DEC 16 – INDUSTRIAL HYGIENE
1. “The highest degree of physical, mental and social wellbeing of workers in all occupations.”
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Occupational Safety
Ergonomics
Occupational Health
None of the above
Industrial Hygiene
2. An occupational health practitioner, as defined under
Rule I, Section I of this IRR must have had at least _____ year
experience in the field of or practice of occupational health
and safety.
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 years
5 years
3 years
2 years
3. __ refer to the concentrations of a substance in which
nearly all worker’s may be exposed day after day for a
working lifetime without adverse effects.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TLV
TWA
STEL
REL
PEL
4. Minimum intensity for emergency lighting as per Chapter
7 of PD 856
a)
b)
c)
d)
10 lux
0.5 lux
5 foot-candles
5 lux
5. ___ is the average concentration for a normal 8-hour
workday and 40-hour workweek, to which nearly all
workers maybe repeatedly exposed day after day without
adverse effect.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TLV
PEL
STEL
TWA
REL
6. It is a noise characterized by a rapid rise to a peak sound
pressure level followed by a small negative pressure wave
or by decay to the background level.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Type C Impulse
Continuous noise
Type A impulse
Type B Impulse
7. It is the height of the peak or depth of the trough
measured from the zero-pressure line.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sinusoidal
Amplitude
Wavelength
Period
Frequency
8. One revolution or cycle of sound per second is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dbA
meter per second
bel
cps
Hertz
9. ___ confirms the occurrence of suspected hazardous
agents, their characteristics and degree of exposure
through qualitative and quantitative measurements and
laboratory examinations/analysis.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Administrative Control
Evaluation
PPE
Recognition
Control
10. The velocity of sound in air at 20℃ is taken as __.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
170 m/s
746 m/s
2.04 m/s
340 m/s
42.4 m/s
11. The loudness of a noise is expressed by its ___
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Frequency
Sinusoidal
Wavelength
Period
Amplitude
12. A young healthy ear can detect frequencies over a range
of about ___ Hz
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100 to 50,000
1,000 to 50,000
20 to 20,000
0.10 to 1,000
1 to 10,000
13. What is the permissible sound level in a 2-hour exposure
as per OSHA?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
100 dBA
110 dBA
105 dBA
97 dBA
95 dbA
14. Infrasonic sound has a frequency below __ Hz
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1,000
0.10
20
100
20,000
15. __ is a sound that contains only one frequency
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
audible sound
Monotone
sine wave
Pure tone
Sound level
16. ___ is used to determine various frequencies in a sound.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Sound level meter
None of the above
Long-band analyzer
sine wave analyzer
Narrow-band analyzer
Thermometer
17. ___ – hearing loss due to aging process.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Bilharzia
Presbyopia
Presbycusis
Masking
Acoustic trauma
18. Referring to ear drum
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Tympanic membrane
Anvil
Cochlea
Stirrup
Hammer
19. ___ dBA is the threshold of hearing for a young person
with very good hearing while ___ dBA is the threshold of
pain.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10; 130
0; 90
0; 120
10; 120
20; 90
20. It is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or
sound pressure levels.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
All of the above
SPL
Sinusoidal
Decibel
Watts
21. According to World Health Organization (WHO) a level
of __ is considered a safe noise level in a city.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
65 dB
45 dB
25 dB
90 dB
35 dB
22. What weighting scale is used to measure and compare
the effect of airplane noise on the human ear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
D scale
C scale
A scale
E scale
B scale
23. ___ is most commonly used in measurements regarding
impact on humans and the sound levels
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
D scale
A scale
B scale
E scale
C scale
24. What do you call the permanent hearing loss that results
from very brief exposure to a very loud noise?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Masking
Presbycusis
Speech interference
Acoustic trauma
Temporary Threshold shift
25. The standard reference level for sound pressure level is
___ while the threshold of human hearing for sound
intensity is ___.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
20 Pa; 10 raise to -12 W/m2
20 μPa; 10 raise to -6 W/m2
20 μPa; 10 W/m2
20 μPa; 10 raise to -12 W/m2
20 Pa; 0.0002 dynes
26. In amplitude of sound, which of the following is the
correct equivalent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1 sone = 40 phons
1 sone = 50 phons
2 sones = 60 phons
10 sones = 40 phons
1 sone = 20 phons
27. It is a measure of the perceived noise level (PNL), in
decibel, in relation to the noisiness or acceptability of a
sound level.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Amplitude
Sinusoidal
Intensity
Day-Night Sound level
Noys
28. The __will measure the amount of potentially injurious
noise to which an individual is exposed over a period of
time. However, it does not identify noise sources.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Octave band analyzer
Sound level meter
Sound analyzer
noise dosemeter
Cathode ray oscillograph
29. Is responsible for research on worker health and safety.
It also recommends new standards to OSHA and supplies
OSHA with scientific and technical expertise for the rule
making process.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
PEL
OSHA
ANSI
OSCHR
NIOSh
30. Workstation design, repetitive motion, improper
lifting/reaching, poor visual conditions are examples of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ergonomic hazards
Chemical hazards
None of the above
Bullying
Physical hazards
31. Long time period between exposure to an agent and the
onset of symptoms
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Teratogen
sub-acute
Acute
Infection
Chronic
32. In toxicology, OPIM means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Old and Present Industrial Medicine
On Permissible Indicated Measurement
Occurring and Potential Infective Mechanisms
Oncogenic Particulates and Infectious Materials
Other Potentially Infectious Materials
33. Speech interference
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Nausea
Presbycusis
Masking
Threshold shift
Acoustic trauma
34. Regarded as the “Father of Industrial Medicine”
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Aristotle
Dr. Alice Hamilton
Ulrich Ellenborg
Bernardo Ramazzini
Percival Pott
35. The following statements are true except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
The greater the protective mass between a
radioactive source and the worker, the lower the
radiation exposure.
Radiation level from sources can be estimated by
comparing the square root of the distances
between the worker and the sources.
In occupations where there is exposure to ionizing
radiation, time, distance, and shielding are
important tools in ensuring worker safety.
An exposure to laser radiation that is faster than
the blinking of an eye can be hazardous.
Danger from radiation increases with the amount
of time one is exposed to it.
None of the above
36. Who is the first Industrial toxicologist in US pioneering
in the field of Toxicology and Occupational Hygiene?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Bernardo Ramazzini
Ulrich Ellenborg
Dr. Alice Hamilton
Aristotle
Percival Pott
37. Systematic and scientific evaluation of the potential for
toxicity when humans or wildlife are or will be exposed to
hazardous compounds or situations
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hazard
Risk
Hazard identification
Risk assessment
Permissible exposure limit
38. Consider a situation in which two separate regions in
which oil spills have been reported at different frequencies.
Which of the following statement is not true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
Both regions experienced different hazard.
Both communities experienced same level of
hazard and risk.
Both communities are threatened by the same
hazard.
Risk is higher for the community that has reported
more oil spills
A and B
C and D
NONE of the above
39. The ratio of gamma or X-ray dose to the dose that is
required to produce the same biological effect by the
radiation in question.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
G-M counter
rem
mev
rep
RBE
40. ___ is the SI unit of absorbed dose. It is equivalent to the
absorption of 1 J/kg and also equal to 100 rads.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Gray
Curie
Roentgen
REM
Sievert
41. One __ equals the radiation dose having the same
biological effect as a gray of gamma radiation. This is also
equal to 100 rem.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sievert
RBE
Curie
Radiation adsorbed dose
Gray
42. The SI unit for of radioactivity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
rem
Becquerel
positron
Roentgen
Curie
Erg
43. It is the time in which a radioactive substance fixed in an
animal body is reduced to half the original amount,
resulting from the combined actions of natural radioactive
decay and biological elimination.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Biological half-life
Effective half-life
radioactivity constant
Physical half-life
Chemical half-life
44. The radioactive element most commonly detected in
humans is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Plutonium
Potassium
Cobalt
Selenium
Calcium
Iodine
45. These are solid particles capable of being blown about
or suspended in the air by handling, crushing, cutting,
drilling, grinding, rapid impact, spraying, detonators, or
disintegration of inorganic or organic materials.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Vapors
Fumes
Mists
Aerosols
Dusts
46. This kind of examination maybe required where there is
under exposure to health hazards, such as lead, mercury,
hydrogen sulfide, sulfur oxide, nitroglycol and other similar
substance.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
All of the above
Biochemical Examinations
Special Examinations
None of the above
Diagnostic Examinations
47. A First-aider is a person that is capable to read and write
and must have completed a course in first-aid conducted by
what institution?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
DOH
ACGIH
None of the above
OSHA
PNRC
48. Which of the following is NOT referring to Anthrax?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Malta fever
None of the above
Maladi Charbon
Malignant Pustule
Siberian Plague
Ragpicker’s disease
49. Brucellosis or Bang’s Disease is named after __ who
isolated the bacterium
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
G. A. Bang
Bruce Lee
Bangs Garcia
Anne Yah Bang
David Bruce
Anne Brucella
50. Two species of tiny coccobacilli in animal brucellosis are:
___ from cattle and ___ from pigs
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
B. abortus; B. suis
B. suis; B.burkholderia
B. suis; B. abortus
B. abortus; B.burkholderia
B. pseudomallei; B.burkholderia
51. What is the minimum provision for yards, roadways and
outside thoroughfares?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 ft-candles
5 ft-candles
10 ft-candles
30 ft-candles
None of the above
52. An employer need not put up an emergency hospital or
dental clinic if there is a hospital or dental clinic which can
be reached by motor vehicle within ____ minutes of travel
and that the employer provides transportation facilities or
which is not more than ____ kilometers away.
a)
b)
c)
d)
25, 10
25, 5
10, 25
5 , 25
53. A complete exhaust system shall include an air suction
device, hoods, ducts, fans objectors, separators, and
receptacles and all the other parts necessary for its proper
installation, its inlet velocity shall be regulated at _____
meter/second for inlets between 3.66 to 4.88 meter above
the floors.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2.54 meter /second
5.08 meter /second
None of the above
0.61 meter /second
7.45 meter /second
54. Frequency of inspection for hazardous, small scale
establishment with 1-50 employees
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Annually
Once every 3 months
Once every 2 months
Once every month
Semi annually
55. ________ is considered as Last resort” type of
protection or control.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Administrative
PPE
Sanitation
Engineering
Inspection
56. As per OSHS, every side of a platform more than
__________ft. high shall be provided with guard rails and
toe boards.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6.5
10.5
8.5
2.5
4.5
57. After erection or alteration, every hoist shall be tested
and examined every __________ by a competent person
and the result of such tests and examination shall be
recorded in a logbook maintained for the purpose.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6 months
5 months
3 months
Year
4 months
58. The following is not included in MSDS except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Physical data
Company information
Hazardous ingredients/constituents
None of the above
All of the above
Spill and leak procedures
59. As per Proclamation No. 115-A, November is a month
observing safety on ___.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
School
Industry & Commerce
Farms
Health & Sanitation
Mines
Air Transportation
60. ________ refers to the qualified first-aider, nurse,
dentist, or physician, whose service/services have been
engaged by the employer in order to provide occupational
health services in establishment/undertakings.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Occupational Health Director
Occupational Health Personnel
Occupational Health Practioner
None of the above
Option Occupational Physician
61. Dining facilities/mess halls shall be provided where
there are ____ or more workers in an establishment. The
recommended space requirement for four workers is ____
sq.meter.
a)
b)
c)
d)
15; 10.80
9; 15.12
12; 15.12
10; 10.80
62. The occupational health personnel and the first-aiders
of every establishments shall undergo a minimum of ____
refresher training course in their respective fields at least
once a year.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
40 hours
12 hours
16 hours
10 hours
8 hours
24 hours
63. These are substances innate in any organism including
humans. Their levels usually fall within a particular
concentration so that metabolism will normally proceed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Refractory
Toxicants
None of the above
Endogenous substances
Xenobiotics
POPs
64. As per Ch.7 of PD 856, the natural air supply in any
workroom shall in no instance be less than __ cubic meter
per second per person.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
0.45
0.65
0.25
0.05
0.15
65. Body and leg protection for workers should be made of
__ when working with or exposed with flame radiant heat.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Fur
Leather
Rubber
Wool
Asbestos
66. As per Ch.7 of PD 856, the disposal of industrial wastes
shall be in accordance with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TLV of hazard from ACGIH
IRR of RA 9003
In accordance with RA 6969
NIOSH
IRR of RA 9275
67. Special examination
abnormalities of the eyes
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
done
to
determine
the
EEG
Optometric exam
Audiometric exam
Osaka exam
ECG
68. Charged particles emitted from the nuclei and having a
mass and charge equal in magnitude to those of the
electrons.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alpha particles
Fission
None of the above
Gamma
Beta particles
69. Ergonomic type concerned with optimizing the
workplace, everything from teamwork to assessing
teleworking and quality management.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Organizational
None of the above
All of the above
Physical
Cognitive
Environmental
70. Sorting: seiri ; ____ : shitsuke
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Sustaining
Shining
simplifying
Standardizing
Sistima
Setting in order
71. 1 Gy is equivalent to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
10 rad
100 rad
0.01 rad
0.10 rad
1000 rad
72. The origin of dust of Farmers’ lung disease is from
_____.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Mushroom compost
Malt and barley
Sugarcane stalks
Mouldy hay
Mouldy red pepper
73. ___ is the litmus test for 5S
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Constancy
3 minute rule
Consistency
Fivementimeter
30 second rule
Electronic management
74. It is a unit of measuring gamma ray intensity in the air
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Rep
Rad
Sievert
Roentgen
Gray/hr
MeV
75. __ is used to designate the thickness of a particular
material that will reduce the intensity of radiation passing
through the material by one-half.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
HVL
Shielding
Interventions
Primary protective barrier
MSDS
ALARA
76. As per Philippine setting, Farmers and Fishermen is
under Class/Group
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
6
4
8
5
7
77. Biological controls are frequently used to replace the
persistent chemical pesticides. Which of the ff represents
the greatest potential risk of using biological controls?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Repeated applications or introductions are
required to eliminate the pest population
Biological controls prove to be more costly to use
than chemical pesticides.
The control agent attacks not only its intended
target but also beneficial species.
The control agent mutates and is no longer
effective control agent
78. Which of the following is not a correct description of
radiation unit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
None of the above
Rem – biological effect of absorbed nuclear
radiation
Bequerel – is the unit measurement of energy of
ionizing radiation.
Gray – quantity of ionizing radiation that results
in absorption of 1 J or energy/kg of absorbing
material
Roentgen – exposure from gamma or X-ray
radiation equal to a unit quantity of electrical
charge produced in air.
79. CAS Registry or CAS number is a unique numerical
identifier by the CAS to every chemical substance. CAS is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A registered or accredited office under American
National Standard Institute
A division of Agency for Toxic Substances and
Disease Registry
Regulated organization under IUPAC
None of the above
A division of the America Chemical Society
80. It describes the radiation which is emitted when
electrons are decelerated or "braked" when they are fired
at a metal target.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Crashinotrope
Half value layer
Positron
Bremsstrahlung
Disintegration
Radiation weighting factor
81. What is the correct hierarchy of control from best
control to last resort of control?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Elimination,
Substitution,
Quarantine,
Engineering, Administrative and PPE
None of the above
PPE, Administrative, Engineering, Quarantine,
Substitution, and Elimination
Substitution,
Elimination,
Engineering,
Administrative and PPE
Elimination,
Quarantine,
Substitution,
Engineering, Administrative and PPE
82. n-hexane, lead, arsenic, carbon disulphide will cause
systemic poisoning in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
liver and hematopoietic system
Circulatory system
Peripheral nervous system
All of the above
kidney
83. It performs policy & program development, and
advisory functions for the Department in the administration
and enforcement of occupational safety and health.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
None of the above
NIOSH
OSHA
DOLE
BWC
OSHC
84. Carcinogenic is to cancer while teratogenic is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Low secretion of testosterone
Low secretion of progesterone
Mutation of genes
sterility
Defect in natal (baby) formation
85. The distance contaminants, primarily particles are
thrown by the initial emitting velocity before being slowed
by air friction to the settling velocity.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
None of the above
Blown distance
Aerodynamic distance
Throw distance
Terminal distance
DEC 16 – PUB HEALTH
1. Which of the following is not normal skin microbiota?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Streptococcus
Propionibacterium
Staphylococcus
Corynebacterium
Micrococcus
2. All of the following diseases are caused by
Staphylococcus except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
boil
scalded skin syndrome
impetigo of the newborn
toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
acne
3. Which microorganism is responsible for otitis externa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Micrococcus spp.
Propionibacterium spp.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
4. Infection of the dermal layer of the skin with S.
pyogenes causes:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
otitis externa.
erysipelas.
scalded skin syndrome.
acne.
necrotizing fasciitis
5. All of the following cause conjunctivitis except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Propionibacterium
Haemophilus
Chlamydia
6. Sporotrichosis is the most common type of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dermatomycoses.
candidiasis
subcutaneous mycoses.
cutaneous mycoses.
scabies.
7. Which of the following is not associated with Candida
albicans?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Susceptible to penicillin
Susceptible to nystatin
Whitish overgrowth of the oral cavity
Bright red skin with lesions on the borders
Immunosuppressed individuals
8. Ringworm is caused by a/an:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
fungus
helminth
arthropod
nematode
protozoan
9. Which microorganism does not commonly cause
meningitis?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Listeria monocytogenes
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
Clostridium tetani
Streptococcus pneumoniae
10. The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis requires a sample
of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sputum.
Urine.
Cerebrospinal fluid.
Blood.
Brain.
11. Reservoirs for rabies include the following, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Foxes.
Raccoons.
Bats.
Mosquitoes.
Skunks.
12. Which of the following vaccines has actually been
implicated in causing the disease it is designed to prevent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Tetanus vaccine
Pneumococcus vaccine
Salk polio vaccine
HiB vaccine
Sabin oral polio vaccine
13. An unimmunized person is treated for tetanus with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Tetanus toxoid.
Tetanus IgG antibody.
DTaP vaccine.
dT vaccine.
Cephalosporins.
14. What is the best way to control West Nile encephalitis?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Avoid endemic areas.
Treatment of the patient.
Elimination of the vector.
Take antibiotics.
Get vaccinated.
15. Which disease is not caused by an obligately
intracellular bacterium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Endemic murine typhus
Lyme disease
Ehrlichiosis
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Epidemic typhus
16. Puerperal sepsis is most frequently caused by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Escherichia coli.
Clostridium perfringens.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Brucella abortus.
Staphylococcus aureus.
17. The majority of naturally-occurring anthrax infections
are:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
gastrointestinal infections from eating
undercooked food containing anthrax spores.
cutaneous infections from endospore entry at a
skin lesion.
pneumonic anthrax contracted by contact with
human carriers.
sepsis due to transfusion with contaminated
blood.
pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of
endospores.
18. A man found living in a rat-infested building develops a
high fever and swollen lymph nodes in the armpit and
groin, called buboes. A gram-negative bacillus is isolated
from the patient, and the rats are found to be infested
with Xenopyslla cheopis. What is the disease?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Rat-scratch disease
Cat-scratch disease
Relapsing fever
Lyme disease
Bubonic plague
19. A patient has flu-like symptoms and a bull's eye rash on
his leg. Investigation reveals that he had been hiking in
Connecticut and had been bitten by two ticks. What is the
diagnosis?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Relapsing fever
Bubonic plague
Cat-scratch disease
Deer-lick fever
Lyme disease
20. All of the following are true for yellow fever except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Aedes aegypti is the vector.
Burkitt's lymphoma may develop.
liver damage may result from infection.
fever, chills, and jaundice are frequent
symptoms.
control of mosquito populations can reduce the
disease incidence.
21. One of the most serious infections of the upper
respiratory system is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
laryngitis.
epiglottitis.
pharyngitis.
sinusitis.
tonsillitis.
22. All of the following are true of streptococcal
pharyngitis except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
symptoms include local inflammation, swollen
lymph nodes and fever.
it is treated with penicillin or other antibiotics.
infection may spread to the ear and cause otitis
media.
it is the most common cause of sore throat.
diagnostic procedures involve bacterial culture
or rapid antigen detection tests.
23. All of the following are true of diphtheria except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it is readily treated with antibiotics.
it is caused by a gram positive, non-endosporeforming rod.
complications may include damage to heart or
kidneys.
it is prevented by immunization with diphtheria
toxoid.
symptoms include the formation of a tough
grayish membrane in the throat.
24. Haemophilis influenzae can cause all of the following
respiratory infections except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sinusitis.
Epiglottis.
Laryngitis.
Otitis media.
Influenza.
25. All of the following cause lower respiratory tract
infections except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Blastomyces.
Mycoplasma.
Legionella.
Chlamydia.
Rhinovirus.
26. All of the following are true of tuberculosis except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
It is transmitted by contact with infected
humans.
Infection has been greatly reduced due to mass
immunization.
Once phagocytized, the bacteria can survive
inside the phagocytic cells.
Extremely dangerous multiple drug-resistant
strains have emerged.
TB bacteria can survive for months on sputum
contaminated materials.
27. If a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test, it means
that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
the patient was vaccinated with the BCG vaccine.
the patient has a latent case of tuberculosis.
the patient has an active case of tuberculosis.
the patient has recovered from tuberculosis.
All of the above are possible.
28. An outbreak of pneumonia occurs in a wing of a
hospital housing kidney transplant patients. The source of
infection is traced to the water supply of the air
conditioner. This case describes transmission of which of
the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenza
Legionella pneumophila
Histoplasma capsulatum
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
29. Which of the following respiratory infections cannot be
treated with antimicrobial drugs?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Primary atypical pneumonia
Otitis media
Common cold
Q fever
Tuberculosis
30. You see flagellated cells in a microscopic examination
of feces from a patient with diarrhea. You conclude the
etiology is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cyclospora.
Giardia.
Cryptosporidium.
Taenia.
Entamoeba.
31. All of the following pertain to Staphylococcus aureus
which causes food poisoning except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
it is resistant to high osmotic pressure.
it is resistant to drying and radiation.
it produces enterotoxins.
it transmitted by contaminated drinking water.
its growth can be prevented by refrigeration of
foods.
32. Bacillary dysentery:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
does not respond to antibiotic therapy.
causes "rice water" stools.
is caused by members of the Shigella genus.
is caused by bacteria that are part of the normal
enteric microbiota.
occurs after ingestion of bacterial toxins present
in contaminated foods.
33. Which of the following can be prevented by cooking
food?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Salmonellosis
Tapeworms
Trichinosis
E. coli hemorrhagic colitis
All of the above.
34. The majority of traveler's diarrhea cases are caused by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Campylobacter jejuni.
Vibrio vulnificus.
Yersinia enterocolitica.
Escherichia coli.
Bacillus cereus
35. Which is true of Hepatitis A but not Hepatitis B?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Causes liver inflammation
Chronic carriers and blood transmission
Leads to increased risk of liver cancer
Fecal-oral spread via water and food
Available vaccine
36. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Pyelonephritis: inflammation of kidneys
Prostatis: inflammation of prostate
Cystitis: inflammation of urethra
Dysuria: pain on urination
Glomerulonephritis: inflammation of kidney
glomerular capillaries
37. Which microorganism is responsible for approximately
75% of all UTI's and half of the nosocomial infections of
the urinary tract?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis
Streptococcus faecalis
Staphylcoccus epidermidis
38. A hospitalized elderly patient with an indwelling
catheter develops a UTI. The lab detects gram-positive
bacteria. Which of the following is the most probable
cause?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus faecalis
Candida albicans
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Trichomonas vaginalis
39. All of the following are true concerning syphilis except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Tertiary stage: cardiovascular and neurological
damage
Incubation: 3 to 5-day incubation period
Secondary stage: skin lesions on palm, and any
surface area of the body
Latent stage : no symptoms, but can persist for
life
Primary stage: chancre at initial site
40. Chancroid is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
treated with penicillin.
caused by a spirochete.
associated with hard, painless genital lesions.
a sexually transmitted disease.
all of these
JAN 16 – PUB HEALTH
1. Which disease is correctly matched with the common
portal of entry?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Influenza : mucous membranes of genitourinary
tract
Chlamydia : skin
Hookworm : mucous membranes of genitourinary
tract
Poliomyelitis : mucous membranes of
gastrointestinal tract
Measles : parenteral route
2. Which of the following vaccines uses attenuated viruses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
MMR vaccine
Diphtheria vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Influenza vaccine
Tetanus vaccine
3. Infectious diseases which are easily passed from host to
host within a population are best described as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
contagious.
chronic.
acute.
communicable.
noncommunicable.
4. The occurrence of streptococcal bronchopneumonia in
an individual recovering from influenza is an example of
a/an:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
secondary infection.
chronic infection.
sporadic infection.
subacute infection.
latent infection.
5. Which of the following is the third stage of a disease?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
period of convalescence
period of decline
period of illness
prodromal period
incubation period
6. An exposure to __________ protects against infection
with smallpox.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Antibody
Penicillin
Cowpox
Chemotherapy
Normal microbiota
7. How would you recognize an antibiotic-producing soil
bacterium on a plate crowded with other bacteria? The
bacterial colony producing the antibiotic would be:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Surrounded by a clear area.
Star-shaped.
Pigmented.
Characterized by pseudopods.
Visible as masses called mycelia.
8. Which is not a characteristic of the normal microbiota?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Often are called the Normal Flora.
Live within our bodies.
Live on our bodies.
May benefit the human host.
Regularly associated with disease symptoms.
9. Mad cow disease is caused by a prion which is an
infectious:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Lipid.
Piece of DNA.
Sugar.
Protein.
Piece of RNA.
10. The term best associated with the cause of the disease
is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
pathogenesis
etiology
pathogen
parasitism
infection
11. Which of the following bacterial toxins binds to nerve
cells, preventing chemical communication between nerve
and muscle cells?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
E. coli endotoxin
Staphylococcal enterotoxin
Diphtheria toxin
Botulinum toxin
Erythrogenic toxin
12. If a patient has a deep tissue infection as the result of an
animal bite on the arm, the portal of entry is described as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
parenteral route.
connective tissue.
gastrointestinal route.
respiratory route.
skin.
13. Vector transmission is not responsible for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
influenza.
dengue.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
malaria.
Lyme disease.
14. Which of the following diseases does not have a human
reservoir?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
diphtheria
Strep infections
gonorrhea
AIDS
tetanus
15. Infections in which the pathogen is distributed
throughout the body are referred to as "generalized
infections" or:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
systemic infections.
focal infections.
zoonoses.
local infections.
emerging infections.
16. In the human intestinal tract, E. coli produces vitamins
beneficial to the host and can inhibit pathogen growth. In
turn, the bacterium is supplied with nutrients and an
environment for growth. This symbiotic relationship
between E. coli and its host is an example of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
commensalism
parasitism
antagonism
opportunism
mutualism
17. In a healthy human, resident microorganisms would be
found in all of the following areas except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
tooth and gum surfaces
bloodstream
conjunctiva
nasal passages
lower urethra
18. All of the following methods are used for food
preservation except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Commercial canning.
Osmotic pressure.
Deep freezing.
Dessication.
Direct flaming.
19. Some antimicrobial treatments kill microbes; some
inhibit growth. Which term refers to an agent that inhibits
bacterial growth?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Bacteriostatic.
Germicidal.
Bacteriocidal.
Fungicidal.
Homeostatic.
20. An antiseptic is used when one needs to remove
microbes from:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
foods, prior to canning.
toilet surfaces.
skin, prior to injection.
food preparation areas.
restaurant glassware.
21. In which phase of the growth curve is the population
doubling time fastest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Log phase.
Logarithmic decline phase.
Stationary phase.
Death phase.
Lag phase.
22. Which of the following types of media is designed to
suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria and encourage
the growth of desired microbes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Differential media
Selective media
Enriched media
Nutrient agar
Defined media
23. Which of the following are mismatched?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hyperthermophiles : no water
Psychrophiles : 0°C
Extreme halophiles : 30% salt
Extreme thermophiles : 100°C
Acidophiles : low pH
24. An organism that you are studying grows at 4°C and at
25°C. However, it grows best at 20°C. This organism would
be classified as a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
psychrotroph
psychrophile
thermophile
halophile
mesophile
25. Pasteurization was first developed to kill __________ in
wine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Endospore producing bacteria.
Spoilage bacteria.
All bacteria.
Antibiotic producing bacteria.
Disease causing bacteria.
26. The following are human prion diseases except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Kuru
Mad cow disease
Scrapie
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
27. A virus that is outside a cell:
a)
b)
c)
d)
phage
prion
virion
viroid
28. Disease vector that belongs to the class Arachnida.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fleas
Lice
Mites
Flies
29. A primary or definitive host is a host in which a disease
organism
a)
b)
c)
d)
Attains its maturity and goes through its
reproductive stage.
Becomes most easily identified by laboratory
tests.
Has not yet invaded an intermediate host.
Enters the larval stage.
30. Complaint samples are those coming from private
purchases which are believed to be spoiled, or not meeting
with required standards. In case of poisoning, the complaint
samples are further endorsed for toxicological
examinations to what agency?
a)
b)
c)
d)
NBI
DOH
FDA
PNP
31. Color of choice of fresh pork meat.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Light pink
Bright red
Dark pink
Red
32. Serve as the first contact person at the community level
for the health care delivery system of the rural health unit.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sanitation Inspector
Public Health Nurse
Municipal Health Officer
Family Doctor
33. DPD stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
Diethylphenylenediamine
Diethylparaphenylenediamine
Dichlorophenyldiethyl
Dichloroparadiamine
34. A dead animal shall be disposed by its owner within how
many days after its death?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1
2
3
4
35. Under the local government code, Rural Health Unit is
composed of the following except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rural Health Midwife
Municipal Health Officer
Public Health Nurse
Sanitary Engineer
36. A sanitary survey shall be a prerequisite for the issuance
of the Drinking Water Site Clearance or __________
a)
b)
c)
d)
EHS No. 107
EHS No. 112
EHS No. 121
EHS No. 122
37. The approximate storage period for pork and shellfish at
0°F without showing any appreciable quality loss.
a)
b)
c)
d)
6 months
8 months
1 year
Over 1 year
38. You are surveying your food establishment for unsafe
conditions. Which one of the following situations requires
corrective action?
a)
b)
c)
d)
A trash receptacle with the lid off while in use.
A handwashing station with a multi-use cloth
towel for hand drying.
Light colored ceramic tile being use for the walls
of the food-preparation area.
Anti-slip flooring provided in the warewashing
area.
39. Which of the following is not considered as part of the
big five food-borne illnesses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Salmonella
Norovirus
E coli
Hepatitis B
40. Minimum number of cadavers that must be skillfully
embalmed within one year period under the supervision of
any registered embalmer as qualification of applicant for
embalmer examination.
a)
b)
c)
d)
5
10
12
15
JAN 7 – VIROLOGY Refresher Exam
1. Study of viruses
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Virology
Mycology
Virusology
Phycology
Botany
2. Being regarded as the discoverer of viruses because of
his experiment on a diseased tobacco plant.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Henry Jenner
Paul Frosch
Louis Pasteur
Dmitri Ivanovsky
Friedrich Leffler
3. The first person to get and received inoculation of the
rabies vaccine
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Joseph Meister
Louis Pasteur
Adolf Mayer
Janet Parker
Henry Bedson
4. Who developed the first vaccine that was extracted
from cowpox?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Martinus Beijerinck
Adolf Mayer
Louis Pasteur
Edward Jenner
Henry Bedson
5. The first rabies vaccine was developed by growing the
virus in __, then drying the affected nerve tissue to
weaken the virus.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Commercial milk
Human
tobacco mosaic plant
Rabbit
Cattle
6. A British medical photographer who became the last
recorded person to die from smallpox.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Janet Parker
Adolf Mayer
Joseph Meister
James Phipps
Henry Bedson
7. On ___, the WHO announced that the world was free of
smallpox.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
December 9, 1982
September 8, 1978
May 15, 1978
May 8, 1980
September 8, 1985
8. It is the world’s oldest smallpox vaccine, created in the
late 19th Century by American Home Products, a
predecessor of Wyeth.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Calf lymph
Poxvaxia
ACAM2000
Dryvax
Cyclovir
9. Virus is from a Latin word meaning
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Replicate
Poison
Particle
Protein
Suspicious
10. It is the first oncovirus that was used to study the
development of cancer molecularly.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
RSV
HIV
HPV
HSV
TMV
11. One of the discovers of Poliovirus and being regarded
as ‘Father of Blood Transfusion’
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Francis Peyton Rous
Karl Landsteiner
James Phipps
Erwin Popper
John Snow
12. The virus responsible for the foot-and-mouth disease is
a)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Picornavirus
Lentivirus
Papillomavirus
mimivirus
None of the above
13. The first human (virus) disease shown to be caused by
a filterable agent is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Yellow fever
Dengue
TMV
Malaria
RSV
14. The term virus was coined by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Martinus Beijerinck
Adolf Mayer
Louis Pasteur
Edward Jenner
Henry Bedson
15. In 1923, Alexander Glenny perfected a method to
inactivate ___ with formaldehyde
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
FMD
Polio
Botulinum toxin
tetanus toxin
CMV
16. ___ vaccine was developed by Jonas Salk
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Polio
Diphtheria
Smallpox
Pertussis
Measles
17. ___ is believed to be the first known victim of smallpox
after examining the pustules found on his cheeks.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Nebucadnesar
Ramces V
Tutankamen
Nefertiti
Anthony III
18. Viruses that infect bacteria
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Oncogenic
Mimiviruses
RSVs
Bacteriophages
Transcriptase
19. Concept of antiseptic surgery was given by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Robert Koch
Dmitri Ivanovsky
Joseph Lister
Alexander Fleming
Robert Hooke
20. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome is caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
Lentivirus
Picornavirus
Poliovirus
Coronavirus
21. Discovered an animal virus that causes foot-and-mouth
disease in cattle (1898).
a)
b)
c)
d)
Twort and Herelle
Rous and Reed
Landsteiner and Popper
Loeffler and Frosch
22. __ virus was first discovered and is named after a
forest in Uganda
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ebola
Marburg
Chikungunya
Zika
Lassa virus
23. Which of the following is closely related to
Chikungunya virus?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ebola virus
Variola virus
Marburg virus
O’nyong’nyong virus
All of the above
24. Viruses are __
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Obligate parasites
Resident flaura
Pleimorphic microorganisms
infectious microorganisms
None of the above
25. It has a Greek root words meaning “grey marrow”
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Poliomyelitis
Diphtheria
Chikungunya
Pertussis
Measles
26. Which of the following is an example of enveloped
virus?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Herpes virus
HIV
Influenza virus
Rabies virus
All of the above
None of the above
27. Rabies virus attacks
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Blood cells
Saliva cells
follicles
kidney cells
brain or nervous cells
None of the above
28. Mump virus is
a)
b)
c)
d)
An enveloped virus
An enveloped RNA virus
an enveloped RNA virus with helical
nucleocapsid
an enveloped RNA virus with icosahedral
nucleocapsid
29. The size of viral genome is quite small compared with
that of a cell. It varies from __ genes in hepatitis B virus to
__ of genes in some herpesviruses.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Two, hundreds
Two, thousands
four, hundreds
four, thousands
30. Which of the following virus families is icosahedral?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Herpesviridae
Hepadnaviridae
Togaviridae
All of the above
None of the above
31. Which of the following virus families is spherical?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Flaviviridae
Arteviridae
Retroviridae
All of the above
None of the above
32. Suffix ending with -virales corresponds to __ of virus.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Family
Sub family
Genera
Order
None of the above
33. The __ provides a list of exemplar viruses for each
species recognized by the ICTV and links to their genomic
sequence.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Virus Gigaplex Data
Virus Metadata Resource
Virus Megaplex Data
Virus Metadata Bank
Virus Redbook
34. As of 2018, __ phylum, __ subphyla, __ classes, 14
orders, 5 suborders and 143 families of viruses have been
defined by the ICTV.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4
1,2, 6
2, 1, 4
2, 4, 6
35. The __ is the only body charged by the International
Union of Microbiological Societies with the task of
developing, refining, and maintaining a universal virus
taxonomy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ICTV
Holmes Classification
Baltimore Classification
Linnaeus Classification
All of the above
36. __ used Carl Linnaeus's system of binomial
nomenclature to classify viruses into 3 groups under one
order, Virales
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ICTV
Holmes Classification
Baltimore Classification
Linnaeus Classification
All of the above
37. Source of viral envelope is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Host plasma membrane
Endoplasmic reticulum
nuclear membrane
All of the above
38. Glycoproteins are proteins bound to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Fats
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
All of the above
39. Bacteriophage has root word phagein meaning
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
To attach
To eat
To multiply
to die
to surround
40. Which of the following is true regarding complex
viruses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
complex viruses are more intricate than the
helical, icosahedral, naked, or enveloped viruses.
The poxviruses (including the agent of smallpox)
are very large viruses that contain a DNA core
but lack a regular capsid and have in its place
several layers of lipoproteins and coarse surface
fibrils.
Bacteriophage is another group of very complex
virus.
All of the above
41. Based from Holmes classification of virus, Phaginae
infects
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Bacteria
Plants
Vertebrate animals
Amoeba
Invertebrate animals
virus
42. Fifth disease is a viral disease transmitted primarily by
respiratory secretions but can also be spread by contact
with infected blood and is caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Pithovirus
Rhinovirus
Mimivirus
Pandoravirus
Parvovirus
picornavirus
43. It has the largest viral genome, containing 1.9 to 2.5
megabases of DNA.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Pithovirus
Rhinovirus
Mimivirus
Pandoravirus
Parvovirus
Picornavirus
44. Largest known virus
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Pithovirus
Rhinovirus
Mimivirus
Pandoravirus
Parvovirus
picornavirus
45. The largest virus infects what organism?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Bacteria
Amoeba
vertebrate
plasmodium
insect
Balantidium
46. Which of the following is the correct sequence of large
known viruses, from LARGEST to small size?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Pithovirus, Pandoravirus, Megavirus chilensis,
mimivirus
Mimivirus, Megavirus chilensis, Pandoravirus,
Pithovirus
Pithovirus, Pandoravirus, mimivirus, Megavirus
chilensis
Megavirus chilensis, Pandoravirus, Pithovirus,
mimivirus
47. __ is a very large virus, some of which are larger than
typical bacteria.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Parvovirus
Girus
nanovirus
zombie virus
None of the above
48. Togaviridae has root word toga meaning
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Robe
Nozzle
hat
black
envelope
49. The following viruses are not giant virus except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Megavirus
Mimivirus
Mamavirus
all of the above
None of the above
50. World’s largest complex marine virus
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Megavirus chilensis
Cafeteria roenbergensis virus
Mamavirus
Klosneuvirus
None of the above
51. Which of the following is true about genome?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A genome is the genetic material of an organism.
Viral genomes can either be DNA or RNA.
When viral genome is inside a host cell it directs
synthesis of new viral proteins and replication of
new viral genomes.
All of the above
None of the above
52. __ is a ___ covering that surrounds and protects the
viral genome.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
DNA; protein
Capsomeres; lipids
capsid; protein
envelope; protein
RNA; protein
capsid; lipids
53. The following statement is not true except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Among the families of viruses that infect animals
and human, those containing RNA genome
outnumber those containing DNA genome.
no double stranded DNA virus that infect plant is
known
DNA virus can either be double stranded, single
stranded or triple stranded
A and B
A and C
54. _ are an order of viruses that contain the Megavirales
or giant viruses which contain nine (9) families namely:
Ascoviridae, Asfarviridae, Iridoviridae, Marseilleviridae,
Megaviridae, Pandoraviridae, Phycodnaviridae,
Pithvoridae, and Poxviridae
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nucleocytoplasmic large DNA viruses
Cytoplasmic Mega single stranded DNA viruses
Nucleocytoplasmic large RNA viruses (NCLRV)
Cytoplasmic DNA Megaviruses
55. Which of the following infects the Cafeteria
roebergensis virus?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Mavirus
Navirus
Pavirus
Tavirus
Davirus
56. __ is the genetic material of a __, incorporated into the
genome of a bacterium and able to produce phages if
specifically activated.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Phage; bacteriophage
Phage; Prophage
Prophage; bacteriophage
Prophage; Coliphage
Phage, Varophage
57. The first virophage is __ and it was discovered with its
co-infecting giant virus __.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Zamilon; Acanthamoeba castellani mamavirus
Sputnik; Zamilon
Zamilon; Sputnik
Acanthamoeba castellani mamavirus; Zamilon
Sputnik; Acanthamoeba castellani mamavirus
Sputnik 2; Zamilon
58. The following are virophages except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Sputnik
Zamilon
Sputnik 2
Sambalon virus
Sputnik 3
None of the above
59. Virophages are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Double stranded DNA
Double stranded RNA
single stranded DNA
single stranded RNA
Either A or B
All of the above
60. Family of virophages
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Lavidaviridae
Togaviridae
Mimiviridae
Adenoviridae
Flaviviridae
Anelloviridae
61. What is a protein produced by host cells infected by
viruses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Interferon
Antiserum
Histamine
Vaccine
All of the above
62. Which capsid symmetry is exhibited by most of the
phages?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Helical
Complex
Icosahedral
None of the above
Pleimorphic
63. Virologists have created mutant adenoviruses __ that
target cancer cells. These cells cannot spread among
normal cells, but when they enter cancer cells, they
immediately cause the cells to self-destruct.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
ONYX
XYZO
ADONCO
AZT
YORME
64. What is the genus of the virus that causes
hydrophobia?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Lyssavirus
Hantavirus
Morbillivirus
Lentivirus
Oncornavirus
65. __ involves integration of viral genetic material into the
host’s genetic material forming a ____.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Lytic; prophage
Lytic; prion
Lysogenic; prophage
Lysopgenic; prion
66. __is the early stages of viral replication, a period during
which no mature virions can be detected within the host
cell. This corresponds with the period of penetration,
replication, and early assembly, and if the cell were
disrupted at this time, no infective virus would be
released.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Biosynthesis
Rendering
attachment
Maturation
Eclipse
67. __ is the process by which foreign DNA is introduced
into a cell by a virus or viral vector. An example is the viral
transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Biosynthesis
Translocation
Transmutation
Transduction
68. In virology, the “sense” of the strand relates to its
readability into a ___.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Protein
DNA
Nutrient
glycogen
69. What is the correct sequence of multiplication cycle in
animal viruses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Adsorption -> Penetration -> Uncoating ->
Biosynthesis -> Assembly -> Release
Penetration -> Adsorption -> Biosynthesis ->
Uncoating -> Assembly -> Release
Penetration -> Adsorption -> Uncoating ->
Biosynthesis -> Assembly -> Release
Adsorption -> Penetration -> Biosynthesis ->
Uncoating -> Assembly -> Release
Penetration -> Adsorption -> Biosynthesis ->
Assembly -> Release -> Uncoating
70. Some animal viruses enter their host cell and
permanently alter its genetic material, leading to ___.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cancer
Metastasis
Infection
Cell mutation
All of the above
71. Cytopathic has a Greek translation meaning
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cell rupture
Cell disease
cell conversion
cytoplasm conversion
72. The ___ is the genome of virus.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Capsid
Nucleic acid
Capsomeres
DNA
73. Negative sense RNA is the ___ and the positive sense
RNA is the __.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Infectious; non-infectious
Enveloped; non-enveloped
Non-infectious; Infectious
Non-enveloped; Enveloped
74. Which of the following statement is not true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Protomeres (subunits) aggregate to form
capsomeres which in turn aggregate to form the
capsid.
An example of naked helical is tobacco mosaic
virus but no human viruses known so far.
Viruses enter the body of the host in a variety of
ways such as inhaled droplets, drinking
contaminated water or eating raw/contaminated
food, sexual intercourse, vertical transmission
from mother to baby and bites of vector.
None of the above
75. __ are infectious RNA molecules that cause a variety of
plant diseases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Viroids
TMV
Prions
Capsomeres
Virions
76. Mimivirus is an extremely large double-stranded DNA
virus that has been recovered from __.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Plasmodiums
Bacteriophages
amoebas
bacteria
Prions
77. Virus may become latent in its host and reactivate at a
later stage to give rise to symptoms such as VZV giving rise
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Blisters
Shingles
Chicken pox
Dengue
Mumps
78. Which one of the following diseases or groups of
diseases is not caused by prions?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Certain plant diseases
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease of humans
chronic wasting disease of deer and elk
“mad cow disease”
79. Which of the following specific organ is being attacked
by poliomyelitis, herpes, rabies, and measles?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Skin or mucus membrane
Eye
nervous system
Liver
GI tract
80. Is a virus genome that is integrated into the DNA of a
host cell. In the case of bacterial viruses, proviruses are
often referred to as prophages (theoretically analogous to
prophages) and sometimes referred as a latent virus.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Provirus
Virion
Latenovirus
coliphage
Prion
81. Which of the following viruses is inactivated by ether?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Herpesvirus
Rhabdovirus
Orthomyxovirus
All of the above
None of the above
82. Which of the following viruses is resistant to ether?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Parvovirus
Picornavirus
Adenovirus
All of the above
None of the above
83. Which of the following is not properly matched of cell
membrane receptors for viruses?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
Influenza virus – Sialic acid on glycoproteins
including the glycophorin molecule A
Rabies virus – Acetylcholine receptor
HIV – CD4 molecule on T cells
Epstein-Barr virus – C3d receptor on B cells
Vaccinia virus – epidermal growth factor
receptor
C and D only
None of the above
84. Which of the following is true regarding attenuated
vaccines?
a)
b)
c)
d)
It makes use of live virus.
Rabies virus is the first attenuated virus
it is actively multiplying which might revert to a
wild type of virus.
all of the above
85. Duration of virus replication cycle for picornaviruses is
a)
b)
c)
d)
40 hours
1 to 2 hours
6 to 8 hours
24 to 36 hours
86. A mass of neoplastic cells called a __, may be relatively
harmless (or ___ ) or could be invasive (or ___).
a)
b)
c)
d)
Tumor; malignant; benign
Neoplasma; malignant; metastasis
tumor; benign; malignant
neoplasma; malignant; benign
87. Viral infection of the blood.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hemoglovir
Leukovir
septicemia
viremia
88. In immunology, the interface between cells of the
immune system that involves cell-to-cell signaling.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Synapse
Helper T
Synctium
Interferon
89. Giant, multinucleated cell formed by fusion of virally
infected cell to neighboring cells.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Synapse
Helper T
Synctium
Interferon
90. In animal viruses, uncoating is the removal of a viral
capsid ___.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Outside the host cell
After adsorption and penetration
within the host cell
All of the above