CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
ATA06 DIMENSION AND AREAS
1. The A320/A321 aircraft is divided into zones as follows: (A, B1, B2)
A. The major zones, the major sub-zones, the zones.
B. The zones and sub-zones.
C. The zones and the station.
D. The major zones, the major sub-zones
2. The station is for all structural measurement in the X axis is located in: (B1, B2)
A. The rib 1 of the aircraft.
B. 254cm forward of aircraft nose.x
C. Aircraft nose.
3. Each major zone is identified by: (A, B1, B2)
A. Three digit number and two letters
B. Three digit number
C. The first digit of three digit number
4. Access doors
doors and panels are identified by: (A, B1, B2)
A. The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by a two-letter
suffix.
The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by one letter suffix.
B.
C. a two-letter followed by the number of the zone in which the panel is located suffix.
5. There are how many major zones in the aircraft? (A, B1, B2)
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
6. The general fuselage section base number is: (B1, B2)
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
7. The general wing
wing section base number is: (B1, B2)
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
ATA 07 - LIFTING & SHORING
8. What you do not have to do
do before you lift the aircraft with jacks? (B1,B2)
A. Make sure that the GND safety locks are in position on the landing gears
B. Make sure that the aircraft is stable
C. Make sure that the aircraft fuel tanks are empty
9. The Tail Safety stay is used to: (A,B1,B2)
1
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. Share load with the main jacks during jacking process
B. Keep the aircraft more stable during landing gear retraction/ extension tests
C. Keep the aircraft stable on jacks
10. How many points on the structure are designated for the purpose of lifting the
aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
11. What is correct answer? (B1,B2)
A. You can not lift the aircraft with jacks when the tires and the shock absorbers are
deflated.
B. You can not lift the aircraft at the forward jacking point only, with the wheels of
the main landing gear on the ground
C. You must not apply more than the safe load at each jacking point.
12. What is the configuration of the aircraft ready for jacking? (B1,B2)
A. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake ON.
B. Wheel chocks OFF, Parking brake OFF.
C. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake OFF.
13. Distribution
of load
be points.
clearly indicated at? (B1)
A. Forward and
wingmust
jacking
B. Forward, wing and tail jacking points.
C. Tail jacking point.
14. What is permissible during jacking for main LDG
LDG wheel change? (A,B1,B2)
A. Cargo, PAX loading.
B. Gate docking.
C. Installation of the wheel chocks on the wheels of the other main LDG.
15. Application of flight configuration precaution is required when (B1,B2)
A. Lifting the aircraft on jacks.
B. Jacking a MLG for wheels change.
C. Lifting the aircraft at Forward Jacking Point, MLG Wheels on the Ground.
16. The purpose of shoring of the aircraft is to: (B1)
A. Give a support to the wing in order to release the loads on the structure.
B. Keep the aircraft more stable on jacks.
C. Both of the above.
17. In which document you will find the detail instruction for shoring the aircraft?
(B1)
A. SRM chapter 51.
B. AMM chapter 51.
C. AMM chapter 07.
ATA08 LEVELING AND WEIGHING
18. The main pupose of weighing aircraft is: (A, B1, B2)
A. Calculate the position of the center of gravity
2
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Calculate of aircraft weight
C. Know the aircraft weight for passenger loading
19. When weighing the aircraft to find the operating empty weight of the aircraft
(B1, B2)
A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed
B. Engine, APU, IDG oil must refill to necessary level.
C. Engine, APU, IDG oil must be empty
D. Hydraulic fluid must be empty
20. Can you do the aircraft weighing and balancing to calculate the center of gravity
with: (B1, B2)
A. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft
B. The shock absorbers and the tires deflated
C. The doors of aft and forward cargo compartments are opened
D. Slats and flaps in fully extended position.
21. Configuration for aircraft WEIGHING to find the operating empty weight: (B1,
B2)
A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed
B. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft must be removed
C. Empty all of Engine, APU, IDG oil.
D. All above.
22. When Lifting the AIRCRAFT for leveling (A, B1, B2)
A. You must not lift the aircraft with the safety stay.
B. The weight of fuel
fuel is applied equally on the two side of the aircraft centerline
C. Make sure that the aircraft is stable before you lift it with jacks
D. All above
23. When Lifting the aircraft (A, B1, B2)
A. All the doors must be closed and locked.
B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be
closed and locked.
C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency exits and the cargo doors are closed and
locked or fully open and locked.
D. No requirement.
24. You can weigh the aircraft with: (B1, B2)
A. The aircraft on jacks only
B. The aircraft on its wheels only
C. The aircraft on landing gear jacks only
D. The aircraft on jacks or the aircraft on its wheels or the aircraft on landing gear
jacks
25. When Weighing the aircraft on jacks (B1)
A. The aircraft must have a pitch attitude of zero deg.
B. You can do this procedure with load cells on each jack or with platform scales
under each jack
C. Make the aircraft leveling after jack up.
D. All Above
3
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
26. When leveling the aircraft you must: (B1)
A. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D4 position
B. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E4 position
C. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the D5 position
D. Operate the jacks of the aircraft to move the bubble to the E5 position
27. For aircraft Quick Leveling you can use (B1)
A. The ADIRU or the Attitude Monitor
B. A Spirit Level in the Passenger Compartment
C. A Spirit Level in the FWD Cargo Compartment
D. All above
ATA 09 – TOWING & TAXIING.
28. When the NLG dimension H is more than 300 mm (A,B1,B2)
A. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent damage to the centering cams.
B. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent tail to ground contact.
C. Smooth and speed limited towing is possible.
29. If a engine is running (A, B1,B2)
A. You can tow the aircraft from the front only.
B. You can push the aircraft only.
C. Either tow or push is possible.
30. Towing the aircraft is (A, B1,B2)
A. Allowed with one engine running above idle.
B. Allowed with both engines running up to idle.
C. Allowed only with one engine running up to idle.
31. Towing can be carried out with (A,B1,B2)
A. Passenger/crew doors fully open and locked without restriction.
B. Cargo doors open in vertical position with speed limited.
C. Engine cowls open and hold open rods fully locked.
32. Towing can be carried out using (A,B1,B2)
A. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at NLG.
B. Tow bar or towbarless tractor at MLG(s)
C. Tow bar at NLG only.
33. The maximum permitted steering-angle on each side of the aircraft centerline is
(A,B1,B2)
A. 95 degrees.
B. 75 degrees.
C. 74 degrees.
34. What is the correct sequence? (A,B1,B2)
A. Install the tow bar on the tow fitting then install the tow lever safety pin
B. Install the tow lever safety pin then install the tow bar on the tow fitting.
C. There is no specific sequence
35. Communication system(s) to be used during towing is (are)? (A,B1,B2)
4
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. VHF and FLT INT.
B. VHF or HF with FLT INT.
C. VHF only.
36. What indication on ECAM do you have to check prior to start towing? (A,B1,B2)
STEERG DISC
A. N WHEEL STEERG
B. N WHEEL STEERG INOP
C. N WHEEL STEERG
STEERG OFF
37. From cockpit how can you know that the brake are release prior to towing the
aircarft? (A,B1,B2)
A. Check Parking brake selector in OFF, brake pressure ind
indication
ication on ECAM is at 0
and confirm with GND personnel.
B. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; check all the 03 pointes are at green range
and confirm with GND personnel.
C. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; brake pressure pointes at 0 and confirm
with GND personnel.
38. The maximum permitted steering angle on each side of the aircraft when use front
fitting to push the aircraft rearwards with the engines at idle is: (B1, B2)
A. 40 degrees.
B. 60 degrees.
C. 74
D.
95 degrees.
degrees.
39. Minimum separation from the nose wheels and the tractor while towing the
aircraft is: (A, B1, B2)
A. 2 m
B. 3 m.
C. 4 m.
40. In towing configurations the safety pin locks the control lever on the interphone
box in: (A, B1, B2)
A. Disengaged position.
B. Engaged position.
C. Normal position.
41. When towing the aircraft: (A, B1, B2)
A. All the doors must be closed and locked.
B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked the cargo doors open in
vertical position
C. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be
closed and locked
42. When one tire is deflated on one main gear (B1, B2).
A. The aircraft can be towed by the nose gear only.
B. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear only.
C. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear or nose gear.
D. The aircraft can not be towed
ATA10 PARKING & MOORING
5
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
43. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 15 days (B1, B2)
A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time only
B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one
time only
C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days several
times
44. When doing the aircraft parking not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time
only
B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one
time only
C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks
several times
45. Do you need to do periodic ground checks of aircraft During parking period of
not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. Periodic ground check at 7-day intervals and periodic ground check at 15-day
intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.
B. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals.
C. Periodic ground check at 1-month intervals.
D. Periodic ground check at 8-day intervals and periodic ground check at 1-month
intervals
46. When doing periodic ground check at 7-day intervals for a parking period of not
more than 15 days or of not more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready
condition). (B1, B2)
A. You must do a check of the hydraulic reservoir level
B. You must do the slat/flap extension and retraction
C. You must do engine and IDG oil uplift
D. You must do engine cranking
47. When doing periodic ground check at 15-day intervals for a parking period of not
more than 12 weeks (aircraft in flight-ready condition). (B1, B2)
A. You must do the engine monitoring
monitoring only
B. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle then do a
C.
D.
thrust reverser full cycle
You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle only
You must do the engines run-up at high
high power for 5 minute
48. When doing aircraft preservation steps for a storage period of not more than 6
months (B1, B2)
A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up
B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down
C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position
49. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind
wind
conditions (B1)
A. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor
thethe
aircraft
at points
the NLG
B. If
aircraft
into the wind and wind speed is between 50 and 70 Kts, moor
the aircraft at the NLG and MLG
6
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. If the aircraft points into the wind and wind speed is more than 70 Kts, moor the
aircraft at the MLG.
50. When mooring is to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind
conditions (B1)
A. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable
and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG
B. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable
and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the MLG
C. If the aircraft does not point into the wind or the direction of the wind is not stable
and for wind speeds or gusts more than 50 Kts, moor the aircraft at the NLG and
the MLG
51. When mooring to prevent damage to the aircraft on the ground in high wind
wind
conditions (B1)
A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up
B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down
C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position
52. When mooring the aircraft. (B1)
A. Attach the short in position on the towing lug of the nose landing gear with the
NLG shackles then attach the ropes on the ground with the mooring
mooring points
B. Attach
theonropes
on the towing
and thepoints.
debogging lug of the MLG then attach
the ropes
the ground
with thelug
mooring
C. A & B
ATA12 SERVICING
53. When you do the Aircraft Grounding for the Refuel/Defuel Operations
Operations (A, B1,
B2)
A. Connect the ground cable to parking ground point before you connect it to the
aircraft
B. Attach the cable to aircraft first then connect to parking gground
round point
C. Grounding is not necessary
54. To electrostatically balance the aircraft for the refuel/defuel operations (A, B1,
B2)
A. Connect a ground cable to the aircraft grounding point on the landing gears
B. Connect a bonding cable between the fuel tanker and a grounding point on one of
the MLG Legs
C. A is essential, B is recommended
D. B is essential, A is recommended
55. Safety requirements for aircraft Refuelling and defuelling are: (A, B1, B2)
A. Do not operate the cell phones or mobile phones inside distances for 6m from
aircraft.
B. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source less than 15 m away from
aircraft, unless the power source has spark-proof connectors
C. Do not operate the fuel tanker/pump unit until you stop operation of the weather
radar
D. All above
7
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
56. During aircraft Refuelling or defuelling (A, B1, B2)
A. APU starts or shutdowns are permitted.
B. An APU start is not permitted during if the APU has failed to start or an automatic
shutdown has occurred.
C. A & B
57. During the refuelling (A, B1, B2)
NLG tires roll aft
A. The
B.
The NLG tires roll fwd
C. The NLG tires roll does not move
58. During the refuelling you must (A, B1,B2)
A. Move the aft NLG chocks away from the tires
B. Make sure that the chocks do not touch the MLG tires
C. A & B
59. When you do the Refuelling and/or defuelling in the Hangar (A,B1,B2)
A. The hangar doors must be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel
procedure
B. The hangar doors must not be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel
procedure
C. There is no requirement for hangar door
60. When you do the aircraft pressure Automatic refueling with battery power
(A,B1,B2)
A. It is not always possible to refuel to full capacity. This is because the intercell
transfer valve are not always in the correct position
B. It is always possible to refuel to full capacity.
C. You can not refuel in the outer cell.
62. The maximum safety pressure for refueling is: (A,B1,B2)
A. 45psi
B. 50psi
C. 55psi
D. 60psi
63. When you do the aircraft refueling with battery power (A,B1,B2)
A. The HOT BUSS is energized for ten minutes only after you put the BATT
POWER switch to the ON position.
B. HOT BUSS is always energized after you put the BATT POWER switch to the
ON position.
C. You must put the BATT POWER switch to the ON position and hold it during
refuelling process
64. When you do the aircraft pressure refueling with manual control (A,B1,B2)
Put the MODE SELECT switch to the REFUEL position
A.
B. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN
position and for the tank(s) which will not be refuelled to the SHUT
SHUT position.
8
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) of all the fuel tank(s) to the OPEN position
D. A & B
65. When you do the aircraft pressure refuelling without electrical power (B1,B2)
A. The high-level protection system will not operate,
B. Do not refuel through the two refuel/defuel coupling at the same time
C. The handle of the refuel coupling cap must point aft when the cap is closed and
locked.
D. All above
66. The maximum water contents permitted by the manufacture in hydraulic fluids
is: (B1)
A. 0,5%
B. 0,6%
C. 0,7%
D. 0,8%
67. Airbus recommends the maximum water contents permitted in hydraulic
hydraulic fluids is
(B1)
A. 0,5%
B. 0,6%
C. 0,7%
D. 0,8%
68. The aircraft configuration requirements for filling the hydraulic fluid reservoir
are: (A,B1,B2)
A. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are closed
B. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors and the landing gear doors are opened
C. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are closed and the landing gear doors
are opened
D. The FWD, AFT cargo-compartment doors are opened and the landing gear doors
are closed
69. When
the Hydraulic
Fluid Reservoir
Thedoing
hydraulic
system operating
normally Filling (A, B1, B2)
A.
B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized
C. Do not depressurize the system reservoirs
D. Green hydraulic system must be depressurized
70. What happen if you fill to much hydraulic fluid in the reservoir? (A, B1, B2)
A. Hydraulic system can not operate
B. A message "reservoir overfull" appear on ECAM
C. You cannot pressurize it the reservoir sufficiently and may cause the message
"RSVR LO AIR PR" on ECAM.
D. Hydraulic fluid transfers to other reservoir.
71. After removal/installation of large hydraulic components. (B1,B2)
A. You must fill in the related components with hydraulic fluid.
9
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. You must do the related bleeding procedure to make sure that the quantity of the
hydraulic fluid in the system is correct and refill if necessary.
C. You must change the hydraulic fluid.
D. You must do the hydraulic sampling.
72.When filling the hydraulic fluid Reservoir with a hydraulic service cart, the
maximum supply pressure is: (A,B1, B2)
A. 3.5 +0.3 -0 bar (50.7631 +4.3511 -0.0000 psi)
B. 30 bar (435,1132 psi).
C. 45 bar (652,669 psi)
D. 50 bar (725,188 psi)
73. If you think there are fuel fumes when you remove the oil filter cap of the engine
oil tank. (A,B1)
A. You must let the oil tank pressure bleed off for a minimum of 5 minutes before you
remove the tank filler cap for oil servicing.
B. Add oil in the oil tank to full mark
C. Replace the fuel/oil heat exchanger then flush the engine oil system
D. Flush the oil tank and fill in with new oil.
74. When filling the hydraulic power accumulators with Nitrogen: (A,B1)
A. All hydraulic systems must be depressurized
B. The reservoirs air pressurize system must be depressurized
C. Do not depressurize the hydraulic systems
D. Green hydraulic system must be depressurized
ATA-20: STANDARD PRACTICES & DOCUMENTATION
75. Where can you find characteristics and complimentary information of the Part
Number: (B1,B2)
A. IPC or AMM
B. ASM or AMM
C. IPC or ESPM
D. ESPM
76. Where you can find procedure for installation of the Push Button swicth: (B2)
A. AMM
B. IPC
C. ASM
D. ESPM
77. In the AMM tasks, “WARNING” is meant: (A,B1,B2)
A. Calls attention to use of materials,processes,methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
78. In the AMM tasks, “CAUTION” is meant: (A,B1,B2)
10
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. Calls attention to use of materials,processes,methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
79. In the AMM tasks, “NOTE” is meant: (A,B1,B2)
A. Calls attention to use of materials,processes,methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
80. The Wiring Diagram Manual (WDM) content: (B1,B2)
A. ASM & AWM
B. SRM & AWM
C. ASM & AWL
D. ASM, AWM and AWL
81. You can access to the Aircraft Wiring List (AWL) by: (B2)
A.
Function
the ALPHA-INDEX
B. Fin
using using
the EQUIPMENT
LIST or HOOK-UP LIST
C. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST or by wire number using tthe
he
MASTER WIRE LIST
D. Wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST
82. ASM gives : (B1,B2)
A. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficiant data for A/C fault
isolation
B. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation
C. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
83. TSM gives: (B1,B2)
A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation
B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
C. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficiant data for A/C fault
isolation
84. AWM gives: (B2)
A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation
B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
C. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficiant data for A/C fault
isolation
D. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
85. A.
AMM
Thegives:
status(A,B1,B2)
of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
B. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
11
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. The information required to service, repair, replace, adjust, inspect and check
equipments and systems of the A/C normally performed on the ramp or in the
maintenance hangar
D. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficiant data for A/C fault
isolation
ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING
86. When the cabin pressurization system in manual mode and with the MAN V/S
CTL selection in UP position: (B1,B2)
A. The cabin pressure increases
increases
B. The cabin altitude increases
C. The outflow valve moves to the closed position
D. The cabin altitude decreases
87. In case of duct overheat the HOT AIR FAULT light will extinguishes when:
(B1,B2)
A. The HOT AIR p/b is reset
B. The duct overheat goes
goes off
C. A and B
D. The pressure regulating valve re-opens
88. When
emergency
ram air inlet is open and the delta P is less than 1 PSI : (B1)
A. Thethe
outflow
valve closes
B. The outflow valve partially
partially opens
C. Both pack valves close
D. Both safety valves open
89. Which temperature sensor controls the pack temperature? (B1,B2)
A. Pack inlet temperature sensor
B. Pack outlet temperature sensor
C. Compressor outlet temperature sensor
D. Water extractor temperature
temperature sensor
90. With the zone controller failed completely, the pack outlet temperature is
controlled by: (B1,B2)
A. The anti-ice valve
B. The pack Controller
C. The turbine by-pass valve
D. The pressure regulating valve
91. How is the basic temperature regulation generated? (B1,B2)
a. It corresponds to the lowest zone temperature demand,.
b. It adjusts the temperature in the three zones.
c. It corresponds to the highest zone temperature demand.
92. What is the function of the trim air valve? (B1)
a. To optimize the zone temperature by adding cold air.
b. To optimize the zone temperature by adding hot air.
c.
To regulate the hot air pressure.
93. What is the main purpose of the pack anti ice valve? (A,B1,B2)
12
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. To stop the ice formation across the primary heat exchanger.
B. To stop the ice formation across the main heat exchanger.
C. To stop the ice formation across pack condenser.
94. What is the purpose of pack bypass valve? (B1)
a. To reduce the air flow to the compressor stage.
b. To modulate the pack discharge temperature.
c. To increase the air flow to the turbin stage.
95. What is the purpose of the pack RAM AIR flaps? (A,B1,B2)
a. To ensure cabin ventilation in case both packs fail.
b. To provide air to the pack compressor.
c. To modulate the main air flow through the heat exchangers.
96. What protects the packs from overheat condition? (B1,B2)
A. Electrical sensor in the mixer unit
B. An overheat pneumatic sensor, two electrical sensors at compressor outlet
C. An electrical sensor at the water separator outlet
D. A differential pressure operated valve
valve
97. What flow is delivered by pack with Pack Flow selector on LO and bleed air
supplied by the APU? (A,B1,B2)
a.
b.
c.
Low
Normal
High
98. The motor number 3 of the outflow valve is controlled from: (B1,b2)
A. CPC 1 or CPC 2
B. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 1
C. “ MAN ” part of the CPC in position 2
D. The “Cabin Press “ control panel.
99. On the cabin pressure panel, the FAULT light illuminates when: (B1,B2)
A. SYS 1 or SYS 2 fails
B. SYS 1 and SYS 2 fail
C. No landing elevation from FMGS
D. Manual mode is selected
100. The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid : (A,B1,B2)
A. Excessive positive pressure diferential
B. Excessive negative pressure diferential
C. Excessive cabin altitude.
D. A and B
101. When ditching is selected : (B1,B2)
A. The safety valves and outflow valve are confirmed closed, the pack valves stay
open
B. The ventilation inlet and extract valves are opened and the pack valves close
C. The outflow valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack
close valve, the emergency ram air, the ventilation extract valve and pack
D. valves
The outflow
valves open
13
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
102. Where do you check the correct manual landing elevation setting? (B1,B2)
A. On ECAM “ CAB PRESS “ page
B. On the scale of LDG ELEV selector
C. On ECAM “ COND “ page
D. No need, because it is automatic ( From FMGC )
103. Where is the ventilation air expelled when both fans P/B are set to OVRD?
(B1,B2)
A. To the skin heat exchanger
B. Overboard
C. To the cargo under floor
104. When does the avionics ventilation air come from when any OVRD selected?
(A,B1,B2)
A. From the avionics bay
B. From outside the aircraft
C. From the air conditioning duct
D. No ventilation. System is inoperative.
105. What is the purpose of the avionic ventilation skin heat exchanger? (A,B1,B2)
A. To cool the air coming from the avionics equipment when Isolation valve is open.
B. To
To cool
reheat
coming
avionics
system
C.
airair
before
it isfrom
ducted
under ventilation
the cargo compartment.
ATA-22: AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM
106. The FCU allows: (B2)
A. selection of radio-nav frequuencies
B. modification of the flight plan of FM parts
C. used control of the aircraft for long term
D. used control of the aircraft for short term
107. With the aircraft on ground, it is impossible to: (B2)
A. have an AP active, engines on
B. disengage an AP, engines on
C. engage an AP, engines on
D. engage an AP, engines off
108. The FAC computes rudder travel limit: (B2)
A. only when AP engaged
B. only in case of ELAC failure
C. only at a/c low speed
D. at any times
109. The Flight Director is engaged: (B2)
A. by pressing the FD p/b on the
the FCU
B. by selecting a mode on the FCU
C. automatically at system power rise
D. by selecting the INT page on the MCDU
110. With the AP engaged, the rudder is normally controlled during cruise by: (B2)
14
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A.
B.
C.
D.
the FAC
the ELAC
the FMGC
the SEC
111. The AFS computers are: (B2)
A. FMGC and FAC
B. FAC and ELAC
C. FMGC and SEC
D. ELAC and SEC
112. The FMGC fuctions are: (B2)
A. flight guidance and flight envelope protection
B. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control
C. flight management and flight envelope protection
D. flight management and flight guidance
113. The Flight Guidance are: (B2)
A. autopilot,flight director,autothrust
B. flight management,autopilot,autothrust
C. autopilot,flight plan,autothrust
D. autopilot, flight director, flight plan
114. The MCDUs allow: (B2)
A. used control of the aircraft for short term
B. modification of FG parts
C. used control of the aircraft for long term
D. make the flight plan and engage the autopilots
115. The main function of the FAC are: (B2)
A. yaw damper,rudder trim,rudder travel limitation
B. yaw damper,rudder trim,flight envelope protection
C. rudder trim,rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection
D. yaw damper,rudder trim,rudder travel limitation, flight envelope protection
116. In flight AP can be engaged when: (B2)
A. aircraft in take off phase
B. aircraft in climb phase
C. at least 5 seconds after lift-off
D. aircraft in cruise phase
117. Rudder travel limitation is a function of: (B2)
A. FAC only
B. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate
C. ELAC only
D. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate
118. The trim function of the FAC is: (B2)
A. A pitch trim
B. A rudder trim
C. An
elevator
trim
D.
A rudder
trim
and a pitch trim
15
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
119.The trust limit is computed by: (B2)
A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode
B. The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position
C. The ECU (EEC) according to the
the AP/FD mode
mode
D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC)
(EEC) order
120. In Auto mode the trust target is computed by: (B2)
A. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode
B. The ECU (EEC) according to the thrust lever position
C. The ECU (EEC) according to the AP/FD mode
mode
D. The FMGC according to the ECU (EEC)
(EEC) order
121. The mandatory parameter used by FAC for Alpha Floor protection is: (B2)
A. A/C maximum speed
B. A/C minimum speed
C. A/C angle of attack
D. A/C minimum selected speed
122. Normally FAC 1 uses Vc input signal to computes RTL from: (B2)
A. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 2
B. ADIRU 1 and ADIRU 3
C. ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3
D. ADIRU 1,ADIRU 2 and ADIRU 3
123. The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the: (B2)
A. FCU
B. Master FMGC
C. RMPs
D. ADIRS CDU
124. In normal operation the ADIRU’S are aligned using information from the: (B2)
A. FCU
B. ADIRS CDU
C. AIDS
D. FMGCs
125. In cruise, lateral AP orders are executed by: (B2)
A. Ailerons and rudder
B. Aileron and spoilers
C. Spoilers and rudder
D. Spoilers, ailerons and rudder
126. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR activated, the A/THR mode:
(B2)
A. Depends on the AP vertical mode
B. Depends on the AP lateral mode
C. Can be set by the pilot via FCU
D. Can be set by the pilot via MCDUs
127.A.The
“GROUND
allows: (B2)
AFS
computers SCAN”
test on ground
B. Land cat 3 capability test on ground
16
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. AFS fault detection on ground
D. Complementary tests during landing
128. In case of FMGC 2 failure, FMGC 1 auto tunes: (B2)
A. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 2
B. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 1
C. Side 2 radio nav receivers directly
D. Side 2 radio nav receivers through RMP 3
129. The fuel and time prediction functions are performed by: (B2)
A. FG part of the FMGCs
B. FM part of the FMGCs
C. The FAC
D. The DMC
130.On the FMA, in the fifth column: (B2)
A. A/THR can be in green only
B. A/THR in cyan indicates A/THR is active
C. A/THR can be in green or cyan only
D. A/THR in white indicates A/THR is active
131. In flight, you can engage the second AP during: (B2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cruise phase
Descend phase
Approach phase and ILS armed
A/C on ground
132. With AP 1 engaged: (B2)
A. FMGC 1 supply both FMAs
B. FMGC 1 supply FMA on CAPT PFD ,FMGC 2 supply
s upply FMA on F/O PFD
C. FMGC 1 supply FMA on F/O PFD ,FMGC 2 supply FMA on CAPT PFD
D. FMGC 2 supply both FMAs
ATA-23: COMMUNICATION
133.The main task of the Decoder encoder unit is to: (B2)
A. interface between directors and aircraft systems
B. interface between directors and cabin systems
C. control the various cabin systems
D. enable cabin configuration to be changed and system test to be performed
134.The SELCAL function: (B2)
A. performed by an independent unit
unit connected to the AMU
B. intergrated in the AMU
C. performed inside each transceiver
D. performed inside each ACP
135.If the FWD attendant calls the cockpit: (B2)
A. ATT light comes on on
on all the ACPs and a buzzer is generated by the FWC
B. CALL
light
light comes on on
on the attendant indication panel and a buzzer is generated
by the CIDS
C. ATT light comes on on the capt’s ACP and buzzer is generated by FWC
17
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
D. ATT light comes on on the forward attendant panel
panel and a high low chime is
generated by the CIDS
136.Aircraft on ground, in order to communicate from the cockpit to the APU
position , you must: (A,B1,B2)
A. Select the INT on the audio control panel,and press the “SERV INT” pushbutton
B. press “CAB” transmission key
C. press the “SERV INT” pushbutton
D. press “CAB” receiving knob
137.The ACPs reset key is used to: (B2)
A. Extinguish all the lights
B. Extinguish all the lighted calls
C. Cancel all previuos selections
D. Extinguish all ACPs lights
138.Which is the quickest way to make a passenger address announcement from the
cockpit? (B2)
(B2)
A. Using the handset
B. Using the handmike
C. Using the boomset
D. Using the oxygenmask microphone
139.Which is the main unit if the CIDS? (B2)
A. The CAM
B. The DEUs
C. The directors
D. The FAP
140.VOR 2 tuning frequencies can be controlled by the: (B2)
A. RMP 1 or FMGC
B. RMP 2 only
C. Either RMP 1,RMP 2 or RMP 3
D. RMP 2 or FMGC
141.When selecting VHF 2 on RMP 1 the “SEL” light: (B2)
A. does not illuminate
B. illuminates on RMP 1 and RMP 2
C. illuminates on RMP 1 only
D. illuminates on RMP 2 only
142.“MECH” legend flashing amber on an ACP means: (A,B1,B2)
A. An internal ACP failure has been detected
B. The ground mechanic request a communication with the crew
C. The cabin attendant requests a communication with the crew
D. The ground mechanic request a communication with the cabin attendent
143.The cabin loudspeakers are connected to the (B2)
A. Deu A
B. Deu
Directors
C.
B
D. Area call panel
18
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
144.If the Director 1 fails, what happens? (B2)
A. director 2 take over and provides the PA function only
B. You must energize the emergency mode by pressing the EMER pushbutton on FAP
C. The DEU A are disconnected,due to the TOP CUT OFF relay
D. Director 2 provides automatically all the CIDS functions
145.Which unit provides the amplification function for the cabinloudspeaker? (B2)
A. The AMU
B. The directors
C. The CAM
D. The DEU A
146.Three green bars illuminated on the ACP’S VHF 2 key means: (B2)
A. VHF 2 operation is correct
B. A selcal is received on VHF 2
C. VHF 2 is selected in transmission
D. VHF 2 is selected in reception
147.VHF used for: (B2)
A. Short range communication
B. Long range communication
C. Communication between A/C and ground station
D. Communication between A/C and other A/C
148.HF used for: (B2)
A. Short range communication
B. Long range communication
C. Communication between A/C and ground station
D. Communication between A/C and other A/C
149.When one engine is running, the audio level of cabin loudspeakers is increased,
which unit controls this function? (B2)
A. The DEUs
B. The directors
C. The CAM
D. The programming and test panel
150.The loudspeaker volume knobs allow: (A,B1,B2)
A. Controls the loudness of aural alerts and voice messages
B. Controls the loudness of voice messages only
C. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication
D. Adjusts the volume of the loudspeaker for radio communication , aural alerts and
voice messages
151.When aircraft is on jacks, in order to communicate from cockpit to APU
compartment, the first you must: (B1,B2)
A. Press “CAB” transmision key on ACP
B. Press “INT” transmision key on ACP
C. Select
the INT/RAD
switchpushbutton
to INT position
D.
Press “SVCE
INT OVRD”
switch on overhead panel
19
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
152.The ACARS allows: (B1,B2)
A. Interface between system and other system of the aircraft
B. Interface between aircraft and other aircraft
C. Interface between aircraft and any ground stations
D. Direct exchange of data between aicraft and airline computer through VHF 3
153.What does the illumination of the “CALL” light on the VHF or HF transmision
keys indicate? (B2)
A. The SELCAL system detects a call
B. The tower call the aircraft
C. The call from cabin attendent
D. The call from ground mechanic
154.Whih RPM is powered in the emergency electrical configuration? (B2)
A. RMP 1 and RMP 2
B. RMP 1
C. RMP 2
D. RMP 1 ,RMP 2 and RMP 3
155.When ACP 1 fails: (B2)
A. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to F/O 3
position
B. ACP 3 take over automatically
C. The audio control functions are lost
D. ACP 3 take over by selecting the selector on audio switching panel to CAPT 3
position
156.Escape slide and door pressure sensors are connected to: (B2)
A. DEU A
B. DEU B
C. Directors
D. Programming and test panel
157.How are the communications radios controlled? (B2)
A. From any one of the 3 RMP’s
B. From any one of the 3 ACP’s
C. From any one of the 2 MCDU’s
D. From any one of the 3 RMP’s and one of the 3 ACP’s
ATA-24: ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
158.DC BAT BUS can be supplied by the: (B1,B2)
A. DC BUS 1 or batteries
B. DC BUS 2 or batteries
C. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries
D. Only DC BUS 1
159.How is the RAT extension system controlled? (B1,B2)
A. By mean of two solenoids energized at the same time
B.
mean of
of two
threesolenoids
solenoids
C. By
By mean
D. By mean of one solenoid only
20
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
160.The supply priorities for FOR AC BUS 1 (2) are: (B1,B2)
A. The related IDG, then the other IDG, then External Power, then the APU
Generator
B. External Power, then the APU Generator, then the related IDG, then the other
IDG
C. External Power, then the related IDG, then the other IDG, then the APU
Generator
D. The related IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator, then the other
IDG
161.Thee AC
161.Th
AC ESS
ESS BUS is norm ally suppl ied by: (B1,B2)
A. AC BUS 2
.
B. AC BUS 1
C. Static Inverter
D. Emergency Generator
162.What is the DC ESS BUS supplied by if TR2 has failed: (B1,B2)
A. TR 1
B. ESS TR
C. BAT 2
D. AC 1
163.The Static Inverter operates (B1,B2)
A. Only in flight
B. Permanently
C. When on batteries
D. When one engine generator fails
164.On ground, aircraft is not electrically supplied,
supplied, the activation of <MAN ON>
swicth P/B causes: (B1,B2)
A. Reset of CSM/G control unit
B. RAT extension
C. Nothing to happen
h appen
D. Test of RAT and EMERGEN fault light
165.The emergency generator is located (B1,B2)
A. In APU compartment
B. In the Main Wheel Well
C. In the Avionics Compartment above batteries
D. Alongside the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
166.In “COLD” aircraft configuration, where the batteries’ voltage can be
checked? (A,B1,B2)
A. There is NO INDICATION
B. On the SCAM ELEC page
C. On the ELEC-OVERHEAD panel
D. On the EMR.ELEC.POWER
EMR.ELEC.POWER panel
167.With the emergency generator running (B1,B2)
A. Emergency generator takes over essential buses, only if both AC BUS 1 and 2 are
off
21
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Nothing happens
happe ns if generator
ge nerator 1 and 2 supply
suppl y their own networks
C. Emergency generator takes over essential buses
D. And a generator fails, the
t he emergency generator takes over the corresponding
networks .
168.When the SMOKE push button
button released out: (B1,B2)
A. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from AC BUS1
B. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 2
C. Fuel pump 1 on the left and right supply, direct from GEN. 1
D. Fuel pump 2 on the left and right supply direct from GEN 1
169.What is the DC ESS BUS SHED supply if TR 1 has failed (B1,B2)
A. TR 1
B. BAT 2
C. ESS TR
D. BAT 1
170.Can you reset IDG 1 in the flight? (B1,B2)
A. Yes
B. No
171.What is the configuration if BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 closed (B1,B2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
EXT PWR "supplies AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 supplies AC BUS 2
APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and
a nd AC BUS 2
APU GEN supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS2
GEN 1 supplies AC BUS 1 and EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2
172.Following an IDG 1 overtemperature, IDG 1 is: (B1,B2)
A. Automatically de-energized and re-energized as soon as the Temperature returns to
Normal
B. Manually de-energized by
by pressing GEN 1 Pushbutton
C. Automatically disconnected and reconnected as soon as the Temperature returns to
Normal
D. Disconnected by pressing the guarded IDG 1 Pushbutton
Pushbutton
173.Maintenance buses only are supplied when: (A, B1,B2)
A. External power is connected and blue ON light on EXT PWR pushbutton
illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position
B. External power is connected and the green AVAIL light on EXT PWR pushbutton
illuminated; MAIN BUS switch is ON position
C. Any generator is coupled to the network; MAIN BUS switch is in ON position,
D. The APU generator or external power is connected.; EXT PWR pushbutton
illuminated; MAIN BUS switch in ON position
174.Both light “AVAIL” and “NOT IN USE” in the external power receptacle are
illuminated when: (A,B1,B2)
A. An External
External Power Source is supplying the Aircraft Network
B. An External
External Power Source is supplying the Maintenance Bus Bars
C. At least one External
External Power Parameter is not correct, the External Power Contactor
(EPC) stays Open
D. All External Power Parameters are correct but the
the EPC is Open
22
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
175.If a high APU generator oil temperature detection occurs: (A, B1,B2)
A. An immediate APU shut down is commanded and the APU Generator is denergized
B. The APU Generator is disconnected only
C. The APU Generator Fault Light illuminates only
D. A Warning
Warning Message is displayed on ECAM only
176.What does the AC ESS FEED PB white “ALT” light indicates? (B1, B2)
A. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 1
B. AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2
C. AC ESS BUS is supplied by EMER GEN
D. AC ESS BUS is supplied by STATIC INVERTER
177.How is the DC BAT BUS normally powered by? (B1, B2)
A. BATTERIES
B. DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
C. DC BUS 2
D. DC ESS BUS
178.What does the EXT PWR PB “AVAIL” light illuminated on EXT PWR panel
means?
(A, B1, B2)
A. External power is plugged in,and all parameters are normal
B. All external power parameters are normal but not plugged in
C. External power is plugged in
D. External power is plugged in and supplied to A/C network
179.If both main AC BUSES lose electrical power with airspeed above kts, what will
happen?
(B1,B2)
A. Nothing
B. The RAT deploys
C. The EMER GEN supply power to the A/C network
D. The RAT automatically deploys and pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system,which
drives the hydraulic driven EMER GEN
180.What is the output of the emergency generator? (B1,B2)
A. 90 KVA
B. 10 KVA
C. 5 KVA
D. 1 KVA
181.What is the purpose of the static inverter? (B1,B2)
A. To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the BAT when operating in the
EMER ELEC configuration
B. To provide DC power
power to the DC ESS
ESS bus
C. To provide AC power to the AC BUS 1 from the BAT when operating in the
EMER ELEC configuration
D. To provide AC power to the AC STATIC INV bus from the BAT when operating
in the EMER ELEC configuration
182.What is the output of APU generator? (A, B1,B2)
A. 90 KVA
B. 50 KVA
23
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. 5 KVA
D. 1 KVA
ATA25: FURNISHING
183.Smoke hoods are supplied for the cabin attendants to: (A,B1,B2)
A. Supply oxygen for passengers.
B. Fight a fire or against emission of smoke or noxious gases.
C. Breathe oxygen.
184. Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted? (B1)
A. On the upper sidewall panels
B. On the ceiling panels
C. On the lower sidewall panels
185. From where the escape slide inflation cylinder is checked? (B1)
A. From the cargo compartment only.
B. From the PTP only.
C. From the cargo compartment or from the PTP.
186. Which device has to be unlocked before closing the slide window? (A,B1,B2)
A. A locking pin on the sliding window frame.
B. The sliding window operating handle.
C. None.
187. Which cabin panels are removable? (A,B1)
A. Lower sidewall panels only.
B. All the panels.
C. Upper sidewall panels only.
188.Where are passenger oxygen masks stored? (A,B1,B2)
A. In the passenger service unit
B. In the seat arm rest
C. In the overhead stowage compartment
189. Where are the A320 aircraft inflation reservoirs of the escape slide of emergency
exit door located? (B1,B2)
A. in the container at the bottom of the door
B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door
C. In the aft cargo compartment
190. When you check the pax door escape/slide inflation cylinder, where must the
pressure indication be? (B1,B2)
A. In the green GO band
B. In the red band
C. At zero.
191. In the cargo compartment where are the rapid decompression panels installed?
(B1)
24
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. In the cut out of the ceiling panels
B. In the fixed partition walls
C. In the cut out of the ceiling panels and lateral right side wall linings
192. The cargo loading control box being supplied, which latch insures the
energization of the PDUs? (B1,B2)
A. The door sill latch
B. The ZX-single latch 32.
C. The fixed YZ latch.
193. Captain and First Officer Seats are: (A,B1,B2)
A. Symmetrical and have the same function
B. Asymmetrical and have the same function
C. Have the same function and interchangeable.
D. Folding type and has no adjustment
194. Captain and First Officer Seats electrical control system permits (A,B1,B2)
A. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction
B. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the backrest
C. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the lumbar rest
D. All above
195. The rapid-decompression safety-system is installed in the aircraft (B1,B2)
A. Prevents structural damage to the fuselage and damage to the equipment and
furnishings
B. Provides quick escape facility of the aircraft
C. Provides quick access to aircraft area.
D. Prevents overpressure to aircraft area
196. Where is the inflation cylinder of the passenger door escape slide located? (B1)
A. In a container at the bottom of the door.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment over the door.
C. In the aft cargo compartment.
D. In the fwd cargo compartment.
197. The A320 aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slide at: (A,B1,B2)
A. The 4 entry doors.
B. The overwing exits
C. The 4 entry doors and the overwing exits
198.The sidestick armrest of Captain and First Officer seats (B1,B2)
A. Possible to lift it vertically and stow it behind the backrest
B. Located on the inboard side of the seat
C. Possible to adjust the height and the tilt angle of the side stick armrest
D. Can not fold back to a vertical position
199.Third Occupant seat in the cockpit (A,B1,B2)
A. Can slide along the Y-axis to take up a position on the aircraft centerline
25
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Have longitudinal adjustment
C. Can moves longitudinally and vertically
D. Attached to the left rear panel in the cockpit
200.The passenger seats (A,B1,B2)
A. Seat pans are upholstered and not foldable or adjustable
B. Can fold the inner armrests between the backrests
C. Upholstered backrest assembly of each seat may be adjusted
D. All above
201.The Passenger Service/Information Units (PSIUs) (A,B1,B2)
A. Has two primary units: Passenger Service Unit (PSU) and Passenger Information
Unit (PIU)
B. The Passenger Service Unit (PSU), installed above each seat row
C. The Passenger Information Unit (PIU), installed above each second seat row
D. All above
202. The aircraft galley has two optional configurations: wet galley and dry galley
(B1,B2)
A. Wet galley has electrical equipment, a potable water supply and waste water
equipment.
B. Wet galley has a potable water supply only
C. Wet galley has no system supplies
D. Wet galley has electrical supply
ATA 26 - FIRE PROTECTION
203. Where are the Engine fire detectors located? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the Fan and the Turbine and Pylon
B. On the Pylon, the Fan and the Core
C. On the Core, Gearbox and the Nozzle
204. Is the extinguishing system controlled by the FDU: (A,B1,b2)
A. Yes, continuously
B. Yes, whenever engine fire is detected
C. No
205. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished: (A,B1,B2)
A. From APU fire panel.
B. From APU compartment
C. Automatically.
D. From extenal power panel.
206. You press the APU shut off push button at 108VU panel to? (A,B1,B2)
A. Initiate the shut down the APU with cooling down sequence.
B. Initiate the emegency shut down of APU without cooling down sequence.
C. Initiate the emegency shut down of APU and discharge the APU fire bottle.
207. How many fire detectors does the APU fire detection system comprise of?
(B1,B2)
26
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
208.To test the APU auto extinguising function, you must : (A,B1,B2)
A. Select APU master switch ON.
B. Press the APU fire TEST push button.
C. Select APU master switch ON and press the APU fire TEST push button.
209. When the Engine fire pushbutton is released out what aircraft system are
isolated: (B1,b2)
A. Fuel, Air, Electricity, Hydraulic.
B. Fuel, Air, Oil, Hydraulic.
C. Fuel, Air, Hydraulic.
D. Fuel, Electricity, Hydraulic.
210. What additional external warning is/ are activated in case of APU fire on
GROUND? (A,B1,B2)
A. APU fire light & external horn warning.
B. A fire bell warning.
C. An external horn warning only.
D. An external horn warning & Red disk indicator disappears.
211. The agent push button is active when: (B1,B2)
A. The corresponding “ Disch ” light is on.
B. Engine fire pushbutton illuminates.
C. Engine fire pushbutton is pressed and released.
D. It is pressed.
212. What does the Engine fire TEST push button verify? (B1,B2)
A. Only the fire detection loop A and B, FDU, indication and warnings.
B. Only the squib circuit of AGENT 1 and 2.
C. Both simultaneously.
213. When the Engine fire P/B is released out, which corresponding fire valve are
closed (B1,B2)
A. Fuel cross feed valve.
B. LP fuel and hydraulic fire shut off valve.
C. HP fuel shut off valve.
214.When the Engine fire P/B is released out (B1,B2)
A. Pack valve & Bleed valve closed
B. Only engine bleed valve closed
C. None of them closed.
215.When the Engine fire P/B is released out, what happens to the electrical
generation? (B1,B2)
A. IDG de-energised.
B. IDG disconnected.
C. IDG energised.
216.Lavatory fire extinguishing is performed by? (A,B1,B2)
27
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. Portable extinguishers.
B. Fire bottles.
C. Waste bin fire extinguishers.
217.How can the avionic compartment smoke detector be tested? (B1,B2)
A. Permanently by AEVC.
B. By the dedicated test push button.
C. By a manual test from CFDS.
218.Which warning lights are triggered in case smoke detected in avionic
compartment? (B1,B2)
A. BLOWER FAULT and EXTRACT FAULT.
B. GEN1 LINE SMOKE.
C. Both of the above.
219.What happens if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2)
A. The LAV smoke detection is INOP.
B. The Cargo smoke detection is INOP.
C. Both LAV and Cargo smoke detection system are INOP.
220.If smoke is detected in AFT cargo compartment, what happens? (B1,B2)
A. AFT cargo ventilation system automatically closed.
B. Fire extinguishing bottle will be discharged automatically in to AFT cargo
compartment.
C. Both of the above.
221.How many fire extinguishing bottle(s) is(are) provided for the cargo
compartments? (A,B1,B2)
A. There’s one for FWD and one for AFT cargo compartment.
B. There’s one for both FWD and AFT cargo compartments.
C. None.
222.What is the design principle of the engine fire loop? (B1,B2)
A. Resistance.
B. Pressure.
C. Capacitor.
ATA27 FLIGHT CONTROL:
223.In normal condition, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2)
A. Bank angle and stall protections
B. Bank angle and high speed protections
C. Stall protection only
224.Which modes exist for an elevator servo control actuator? (B1)
A. Only the re-centering mode
B. Active, damping and centering mode
C. Active and damping mode
D. Active, damping and locking mode
28
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
225.With complete EFCS (ELECTRIC FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM) failure the
rudder and THS are: (B1,B2)
A. Lost
B. Controlled by mechanical channels
C. Only usable during land/recovery
D. Operated electrically
226.If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed: (B1,B2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pitch control is provided by the FAC's
Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheels
Pitch control is controlled by SEC 2 or 1
Pitch control is controlled by the FCDC's
227.Which modes exist for an aileron elevator servo control actuator? (B1)
A. Only the re-centering mode
B. Active, damping and centering mode
C. Active and damping mode
D. Active, damping and locking mode
228.What effect on the slat and flap system will
will failure of SFCC 2 cause? (B1,B2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slat system operates at half speed
Flap system operates at half speed
Slat and flap systems operate at half speed
Slat and flap systems are locked
229.Slat retraction from 18° to fully retracted is inhibited if : (B1,B2)
A. α > 8.5° or CAS < 148 Kts
B. α < 7.1° or CAS > 171 Kts
C. α > 8.5° or CAS > 148 Kts
D. α > 8.5° or CAS < 171 Kts
230.Which surfaces are used for the load alleviation function? (B1,B2)
A. Ailerons and spoilers 1 and 2
B. Ailerons and spoilers 4 and 5
C. Only spoilers
D. Ailerons and spoilers 1 to 4
231.How many servo control actuators power the rudder surface? (B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
232.When both side sticks are moved in the same or opposition direction: (B1,B2)
A. The surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflection of both
side sticks
B. The surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflection
C. The surface movement follows the captain's side stick deflection
29
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
D. The surface movement follows the co-pilot's side stick deflection
233.If one hydraulic system fails: (B1,B2)
A. Only the roll and pitch axes are available
B. All the three axes are available with some roll spoiler retraction
C. Manual pitch trim and rudder are available
D. All servo control actuators are supplied through the PTU 89.
234.What signals cause the rudder pedal movement? (B1,B2)
A. Yaw damping signals.
B. Rudder trim signals
C. Turn coordination signal
D. Nothing
235.With one flap PCU motor inoperative, the flap system: (B1,B2)
A. Operates at half speed
B. Operates normally
C. Is locked by the pressure off brakes on both wings
D. Is locked by the wing tip brakes
236.FAC
1 controls and monitors one yaw damper, one electrical rudder trim motor
and: (B1,B2)
A. One electrical motor for the rudder travel limitation unit
B. One servo actuator on each elevator
C. Both THS trim motors
D. The mechanical linkage from rudder pedals
237.In normal conditions, what are the active protections in flare mode? (B1,B2)
A. Bank angle and stall protections
B. Bank angle and high speed protections
C. Stall protection only
238.What are the active protections in direct law (B1,B2)
A. Stall protection
B. No protection
C. High speed protection
239.What happens if an electric trim motor fails (B1,B2)
A. THS electric trim is lost
B. THS trims at half speed
C. THS electric trim is fully available
240.Which signals cause rudder pedal movements (B1,B2)
A. Yaw damping signals
B. Rudder trim signals
C. Turn coordination signals
30
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
241.What happens when slat/flap config is 1+F and CAS (Calibrated air speed)
reaches 210 knots? (B1,B2)
A. Flaps retract automatically to 0 and the new Slat/Flap config is 1
B. Flaps extend automatically because the speed too high
C. The alpha lock function is engaged because the speed too high
242.When is the half speed monitor active? (B1,B2)
A. As soon as the directional valve energized
B. When the control valve is in full speed position
C. Always
243.SFCC 1 flap channel has failed. What are the consequences for the flap system?
(B1,B2)
A. The flap system is locked by WTB.
B. The flap system is not affected
C. The flap system operates at half speed
244.Where are the Wing Tib Brakes located? (B1,B2)
A. At the wing tib, outboard of the APPU
B. Between tract 11 and 12, in each wing.
C. Between tract 7 and 8, in each wing.
245.Where are the torque limiters located? (B1,B2)
A. On the torque sharps
B. On the actuators
C. On the PCU output sharps
ATA 28 – FUEL SYSTEM
246.The fuel suction (gravity feed) valves are: (B1)
A. Always open regardless of pumps status
B. Normally closed by pumps pressure
C. Normally closed by spring force
D. Open automatically when fuel cross feed is selected on.
247.When does the FADEC close the fuel return valve? (B1)
A. With a signal from the FLSCU
B. With a signal from the FQIs
C. If the IDG oil is too hot
D. With an outer cell overfilling
248.What happens if you extend the slats, with fuel in the center tank, all pumps are
running, center tank pumps are on “AUTO” mode? (B1,B2)
A. Center tank pumps stop
B. Center tank pumps start
C. Wing tank pumps start
D. Pumps operation is not affected
249.A pressure swicth for each pump monitors a: (A,B1,B2)
A. Pressure differential
31
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Feed pipe pressurization
C. Pressure increase
D. Loss of pressure
250.What happen if a high level is detected? (A,B1,B2)
A. A warning is triggered: too
too much fuel
B. Booster pumps
pumps are not operating correctly
C. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes
D. All the refueling operating is stopped
251.Are wing pumps running while center tank is supplying? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes, wing tank pumps run continuously
B. No, only when center tank is empty
C. No, because of center tank pump
pump priority
D. One of the two pumps is running in stand-by
252.When the center tank is empty, in auto mode, center tank pumps: (A,B1,B2)
A. Must be manually switched OFF
B. Stop and wing tank pumps start running
C. Stop automatically
D. Run for 2 minutes
minutes
253.Refuel valves may be controlled: (A,B1,B2)
A. By refuel pressure
B. Electrically only
C. Manually only
D. Electrically or manually
254.The APU fuel feed is assured by: (A,B1,B2)
A. Fuel booster
booster pumps
pumps only
B. APU fuel pump only
C. All pumps together
D. A or B
255.What is the maximum total fuel capacity for VNA’s A320 aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
A. 12 470 KG
B. 15 588 KG
C. 18 932 KG
D. 20 829 KG
256.What does the fuel mode SEL pushbutton control? (B1,B2)
A. Center and wing tank pumps
B. Center tank pumps only
C. Wing tank pumps only
D. Pumps and valves operation
operation
257.In normal operation, each engine is supplied by: (A,B1,B2)
A. One wing tank pump and/ or
or one center tank pump
pump
B. Two wing tanks pumps and/ or one center tank pump
pump
C.
D.
Two wing tanks pumps and/ or two center tank pumps
One wing tank pump and/ or two center tank pumps
32
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
258.During refueling, the wing tank fills in the following order: (A,B1,B2)
A. The Outer cell and Inner cell at the same time
B. The Inner cell first, then the Outer cell
D. The Outer cell first, then the Inner cell
259.The inner cell is refueled only when? (A,B1,B2)
A. Center tank is full.
B. Outer cell is full.
C. Outer cell is empty.
260.The maximum refuel pressure is? (A,B1,B2)
A. 11 psi
B. 45 psi
C. 50 psi
261.The END light in the refuel/defuel panel illuninate, means? (A,B1,B2)
A. Pre-selected fuel is equal to actual fuel.
B. All fuel tanks are full, refuel process stopped automatically.
C. Any high level sensor detected fuel.
262.When performing the refuel, defuel, Ground transfer, the R/D electrical circuit is
enable by? (A,B1,B2)
A. Power from the aircraft electrical net work only.
B. Carrying out HI LVL test.
C. Contact R/D panel door switch.
263.What happens when low level is detected in the inner cell? (B1,B2)
A. Inner cell transfer valves open.
B. Inner cell transfer valves close to isolate the inner cells
C. Pumps restart to suck fuel from outer cells.
264.In which cell are the full level sensors fitted? (B1,B2)
A. Inner cells only.
B. Outer cells only.
C. Inner and outer cells.
265.To which tank does the re-circulated fuel returns? (B1,B2)
A. Inner cells.
B. Outer cells.
C. Center tanks.
ATA-29 HYDRAULIC:
266.In flight, if the blue electric pump fails the blue system: (A,B1,B2)
A. Is lost.
B. Can be recovered by the RAT.
C. Can be recovered by the PTU.
D. Both B and C.
267.Which component(s) send a Warning and Fault signals on the blue hydraulic
system? (B1,B2)
A. Only the low air pressure switch
33
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Only the low level detector
C. The high level detector
D. Overheat sensor, low air pressure switch and low level detector
268.In flight, the blue hydraulic system can be supplied by: (B1,B2)
A. The RAT and the electrical pump.
B. The engine driven pump.
C. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit).
D. It can not be supplied.
(Question is not so clear as in normal flight condition or in abnormal flight condition?)
269.The RAT is automatically extended in case of: (B1,B2)
A. Loss of AC bus1 and bus2 and speed above 100 Knots.
B. Blue hydraulic pump failure
C. Can only be extended manually.
D. Blue pump delivery pressure dropping below 1750 PSI.
270.During first engine start the PTU is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Automatically running.
B. Tested.
C. Inhibited.
271.During second engine start the PTU is: (B1, B2)
A. Automatically running.
B. Tested.
C. Inhibited.
272.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow hydraulic systems?
(B1)
A. The priority valve close automatically, cuts the pressure to the primary flight
controls, in order to supply the flaps
B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight controls
C. The priority valve closes cut off hydraulic power to the flaps, in order to supply the
other users
D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps.
273.When is engine fire Shut Off valve of a hydraulic system closed? (B1,B2)
A. Automatically when the engine is shut down
B. If the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C. Automatically as soon as engine fire is detected
274.To which system(s) will the Ram Air Turbine provide hydraulic power?
(A,B1,B2)
A. The blue system
B. The yellow system
C. The green and yellow systems
D. The blue and yellow systems
34
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
275.Where is the hydraulic system temperature sensor located? (B1,B2)
A. In the reservoir
B. On the return manifold
C. On the HP. filter
D. On the case drain filter
276.What will happen when the Yellow electric pump P/B is set to "ON", with
aircraft on ground, electrical power available, PTU selected to "AUTO" and engines
not running? (B1,B2)
A. The green and yellow systems are pressurized
B. The green and blue systems are pressurized
C. Only the yellow system is pressurized
D. The green, blue and yellow systems are pressurized
277.What happens if the hydraulic pressure drops, in the Yellow system? (B1)
A. The priority valve closes automatically, cuts the pressure to the primary flight
controls, in order to supply the flaps
B. The priority valve opens, and supply only the primary flight controls
C. The priority valve closes to cut off hydraulic power to the flaps, in order to supply
the other users
D. The priority valve modulates the pressure to the flaps
278.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized mode? (B1)
A. When the ENG PUMP pushbutton is set to OFF
B. The engine pump can not be depressurized as long as the engine is running
C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output pressure drops below
1450psi
279.What happens if hydraulic pressure drops? (A,B1,B2)
A. The priority valves give priority to the heavy loads users.
B. The priority valves give priority to the essential systems
C. The priority valves modulate the pressure to the users
280.A Blue system pipeline is identified by: (A,B1,B2)
A. A blue band and number 1.
B. A blue band and number 2.
C. A blue band and number 3.
281.When the PTU operation is inhibited? (B1,B2)
A. In case of cargo door operations with the yellow electric pump or first engine start.
B. Only if an engine failure has been detected.
C. Never, it cannot be inhibited.
282.When is the engine fire shut off valve closed? (A,B1,B2)
A. When the engine is shut down
B. Automatically as soon as an engine fire is detected.
C. If the engine fire pushbutton is release out.
35
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
283.When is the engine driven pump in the depressurized mode? (B1,B2) – The same
question 109
A. When eng pump pushbutton is set to OFF
B. The engine pump cannot be depressurized as the engine is running
C. The engine pump is automatically depressurized if the output pressure drops below
1450psi
284.How can the LH wing be supplied independently during the leak measurement
test? (B1)
A. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and operating the electric pump.
B. By pressurizing the yellow system by using the PTU.
C. By setting the leak measurement valve to OFF and manually open the LH wing
spool valve
285.What can the hand pump be used for? (A,B1,B2)
A. To pressurized the reservoir.
B. To check the flight controls
C. To operate the cargo doors
286.During which operation is the leak measurement valve closed automatically
(A,B1,B2)
A. PTU operation.
B. Cargo door operation.
C. Hand pump operation.
287.What are the manual depressurization valves provided for? (A, B1)
A. Individual reservoir depressurization
B. Depressurization of related hydraulic circuit
C. Hydraulic system depressurization
ATA 30 – ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
288.In case of electrical power failure, with engine running, the engine anti-ice valve
is: (B1,B2)
A. Fully closed
B. Fully open
C. Modulating
D. Mechanically latched in its last position
289.Slats protected by hot air supplied from the pneumatic system are: (B1,B2)
A. Three inboard leading edge slats
B. Three outboard leading edge slats
C. Slat 2, 3, 4
D. All the slats
290.When is the TAT probe heated? (B1,B2)
A. Heated in flight - not heated on ground
B. Heated on ground - not heated in flight
C. Heated when the outside temperature is less than 0°C
D. Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C
36
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
291.A ground test of the wing anti-ice system, with pneumatic pressure available,
tests: (B1,B2)
A. The warning system
B. Only the indications as the valves cannot be opened on ground
C. The operation of the valves
D. Only the valves solenoid supply as the valves cannot be opened on ground
292.The wing anti-ice valve is: (B1,B2)
A. A modulating and isolation valve
B. Only an isolation valve
C. Partially open in flight,
fli ght, fully open on ground
293.How is the wing anti-ice valve controlled and operated? (B1,B2)
A. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated
B. Pneumatically controlled and operated
C. Electrically controlled and operated
D. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
294.How many computers does the Window Heat system use? (B1,B2)
A. A single computer for the LH side and RH side
B. Two computers, one for the LH side and RH side and the other one as a back-up
C. Two computers, one for the LH side, one for the RH side
D. No computer is used for this system
295.Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on ground? (B1,B2)
A. No, you can operate the system in flight only
B. Yes, but for a limited time of 30 secs
C. Yes, for an unlimited time
D. Yes, but only if the outside temperature is less than 10°C
296.In the event of a wing anti-ice valve failure? (B1,B2)
A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position.
B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position.
C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position.
297.Hot air used for wing anti-iced is taken from? (A,B1,B2)
A. Aircraft pneumatic system.
B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2.
C. Directly from the main engine compressors.
298.What happens in case of insufficient air pressure to the engine anti-ice valve?
(B1,B2)
A. The valve closed as it is spring loaded closed.
B. The valve opened as it is spring loaded open.
C. Stayed as it is.
299.With both engine anti-ice push buttons set to ON (B1,B2)
A. The N1 limit will increase.
B. The N1 limit will decrease.
C. The N1 limit will not change.
37
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
300.In the event of an engine anti-ice valve failure? (A,B1,B2)
A. Each valve can be deactivated in open position.
B. Each valve can be deactivated in close position.
C. Each valve can be deactivated either in close or open position.
301.What happens when the EIU power supply C/B are pulled? (B1,B2)
A. Nothing happens.
B. The windshield heating is cut off.
C. The windshield and windows are heated.
302.What happens in case of WHC failure? (B1,B2)
A. The failed WHC connects to the other.
B. Both systems are lost.
C. The heating of the related side is lost.
303.How do you complete a test of the drain mast heating system? (B1,B2)
A. From PTP.
B. From test push button of the control unit.
C. Both a & b.
304.How the Pitot probe be HEATED ? (B1,B2)
A. Heated in flight - not heated on ground
B. Heated on ground - not heated in flight
C. Reduced heating on GND, normal heating
heati ng in FLT.
D. Heated when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C
305.When PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is in auto position and you run one
engine, what happens? (B1,B2)
A. All Probe and Windows heat systems activated.
B. Probe and Windows on the related side of the engine will be heated.
C. Nothing happens.
306.How is the engine anti-ice work? (B1)
A. Electrically controlled and operated by 5th stage bleed air, spring loaded open.
B. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air, spring loaded closed.
C. Electrically controlled and operated by 9th stage bleed air, spring loaded open.
307.The Engine anti-ice valve FAULT light comes on (B1,B2)
A. During valve transit.
B. When position disagreed
C. During valve transit or when position disagreed.
ATA 31: INSTRUMENTS
308.EFIS and ECAM CRT’S:
A. Are not interchangeable at all
B. Are mechanically but not electrically interchangeable
C. Are electrically but not mechanically interchangeable
D. Are fully interchangeable
309.The systems transmit their failure information to the CFDIU : (B2)
A. Permanently in flight and on the ground
38
1st Issue – July 2005
1 Issue
July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Only in flight
C. Only on the ground
D. When requested through the MCDU on the ground
310.Which function to initiate test for one aircraft system by CFDS menu: (B1,B2)
A. System report/test
B. Last leg ECAM report
C. Last leg report
D. Avionic status
311.The report accessible in flight are only the: (B1,B2)
A. Avionics status and the system report
B. Last leg report and the last leg ECAM report
C. Current leg report and the current leg ECAM report
D. Last leg report and the previous leg report
312.In case of DMC1 or 2 failure : (B1,B2)
A. The opposite DMC replaces the faulty one
B. DMC 3 replaces it automatically
C. DCM 3 has to be switches over manually
D. The respective information is completely lost
313.The EIS display switching is done: (B2)
(B2)
A. Manually only
B. Automatically only
C. Automatically only in case of failure or manually in all circumstances
D. Automatically or manually only in case of failure
314.Each DMC processes: (B2)
A. 2 ECAM displays and 1 EFIS display
B. 2 EFIS display and 1 ECAM display
dis play
C. 2 EFIS displays
D. 2 ECAM displays
315.The navigation parameters displayed onb: (B2)
A. PFD displays
B. E/W display
C. SYSTEM display
D. ND displays
316.You can display a class 3 fault by selecting: (B1,B2)
A. Avionic status or system report, then class 3 faults
B. Last leg report, then class 3 faults
C. System report/test, then troubleshooting data
D. Last leg ECAM report, then class 3 fault.
317.The purpose of the avionic status report is to: (B1,B2)
A. Provide on ground the list of system affected by a failure during the last leg
B. Provide on ground the list of system fitted on the aircraft.
C. Provide on ground the list of system presently affected by a failure
D. Provide in flight or on ground the list of system affected by a failure
39
st
39
1 Issue
July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
318.The highest priority of the ECAM system display is: (B1,B2)
A. Manual selection
B. Automatic related to the flight phase
C. Automatic related to an advisory
D. Automatic related to a failure
319.Which type of systems can not memorize failure message: (B1,B2)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 2 and Type 3
320.Which is the main computer of the AIDS system: (B1,B2)
A. DMC
B. DMU
C. CFDIU
D. FDIU
321.In case of PFDs failed, how to read PFD parameters: (B1,B2)
A. Automatic display in NDs
B. Must be press PFD/ND XFR pushbuttons
C. Mode selector ECAM/ND XFR to CAPT
D. Mode selector EIS DMC to CAPT
322.In
A.
B.
C.
D.
case of SDAC 1+2 fault: (B1,B2)
Lost of aural warnings
Lost of RED warnings
Lost of AMBER warnings
Lost of attention getters.
323.In
A.
B.
C.
D.
case of FWC 1+2 fault: (B1,B2)
Lost of aural warnings, text messages on E/W display and attention getters
Lost of RED warnings
Lost of AMBER warnings
Lost of attention getters.
324.The emergency cancel function on the ECAM CTR panel allows: (B1,B2)
A. Cancellation of aural warning only
B. Cancellation of aural warning and ECAM amber messages
C. Cancellation of aural warning and ECAM red warning messages
D. ECAM amber messages cancellation only.
325.What is the purpose of the DFDR? (A,B1,B2)
A. Condition monitoring of the engines
B. To record mandatory parameters.
C. To record parameters in a solid state memory for ground maintenance.
D. To send systems information for ground station in case of failures.
326.Which ECAM page displayed in cruise? (B1,B2)
A. ENGINE page
B. FLT/CTL page
C. CRUISE page
st
40
1 Issue
July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
D. DOOR page
327.On which display does the warning message appear? (B1,B2)
A. SYSTEM display
B. ENGINE/WARNING display
C. STATUS display.
D. MCDU display.
328.Post Flight Report can be printed: (B1,B2)
A. In flight only
B. On ground only
C. Both A and B
D. By programing in MCDU only
329.The audio signal generated by: (B1,B2)
A. DMC
B. FWC
C. SDAC
D. FWC and SDAC
330.Which are the main function of AIDS? (B1,B2)
A. To recording of the mandatory flight data request by authority.
B. Trouble shooting the avionic computers only
C. Engine condition, APU condition and aircraft performance monitoring
D. To advice the pilot in takeoff and landing phase.
331.The Post Flight Report is made from (B1,B2)
A. Only LAST LEG ECAM REPORT
B. The LAST LEG ECAM REPORT and LAST LEG REPORT
C. Only LAST LEG REPORT
D. The LAST LEG REPORT and PREVIOUS LEG ECAM REPORT
332.The status page can be displayed: (B1,B2)
A. Automatic display
B. When press the STATUS key on the ECAM control panel
C. When INOP system more than 3 items
D. When aircraft in dangerous condition.
ATA-32: LANDING GEAR
333.Which system sends the signal to the safety valve to shut off the LDG hydraulic
pressure? (B1,B2)
A. ADIRU 2 and 3
B. ADIRU 1 and 3
C. ADIRU 1 & 2
D. LGCIU 1 & 2
334.Function of the hydraulic fuse, which is fitted in the line to brake unit is: (B1)
A. To make sure that inadvertent braking action can not happen.
B. To make sure that no hydraulic pressure from green system can be transferred to
yellow system.
st
41
1 Issue
July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. To shut off the hydraulic supply to the brake unit case too much fluid flows in to
the direction of the brake unit due to line damaged.
335.Before the LDG can be retracted, the LGCIU must detect that : (B1,B2)
A. Three shock absorbers are extended
B. Three shock absorbers are compressed
C. Main shock absorbers are extended
D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended
336.What are the auto brake arming condition? (B1,B2)
A. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and
no failure in normal braking system.
B. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, yellow pressure and anti-skid powered and
no failure in normal braking system.
C. An AUTO BRK pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated
and no failure in normal braking system.
337.What can you operate the Nose Wheel Steering during take off and landing when
the speed is above 130 Kts? (B1,B2)
A. It is not possible
B. It is possible through rudder pedals
C. It is possible through hand wheels
D. It is possible through rudder pedals and auto pilot
338.Which component gives priority to the Green hydraulic system when applied
braking ystem? (B1,B2)
A. Brake selector valve
B. Throttle valve
C. Automatic selector valve
339.What the "LGCIU" must detect before the landing gear can be retracted?
(B1,B2)
A. Three shock absorbers are extended
B. Three shock absorbers are compressed
C. Main shock absorbers are extended
D. LH main and nose shock absorbers are extended
340.When will the "LGCIU" change-over for landing gear control takes place
(B1,B2)
A. When the landing gear control lever is set to down
B. When the landing gear control lever is set to up
C. When electrical power is applied
D. When both engines started.
341.When does the BSCU provide anti-skid control? (B1,B2)
A. During the normal and alternate braking
B. Only during the normal braking
C. When the auto brake system has failed
342.What controls the landing gear operating sequence? (B1,B2)
A. Either LGCIU In turn
B. Both LGCIU's simultaneously
st
42
1 Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Landing gear control lever
D. Safety valve
343.How is the in flight braking initiated? (B1,B2)
A. By selecting the landing lever to the "UP" position
B. By the main landing gear door opening
C. By auto brake deactivation
D. By shock absorbers extended
344.When does the automatic changeover of the LGCIUs in control occur? (B1,B2)
A. When "DOWN" is selected.
B. When "UP" is selected.
C. When the first engine starts.
345.When does the UNLK light come on? (A,B1,B2)
A. When the gear and the related doors are not locked up.
B. When the gear is not locked down.
C. When the gear is not locked in the selected position.
346.What is the normal retraction sequence? (A,B1,B2)
A. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel gear up signal.
B. Door open, gear up, door close, maintain gear up signal.
C. Door open, gear up, door close, cancel door close signal.
347.When is the hydraulic circuit depressurized after retraction? (B1)
A. As soon as the selector lever is move to neutral.
B. As soon as the airspeed is greater than 260 ± 5 Kts
C. As soon as the last door is closed
348.What happens when the gravity extension crank handle is rotated? (B1)
A. The cut-out and vent valves operate
B. The safety and cut-out valves operate
C. The safety and vent valves operate
349.In case of normal braking system failure, how is alternate barking applied?
(B1,B2)
A. Automatically when the selector valve is de-energized
B. Automatically through the automatic selector
C. As soon as the braking pedals are pressed in
350.How can the parking brake be hydraulically powered? (A,B1,B2)
A. Only by yellow high pressure
B. Only by the brake accumulator
C. Either by yellow high pressure or by the brake accumulator
351.In which mode is progressive pressure sent to the brakes 2 seconds after ground
spoilers deployment? (B1,B2)
A. MAX mode.
B. MED mode.
C. LO mode.
352.What are the auto brake arming conditions? (B1,B2)
st
43
1 Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid powered and no
failure in normal braking system.
B. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, yellow
yel low pressure and anti-skid powered and no
failure in normal braking system.
C. An auto brake pushbutton pressed in, green pressure and anti-skid deactivated and
no failure in normal braking system.
353.When dose the BSCU provide anti-skid control? (B1,B2)
A. During normal and alternate braking.
B. Only during normal braking.
C. Only when the auto brake system has failed?
354.What is the purpose of the hydraulic fuses? (A,B1,B2)
A. To stop the flow in case of leakage
B. To shut off the return lines
C. To separate the Normal from the Alternate Servovalve.
355.Are the return lines shut off when the parking brake is applied? (B1)
A. No, they are always open.
B. Yes, by the automatic selector.
C. Yes, when braking by the accumulator only.
356.Which component gives priority to the green hydraulic system? (B1)
A. Brake selector valve.
B. Throttle valve
C. Automatic selector
357.What is the purpose of the by pass valve of the hydraulic steering control unit?
(B1)
A. To interconnect the two chambers of the steering actuator.
B. To apply hydraulic pressure to the servovalve.
C. To by pass the servovalve in case of BSCU failure.
ATA - 33: LIGHTING SYSTEM
358.In electrical emergency configuration, which cockpit light remain: (B1,B2)
A. CAPT DOME light , F/O DOME light and standby compass
B. F/O DOME light , F/O RH centre instrument light and standby compass
C. F/O DOME light , CAPT/ LH centre instrument light and standby compass
D. CAPT DOME light ,CAPT/LH centre instrument light and standby compass
359.Switch the taxi and take off light in T.O position: (B1,B2)
A. Take off light comes on
B. Take off and Taxi light come on
C. Taxi light comes on
D. All lights are off
360.Which lighting includes fluorescent lamps and integral ballast units: (A, B1,B2)
A. Passenger reading lights and work attendant light
B. Cabin light, entrance light and lavatory lights
C. Lavatory lights sign
D. Emergency lights sign
st
44
1 Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
361.To program zone lighting in cabin, use: (B1,B2)
A. PTP
B. FAP
C. CFDS
D. AIDS
362.Push the power lav switch on FAP, with lavatory door closed and locked :
(B1,B2)
A. The lavatory lighting in DIM position
B. The lavatory lighting in FULL Brightness position
C. The lavatory lighting switch OFF
363.In order to see the engine air intakes and wing leading edges, we have to switch
on: (B1,B2)
A. The WING switch
B. The RUN WAY TURN-OFF switch.
C. The LAND switch
D. The BEACON switch.
364.The navigation lights include: (A, B1,B2)
A. RED light on the left hand, GREEN light on the right hand and WHITE light on the
APU tail.
B. GREEN light on the left hand, RED light on the right hand and WHITE light on the
APU tail.
C. WHITE light on the left hand, GREEN light on the right hand and RED light on the
APU tail.
D. RED light on the left hand, WHITE light on the right hand and GREEN light on the
APU tail.
365.With the RWY turn off switch set to on, when are the runway turn off lights are
on? (B1,B2)
A. When the nose landing gear is retracted.
B. When the nose landing gear is downlocked.
C. Always
366.When does the logo light illuminate with the switch in 2 position? (B1,B2)
A. MLG strut compression or slat extension
B. NLG compression or flap extension
C. NLG compression or slat extension
D. Flap and slat extension
367.When do the strobes flash in auto? (B1,B2)
A. MLG strut is not compressed
B. NLG is not compressed
C. NLG compression or slat extension
D. Flap and slat extension
368.If the RWY turn off, land and nose swicthes are all in the “ON” position, which
light automatically extinguish after take off? (B1,B2)
A. The TAKEOFF light
B. The TAXI light
st
45
1 Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights when the landing gear is retracted
D. The TAKEOFF and RWY TURN OFF lights
369.What external light automatically illuminated when MLG strut is not
compressed? (B1,B2)
A. The TAXI light
B. The TAKEOFF light
C. The NAV light
D. The STROBES lights flash when the strobe switch in auto position
370.What happen when you select the ANN LT swicth to “TEST” position? (B1,B2)
A. All annunciator lights come on and 8’s up in all LCDs
B. All annunciator lights on overhead panel come on
C. All annunciator lights changes it status
D. All annunciator lights on overhead panel changes it status
371.What is the purpose of the flood light? (B1,B2)
A. Illuminates the center pedestal
B. Illuminates the cockpit floor
C. Illuminates the glareshield and center instrument panel
D. Illuminates the overhead panel
372.What is the purpose of the integrated light? (B1,B2)
A. Illuminates the overhead panel
B. Illuminates the glareshield and center instrument panel
C. Illuminates all the instruments and panels in the cockpit
D. Illuminates the cockpit floor
373.When AVIONICS COMPT LT switch in “AUTO” position: (B1,B2)
A. The AVIONICS COMPT lighting is automatically controlled by door opening and
closing
B. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when A/C touchdown
C. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when one engine
runing
D. The AVIONICS COMPT lights are automatically illuminated when both engines
runing
374.When landing light selector in “ON” position: (B1,B2)
A. The landing lights are fully extended
B. Extends the landing light(left or right) which automatically comes on when fully
extended
C. The landing light(left or right) comes on but not fully extended
D. The landing light(left or right) is fully extended
375.What happen if emergency exit light selector in “ARM” position and normal
aircraft electrical power system fails? (B1,B2)
A. All the EMER EXIT signs automatically come on
B. The proximity emergency escape path marking system, overhead emergency lighting,
and EXIT signs automatically come on
C. All the EMER EXIT signs and overhead emergency lighting automatically come on
D. Overhead emergency lighting automatically come on
st
46
1 Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
376.With NO SMOKING selector in “AUTO” position the NO
NO SMOKING and
EXIT signs go off when: (B1,B2)
A. The Landing gear is extended
B. The Landing gear is compressed
C. The Landing gear is retracted
D. The Landing gear is not compressed
377.When you select the seat belt switch to “ON” position: (B1,B2)
A. The
FASTEN
BELT and RETURN TO SEAT signs come on together
t ogether with a
low tone
chimeSEAT
sounds
B. The FASTEN SEAT BELT signs come on and low
l ow tone chime sounds only
C. The FASTEN SEAT BELT signs come on only
D. The FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO SEAT signs come on together
t ogether with a
high tone chime sounds
ATA 34 - NAVIGATION
378.The correct action taken when ADIRU 2 fails is to: (B2)
A. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3
B. Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3
C. Set ATT HDG selector to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to F/O/3
D. Set ATT HDG selector to F/O/3, AIR DATA selector to CAPT/3
379.In normal operation the ADIRUs are aligned using information from
fr om the: (B2)
A. ADIRS CDU
B. CFDS
C. FCU
D. FMGC'S
380.A water drain is fitted to (B2)
A. All pitot lines
B. All static lines
C. The standby static line
D. All pitot and static lines
381.AIDRU 3 receives TAT information from: (B2)
A. The captain TAT sensor
B. The first officer TAT sensor
C. The captain and first officer TAT sensors
D. The standby TAT sensor
382.Air Data Modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from (B2)
A. All pitot probes and static ports
B. The pitot probes only
C. The static ports only
D. The captain and first officer picot probes and static ports only
383.AIDRU 3 can supply information to (B2)
A. DMC1 and DMC2 only
B. DMC1 and DMC3 only
C. DMC2 and DMC3 only
D.
DMC1, DMC2 and DMC3
st
1st Issue – July 2005
47
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
384.The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU from the (B2)
A. RMPs
B. FCU
C. DMCs
D. Master FMGC
385.How can GPWS test initiated from the cockpit? (B2)
A. By
By Pressing
GPWS
system
pushbutton on the GPWS panel
B.
using theThe
CFDS
system
report/test
C. By pressing one of the GPWS/GS warning pushbutton on the CAPT or FO
D.
instrument panel
GPWS test is impossible from the cockpit
386.RA1 fails bolow 2500 Ft (B2)
A. a red RA flag appears on the Capt's PFD
B. The radio altitude displayed on Capt's PFD is provided by radio altimeter 2
C. The radio altitude is lost on. Capt's PFD
D. The radio altitude numerals are replaced by amber crosses on Capt's PFD
387.ILS 1 data is normally displayed (B2)
A. On Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
B. On Capt's PFD and Capt's ND..
C. On F/O PFD and F/O ND
D.
On F/O PFD and Capt's N D
388.ILS 1 fails: (B2)
A. ILS 2 data are provided to Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
B. ILS 1 deviations disappear and are replaced by a LOC and a GS red flag
C. LOC and GS scales are replaced by amber crosses
D. Scales and deviations disappear from Capt's PFD and F/Os ND
389.MKR information displayed on PFD 1 and PFD 2 is sent from VOR/MKR
reveiver (B2)
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1 on PFD 1 on VOR/MKR receiver 2 on PFD 2
D. 1 on both PFD's in the event of VOR/MKR 1 failure there is an automatic
switching to VOR/MKR receiver 2
390.What VOR information is displayed on the ND (B2)
A. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer
B. Bearing pointer only
C. Deviation bar and selected course only
D. Deviation bar and bearing pointer only
391.In the event of no ADF 1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND, the bearing
poiter goes: (B2)
A. Out of view and ADF flag is displayed
B. Out of view and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by red crosses
C. Red and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by frequency
D.
Out of view and station IDENTIFICATION is replaced by frequency
1st Issue – July 2005
48
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
392.The red “HDG” message is displayed on the ND if a error (message set to
failure warning) is detected by the: (B2)
A. ADIRUs
B. DMCs
C. FMGCs
D. FWCs
393.When DME fails, on DDRMI: (B2)
A. Red flag comes in to view
B. Single pointer is set to 3 o’clock
C. DME display window is blanked
D. DME display window shows white horizontal dashed lines.
394.Can TCAS determine distance to the intruder? (B2)
A. Yes
B.
No
395.The enhanced predictive function of the EGPWS is obtained by: (B2)
A. Use of terrain database
B. Use of DME
C. Use of Weather Rada to scan
D.
Use of RA
396.The ATC (B2)
A. Responds to interrogations from ground ATC or TCAS
B. Interrogates ground ATC for distance measurement
C. Responds to interrogations from ground
ground ATC for bearing measurement
397.The RA antennas are installed on the
t he (B2)
A. Top of A/C fuselage
B. Bottom of A/C fuselage
C. Top and bottom of A/C fuselage
D. Top of rudder
398.With the loss of ADR 1,what would be lost on the Capt’s PFD ? (B2)
A. PITCH and ROLL scales
B. PITCH and SPEED scales
C. Airspeed and altitude information
D. Airspeed and wind information
399.Where is VOR data displayed? (B2)
A. Both ND’s and CAPT’s PFD
B. Both PFD’s and DDRMI
C. Both ND’s
D. Both ND’s and DDRMI
400.Does predictive windshear detection work when the radar system is switched
off? (B2)
A. Yes,if the windshear switch is in AUTO position
B. Yes,if aircraft is above 1500 feet RA
C.
Yes,if aircraft is below 50 feet RA
1st Issue – July 2005
49
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
401.When is radio height displayed on the PFD?
A. Aircraft is above 1500 feet
B. Aircraft is below 1500 feet
C. Aircraft is below 2500 feet
D. Aircraft is above 2500 feet
(B2)
402.What does a steady white “ALIGN” light indicate? (B2)
A. Alignment has been completed
B.
the ALIGN mode
C. The
The respective
respective IR
IR is
is in
failled
D. Alignment has been not completed
ATA35: OXYGEN SYSTEM
403.In the passenger oxygen system, a chemical oxygen generator, once activated,
delivers Oxygen for: (B1,B2)
A. 30 minutes, if only one mask is in use
B. 5 minutes, if all masks are used
C. 13 minutes, regardless of the number of the masks used
404.An oxygen generator starts to make oxygen when: (A, B1,B2)
A. The panel is opened.
B. The lanyard is pulled.
C. The MAN OVRD pushbutton on the passenger oxygen control panel is operated.
D. When the cabin pressure altitude is above 14.000ft.
405.Masks are supplied with undiluted Oxygen on demand if the cabin altitude rises
above 14.000 ft, passenger oxygen masks will drop out? (B1,B2)
A. Only by actuation of a switch on the captain panel
B. Automatically by the cabin pressure and/or cabin attendant action
C. Automatically by the cabin pressure and/or flight crew action
406.How do the time delay relays control the Pax. system automatic operation
(B1,B2)
A. They cut off electrical supply after 30 seconds
B. They supply the system for 3 seconds
C. They supply the system after 30 seconds
407.How is the passenger chemical generator activated? (A,B1,B2)
(A,B1,B2)
A. By pushing the MASK MAN ON pushbutton.
B. As soon as the ALTITUDE PRESSURE SWITCH is closed.
C. When the TIME DELAY RELAY is fully energized.
D. By a release pin which is connected via a lanyard to the oxygen mask
408.What is indicated when the white "SYS ON" light (Panel 21 VU) on the
passenger oxygen system is illuminated? (B1,B2)
A. The chemical oxygen generators are activated
B. The time delay relay is fully energized
C. The passenger oxygen system is electrically operated
D. A cabin attendant has opened an oxygen box with the manual release tool
409.The aircraft oxygen system has: (A,B1)
1st Issue – July 2005
50
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. A separate crew and pax system
B. For the crew a H.P. and a L.P. system
C. 2 (each) crew cylinders
D. Both "A" and "B"
410.When the passenger oxygen masks have been deployed automatically: (B1,B2)
A. To reset the system provisions are available at the oxygen generators
B. The crew will automatically receive oxygen at the same time
C. The timer relay is reset by its pushbutton on panel 50 VU
D. The
system is reset when pax masks are stowed and the panels latched closed
411.The crew oxygen system consists of: (A,B1)
A. A fixed high pressure cylinder.
B. A high pressure portable cylinder
C. A fixed cylinder with masks and a breathing hood system
412.Can the crew oxygen cylinder pressure be checked when there is no electrical
power? (A,B1,B2) – one more choice is required
A. Yes
B. No
C. ….
413.What indicates an overboard discharge? (A,B1,B2)
A. A warning on the oxygen control panel 21VU.
B. The direct reading pressure gauge on the oxygen cylinder.
C. A yellow indicator.
414.What happen when the 100% position is selected on crew oxygen masks? (B1,B2)
A. The user breathes filtered cabin air
B. The user breathes pure oxygen at a permanent positive pressure.
C. The user breathes pure oxygen
415.What is the "reset TEST SLIDER" of crew oxygen system used for? (B1,B2)
A. To control mask oxygen inlet.
B. To prevent oxygen inlet to mask.
C.
To control oxygen supply during tests and mask operation.
416.The tmr reset fault light comes on if? tmr ??? (B1,B2)
A. The reset operation is not yet completed.
B. The reset operation has failed
C. The time delay relays has failed during the automatic operation.
417.What is the function of the hood absorption system of the smoke hood? (B1)
A. To add oxygen to the expired gas.
B. To trap the carbon dioxide contain in the expired gas
C. To allow the expired gas to flow out the hood
418.A manual ON/OFF valve of flight crew Oxygen Cylinder is used: (B1,B2)
A. During the replacement of the cylinder and to isolate the cylinder if there is a leak
in the oxygen system.
B. Allow flight crew to adjust the air flow into the masks.
C. To reduce the air pressure from high pressure to low pressure
51
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
419.A direct-reading pressure gage of flight crew Oxygen Cylinder: (B1,B2)
A. Provide direct indication of the cylinder high-pressure to flight crew during flight.
B. Independent of the open or closed position of the manual ON/OFF valve.
C. Ground engineer must check oxygen pressure through direct-reading pressure gage
before dispatch the aircraft.
420.Low-Pressure Supply Valve of flight crew Oxygen system (B1,B2)
A. Installed between the pressure regulator/transmitter and the distribution manifold
B. Installed between the distribution manifold and the masks
C. Installed between the high pressure cylinder and the pressure regulator/transmitter.
421.Low-Pressure Supply Valve of flight crew Oxygen system is: (B1,B2)
A. A manual ON/OFF valve and can control from avionic compartment.
B. A solenoid valve and can control from the control panel in the cockpit.
C. A manual ON/OFF valve and can control from the control panel in the cockpit.
422.A warning signal "REGUL LO PR" appears on the ECAM when: (B1,B2)
A. Pressure of the distribution manifold decreases to 50 ± 5 psi.
B. Pressure of Crew Oxygen Cylinder decreases to 1000 ± 5 psi
C. Pressure of Crew Oxygen Cylinder decreases to 1450 ± 5 psi
D. When doing the test of Crew Oxygen mask
423.Oxygen pressure in the cylinder is indicated On the lower ECAM DU (display
Unit) (B1,B2)
A. An amber half frame appears when the oxygen pressure is lower than 1500 psi
B. Gives an indication to the maintenance personnel when filling the oxygen cylinder
C. An amber indication on the DOOR/OXY page with pressure from 0 to 1450 psi
D. An green indication on the DOOR/OXY page with pressure from 50 to 1850 psi
424.Oxygen masks drop out for the passenger and the cabin attendant when (B1,B2)
A. The cabin pressure decreases to a pressure equivalent of 14000 +0 -500 ft
B. The cabin pressure decreases between 8000 ft and 14000 ft
C. The cabin pressure decreases below 8000 ft or pilot operates the 'MASK MAN ON'
pushbutton switch
D.
The
cabin
a pressure switch
equivalent of 14000 +0 -500 ft or pilot
operates
thepressure
'MASKdecreases
MAN ON'topushbutton
425.When the Pax. oxygen masks have been deployed automatically: (B1,B2)
A. The SYS ON indicator light will go off when the TMR RESET pushbutton switch
is pushed.
B. The FAULT indicator light comes on 30s after the start of the system operation
C. The SYS ON indicator light comes on for 30s
D. You must press the MASK MAN ON pushbutton switch to allow the chemical
oxygen generator supply oxygen to the masks
ATA 36 – PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
426.In case of electrical power failure, with the engine running, the bleed pressure
regulating valve (PRV) is: (B1)
A. Fully closed
B. Fully open
1st Issue – July 2005
52
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Modulating
D. Mechanically latched in its last position
427.How is the crossbleed valve controlled and operated? (B1,B2)
A. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
B. Solenoid controlled and pneumatically operated
C. Pneumatically controlled and operated
D. Electrically controlled and operate
428.In case of an overheat downstream of the precooler: (B1,B2)
A. The CTS sends a pneumatic signal to the PRV which starts to close
B. The CT sends a pneumatic signal to the PRV which starts to close
C. The CTS sends a pneumatic signal to the fan air valve which goes to the fully open
position
D. The CT sends a pneumatic signal to the fan air valve which goes to the fully closed
position
429.What condition causes the engine PRV to close automatically? (B1)
A. Respective fire pushbutton guarded
B. Cross bleed valve in manual mode and engine PRV in auto-mode
C. Cross bleed valve in auto mode, APU bleed valve switch in OFF position and valve
closed
D. Cross bleed valve in auto mode, APU bleed valve switch in ON position and valve
open
430.When an APU duct leak is detected during engine start from APU bleed: (B1)
A. APU bleed and crossfeed valves remain open
B. APU bleed and cross feed valves close
C. APU bleed valve closes and cross feed opens
D. Engine bleed valve reopens
431.With engine and APU running and APU bleed valve selected ON: (B1)
A. Engine bleed valves open, cross bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve closes
B. Engine bleed valves close, cross bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve opens
C. Engine bleed valves open, cross bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens
D.
Engine bleed valves close, cross bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens
432.The crossbleed valve is: (B1)
A. Controlled and operated electrically by 1 motors
B. Controlled and operated electrically by 2 motors
C. Controlled electrically, and operated pneumatically
433.Can you control the high pressure valve (HPV) from the cockpit: (B1,B2)
A. Yes, directly
B. No
C. Yes, through BMCs
434.With the crossbleed selector at “AUTO” and air supplied by engine 1 only, the
crossbleed valve: (B1,B2)
A. Is automatically controlled to open
B. Does not receive any order
C. Is controlled to close
1st Issue – July 2005
53
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
435.At high engine speed the high pressure valve (HPV) is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Regulating a pressure
B. Fully closed
C. Fully open
D. Regulating a temperature
436.What is the design principle of the bleed leak detection loop? (B1,B2)
A. Resistance.
B. Pressure.
C. Capacitor.
437.Where the air is taken from during engine high power setting? (A,B1,B2)
A. IP stage.
B. HP stage.
C. IP and HP at the same time.
438.What is the purpose of IP/HP switching? (A,B1,B2)
A. To regulate the output pressure depending on the Fan Air Valve position.
B. To keep sufficient bleed pressure at low engine speed.
C. To regulate the output temperature depending on the configuration of users.
439.What is the purpose of the Control Thermal Start (CT)? (B1,B2)
A. To pneumatically control the OPV.
B. To pneumatically control the FAV.
C. To pneumatically control the PRV.
440.If one HP valve failed open? (B1,B2)
A. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated close.
B. The aircraft can be dispatched with the subject HPV deactivated open.
C. The aircraft can only be dispatched if related bleed system is considered INOP.
441.The E/W message: LH WING DET FAULT means? (B1,B2)
A. LH wing loop A and B fault
B. Either LH wing loop A or B fault.
C. Either both loops A or both loops B fault.
442.Which component can be used to monitor engine bleed leak? (B1,B2)
A. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas.
B. Leak loops detection at Fan, Core and Pylon areas and NAC Temperature sensor.
C. Leak loop detection at Pylon area and NAC Temperature sensor.
443.What is the correct configuration of the wing bleed leak detection? (B1,B2)
A. Loops A connect to BMC 1 and loops B connect to BMC 2.
B. LH wing loops connect to BMC 1 and RH wing loops connect tto
o BMC 2.
C. Both loops A and B connect to BMC1 and BMC 2 in parallel.
444.The APU bleed valve is? (A,B1,B2)
A. A modulating valve.
B. An ON/OFF valve.
C. A and B.
54
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
445.The APU bleed leak detection system is? (A,B1,B2)
A. A single loop that connects to BMC 1.
B. A single loop that connects to both BMC 1 and BMC 2.
C. The double loops that connect to BMC 1 and BMC 2 respectively.
ATA 38: WATER & TOILET
446.Which signal close the Fill/ Drain valve during servicing with electrical power
available? (A,B1,B2)
A. By a quantity transmitter which sends a tank full signal to close the fill/drain valve
automatically
B. When the quantity gauge indicates full the valve has to be closed manually
C. When the water comes out of the overflow port the valve has to be closed manually
D. There is no signal available, the tank has to be filled with a measured amount of
water.
447.How is the water tank depressurized during servicing? (A,B1,B2)
A. By waiting for the system pressure to dissipate
B. By operating a wash basin faucet
C. By operating the fill/over flow valve
D. By a push button the servicing panel
448.How are the wash basin water heaters protected from damage should the normal
temperature control fail ? (B1,B2)
A. There is no protection
B. Cabin staff have to switch them off
C. An over temperature safety device cuts off the electrical power
D. By a warning on the ECAM display
449.Why are the drain valve installed in the waste water drain system? (B1,B2)
A. To allow the sink and wash basin to be isolated
B. To prevent a permanent loss of cabin air pressurization
C. To prevent wash basin from being isolated
450.Can any toilet be used during servicing? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes, because toilet use and servicing is independant
B. Yes, but only the front toilet
C. Yes, but electric power is required to supply the toilet control system
D. No, the door limit switch on the toilet servicing panel deactivates the toilet control
system.
451.From where does the LAV INOP Fault light come at the FWD Attendant Panel?
(B1,B2)
A. A level sensor in each toilet unit
B. A fault of the related lavatory flush control unit (FCU)
C. A fault of the VACUUM GENERATOR
D. The door limit switch (panel door open) on the servicing panel.
452.Is it possible to drain the whole water system without electrical power? (A,B1,B2)
A. No, electrical power is always required
55
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Yes, all the drain valves can be operated manually
using the aft drain valve
C. No, only the water tanks can be drained by using
D. No, only the forward drain valve can be
be operated manually.
453.Why is water tank pressurized? (A,B1,B2)
A. To ease draining operation.
B. To warm up water.
C. To allow water distribution.
454.What is used for A320 aircraft water tank filling operation? (A,B1,B2)
A. One handle, one valve.
B. Two handles, one valve.
C. One handle, two valves.
455.How many valves are used during draining operation of A320 aircraft water tank
(A,B1,B2)
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
456.How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted to the A320 aircraft?
(A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
457.Where is the main drain port of the A320 aircraft potable water system?
(A,B1,B2)
A. On the portable water service panel.
B. On the fwd service panel.
C. Both
458.How many potable water quantity indicators are there? (A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
459.How many quantity TRANSMITTER is in the potable water tank? (A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
460.What is purpose of the high level switch of the water quantity TRANSMITTER?
(B1,B2)
A. De-energized a relay which closes the fill/drain valve when the tank is full.
B. To disconnect electrical supply to the water heater in the lavatories
C. To disconnect electrical supply to the fill/drain valve to closes it when the tank is
full.
D. To gives warming of water tank overfill.
461.What is purpose of the water service panel door microswitch? (B1,B2)
1st Issue – July 2005
56
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. To de-energized the indicating system when the portable water service panel door
is opened.
B. To energized the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is
closed.
C. To isolate the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is
closed.
D. To isolate the indicating system when the portable water service panel door is
opened.
462.The waste water drain valve. (A,B1,B2)
A. Electrically operated.
B. Is held closed in flight by cabin air pressure and open when waste water enters the
valve has build up enough.
e nough.
C. Open on ground and close in flight
D. Manually operated only by lifting the seal assembly.
463.Where does the toilet bowl rinsing water come from? (A,B1,B2)
A. Waste holding tank.
B. Waste water tank.
C. Potable water tank.
464.How is the waste transported to the waste holding tank? (A,B1,B2)
A. By the vacuum created in the waste holding tank.
B. By the water flushing and gravity.
C. By the water pressure
465.When does the vacuum generator operate? (B1,B2)
A. On ground only.
B. Up to an altitude of 16.000 t during climb and below 12.000 ft during descent.
C. During servicing operation.
466.How many toilet service panels are fitted on the aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
467.How many potable water service and drain panels are fitted to the aircraft?
(A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
468.Where is the waste quantity displayed? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the toilet service panel
B. On the Forward Attendant Panel
C. On both panels.
469.The toilet system is monitored by: (B1,B2)
A. The FCU BITE
B. The CFDS.
C. The VSC BITE
1st Issue – July 2005
57
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
470.The water valve and the flush valve are monitor by: (B1,B2)
A. The Vacuum System Controller.
B. The Vacuum Generator.
C. The associated Flush Control Unit BITE.
471.What are the functions of the VSC? (B1,B2)
A. System control and monitoring and fault reporting.
B. System control and monitoring
C. Fault reporting.
ATA 49 - APU.
472.The E.C.B has? (A,B1,B2)
A. Restricted authority over APU operation.
B. Monitoring function over APU operation.
C. Full authority over APU operation.
473.From where the APU emergency shut down can be initiated? (A,B1,B2)
A. Refuel/Defuel panel; External power panel and Cockpit.
B. External power panel and Cockpit only.
C. External power panel only, if the aircraft is on ground.
474.What indication can be displayed on the APU page? (A,B1,B2)
A. FLAP OPEN.
B. FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL
C. FLAP OPEN; FUEL LO PR; LOW OIL LVL.
475.On ground, in case of failure, how can you open/close the air intake flap? (B1)
A. Use the override manual device.
B. The flap actuator can be hydraulically overridden.
C. You can not override the flap actuator.
476.What are the three APU modules? (A,B1,B2)
A. Compressor, Combustion chambers, Turbine.
B. Power section, Load Compressor, Turbine.
C. Power section, Load Compressor, Gearbox.
477.The APU fuel low pressure circuit can be activated from? (A,B1,B2)
A. Cockpit and External Power Panel.
B. Cockpit and Fuel Vent system at APU compartment.
C. Cockpit; External Power Panel and Fuel Vent system at APU compartment.
478.How can you activate the APU fuel vent system? (A,B1,B2)
A. Push and hold the VENT P/B at the APU compartment.
B. Select master switch ON.
C. Push and hold the VENT P/B with the master switch selected ON.
479.How do you check the APU OIL quantity? (A,b1,B2)
A. On APU page, on sight glass located on the gear box and interrogate the CFDS.
B. On APU page, on sight glass located on the gear box.
C. On APU page, on sight glass located on the oil cooler and interrogate the CFDS.
1st Issue – July 2005
58
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
480.How many oil filters are installed in the APU oil system. (B1)
A. 2, one pressure filter and one scavenge filter.
B. 2 pressure filters.
C. 2 scavenge filters.
481.De-oil of the APU is accomplished by? (B1)
A. Drain of the oil from the gear box.
B. Using the bleed air to purge the system.
C. Using gear box pressurization air to break the suction of the oil pump.
482.How the APU Generator is lubricated? (B1)
A. Using the dedicated oil system.
B. Using the common oil system with the APU.
C. By design APU Generator is self lubricated.
483.During M.E.S. (Main Engine Start) : (B1,B2)
A. APU speed 101 %, IGV opened, SCV modulated and load valve opened
B. APU speed 99 %, SCV closed, load valve opened
C. APU speed 101 %, IGV opened, SCV closed, load valve modulated
D. APU speed 95 %, IGV opened, SCV opened, load valve modulated
484.When the APU Master switch is set to ON, the APU (Low pressure) fuel pump
will run: (B1,B2)
A. Continuously
B. Only when the START pushbutton is pressed
C. Only if a low fuel pressure is detected
D. Only if the ECB detects an HP pump failure
485.With the APU bleed valve open, releasing the master switchwill cause the APU to
shut down: (B1,B2)
A. Immediately
B. Only after the cool down period has elapsed
C. Only if the START pushbutton is released
D. Never, the APU bleed valve must be shut
486.The
oilteh
temperature
or down:
low oil(A,B1,B2)
pressure detected during APU operation, the
ECB willhigh
cause
APU to shut
A. Only if the MASTER switch is released
B. Only if the START pushbutton is released
C. Only after the cool down period has elapsed
D. Immediately
487.During cooling down sequence at 75% N, the APU is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Still running without electrical and pneumatic load.
B. Still running with electrical load.
C. Wind milling without electrical and pneumatic load.
D. Still running with electrical and pneumatic load.
488.The APU self test is performed from the MCDU. this function is available only:
(A,B1,B2)
A. If the APU is running
B. If the APU is not running
1st Issue – July 2005
59
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Doing the APU start sequence
D. If the START pushbutton is pressed in
489.When the APU is started, the APU generator will be energized at: (B1,B2)
A. N = 75 %
B. N = 95 % plus 2 seconds
C. N = 50 %
D. N = 7 %
490.When does the surge control valve fully close? (B1)
A. During main engine start
B. During ECS operation.
C. On ground.
491.If the APU has experienced an automatic shut down, where can you find
information on the shut down cause? (B1,B2)
A. From Post Flight Report.
B. Checking the APU page.
C. Check the Shut Down menu on CFDS.
ATA 52: DOOR
492.How can the slide fairing door of one overwing emergency exit be disarmed?
(B1,B2)
A. By opening the exit from the outside
B. By setting the disarm device to "disarmed"
C. It always disarm on ground.
D. By an automatic "disarm" signal from engine, as long as enginesare not running
493.What indicates the red flashing light on the cabin door? (A,B1,B2)
A. The escape slide will not deploy after automatic opening
B. The first bar has failed to engage into the floor fittings
C. The slide system is armed avoid the interior locking handle is partly lifted
D. Both engine shut down, door disarmed, the cabin pressure is greater than 2,5 mb
494.How is the passenger door closed and locked information be monitored?
(A,B1,B2)
A. By a single microswitch (lock position) on the "ECAM DOOR" page
B. By two proximity detection on the "ECAM DOOR" page
C. No indication at all
D. Landing gear control interface unit n° 1 (LGCIU 1) on the "ECAM DOOR" page
495.What indicates the green light in the cargo door access? (A,B1,B2)
A. The cargo door is closed and locked
B. The cargo door is not closed
C. The cargo door is unlocked
D. The cargo door is open and locked
496.What is the purpose of the damper nitrogen bottle and emergency opration
cylinder? (B1,B2)
A. To damp the door opening and closing
closi ng
B. To assist in opening and closing the door to do it
1st Issue – July 2005
60
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. To damp the door opening/closing and to pressurize the cylinder in case of
emergency opening
497.What happen when the passenger door is opened from the outside and the slide
system is armed? (A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside
498.What happen when the emergency exit door of A320 aircraft is opened from the
outside and the slide system is armed? (A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside
499.The PAX door is maintained parallel to the fuselage by: (A,B1,B2)
A. The guide arms.
B. The support arms
C. The upper and lower connection links.
500.How the operator is warned, when there is a residual pressure in the cabin?
(A,B1,B2)
A. By a white flushing light.
B. By a red flushing light.
C. By an ember flushing light.
501.Which device blocks the outer control handle during inner control handle
operation of the PAX door? (B1)
A. The control handle gearbox
B. The safety pin
C. The lifting mechanism.
502.How can the PAX door be opened from outside when the arming lever is set in
(B1)
theA.ARM
The position?
arming lever
must be set to DISARMED.
B. The door cannot be opened from outside in such configuration.
C. An installation containing a cam disk and a roller disarms the system automatically.
503.What happens when the arming lever of the PAX door is set to the ARMED
position? (B1,B2)
A. The girt bar stay attached to the cabin floor.
B. The girt bar slide towards the telescopic fork.
C. The telescopic fork slide towards the girt bar fitting
504.Which maintenance task must be performed after an emergency opening of PAX
door? (B1)
A. The operating striker lever has to be replaced.
B. The diaphragm, in the mechanism housing and the shear pin must be replaced.
C. The nitrogen bottle has to be replaced
1st Issue – July 2005
61
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
505.How is latch pin of the A320 aircraft emergency exit door released for
maintenance operation? (B1)
A. By operating the outer control handle
B. By retracting the latch pin
C. By setting the disarming control handle to DISARMED
506.What does the green light fitted near the manual selector valve of the cargo door
indicate? (A,B1,B2)
A. The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to operate the door.
B. The door is fully opened and
a nd locked.
C. The door is correctly unlatched and unlocked
507.When can the cargo door be opened? (A,B1,B2)
A. When the cam and the hooks are in the locked position.
B. When the cam is in the unlocked position and the hooks are in the locked position
C. When the cam and the hooks are in the unlocked position
508.To Which of the followings the cam of the cargo door fastened? (B1)
A. Locking shaft
B. Safety shaft
C. Spring unit.
509.The cargo doors hydraulic system is pressurized by the: (A,B1,B2)
A. Green electric pump
B. Blue electric pump
C. Yellow electric pump
510.What is purpose of the spring loaded blocking piston in the manual selector valve
of cargo door hydraulic system? (B1)
A. To prevent door opening is pressure is < 3000 psi
B. To lock the selector in the OPEN/CLOSE position until the actuator is fully
opened/retracted.
C. To ensure correct pressure in the extension chamber of the actuators before closing
511.When does the residual cabin pressure red light come on? (A,B1,B2)
A. When all the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied and the residual
cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
B. When the engines are not running, the slide is disarmed and the residual cabin
pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
C. When the engines are not running, the parking brake is applied, the slide is disarmed
and the residual cabin pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars
512.When is the electro selector valve of the cargo door system applied? (B1,B2)
A. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR and when the manual
selector valve is operated.
B. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is FAR and when the manual
selector valve is operated.
C. When the locking shaft proximity switch target is NEAR
513.The seal of pax door:
door : (A,B1,B2)
A. Is installed around the door on the inner side and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
1st Issue – July 2005
62
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Is installed around the door on the outer side and when the door is closed, the it is
pushed against the frame of the fuselage
C. Is deflated when the door is closed and the passenger cabin is pressurized.
514.The air stoppers are installed between the PAX door and the door frame
(A,B1,B2)
A. Prevent the cold air from penetrating into the cabin
B. Prevent the water comes into the cabin
C. Protect the door structure during operation.
515.The proximity switches installed on PAX door transmit the position of: (B1,B2)
A. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook
on the upper frame of the door
B. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the door
handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism
C. The hook on the upper frame of the door and the door handle on the shaft of the
locking mechanism
D. The escape-slide control lever on the escape-slide control mechanism and the hook
on the upper frame of the door; the hook on the upper frame of the door; the door
handle on the shaft of the locking mechanism
516.Each emergency exit door has a slide release mechanism with two operation
modes: NORMAL mode and the MAINTENANCE mode (B1,B2)
A. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the
ARMED position (the latch pin is extended)
B. During the NORMAL mode, the latch pin of the slide release mechanism is in the
ARMED position (the latch pin is retracted)
C. During the MAINTENANCE mode, the latch pin is in the DISARMED position (the
latch pin is extended)
517.Emergency exit door of a320 aircraft: (A,B1,B2)
A. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall outside of aircraft.
B. Can be opened from outside or/and inside and the door fall into the cabin.
C. Can be opened from outside and the door fall outside of aircraft
D. Can be opened from inside and the door fall into the cabin,
518.The pressurization of the cargo door hydraulic system does not occur when:
(A,B1,B2)
A. The locking mechanism is in the locked condition.
B. The door not in fully close or/and open position.
C. The door not in fully open position.
D. The door is operated with hand pump
519.BULK Cargo-Compartment Door is opened: (A,B1,B2)
A. Outward and upward.
B. Outward and downward.
C. Inward and and upward.
D. Inward and downward.
520.The FWD and AFT cargo doors: (A,B1,B2)
A. Possible to open/close at the same time
B. Possible to open at the same time when using the electric pump only
1st Issue – July 2005
63
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Possible to open one by one only
D. Possible to close at the same time only
521.The external power receptacle (A,B1,B2)
A. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards
towards the front of the aircraft
B. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards
downwards the front of the aircraft
C. Is installed in the lower and is a quick-opening type door and opens outwards
upwards the front of the aircraft
522.Proximity switches send signal to the ECAM system for indication and warning
(B1,B2)
A. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, emergency exits and the avionics
compartment doors are processed by the SDAC 1 and SDAC 2
B. Data concerning passenger/cargo compartment doors are processed by the LGCIU 1
and sent to the FWC 1 and FWC 2
C. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, cargo compartment doors, emergency exits
and the avionics compartment doors are processed by the SDAC 1 and SDAC 2
D. Data concerning passenger/crew doors, cargo compartment doors, emergency exits
and the avionics compartment doors are processed by the LGCIU 1 and sent to the
FWC 1 and FWC 2
523.The escape slide will be automatically deployed if. (A,B1,B2)
A. Girt bar attached with escape slide pack and the door is opened.
B. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and the door is opened.
C. Girt bar is still engaged into floor bracket and the door is opened by outside handle
524.The function of the safety pin on the pax door is: (A,B1,B2)
A. To hold the door when it is closed during whole flight.
B. To hold the door in the closed position until it is locked.
C. To hold the door in the closed position until it is unlocked.
525.Landing gear doors can be opened. (A,B1,B2)
A. Hydraulically on ground only with landing gear selector set to down.
B. Hydraulically or manually if aircraft is on jack.
C. Manually on ground only with landing gear selector set to down
526.Avionics compartment can be accessed through: (A,B1,B2)
A. Avionics lower side of the fuselage.
B. Avionics door on the fwd cargo compartment.
C. Access door in the cockpit.
527.Emergency exit door of a320 aircraft is equipped. (A,B1,B2)
A. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when the door is opened from inside.
B. Slide, which is automatically disarmed when the door is opened from outside.
C. Slide, which can only be disarmed by release the latch pin from inside.
A320 TO A321 DIFFERENCES
528.What happen during the RAT retraction? (B1)
64
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. The red light comes on during RAT retraction and goes off when the RAT is
retracted and locked.
B. The green light comes on when the RAT is retracted and locked.
C. The red light goes off when the ARM switch set to OFF.
529.What happen if the stow switch is release before the RAT is fully retracted? (B1)
A. The RAT continuously retracts.
B. The RAT will return to the fully extended position.
C. The RAT locked in the existing position.
530.The potable water is located at: (A,B1,B2)
A. L/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
B. R/H behind the forward cargo compartment.
C. R/H behind the rear cargo compartment.
531.If the cabin emergency door is opened from outer side with the escape slide in
ARMED mode. (A,B1,B2)
A. The ARMED mode of the escape slide changes to DISARMED mode as well as
passenger door.
B. The escape slide will deploy.
C. The door can not be opened.
532.For the emergency exits door, which device makes sure that the locking shaft
mechanism is always in the over centered position? (B1)
A. The spring unit.
B. The control mechanism.
C. The locking hook.
533. Where the escape slide pack of cabin emergency door located? (A,B1,B2)
A. Holds on the door.
B. Holds in a container underneath the door.
C. Holds on the overhead stowage compartment.
534.Where the inflation reservoir of the emergency exits door located? (A,B1,B2)
A. At the bottom of the door.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment.
C. In the AFT cargo compartment.
535.What is purpose of the ECON FLOW pushbutton? (B1,B2)
A. To allows the cockpit to select 80%, 100% or 120% of the nominal airflow.
B. To permits economic or normal pack flow according to the number of the passenger
and ambient condition.
C. When ON is selected the normal flow provides 20% more than economic flow.
536.The HOT AIR pushbutton switch of the cargo ventilation panel controls: (B1,B2)
A. Blower fan.
B. Aft cargo door.
C. Pressure Regulating Valve.
537.Are main pumps running while the center tank is transferring? (B1,B2)
A. Yes, main pumps are always running.
B. No, only when the center tank is empty.
1st Issue – July 2005
65
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. No, because of center tank pump priority
538.Engine LP valve closes when: (B1,B2)
A. The fuel booster pump pressure decrease.
B. The engine is shut down or the ENG FIRE pushbutton is released out.
C. The engine fire detection system detects an engine fire.
539.The APU can normally be supplied with fuel by: (A,B1,B2)
A. Only the APU pump.
B. Only the LH main pumps.
f uel pump.
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel
540.What happen if a high level is detected? (A,B1,B2)
A. A warning is triggered: too much fuel.
B. The corresponding REFUEL valve closes.
C. All refueling operations are stopped.
541.In which tanks are temperature sensors fitted? (B1,B2)
A. Center tank.
B. Wing tanks and center tank.
C. Wing tank
542.What is purpose of the IDG SHUT-OFF sensor? (B1,B2)
A. To stop the cooling fuel recirculation.
B. To stop the center tank transfer valves.
C. To restart cooling fuel recirculation.
543.What happen if one channel of the FQIC fails? (B1,B2)
A. Half of the quantity indicating data is no longer available.
B. FQIS operates normally, only CFDS report will indicate failure.
C. Fuel warning is triggered in addition of CFDS report.
544.What happen if a quantity probe fails? (B1,B2)
A. Corresponding tank quantity display flashes.
B. Quantity indication disappears.
C. Quantity indication remains the same.
545.What does the MODE SEL pushbutton control? (B1,B2)
A. Center tank transfer valves and wing tank pump only.
B. Center tank transfer valves only.
C. Wing tank pump only.
546.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves:
(B1,B2)
A. Must be manually switched OFF after 5mn.
B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C. Closed automatically after a time delay of 5mn.
547.Which tanks are the main supply tanks? (A,B1,B2)
A. Wing tanks.
B. Center (transfer) tank.
C. Outer cells.
1st Issue – July 2005
66
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
548.Where are the Wing Tip Brake located? (B1,B2)
A. At the wing tips.
B. Between the tracks 3 and 4 in each wing.
C. Attached to track 4 offset gearbox.
549.Where are the torque limiters located? (B1)
A. On the actuator offset gear box.
B. On the actuator drive lever.
C. On the steady bearing.
550.How many valves are used during the draining operation of water system?
(A,B1,B2)
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
551.The automatic drain valve of the hydraulic reservoir pressurization unit. (B1,B2)
A. Opened when at least one engine or APU running.
B. Opened after each engine or APU shutdown.
C. Closed after both engines and APU shutdown.
552.How many fuel Manual Magnetic Indicators are there (MMI)? (B1,B2)
A. Five in each wing tank and one in the center tank.
B. Six in each wing tank and two in the center tank.
C. Seven in each wing tank and one in the center tank.
553.How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? (B2)
A. In parallel.
B. In series.
C. In a loop.
554.How many smoke detectors are installed in the AFT cargo compartment? (B1,B2)
A. Two.
B. Four.
C. Six.
555.When the cargo fire test pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are
simulated? (B1,B2)
A. A smoke only.
B. A bottle pressure drop only.
C. Both.
556.Where is the cargo fire extinguisher bottle located? (B1,B2)
A. In the FWD cargo compartment.
B. In the AFT cargo compartment.
C. In the AFT section of the aircraft.
557.How many cargo fire extinguishers bottle are installed on the aircraft? (B1,B2)
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
1st Issue – July 2005
67
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
558.What happens if smoke is detected in a cargo compartment? (B1,B2)
A. SMOKE light comes on + Continuous Repetitive Chime + MASTER WARNING +
ECAM message.
B. The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin.
C. Lights come on.
559.What happens if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2)
A. The lavatory smoke detection is inoperative.
B. The cargo smoke detection is inoperative.
C. Both A and B with Single Chime + MASTER CAUTION + ECAM message.
560.What happen on A321 aircraft If a fuel tank overflows during a refuel or a fuel
transfer and fuel has entered the vent surge tanks (B1,B2)
A. A jet pump moves the fuel into the related wing tank outer cell.
B. A jet pump moves the fuel into the related wing tank inner cell.
C. The clack valves let the fuel return to the related wing tank.
D. A booster pump will collect the fuel back to inner cell when underfull is detected in
the inner cell.
561.When in all A321 aircraft tanks are full of fuel, what happen if:
Tank pumps are running;
XFR valve mode selector in Manual;
XFR valve pushbuttons are pressed in. (B1,B2)
A. XFR valve closed to stop the fuel transfer to wing tanks.
B. XFR valve open and the fuel transfer to wing tanks.
C. XFR valve open but the fuel does not transfer to wing tanks.
D. Tank pump does not provide fuel flow to XFR valve.
562.Which cabin emergency exits door can be used as passenger door? (A,B1,B2)
A. All emergency exits doors
B. Two FWD emergency exits doors
C. Two AFT emergency exits doors
D. FWD L/H emergency exits doors
563.What
happen
when is
the
emergency
exit door of A321 aircraft is opened from the
(A,B1,B2)
outside and
slide system
armed?
A. The locking mechanism is blocked
B. The escape slide will deploy
C. The slide system is disarmed
D. There is no possibility to open the door from the outside
564.Is it possible to fill the A321 aircraft water tank without electrical supplied?
(A,B1,B2)
A. Yes, fill/overflow drain valve can operate manually
B. Yes, but when finished you must manually return the control handle to the
NORMAL position to close the fill/overflow drain valve
C. No, because level transmitter can not send signal to close the fill/overflow drain
valve
D. No, because the fill/overflow drain valve operate electrically
565.The cargo hot air pushbutton switch control the: (B1,B2)
68
1st Issue – July 2005
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. Blower fan.
B. Aft cargo door.
C. Pressure Regulating Valve.
566.How are the cargo smoke detectors connected to the SDCU? (B1,B2)
A. In parallel
B. In series
C. In a loop.
567.How many smoke detectors are installed in the FWd cargo compartment? (B2)
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
568.How many smoke detectors are installed in the AFt cargo compartment? (B2)
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
569.When the cargo fire test pushbutton is pressed and held, which conditions are
simulated? (B1,B2)
A. Smoke only
B. Bottle pressure drop only
C. Both
570.If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment what happen? (B1,B2)
A. SMOKE lights comes ON + continuous repetitive chime + MASTER WARNING +
ECAM message.
B. The CIDS duplicates the cargo smoke warning to the cabin.
C. Lights come on.
571.What happen if the SDCU is faulty? (B1,B2)
A. The lavatory smoke detection inoperative
B. The cargo smoke detection inoperative
C. Both A and B with single chime + MASTER caution + ECAM message.
572.On A321 aircraft with tanks are the main supply tanks? (B1,B2)
A. Wing tanks
B. Center (transfer) tank
C. Outer cells
D. Inner cells
573.The APU of A321 aircraft can normally be supplied with the fuel by: (A,B1,B2)
A. Only the APU pump
B. Only the LH main pumps
C. LH main pumps or APU fuel
f uel pump
574.When the center tank is empty, in AUTO MODE, the center tank transfer valves:
(B1,B2)
A. Must be manually switched OFF after 5 mn.
1st Issue – July 2005
69
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running.
C. Close automatically after a time delay of 5mn.
575.The vent float valve in fuel tank of A321 aircraft (B1)
A. Prevents fuel from entering the vent surge tank.
B. Allows fuel to drain from the vent line.
C. Maintains the fuel tanks pressurized.
576.To which tank does the recirculated fuel return? (B1)
A. Wing tank near rib 16.
B. Center tank.
C. Wing tank collector box.
577.What happens if the fuel level in the wing tank drops to the low level sensor? (B1)
A. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve closes
B. The Fuel Diverter and Return Valve opens
C. The wing tank pumps stop
578.The fuel suction VALVE OF A321 aircraft is in operation, therefore: (B1)
A. The two wing tank pumps are in operation.
B. Only one wing tank pump supplies the engine.
C. Both pumps are stopped.
579.With the X-FEED valve open, both engines running and the pumps in the left
wing tank stopped, the fuel transfer from the center tank: (B1)
A. Stop if the cross-feed valve is open
B. Continues, but only to the right
r ight hand tank.
C. Remains unchanged
580.In which tanks are temperature sensor fitted? (B1,B2)
A. Center tank
B. Wing tanks and center tank
C. Wing tanks
581.What kind of design is the compressor for APS APU? (B1)
A. Two stage centrifugal compressor design.
B. Single stage centrifugal compressor design.
C. Two stage axial compressor design
582.What kind of design is the turbine for APS APU? (B1)
A. Two stage centrifugal turbine design.
B. Single stage centrifugal turbine design.
C. Two stage axial turbine design
583.On A321 aircraft emergency exits door, When does the damper and emergency
operation cylinder work as an actuator? (B1)
A. When the slide control handle is in DISARMED position.
B. When the door is fully closed.
C. When the arming lever is in the ARMED position.
584.On a321 aircraft emergency exits door, Which device transfers the operation of
the outboard handle to the ARM/DISARM unit? (B1)
1st Issue – July 2005
70
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. The release shaft assembly
B. The transmission shaft
C. The intermediate shaft.
ATA 71/80 - POWER PLANT – GENERAL & ENGINE STARTING.
585.For thrust balance and prevention of A/C movement during engine run up: (B1)
A. The single engine operation is allowed up to 80% N1.
B. The non-tested/ opposite engine must be run at 60% N2.
C. If power is higher than 75% N1, the A/C must be immobilized by wheel chocks and
parking brake.
D. If power is higher than 75% N1, the A/C must be immobilized by wheel chocks and
brake pedals.
586.Engine replacement requires: (B1)
A. Both fan and T/R cowling to be removed.
B. Only fan cowls to be removed.
C. Only T/R cowls to be removed.
D. Neither Fan nor T/R cowl needs to be removed.
587.To replace the engine you need to (B1)
A. Open the thrust reverser cowls at 35 degrees position.
B. Open the thrust reverser cowls at 45 degrees position.
C. Remove the thrust reverser cowls
588.Fan cowls: (B1)
A. Must always be held open by both struts each.
B. Must be held open by both struts each when the wind is more than 65 knots.
C. Should be opened by releasing 4 latches in sequence from the rear to the front.
D. Should be opened by releasing 4 latches in sequence from the front to the rear.
589.Fan cowls can be opened: (B1)
A. At 40 degrees position.
B. At 55 degrees position.
C. Either A or B.
590.The engine anti-ice air overboard discharge grill is located? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl.
B. On the right side fan cowl door.
C. On the lower right side of the inlet cowl.
D. At the bottom (5 o’clock position) of fan cowling
591.The engine oil servicing panel is located? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the outboard side of the inlet cowl.
B. On the left side fan cowl door.
C. On the left side of the inlet cowl.
D. On the left side of the reverser cowl.
592.Each reverser cowl: (A,B1,B2)
A. Is hold closed by 6 single latches.
B. Is held open by a single hold open rod.
C. Is held open by two hold open rods.
1st Issue – July 2005
71
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
593.When the engine is running : (A,B1,B2)
A. No personnel is allowed to get access to the engine.
B. Access to the engine is permitted within the Entry/Exit corridor if power do not
e
x
c
e
e
d
m
i
n
i
d
l
e
.
C. Access to the engine is permitted within the Entry/Exit corridor at all power rating.
594.The engine run up at Min idle can be carried out with : (A,b1,B2)
A. Fan cowls opened and secured.
B. Both Reverser and Fan cowls opened and secured.
C. Thrust Reverser cowls opened and secured.
D. Non engine cowl opened.
ATA 72 – ENGINE CFM 56-5b
595.Features of CFM-56-5B4 engine are: (A, B1,B2)
A. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio and mixed exhaust.
596.Select the correct type of combustion chamber for CFM-56-5B4 engine?
(A,B1,B2)
A. Annular combustor.
B. Tubular combustor.
C. Reverse flow combustor.
597.The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)
A. Twelve.
B. Ten.
C. Nine
598.The HP Turbine has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)
A. Only one stage.
B. Four stages
C. Two stages.
599.Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2)
A. Thirty six (36)
1st Issue – July 2005
72
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)
600.The engine gear boxes are driven by which shaft? (A,B1,B2)
A. N1 rotor.
B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box.
C. N2 rotor.
601.The Aerodynamic station 2 is at: (B1,B2)
A. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade tip area.
B. Fan inlet front frame at the fan blade hub area.
C. Fan outlet discharge area.
602.The Aerodynamic station 3 is: (B1,B2)
A. HP compressor inlet.
B. HP compressor discharge.
C. Combustion chamber discharge.
603.You can use the ignitor holes to do borescope inspection OF? (B1)
A. Leading edge area of HPT blades.
B. Trailing edge area of the first stage LPT blades.
C. Leading edge area of the first stage LPT blades.
604.The hand cranking drive connects to? (A,B1,B2)
A. LP rotor.
B. HP rotor.
C. Both LP and HP rotors.
ATA 73 – ENGINE FUEL AND CONTROL.
605.Switching between the A/C 28VDC and PMA power supplies to FADEC is done:
(B1,B2)
A. Manually thru the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton.
B. Automatically by the EIU.
C. Automatically by the ECU.
D. Automatically by the both ECU and EIU.
606.What is/ are the protection(s) for N2 OVERLIMIT? (B1)
A. There is no protection, the Thrust lever must be moved aftward manually
B. There is a mechanical protection to open the Bypass valve
C. There is a mechanical protection to close the Bypass valve
D. There is a mechanical protection to close FMV
607.The engine control unit is supplied by a dedicated generator on the engine:
(B1,B2)
A. When the start sequence is completed
B. When N2 is greater than 12 %
C. If the aircraft is in flight
D. Only when both engines are running
1st Issue – July 2005
73
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
608.What is the engine system signal which causes the ECU to open the fuel return
valve? (B1,B2)
A. IDG oil temperature
B. Engine oil supply temperature
C. Fuel by pass temperature
D. Engine scavenge oil temperature
609.What valve ensures adequate fuel flow to nozzles? (B1)
A. FMV.
B. PRSOV.
C. BSV.
610.What kind of shut off signal does the HMU shut off valve sends to the FRV?
(B1,B2)
A. Direct fuel pressure.
B. Direct electrical signal.
C. Electrical signal send through the ECU.
611.An output fault in one channel of ECU causes: (B1,B2)
A. System goes to designed failed safe position.
B. Switch over to control from the other channel.
C. Affected channel generate another output signal.
612.In case of ECU channel input loss, what happens? (B1,B2)
A. Switch over to the other channel
B. The channel in control uses values from the other channel
C. The channel in control uses default values.
D. Control goes to Fail-Safe position
613.What of the following is controlled by FADEC? (B1,B2)
A. The throttle lever angle.
B. The EIU.
C. The engine thrust rating.
614.What happens in case EIU power supply is LOST? (B1,B2)
A. The EIU takes power from the ECU generator.
B. The EIU failed and engine restart is not possible.
C. The ECU and ignition power supplies are no longer available.
ATA 74 – ignition system.
615.Of which type is the ignition system? (A,B1,B2)
A. Low voltage, high energy.
B. High voltage, low energy.
C. High voltage, high energy.
616.What provide the selection of ignition A/B? (A,B1,B2)
A. The ECU.
B. The engine control panel.
C. The ECAM control panel.
617.The ignition is cut off (B1,B2)
1st Issue – July 2005
74
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. Automatically during start when N2 reaches 50%.
B. Automatically during start when N1 reaches 50%.
C. Automatically when engine stabilized at idle.
618.When the ignition is inhibited? (A,B1,B2)
A. During automatic start when N2 is above 16%.
B. During dry crank sequence.
C. During wet crank sequence.
D. During wet and dry crank sequences.
619.What conditions cause automatic selection of continuous relight (B1,B2)
A. Engine anti-ice on, wing anti-ice on, engine flame out
B. Engine anti-ice on, EIU failed, engine flame out
C. Engine anti-ice on, wing anti-ice on, EIU failed
D. Wing anti-ice on, EIU failed, mode selector at norm position
620.Each engine equipped with? (A,B1,B2)
A. One ignition system with two igniters.
B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters.
C. Two ignition systems with two igniters.
621.Ignition system power supply is? (A,B1,B2)
A. 115 V from the aircraft.
B. 115 V from engine generator.
C. 28 V from the FADEC PMA.
622.What causes the automatic continuous relight of the engine? (B1,B2)
A. ECU failure.
B. Engine flame out.
C. Ignition/Start selection.
623.The ignition systems are enable during engine manual start at? (B1,B2)
A. 16% N2.
B. 22% N2.
C. Selection of the master lever.
624.What does Continuous Relight mean? (A,B1,B2)
A. An active ignition system will work continuously.
B. Both ignition systems are selected during engine start.
C. Both ignition systems are demanded to work continuously.
ATA -75 – AIR SYSTEM
625.The operating servo pressure in the VSV system is? (B1)
A. Stage 10th air pressure.
B. Fuel servo pressure.
C. Aircraft hydraulic system pressure.
626.The compressor airflow system control is from? (B1)
A. The Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC).
B. The Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
C. The Engine Interface unit (EIU).
1st Issue – July 2005
75
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
627.Air is supplied to the LPT Active Clearance Control system from? (B1)
A. The ram air.
B. The HP Compressor stage 9.
C. The Fan delivery.
628.The operating force in the Active Clearance Control actuators is? (B1)
A. HMU fuel delivery pressure.
B. HP compressor delivery air pressure.
C. EDP hydraulic delivery pressure.
629.Which air speeds and reference signal are used to control the HPT clearance?
(B1)
A. 4th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by HP turbine clearance control valve
with reference from T case
B. Fan air controlled by the HP turbine clearance control valve with reference from T
case
C. 5th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by HP turbine clearance control valve
with reference from P case
D. 5th and 9th stage compressor air controlled by the low pressure turbine clearance
control valve with reference from P case
630.Is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) system? (A,B1,B2)
A. To improve compressor efficiency
B. To improve and maintain engine performance
C. To reduce overall engine thermal growth
631.Is the L.P. compressor bleed valve (VBV)? (B1)
A. Multi – ports.
B. Annular.
C. Two positions slider.
632.When open, where does the VBV direct airflow? (B1)
A. Into the A/C bleed system.
B. All valves discharge overboard directly.
C. To bypass flow.
633.What is used to cool the ECU? (A,B1,B2)
A. Ram air taken from dedicated air intake scoop.
B. Fan air taken from dedicated air intake scoop.
C. Fan air taken from nacelle cooling system.
634.What is used to cool the fan and core compartments? (A,B1,B2)
A. Ram air for both compartments
B. Fan air for both compartments.
C. Ram air for fan compartment and Fan air for core compartment.
ATA 76 – ENGINE CONTROLS.
635.Release the engine fire push button causes the closure of: (B1,B2)
A. Engine fuel Low pressure valve
B. Engine fuel Low pressure valve and Engine fuel high pressure valve
1st Issue – July 2005
76
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Engine fuel high pressure valve
D. Nothing
636.How is the HP fuel shut off valve solenoid energized to close? (B1,B2)
A. Directly by engine Master switch selection
B. By a signal from the ECU (engine control unit)
C. Directly by a fuel pressure signal in case of start abort
D. By a signal processed by the EIU and sent to the ECU
637.With the engine Master switch at Off: (B1,B2)
A. The HP fuel valve and LP fuel shut off (fire) valve are closed
B. The HP fuel valve is closed and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valve is open
C. The HP fuel valve is open and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valve is closed
D. The HP fuel valve and the LP fuel shut off (fire) valves are open
638.Which condition required to open the PRSOV? (B1,B2)
A. Commanded fuel pressure from the FMV.
B. PRSOV latching solenoid de-energized.
C. Both the above conditions.
639.In which condition the ECU controls the opening of the HP fuel shut off valve.
(B1,B2)
A. Mode SEL in IGN/START or CRK position.
B. Master lever in ON position.
C. Both the above conditions.
640.How is the engine LP fuel valve controlled? (B1,B2)
A. By two electrical motors.
B. By a dual solenoids.
C. Hydraulically by the servo fuel.
641.Which computer controls the engine thrust? (B1,B2)
A. ECU in both manual and automatic thrust modes.
B. FMGC in automatic thrust mode and ECU in manual mode.
C. FCU in both manual and automatic thrust modes.
642.When the throttle is between two detent points, what position corresponds to the
thrust limit? (B1,B2)
A. The upper detent point.
B. The lower detent point.
C. The actual throttle lever position.
643.What does the FMGC compute? (B1,B2)
A. N1 limit.
B. N1 target.
C. N1 command.
644.What is the normal engine throttle cruise detent point? (B1,B2)
A. CL
B. FLX/MCT
C. TOGA
1st Issue – July 2005
77
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
ATA - 77: ENGINE INDICATION.
645.The engine primary parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The lower ECAM engine page.
B. The upper ECAM.
C. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the upper ECAM.
646.The engine page is selected? (A,B1,B2)
A. Manually or automatically depend on flight phases.
B. Manually only.
C. Automatically only depend on flight phases.
647.The engine vibration parameter is displayed on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page.
648.The engine oil quantity parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page.
649.The engine oil pressure parameters are displayed on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The Upper ECAM.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page.
650.The IGN indication is displayed on? (B1,B2)
A. The Upper ECAM during engine start.
B. The Lower ECAM engine page during engine start.
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page.
651.The fuel used indication is reset to Zero : (A,B1,B2)
A. Five minutes after engine shut down
B. After a new take-off
C. Through the MCDU
D. At each engine start
652.The TRF vibration sensor is used? (B1,B2)
A. In parallel with the 1st sensor.
B. As standby for the 1st sensor and will automatically activated in case the 1st sensor
failure.
C. As standby for the 1st sensor and will not automatically activated in case the 1st
sensor failure.
653.The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via what parameter? (A,B1,B2)
A. N1 speed.
B. N2 speed
C. EGT
654.Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display? (B1,B2)
A. FF, N1 & N2.
1st Issue – July 2005
78
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature.
C. N1, EGT, N2.
ATA 78 – ENGINE THRUST REVERSER.
655.In what position and power state is the Directional Control Valve during flight?
(B1,B2)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stow position-solenoid energized.
Stow position-solenoid de-energized.
Neutral position-solenoid de-energized.
Deploy position- solenoid de-energized.
656.What is the function of the HCU de-activation lever? (B1)
A. Mechanically prevents operation of the Pressurization Valve.
B. Mechanically prevents movement of the Directional Control Valve.
C. Inhibits operation of the hydraulic pressure switch.
D. To close the hydraulic SOV.
657.Which important safety procedure should be performed before any maintenance
work on or near the ‘C’ ducts or reverser system? (A,B1,B2)
A. Unlock and pin the actuators.
B. Lock out the translating sleeves.
C. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU.
D. Deactivate and pin the lever on the HCU and lock out translating sleeves.
658.How is the Thrust Reverser system actuated? (B1)
A. Electrically.
B. Pneumatically.
C. Hydraulically.
659.How is the Thrust reverser controlled? (B1)
A. By the ECU only.
B. By the ECU and the two conditions from SEC and inhibition relay.
C. Directly by the Thrust reverser lever.
660.In normal T/R operation, “door not stow” condition is indicated by? (B1,B2)
A. REV in green appears inside the N2 gauge.
B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge.
C. REV in green appears inside the N1 gauge.
661.How is Thrust Reverser fully deployed indicated? (B1,B2)
A. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge.
B. REV in green appears inside the N1 gauge.
C. REV in green appears inside the N2 gauge.
662.Can the Thrust Reverser be operated if the engine is not running? (B1,B2)
A. Not possible.
B. Yes, use the T/R test on the MCDU.
C. Yes, provided A/C is on ground and hydraulic pressure is available.
663.What the CFDIU simulate during Thrust Reverser MCDU test? (B1,B2)
1st Issue – July 2005
79
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
A. TLA signal.
B. N2 signal.
C. Ground condition.
664.What does the pressure detector indicate to the ECU? (B1)
A. The system is pressurizing.
B. The actuators are depressurized
C. The actuators latches are unlocked.
ATA -79 : ENGINE OIL SYSTEM
665.Oil pressure indicator becomes red when pressure is lower than: (B1,B2)
A. 10 psi
B. 13 psi
C. 200 psi
D. There is no specific limit itself.
666.What happen in case the main filter on the lubrication line is clogged (B1)
A. The by-pass valve opens, half of the oil flow passes through the main filter, and the
other part through the back up filter
B. A low oil pressure warning is triggered
C. A red warning is triggered, oil temperature increases
D. The engine page appears on ECAM oil passes through the by pass valve, back up
filter and to the bearings
667.What is (are ) the indications in case of metallic parts in the common scavenge oil
pipe? (B1)
A. Only a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator
B. An ECAM warning and a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector
indicator
C. A low oil pressure indication and warning
D. A high oil temperature indication and warning
668.Normal engine oil consumption is? (B1)
A. 0,85 QT per hour.
B. 0.25 QT per hour.
C. 0.57 QT per hour.
669.Engine oil system is ventilated at? (B1)
A. RH fan cowl exhaust nozzle.
B. LH fan cowl exhaust nozzle.
C. Engine center body exhaust.
670.The oil tank content can be checked by? (A,B1,B2)
A. Opening a dedicated servicing access panel in the LH fan cowl.
B. Opening an access panel on the LH “C’ duct.
C. Opening the RH fan cowl
671.How is the main cooling of the oil system achieved? (A,B1,B2)
A. By an air-cooled oil cooler.
B. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the HP fuel system.
C. By a fuel cooled oil cooler in the LP fuel system.
1st Issue – July 2005
80
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
672.Engine oil heat exchanger is on? (B1)
A. The oil supply circuit.
B. The oil scavenge circuit.
C. The oil ventilation circuit.
673.Engine oil MCD is on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The oil supply circuit.
B. The oil scavenge circuit.
C. The oil ventilation circuit.
674.Engine oil temperature indication is measured on? (A,B1,B2)
A. The oil supply circuit.
B. The oil scavenge circuit.
C. The oil ventilation circuit.
ATA - 80 – ENGINE STARTING.
675.Engine starter is lubricated by? (B1)
A. Engine oil system.
B. A separate oil circuit.
C. Oil from the IDG.
676.How can you assure that the oil servicing of starter is accomplished? (A,B1,B2)
A. Checking the engine oil sign glass.
B. Check ECAM indication.
C. Check the oil flows though the overflow port.
677.During engine start in manual mode, ignition systems A and B are shown on
ECAM: (B1,B2)
A. It means that either system A or B has failed
B. It means that system A has failed
C. It means that system B has failed
D. This is normal. A and B are selected in manual start
678.If the EGT is over limit, in which case can the ECU abort start? (B1,B2)
A. Automatic start.
B. Manual start.
C. Automatic and manual start.
679.What happen in automatic start when N2 reached 50%? (B1,B2)
A. MAN start P/B ON light goes off.
B. The ECU provides the ECAM message telling to close the SAV.
C. SAV closes automatically.
680.When doing engine dry crank, you open the
the circuit breaker 1kc1(2) in order to:
(B1,B2)
A. Open the HP fuel valve.
B. Open the LP fuel valve.
C. Open both LP & HP valves
D. Close the LP fuel valve.
1st Issue – July 2005
81
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
681.If starter air valve solenoid is INOPERATIVE? (B1,B2)
A. You can not start the engine.
B. You can still start the engine using manual start sequence.
C. You can only start engine by operating the SAV manually.
682.In AUTO mode, the ECU is able to perform several start attemps? (B1,B2)
A. If IGN failed.
B. If EGT over limit or stall fault occurred.
C. Both the above cases.
683.What is the best wind direction for engine STARTING? (A,B1,B2)
A. Side wind.
B. Tail wind.
C. Front wind.
ATA 71-80: V2500 ENGINE – DIFFERENCE.
684.Features of V2530-A5 engine are: (A,B1,B2)
A. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust.
B. Two spools, radial flow, annular combustor and mixed exhaust.
C. Two spools, axial flow, annular combustor and separated exhaust.
D. Two spools, axial flow, tubular combustor and mixed exhaust.
685.“V2530-A5” means: (A,B1,B2)
A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install
insta ll in the Airbus A/C.
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install
insta ll in the Airbus A/C.
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install
insta ll in the Airbus A/C.
686.The engine exhaust directs rearwards? (A,B1,B2)
A. Fan air discharge.
B. Engine core exhaust.
C. Both fan air discharge and the engine core exhaust.
687.Reverser cowling: (A,B1,B2)
A. Is attached to the engine core by 6 hinges each half.
B. Is hold closed by 5 single latches.
C. Should be opened/closed using the Auxiliary latch assembly.
688.Each half of reverser cowl c duct: (A,B1,B2)
A. Is held closed by 4 latches.
B. Is held open by a single hold open rod.
C. Is held open by two hold open rods.
689.Fan cowls: (A,B1,B2)
A. Must be held open by both struts each when the wind is more than 26 knots (30
mph).
B. Should be opened by releasing 6 latches in sequence from the front to the rear.
C. Must always be held open by both struts each.
690.The H.P. Compressor has how many stages? (A,B1,B2)
A. Twelve.
1st Issue – July 2005
82
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
B. Ten.
C. Fourteen.
691.Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set? (A,B1,B2)
A. Thirty three (33)
B. Twenty two (22)
C. Thirty two (32)
692.What statement is NOT correct? (A,B1,B2)
A. Fan stage has 22 fan blades.
B. Fan stage has 24 fan blades.
C. Engine is constructed by 05 modules.
D. Gearboxes are driven by HP shaft.
693.The air starter valve access panel is on? (A,B1,B2)
A. RH fan cowl.
B. LH fan cowl
C. RH reverser cowl.
D. Out board fan cowl.
694.Aerodynamic station 2.5 means: (B1,B2)
A. LPC Outlet guide vanes exit.
B. Fan Outlet guide vanes exit.
C. LPC inlet.
D. LPT exit.
695.The compressor stage N0 12 is? (B1)
A. The 12th stage of the HPC.
B. The 10th stage of the HPC.
C. The 7th stage of the HPC.
696.EGT thermal couples are at? (B1,B2)
A. HPT area.
B. First stage of LPT.
C. Exhaust area.
697.P2 pressure signal: (B1,B2)
A. Are supplied directly to EEC at the bottom pressure connection.
B. Are supplied to EEC as digital electronic signal.
C. Are supplied to EEC from ADIRS computers.
698.What information contained in the engine Data Entry Plug? (B1,b2)
A. N1 Modifier; EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine
Engine rating.
B. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; EEC P/N.
C. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine rating; EEC P/N.
D. EPR Modifier; Engine S/N; Engine rating.
699.What is the engine pressure ratio (EPR)? (B1,B2)
A. The ratio of P2 – P3.
B. The ratio of P3 – P2.
C. The ratio of P4.9 – P2.
D. The ratio of P4.9 – P3.
1st Issue – July 2005
83
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
700.Is the L.P. compressor bleed valve (BSBV)? (B1)
A. Multi – ports.
B. Annular.
C. Two positions slider.
701.When open, where does the bleed valve direct airflow? (B1)
A. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves into the A/C bleed system.
B. All valves discharge overboard directly.
C. To Bypass flow all.
D. BSBV to bypass flow; stages 7 & 10 valves discharge overboard directly.
702.The airflow control system is a combination of which sub-SYSTEMS? (B1)
A. Stage 7 and 10 Bleed valves and aircraft service bleed.
B. BSBV, HPC VSV and stage 7 & 10 Bleed valves.
C. HPC VSV, BSBV and stages 5 & 8 bleed valves.
703.Which bleed valve is (are) fully modulating? (B1)
A. Stage 7 valves.
B. Stage 2.5.
C. Stage 10 valve.
D. All of the above.
704.How many bleed valves are there to control the HPC air flow? (B1)
A. Three 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve.
B. Three 7th stage valves and one 10th stage valve.
C. One 10th stage valves and one 7th stage valve.
705.Servo pressure to operate HPC stage 7 & 10 bleed valves is from? (B1)
A. P 2.5 bleed pressure.
B. Servo fuel pressure from FMU.
C. Air pressure from stage 10th HPC
D. P3 air pressure.
706.The HPC stage 7 & 10 bleed valves is controlled? (B1)
A. By eec through respective solenoids.
B. By eec through respective torque motors.
C. Pneumatically using 10th stage air pressure.
707.What is (are) the indications in case of metallic parts in the common scavenge oil
pipe? (B1)
A. Only a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator.
B. An ECAM warning and a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector
indicator.
C. There is no indication.
708.Engine oil flow: (B1)
A. Always pass totally through the ACOC at all HMS modes.
B. Either totally or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes.
C. Either partly or Not pass through ACOC depending on HMS modes.
D. Depending on the ACOC valve position.
1st Issue – July 2005
84
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
709.What does the ACOC valve regulate? (B1)
A. The engine oil flowing through the ACOC.
B. The flow of fan air crossing the ACOC.
C. The flow of ram air crossing the ACOC.
D. Both engine oil and flow of fan air.
710.Engine oil system is ventilated at? (B1)
A. RH fan cowl breather outlet.
B. LH fan cowl breather outlet.
C. Engine center body exhaust.
711.Has the oil pressure filter a pop out indicator fitted? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. There is no pressure filter in the system.
712.Which filters in the oil system have associated “filter clog” messages on the
ECAM? (A,b1,B2)
A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers.
B. Pressure only.
C. Scavenge only.
713.Which normal indications are displayed on the ECAM for the oil system?
(A,b1,B2)
A. Oil differential pressure, oil temperature, oil tank quantity.
B. Oil temperature, oil pressure.
C. Oil differential pressure, oil quantity,
714.The ECAM oil pressure indication is? (B1,B2)
A. Pump delivery pressure.
B. Pressure pump — scavenge pump differential pressure.
C. Pressure pump delivery — No 4 bearing scavenge.
715.What is the purpose of the No 4 bearing scavenge valve? (B1)
A. Scavenge No 4-bearing compartment.
B. Controls the venting/scavenge flow of air/oil mixture to the de-oiler.
C. Controls the ACAC (buffer) air flows for No 4 bearing compartment.
716.What does the HMS heat and cool? (A,B1,B2)
A. Fuel, engine oil and IDG oil.
B. Engine oil and IDG oil.
C. Fuel only.
D. Fuel and engine oil.
717.The HMS has how many modes? (B1)
A. One
B. Four
C. Five
718.In which HMS mode does the ACOC valve fully close? (B1)
A. Mode 1.
B. Mode 3.
1st Issue – July 2005
85
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. Mode 5.
719.What is the failed safe position of the ACOC valve? (B1)
A. Fully opened.
B. Fully closed.
C. Stay at the last position.
720.The EEC controls the HMS with? (B1)
A.
B.
C.
D.
ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV and IDG FCOC.
ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV; IDG FCOC; FCOC.
ACOC modulating valve and FD&RV.
ACOC modulating valve; FD&RV and FCOC.
721.The combined fuel diverter and return to tank valve (FD&RV) is located on?
(B1)
A. The HP fuel pump case.
B. FCOC case.
C. IDG FCOC case.
D. ACOC case.
722.How the Nose Cone (Spinner) is anti-iced? (A,B1,B2)
A. Electrically.
B. Pneumatically.
C. Neither electrically nor pneumatically.
D. Not required.
723.What maintains the T/R in stow position for normal forward flight? (B1,b2)
A. Hydraulic pressure to stow side of actuator piston.
B. Mechanical locks on the piston of the lower actuators.
C. Lockout pins inserted into the translating cowls.
724.What senses movement of the T/R translating sleeve? (B1,B2)
A. The hydraulic pressure switch inside the HCU.
B. The LVDT’s on the upper actuators.
C. The proximity switches on the locking actuators.
D. The LVDT’s on the lower actuators.
725.How is movement of the two T/R translating cowls synchronized? (B1)
A. A double latch assembly between the left and right cowl.
B. A flexible drive cable between the actuators.
C. A combination of all “C” ducts latches and flexible drive cables.
D. A combination of the double latch and flexible drive cables.
726.The lower actuators can be unlocked: (B1)
A. Manually only.
B. Hydraulically only.
C. Manually or hydraulically.
D. Manually and hydraulically.
727.In normal T/R operation, actuator unlocked condition is indicated by? (A,B1,B2)
A. REV in green appears inside the EPR gauge.
B. REV in amber appears inside the N1 gauge.
1st Issue – July 2005
86
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. REV in amber appears inside the EPR gauge.
728.The Air Cooled Air Cooler (ACAC) or Buffer cooler is located? (B1)
A. On the fan case.
B. On the Common Nozzle Assembly.
C. On the H.P. turbine case.
729.The Overspeed valve and the PRSOV in the fmu are opened by? (B1)
A. Signals from the EEC to a modulating torque motor.
B. Signals from the EEC to a micro switches.
C. Metered fuel pressure.
730.Fuel samples can be taken from? (A,B1,B2)
A. The LP fuel filter cover.
B. The LP fuel pump case.
C. The HP fuel pump outlet.
731.How the Fuel distribution valve works? (B1)
A. It follows the EEC demand.
B. It is electrically controlled by EEC and fuel pressure operated
C. There’s no control of the valve.
732.Where is the aircraft services, engine pneumatic system check valve positioned?
(B1)
A. Stage 10 offtake, engine left side.
B. Stage 7 offtake, engine right side.
C. Stage 7 offtake, engine left side.
733.The N1 speed signal is sensed from? (B1,B2)
A. Speed probes interacting with a phonic wheel in the front bearing compartment.
B. A tachometer generator fitted into the accessory gearbox.
C. Speed probes located in the LP Turbine.
734.The indicated N2 speed is measured from? (B1,B2)
A. Speed probes and a phonic wheel.
B. EEC computes value from frequency of 1 phase of the dedicated alternator (PMA) 3
phase output signal.
C. A tachometer generator fitted into the accessory gearbox.
735.How many probes interact with the phonic wheel? (B1,B2)
A. 4 - 3 Speed probes and a once per revolution probe.
B. 3 - 2 Speed probes and 1 spare probe.
C. 2 - 1 for Channel A and 1 for Channel B.
736.How many vibration sensors are installed on each engine? (B1,B2)
A. Two, one in bearing N0 1 compartment, one on the Turbine Rear Frame.
B. One dual sensor on the intermediate case.
C. One sensor on the fan case.
737.Which engine parameters are displayed on the ECAM upper display? (A,B1,B2)
A. EPR, N1 & N2.
B. N1, N2, EPR, oil pressure, oil temperature.
1st Issue – July 2005
87
CAAV QUESTION BANK – A320/321
C. N1, N2, EPR & EGT.
EGT.
738.Air is supplied to the HPT Active Clearance Control system from? (B1)
A. The ram air.
B. The HP Compressor stage 9.
C. The Fan delivery.
739.When and how is the P2/T2 probe heated? (B1,B2)
A. Continuously when the engine is running
B. Only if selected by the pilot by 115v supply.
C. Continuously at all conditions, by stage 7 air.
740.The engine igniters are on? (B1,B2)
A. RH of the engine.
B. LH of the engine.
C. One is on the RH, one is on the LH of the engine.
741.Where is the air taken to cool the N0 4 bearing compartment? (B1)
A. 10th stage HPC.
B. 12th stage HPC.
C. 7th stage HPC.
742.Engine naccelled temperature sensor is? (B1,B2)
A. In the pylon area.
B. In the fan area.
C. In the core area.
743.The EEC controls the ACC system via the torque motor located? (B1,B2)
A. In side the FMU.
B. On the ACC actuator.
C. On the ACC valve body.