CHAPTER 4
1. Which document is NOT prepared by the sales department?
a.
b.
c.
d.
packing slip
shipping notice
bill of lading
stock release
2. Which document triggers the update of the inventory subsidiary ledger?
a.
b.
c.
d.
bill of lading
stock release
sales order
shipping notice
3. Which function should the billing department NOT perform?
a. record the sales in the sales journal
b. send the ledger copy of the sales order to accounts receivable
c. send the stock release document and the shipping notice to the billing department as proof of
shipment
d. send the stock release document to inventory control
4. When will a credit check approval most likely require specific authorization by the credit department?
a.
b.
c.
d.
when verifying that the current transaction does not exceed the customer’s credit limit
when verifying that the current transaction is with a valid customer
when a valid customer places a materially large order
when a valid customer returns goods
5. Which type of control is considered a compensating control?
a.
b.
c.
d.
segregation of duties
access control
supervision
accounting records
6. Which of the following is NOT an independent verification control?
a. The shipping department verifies that the goods sent from the warehouse are correct in type
and quantity.
b. General ledger clerks reconcile journal vouchers that were independently prepared in various
departments.
c. The use of pre-numbered sales orders.
d. The billing department reconciles the shipping notice with the sales invoice to ensure that
customers are billed for only the quantities shipped.
7. Which function or department below records the decrease in inventory due to a sale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
warehouse
sales department
billing department
inventory control
8. Which situation indicates a weak internal control structure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the AR clerk authorizes the write off of bad debts
the record-keeping clerk maintains both AR and AP subsidiary ledgers
the inventory control clerk authorizes inventory purchases
the AR clerk prepares customer statements every month
9. The bill of lading is prepared by the
a.
b.
c.
d.
sales clerk.
warehouse clerk.
shipping clerk.
billing clerk.
10. Which of following functions should be segregated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
opening the mail and recording cash receipts in the journal
authorizing credit and determining reorder quantities
shipping goods and preparing the bill of lading
providing information on inventory levels and reconciling the bank statement
CHAPTER 5
1. Which document helps to ensure that the receiving clerks actually count the number of goods
received?
a. packing list
b. blind copy of purchase order
c. shipping notice
d. invoice
2. When the goods are received and the receiving report has been prepared, which ledger may be
updated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
standard cost inventory ledger
inventory subsidiary ledger
general ledger
accounts payable subsidiary ledger
3. Which statement is NOT correct for an expenditure system with proper internal controls?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cash disbursements maintain the check register.
Accounts payable maintains the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.
Accounts payable is responsible for paying invoices.
Accounts payable is responsible for authorizing invoices.
4. Which duties should be segregated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
matching purchase requisitions, receiving reports, and invoices and authorizing payment
authorizing payment and maintaining the check register
writing checks and maintaining the check register
authorizing payment and maintaining the accounts payable subsidiary ledger
5. Which documents would an auditor most likely choose to examine closely to ascertain that all
expenditures incurred during the accounting period have been recorded as a liability?
a.
b.
c.
d.
invoices
purchase orders
purchase requisitions
receiving reports
6. Which task must still require human intervention in an automated purchases/cash disbursements
system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
determination of inventory requirements
preparation of a purchase order
preparation of a receiving report
preparation of a check register
7. Which one of the following departments does not have a copy of the purchase order?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the purchasing department
the receiving department
accounts payable
general ledger
8. Which document typically triggers the process of recording a liability?
a.
b.
c.
d.
purchase requisition
purchase order
receiving report
supplier’s invoice
9. Which of the following tasks should the cash disbursement clerk NOT perform?
a.
b.
c.
d.
review the supporting documents for completeness and accuracy
prepare checks
approve the liability
mark the supporting documents paid
10. Which of the following is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The cash disbursement function is part of accounts payable.
Cash disbursements is an independent accounting function.
Cash disbursements is a treasury function.
The cash disbursement function is part of the general ledger department.
CHAPTER 6
1. The document that captures the total amount of time that individual workers spend on each
production job is called a
a.
b.
c.
d.
time card.
job ticket.
personnel action form.
labor distribution form.
2. An important reconciliation in the payroll system is when
a. the general ledger department compares the labor distribution summary from cost accounting
to the disbursement voucher from accounts payable.
b. the personnel department compares the number of employees authorized to receive a
paycheck to the number of paychecks prepared.
c. the production department compares the number of hours reported on job tickets to the
number of hours reported on time cards.
d. the payroll department compares the labor distribution summary to the hours reported on time
cards.
3. Which internal control is not an important part of the payroll system?
a. supervisors verify the accuracy of employee time cards
b. paychecks are distributed by an independent paymaster
c. the accounts payable department verifies the accuracy of the payroll register before
transferring payroll funds to the general checking account
d. the general ledger department reconciles the labor distribution summary and the payroll
disbursement voucher
4. The department responsible for approving pay rate changes is
a.
b.
c.
d.
payroll
treasurer
personnel
cash disbursements
5. Which function should distribute paychecks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
personnel
timekeeping
paymaster
payroll
6. Which transaction is not processed in the fixed asset system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
purchase of building
repair of equipment
purchase of raw materials
sale of company van
7. Depreciation
a. is calculated by the department that uses the fixed asset.
b. allocates the cost of the asset over its useful life.
c. is recorded weekly.
d. results in book value approximating fair market value.
8. Depreciation records include all of the following information about fixed assets EXCEPT the
a.
b.
c.
d.
economic benefit of purchasing the asset.
cost of the asset.
depreciation method being used.
location of the asset.
9. Which control is not a part of the fixed asset system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
formal analysis of the purchase request
review of the assumptions used in the capital budgeting model
development of an economic order quantity model
estimates of anticipated cost savings
10. Objectives of the fixed asset system do NOT include
a.
b.
c.
d.
authorizing the acquisition of fixed assets.
recording depreciation expense.
computing gain and/or loss on the disposal of fixed assets.
maintaining a record of the fair market value of all fixed assets.
11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the fixed asset system?
a.
b.
c.
d.
acquisitions are routine transactions requiring general authorization
retirements are reported on an authorized disposal report form
acquisition cost is allocated over the expected life of the asset
transfer of fixed assets among departments is recorded in the fixed asset subsidiary ledger
CHAPTER 7
1. Which of the following is not an advantageous reason to reduce inventories?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Inventories provide a competitive advantage.
Inventories can invite overproduction.
Inventories are expensive to maintain.
Inventories may conceal problems.
All of these are good reasons to reduce inventories.
2. The fundamental EOQ model
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
provides for fluctuating lead times during reorder cycles.
is relatively insensitive to errors in demand, procurement costs, and carrying costs.
focuses on the trade-off between production costs and carrying costs.
is stochastic in nature.
is best used in conjunction with a periodic inventory system.
3. Refer to the equation for the EOQ in the text. Car Country, a local Ford dealer, sells 1,280 small SUVs
each year. Keeping a car on the lot costs Car Country $200 per month, so the company prefers to order
as few SUVs as is economically feasible. However, each time an order is placed, the company incurs total
costs of $300. Of this $300, $240 is fixed and $60 is variable. Determine the company’s economic order
quantity.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8
16
18
56
62
4. Which line segment represents the reorder lead time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
AB
AE
AF
BC
AC
5. Which line segment identifies the quantity of safety stock maintained?
a. AB
b. AE
c. AC
d. BC
e. EF
6. Which line segment represents the length of time to consume the total quantity of materials ordered?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
DE
BC
AC
AE
AD
7. Which of the following is NOT a principle of lean manufacturing?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Products are pushed from the production end to the customer.
All activities that do not add value and maximize the use of scarce resources must be eliminated.
Achieve high inventory turnover rate.
A lean manufacturing firm must have established and cooperative relationships with vendors. e.
All of the above are lean manufacturing principles.
8. All of the following are problems with traditional accounting information EXCEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Managers in a JIT setting require immediate information.
The measurement principle tends to ignore standards other than money.
Variance analysis may yield insignificant values.
The overhead component in a manufacturing company is usually very large.
All of these are problems associated with traditional accounting information.
9. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with standard cost accounting?
a. Standard costing motivates management to produce large batches of products and build
inventory.
b. Applying standard costing leads to product cost distortions in a lean environment.
c. Standard costing data are associated with excessive time lags that reduce its usefulness.
d. The financial orientation of standard costing may promote bad decisions.
e. All of the above are problems with standard costing.
10. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. ERP evolved directly from MRP.
b. ERP evolved into MRP and MRP evolved into MRP II.
c. MRP II evolved from MRP and MRP II evolved into ERP.
d. None of the above is true.
CHAPTER 8
1. Sequential access means that
a.
b.
c.
d.
data are stored on magnetic tape.
the address of the location of data is found through the use of either an algorithm or an index.
to read any record on the file, all of the preceding records must first be read.
each record can be accessed in the same amount of time.
2. Which file has as its primary purpose to provide historical financial data for comparative financial
reports?
a.
b.
c.
d.
journal voucher history file
budget master file
responsibility file
general ledger history file
3. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Journal vouchers detailing transaction activity flow from various operational departments into
the GLS, where they are independently reconciled and posted to the journal voucher history file.
b. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity flow from the accounting department into
the GLS, where they are independently reconciled and posted to the general ledger accounts.
c. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity flow from various operational departments
into the GLS, where they are independently reconciled and posted to the general ledger
accounts.
d. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity flow from various operational departments
into the GLS, where they are independently reconciled and posted to the journal voucher
history file.
4. Which of the following statements best describes a computer-based GL/FRS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Most firms derive little additional benefit from a real-time FRS.
Batch processing is typically not appropriate for transaction processing of GLS.
The sequential file approach is an inefficient use of technology.
A batch system with direct access files recreates the entire database each time the file is
updated.
5. Which of the following is NOT a potential exposure of the FRS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a defective audit trail
general ledger accounts that are out of balance with subsidiary accounts
unauthorized access to the check register
unauthorized access to the general ledger
6. Which task should the general ledger perform?
a.
b.
c.
d.
update the general ledger
prepare journal vouchers
have custody of physical assets
have record-keeping responsibility for special journals of subsidiary ledgers
7. The Ozment Corporation uses a performance reporting system that shows online the data for each
subordinate who reports to a supervisor. The data presented show the actual costs incurred during the
period, the budgeted costs, and all variances from budget for that subordinate’s department. The name
of this system of reporting is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
contribution accounting.
responsibility accounting.
flexible budgeting.
program budgeting.
cost-benefit accounting.
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the strategic planning process?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
emphasis on both the short and long run
analysis of external economic factors
review of the attributes and behavior of the organization’s competition
analysis and review of departmental process
analysis of consumer demand
9. The following are all output reports of the financial reporting system, EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
variance analysis report.
statement of cash flows.
tax return.
comparative balance sheet.
10. Which of the following budgeting processes is LEAST likely to motivate managers toward
organizational goals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
setting budget targets at attainable levels
participation by subordinates in the budgetary process
use of management by exception
holding subordinates accountable for the items they control
having top management set budget levels
11. Which of the following would normally be considered in a strategic plan?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
setting a target of 12 percent return on sales
maintaining the image of the company as the industry leader
setting a market price per share of stock outstanding
distributing monthly reports for departmental variance analysis
tightening credit terms for customers to 2/10, n/30
12. At what level of management is the long-range planning function most important?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
at top management levels
at middle management levels
at lower management levels
for staff functions
for line functions
13. Which of the following is the basic purpose of a responsibility accounting?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
variance analysis
motivation
authority
budgeting
pricing
14. Which statement below best describes a profit center?
a. The authority to make decisions affecting the major determinants of profit, including the power
to choose its markets and sources of supply.
b. The authority to make decisions affecting the major determinants of profit, including the power
to choose its markets, sources of supply, and significant control over the amount of invested
capital.
c. The authority to make decisions over the most significant costs of operations, including the
power to choose the sources of supply.
d. The authority to provide specialized support to other units within the organization. e. The
responsibility for combining the raw materials, direct labor, and other factors of production into
a final product.
15. Which statement below best describes an investment center?
a. The authority to make decisions affecting the major determinants of profit, including the power
to choose its markets and sources of supply.
b. The authority to make decisions affecting the major determinants of profit, including the power
to choose its markets and sources of supply, and significant control over the amount of invested
capital.
c. The authority to make decisions over the most significant costs of operations, including the
power to choose the sources of supply.
d. The authority to provide specialized support to other units within the organization.
e. The responsibility for developing markets for and selling of the output of the organization.
CHAPTER 9
1. The data attributes that a particular user has permission to access are defined by the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
operating system view.
systems design view.
database schema.
user view.
application program.
2. The database approach has several unique characteristics not found in traditional (flat-file) systems.
Which of the following statements does not apply to the database model?
a. Database systems have data independence; that is, the data and the programs are maintained
separately except during processing.
b. Database systems contain a data-definition language that helps describe each schema and
subschema.
c. The database administrator is the part of the software package that instructs the operating
aspects of the program when data are retrieved.
d. A primary goal of database systems is to minimize data redundancy.
e. Database systems provide increased accessibility to data and flexibility in its usage.
3. One of the first steps in the creation of a relational database is to
a. integrate accounting and nonfinancial data.
b. plan for increased secondary storage capacity.
c. order data-mining software that will facilitate data retrieval.
d. create a data model of the key entities in the system.
e. construct the physical user view using SQL.
4. Database currency is achieved by
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
implementing partitioned databases at remote sites.
employing data-cleansing techniques.
ensuring that the database is secure from accidental entry.
an external auditor’s reconciliation of reports from multiple sites.
a database lockout that prevents multiple simultaneous access.
5. The installation of a database management system is likely to have the least impact on
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
data redundancy.
entity-wide sharing of common data.
exclusive ownership of data.
the logic needed to solve a problem in an application program.
the internal controls over data access.
6. The functions of a database administrator are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
database planning, data input preparation, and database design.
data input preparation, database design, and database operation.
database design, database operation, and equipment operations.
database design, database implementation, and database planning.
database operations, database maintenance, and data input preparation.
7. A relational database system contains the following inventory data: part number, description,
quantity on-hand, and reorder point. These individual items are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
attributes.
relations.
associations.
occurrences.
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a relational database system?
a. All data within the system are shared by all users to facilitate integration.
b. Database processing follows explicit links that are contained within the records.
c. User views limit access to the database.
d.
Transaction processing and data warehousing systems share a common database.
9. Partitioned databases are most effective when
a.
b.
c.
d.
users in the system need to share common data.
primary users of the data are clearly identifiable.
read-only access is needed at each site.
all of the above.
10. Database entities
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
may contain zero or many occurrences.
are represented as verbs in an ER diagram.
may represent both physical assets and intangible phenomena.
are often defined by common attributes that also define other entities.
are unique to a specific user view.
11. A transitive dependency
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
is a database condition that is resolved through special monitoring software.
is a name given to one of the three anomalies that result from unnormalized database tables.
can exist only in a table with a composite primary key.
cannot exist in tables that are normalized at the 2NF level.
is none of the above.
12. A partial dependency
a. is the result of simultaneous user requests for the same data in a partitioned database
environment.
b. is a name given to one of the three anomalies that result from unnormalized database tables.
c. can exist only in a table with a composite primary key.
d. may exist in tables that are normalized at the 2NF level.
e. is none of the above.
13. Repeating group data
a. is a form of data redundancy common to replicated databases in a distributed database
environment.
b. is a name given to one of the three anomalies that result from unnormalized database tables.
c. can exist only in a table with a composite primary key.
d. cannot exist in tables that are normalized at the 2NF level.
e. is none of the above.
14. The database model most likely to be used in the development of a modern (not legacy) system is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
hierarchical
structured
relational
network
navigational
15. Typical DBMS features include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
database interface design and development.
backup and recovery.
program development.
database access.
all of these are typical DBMS features.
16. Which of the following is least likely to be an attribute of an employee table in a normalized
database?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
employee name
employee address
employee number
employee supervisor’s name
all of these would be attributes of the employee table in a normalized database.
17. The advantages to using a partitioned database approach include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the possibility for the deadlock phenomenon is reduced.
user control is increased.
transaction processing time is decreased.
the potential for wide-scale disaster is reduced.
these are all advantages of partitioned databases.
18. Of the following, select the attribute that would be the best primary key in an inventory table.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ITEM NAME
ITEM LOCATION
ITEM COST
ITEM NUMBER
e. ITEM SUPPLIER
CHAPTER 10
1. The concept of duality means that an REA diagram must consist of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
two events—one of them economic and the other support.
two agents—one of them internal and the other external.
two resources—one increased and the other decreased by the same event.
all of the above.
none of the above.
2. Each economic event in an REA diagram is always
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
linked to at least two resource entities.
linked to two external agents.
linked to two internal agents.
linked to another economic event.
linked to a support event.
3. Which of the following are characteristics of economic agents?
a.
b.
c.
d.
They participate in economic events, but do not assume control of the resources.
They participate in economic events, but not in support events.
Internal agents are employees of the company whose system is being modeled.
External agents are not employees of the company whose system is being modeled. e. All of the
above describe agents.
4. Which of the following is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
REA diagram entities are arranged in constellations by entity class.
ER diagrams present a static picture of the underlying business phenomena.
Entity names in ER diagrams are always in the noun form.
Events entity names in REA diagrams are in the verb form.
All of the above are true statements.
5. Which of the following events would be LEAST likely to be modeled in an REA diagram?
a. customer inquiries
b. sales to a customer
c. accounts payable
d. cash
e. all of these events would be modeled
6. Which of the following associations would most likely describe the relationship between an internal
agent and an economic event?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1:M
1:1
M:M
0:M
none of the above
7. Which of the following tables would most likely have a composite key?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Take Order
Ship Goods
Inventory-Ship Link
Cash
none of the above
8. Which of the following associations requires a separate table in the database?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1:1
1:M
M:M
all of the above
9. When assigning foreign keys in a 1:1 association
a. the primary key of each table should be embedded as a foreign key in the related table.
b. the primary key on the 0,1 side of the relation should be embedded as the foreign key on the 1,1
side.
c. the primary key on the 1,1 side of the relation should be embedded as the foreign key on the 0,1
side.
d. a link table must be created to accept the foreign keys of both tables.
e. none of the above is true.
10. When assigning foreign keys in a 1:M association
a. the primary key of each table should be embedded as a foreign key in the related table.
b. the primary key on the 0,M side of the relation should be embedded as the foreign key on the
1,1 side.
c. the primary key on the 1,1 side of the relation should be embedded as the foreign key on the
0,M side.
d. a link table must be created to accept the foreign keys of both tables.
e. none of the above is true.
CHAPTER 11
1. Closed database architecture is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a control technique intended to prevent unauthorized access from trading partners.
a limitation inherent in traditional information systems that prevents data sharing.
a data warehouse control that prevents unclean data from entering the warehouse.
a technique used to restrict access to data marts.
a database structure that many of the leading ERPs use to support OLTP applications.
2. Each of the following is a necessary element for the successful warehousing of data EXCEPT
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
cleansing extracted data.
transforming data.
modeling data.
loading data.
all of the above are necessary.
3. Which of the following is typically NOT part of an ERP’s OLAP applications?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
decision support systems
information retrieval
ad hoc reporting/analysis
logistics
what-if analysis
4. There are a number of risks that may be associated with ERP implementation. Which of the following
was NOT stated as a risk in the chapter?
a. A drop in firm performance after implementation because the firm looks and works differently
than it did while using a legacy system.
b. Implementing companies have found that staff members, employed by ERP consulting firms, do
not have sufficient experience in implementing new systems.
c. Implementing firms fail to select systems that properly support their business activities.
d. The selected system does not adequately meet the adopting firm’s economic growth.
e. ERPs are too large, complex, and generic for them to be well integrated into most company
cultures.
5. Which statement is NOT true?
a. In a typical two-tier client-server architecture, the server handles both application and database
duties.
b. Client computers are responsible for presenting data to the user and passing user input back to
the server.
c. Two-tier architecture is for local area network applications where the demand on the server is
restricted to a relatively small population of users.
d. The database and application functions are separated in the three-tier model.
e. In three-tier client-server architectures, one tier is for user presentation, one is for database and
applications access, and the third is for Internet access.
6. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Drill-down capability is an OLAP feature of data mining tools available to the user.
b. The data warehouse should be separate from operational systems.
c. Denormalization of data involves dividing the data into very small tables that support detailed
analysis.
d. Some decisions supported by a data warehouse are not fundamentally different from those that
are supported by traditional databases.
e. Data cleansing involves transforming data into standard business terms with standard data
values.
7. Which statement is LEAST accurate?
a. Implementing an ERP system has more to do with changing the way an organization does
business than it does with technology.
b. The phased-in approach to ERP implementation is particularly suited to diversified organizations
whose units do not share common processes and data.
c. Because the primary reason for implementing an ERP is to standardize and integrate operations,
diversified organizations whose units do not share common processes and data do not benefit
and tend not to implement ERPs.
d. To take full advantage of the ERP process, reengineering will need to occur.
e. A common reason for ERP failure is that the ERP does not support one or more important
business processes of the organization.
8. SAP, one of the leading ERP producers, makes several modules available to adopters. Which of the
following is not a SAP module?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Business Process Support
Internet Development Support
Logistics
E-Commerce Support
Human Resources
9. Auditors of ERP systems
a. need not be concerned about segregation of duties because these systems possess strong
computer controls.
b. focus on output controls such as independent verification to reconcile batch totals.
c. are concerned that managers fail to exercise adequate care in assigning permissions.
d. do not see the data warehouse as an audit or control issue at all because financial records are
not stored there.
e. need not review access levels granted to users because these are determined when the system
is configured and never change.
10. Which statement is most correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
SAP is more suited to service industries than manufacturing clients.
J.D. Edwards’s ERP is designed to accept the best-practices modules of other vendors.
Oracle evolved from a human resources system.
PeopleSoft is the world’s leading supplier of software for information management.
SoftBrands provides enterprise software for the hospitality and manufacturing sectors.
CHAPTER 12
1. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
TCP/IP is the basic protocol that permits communication between Internet sites.
TCP/IP controls Web browsers that access the Web.
TCP/IP is the document format used to produce Web pages.
TCP/IP is used to transfer text files, programs, spreadsheets, and databases across the Internet.
TCP/IP is a low-level encryption scheme used to secure transmissions in higher-level (HTTP)
format.
2. Which of the following best describes a system of computers that connects the internal users of an
organization distributed over a wide geographic area?
a. LAN
b.
c.
d.
e.
Internet
decentralized network
multidrop network
intranet
3. Sniffer software is
a. used by malicious Web sites to sniff data from cookies stored on the user’s hard drive.
b. used by network administrators to analyze network traffic.
c. used by bus topology intranets to sniff for carriers before transmitting a message to avoid data
collisions.
d. an illegal program downloaded from the Web to sniff passwords from the encrypted data of
Internet customers.
e. illegal software for decoding encrypted messages transmitted over a shared intranet channel.
4. Which of the following statements is true?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Cookies were originally intended to facilitate advertising on the Web.
Cookies always contain encrypted data.
Cookies are text files and never contain encrypted data.
Cookies contain the URLs of sites the user visits.
Web browsers cannot function without cookies.
5. A message that is contrived to appear to be coming from a trusted or authorized source is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a denial of service attack.
digital signature forging.
Internet protocol spoofing.
URL masquerading.
a SYN-ACK packet.
6. A DDos attack
a. is more intensive than a Dos attack because it emanates from single source.
b. may take the form of either a SYN flood or smurf attack.
c. is so named because it affects many victims simultaneously, which are distributed across the
Internet.
d. turns the target victim’s computers into zombies that are unable to access the Internet.
e. none of the above is correct.
7. A ping signal is used to initiate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
URL masquerading.
digital signature forging.
Internet protocol spoofing.
a smurf attack
a SYN-ACK packet.
8. A digital signature
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
is the encrypted mathematical value of the message sender’s name.
is derived from the digest of a document that has been encrypted with the sender’s private key.
is derived from the digest of a document that has been encrypted with the sender’s public key.
is the computed digest of the sender’s digital certificate.
allows digital messages to be sent over an analog telephone line.
9. Which of the following statements about the client-server model is correct?
a. It is best suited to the token ring topology because the random-access method this topology
uses detects data collisions.
b. It distributes both data and processing tasks to the server node. The client-server model can use
the bus or ring topology.
c. It is most effective when used as a bus topology because its deterministic access method avoids
collisions and prevents data loss during transmissions.
d. It is more efficient than the bus or ring topologies because it transmits an entire file of records
to the requesting node rather than only a single record.
e. It is not used in conjunction with either the bus or ring topologies.
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A bridge is used to connect a LAN and a WAN.
b. Packet switching combines the messages of multiple users into a packet for transmission. At the
receiving end, the packet is disassembled into individual messages and distributed to the user.
c. The decision to partition a database assumes that no identifiable primary user exists in the
organization.
d. Message switching is used to establish temporary connections between network devices for the
duration of a communications session.
e. A deadlock is a temporary phenomenon that disrupts transaction processing. It will resolve itself
when the primary computer completes processing its transaction and releases the data the
other nodes need.