What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?
Select one:
a. The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
b. The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
c. The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch
connections between them
d. The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend access layer connectivity
to user devices?
Select one:
a. Implementing etherChannel implementation
b. Routing protocol implementation
c. Wireless connectivity implementation
d. Redundancy implementation
Which network design solution among the choices listed below will best extend access layer connectivity
to host devices?
Select one:
a. Etherchannel implementation
b. Implementing redundancy
c. Dynamic routing implementation
d. Implementing wireless connectivity
How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when operating at full wire
speed?
Select one:
a. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
b. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
c. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
d. 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each por
In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?
Select one:
a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching by bypassing
the CPU
b. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to
increase bandwidth on trunk links
c. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from
an upstream switch
d. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2 loops
Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local networks.
Select one:
True
False
What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?
Select one:
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?
Select one:
a. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
b. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
c. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
d. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management as discussed in this
chapter?
Select one:
a. It uses a terminal emulation client.
b. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
c. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to
access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?
Select one:
a. Network edge routers
b. Service provider routers
c. Branch routers
d. Modular routers
In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.
Select one:
True
False
In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an
EIGRP-enabled router?
Select one:
a. show interfaces
b. show ip interface brief
c. show ip protocols
d. show ip route
Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can be combined to form a
collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
Select one:
a. Provider edge and access layer
b. Access and distribution layer
c. Distribution and core layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer
Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture which two functional parts of
the network are combined to form a collapsed core design?
Select one:
a. Access and distribution layer
b. Provider edge and access layer
c. Core and distribution layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer
Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.
Select one:
True
False
In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic
summarization is enabled?
Select one:
a. show ip protocols
b. show ip interface brief
c. show ip eigrp neighbors
d. show ip eigrp interfaces
Distribution Layer is a design model layer that provides a high-speed backbone link between dispersed
networks.
Select one:
True
False
Access Layer is the layer of which the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE for VoIP phones
and access points be considered.
Select one:
True
False
Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue the show cdp neigbors
command on a router especially if a network problem occurs?
Select one:
a. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
b. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
c. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp neigbors on a router, what do
you think is the reason?
Select one:
a. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
b. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
c. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would enable this protocol?
Select one:
a. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
b. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
c. Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
d. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
Select one:
a. PORTFAST
b. STP
c. VTP
d. CDP
A protocol that allows multiple vlans to run in a single spanning-tree instance is called Rapid PVST.
Select one:
True
False
In this chapter, which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause sub-optimal traffic flows because
they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network?
Select one:
a. STP & MSTP
b. STP & RSTP
c. Rapid PVST+ & RSTP
d. PVST+ & VRRP
If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?
Select one:
a. spanning-tree off
b. spanning-tree portfast
c. spanning-tree security
d. disable spanning-tree
A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy protocols. Which two
protocols will not be able to function with multivendor devices?
Select one:
a. HSRP & PVST
b. VRRP & GLBP
c. IRDP & HSRP
d. GLBP & HSRP
Among the choices below, which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP
networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in
network edge devices or access circuits?
Select one:
a. ICMP
b. STP
c. IRDP
d. HSRP
An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can
be used to do this?
Select one:
a. show spanning-tree
b. show running-config
c. show startup-config
d. show cdp neigh
As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
Select one:
a. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
b. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
c. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
d. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
Select one:
True
False
As per our current module discussion, which non-proprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a
group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
Select one:
a. SLB
b. GLBP
c. VRRPv2
d. HSRP
In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
Select one:
a. The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
b. Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
c. Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
d. A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
Which of the following statement is true?
Select one:
a. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router creates a single
collision domain.
b. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router provides a
separate broadcast domain as well.
c. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a separate
broadcast domain.
d. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router provides
separate collision domains.
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network
operation?
Select one:
a. redundant links between Layer 2 switches & removing single point of failure with multiple Layer 2
switches
b. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts & redundant links between Layer 2 switches
c. static default routes & implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
d. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes & static default routes
As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?
Select one:
a. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
b. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
c. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
d. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.
Select one:
True
False
A network engineer connected 2 switches together with two crossover cables for redundancy, and STP is
disabled. Which of the following will happen between the switches?
Select one:
a. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network.
b. The routing tables on the switches will not update.
c. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
d. The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.
A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be used to troubleshoot a
broadcast storm in a switched network?
Select one:
a. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.
b. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
c. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
d. Replace the cables on failed STP links.
What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in this chapter?
Select one:
a. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches
b. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments
c. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths
d. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
The legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANs in a single spanning-tree instance is called MSTP.
Select one:
True
False
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
Select one:
a. Root ports
b. Edge ports
c. Trunk ports
d. Designated ports
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.
Select one:
True
False
As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?
Select one:
a. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
b. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
c. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
d. It provides a continuous
In reference to our current topic which is LAN Redundancy, which 3 components are combined to form a
bridge ID?
Select one:
a. IP address, extended system ID, cost
b. MAC address, port ID, ip address
c. extended system ID, MAC address, bridge priority
d. port ID, ip address, MAC address
Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when
configured for PortFast?
Select one:
a. Learning
b. Blocking
c. Listening
d. Forwarding
During the discussion in this chapter, what is a characteristic of in-band device management?
Select one:
a. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
b. It uses a terminal emulation client.
c. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?
Select one:
a. highest MAC address
b. lowest IP address
c. highest IP address
d. lowest MAC address
In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to
configure a network device?
Select one:
a. a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
b. at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the
device
c. a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface that is connected and
operational
d. a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port
Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?
Select one:
a. PVST+
b. MSTP
c. MST
d. RSTP
A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network using RSTP to converge
again after a topology change?
Select one:
a. 10sec
b. 50sec
c. 15sec
d. 6sec
In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed
configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer
realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which
type of device should be used as a replacement?
Select one:
a. a Layer 3 switch
b. a modular router
c. another fixed configuration router
d. a PoE device
Which feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly
connected to another switch?
Select one:
a. BPDU guard
b. PortFast
c. PVST+
d. extended system ID
In terms of network reliability, the ability of a network to be up most of the time. Sometimes referred to as
99.999, or "five nines".
Select one:
a. Scalability
b. Flexibility
c. Reliability
d. Integrity
In networking term, port density refers to the number of ports available on a single switch.
Select one:
True
False
Divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core, distribution, and access
layers of the three-layer model as discussed in chapter 2 LAN Redundancy?
Select one:
a. Cisco Enterprise Architecture
b. Hierarchical network
c. Enterprise edge
d. Collapsed Core
Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a
LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the
host?
Select one:
a. 192.168.2.0
b. 192.168.2.1
c. 192.168.2.100
d. 192.168.2.2
Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.
Select one:
True
False
A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel in a corporate network.
What does this configuration consist of?
Select one:
a. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
b. providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
c. providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
d. grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
Referring to the lab diagram shown below. The senior network administrator of ABC merchandize tried to
create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was
unsuccessful. What is the problem?
Select one:
a. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannelenabled server and a switch.
b. Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
c. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet
interfaces.
d. Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15 WPAN standard; uses a
device pairing process to communicate over distance up to .05 mile (100m)?
Select one:
a. WLAN
b. None of the choices
c. Wi-Fi
d. Bluetooth
As discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a
cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow
new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this
situation?
Select one:
a. denial of service
b. cracking
c. Man in the middle
d. rogue access point
Understanding EtherChannel technology, what is an advantage of using LACP?
Select one:
a. increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
b. allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
c. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
d. decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
Using LACP, besides of being a multivendor protocol which among the listed below describes as it
advantage?
Select one:
a. increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
b. decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
c. provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
d. allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
In deploying wireless LAN which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a
home wireless AP is being configured?
Select one:
a. SSID
b. BESS
c. AP hostname
d. ESS
In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
Select one:
a. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
b. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
c. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
d. switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?
Select one:
a. It is Cisco proprietary.
b. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
c. It requires full duplex.
d. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
Refer to the exhibit shown above. A certified network administrator is troubleshooting the four routers
that are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the
routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
b. The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.
c. The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
d. All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.
Refer to the test result above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a
neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. The routers have both been elected as the DR.
b. The routers have the same priority.
c. The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
d. The routers are configured with the same router ID.
Which 3 features are OSPF routing protocol?
Select one:
a. Allows authentication, uses concept of area which helps for route summarization and dependent to hop
counts.
b. Converge quickly, Identify the best router by the use of hops & OSPF routers identify directly connected
devices
c. Use highiest ip address, OSPF is a classful routing protocol & OSPF does not allow authentication
d. Converge quickly, Identify the best route by the use of cost & before exchanging routing information,
OSPF routers find out neighbors.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the company ABC Industries a subsidiary of the biggest
beverage company in the Philippines is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency
is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
Select one:
a. No router ID has been configured.
b. FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
c. A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
d. The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration
In troubleshooting OSPF issues why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth
configuration?
Select one:
a. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.
b. OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute the router IDs
c. Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
d. All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
In configuring OSPF authentication which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm
to generate a signature?
Select one:
a. router hostname & mac-address
b. OSPF router ID & loopback interface
c. interface IP address & secret key
d. secret key & OSPF message
In troubleshooting OSPF issues which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a
list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Select one:
a. show ipospf interface
b. show ip mac-address
c. show ip protocols
d. show ip route ospf
In understanding concepts of OSPF which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
It supports VLSM.
It is used to route between autonomous systems.
It confines network instability to one area of the network.
It increases routing overhead on the network.
It allows extensive control of routing updates
It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
Select one:
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 4, 5, 6
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 2, 3
The network engineer of company XYZ has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an
OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router
ID?
Select one:
a. Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
b. Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.
c. Configure the network statements.
d. Shutdown interfaces
If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router
use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
Select one:
a. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
b. the IP address of the console management interface
c. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
d. the highest IP address among its active interfaces
During the investigation of routing table, the network administrator notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.10.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. This route is a propagated default route.
b. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.10.3.
c. The metric for this route is 110.
d. The route is located two hops away.
Referring to the exhibit, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the
propagation of a static default router from R1 to R2"
As discussed in this chapter why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of OSPF
updates?a
Select one:
a. MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
b. MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
c. MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
d. MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
A network engineer of Genesis Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two
routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing
process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive.
Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are
successful. What is most likely the problem?
Select one:
a. Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
b. The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
c. The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
d. A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a
point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Select one:
a. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
b. show ipospf neighbor
c. show ipospf interface fastethernet 0/1
d. show ipospf interface serial 0/0/0
In understanding multiarea OSPF network which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?
Select one:
a. It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
b. It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists of
an area.
c. It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
d. It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.
In RMS University, the network admin is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
network attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given
the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this
problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
d. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
In Single-area OSPF discussion which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as
a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. administrative distance
c. link delay
d. hop count
This always appear in certification exams so remember this, which parameter or parameters are used to
calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Select one:
a. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
b. Bandwidth,& hops
c. Bandwidth
d. Hello
Select one:
a. Init state
b. One-Way state
c. Loading state
d. Two-Way state
Among the commands listed below which is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of
the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Select one:
a. show ip protocols
b. show ip ospf interface
c. show ip route ospf
d. show ip mac-address
What does an O IA routing table entry mean?
Select one:
a. Intra-area route
b. External route
c. Inter-area route
d. Internal route
What happens when a router has two network statements in different areas?
Select one:
a. It becomes DR
b. It becomes ABR
c. It becomes BDR
d. It becomes ASBR
What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs as described in wireless standards?
Select one:
a. 100 Mbps
b. 10 Mbps
c. 11 Mbps
d. 54 Mbps
Which IEEE wireless standard is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in the 2, 4, 5, and
60 GHz ranges?
Select one:
a. 802.11ad
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11ac
d. 802.11n
An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is
connected to.
Select one:
True
False
In wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the range of a few hundred
feet?
Select one:
a. WLAN
b. Wi-Fi
c. Bluetooth
d. WIMAX
Which command statement below will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead
timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Select one:
a. show ip ospf neighbor
b. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
c. show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
d. show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
During the testing and troubleshooting, the senior network administrator investigates and notices the
following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3
b. The route is located two hops away.
c. The metric for this route is 110
d. This route is a propagated default route.
Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
Select one:
a. Network layer
b. Distribution and core
c. Access, distribution, and core
d. Access and distribution
The senior network administrator discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is capturing traffic
and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. What type of attack is this?
Select one:
a. Ninja moves
b. Man in the middle
c. Jamming
d. WEP/WPA attacks
In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed in an OSPF
network?
Select one:
a. ABR
b. any router
c. DR
d. ASBR
During checking of routing table, a network engineer notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. The metric for this route is 110.
b. This route is a propagated default route.
c. The route is located two hops away.
d. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
If a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the
bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
Select one:
a. desirable
b. passive
c. on
d. auto
During the checking a routing table, a network specialist notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. The route is located two hops away.
b. This route is a propagated default route.
c. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
d. The metric for this route is 110
Refer to the series of ip addresses below. A network specialist has been asked to summarize the networks
shown in the exhibit as part of a multiarea OSPF implementation. All addresses are using a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0. What is the correct summarization for these eight networks?
10.0.4.0
10.0.8.0
10.0.5.0
10.0.6.0
10.0.10.0 10.0.7.0
10.0.9.0
10.0.11.0
Select one:
a. 10.0. 8.0 255.255.248.0
b. 10.0.4.0 255.255.0.0
c. 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0
d. 10.0.4.0 255.255.248.0
As discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a
cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow
new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this
situation?
Select one:
a. cracking
b. Man in the middle
c. rogue access point
d. denial of service
What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?
Select one:
a. It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
b. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
c. It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.
d. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
As discussed in link state advertisement which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.
Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries.
Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system.
Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.
Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.
Select one:
a. 2 & 5
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 5
d. 1 & 3
In single-area OSPF concepts which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a
backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. hop count
b. link delay
c. administrative distance
d. link bandwidth
In OSPF networks discussion what router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF
network?
Select one:
a. Backbone Router
b. ASBR
c. Internal Router
d. ABR
Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?
Select one:
a. It requires full duplex.
b. It requires more physical links than LACP does.
c. It is Cisco proprietary.
d. It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard as discussed in wireless LAN standards?
Select one:
a. 5GHz
b. 2.4GHz
c. 2.4Gbps
d. 5Gbps
Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?
Select one:
a. 3Ghz
b. 2.4Ghz
c. 5Ghz
d. 900Mhz
During checking of routing table, a network engineer notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
Select one:
a. The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
b. The metric for this route is 110.
c. The route is located two hops away.
d. This route is a propagated default route.
In verifying multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF
area?
Select one:
a. show ip route ospf
b. show ip ospf database
c. show running-config
d. show ip ospf neighbor
A certified network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given
the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this
problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
Select one:
a. The network number is configured improperly.
b. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
c. The process id is configured improperly.
d. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?
Select one:
a. 900Mhz
b. 2.4Ghz
c. 3Ghz
d. 5Ghz
Refer to the show ip route test result above. Which statement is supported by the output
Select one:
a. The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
b. A default route is being learned through an external process.
c. A static default route has been manually configured on this router.
d. Summarization of routes has been manually configured.
In troubleshooting networks which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause
inconsistent routing in a network?
Select one:
a. Interfaces are disabled
b. Ip conflict
c. Defective cable connection
d. When the routers are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled
HQ_Router# show ip protocols
Routing Protocol is “eigrp 109”
Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set
Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set
Default networks flagged in outgoing updates
Default networks accepted from incoming updates
EIGRP metric weight K1=1, K2=0, K3=1, K4=0, K5=0
EIGRP maximum hopcount 100
EIGRP maximum metric variance 1
Redistributing: eigrp 109
Automatic network summarization is in effect
Automatic address summarization: 20.0.0.0/0 for FastEthernet0/1
Summarizing with metric 28160 172.30.0.0/16 for FastEthernet0/0
Summarizing with metric 28160
Maximum path: 4
Routing for Networks:
20.0.0.0
172.30.0.0
192.160.1.0
Routing Information Sources:
Gateway Distance Last Update
20.10.10.2 90 260796
172.30.10.2 90 454765
Distance: internal 90 external 170
As shown in the verification result above using “show ip protocols” how many paths can the EIGRP routing
process use to forward packets from HQ_Router to a neighbor router?
Select one:
a. 2 unequal-cost paths
b. 4 equal-cost paths
c. 8 equal-cost paths
d. 6 unequal-cost paths
A new network specialist has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device.
Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device?
Select one:
a. MTU & bandwidth
b. Bandwidth & delay
c. Delay & load
d. Load & hello
In EIGRP operation if all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default
EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before
declaring the neighbor unreachable?
Select one:
a. 15 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
Using CLI configuration what command causes the router to stop sending hello packets through an
interface?
Select one:
a. passive-interface
b. no auto-summary
c. no bandwidth
d. nedistribute static
Two routers R1 and R2 share a 64kbps link. A certified network engineer of a call center company wants to
limit the bandwidth used by eigrp between these two routers to 48kbps. Which command is used on both
routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?
Select one:
a. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48
b. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100
c. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64
d. ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75
In understanding EIGRP operation when an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from
other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
Select one:
a. Diffusing Update Algorithm
b. EIGRP authentication
c. Reliable Transport Protocol
E. Partial updates
In EIGRP routing principles, If there are two EIGRP processes that run and two equal paths are learned, one
by each EIGRP process, how many routes get installed?
Select one:
a. 0 route
b. 2 routes
c. 1 route
d. 4 routes
Refer to the output above, which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the main
office router?
Select one:
a. The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.
b. A static default route was configured on this router.
c. A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.
d. The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.
The license install flash0:seck9-C1900-SPE150_K9-FAB12340099.xml command will restore the specified
saved Cisco IOS Release 15 license to a router.
Select one:
True
False
A newly hired network specialist wants to use a Cisco 2911 router from storage. What command would the
technician use to verify which IOS technology licenses have been activated on the router?
Select one:
a. show flash0:
b. show license
c. show startup-config
d. show interfaces
Understanding IOS system image files which 3 software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?
Select one:
a. Unified Communications, DATA, Security
b. IPVoice, DATA, secutity
c. Enterprise Services, DATA, Advanced IP Services
d. Advanced IP Services, security, DATA
Which among the commands listed below is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all
Cisco IOS software packages and features?
Select one:
a. license save
b. license boot module module-name
c. license accept end user agreement
d. show license
As explain in Cisco IOS image naming conventions what code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename C1900UNIVERSALK9-MZ.SPA.153-3.M.BIN Indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?
Select one:
a. SPA
b. mz
c. universalk9
d. M
In understanding IOS system image files which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features,
including voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?
Select one:
a. Advanced Security
b. Advanced IP Services
c. Service Provider Services
d. Advanced Enterprise Services
Which verification command displays license information used to help with troubleshooting issues related
to Cisco IOS Software licenses and this command displays all the licenses installed in the system?
Select one:
a. show inventory
b. show hardware
c. show version
d. show license
During the upgrade of IOS system image, a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a
valid IOS image to load by default?
Select one:
a. NVRAM
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. flash memory
In understanding Cisco IOS image which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0 extended
maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?
Select one:
a. The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the extended maintenance
release does.
b. They consist of two separate parallel trains.
c. The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are available.
d. A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended maintenance release
before the extended is made available.
A CCNA network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:
R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?
Select one:
a. On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
b. The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
c. The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from
ROM.
d. The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.
As discussed in chapter 9 of Scaling Networks what is the major release number in the IOS image name
c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?
Select one:
a. 10
b. 52
c. 3
d. 15
The PRD company network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a Cisco ISR 4000 series. What
command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash
memory is currently available?
Select one:
a. show interfaces
b. show flash0:
c. show version
d. show startup-config
In Cisco IOS image naming conventions what command would a network engineer use to find the unique
device identifier of a Cisco router?
Select one:
a. show running-configuration
b. show version
c. license install stored-location-url
d. show license udi
In understanding IOS system image files what statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the
“universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?
Select one:
a. It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.
b. It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.
c. It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic
functionality.
d. It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.
As explain in licensing process for Cisco IOS software which serves as a receipt and is used to obtain a
license. It is an 11- digit alphanumeric key created by Cisco manufacturing. It defines the Feature Set
associated with it.
Select one:
a. Cisco License Manager (CLM)
b. Product Activation Key (PAK)
c. Cisco End User License Agreement (EULA)
d. IOS Image
Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license technology package Offers the features
found in Advanced Security IOS image on ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900; for example, IKE v1 / IPsec / PKI,
IPsec/GRE, Easy VPN w/ DVTI, DMVPN, Static VTI, Firewall, Network Foundation Protection, and GETVPN?
Select one:
a. Data
b. IPBase
c. Security
d. Unified Communications(UC)
The client of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel frequently. To
support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with
the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new IOS to
the router?
Select one:
a. Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next reboot.
b. Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the router
c. Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently installed IOS
image file.
d. Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has enough memory
and file space to support the new IOS image.
During the release of Cisco IOS image ver. 15.0, which license technology package offers the features
found in IPVoice IOS image on ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900; for example, TDM/PSTN Gateway, Video
Gateway [H320/324], Voice Conferencing, Codec Transcoding, RSVP Agent (voice), FAX T.37/38, CAC/QOS,
and Hoot-n-Holler?
Select one:
a. Security
b. IPBase
c. Data
d. Unified Communications(UC)
As discussed in this chapter, beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a
prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?
Select one:
a. DATA
b. SEC
c. IPBase
d. UC
Referring to the verification result above R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the
reported distance of the feasible successor route?
Select one:
a. 2169856
b. 10512128
c. 2816
d. 2340608
In understanding chapter 7 what information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?
Select one:
a. Only feasible successors
b. Only successors
c. Adjacent neighbors
d. All routes known to the router
As discussed in EIGRP module which table is used by EIGRP to store the best routes?
Select one:
a. the routing table
b. the topology table
c. the neighbor table
d. the static table
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
Select one:
a. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
b. There is no activity on the route to that network.
c. The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
d. The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
Coming from our test lab refer to the exhibit shown above. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via
their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly
connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Select one:
a. Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
b. Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
c. Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
d. Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
In understanding EIGRP which of the EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
Select one:
a. an external route that is redistributed from OSPF
b. an external route that is redistributed from RIP
c. an internal route
d. a summary route
The active-interface command causes an eigrp router to stop sending hello packets through an interface.
Select one:
True
False
What is the administrative distance of EIGRP?
Select one:
a. 100
b. 110
c. 1
d. 90
Refer to the figure shown above. Considering that routers R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured. Why did
R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3 and R4?
Select one:
a. because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
b. because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
c. because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP
d. because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1
In understanding basic features and operation of EIGRP what is the EIGRP metric?
Select one:
a. Hop count
b. K-values
c. Bandwidth only
d. Delay only
In our test lab, 2 routers R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a
connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?
Select one:
a. Cabling problem
b. An access list that is blocking the advertisements from other networks was configured in each or both
routers
c. Wrong configuration of ip network
d. Ip conflict
Refer to the above test results. A certified network engineer has configured eigrp authentication between
routers R1 and R2. After their routing tables are received, it is noted that neither router is receiving eigrp
updates. What is a possible cause for this failure?
Select one:
a. The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.
b. The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the interface configurations of each router.
c. The same key chain name must be used on each router.
d. The authentication configuration is correct, issue the show ip eigrp neighbors command to
troubleshoot the issue.
In configuring routers which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco
router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
Select one:
a. reset
b. no shutdown
c. no bandwidth
d. bandwidth 1024
EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Select one:
True
False
In understanding IPv6 which address best summarizes the IPV6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48,
2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?
Select one:
a. 2001:DB8:8000::/34
b. 2001:DB8:8000::/48
c. 2001:DB8:8000::/36
d. 2001:DB8:8000::/47
In reference to summarization rules which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
Select one:
a. a passive route
b. a redistribute static
c. a static route
d. a summary route
During our test lab, a router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination
network.
One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a
metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
Select one:
a. the RIPv2 route
b. the EIGRP route
c. the OSPF route
d. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
In understanding EIGRP authentication, when an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes
from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
Select one:
a. TACACS
b. EIGRP authentication
c. RADIUS
d. EIGRP metrics
During EIGRP operation which describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
Select one:
a. EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
b. EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.
c. EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
d. EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
In EIGRP discussion what is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
Select one:
a. to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols
b. to describe different routing processes
c. to identify different application layer protocols
d. to use different transport protocols for different packets
Which two EIGRP packet types are sent with reliable delivery?
Select one:
a. Update & Ack
b. Reply & hello
c. Ack & hello
d. Query & Ack
Refer to result output above and observe carefully. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems
when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0/24 network using the result output above. What is the
most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
Select one:
a. The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.
b. The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.
c. The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being
flooded with EIGRP traffic.
d. The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor,
causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
In configuration of cisco devices which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum
paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?
Select one:
a. privileged configuration mode
b. global configuration mode
c. router configuration mode
d. interface configuration mode
In the aspect of configuring EIGRP which command must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router
to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
Select one:
a. No bandwidth
b. reload
c. copy running-config
d. startup-config
In configuring IPv4 and IPv6 using EIGRP what command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface
on an EIGRP-enabled router?
Select one:
a. show ip route
b. show ip protocol
c. show interfaces
d. show ip interface brief