TEST 1
Phần 1:
Part 1. You will hear a group of art history students going out an art gallery with their teacher.
For questions 1-5, choose answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear
1. Burne-Jones believed that a painting
A. ought to be true to nature
B. must have a moral point
C. should play an instructive role in a modern industrial society
D. need not have practical value
2. It appears that the story of the King and the Beggar Maid was
A. a well-know Victorian tale
B. popularized by a poet
C. brought to the artist’s attention by his wife
D. taken up by novelists at later stage
3. According to the students, how did the painter approach the work?
A. He wanted to portray the beggar realistically
B. He copied part of the painting from an Italian masterpiece
C. He had certain items in the painting made for him
D. He wanted to decorate the clothing with jewels
4. The student thinks that in someway the painting depicts
A. an uncharacteristically personal message
B. the grate sadness of the artist
C. the artist’s inability to return the girl’s love
D. the fulfillment of the artist’s hopes and dreams
5. What was people’s reaction to the painting?
A. They recognized Frances Graham as the model for the Beggar Maid
B. They realized how personal the painting was for the artist
C. They interpreted the painting without difficulty
D. They did not approve of the subject matter of the painting
Your answers
1
2
3
4
5
Part 2. You will hear an interview with Cindy Talbot on the radio program, Young hero or
heroine of the week. For question 1-5, listen and answer the questions
1. How did Cindy react when she heard the thunder?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. How did Cindy regard her decision to take shelter from the storm?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. What were Rod and Mark doing when they saw Cindy?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. What was Rod and Mark’s initial reaction to Cindy’s story?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. What effect has the experience had on Cindy?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 3: You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chefs who both
won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. For the questions below,
decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes
1. Christ’s attitude to the competition was that the conditions were similar to his normal routine.
2. Both Chris and Jane feel that the unique thing about their job was the need to be focused on the
job.
3. Chris and Jane would like to have more freedom of choice about what they cook on board the
train.
4. Chris said that losing his concentration when cooking caused his worst disaster.
5. Reacting to Chris's suggestion for the future, Jane would be able to take part in that kind of
activity.
Your answers
1
2
3
4
5
Part 4. Listen to the news about Reindeer and fill in the blanks of the news summary with the
missing words
Polar bears aren't the only (1)______________ Arctic animal threatened by climate change. Scientists
believe reindeer are at risk as a warming world makes their main winter food source disappear. But
reindeer on one Alaskan island are surprising researchers.
Historically, the reindeer population on St. Paul island ate (2) _________, a small type of plant or
fungus that grows on rocks in areas with cold weather. However, climate change has made it harder
for lichen to grow on this island, and the reindeer ate the lichen faster than it could grow back.
Researchers thought that the reindeer population would starve without access to lichen, but these
reindeer have found another way to (3)_____________.
Reindeer are not (4)_______________ to Alaska, and they were introduced to (5)________ areas
around the state in the late 1800s, in order to provide an alternative food source for residents of
(6)__________ villages. In communities like St. Paul, where grocery prices are (7)___________,
residents depend on reindeer to feed their families. And to make it through winter, the reindeer need
something as well.
Fortunately, after the reindeer on this island depleted the lichen supply, they went
(8)_____________. They began digging and discovered new sources of food: roots and grass shoots.
Plants like these grow more quickly than lichen in the warmer, wetter conditions introduced by climate
change, and the reindeer’s ability to adapt to their new diet is a good sign for the survival of the species.
However, reindeer researchers are not so (9)___________. They warn that global reindeer populations
are still in danger, as climate change warms and alters their (10)_______________, as are many other
animals that depend on colder conditions to survive.
Adapted from “When Their Food Ran Out, These Reindeer Kept Digging”
http://www.npr.org/2017/02/18/514523987/when-their-food-ran-out-these-reindeer-kept-digging
Copyright © 2017 NPR.
Your answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Phần 2:
Part 1:
A. PHRASAL VERB AND PREPOSITIONS
1. The love of life shone______the author’s book, giving me as much inspiration as I could ever
ask for.
A. through
B. over
C. into
D. upon
2. You shouldn’t take ________ more than you can handle, otherwise you’ll suffer from stress.
A. on
B. over
C. out
D. away
3. He’s so stubborn and stupid. I just couldn’t get ________ him that she can never make money
from gambling.
A. over
B. out of
C. across to
D. out of
4. The success of our project hinges _________ Mike’s ability persuade the locals to move to the
renewal quarter.
A. in
B. on
C. about
D. over
5. The government’s plans to reduce crime came _________ for a lot of criticism from freedom
groups.
A. across
B. around
C.in
D. with
6. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were __________ the
dole.
A. on
B. in
C. over
D. above
7. The two countries met at the conference to iron _______ their differences.
A. on
B. Out
C. over
D. into
8. He tried to paper _______ the country’s deep-seated problems.
A. over
B. with
C. Into
D. down
9. Linda chats so much; she could talk the hind leg _______ a donkey.
A. up to
B. over
C. off D. under
10. I’m going to put my head _______ for a while as I feel very tired.
A. down
B. over
C. up
D. through
B. COLLOCATION AND IDIOMS (10PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
1. I had to get through a lot of__________tape, but I finally got the documents I needed.
A. red
B. blue
C. link
D. yellow
2. The hospital staff pulled out all the _______ to make sure the children had a wonderful day.
A. roadblocks B. barricades C. plugs
D. stops
3. Neither side is prepared to _____ an inch in the negotiations.
A. stir B. budge
C. push
D. bend
4. Congressman Saunders fired the opening _______ during a heated debate on capital punishment.
A. salvo
B. barrage
C. cannonade
D. burst
5. I like the way people here always queue up. Back home we just push and shove, and the devil
take the ________!
A. outermost
B. foremost
C. hindmost
D. utmost
6. The manager attached himself to the luncheon club and became a _______ fixture there.
A. perennial
B. enduring C. stable
D. permanent
7. I was so hungry, and that meal was absolutely delicious! It was just what the _______ ordered.
A. scientist B. doctor
C. expert
D. healer
8. Although the Government has increased allocations to the social sector by as much as 40 per
cent, State funding still falls ________ short of needs.
A. well
B. totally
C. severely D. abjectly
9. Last week’s violence was _______ condemned by foreign governments.
A. grimly
B. roundly C. roughly D. bitingly
10. . Let me know of any pertinent developments, keep me in the ______.
A. sphere
B. ring
C. circle
D. loop
Part 2: Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
line 1
line 2
line 3
line 4
line 5
line 6
line 7
line 8
line 8
Russia election: Vladimir Putin wins by big margin
Vladimir Putin will lead Russia for other six years, after securing an expected
victory in Sunday's president election.
Mr Putin, who has ruled the country as neither either president or prime minister
since 1999, got more than 76% of the vote, official results shows. The main
opposition opposite.leader, Alexei Navalny, was barred from the race. Addressed
ing. a rally in Moscow, Mr Putin said voters had "recognised the achievements of
the last few years".
Speaking to reporters after the results announced, he laughed at a question about
running again in another six years. "What you are saying is a bit funny. Do you think
line 10
line 11
line 12
line 13
line 14
line 15
line 16
line 17
line 18
line 19
that I will stay here until I'm 100 years old? No!" he said. The scale of victory which had been widely predicted - appears to be a markedly increase in his share of
the vote from 2012, when he won 64%. Mr Putin's nearest competitor, millionaire
communist Pavel Grudinin, received about 12%. The race also included Ksenia
Sobchak, a formal reality TV host, and veteran nationalist Vladimir Zhirinovsky they got less than 2% and about 6% respectedly. Mr Putin's campaign team said it
was an "incredible victory". "The percentage that we have just seen speaks for itself.
It's a mandate which Putin needs for future decisions, and he has a lot of them to do,"
a spokesman told Russia's Interfax.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/world-europe-43452449)
Line
Example 1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Mistake
other
Correction
another
Part 3: For questions 1 - 10, choose the correct answer to fill each space. Write your answers in
the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Very few of us would admit putting much trust in horoscopes and the fact that the movements of
astronomical bodies _________ (1) to earthly occurrences affecting peoples' everyday lives.
We all know about the zodiac signs which reflect the position of the sun, the moon and the planets
at the moment of a man's birth and about the peculiar characteristics _________ (2) to them by
astrologers. We say we will take these phenomena with a pinch of salt while we keep _________
(3) our eyes over them in every tabloid we lay our hands on. Most frequently, we expect horoscopes
to predict the future, to ___________ (4) our optimistic mood with a piece of comforting
information or to ___________ (5) our ego by confirming the superlative features that we tend to
attribute to our zodiacs.
However, there's no scientific evidence to ___________ (6) the assumption that human existence
is so closely __________ (7) with the parameters of the celestial bodies. Our curiosity in
horoscopes may, then, _________(8) our sheer fascination with the unexplained or the
unpredictable as well as in the enticing insight into the future that the horoscopes offer, thus
establishing the sense of our __________ (9) an extreme power over our own lives. An additional
explanation is that humans tend to have a soft ____________ (10) for any form of flattery, which
is the fact to which astrologers and the horoscope writers seem to attach the greatest deal of weight.
1. A. rely
B. correspond
C. match
D. compare
2. A. identified
B. associated
C. incorporated
D. ascribed
3. A. running
B. sending
C. fixing
D. putting
4. A. restore
B. adjust
C. upgrade
D. reassure
5. A. boost
B. escalate
C. revitalize
D. improve
6. A. conclude
B. concede
C. corroborate
D. confound
7. A. fused
B. adhered
C. coalesced
D. intertwined
8. A. stem
B. crop
C. rear
D. dawn
9. A. disposing
B. wielding
C. effecting
D. committing
10. A. pit
B. dot
C. spot
D. nick
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4:
For questions 1 - 10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and
write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
BICYCLE SAFETY
Having to obey rules and regulations when riding a bike is (0) __one__ of the first
experiences children have of the idea of obeying the law. However, a large number of children are
left to learn the rules by trial and (1) ______, instead of being guided by experienced (2) _______.
Every year, hundreds of children visit the doctor or the hospital casualty department (3) ______
crashing on their bikes. This could be easily prevented by (4) _______ them the basics of bicycle
safety. Ideally, children should be allowed to ride only in safe places, such as parks and cycle
tracks. When this is not possible, and they are permitted to go on the (5) ______, it is important to
teach them some basic safety principles.
First, they ought to learn and obey the rules of the road, which (6) _______ traffic signs, signals
and road markings. Second, they should always wear a helmet. Studies have shown that wearing
bicycle helmets can (7) ______ head injuries by up to 85 per cent. In many places, helmets are
required by law, particularly (8) _______ children. Finally, children should be made to understand
(9) _______ importance of riding in areas that are brightly lit and of wearing clothes that make
(10) _______ clearly visible on the road.
Your answers:
Part 5. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (12 pts)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train
carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a
snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become
of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and
healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste
to cross the "Great American Desert" to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern
parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with
enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed.
But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought.
To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for
cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They
had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses.
Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to
drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were
not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to
be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way,
they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for
themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after
year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of
winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a
bam cured the cultivated grasses.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation
B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle
D. The climate of the Western United States
2. What can be inferred by the phrase "Legend has it" in line I?·
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
3. The word "they" in line 4 refers to ………….. .
A. plains
B. skeletons
C. oxen
D. Americans
4. What can be inferred about the "Great American Desert" mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860's.
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800's.
5. The word "barren" in line 7 is closed in meaning to …………… "
A. lonely
B. uncomfortable
C. infertile
D. dangerous
6. The word "preferred" in line 8 is closed in meaning to ………….. .
A. favored
B. available
C. ordinary
D. required
7. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second
paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
8. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass
B. Bluejoint grass
C. Buffalo grass
D. Grama grass
9. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture
B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors
D. They are not affected by dry weather
10. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by ……………"
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
Part 6. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (12 pts)
A After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome of hazy
gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious: Las Vegas 30
miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than it was an hour ago.
B Light pollution—the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area—has
become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15 years. In the
suburbs, where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the Milky Way’s
2,500 stars are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large cities. In almost every
town, big and small, street lights beam just as much light up and out as they do down,
illuminating much more than just the street. Almost 50 percent of the light emanating from street
lamps misses its intended target, and billboards, shopping centres, private homes and skyscrapers
are similarly over-illuminated.
C America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night, the outline
of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there, in bright clusters:
New York, Boston, Miami, Houston, Los Angeles, Seattle, Chicago, and, of course, Las Vegas.
Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west Texas, says that the very fact
that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their wastefulness. “When you’re up in an
airplane, all that light you see on the ground from the city is wasted. It’s going up into the night
sky. That’s why you can see it.”
D But don’t we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light engineers, light
pollution control advocates and astronomers is an emphatic “no.” Elizabeth Alvarez of the
International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit organization in Tucson, Arizona, says
that overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to close the shutters, which means
that if any criminal activity does occur on the street, no one will see it. And the old assumption
that bright lights deter crime appears to have been a false one: A new Department of Justice
report concludes that there is no documented correlation between the level of lighting and the
level of crime in an area. And contrary to popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight
than at night.
E For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily blind
drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents, some cities and
states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For instance, New Hampshire law
forbids the use of “any light along a highway so positioned as to blind or dazzle the vision of
travellers on the adjacent highway.”
F Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched turtles in
Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of the ocean.
Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and lighthouses, are injured,
sometimes fatally, after colliding with high, lighted structures. And light pollution harms air
quality as well: Because most of the country’s power plants are still powered by fossil fuels,
more light means more air pollution.
G So what can be done? Tucson, Arizona is taking back the night. The city has one of the best
lighting ordinances in the country, and, not coincidentally, the highest concentration of
observatories in the world. Kitt Peak National Optical Astronomy Observatory has 24 telescopes
aimed skyward around the city’s perimeter, and its cadre of astronomers needs a dark sky to
work with.
H For a while, that darkness was threatened. “We were totally losing the night sky,” Jim
Singleton of Tucson’s Lighting Committee told Tulsa, Oklahoma’s KOTV last March. Now,
after retrofitting inefficient mercury lighting with low-sodium lights that block light from
“trespassing” into unwanted areas like bedroom windows, and by doing away with some
unnecessary lights altogether, the city is softly glowing rather than brightly beaming. The same
thing is happening in a handful of other states, including Texas, which just passed a light
pollution bill last summer. “Astronomers can get what they need at the same time that citizens
get what they need: safety, security and good visibility at night,” says McDonald Observatory’s
Mark Adams, who provided testimony at the hearings for the bill.
I And in the long run, everyone benefits from reduced energy costs. Wasted energy from
inefficient lighting costs us between $1 and $2 billion a year, according to IDA. The city of San
Diego, which installed new, high-efficiency street lights after passing a light pollution law in
1985, now saves about $3 million a year in energy costs.
J Legislation isn’t the only answer to light pollution problems. Brian Greer, Central Ohio
representative for the Ohio Light Pollution Advisory Council, says that education is just as
important, if not more so. “There are some special situations where regulation is the only fix,” he
says. “But the vast majority of bad lighting is simply the result of not knowing any better.”
Simple actions like replacing old bulbs and fixtures with more efficient and better-designed ones
can make a big difference in preserving the night sky.
Questions 1- 6
The first six paragraphs of the reading passage are lettered A-F.
Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
List of Headings
I .Why lights are needed
ii. Lighting discourages law breakers
iii. The environmental dangers
vii. Seen from above
iv. People at risk from bright lights
viii. More light than is necessary
v. Illuminating space
ix. Approaching the city
vi. A problem lights do not solve
Questions 7-10
Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the passage.
Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.
7) According to a recent study, well-lit streets do not .................... or make neighbourhoods safer
to live in.
8) Inefficient lighting increases .................... because most electricity is produced from coal, gas
or oil.
9) Efficient lights .................... from going into areas where it is not needed.
10) In dealing with light pollution .................... is at least as important as passing new laws.
Part 7. You are going to read some reviews of art events. For questions 1 - 10, choose
from the reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once.
In which review is the following mentioned?
Institutions could suffer because of a thoughtless act.
1
I
Many different styles offered by artists in Europe.
2
A substantial amount of time needed to complete one piece of work.
3
Land and sea treated very differently.
4
Paintings about other paintings.
5
Man's negative impact on the environment.
6
Finding ways to payoff debts.
7
A primitive style of interior decoration.
8
Showing how something is set up for public viewing.
9
Fantasy images based on a real environment.
10
Reviews of art events
A Ben Cook and Phil Whiting
Landscape, such a dominant theme in Cornwall, has the chalk and cheese treatment from two
artists showing in Penzance this month. At Cornwall Contemporary Gallery Ben Cook " uses
abstract vocabulary to make almost entirely conceptual references. His use of found objects and
time spent surfing drew him to look at the processes involved in surfboard manufacture. Based
on these, his constructions and paintings combine areas of high resist, high speed, water
deflecting sheen with those tempered by wax to produce mottled, opaque, non-slip surfaces that
smack of stone and solidity. Phil Whiting is a painter. His vigorous use of materials - acrylics in
thick impasto inks, charcoal applied with a brush, knife and 'whatever' - recalls a terrain smarting
from the brute force of man's misuse of it. This is not the celebrated, picturesque Cornwall we so
often see but its dirty, rain-soaked underbelly, a landscape left bereft by voracious mining and
haphazard industrial development.
B Shanti Panchal
It is almost thirty years since Shanti Panchal first came from India to study art in London, where
he has lived ever since. This retrospective at Chelmsford Museum elucidates his distinctive,
I
radical water-colourist's achievement. Growing lip in a Gujarati village, he decorated local
houses with Images of birds and animals. As a Bombay art student, cave paintings and images
from Jain temples inspired him, and as a student in Europe, he was drawn to medieval icons. It is
erroneous to say that his work is characterised by poignant nostalgia for India. The paintings are
not nostalgic. Rather they evoke with subtle clarity what it is like to be exiled and dispossessed
while at the same time rooted inalienably in
nature and the cosmos.
Every watercolour is multi-layered, giving a similar surface to Buddhist cave paintings. It can
take days in order to face Nhat is going to happen in a piece. Each picture takes weeks and
sometimes months. Recent pictures include portraits and even a homage to Frida Kahlo, a painter
that Shanti respects immensely.
C Iwan Gwyn Parry
Ian Gwyn Parry's first solo exhibition at Martin Tinney Gallery in Cardiff is a significant event.
Until now the artist has shown mostly in North Wales. Now there is an opportunity to experience,
further south, a coherent and powerful assemblage of his latest work. It is clear the show will be
something special. For these remarkable landscapes and seascapes appear to have emerged from
deep within his psyche and are a highly imaginative response to a coastal terrain familiar to the
artist. There is a strong sense of mysticism, the painting suffused with ethereal vapours and
incandescent light; there are restless swathes of deep orange and yellow. The seascapes are
haunting and elemental while the landscapes are more reflective studies in grey, black and
white. His oil The Irish Sea, for example is on an awesome scale, its seething waters of churning
paint intensely lit by a low sun. Definitely a show not to be missed.
D Art auctions
Of the top three Modern British sales last month, it was Christie's who kicked off the,
proceedings, but not without controversy. Bury district council, in their wisdom, auctioned a
major painting by LS. Lowry so as to cover a £10 million shortfall in their finances. The £1.2
million hammer price, less expenses, will not make all that much difference but the
issue has raised the wrath of the Museums Association, who in future, could block lottery and
National Arts Collection Fund resources in all aspects of museum and gallery development. Bury
may well live to regret their foolhardy action as current and future donators will also not be
encouraged to gift works of art which could be sold on a whim. Bonhams followed ten days later
with a good but not exceptional sale of which a solid 70% was sold and totaled £2.3 million.
It was then Sotheby's turn to shine which they succeeded in doing, with 80% of lots sold and an
impressive total of £7.7 million, though some way behind their arch rival. Records were broken
for works by Sir Winston Churchill, former British Prime Minister.
E Andrew Grassie
Andrew Grassie's exhibition at Maureen Paley Gallery is aptly entitled 'Installation', since it
provides a look backstage at the rituals involved in hanging an exhibition before it officially
opens to the public. To achieve this, Grassie devised and followed a pre-determined strategy,
namely: "Install a series of paintings at the gallery depicting last year's previous exhibitions
during their installation. Each painting should hang at the very spot from which the image was
taken, enabling the viewer to compare views of the space." The result is five jewel-like paintings,
each one painstakingly copied from a mid-installation photograph taken by Grassie before the
opening of the previous year's shows. The paintings are executed with such detail that it is
difficult at times to uncover the illusion that these are photographs rather than paintings.
F Story
Alexia Goethe has selected fourteen artists, including six resident in the UK and four from
Leipzig, for her show 'Story'. She seeks to demonstrate that whatever technique is used painting, text, video, photograph or concept - and regardless of style, the artist is telling a story.
The tales being told made me come away feeling a sense of recovery. Tales of politics, war,
social unrest, personal tragedy, to name just a few, are depicted here. Jin Meng who now resides
in Europe, produces exquisitely framed views from the present onto China's past. Political
statues, glimpsed from a deserted bedroom, evoke the vast changes sweeping his birthplace. Jean
Tinguely's kinetic assemblages illustrate how the mechanical is subverted into the amusing and
the desirable. This is an eclectic mix of treasures that can't fail to shock, amuse and move
Part 8:
1.Where the real cause of the decline in the competition’s popularity lies is still debatable.
(SPOT)
→ It is open ...................................................................................................
2. People who often talk too much about unimportant things do not appeal to me. (DONKEY)
→ I’m not in ............................................................................
3 It’s bad I failed to do my share of the job. (WEIGHT)
→ I would like ........................................................................................
4. That this celebrity keeps her own affairs away from public attention is of great importance.
(PROFILE)
→ It is advisable that this ..................................................................................................................
5. Looking back, I have a feeling that they gave the deceptive information about the case.
(BOOKS)
→ In.................................................................................................
6. I don't mind which make of car you choose.
It is of …………………………………………………………………… make of car you choose.
7. You should always be grateful for what you are given. horse
You should ………………………………………………….. the mouth.
8. He promised to look into my case personally. assurance
He ………………………………………............………….. look into my case personally.
9. The prisoner was unrepentant about the suffering he had caused. remorse
The prisoner ........................................................................... the suffering he had caused.
10. She‘s only happy when somebody does all her jobs for her. DANCES
She‘s only happy when .....................................................................
Part 9: Write an essay about 350 words regarding the topic:
The best way to solve the world's environmental problems is to increase the cost of fuel. To
what extent do you agree or disagree?
Test 2:
Phần 1:
Part one. Questions 1-5
Listen to an interview with a young film director, Lauren Casio and choose the best answer.
You will listen to it TWICE.
1. Lauren was encouraged to follow a career as a film because her teacher ______
A. could see that she had potential.
B. found her early attempts highly original.
C. were impressed by her level o motivation.
D. appreciated her ability to work within a budget.
2. How does Lauren respond when asked about critics of film school?
A. She think they would benefit from going to one.
B. She defends the record of the one that she attended.
C. She agrees that it’s less useful for certain types of work.
D. She regrets that it is the only option for poorer students.
3. Lauren didn’t start making full-length feature films sooner because______
A. She wanted to be sure of her ability first.
B. She had a bad experience with an early attempt.
C. She wasn’t lucky enough to have the opportunity.
D. She didn’t manage to find the financial backing she needed.
4. How does Lauren feel now about the film Hidden Valley Dreams?
A. She regrets the setting she chose for it.
B. She regards it as being far from perfect.
C. She’s surprised that it’s proved so popular.
D. She wishes she’d spent more time on the plot.
5. How does Lauren feel when she goes to give talks in schools?
A. unsure whether to reveal her humble background.
B. worried that she might give the kids unrealistic ambitions.
C. slightly uncomfortable with the idea of being a role model.
D. concerned that she may not command the respect of the students.
Your answers
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2.
For questions 6-10, you will hear a lecture on Energy. Decide whether following statements
are True (T) or False (F).
6. According to the lecture, solar-powered cars are impractical.
7. The diesel engine was first produced in 1824.
8. The diesel engine cost more to run.
9. Diesel engines emit fewer air pollutants than petrol-driven engines.
10.
Diesel engines are noisier and vibrate more.
Your answers
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3
Listen to VOA news. Complete the summary by writing NO MORE THAN THREE words
and/or a number in each gap. You will listen to this TWICE.
Israel has declared a 12-hour long 16. _____________________ in Gaza, which would start around
17._____________________ local time. The pause in fighting between 18.
_____________________ and Israelis aims at solving the 19. _____________________ that have
resulted in the deadly violence between the two sides. WHO is calling for a 20.
_____________________to transport the wounded out of the 21. _____________________.
Nigeria has confirm the 22. _____________________ after a man in Lagos tested 23.
_____________________ . 24. _____________________ have been killed by the virus this year.
Also in northern Nigeria, a 25. _____________________has serious effect on the health of many
HIV/AIDS patients. 30,000 medical officials choose not to work as a way to rescue the frail health
care system of the country.
Phần II:
Part 1:
A. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
21. You are going to need her help. If I were you, I’d ___________ a bit. I’d try to get her on my
side, you know what I mean.
A. soap her down
B. oil her over
C. butter her up D. grease her out
22. There is a great deal of pressure in the newspaper industry; editor might work a 12-hour day
with no _________.
A. come-down
B. letdown
C. crackdown
D. let-up
23. The first round of interviews only really serves to _________ the very weakest of applicants.
A. tide over
B. beat about
C. bark up
D. weed out
24. They will need time to _________ the proposals we have submitted.
A. lash out
B. scroll over
C. shrivel up
D. mull over
25. The kids are _________ in the steam-filled room, and the girl seems grateful for adult
conversation.
A. impinging on
B. larking about
C. ploughing ahead D. floating out
26. Both the favourite and then the second favourite pulled out. Naturally, we thought we were
_________ a chance.
A in with
B up for
C in for
D up with
27. The man in the market was selling leather coats very cheaply: they were such bargains that
were soon ______ .
A.cleared off
B.done for
C.bought out
D. snapped up
28. Our teacher tends to ______ certain subjects which she finds difficult to talk about
A.boil down
B.string along
C. skate over
D.track down
29. He likes nothing better than to spend his Sunday mornings _________ in the gardens.
A. pottering about
B. hanging around C. whiling away
D.winding down
30. James kept trying to _________ his duties, but his manager told him if he didn’t start taking
responsibility for his work he would have to leave the company.
A. beaver away
B. weasel out of
C. chicken out of
D. clam up
B. COLLOCATIONS AND IDIOMS (5PTS)
Choose the best options to complete the following sentences.
31. Normally, when he was late, he gave a pathetic excuse, but not this time, what he said had a
______ of truth about it.
A. figment
B. glimmer
C. ring
D. shred
32. The football fans were coming in _______ to watch the final game. An hour before the kickoff
the stadium was packed full.
A. fingers and thumbs
B. bits and bobs
C. dribs and drabs
D. bibs and tuckers
33. The Government is trying to ________when it says it will spend more on the health service
without raising taxes.
A. chew the fat
B. wave the flag
C. square the circle
D. put the lid
34. The government is using the taxes from the working class to bail out the banks that ruined the
economy? That really ________!
A. sows wild oats
B. spills the beans
C. takes the biscuit
D. upsets the apple cart
35. They will provide a lot of amusement hopping _______ over the rocks from one puddle to
another.
A. up and down
B. in and out
C. back and forth
D. back to front
36. The candidate’s optimism gave _______ to doubt as the result ofs of exit polls became known.
A. place
B. lie
C. vent
D. voice
37. We’d been working hard for a month and so decided to go out and _______.
A. paint the town red
B. face the music
C. read between the lines
D. steal the show
38. The country is an economic ______ with chronic unemployment and rampant crime.
A. lost cause
B. basket case
C. false dawn
D. dark horse
39. The opposition protests against the government now threaten to get out of ______ and the
security forces are likely to make arrests around the country today.
A. reach
B. kilter
C. hand
D. ordinary
40. I’m not sure I can answer that. I’ve only thought about it in the ____________before.
A. general
B. hypothetical
C. indefinite
D. abstract
Part 2:
The passage below contains 10 mistakes. For questions 1- 10, find out and correct them.
It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority of road accidents which involves
the tremendous toll of fatalities each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions or road
shortcomings. Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at junctions, judging the
situation on the road or being unable to accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the
“snailpacers” ahead. Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may be running
the risk of causing a tragedy through their impairing perception, which is not so rare a case, again.
Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary alterations in the traffic system that
change the behavioural patterns of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary
resolutions ought to put into practice if the vehicle users are to benefit from greater security on the
road. The idea of producing safe road users through pre-school parental instruction or through
incorporating the safety regulations for school curriculum has been widely acclaimed in many
communities and are expected to yield the required results as the first step in bettering the
qualifications of the future drivers and acquaint them with the potential hazards that may arise en
route.
1. ………
2………
3………
4………
5………
6………
7………
8………
9………
10………
Part 3: Question 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best
fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) (CAE builder)
Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet
When Gerard Mercator was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still (0)___ remained
______a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast (1)
_________of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was connected to Antarctica.
Mercator’s childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the river, and it
was here that his geographical imagination was (2) _________by the ships which passed to and from
the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he developed two very different skills. The first was the
ability to gather, (3) _________and co-ordinate the geographical information provided by explorers
and sailors who frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself (4)
_________from the heavens, to achieve the visionary (5) _________of gods in the skies, (6)
_________ down on the world. The main reason why Mercator’s name is familiar to us is because of
the Mercator Projection: the solution he (7)_________to represent the spheroidal surface of the globe
on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that Mercator was the first man to conceive of
mapping the (8) _________surface of the planet or that he (9) _________the idea of multiple maps
being presented in bound books, to which he gave the name ‘Atlas’.
It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail and coverage,
but we should bear in mind that Mercator lived at a time when such knowledge was far from (10)
_________. He was the man who altered our worldview forever.
0. A. remained
1. A. territory
2. A. raised
3. A. congregate
4. A. suspended
5. A. inspection
6. A. glimpsing
7. A. invented
8. A. sheer
9. A. pioneered
10. A. typical
Your answers:
B. continued
B. distance
B. reared
B. amass
B. located
B. observation
B. scrutinizing
B. contrived
B. full
B. initiated
B. common
C. maintained D. endured
C. range
D. expanse
C. supplied
D. nourished
C. assimilate D. construct
C. situated
D. attached
C. perspective
D. assessment
C. watching
D. gazing
C. devised
D. schemed
C. entire
D. utter
C. lead
D. prepared
C. routine
D. normal
1. ……………
2. ……………
3. ……………
4. ……………
5. ……………
6. ……………
7. ……………
8. ……………
9. ……………
10. ………..…
Question 4: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only
one word in each space.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
(CPE succeed)
Karaoke fever
Karaoke is fast (0)____becoming_____ the nation’s Number One party pastime. Public humiliation
has (1)_________ been so fashionable. It’s 1 a.m. at an exclusive location in the heart of London. A
major pop singer has taken the stage but rather than sing her latest hit, she treats the crowd
(2)_________ a Michael Jackson song. What was (3) _________ the party habit of teenagers is now
favoured by London’s coolest crowd and everyone is having a (4) _________. So why are so many
of our young celebrities queueing up to make fools of (5) _________ in clubs and bars across the
country? Maybe it’s because belting (6) _________ a naff pop song to a public audience shows that
even though you may be a celebrity, you don’t (7) _________ yourself too seriously. And if you are
a big movie star, that’s a good message to get across. Nobody gets away without being laughed (8)
_________ on a karaoke evening, no matter how famous they are. (9) _________ all, that’s the whole
point of the exercise. But for the musical experts among you, a word of warning: this isn’t about
proving to the world that you know all the lyrics to a serious song. It’s about expressing your inner
performer. Don’t bother (10) _________ up at a karaoke night if you aren’t prepared to sing; you’ve
got to put in the effort and prove that you are one of the ‘in-crowd’. Break a leg!
Your answers:
1. ……………
2. ……………
3. ……………
4. ……………
5. ……………
6. ……………
7. ……………
8. ……………
9. ……………
10. ………..…
Part 5: Read the passage and choose one of four options to answer the questions (10 points)
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What
causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may perish.
The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change
may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a
species may not be adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will
then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better
adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent
analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same
time - a mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65
million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest
mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent
of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the
environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example,
something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen
content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change
would probably lead to amass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that
extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million
years. The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of
comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that
extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may
survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or
inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially
random events.
1: The underlined word “ ultimately “ is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally
B. unfortunately
C. eventually
D. dramatically
2: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment .
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
3: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?
A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species
C. Temperature changes
D. Competition among species
4: The word “demise” is closest in meaning to
A. help
B. death.
C. recovery
D. change
5: Why is “ plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the
ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
6: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
7: The underlined word “ finding” is closest in meaning to
A. published information
B. research method
C. scientific discovery.
D. ongoing experiment
8: Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in
paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
9: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?
A. It is associated with astronomical condition
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It reflects the interrelationship of may species.
10: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred
A. 65 million years ago
B. 250 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago
D. 26 million years ago
Your answers:
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 6. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 points)
HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK?
A. Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as 'biologically' obvious. ‘Nothing lives for
ever!’ However, in this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products
which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use. This leads to the result that at some time
or other the object stops working and is unusable ('death' in the biological sense). But are the wear
and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar
or comparable?
B. Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes
the object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes 'older’. Ageing in
this case must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although
the same law holds for a living organism, the result of this law is not inexorable in the same way.
At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older
without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic system through which new material continuously
flows. Destruction of old material and formation of new material are thus in permanent dynamic
equilibrium. The material of which the organism is formed changes continuously. Thus our bodies
continuously exchange old substance for new, just like a spring which more or less maintains its
form and movement, but in which the water molecules are always different.
C. Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses
many mechanisms for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and
die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span, ageing, and then death are basic characteristics of life. The
reason for this is easy to recognise: in nature, the existent organisms either adapt or are regularly
replaced by new types. Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new
characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better
adaptation to the environmental conditions. Immortality would disturb this system - it needs room
for new and better life. This is the basic problem of evolution
D. Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in
life span between different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For
example, the average duration of human life has hardly changed in thousands of years. Although
more and more people attain an advanced age as a result of developments in medical care and
better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most remains 80 years. A further argument against
the simple wear and tear theory is the observation that the time within which organisms age lies
between a few days (even a few hours for unicellular organisms) and several thousand years, as
with mammoth trees.
E. If a lifespan is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to
propose the existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the aging
process and which finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like the fife
span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship to the body
mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is ‘inverted’: the larger the organism the lower
its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on average
within the systematic unit, for all other organisms (plants, animals, unicellular organisms).
F. Animals which behave ‘frugally’ with energy become particularly old for example, crocodiles
and tortoises. Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to
‘experience life’ and so they attain a high life span in captivity. Animals which save energy by
hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those which are always
active, The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low consumption of food (hunger diet)
They then may live twice as long as their well fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10
per cent) older than men. If you examine the metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the
higher male metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male life span. That means that they live
life ‘energetically’ - more intensively, but not for as long.
G. It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme
high performance sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly
do not prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep and in general an
equable and balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own ‘energy saving
programme’ with a little self observation, critical self-control and, above all, logical consistency.
Experience will show that to live in this way not only increases the life span but is also very healthy.
This final aspect should not be forgotten.
The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A-G,
For question 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings
below.
Write the correct number, i-x, in the corresponding numbered boxes.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x
The biological clock
Why dying is beneficial
The ageing process of men and women
Prolonging your life
Limitations of life span
Modes of development of different species
A stable life span despite improvements
Energy consumption
Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms
Repair of genetic material
Example answer: Paragraph A: v
Your answers
1. Paragraph B ….............
2. Paragraph C ….............
3. Paragraph D ….............
4. Paragraph E ….............
5. Paragraph F ….............
6. Paragraph G ….............
Questions 7-10, complete the notes below
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 7-10
 Objects age in accordance with principles of (7) __________ and of (8) _________
 Through mutations, organisms can (9) __________ better to the environment
 (10) __________ would pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution
Your answers
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 7. You are going to read an article about colour-taste relationships. For questions 47-56,
choose from the sections of the article (A-D). The sections may be chosen more than once.
In which section are the following mentioned?
47 the influence of external factors other than the colour of food or drink
48 the idea that reaction to colours is not uniform
49 the type of people who are most susceptible to colour influence
50 a collaboration between people from different backgrounds
51 the effect of impaired vision on eating habits
52 something that interests people but not for its original purpose
53 a hypothetical situation which may disgust us
54 some people’s ability to be more precise than others in describing subtle taste changes
55 the way companies can use psychology to make us eat more
56 a belief that some people are naturally reluctant to taste something
How we taste different colours
A
We’ve all heard that the first bite is taken with the eye but the link between our visual sense and
our flavour perception may be stronger than you think. When I think of flavour perception, noses
and taste buds primarily spring to mind. Sure, other factors such as texture, temperature and
touch sensations play a part but taste and smell are the dominant senses here, right? Well,
perhaps not. You only have to consider the insatiable public appetite for food pictures
masquerading as cookbooks to see there is meat to the old adage we eat with our eyes. Charles
Spence, the Oxford experimental psychologist who helped Heston Blumenthal develop some of
his playful multisensory signature dishes, places vision right up there with smell, in flavour’s
‘premier league’, if you will. ‘Half the brain is visual in some sense,’ says Spence. This is, in
part, why the colour of our food and drink can not only determine whether it is appetising but its
flavour, too.
В
It is often said that we have an inherent aversion to blue food because it appears so rarely in
nature. Another popular theory is that we’re attracted to red food because it signals ripeness,
sweetness and calories.But is this an innate preference? Probably not, thinks Chris Lukehurst,
head of research at the Marketing Clinic. How colour affects appetite is inconsistent and
contextual. Think about green food and you might picture fresh, nutritious rocket, watercress or
cucumber. Or perhaps under-ripe, sour fruits. ‘However, If I talk to you about green meat,’ he
says, ‘your stomach probably turns.’ It is interesting, though, that a dyed-blue steak will have the
same effect, even if you know it’s perfectly safe. If you get people to eat it in the dark, says
Spence, ‘so they think it’s normal, then you turn the lights up and show them the colour, some
will get up and be sick straightaway.’ Such is the powerfully aversive effect of food colour out of
context.
C
As well as tasting the colour of what we consume, we can also taste the shade of its wrapping.
Spence has tricked people into confusing salt and vinegar crisps with cheese and onion flavour
merely by switching packets. ‘Many of our subjects will taste the colour of the crisp packet, not
the crisp itself,’ he says. Our brains excel in picking up associations and using them as shortcuts.
When the colour makes us expect something to taste a certain way, we’ll taste what we expect
unless it’s shockingly different. Using multiple colours in sweets such as Smarties and M&Ms is
a strategy to get you to eat lots of them. People will wolf down more from a mixed bowl than
they will from a bowl full of their favourite colour. And a recent study from Cornwell University
showed that you’ll eat more, too, if your food colour matches the plate, while a contrast will have
the opposite effect.
D
If you can’t see colours, you might expect your other senses to sharpen and compensate but blind
people don’t taste or smell any more than anyone else. They are, however, generally better at
naming smells, which most sighted people struggle with. So they may not be tasting more
intensely but they can identify flavours better without visual cues. Not surprisingly, losing your
sight can make eating stressful and it is thought to contribute to a diminished appetite in old age.
But even losing the capacity to see colours can have adverse effects. In his book An
Anthropologist on Mars, Oliver Sacks told the fascinating story of a man who experienced this
after an accident. He found eating less pleasurable and started to choose black or white foods, or
eat with his eyes closed. Following a discussion with Blumenthal, Spence and his team at Oxford
did some research to discover who is the most easily influenced by the effects of colouring and
found that those at the super-taster end of the spectrum rely less on their eyes. ‘Whereas those
with fewer taste buds,’ says Spence, ‘will be more easily led astray or say,”Yep, I see red
therefore it’s sweet”.’
Part 8:
1. When she accepted the job, the au pair girl assumed that she would be free every weekend.
When she accepted the job, the au pair girl took ...........................................................................
2. In the summer, there are thousands more tourists than locals.
In the summer, the locals are vastly ..............................................................................................
3. He has an obsession about the dishonesty of lawyers. .
BEE
He
4. You can’t compare tabloids with quality newspapers.
FISH
Tabloids .........................................................................................................................................
5. It is her father who is Italian.HALF
She ......................... .......................................................................................................................
6. Nobody knows what annoyed our boss. (CHEESED)
→ Why ..........................................................................................................................................
7. It was not until he lost the last match that he realized he was a little too old for competitions.
(LONG)
→ Hardly ..........................................................................................................................................
8. The serious look on his face stopped us revealing the secret. (CAT)
→ Hadn’t it ........................................................................................................................................
9. It was unwise of you to try to do so many things without being aware of your shortcomings.
(THIN)
→ You shouldn’t
................................................................................................................................
10. He would spend his very last penny trying to ingratiate himself with his father-in-law.
(EXPENSE)
→ In his ..................................................................................................................................
Đề 3
Phần 1:
Part 1. (10 pts) You will hear part of a discussion between two well-known business people,
Sam Boland and Jimmy Glynn, and a radio current affairs show host about a recent
newspaper article on the subject of jobless graduation. For questions 1-5, choose the answer
(A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answer in the space
provided.
1. What does Jimmy say about the qualifications graduate jobseekers have?
A. they help them avoid having to take 'survival jobs'
B. few graduates are sufficiently qualified for the jobs available
C. few degrees teach skills relevant in the workplace
D. they are not really an advantage in the present job market
2. Why is Sam wary of employing graduates in his own company?
A. their superior performance can lead to workplace hostility
B. they can have a damaging effect on the chemistry of their team
C. he prefers to hire unskilled workers and invest in training
D. they only accept positions above lesser-skilled employees
3. In what respect have things changed since the speakers were job-seeking graduates?
A. jobseekers used not to lie about their qualifications
B. jobseekers used to pretend they had better qualifications
C. jobseekers used to be far fresher and more enthusiastic
D. jobseekers used not to mind dumbing down their CVs
4. Why does Jimmy have some sympathy for graduates?
A. he admires their sense of entitlement
B. they were too young to understand what they voted for
C. they have accumulated huge debts at college
D. they are victims of other people's incompetence.
5. Jimmy believes that college-goers of the future should
A. not rule out the Arts and Humanities.
B. work for foreign in preference to local firms
C. choose their courses of study carefully.
D. be selective about where they study.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2. (10 pts) You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. For
questions 6-10, listen and decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).
6. According to the presenter, we have to adjust our friendship as our lives changes
7. Barbara warns that foul-weather friends never want you to be happy
8. The danger of a trophy friend is that he/she will inhibit your social life.
9. A sisterly friend will be as close to your family as she is to you.
10. According to Barbara, a good friend doesn’t expend too much of your time and energy.
Your answers:
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 3. (20 pts) You will hear a piece of news. For questions 16-25, listen and complete the
summary with NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS. Write your answer in the space provided.
Nowadays, it is possible to donate money thousands of charities round the world to help people,
animals and places.
The Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals aimed to enhance 16.
_______________ in any country. More than three hundred inspectors were employed in England
and Wales to examine 17._______________.
The Royal National Institute of the Blind, which is Britain’s the top charity for the blind, confronts
18. _______________ of sight loss by helping the blind lead a normal life. The organisation also
works on the underlying causes of the disability to achieve its 19. _______________.
TBG is the acronym of 20. _______________ which aims to improve the local environment
quality. The TBG and its sister organisation, Going for Green, 21. _______________ and have the
same Chief Executive.
Mencap helps people with learning disabilities who are disadvantaged due to unfair treatment and
lack of 22. _______________. It also provides support and advice for families and 23.
_______________.
EveryChild believes that every child has the right to grow up and develop in a secure, safe, family
environment, free 24. _______________. EveryChild identifies the needs of a particular
community, sets up the projects so that they are self running, then moves on to new projects,
leaving things in 25. _______________.
Phần 2:
Part 1: A. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10pts)
1. I just want to settle _____ and start a family before I got too old.
A. in B. through
C. down
D. up
2. She spent twenty years studying the history of London. She knows it _____ out.
A. through
B. inside
C. all
D. over
3. Capital punishment was done ____ in Britain nearly half a century ago.
A. out for
B. away with
C. off by
D. over from
4. He wants to pay the bill himself, but I won’t hear _________ it.
A. from
B. about
C. of
D. for
5. This situation is analogous _____ the one we had faced last year.
A. for
B. in
C. from
D. to
6. When John was arrested for drunken driving, he expected to lose his driving license, but he was
_____ with a fine.
A. let through
B. let off
C. got away
D. kept away
7. My wife checks ___________ our elderly neighbour every few days to make sure that he's
alright.
A. on
B. in
C. at
D. out
8. The rain ran _____ the roof of the house.
A. on B. onto
C. from
D. into
9. You may come _____ different kinds of problems when you first settle in a different country.
A. out with
B. into
C. up with
D. up against
10. A Japanese company tried to ____________ the deal.
A. get in on
B. get on with
C. catch up on
D. walk in on
KEY TO PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
B. IDIOMS & COLLOCATIONS (10pts)
Choose the right phrase in the box to complete each of the following sentences. Use each phrase
only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box.
1. I’m sick and _______ of studying grammar.
A. cross
B. ill
C. tired
D. bored
2. She loves reading – she always has her _______ in a book.
A. nose
B. Eyes
C. face
D brow
3. Mice ________!
A. give me creeps
B. give me the creep
C. give me the creeps
D. give me creep
4. When his parents are away, his eldest brother ___.
A. knocks it off B. calls the shots
C. draws the line D. is in the same boat
5. I will do everything in my ___________ to rescue the victims.
A. ability
B. power
C. mind
D. effort
6. Be careful or he'll take you for a _________.
A. trick
B. cheat
C. fraud
D. ride
7. Just because Laura makes a lot of money, everyone expects her to _____ all the bills.
A. foot
B. stand
C. run
D. carry
8. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, _________, not to forget my
toothbrush.
A. after all
B. but more or less C. before long
D. but above all
9. His English was roughly _____ with my Greek, so communication was rather difficult!
A. level
B. on a par
C. equal
D. in tune
10. I didn’t want to make a decision _____ so I said I’d like to think about it.
A. on and off
B. in one go
C. there and then
D. at a stroke
KEY TO IDIOMS & COLLOCATIONS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Part2: Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
LINE
RAIN MAKING
0
When it rains, it doesn't always pour. During a typical storm, a comparative small amount
1
of the locking up moisture in each cloud reaches the ground like rain. So the idea that
2
human intervention a rain dance, perhaps - might encourage the sky to give up a little
3
additional water has been around in prehistoric times. More recently, would-be rain4
makers have attempted direct intervention, by lobbing various chemicals out of
5
aeroplanes in the effort to wring more rain from the clouds, a practice knowing as 'cloud
6
seeding'.
7
Yet such techniques, which were first developed in the 1940s, are notoriously difficult to
8
evaluate. It is hard to ascertain, for example, how much rain would have fallen anyway.
9
So, though much anecdotal evidence of the advantages of cloud seeding, that has led to
10
its adoption in more than 40 countries around the world, as far as scientists are concerned,
11
results are still inconclusive. That could be about to changing. For the past three years
12
researchers have been carrying out the most extensive and rigorous evaluation to date of
13
a revolutionarily new technique which will substantially boost the volume of rainfall.
14
The preliminary finding of their experiments indicate that solid evidence of the
15
technique's effectiveness is now within the scientists' grasp.
16
Your answers:
Line
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Mistakes
Corrections
Part 3: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
OK?
The word OK is ubiquitous in modern English but its origins remain (1) _______ in mystery. Over
the years, many theories have been (2) ______ regarding its derivation but none of them is (3)
_______ convincing. The first recorded written use of OK was in 1839, when it appeared in a
newspaper article in Boston, Massachusetts. There was a (4) _______ for wacky acronyms at the
time, just as today's text messages use things like 'LOL', and OK allegedly originated as a
misspelling of All Correct. But (5) ______ many of these acronyms flourished briefly and then
gradually (6) _______ out of use, OK has proved to be remarkably (7) _______. It first reached
England in 1870, where it appeared in the words of a popular song, and today is in (8) _______
use across the English-speaking world. As part of a phrase ' …. rules OK', it has been a mainstay
of urban graffiti since the 1930s and in 1969 it had the (9) ______ of being the first word spoken
on the moon. In short, it's a (10) _______ useful word.
1. A. shrouded
B. smothered
C. clothed
D. draped
2. A. laid out
B. put forward
C. drawn up
D.brought about
3. A. widely
B. mainly
C. wholly
D. largely
4. A. hype
B. craze
C. rage
D. whim
5. A. despite
B. albeit
C. whereas
D. providing
6. A. slipped
B. faded
C. crept
D. strayed
7. A. resolute
B. stalwart
C. steadfast
D. resilient
8. A. staunch
B. relentless
C. durable
D. constant
9. A. credit
B. pride
C. honour
D. acclaim
10. A. phenomenally B. ordinarily
C. Conclusively D. controversially
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one
word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
HOPES SPRINGS ETERNAL
As the eyes of the world focused on South Africa at the start of the 2010 football World Cup,
national pride was at an all-time (1) ___________. The new stadiums glittered, the national anthem
was sung as never before and the multiracial team took to the pitch fully aware of what their
presence on the global stage meant to their nation.
A (2) ___________twenty years before, the man who was to become the country’s first black
president, Nelson Mandela, was released from jail after 27 years having initially been imprisoned
for his role as leader of the banned African National Congress and for planning acts of sabotage
(3) ___________ the state. The road to freedom had been littered with obstacles and for a long
time it had seemed as if the destination would never be reached.
The system of apartheid that was formalized in the 1940s, and which lasted until 1994, had its (4)
____________ in the racial segregation introduced during colonial times, when the British and
Dutch battled for control of the country’s riches. The policy of oppression and relocation of nonwhites initially reaped huge (5) ___________ for the ruling white minority and by the 1960s the
country had economic growth second only to Japan. At the same time, however, the effort to (6)
___________ the rigid social structure imposed upon the majority of the nation was becoming
ever more costly and complicated.
Internationally, calls for boycotts were growing and the country was becoming increasingly
isolated. Internally, popular (7) __________ was growing. The government faced wave after wave
of strikes, matches, protest and sabotage by bombing and other means. The repeated massacres of
demonstration drew widespread international condemnation and, of course, (8) ___________ to
strengthen support for resistance organizations, by the 1970s, the country was also embroiled in a
number of military missions in neighbouring countries in an attempt to crush all dissent, (9)
___________ internal repression and censorship reached new levels. By mid-80s, south Africa’
economy was one of the weakest in the world and the writing was clearly on the wall.
Following Mandela’s release and dismantling of apparatus of apartheid, the issue of how to move
the country forward peaceably loomed (10) _________. The establishment of The Truth and
Reconciliation Commission was a major step in this direction.
Your answers:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 5: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.(15pts)
Learning to Run
An article published recently in the prestigious scientific journal Nature is shedding new light on
an important, but hitherto little appreciated, aspect of
human evolution. In this article, Professors Dennis Bramble and Daniel Lieberman suggest that the
ability to run was a crucial factor in the development of our species. According to the two scientists,
humans possess a number of anatomical features that make them surprisingly good runners. ‘We
are very confident that strong selection for running (A) ____was instrumental in the origin of the
modern human body form,’ says Bramble, a biology professor at the University of Utah.
Traditional thinking up to now has been that the distinctive, upright body form of modern humans
has come about as a result of the ability to walk, and that running is simply a by-product of walking.
Furthermore, humans have usually been regarded as poor runners compared to such animals as
dogs, horses or antelopes. However, this is only true if we consider fast running, or sprinting, over
short distances. Even an Olympic athlete can hardly run as fast as a horse can gallop, and can only
keep up a top speed for fifteen seconds or so. Horses, antelopes and greyhounds, on the other hand,
can run at top speed for several minutes, clearly outperforming us in this respect. But when it comes
to long-distance running, humans do astonishingly well (B)_____ They can maintain a steady pace
for miles, and their overall speed compares favourably with that of horses or dogs.
Bramble and Lieberman examined twenty-six anatomical features found in humans. One of the
most interesting of these is the nuchal ligament, a band of tissue that extends from a ridge on the
base of the skull to the spine. When we run, it is this ligament that prevents our head from pitching
back and forth or from side to side. Therefore, we are able to run with steady heads, held high. The
nuchal ligament (C)_____is not found in any other surviving primates, although the fossil record
shows that Homo erectus, an early human species that walked upright, much as we do, also had
one. Then there are our Achilles tendons at the backs of our legs, which connect our calf muscles
to our heel bones - and which have nothing to do with walking. When we run, these behave like
springs, helping to propel us forward. Furthermore, we have low, wide shoulders, virtually
disconnected from our skulls, an anatomical adaptation which allows us to run more efficiently.
Add to this our light forearms, which swing out of phase with the movement of our legs to assist
balance, and one begins to appreciate the point that Bramble and Lieberman are trying to make.
But what evolutionary advantage is gained from being good long-distance runners? One hypothesis
is that this ability may have permitted early humans to obtain food more effectively. ‘What these
features and fossil facts appear to be telling us is that running evolved in order for our direct
ancestors to compete with other carnivores for access to the protein needed to grow the big brains
that we enjoy today,’ says Lieberman. Some scientists speculate that early humans may have
pursued animals for miles in order to exhaust them before killing them. Running would also have
conferred an advantage before weapons were invented: early humans might have been scavengers,
eating the meat and marrow left over from a kill by lions or other large predators. They may have
been alerted to the existence of a freshly-killed carcass by vultures (D)____, and the faster they got
to the scene of the kill, the better.
‘Research on the history of human locomotion has traditionally been contentious,’ says Lieberman.
’At the very least, I hope this theory will make many people have second thoughts about how
humans learned to run and walk and why we are built the way we are.’
1. According to the text, the human ability to run…..
A. was only recently described in a scientific journal.
B. is now regarded as more important than the ability to climb trees.
C. played an important part in human evolution.
D. is surprising when we consider evolutionary trends.
2. According to the text, scientists used to believe……….
A. that the human body owes its form to the ability to walk.
B. the human ability to walk adversely affected the ability to run.
C. that only modern humans could walk upright.
D. that humans can run because they stand upright.
3.According to the text, humans……………
A. are better runners than most other animals.
B are not good at running short distances.
C. cannot run at top speed for long distances.
D. compare unfavourably with horses and dogs.
4. It appears that the nuchal ligament………
A. is found only in modern primates.
B. is associated with the ability to run.
C. prevents the head from moving.
D. is a unique anatomical feature.
5. The text implies that……………
A. we do not need calf muscles in order to walk.
B. without shoulders we could not run very fast.
C. the movement of our forearms is out of phase.
D. our Achilles tendons are an adaptation for running.
6. The pronoun “these” in the third paragraph refers to……………
A. legs
B. tendons
C. muscles
D. bones
7. According to the text, early humans…………
A. killed animals by exhausting them.
B. may have evolved big brains for running.
C. competed with other animals for food.
D. could probably run before they could walk.
8. Professor Lieberman hopes to…………….
A. dispel any remaining doubts about the nature of the human body.
B. prove conclusively that humans did not always walk in an upright position.
C. make people reconsider previously-held ideas about human anatomy.
D. inform people of the real reason why humans are able to run and walk.
9. Which of the following spaces can the relative clause “- which came at the expense of the
historical ability to live in trees -” fit?
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
10. The word “conferred” in the fourth paragraph can be best replaced by
A. give out
B. bring about
C. refer to
D. make out
Part 6: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows .(15pts)
. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow.
Communicating Styles and Conflict
Knowing your communication style and having a mix of styles on your team can provide a
positive force for resolving conflict.
A
As far back as Hippocrates’ time (460-370B.C.), people have tried to understand other people by
characterizing them according to personality type or temperament. Hippocrates believed there were
four different body fluids that influenced four basic types of temperament. His work was further
developed 500 years later by Galen. These days there are a number of self-assessment tools that
relate to the basic descriptions developed by Galen, although we no longer believe the source to be
the types of body fluid that dominate our systems.
B
The value in self-assessments that help determine personality style, learning styles, communication
styles, conflict-handling styles, or other aspects of individuals is that they help depersonalize
conflict in interpersonal relationships. The depersonalization occurs when you realize that others
aren’t trying to be difficult, but they need different or more information than you do. They’re not
intending to be rude: they are so focused on the task they forget about greeting people. They would
like to work faster but not at the risk of damaging the relationships needed to get the job done.
They understand there is a job to do, but it can only be done right with the appropriate information,
which takes time to collect. When used appropriately, understanding communication styles can
help resolve conflict on teams. Very rarely are conflicts of true personality issues. Usually, they
are issues of style, information needs, or focus.
C
Hippocrates and later Galen determined there were four basic temperaments: sanguine, phlegmatic,
melancholic and choleric. These descriptions were developed centuries ago and they are still
somewhat apt, although you could update the wording. In today’s world, they translate into the
four fairly common communication styles described below:
D
The sanguine person would be the expressive or spirited style of communication. These people
speak in pictures. They invest a lot of emotion and energy in their communication and often speak
quickly, putting their whole body into it. They are easily sidetracked onto a story that may or may
not illustrate the point they are trying to make. Because of their enthusiasm, they are great team
motivators. They are concerned about people and relationships. Their high levels of energy can
come on strong at times and their focus is usually on the bigger picture, which means they
sometimes miss the details or the proper order of things. These people find conflict or differences
of opinion invigorating and love to engage in a spirited discussion. They love change and are
constantly looking for new and exciting adventures.
E
The phlegmatic person - cool and persevering - translates into the technical or systematic
communication style. This style of communication is focused on facts and technical details.
Phlegmatic people have an orderly methodical way of approaching tasks, and their focus is very
much on the task, not on the people, emotions, or concerns that the task may evoke. The focus is
also more on the details necessary to accomplish a task. Sometimes the details overwhelm the big
picture and focus needs to be brought back to the context of the task. People with this style think
the facts should speak for themselves, and they are not as comfortable with conflict. They need
time to adapt to change and need to understand both the logic of it and the steps involved.
F
The melancholic person who is soft hearted and oriented toward doing things for others, translates
into the considerate or sympathetic communication style. A person with this communication style
is focused on people and relationships. They are good listeners and do things for other peoplesometimes to the detriment of getting things done for themselves. They want to solicit everyone’s
opinion and make sure everyone is comfortable with whatever is required to get the job done. At
times this focus on others can distract from the task at hand. Because they are so concerned with
the needs of others and smoothing over issues, they do not like conflict. They believe that change
threatens the status quo and tends to make people feel uneasy, so people with this communication
style, like phlegmatic people, need time to consider the changes in order to adapt to them.
G
The choleric temperament translates into the bold or direct style of communication. People with
this style are brief in their communication - the fewer words the better. They are big picture thinkers
and love to be involved in many things at once. They are focused on tasks and outcomes and often
forget that the people involved in carrying out the tasks have needs. They don’t do detail work
easily and as a result, can often underestimate how much time it takes to achieve the task. Because
they are so direct, they often seem forceful and can be very intimidating to others. They usually
would welcome someone challenging them, but most other styles are afraid to do so. They also
thrive on change, the more the better.
H
A well-functioning team should have all of these communication styles for true effectiveness. All
teams need to focus on the task, and they need to take care of relationships in order to achieve those
tasks. They need the big picture perspective or the context of their work, and they need the details
to be identified and taken care of for success. We all have aspects of each style within us. Some of
us can easily move from one style to another and adapt our style to the needs of the situation at
hand-whether the focus is on tasks or relationships. For others, a dominant style is very evident,
and it is more challenging to see the situation from the perspective of another style. The work
environment can influence communication styles either by the type of work that is required or by
the predominance of one style reflected in that environment. Some people use one style at work
and another at home.
The good news about communication styles is that we have the ability to develop flexibility in our
styles. The greater the flexibility we have, the more skilled we usually are at handling possible and
actual conflicts. Usually, it has to be relevant to us to do so, either because we think it is important
or because there are incentives in our environment to encourage it. The key is that we have to want
to become flexible with our communication style. As Henry Ford said, “Whether you think you
can or you can’t, you’re right!”
Questions 1-6
The reading passage has eight sections A-H. Choose the correct heading for each section from
the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-8.
List of Headings
i Summarising personality types
ii
Combined styles for workplace
iii
Physical explanation
iv
A lively person who encourages
v
Demanding and unsympathetic personality
vi
Lazy and careless personality
vii
The benefits of understanding communication styles
viii
Cautious and caring
ix
Factual and analytical personality
x
Self-assessment determines one’s temperament
Section A
1. Section B
2. Section C
3. Section D
4. Section E
5. Section F
6. Section G
Section H
..…iii……
………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
………….
……ii .….
Questions 7-10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage. Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7. It is believed that sanguine people dislike variety.
8. Melancholic and phlegmatic people have similar characteristics.
9. Managers often select their best employees according to personality types.
10. It is possible to change one’s personality type.
Part 7. You are going to read a newspaper article in which people talk about their experiences
at job interviews. For question 1-10, choose from the people (A-F)(10 pts)
Which person mentions the following?
the importance of keeping to the point
1………….
awareness of body language
2…………..
sources of information about your prospective employer
3………….
taking responsibility for past errors
4………….
appearing to have rehearsed responses
5………….
preparing inquiries to put to a prospective employer
6………….
foreseeing the consequences of feeling apprehensive
7………….
indicating that you view the interview as a transaction
8………….
a relaxed atmosphere in the workplace
9………….
advantages in being honest about your failings
10…………
Tell us Something about Yourself
Being interviewed for a job can be a stressful experience. We asked six people what they learnt
from being in that situation.
A. My first interview for a job taught me a great deal. I was applying for the position of junior
account executive in an advertising company, which involves dealing with clients on a face-to-face
basis. It follows that you have to be good at interpersonal skills, and unfortunately, that’s not the
impression I gave. Like a lot of people, I tend to babble when I’m nervous. The interviewer began
by asking me to say something about myself, and I started talking about my hobbies. But I got
carried away and went off at a tangent, which made a bad impression. The other lesson I learnt was
that if you are asked what your weaknesses are, you really shouldn’t be evasive. You could mention
a weakness that can also be a strength. For example, being pedantic is not always a bad thing in
certain circumstances, and you should explain how you cope with that weakness, but you have to
say something.
B. In my present job I have to interview applicants, and I can offer a few general tips. Firstly, a
candidate should not learn a speech off by heart; you will come across as insincere, as if you have
practiced everything in front of a minor. Secondly, it is crucial to understand what the interviewer
wants you to talk about. For instance, an interviewer might ask about a situation where your
supervisor or manager had a problem with your work. Now, what the interviewer is really after is
to see how you react to criticism, and the best thing is to say that you tried to learn from this.
Finally, don’t try to conceal your real character. When I was interviewed for a job many years ago,
the interviewer asked me at the end of our talk if I had any questions. I was very keen to get the
job, so I asked what opportunities there were for promotion if I were hired. I wondered if perhaps
I had been too direct, but I later discovered that employers like you to seem eager, and I think they
were impressed by my enthusiasm and ambition.
C. One good way to prepare for an interview is to find out as much as you can about the company
you have applied to from its website and promotional material. When you are asked if you have
any questions, you can show that you have done this preparatory work, which will impress the
interviewer. I also think a lot of candidates are too defensive in interviews. It’s not enough just to
avoid giving the ‘wrong’ answers; you should also actively try to make a good impression. Make
it clear that the interview is a two-way process: after all, you want to be sure the company is the
right place for you. It’s acceptable to take the opportunity, when one is offered, to interview the
interviewer! One way to do this is to ask him or her some penetrating questions such as why he or
she has stayed with the company for so long. Some people might think such a question is arrogant,
so size up the interviewer first and decide whether it would be an appropriate thing to ask.
D. I remember one interview I attended with a company that makes ice cream and other dairy
products. I didn’t know much about the company, and it was brought home to me that I should
have found out some basic facts. I turned up in a smart business suit and tie, only to find that my
prospective employers were in jeans! They believed in being casual: no private offices, everyone
ate in the same canteen, people all used first names with each other etc. I realised I should have
done more research. Needless to say, I didn’t get the job. On another occasion, at the end of an
interview, I was asked if I had anything to say. I was so relieved that the interview was over that I
just smiled and blurted out: ‘No thanks!’ I later realised this was a mistake. A candidate should
decide in advance on at least ten things to ask the interviewer: it’s not necessary to ask more than
two or three questions, but you need to have some in reserve in case the question you wanted to
ask is answered in the course of the interview.
E. Preparation is of extreme importance; things like I finding out what form the interview will
have. Will there be any sort of written component, for instance, and will you be talking to one
person or a panel? And of course, you need to prepare answers to those awkward questions
designed to find out more about your character. For example, you might be asked about your most
important achievement so far; don't answer this in a way that makes you seem swollen- headed or
complacent as this will suggest that you don’t learn easily. Actually, it's not so much what people
say that makes them seem arrogant as the way they sit, how they hold their heads, whether they
meet the interviewer’s eye, so bear that in mind. Another question interviewers sometimes ask, to
find out how well you work in a team, is about mistakes you have made. You should have an
example ready and admit that you were at fault, otherwise it looks as though you are the kind of
person who shifts the blame onto others. But you should also show that you learnt from the mistake
and wouldn’t make it again.
F. Being nervous can make you forget things, so always take detailed notes with you to an
interview, even about the simplest things - this will help you feel less nervous. I also think you
have to strike the right balance between being too arrogant and too self- effacing. For example, if
you are asked where you see yourself in five years’ time, don't be diffident about showing that you
are ambitious. You could even say you’d like to be doing the interviewer’s job! Show that your
ambition is the force that drives you – employers are happy to see this characteristic because it also
suggests you will work hard. Take every opportunity to reinforce the impression that you are eager;
one way is by asking questions about the job. This suggests that you will take it seriously. You
could also ask what made the last person to fill the position you have applied for successful, or
what you could accomplish in the job that would satisfy the interviewer. Naturally, the answers to
questions like this are valuable in themselves, but frankly, the main reason for asking is to ensure
you make the right impression.
Part 8:
1, Tom’s presence at parties adds to everyone’s enjoyment.
SOUL
_______________________________________________________________
2: The young actress was very nervous before the audition.
The young actress had butterflies _____________________________________
3: The community spoke enthusiastically about the recently elected mayor.
The community sang ______________________________________________
4: The new musical has delighted theatre audiences throughout the country.
The new musical has taken __________________________________________
5. Even now, I still don’t understand why he did it.
To this __________________________________________________________
6. We only ingratiated ourselves with our teacher because Kate insisted. (CURRIED)
It was at………………………………………………………………….our teacher.
7 It is recommended that you take water with you as wells are few and far between in this area.
(LEST)
Travellers to this area are advised to carry water …………………………… ground.
8 Nobody expected it of him but Sam was laid off.
(RANKS)
Against all………………………………………………………………unemployed.
9 The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her.
(GROWN)
My daughter …………………………………………………………………….for her.
10. I found the plot of the book too complicated to follow.
(HEAD)
I couldn’t ……………………………………………………………………..the book
Part 9: Write about the following topic. You should write at least 250 words.
Nowadays, more and more people read news on the internet. However, newspapers have most of
important information sources of news. Give your opinion from your experience and give
examples.