic heterogeneity; d)
tendency to persistence; e) ability
to integrative virogeny; f) high antigenic
variability.
125. Select the mechanisms contributing to the persistence of the hepatitis
C virus: a) high antigenic variability of the virus; b) selection of immunoresistant
clones; c) integrative virogeny; d) the existence of extrahepatic reservoirs of
infection; e) active anti-immune strategy.
126. After tick-borne encephalitis, the following
forms: a) short type-specific immunity due to IgG; b) lifelong immunity due to
IgG; c) lifelong immunity due to IgM.
127. Arbovirus infections include: a)
poliomyelitis; b) sclerosing panencephalitis; c)
tick-borne encephalitis; d) hemorrhagic fevers;
d) rage.
128. To prevent infection with tick-borne encephalitis, it is sufficient to do the
following: a) removal of the ixodid tick; b) introduction of inactivated adsorbed serum;
c) treatment of the penetration site with iodine.
129. Tick-borne encephalitis virus refers to: a)
flaviviruses; b) picornaviruses; c) retroviruses.
130. Common to pathogens of arbovirus infections is: a) the
genome is represented by RNA; b) the genome is represented by
DNA; c) airborne transmission; d) transmissible way of transmission;
e) natural foci.
131. In terms of practical medicine, for the diagnosis of tick-borne
encephalitis, as a rule, the following is used: a) virological method; b)
viroscopy method; c) serodiagnosis.
132. Infection with arbovirus infections occurs when:
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a) an arthropod bite; b)
an animal bite; c) contact
with the skin of the saliva of a sick animal; d) caring
for sick animals.
133. Of the listed viruses, the following viruses do not have
serovars: a) hepatitis B; b) adenoviruses; c) ECHO; d) poliomyelitis;
e) Coxsackie; e) measles.
134. Babes-Negri bodies are specific cytoplasmic inclusions that can be found in
the cells of: a) liver; b) the hippocampus; c) epithelium of the nasal passages; d)
kidneys.
135. Babesh-Negri bodies can be found in cells infected with the virus: a)
measles; b) hepatitis B; c) rabies; d) tick-borne encephalitis.
136. Rabies is transmitted:
a) transmissibly; b) contact;
c) fecal-oral.
137. One of the first signs of rabies is: a) paralysis of
mimic muscles; b) general malaise, irritability, insomnia;
c) increased salivation.
138. The rabies virus has a tropism: a) to the
intestinal epithelium; b) to the nervous tissue; c)
to the nervous tissue and tissue of the salivary
glands.
139. Preparations used for specific prevention of rabies: a) killed whole-virion
vaccine; b) live attenuated vaccine; c) subunit vaccine; d) DNA vaccine; e) specific
immunoglobulin.
140. Anti-rabies cultural vaccine contains: a) inactivated
poliomyelitis viruses; b) inactivated rabies viruses;
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c) attenuated strains of poliomyelitis viruses; d)
attenuated strains of rabies viruses; e) antibodies
against poliomyelitis viruses; e) antibodies against
rabies viruses.
141. Rabies virus belongs to the following taxa (family, genus): a)
Reoviridae; b) Rhabdoviridae; c) Retroviridae; d) Lyssavirus; e) Adenoviridae;
f) Poxviridae; g) Paramyxoviridae.
142. Specify the provisions that are valid for the rabies virus:
a) the presence of a supercapsid; b) viremia; c) intraaxonal
transport; d) antigenic variability; e) neurotropism; f) asymptomatic
wildlife reservoir.
143. The absence of antibodies to the causative
agent of AIDS: a) always indicates the absence of
infection; b) naturally for the seronegative period of
infection; c) observed in the terminal stage of AIDS.
144. HIV has tropism for: a)
macrophages; b) hepatocytes; c)
T-lymphocytes; d) alveocytes; e)
B-lymphocytes; e) neutrophils.
145. Specify the family of viruses to which HIV belongs: a)
Picornaviridae; b) Paramixoviridae; c) Herpesviridae; d) Retroviridae;
e) Orthomixoviridae.
146. Select the provisions that are valid for the HIV
genome: a) (+) RNA; b) (-) RNA; c) DNA; d) retro-RNA; e)
diploidy; e) fragmentation.
147. Biological substrates containing
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epidemically significant concentration of HIV are: a)
saliva; b) lacrimal fluid; c) blood; d) urine; e) cervical secret;
e) sperm; g) breast milk.
148. Specify the main pathogenetically significant target for HIV: a)
macrophages; b) dendritic cells; c) CD 8 T-lymphocytes; d) CD 4 Tlymphocytes; e) B-lymphocytes; e) plasma cells.
149. Select a virion enzyme that triggers HIV infection: a) reverse
transcriptase; b) RNase; c) integrase; d) protease; e) RNA-dependent
RNA polymerase.
150. Specify the virion enzyme that completes HIV replication: a)
reverse transcriptase; b) RNase; c) integrase; d) protease; e) RNAdependent RNA polymerase.
151. Targets for HIV protease are: a) regulatory
(non-structural) HIV peptides; b) virion proteins;
c) precursors of virion proteins; d) precursors of
regulatory HIV peptides; e) host cell proteins.
152. Specify the cells supporting HIV persistence: a)
macrophages; b) neutrophils; c) CD 8 T-lymphocytes; d) CD 4 Tlymphocytes; e) B-lymphocytes.
153. Specify the provisions that are valid for the acute phase of HIV
infection: a) clinical specifics; b) mandatory seropositivity (anti-HIV antibodies);
c) drop in the ratio between CD4 and CD8 T-lymphocytes (CD4 / CD8 ratio); d)
high level of HIV viremia;
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e) fast (weeks) self-stopping.
154. Select the provisions that are valid for the latent (chronic) phase of HIV
infection: a) absence of clinical symptoms; b) seropositivity (anti-HIV antibodies);
c) high level of HIV viremia; d) progressive decrease in the number of CD4 Tlymphocytes; e) self-stopping; e) clinically significant immunodeficiency.
155. Specify serological markers that can be used in the diagnosis of HIV
infection: a) HIV antibodies; b) HIV-RNA; c) HIV provirus; d) HIV antigens; e)
CD4.
156. Vaccine prophylaxis is used for the following
paramyxovirus infections: a) mumps; b) RSV infection; c)
measles; d) parainfluenza infection; e) all of the above.
157. Specify the features that unite viruses of the Herpesviridae family: a)
the structure and morphology of the virion; b) DNA homology; c) antigenic
relationship; d) community of natural reservoirs; e) the presence of reverse
transcriptase; f) tendency to persistence.
158. List the provisions that are fair for herpesvirus infections
person:
a) anthroponosis;
b) have a limited distribution; c) may be
epidemic in nature; d) usually end in
clinical recovery; e) usually end with "virological
recovery".
159. Specify the most likely outcome of infection with most
herpesviruses: a) clinically significant infection; b) asymptomatic
infection; c) rapid elimination of the virus from the body; d) latent
persistence; e) aggressive persistence.
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160. List the mechanisms that ensure the persistence of herpesviruses: a)
integrative virogeny; b) non-integrative virogeny; c) limited expression of the viral
genome; d) self-regulation of viral genome expression; e) reverse transcription.
161. Choose virus-specific targets for modern antiherpetic
drugs: a) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; b) DNA-dependent
RNA polymerase; c) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse
transcriptase); d) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (DNA
polymerase); e) mRNA camping enzymes.
162. Specify the provisions that are valid for the genome of
herpesviruses: a) defective DNA; b) phasic transcription; c) high (for
viruses) genetic capacity; d) relative autonomy (transcription/replication)
from the host cell; e) a high degree of homology for different
herpesviruses.
163. Signs characteristic of the cytopathic effect of most herpesviruses are:
a) intranuclear inclusions; b) cytoplasmic inclusions; c) apoptosis; d) symplast
formation; e) formation of multinuclear cells with intranuclear inclusions.
164. Specify the pathogenetically significant mechanisms of herpesvirus
infections: a) latent persistence; b) aggressive persistence; c) the formation of
symplasts; d) reactivation; e) high antigenic variability of endogenous (persistent)
viruses; e) virus-induced immunodeficiency.
165. B-lymphotropic human herpesvirus is: a) herpes
simplex virus, type 1; b) herpes simplex virus, type 2; c)
varicella-zoster virus / herpes zoster; d) cytomegalovirus; e)
Epstein-Barr virus.
166. Epitheliotropic human herpesviruses are: a) Epstein-Barr
virus; b) herpes simplex viruses; c) herpesvirus-8; d)
cytomegalovirus;
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e) chickenpox virus / herpes zoster.
167. Name the causative agent of "classic" infectious mononucleosis: a)
herpesvirus, type 6; b) herpesvirus, type 7; c) herpesvirus, type 8; d) herpes
simplex viruses; e) cytomegalovirus; f) Epstein-Barr virus; g) VZ virus.
168. Specify the provisions that are valid for primary infection with the herpes
simplex virus of the first type: a) occurs in early childhood; b) occurs during sexual
intercourse; c) ends with the elimination of the virus; d) may have clinical manifestations;
e) ends with viral persistence.
169. Name the reservoir of persistent infection of herpes simplex virus of the
first type: a) neurons of trigeminal ganglia; b) neurons of the lumbar ganglia; c)
neurons of the central nervous system; d) epithelial cells of the oral mucosa; e)
epitheliocytes of the mucous membrane of the genital tract.
170. Reactivation of the herpes simplex virus of the first type is
characterized by the following manifestations: a) relapses of ophthalmic
herpes; b) relapses of herpes zoster; c) relapses of genital herpes; d) herpes of
newborns; e) relapses of labial herpes; e) damage to the central nervous system.
171. For persistent infection associated with the varicella-zoster virus, the
following provisions are true: a) formation after an asymptomatic infection;
b) formation after a clinically significant infection; c) localization in the spinal
ganglia; d) localization in the ganglia of the trigeminal and facial nerves; e) basis
for relapses of genital herpes; f) the basis for relapses of herpes zoster.
172. Sensitive ganglia serve as a zone of persistence for the following
herpesviruses: a) Epstein-Barr virus; b) herpes simplex viruses; c)
cytomegalovirus; d) herpesviruses-6.7;
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e) chickenpox virus / herpes zoster.
173. Specify herpesviruses associated with malignant tumors
person:
a) herpes simplex viruses;
b) cytomegalovirus; c)
Epstein-Barr virus; d) VZ
virus; e) herpesvirus, type 8.
174. Choose a pathogenetically significant manifestation of reactivation of
endogenous cytomegalovirus infection: a) viremia in pregnant women; b) herpes
zoster; c) ophthalmic herpes; d) genital herpes; e) opportunistic infections (patients with
immunodeficiency).
175. The family Herpesviridae includes the following subfamilies:
a) Alphaherpesvirinae; b) Betaherpesvirinae; c) Gammaherpesvirinae;
d) Deltaherpesvirinae
1 SECTION
1. To the factors affecting the balanced growth of bacteria,
include:
a) oxygen pressure; b)
content of inorganic ions; c) partial
pressure of carbon dioxide; d) the nature of the
organic compounds present in the reserve.
2. Conditions that stimulate capsule formation in bacteria,
are:
a) the growth of bacteria in the human or animal body;
b) growth on synthetic media; c) cultivation at low
temperatures; d) growth on media containing a large
amount of carbohydrates. 3. The polysaccharide capsule
provides: a) virulence; b) resistance to phagocytosis;
c) resistance to antibiotics.
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4. Mobility of bacteria is ensured by: a)
rotation of the flagella; b) fimbria; (drank) c)
contraction of the cell wall; d) saws. 5. To
determine the mobility of bacteria, the
following methods can be used: a)
Morozov's method of silvering; b) hanging drop method;
c) sowing according to
Shukevich; d)
Weinberg's method. 6. The main functions of bacterial spores
are: a) provides adhesiveness; b) protection from adverse
environmental factors; c) participates in the transfer of genetic
material; d) the formation of enzymes.
7. The following methods are used to identify disputes:
a) the Gram method;
b) Ziehl-Neelsen method;
c) Neisser method;
d) Ozheshka
method; e) Burri-Gins
method. 8. The following methods are used to detect volutin
inclusions:
a) the Gram
method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen
method; c) Neisser
method; d) Ozheshka
method; e) Burri-Gins
method. 9. The following methods are used to identify the cell wall: a)
the Gram method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser method
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d) Ozheshka
method; e) Burri-Gins
method. 10. The following methods are used to detect
capsules: a) Gram method; b) Ziehl-Neelsen method; c) Neisser
method; d) Ozheshka method; e) Burri-Gins method.
11. During sporulation, dipicalic acid is synthesized. It can be found:
a) in vegetative cells; b) in the spore protoplast; c) in the spore shell; d) in
the nucleoid of the cell. 12. The conditions conducive to spore formation
are: a) lack of nutrients in the environment; b) accumulation of metabolic
products; c) accumulation of reserve substances inside the cells;
d) adding glucose to the nutrient medium.
13. Pigments of bacteria perform the following functions: a)
protection from light; b) performing a catalytic function; c)
protection from the action of infrared rays; d) determines the
antigenic structure. 14. The cell wall of bacteria performs the
following functions: a) transport of substances; b) performs a
catalytic function; c) protects from external influences; d) determines
the antigenic structure. 15. Fimbria carry out the following functions:
a) promote the attachment of bacteria to animal and human cells;
b) participation in the transfer of genetic material;
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c) locomotor function. 16.
Pili perform the following functions: 1)
provide adhesiveness; 2) participate in the
transfer of genetic material; 3) adsorb
bacteriophages. a) 1, 2 are correct; b) 2, 3 are
correct; c) 1, 2, 3 are correct.
17. The following features distinguish a bacterial cell from a eukaryotic
cell:
1) the absence of the endoplasmic reticulum;
2) absence of a nuclear membrane; 3) the
presence of a cytoplasmic membrane; 4)
connection of enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation with the plasma membrane.
a) 1, 2, 4 are correct; b) 2, 3, 4 are correct; c) 1, 3, 4 are correct.
18. The main functions of the cytoplasmic membrane
are:
1) regulation of transport of metabolites and ions; 2)
the formation of enzymes; 3) the formation of toxins;
4) participation in the synthesis of cell wall
components; 5) participation in spore formation; 6)
controlling the metabolism between the cell and the
environment; 7) control of exchange between organelles and
cytoplasm. a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 are correct; b) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 are correct; c) 1,
2, 3, 4, 7 are correct; d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are correct. 19. During the
germination of spores, the following physiological
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processes:
a) the water content increases; b)
enzymatic processes are activated; c) energy
and biosynthetic processes are activated; d) dipicalic acid
accumulates. 20. The main structural elements of the cell wall
of gram-negative bacteria are: 1) teichoic acids;
2) lipopolysaccharides;
3) peptidoglycan;
4) proteins; 5)
lipids. a) 1, 3 are
correct; b) 2, 3 are
correct; c) 4, 5 are
correct. 21. The
main structural elements of the cell wall of gram-positive
bacteria are: 1) teichoic acids;
2) lipopolysaccharides;
3) proteins;
4) lipids; 5)
peptidoglycan. a) 1.5
is correct; b) 2, 3 are
correct; c) 4, 5 are
correct.
22. The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is characterized by: a) the
presence of a one-, two-layer murein sac; b) the presence of a multilayer
mureya-new bag; c) the presence of teichoic acids; d) the presence of
mesodiaminopimelic acid. 23. The cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is
characterized by:
a) the presence of one-, two-layer murein bag;
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b) the presence of teichoic
acids; c) the presence of mesodiaminopimelic acid;
d) the presence of a multilayer murei-new sac. 24.
Mandatory external structures of a bacterial cell
are:
1) flagella;
2) capsule;
3) cell wall;
4) drank;
5) cytoplasmic membrane. a) 1, 3
are correct; b) 3, 5 are correct; c) 2,
3 are correct; d) 4, 5 are correct. 25.
The internal structures required
for a bacterial cell are:
1) cytoplasm;
2) disputes;
3) nucleoid;
4) volutin grains.
a) 1, 3 are correct;
b) 2, 3 are correct;
c) 1, 4 are correct.
26. Bacterial mesosomes are involved
in: a) cell division; b) spore formation;
c) synthesis of cell wall material; d)
energy metabolism; e) secretion of
substances. 27. Ribosomes of bacterial
cells are involved in: a) protein
synthesis; b) the formation of a polysome; c) DNA
replication.
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28. Nucleoid of bacteria performs the following functions:
a) transports substances; b) performs a catalytic function; c)
protects from external influences; d) contains the bacterial cell
genome. 29. The nucleoid of a bacterial cell is characterized
by: a) the absence of a membrane; b) the presence of
chromosomes;
c) division by mitosis;
d) the absence of
histones. 30. The number of nucleoids in a bacterial cell
depends: a) on the phase of development; b) from the violation of
synchronization between the rate of cell growth and the rate of cell
division;
c) on the number of extrachromosomal DNA
molecules. 31. Carriers of genetic information in bacteria are: a) DNA
molecules; b) RNA molecules;
c) plasmids;
d) transposons.
32. To extrachromosomal factors of bacterial heredity
relate:
a) plasmids;
b) transposons;
c) IS sequences; d) nucleoid.
33. Plasmids perform the following functions: a)
regulatory; b) encoding; c) synchronizing; d)
transcription.
34. Recombination is called:
a) changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in
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hereditarily fixed change or loss of any trait;
b) the process of restoring hereditary material;
c) the process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient
cell.
35. Transformation is:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with
the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient
is cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell
by direct cell contact
36. Conjugation is called:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with
the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient
is cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell
by direct cell contact.
37. Transduction is:
a) the process of transferring genetic material from one bacteria to another with
the help of phages;
b) the process of transfer of genetic material in a dissolved state when the recipient
is cultivated on a medium with donor DNA;
c) the process of transferring genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell
by direct cell contact.
38. Reparations include:
a) changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a
hereditarily fixed change or loss of any trait;
b) the process of restoring hereditary material;
c) the process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient
cell.
39. Mutation is:
a) in changes in the primary structure of DNA, which are expressed in a
hereditarily fixed change or loss of any trait;
b) in the process of restoring hereditary material;
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c) in the process of transferring the genetic material of the donor to the recipient
cell.
40. Synthesis of enterotoxins is controlled
by: a) R-plasmid; b) F-plasmid; c) Col-plasmid;
d) Ent-plasmid.
41. Synthesis of genital villi is controlled by:
a) R-plasmid;
b) F-plasmid; c)
Col-plasmid; d)
Ent-plasmid. 42.
Synthesis of bacteriocins is controlled by:
a) R-plasmid; b) F-plasmid; c) Col-plasmid; d)
Ent-plasmid.
43. Bacterial drug resistance is determined by:
a) R-plasmid; b)
F-plasmid; c)
Col-plasmid; d)
Ent-plasmid 44.
Is-sequences are: a) nucleotide sequences,
including 2000–20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments about 1000
base pairs long; c) ring-shaped superspialized DNA molecules
containing 1,500–400,000 base pairs.
45. Transposons are: a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000–20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments
about 1000 base pairs long; c) ring-shaped
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superspialized DNA
molecules containing 1,500–
400,000 base pairs.
46. Plasmids are: a) nucleotide
sequences, including 2000-20500 base pairs; b) DNA fragments about 1000
base pairs long; c) ring-shaped supercoiled DNA molecules containing
1500-400000 base pairs. 47. The main components of nucleic acids are:
a) pentoses; b) nitrogenous bases; c) a phosphoric acid residue; d) histones.
48. In protein synthesis, the role of a matrix is
performed by: a) mRNA; b) t-RNA; c) r-RNA; d) small
RNAs.
49. DNA contains: 1) ribose;
2) deoxyribose; 3) analogues
of nitrogenous bases; 4)
phosphoric acid residue. a) 1, 2, 3
are correct; b) 2, 3, 4 are correct; c)
1, 3, 4 are correct.
50. RNA contains: 1) ribose;
2) deoxyribose; 3) analogues
of nitrogenous bases; 4)
phosphoric acid residue. a) 1, 2, 3
are correct; b) 1, 3, 4 are correct; c)
2, 4 are correct.
51. The gene is discrete and includes a unit: a)
mutations; b) recombination;
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c) functions.
52. The phenotype is:
a) a set of external features;
b) interaction of genotype and
environment;
c) the manifestation of external signs of the organism as a result of the interaction of the
organism with the external environment.
53. The genetic code has a number of features, the main of which
is:
a) degeneracy;
b) non-overlapping;
c) versatility.
54. A bacterial cell is endowed with the virulent properties of a plasmid:
ÿ) R, Col, Hly;
b) Vir, R, F;
ÿ) Ent, F, Hly;
ÿ) Hly, Ent, Vir.
55. Gene mutations appear as a result of:
a) dropping base pairs;
b) base insertions;
c) substitution of base pairs;
d) movement of transposons.
56. All bacteria are characterized by the following properties:
a) they are haploid;
b) their genetic material is
organized into a single
chromosome;
c) have separate DNA fragments - plasmids, transposons, IS-sequences;
d) they use the same genetic code as eukaryotes;
e) their genotypes and phenotypes
are the same.
57. The following features are typical for the process of bacterial DNA
replication:
a) associated with cell division;
b) starts at a single unique site;
c) requires the synthesis of RNA primer;
d) depends on the synthesis of permeases;
e) determined by IS-sequences.
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58. Specify RNA-containing morphological types of bacteriophages: a) 1st, 2nd type;
b) 2nd, 3rd type; c) 3rd, 4th type; d) 5th, 4th type.
59. Of the 5 morphological types, it includes both RNA- and DNA-containing
phages only: a) type 1; b) 2nd type; c) 3rd type; d) 4th type; e) 5th type.
60. According to the chemical structure, bacteriophage virions consist of:
a) nucleic acids; b) from protein; c) from carbohydrates; d) from phospholipids; e)
from fatty acids.
61. Productive bacteriophage infection ends with: a) cell death; b)
reproduction of phages without cell death; c) reproduction of phage particles
in the cell; d) the formation of protein particles.
62. During lysogeny, the phage is present in the cell in the
form of: a) mature particles; b) prophage; c) associated with the
DNA of the host cell.
63. The following features correspond to virulent phages: a) do not cause
the formation of phage particles; b) do not cause cell lysis; c) are not present in
cells as a prophage; d) are found in cells as a prophage.
64. Phage conversion is a change in the properties of the host cell, which are
caused by: a) a prophage; b) defective phage particles; c) virulent phages.
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65. Transduction differs from phage conversion in the following ways:
a) transduction occurs at a low frequency; b) the transducing phage is
defective; c) transducing phage is normal; d) bacterial genes are transferred.
66. Lysogenization is
beneficial: a) only to a microbial
cell; b) only phage particles; c)
microbial cell and bacteriophage.
67. The following methods are used to isolate a bacteriophage: a) the
Gracia method; b) Appelman's method; c) the Otto method; d) Peretz method.
68. In practical work, phages are used for: a)
prevention of infectious diseases; b) therapy of infectious
diseases; c) diagnosis of infectious diseases; d)
identification of bacterial cultures; e) typing of bacterial
cultures.
69. The taxonomy, classification and nomenclature of bacteria are based
on the study of: a) morphology; b) biochemistry; c) structure and hybridization
of DNA; d) cell wall structures.
70. Numerical taxonomy of bacteria is based on: a) the
similarity of the set of characteristics of microorganisms;
b) on the similarity of the minimum of the most important
features of microorganisms; c) on the similarity of a wide range of
features; d) taking into account the similarity of the largest possible
number of characteristics of the studied microorganisms. 71. Complex
staining methods are most often used for staining microorganisms:
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a) according to Tsil-Nilson;
b) according to Romanovsky-Giemsa;
c) by Gram;
d) according to Burri-Gins.
72. The following dyes are most often used for staining
microorganisms:
a) magenta;
b) gentian violet;
c) methylene blue;
d) erythrosin;
e) ink.
73. Fluorescent microscopy is used in the study of:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained
preparations;
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study of
pathological material.
74. Electron microscopy is used in the study of:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained
preparations;
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study of
pathological material.
75. Dark field microscopy is used to study:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained
preparations;
c) during
microphotography;
d) in the study
pathological
material.
76. Phase contrast microscopy is used to study:
a) stained preparations;
b) native unstained
preparations;
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c) during time-lapse microphotography; d) in the study
pathological
material.
77. The main methods of fluorescence microscopy used
in medical bacteriology include: a) direct fluorochromoscopy;
b) direct immunofluorescence reaction; c) indirect
immunofluorescence reaction; d) determination of spontaneous
fluorescence of colonies.
78. For the isolation of microorganisms, it is preferable to use nutrient
media: 1) simple; 2) complex; 3) elective; 4) enrichment environments. a)
1, 2 are correct; b) 3, 4 are correct; c) 1, 4 are correct.
79. To control the quality of the nutrient medium in practical
laboratories, the following are more often used: 1) determination
of amine nitrogen; 2) determination of pH; 3) titrated inoculation of
the control strain; 4) determination of the redox potential. a) 1, 2 are
correct; b) 3, 4 are correct; c) 2, 3 are correct.
80. The most common method of sterilization of nutrient media is: a)
dry heat; b) autoclaving; c) filtration; d) boiling. 81. Most often in practical
laboratories the method of infection of animals is used: 1) intravenous;
2) oral; 3) intraperitoneal;
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4) subcutaneous;
5) dermal. a) 1, 2
are correct; b) 3,
4 are correct; c)
2, 5 is correct.
82. For the cultivation of microorganisms, the most important is: 1)
compliance with temperature
mode;
2) a certain pH value of the
medium; 3) providing a
certain degree of aeration of
the environment;
4) determination of the redox potential of the medium. a) 1, 2 are correct;
b) 3, 4 are correct; c) 2, 4 are correct.
83. Among pathogenic bacteria the most common are: a) obligate
aerobes; b) obligate anaerobes; c) facultative anaerobes; d) extremely
oxygen sensitive.
84. According to the cultivation temperature, pathogenic bacteria are: a)
psychrophiles; b) to mesophiles; c) to thermophiles. 85. The optimal
temperature regime for growing psychrophilic bacteria is: a) 6–30 °ÿ; b)
30–40 °ÿ; c) 40–50 °ÿ.
86. The optimal temperature regime for growing mesophilic
bacteria is: a) 6–30 °ÿ; b) 30–40 °ÿ; c) 40–50 °ÿ.
87. The optimal temperature regime for growing thermophilic
bacteria is: a) 6–30 °ÿ;
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b) 30–40 °ÿ;
c) 40–50 ° ÿ.
88. The most recognized classification of antibiotics
based on:
a) on the chemical structure;
b) on the spectrum of antibacterial action;
c) on the mechanism of action;
d) side effects.
89. The main groups of antibiotics include:
a) ÿ-lactam antibiotics;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) polysaccharides;
d) macrolides.
90. The main mechanism of action of ÿ-lactam antibiotics
comes down to:
a) inhibition of synthesis
cell walls;
b) to the violation of protein synthesis;
c) disruption of nucleic
acid synthesis;
d) to dysfunction of the
cytoplasmic membrane.
91. The most common mechanism of antibiotic resistance
is an:
a) breach of permeability
microbial cell;
b) removal of the antibiotic
from the cell;
c) modification of targets;
d) enzymatic inactivation of the
antibiotic.
92. The indicators of the pharmacokinetics of antibiotics available for
setting by the micromethod in a practical laboratory are:
a) concentrations of antibiotics in
the blood;
b) the concentration of antibiotics in
the urine;
c) the concentration of antibiotics
in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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93. To determine the sensitivity of microorganisms to
antibiotics in practical laboratories, the following are most widely
used:
a) agar diffusion method using disks;
b) method of serial dilutions in
a liquid nutrient medium;
c) the method of serial dilutions
in a dense nutrient medium;
d) accelerated method with blood;
e) accelerated method with performance characteristics.
94. To establish a quantitative characteristic of the degree
of sensitivity of the studied strain (MZK in units / ml) allows the use
of:
a) agar diffusion method;
b) serial dilution method;
c) accelerated method with blood;
d) accelerated method with performance characteristics.
95. A preliminary assessment of the sensitivity of microflora by direct
seeding of pathological material cannot be obtained using the method:
a) serial dilutions;
b) diffusion into agar;
c) accelerated methods for determining sensitivity using chemical and
biological redox
indicators.
96. The method of diffusion into agar allows to obtain the following
assessment of the degree of sensitivity of the pathogen to antibiotics:
a) quality;
b) semi-quantitative;
c) quantitative.
97. To obtain a semi-quantitative assessment of the
degree of sensitivity of a microorganism to antibiotics, it is
necessary to use:
1) standard nutrient media;
2) industrial indicator disks with antibiotics;
3) a dosed sowing dose of the microbe;
4) sensitivity study
directly pathological material;
5) in special cases, the use of discs prepared in the laboratory.
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct;
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6) 3, 4, 5 are correct;
c) 2, 4, 5 are correct.
98. Reduce the time for research and issuance of a preliminary answer
on the sensitivity of microorganisms in the range from 3 to 5 hours
allows
method application:
1) serial dilutions in a liquid nutrient medium; 2) serial dilutions in
solid nutrient medium; 3) standard agar diffusion method; 4) agar
diffusion method using oxyhemoglobin; 5) agar diffusion method using
TTX. a) 1, 2 are correct; b) 3, 4 are correct; c) 4, 5 are correct.
99. The virulence factors of microorganisms are mainly
are:
1) aggressiveness;
2) adhesiveness; 3)
the presence of a
capsule; 4) toxins; 5)
mobility. a) 1, 3 are
correct; b) 2, 4 are correct;
c) 3, 5 are correct.
100. Side effects of antibiotic therapy include: a) toxic reactions; b) dysbiosis;
c) allergic reactions; d) immunosuppressive effect; e) meningitis. 101. The
principles of rational antibiotic therapy include the following: a) microbiological
principle; b) genetic principle; c) clinical principle; d) epidemic principle; e)
pharmacological principle; f) pharmaceutical principle.
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102. Inhibitors of bacterial cell wall synthesis include the following
groups of antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c)
aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e) rifampicins.
103. The inhibitors of the functions of the cytoplasmic
membrane of bacteria include the following groups of
antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c) aminoglycosides;
d) polymyxins; e) rifampicins.
104. Inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis include the following
groups of antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c)
aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e) rifampicins. 105. Inhibitors of
transcription and synthesis of bacterial nucleic acids include the
following groups of antibiotics: a) penicillins; b) cephalosporins; c)
aminoglycosides; d) polymyxins; e) rifampicins.
106. When studying the genetics of bacteria, the following methods
are used: a) fine-structured genetic mapping; b) complementary testing; c)
transformations; d) meiotic segregation; e) transduction.
107. The main tasks to be solved within the framework of
microbiological analysis include:
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a) confirmation of the clinical diagnosis;
b) confirmation of
the epidemiological diagnosis;
c) tracking epidemiological dangerous situations (work in the surveillance
system);
d) clarification of the tactics of therapeutic measures.
108. Basic principles of microbiological analysis
are:
a) isolation and identification of pure culture;
b) microscopy of the studied
material;
c) identification of immunological changes caused by infection;
d) express diagnostics;
e) detection of microbial antigens.
109. To create anaerobic conditions apply the following
methods:
a) use of an anaerostat;
b) Fortner's method;
c) the Vignal-Veyon method;
d) Zeissler method.
110. The following nutrient media are used for growing anaerobic
microorganisms:
(a) the Kitta-Tarozzi environment;
b) Chistovich's environment;
c) Wilson-Blair medium;
d) thioglycol medium.
111. Specify the provisions that are valid for the cultural method of
microbiological analysis:
a) is widely used in the diagnosis of viral infections;
b) the basic method for diagnosing bacterial infections;
c) is widely used in the diagnosis of fungal infections;
d) based on the identification of
pure microbial cultures;
e) is based on the identification of
genetic fragments of microorganisms.
112. The cultural method of microbiological diagnostics involves:
a) the use of selective
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nutrient media;
b) use of differential diagnostic environments;
c) characteristics of individual
(isolated) colonies;
d) study of the phenotype
of enrichment crops;
e) the possibility of studying the genotype;
e) the possibility of determining
sensitivity to antibiotics.
113. Fundamental shortcomings of the cultural method
are:
a) the duration of the analysis;
b) the impossibility of identifying
"non-culturable" microorganisms;
c) the probability of false-negative results against the background of antimicrobial
therapy;
d) problems in detecting
auxotrophic (“fastidious”) bacteria;
e) difficulties associated with the isolation of obligate anaerobes.
114. The advantages of the cultural method include:
a) the possibility of preserving
isolated strains;
b) absolute sensitivity and specificity;
c) the possibility of determining the
sensitivity of isolates to antimicrobial
drugs;
d) the possibility of conservation
of the material under study;
e) possibility of phenotypic/genotypic study of "new" (previously unknown) bacteria.
115. Specify the principle underlying the rapid diagnosis of infectious diseases:
a) determination of the
titer of serum antibodies;
b) detection of qualitative
seroconversion;
c) detection of quantitative
seroconversion;
d) isolation and identification of pure culture;
e) pathogen identification
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without isolation of pure culture.
116. List the methods used in the express version of
microbiological analysis:
a) microscopy of the test
material;
b) detection of microbial
antigens;
c) detection of antibodies;
d) detection of genetic
fragments;
e) detection of specific microbial enzymes and metabolites.
117. A universal way to increase the sensitivity and specificity
of direct microscopy of the test material
is an:
a) polymerase chain reaction (PCR);
b) immunoblotting;
c) the study of tinctorial
characteristics of bacteria;
d) reactions based on labeled
antibodies;
e) detection of qualitative
seroconversion.
118. The most versatile and reliable methods for rapid diagnosis
of infectious diseases include:
a) direct microscopy
the material under study;
b) detection of microbial
antigens;
c) detection of antibodies
to the pathogen;
d) detection of microbial
genome fragments;
e) detection of microbial
enzymes and toxins.
119. The following methods are used to identify microorganisms:
a) inoculation on Hiss media;
b) use of NIBs;
c) use of biochemical identification panels;
d) use of automated identification systems.
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120. The advantages of microbiological analysis based on express
diagnostics are:
a) the possibility of identifying "non-culturable" and difficult-to-cultivate
microorganisms;
b) the possibility of preserving isolated strains;
c) the speed of obtaining the result;
d) absolute sensitivity and specificity;
e) the possibility of conservation
of the test material.
121. The provisions that are valid for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
include:
a) detection of microbial antigens;
b) detection of antibodies;
c) detection of microbial
genome fragments;
d) the possibility of detecting RNA;
e) possibility of DNA detection.
122. Specify the microbial markers used in the express version of
microbiological analysis:
a) DNA;
b) RNA;
c) antigens;
d) toxins;
e) enzymes
f) antibodies.
123. Specify the provisions that are valid for the polymerase chain
reaction (PCR):
a) a variant of express diagnostics of infectious diseases;
b) may be useful for detecting latent persistence;
c) based on the detection of
DNA fragments;
d) can be used to detect RNA
viruses;
e) absolute sensitivity and specificity.
124. The following ingredients are required for DNA detection using
polymerase chain reaction:
a) specific primers;
b) deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate;
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c) reverse transcriptase;
d) thermostable DNA polymerase; e)
reference DNA ("comparison DNA").
125. List the methods for obtaining antibiotics: a)
biological synthesis; b) combined method; c)
biochemical synthesis; d) chemical synthesis.
126. List the antibiotics that belong to ÿ-lactams: a)
cephalosporin; b) polymyxin; c) penicillin; d) tetracycline.
127. Specify the antibiotics included in the class of
aminoglycosides: a) polymyxin; b) streptomycin; c) gentamicin; d)
tetracycline.
128. List which antibiotics belong to polypeptides: a) cephalosporin;
b) polymyxin; c) penicillin; d) tetracycline.
129. Specify the antibiotics included in the class of
glycopeptides: a) polymyxin; b) streptomycin; c) vancomycin;
d) tetracycline.
130. Specify the features characteristic of penicillins: a)
disrupt the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall; b) have a
bacteriostatic effect; c) have a bactericidal effect; d) inhibit
protein synthesis.
131. Specify the features characteristic of tetracyclines:
a) disrupt the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall;
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b) are effective against gram-positive bacteria; c) are
effective against gram-negative bacteria; d) inhibit
protein synthesis.
132. Select properties characteristic of glycopeptides: a)
effective against gram-positive bacteria; b) inhibit the functions
of the CPM; c) disrupt the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall;
d) are effective against gram-negative bacteria.
133. Specify the features characteristic of aminoglycosides:
a) effective against gram-positive bacteria; b) inhibit protein
synthesis; c) disrupt the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall; d)
are effective against gram-negative bacteria.
134. Select the properties characteristic of macrolides:
a) disrupt the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall; b) are
effective against gram-positive bacteria; c) are effective
against gram-negative bacteria; d) inhibit protein synthesis.
135. Specify the classes of antibiotics that have a toxic effect
on human cells: a) tetracyclines; b) macrolides; c) polypeptides;
d) polyenes. 136. Antibiotics with bacteriostatic action include:
a) beta-lactams; b) aminoglycosides; c) tetracyclines; d) macrolides;
e) lincosamides; f) rifamycins; g) polypeptides; h) chloramphenicol.
137. Antibiotics with bactericidal action include: a) betalactams; b) aminoglycosides; c) tetracyclines; d) macrolides; e)
lincosamides;
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e) rifamycins;
g) polypeptides;
h) chloramphenicol.
138. Specify the classes of antibiotics used against intracellular
parasites (chlamydia, rickettsia, etc.):
a) beta-lactams;
b) aminoglycosides;
c) tetracyclines;
d) macrolides;
e) lincosamides;
f) rifamycins; g)
polypeptides; h)
chloramphenicol.
139. According to the chemical structure, etiotropic antiviral drugs are
divided into:
a) abnormal nucleosides (nucleoside analogues);
b) adamantane derivatives;
c) synthetic peptides;
d) thiosemicarbozone derivatives.
140. According to the mechanism of action, adamantane derivatives are classified as:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter populations.
141. According to the mechanism of action, abnormal nucleosides
(nucleoside analogues) are classified as:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter populations.
142. According to the mechanism of action, synthetic peptides are classified as:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic acid
synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
d) assembly inhibitors
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daughter populations.
143. According to the mechanism of action, thiosemicarbozone derivatives are classified as
To:
a) inhibitors of penetration and
deprotoinization of viruses;
b) inhibitors of nucleic
acid synthesis;
c) protease inhibitors;
d) inhibitors of the assembly of daughter populations.
144. Sulfonamides are classified as:
a) antibiotics;
b) synthetic antimicrobial chemotherapy drugs;
c) antiviral drugs.
145. Antimicrobial therapy can lead to the following
complications from the macroorganism:
a) dysbacteriosis;
b) endotoxic shock;
c) anaphylactic shock;
d) beriberi.
146. The microbiological principle of rational antibiotic
therapy includes:
a) determination of antibiotic resistance of the etiological agent;
b) pharmacokinetics of the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of the patient;
d) resistance of strains of the
given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
147. The clinical principle of rational antibiotic therapy includes:
a) determination of antibiotic resistance of the etiological agent;
b) pharmacokinetics of the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of the patient;
d) resistance of strains of the given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
148. The pharmacological principle of rational
antibiotic therapy includes:
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a) determination of antibiotic resistance of the etiological agent; b)
pharmacokinetics of the medicinal product; c) the individual
characteristics of the patient; d) resistance of strains of the given
region; e) the expiration date of the drug.
149. The epidemiological principle of rational antibiotic
therapy includes: a) determination of antibiotic resistance
of an etiological agent; b) pharmacokinetics of the medicinal product;
c) the individual characteristics of the patient; d) resistance of strains
of the given region; e) the expiration date of the drug.
150. The pharmaceutical principle of rational antibiotic therapy
includes: a) determination of antibiotic resistance of an etiological agent;
b) pharmacokinetics of the medicinal product; c) the individual
characteristics of the patient; d) resistance of strains of the given region;
e) the expiration date of the drug.
2 SECTION
1. A mutually beneficial way for the existence of microorganisms
is an:
b) mutualism;
2. Lyophilization consists in:
a) drying under vacuum from a frozen state; 3. The
composition of soil microflora depends on the following factors:
a) soil type* b) composition of vegetation;* c) ambient temperature;*
d) relative humidity;* e) pH value.* 4. The composition of
autochthonous water microflora includes the following
representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcus candicans;*
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ÿ) Pregnancy lutea; *
ÿ) Bacillus cereus;*
ÿ) Escherichia coli;
ÿ) Bacillus anthracis.
5. The composition of the allochthonous microflora of water includes the
following representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcus candicans;
ÿ) Pregnancy lutea;
ÿ) Bacillus cereus;
ÿ) Escherichia coli;*
ÿ) Bacillus anthracis.*
6. The autochthonous microflora includes:
a) a set of microorganisms that accidentally fell into a given biocenosis and remain in it for
a limited period of time;
b) a set of microorganisms permanently living in a given biocenosis; *
c) the totality of all microorganisms of a given biocenosis.
7. Allochthonous microflora is:
a) a set of microorganisms that accidentally fell into a given biocenosis and remain in it for
a limited period of time;
8. The autochthonous air microflora includes the following representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcus candicans;*
ÿ) Yellow charge; *
ÿ) Bacillus subtilis;*
9. The composition of the allochthonous air microflora includes the following
representatives:
ÿ) Micrococcus candicans;
ÿ) Yellow pregnancy;
ÿ) Bacillus subtilis;
ÿ) Escherichia coli;*
ÿ) Staphylococcus aureus.*
10. The goals and objectives of sanitary bacteriology are:
a) early and rapid indication of bacterial contamination of environmental objects;*
b) in carrying out measures to reduce and prevent
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infectious disease;*
c) in the use of sensitive, unified research methods to obtain reliable
and demonstrative research results; *
d) in the study of the microflora of the environment involved in the processes of
self-purification.
11. Sanitary indicative microorganisms must meet the following mandatory
requirements:
a) constancy of detection in the studied objects of the environment; *
b) sufficient number;*
c) should not reproduce in the external environment;*
d) the life span should be significantly less than that of pathogenic
microorganisms.
12. The principles for assessing the hygienic state of environmental
objects by bacteriological indicators are:
d) in the indication of pathogenicity of microflora.
13. The objects of study of sanitary microbiology are not:
e) stools.
14. The main features that sanitary indicative microorganisms should
have are:
1) the ability to grow at 20 °C;
2) constancy of detection in the studied substrates;
3) sufficient number;
4) the ability to grow on complex nutrient media;
5) the ability to survive, surpassing that of pathogenic bacteria.
a) 1, 3, 2 are correct;
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 are correct;
c) 2, 3, 5 are correct;*
d) 1, 4, 5 are correct.
15. Specify the definitions corresponding to the microbial number:
a) characterizes the general contamination of the object; *
b) characterizes the presence of sanitary-indicative microorganisms;
c) this is the total number of microbes contained in a unit volume or mass of
the object under study; *
d) this is the number of sanitary indicative microorganisms,
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held in a unit of volume or mass of the object under study. 16.
Indicators of bacterial contamination, which are used to assess the
epidemiological risk of soils in settlements, are:
a) Escherichia coli;* b)
enterococci;* c)
pathogenic enterobacteria;* d)
Staphylococcus aureus; e)
enteroviruses. * 17. To assess
the bacterial contamination of the soil by sanitary indicative
microorganisms are: a) BGKP; (bacteria of the Escherichia coli
group) * b) hemolytic streptococci; c) C.perfringens;* d) thermophilic
bacteria;* e) staphylococci; f) nitrifying bacteria.* 18. To assess
bacterial air pollution, sanitary indicative microorganisms are:
a) BGKP; (bacteria of the group of Escherichia
coli) b) hemolytic streptococci; * c) clostridia; d)
thermophilic bacteria; e) Staphylococcus aureus;
* e) nitrifying bacteria. 19. Sanitary-indicative
microorganisms in the study of indoor air are:
a) green and hemolytic streptococci; * b)
Staphylococcus aureus; * c) clostridia; d)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa;* e) Enterococci.*
20. To assess bacterial contamination of
food products
sanitary-indicative microorganisms are: a) BGKP; * b)
hemolytic streptococci;
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c) clostridia;
d) thermophilic bacteria; e)
Staphylococcus aureus; * f)
bacteria of the Proteus group.
* 21. To assess the bacterial contamination of household items,
sanitary-indicative microorganisms are: a) BGKP; (bacteria of
the group of Escherichia coli) * b) hemolytic streptococci; c)
clostridia; d) thermophilic bacteria; e) Staphylococcus aureus; * e)
nitrifying bacteria. 22. Fecal contamination is evidenced by the
presence of: a) bacteria of the genus Proteus; b) Streptococcus
faecalis; * c) thermophilic bacteria; d) Staphylococcus aureus. 23.
Putrefactive decay in the soil is evidenced by the presence of:
a) bacteria of the genus Proteus;* b) Streptococcus faecalis; c)
thermophilic bacteria; d) Staphylococcus aureus. 24. Soil pollution
with decaying waste is evidenced by
Availability:
a) bacteria of the genus
Proteus; b) Streptococcus
faecalis; c) thermophilic
bacteria;* d) Staphylococcus
aureus. 25. An increased concentration of the following
microorganisms indicates the presence of a soil self-purification process:
a) BGKP;
b) hemolytic streptococci; c)
clostridia; d) thermophilic bacteria;
e) Staphylococcus aureus;
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f) nitrifying bacteria.* 26. Bacteria
of the Escherichia coli group (ECG) are characterized by the
following properties: a) they are not able to ferment glucose and
lactose; b) ferment lactose at 37 °C to acid and gas; * c) oxidasenegative; * d) grow only at 20 °C. 27. During the sanitarybacteriological examination of the soil, the following are determined:
a) total microbial count;* b)
coli-titer;* c) perfringens
titer;* d) titer of thermophilic
bacteria. *
a) respiratory viruses; b)
neurotropic viruses; c)
intestinal viruses; * d)
human immunodeficiency viruses. 29.
The coli-titer of water is: a) the
minimum amount of water (ml) in which CGBs are detected; (bacteria of
the Escherichia coli group)* b) the minimum amount of water (ml) in which
E.coli is found; c) the minimum amount of water (ml) in which Enterococcus
faecalis is found; d) the minimum amount of water (ml) in which bacteria
of the genus Proteus are found. 30. Coli-titer and coli-index are
determined: a) by the sedimentation method; b) membrane filter method;*
c) titration method;* d) aspiration method. 31. The main methods of
sterilization include: 1) autoclaving; 2) tyndalization; 3) boiling;
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4) treatment with microbicidal substances; 5)
pasteurization; 6) processing in a dryingsterilizing cabinet (Pasteur ovens). a) 1, 2, 6 are correct;* b) 1, 3, 4
are correct; c) 3, 4, 5 are correct; d) 4, 5, 6 are correct. 32. The
main disinfection methods include: 1) autoclaving; 2) tyndalization;
3) boiling; 4) flaming; 5) pasteurization; 6) treatment with microbicidal
substances. a) 1, 2, 6 are correct; b) 1, 3, 4 are correct; c) 3, 4, 5
are correct; d) 3, 5, 6 are correct.* 33. The quality of drinking
water supplied for consumption from centralized water supply
systems is regulated by: a) GOST 2874–82 “Drinking water”; 34.
Indicators that determine the safety of water after treatment in
relation to the content of viruses in it are: 1) the index of
Escherichia coli; 2) total microbial count; 3) turbidity. a) 1, 3 are
correct; b) 1, 2 are correct;* c) 2, 3 are correct . d) the presence of
planktonic algae;* e) the presence of organic substrates.*
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36. An open or underground water source cannot serve as a
source of domestic and drinking water supply if: a) it is impossible
to organize a sanitary protection zone; * b) the water contains
chemicals in concentrations exceeding the MPC; * c) into a reservoir upstream
from water intake, domestic wastewater is discharged.*
37. Traditional modern methods of water treatment allow: 1) to improve
organoleptic properties; 2) get toxicologically safe water; 3) get
epidemiologically safe water. a) 1, 2 are correct; b) 1, 3 are correct; * c) 2,
3 are correct. 38. To obtain a bactericidal and virucidal effect, optimal
chlorination is carried out:
a) taking into account chlorine
absorption; b) with
preammonization; c) free chlorine;
* d) double; e) normal doses. 39.
When monitoring the quality of
water in the network, it is necessary to determine: a) secondary
water pollution; * b) water compliance with GOST; c) water treatment
efficiency. 40. Requirements for the quality of water in an open
reservoir are presented: a) to the point of water use; b) to the
wastewater discharge point; c) to a point 1 km above the point of water use;
* d) to a point 1 km below the place of wastewater discharge; e) all of the
above. 41. During the main sanitary and bacteriological examination of
the water of swimming pools, the following are subject to registration:
a) CGB; * b) enterococci; * c) Staphylococcus aureus; *
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d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa; *
e) coagulase-negative staphylococci.
42. Bacteriological indicators to be taken into account when assessing the
quality of drinking water include:
a) general contamination; *
b) coli index; *
c) the presence of fecal contamination;*
d) Staphylococcus aureus;
e) enterococcus. *
43. To speed up the time for issuing a response on the quality of drinking water allows:
a) fermentation method;
b) membrane filter method;*
c) oxidase test;*
d) test for proteolytic activity.*
44. Indicate the coli-index indicating the potential for the spread of
pathogens of intestinal infections by water during the study of drinking
water from centralized water supply:
a) more than 3;
b) more than 10;
c) more than 100.
45. Specify the coli-index indicating the epidemic danger in the repeated
study of drinking water:
a) if the index is more than 3;
b) if the index is more than 10;
c) if the index is more than 20;
d) if the index is more than 100.
46. In the study of water from surface water sources, indicators of
fecal contamination are the following microorganisms:
ÿ) E.coli;
ÿ) Streptococcus faecalis;
ÿ) Citrobacter freundii;
ÿ) Staphylococcus aureus.
47. The most stable indicator microorganisms characterizing
anthropogenic pollution of sea water are
are:
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a) enterococci;
b) vibrins; c)
pseudomonas;
d) aeromonads.
48. Atmospheric air is characterized by the presence of the
following microorganisms: a) green and hemolytic streptococci; b)
Staphylococcus aureus; c) pigment forms; d) molds; e) soil sporebearing ammonifying and putrefactive bacteria.
49. For sampling atmospheric air, use: a) Krotov's
apparatus; b) membrane filtrates; c) POV-1; d) PAB-1;
50. The greatest epidemiological significance belongs to: a)
large-drop phase of bacterial aerosol; b) small droplet phase of
bacterial aerosol; c) the “bacterial dust” phase.
51. When examining the air
for the content of S.aureus:
a) for sowing, use JSA; b)
identify the microorganism by the presence of mobility; c)
identify the microorganism by its ability to ferment mannitol under
aerobic and anaerobic conditions; d) Kitt-Tarozzi medium is used for
seeding.
52. The main sources of bacterial and viral contamination
of household items are: a) water used for wet cleaning; b) a
sick person; c) bacterial carrier; d) wild animals; d) pets.
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53. Sampling from surfaces is carried out by the method:
a) flush;
b) sedimentation;
c) filtering.
54. The objects of research in the course of bacteriological control of a
complex of sanitary and hygienic measures in medical institutions are:
a) air environment;
b) various objects of the external environment;
c) surgical instruments;
d) suture material;
e) hands of surgeons and
skin of the operating field.
55. Sanitary and microbiological control of health facilities includes
examination of personnel for carriage:
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
b) hemolytic streptococcus;
c) Staphylococcus aureus;
d) BGKP.
56. A planned bacteriological study of microbial contamination of
environmental objects in medical institutions does not provide for the
identification of:
a) staphylococcus;
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa;
c) bacteria of the intestinal daddy
group;
d) general microbial
contamination.
57. Bacteriological examination of environmental objects of medical
institutions according to epidemiological indications provides for the
identification of:
a) staphylococcus;
b) bacteria of the group of intestinal
daddies;
c) pathogenic bacteria;
d) conditionally pathogenic
microorganisms.
58. Bacteriological control of wet, current and final disinfection
in the foci of intestinal infections is carried out by detecting:
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a) Escherichia coli;
b) staphylococcus;
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
59. Bacteriological control of wet, current and final
disinfection in the foci of droplet infections is carried out by
detecting:
a) Escherichia coli;
b) staphylococcus;
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
60. Food poisoning is characterized by:
a) acute sudden onset of the
disease;
b) the simultaneity of the disease in a group of persons;
c) the relationship of the disease with the consumption of a single food
product or dish;
d) the territorial limitation of diseases by the place of consumption or purchase
of a food product;
e) acute short course of the
disease.
61. According to the pathogenetic basis, microbial food poisonings are
divided into:
a) toxic infections;
b) toxicosis;
c) mixes;
d) poisoning of unknown etiology.
62. Food poisoning is characterized by:
a) isolation from the food
product of a certain type of
microorganism;
b) massive isolation of a certain type of microorganisms;
c) identification of toxins.
63. Staphylococcal food toxicosis is characterized by:
a) accumulation of staphylococcal enterotoxin in the food product;
b) the absence of viable staphylococcus cells in the food product;
c) massive accumulation of living cells of Staphylococcus aureus
in the food product.
64. Criteria for the diagnosis of microbial food poisoning
etiologies are:
a) release from the food
product of a massive amount
a certain kind of potential
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pathogenic microorganisms;
b) isolation of an identical microorganism from pathological
material from victims;
c) isolation of identical microorganisms from the majority of
victims;
d) increase in antibody titer
in the serum of victims to suspect microorganisms.
65. Intestinal dysbacteriosis is called:
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in E. coli in the intestine;
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the own bacterial microflora of the
intestine;
c) quantitative
and quality changes
pathogenic microorganisms in the
intestine;
d) qualitative changes in
the own bacterial microflora
of the intestine.
66. Intestinal dysbiosis is called:
a) quantitative and qualitative changes in the bacterial
microflora in the intestine;
b) quantitative and qualitative changes in the own bacterial,
viral, fungal intestinal microflora;
c) quantitative and qualitative changes in pathogenic
microorganisms in the intestine;
d) qualitative changes in
the own bacterial microflora
of the intestine.
67. To the most common causes of dysbacteriosis
include:
a) the use of antibiotics;
b) surgical operations on
the organs of the gastrointestinal tract;
c) neuropsychic stress;
d) the use of hormones;
e) acute intestinal infections.
68. For the complex treatment of dysbacteriosis, the following drugs
should be used:
a) probiotic preparations;
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b) beta-lactams;
c) corticosteroids; d)
nystatin; d) vitamins.
69. Probiotic preparations include: a)
bifidumbacterin; b) colibacterin; c)
lactobacterin; d) nystatin; e) Linux.
70. Indications for bacteriological diagnosis of intestinal dysbacteriosis
are: a) long-term infections and disorders in which it is not possible to isolate
pathogenic enterobacteria; b) a protracted period of convalescence after an
infection; c) dysfunction of the gastrointestinal tract after antibiotic therapy;
d) cancer patients suffering from dyspeptic disorders; e) premature or injured
newborns.
71. The following microorganisms should prevail in the intestines of
practically healthy people: a) anaerobic; b) aerobic; c) microaerophilic;
d) facultative anaerobic.
72. In infants, bifidobacteria of the species predominate:
a) B. bifidum; b) B.adolescentis; c) B. longum.
73. In older people, bifidobacteria of the species predominate: a) B.
bifidum; b) B.adolescentis; c) B. longum.
74. When sowing for dysbacteriosis, it is better to dilute
feces: a) with physiological saline; b) thioglycol buffer;
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c) distilled water.
75. For research on dysbacteriosis, feces are delivered to the
laboratory
during:
a) 1 hour;
b) 3 hours;
c) 1 day.
76. To make a conclusion about the presence of intestinal
dysbacteriosis, the examination of faeces in a patient is carried
out: a) 1 time; b) 2 times; c) 3 times.
77. Normally sterile are: a) the brain;
b) half of the mouth; c) stomach; d)
blood; e) liquor. 78. The obligate
microflora of the oral cavity includes
the following types of microorganisms:
a) Streptococcus mutans; b)
Streptococcus mitis; c) Bifidobacterium bifidum; d) Veilonella parvula;
(veilonella) e) E. coli.
79. Etiological factor of gastritis and gastric ulcer
is an:
ÿ) Clostridium.botulinum;
ÿ) Helicobacter pylori; ÿ)
Candida albicans; ÿ)
Staphyloccus aureus.
80. Obligate human intestinal microflora includes: a) bifidobacteria;
b) lactobacilli; c) streptococci; d) Klebsiella; e) E. coli.
81. The resident microflora of the human intestine includes:
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a) bifidobacteria;
b) lactobacilli;
c) streptococci;
d) Klebsiella;
e) E. coli.
82. Normal human microflora has the following meaning:
a) destroys carcinogens in
the intestine;
b) is a factor
nonspecific resistance of the organism;
c) participates in water-salt
metabolism;
d) has antagonistic properties against pathogenic flora;
e) is involved in colonization resistance.
83. Colonization resistance is:
a) a combination of
protective factors of the body
and the properties of the
normal intestinal microflora,
which give stability to the
microflora and prevent the
colonization of the mucous membranes by pathogenic microorganisms;
b) selective removal of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi
from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic
balance of representatives
of normal microflora with each
other and with the human body.
84. Eubiosis is defined as:
a) a combination of protective factors of the body and the properties of
the normal intestinal microflora, which give stability to the microflora
and prevent the colonization of the mucous membranes by pathogenic
microorganisms;
b) selective removal of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi
from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic balance of representatives of normal microflora
with each other and with the human body.
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85. Selective decontamination includes:
a) a combination of protective factors of the body and the properties of
the normal intestinal microflora, which give stability to the microflora and
prevent the colonization of the mucous membranes by pathogenic
microorganisms;
b) selective removal of
anaerobic bacteria and fungi
from the digestive tract to
increase the body's resistance;
c) the state of dynamic
balance of representatives
of normal microflora with each
other and with the human body.
86. The resident microflora of the skin includes:
a) epidermal staphylococcus aureus;
b) micrococci;
c) sarcins;
d) diphtheroids;
e) hemolytic streptococci.
87. The transient microflora of the skin consists of:
a) Staphylococcus aureus;
b) hemolytic streptococci;
c