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1. The chapter opening article, “Signs That You Made a Bad Hire” suggests that the costs of bad hires can be reduced if
the employer does what?
a. discharges the new hire with a penalty
b. trains the new hire to adapt to the company’s formal and informal requirements
c. transfers the new hire to another position for which he or she is better suited
d. recruits a better qualified candidate and buddy the new hires up during their probationary period
ANSWER: c
2. Which of the following practices would NOT lead to an improvement in the hiring system of an organization?
a. communicating to the hiring managers about their annoying interview habits
b. using scientific methods and efficient selection methods
c. determining the motivations of job seekers
d. knowing the going rates of pay and offering slightly more
ANSWER: d
3. What is the definition of recruitment?
a. generating an applicant pool
b. choosing job candidates
c. finding and hiring the best person for the job
d. finding and screening job applicants
ANSWER: a
4. What is the definition of selection?
a. generating an applicant pool
b. finding and screening job applicants
c. choosing job candidates
d. matching an applicant’s competencies with a job position
ANSWER: c
5. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, which of the following aspects does NOT relate to
work environment?
a. complaint resolution
b. leadership
c. health and safety
d. vision and mission
ANSWER: d
6. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, which of the following is NOT part of the
socioeconomic environment?
a. competition
b. globalization
c. marketplace
d. demographics
ANSWER: a
7. In the Human Resources System model outlined in the textbook, within which environment does human rights belong?
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a. social
b. economic
c. political
d. legislative
ANSWER: d
8. What can effective recruitment and selection practices do for an organization?
a. improve the knowledge, skills, and abilities of its employees
b. offer a limited impact on employee motivation
c. encourage expensive high performers to leave the organization
d. discourage poor performers from leaving an organization
ANSWER: a
9. What two important principles ensure a human resources system functions properly?
a. Enhance communication between human resource functions and ensure ethical compliance.
b. Assess the impact of legislative requirements and scan the socioeconomic environment for trends.
c. Emphasize the roles of recruitment and selection and apply them to organizational strategy.
d. Think in systems terms and coordinate human resource activities with all organizational units and people.
ANSWER: d
10. Which of the following elements are part of the socioeconomic external environment that affects recruitment and
selection?
a. national and international organization policies
b. human resources information systems and management
c. globalization and demographics
d. cost containment and marketplace
ANSWER: c
11. Why must Canadian organizations be cognizant of the influences of globalization when considering recruitment and
selection?
a. Globalization affects the pricing strategies for goods and services.
b. Globalization creates higher trade barriers for entry.
c. Globalization demonstrates that best practices for staffing are necessary.
d. Globalization threatens the survival of domestic retailers.
ANSWER: c
12. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of e-recruiting, according to the Government of Canada?
a. higher tracking costs
b. lower recruiting costs
c. lower printing costs
d. larger pool of candidates
ANSWER: a
13. Given the fact that technology reduces the need for labour, what is one strategy being applied by HR managers to cope
with large numbers of employees approaching retirement?
a. Employers have reduced their need to advertise with traditional media sources like newspapers.
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b. Employers have focused their search on younger and tech-savvy applicants.
c. Employers have limited their early-retirement incentives to managers only.
d. Employers have implemented layoffs that are not age related.
ANSWER: d
14. Given that best practices in recruitment and selection are applied to an organization, which of the following results has
NOT been supported with empirical studies?
a. establishing employee trust
b. increasing the firm’s market price
c. reducing employee turnover
d. encouraging poor performers to leave
ANSWER: b
15. Given the application of progressive human resources practices, what might an organization expect from its
employees?
a. higher compensation costs
b. lower dysfunctional behaviours
c. higher operating costs
d. lower unionization
ANSWER: b
16. According to the Work Foundation and Institute for Employment Studies in the United Kingdom, what percentage of
investment in human resources will produce an approximate increase of $2800 of profit per employee?
a. 1 percent
b. 5 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 50 percent
ANSWER: c
17. Which of the following organizations establishes national core standards for the HR profession in Canada?
a. CSIOP
b. CPHR
c. CPA
d. CHRP
ANSWER: b
18. Why do growing numbers of employers require their human resources professionals to have professional
designations?
a. Certified human resources professionals must adhere to a code of ethics that dictates standards of performance.
b. Certified human resources professionals clearly understand all legislation.
c. Certified human resources professionals can enforce organizational conflict-of-interest policies and ethical
codes of conduct.
d. Certified human resources professionals are certified in their HR field of expertise, which requires less postsecondary education.
ANSWER: a
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19. Why might you consider acquiring a professional designation in human resources?
a. Ethical standards are defined, which will allow you to easily resolve workplace ethical dilemmas.
b. It will certify you to provide advice concerning legal and ethical behaviour.
c. It will identify you as someone possessing HR knowledge, skills and abilities, and ethical behaviour.
d. It is recognition of achievement of all the HR competencies, meaning that you will require minimal postsecondary education.
ANSWER: c
20. The HRM of Northshore Industries has not developed a code of ethical conduct for its employees because senior
management believes that it places unnecessary constraints and limited flexibility on management decisions such as
recruitment and selection. With what might the HRM be most concerned?
a. organizational culture
b. legal requirements and equitable practices
c. conflict of interest
d. poor leadership
ANSWER: b
21. Ethics can be defined in a variety of ways. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT a definition of
ethics?
a. knowing what is good from what is bad
b. determining what is moral from what is immoral
c. identifying what may be done from what may not be done
d. distinguishing what is right from what is wrong
ANSWER: a
22. The CEO of your company asks you to hire an older woman to avoid the significant family-related challenges and
high turnover rate that comes with hiring younger administration employees. What is this is an example of?
a. streamlining internal company staffing policies
b. recruitment and retention constraints
c. balancing the rights and interests of employees and management
d. the need for written codes and standards of conduct
ANSWER: d
Scenario 1-1
You are excited about your new position as the human resource manager for Scribe Engineering. The CEO of this
medium-sized Canadian software development company has clearly stated that one of your first tasks is to deal with the
difficulties the company is experiencing in recruiting and retaining several of its office administration positions. The CEO
wants hard evidence to back up your staffing costs.
23. Refer to Scenario 1-1. Upon what would you initially want to concentrate your efforts?
a. understanding the external organizational factors affecting recruitment and selection
b. ensuring that human resource planning is integrated with the strategic planning of the organization
c. determining which recruitment and retention processes are economically and technically feasible
d. ensuring that organizational information contained in the human resource information systems is current,
secure, and confidential
ANSWER: b
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24. Refer to Scenario 1-1. What is a current internal factor that may have an impact on Scribe Engineering’s recruitment
and selection practices?
a. human rights legislation
b. organization values, mission, and strategic goals
c. knowledge, skills, and abilities available in the labour market
d. industry and organization type and size
ANSWER: b
25. Refer to Scenario 1-1. What is a current economic challenge that may have an impact on the recruitment and selection
practices at Scribe Engineering?
a. human rights and total compensation issues
b. global competition
c. rapid advances in information technology
d. changing work force demographics
ANSWER: b
Scenario 1-2
You have recently been hired as the human resources manager for a small Canadian aviation company. The president of
TS Inc. has asked you to review the staffing function to determine how ready the organization is to use technology in its
recruitment and selection process. She is excited about the potential of utilizing staffing social networking technologies
but wants to ensure you take the steps required to ensure success.
26. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What is TS Inc.’s goal for recruitment?
a. to find and screen job applicants
b. to hire job candidates
c. to generate an applicant pool
d. to find and hire the best aviation employees
ANSWER: c
27. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What is TS Inc.’s goal for selection?
a. to choose aviation candidates from an applicant pool
b. to find the best possible aviation professionals to hire
c. to find and hire the best person for each aviation position
d. to generate and build a large aviation applicant pool
ANSWER: a
28. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What would indicate that the recruitment and selection process has been successful at TS Inc.?
a. the process is valid and reliable
b. the continued use of effective but unproven practices
c. the use of technology to facilitate and improve recruitment and selection
d. a significantly large number of applications for job positions
ANSWER: a
29. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What two important principles should be followed if TS Inc.’s human resource system is to
function properly?
a. Build a sustainable staffing strategy and use Web-based technology.
b. Coordinate human resources activities with other parts of the organization and use a systems-thinking
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approach.
c. Systematically integrate diversity and manage human resource information systems.
d. Build a strong culture and enhance communication systems.
ANSWER: b
30. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What would be a critical initial question you would want to ask to assess TS Inc.’s recruitment
and selection practices?
a. What are the personnel needs of TS Inc.?
b. What are the external factors affecting the human resource and organizational strategies?
c. What are the human resource information system needs of TS Inc.?
d. How ready and committed is TS Inc. to moving beyond traditional practices to a more technical approach?
ANSWER: b
31. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What does TS Inc. accomplish by using technology in its recruitment and selection process?
a. It provides access to a wide pool of candidates
b. It coordinates human resource activities with other parts of the organization by using a systems-thinking
approach.
c. It determines which recruitment and retention processes are economically and technically feasible.
d. It guarantees that organizational information contained in human resource information systems is current,
secure, and confidential.
ANSWER: b
32. Refer to Scenario 1-2. What current legislative requirement challenge may have an impact on TS Inc.’s recruitment
and selection practices?
a. human rights, privacy, and security issues
b. rapid advances in information technology
c. changing work force demographics
d. total compensation and reward strategy
ANSWER: a
33. Refer to Scenario 1-2. Why might TS Inc. state that a professional HR designation is required?
a. HRM professional associations define the competencies and ethical guidelines for human resources
professionals.
b. HR professionals clearly understand and can oversee employment legislation.
c. The certification sets a high standard that requires less training and the costs associated with continuing
education.
d. Professional ethical standards are defined, allowing HR professionals to easily resolve workplace ethical
dilemmas.
ANSWER: a
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34. Refer to Figure 1.1. Which of the following are external factors that affect the HR system?
a. legal and socioeconomic environments
b. vision, values, and mission
c. strategic objectives and organizational requirements
d. personnel competence, commitment, and effectiveness
ANSWER: a
35. Recruitment and selection, training and development, succession planning and compensation are all functions within
what process?
a. performance management
b. succession planning
c. talent management
d. career management
ANSWER: c
36. What is an HRIS?
a. a computerized version of an HR system
b. a payroll and benefits processing method
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c. a method of identifying new recruits
d. a computer-based system that tracks and manages employee data
ANSWER: d
37. What important principles underlying Figure 1.1 are critical for the human resource system to function properly?
a. two-way communication between human resource functions and business units
b. assessment of the strengths and weaknesses of the external and internal environment
c. thinking in systems terms and coordinating human resource activities with all organizational units and people
d. a focus on productivity and profitability through recruitment and selection processes
ANSWER: c
38. According to the textbook, what is the ratio of men to women in the Canadian work force aged 18 to 65?
a. 62.8 to 62.1
b. 63.9 to 62.6
c. 64.2 to 59.1
d. 70.3 to 68.5
ANSWER: d
39. What percentage of the work force between the ages of 25 and 65 has achieved post-secondary educational credentials
in Canada?
a. 25.5 percent
b. 38.3 percent
c. 64.1 percent
d. 73.9 percent
ANSWER: c
40. Most collective agreements require the employer to do which of the following?
a. Hire only union members.
b. Use seniority as the only requirement for candidate consideration.
c. Ensure diversity in the workplace.
d. Use selection procedures defined in the collective agreement.
ANSWER: d
41. Which of the following is a step that must be completed in the Recruitment and Selection Action Plan?
a. Conduct short screening interviews.
b. Develop selection criteria.
c. Conduct valid and reliable employment tests.
d. Advertise vacancy to current employees.
ANSWER: b
42. Which of the following is NOT a principle for the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists?
a. support for diversity
b. responsibility to society
c. integrity in relationships
d. respect for dignity of persons
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ANSWER: a
43. Psychologists must follow ethical standards when carrying out employment tests. What type of issue are they NOT
involved with in applying ethical standards?
a. confidentiality of the test results
b. strategic contribution of tests to organization effectiveness
c. informed consent of the test taker
d. competence of test administrators and evaluators
ANSWER: b
44. Recruitment refers to the choice of job candidates from a previously generated pool of candidates.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
45. Effective recruitment and selection practices identify job applicants with the appropriate level of knowledge, skills,
abilities, and other requirements needed for successful performance in a job and organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
46. Human resources management is an independent function within an organization and generally acts in isolation to
meet the human resource needs of the organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
47. Recruitment and selection are the most important talent management functions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
48. HRM must coordinate human resource activities with all parts of the organization and people.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49. Bad hires may cost an organization as much as 30 percent of a new hire’s potential earnings.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
50. Talent management comprises the training and development of current employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
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51. Empirical studies demonstrate that organizations using effective recruitment and selection practices gain a competitive
advantage in the marketplace.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
52. Recruitment and selection decisions must be coordinated with all parts of the organization, although final decisions
must remain with HRM.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
53. Effective human resource managers are strategic thinkers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. An environmental scan follows the development of the organization strategy.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
55. Two external factors that are elements of an environmental scan are the economic climate and work force
demographics
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
56. All provincial HR associations have endorsed the CCHRA’s national standards for granting the Canadian Human
Resource Professional designation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
57. Ethical decision making is always clear-cut.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
58. Law is the means by which we distinguish what is right from wrong, what is moral from what is immoral, and what
may be done and may not be done in a profession.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
59. Ethical codes place constraints on what members may and may not do when practising human resources management,
including recruitment and selection.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
60. Define and describe the differences between human resource planning, recruitment, and selection.
ANSWER: Human resource planning is the process of planning for the number and types of people that move into,
within, and out of an organization. Recruitment is the generation of an applicant pool for a position or job in
order to provide the required number and quality of candidates for a subsequent selection or promotion
program. Selection is the choice of job candidates from a previously generated applicant pool in a way that
will meet management goals and objectives as well as current legal requirements. It is concerned with the
acquisition, deployment, and retention of the accurate quantity and quality of employees (i.e., employees with
the skills, abilities, knowledge, and experience required to perform well) to increase the organization’s
effectiveness.
61. List several ways that recruitment and selection are important to organizations.
ANSWER: • Hiring the right people with the right skills leads to positive economic outcomes for an organization.
• Effective recruitment and selection contributes to the competitive advantage of an organization.
• Best practices in recruitment and selection reduce employee turnover and increase productivity.
• Recruitment and selection contributes to profits.
• Productivity and profitability are affected by recruitment and selection.
• Employee trust is strengthened through effective recruitment and selection practices.
• The knowledge, skills, and abilities of an organization’s current and future employees are improved.
• Motivation is increased.
• Retention is improved.
62. What factors can be assessed in order to measure the impact of effective human resources management practices?
ANSWER: There are numerous measures that can be assessed in order to measure the impact of effective human
resources management practices. According to the textbook, the following practices add value:
• Recruitment and selection can lead to an organization’s success or failure.
• Differences in skills among job candidates translate into performance differences on the job.
• Hiring the right people with the right skills leads to positive economic outcomes for an organization.
• Effective recruitment and selection contributes to the competitive advantage of an organization.
• Best practices in recruitment and selection reduce employee turnover and increase productivity.
• Recruitment and selection contributes to profits.
• Productivity and profitability are affected by recruitment and selection.
• Employee trust is strengthened through effective recruitment and selection practices.
• The knowledge, skills, and abilities of an organization’s current and future employees are improved.
• Motivation is increased.
• Retention is improved.
Research now exists that provides data on how effective recruitment and selection practices can improve an
organization’s bottom line in these areas.
63. Describe two examples of the current socioeconomic and demographic composition of the Canadian work force.
Identify how these factors may affect human resources recruitment and selection. (You may expand this question to
incorporate “employer of choice.”)
ANSWER: • legislation (e.g., human rights, employment standards, privacy)
• global competition (e.g., repatriation, cultural diversity)
• rapid advances in information technology (e.g., HRIS and online recruitment)
• changing work force demographics (e.g., Gen X, higher expectations)
• knowledge, skills, and abilities available in the labour market (e.g., shortages in health-care professions)
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64. Define strategy then explain how HR activities can support organizational strategy. To measure the value of
recruitment and selection to the organization, refer to any organization’s strategy and show how HR supports the strategy.
It is essential that human resource managers demonstrate the benefit, effectiveness, worth, and value of their staffing
processes. This can be done by measuring specific criteria and analyzing the bottom-line costs and benefits. Describe
three potential costs and benefits of an effective recruitment and selection process. Reflect on an organization you have
worked for (or are familiar with), and explain how you might measure the value of recruitment and selection to the
organization’s bottom line.
ANSWER: Strategy is the formulation of organizational objectives, competitive scopes, and action plans for gaining
advantage. Some possible costs and benefits of effective recruitment and selection are listed below.
Costs
• hiring a consultant or providing training using an internal recruiter
• providing job analysis or position description
• establishing job performance criteria
• undertaking organizational analysis
• doing human resource planning
• considering legal and ethical issues
• reviewing the labour market, and understanding and locating the target audience
• filling a position temporarily (if required)
• adding administration tasks (e.g., employee requisitions, use of facilities, arranging time and travel to
interviews, paper, computers, telephone, forms)
• maintaining company Web page career site
• developing human resource information systems and technical support
• developing a recruitment strategy
• dealing with recruitment constraints (e.g., legal environment, costs, business plan, job level and type,
international assignment)
• screening applicants (e.g., application forms, résumés, work samples or simulations, testing)
• preparing assessment tools, such as job knowledge interview questions, case study/incidents, job and
workplace walk-through, computer-based assessment, role-play, business games, demonstration of skill, oral
or written presentation, graphic representation
• undertaking job advertisements and recruitment procedures using, for example, executive search firm, online
recruiters, national newspaper, professional associations, private employment agencies, succession planning,
campus fairs
• undertaking applicant reviews, short listing, and reference checks
• communicating and sharing accurate organization and job information (e.g., through annual reports, career
profiles, organizational charts, news articles)
• creating realistic job previews and probationary reviews
• following up with all applicants
• establishing and utilizing a selection committee
• interviewing
• carrying out orientation, socialization, mentoring, and training
• providing evaluation
• paying lost opportunity costs (e.g., lower productivity, lost profits, lost clients)
• dealing with negative effects on morale and decreased productivity due to poor staffing processes
• developing and monitoring international assignments (expatriate cross-cultural and language training and
relocation costs)
• developing a diverse work force (e.g., with generational and cultural differences)
• dealing with a wrong hire and turnover within the first year
• paying termination and severance costs, legal fees, financial and career transition consultants’ fees
• paying legal expenses (e.g., contracts)
• paying employee referral bonuses
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Benefits
• increased number of applicants attracted per method
• reduced time required to get applicants
• reduced costs per applicant attracted
• increased ratio of qualified to unqualified new employees
• reduced time from start to hiring of applicant
• increased yield ratio (the percentage of applicants from a staffing source who make it to the next stage of the
staffing process)
• reduced turnover of hires
• improved performance of new hires, which involves tracking the performance and behavioural outcomes of
individuals hired
• improved attitudes about the organization and position (e.g., measurable job satisfaction, engagement, and
commitment)
• increased effectiveness of method
• improved outcomes of hiring process, with evidence provided (e.g., by exit interviews and surveys)
• reduced combined costs of recruitment and selection (i.e., all costs divided by total hires)
• improved retention
• achievement of human resource planning goals
• improved number and quality of applications received
• improved outcomes from various recruitment events
• improved skill and motivation among new employees
• increased productivity and profits
• reduced lead time or hiring cycle
65. Describe how mission, vision, and value statements affect recruitment and selection.
ANSWER: Mission, vision, and value statements define the essential characteristics of an organization and provide a
foundation to help HR describe the ideal qualities required in candidates: the KSAOs that will contribute to
the organization achieving its competitive advantage. When effectively articulated, mission, vision, and value
statements tell potential employees why they would want to join the organization. Mission, vision, and value
statements set selection criteria above simply meeting the requirements of a particular job at a point in time.
66. Describe five socioeconomic factors that influence Canadian organizations, and that may comprise elements of an
environmental scan.
ANSWER: a. Globalization
∙ Half of Canadian exports come from foreign markets, so the country is vulnerable.
∙ Globalization increases the level of competition for customers as well as employees.
b. Technology
∙ Advances in technology reduce the need for labour in some industries.
∙ Technology has changed the way applicants apply for jobs. Online applications have replaced traditional hard
copy methods.
∙ Technology changes the recruitment and selection of individuals (e.g., through the use of search engines,
employment testing, résumé matching, and the tracking of applicants and employees).
c. Demographics
∙ The ratio of men to women in the work force is almost at par, which gives more visibility to women,
although their wages are still approximately at 70 percent of men’s.
∙ The number of baby boomers heading for retirement is increasing and this is leaving a large gap that is not
being met with younger employees; families are also having fewer children.
d. Unionization
∙ Although unionization as a percentage of the work force is decreasing, with less than 30 percent of the work
force belonging to unions, the number of workers in professional unions is increasing.
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∙ Public service employees are highly unionized at about 70 percent.
∙ Unions have artificially increased wages beyond what is acceptable, and there are many instances where
companies close their doors in one place and later relocate in a non-unionized environment.
e. Economic context
∙ The global recession of 2008 had serious consequences around the world, including job loss, salary and
benefit reductions, hiring freezes, and downsizing.
∙ In labour oversupply situations, employers must focus more on the selection of applicants as opposed to the
recruitment of them.
∙ Best practices need to be developed for companies to survive in the new economy where the rules have
changed.
67. What are the advantages of obtaining a professional designation such as the CHRP?
ANSWER: A CHRP or similar designation identifies you as possessing the required knowledge and skills to practise
human resources management. It also indicates a professional who will act ethically. Recent research by
HRPAO indicates that those with the CHRP have an advantage over those who do not when seeking and
maintaining employment, and in terms of compensation levels and stakeholders’ perception of their
achievement. Increasingly, employers are requiring the CHRP for employment of all HR professionals.
68. What are the four major principles that apply to HR practitioners which are similar to those found in the CPA Code of
Ethics?
ANSWER: Principle P1: Members have a duty to discharge all of their professional responsibilities
honourably, competently, and with integrity.
Principle P2: Members have a duty to protect and promote the profession and to
cooperate with the Association.
Principle P3: Members have a duty to act in the best interest of their clients and
employers.
Principle P4: Members must at all times act in a manner that advances the principles
of health and safety, human rights, equity, dignity, and overall well-being in
the workplace.
69. What are ethics and how do they relate to recruitment and selection?
ANSWER: Ethics is defined as the determination of right and wrong, the standards of appropriate conduct or behaviour
for members of a profession, or what those members may or may not do.
All professionals must adhere to a code of ethics that dictates standards of performance. In all codes, members
are required to obey the laws of the country, avoid conflicts of interest, and remain current in their fields of
expertise. Ethical codes outline other obligations that their members have to clients, management, and
workers, as well as to the larger society. HR ethical codes place constraints on what their members may and
may not do when practising human resource management, including recruitment and selection.
There are many ethical issues that HR professionals will face when involved in recruitment and selection (e.g.,
equity, confidentiality).
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Chapter 2 Foundations of Recruitment and Selection I: Reliability and
Validity
1. What is the first step in an organization’s selection process?
a. reviewing the candidate pool for the job position
b. identifying knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes for the job position
c. acquiring job analysis information for the job position
d. developing performance indicators and job dimension for the job position
ANSWER: c
2. Which of the following statements applies to a test by the UK Department of Work and Pensions (DWP), as
described in the “Sham Psychometric Test” controversy?
a. The test was appropriate because it had a valid goal: to help people find jobs.
b. The test was appropriate because it came from a larger test that had been validated by the DWP.
c. The test was inappropriate because it showed strengths but not weaknesses.
d. The test was inappropriate because it had not been validated for use by the DWP.
ANSWER: d
3. For what is job analysis information used?
a. to ensure reliability throughout the selection process
b. to identify both the performance domain and the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
linked to job performance
c. to ensure the selection process is fair, equitable, and unbiased
d. to ensure utility throughout the recruitment and selection process
ANSWER: b
4. What is the best way for HR professionals to ensure that their selection decisions meet the standards set by
courts and tribunals?
a. completely eliminating factors such as age, gender, and disability when considering candidates
b. thoroughly analyzing required KSAOs for each position to be filled
c. avoiding making hiring decisions
d. using valid and reliable science-based methods when choosing BFORs
ANSWER: b
5. What is the final step in the selection process?
a. developing performance indicators for the individuals who were hired with the process
b. gathering feedback from the individuals who were hired with the process
c. demonstrating that hiring decisions based on the selection system have utility
d. demonstrating that hiring decisions based on the selection system are reliable
ANSWER: c
6. The Toronto Police Service requires candidates to show that they are Canadian citizens or permanent
residents, are at least 18 years of age, and have a valid driver’s licence and no record of criminal convictions.
What would these requirements be classified as?
a. KSAOs
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b. screening criteria
c. performance dimensions
d. reliable qualifications
ANSWER: b
7. Which of the following is NOT a selection criterion for the Toronto Police Service?
a. The applicant must meet the vision standard for the Toronto Police Service.
b. The applicant must have successfully completed four years of secondary school education.
c. The applicant must be a Canadian citizen or landed immigrant.
d. The applicant must not have a criminal record for which a pardon has not been granted.
ANSWER: b
8. Which of the following is NOT a reason to use practice-based selection approaches?
a. fit with organizational culture
b. comfort with the process
c. consistency of the process
d. flexibility and speed
ANSWER: c
9. What is a potential outcome of a science-based selection process?
a. a significant number of qualified applicants
b. a defensible system with effective employees
c. a flexible, quick process that fits the organization’s culture
d. a process that is comfortable and flexible for all employees
ANSWER: b
10. What is a potential outcome of a practice-based selection process?
a. the effective use of structured and consistent procedures
b. a defensible system with effective employees
c. increased productivity and competitiveness
d. human rights litigation and marginal employees
ANSWER: d
11. What is a defining characteristic of a practice-based selection process?
a. It is defensible.
b. It is intuitive.
c. It is system-wide.
d. It is structured.
ANSWER: b
12. What is a defining characteristic of a science-based selection process?
a. It is flexible.
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b. It is intuitive.
c. It is rational.
d. It is subjective.
ANSWER: c
13. Which of the following terms refers to relationships between observations?
a. a variance
b. a construct
c. a concept
d. a validation
ANSWER: b
14. Which of the following is NOT a statement about reliability?
a. Reliability is an indication of the stability of measurements.
b. Reliability is the degree that observed scores are free from random errors.
c. Reliability is the amount of systemic errors relative to their true score.
d. Reliability is the consistency of a set of measurements over time.
ANSWER: c
15. What concept is defined as the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors?
a. validity
b. fairness
c. error score
d. reliability
ANSWER: d
16. What do you get when you square the reliability coefficient?
a. the proportion of consistency in the true scores attributed to true differences on the measured
characteristic
b. the proportion of error in the error scores attributed to true differences on the measured characteristic
c. the proportion of measurement error in the observed scores attributed to true differences on the
measured characteristic
d. the proportion of variance in the observed scores attributed to true differences on the measured
characteristic
ANSWER: d
17. Which of the following concepts is defined as the hypothetical difference between an individual’s observed
score on any particular measurement and the individual’s true score?
a. measurement error
b. standard deviation
c. lack of standardization
d. test and retest
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ANSWER: a
18. Which of the following is NOT a broad category of factors that affect reliability?
a. lack of standardization
b. temporary individual characteristics
c. seasonality
d. chance
ANSWER: c
19. Which of the following is NOT a technical quality of a testing procedure?
a. standardized test administration
b. test reliability
c. validity evidence
d. careful test development
ANSWER: c
20. To estimate reliability, it is important to adopt a strategy to develop approximations of parallel measures.
Which of the following is NOT such a strategy?
a. internal consistency
b. test and retest
c. intra-rater agreement
d. alternate forms
ANSWER: c
21. An HRM used the identical measurement procedure to assess the same characteristic over the same group of
people on different occasions. What method of estimating reliability was used?
a. test and retest
b. alternate forms
c. internal consistency
d. inter-rater reliability
ANSWER: a
22. Employers who are concerned about an applicant’s opinion about the usefulness of a test or certain questions
on a test are considering what element in the proper use of tests?
a. content validity
b. validity generalization
c. face validity
d. construct validity
ANSWER: a
23. To test validity, a content sampling strategy is often applied to the selection process. Which of the following
is NOT a step in this content sampling strategy?
a. A scoring scheme is developed for the selection assessments.
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b. Tasks of the target position are identified by job experts.
c. Job experts independently rate the reliability of each task.
d. Job experts evaluate the relationship between performance and job success.
ANSWER: c
24. In their mid-1970s research, what procedure did researchers Schmidt and Hunter use to challenge the idea
that a validity coefficient is specific to the context in which it is measured?
a. validity generalization
b. meta-analysis
c. range restriction
d. attenuation
ANSWER: b
25. What could an employer do to establish concurrent validity?
a. compare test results with performance ratings of existing employees
b. compare test results with employee performance ratings after one year on the job
c. compare test results with results of previously validated test
d. have experts determine whether the test accurately measures the current content of the job
ANSWER: a
26. What two strategies are typical methods that a researcher uses to acquire evidence for test-criterion
relationships?
a. criterion-related and correlation
b. inference and intuition
c. differential and selective
d. predictive and concurrent
ANSWER: d
27. The head of HR at Megatherium Industries wants to use a cognitive ability test for applicants to a
management position. If she wants to follow science-based methods in selection, but is unwilling to run a
validation study, what approach should she use to test validation?
a. use of best practices
b. comparison of test results of high-performing and low-performing employees
c. comparison of test questions with job content
d. use of validity generalization
ANSWER: d
28. Which of the following is correct?
a. A test can be reliable but not valid.
b. Construct validity is another term for content validity.
c. Bias refers to the reaction of test takers to a particular test.
d. A test can be valid but not reliable.
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ANSWER: a
29. What concept is defined as follows: the decrease in magnitude of the validity coefficient associated with
measurement error of the predictor, the criterion, or both?
a. sampling error
b. regression
c. attenuation
d. differential prediction
ANSWER: c
30. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Validity concepts in selection apply only to test scores.
b. U.S. Labor Department guidelines suggest that tests with validity coefficients above .35 are very
beneficial.
c. U.S. Labor Department guidelines suggest that only tests with reliability coefficients above .55
should be used in selection.
d. Employment tests have been shown to have no adverse impact on applicants.
ANSWER: b
31. What concept is defined by the following: “systematic errors in measurement, or inferences made from those
measurements, that are related to different identifiable group membership characteristics such as age, sex, or
race?”
a. discrimination
b. unfairness
c. bias
d. validity
ANSWER: c
32. Which of the following concepts refers to the use of different selection rules for different identifiable
subgroups?
a. subgroup differential
b. subgroup bias
c. subgroup norming
d. subgroup fairness
ANSWER: c
33. Which employment test has been identified as being biased in favour of males?
a. Bennett Mechanical Comprehension test
b. Wonderlic Personnel test
c. Toronto Police Service physical abilities test
d. cognitive ability test
ANSWER: a
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34. What concept is defined as the predicted average performance score of a subgroup?
a. subgroup prediction
b. differential prediction
c. systematic prediction
d. performance prediction
ANSWER: b
35. Refer to Figure 2.1. What occurs if the selection system does not have utility?
a. The job should be reanalyzed.
b. The selection system should be reviewed.
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c. The selection system should be implemented.
d. The selection system should be validated.
ANSWER: a
36. Refer to Figure 2.1. What relationship does line A represent?
a. the relationship among job analysis, KSAOs, and performance management
b. the relationship between the performance domain and the KSAOs that contribute to the job
performance
c. the relationship between the KSAOs and performance competencies
d. the relationship among job analysis, KSAOs, and performance criteria and dimensions
ANSWER: b
37. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line D represent?
a. validating the job analysis and identifying performance criteria
b. clarifying the performance domain and utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’
constructs
c. defining the performance domain and developing related criterion measurements
d. validating the selection system
ANSWER: c
38. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line C represent?
a. validating the job analysis, knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes, and performance domain
b. utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs to clarify the performance
dimensions
c. translating the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs into valid measurable
predictors
d. establishing criterion-related validity
ANSWER: c
39. Refer to Figure 2.1. What process does line E represent?
a. validating the job analysis, knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes and performance domain
b. predicting which applicants will be successful in their position
c. utilizing the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes constructs to clarify the performance
dimensions
d. translating the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes constructs into valid measurable
predictors
ANSWER: b
40. Employers must know the legal and professional standards in order to increase the likelihood that their
selection processes are compliant.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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41. The employer’s goal in selection is to hire an applicant who possesses the necessary knowledge, skills,
abilities, and other attributes to perform the job being filled.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
42. The goal of selection is to identify job candidates who have those attributes required for success on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
43. The HR manager focuses on one variable, usually job performance, in the selection process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
44. If an employer does not have a reliable and valid selection process, it can still make a correct guess about an
applicant that will have positive benefits for the organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
45. An employer’s employment decisions must be rational and intuitive.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
46. An employer’s recruitment and selection process goal is to attract and hire an applicant who possesses the
knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes to successfully perform the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
47. Hiring decisions must be defensible; they must meet legal requirements and professional standards of
reliability and validity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
48. The reliability coefficient is the degree that true scores correlate with one another.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
49. Measurement error can be thought of as the hypothetical difference between an individual’s observed score
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on any particular measurement and the individual’s true score.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
50. When candidates are asked different questions from one interview to the other, validity is reduced.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
51. Validity is the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
52. The principle that every test taker should be assessed in an equitable manner is known as equity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
53. Issues of fairness need to be determined statistically.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
54. Achieving fairness often requires compromise between conflicting interests.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
55. Choose a specific job you are familiar with and choose one characteristic that you think is critical to
successfully performing that job. If you were the HRM hiring for this position, what would you consider in
measuring the characteristic and job performance to ensure reliability and validity?
ANSWER: Answer the question by addressing science-based selection, reliability, and validity. Refer also to
Figure 2.1, Job Analysis, Selection, and Criterion Measurements of Performance: A Systems
Approach; Table 2.1, Human Resources Management: Science versus Practice in Selection; and
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 2.2, Validity, which emphasizes the importance of job analysis,
selection, and criterion measurements of performance, systems approach, and science-based
selection. See also the example of the Toronto Police Service.
56. How does science affect the selection process?
ANSWER: To remove the guessing in selection, a selection system must be built on sound empirical support, be
reliable and valid, and operate within a legal context.
• Hiring decisions must be defensible; they must meet legal requirements and professional standards
of reliability and validity.
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• The measures used to make the hiring decisions must be stable and provide job-related information.
• Employment decisions must be valid and meet legal requirements.
• Refer to Figure 2.1, Job Analysis, Selection, and Criterion Measurements of Performance: A
Systems Approach, and Table 2.1, Human Resources Management: Science versus Practice in
Selection.
57. Describe the process and components of selection model in Figure 2.1.
ANSWER: The job analysis information is used to identify the performance domain and also the knowledge,
skills, abilities, and other attributes linked to job performance. Line A represents the relationship
between the performance domain and the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that
contribute to the performance of job tasks and behaviours. Line D represents the process of defining
the performance domain and developing related criterion measurements. Line C represents the
process of translating the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes’ constructs into valid,
measurable predictors. Line E represents predicting which applicants will be successful in their
position. The final step in the selection process is to demonstrate that hiring decisions are based on
the selection system’s utility.
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58. What is reliability? Identify three factors affecting reliability.
ANSWER: Reliability is the degree to which observed scores are free from random measurement errors.
Reliability is an indication of the stability or dependability of a set of measurements over repeated
applications of the measurement procedure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a set of
measurements when a testing procedure is repeated on a population of individuals or groups. In terms
of testing, it is expected that a test will provide approximately the same information each time it is
given to that person.
Factors Affecting Reliability
• Temporary individual characteristics: if a job candidate is quite ill or anxious, the know-how score
may be affected and have a greater error component.
• Lack of standardization: changing the conditions under which measurements are made introduces
error in the measurement process. For example, reliability is decreased if different candidates are
asked different questions during interviews. If the environment varies in which candidates for the
same job are interviewed, it will affect reliability.
• Chance: factors unique to a specific procedure introduce error into the set of measurements. If an
employer has interviewed someone previously, that applicant will have a better chance of performing
well in an interview with that employer again.
59. What is validity in selection? Describe four validation strategies.
ANSWER: Validity is the degree to which accumulated evidence and theory support specific interpretations of
test scores in the context of the test’s proposed use.
Evidence based on test content: this type of validity evidence comes from analyzing the relationship
between a test’s content and the construct the test is intended to measure. Evidence of validity based
on test content can consist of either empirical or logical analyses of how well the contents of the test,
and interpretation of the test scores, represent the construct.
Evidence based on relations to other variables: this type of evidence is based on an analysis of the
relationship between test scores and other variables that are external to the test.
Predictive evidence for test-criterion relationships: predictive evidence is obtained through research
designs that establish the correlation between predictor scores (know-how scores) obtained before an
applicant is hired and criteria (performance scores) obtained at a later time, usually after an applicant
is employed.
Concurrent evidence for test-criterion relationships: concurrent evidence is obtained through research
designs that establish a correlation between predictor and criteria scores from information that is
collected at approximately the same time from a specific group of workers.
60. Discuss face validity and explain whether it is based on the perceptions of the test taker or of experts.
ANSWER: Face validity is the degree to which the test takers view the content of a test or test items as relevant
to the context in which the test is being administered. Face validity is based on the perceptions or
opinions of the test taker, and not those of experts, that the test or items are related to the aims of the
test in the situation in which it is being used.
61. Scribe Engineering, a medium-sized information technology company, is having difficulties recruiting and
retaining several of its administrative assistant positions. Traditionally, Scribe has used a practice-based
selection process. As the new HRM, what would you suggest to the CEO?
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ANSWER: Scribe Engineering should undertake a job analysis of an administrative assistant to determine the
essential components of office administration work and the level of performance required for success
(performance domain and knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes) and then create a series of
tests to measure those components among administrative assistants.
Refer to Figure 2.1, Job Analysis, Selection, and Criterion Measurements of Performance: A Systems
Approach; Table 2.1, Human Resources Management: Science versus Practice in Selection; and
Figure 2.5, Validation Strategies, which emphasizes the importance of job analysis, selection, and
criterion measurements of performance, systems approach, and science-based selection.
62. Since TS Inc. is a small, growing aviation company, the CEO makes the hiring decisions based on his years
of experience as well as his gut feeling. He started the business 10 years ago with 10 employees and the
company has grown to over 30 employees. The CEO has asked you, the HRM, to explain some of the
differences between the use of his practice-based selection approach and an empirical-based process. Also
explain what challenges you anticipate he would face in using validation techniques.
ANSWER: Validation studies require relatively large numbers of hires. The challenge for TS Inc. is that it does
not hire many people.
Refer to Table 2.1, Human Resources Management: Science versus Practice in Selection, and
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 2.2, Validity.
63. What is bias in selection?
ANSWER: Bias refers to systematic errors in measurement, or inferences made from those measurements, that
are related to different identifiable group membership characteristics such as age, sex, or race.
64. What is fairness? Why is it an important concept in selection?
ANSWER: Fairness in measurement refers to the value judgments people make about the decisions or outcomes
that are based on those measurements. Fairness is the principle that every test taker should be
assessed in an equitable manner. Issues of fairness cannot be determined statistically or empirically.
Fairness involves perceptions. It is important from a business, ethical, and legal standpoint to have
tests that are scientifically sound; it is also important to have procedures that are perceived as fair.
From a business perspective, the adverse reactions to selection tests and procedures may impair the
ability of the organization to recruit and hire the best applicants.
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1. What are the four legal means that affect employment practices in recruitment and selection?
a. constitutional law, human rights law, employment equity, and labour law
b. constitutional law, criminal law, civil law, and labour law
c. criminal law, labour law, employment equity, and federal law
d. human rights law, employment equity, labour law, and civil law
ANSWER: a
2. Which of the following laws do NOT regulate recruitment and selection within an organization?
a. Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
b. human rights legislation
c. constitutional law
d. criminal law
ANSWER: d
3. With respect to recruitment and selection, what legislation has precedence over all other legislation?
a. constitutional law
b. human rights law
c. Canada labour law
d. employment equity legislation
ANSWER: a
4. Which of the following is/are NOT covered by the Canadian Human Rights Act?
a. crown corporations
b. banks
c. Canada Post
d. BC labour laws
ANSWER: d
5. Which of the following is responsible for the enforcement of the Canadian Human Rights Act?
a. Canadian Human Rights Tribunal
b. Canadian Human Rights Commission
c. Canadian Human Rights Labour Board
d. Human Resources Development Canada
ANSWER: b
6. A school teacher has HIV, and the parents of many of the students have asked that their children be
transferred to another teacher or school. The school board has told the teacher that he must transfer to a position
where he is not in contact with the children. Which statement applies to this situation?
a. It is not discrimination because there is a safety concern for employees and students.
b. It is not discrimination because the teacher would not be able to do his job.
c. It is a violation of human rights legislation, based on physical disability.
d. It is a violation of human rights legislation, based on sex.
ANSWER: c
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7. Which of the following statements best defines discrimination?
a. the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory employment practices
b. any employment rule, practice, or policy that has a negative effect on employees
c. the denial of opportunity to a person or class of people based on a group characteristic such as age,
colour, race, religion, marital status, or mental or physical disability
d. any unwelcome conduct or consequences that may detrimentally affect the work environment
ANSWER: c
8. What is the intent of the federal Employment Equity Act?
a. to promote equal pay for male and female employees
b. to remove employment barriers for designated groups
c. to ensure employees are able to join a union of their choice
d. to prohibit discrimination on prohibited grounds
ANSWER: b
9. A clothing store is recruiting seasonal employees. It is October, and the successful candidates will be offered
three months’ work for the store’s busiest season. One applicant with a solid background in retail sales appears
to be pregnant. The supervisor decides not to hire her. What protection does the job applicant have under human
rights law in this situation?
a. She is protected on the grounds of sex.
b. She is protected on the grounds of family status.
c. She is protected on the grounds of age.
d. She is protected on the grounds of marital status.
ANSWER: a
10. The Canadian Human Rights Commission received 1735 complaints in 2016. What percentage of these
complaints were related to discrimination related to disabilities?
a. 18 percent
b. 28 percent
c. 38 percent
d. 60 percent
ANSWER: d
11. Ann, who is four feet five inches tall, met with the manager of a liquor store to discuss employment as a
cashier. The manager seemed receptive, and Ann left the store with the impression that the manager would call
to arrange training. However, the manager hired someone else. When Ann asked, the manager said Ann was too
short to do the job. What protection does Ann have under human rights law in this situation?
a. She is protected on the grounds of sex.
b. She is protected on the grounds of physical disability.
c. She is protected on the grounds of national origin.
d. She is protected on the grounds of source of income.
ANSWER: b
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12. Which of the following is a prohibited ground of discrimination?
a. education
b. tattoos
c. weight
d. colour
ANSWER: d
13. Which of the following is NOT a prohibited ground of discrimination?
a. work experience
b. race
c. age
d. religion
ANSWER: a
14. Within all Canadian jurisdictions, which of the following is a prohibited ground of employment
discrimination?
a. criminal conviction
b. religion
c. family status
d. language
ANSWER: b
15. To which of the following designated groups does employment equity apply?
a. women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities
b. visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities
c. immigrants, First Nations people, and people with physical handicaps
d. Aboriginal peoples, people with disabilities, and international students
ANSWER: a
16. According to the textbook, what is the purpose of employment equity?
a. to achieve equality in the workplace
b. to generate equal opportunity employers
c. to encourage diversity management
d. to promote unbiased and fair hiring practices
ANSWER: a
17. Which of the following situations characterizes employers that are subject to the Federal Contractors
Program?
a. companies with more than 10 employees and more than $200 000 of business with the federal
government
b. companies with more than 50 employees and more than $500 000 of business with the federal
government
c. companies with more than 100 employees and more than $1 000 000 of business with the federal
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government
d. companies with more than 200 employees and more than $3 000 000 of business with the federal
government
ANSWER: c
18. Which of the following is NOT a step in developing and implementing an employment equity plan?
a. Monitor the changing composition of the internal work force over time.
b. Obtain government support for the employment equity effort.
c. Set representative targets for designated groups based on availability of qualified workers.
d. Make necessary changes to the employment equity intervention to bring designated groups up to
future targets.
ANSWER: b
19. Which interview question is legally valid?
a. How long have you lived in Canada?
b. What is your current address?
c. What is your maiden name?
d. Do you have child care arrangements?
ANSWER: b
20. Which one of the following questions can be asked of a potential candidate?
a. Were you born in Canada?
b. Are you legally entitled to work in Canada?
c. What is your name on your birth certificate?
d. Is French your first language?
ANSWER: b
21. When the selection rate for a protected group is lower than that for the relevant comparison group, what
might potentially occur?
a. discrimination
b. an adverse impact discrimination
c. adverse effect discrimination
d. direct discrimination
ANSWER: b
22. What best describes the four-fifths rule?
a. Outreach recruiting must result in four-fifths of applications from target groups.
b. Employment equity candidates must be hired if they meet four-fifths of the minimum job
requirements.
c. The selection rate for the protected group is less than four-fifths that of the comparison group.
d. Four-fifths of discrimination situations are unintentional.
ANSWER: c
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23. What legal term states that there is a justifiable reason for a discriminatory employment practice or policy
based on the necessity for business operations?
a. sufficient risk
b. employment equity
c. bona fide occupational requirement
d. affirmative action
ANSWER: c
24. Which of the following is an example of indirect discrimination?
a. an unsubstantiated requirement for local market experience
b. a requirement that an attendant in a women’s locker room must be female
c. a minimum score on certain employment tests
d. a minimum height or weight requirement for police forces
ANSWER: a
25. Which of the following is an example of effective practices for nondiscriminatory recruiting?
a. posting job advertisements in-house only
b. relying solely on seniority when promoting employees
c. relying on word-of-mouth advertising
d. using outreach recruiting
ANSWER: d
Scenario 3.1
Bill, who has an arthritic condition, applied for a position as a private bus driver. He met all the conditions of
the selection process but was rejected for employment by the company on the advice of the medical doctor who
performed the mandatory medical examination.
26. What protection does Bill have under human rights law in this situation?
a. Bill is not being discriminated against as public safety requires a high standard of driving skills.
b. Bill is protected on the grounds of physical disability.
c. Bill is protected by employment equity legislation.
d. Bill is not being discriminated against as driving requires quick response of his hands and feet.
ANSWER: b
27. In order to NOT be accused of discrimination, what should the employer have established prior to
conducting medical exams on bus drivers?
a. that the absence of arthritis was a bona fide occupational requirement for private bus drivers
b. that the medical exam was well established and valid as a screening and selection tool
c. that the medical exam was consistent and reliable as a screening and selection tool
d. that physical ability was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver
ANSWER: a
Scenario 3.2
Mr. Smith, a public elementary school custodian, is a Seventh Day Adventist. His religious beliefs prevent him
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from working from sundown Friday to sundown Saturday. The work schedule, which requires him to work a
Friday shift from 3 p.m. to 11 p.m., is set out in the collective agreement between his employer and his union.
Accommodating Mr. Smith’s religious beliefs would require allowing him to work hours different from those
specified. The employer and the union can’t agree on a means of accommodating Mr. Smith. As a result, he is
dismissed from his job.
28. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What legislation applies in this case?
a. the Canada Labour Code
b. the Employment Equity Act
c. provincial human rights law
d. the Canadian Human Rights Act
ANSWER: c
29. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What legal protected ground may be violated in this situation?
a. sex
b. ethnic origin
c. religion
d. race
ANSWER: c
30. Refer to Scenario 3.2. What human rights legal concept has emerged in this situation?
a. accommodation
b. adverse effect discrimination
c. employment equity
d. sufficient risk
ANSWER: b
Scenario 3.3
You have recently been hired as the HR manager for KM Contracting, a medium-sized construction company
with offices throughout Canada. Many of the company’s trades employees are unionized, and one of the
company’s largest contracts is with the federal government. It has come to your attention that Ms. Jones, an
elderly woman who works as an office clerk, has been humiliated and treated disrespectfully about her obesity
for 11 years. She has been called offensive names and heard comments about the way she “waddles.” During
this time, her manager criticized her work performance and stated that “women are best working at home in the
kitchen.” She has been passed over for promotions and no longer applies for other positions because of her low
self-esteem resulting from the intimidating workplace environment. The company’s discrimination policy states
that it promotes a work environment that is free from discrimination. Managers have stated that they cannot
always distinguish between inappropriate or illegal discrimination behaviours. The CEO has asked you to
educate all levels of management about the legal requirements that must be met in recruitment and selection. He
also wants you to develop some practical nondiscriminatory recruitment and selection guidelines for all
employees.
31. Refer to Scenario 3.3. What are the four legal sources that affect KM Contracting’s employment practices in
recruitment and selection?
a. constitutional law, human rights law, employment equity, labour law
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b. constitutional law, criminal law, civil law, labour law
c. criminal law, labour law, employment equity, federal law
d. human rights law, employment equity, labour law, civil law
ANSWER: a
32. Refer to Scenario 3.3. As the HR manager, how would you best define discrimination to the managers?
a. any employment rule, practice, or policy that has a negative effect on employees
b. the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory employment practices
c. the denial of opportunity to a person or class of people based on a group characteristic such as age,
colour, race, religion, marital status, or mental or physical disability
d. any unwelcome conduct or consequences that may detrimentally affect the work environment
ANSWER: c
33. Refer to Scenario 3.3. As the HR manager, how would you describe Ms. Jones’s situation?
a. She is being sexually harassed, a form of discrimination.
b. She is not being discriminated against because obesity is not one of the human rights prohibitions
(unless it is diagnosed as a disability).
c. It is not a problem because a formal complaint has not been made over this 11-year period.
d. She is being discriminated against based on age, sex, and family status.
ANSWER: a
34. Refer to Scenario 3.3. Who might be liable in this situation?
a. the employer
b. the employee
c. the manager
d. the employer and manager
ANSWER: d
35. Refer to Scenario 3.3. In this situation, which of the following behaviours would NOT be discrimination?
a. behaviour that is based on a condition of employment
b. behaviour that is a misuse of supervisory authority
c. behaviour that is nonverbal and limited to only a few incidents
d. behaviour that is unintended
ANSWER: a
36. Which of the following statements would apply to a requirement that a hospital nurse be female?
a. The requirement is a violation of the Canadian Human Rights Act.
b. The requirement is a bona fide occupational requirement.
c. The requirement is justified if the nurse works at the maternity ward of a hospital.
d. The requirement is mandatory if determined by the Pay Equity Act.
ANSWER: a
37. What is the intent of the federal Employment Equity Act?
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a. to promote equal pay for male and female employees
b. to remove employment barriers for women, Aboriginal peoples, persons with disabilities, and visible
minorities
c. to ensure employees are able to join a union of their choice
d. to prohibit discrimination on the grounds of race, colour, religion, age, gender, marital status,
disability, or sexual orientation
ANSWER: b
38. Which of the following terms refers to the equal application of hiring policies or practices that result in a
disproportionate number of a certain gender, racial group, or religious group being excluded?
a. systemic discrimination
b. reasonable accommodation
c. undue hardship
d. bona fide hiring practices
ANSWER: a
Scenario 3.4
You are the HR manager for a Canadian university located in Ontario. An Asian university business professor
has worked at that Canadian university for 15 years. He was denied a tenure position on several occasions.
Three other faculty (all white) with less education and experience received tenure positions in the past two
years.
39. Refer to Scenario 3.4. Under which jurisdiction does this university fall?
a. federal
b. provincial
c. national
d. international
ANSWER: b
40. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What legislation applies in this case?
a. the Employment Standards Act and labour law
b. the Employment Equity Act and Canadian Human Rights Act
c. provincial human rights law and labour law
d. the Canadian Human Rights Act and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
ANSWER: c
41. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What legally protected ground seems to be violated in this situation?
a. age
b. race
c. religion
d. language
ANSWER: b
42. Refer to Scenario 3.4. What human rights legal concept has emerged in this situation?
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a. reasonable accommodation
b. protected groups
c. employment equity
d. racial discrimination
ANSWER: d
43. Refer to Scenario 3.4. There are many actions the HR manager can take. What would be an important initial
step to deal with this situation?
a. Adopt employment equity policies and practices.
b. Ensure valid and reliable job-related criteria are used to assess applicants.
c. Educate management on harassment prevention policies and practices.
d. Initiate problem solving through a formal internal complaint process.
ANSWER: b
Scenario 3.5
TS Inc. is a small Canadian aviation company located in Sydney, BC. The company has over 30 employees,
primarily pilots and aircraft maintenance engineers. The CEO informs you that you should come up with a
recruitment and selection system that will screen out pro-union attitudes, and also to keep this information
confidential. John, a practising Muslim, applied in person for an aircraft maintenance engineer position, in
response to a newspaper advertisement that listed two years of experience and industry certification. He was not
contacted by TS Inc., even though he had over eight years of experience. His ex-wife, who was close friends
with the CEO, told John that she had been contacted for a reference. Four months later he learned that the recent
hirees had less than two years of experience.
44. Refer to Scenario 3.5. Under which jurisdiction does TS Inc. fall?
a. federal
b. provincial
c. national
d. international
ANSWER: a
45. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What legal sources are relevant to this situation?
a. the Employment Standards Act and labour law
b. the Employment Equity Act and privacy legislation
c. provincial human rights law and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
d. the Canadian Human Rights Act
ANSWER: d
46. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What legally protected ground seems to be violated in this situation?
a. age
b. family status
c. religion
d. marital status
ANSWER: c
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47. Refer to Scenario 3.5. What human rights legal concepts emerged in this situation?
a. individual accommodation and indirect discrimination
b. direct discrimination and ethical challenges
c. employment equity and labour rights
d. adverse impact and reasonable accommodation
ANSWER: d
48. Which of the following is NOT included in the three-part Meiorin test under which all workplace practices
are screened?
a. The standard is rationally connected to job performance.
b. The standard was adopted in good faith.
c. The standard is reasonably necessary.
d. The standard is applied over a long period of time.
ANSWER: d
49. An employer is not required to face which of the following challenges in providing accommodation to
eliminate practices that prevent job equity for disadvantaged groups?
a. additional costs
b. undue hardship
c. negative reaction from other employees
d. administrative difficulties
ANSWER: b
50. Why is the Renaud case from the Supreme Court of Canada important?
a. It established that the employer was responsible to accommodate employees.
b. It established that undue hardship was related to employee morale.
c. It established that the union could be found to have discriminated against its employees.
d. It established that sufficient risk needs to incorporate both financial and nonfinancial aspects.
ANSWER: c
51. Constitutional law becomes an issue only when recruitment or selection practices are challenged in a human
rights tribunal or court.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
52. Since the aviation industry is a federally regulated industry in Canada, airline company operations fall under
the jurisdiction of federal law.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
53. In an employment interview, it is acceptable (legal) to ask candidates if they are prepared to travel or be
transferred if those are requirements of the job.
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a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. It is never acceptable to ask job candidates if they have a criminal record.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
55. During the interview process, inquiries about the applicant’s religion may be justified if they seek to
establish the existence of a bona fide occupational requirement (i.e., if the job involves communicating religious
values).
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
56. Recruitment and selection practices that have an impact on careers or entry to occupations must be
defensible with respect to legal requirements.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
57. Employment equity programs involve any human resource activities introduced into an organization to
ensure equality for all employees in all aspects of employment, including recruiting, hiring, compensation, and
training.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
58. Labour law regulates the minimum age of employment, hours of work, minimum wages, statutory holidays,
etc.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
59. Collective agreements have little or no effect on personnel selection processes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
60. Direct discrimination occurs when an employer adopts a practice or rule that on its face discriminates on a
prohibited ground.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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61. It is appropriate to ask potential employees for a list of all their disabilities, limitations, or health problems.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
62. A situation in which an employer, in good faith, adopts a policy or practice that has an unintended negative
impact on members of a selected group is referred to as adverse effect discrimination.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
63. When a manufacturer decides not to hire women in areas requiring heavy lifting, this is an example of
indirect discrimination or adverse impact discrimination.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
64. Reasonable accommodation refers to the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to discriminatory
employment practices or procedures to meet the needs of members of a protected group being affected by the
employment practice or procedure.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
65. Accommodation is always applied to a group as opposed to individuals.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
66. What are the four legal means that affect employment practices in Canada? Identify and briefly describe
each one.
ANSWER: Constitutional law is the supreme law of Canada. Human rights legislation prohibits discrimination
in employment and the provision of goods and services. Employment equity legislation is an
administrative mechanism set up in many Canadian organizations in response to federal employment
equity legislation initiatives that are intended to promote the entry and retention of people from
designated groups (women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities).
Labour law, employment standards, privacy legislation, and related legislation grant certain
employment rights as well as impose a wide range of employment responsibilities and obligations to
both employers and employees.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.1, Not All Legal Requirements Are the Same.
67. Define discrimination and describe some of the areas in recruitment and selection that can be discriminatory.
ANSWER: Discrimination refers to any refusal to employ or continue to employ any person, or to adversely
affect any current employee, on the basis of that individual’s membership in a protected group. All
Canadian jurisdictions prohibit discrimination at least on the basis of race, colour, religion, ancestry,
age, sex, marital status, and physical or mental disability.
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Several aspects of the recruitment and selection process can be discriminatory. When jobs are
analyzed and described, unreasonable and unnecessary qualifications can be required in the job
description. These can include requirements related to physical attributes such as height or academic
qualifications such as the minimum number years of education. Recruitment practices can
discriminate by not utilizing methods that will reach members or protected or designated groups,
such as advertising in ethnic newspapers. Short-listing processes can discriminate by using criteria
that are not bona fide occupational requirements, such as whether someone is male or female, or
whether someone is a single parent or gay.
68. Define and give an example of three discrimination prohibitions.
ANSWER: Every province and territory, as well as the federal government, has established a human rights code
or act that prohibits discrimination in employment or the provision of goods and services. It is a
discriminatory practice, directly or indirectly, to refuse to employ or continue to employ any
individual or, in the course of employment, to differentiate adversely in relation to an employee on a
prohibited ground of discrimination. Discrimination is enforced through human rights commissions
or tribunals that have the legislated power to undertake actions that may be necessary to eliminate
discrimination.
Refer to Table 3.1, Prohibited Grounds of Employment Discrimination in Canadian Jurisdictions.
Seven prohibited grounds are agreed upon in all jurisdictions of Canada (indicated by an asterisk
below).
• Age*: protection from discrimination based on age defined by the jurisdiction (e.g., BC, 19 and
over; abolishment of mandatory retirement).
• Ancestry: protection from discrimination based on one’s ancestors (e.g., Aboriginal).
• Colour or Race*: protection from discrimination based on one’s colour or race.
• Conviction: protection from discrimination based on a conviction or unrelated perceived conviction
where the reasons for the conviction have nothing to do with the work to be performed (however, it is
acceptable to ask if an applicant is eligible to be bonded, if it is a job requirement).
• Family status: protection from discrimination based on the fact that one has or does not have a
family (e.g., employer policies that prohibit employment of family members of employees constitute
family status discrimination)
• Marital status*: protection from discrimination based on the status of being married or not married.
• Physical or mental disability*: protection from discrimination based on physical or mental disability
(i.e., there must be some degree of impairment as well as a clear medical diagnosis).
• Place of origin: protection from discrimination based on birthplace or place of education.
• Political belief: protection from discrimination based on political belief or affiliation, provided that
belief or affiliation does not actively promote or engage in harm or violate the equality rights of
others.
• Religion or Creed*: protection from discrimination based on religious belief or affiliation, provided
that belief or affiliation does not actively promote or engage in harm to others (i.e., violate the
equality rights of others).
• Sex*: protection from discrimination on the basis of gender, either male or female, gender identity,
pregnancy, childbirth, or on the basis of sexual harassment.
• Sexual orientation*: protection from discrimination on the basis of being gay, lesbian, bisexual, or
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heterosexual.
69. Every province and territory, as well as the federal government, has established a human rights code or act
that prohibits discrimination in employment. The grounds for discrimination outlined in the Canadian Human
Rights Act are race, colour, religion, age, sex, marital status, and mental or physical disability. Recruitment
practices that are free of bias will attract the most qualified applicants. It is a discriminatory practice if
interviewing procedures exclude a particular group directly or indirectly on a prohibited ground of
discrimination.
Write six questions for each of the six prohibited grounds in all jurisdictions of Canada that you would avoid
asking on an application form or during an interview. Then reword the questions so that they can be asked to
gather information that relates to an applicant’s ability to do the job.
ANSWER: Refer to Table 3.3, Guidelines to Screening and Selection in Employment.
70. What is employment equity? Which groups are affected by employment equity legislation? Does
employment equity mean that unqualified individuals will be hired? What are the benefits of implementing
employment equity in the workplace? Give an example of a specific strategy or equity practice an organization
has used to increase employment equity.
ANSWER: Employment equity (federal legislation) is a mandatory strategic plan designed by employers and
employees to systematically identify and remove barriers in the workplace historically put before
women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and people with disabilities.
Employment equity does not mean hiring unqualified individuals. Under employment equity
programs, positions are awarded to the person best qualified for the position. All selection
requirements must be realistic and job related. Employment equity is a proactive strategic systems
approach to include an equitable representation of women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples,
and people with disabilities through human resource planning, recruitment, and selection processes.
Some benefits of implementing employment equity in the workplace are as follows:
• enlarged pool of applicants
• reduced costs of human rights complaints
• enhanced retention of employees
• enhanced employee morale
• improved corporate image
• a work force that’s representative of Canadian culture and diversity
• increased global competitiveness and productivity
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.2, Developing and Implementing an Employment
Equity (EE) Plan, and Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.3, Implementing Good Workplace
Equity Practices.
71. Describe provincial labour law or the Canada Labour Code and its relevance to recruitment and selection.
ANSWER: Federal and provincial labour laws stipulate the rights of employees to organize trade unions and to
bargain collective agreements with employers. Provincial labour relations acts and the Canada
Labour Code establish labour relations boards to oversee union certifications and handle complaints
about unfair labour practices. Collective agreements have a major impact on internal selection or
internal movement of workers (e.g., promotion, lateral transfer, demotion). Closed-shop unions are
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legal in Canada and, therefore, some unions have considerable control over external recruiting. Most
unions tend to be more cooperative than adversarial in terms of HR practices such as selection.
Employment standards set the minimum conditions of employment, which range from minimum
wage and terminations to the regulation of a variety of employment practices.
72. Define and give an example of three important legal concepts in recruitment and selection.
ANSWER: Direct discrimination occurs when an employer adopts a practice or rule that on its face discriminates
on a prohibited ground. If direct discrimination occurs, the burden is on the employer to show the
rule is valid in application to all the members of the affected group (e.g., firefighters who are required
to retire at 60).
Adverse effect discrimination refers to a situation in which an employer, in good faith, adopts a
policy or practice that has an unintended, negative impact on members of a protected group. This is
also referred to as indirect discrimination or systemic discrimination. Adverse effect discrimination
can occur in employee referral practices and other recruitment methods that unintentionally screen
out members of protected groups. Indirect discrimination also occurs in employment testing. Adverse
effect discrimination refers to workplace policies, regulations, and rules that are neutral or
nondiscriminatory on their face but have a discriminatory effect (e.g., recruitment practices that limit
applications from designated groups, or physical access, which restricts those who are mobility
impaired). Many instances of adverse discrimination involve practices that are commonplace (e.g.,
the requirement that police applicants must be 178 cm (5' 10") tall seems to apply equally to
everyone, but in practice may have a disproportionate effect on certain minority groups and women,
who are, on average, smaller in stature). Discrimination is the result of the impact on the individual
who feels discriminated against and not the intent behind the discriminating behaviour.
Adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for a protected group is lower than that for the relevant
comparison group. Adverse impact and adverse effect are used synonymously. Adverse impact is
based on statistical evidence showing that proportionately fewer of the protected group are selected
using a selection device (such as an employment test or interview) or that fewer members of the
protected group pass through the selection system taken as a whole. The four-fifths rule determines
adverse impact when the selection rate for the protected group is less than four-fifths of the
comparison group.
Bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR) is a procedure used to defend a discriminatory
employment practice or policy on the grounds that the policy or practice was adopted in an honest
and good-faith belief that it was reasonably necessary to assure the efficient and economical
performance of the job without endangering employees or the general public. One example would be
making it a requirement that a taxi driver have 20:20 corrected sight would be a case of
discrimination on the prohibited ground of physical disability. To defend the application of this
requirement in a selection process the employer would argue that it would be impossible for an
applicant to do the job if he or she did not meet this requirement. Courts have ruled that a BFOR
must be an objective one that is supported by concrete evidence.
Reasonable accommodation refers to the duty of an employer to put in place modifications to
discriminatory employment practices or procedures to meet the needs of members of a protected
group being affected by the employment practice or procedure. Employers have a duty to
accommodate (to the point of undue hardship) employees who by virtue of a group characteristic are
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unable to follow certain rules of their job (e.g., if an Orthodox Jew is unable to work on Friday night
by virtue of his or her religious belief, the employer must try to create a different shift).
Individual accommodation refers to the duty that employers designing workplace standards owe an
obligation to be aware of both the differences between individuals and the differences that
characterize groups of individuals.
Under the burden of reasonable alternative, the employer must show that no reasonable or practical
substitute exists for the discriminatory practice.
Sufficient risk is part of a BFOR defence. An employer may argue that an occupational requirement
that discriminates against a protected group is reasonably necessary to ensure that work will be
performed successfully and in a manner that will not pose harm or danger to employees or the public.
Exemption refers to the exclusion of a nonprofit organization from a complaint where the
organization is promoting the interests of a protected group.
Harassment is a form of discrimination. Harassment is behaviour or action that the harasser knows,
or reasonably ought to know, is unwanted. Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature that detrimentally affects a victim’s work environment or leads to adverse job-related
consequences.
Liability refers to being held legally responsible for the right of working people to work in an
environment free from discrimination and harassment. Employees, managers, supervisors,
employers, clients, and owners can all be liable. The purpose of human rights legislation is to remove
discrimination. The legislative emphasis is not on finding fault, but on remedying discrimination,
referred to as a remedial approach. Where discrimination has been found, the attempt is to make the
victim of discrimination whole again. Remedies can include reinstatement, expenses of the
discrimination, and an appropriate amount to compensate for injury to dignity, feeling, and selfrespect.
See the Canadian Human Rights Commission website for guidelines published by the Canadian
Human Rights Commission.
See Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.7, Human Rights and the Internet.
73. Describe some practical guidelines for HR managers to ensure that recruitment and selection practices do
not lead to illegal discrimination.
ANSWER: • In employment offices, post in a conspicuous spot complete, objective, and specific information on
all available jobs.
• Advertise job openings in media that are read, viewed, or listened to by protected or designated
group members.
• Train employment clerical staff and recruitment officers in outreach recruiting.
• Use opportunities to visually present protected or designated group members in positive
employment roles (e.g., in brochures and posters in employment office waiting areas, postings on
company websites, and profiles of board members).
• Establish networks with community groups from which protected or designated group members are
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drawn.
• Set and advertise objectively determined selection criteria.
Practitioners are expected to apply solutions that have solid “scientific” grounding. There is a need
for better linkages between research and practice in human resources.
Important questions for practitioners to ask include the following:
• Do the procedures I am using result in direct or indirect discrimination?
• If a selection procedure I am using results in direct or indirect discrimination, can I establish a
BFOR by showing the following:
• I am adopting a selection procedure in good faith.
• The selection procedure cannot be replaced by one that is valid and has less or little adverse impact.
• The selection procedure is related to job performance or safety.
• All of those people in the class excluded by the selection procedure are incapable of performing the
job or present a sufficient safety risk.
• Individual testing of class members affected by the rule is impossible or impractical.
• There are no other reasonable alternatives to that testing.
• Every attempt has been made to accommodate the unique capabilities and inherent worth and
dignity of every individual, up to the point of undue hardship.
• Is the selection procedure a valid predictor of job performance?
Another responsibility of HR staff is to educate other managers about the legal requirements that
must be met in recruitment and selection.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.5, Practices for Nondiscriminatory Recruiting, and
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 3.6, Practices that Promote Positive Recruiting Perceptions.
74. To what two causes can the success or failure of outreach recruitment be traced? Discuss three important
questions an HR manager needs to ask to ensure that an organization’s hiring process is legally defensible.
ANSWER: The two causes that the success or failure of recruitment can be traced to are the effectiveness or
ineffectiveness of the organization in contacting and communicating with target group members and
the positive or negative perceptions that target group members hold about the organization.
The three questions are the following: Do the hiring procedures I am using result in direct or indirect
discrimination? If they do, can I establish a BFOR? Is the selection procedure a valid predictor of job
performance?
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1. Why is a job analysis important for recruitment and selection?
a. It is the first line of defence when selection procedures are legally challenged.
b. It emphasizes selection skills and responsibilities while de-emphasizing effort and working
conditions.
c. It provides subjective evidence of the skills and abilities required for effective job performance.
d. It establishes the worth of a job and defines it in measurable terms.
ANSWER: a
2. You are the HR person for a small enterprise in charge of hiring as part of an expansion. Which of the
following questions would you ask prior to collecting information in a job analysis?
a. How will the company’s mission, vision, and values affect selection needs?
b. What do you wish your new hires to accomplish?
c. What do people who hold similar jobs think about the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
needed?
d. Will the employees do different things on different days?
ANSWER: a
3. Which concept describes the process of collecting information about jobs by any method for any purpose?
a. organizational analysis
b. job analysis
c. work analysis
d. needs analysis
ANSWER: b
4. What source of data is NOT typically used in a job analysis?
a. employees
b. managers
c. shareholders
d. supervisors
ANSWER: c
5. Which of the following describes effective job analysis?
a. a formal, structured process carried out under a set of guidelines established in advance
b. a single evidence-based methodology
c. breaking down a job into its constituent parts, rather than looking at the job as a whole
d. focusing on jobs rather than positions
ANSWER: a
6. Which of the following would NOT typically be used as data for a job analysis?
a. performance
b. standards
c. responsibilities
d. knowledge
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ANSWER: a
7. What is the definition of job specifications?
a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties
b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee
c. the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes required to perform work
d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work
ANSWER: c
8. A hospital employs a variety of individuals as nurses, doctors, and technicians. How are these groups of
employees classified?
a. by position
b. by role
c. by worker
d. by job
ANSWER: d
9. What is the definition of a job?
a. a collection of positions that are similar in their significant duties
b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee
c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work
d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work
ANSWER: a
10. What is the meaning of job family?
a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties
b. a set of related jobs that rely on the same knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work
d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work
ANSWER: b
11. For HR specialists making selection decisions what is the most important product of the job analysis
process?
a. job descriptions and job design
b. job evaluation and performance measures
c. organizational analysis and performance standards
d. job specifications
ANSWER: d
12. What is NOT a problem associated with job descriptions?
a. They may include duties that are prioritized and weighted.
b. They may be vague or poorly written.
c. They may focus on KSAOs of incumbents.
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d. They may not be updated regularly.
ANSWER: a
13. Which of the following best defines a job position?
a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties
b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee
c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work
d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work
ANSWER: b
14. Which term refers to a written statement about what job occupants are required to do, how they are supposed
to do it, and the rationale for any required job procedures?
a. a job
b. a job description
c. a job specification
d. a job analysis
ANSWER: b
15. What would you include in the job requirements section of job descriptions?
a. a description of the competency framework
b. the responsibilities of and results to be accomplished in the job
c. the specific performance requirements and tasks required to perform the job
d. the KSAOs needed to perform the job
ANSWER: d
16. What does the acronym KSAO mean?
a. knowledge, skills, attributes, and other abilities
b. know-how, skills, abilities, and organizational alignment
c. know-how, skills, attributes, and organizational fit
d. knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
ANSWER: d
17. Why are subject-matter experts needed when conducting a job analysis?
a. They are an inexpensive source of information for an organization.
b. They are the most knowledgeable about a job and how it is currently performed.
c. They add external validity to the organization with external comparisons to jobs.
d. They provide more accurate information than job incumbents and supervisors.
ANSWER: b
18. According to Dierdorff and Wilson, which group of individuals provides more accurate information when
job information is being collected?
a. human resources managers
b. trained professional job analysts
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c. job incumbents using self-report and survey instruments
d. supervisors
ANSWER: b
19. The Ontario Human Rights Commission has stated that “Organizations that have not defined the essential
duties of a position, provided required accommodation and individually assessed ability to perform the essential
duties will have difficulty defending themselves if a human rights complaint is filed.” To which legal principle
does this refer?
a. equal opportunity
b. employment equity for designated groups
c. discrimination on prohibited grounds
d. bona fide occupational requirements
ANSWER: d
20. To be legally defensible, a job analysis process should have all of the following features EXCEPT which
one?
a. rely on a set of formal procedures
b. be documented
c. rely on input from the best subject-matter expert available
d. be completed by a trained job analyst
ANSWER: a
21. Which of the following is the most important criterion for choosing a job analysis method?
a. validity
b. availability
c. standardization
d. credibility
ANSWER: a
22. According to Harvey, which of the following should NOT be considered when choosing a job analysis
method?
a. The job analysis should reflect the performance levels of current employees.
b. The job analysis must accurately reflect historical selection requirements
c. The job analysis must describe observable work behaviours.
d. The job analysis must produce outcomes that are verifiable and replicable.
ANSWER: b
23. Which of the following is NOT typically characterized as job context?
a. education
b. work schedules
c. organizational culture
d. non-financial incentives
ANSWER: a
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24. What source compiled by the Canadian government contains systematically standardized and comprehensive
job descriptions in the labour market?
a. National Occupational Classification (NOC)
b. Occupational Information Network (O*NET)
c. Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT)
d. Canadian Classification Dictionary of Occupations (CCDO)
ANSWER: a
25. Which of the following best defines work-oriented analysis?
a. the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that are needed by a job incumbent to do the work
b. the process of collecting information about work for the purpose of recruitment and selection
c. the systematic process for gathering, documenting, and analyzing data about the work required for a
job
d. a review of the work of all similar positions
ANSWER: c
26. What job analysis technique emphasizes the characteristics of successful performers rather than standard
duties?
a. dynamic job analysis
b. worker-based analysis
c. team-based analysis
d. work-oriented analysis
ANSWER: b
27. What job analysis technique emphasizes general aspects of the jobs, and describes perceptual, interpersonal,
sensory, cognitive, and physical activities?
a. work-oriented analysis
b. self-monitoring analysis
c. structured analysis
d. worker-oriented analysis
ANSWER: d
28. What job analysis technique would you use in a traditional organization where employees’ tasks are routine?
a. self-oriented analysis
b. work-oriented analysis
c. worker-oriented analysis
d. group-oriented analysis
ANSWER: b
29. Which of the following types of job analysis surveys breaks down jobs into their component tasks?
a. task specifications
b. task inventories
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c. task variety
d. task statements
ANSWER: b
30. Which of the following is the best job analysis method?
a. job evaluation
b. behaviour anchored rating systems
c. worker traits inventories
d. content validation
ANSWER: c
31. Which of the following is NOT a suggested guideline for a job analysis interview?
a. Conduct interviews in a private location.
b. Guide the session without being authoritative or overbearing.
c. Ask open-ended questions, using relevant language to the interviewee.
d. Seek a directive from top management to make interviews mandatory for all employees.
ANSWER: d
32. What job analysis method utilizes work sampling and employee diaries or logs?
a. interview
b. questionnaire
c. direct observation
d. combination
ANSWER: c
33. What is the structured job analysis questionnaire that focuses on the general worker behaviours that make up
a job, and includes 195 items and job elements organized into six dimensions?
a. Common-Metric Questionnaire
b. Work Profiling System
c. Position Analysis Questionnaire
d. Functional Job Analysis
ANSWER: c
34. What type of interview method is recommended for job analysis purposes?
a. behavioural
b. situational
c. structured
d. unstructured
ANSWER: c
35. What job analysis technique is worker-oriented?
a. Position Analysis Questionnaire
b. Critical Incident Technique
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c. Functional Job Analysis
d. Task Inventory
ANSWER: a
36. What is the objective of the critical incident method of job analysis?
a. to prioritize job duties and responsibilities
b. to generate behaviour-focused descriptions of work activities
c. to identify critical job duties, tasks, and competencies
d. to provide information for job evaluation
ANSWER: b
37. Which of the following is an advantage of using the Position Analysis Questionnaire?
a. Results can be compared to the PAQ database.
b. It is mostly suited to managerial jobs.
c. It does not require an experienced analyst.
d. It is written in easily understood language.
ANSWER: a
38. Which of the following is a drawback of the Critical Incident Method?
a. Work is described in the worker’s own words.
b. It has low validity and reliability.
c. It relies on memory of recent events.
d. It does not focus on behaviours.
ANSWER: c
39. What job analysis method is adopted by organizations that operate in a rapidly changing environment in
which jobs change regularly?
a. dynamic job analysis
b. competency-based analysis
c. team-based analysis
d. work-oriented analysis
ANSWER: b
40. What term defines groups of related behaviours that are needed for successful job performance in an
organization?
a. traits inventories
b. job elements
c. competencies
d. specializations
ANSWER: c
41. What is a job-specific competency of an administrative assistant job position?
a. time management
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b. data entry
c. written communication
d. self-image
ANSWER: b
42. What is a core competency of a technical support job position?
a. oral and written communications
b. knowledge of customer service
c. information gathering
d. applying principles and procedures
ANSWER: a
43. Which of the following competencies is every member of an organization expected to possess?
a. core competencies
b. functional competencies
c. job-specific competencies
d. knowledge-based competencies
ANSWER: a
44. In competency dictionaries, what do proficiency scales describe?
a. expected behaviours for core employees
b. expected behaviours at specific levels of competency
c. competency profiles for top performers
d. job specific and functional KSAOs
ANSWER: c
45. What elements are included in a competency profile?
a. job duties and responsibilities
b. core competencies and job specifications
c. job-specific core competencies
d. core, functional, and job-specific competencies
ANSWER: d
46. What might be a concern if an organization decides to use a competency-based job analysis?
a. that characteristics and behaviours of successful performers cannot be defined
b. that the unprecedented change in today’s workplace requires clear measurable job descriptions
c. the difficulty in predicting future job needs and the lack of validity and legal defensibility
d. the expectation that all employees should possess core competencies that relate to the organization’s
goals
ANSWER: c
47. In their research, what organization did Bonder and his colleagues study regarding the development of a
competency-based framework?
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a. Air Canada
b. Service Canada
c. Canada Post
d. Canadian Pacific
ANSWER: b
Scenario 4-1
You have recently been hired as the HRM for Scribe Engineering, a Canadian software development company.
Scribe’s product is information systems. The company’s environment is competitive and constantly changing.
There continues to be an increased demand for customized computer systems that improve the flow of
information in a wide range of small Canadian businesses. Due to Scribe’s growth in sales, the company is
anticipating the need for an increase from 150 to 200 employees. The company requires highly skilled software
designers, computer programmers, sales professionals, and support staff. The majority of employees, from
younger technical support staff to senior management, stated that work–life balance is important to them and
that they want more flexibility in how and when their work gets done. Job demands are changing constantly
because of the dynamic environment. There are concerns of sex, age, and family status discrimination with the
office administration employees. The CEO has stated that Scribe has a few outdated job advertisements, but that
the company never had time to write job descriptions. Managers have expressed concerns that job descriptions
are of limited value because positions need to adapt to the high speed of change and that they limit their
flexibility in supervising employees’ tasks.
48. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What major strategic focus in employee selection could distinguish Scribe
Engineering as a high-performing organization rather than an underperformer?
a. a linkage between organizational goals and short-term organizational needs
b. a linkage between organizational goals and long-term organizational needs
c. a linkage between organizational and human resource planning needs
d. a linkage between long-term organizational and human resource goals
ANSWER: a
49. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What are the expected changes in Scribe Engineering’s external environment that
may affect the company’s recruitment and selection process?
a. organizational mission and goals
b. job design
c. organizational strategy
d. competition
ANSWER: d
50. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What internal influences are affecting the jobs and human resources at Scribe
Engineering?
a. the labour market
b. customers
c. the competition
d. job design
ANSWER: d
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51. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Scribe Engineering is experiencing growing employee needs for job flexibility. What
are some flexible work options that Scribe Engineering could consider to retain its employees?
a. job sharing and telework
b. ergonomically designed work stations
c. elimination of routine jobs
d. competency-based jobs
ANSWER: a
52. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How would you distinguish a job analysis from a job description for the managers at
Scribe Engineering?
a. A job analysis is the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that are needed by a job
incumbent to do well on a job.
b. A job analysis is the process of collecting information about jobs for the purpose of recruitment and
selection.
c. A job analysis is a systematic process for gathering, documenting, and analyzing data about the work
required for a job.
d. A job analysis is a review of the whole job, not the constituent parts.
ANSWER: c
53. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Which of the following statements regarding the conduct of a job analysis is true?
a. A job analysis is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of guidelines established in
advance.
b. A job analysis is carried out by subject-matter experts.
c. A job analysis focuses on jobs, not positions.
d. A job analysis is most effective when it focuses on competencies.
ANSWER: b
54. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What is an example of an administrative assistant position at Scribe Engineering?
a. the administrative assistant to the CEO of Scribe Engineering
b. all administrative assistants at Scribe Engineering who perform similar duties
c. a set of different but related administrative jobs that require the same knowledge, skills, abilities, or
other attributes or competencies
d. the work that is done by administrative assistants
ANSWER: a
55. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Since job analysis data has the potential for many uses, it is important for Scribe
Engineering to know how the company will use the information before deciding on an approach or method.
What would be some recruitment and selection outcomes of Scribe Engineering’s job analysis process?
a. a job summary and job description
b. a job description and job specification
c. a job evaluation and performance criteria
d. a job design and evaluation
ANSWER: b
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56. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What process can you use to ensure the job analysis is anchored into the context of
Scribe Engineering’s organizational mission and goals?
a. person analysis
b. needs analysis
c. organizational analysis
d. task analysis
ANSWER: c
57. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What would NOT be potential outcomes of Scribe Engineering’s job analysis
process?
a. job descriptions and job design
b. job evaluation and performance measures
c. new competitive marketing strategy
d. person–job fit and person–organization fit
ANSWER: c
58. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The administrative assistant job description includes “the ability to use Excel and
Word level II with a proficiency of 90%.” What is this an example of?
a. main duties
b. a job specification
c. a job responsibility
d. a performance standard
ANSWER: b
59. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What would be the benefit of using a trained job analyst to carry out the job analysis
at Scribe Engineering?
a. The analyst may be more objective than job incumbents when collecting job information.
b. Job analysts understand how jobs should be designed.
c. This would eliminate the expense of using subject-matter experts.
d. Employees will be more likely to trust the results of the analysis.
ANSWER: b
60. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How might you begin to deal with human rights issues of sex, family, and age
discrimination with the office administration employees at Scribe Engineering?
a. File a complaint immediately with the Human Rights Tribunal or Commission.
b. Conduct a job analysis as a legally acceptable way of determining job-relatedness.
c. Ensure management practices do not have a negative effect on employees.
d. Modify any discriminatory employment practices.
ANSWER: b
61. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Why would it be important for Scribe Engineering to conduct a job analysis?
a. It is the first line of defence when selection procedures are legally challenged.
b. It emphasizes selection skills and responsibilities, and de-emphasizes effort and working conditions.
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c. It provides subjective and objective evidence of the skills and abilities required for effective job
performance.
d. It establishes the worth of a job and defines it in measurable terms.
ANSWER: a
62. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The managers at Scribe Engineering cannot clearly distinguish between a position and
a job. Which of the following best defines a job?
a. a collection of positions with related job activities and duties
b. the different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee
c. the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform work
d. the tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with work
ANSWER: a
63. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What job analysis technique should you utilize at Scribe Engineering?
a. self-oriented
b. work-oriented
c. worker-oriented
d. group-oriented
ANSWER: c
64. Refer to Scenario 4-1. What data would NOT need to be considered in the job analysis?
a. job performance standards
b. job responsibilities and tasks
c. job predictor criteria and data
d. job conditions and mental effort
ANSWER: c
65. Refer to Scenario 4-1. How might you approach managers at Scribe Engineering who are not receptive to a
job analysis process?
a. Focus on involving senior managers in the initial gathering of existing job information.
b. Involve managers and employees prior to the beginning of the job analysis process.
c. Ensure that the completion of questionnaires is mandatory.
d. Include all the hesitant managers in job analysis focus groups.
ANSWER: b
66. Refer to Scenario 4-1. In this situation, what is the most important consideration before you begin the job
analysis?
a. identifying objectives and ensuring management support and employee buy-in
b. deciding on a job analysis method
c. gathering existing job-related data
d. communicating and explaining the job-analysis process to all employees
ANSWER: a
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67. Refer to Scenario 4-1. Which of the following will help Scribe Engineering decide to use a competency
framework if it needs to ensure that the assessed competency is a skill or ability associated with a high level?
a. salary
b. job performance
c. communication
d. job analysis
ANSWER: b
68. Refer to Scenario 4-1. The technical support job description includes the following: “Ability and willingness
to follow policies and procedures.” What is this an example of?
a. a job summary
b. a competency
c. a job specification
d. a job responsibility
ANSWER: b
69. Recruitment and selection should be examined only in the context of the job and not in the context of the
organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
70. Job analysis data includes a description of the job and profiles the competencies people need to have in order
to perform well on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
71. Job analysis involves a single methodology to analyze jobs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
72. Job analysis breaks down a job into its constituent parts, rather than looking at the job as a whole.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
73. The job description indicates job duties and organizational-level requirements.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
74. The first step in job analysis is to interview job incumbents.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: False
75. Work analysis involves techniques that emphasize work outcomes and descriptions of the various tasks
performed to accomplish these outcomes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
76. The interview is the least commonly used technique for gathering job facts and establishing the tasks and
behaviours that define a job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
77. Leadership, motivation, trust, communication, and interpersonal skills are examples of competencies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
78. Competency-based selection systems take the view that employees must be capable of moving between jobs
and carrying out the associated tasks for different positions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
79. Job analysis and competency management frameworks are the means by which job and person variables are
identified for the purpose of recruitment and selection.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
80. Core competencies are the characteristics that every member of an organization, regardless of position,
function, job, or level of responsibility within the organization, is expected to possess.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
81. A best practice in competency modelling for analyzing competency information might include considering
previous job requirements.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
82. Recent research shows that traditional job methods and competency-based methods of job analysis models
are equally rigorous and reliable.
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a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
83. “What would you do if a patient had an emergency medical problem you were not qualified to deal with and
no physicians could be contacted?” This is an example of a behavioural question that could be used in an
interview for an LPN.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
84. What is a job analysis? What data is included in a job analysis? What are three key considerations in job
analysis?
ANSWER: Job analysis refers to the process of collecting information about jobs “by any method or purpose.”
Job analysis is a systematic process for gathering, documenting, and analyzing data about the work
required for a job. Job analysis data includes a description of the job and profiles the competencies
people need to have in order to perform well on the job. They include the following:
• job identification and context
• job responsibilities and tasks
• KSAOs
• working conditions
• physical and mental effort
• performance standards
Three key points about job analysis are that
• it does not refer to a single methodology but rather a range of techniques;
• it is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of guidelines established in advance; and
• it breaks down a job into its constituent parts, rather than looking at the job as a whole.
85. What is the difference between a job, position, and job family? Give examples of each.
ANSWER: A job is a collection of positions that are similar in their significant duties (e.g., professor, nurse,
electrician). A position is a collection of duties assigned to individuals in an organization at a given
time (e.g., administrative assistant to the director of physical resources and administrative assistant to
the director of human resources). A job family is a term that refers to a set of different, but related,
jobs that rely on the same set of KSAOs.
86. What is the difference between a job description and a job specification? What are KSAOs?
ANSWER: A job description is a written description of what job occupants are required to do, how they are
supposed to do it, and the rationale for any required job procedures. A job specification includes the
knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that are needed by a job incumbent to do well on the
job.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 4.1, Job Description for a Licensed Practical Nurse at an
Assisted Living Facility and Recruitment and Selection Today 4.2, NOC Description for Licenced
Practical Nurse (Code 3233).
KSAOs are the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes necessary for a new incumbent to do
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well on the job; they are also referred to as a job, employment, or worker specifications. KSAOs are
used to describe the job.
• Knowledge: a body of information, usually of a factual or procedural nature, that makes for
successful performance of a task
• Skill: an individual’s level of proficiency or competency in performing a specific task, expressed in
numerical terms
• Ability: a more general, enduring trait or capability an individual possesses at the time he or she first
begins to perform a task
• Other attributes: include personality traits and other individual characteristics that are integral to
job performance
Refer to Table 4.1, Task Statement and Associated KSAOs with Rating Scales.
87. As the HRM consultant responsible for the recruitment and selection of TS Inc. aviation employees, what
suggestions would you make to the CEO to ensure that the following job description adequately reflects the
responsibilities and KSAOs that the aircraft maintenance engineer will need to perform his or her job well?
What specific changes should be made to ensure the job description is measurable, valid, reliable, and legally
defensible?
AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER,
TS Inc., Sydney, B.C.
TS Inc. is a young, growing aviation company headquartered in Sydney, BC. We are looking for an aircraft
maintenance engineer to become part of our team. The applicant must be licensed by Transport Canada to
inspect and certify that work done on our aircrafts complies with written airworthiness standards. You must be
at least 21 years of age and provide proof of Canadian citizenship. You must be able to work and communicate
effectively in a small business team environment and maintain effective interpersonal working relationships
with engineers, pilots, and other technical and professional employees and clients
ANSWER: Job Identity Section
Ensure that the information is correct in the identification of position title, position code, department,
division, location, reporting relationship, status (exempt or non-exempt), wage category, job
category, NOC classification, and any other identifiers used. Include the name of the job analyst and
the date analyzed. Ensure that the title or status of job does not contradict the Position Summary or
Responsibilities sections (i.e., clearly indicates the job duties and organizational level).
Position Summary
Be careful not to record a list of duties, but rather give a concise summary of “what the job is, how it
is done, and why.” The position summary should be only a few sentences (e.g., three to four lines)
describing the primary purpose of the job, its organizational context, and/or key challenges it will
face as a result of growth or some other aspect of the organization context. This summary can be
used in advertisements, internal postings, and company brochures.
Organization
This portion describes the superior and subordinate reporting relationships of the position. Formal
(upward, downward, and lateral) communication channels should be complete and agree with the
organizational chart. Ensure that line, staff, or functional relationships are clear and included (i.e.,
title and their function). Titles of peers who also report to the same superior can be included. This
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section can also mention any contacts required with other departments, and the nature and extent of
the contacts. Frequently used external and internal channels of communication with stakeholders
should be included. Committee memberships should be listed with a description of the committee
purpose or role expected. Authority should be defined using concise language, with numbers and
examples about the level of decision making.
Key Accountabilities and Responsibilities
This section should list and describe the five to nine major deliverables (essential duties and
functions) for which the position is accountable. Focus on results, not activity. The expected results
need to be action-oriented, that is, begin with an action verb; be concise, direct, and simply worded
(i.e., not be vague); and finish with what must be achieved. Specific responsibilities should be
arranged in descending order of importance. These tasks should be arranged into meaningful
categories to make the job description easier to read and understand. The category labels are
convenient to use in the summary. Describe any challenges such as the complexity of the service or
product provided and/or the largest problems and challenges faced by the position.
Initial Objectives
This section may not apply for all positions, but for many, particularly at senior levels, it outlines the
focus of the position during the initial few months or first year. Objectives will need to be updated
regularly but can be useful in conveying the essence of a position to a candidate. Also, if carefully
prepared, they form the basis for initial performance planning with the successful incumbent.
Job Specifications and Requirements
Describe the knowledge, skills, abilities (education and experience), and other (KSAOs)
characteristics (such as interest, personality, training) that are necessary to be successful on the job.
Clearly describe the competencies and expertise that the incumbent must demonstrate in performing
the position to the company standards. This section can be divided into two sections. The first
contains KSAOs that an employee must have at the time of hiring (e.g., licences, certifications). The
second subsection contains the KSAOs that are an important part of the job but can be obtained after
hiring. Include physical conditions such as lifting, carrying, kneeling, pushing, and pulling as well as
environmental conditions that increase the risk of accident or health problems (e.g., temperature
extremes, dust, fumes, and hazardous materials). Include mental conditions that cause anxiety, stress,
or other types of mental discomfort (e.g., isolation, continual disruption, repetition, and pressure of
deadlines). Document business travel required by the job, and indicate the extent of this travel. List
hours of work that are not the standard 40-hour week, eight-hour day (e.g., shorter work weeks such
as 10-hour days, four workdays, flex time, job sharing, part-time, telecommuting, contract, or other
work shifts).
Standards of Performance
Describe expected results of the job: what is expected to be accomplished, and how much, how fast,
and to what level.
Approvals
Details of the position description need to be negotiated with the supervisor or manager and updated
annually or more frequently if required.
88. TS Ltd. has 30 employees. As the HRM, would you suggest that the company conduct a job analysis? What
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questions could you ask in gathering job information that would help TS Ltd. write a job description and job
specifications for its aircraft maintenance engineers?
ANSWER: You would want to suggest using provincial and federal job profiles and Canadian occupational data
banks, such as the NOC and legal statutes and certifications governing aircraft maintenance
engineers.
Some questions you could ask include the following:
• What identifies your position within the organization (e.g., title, position code, department,
location, reporting relationship, status, wage)?
• What is the purpose of your position (i.e., why does your job exist)?
• What are your most important responsibilities and specific tasks for your position (priority and
weight)?
• What are your working conditions (e.g., safety, location)?
• What mental and physical effort is required (frequency, duration)?
• What KSAOs are required to perform well on the job?
• What are your performance standards?
89. Job analysis can be categorized into work-oriented job analysis or worker-oriented job analysis, depending
on the nature of the jobs and how the work is changing. Describe both methods and give an example of when an
organization may choose that method.
ANSWER: Worker-oriented job analyses are job analysis techniques that emphasize general aspects of jobs by
describing perceptual, interpersonal, sensory, cognitive, and physical activities. In some hightechnology industries, employees work in cross-functional team projects and shift projects regularly.
This type of environment with rapidly changing work would want to focus more on employees’
KSAOs needed to perform well on their job, rather than on specific job tasks. You would want to
recruit and select employees on their competencies.
Work-oriented job analysis is a job analysis technique that emphasizes work outcomes and
descriptions of the various tasks performed to accomplish those outcomes. A work environment that
is stable, and has jobs that are repetitive and a limited number of tasks would want to focus more on
the task each worker performs.
90. Describe a job analysis technique (data collection method) you would use for a particular organization and
job position of your choice. Summarize what the method would involve. Discuss its advantages and how you
would deal with the disadvantages of the technique.
ANSWER: Interviews are the most commonly used technique for gathering job facts and establishing the tasks
and behaviours that define a job.
• It is most effective to question individuals or small groups of employees and supervisors about the
work that gets done.
• A structured format is recommended for inter-observer reliability, but interviews can be
unstructured.
• All interviewees are asked the same job-related questions.
• Interviews should be well planned and carefully conducted.
• The job analyst should record the incumbent’s and supervisor’s responses by taking notes or by
taping the interview.
• Interviews should elicit information about job tasks, physical activities involved in the job, and
environmental conditions (physical and social) under which the work occurs.
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• Disadvantages of interviews are that they are expensive and time consuming, and can distort
information.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 4.1, Guidelines for a Job Analysis Interview.
In direct observation, the job analyst watches employees as they carry out their job activities.
Another term for this is job shadowing. This method allows the analyst to come into direct contact
with the job; the data are firsthand.
• It is most useful when the job analysis involves easily observable activities (e.g., landscaper as
opposed to poet).
• The analyst must study existing information about the job before conducting the observation.
• The analyst must determine if the job involves easily observable activities and if the observation
can be done unobtrusively.
• Observations are recorded using a customized checklist or worksheet.
• Different jobs require different observation methods.
• Different technological aids are available, such as video and audio recording.
• Some disadvantages include the presence of an observer, which may change the employee’s
behaviour.
Self-monitoring is less time consuming and less expensive, and can provide information that is not
observable. A disadvantage is that the employee may not be a reliable observer.
After the interview, observational or self-monitoring data are collected, and the analyst uses the
resulting notes and tally sheets to identify critical task statements, which are used to generate
employee specifications. Critical components of the job are described in terms of the actions
performed; the person, data, or things affected by the actions; the intended outcome or product of the
action; and the materials, tools, and procedures used to perform the action. KSAOs and tasks are
rated according to importance, difficulty, and frequency.
KSAOs are used to describe the job:
Knowledge: a body of information, usually of a factual or procedural nature, that makes for
successful performance of a task
Skill: an individual’s level of proficiency or competency in performing a specific task, typically
expressed in numerical terms
Ability: a more general, enduring trait or capability an individual possesses at the time he or she first
begins to perform a task
Other attributes: personality traits and other individual characteristics that are integral to job
performance
Refer to Table 4.1, Task Statement and Associated KSAOs with Rating Scales and Table 4.2, Task
Statement by KSAO Matrix.
91. Describe one job analysis method.
ANSWER: Structured job analysis questionnaires and inventories (worker-oriented) require workers and other
subject-matter experts to respond to written questions about their jobs. Respondents are asked to
make judgments about activities, tasks, tools, and equipment, and working conditions involved in the
job. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured job analysis questionnaire that
focuses on the general behaviours that make up a job. It assumes that all jobs can be characterized in
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terms of a limited number of human abilities. The PAQ includes 195 items, called job elements. The
first 187 describe general work activities, and the remaining items relate to compensation. The job
elements are organized into six dimensions: information input, mental processes statements, work
output, relationships, job context, and other job characteristics. The Common Metric Questionnaire
(CMQ) is an alternative to the PAQ developed by Harvey. It is a structured, off-the-shelf job analysis
questionnaire that captures important context variables. It promises up-to-date job analysis
information corresponding to what people actually do at work and a database describing jobs in terms
of observable aspects of the work rather than subjective rating systems. Task inventories are workoriented surveys that break down jobs into their component tasks. They permit workers to define
their jobs in relation to a subset of tasks appearing in the inventory. The criteria the job analysis
should assess are the duties performed, level of difficulty of job duties, job context, and criticality of
duties to the job. The functional job analysis distinguishes between what a worker does and what is
accomplished. This defines task statements as verbal formulations of activities that make it possible
to describe what workers do and what gets done so that recruitment, selection, and payment can be
efficiently and equitably carried out. Well-written task statements clearly describe what an employee
does so that an individual unfamiliar with the job should be able to read and understand each
statement. Task statements contain four elements: a verb describing the action being performed; an
object of the verb that describes to whom the action is being done; a description of tools, equipment,
work aids, and processes required for the successful completion of the task; and an expected output
describing the result of the action. The critical incident technique comprises examples of effective
and ineffective work behaviours that are related to superior or inferior performance. This technique
generates behaviourally focused descriptions of work activities, originally developed as a training
needs assessment and performance appraisal tool.
Worker trait inventory methods are used to infer employee specifications from job analysis data; they
are commonly included in the job analysis literature. The Threshold Traits Analysis System is
designed to identify worker traits that are relevant to the target job. It assumes that work behaviours
encompass the position functions, the worker traits, and the resulting job performance. A trait is a set
of observable characteristics that distinguishes one person from another (e.g., stamina, oral
expression, adaptability to pressure, tolerance). The Fleishman Job Analysis Survey (F-JAS) is
developed as a system for identifying employee characteristics that influence job performance. It
assumes that job tasks differ with respect to the abilities required to perform them successfully. All
jobs can be classified according to ability requirements (e.g., multi-limb coordination, night vision).
The job element method attempts to distinguish between superior and inferior workers on the basis of
job-related abilities. Elements describe the range of employee specifications in terms of KSAOs.
92. The evolution toward rapidly changing jobs and organizations that demand flexibility of their workers has
led some HR practitioners to search for alternatives to traditional job analysis techniques. What factors are
impinging on traditional job analysis? What are competencies? List three important elements of competencies.
What role do competencies have in recruitment and selection?
ANSWER: Many factors impinge on traditional job analysis:
• unprecedented change in today’s workplace
• global competition
• rapid advances in information technology
• multitasking
• changing work force demographics
• routine jobs that are increasingly being done by machines
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• greater emphasis on the management of technology
• requirement for workers to apply a wider range of skills to an ever-changing series of tasks
• individuals facing three or four career changes in a lifetime
One approach that HR practitioners are using in a rapidly changing environment is selecting
employees through work-related competencies related to successful job performance. Competencybased selection systems take the view that employees must be capable of moving between jobs and
carrying out the associated tasks for different positions. KSAOs that distinguish superior performers
from others are identified. Competencies are groups of related behaviours that are needed for
successful performance in an organization. They include three elements: competencies are the
KSAOs that underlie effective or successful job performance; KSAOs must be observable or
measurable; and KSAOs must distinguish between superior and other performers.
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1. Which of the following best defines performance management?
a. a means to transform companies into results-oriented organizations
b. measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with
respect to job-related behaviours
c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
ANSWER: c
2. Which measures of job performance attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect
to job-related behaviours?
a. attributes
b. behaviour
c. criteria
d. performance indicators
ANSWER: c
3. Which of the following defines the concept that is described as activities or behaviours that are not part of a
worker’s formal job description but that remain important for organizational effectiveness?
a. task performance
b. job performance
c. contextual performance
d. dimensional performance
ANSWER: c
4. Which of the following best defines job criteria?
a. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
b. measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with
respect to job-related behaviours
c. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
d. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences
among employees
ANSWER: b
5. Which of the following is an example of contextual behaviour?
a. extra effort
b. leadership
c. supervision
d. personal discipline
ANSWER: a
6. Which of the following is job task behaviour for a retail worker?
a. explaining product benefits
b. learning new technologies
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c. helping new workers
d. handling work stress
ANSWER: a
7. Which performance behaviour is similar to contextual performance behaviour?
a. organizational citizenship
b. job-specific task proficiency
c. adaptive behaviour
d. organizational culture
ANSWER: c
8. According to a research study investigating the use of personal Facebook pages to predict job performance,
what advice should HR managers give to hiring managers concerning the use of Facebook posts by applicants
to predict which candidates will be successful?
a. It’s a valuable tool.
b. It’s valuable for certain jobs.
c. It’s of no value.
d. It should be used only by trained HR staff.
ANSWER: c
9. Which of the following best defines job performance?
a. the observable things employees do that are relevant to accomplishing the goals of the organization
b. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences
among employees
c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
ANSWER: a
10. Which of the following is a job task behaviour for an airplane pilot?
a. promoting safety procedures
b. navigation
c. mentoring junior pilots
d. self-discipline
ANSWER: b
11. As the HRM, you are responsible for defining sets of related behaviours that are derived from organizational
goals and linked to successful job performance. What are these behaviours called?
a. performance domains
b. performance criteria
c. performance dimensions
d. performance indicators
ANSWER: c
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12. In Campbell’s theory of work performance, what concept refers to the degree to which individuals are
committed to performing all job tasks, to working at a high level of intensity, and to working under adverse
conditions?
a. maintaining personal discipline
b. supervision/leadership
c. demonstrating effort
d. job-specific proficiency
ANSWER: c
13. Which concept refers to voluntary behaviours that violate significant organizational norms and in so doing
threaten the well-being of an organization, its members, or both?
a. contextual performance
b. lack of personal discipline
c. task behaviours
d. counterproductive work behaviours
ANSWER: d
14. Which of the following is NOT an objective measure of job performance?
a. cost of accidents
b. length of time in job
c. number of spelling mistakes
d. earnings per share
ANSWER: d
15. Which of the following is NOT a common type of counterproductive work behaviour?
a. bullying
b. workaholism
c. presenteeism
d. tardiness
ANSWER: b
16. Which method allows the rater to compare the overall performance of each worker with that of every other
worker being evaluated?
a. paired comparison
b. forced distribution
c. rank order
d. relative percentile method
ANSWER: a
17. Psychological withdrawal occurs when employees withhold effort and do not perform to their fullest
capabilities. Which of the following is a form of psychological withdrawal?
a. presenteeism
b. employee theft
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c. bullying
d. workplace violence
ANSWER: c
18. Which of the following actions is NOT part of the new protections from violence and harassment that
employers in Ontario need to provide for workers?
a. allowing workers to remove themselves from harmful situations if they have reason to believe that
they are at risk of imminent danger due to workplace violence
b. assessing the risks of workplace violence and taking reasonable precautions to protect workers from
possible domestic violence in the workplace
c. providing an employee assistance program to ensure workers have access to psychological resources
immediately following a violent or harassing incident
d. developing workplace violence and harassment prevention policies and programs and communicating
about these to workers
ANSWER: c
19. Which of the following concepts is known as the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by, or
measures, behaviours or competencies that are NOT part of job performance?
a. criterion relevance
b. criterion contamination
c. criterion deficiency
d. unmeasured competencies
ANSWER: b
20. Which concept is defined as the degree to which the criterion measures or captures behaviours or
competencies that constitute job performance?
a. criterion contamination
b. criterion deficiency
c. criterion relevance
d. criterion reliability
ANSWER: c
21. Into which subcategories would you break job performance behaviours?
a. competency, adaptive, contextual, and job-specific behaviours
b. adaptive, task, contextual, and productive behaviours
c. task, contextual, adaptive, and counterproductive behaviours
d. strategic job-specific, contextual, and organizational behaviours
ANSWER: c
22. With respect to criterion measures, what is one disadvantage of practicality?
a. The measures are applicable only if the criterion measure is available.
b. The measures are influenced by the supervisor’s bias.
c. The measures do not meet the standards of reliability and validity.
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d. The measures are not consistently applied, given changes in personnel.
ANSWER: c
23. Which of the following researchers recognized that an ultimate criterion would rarely, if ever, be found in
practice?
a. Griggs
b. Mears
c. Smith
d. Thorndike
ANSWER: d
24. Which of the following is an absolute rating system?
a. forced distribution
b. relative percentile method
c. graphic rating scale
d. paired comparisons
ANSWER: c
Scenario 5-1
You have just been hired as the recruitment and selection specialist for BCH, a health-care organization that
oversees many diverse health services in British Columbia. You were offered the position due to your
knowledge of legislation, experience in oral presentations and report writing, ability to effectively schedule
complex projects, and self-discipline. The hiring manager stated that oral presentations and report writing were
given the most weight in the hiring decision. He also mentioned that the importance of this job dimension
influenced the raters’ ratings over the other job dimensions.
25. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What counterproductive performance dimension did BCH consider when hiring you?
a. communication proficiency
b. maintaining self-discipline
c. demonstrating effort
d. knowledge of legislation
ANSWER: a
26. Refer to Scenario 5-1. Which of the following is NOT considered a counterproductive work behaviour?
a. lying
b. theft
c. sabotage
d. exclusion
ANSWER: d
27. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What was BCH’s most important performance dimension in this hiring decision?
a. management/administration
b. maintaining self-discipline
c. communication proficiency
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d. knowledge of legislation
ANSWER: c
28. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What contextual performance behaviour did BCH hire you for?
a. management/administration
b. maintaining self-discipline
c. communication proficiency
d. knowledge of legislation
ANSWER: c
29. Refer to Scenario 5-1. What task performance behaviour did BCH hire you for?
a. communication proficiency
b. maintaining self-discipline
c. demonstrating effort
d. knowledge of legislation
ANSWER: d
Scenario 5-2
The CEO of KM Contracting, a medium-sized Canadian construction company, has decided to develop a
performance management system so that the company can measure employee performance. As the HRM, you
believe that a lack of clear job standards has led to the selection of inappropriate candidates. Managers have
stated that performance appraisals are usually conducted only when inappropriate and unsafe workplace
behaviours have occurred. The three major performance dimensions of all the jobs are technical construction
proficiency, demonstrating effort, and maintaining self-discipline.
30. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the distinction between
performance management and performance measurement. Which of the following best defines performance
measurement?
a. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences
among employees
b. measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with
respect to job-related behaviours
c. organizational processes used to improve employee performance in the workplace
d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
ANSWER: a
31. Refer to Scenario 5-2. As the HRM, you have clarified that the outcome of KM Contracting’s performance
appraisals must be more than corrective discipline. What is the outcome of an effective performance appraisal
system?
a. achievement of organizational goals due to increased employee satisfaction and performance
b. improvement in organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
c. reinforcement of organizational core values in addition to identifying performance differences among
employees
d. identification of employees who need development as well as progressive discipline
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ANSWER: c
32. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the distinction between job
performance and job criteria. Which of the following best defines job performance?
a. the observable things employees do that are relevant to accomplishing the goals of the organization
b. a means to reinforce an organization’s core values in addition to identifying performance differences
among employees
c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
ANSWER: a
33. Refer to Scenario 5-2. The managers at KM Contracting are not clear on the distinction between
performance management and performance appraisals. Which of the following best defines performance
management?
a. a means to transform companies into results-oriented organizations
b. measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with
respect to job-related behaviours
c. organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
d. organizational processes that evaluate employee job performance
ANSWER: c
34. Refer to Scenario 5-2. Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of job performance?
a. task performance
b. contextual performance
c. counterproductive performance
d. interpersonal job performance
ANSWER: d
35. Refer to Scenario 5-2. Which contextual performance behaviours have been observed at KM Contracting?
a. maintaining personal discipline
b. demonstrating effort
c. technical construction proficiency
d. engaging in unsafe work practices
ANSWER: b
36. Refer to Scenario 5-2. As the HRM, you are responsible for defining sets of related behaviours that are
derived from KM Contracting’s goals and linked to successful job performance. What are these behaviours
called?
a. performance domains
b. performance criteria
c. performance dimensions
d. performance indicators
ANSWER: c
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Scenario 5-3
You have been hired as the recruitment and selection specialist for BCH, a health-care organization that
oversees many diverse health services in British Columbia. The BCH community extended-care facilities have
developed a performance appraisal system whereby managers evaluate all employees on their initiative and
attitude toward helping patients. The hospitals use a different performance appraisal system that includes
phrases such as “responds to patient medical needs within 2 minutes” and “failed to interpret the medical needs
of the patient.” Some of the senior management obtain performance feedback from their superiors, peers,
subordinates, and clients as well as complete their own self-ratings for professional development.
37. Refer to Scenario 5-3. In the health-care industry, performance extends beyond knowledge, skills, and
abilities and requires performance that supports the organizational, social, and psychological environment in
which the job is performed. What are these activities or behaviours called?
a. job-specific task performance
b. contextual performance
c. accepting diversity
d. interpreting cultural differences
ANSWER: b
38. Refer to Scenario 5-3. What kind of performance behaviour occurs when a nurse shows enthusiasm and
extra effort to help a patient?
a. task
b. contextual
c. organizational
d. adaptive
ANSWER: b
39. Refer to Scenario 5-3. What performance appraisal method are the hospitals using?
a. graphic rating scale
b. results method
c. behavioural anchored rating scale
d. ranking system
ANSWER: c
40. According to the textbook, which of the following would NOT be a job-specific task proficiency to evaluate
a security dispatcher?
a. persisting with extra effort
b. properly secures lost and found articles
c. activates appropriate emergency response teams as needed
d. ensures confidentiality and security of information
ANSWER: a
41. Which of the following is the concept that refers to the ratings or rankings made by supervisors, peers, or
others that are used in assessing individual job performance?
a. subjective performance measures
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b. management by objectives
c. graphic rating scale
d. behaviourally anchored rating scales
ANSWER: a
42. Job performance domain refers to the set of related behaviours that are derived from an organization’s goals
and linked to successful job performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
43. Performance is NOT the consequence or result of action; it is the action itself.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
44. Persisting with enthusiasm and extra effort as necessary to complete one’s own task activities successfully is
an example of contextual performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
45. Contextual performance is closely related to organizational citizenship behaviour.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
46. Engaging in unsafe work practices is a counterproductive performance behaviour.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
47. The usefulness of selection measures is assessed by how well they predict performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
48. Cognitive ability appears to be the best predictor of task performance across all job situations.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49. To evaluate the effectiveness of selection systems, companies must measure the task, adaptive, contextual,
and counterproductive performance behaviours that are important for job success.
a. True
b. False
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ANSWER: True
50. Reliability is the degree to which the criterion measure captures behaviours or competencies that constitute
job performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
51. Criterion deficiency is defined as those task performance behaviours or competencies that are NOT
measured by the criterion.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
52. Performance measurement is always subjective and is not reliable to predict future performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
53. Absolute rating systems compare the performance of one worker with an absolute standard of performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. Behaviour observation scales are very similar to behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) in that the
starting point is an analysis of critical job incidents by those knowledgeable about the job to establish
performance dimensions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
55. The perceived fairness and perceived justice of the performance appraisal process plays a central role in
determining employee reactions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
56. Define job performance and criteria. Why is it important to understand job performance and criteria as part
of the recruitment and selection process?
ANSWER: Job performance is behaviour (the observable things people do) that is relevant to accomplishing the
goals of an organization. Criteria are measurements of job performance that attempt to capture
individual differences among employees with job-related behaviours (i.e., many diverse behaviours
and levels of proficiency). Criteria are the performance standards for judging success and behaviour
on the job, which are important to know when trying to select the best candidate for the job.
57. Define performance management.
ANSWER: Performance management refers to organizational processes used to improve employee and
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organizational performance in the workplace. Performance management includes setting measurable
standards, carrying out performance appraisals, and providing continuous feedback and coaching.
58. Describe two methods for measuring job performance.
ANSWER: Relative rating systems compare the overall performance of an employee with that of others to
establish a rank order of employee performance.
Rank order involves arranging the employees in order of their perceived overall performance level.
Paired comparisons involve comparing the overall performance of each worker with that of every
other worker who is being evaluated.
Forced distribution attempts to provide absolute information within a relative rating context.
Relative percentile method (RPM) is a new and improved relative rating system. It allows raters to
compare individuals on job performance dimensions that have been derived through analytic
procedures.
Absolute rating systems compare the performance of one worker with an absolute standard of
performance; they can be used to assess performance on one dimension or to provide an overall
assessment.
Graphic rating scales can be produced to assess an employee on any job dimension. The scale
usually consists of the name of the job component or dimension, a brief definition of the dimensions,
a scale with equal intervals between the numbers placed on the scale, verbal labels or anchors
attached to the numerical scale, and instructions for making a response.
Critical incident methods require raters to observe the job behaviour of an employee and to record
those behaviours displayed by the worker that are critical to effective or ineffective performance. The
technique forces the rater to concentrate on the behaviour, not traits or characteristics, of the worker.
Mixed standard rating scales are variations of critical incident checklists. Three critical incidents are
selected for each job dimension being reviewed. The items represent excellent, average, and poor
performance, respectively. The items are randomly presented on a checklist with labelling of the job
dimensions, and raters are asked to indicate whether the employee’s behaviour is better, worse, or the
same as the behaviour presented in the statement.
Behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) use empirically derived critical incident job behaviours
to anchor the values placed on a rating scale. BARS is the “Rolls Royce” of rating scales and the best
rating procedure used today. It integrates job analytic information directly to the performance
appraisal measure.
Behaviour observations scales (BOS) are very similar to BARS in that the starting point is an
analysis of critical job incidents by those knowledgeable about the job to establish performance
dimensions. Once the list of behaviours that represent different job dimensions is constructed,
supervisors are asked to monitor the frequency with which employees exhibit each behaviour over a
standardized time period.
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59. John Campbell and his associates have developed a theory of work performance. Campbell proposes that the
behaviours that people are expected to exhibit as part of their job appear to fall into eight job performance
dimensions. You are applying for a position as an HRM. Describe and give an example of two performance
dimensions from Campbell’s model that you believe would be major performance components required of an
HRM. Describe how these performances are expressed in relation to an organization’s mission and goals. How
could this desired performance be measured? What criteria could be used? What determines individual
differences in Campbell’s eight job performance components? Why would you perform more effectively and
efficiently than another candidate?
ANSWER: • Job-specific task proficiency reflects the degree to which an individual can perform technical tasks
that make up the content of the job. Within jobs, one individual may be more competent than another.
• Non-job-specific task proficiency reflects the degree to which individuals can perform tasks or
behaviours that are not specific to any one job. This is general knowledge, such as business acumen
or an understanding of the business.
• Written and oral communication task proficiency is the degree to which an individual can write or
speak, independent of the correctness of the subject matter.
• Demonstrating effort reflects the degree to which individuals are committed to performing all job
tasks, to working at a high level of intensity, and to working under adverse conditions.
• Maintaining personal discipline characterizes the extent to which negative behaviours are avoided.
Does a person drink or take drugs on the job? Does he or she engage in harassing behaviours?
• Facilitating peer and team performance is the degree to which an individual supports coworkers,
helps them with job problems, and keeps them working as a team to achieve their goals.
• Supervision/leadership includes behaviours that are directed at influencing the performance of
subordinates through interpersonal means.
• Management/administration includes all other behaviours involved in management that are distinct
from supervision.
Campbell and his associates discuss three major influences as to why one person performs more
efficiently than another person. Job performance is a combination of three factors: declarative
knowledge, procedural knowledge, and motivation.
• Declarative knowledge is the knowledge about facts and things including rules, regulations, and
goals.
• Procedural knowledge and skill are attained when declarative knowledge, knowing what to do, is
combined with knowing how to do it.
• Motivation is defined in terms of choice to perform, level of effort, and persistence of job effort.
Performance cannot occur unless there is a choice to perform at some level and at least a minimal
amount of knowledge and skill. An HRM may have the knowledge and skill but if he or she has low
motivation, he or she would be performing at a lower level.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 5.2, Examples of Objective Measures of Job Performance.
The different criteria to measure job performance are objective performance measures or hard criteria
such as production, sales, and personnel data used in assessing individual job performance; personnel
data, which include absenteeism, tenure, rate of advancement, and accidents; and subjective
measures, which are ratings or rankings made by supervisors, peers, or others that are used in
assessing individual job performance.
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60. Job performance is a multidimensional construct composed of subcategories of behaviours: task, contextual,
adaptive, and counterproductive. Define these four job-related behaviours, and give an example of how each of
these behaviours is linked to factors that should be considered during recruitment and selection.
ANSWER: Task behaviours involve the direct contribution to the functioning of the organization, such as
producing goods and selling services.
Contextual behaviours involve interpersonal job performance and job dedication, such as
contributing to the culture of the organization.
Adaptive behaviours involve a worker’s reaction to changes in a work system or work role.
Counterproductive behaviours are voluntary behaviours that violate significant organizational norms
and in so doing threaten the well-being of an organization, its members, or both.
Counterproductive behaviours lead to decreases in productivity and the loss of efficiency and
effectiveness. One of the most negative work behaviours can involve withdrawal from the job. This
includes complete withdrawal, such as resignation; however, it also involves tardiness, absenteeism,
leaving early, extended breaks, etc.
Refer to Figure 5.1, Components of Individual Work Performance, for examples of the job task
behaviours, contextual behaviours, adaptive behaviours, and counterproductive behaviours that relate
to the job performance of an airplane pilot.
61. What is contextual performance? Briefly describe two categories of contextual performance.
ANSWER: Contextual performance refers to the activities or behaviours that are not part of the worker’s formal
job description but remain important for organizational effectiveness. While job performance is
closely related to underlying knowledge, skills, and abilities, contextual performance supports the
organizational, social, and psychological environment in which the job is performed. Contextual
activities are not related to a specific job or role but extend to all jobs in an organization. Contextual
performance often reflects organizational values.
The categories of contextual performance are
• persisting with enthusiasm and extra effort as necessary to complete one’s own task activities
successfully
• volunteering to carry out task activities that are not formally part of one’s own job
• helping and cooperating with others
• following organizational rules and procedures
• endorsing, supporting, and defending organizational objectives
62. Define criterion relevance, criterion contamination, and criterion deficiency.
ANSWER: Criterion relevance is the degree to which the criterion measure captures behaviours or competencies
that constitute job performance.
Criterion contamination is the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by core measures,
behaviours, or competencies that are not part of job performance.
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Criterion deficiency refers to those job performance behaviours or competencies that are not
measured by the criterion.
63. Develop five job-specific task proficiencies using a behavioural observation scale to evaluate a security
dispatcher.
ANSWER: 1. properly secures lost and found articles
2. controls visitor access to buildings
3. monitors multiple surveillance devices
4. ensures confidentiality and security of information
5. activates appropriate emergency response teams as needed
See Table 5.5, Behavioural Observation Scale Used to Evaluate a Security Dispatcher.
64. Explain how human rights relate to performance appraisal processes.
ANSWER: • Decisions of judiciary or human rights tribunals emphasize that the defensibility of performance
measures rests on the ability to demonstrate that they are job related.
• The Supreme Court of Canada’s Meioren decision ruled that a standard (i.e., a criterion) must be
reasonably related to the accomplishment of work-related purposes.
• The absence of a job or work analysis as part of criterion development will likely cast suspicion on
any performance measurement system subject to judicial review.
• Written documentation is also very important in the development of performance measures.
• A review mechanism must be in place to allow employees to appeal performance assessments that
they believe to be unfair or discriminatory.
• A performance measurement system must meet legal and professional practice standards to satisfy
human rights requirements.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 5.1, Designing a Performance Measurement System to
Meet Legal and Professional Standards to review some important guidelines about performance
measurement.
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1. What is the initial step in the selection process?
a. recruitment
b. screening
c. strategy
d. legislation
ANSWER: a
2. Which term defines a set of potential candidates who may be interested in, and who are likely to apply for, a
specific job?
a. members of a protected group
b. the labour market
c. a contingent work force
d. an applicant pool
ANSWER: d
3. What concept refers to the generation of an applicant pool for a position in order to provide the required
number of qualified candidates for selection or promotion?
a. recruitment
b. human resource planning
c. selection
d. hiring
ANSWER: a
4. According to the opening vignette, Employers Brew up New Ways to Recruit Talent, what percentage of
positions is never advertised?
a. 25 percent
b. 40 percent
c. 55 percent
d. 70 percent
ANSWER: d
5. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an external factor affecting recruitment?
a. labour market
b. competition
c. sustainability
d. legislation
ANSWER: c
6. Which of the following terms refers to contracting with an outside agent to take over specified human
resource functions?
a. contract work
b. contingent work
c. outsourcing
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d. leasing
ANSWER: c
7. Which factor defines the intentional or unintentional exclusion of designated groups through recruitment and
selection?
a. direct discrimination
b. systemic discrimination
c. indirect discrimination
d. intentional discrimination
ANSWER: b
8. According to the textbook, which of the following internal factors affects recruitment?
a. supply of labour
b. legal requirements
c. strategic goals
d. competition
ANSWER: a
9. What is the initial step in developing a recruitment action plan?
a. Advertise for the position.
b. Generate qualified applicants.
c. Develop a recruitment strategy.
d. Meet current legal requirements.
ANSWER: c
10. Which of the following is NOT an internal method of recruitment?
a. job postings
b. company newsletters
c. job advertisements
d. nominations
ANSWER: c
11. Which of the following external methods is associated with the highest retention rates?
a. referrals
b. employment agencies
c. university job fairs
d. professional associations
ANSWER: a
12. Which term refers to advertising that is designed to raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner in
order to attract interest from job seekers?
a. image advertising
b. realistic job preview
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c. promotional recruitment
d. branding
ANSWER: a
13. What is the primary advantage of Internet recruiting?
a. availability to candidates with technology access and know-how
b. reaching a large applicant pool at minimal cost
c. fewer concerns about confidentiality
d. receiving a large number of résumés
ANSWER: b
14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal job postings?
a. It is expensive.
b. It rewards long tenure.
c. There is motivational impact on candidates not selected.
d. Collective agreement prevents best candidate to be hired.
ANSWER: c
15. What occurs during the recruitment and selection process when candidates form an opinion that they do not
want to work in the organization for which they are being recruited?
a. negative perception
b. realistic job preview
c. opting out
d. self-selecting out
ANSWER: d
16. Which of the following would NOT be considered an effective recruiting guideline?
a. Give serious consideration to the content of information presented to candidates, rather than the
context in which it is presented.
b. Present important information about the job and the organization to candidates by several different,
reliable, and credible sources.
c. Recognize that the behaviour of recruiters and other representatives gives an impression of the
organization’s climate, efficiency, and attitude toward employees.
d. Ensure that all recruiting information and materials given to job applicants present accurate and
consistent information, whether positive or negative.
ANSWER: a
17. What term is defined as the process through which an organization reaches a decision that a job candidate
fits the organization’s values and culture, and has the attributes desired by the organization?
a. person–job fit
b. person–organization fit
c. cultural fit
d. organizational fit
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ANSWER: b
18. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of a mismatched individual relative to the job and the
organization?
a. absenteeism
b. low productivity
c. presenteeism
d. turnover
ANSWER: c
19. Which of the following is NOT a factor that plays an influential role in creating accurate expectations that
candidates hold about prospective jobs?
a. information technology
b. communication media
c. content of information
d. source of information
ANSWER: a
20. What type of measures used to evaluate recruiting methods includes turnover and absenteeism?
a. attitudinal
b. performance
c. behavioural
d. subjective
ANSWER: c
Scenario 6-1
At TS Inc, a growing BC aviation company of 30 employees, recruitment rests on the shoulders of the
president. Like most small companies, TS Inc. frequently uses employee referrals as a method of recruitment.
The company wants to use Internet recruitment technologies but is not well versed in information technology.
The CEO is very concerned about poor hiring decisions and turnover costs.
21. Refer to Scenario 6-1. From what labour market should TS Inc. recruit aircraft maintenance engineers?
a. local
b. regional
c. global
d. national
ANSWER: b
22. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What method of recruiting would be most suitable for hiring aircraft maintenance
engineers for TS Inc.?
a. internal
b. external
c. internal and external
d. recruiting agency
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ANSWER: b
23. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What would be the LEAST effective e-recruitment method for recruiting aircraft
maintenance engineers?
a. national and international Internet job boards (e.g., Workopolis.ca)
b. professional and career websites (e.g., aviation professional and industry associations)
c. technical school websites (e.g., recent aircraft maintenance engineer graduates)
d. TS Inc.’s website
ANSWER: a
24. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Which of the following would TS Inc. need to be prepared for with a switch to
Internet recruiting?
a. much higher advertising costs
b. much higher volume of applicants to manage
c. long lead times
d. reduced number of local applicants
ANSWER: d
25. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What does TS Inc. need to consider to ensure a good person–organization fit?
a. image advertising and branding
b. creation of high expectations of the candidate
c. sufficient orientation and training
d. accurate communication, perceptions, and expectations
ANSWER: d
Scenario 6-2
The shortage of professionals is a well-documented global issue occurring in countries with aging populations.
As a result, an organization such as BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse unionized
health services in British Columbia, is experiencing staff shortages in nursing. Patients’ waiting times have
increased dramatically. Sixty percent of nurses will be eligible for retirement by 2022. Young graduate nurses
are moving out of the province to health-care providers that are aggressively recruiting and providing new hires
with incentives ranging from flexible work alternatives to educational funding support. Twenty percent of
nurses are off the job due to illness or injury. Eighty percent of nurses are single parents, support an elderly
parent(s), or are a primary caregiver. BCH believes that becoming an “employer of choice” is a way to attract
and retain its health-care professionals.
26. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What is the goal of BCH’s nursing job-related selection system?
a. to generate an applicant pool for nursing positions in order to provide the required number of
qualified nurses for selection
b. to bring nurses into BCH who will perform at above-average levels and who will increase the
productivity of the organization
c. to conduct an organizational assessment and job analysis for nursing positions
d. to develop a recruitment strategy and action plan for hiring nurses into BCH
ANSWER: b
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27. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following conditions is important, but not always the most influential
factor in attracting highly educated professional nurses to BCH?
a. opportunity to incorporate their interests and values
b. autonomy and decision-making authority
c. opportunities for self-development
d. security and income
ANSWER: d
28. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What is the term for BCH’s process of gathering information about demographics
such as nursing shortages and the aging population?
a. needs analysis
b. labour market analysis
c. organizational planning
d. demographic analysis
ANSWER: b
29. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which two external factors are influencing BCH’s recruitment strategy?
a. BCH’s business plan of becoming an employer of choice and its union contract
b. the job expectations and the attitudes of nurse applicants
c. BCH’s organizational and job analysis
d. the scarcity of qualified nursing labour and the legal environment
ANSWER: d
30. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which two internal factors are influencing BCH’s recruitment strategy?
a. the scarcity of qualified nursing labour and the legal environment
b. BCH’s business plan of becoming an employer of choice and its union contracts
c. the job expectations and the attitudes of the nurse applicants
d. the part-time labour market and outsourcing
ANSWER: b
31. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which factors are LEAST important when BCH is developing its recruitment
strategy?
a. external factors
b. internal factors
c. labour market factors
d. legislative factors
ANSWER: b
32. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Upon what should BCH’s nursing recruitment decisions be based?
a. an assessment of the labour market
b. new health legislation
c. organizational and job analyses
d. review of mission statement
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ANSWER: c
33. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What would be the most effective way to advertise for nurses?
a. internal postings job board
b. nurses’ professional websites
c. external job board
d. national newspaper
ANSWER: b
34. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following questions would NOT be relevant to a job advertisement
campaign to target nursing applicants?
a. How will the costs of advertising be balanced by reaching the target applicant pool?
b. What advertising media will reach the target applicant pool?
c. How many applicants do we need to fill the position with qualified people?
d. What type of ad content will attract the target applicant pool’s attention?
ANSWER: a
35. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What is the process when a nurse forms the opinion during recruitment that he or she
does not want to work for BCH?
a. negative organizational perceptions
b. self-selecting out
c. realistic job preview
d. negative job expectations
ANSWER: b
36. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which work alternatives may help BCH recruit and retain both its senior and younger
new nurses?
a. part-time positions
b. contract positions
c. temporary work
d. family-friendly practices
ANSWER: d
37. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What process is designed to raise BCH’s profile in a positive manner in order to
attract job seekers’ interest?
a. image advertising
b. branding
c. person–job fit
d. realistic job preview
ANSWER: a
38. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which strategy is BCH using to establish its identity and perception in the
marketplace as an employer of choice?
a. image advertising
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b. human resource planning
c. branding
d. strategic planning
ANSWER: c
39. Refer to Scenario 6-2. What does BCH need to consider to ensure a good person–organization fit?
a. image advertising
b. creating high expectations
c. recruitment and selection training
d. accurate communication, perceptions, and expectations
ANSWER: d
40. Refer to Scenario 6-2. Which of the following approaches can BCH use to ensure that nurse applicants have
a realistic understanding of the job they are to perform?
a. realistic job previews
b. decision-making training
c. clarifying organizational values and goals
d. self-selecting out
ANSWER: a
Scenario 6-3
You are an HRM consultant working with several municipal governments across Eastern Canada to help them
recruit future managers. As the baby boom generation retires, it is getting more difficult to find replacements to
fill management-level public-sector positions. You have been involved in promoting several managers from
within the organizations and have embarked on a program of leadership development and succession planning.
In trying to recruit business school graduates, you have heard young job seekers state that they perceive
government as a negative place to work and would not consider applying for government management
positions.
41. Refer to Scenario 6-3. What is an important but not always the most influential factor when attracting young
business graduates?
a. opportunity to use their knowledge, skills, and abilities
b. reputation of the organization and location
c. flexible work schedule
d. security and income
ANSWER: d
42. Refer to Scenario 6-3. What might the municipalities design to raise their profile in a positive manner in
order to attract young business job seekers?
a. image advertising
b. a corporate image
c. branding
d. realistic job previews
ANSWER: a
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43. Refer to Scenario 6-3. How could the municipalities build a positive perception about government
organizations in the minds of the young business job seekers?
a. image advertising
b. a corporate image
c. branding
d. realistic job previews
ANSWER: c
44. Recruitment is done separately from the selection process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
45. The best defence against charges of systemic discrimination is to document that every attempt has been
made to attract members from the protected group.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
46. Employment equity involves policies and practices to increase the presence of visible minorities and gay
individuals in the workplace.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
47. Mission and values do NOT play a role in the recruitment process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
48. There is evidence that employees recruited by referral remain longer in the organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49. Walk-in and write-in methods of job recruitment are inexpensive ways to fill entry-level positions, and they
are more effective than referrals because there is no nepotism.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
50. One disadvantage of employee referrals is that they may lead to discrimination and inbreeding.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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51. According to the textbook, approximately 87 percent of respondents to a Jobvite survey indicated that they
use some form of social media to recruit.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
52. Unlike job boards, there is no cost to joining a social network.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
53. One disadvantage of Internet recruiting is that it results in an overwhelming number of applicants, many of
whom are unqualified.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. Social network sites for job applicants might be discriminatory if disabled individuals are required to post
photographs of themselves.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
55. Social network sites protect the private information of job applicants such as age, religion, and ethnicity, and
are not discriminatory.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
56. One disadvantage of using Canada Employment Centres for recruitment is that hiring success is limited to
certain occupational categories.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
57. Ensuring accurate job expectations during the recruitment and selection process helps develop a good
organization–job fit between the person and the organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
58. Realistic job previews are intended to improve the fit between the job candidate and the organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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59. What is recruitment? What information does an organization need to make a decision to recruit?
ANSWER: Recruitment is the generation of an applicant pool for a position or job in order to provide the
required number of qualified candidates for subsequent selection or promotion processes. Decisions
to recruit candidates for jobs in organizations are based on:
• an assessment of the internal and external factors affecting the organization;
• an organizational analysis based on those factors;
• a job analysis that identifies worker behaviours and characteristics that will identify candidates who
are qualified for the position.
60. Choose an organization you are familiar with. Describe three constraints affecting the organization’s
recruitment and selection process.
ANSWER: Constraints to recruitment and selection can include organizational policies; legislation; labour
market; economy; business plan; recruiting strategy and goals; job level and type; human resource
plans; demographics; work force diversity; technology; globalization; competition; organizational
structure; organizational vision, mission, values, and culture; union/nonunion environment; and cost
containment. For example, if an information technology company requires specialized KSAOs in
information technology in order to compete globally, the organization will need to target and expand
its recruiting efforts.
61. Describe an organization you are familiar with. Describe the current and potential influence that the
organization’s external environment has on the human resource management planning, staffing and retention
practices, and how the organization can respond to these challenges. Describe the organization’s internal
environment and its relationship to the organization’s strategy and its human resource planning, recruitment,
selection, and retention practices.
ANSWER: External environment factors can include the following types: economic, labour market,
demographic, legal, work force diversity, technology, globalization, and competition. Internal
environment factors can include organizational structure, job level and type, business plan,
organizational vision, mission, value and culture, union/nonunion environment, and cost
containment.
For example, if qualified labour is scarce, the organization must broaden its recruitment process and
increase its expenses. If an organization is expanding globally, it must identify, recruit, and select
individuals based on competencies related to success abroad. The organization must deal with issues
concerning family adjustment to new cultures and the managers’ potential lack of personal
adjustment to the foreign business environment.
Refer to Figure 6.1, Recruitment as Part of the HR Planning Process.
62. Shortages of health-care professionals are a well-documented global issue occurring in countries with aging
populations. As a result, organizations such as BCH, a health-care organization that oversees many diverse
unionized health services in British Columbia, are experiencing staff shortages in nursing. Patients’ waiting
times have increased dramatically. Sixty percent of the nurses will be eligible for retirement by 2022. Young
graduate nurses are moving out of the province to health-care providers that are aggressively recruiting and
providing new hires with incentives ranging from flexible work alternatives to educational funding support.
Twenty percent of nurses are off the job due to illness or injury. Eighty percent of nurses are single parents,
support an elderly parent(s), or are a primary care giver. BCH believes that becoming an “employer of choice”
is a way to attract and retain its health-care professionals. Develop a comprehensive recruitment strategy for
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nurses at BCH.
ANSWER: Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 6.2, Elements of a Recruitment and Staffing Action
Plan, and Figure 6.1, Recruitment as Part of the HR Planning Process for the human resources
planning questions that must be answered in order to form BCH’s recruitment strategy. Some areas
of discussion include conducting an organizational analysis and job analysis; developing an
organizational vision and strategic plan (e.g., to become an employer of choice); and conducting an
environmental scan of the demographic information particular to nurse shortages (e.g., reduced
training; increased nurse illness/leaves; increased family-care responsibilities; increased relocations
to other provinces and the United States; fiscal challenges in the health-care sector; new methods of
delivering programs and services; changing nature of the position; varied degree and diploma
requirements; union environment; increasingly part-time labour market; reduced labour supply; aging
population/increasing number of patients; government health-care legislation; human rights; privacy
and workers compensation legislation; and other organizational external and internal factors).
Ultimately, BCH faces a significant labour supply challenge and internal conditions that appear to
make nursing positions unattractive. Some recruitment initiatives might include establishing
integrated performance management programs that result in higher levels of engagement leading to
higher retention rates; supporting increasing training at educational institutions; increasing the
number of nursing school programs; increasing international recruitment; consolidating and
integrating health-care services; increasing use of technology for remote locations; reviewing
compensation, rewards, and recognition practices; facilitating health promotion programs;
subsidizing refresher training for returning nurses; subsidizing student loans; and providing flexible
work options.
Research suggests that organizations that use effective human resource planning, recruitment, and
selection practices gain a competitive advantage in the labour market. BCH’s success, growth, and
patient care are linked to the attraction and retention of top nursing professionals. This increasingly
diverse work force with heightened workplace expectations means nurses are making career choices
on factors such as leadership, career development, meaningful work, flexible work alternatives,
resources to support work–life balance, and other factors that go beyond total compensation.
Planning for BCH’s human resource nursing requirements is much more than simply advertising for
a nursing position; it is the process of developing and implementing plans and programs to ensure the
right number and type of nurses are available at the right time and place to meet BCH’s needs.
63. Choose an organization and specific job position you are familiar with. Describe three internal and/or
external recruitment methods you would suggest for recruiting for your chosen position. Describe their
advantages and how you would deal with the disadvantages of your chosen methods.
ANSWER:
Internal
Job postings are internal advertisements of job vacancies. As a matter of policy, some organizations
seek to fill positions through internal sources before going to the external market. Collective
agreements may also dictate the requirement to post internally first.
Replacement charts list each job with respect to its position in the organizational structure,
particularly the relationship to the position above and below it. These charts provide a quick, visual
presentation of an organization’s human resources.
Human resources information systems are comprehensive computerized databases that contain job
analysis information on each position, including information on the required KSAOs. This
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computerized inventory may also include information on employee competencies and KSAOs, along
with their work histories, experiences, and results of performance evaluations.
Nominations are the least systematic internal recruitment method. They occur when someone who
knows about a vacancy nominates another employee to fill it.
External
Job advertisements are one of the most commonly used methods of recruiting job candidates. These
ads come in different forms and in different media (e.g., newspapers, professional periodicals, and
trade magazines, radio and television, public displays, and direct mail). These media are increasingly
found on website job boards.
Employee referrals refer to word-of-mouth advertising that relies on current employees telling their
friends and relatives about job vacancies within their company.
Networking is a cross between a recruiting method and a job search technique. Networking is deemed
to be vital to career advancement and is promoted by career transition experts as the best way for a
professional to find a job.
Walk-in recruitment is initiated by the job seeker, who visits an organization’s personnel office and
asks to fill out an application for employment, even though the organization may not have any job
vacancies. The write-in method is a variation of this approach; rather than visiting the company, job
seekers send a copy of their résumés to the company.
Employment agencies are independent organizations that attempt to find a match between a person
and a job. Their success depends on the willingness of the job seeker and the organization to use all
of their services. There are numerous types of employment agencies including Human Resources
Canada Centres, private employment agencies, executive search firms, in-house recruiters, and
temporary help agencies.
Recruiting at educational institutions such as technical schools, colleges, and universities is common
for organizations seeking entry-level technical, professional, and managerial employees. Many
schools provide their students with placement services, which assist recruiting efforts of visiting
organizations.
The Internet has significantly changed the way recruitment is done. A company can place a notice of
a vacancy on its website or list it with one of the online job or career websites. The job site does a
keyword search of résumés on its database and forwards those that match the position requirements
to the company. Internet recruiting is the use of the Internet to match candidates to jobs through
electronic databases that store information on jobs and job candidates.
Refer to Table 6.1, Comparison of Recruitment Methods.
64. TS Inc. is a growing BC aviation company of 30 employees. The company requires an aircraft maintenance
engineer. What would be the most effective recruitment method for reaching this applicant pool? Describe the
specific methods you would use and their advantages. Discuss how you would address the disadvantages of
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your chosen methods. Describe the steps you would take if you are unable to recruit sufficient employees for
the job.
ANSWER: Some effective recruitment methods that TS Inc. could consider in recruiting for an aircraft
maintenance engineer position include apprenticeships, professional and career websites (e.g.,
aviation professional and industry associations), technical institutions with aircraft maintenance
program websites (e.g., recent graduates and alumni), TS Inc.’s website, current and former
employee and client referrals, campus recruiting, and industry/trade publications (usually have job
boards on their websites).
Refer to Table 6.1, Comparison of Recruitment Methods.
65. Social networks are increasingly being used as a powerful recruiting method by employers. What is social
networking? As an applicant, what are the advantages and disadvantages of using social networks to apply for a
position?
ANSWER: Social networks are Internet sites that allow users to post a profile with a certain amount of
information that is visible to the public.
Advantages of social networks
• A wide variety of information can be posted online to the social network, including photos, videos,
and other relevant audio-visual information.
• There is no cost to join a social network.
• The information posted is transparent to the public, so other applicants are able to assess their
competitors.
Disadvantages of social networks
• There are concerns about the visibility of information posted to social networks since evidence of
age, disability, religion, and so forth are visible to the employer prior to the applicant being selected
for an interview. This visibility could be used in a discriminatory manner, which would be difficult to
prove.
• Many organizations do not have comprehensive policies on social networks as they are related to
recruiting.
• If social networks are the only source of recruiting, it may be detrimental to individuals who are not
familiar with this type of recruiting process, and they might provide too little or too much
information to the potential employer.
• Screening of candidates with social networks only might be unreliable and inaccurate.
• Other social networks such as Facebook might be used to generate evidence against a potential
candidate: for example, pictures posted of unacceptable behaviours while on vacation.
66. Why is corporate image important in recruiting efforts? Explain the difference between image advertising
and branding.
ANSWER: The reputation of an organization is important to job applicants. Corporate image predicts the
likelihood that people will apply for a job: the better the image, the more attractive the organization is
to job applicants. Image advertising is designed to raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner
in order to attract interest from job seekers. Branding is used by companies to establish certain
perceptions about the corporation in the public’s mind through associating the organization with
high-profile celebrity profiles or being known as one of the Best 100 employers in Canada.
67. What is person job–organization fit? Why is it an important consideration in recruitment?
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ANSWER: Person–job fit is a process through which an organization reaches a decision that a job candidate has
the knowledge, skills, abilities, and competencies required by the job in question.
Person–organization fit is a process through which an organization reaches a decision that a job
candidate fits the organization’s values and culture and has the contextual attributes desired by the
organization. The decision of person job–organization fit and the decision of the company to make an
offer and the candidate to accept it are based on the exchange of information that takes place in the
recruitment process.
68. Scribe Engineering has experienced a high turnover rate of its administrative assistant positions. The hiring
decision and the candidate’s job acceptance are based on limited information about the future work. What can
Scribe Engineering do to ensure that candidates have a realistic understanding of the organization and the
administrative assistant positions?
ANSWER: The decision of fit and the decision of the company to make an offer, and the candidate to accept it,
are based on the exchange of information that takes place in the recruitment process. The following
factors and procedures improve the chances of making a good fit between candidates and the
organization:
communication and perception (refer to Figure 6.4, Matching the Candidate’s and Organizations
Perceptions: Job Offer Outcomes)
accurate expectations (refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 6.5, Creating Accurate
Expectations)
realistic job previews, which are procedures designed to reduce turnover and increase satisfaction
among newcomers to an organization by providing job candidates with accurate information about
the job and the organization (refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 6.6, Realistic Job Previews in
the Canadian Forces)
Expectation-lowering procedure (ELP), an orientation process for new hires that focuses on the
expectations of the new hires rather than on the specific aspects of the job or organization
Decision-making training (DMT), which teaches job candidates how to make decisions by identifying
both the various alternatives that are available and those dimensions of the different alternatives that
are relevant to making a decision
Ways to ensure candidates receive information about the organization range from providing
published documents (e.g., annual reports, newspapers, periodicals) and Internet resources (e.g.,
company home page, Internet employment-related websites) to image advertising and branding.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 6.4, Guidelines for Effective Recruiting.
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1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four groups designated in the federal government’s Employment
Equity Act?
a. women
b. Aboriginal people
c. immigrants
d. persons with disabilities
ANSWER: c
2. Which term refers to the amount of knowledge, skills, abilities, and experience required for minimally
acceptable job performance?
a. minimum qualifications
b. minimum screening criteria
c. minimum selection qualifications
d. minimum criteria
ANSWER: a
3. What are screening procedures designed to do?
a. reduce the number of job applicants
b. eliminate candidates less likely to perform the job effectively
c. decide which applicant should be offered the job
d. identify KSAOs required for top job performance
ANSWER: a
4. What concept refers to the proportion of applicants who are hired for one or more positions?
a. selection ratio
b. screening
c. efficiency
d. applicant pool
ANSWER: a
5. Which law prohibits federally regulated employers from discriminating on prohibited grounds?
a. Employment Equity Act
b. Canadian Human Rights Act
c. Canada Labour Code
d. Employment Standards Act
ANSWER: b
6. Which concept refers to individuals who are predicted to perform successfully in a given position but who do
not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job?
a. person–job fit
b. perceptual difference
c. false positive
d. internal validity
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ANSWER: c
7. If you had 500 applicants for 10 positions, what is the selection ratio?
a. .5
b. .05
c. .02
d. .01
ANSWER: c
8. Which methods determine if an applicant is most qualified for the job?
a. employment testing and employment interview
b. résumé and screening interview
c. reference checks and employment testing
d. weighted application blank and employment testing
ANSWER: a
9. Which term is defined as the relationship between the actual number of people hired and the number who
applied for a position, expressed in terms of a proportion?
a. applicant pool
b. criterion measure
c. screening tool
d. selection ratio
ANSWER: d
10. Scribe Engineering, an information technology company, recently made a costly screening error when it
underestimated the potential of a software engineer, resulting in a no-hire decision. The applicant accepted a
position with a competing organization and developed a new, leading-edge software, taking away substantial
market share from Scribe Engineering. What is this error called?
a. a false positive
b. a false negative
c. a positive error
d. a negative error
ANSWER: b
11. A company screening job applicants wants the relationship between the actual number of people hired and
the number who applied for a position to yield 0.10. What is this proportion of applicants called?
a. the applicant pool
b. the standard deviation
c. the selection ratio
d. the screening proportion
ANSWER: c
12. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used screening method?
a. résumés
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b. testing
c. application forms
d. reference checks
ANSWER: b
13. Which method is used to determine whether an applicant meets the minimum requirements for the job?
a. employment testing
b. employment interview
c. application form
d. job advertisement
ANSWER: c
14. What must a potential employer be able demonstrate if an application form asks for information related to a
prohibited ground?
a. bona fide occupational requirements
b. employment equity data
c. no intention to discriminate illegally
d. designated minority group
ANSWER: a
15. What screening method would you use to screen for a lifeguard’s CPR certification?
a. an application form
b. an employment interview
c. a written CPR test
d. a reference check
ANSWER: a
16. Which of the following are criterion measures used to establish the validity of a WAB?
a. size of the applicant pool for a specific job
b. absenteeism and turnover
c. previously established BIB categories
d. valid and reliable job evaluation processes
ANSWER: b
17. What does a biographical information blank include?
a. educational experiences, hobbies, life experiences
b. education, work experience, and training
c. personal background, life experience, and sexual orientation
d. knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
ANSWER: a
18. Which of the following does NOT enhance the predictive value of reference checks?
a. An applicant’s previous immediate supervisor completes the reference.
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b. The referee has had adequate time to observe the applicant.
c. The applicant is the same gender and ethnicity as the supervisor on the previous job.
d. The old and new jobs require similar knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes.
ANSWER: c
Scenario 7-1
Medical Office Assistant
Okanagan Medical Clinic (OMC), Kelowna, B.C.
We are looking for a Medical Office Assistant (MOA) to join our medical team. The primary focus of the MOA
position is to provide office administration support services to two medical doctors. The essential functions and
responsibilities include the following: as a primary point of contact, answers phones and gathers patient
information, ensuring all patients are greeted professionally, while showing respect and patience; and uses
health-care software and MS office computer applications to schedule appointments and prepare reports,
insurance forms, invoices, financial statements, letters, case histories, transcriptions, and medical records. The
incumbent exercises adaptability, initiative, organization, time management, and independent judgment in the
performance of assigned tasks.
The successful candidate must possess strong written and oral communication skills and an advanced
knowledge of computer programs, including Microsoft Word, Excel, Outlook, Internet Explorer, Access, and
PowerPoint. The applicant must be able to work and communicate effectively in a small business team
environment and build effective interpersonal working relationships with professional employees and clients.
The standard office hours include some evening and weekend work. MOAs are routinely required to lift
medical equipment and/or supplies weighing up to 10 kilograms and are regularly exposed to contagious
diseases.
Required qualifications include completion of Grade 12 plus graduation from either an MOA or office
administration certificate program. Bookkeeping and medical industry experience would be considered a highly
weighted asset.
This is a full-time position effective immediately. The salary is competitive and will depend on education and
experience, Please apply in confidence by email to omc@okanagan.bc.ca.
19. Refer to Scenario 7-1. The doctors at OMC have often used a rough and quick hiring interview process in
selecting MOAs. They are not clear on the distinction between a screening interview and a selection interview.
Which of the following best defines screening?
a. identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have minimum qualifications for the targeted
position
b. ensuring that the four designated groups are screened for employment equity criteria
c. determining if the knowledge, skills, and abilities meet the minimum qualifications for the position
d. selecting the most qualified applicants for the targeted position
ANSWER: a
20. Refer to Scenario 7-1. Why would OMC want to implement a well-developed applicant screening process?
a. to be efficient in applicant processing and have cost and time savings
b. to ensure both reliability and validity
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c. to reduce negative applicant reactions
d. to intensively assess and rank applicants
ANSWER: a
21. Refer to Scenario 7-1. What are the screening procedures at OMC designed to do?
a. choose candidates for further assessment
b. rank candidates from best to worst
c. increase the applicant pool
d. select job applications
ANSWER: a
22. Refer to Scenario 7-1. What is an example of the knowledge, skill, abilities, and other attributes outlined in
the MOA job advertisement?
a. ability to greet patients professionally
b. skill in use of health-care software
c. ability to schedule appointments and prepare reports
d. skill in written and oral communication
ANSWER: d
23. Refer to Scenario 7-1. What is the minimum MOA qualification OMC should screen for?
a. Grade 12
b. bookkeeping experience
c. health-care software skills
d. physical health
ANSWER: a
24. Refer to Scenario 7-1. How would OMC screen for the minimum educational qualifications of an MOA?
a. school transcripts or certificates
b. aptitude test
c. reference check
d. employment interview
ANSWER: a
25. Refer to Scenario 7-1. OMC wants the relationship between the actual number of MOAs hired and the
number of MOAs who applied for the position to yield 0.05. What is this proportion of applicants called?
a. the applicant ratio
b. the standard deviation
c. the selection ratio
d. the selection pool
ANSWER: c
26. Refer to Scenario 7-1. OMC is aware that the screening process can be subjective and susceptible to errors.
The organization is particularly concerned about MOAs who have the qualifications but may be eliminated
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mistakenly. What is this error called?
a. a false positive
b. a false negative
c. a positive error
d. a negative error
ANSWER: b
27. Why would OMC be concerned about false negative errors?
a. OMC would not be concerned because the high-performing applicants were not screened out.
b. OMC would be concerned about potential litigation and loss of employees’ competitive skills.
c. OMC would not be concerned because the low-performing applicants were screened out.
d. OMC would be concerned about cost of training replacement candidates.
ANSWER: b
28. Refer to Scenario 7-1. Which screening methods could OMC consider?
a. application forms, résumés, and employment interview
b. application forms, employment testing, and employment interview
c. application forms, résumés, cover letters, and reference checks
d. application forms, résumés, and employment testing
ANSWER: c
29. Refer to Scenario 7-1. What would be OMC’s purpose for conducting a screening interview for MOAs?
a. to clarify job responsibilities
b. to clarify the minimum MOA requirements
c. to focus on preferred MOA requirements
d. to evaluate personal characteristics
ANSWER: b
30. Refer to Scenario 7-1. Which of the following would be important information to require on the MOA
application form?
a. social insurance number
b. physical health
c. medical information
d. educational background
ANSWER: d
31. Refer to Scenario 7-1. Which electronic standardized screening method could OMC use for MOAs?
a. an online application form
b. an online résumé
c. online testing
d. an online reference check
ANSWER: a
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32. Refer to Scenario 7-1. The MOA reference check questions are designed to obtain standardized information
on all the MOA applicants. Which of the following is NOT an example of this type of question?
a. How long, and in what capacity, have you known the applicant?
b. Can you provide me with an example of how the applicant exercised organization and time
management?
c. Can you provide me with an example of when the applicant used intuition? What actions did he or
she take? What was the result?
d. Can you tell me about the applicant’s strengths and weaknesses?
ANSWER: d
33. Refer to Scenario 7-1. What should OMC NOT do during a reference check?
a. obtain a waiver granting the employer to contact references
b. check three creditable work references and ask about past job performance
c. ask concise and closed-ended questions
d. verify all credentials, degrees, certifications, and licences
ANSWER: c
34. Why should employers be cautious regarding the use of biodata?
a. Collection of biodata information is not job related.
b. Providing any false, misleading, or incomplete information is grounds for discharge.
c. Biodata methods are illegal under US legislation.
d. Results may be inaccurate because of gender and race differences.
ANSWER: d
35. Which of the following terms is defined as the correlation between assessment scores and job performance
measures?
a. correlation coefficient
b. predictive validity
c. validity coefficient
d. validation strategy
ANSWER: c
36. In creating a résumé, applicants who want to encourage a positive impression among résumé screeners
should include which of the following?
a. two pages only
b. no GPA
c. a career or job objective
d. specific examples of accomplishments
ANSWER: d
37. Which of the following types of information found in résumés is most useful for predicting job success?
a. academic achievement
b. education
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c. extracurricular activities
d. work experience
ANSWER: d
38. Which screening method could OMC use to screen for written communication skills?
a. a short writing test
b. an employment interview
c. a written aptitude test
d. a cover letter
ANSWER: d
39. What is the best use of references in the screening process?
a. to measure personality characteristics of candidates
b. to screen out weak or potentially problematic candidates
c. to predict job performance of candidates
d. to choose the best candidate for the job
ANSWER: b
40. Which term refers to a situation where an employer places an unfit or unqualified person in an employment
situation that puts others at an unreasonable risk of harm?
a. a hiring liability
b. unauthorized hiring
c. negligent hiring
d. pre-hire favouritism
ANSWER: c
41. Which of the following describes the result of a research study that examined the relationship between
recruiters’ evaluations of candidates based on Facebook profiles and candidates’ subsequent performance on the
job?
a. Highly rated candidates became high-performing employees.
b. Low-rated candidates were not offered jobs.
c. Recruiter ratings were poor predictors of job performance between recruiter ratings and candidate job
performance.
d. Male applicants were favoured over female candidates.
ANSWER: c
42. Screening begins before the Human Resources Department receives the application.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
43. Screening is the first step of the selection process. It involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool
who have minimum qualifications for the targeted position.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
44. Recruitment involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have minimum qualifications for
the targeted position.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
45. Screening refers to the early stages of a sequential selection process in which applicants who meet
the selection criteria are selected for further consideration and more assessment.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
46. Selection identifies whether candidates who applied for a position meet minimum requirements.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
47. Screening seeks to find a sufficient number of qualified applicants.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
48. Individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position, but who do not perform as
satisfactorily when placed on the job, are referred to as false negatives.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
49. Screening must be done with great care as this process is often prone to errors. There can be false negatives,
which means individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position do not perform at
satisfactory levels when placed on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
50. A weighted application blank is a form used by job candidates to provide an employer with basic
information about their knowledge, skills, education, or other job-related information.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
51. Before any screening tool is used, it should be reviewed with respect to human rights legislation.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
52. WABs are particularly effective in predicting overall job performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
53. Weighted application blanks are developed in relation to criterion measures of performance established for
current and previous employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. Compared to other screening and selection tools, biodata tends to have little or no adverse impact.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
55. The intent of the résumé is to introduce the job applicant to the organization through a brief, accurate,
written self-description.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
56. The first impression created by the résumé is not a factor in screening.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
57. It is important to look for career regression and unexplained gaps in work or education when reviewing a
résumé from a potential applicant.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
58. Reference checks generally take place early in the screening process as a way to reduce the applicant pool.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
59. Reference information is usually collected through telephone interviews with the referees by using a
checklist of job-related questions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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60. Reference checks require a job applicant’s consent for an employer to gather information about the
candidate from any referees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
61. An online work simulation is an example of a virtual job audition..
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
62. What are false positives and false negatives? How do these occur?
ANSWER: Screening must be done with great care as this process is often prone to errors. There can be false
positives, which means individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position
(based on pre-selection scores) do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job. False
negatives occur when individuals who are predicted to perform unsuccessfully for a given position
(based on pre-selection assessment scores) perform at satisfactory levels if hired.
63. What is screening? What does screening involve? How is screening different from selection and
recruitment?
ANSWER: Screening is a preliminary pre-employment screen that allows the employer to determine if the
applicant is minimally qualified for the position. It involves screening for the minimum qualifications
of knowledge, skills, abilities, experiences, and other attributes deemed necessary for minimally
acceptable performance in one or more positions. It is sometimes referred to as selection criteria.
Candidates passing this first hurdle are referred for more extensive assessments. Selection reviews
each qualified candidate to find those who will be most successful in the job. Recruitment seeks to
find a sufficient number of qualified applicants.
Refer to Figure 7.1, The Relationship among Recruitment, Screening, and Selection.
64. Job applicants have to be screened with great care. Explain.
ANSWER: Screening methods are often subjective and susceptible to errors, and can be discriminatory. They are
based on limited information and are designed to reduce the number of applicants. Candidates who
do not have the minimum requirements are eliminated from the selection process. The screening of
minimum qualifications affects the entire selection process. There can be false positives, which
means individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position (based on preselection scores) do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job. False negatives occur
when individuals who are predicted to perform unsuccessfully for a given position (based on preselection assessment scores) perform at satisfactory levels if hired.
Another issue that has gained recent attention is negligent hiring. Negligent hiring is defined as a
situation where an employer places an unfit or unqualified person in an employment situation that
puts others at an unreasonable risk of harm. The legal implications of screening must be seriously
considered to avoid any legal liability from improper hiring. Negligent hiring is aimed at the
employer’s knowledge of the qualifications of the unfit, new employee at the time of hiring.
See Recruitment and Selection Notebook 7.1, Measures Toward Avoiding Negligent Hiring Claims.
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65. List and briefly describe three screening methods that are frequently used.
ANSWER:
An application blank is a form used by job candidates to provide an employer with basic information
about the applicant’s knowledge, skills, education, or other job-related information.
A weighted application blank (WAB) or form is a method for quantitatively combining information
from application blank items by assigning weights that reflect each item’s value in predicting
success.
A biographical information blank (BIB) is a pre-selection questionnaire in which applicants are
asked to provide job-related information on their personal background and life experiences. The BIB
is also known as a life history or personal history inventory and is based on the view that past
behaviour is the best predictor of future behaviour.
Biodata are biographical data for job applicants that have been gathered from BIBS, application
blanks, or other sources.
Reference checks gather information about a job candidate from that applicant’s supervisors,
coworkers, clients, or other referees. This information is usually collected from the referees through
telephone interviews.
Résumés are another source of biographical information produced by job applicants. The intent of the
résumé is to introduce the job applicant to the organization through a brief, accurate, written selfdescription. One difference between information collected through application blanks and résumés is
that applicants voluntarily provide biographical information about themselves.
66. You are the HRM for KM Contracting. Due to significant time constraints, the construction superintendent
has asked you to collect as much applicant background information as you can on the application form to
streamline and speed up the screening and selection process. What would you suggest to the construction
superintendent?
ANSWER: It is important to collect only the minimal information required to make a screening decision, not a
hiring decision at this point. Before putting any item on an application form, KM Contracting should
ask the following questions:
• Does the question conflict with provincial, territorial, or federal human rights guidelines on what
can and cannot be asked on application forms?
• What is the purpose of having the item on the form?
• Is there a better way to obtain the information elicited by the item?
• How will the information be used?
• Are responses to the item, if used in making a selection decision, likely to have an adverse impact in
screening out members of protected minority groups?
• Is it more appropriate to obtain the information only after making a job offer?
• Has the job-relatedness been established?
67. How does human rights legislation affect the screening process?
ANSWER: Particular consideration needs to be given to human rights legislation. Employers cannot ask for
information that is prohibited on discriminatory grounds under human rights legislation unless it can
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be established that the information is a bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR). If challenged
about any information collected, an employer will have to show that the information constitutes a
BFOR. All screening requirements must be realistic and job-related.
68. There are many online recruitment companies that help organizations with online candidate sourcing, job
board posting management, and many other electronic methods to attract job seekers to organization positions.
These companies are increasingly offering more online recruitment and selection services that are much more
than just posting job advertisements online. Give an example of how companies can incorporate technology to
screen applicants online either through their own company career website or by using a large national or
international website. Describe some potential benefits and challenges of online screening.
ANSWER: • Mailed or faxed applicant résumés, cover letters, reference request waivers, and other applicant
information can be scanned and software can extract information to fill the organization’s
standardized applicant database.
• Screening can be done effectively and efficiently using online application forms. WAB can be used
to quantify combined information from application form items by assigning weights that reflect each
item’s value in predicting job success. The data can be stored in a structured format in the applicant
database.
• Application-matching software can match and provide communication between an applicant’s
KSAOs and an organization’s job position.
• All applications can be acknowledged, stored for future easy access, and tracked to monitor
progress.
• Corporate website career sections can prompt applicants to provide information on career and jobrelated topics. The applicant can have a positive experience and learn more about the job and
organization.
• Organizations can post questions about job criteria and clarify the minimum qualifications for a
position. The data can be automatically stored in a structured format in the applicant database.
• Corporate website career sections can prompt applicants to answer a scorable questionnaire
developed from selection criteria that measure an applicant’s degree of suitability to specific job and
competency requirements, as well their organizational fit. Questionnaire results can be automatically
attached to the applicant’s record in the database.
• All recruitment methods utilized can direct candidates to the corporate careers website to help
funnel, screen, and manage applications.
• A shortlist of candidates can be created and prioritized automatically in real time on the basis of all
parts of the screening process.
• A wide range of staffing metrics can be made available in real-time.
Some potential benefits of online screening technology include the following:
• Applicants at different locations will have easy access to information.
• Updates can be done very cost effectively.
• Speed, efficiency, consistency, accuracy, and quality of screening processes are assured.
• Strategies and systems can be integrated.
• Candidates feel acknowledged and valued.
• Candidates join a company they know (the company can provide more information about the
position).
• Candidate relationships and interest in the company can strengthen.
• Relevant, accurate data are provided for improved hiring decision making.
• KSAOs can be reviewed and discussed.
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• Screening time is faster.
• Cost per applicant is lower.
• Competency questionnaires can be used to assess minimum qualifications.
• Routine tasks and administration are reduced.
Some potential challenges of online screening technology include the following:
• Is the organization, work force, and stakeholder human resource information management
technology ready?
• Has an analysis determined that e-recruitment/screening/selection is economically and technically
feasible?
• Are information security and legal database management practices (e.g., regarding privacy and
confidentiality) in place?
• Is great care being taken not to make subjective errors and to ensure that all decisions are based on
job-related criteria?
• Do the individuals you are trying to attract have regular access to a computer and can use and feel
comfortable with technology?
69. Refer to the job advertisement below. Identify and list the KSAOs outlined in the job advertisement. List in
order of priority the minimum qualifications you would be inclined to screen for and how you would do the
screening, and provide a rationale for each screening method you use. Develop two to four questions that would
be useful in your background reference checks on MOA applicants, and explain their use.
Medical Office Assistant
Okanagan Medical Clinic (OMC), Kelowna, B.C.
We are looking for a Medical Office Assistant (MOA) to join our medical team. The primary focus of the MOA
position is to provide office administration support services to two medical doctors. The essential functions and
responsibilities include the following: as a primary point of contact, answers phones and gathers patient
information, ensuring all patients are greeted professionally while showing respect and patience; and uses
health-care software and MS office computer applications to schedule appointments and prepare reports,
invoices, financial statements, letters, case histories, transcriptions, and medical records. The incumbent
exercises adaptability, initiative, organization, time management, and independent judgment in the performance
of assigned tasks.
The successful candidate must possess strong written and oral communication skills and an advanced
knowledge of computer programs, including Microsoft Word, Excel, Outlook, Internet Explorer, Access, and
PowerPoint. The applicant must be able to work and communicate effectively in a small business team
environment and build effective interpersonal working relationships with professional employees and clients.
The standard office hours include some evening and weekend work. MOAs are routinely required to lift
medical equipment and/or supplies weighing up to 10 kilograms and are regularly exposed to contagious
diseases.
Required qualifications include completion of Grade 12 plus graduation from either an MOA or office
administration certificate program. Bookkeeping and medical industry experience would be considered a highly
weighted asset.
This is a full-time position effective immediately. The salary is competitive and will depend on education and
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experience, Please apply in confidence by email to omc@okanagan.bc.ca.
ANSWER: KSAOs are the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes necessary for a new incumbent to do
well on the job; they are also referred to as job, employment, or worker specifications. KSAOs are
used to describe the job and to write a job advertisement.
Knowledge is a body of information, usually of a factual or procedural nature, that makes for
successful performance of a task.
Skill is an individual’s level of proficiency or competency in performing a specific task, expressed in
numerical terms.
Ability is a more general, enduring trait or capability an individual possesses at the time he or she
first begins to perform a task.
Other attributes include personality traits and other individual characteristics that are integral to job
performance. Examples of KSAOs outlined in the MOA job advertisement are written and oral
communication skills, adaptability, initiative, organization, time management, independent judgment,
advanced knowledge of computer programs, ability to communicate effectively in a small business
team environment, and building effective interpersonal working relationships with professional
employees and clients (not the duties, such as “professionally greet patient,” “use health-care
software,” “schedule appointments,” and “prepare reports, etc.). The minimum MOA qualifications
would be Grade 12 and MOA or office administration certificate. Screening methods that OMC
could consider include application forms, résumés, cover letters, screening interviews, and reference
checks. The screening methods the students discuss will vary. Some examples might include OMC
screening for the minimum educational qualifications by asking for a copy of applicants’ certificates
or transcripts, or OMC screening for written communication skills by reviewing applicants’ cover
letters.
Before conducting reference checks, the applicants’ written consent should be obtained. All reference
comments must fall within the scope of permission. The written consent should be worded to allow
for comments concerning the individual’s work performance. Applicants should be given notice if a
company is conducting background checks or making informal inquiries with previous employers.
Information requested should be reasonably relevant to the hiring decision and establishing the
employment relationship.
The following are examples of MOA reference check questions that are designed to obtain
standardized information on all MOA applicants.
• How long, and in what capacity, have you known the applicant?
• Can you provide me with an example of how the applicant exercised organization and time
management?
• Can you provide me an example of when the applicant used intuition? What actions did he or she
take? What was the result?
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1. In which of the following tests is each candidate is required to respond to a standardized set of short reports, notes,
telephone messages, and memos of the type that most managers must deal with on a daily basis?
a. work profile questionnaire (WPQ)
b. job knowledge test
c. in-basket test
d. situational judgement test
ANSWER: c
2. What is psychological testing NOT used for?
a. to hire applicants
b. to classify applicants selected into the most appropriate positions
c. to assist in screening applicants
d. to identify applicant needs for training
ANSWER: c
3. Which one of the following criteria does NOT need to be met to be accepted as a professional testing standard?
a. Tests must be reliable and valid.
b. Tests must be fair and unbiased.
c. Tests must have utility.
d. Tests must be cost effective.
ANSWER: d
4. Which of the following is described as an aptitude test?
a. Comprehensive Ability Battery (CAB)
b. Work Personality Index (WPI)
c. Wonderlic Personnel Test
d. Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test
ANSWER: a
5. Which of the following concepts refers to an enduring, general trait or characteristic on which people differ and that
they bring to a work situation?
a. aptitude
b. attribute
c. ability
d. attitude
ANSWER: c
6. Which concept refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through
performing the task?
a. performance
b. skill
c. proficiency
d. aptitude
ANSWER: b
7. Suppose you are seeking an individual with quick finger dexterity for a keyboard operator position. In which of the
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following categories would dexterity be classified?
a. aptitude
b. attribute
c. skill
d. ability
ANSWER: d
8. What kind of test is the Wonderlic Personnel Test?
a. Personality Inventory
b. Cognitive Ability Test
c. Vocational Interest Inventory
d. Sensory Ability Test
ANSWER: b
9. What kind of knowledge is derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective?
a. tacit knowledge
b. job knowledge
c. procedural knowledge
d. situational knowledge
ANSWER: a
10. Which of the following is NOT a psychological test used to select employees?
a. an emotional intelligence test
b. a cognitive ability test
c. a psychomotor test
d. a genetic test
ANSWER: d
11. What is the term for a specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance?
a. skill
b. personality
c. ability
d. aptitude
ANSWER: d
12. What is the term for an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through
performing the task?
a. knowledge
b. ability
c. attribute
d. skill
ANSWER: d
13. Which of the following is NOT considered a cognitive ability?
a. reasoning
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b. finger dexterity
c. problem solving
d. numerical ability
ANSWER: b
14. Which term refers to intelligence, general mental ability, or intellectual ability?
a. job knowledge
b. cognitive ability
c. general knowledge
d. personal trait
ANSWER: b
15. Why is the use of general mental ability (GMA) tests for selection to be approached cautiously?
a. Test scores have not been shown to correlate with job performance.
b. Use of GMA tests has been shown to have an adverse impact on minority candidates.
c. GMA tests are not useful in predicting job performance for low-skilled jobs.
d. Ability tests are valid only for predicting short-term and long-term academic performance.
ANSWER: a
16. How can you avoid the adverse impact of cognitive ability tests?
a. Use common sense.
b. Carry out structured interviews.
c. Employ aptitude tests.
d. Do field investigation.
ANSWER: b
17. Which of the following terms refers to knowledge that is derived from experience when learning is not the primary
objective?
a. job knowledge
b. explicit knowledge
c. implicit knowledge
d. tacit knowledge
ANSWER: d
18. If a manager requires an applicant to have the ability to get things done without the help of others, what test would
measure this?
a. a general cognitive ability test
b. a practical intelligence test
c. a multiple aptitude test
d. a tacit knowledge test
ANSWER: b
19. Which of the following refers to the ability to appropriately regulate and express emotion?
a. emotional intelligence
b. practical intelligence
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c. organizational citizenship
d. personality
ANSWER: a
20. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an example of a psychomotor ability?
a. arm–hand steadiness
b. multi-limb coordination
c. oral ability
d. manual dexterity
ANSWER: c
21. Which test has good predictive validity for measuring motor coordination in many industrial jobs?
a. a general aptitude test
b. a physical ability test
c. a psychomotor ability test
d. a general ability test
ANSWER: c
22. What type of test would you use to assess for motor coordination of firefighter applicants?
a. psychomotor ability test
b. skill test
c. physical abilities test
d. sensory and perceptual test
ANSWER: a
23. Which of the following abilities corresponds to near and far vision, speech recognition, and colour discrimination?
a. cognitive abilities
b. psychomotor abilities
c. physical abilities
d. sensory or perceptual abilities
ANSWER: d
24. What type of test would you use to assess construction worker applicants for their strength to lift construction material
and their balance to keep from falling off a roof?
a. psychomotor ability
b. skill and ability
c. physical and sensory/perceptual ability
d. general cognitive ability
ANSWER: c
25. SeaWave is a company that builds and repairs ocean and lake marinas and docks in eastern Canada. The company
hires deep-sea divers. What type of test should SeaWave use to select its applicants?
a. personality and honesty test
b. psychomotor assessment
c. physical ability assessment
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d. physical fitness test and medical examination
ANSWER: d
26. What are physical fitness and medical examinations designed to do?
a. screen out unhealthy or unfit employees who pose a liability to the employer
b. reduce lost productivity, replacement costs, and legal damages from fellow workers and customers who have
been injured through a worker’s actions
c. ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to cope with the physical demands of the job
d. determine how the physical fitness and medical status of an applicant relates to the job analysis
ANSWER: c
27. When should a fitness test or medical exam be given to applicants?
a. after the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s
passing the test or exam
b. prior to the applicant being given an offer of employment
c. as part of a structured assessment centre
d. after reference checks have been completed
ANSWER: a
28. Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is correct?
a. It is prohibited under federal legislation.
b. It is allowed if the employee has given written consent.
c. Its use often leads to higher health insurance premiums.
d. It is acceptable if used by the employer in good faith.
ANSWER: a
29. Which “Big Five” personality trait has been found to be related to job success across most organizations and
occupations?
a. extroversion
b. conscientiousness
c. openness to experience
d. agreeableness
ANSWER: b
30. Theft is costing Canadian grocery stores millions of dollars a day. Many have implemented a controversial,
inexpensive test to screen out potential thieves, and this has had a negative impact on public relations and left applicants
feeling that their privacy has been invaded. What type of test are the grocery stores using?
a. an honesty test
b. a polygraph test
c. a graphology test
d. a personality test
ANSWER: a
Scenario 8-1
The Federal Transportation Safety Board recently stated that Provincial Ferries has failed to effectively enforce its zerotolerance substance abuse policy. As part of its investigation into several fatal ferry accidents, the board revealed a pattern
of crew use of cannabis. Data in the HRIS showed significant costs associated with employee accidents, absenteeism,
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turnover, and tardiness due to workplace drug and alcohol use. The company president of one of the ferries wants the
Transportation Board to implement mandatory employee drug testing. The union opposes mandatory testing and states
that the issue has never been brought to the joint safety committee. Management is wondering why no one is standing up
for what is right and reporting coworkers who are impaired on the job.
31. Refer to Scenario 8-1. There are many actions the HRM can take. What would be an important step in dealing with
this situation?
a. Establish policies and procedures to support whistle blowers.
b. Adopt discrimination prevention policies and practices.
c. Ensure valid and reliable drug and alcohol testing.
d. Educate management on drug and alcohol testing procedures.
ANSWER: a
32. Refer to Scenario 8-1. What two types of legislation are particularly important in this situation?
a. the Employment Equity Act and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
b. provincial human rights laws and workers’ compensation acts
c. the Canada Labour Code and the Canadian Human Rights Act
d. provincial human rights law and public transportation legislation
ANSWER: c
33. Refer to Scenario 8-1. In this situation, what legally protected ground would mandatory employee drug testing
violate?
a. health and safety
b. mental and physical disability
c. personal freedom
d. workplace substance abuse
ANSWER: b
34. Refer to Scenario 8-1. What type of drug and alcohol testing is acceptable?
a. pre-employment drug and/or alcohol testing where employees operate heavy equipment
b. random drug testing where included in the company policy manual
c. random alcohol testing of employees in non-safety-sensitive positions if testing is also carried out for ALL
employees of the company
d. random alcohol testing of employees in safety-sensitive positions where drugs or alcohol are established as a
problem
ANSWER: d
35. Refer to Scenario 8-1. If employers can establish a bona fide occupational requirement, which of the following
CANNOT be administered?
a. random alcohol testing of employees in safety-sensitive jobs
b. drug or alcohol testing for reasonable cause or post-accident discovery
c. periodic or random testing following disclosure of a current or past drug or alcohol dependency or abuse
problem
d. pre-employment and random drug testing
ANSWER: d
36. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which of the following legal and ethical best practices are normally NOT permissible in
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dealing with substance abuse in the workplace?
a. drug and alcohol policies
b. training and education for managers and employees
c. confidential channels to access assistance
d. drug and alcohol testing
ANSWER: d
37. Refer to Scenario 8-1. Which ethical issue is particularly relevant to drug-testing methods?
a. privacy
b. discrimination
c. addiction
d. costs
ANSWER: b
38. Refer to Scenario 8-1. According to the Canadian Human Rights Act, which of the following does NOT qualify as a
prohibited ground for discrimination?
a. physical or mental disability
b. an employer’s perception that a disability makes an individual unfit to work
c. a previous drug or alcohol problem
d. excessive drinking of alcohol
ANSWER: d
39. Refer to Scenario 8-1. All of the following are proactive measures to address workplace drug and alcohol problems
EXCEPT which one?
a. introducing an employee assistance program and/or health promotion program
b. training staff to identify a person’s state of impairment
c. training supervisors to confront employees about substandard performance that may be drug or alcohol related
and offer help through the Employee Assistance Program
d. taking disciplinary action by terminating employment if the employee’s substance abuse behaviour continues
ANSWER: d
Scenario 8-2
A new call centre, Quantum Inc., is hiring individuals with call centre telephone experience and skills. The minimum
qualifications are a Grade 12 diploma. Applicants must possess the ability to learn new skills and adapt to new situations.
Turnover in the call centre industry is very high, so the CEO of Quantum wants the company’s testing process to ensure
that Quantum hires the most qualified applicants for the positions.
40. Refer to Scenario 8-2. How would Quantum Inc. determine an applicant’s minimum educational qualifications?
a. It would screen for school transcripts or certificates.
b. It would use an aptitude test.
c. It would perform a reference check.
d. It would use an employment interview.
ANSWER: a
41. Refer to Scenario 8-2. Which test method could Quantum Inc. use to test for the ability to learn new skills and adapt to
new situations?
a. a general cognitive ability test
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b. a practical intelligence test
c. a multiple aptitude test
d. a tacit knowledge test
ANSWER: a
42. Refer to Scenario 8-2. Which test method could Quantum Inc. use to test for telephone skills?
a. integrity test
b. a telephone-based interview
c. a personality test
d. an emotional intelligence test
ANSWER: b
Scenario 8-3
Bill, who has an arthritic condition, applied for a position as a private bus driver. He met all the conditions of the selection
process but was rejected by the company on the advice of the doctor who performed the mandatory medical examination.
43. Refer to Scenario 8-3. Before requiring the medical exam, which of the following did the employer need to establish?
a. that the absence of arthritis was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver
b. that the medical exam was valid
c. that the medical exam was reliable
d. that physical ability was a bona fide occupational requirement for a private bus driver
ANSWER: a
44. Refer to Scenario 8-3. What protection does Bill have under human rights law in this situation?
a. Bill is protected by employment standards legislation.
b. Bill is protected on the grounds of physical disability.
c. Bill is protected by employment equity legislation.
d. Bill is protected on the grounds of undue hardship.
ANSWER: b
45. Refer to Scenario 8-3. Which legislation applies in this case?
a. the Canada Labour Code
b. the Employment Equity Act
c. provincial human rights law
d. the Canadian Human Rights Act
ANSWER: c
46. Refer to Scenario 8-3. What legally protected ground may be violated in this situation?
a. privacy
b. mental and physical disability
c. safety
d. physical health
ANSWER: b
47. Which term refers to testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance
under controlled conditions and that approximate those found on the job?
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a. proficiency
b. aptitude test
c. realistic job preview
d. work sample
ANSWER: d
48. According to the textbook, which concept refers to a simulation exercise designed to assess leadership, organizational,
and communication skills?
a. an organization-wide simulation
b. a leaderless group discussion
c. a Markov analysis
d. a situational exercise
ANSWER: b
49. Which of the following integrity tests has a high potential for faking, is available in French, but violates APA
recommendations for category scoring?
a. Employee Reliability Inventory
b. Reid Report
c. Personnel Reaction Blank
d. Inwald Personality
ANSWER: b
50. Which of the following integrity tests has weak evidence of dimensionality, reliability, and validity?
a. Personnel Decisions Incorporated Employment Inventory
b. Hogan Personality Inventory, Revised
c. Stanton Survey New Edition
d. London House Personnel Selection Inventory
ANSWER: a
51. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for balancing validity and diversity in selection?
a. Use job analysis to carefully define the nature of performance on the job.
b. Enhance applicant reactions.
c. Use well-established predictor measurement methods when feasible.
d. Decrease the cognitive loading of predictors and minimize verbal ability and reading requirements.
ANSWER: c
52. Applicants react most favourably when employers use which of the following selection methods?
a. work samples and personality tests
b. references and résumés
c. interviews and work samples
d. skill tests and informal interviews
ANSWER: c
53. Integrity tests that try to predict whether employees will steal, be absent, or otherwise take advantage of an employer
don’t work very well in practice because so many people lie on them or fake their answers.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: False
54. Although people use many terms to describe different personalities, there are only four basic dimensions of
personality as captured by the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
55. Despite the popularity of drug testing, there is no clear evidence that applicants who score positive on drug tests are
less reliable or productive employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
56. Being very intelligent can be a disadvantage for an employee working at a low-skilled job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
57. The central requirement for any selection tests or assessment procedures is that they accurately assess the individual’s
performance, or capacity to perform, the essential components of the job in question safely, efficiently, and reliably.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
58. The employer’s goal for employment testing is to select those candidates who best possess the knowledge, skills,
abilities, and other attributes that lead to successful job performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
59. The Human Rights Commission will not accept being free from HIV/AIDS as a bona fide occupation requirement
unless it can be proven that such a requirement is essential to the safe, efficient, and reliable performance of the essential
functions of a job or is a justified requirement for receiving programs or services.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
60. Psychological testing is a standardized procedure used to obtain a sample of a person’s behaviour and to describe the
behaviour with the aid of some measurement scale.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
61. The common wisdom in the literature on employee selection—that cognitive ability testing is not biased against
minority group members—is now being significantly challenged.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
62. There is minimal evidence that cognitive ability measurements can serve as a consistent predictor in training and on
the job performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
63. A specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance is also called cognitive ability.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
64. General cognitive ability is among the most powerful predictors of success in training and job performance for a
variety of occupational groups.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
65. Physical requirements for occupational tasks usually fall into three categories: strength, endurance, and speed.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
66. A disability cannot be used to screen out applicants unless it can be demonstrated that the ability in question is a bona
fide occupational requirement.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
67. The intent of physical fitness tests is to ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to cope with the
physical demands of the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
68. Employers have an obligation to accommodate all workers who have a medical or physical condition.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
69. Fitness testing or physical or medical examinations should be administered only after the applicant has been given an
offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or exam.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
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70. Employers have an obligation to accommodate workers with medical or physical conditions on an individual basis.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
71. Positive drug test results always lead to dismissal of the tested employee from the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
72. Canadian employers can discriminate on the basis of medical, genetic, or physical condition if the condition poses a
serious and demonstrable impediment to the conduct of the work or poses serious threats to the health and safety of
people.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
73. Work samples and simulations are testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job
performance under controlled conditions that approximate those found in the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
74. Situational exercises assess aptitude or proficiency in performing important job tasks by using tasks that are abstract
and less realistic than those performed on the actual job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
75. Testing as a stand-alone program doesn’t provide employers with the best results.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
76. There is very little difference among personality inventories in terms of how well they predict an employee’s
performance.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
77. Applicants react most favourably to tests that allow them to demonstrate their creativity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
78. Refer to an organization and job position you are familiar with. Describe a selection test you would use as part of your
hiring process and your rationale for using the test. Describe the critical points you would consider in selecting the test.
ANSWER: Ability and Aptitude Tests
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Selection programs seek to predict the degree to which job applicants possess the KSAOs related to the job.
Many different tests have been developed to measure specific human abilities and aptitudes.
Ability is an enduring, general trait or characteristic on which people differ and that they bring to the work
situation (e.g., finger dexterity required to operate a keyboard).
Skill refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through
performing the task (e.g., different skill levels or proficiencies in using a keyboard).
Aptitude is a specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance. (e.g., being able to
predict that a job applicant has an aptitude for operating a keyboard based on finger dexterity).
Over the years, Fleishman and his associates have identified 52 distinct human abilities that can be grouped
into four broad categories: cognitive, psychomotor, physical, and sensory/perceptual abilities.
Cognitive ability refers to intelligence, general cognitive or mental ability, or intellectual ability (e.g.,
numerical ability, reasoning, memory, and problem solving).
Practical intelligence means knowing how to get things done without the help of others. This can also be
characterized as “street smarts” or “common sense.”
Emotional intelligence is a set of abilities that include self-control, zeal, and persistence, and the ability to
motivate oneself. It is the ability to perceive accurately, appraise, and express emotion; access and/or generate
feelings when they facilitate thought; understand emotions and emotional knowledge; and generate emotions
to promote emotional and intellectual growth. Daniel Goldman expresses this as the ability to persist in the
face of frustration; control impulse and delay gratification; regulate one’s moods; and keep distress from
swamping the ability to think, empathize, and hope.
General cognitive or mental ability is thought to be the primary ability among those that make up intellectual
capacity. General cognitive ability is thought to promote effective learning. Measures of general cognitive
ability (i.e., the ability to learn) are among the most powerful predictors of success in training and job
performance for a variety of occupational groups.
Tacit knowledge is knowledge derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective.
Job knowledge is the degree to which a job applicant or employee is knowledgeable about issues or procedures
that are essential for successful job performance.
Psychomotor abilities are traits or characteristics that involve the control of muscle movements (e.g., motor
coordination).
Physical abilities are traits or characteristics that involve the use or application of muscle force over varying
periods of time either alone or in conjunction with an ability to maintain balance or gross body coordination.
Sensory/perceptual abilities are traits or characteristics that involve different aspects of vision and audition, as
well as the other senses.
Work Samples and Simulation Tests
Work samples and/or simulation tests are used to assess the competencies that are less amenable to traditional
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cognitive ability and personality testing. Work samples and simulations are testing procedures that require job
candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions that approximate
those found in the job. Work samples produce a closer approximation to the work environment and actual job.
Situational exercises assess aptitude or proficiency in performing important job tasks by using tasks that are
abstract and less realistic than those performed on the actual job. Situational judgment tests are a type of
situational exercise designed to measure an applicant’s judgment in workplace or professional situations.
Leaderless group discussions are simulation exercises designed to assess leadership, organizational, and
communication skills. An in-basket test is a simulation exercise designed to assess organizational and
problem-solving skills.
Some examples include the following: written communication skills are best assessed by obtaining a sample of
the candidate’s writing, oral communication skills are best assessed by watching the candidate give an oral
presentation, and leadership and influence within teams are best assessed by observing the candidate
participate in a simulated unstructured group situation.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 8.2, A Sample Situational Judgment Test Item.
Assessment Centres
Assessment centres are a standardized procedure that involves the use of multiple measurement techniques to
evaluate candidates for selection, classification, and promotion. Assessment centres generally include tests or
procedures from each of the following categories: ability and aptitude tests; personality tests, both objective
and projective; situational exercises; and interviews.
Physical Fitness and Medical Examinations
The intent of physical fitness and medical examinations is to ensure that an applicant meets minimum
standards of health to cope with the physical demands of the job. Fitness testing or physical or medical
examinations should be administered only after the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is
made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or exam.
Genetic testing or monitoring of genetic material to determine a genetic propensity or susceptibility to illness
resulting from various workplace chemicals or substances raises ethical and legal considerations.
Canadian employers cannot discriminate on the basis of medical, genetic, or physical condition unless that
condition poses a serious and demonstrable impediment to the conduct of the work or poses serious threats to
the health and safety of people. Employers have an obligation to accommodate workers with medical or
physical conditions on an individual basis.
Drug and Alcohol Testing
Employers often believe that workplace drug and alcohol use is an added expense through costs associated
with employee accidents, absenteeism, turnover, and tardiness. There also may be costs associated with
reduced product quality and productivity on the part of employees who use drug and alcohol in the workplace.
The Canadian Human Rights Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability or an employer’s
perception that a disability makes an individual unfit to work. A previous or current drug or alcohol problem is
a disability. The following types of testing are not acceptable: pre-employment drug testing, pre-employment
alcohol testing, random drug testing, or random alcohol testing of employees in non-safety-sensitive positions.
If employers can establish a BFOR, the following types of drug or alcohol testing can be administered:
random alcohol testing of employees in safety-sensitive jobs, drug or alcohol testing for reasonable cause or
post-accident discovery, periodic or random testing following disclosure of a current drug or alcohol
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dependency or abuse problem, and mandatory disclosure of present or past drug dependency or alcohol abuse.
Personality Tests
Personality is a set of characteristics or properties that influence, or help to explain, an individual’s behaviour.
Personality traits are stable, measurable characteristics that help explain ways in which people vary. The Big
Five Personality Dimensions are five major personality dimensions that relate to job performance. Refer to
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 8.4, The Big Five Personality Dimensions.
Self-report inventory involves short, written statements related to various personality traits. For example, “I
constantly interrupt other people when they are speaking.” Polygraph and honesty (integrity) tests involve
measuring those honesty or integrity personality traits that can be measured. The polygraph test is based on the
assumption that measurable, physiological changes occur when people lie, and that no matter how hard they
try to control their responses, changes take place in heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. In Canada,
Ontario prohibits the use of mandatory polygraph tests under its Employment Standards Act. Polygraph testing
has no place in any selection program.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 8.3, Buyer Beware.
Critical points to consider in selecting a test include the following:
∙ Determine the knowledge, skills, abilities, or other qualities that have been related to job success through a
job analysis.
∙ Consult an information resource on testing to identify tests that are relevant to your job needs. Obtain
information from several sources, including test publishers or developers and human resources consultants
who are knowledgeable about testing.
∙ Obtain information on several tests related to what you want to measure. Read through the materials provided
by the test developers. Reject out of hand any test for which the publisher or developer presents unclear or
incomplete information.
∙ Read the technical documentation to become familiar with how and when the test was developed and used.
Does the technical documentation provide information on the test’s reliability and validity? Does it address the
issue of test fairness? Does it include normative data based on sex, age, and ethnicity that are comparable to
your intended test takers? Does it include references for independent investigations of the test’s psychometric
properties? Eliminate from consideration any tests whose documentation does not allow you to answer “yes”
to these questions.
∙ Read the independent evaluations of the tests that you are considering adopting. Does the independent
evidence support the claims of the test developers? Is the test valid and reliable? Eliminate those tests that are
not supported by this evidence.
∙ Examine a specimen set from each of the remaining tests. Most publishers will sell a package that includes a
copy of the test, instructions, test manual, answer sheets, and sample score report at a reasonable cost. Is the
test format and reading level appropriate for the intended test takers? Is the content of the test appropriate for
the intended test takers? Eliminate those tests that you do not feel are appropriate.
∙ Determine the skill level needed to purchase the test, to administer the test, and to interpret test scores
correctly. Do you have the appropriate level of expertise? If not, does someone else in your organization meet
the test’s requirements, or can you contract out for the services of a qualified psychologist or human resources
professional who does?
∙ Select and use only those tests that are psychometrically sound, that meet the needs of your intended test
takers, and that you have the necessary skills to administer, score, and interpret correctly.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 8.2, Points to Consider in Selecting a Test.
79. What is the goal of employment testing?
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ANSWER:
The employer’s goal is to select those candidates who best possess the knowledge, skills, abilities, other
attributes (KSAOs), and competencies that lead to successful job performance. KSAOs must be related to job
performance requirements that are identified through a job analysis. The central requirement for any tests or
assessment procedures is that they accurately assess the individual’s performance or capacity to perform the
essential components of the job in question safely, efficiently, and reliably.
80. The only tests with any value in terms of hiring decisions are those that meet accepted professional standards for their
development and use. Describe these testing standards.
ANSWER:
The development of reliable and valid tests takes considerable time and effort. Tests must be reliable, valid,
fair, and unbiased, as well as have utility.
81. What is psychological testing, and how are psychological tests used?
ANSWER:
Psychological testing is a standardized procedure used to obtain a sample of a person’s behaviour and to
describe the behaviour with the aid of some measurement scale. Psychological testing is one of the oldest and
most common methods used to quantify how individuals differ with respect to some variable of interest.
Psychological tests are used for many different purposes in a variety of settings, such as schools, counselling
centres, clinical settings, hospitals, and business organizations. In business or organizational settings,
psychological tests are used to hire people, to classify those selected into the most appropriate positions, to
assist in the promotion of people, and to identify needs for training.
82. What do aptitude or ability tests measure? Explain the difference between an ability, skill, and aptitude, providing an
example of each. Describe one test and its relationship to employment testing for selection decisions.
ANSWER:
Selection programs seek to predict the degree to which job applicants possess the KSAOs related to the job.
Many different tests have been developed to measure specific human abilities and aptitudes.
Ability is an enduring, general trait or characteristic on which people differ and that they bring to the work
situation (e.g., finger dexterity required to operate a keyboard).
Skill refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through
performing the task (e.g., different skill levels or proficiencies in using a keyboard).
Aptitude is a specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance (e.g., being able to
predict that a job applicant has an aptitude for operating a keyboard based on finger dexterity).
Cognitive ability refers to intelligence, general cognitive or mental ability, or intellectual ability (e.g.,
numerical ability, reasoning, memory, and problem solving).
Practical intelligence is knowing how to get things done without the help of others. This can also be
characterized as “street smarts” or “common sense.”
Emotional intelligence is a set of abilities that include self-control, zeal, and persistence, and the ability to
motivate oneself. It is the ability to perceive accurately, appraise, and express emotion; access and/or generate
feelings when they facilitate thought; understand emotions and emotional knowledge; and generate emotions
to promote emotional and intellectual growth. Daniel Goldman expresses this as the ability to persist in the
face of frustration; control impulse and delay gratification; regulate one’s moods; and keep distress from
swamping the ability to think, empathize, and hope.
General cognitive or mental ability is thought to be the primary ability among those that make up intellectual
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capacity. General cognitive ability is thought to promote effective learning. Measures of general cognitive
ability (i.e., the ability to learn) are among the most powerful predictors of success in training and job
performance for a variety of occupational groups.
Tacit knowledge is knowledge derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective.
Job knowledge is the degree to which a job applicant or employee is knowledgeable about issues or procedures
that are essential for successful job performance.
Psychomotor abilities are traits or characteristics that involve the control of muscle movements (e.g., motor
coordination).
Physical abilities are traits or characteristics that involve the use or application of muscle force over varying
periods of time, either alone or in conjunction with an ability to maintain balance or gross body coordination.
Sensory/perceptual abilities are traits or characteristics that involve different aspects of vision and audition, as
well as the other senses.
83. Selection programs seek to predict the degree to which job applicants possess the knowledge, skills, abilities, and
other attributes related to the job. Define, describe, and give an example of two work samples and/or simulation tests and
how they predict particular job-relevant knowledge, skills, abilities and other attributes.
ANSWER:
Work samples and/or simulation tests are used to assess the competencies that are less amenable to traditional
cognitive ability and personality testing. Work samples and simulations are testing procedures that require job
candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions that approximate
those found in the job. Work samples produce a closer approximation to the work environment and actual job.
Situational exercises assess aptitude or proficiency in performing important job tasks by using tasks that are
abstract and less realistic than those performed on the actual job. Situational judgment tests are a type of
situational exercise designed to measure an applicant’s judgment in workplace or professional situations.
Leaderless group discussions are simulation exercises designed to assess leadership, organizational, and
communication skills. An in-basket test is a simulation exercise designed to assess organizational and
problem-solving skills.
Some examples include the following: written communication skills are best assessed by obtaining a sample of
the candidate’s writing, oral communication skills are best assessed by watching the candidate give an oral
presentation, and leadership and influence within teams are best assessed by observing the candidate
participate in a simulated unstructured group situation.
84. What is personality and what are two ways that personality can be measured?
ANSWER:
Personality is a set of characteristics or properties that influence, or help to explain, an individual’s behaviour.
Personality traits are stable, measurable characteristics that help explain ways in which people vary. The Big
Five Personality Dimensions are five major personality dimensions that relate to job performance. Refer to
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 8.4, The Big Five Personality Dimensions.
Self-report inventory involves short, written statements related to various personality traits. For example, “I
constantly interrupt other people when they are speaking.” Polygraph and honesty (integrity) tests involve
measuring those honesty or integrity personality traits that can be measured. The polygraph test is based on the
assumption that measurable, physiological changes occur when people lie, and that no matter how hard they
try to control their responses, changes take place in heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure. In Canada,
Ontario prohibits the use of mandatory polygraph tests under its Employment Standards Act. Polygraph testing
has no place in any selection program.
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Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 8.3, Buyer Beware.
85. Why are distortion and faking important to consider when using self-report inventories for personnel selection?
ANSWER:
∙ Distortion occurs in self-report inventories when job applicants attempt to improve their chances of being
hired by purposefully responding to the questions with answers they feel would be more acceptable than their
own interpretation.
∙ When this occurs, the applicants might be rank-ordered to a higher level than had they not responded with a
fictitious answer. This may potentially lead to the hiring of an individual who would normally have been
screened out of the selection process with inadequate results.
∙ Some tests have been reviewed for their ability to fake the response. See Table 8.2, Comparison of Integrity
Tests, for things to consider when applying the test to potential applicants.
∙ Faking occurs when individuals respond to inventory questions with answers that do not reflect their true
beliefs or feelings.
∙ Essentially, these concepts reveal that it is statistically possible to have high reliability and validity yet also
have high faking potential. Therefore, it is important to focus on not only the quantitative aspects of testing but
also the behavioural aspects of potential applicants taking the tests and their motivations for skewing their
results.
86. It is important to evaluate the effectiveness of selection tests. Define all the ways in which one might compare
integrity tests.
ANSWER:
Integrity tests can be compared in terms of the following dimensions:
∙ What is the test’s reliability?
∙ What is the test’s validity?
∙ What is the test’s faking potential?
∙ Is the test available in other languages?
∙ Are technical manuals available for learning how to implement the test?
∙ Can the test be applied in Canada according to Canadian legislation?
∙ Are some aspects of the test up to standard or not up to standard?
∙ How is the desired user defined—as an applicant or current employee?
∙ Can the test be upgraded or revised?
∙ Does the test meet the available standards for testing?
∙ Can the test be applied globally?
∙ Is the test outdated or obsolete?
∙ Is the test theoretically sound?
87. Which of the commonly used predictors used in selection are best? Which should be considered for adoption as part of
a selection system?
ANSWER:
The answer is in the job analysis: the selection measures must provide information that is related to a specific
job, or class of jobs, being staffed. Selection measures must meet prevailing psychometric and professional
standards. They must also be viewed in the context of fairness and legal and organizational policies.
Refer to Table 8.3, Mean Validities for Predictors Used in Selection with Overall Job Performance as the
Criterion.
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1. What is a screening employment interview best suited to assess?
a. ability to orally communicate
b. stress management
c. job knowledge
d. information on the résumé
ANSWER: d
2. From the employer’s perspective, which of the following is NOT a benefit of conducting a job interview?
a. It can measure honesty.
b. It can sell the job to the applicant.
c. It can assess job knowledge.
d. It can evaluate job fit.
ANSWER: a
3. According to Statistics Canada’s Workplace and Employee Survey, what percentage of surveyed firms used
interviews in their pre-hiring selection?
a. 45 percent
b. 60 percent
c. 80 percent
d. 90 percent
ANSWER: c
4. According to Videotron, which of the following is NOT a benefit of speed interviewing?
a. Potential biases of any one interviewer are cancelled out.
b. The performance of new employees can be ensured with standard questions.
c. A large number of candidates can be assessed in a cost-effective manner.
d. The candidate’s job suitability is assessed accurately and robustly.
ANSWER: b
5. What is one negative outcome of pre-interview chit-chat?
a. It is usually a waste of time and deemed unimportant in the screening process.
b. The conversation might lead the candidate to believe that the interviewer is interested in his or her
social life.
c. The candidate might not think that the interview has started and be too relaxed.
d. Questions may uncover information on prohibited grounds.
ANSWER: d
6. Which concept refers to the interviewers’ beliefs about the requirements of the job and the characteristics of
the applicants?
a. initial impression
b. stereotype
c. knowledge structure
d. bias
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ANSWER: c
7. What is a traditional method of interviewing that involves no constraints on the questions asked, no
requirements for standardization, and a subjective assessment of the candidate?
a. structured interview
b. serial interview
c. panel interview
d. unstructured interview
ANSWER: d
8. Which of the following defines how applicants attempt to create a favourable impression of themselves by
monitoring interviewer reactions and responding accordingly?
a. creating a false impression
b. impression management
c. organizational fit
d. telling interviewers what they want to hear
ANSWER: b
9. Which type of interview consists of a standardized set of job-relevant questions and a scoring guide?
a. serial interview
b. formal interview
c. structured interview
d. unstructured interview
ANSWER: c
10. Which of the following would NOT contribute to the structure of an employment interview?
a. interview questions that are derived from a job analysis
b. rating scales that are anchored with behavioural examples to illustrate scale points
c. questions from the candidate that are permitted throughout the interview
d. a limited amount of prompting, follow-up questioning, and probing
ANSWER: c
11. Which of the following components is NOT a feature of most structured interview formats?
a. Interview questions are standardized and derived from a job analysis.
b. Questions from the candidate are not allowed until after the interview.
c. All applicants are asked the same questions.
d. Interview questions focus on opinions and self-evaluations.
ANSWER: d
12. As outlined in the textbook, which of the following is NOT an element that contributes to a structured
interview?
a. Interview questions are job related.
b. All applicants are asked the same interview questions.
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c. Interview questions probe for opinions or self-evaluations.
d. Interviewers engage candidates with open-ended questions .
ANSWER: c
13. Which interviews are conducted by two or more interviewers separately or in sequence?
a. serial interviews
b. panel interviews
c. selection committee interviews
d. scheduled interviews
ANSWER: a
14. Which type of structured interview describes hypothetical on-the-job incidents and asks applicants what they
would do?
a. behaviour description interview
b. situational interview
c. comprehensive structured interview
d. behavioural sample interview
ANSWER: b
15. “You have scheduled a course, hired a teacher, and registered students. On the day of the course, students
arrive; however, the teacher does not show up. What do you do?” What type of interview question is this?
a. behavioural
b. real-life
c. situational
d. leading
ANSWER: c
16. You ask an applicant questions about his or her past experiences relevant to the job position for which you
are hiring. What type of interview question is this?
a. hypothetical
b. real-life
c. situational
d. behavioural
ANSWER: d
17. Which of the following is NOT a structured employment interview technique?
a. behavioural
b. experience-based
c. situational
d. sequential
ANSWER: d
18. Which of the following is a key assumption of situational interviewing?
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a. There are patterns in people’s behaviour.
b. Behaviour patterns are not easily changed.
c. People will behave in ways they say they will.
d. Past performance may be a reliable indicator of a person’s future on-the-job performance.
ANSWER: c
19. An organization would like to use a structured interview in which the applicants are asked to describe what
they did in given situations in the past. What type of interview will the organization use?
a. behaviour description interview
b. situational interview
c. comprehensive structured interview
d. behavioural sample interview
ANSWER: a
20. If the competency for a job is self-confidence, what would be an example of a behavioural indicator?
a. volunteer for the care of a challenging patient
b. interpersonal relations
c. initiative
d. conscientiousness
ANSWER: a
21. If a competency for a job is communication, what would be an example of a behavioural indicator?
a. responding to clients and concerns
b. interpersonal relations
c. analytical skills
d. oral and written communication skills
ANSWER: a
22. What type of questioning may lead to some interviewees having an unfair advantage?
a. using probes to gather further information from a candidate
b. asking about situations the candidate has not experienced
c. asking hypothetical questions
d. asking about the candidate’s hobbies
ANSWER: d
23. Which of the following is NOT included in the major content areas to be covered in an interviewer training
program?
a. eliminating or reducing common sources of bias and perceptual errors
b. putting the applicants at ease
c. using closed-ended questions
d. developing good listening skills
ANSWER: c
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Scenario 9-1
Medical Office Assistant
Okanagan Medical Clinic (OMC), Kelowna, B.C.
We are looking for a Medical Office Assistant (MOA) to join our medical team. The primary focus of the MOA
position is to provide office administration support services to two medical doctors. The essential functions and
responsibilities include the following: as a primary point of contact, answers phones and gathers patient
information, ensuring all patients are greeted professionally while showing respect and patience; and uses
health-care software and MS office computer applications to schedule appointments and prepare reports,
invoices, financial statements, letters, case histories, transcriptions, and medical records. The incumbent
exercises adaptability, initiative, organization, time management, and independent judgment in the performance
of assigned tasks.
The successful candidate must possess strong written and oral communication skills and an advanced
knowledge of computer programs, including Microsoft Word, Excel, Outlook, Internet Explorer, Access, and
PowerPoint. The applicant must be able to work and communicate effectively in a small business team
environment and build effective interpersonal working relationships with professional employees and clients.
The standard office hours include some evening and weekend work. MOAs are routinely required to lift
medical equipment and/or supplies weighing up to 10 kilograms and are regularly exposed to contagious
diseases.
Required qualifications include completion of Grade 12 plus graduation from either an MOA or office
administration certificate program. Bookkeeping and medical industry experience would be considered a highly
weighted asset.
This is a full-time position effective immediately. The salary is competitive and will depend on education and
experience. Please apply in confidence by email to omc@okanagan.bc.ca.
24. Refer to Scenario 9-1. Why does OMC use an employment interview?
a. It is used as one of the first stages in the selection process.
b. It is used to assess the noncognitive attributes such as interpersonal working relationships, initiative,
and conscientiousness.
c. It is used to reduce costs.
d. It is used to confirm information that was provided in the résumé.
ANSWER: b
25. Refer to Scenario 9-1. A past MOA applicant’s résumé indicated that she had several years’ experience as a
medical library assistant. She was very personable during the interview, and the interview committee was
extremely impressed by her familiarity with medicine and medical research. She was hired and then terminated
within three months. What went wrong?
a. The doctors reviewed and shortlisted the applicants.
b. The doctors doing the interview misunderstood what the position really involved.
c. The applicant’s interview behaviour was given more weight than the required KSAOs.
d. The applicant’s information was obtained and evaluated through several selection methods.
ANSWER: c
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26. Refer to Scenario 9-1. The doctors are particularly concerned about the potential for increased costs if they
use a multiple-phase selection process. For what would you NOT want to use the employment interview time?
a. to assess applicants’ noncognitive attributes
b. to assess applicants’ personal characteristics
c. to verify applicants’ certifications and to assess their job knowledge
d. to assess applicants for initiative and conscientiousness
ANSWER: c
27. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What is the first step OMC would take at the interview stage of the selection process?
a. Identify MOA behavioural indicators.
b. Recruit and attract MOAs.
c. Define and prioritize MOA competencies.
d. Screen and test MOAs.
ANSWER: c
28. Refer to Scenario 9-1. For which of the following would OMC screen and test?
a. knowledge
b. skills
c. abilities
d. noncognitive attributes
ANSWER: d
29. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What do you call the attempt of MOA applicants to create a favourable impression of
themselves by monitoring an interviewer’s reactions and responding accordingly?
a. creating a false impression
b. impression management
c. organizational fit
d. telling interviewers what they want to hear
ANSWER: b
30. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC has always used a traditional method of interviewing that involved no
constraints on the questions asked, no requirements for standardization, and a subjective assessment of the
candidate. What type of interview did the organization use?
a. structured interview
b. serial interview
c. situational interview
d. unstructured interview
ANSWER: d
31. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC believes that “What are your strengths?” and “What are your weaknesses?”
have always been good interview questions in the past. Which of the following is NOT a problem when asking
these commonly used questions?
a. They invite applicants to evaluate themselves, creating overly positive inaccurate impressions.
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b. Applicants can prepare standard answers.
c. Answers reveal little information about the applicant’s job-related knowledge, skills, abilities, and
other attributes.
d. They are easy and quick to use.
ANSWER: d
32. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC plans to incorporate all of the following to structure its employment interviews
and ensure they are reliable and valid. Which one of the following will NOT ensure reliability and validity?
a. deriving interview questions from a job analysis
b. using standardized interview questions
c. asking all applicants the same questions
d. asking interview questions that probe for opinions and self-evaluations
ANSWER: d
33. Refer to Scenario 9-1. OMC would like to use a structured interview in which the applicant is asked to
describe what he or she did in given situations in the past. What type of interview is this?
a. behaviour description interview
b. situational interview
c. comprehensive structured interview
d. behavioural sample interview
ANSWER: a
34. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What are three competencies of the MOA that OMC would interview for?
a. adaptability, initiative, and conscientiousness
b. organization, time management, and office computer applications
c. scheduling appointments, preparing reports, and greeting patients professionally
d. independent judgment, interpersonal working relationships, and office computer applications
ANSWER: a
35. Refer to Scenario 9-1. What are the MOA screening interviews best suited to assess?
a. job knowledge
b. employment skills
c. aptitudes and abilities
d. information not on the résumé
ANSWER: d
36. Refer to Scenario 9-1. The outcome of an employment interview can be strongly dominated by the
impression that the doctors doing the interview have of the applicant. Which of the following would NOT be a
source of information that creates impressions that influence the interview process and outcomes?
a. the interviewers’ knowledge structures
b. the interviewers’ initial impressions of the applicant’s qualifications
c. the applicant’s reaction to the interview
d. the applicant’s processing of data from the interview
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ANSWER: d
37. Which of the following would be used as a preliminary interview designed to fill gaps left on the candidate’s
application form or résumé?
a. a behavioural interview
b. a screening interview
c. a situational interview
d. a sequential interview
ANSWER: b
38. According to researchers Seijts and Kyei-Poku, what did their findings reveal?
a. Applicants had less of an opportunity for impression management if the organization had adopted an
employment equity program.
b. Applicants perceived less stress and negative reactions if the organization had adopted an
employment equity program.
c. Applicants perceived the structured interview to be fairer than the unstructured interview if the
organization had adopted an employment equity program.
d. Applicants were more likely to accept a job offer and perceive the organization as attractive if the
organization had adopted an employment equity program.
ANSWER: c
39. Which sentence does NOT describe frame-of-reference training?
a. It helps interviewers understand the performance dimensions they are assessing.
b. It contributes significantly to inter-rater reliability and rating accuracy.
c. It defines and describes behavioural examples for different performance levels for each dimension.
d. It allows interviewers to model the acceptable behaviours to the candidates they are interviewing.
ANSWER: d
40. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the multiple mini-interview?
a. It involves simulations and role-playing exercises.
b. It is used to assess noncognitive and interpersonal skills.
c. It has reliability ranges of 0.79 to 0.89 with a mean of 0.83.
d. It is not correlated with the Big Five measures of personality.
ANSWER: c
41. Which approach to interviewing was popularized by Microsoft in the 1990s?
a. puzzle interviews
b. speed interviews
c. serial interviews
d. behavioural interviews
ANSWER: a
42. Interviews are most frequently used as preliminary screening devices, as opposed to assisting in making
final decisions at the end of a selection process.
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a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
43. Interviews are best suited to the assessment of noncognitive attributes such as interpersonal relations or
social skills, initiative, conscientiousness, dependability, perseverance, teamwork, and leadership.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
44. Employment interviews are the most popular selection procedure among employers and employees.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
45. Employment interviews need to be based on a job analysis so that they assess job-relevant KSAOs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
46. As job requirements change in response to the ever-changing workplace, organizations are beginning to shift
the focus of selection from specific job skills to organizational fit, transferable skills, and personality attributes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
47. Interviews have been used in the termination of employees during a downsizing or “rightsizing” process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
48. Before the interview begins, the interviewer already has an impression of the applicant and the degree to
which the applicant appears suitable or unsuitable for the position.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49. Factors such as the applicant’s physical appearance and nonverbal behaviours during the interview can
affect the interviewer’s evaluation of the applicant.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
50. Research on employment interviews indicates that structuring an interview appears to increase interview
reliability and validity.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
51. Structuring factors include standardization, job relatedness of interview questions, and standardized scoring
systems.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
52. An interview conducted by two or more interviewers together at one time is referred to as a panel interview.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
53. Serial interviews are also known as sequential interviews.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. An ideal answer to a situational interview question must be exactly as it is written in the scoring guide.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
55. A probe is an initial question asked by an interviewer to prompt a candidate about his or her current job
knowledge.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
56. The situational interview is a highly structured interview in which hypothetical situations are described and
applicants are asked what they would do.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
57. One concern with the behaviour description interview is that applicants could make up stories about events
that never happened.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
58. The experienced-based interview involves asking the interviewees to describe in detail how they perform a
job-related task while visualizing themselves performing the task.
a. True
b. False
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ANSWER: False
59. In a 2007 study by researchers Simola, Taggar, and Smith, more than 48.2 percent of Canadian HR
practitioners reported using behaviour description interview questions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
60. Multiple mini-interviews were pioneered by researchers at the University of Toronto in 2002 in order to
select applicants to its medical school.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
61. Describe three purposes of the employment interview.
ANSWER: The major purpose of the interview is for the interviewer to assess how well the applicant “fits” the
requirements of the job and to select and hire the best possible person for the job. The goal is to have
job openings filled by applicants who will make the greatest contribution to the organization once
hired. The interview can be a practical and time-efficient selection tool for hiring the right person if
the following guidelines are consistently followed:
• Interviews are most frequently used as one of the last stages in the selection processes.
• It is desirable to reduce the number of interviewees because interviews are relatively expensive,
compared with other selection instruments such as tests or the screening of résumés.
• The interview is often used to collect information that is not provided in the résumé or application
form.
• Interviews are best suited to the assessment of noncognitive attributes such as interpersonal
relations or social skills, initiative, conscientiousness, dependability, perseverance, teamwork, and
leadership.
• Interviews are also used to sell the job to the applicant.
• Interviews have also been used in the termination of employees as a result of downsizing or
“rightsizing” when jobs are eliminated and employees must compete for a smaller number of
redesigned jobs.
62. As an HRM, what is the first step you would take at the interview stage of the selection process? What are
employment interviews best suited to assess?
ANSWER: The first step in the interview stage of the selection process is to define and prioritize the
competencies of the job that cannot be screened or tested for. Interviews are best suited to the
assessment of noncognitive attributes such as interpersonal relations or social skills, initiative,
conscientiousness, dependability, perseverance, teamwork, and leadership. These personal
characteristics are stable, not easy to change, not easy to see, and not easy to test and screen for.
Knowledge, skills, and abilities are more variable, visible, easy to change, easy to see, and easier and
less costly to test and screen for.
63. Employment interviews are complex interactions between interviewers and applicants that occur in the
context of a larger selection system. The outcome of an employment interview can be strongly dominated by the
impression that the interviewer has of the applicant. What sources of information create interview impressions
that influence the interview process and outcomes? Provide an example of an interview impression error you
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have experienced and how you would reduce the effects of this inaccurate impression in future interviews.
ANSWER: The interviewer needs to process and make sense of a large amount of complex and often
inconsistent or contradictory information. R.L. Dipboye has developed a model to help us better
understand the information-processing and decision-making challenges faced by the interviewer.
Interviewers need to recognize their biases, perceptual errors, and stereotypes as they move toward
conducting more valid structured interviewing techniques.
The interviewer comes to the interview with knowledge structures: the interviewer’s beliefs about the
requirements of the job and the characteristics of the applicants. These knowledge structures are
developed through formal training and previous experience, and can be accurate or inaccurate. An
example of a knowledge structure is that “good grades reflect hard work and conscientiousness.”
Initial information about applicants prior to the interview comes from the résumé or application form,
references, test scores, and other information. This information contributes to the initial impressions
of the applicant’s qualifications. These pre-interview impressions can influence the interviewer’s
conduct in the interview. Some examples are that interviewers may be less or more attentive
depending on their initial impressions and may seek information to confirm those initial impressions.
How the interviewer behaves can affect the applicant’s performance in the interview. An example is
an applicant who senses that the interviewer has developed a negative impression of him or her. The
applicant may then experience anxiety, which negatively affects the interview. The interviewer and
applicant continue to influence each other throughout the interview.
When interviewers process data from an interview, they are strongly influenced by their knowledge
structures and their initial impressions of the applicant.
In the post-interview stage, the interviewer evaluates the applicant’s qualifications and then makes a
final decision about the applicant. The evaluation of the applicant’s qualifications is dominated by
global impressions obtained in the interview.
The interviewer’s final decision about the applicant is influenced by various factors, such as pressure
to hire quickly, hiring quotas, and interdepartmental or intradepartmental politics. Sometimes
personal motivations influence interviewers’ decisions, particularly when they know the applicant (or
one of the applicant’s referees), or have something in common with the applicant.
Refer to Figure 9.1, A Model of the Core Processes of the Interview and Its Contexts.
64. What is an unstructured interview?
ANSWER: An unstructured interview is a traditional method of interviewing that involves no constraints on the
questions asked, no requirements for standardization, and a subjective assessment of the candidate.
These interviews are characterized by freewheeling conversation with the candidate and no
constraints on the kinds of questions asked. In an unstructured interview, no systematic rating is used.
Interviewers are free to interpret the interviewee responses in any manner they choose, usually
subjectively.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 9.4, Commonly Used Interview Questions, and
Recruitment and Selection Notebook 9.2, Some Research Findings on the Unstructured Interview.
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65. Several elements contribute to a structured interview. Describe five of these.
ANSWER: A structured interview consists of a standardized set of job-relevant questions and a scoring guide.
Structuring an interview appears to increase interview reliability and validity. The following
elements contribute to the structure of an interview:
• Interview questions are derived from a job analysis and are job related.
• Interview questions are standardized (all applicants are asked the same questions).
• Prompting, follow-up questioning, probing, and/or elaboration on questions are limited.
• Interview questions focus on work behaviours or work samples rather than opinions or selfevaluations.
• Interviewer access to ancillary information (e.g., résumés, letters of reference, test scores,
transcripts) is controlled.
• Questions from the candidate are not allowed until after the interview questions have been asked.
• Each answer is rated during the interview using a rating scale tailored to the question.
• Rating scales are “anchored” with behavioural examples to illustrate scale points.
• The total interview score is obtained by summing across scores for each of the questions.
• Detailed notes are taken during the interview (such notes should be a record of applicant behaviours
related in the interview as opposed to evaluations of applicants).
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 9.3, The Structured Interviewing Process.
66. What is the difference between a panel and a serial interview?
ANSWER: Two or more interviewers together conduct panel interviews at the same time.
Serial interviews are a series of interviews in which the applicant is interviewed separately by each of
two or more interviewers.
67. Describe two structured employment interview techniques.
ANSWER: The situational interview is a highly structured interview in which hypothetical situations are
described and applicants are asked what they would do. The interviewer uses a scoring guide
consisting of sample answers to each question to evaluate and score the applicant’s answers. A
scoring guide is a behavioural rating scale consisting of sample answers to each question used by the
interviewer to evaluate and score the applicant’s answers.
The behaviour description interview is a structured interview in which applicants are asked to
describe what they did in given situations in the past.
The behavioural sample interview is a structured interview technique. These include job knowledge
interviews; work sample interviews; and walk-through interviews, which require the demonstration
of behaviours in the present.
68. Total Rewards Assistant
Municipality of Smithville Ontario (MOS)
We are a dynamic and growing municipal government organization dedicated to providing the highest standard
of services to our citizens. This position will provide administrative support in the implementation and
management of Total Rewards programs including compensation and benefits administration and oversight of
the region’s recognition events.
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The ideal candidate will possess post-secondary education in human resources, business, or a related field with
a minimum of three years’ experience in human resources environment. Knowledge of human resources
functions such as job evaluation, performance management, benefit administration and training and
development are essential. Excellent communication and organizational skills are required to manage timelines
associated with the region’s annual employee recognition event. Strong attention to detail and project
management skills are essential as is comprehensive experience with MS Office Suite including advanced
knowledge of Excel and SAP.
Duties:
• Plans and coordinates annual long-service and recognition award programs and events.
• Assists with administrative support for job evaluation including rating documentation and job questionnaire
development.
• Prepares employment letters to reflect changes in compensation, position, benefit entitlements, etc.
• Participates in and conducts non-union salary surveys with comparator municipalities. Analyzes survey
results.
• Updates booklets and forms related to benefit administration and assists in communications to employees.
• Handles incoming queries from HR Contact Centre on general HR matters, redirecting where necessary.
• Assists with job evaluation and annual performance file management.
What are the key skills and attributes required for this position that could be explored in an employment
interview? Write a behaviour indicator for the competency you defined. Write a behaviour description interview
question based on the competency and behaviour indicator described. Include appropriate probes.
ANSWER: Key requirements
Communication: Listens to others and communicates in an effective manner that fosters open
communication
Attention to detail: Strives to produce error-free work in complex projects
Client focus: Identifies and responds to current and future client needs; provides service excellence to
internal and external clients
Communication: Listens to others and communicates in an effective manner that fosters open
communication
Behavioural indicators
Listens actively and objectively without interrupting
Checks own understanding of others’ communication (e.g., repeats or paraphrases, asks additional
questions)
Elicits comments or feedback on what has been said
Supports messages with relevant data, information, examples, and demonstrations.
Behavioural description interview question: Can you describe a recent time when you needed to
resolve a misunderstanding between you and one of your coworkers or clients?
• What was the subject of the misunderstanding?
• How did you try to understand the other person’s view?
• How did you communicate your view?
• What did the other person say in response?
• How did you try to clarify the situation?
• How did you know that each of you eventually understood each other?
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• How often have situations like this come up in the past three months?
Refer to Table 9.1, Example of a Situational Interview Question and Table 9.2, Example of a
Behaviour Interview Question.
69. Write an interviewer training workshop agenda that includes the major content areas that should be
addressed in a structured interviewer training program for managers. What areas would you emphasize? What
training methods would you use to ensure learning is transferred to future interviews?
ANSWER: The major content areas that should be addressed in a structured interviewer training program include
the following:
• active listening and establishing and maintaining rapport and trust
• open-ended and closed questions
• purpose of the interview
• human resource planning
• defining job requirements that determine critical job success and high-performance competencies
and KSAOs
• writing job descriptions
• developing a selection plan
• the unstructured and structured hiring interviews
• the problems associated with the subjective unstructured interview
• legislation
• structuring the hiring interview
• the structured interview process
• advantages and disadvantages of behaviour-based questions
• situational interview questions—overview, assumptions, strategies, and example
• behaviour description interview questions—overview, assumptions, strategies, and example
• creating situational and behaviour description interview questions, rating scales, and scoring guide
• organizing the interview questions, forming a pattern, and obtaining desired results
• follow-up questions and probing techniques
• hiring decision making
• evaluating the interview
• letters of recommendation, background and reference checks, and privacy
This type of training should focus on eliminating or reducing common sources of bias and
inaccuracy— such as halo effects, similar-to-me effects, contrast effects, and leniency and severity
errors—by structuring interviews. Other areas of focus include putting the applicant at ease, asking
open-ended questions, developing good listening skills, maintaining control of the interview, taking
appropriate notes, and ignoring or interpreting nonverbal behaviours in the interview. The workshop
should follow the instructional systems design model. Participants should apply the skills they are
learning using experiential exercises (e.g., write questions and scoring guides) and role-playing to
ensure transfer of learning.
70. What are some of the future issues that will continue to be researched in the area of employment
interviewing in Canada?
ANSWER: Although there is indisputable evidence that situational interviews are good predictors of job
performance, we still do not have a clear understanding of why they predict job performance.
More research based on good theoretical models of the situational interview is needed to provide a
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better understanding of the mechanisms responsible for interview effectiveness.
This would contribute to more effective design and implementation of structured interviews.
Research is needed to find ways of improving user reactions to structured interviews and making
them easier to use.
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1. Which of the following is NOT a constraint or a competing demand employers must contend with when
making selection decisions?
a. time pressures
b. satisficing
c. an oversupply of applicants
d. selecting individuals who have adequate information about the job requirements
ANSWER: c
2. In organizations that select candidates for the organization rather than for specific jobs, which of the
following is NOT required?
a. selecting for organizational fit
b. having strong external hiring policies
c. possessing flexible job descriptions
d. hiring to fill dynamic and changing jobs
ANSWER: b
3. Which concept refers to making an acceptable or adequate choice rather than the best or optimal choice?
a. selection bias
b. satisficing
c. sufficiency
d. success rate
ANSWER: b
4. Some organizations collect and combine applicant information from objective sources, such as tests or
biographical inventories, and the decision maker examines these data to form an overall, subjective impression
of the applicant’s suitability for the job. Which of the following terms refers to this approach?
a. pure judgment
b. trait rating
c. profile interpretation
d. pure statistical
ANSWER: c
5. How are implicit theories defined?
a. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go
together without objective evidence.
b. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go
together with objective evidence.
c. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics go
together with conscious awareness.
d. They are theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality characteristics
differentiate between applicants.
ANSWER: a
6. What type of theories are personal beliefs that are held about how people or things function, without objective
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evidence and often without conscious awareness?
a. explicit
b. implicit
c. psychological
d. attribution
ANSWER: b
7. What type of error occurs when an applicant who is assessed favourably turns out to be a poor choice?
a. false negative error
b. false positive error
c. leniency error
d. strictness error
ANSWER: b
8. Which concept refers to the process in which statistical data are combined in a judgmental manner?
a. pure statistical approach
b. profile interpretation
c. pure judgment approach
d. judgmental composite
ANSWER: b
9. Which approach to collecting and combining applicant information involves the decision maker forming an
overall impression of the applicant based on gut feelings or implicit theories, rather than on explicit, objective
criteria?
a. the pure judgment approach
b. the trait rating approach
c. the profile interpretation approach
d. the judgmental composite approach
ANSWER: a
10. In which approach are judgmental data combined statistically?
a. trait rating
b. profile interpretation
c. judgmental composite
d. pure judgment
ANSWER: a
11. In which approach are data combined statistically?
a. statistical composite
b. trait rating
c. profile interpretation
d. pure statistical
ANSWER: d
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12. In which approach to collecting and combining applicant information are a number of judgmental ratings
made based on various sources of information?
a. trait rating
b. profile interpretation
c. pure statistical
d. judgmental composite
ANSWER: a
13. Which of the following is NOT related to the statistical composite approach?
a. collecting both judgmental and statistical data
b. combining data statistically
c. combining the ratings or scores in a formula or regression equation
d. combining data in a judgmental manner
ANSWER: d
14. For employers who tend to have a holistic, intuitive decision-making style, what might convince them to use
statistical approaches in the selection process?
a. changes to HR policy manuals
b. more evidence and training
c. technologically generated data
d. data integrated to selection criteria
ANSWER: b
15. Which of the following does NOT reduce the objectivity of group decisions?
a. group conformity
b. power motives
c. organizational culture
d. information asymmetry
ANSWER: c
16. What might team members of a selection committee uncover by discussing their rationales for candidate
ratings during the selection process?
a. expectancy errors
b. person–organization fit
c. negligent hiring
d. biases and errors
ANSWER: d
17. Which concept refers to the value, in terms of increased validity, of adding a particular predictor to an
existing selection system?
a. referent validity
b. coefficient validity
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c. external validity
d. incremental validity
ANSWER: d
18. What is the term for the threshold at which those scoring at or above the score will pass, and those scoring
below will fail?
a. minimum performance score
b. cutoff score
c. pass mark score
d. threshold level score
ANSWER: b
19. Which concept refers to the proportion of applicants who are hired for one or more positions?
a. yield ratio
b. applicant ratio
c. selection ratio
d. employment ratio
ANSWER: c
20. Regarding the accepted standard for passing a course in most general undergraduate university degree
programs, what cutoff score was established by convention?
a. 80 percent
b. 70 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 50 percent
ANSWER: d
21. What is the simplest way of combining applicant information in the selection process?
a. Add the scores together.
b. Apply weighted averages.
c. Apply moving averages.
d. Separate quantitative and qualitative data.
ANSWER: a
22. According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT a predictor score for a sales applicant?
a. cognitive ability test
b. introversion scale
c. structured interview
d. reference check
ANSWER: b
23. What is a decision-making model in which applicants must pass the minimum cut-off for each predictor, in
turn, before being assessed on the next predictor?
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a. multiple regression
b. multiple cutoff
c. multiple hurdle
d. multiple criteria
ANSWER: c
Scenario 10-1
For four months you have been employed as the part-time HRM for TS Inc., a small Canadian aviation
company. In the past, recruitment and selection rested on the shoulders of the president and, like most small
companies, TS Inc. used employee referrals and an informal interview process in selecting employees. Since
you have been hired, you have guided management through several stages of the recruitment and selection
process to hire an aircraft maintenance engineer. TS Inc. has used proper selection methods, such as screening,
testing, and structured interviews, but is not sure about how to integrate the data from these various sources. In
the past, the president relied on his gut feeling about applicants and made poor hiring decisions.
24. Refer to Scenario 10-1. There are several constraints and competing demands when making selection
decisions. Which is NOT a constraint for TS Inc.?
a. time pressures
b. satisficing
c. statistical data
d. organizational policies
ANSWER: c
25. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. has often selected the first applicant who met the minimum qualifications.
What is this constraint?
a. applicant knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes
b. satisficing
c. implicit hiring
d. judgmental procedure
ANSWER: b
26. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Based on an applicant’s unswerving eye contact, the president commented that the
applicant was honest and confident. What is this an example of?
a. implicit theory
b. reflection behaviour
c. false negative error
d. true positive
ANSWER: a
27. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. has made costly selection errors in the past when the company
underestimated the potential of an aircraft maintenance engineer, which resulted in a no-hire decision. The
applicant accepted a position with a competing aviation company, and the quality of his work led to an industry
safety award, resulting in increased contracts for the competing company. What is this error called?
a. a false positive
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b. a false negative
c. a positive error
d. a negative error
ANSWER: b
28. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Why would TS Inc. management be concerned about false positive errors?
a. lower turnover
b. lost productivity
c. reduced termination costs
d. loss of competencies
ANSWER: b
29. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Why would TS Inc. management be concerned about false positive errors?
a. The high-performing applicants were not screened out.
b. These could result in litigation and loss of employees’ competitive skills.
c. The low-performing applicants were hired.
d. Individuals who had the qualifications were mistakenly eliminated.
ANSWER: c
30. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Which of the following statistical and judgmental approaches to collecting and
combining applicant information would TS Inc. NOT choose to use?
a. behaviour rating
b. trait rating
c. pure statistical
d. judgmental composite
ANSWER: a
31. Refer to Scenario 10-1. In the past, TS Inc. used subjective sources such as unstructured interviews to collect
applicant information. What is this approach called?
a. profile interpretation
b. pure judgment
c. profile judgmental
d. judgmental composite
ANSWER: b
32. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Currently, TS Inc. is using objective sources such as test scores to collect applicant
information. How is this approach defined?
a. as statistical
b. as subjective
c. as biased
d. as judgmental
ANSWER: a
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33. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. would like to use an approach to collecting and combining applicant
information in which judgmental and statistical data are combined statistically. The applicants’ scores would be
given, and selection decisions would be based on each component, such as the structured interview and test.
Which approach is this?
a. trait rating
b. pure statistical
c. judgmental composite
d. statistical composite
ANSWER: d
34. Refer to Scenario 10-1. Which term defines TS Inc.’s president’s decision-making style, in which he bases
his selection decisions on whether he likes the applicant and how he feels about the applicant?
a. implicit theory decision making
b. intuitive decision making
c. rational decision making
d. logical decision making
ANSWER: b
35. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. wants the relationship between the actual number of people hired and the
number who applied for a position to yield 0.8. What is this proportion of applicants called?
a. applicant ratio
b. standard deviation
c. selection ratio
d. selection pool
ANSWER: c
36. Refer to Scenario 10-1. TS Inc. would like to use a decision-making model in which applicants’ scores on
each predictor (i.e., tests, interviews, reference checks) are weighted and summed to yield a total score (i.e.,
predicted job performance). What is this model called?
a. multiple regression model
b. multiple cutoff model
c. multiple hurdle model
d. profile matching model
ANSWER: a
37. What concept refers to grouping applicants based on ranges of scores?
a. banding
b. profiling
c. matching
d. categorizing
ANSWER: a
38. The purpose of selection is to discriminate.
a. True
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b. False
ANSWER: True
39. Implicit theories are personal beliefs that are held about how people or things function, without objective
evidence or often without conscious awareness.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
40. The belief that unswerving eye contact reveals honesty, directness, and confidence is an example of an
implicit theory.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
41. A false negative error occurs when an applicant who is rejected would have been a good choice.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
42. A false negative error occurs when an applicant who is assessed positively turns out to be a poor choice.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
43. An approach in which data are combined statistically is referred to as a judgmental composite.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
44. Employers welcome statistical approaches to selection decision making and use them widely.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
45. Surveys indicate that in most organizations one individual makes selection decisions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
46. Cutoff scores ensure that applicants meet some minimum level of ability or qualification to be considered
for a job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
47. In the multiple cutoff model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of the predictors fall below the
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cutoff scores.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
48. In the multiple hurdle model, applicants must pass the minimum cutoff for each predictor, in turn, before
being assessed on the next predictor.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49. In the profile matching model, current employees who are poor performers are assessed on several
predictors.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
50. Top-down selection is the proportion of applicants for one or more positions who are hired.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
51. Banding involves ranking applicants on the basis of their total scores and selecting from the top down until
the desired number of candidates has been selected.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
52. In banding, employers may select within bands on the basis of secondary criteria, such as education,
experience, or professional conduct. Minority status can be used only as a tiebreaker among individuals with the
same scores.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
53. For an employment contract to be valid and enforceable there must be consideration.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
54. What are some of the constraints facing managers during the selection process?
ANSWER: • Time pressures prevent managers from making logical or objective choices.
• When in a rush, satisficing occurs; rather than searching for the best candidate, a candidate who
meets minimum qualifications is selected.
• Sometimes, rather than selecting candidates for a specific job, employers select candidates for the
organization or organizational fit.
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• Organizations have promote-from-within policies, flexible job descriptions, or dynamic jobs, or
tend to practise job rotation or rapid promotion.
• Promotions and transfers are more effective when they are considered selection decisions.
55. Many employers believe they have a knack for making good selection decisions. Comment, defining the
impact of implicit theories on the selection process.
ANSWER: Most employers hold implicit theories about how certain behaviours, mannerisms, or personality
characteristics go together. Implicit theories are personal beliefs that are held about how people or
things function, without objective evidence or often without conscious awareness (e.g., unswerving
eye contact reveals honesty, directness, and confidence). Some managers make selection decisions on
the basis of gut feelings or intuition. All of the information about candidates must be simplified to
make a decision. Candidates are classified as either acceptable or unacceptable and hired or not hired
based on the assessment. This leads to false positive errors (candidate is chosen whose performance
in the job is unsuccessful) or false negative errors (candidate who would have been successful in the
job is not selected).
Refer to Figure 10.1, Outcomes of the Selection Process.
56. What are two common types of errors made in selection decision making?
ANSWER: False positive error occurs when an applicant who is assessed positively turns out to be a poor
choice. This is a costly error for a variety of reasons. False negative error occurs when an applicant
who is rejected would have been a good choice. False negative errors tend to go unnoticed because
there is usually no obvious negative consequence to the employer.
57. Describe one of the statistical or judgmental approaches used for the collection and combination of
information.
ANSWER: Before a selection decision is made, information about the applicants must be collected from various
sources and combined in an effective way. These sources include application forms, résumés,
employment interviews, and reference checks. Many employers also administer ability, personality,
and/or other tests; collect and score biographical information; or make use of assessment centres.
Information collected from some sources, such as test scores, tends to be more objective. Objective
information is referred to as statistical, and subjective or biased methods of making decisions are
referred to as judgmental.
The pure judgment approach involves judgmental data that are combined in a judgmental manner.
The decision maker forms an overall impression of the applicant based on gut feeling or implicit
theories, rather than on explicit, objective criteria.
The trait rating approach involves judgmental data that are combined statistically. A number of
judgmental ratings are made based on the various sources of information; however, the ratings are
combined using a mathematical formula that produces an overall score for each applicant.
The profile interpretation strategy involves combining statistical data in a judgmental manner. Data
are collected from objective sources such as tests or biographical inventories. The decision maker
examines these data to form an overall, subjective impression of the applicants’ suitability for the
job.
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The judgmental composite is an approach in which judgmental and statistical data are combined in a
judgmental manner. A decision maker might conduct interviews and reference checks (judgmental
data) and have access to test scores (statistical data).
Statistical composite is an approach in which judgmental and statistical data are combined
statistically. Ratings or scores are given or obtained for each component, such as an interview, a
reference check, a personality test, or a mental ability test. Selection decisions are based on the
applicants’ scores.
58. Why do most employers resist using statistical decision-making approaches?
ANSWER: • Employers prefer to rely on gut feelings or intuition when making decisions.
• Employers may not want to give up the personal control that judgmental approaches give them.
• When using statistical approaches, the employer’s role becomes that of information collector rather
than judgmental decision maker.
• Employers are overconfident in their abilities to select the best candidates.
• Some employers use judgmental approaches because they feel they can’t take the time required to
institute more statistical approaches.
59. What are some of the advantages of group decision making in selection?
ANSWER: Most organizations choose selection systems that involve groups making decisions about who to hire.
Some researchers point out the failings of groups, including decisions motivated by power, politics,
conformity to the group, and lack of information sharing. It is generally agreed that groups are better
decision makers than individuals when it comes to selection decisions:
• Selection interview boards or panels are better at predicting job performance than individual
interviewers, and this level of prediction increases when the interview is structured.
• Having two or more individuals make the selection decision can reduce the effects of biases that
any one individual may have.
• Selection team or panel members are more likely to be more careful in justifying their choices when
they have to do so with other team members.
• Differences of opinion concerning an applicant that must be resolved to everyone’s satisfaction will
tend to reduce the impact of biases.
• When more than one person examines applicant information, it is less likely that particular
information will be overlooked or distorted.
Refer to Recruitment and Selection Today 10.2, 5 Benefits of Involving Your Team in the Hiring
Decision.
60. Describe three selection decision-making models. What are the advantages of each?
ANSWER: In the multiple regression model, the applicants’ scores on each predictor (e.g., tests, interviews,
reference checks) are weighted and summed to yield a total score (e.g., predicted job performance).
The advantages of this model are that it is an efficient method of combining multiple predictors in an
optimal manner and that it minimizes errors in prediction. Different regression equations can be
produced for different jobs even if the same predictors are used for all jobs.
In the multiple cut-off model, the scores on all predictors are obtained for all applicants. All
applicants write the cognitive ability and extroversion tests, all are interviewed, and reference check
information is scored for all. However, in this model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of
the predictors fall below the cutoff scores. This model assumes that a minimum level is required on
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each of the attributes measured by the predictors for successful job performance. The advantages of
this model are that it serves to narrow the pool of applicants to a smaller set of minimally qualified
candidates and it is an easy model for managers to understand. It is probably most useful when
minimum levels of certain physical abilities are required for job performance, such as eyesight and
strength.
In the multiple hurdle model, the applicants must pass the minimum cutoff for each predictor, in turn,
before being assessed on the next predictor. As soon as an applicant has failed to meet the cutoff on a
given predictor, the applicant ceases to be a candidate for the job and is not assessed on any of the
remaining predictors. This model is most appropriate when minimum levels of particular KSAOs are
necessary for job performance and cannot be compensated for by higher levels on other KSAOs.
When the applicant pool is large and some of the selection procedures are expensive, this reduces
cost.
In the combination model, all the applicants are measured on all predictors, and those falling below
the cutoff on any of the predictors are rejected, just as in the multiple cutoff model. Multiple
regression is used to calculate the total scores of those applicants who pass the cutoffs. The
applicants are ranked by a total score and selected on a top-down basis. The advantages are that it is
an appropriate model when selection instruments do not vary greatly in cost, and it is particularly
useful when a considerable number of applicants tend to pass all the cutoffs.
In the profile matching model, current employees who are considered successful on the job are
assessed on several predictors. Their average scores on each predictor are used to form an ideal
profile of scores required for successful job performance. One should also try to obtain average
predictor scores for current employees who are considered poor or marginal performers. These
predictors that do not differentiate between good and poor performers should not be included in the
ideal profile of scores. The advantage of this model is that it permits the ranking of applicants based
on their similarities to the ideal profile. It is an appropriate method to use when there is clearly a best
type of employee for the job and when it is known that poor employees tend to score higher as well
as lower on the predictors than the good employees.
Unit and rational weighting is the simplest approach to adding applicant scores. Essentially, the
applicant selection tools are weighted equally (known as unit weighting). This might be an easy
calculation for employers; however, given that selection tools might have different measurement
scales, there are issues with weighting them equally. Equal weighting works better if there is a
standardized scoring or if the scores are converted to have more meaning. Issues such as the
reliability of unit weighting and criterion validity need to be addressed. Further, this method assumes
that each selection tool predicts job performance equally, when this would rarely occur. Rational
weighting improves the issues involved in unit weighting by having the interviewers determine which
selection tools they have the greatest confidence in. Once this rationalization has been made, the
confidence levels of the selection tools are weighted with the highest weightings going to the ones
that the interviewers have the most confidence in, and the lowest weightings going to the ones that
the interviewers have the least confidence in. Rational weighting is a relative approach that might
change the weightings given different interviewers. Weightings might have bias and no justification
given inexperienced interviewers and/or ones with poor judgment. Multiple regression addresses the
issues related to the unit and rational weighting approaches.
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Refer to Table 10.2, Examples of Sales Applicant Data, and Table 10.3, Examples of Results for
Sales Applicant Data in Table 10.2, for a demonstration of a multiple regression model.
61. Describe some of the major challenges facing HR professionals with respect to decision making in the
recruitment and selection process.
ANSWER:
• Information related to HR is becoming more and more complex, leading HR professionals to a state
of information overload.
• It is therefore critical that HR professionals learn to filter out information that has bias and errors
attached to its gathering.
• Information overload often leads HR professionals to use methods to simplify the processing of
large amounts of information often by using their gut instinct or other subjective methods.
• When instinct or subjectivity is applied, this can position an organization for increased human rights
complaints and other legal problems.
• It behooves the employer to learn to make selection decisions with greater objectivity by using a
variety of methods (multiple regression, multiple cutoff, multiple hurdle, combination, profile
matching, and so forth). These methods address to varying degrees some of the issues related to
reliability and validity of information.
62. Refer to an organization and job position you are familiar with. Describe the elements you would use in
making a final selection decision.
ANSWER: Refer to Recruitment and Selection Notebook 10.1, Making the Selection Decision.
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