Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 1: Animals and Environments: Function on the Ecological Stage
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement about the discipline of physiology is false?
a. It is a key discipline for understanding how animals change over Earth’s history.
b. It is a key discipline for understanding the fundamental biology of all animals.
c. It is a key discipline for understanding human health and disease.
d. It is a key discipline for understanding the health and disease of nonhuman animals.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
2. To understand how a fish propels itself by applying forces to the water, physiologists
would study its
a. biomechanics.
b. evolution.
c. ecology.
d. cell physiology.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. The data in the graph below would be relevant to which subdiscipline of physiology?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Evolution
b. Cell physiology
c. Morphology
d. Ecology
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. In the study of physiology, the term “_______” refers to the components of living
animals and the interactions among those components that enable animals to perform as
they do.
a. feedback
b. regulation
c. natural selection
d. mechanism
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. How is the light reaction in the firefly inhibited?
a. Mitochondria prevent oxygen from reacting with luciferyl-AMP.
b. Nitric oxide combines with oxygen to prevent reaction with luciferyl-AMP.
c. ATP is prevented from combining with luciferin.
d. Luciferase is prevented from catalyzing the reaction.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Which of the following is not needed in the mechanism of light production in the
firefly?
a. Oxygen
b. ATP
c. Light
d. Luciferin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. In the firefly, light is emitted when
a. ATP combines with luciferin, forming luciferyl-AMP.
b. released nitric oxide blocks the mitochondria’s use of oxygen.
c. the electron-excited product of O2 and luciferyl-AMP returns to its ground state.
d. luciferase is activated by oxygen.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. Which of the following is considered the “on” switch for the light-emitting reaction of
the firefly?
a. Oxygen
b. Luciferase
c. Nitric oxide
d. ATP
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. A physiological mechanism or other trait that is a product of evolution and is
advantageous is called
a. an adaptation.
b. natural selection.
c. adaptive significance.
d. evolution.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. What is the adaptive significance of light emission in the firefly?
a. Female fireflies emit light in such a way that distinguishes their species.
b. All fireflies emit light to lure prey.
c. Male fireflies emit light to attract mates.
d. Male fireflies emit light to evade predators.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which of the following is a similarity between an octopus and a fish?
a. The evolutionary adaptation of excellent vision
b. The mechanism of vision
c. The processing of visual signals before reaching the optic nerve
d. The neuroanatomy of the eye
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
12. Research in the field of _______ physiology emphasizes synthesis across levels of
biological organization.
a. evolutionary
b. comparative
c. environmental
d. integrative
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: This Book’s Approach to Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. Which statement regarding animals is true?
a. There is no distinction between an animal and its environment.
b. Once adults, animals are structurally static.
c. All animals require energy to maintain their organization.
d. Body size is significant in the lives of only small animals.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14. Most cells of an animal
a. are exposed to the external environment.
b. are exposed to the internal environment.
c. fluctuate between exposure to the external environment and the internal environment.
d. turn over while being exposed to the internal environment.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15.–17. Refer to the figures below.
15. Which figure refers to a physiological trait that is regulated by an organism?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. A migrating salmon regulates its internal Cl– concentration, shown in figure _______,
while conforming to water temperature, shown in figure _______.
a. I; II
b. II; I
c. II; IV
d. I; III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
17. Figure _______ shows an animal’s regulation of its body temperature as the external
temperature increases. Figure _______ shows no regulation of its body temperature as
external temperature increases.
a. I; II
b. II; I
c. II; IV
d. II; III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Which statement regarding physiological conformity and regulation is true?
a. All animals will eventually conform.
b. Animals are either regulators or conformers.
c. An animal cannot be both an ion regulator and a temperature conformer.
d. Conforming is more metabolically expensive than regulating.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
19. The functioning of regulatory mechanisms that automatically make adjustments to
maintain internal constancy is called
a. conformity.
b. feedback.
c. homeostasis.
d. regulation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. During childbirth, muscular contractions acting to expel the fetus from the uterus
induce hormonal signals that induce even more intense contractions. This is an example
of
a. homeostasis.
b. negative feedback.
c. a set point.
d. positive feedback.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. Physiological changes that occur by alteration of gene frequencies over the course of
many generations are referred to as _______ changes.
a. acute
b. chronic
c. evolutionary
d. developmental
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
22. _______ is an example of “abandoning constancy” during thermoregulation.
a. Sweating
b. Shivering
c. Hibernating
d. Huddling
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. What is the principal advantage of conformity?
a. The process requires a large amount of energy.
b. It allows cells to maintain a steady state.
c. Very little energy is used by this process.
d. Cells are subject to changes in their conditions.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. Sweating in response to heat is an example of a(n)
a. acute change.
b. chronic change.
c. evolutionary change.
d. developmental change.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25.–26. Refer to the figure below.
25. What type of physiological response does the figure refer to?
a. Chronic response
b. Acute response
c. Evolutionary response
d. Developmental response
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. If the heat exposure were removed, the line in the diagram would
a. continue to show a plateau.
b. drop sharply.
c. gradually drop to its initial starting point.
d. drop but be maintained somewhere at the middle level.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
27. Which response is the longest lasting?
a. Acute response
b. Chronic response
c. Evolutionary response
d. Developmental response
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. Rainbow trout captured and brought into a lab aquarium undergo a chronic
adjustment to the conditions in the lab. This process is called
a. phenotypic plasticity.
b. feedback inhibition.
c. acclimatization.
d. acclimation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29.–31. Refer to the figure below.
29. What statistical method was used to draw the trend line in the figure?
a. Phylogenetically independent contrasts
b. Ordinary least squares regression
c. Weight-specific mean
d. Logarithmic scaling
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. According to the figure, what is the expected gestation period of a warthog?
a. 20 weeks
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. 24 weeks
c. 30 weeks
d. 55 weeks
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. Which species in the figure shows an actual gestation period that is furthest from its
expected gestation period?
a. Bushbuck
b. Dikdik
c. Warthog
d. Mountain zebra
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. Which statement regarding the Antarctic fish species rock cod is false?
a. Some species have no hemoglobin.
b. The fish metabolically synthesize antifreeze to keep from freezing.
c. The fish live their entire lives at body temperatures near –1.6°C.
d. If acclimated slowly enough, the fish can survive in tropical waters.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
33. _______ can tolerate a body temperature of _______, one of the highest body
temperatures recorded for any vertebrate animal.
a. Humans; 50°C
b. Thermophilic archaea; 100°C
c. The desert iguana; 48.5°C
d. Sea stars; 45.5°C
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34.–35. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
34. This figure shows that
a. the number of butterfly species increases as one moves toward the equator.
b. butterfly populations are larger near the equator than at any other latitude.
c. the number of butterfly species increases as latitude increases.
d. the butterfly population increases as latitude increases.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. The environmental factor that is most responsible for the data shown in the figure is
a. sunlight.
b. food.
c. temperature.
d. water.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
36. In which habitat would O2 concentration most likely be the lowest?
a. A subnivean air space
b. An open meadow at 4000 m elevation
c. The bottom of a waterfall
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Pond water with a lot of algae
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
37. At altitudes above _______ m, people often find simply walking uphill to be a
significant challenge.
a. 5000
b. 6500
c. 9000
d. 10,000
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
38. In order to obtain O2, water-breathers face a substantially greater challenge compared
to air-breathers. Which of the following is not a reason for this difference?
a. Water contains less O2 per liter than air does.
b. Water is denser than air.
c. Water can become anoxic more readily than air can.
d. Oxygen diffuses more slowly across respiratory surfaces in water than in air.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. Most invertebrates that live in the ocean, such as sea stars and corals,
a. tend to lose water via osmosis.
b. must drink water.
c. must actively excrete water.
d. do not gain or lose much water.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. Which animal osmotically gains the most water per gram on a daily basis?
a. Sea star
b. Goldfish
c. Coral
d. Reef fish
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
41. Certain _______ can tolerate almost complete desiccation.
a. toads
b. tardigrades
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. marine bony fish
d. goldfish
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. The subnivean air space is an example of a(n)
a. microenvironment.
b. desert burrow.
c. hibernating area.
d. anoxic environment.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. Which process most likely leads to adaptive evolution?
a. Natural selection
b. Genetic drift
c. Bottlenecks
d. Pleiotropy
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. Which observation best demonstrates the process of evolution?
a. The increased presence of a trait favored by natural selection
b. A change of gene frequencies over time
c. The shifting of gene frequencies in a population because of random events
d. The change in an animal’s phenotype in response to environmental change
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
45. The shift in gene frequencies in smaller populations because of random deaths is
referred to as
a. evolution.
b. nonadaptive evolution.
c. genetic drift.
d. pleiotropy.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. Because of _______, populations of the mosquito Culex pipiens are experiencing
increased resistance to organophosphates and _______ in areas where organophosphates
are sprayed.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. pleiotropy; reduced cold tolerance
b. maladaptation; all other insecticides
c. nonadaptive evolution; accelerated larval developmental stages
d. natural selection; altered sex ratios
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. Which conclusion was not made from the seminal 1979 paper by Gould and
Lewontin?
a. Natural selection in the present environment is just one of several processes by which a
species may come to exhibit a trait.
b. When physiologists refer to a trait as an adaptation, they are making a hypothesis that
natural selection has occurred.
c. Data must be gathered in order to assess whether adaptation is likely to have occurred.
d. Indirect evidence cannot be used to support the hypothesis of adaptation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
48. Which method is based on the premise that although we cannot see evolution that
occurred in the past, the many kinds of animals alive today provide us with many
examples of outcomes of evolution, and patterns we identify in these outcomes may
provide insights into processes that occurred long ago?
a. Studies of laboratory populations over many generations
b. The adaptation method
c. Phylogenetic reconstruction
d. The comparative method
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Which technique for the study of adaptation was used to generate the data shown in
the figure below?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Studies of laboratory populations over many generations
b. Single-generation studies of individual variation
c. Creation of variation for study
d. Studies of genetic structures of natural populations
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. The raw material(s) for evolution is(are)
a. trait variation.
b. natural selection.
c. clines.
d. alleles.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
51.–53. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
51. What is the best caption for this figure?
a. Variation in O2 consumption.
b. Individual variation in maximum rate of O2 consumption.
c. Mean maximum rate of O2 consumption.
d. Range of maximum rate of O2 consumption.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a
Population
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. Assuming the trait measured in this figure is heritable,
a. there can be no basis for natural selection to act on this trait.
b. there is no variation from which natural selection can act on this trait.
c. natural selection acts on the individuals with extreme trait measurements.
d. the variation provides the raw material for natural selection.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a
Population
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
53. Statistically speaking, an elite weight lifter would be likely to have a maximum rate
of O2 consumption
a. mostly at the extreme low end of the distribution.
b. mostly at the extreme high end of the distribution.
c. in the average range to the lower end of the distribution.
d. in the average range to the higher end of the distribution.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a
Population
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. Using the firefly as an example, explain physiology’s two central questions—
mechanism and origin.
Answer: The firefly emits a flash of light from its abdomen. The process inside the
animal that results in this event is the mechanism. That is, the brain sends nerve impulses
that cause the light cells to become bathed with nitric oxide, resulting in the production of
excited electrons through the reaction of O2 with luciferyl-AMP. However, this
explanation of the mechanism does not explain the evolutionary origin of the trait. In this
case, evidence suggests that the firefly produces light for mate attraction.
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Compare and contrast adaptation and natural selection.
Answer: Adaptation and natural selection are both concepts of evolution. Natural
selection is a main process by which evolution occurs. It is the increase of gene
frequencies that produce phenotypes that raises the likelihood that animals will survive
and reproduce. An adaptation refers to the mechanism or trait that is the product of
evolution by natural selection.
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. Describe three of the subdisciplines of animal physiology.
Answer: Mechanistic physiology emphasizes the study of mechanism. Evolutionary
physiology emphasizes the study of evolutionary origins. Comparative physiology is the
synthetic study of the function of all animals. Environmental physiology studies how
animals respond physiologically to environmental conditions and challenges. Integrative
physiology is a synthetic investigation of all levels of biological organization.
Textbook Reference: This Book’s Approach to Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Compare and contrast conformity and regulation, including the advantages and
disadvantages of each.
Answer: Conformity and regulation are responses of animals to changing environmental
conditions. An animal that permits its internal conditions to be equal to those of the
external environment is exhibiting conformity. Conformity has some energy-saving
advantages, although the cells of the animal can be exposed to potentially widely varying
conditions. An animal that maintains its internal conditions while external conditions
change is exhibiting regulation. The advantage of regulation is internal consistency,
although there is a trade-off in terms of increased energy expenditure.
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
5. Which of the five time frames in which physiology changes is represented by
phenotypic plasticity? Give an example.
Answer: Phenotypic plasticity refers to the chronic, reversible physiologic changes of
acclimation and acclimatization. For example, as temperatures become colder in the
winter, the fur on arctic hares becomes thicker and whiter.
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. What is the importance of body size in the study of animal physiology?
Answer: Body size is important in the study of animal physiology because many
physiological measurements are affected by body size. Gestation period in mammals, for
example, increases in a predictable manner with body size. Metabolic rate and other
factors related to metabolic rate also correlate with body size. If body size is not taken
into account for certain measurements, this factor may produce most of the variation in
the data collected and mask other factors.
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. A water temperature of 6°C can be lethal for both tropical fish and Antarctic fish—
explain.
Answer: Not all fish species are able to survive at all water temperatures, even if given
years to acclimate. Most tropical fish will die if cooled (even slowly) to 6°C. In contrast,
Antarctic fish species have evolved for millions of years at –1.9°C, and even slowly
warming them to 6°C will kill them.
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Describe how the density layering of water can create anoxic zones.
Answer: Warmer water is less dense than colder water. During summer months, the water
on the surface of lakes and ponds gets warmed and stays on the top for the duration of the
summer, with little mixing. This leaves a colder, stagnant, bottom layer of water that will
slowly lose oxygen because the microbes deplete the dissolved oxygen.
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain how adaptive and nonadaptive processes can contribute to evolution.
Answer: Adaptive processes are the processes of natural selection that result in traits that
provide advantages in a population. Nonadaptive evolution includes processes by which
less-adaptable alleles may persist in a population. A trait may persist because of chance
(genetic drift), or because it is related to another favored trait (pleiotropy), or because it
was once advantageous and has not been selected against.
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain the statement: “A trait is not an adaptation merely because it exists.”
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Not all traits are evolutionary adaptations that confer an advantage. Traits can
exist because of evolutionary drift and other forms of nonadaptive evolution. Even a trait
that appears to be beneficial is not necessarily an evolutionary adaptation. As Gould and
Lewontin point out, in order to call a trait adaptive, one must provide empirical evidence
that the trait is an adaptation.
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which statement regarding the discipline of physiology is false?
a. Physiologists study how animals work.
b. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the fundamental biology of all
animals.
c. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the health and disease of nonhuman
animals.
d. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the social context of human disease.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Which of the following is an example of a possible physiological effect a river dam
could impose on migrating Pacific salmon?
a. It could completely block the salmon’s migration.
b. The salmon may get past the dam, but their efforts cost them too much energy.
c. The salmon may get past the dam, but subsequent navigation may be impaired.
d. It could slow the salmon, making them more vulnerable to predation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Which statement regarding fish gills best approximates the description of a
mechanism?
a. Freshwater fish use ATP to pump ions inward across the gill membrane.
b. Fish with more gill surface area have an advantage in hypoxic water.
c. Gills evolved as an organ to extract oxygen from the water.
d. The larger the fish, the larger the gill surface area must be to support its metabolism.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Populations of one salmon species differ genetically, and this difference increases as
the physical distance between the populations increases. This statement refers to the
study of which level of organization?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Systems physiology
b. Morphology
c. Ecology
d. Evolution
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which is the most accurate description of the mechanism of the light-emitting reaction
in the firefly?
a. Oxygen reacts with luciferin to produce light.
b. Oxygen reacts with luciferyl-AMP to produce light.
c. Nitric oxide reacts with luciferin to produce light.
d. Nitric oxide reacts with luciferyl-AMP to produce light.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. The increase in frequency of genes that produce phenotypes that raise the likelihood
that an animal will survive and reproduce is called
a. feedback.
b. adaptive significance.
c. natural selection.
d. adaptation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Which statement regarding fish eyes and octopus eyes is most accurate?
a. They are similar in gross appearance and functional performance but differ in their
adaptive significance and mechanisms.
b. They are similar in gross appearance, functional performance, and adaptive
significance but differ in their mechanisms.
c. They are similar in gross appearance, functional performance, adaptive significance,
and mechanism.
d. They differ in gross appearance, functional performance, and adaptive significance, but
are similar in their mechanisms.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. If an animal permits internal and external conditions to be equal, it is said to show
a. conformity.
b. regulation.
c. homeostasis.
d. physiological independence.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Which statement regarding conformity and regulation is false?
a. Animals can be both regulators and conformers.
b. Conformity and regulation are extremes; intermediate responses are more common.
c. Animals frequently show conformity with respect to some characteristics while
regulating others.
d. Conformity costs more energy to maintain than regulation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Testosterone is released by the testes in response to luteinizing hormone, released
from the pituitary gland. As circulating testosterone levels rise, they act on the pituitary
gland to reduce the secretion of luteinizing hormone, thus reducing the production of
testosterone. This is an example of
a. positive feedback.
b. negative feedback.
c. adaptation.
d. acclimation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. The surprise of a phone call at 3:00 AM results in an increase in heart rate. This is an
example of a(n)
a. acute change.
b. chronic change.
c. evolutionary change.
d. change controlled by a biological clock.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. An artic fox growing a thicker fur layer for the winter is an example of a(n)
a. acute change.
b. chronic change.
c. evolutionary change.
d. developmental change.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. Length of gestation _______ body size in mammals.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. is inversely proportional to
b. is independent of
c. is unrelated to
d. scales as an exponential function of
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. The lowest temperature inhabited by active communities of relatively large,
temperature-conforming animals is
a. 1.9°C.
b. 0°C.
c. –1.9°C.
d. –10°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. The number of species of swallowtail butterflies tends to
a. increase at high longitudes.
b. increase at low latitudes.
c. increase at high latitudes.
d. increase at high altitudes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. The altitude limit at which dedicated human climbers can climb without supplemental
oxygen is about
a. 5000 m.
b. 8000 m.
c. 12,000 m.
d. 15,000 m.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. In the summer, a sun-heated lake will tend to have the lowest concentration of
dissolved oxygen
a. at the lake’s surface.
b. about 2 m below the lake’s surface.
c. at about the middle depth of the lake.
d. at the bottom of the lake.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. For terrestrial animals, one of the greatest physiological challenges is
a. obtaining food.
b. obtaining oxygen.
c. preventing water loss.
d. locomotion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. A change of gene frequencies over time in a population of organisms is referred to as
a. evolution.
b. adaptation.
c. genetic drift.
d. pleiotropy.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. The process of chance assuming a preeminent role in altering gene frequencies is
called
a. evolution.
b. adaptation.
c. genetic drift.
d. natural selection.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. Which statement best describes the data in the figure below?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. All 35 mice have virtually identical maximum O2 consumption values to each other.
b. Maximum O2 consumption in the 35 mice changed over time.
c. Maximum O2 consumption varied among the 35 mice.
d. Natural selection is acting on maximum O2 consumption.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a
Population
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. Variation in maximum O2 consumption rate among human populations is
a. due to both genetic and nongenetic causes.
b. primarily due to genetic causes.
c. primarily due to nongenetic causes.
d. what determines the nature of a person’s athletic ability.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a
Population
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 2: Molecules and Cells in Animal Physiology
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which molecule is part of a cell membrane?
a. Cholesterol
b. Ubiquitin
c. Cyclic AMP
d. Calmodulin
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
2. A molecule that consists of a polar portion and a nonpolar portion is said to be
a. hydrophilic.
b. hydrophobic.
c. an integral protein.
d. amphipathic.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. A saturated hydrocarbon tends to
a. be more liquid at colder temperatures compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
b. be more solid at colder temperatures compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
c. contain many double bonds.
d. contain fewer carbon–carbon bonds compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Compared to fish found in lower temperature habitats, fish that inhabit higher
temperatures tend to have more
a. saturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes.
b. saturated phospholipids in their brain proteins.
c. unsaturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes.
d. unsaturated phospholipids in their brain proteins.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which membrane protein is responsible for the passive movement of K+ across the
typical animal cell membrane?
a. Channel
b. Enzyme
c. Transporter
d. Receptor
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. When a protein is denatured, which of the following structures is disrupted first?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Which molecule is a functional membrane protein?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Cholesterol
c. The Na+‒K+ pump
d. Calmodulin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. A ring of _______ demarcates the apical surface of the cell from its lateral and basal
surfaces.
a. tight junctions
b. septate junctions
c. gap junctions
e. microvilli
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epithelia
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which of the following is considered a communicating junction?
a. Gap junction
b. Tight junction
c. Septate junction
d. Desmosome
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epithelia
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. _______ is(are) the specific set of processes by which complex chemical compounds
are broken down to release energy, create smaller chemical building blocks, or prepare
chemical constituents for elimination.
a. Metabolism
b. Catabolism
c. Anabolism
d. Biochemical reactions
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Elements of Metabolism
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Per gram, the leopard frog can jump farther per jump compared to the western toad
because the leopard frog
a. is insensitive to lactic acid.
b. tends to live in warmer climates.
c. has a higher aerobic capacity.
d. creates more lactic acid per unit time.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Which statement regarding enzymes is false?
a. All enzymes are catalysts.
b. Enzymes have substrates and products.
c. Enzymes speed chemical reactions.
d. All catalysts are enzymes.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
13. Which reaction is catalyzed by LDH?
a. Pyruvic acid + NADH2 → lactic acid + NAD
b. Pyruvic acid + NAD → pyruvic acid + NADH2
c. Pyruvic acid + NAD → lactic acid + NADH2
d. Lactic acid + NADH2 → pyruvic acid + NAD
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. The amount of substrate converted to product per unit of time is called the
a. turnover number.
b. saturated speed.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Vmax.
d. reaction velocity.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Turnover number (kcat) describes what property of an enzymatic reaction?
a. Activation energy
b. Catalytic effectiveness
c. Enzyme‒substrate affinity
d. The transition state
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. The likelihood that an enzyme will form a complex with the substrate during a
collision is called the
a. catalytic effectiveness.
b. activation energy.
c. enzyme‒substrate affinity.
d. transition state.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. An enzymatic reaction is proceeding at subsaturation. Which of the following is not a
means by which the enzymatic reaction can be increased?
a. Adding more substrate
b. Adding more enzyme
c. Increasing the catalytic effectiveness
d. Increasing the temperature
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18.–22. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. Which of the following represent the best labels for the x axis and the y axis in the
figure?
a. x = Substrate concentration; y = Reaction velocity
b. x = Enzyme concentration; y = Reaction velocity
c. x = Time; y = Substrate concentration
d. x = Time; y = Enzyme‒substrate conversion rate
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Which letter in the figure represents high affinity?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which letter in the figure best represents the Vmax?
a. VI
b. I
c. III
d. V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. In the figure, which region best represents the Km of the highest affinity enzyme?
a. I
b. II
c. VII
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. If more substrate is added to the reaction system of line C in the diagram, what would
be the most likely outcome?
a. The curve of line C would shift toward line B.
b. The Vmax will increase.
c. Km will decrease.
d. The curve will remain the same.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Citrate binding to phosphofructokinase is an example of
a. heterotropic cooperativity.
b. negative cooperativity.
c. allosteric inhibition.
d. competitive inhibition.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. Human LDH-B4 and rat LDH-B4 are examples of
a. isozymes.
b. analogous enzymes.
c. isoenzymes.
d. interspecific enzyme homologs.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. An enzyme-encoding gene is considered to be_______ within a cell if the gene results
in the synthesis of the encoded enzyme within that same cell.
a. promoted
b. induced
c. expressed
d. enhanced
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26. _______ enzymes are present in a tissue in relatively high and steady amounts
regardless of conditions, whereas _______ enzymes are present at low levels (or not at
all) in a tissue unless their synthesis is activated.
a. Inducible; constitutive
b. Promotable; constitutive
c. Constitutive; inducible
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Expressed; promotable
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
27. Which statement regarding allosteric modulation is true?
a. The binding of an allosteric modulator follows the law of mass action.
b. The binding of an allosteric modulator is irreversible.
c. An allosteric modulator, when present, will always bind to the enzyme it modulates.
d. The binding of an allosteric modulator always increases the catalytic activity of the
enzyme.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
28. Citrate combines with phosphofructokinase at the _______ site, ultimately _______
catalytic activity and thus regulating glycolysis.
a. allosteric; increasing
b. allosteric; decreasing
c. active; increasing
d. active; decreasing
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. Which of the following is directly involved in covalent modulation?
a. The Na+‒K+ pump
b. Protein kinases
c. van der Waals interactions
d. Calcium
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
30.–31. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
30. How many different enzymes are catalyzing reactions?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. According to the figure, a high amount of products from the Kreb’s cycle could act as
_______ and result in _______ of the overall reaction.
a. covalent modulators; inhibition
b. covalent modulators; acceleration
c. allosteric modulators; inhibition
d. allosteric modulators; acceleration
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
32. A protein kinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of another protein kinase, which in
turn catalyzes the phosphorylation of a third protein kinase. This series of multiple
enzyme sequences is an excellent example of
a. amplification.
b. a rate-limiting reaction.
c. inducing enzymes.
d. allosteric regulation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. The _______ is(are) directly responsible for the amplifying effects during a second
messenger cascade.
a. receptors
b. substrates
c. enzymes
d. cell membrane
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34.–35. Refer to the figure below.
34. Which abiotic factor most likely explains the data in the figure?
a. LDH expression
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Allele frequencies
c. Temperature
d. Predation
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. The figure shows the
a. frequency distribution of two predators on killifish.
b. frequency distribution of two different alleles of the gene for LDH.
c. frequency distribution of two main diets of killifish.
d. temperature tolerance of two subtypes of killifish.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
36.–37. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
36. What is the best explanation for why mammalian and fish LDH-C enzymes are
shown to be so distantly related?
a. Many separate gene duplication events created the C version of LDH.
b. The tree is based on LDH-A relationships, so it does not accurately show how closely
related the LHD-C versions are to one another.
c. The enzymes were named before the actual evolutionary relationships were known.
d. The tree is separated based on animal phyla, not LDH.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
37. The diamonds refer to
a. genetic divergence.
b. gene duplication.
c. mutations.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. speciation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. In rats, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase activity per gram of liver significantly
increases at birth and remains at this higher level for the life of the animal. This is an
example of enzymatic change that takes place over a(n) _______ time frame.
a. acute
b. chronic
c. evolutionary
d. developmental
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Enzymes Are Instruments of Change in All Time Frames
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. If a protein in situ becomes partially denatured because of high temperature, the
denaturation can be reversed by a
a. molecular chaperone.
b. proteasome.
c. ubiquitin.
d. peptidase.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. Which of the following tags proteins for destruction?
a. Proteasome
b. Ubiquitin
c. Molecular chaperone
d. Heat-shock protein
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
41. The process of absorbing preexisting light and re-emitting it at longer wavelengths is
called
a. bioluminescence.
b. reflection.
c. chromatophoration.
d. fluorescence.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Light and Color
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
42. The ability of animals to change color in seconds or minutes depends on the function
of
a. photocytes.
b. chromatophores.
c. photoproteins.
d. luciferin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Light and Color
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. Intracellular modification of activity in response to an external signal is an example
of
a. transduction.
b. transformation.
c. conversion.
d. covalent modulation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. Extracellular signaling molecules initiate their actions on a cell by binding with
certain protein molecules of the cell called
a. ligands.
b. peripheral proteins.
c. integral proteins.
d. receptors.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Which of the following statements regarding the ligand-gated receptor is false?
a. The naturally occurring ligand can cause the associated protein channel to open.
b. The naturally occurring ligand should bind irreversibly to the receptor until it breaks
down.
c. A similarly shaped foreign ligand can attach to the receptor and block the naturally
occurring ligand from binding.
d. A ligand can attach to the receptor and activate an intracellular catalytic site on the
same molecule.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
46. Receptor proteins can bring about all of the following cellular actions except
a. reinforcing the structure of the membrane.
b. opening a protein channel on the membrane.
c. activating an enzyme on the intracellular surface.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. combining with a ligand to initiate transcription.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
47. The α-conotoxin injected into fish by the cone snail binds to and therefore blocks
receptor sites on the muscle membrane. This prevents a(n)
a. enzyme from being activated.
b. G protein from being activated.
c. channel from opening into the nucleus.
d. channel from opening.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. Which reaction does not directly produce an amplification?
a. Activation of a G protein by an activated receptor
b. Formation of cyclic AMP by catalyzing action of adenylyl cyclase
c. Activation of glycogen phosphorylase kinase by active cAMP-dependent protein
kinase
d. Opening of a ligand-gated channel on the membrane
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
49. Which substance is considered a second messenger?
a. IP3-gated calcium channel
b. Calcium
c. Epinephrine
d. Adenylyl cyclase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
50. As a second messenger, calcium typically binds to
a. calmodulin, and the complex activates protein kinases.
b. a G protein to activate general second messengers.
c. cyclic AMP to activate cAMP-dependent protein kinases.
d. inositol triphosphate to activate the endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer Questions
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
1. Describe what it means for a phospholipid to be amphipathic and how this feature is
paramount in the formation of the membrane.
Answer: The cell membrane is composed of bilayer phospholipids, which are
amphipathic. This means that the molecule consists of a polar part (regional differences
in charge) and a nonpolar part (lacking regional differences in charge). Because water is
by nature a polar molecule, the polar ends of the phospholipids contact the aqueous
solutions, whereas the hydrophobic nonpolar ends of the phospholipids face each other,
forming the inner region of the membrane.
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Provide a specific example of how a membrane protein can be categorized as more
than one functional type.
Answer: There are five functional types of membrane proteins, but a receptor protein, as
a prominent example, can be classified into more than one category. Receptor proteins
can also function as channels, transporters, and enzymes.
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Describe how epithelial cells control the transport of substances between the apical and
basal sides and thus between different body regions.
Answer: Epithelial cells are able to control and even mediate the transport of substances
between the apical and basal areas via occluding junctions between epithelial cells.
Substances must pass through the cell to cross the epithelia, and this transcellular path
can be highly controlled. Only very small molecules may be able to pass through the
occluding junctions and thus take the paracellular path.
Textbook Reference: Epithelia
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Define the law of mass action and apply it to a real biochemical reaction.
Answer: For a given reaction of A + B ↔ C + D, the law of mass action states that if the
compounds are out of equilibrium, the reaction will proceed in the direction of
equilibrium as dictated by the ratios of concentrations. For example, within glycolysis,
pyruvate typically forms lactic acid. However, in the event that lactic acid concentrations
rise significantly, the reaction can be reversed, forming pyruvate from lactic acid.
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Compare and contrast the factors affecting the rate of an enzymatic reaction in a
substrate that is subsaturated and one that is saturated or at Vmax.
Answer: Both reaction velocities at Vmax and in reactions that are subsaturated will be
affected by the number of active enzyme molecules present and the catalytic
effectiveness of each enzyme molecule. However, reaction velocities in subsaturated
reactions will also depend on the affinity of enzyme molecules for the substrate.
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. Describe how amplification works in the cell and why it is important.
Answer: In the cell, if any agent that is activated is itself an enzyme, it is able to catalyze
a reaction, forming many products. If these products are also enzymes for other reactions,
the amplification process will be exponential. This is important in cell function because
one receptor binding one ligand (such as epinephrine) can amplify and bring about a
significant result (i.e., the creation of millions of glucose molecules from glycogen).
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. How does the killifish demonstrate the present-day operation of evolutionary forces?
Answer: The killifish that live along the entire east coast of the United States show two
different alleles of the gene for the B form of lactate dehydrogenase. Since these fish
travel extensively along the coast, one would expect the alleles to be evenly distributed.
The fact that different allele frequencies persist from place to place indicates that fish
with different alleles undergo differential survival and reproduction—an example of the
working of present-day evolutionary forces.
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Compare and contrast bioluminescence and fluorescence and describe the light
production of the hydromedusan jellyfish (Aequorea victoria).
Answer: Both bioluminescence and fluorescence can occur within a photocyte, but in
bioluminescence, the light is produced de novo. In fluorescence, preexisting light is
absorbed and re-emitted at longer wavelengths. In the hydromedusan jellyfish, clusters of
photocytes produce blue light. However, the light emitted is green because a green
fluorescent protein converts the emission wavelengths.
Textbook Reference: Light and Color
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. List and briefly describe the four types of receptor proteins involved in cell signaling.
Answer: (1) Ligand-gated channels bind ligands so that channels can open for ions to
pass through the cell membrane. (2) G protein receptors bind ligands and activate a G
protein system, which is a complex secondary messenger system that typically amplifies
effects in the cell. (3) The enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor binds a ligand on the
extracellular surface that activates the receptor protein. The activated receptor protein is
itself an enzyme that catalyzes a reaction, typically on the intracellular side. (4) The
intracellular receptor is typically housed inside the nucleus, and the ligand usually passes
through the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane via diffusion. Once the ligand
attaches to the intracellular receptor, the complex initiates transcription by interacting
with the DNA.
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Describe how a simple ion such as calcium is used as a second messenger.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Calcium ions sometimes act as second messengers. Inositol triphosphate
activates a gated channel on the endoplasmic reticulum, which releases calcium into the
cytoplasm. Calcium then binds to the protein calmodulin, which can then activate protein
kinases or other enzymes.
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which statement regarding brain phospholipids in fish is most accurate?
a. Tropical fish tend to have very unsaturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic
membranes.
b. Fish in very cold habitats tend to have very saturated phospholipids in their brain
synaptic membranes.
c. The colder the habitat, the greater the degree of phospholipid unsaturation in the brain
synaptic membranes.
d. The degree of phospholipid saturation in brain synaptic membranes is independent of
habitat temperature.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
2. Which of the following is not a functional type of membrane protein?
a. Enzyme
b. Receptor
c. Structural
d. Resistance
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. Which cell‒cell junctions allow cytoplasmic flow between the connected cells?
a. Tight junction
b. Septate junction
c. Gap junction
d. Desmosome
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Epithelia
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. When there are more substrate molecules than the enzyme molecules can
accommodate, the reaction is
a. saturated.
b. subsaturated.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. showing the highest enzyme–substrate affinity.
d. at its Km.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. The catalytic effectiveness of an enzyme molecule is expressed as the
a. half-saturation constant, Km.
b. activation energy during a saturated reaction.
c. number of substrate molecules converted to product per second by each enzyme
molecule when saturated.
d. maximum velocity, Vmax.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. The allosteric site is located
a. on the enzyme.
b. on the substrate.
c. on the cell surface.
d. on the modulator.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Human LDH-A4 and rat LDH-A4 together are a good example of
a. isozymes.
b. interspecific enzyme homologs.
c. allosteric modulators.
d. ligands.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. An animal is exposed to halogenated aromatic hydrocarbons, and as a result, its levels
of P450 enzymes rise. This is an example of the action of
a. transcription factors.
b. enhancers.
c. constitutive enzymes.
d. inducible enzymes.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
9. When an allosterically modulated enzyme is the rate-limiting enzyme in a metabolic
pathway, the entire pathway may be upregulated or downregulated by allosteric
modulation. The result of downregulation of the entire pathway is called
a. feedback inhibition.
b. positive feedback.
c. covalent modulation.
d. phosphorylation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Multiple-enzyme sequences in which each enzyme in the sequence activates another
enzyme is an example of
a. covalent modulation.
b. allosteric modulation.
c. amplification.
d. feedback inhibition.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. The example of killifish allele frequency distribution along the Atlantic coast
describes enzyme changes over a(n) _______ time frame.
a. acute
b. chronic
c. evolutionary
d. developmental
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. In the most common protein-degradation mechanism, tagging occurs by the
attachment of _______ to the protein targeted to be degraded.
a. a heat-shock protein
b. a molecular chaperone
c. a proteasome
d. ubiquitin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. In a bioluminescent animal such as the hydromedusa jellyfish Aequorea victoria, the
_______ consist(s) of luciferin, O2, and a protein.
a. chromatophores
b. pigment granules
c. photocyte
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. photoprotein
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Light and Color
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Color change in fish depends on flattened pigment-containing cells called
a. photoproteins.
b. chromatophores.
c. photocytes.
d. chromocytes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Light and Color
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which receptor protein brings about cascades of membrane proteins involving
significant amplification?
a. Ligand-gated channel
b. G protein–coupled receptor
c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor
d. Intracellular receptor
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
16. Which receptor protein changes membrane voltage immediately when activated?
a. Ligand-gated channel
b. G protein–coupled receptor
c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor
d. Intracellular receptor
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Which receptor proteins activate enzymes on the cell membrane?
a. Ligand-gated channel and G protein–coupled receptor
b. G protein–coupled receptor and enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor
c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor and intracellular receptors
d. Ligand-gated channel, G protein–coupled receptor, and enzyme/enzyme-linked
receptor
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. Which receptor protein interacts with DNA?
a. Ligand-gated channel
b. G protein–coupled receptor
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor
d. Intracellular receptors
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
19. When epinephrine attaches to a(n) _______, the process of _______ results in the
formation of a large amount of intracellular _______.
a. G protein‒coupled receptor; amplification; glucose
b. ligand-gated receptor; amplification; glucose
c. G protein‒coupled receptor; metabolic pathways; glycogen
d. enzyme-enzyme‒linked receptor; amplification; glycogen
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20. Which of the following is not involved at the cell membrane in a second messenger
cascade?
a. Adenylyl cyclase
b. G protein‒coupled receptor
c. Protein kinase
d. Phospholipase C
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 3: Genomics, Proteomics, and Related Approaches to Physiology
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. For the Antarctic icefish, a consequence of their lack of hemoglobin is that they
a. are sluggish and therefore prone to predation.
b. are restricted to very cold water.
c. have bluish blood.
d. are very small in size.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. The coldest water that icefish typically inhabit is
a. 1.9°C.
b. 0°C.
c. –1.9°C.
d. –4.9°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Today, there are _______ species of icefish.
a. two
b. about 16
c. about 50
d. about 100
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. How many genes code for the protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which statement regarding the vertebrate hemoglobin molecule is false?
a. Vertebrates have multiple copies of the genes that code for globins.
b. The genes that code for globin diverged only recently.
c. In birds and mammals, genes that code for α-globin are located on a different
chromosome from those that code for β-globin.
d. In fish, genes that code for globins are found on a single chromosome.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6.–7. Refer to the figure below.
6. The genes on the figure are aligned based on
a. homologous sequences.
b. a matching of intron sequences.
c. gene function.
d. the beginning sequence on the chromosome.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. What is the best explanation for the differences, as shown in the figure, in the icefish
globin genes?
a. Redundant gene sequences have been selected against and removed over time.
b. The α-globin gene is nonfunctional; the β-globin gene has been moved to another
chromosome but is functional.
c. The α-globin gene is nonfunctional; the β-globin gene has been moved to another
chromosome and is nonfunctional.
d. Deletions have rendered the α-globin gene nonfunctional and the β-globin gene has
been removed.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8.–12. Refer to the figure below.
8. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. It shows when icefish diverged from red-blooded fish.
b. It shows the phylogeny of teleost fish outgroups and their relatedness to icefish.
c. It shows an evolutionary tree of 22 species of related Antarctic fish.
d. It shows the relatedness of Antarctic fish that use antifreeze proteins.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. This phylogenetic tree is based on
a. bone morphology.
b. similarities of mitochondrial DNA.
c. sequences of the hemoglobin genes.
d. sequences of antifreeze genes.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Which point(s) refer(s) to the most likely divergence(s) of the hemoglobin-free
icefish?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. Both I and II
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Which statement about the numbered points on the figure is true?
a. All of the species beyond point B share the same missing portions of DNA.
b. Species beyond points A and B share the same missing portions of DNA.
c. Only species beyond point C share the missing sequences that render hemoglobin
nonfunctional.
d. Species beyond points C and D have nonfunctional hemoglobin but the missing
sequences are different.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. At which location on the figure did antifreeze proteins evolve?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. Before point I–II
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. Which sequence represents the correct evolutionary order of events in some species
of Antarctic fish?
a. Presence of antifreeze proteins → presence of hemoglobin → loss of functional
hemoglobin → loss of functional myoglobin
b. Presence of antifreeze proteins → presence of hemoglobin → loss of functional
myoglobin → loss of functional hemoglobin
c. No functional hemoglobin → presence of antifreeze proteins → loss of functional
myoglobin → presence of functional hemoglobin
d. Presence of hemoglobin → presence of antifreeze proteins → loss of functional
hemoglobin → loss of functional myoglobin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
14.–16. Refer to the figure below.
14. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. It shows when icefish diverged from red-blooded fish.
b. It shows the lineages of icefish that have lost functional myoglobin.
c. It shows the lineages of icefish that have regained functional hemoglobin.
d. It shows the lineages of Antarctic fish that use antifreeze proteins.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. This phylogenetic was tree constructed on the basis of
a. bone morphology.
b. similarities of mitochondrial DNA.
c. sequences of the hemoglobin genes.
d. sequences of antifreeze genes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
16. What is the strongest evidence supporting the four independent events occurring in
the figure?
a. The sequence changes occurring at the four independent points are very different from
one another.
b. The sequence changes occurring at the four independent points are exactly the same.
c. The loss of function resulting from the sequence changes is exactly the same.
d. The morphology of the species at the four independent points is exactly the same.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Which statement regarding myoglobin in Antarctic fish is true?
a. All icefish have nonfunctional myoglobin.
b. Mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred independently in four lines of
icefish.
c. Mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred once in early icefish evolution
and have affected six species in different lineages.
d. Identical mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred in four separate
lineages of icefish.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. In what way is the loss of functional hemoglobin in icefish a disadvantage?
a. An increase in fitness was shown following the appearance of nonfunctional
hemoglobin.
b. The appearance of nonfunctional hemoglobin was accompanied by a decrease in
fitness.
c. Icefish have enlarged hearts and faster blood circulation compared to red-blooded fish.
d. Icefish have a very small body size to compensate for the loss of functional
hemoglobin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. Which protein is common in all species of Antarctic fish?
a. Ventricular myoglobin
b. Antifreeze glycoproteins
c. Hemoglobin
d. Myoglobin
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Which protein is common in all species of icefish?
a. Ventricular myoglobin
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Antifreeze glycoproteins
c. Hemoglobin
d. Myoglobin
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. Which statement about glycoproteins is false?
a. The genes responsible for producing the suite of glycoproteins in Antarctic fish
evolved after the appearance of icefish.
b. Glycoproteins reduce the freezing point of blood plasma.
c. Genes coding for glycoproteins are similar in all species of Antarctic fish.
d. When hemoglobin became deleted in icefish, they already had the genes coding for
glycoproteins.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
22. A species’ full set of genetic material is termed its
a. genome.
b. sequence.
c. transcriptome.
d. proteome.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
23. Sequencing a genome and identifying individual genes are processes typically carried
out
a. via manual transcription by a team of genetic scientists.
b. using experimental processes.
c. by computers using high-throughput methods.
d. by hand with a team of information scientists.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
24. The process of adding direct human interpretation to genetic sequencing data is called
a. high-throughput processing.
b. information processing.
c. annotation.
d. bioinformatics.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
25. Which process is not an overarching goal of genomics?
a. Elucidating the evolution of genomes
b. Elucidating the current function of genes
c. Elucidating the current function of genomes
d. Elucidating the evolution of species through genomes
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
26. The genes coding for antifreeze proteins in Antarctic fish evolved from
a. genes coding for plasma albumin.
b. genes coding for pancreatic proteins such as trypsin.
c. spontaneous mutations in intron sequences.
d. insertion events from ancient bacteria.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. All genes in a gene family share
a. distinctive DNA sequences.
b. distinctive RNA sequences.
c. distinctive gene expression patterns.
d. identical exon sequences.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. Genomic analysis of the sea urchin led to the discovery that there are no genes coding
for gap-junction proteins or for adrenaline. Functionally, this suggests that
a. there are no gap junctions in sea urchins.
b. there is no cellular communication system in sea urchins.
c. sea urchins are not related to vertebrates.
d. the cellular communication system of sea urchins is unusual.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
29. Genomic analysis of the sea urchin led to the discovery of an exceptional number of
genes that code for immune and detoxification proteins. Functionally, this suggests that
sea urchins
a. are not susceptible to diseases.
b. have a long lifespan.
c. are bombarded by pathogens and must react constantly.
d. have unusually elaborate immune and detoxification systems.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Genomics
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. Which statement regarding sea urchins is false?
a. No genes are present that code for gap-junction proteins.
b. No genes are present that code for the enzymatic synthesis of adrenaline.
c. Genes that code for cytochrome P450 detoxification enzymes are extraordinarily
numerous.
d. Genes that code for skeleton mineralization are very similar to those found in
vertebrates.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
31. When predictions are made from the genome of a species alone, they may prove to be
wrong for several reasons. What is one of those reasons?
a. The function predicted by extrapolation from already known genes always matches the
current function.
b. Even if the function is known, the expression pattern may differ.
c. The function predicted by extrapolation may vary extensively within individuals of the
species.
d. Often, the introns within species vary too much between individuals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
32. After the genome of a species has been sequenced,
a. it is said to enter the postgenomic era.
b. bioinformatics takes over.
c. annotation is all that can take place.
d. functional genomics is all that is left for that species.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. Which sequence represents the order of investigation of the traditional, top-down
approach to the study of animal physiology?
a. Animal function → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → genes
b. Genes → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → animal function
c. Animal function → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → genes
d. Genes → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → animal function
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
34. In the study of animal physiology, which statement expresses an advantage of the
bottom-up approach pursued with high-throughput methods?
a. It is specific in searching for proteins and metabolites instead of genes.
b. It can proceed without preexisting biases regarding which genes are involved in a
particular function.
c. It can focus on a defined phenomenon of known importance to the whole organism.
d. It is specific in searching for gene expression instead of profiling proteins or
metabolites.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
35.–36. Refer to the figure below.
35. In terms of the labels in the figure, the classic experimental approach begins with
a. a survey of substances at II.
b. the sequencing of I.
c. an a priori hypothesis regarding III.
d. an a priori hypothesis regarding IV.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. The study of the process of catalysis would take place between levels
a. II and I.
b. II and III.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. I and III.
d. I and II.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. At each stage of the bottom-up approach in the study of animal physiology, the most
common strategy is the use of
a. screening.
b. sequencing.
c. transcriptomics.
d. expression profiling.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. The hypotheses from bottom-up research
a. are all statistically significant, given the number of tests involved.
b. typically are not formed a priori.
c. produce false positives most of the time.
d. cannot be validated statistically.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. Transcriptomics is the study of
a. mRNA.
b. genes.
c. DNA.
d. tRNA.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40.–41. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
40. The figure shows a classic data set in the field of
a. genomics.
b. transcriptomics.
c. proteomics.
d. metabolomics.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Which explanation is the most valid for the low levels of mRNAs of the
metabolic/mitochondrial enzyme genes shown in the figure?
a. These genes are not as important as the other two categories in response to exercise.
b. These mRNAs cannot be detected as easily as those of the other two categories.
c. There are fewer genes producing this set of mRNAs compared to those producing the
other two categories.
d. Although the mRNAs are produced in small quantities, their half-lives are long.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
42. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. It represents the output of a genomic analysis.
b. It shows a two-species genomic analysis.
c. It is a proteomic output.
d. It is the output of a microarray.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. In a microarray technique, an mRNA will _______ the DNA spot representing its
specific gene.
a. hybridize with
b. bind to
c. transcribe
d. reverse transcribe
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. In the _______ technique, tissues are subjected to experimentally increased synthesis
of mRNA associated with the gene of interest.
a. RNA interference
b. forced overexpression
c. gene knockout
d. expression profiling
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45.–46. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
45. The figure is based on the measurement of
a. proteins.
b. metabolites.
c. mRNA.
d. DNA.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. This figure depicts
a. the response of a selection of mRNAs to malarial parasites.
b. the daily patterns of enzymes that are responsible for combating the malarial parasite.
c. the daily patterns of mRNAs that code for detoxification enzymes.
d. three enzymatic responses to a daily light cycle in the malarial parasite.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47.–48. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
47. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. It shows a two-species genomic analysis.
b. It shows a two-species environmental response at the protein level.
c. It shows the separation of proteins by a gel.
d. It is the output of a microarray.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Proteomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. The circles in the figure represent
a. genes.
b. mRNA.
c. DNA.
d. proteins.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Proteomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49.–50. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
49. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. It represents the output of an NMR spectrum.
b. It shows a two-species environmental response at the protein level.
c. It shows the separation of proteins by a gel.
d. It is the output of a microarray
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. The amplitudes of the peaks are used to sequence the metabolite.
b. The amplitudes of the peaks are irrelevant and only provide information on the
presence or absence of metabolites.
c. The amplitudes of the peaks are used to calculate metabolite concentrations.
d. The order of the metabolites on the spectrum is related to their concentration.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolomics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer Questions
1. Discuss in detail how hemoglobin evolved in the vertebrates.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Each hemoglobin molecule is composed of two α-globin subunits and two βglobin subunits. The genes that code for these units are members of an evolutionarily
ancient gene family. The gene family has similarity with genes found in bacteria and
yeasts. Because of gene duplication, each individual vertebrate animal today has multiple
copies. Even though the copies of genes diversified over millions of years, all the genes
retained their family resemblance. In modern birds and mammals, the genes that code for
the α- and β-globin units are found on different chromosomes, whereas in fish, the two
genes are found on the same chromosome.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. What is the leading hypothesis for why icefish lost their hemoglobin?
Answer: The leading hypothesis contends that a red-blooded fish ancestor lost the ability
to produce functional globin due to DNA deletions. The various species of icefish that
evolved all inherited the deletions from their common ancestor.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Was the loss of hemoglobin in icefish an advantage or a disadvantage? Discuss.
Answer: The loss of hemoglobin in icefish was likely a disadvantage. First, evidence
points to one event in which the ability to create functional hemoglobin was lost. If there
were multiple events, the notion that this was disadvantageous would be more difficult to
support. Icefish were able to survive this deletion because of several physiological
changes. Compared to red-blooded fish of the same body size, icefish have very large
hearts, and circulate their blood at much higher rates. This also suggests, however, that
the loss of hemoglobin was a disadvantage and that cardiovascular compensation was
necessary for survival.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Discuss the evidence suggesting that antifreeze proteins evolved after the loss of
hemoglobin.
Answer: Researchers can show that antifreeze proteins existed before the loss of
hemoglobin. The glycoproteins and the genes that code for them are essentially the same,
not only in all icefish, but also in all Antarctic red-blooded fish related to icefish.
Therefore, it is likely that those early hemoglobin-free fish already had the types of
antifreeze compounds that their descendants display today.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. What are the two overarching goals of genomics, and why is each of these goals
important?
Answer: The first goal of genomics is to elucidate the evolution of genes and genomes.
The genome of each species has descended from the genomes of ancestral species, and
genomes become modified as they evolve. Genome studies help clarify the mechanisms
by which genes and genomes have been modified. The second goal of genomics is to
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
elucidate the current functioning of genes and genomes. Because of the evolutionary
continuity of life, when a new genome is sequenced, many of the genes found in the new
genome are likely to be similar to the genes already observed in genomes that were
sequenced previously. Researchers can then predict the function of genes in the new
genome by the extrapolation of preexisting knowledge of homologous genes.
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Compare and contrast top-down and bottom-up methods of study in physiology.
Answer: The top-down approach to the study of physiology is the traditional approach,
whereby the researcher begins with an investigation of animal function and then moves to
tissue function, biochemistry, and finally to genes. The bottom-up order of study
proceeds in the reverse direction and takes advantage of high-throughput methods such as
microarrays. The bottom-up approach can be extremely thorough in searching for genes,
proteins, and metabolites that are instrumental in a physiological process. Additionally, it
can proceed without preexisting biases regarding which genes or proteins are likely
involved in a particular function.
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. Why are screening studies at odds with a priori hypotheses?
Answer: Screening studies are at odds with a priori hypotheses because of the amount of
the data collected in such studies and the nature of statistical testing. The more statistical
tests used within one screening, the more likely the researchers will find differences that
are due to chance versus actual treatment effects. In other words, the chances of finding
false positives increase dramatically in screening studies. Therefore, they typically are
performed without a priori hypotheses.
Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Explain how a DNA microarray works.
Answer: A DNA microarray consists of a grid of spots of DNA placed on a glass plate.
Each spot of DNA represents a single gene. mRNA is then extracted from a control tissue
and an experimental tissue of the same species, and each is labeled with a different
fluorescent protein. The mixed/labeled mRNA is added to each spot containing the DNA,
and if it hybridizes, it emits fluorescence, with the particular color indicating the
condition under which that gene was expressed.
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Describe how RNA interference promises to provide important insights into gene
function.
Answer: RNA interference (RNAi) is a recently discovered cellular process that promises
to provide important insights into gene function. When select double-stranded RNA
molecules are introduced into cells and processed by the RNAi pathway, specific mRNA
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
molecules that are naturally produced by the cells are destroyed. In effect, the gene that
produces the targeted mRNA is silenced. This is essentially similar to gene deletion, but
RNAi can be performed at any time during development on animals with normal
genomes.
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Compare and contrast proteomics and metabolomics.
Answer: Proteomics and metabolomics are both high-throughput methods that measure
the complement of products produced in a cell. They are also a branch of the study of
biochemical phenotype. Proteomics is the study of the proteins being synthesized by cells
and tissues. One gene can code for multiple proteins; therefore, it is very difficult to
predict protein synthesis based on gene expression. Unlike proteomics, metabolomics
does not focus on gene products. Metabolomics is the study of all the organic compounds
in cells and tissues other than macromolecules coded by the genome, such as sugars,
amino acids, and fatty acids.
Textbook Reference: Proteomics; Metabolomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Icefish were once commonly called “bloodless fish” because of
a. their ability to tolerate freezing.
b. the fact that their blood is clear.
c. their ability to tolerate the coldest aquatic temperatures on Earth.
d. the fact that they have no blood.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. One unique feature of the icefish is that they
a. regularly inhabit water temperatures of –4.9° C.
b. are the only vertebrates that do not have red blood cells as adults.
c. are the only vertebrates that do not have blood as adults.
d. are the only vertebrates that can tolerate freezing.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which statement about icefish is true?
a. They have only the two β-globin subunits in their hemoglobin.
b. They have no red blood cells but do have circulating hemoglobin.
c. They do not have hemoglobin.
d. They have four subunits of α-globin.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
4. When researchers analyzed the DNA of icefish, they found that the
a. β-globin gene was completely gone and the α-globin gene was missing parts.
b. genetic material coding for Hb was identical to that of all other fish.
c. genes coding for both α and β subunits were modified such that they could not form
functional Hb.
d. α-globin gene was completely gone and the β-globin gene was dysfunctional.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. The hearts of icefish
a. do not have myoglobin.
b. have myoglobin, but the globin has a slightly different protein conformation compared
to that of other fish.
c. have myoglobin just as other fish do.
d. can have myoglobin or not, depending on the species.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Which statement regarding icefish evolution is true?
a. Only icefish share an ancestor containing genes that code for antifreeze proteins.
b. Only icefish share an ancestor that lost the function of globin genes.
c. The loss of functional globin genes occurred multiple times during the evolution of
icefish.
d. The evolution of antifreeze proteins occurred multiple times during the evolution of
icefish.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
7. Compared to red-blooded fish of the same size, icefish have
a. larger hearts.
b. a higher rate of blood circulation.
c. a higher metabolic rate and larger hearts.
d. larger hearts and a higher circulation rate.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Genome sequencing is a technique in which
a. the DNA sequence of the entire genome of a species is determined.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. the DNA sequence of some portion of the genome of a species is determined.
c. the DNA sequence of the entire genome of a group of species is determined.
d. a gene family of a species is sequenced.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. The process of adding human interpretation to computer-generated genetic
comparisons is called
a. annotation.
b. high-throughput.
c. bioinformatics.
d. gene family identity.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. The overarching goal of genomics is to elucidate the _______ of genes and genomes.
a. evolution
b. current function
c. current function and expression patterns
d. evolution and current function
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. The set of genes that encode for vertebrate globin proteins can be termed a
a. genotype.
b. gene family.
c. genome.
d. proteome.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Which observation resulted from the sea urchin gene family analysis?
a. Genes that code for gap-junction proteins are present.
b. Genes that code for the enzymatic synthesis of adrenaline are present.
c. Genes that code for cytochrome P450 detoxification enzymes are unusually numerous.
d. Genes that code for skeleton mineralization are very similar to those found in
vertebrates.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Genomics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. Which sequence of analysis represents the top-down order of study?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Animal function → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → genes
b. Genes → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → animal function
c. Animal function → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → genes
d. Genes → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → animal function
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of
Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
14. A comparison of the proteins produced in an animal’s muscle tissue before and after
exercise is an example of
a. transcription cDNA profiling.
b. a top-down study.
c. a screening study.
d. a postgenomic study.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. The study of which genes are being transcribed to make messenger RNA and the rates
at which they are transcribed is called
a. transcriptomics.
b. genomics.
c. proteomics.
d. mRNA profiling.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In one study, researchers found that after 4‒8 hours after exercise the mRNAs of
_______ genes were found to have increased.
a. stress-response
b. insulin
c. mitochondrial enzyme
d. myosin ATPase
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Which technique is not used in a standard DNA microarray?
a. mRNA extraction
b. Hybridization of each mRNA with the DNA spot representing its specific gene
c. Fluor-labeled mRNA
d. Labeling of DNA by reverse transcription
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. An experimental manipulation in which animals come to lack functional copies of a
gene is called
a. RNA interference.
b. a transcription block.
c. gene knockout.
d. DNA denaturation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which statement regarding proteomics is false?
a. It is the study of proteins synthesized by cells and tissues.
b. It is a branch of the study of the biochemical phenotype.
c. A reason for the study of proteomics is that the proteins coded by many genes are
unknown.
d. The study of proteomics is based on the assumption that protein concentrations can be
correlated to mRNA synthesis.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Proteomics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20. The study of all of the organic compounds in cells and tissues other than
macromolecules coded by the genome is called
a. organomics.
b. metabolomics.
c. physiomics.
d. proteomics.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolomics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 4: Physiological Development and Epigenetics
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement regarding hooded seals is true?
a. Weanlings dive as deep as adults.
b. Weanling hooded seals dive as many times per hour as adults do.
c. Weanlings have the same dive duration capabilities as adults.
d. Weanlings spend 90% of their time underwater just as adults do.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Which source is the most significant oxygen store during a mammalian dive?
a. Lung air
b. Blood plasma
c. Hemoglobin
d. Myoglobin in skeletal muscle
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. As hooded seals develop from weanlings, the most dramatic increase in their ability to
store oxygen during a dive is seen in
a. lung air.
b. hemoglobin.
c. myoglobin.
d. blood volume.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4.–6. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. Based on the figure, what character is increasing overall as hooded seals develop into
adults?
a. Mass
b. Dive duration
c. Oxygen storage
d. Carbon dioxide tolerance
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. According to the figure, which statement regarding the lung data collected about
hooded seals is the most accurate?
a. The amount of O2 storage in the lung decreases during development.
b. The amount of O2 storage per kg of body mass changes the least during development.
c. Lung mass does not increase during development.
d. Lung volume does not change during development.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. The y axis in the figure refers to which unit of measurement?
a. Grams
b. Liters
c. mL O2
d. mL O2/kg
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Which statement regarding developing hooded seals is false?
a. Increased body size accounts for the majority of the increase in oxygen storage.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Oxygen storage is twice as great per unit body weight in an adult compared to a
weanling.
c. The concentration of hemoglobin increases during development.
d. In the course of development muscles more than triple their myoglobin concentration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8.–9. Refer to the table below.
8. According to the table, which measurement changes most dramatically from weanling
hooded seals to adults?
a. Duration of most dives
b. Longest dives
c. Depth of most dives
d. Deepest dives
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. According to the table, which adult measurement has changed the least from the
weanling measurement?
a. Durations of most dives
b. Longest dives
c. Depths of most dives
d. Deepest dives
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
10. The functions and processes occurring at all of the successive stages of individual
ontogeny, as well as their mechanisms, are called
a. developmental plasticity.
b. phenotypic plasticity.
c. developmental physiology.
d. epigenetics.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11.–12. Refer to the figure below.
11. According to the figure, which organ(s) develop(s) the most quickly?
a. Human brain
b. Rat reproductive organs
c. Rat brain
d. Human reproductive organs
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. According to the figure, which organ(s) develop(s) the most slowly?
a. Rat reproductive organs
b. Rat brain
c. Human brain
d. Human reproductive organs
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. The human _______ has(have) attained its(their) fully grown size by the time a
person is 7 years of age.
a. brain
b. lungs
c. liver
d. gonads
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. A 5-year-old human child typically devotes 50% of his or her total body metabolism
to
a. skeletal muscle.
b. thermoregulation.
c. the brain.
d. sodium‒potassium pumps.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Indigo buntings are able to determine which direction is north during for their first
migration
a. because of innate knowledge.
b. by following their parents.
c. by using the sun as a compass.
d. by observing star movements.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. The physiological regulation of body temperature is called
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. endothermy.
b. homeothermy.
c. ectothermy.
d. poikilothermy.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. In terms of homeothermy, newborn mammals _______ adult mammals.
a. are less capable than
b. are more capable than
c. as capable as
d. It varies depending on the mammal species.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18.–21. Refer to the figures below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. What physiological concept is being shown by the data in the figures?
a. Homeothermy
b. The development of thermoregulation
c. The ontogeny of metabolic rate
d. Insulation
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. What contributes most significantly to the data shown in figure II?
a. An increase in brown fat
b. An increase in the adipose layer under the skin
c. An increase in the thickness of the epidermis
d. The development of fur
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. The patterns in figures _______ and _______ are fundamental drivers of the pattern
observed in figure _______.
a. III, IV, II
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. II, IV, I
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. Considering the values of all panels of a mouse at 15°C on day 17 of development,
which panel would represent the greatest difference when considering an adult whitefooted mouse?
a. Panel I
b. Panel II
c. Panel III
d. Panel IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22.–23. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
22. According to the figure, which enzyme(s) is(are) upregulated during the fetal stage of
the rat?
a. Glycogen synthetase
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
c. Glycogen synthetase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d. Glucokinase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. According to the data in the figure, when is the rat’s blood glucose regulation fully
functional?
a. At birth
b. Within a week following birth
c. By day 20
d. After day 24
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. In an 8-day-old killifish, the major site of osmoregulation is the
a. gills.
b. egg membrane.
c. skin.
d. yolk sac membrane.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. In the killifish, the _______ are responsible for removing chloride from the body.
a. yolk sac cells
b. gills
c. chloride cells
d. skin cells
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26. Researchers can study the developmental distribution of chloride transport in the
killifish by
a. labeling Na+-K+-ATPase with an antibody that glows green.
b. exposing killifish to different concentrations of chloride during development and
measuring chloride flux.
c. labeling the membrane of the chloride cells with a fluorescent dye.
d. using a microarray to measure the expression of chloride cells in different tissues.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27.–28. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
27. The figure shows measurements of
a. the onset of thermoregulation.
b. organ development.
c. gene transcription.
d. enzyme upregulation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. If additional data were added to the figure, the developmental trajectory would show
a. an overall increase.
b. an overall decrease.
c. a steady level or an overall increase.
d. a steady level, an overall increase, or an overall decrease.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. The ability of an animal (with a fixed genotype) to express two or more genetically
controlled phenotypes is called
a. phenotypic plasticity.
b. epigenetics.
c. genotypic plasticity.
d. genomic imprinting.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30.–33. Refer to the figure below.
30. The data in the figure demonstrate the phenomenon of
a. phenotypic plasticity.
b. genotype by environment interaction.
c. epigenetics.
d. genomic imprinting.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. Which of the following populations in the figure are from the twentieth century?
a. Population I
b. Population II
c. Population III
d. Populations I and II
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. In the figure, one of the lines tracks the height in a population of medieval children.
These measurements were derived
a. from historical records.
b. from comparative morphology of skull sizes.
c. by assembling skeletons and measuring height.
d. from calculations of long bone lengths.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. If the heights of aristocratic children living during the 1830s were charted, this line
would fall _______ on the figure.
a. above line I
b. a little below line I
c. between lines II and III
d. below line III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Which observation would not be considered an example of phenotypic plasticity?
a. Poor nutrition during development can delay menarche.
b. Snails grow a thicker shell in the presence of predators.
c. Butterflies develop darker pigments during the cold season.
d. Worker and queen honeybees cooperate in an elaborate control of reproduction.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
35. Blue mussels _______ in response to the presence of crabs.
a. grow defensive spines
b. grow a thicker shell during development
c. close up and move
d. increase their shell thickness
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. What is the likely adaptive advantage in the periwinkle snail’s growing of a thicker
shell?
a. Protection against intermittent harsh environments
b. More effective mate attraction
c. Better burrowing capabilities
d. Better protection against predation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. When dietary protein is inadequate, a rat
a. grows up to be deficient in its ability to learn.
b. will be stunted in its growth.
c. reproduces less frequently than normal.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. can compensate by eating more fats.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. The phenomenon in which genetically identical individuals can assume two or more
distinct body forms, induced by differences in the environment, is called
a. polyphenic development.
b. epigenetics.
c. phenotypic plasticity.
d. seasonal polyphenism.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. Seasonal polyphenism in the western white butterfly aids in
a. mate attraction.
b. predator avoidance.
c. thermoregulation.
d. seasonal camouflage.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. Which characteristic does not appear in the gregarious phenotypes of migratory
locusts?
a. Presence of wings
b. Swarming behavior
c. Fasting behavior
e. Camouflaged coloration
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
41. Modifications of gene expression (with no change in DNA sequence) that are
transmitted when genes replicate are called
a. epigenetic changes.
b. phenotypic plasticity.
c. genetic imprinting.
d. polyphonic development.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. What is altered during an epigenetic modification?
a. The intron of the DNA
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Gene expression
c. The gene
d. The mRNA
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. What process is shown in the figure?
a. Epigenetic marking
b. Genotypic plasticity
c. Histone methylation
d. Genomic imprinting
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44. Which mechanism is not used for epigenetic marking?
a. DNA methylation
b. mRNA methylation
c. Histone methylation
d. Histone phosphorylation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
45. Which process describes a mechanism whereby environmental effects are transmitted
from one generation to the next?
a. Natural selection
b. Histone modification
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Phenotypic plasticity
d. Genetic drift
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
46.–48. Refer to the figure below.
46. The data in the figure show evidence for the existence of
a. nutritional deficiencies.
b. phenotypic plasticity.
c. epigenetic marking.
d. similarities in sibling DNA methylation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. The data in the figure show that DNA methylation
a. correlates with caloric intake.
b. does not change during a famine.
c. of individuals conceived during a famine was lower than that of siblings conceived
during no famine.
d. of individuals conceived during a famine was higher than that of siblings conceived
during no famine.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
48. Children born during the Dutch Hunger Winter had _______ compared to their
siblings.
a. comparatively more DNA methylation
b. comparatively less DNA methylation
c. comparatively more DNA expression
d. comparatively less DNA expression
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. Which of the following statements about DNA methylation is true?
a. It is generally associated with increased gene expression.
b. It is generally associated with reduced gene expression.
c. It is not generally associated with changes in gene expression.
d. It is generally not a heritable trait.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
50. If DNA methylation is blocked early in a developing worker honeybee, it develops
into a
a. larger worker honeybee.
b. male drone honeybee.
c. queen honeybee.
d. fertile worker honeybee.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. What do hooded seals tell us about developmental physiology?
Answer: The study of hooded seals has added to the growing body of literature that
supports the concept that the physiology of immature animals is always different from
that of adults. In young hooded seals, the capacity to store oxygen for diving is limited.
This capacity increases dramatically as the animals age, and it does so independently of
an increase in muscle mass. By adulthood, the oxygen that can be stored per gram of
tissue has more than doubled, and this allows the adult hooded seal to significantly
increase its dive depth and duration.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Compare and contrast the growth of the brain and reproductive organs in humans and
rats.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: The human brain is unique among mammals in that it attains its full weight
comparatively early in development. A rat, by contrast, is fairly typical in that its brain
mass increases rapidly to about 80% of its final weight and then tapers off. However, in
terms of reproductive organ mass, rats and similar mammals attain full weight very early
compared to a development-corrected human scale.
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. Why are white-footed mice not able to survive colder temperatures until around 18
days of development?
Answer: White-footed mice are small, furless, and have a low peak rate of metabolic heat
production at birth. This prohibits them from surviving temperatures much colder than
30°C. They must be kept warm in the nest until they grow fur, providing insulation, and
increase their rate of metabolic heat production. Neither of these processes are completed
until around day 18 of development.
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. How do early larval killifish osmoregulate if they do not have gills?
Answer: While it is true that fish use their gills to osmoregulate, many of the same ion
exchangers that are found on the gill membrane are also found on other membranes
during development. For example, in the killifish, chloride cells are found on the yolk sac
membrane and skin, well before the gills have begun to develop. As the gills develop, the
chloride cells become more concentrated on the gills and less concentrated on the skin.
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Discuss the meaning of phenotypic plasticity and provide at least one example from
human development.
Answer: Phenotypic plasticity is the ability of a single animal with a fixed genotype to
express two or more genetically controlled phenotypes. Phenotypic plasticity is
frequently observed during human development. For example, it is well known that a
developing human will have a different adult phenotype depending on the environmental
rearing conditions. Most notably, if poor nutrition is extensive during human
development, the adult phenotype will be stunted no matter what the later nutrition is.
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. We know the environment can have significant effects on development. Discuss how
these effects can be adaptive or pathological. Provide examples of each.
Answer: The example of poor developmental nutrition stunting human adult height is an
example of a pathology—the lack of nutrition has constrained development, and being
short is not more (or less) advantageous than being tall. Snails will develop thicker shells
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
when they grow in the presence of predators. This response is likely adaptive because the
thicker shells provide more protection against predators compared to thinner shells.
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What is meant by seasonal polyphenism? Provide an example.
Answer: Seasonal polyphenism is observed in a species in which individuals developing
in one season differ in body form from individuals developing in a different season. An
example of this is the western white butterfly. In the cool seasons, the darker phenotype
that develops aids in absorbing heat from the sun. In the warmer seasons, lighter
phenotypes develop and absorb less heat from the sun.
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Explain how the burgeoning field of epigenetics is providing a new dimension to the
study of the interaction between genes and the environment.
Answer: The phenomenon of epigenetics discredits the old dogma that, in the
transmission of hereditary material, genes are isolated from environmental influences.
Epigenetics refers to modifications of gene expression—with no change in DNA
sequence—that are transmitted when genes replicate. Rather than thinking of genes or
environment as affecting the phenotype of the animal, researchers are now considering
how the environment affects gene expression without modifying the actual genetic
sequence. In the snail, for example, the presence of predators results in an increased gene
expression of the products producing the shell without modifying the DNA.
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain two major mechanisms of epigenetic marking.
Answer: Two major mechanisms of epigenetic marking are DNA methylation and
covalent modification of histones. DNA methylation involves the attachment of methyl
(‒CH3) groups by covalent bonds to cysteine residues in the structure of DNA. Histones
are the basic proteins around which DNA is wrapped in the nucleosomes of the chromatin
of the cell. Modification can be by methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation, or other
covalent binding of modulators.
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Describe an example of epigenetic control of polyphonic development.
Answer: In bees, the same genotype can have dramatically different phenotypes.
Genetically identical females can either be workers or queens. Workers can become
queens during development if they are fed the royal jelly. This manipulates the epigenetic
marking to alter size, longevity, and brain function.
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which source contributes to the oxygen stores of the Australian sea lion?
a. O2 in the lungs
b. O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and muscle myoglobin
c. O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and O2 in the lungs
d. O2 in the lungs and O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and muscle myoglobin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement regarding oxygen storage ability in Australian sea lions (aged 6
months to adult) is most accurate?
a. By the time they have reached adulthood, sea lions have increased their lung capacity
per gram 4-fold.
b. By the time they have reached adulthood, the amount of O2 that can be stored per gram
of tissue has tripled.
c. By the time they have reached adulthood, their muscle myoglobin has a significantly
higher affinity for O2.
d. By the time they have reached adulthood, sea lions more than double their
concentration of hemoglobin per unit of blood volume.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. _______ is the study of how animals function through all the successive stages of
growth.
a. Developmental physiology
b. Ecology
c. Physiology
d. Developmental ontogeny
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. The physiology of very young animals _______ differs from that of adults.
a. always
b. sometimes
c. seldom
d. never
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
5. Compared to rats, humans have
a. a brain that uses much less energy per gram.
b. faster reproductive development.
c. a smaller brain to body ratio as infants.
d. faster brain development relative to their reproductive age.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Which statement regarding white-footed mouse development is true?
a. At birth, white-footed mice have full thermoregulatory capacity.
b. White-footed mice are born with fur.
c. Metabolic rate increases dramatically during the nestling period.
d. The lowest temperature at which isolated individuals can thermoregulate increases
after birth.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. During early development in the killifish (8 days old), what is responsible for
osmoregulation in seawater?
a. Osmolytes
b. Kidneys
c. Chloride cells
d. Gills
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of
Adults
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. The ability of an animal (with a fixed genotype) to express two or more genetically
controlled phenotypes is called
a. developmental physiology.
b. phenotypic plasticity.
c. genotypic plasticity.
d. genotype–environment interaction.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. How does the environment affect growth in children?
a. Environmental challenges tend to enhance growth.
b. Environment has very little effect on growth.
c. Environment tends to affect only humans of certain ethnic backgrounds.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Environmental stresses tend to impair growth.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. What is the developmental relationship between marine periwinkle snails and crabs?
a. Marine periwinkles develop thicker shells in waters with crabs present.
b. Marine periwinkles develop faster and become larger in waters with crabs present.
c. Crabs migrate during the development of marine periwinkles.
d. Crabs sense developmental byproducts of marine periwinkles and avoid them.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Low _______ diets during postnatal development _______ affect spatial learning in
rats.
a. caloric; permanently
b. protein; permanently
c. protein; temporarily
d. caloric; temporarily
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. _______ is a phenomenon in which genetically identical individuals can assume two
or more distinct body forms, induced by differences in the environment.
a. Environmental plasticity
b. Developmental plasticity
c. Polyphenic development
e. Phenotypic polyphenism
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. Which cue is responsible for producing the two phenotypes in the western white
butterfly?
a. Temperature
b. Day length
c. Predator density
d. Both temperature and day length
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. What is the proposed advantage to locusts adopting the gregarious phenotype?
a. Gregarious locusts have a greater chance of finding mates.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Gregarious locusts have a greater chance of cryptic avoidance of predators.
c. Gregarious locusts have the advantage of safety in numbers.
d. The voracious behavior of swarms enables locusts in a swarm to collect large
quantities of food.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Epigenetics refers to
a. modifications of gene expression (with changes in DNA sequence) that are transmitted
when genes replicate.
b. modifications of gene expression (with no change in DNA sequence) that are
transmitted when genes replicate.
c. modifications in genotype during recombination.
d. genetic code changes that alter gene expression in the subsequent generation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In some forms of epigenetic modification, when a gene is “marked,” its
a. expression is permanently altered.
b. expression is semi-permanently altered.
c. genetic code is permanently modified.
d. genetic code is temporarily modified.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. The major mechanism(s) of epigenetic marking is(are)
a. DNA methylation.
b. covalent modification of histones.
c. DNA methylation and base pair substitution.
d. DNA methylation and covalent modification of histones.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. The Dutch Hunger Winter study correlated _______ with subsequent _______.
a. malnutrition; epigenetic marking
b. malnutrition; reduced reproductive output
c. hunger; reduced fitness
d. malnutrition; lung disease
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. When all of the epigenetic marks in a cell or tissue are described together as a set, this
global summary of marks is termed the
a. epigenome.
b. methylome.
c. genome.
d. mark set.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which situation has been shown to demonstrate epigenetic marking?
a. Birds learning the North Star.
b. Marine molluscs forming thicker shells in the presence of predators.
c. Honeybees fed royal jelly to produce a queen.
d. Children not reaching their full potential height due to lack of nutrients.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Epigenetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 5: Transport of Solutes and Water
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. The process of _______ arises from the molecular agitation that exists in all systems
above absolute zero and the tendency for such agitation to carry more molecules out of
regions of relatively high concentration than into these regions.
a. facilitated diffusion
b. active transport
c. diffusion
d. osmosis
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Outward diffusion of a substance from an animal cell increases the concentration of
that substance around the outer surface of the cell. This surface is called the
a. boundary layer.
b. bulk solution of the cell.
c. region of backup diffusion.
d. low-concentration region.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. In the Fick diffusion equation, if the units of D are cm2 ∙ s‒1, which of the following
best represents the units for J?
a. Moles ∙ cm‒2 ∙ s‒1
b. M ∙ cm ∙ s
c. Moles ∙ sec‒1
d. M ∙ cm2 ∙ s
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. When X increases in the Fick diffusion equation, J
a. also increases.
b. decreases.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. remains the same.
d. can increase or decrease.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. According to the Fick diffusion equation, which letter represents permeability?
a. J
b. Permeability is integrated into D
c. Permeability is integrated into C1 – C2
d. X
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. In the figure, the areas far above and far below the membrane denote
a. a boundary layer.
b. the bulk solution of the cell and extracellular fluid.
c. capacitance.
d. a net negative charge.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
7. Outward diffusion of a substance from an animal cell increases the concentration of
that substance around the outer surface of the cell. If this process continues,
a. the rate of diffusion will increase.
b. the rate of diffusion will decrease.
c. the rate of diffusion will remain the same.
d. active transport will be initiated.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8.–9. Refer to the figure below.
8. Which diagram in the figure shows a voltage-gated channel?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. In which diagram do the channels open and close based on chemical bonding?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. Both III and IV
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. If a change in the voltage of a cell membrane causes all the voltage-gated Na+
channels to open, the permeability of the cell membrane to Na+ has been
a. inhibited.
b. decreased.
c. increased.
d. unaffected.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. A solution that has a concentration effect on diffusion that is equal but opposite to the
electrical effect is said to be
a. in a steady state.
b. part of the Nernst equation.
c. in isoelectric balance.
d. in electrochemical equilibrium.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. In the animal cell, the overall concentration effects on Na+ diffusion cause Na+ to
_______ the cell.
a. move into
b. move out of
c. remain inside
d. remain outside of
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. In the animal cell, the overall electrical effects on Cl‒ diffusion cause Cl‒ to _______
the cell.
a. move into
b. remain equal on both sides of
c. remain inside
d. remain outside of
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. In the animal cell, the combined concentration and electrical effects on K+ cause K+ to
_______ the cell.
a. move into
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. leak out of
c. remain inside
d. remain outside of
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Among the ions outside and inside a typical living cell, which ion is furthest from
electrochemical equilibrium?
a. Cl‒
b. Na+
c. K+
d. Mg2+
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16.–18. Refer to the figure below.
16. If the membrane shown in the beakers is permeable only to Na+, and the beaker on
the left represents the initial state,
a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the
right side of the membrane.
b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the
right side of the membrane.
c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, but there will be no separation of
charges.
d. there will be no net movement of ions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. If the beaker on the left represents the initial state and the membrane shown in the
beakers is permeable to K+ and Na+,
a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the
right side of the membrane.
b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the
right side of the membrane.
c. there will be no net movement of ions.
d. the movement of Na+ will be balanced by the movement of K+; therefore, there will be
no net charge difference.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. If the figure on the left represents the initial state and the membrane shown in the
beakers is permeable only to Na+, which manipulation would cause a net negative charge
on the left side of the membrane once the system comes to equilibrium?
a. Making the membrane permeable only to water
b. Allowing the membrane to become permeable to K+ as well as to Na+
c. Tripling the amount of A2‒ and allowing the membrane to become permeable to A2‒
d. Tripling the amount of A1‒ and allowing the membrane to become permeable to A1‒
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Which statement regarding facilitated diffusion is false?
a. Diffusion occurs in the direction of electrochemical equilibrium.
b. Solutes move faster with the protein facilitators than they would without them.
c. Protein facilitators change conformation with the help of ATP.
d. Solutes bind reversibly to the protein facilitators.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. In the intestine, glucose is brought into the cell membrane by
a. simple diffusion.
b. active transport.
c. facilitated diffusion.
d. osmosis.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21.–22. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
21. What type of process is shown in the figure?
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Osmosis
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. Which substance is mostly likely being pumped at A?
a. Na+
b. H+
c. K+
d. ATP
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Which process is electrogenic?
a. Glucose transport into the small intestine epithelium
b. Acid production in the stomach
c. The sodium‒potassium pump on a typical cell membrane
d. Sodium uptake in the freshwater fish gill
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24.–26. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
24. At what point in the figure is energy being used?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. Which ion is moving into the cell via diffusion and where is it located?
a. Na+ is diffusing into the cell at I.
b. K+ is diffusing into the cell at I.
c. K+ is diffusing into the cell at V.
d. Na+ is diffusing into the cell at V.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. At which location(s) in the figure is K+ moving into or out of the cell?
a. I
b. II
c. Both I and V
d. Both II and V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. On the cell membrane, the Na+‒ K+ pump transports _______ in for every _______
that it transports out.
a. 3 Na+; 2 K+
b. 2 Na+; 3 K+
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. 3 K+; 2 Na+
d. 2 K+; 3 Na+
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. The molecular species that binds and unbinds to the Na+‒K+-ATPase, causing sodium
and potassium to shuttle through it, is
a. PO42‒.
b. ATP.
c. Na+‒K+-ATPase.
d. ADP.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. Which statement about the transport of glucose into the gut epithelial cell through the
apical membrane is true?
a. The glucose transporter on the apical membrane uses ATP-bond energy.
b. Glucose diffuses through the apical membrane using its own concentration gradient;
therefore, it does not use any energy.
c. Na+ uses ATP-bond energy as it brings in glucose at the apical membrane.
d. ATP-bond energy is used at the Na+‒K+ pump in setting up the Na+ gradient.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30.–32. Refer to the figure below.
30. Which letter in the figure represents glucose?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. In the study of glucose transport, which pair of numerals in the figure represents the
same ion?
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and I
d. IV and II
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. How does glucose cross the basolateral membrane?
a. Via cotransport with Na+ at A
b. Via facilitated diffusion
c. Via active transport at C
d. Via simple diffusion
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. Which y-axis measurement would not be supported by the figure?
a. Total glucose uptake
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Mass-specific metabolic rate
c. Glucose uptake per unit surface area of small intestine
d. Glucose uptake per gram of animal weight
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34.–35. Refer to the figure below.
34. Which of the diagrams in the figure represents passive diffusion?
a. III
b. III and IV
c. I and II
d. I, II, and IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Which of the diagrams most accurately represents the mechanism for glucose
transport at the epithelium?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. Which of the following statements about ion transport in the typical freshwater fish
gill is true?
a. Na+ and HCO3‒ are transported into the blood plasma.
b. Na+ and Cl‒ are transported into the water.
c. H+ and K+ are transported into the water.
d. Na+ and Cl‒ are transported into the blood plasma
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. Which statement regarding channels and transporters is false?
a. Multiple molecular forms of channel and transporter proteins are common.
b. Channel and transporter proteins have rapid turnover on the plasma membrane.
c. Channel and transporter proteins are subject to covalent and noncovalent modulation.
d. Channel and transporter proteins can be inserted into or retrieved from the plasma
membrane.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
38. The number of dissolved entities per unit of volume defines
a. colligative properties.
b. osmotic pressure.
c. osmolarity.
d. ultrafiltration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
39. The osmotic pressure of a solution is _______ to the concentration of dissolved
entities.
a. approximately proportional
b. specific
c. exponentially related
d. not related
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. Which measure is not affected by the colligative properties of an aqueous solution?
a. Freezing point
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Boiling point
c. Temperature
d. Osmotic pressure
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
41. A 1-M solution of Na2SO4 has _______ a 1-M solution of glucose.
a. one-third the osmolarity of
b. twice the osmolarity of
c. three times the osmolarity of
d. the same osmolarity as
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. A 1-osmolar solution has _______ dissolved entities per liter.
a. 1 kg of
b. 1 dalton of
c. 1.0 × 1023 independent
d. 6.022 × 1023 independent
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. Most marine invertebrates typically have internal fluids of
a. 1 mOsm.
b. 1 Osm.
c. 10 Osm.
d. 300 mOsm.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. Most terrestrial vertebrates typically have internal fluids of approximately
a. 1 mOsm.
b. 1 Osm.
c. 10 Osm.
d. 300 mOsm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. A 1-M solution of serum albumin (66,000 daltons) has _______ a 1-M solution of
urea (66 daltons).
a. one-thousandth the osmolarity of
b. twice the osmolarity of
c. one thousand times the osmolarity of
d. the same osmolarity as
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46.–48. Refer to the figure below. Assume that the two pistons have the same mass and
move without friction, the center membrane in the diagram is permeable only to water,
and solutes are shaded according to concentration (the darker the shading, the higher the
concentration).
46. If the diagram represents the starting condition, what will occur as the solutions
achieve equilibrium?
a. The left piston will move up.
b. The solutes will move but the pistons will not.
c. The right piston will move up.
d. The solutes will move to the left.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. If a piston moved up because of water movement, could it be physically pushed back
down to force water through the membrane?
a. Yes, the physical pressure would oppose the osmotic pressure.
b. No, solutes would oppose the physical pressure.
d. Yes, and this would generate more charge on the membrane.
e. Yes, but only if the membrane were permeable to the solute.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. The piston on the left would move upward if the membrane were permeable to only
_______ and the solution on the left was _______ and the solution on the right was
_______.
a. Na+; 1 M Na+; 3 M Cl‒
b. Cl‒; 1 M Cl‒; 3 M Na+
c. water and Na+; 2 M Cl‒; 3 M Na+
d. Ca2+; 1 M Na+; 3 M Ca2+
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. Which statement regarding osmosis is true?
a. Water cannot be described in terms of concentration.
b. Osmotic pressure is inversely proportional to temperature.
c. Large concentration gradients across cell membranes can generate osmotic pressure.
d. Osmosis applies only to the movement of salts.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
50. The passive transport of water across a membrane is called
a. facilitated diffusion.
b. diffusion.
c. osmosis.
d. osmotic pressure.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. When two solutions exchange water by osmosis, water always moves
a. from the solution with the lower osmotic pressure to the one with the higher osmotic
pressure.
b. from the solution with the higher osmotic pressure to the one with the lower osmotic
pressure.
c. via facilitated diffusion.
d. from the lowest water concentration to the highest water concentration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
52. If you were to drop a mammalian red blood cell into a 10 mOsm solution, the red cell
would _______ in this _______ solution.
a. shrivel; hyposmotic
b. swell and burst; hyposmotic
c. swell and burst; hyperosmotic
d. shrivel; hyperosmotic
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. Discuss how a boundary layer forms outside of a cell and how it can impede further
diffusion.
Answer: The outward diffusion of a solute tends to create a boundary layer of elevated
solute concentration next to the cell’s surface. This will occur if there is no mechanism to
clear the solute from outside the cell surface. If the concentration of this solute builds up
around the outside of the cell, it will effect a decrease in the rate of diffusion because
diffusion is proportional to the concentration difference, which is reduced by the
accumulating solute. In addition, the distance between the low external concentration and
the high internal concentration is increased by the presence of the boundary layer, and the
rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to diffusion distance.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. The inside of a typical animal cell is negatively charged. Therefore, it makes sense that
Na+ diffuses into the cell if there are channels that allow it to do so. Considering K+ has
the same charge as Na+, why will it diffuse out of the cell if there are channels that allow
it to do so?
Answer: K+ would tend to diffuse inward if the movement of ions were based solely on
charge. However, the concentration of K+ in the cell is so high that the concentration
gradient overrides the electrical gradient. If given the opportunity, K+ will leak out of the
cell due to the concentration gradient.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Discuss the electrochemical equilibrium of Cl‒ across a typical animal cell.
Answer: Cl‒ will tend to move into the cell based on concentration, as it is more highly
concentrated outside the cell than inside. However, since the inside of the cell is
negatively charged, this charge will tend to repel the Cl‒ ion. Overall, the electrochemical
equilibrium of Cl‒ is generally equal on both sides of the cell, meaning that it tends to
diffuse neither in nor out.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. In what way does facilitated diffusion resemble simple diffusion as well as active
transport?
Answer: Facilitated diffusion resembles simple diffusion in that energy is not being put
into this activity and the molecules are moving from areas of high concentration to areas
of low concentration. However, even though facilitated diffusion does not use energy, it
resembles active transport in that the molecules that are moving across the membrane
actually bind to a membrane protein to facilitate the movement.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. Briefly describe how the Na+‒K+-ATPase operates.
Answer: The resting Na+‒K+ pump has a high affinity on the intracellular side for Na+.
ATP is hydrolyzed, and this phosphorylates the protein. As Na+ shuttles through the
protein, the ATP hydrolysis drives the opening of the channel to the extracellular side and
reduces the affinity for Na+ while increasing the affinity for K+. ATP binds to a
regulatory site, stimulating the half-channel and opening it to the extracellular side. The
binding of K+ and ATP stimulates the dephosphorylation of the protein. This lowers the
affinity for K+ and raises the affinity for Na+. It also induces the opening of the halfchannel to the intracellular fluid, and the process begins again.
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Why is glucose transport through the apical membrane considered secondary active
transport?
Answer: Glucose transport across the epithelial membrane is called secondary active
transport because it uses energy only secondarily, not directly. The actual transport of
glucose across the epithelial membrane involves cotransport with Na+. The process uses
the large gradient of Na+ to bring glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient.
Energy is used, however, by the Na+‒K+ pump to create the large Na+ gradient.
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What is meant by the “whole-epithelium” view of active ion transport? Provide an
example.
Answer: Scientists who study transport through epithelia know that active transport
occurs, but they do not know the exact mechanisms of transport. The simple wholeepithelium view regards the epithelium as a black box, meaning that it does not regard the
apical and basolateral surfaces as two separate entities. For example, even in regard to the
freshwater gill, the whole-epithelium view of the mechanisms for bringing Na+ and Cl‒
into the fish is that they are active but separate mechanisms.
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Describe four ways in which channel and transporter proteins can be regulated.
Answer: Channel and transporter proteins can be modulated in a variety of ways: (1)
channel and transporter proteins can have multiple molecular forms; (2) gene expression
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
can control the production of channel and transporter proteins; (3) covalent and
noncovalent modulation can control the activation or inhibition of channel proteins or
transporters; and (4) the cell can insert and retrieve channels and transporter proteins to
increase or decrease their function.
Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Support or refute the following statement, and provide evidence for your Answer: “All
1-M solutions have the same osmotic pressure.”
Answer: All 1-M solutions do not have the same osmolarity, and if they do not, they
cannot have the same osmotic pressure. Osmolarity relates to the number of independent
dissolved entities per liter of solution. A 1-M glucose solution will form 6.022 × 1023
dissolved entities. However a 1-M solution of NaCl will dissociate into two entities per
molecule because ions are formed. As a result, a 1-M solution of NaCl will have twice the
osmolarity of a 1-M solution of glucose.
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. How can hydrostatic pressure develop from osmotic pressure?
Answer: An isolated solution does not exert hydrostatic pressure. However, if two
solutions of differing osmotic pressure are separated by a water-permeable membrane,
and the solution of higher osmotic pressure is contained in some way that limits its
freedom to expand, then osmosis will create an elevated hydrostatic pressure.
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In the Fick equation, J measures
a. the total diffusion.
b. the rate of diffusion.
c. the net rate of diffusion.
d. concentration.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Which of the following is not a variable in the Fick equation?
a. Distance separating regions of high and low concentration
b. Concentration difference
c. Diffusion coefficient
d. Charge
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. According to the Fick equation, what happens to J when X (the distance between the
two concentrations) is increased?
a. The net rate of diffusion decreases
b. The concentration increases
c. The net rate of diffusion increases
d. The diffusion coefficient increases
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Boundary layers tend to
a. increase the net rate of diffusion.
b. decrease the net rate of diffusion.
c. affect permeability only.
d. increase the local rate of diffusion but not the net rate of diffusion.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Electrical charges on molecules _______ diffusion across a membrane.
a. play a large role in
b. play an insignificant role in
c. accelerate
d. inhibit
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Which of the following is not a type of gated channel?
a. Voltage-gated
b. Phosphorylation-gated
c. Ion-gated
d. Ligand-gated
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. In a typical animal cell, K+ tends to leak
a. into the cell due to its electrical gradient.
b. into the cell due to its concentration gradient.
c. out of the cell due to its electrical gradient.
d. out of the cell due to its concentration gradient.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. A membrane that is permeable to only Na+ separates two solutions. The initial
solutions are a 1-M solution of K+ on the left side of the membrane and a 1-M solution of
Na+ on the right side. What will occur?
a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the
right side.
b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the
right side.
c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, but there will be no separation of
charges.
d. The movement of Na+ will be balanced out by the movement of K+; therefore, there
will be no net charge difference.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. A membrane that is permeable to Na+ and K+ separates two solutions. The initial
solutions are a 1-M solution of K+ on the left side of the membrane and a 1 M solution of
Na+ on the right side. What will occur?
a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the
right side.
b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the
right side.
c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane and K+ will not diffuse; however,
there will be no separation of charges.
d. The movement of Na+ will be balanced out by the movement of K+; therefore, there
will be no net charge difference.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Which statement about facilitated diffusion is true?
a. It always occurs in the direction of electrochemical equilibrium.
b. It is a form of active transport.
c. Energy is used by the proteins in the transport process.
d. Solutes transported by this mechanism move across membranes much more slowly
than they would if they did not associate with transporter proteins.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
11. The proton pump in the stomach is an example of a(n) _______ pump.
a. electroneutral
b. electrogenic
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. glucose-mediated
d. facilitated
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Na+‒K+-ATPase pumps _______ the cell while _______ the cell.
a. 2 Na+ out of; pumping 3 K+ into
b. 3 Na+ into; pumping 2 K+ out of
c. 3 Na+ out of; pumping 2 K+ into
d. 2 Na+ into; pumping 3 K+ out of
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. Which is the best description of the immediate process by which glucose is
transported across the epithelial membrane of the small intestine?
a. Active transport using Na+
b. Cotransport with K+
c. Active transport using ATP
d. Cotransport with Na+
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14. According to the whole-epithelium view of the gill, how does Cl‒ enter the gill
membrane of a freshwater teleost fish?
a. Passive countertransport with HCO3‒
b. Passive cotransport with Na+
c. Active countertransport with HCO3‒
d. Active cotransport with HCO3‒
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Energy is used by _______ when bringing glucose into the intestinal epithelial cell.
a. Na+‒K+-ATPase
b. the Na+-glucose cotransporter
c. Na+‒H+-ATPase
d. the K+-glucose cotransporter
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Active Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Which of the following is not a probable method of modulating channel or transporter
function?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. The existence of multiple molecular forms of the same channel or transporter
b. Control of the tissue-level expression of channels or transporters by gene expression
c. Blocking or permanent disabling of channels or transporters by ligands
d. Insertion or removal of channels or transporters from the plasma membrane
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. The colligative properties of an aqueous solution are the properties that depend on the
a. concentration of non-ionic particles dissolved in solution.
b. number of dissolved entities per unit volume.
c. number of dissolved entities per unit volume as well as their chemical nature.
d. concentration of ions dissolved in solution.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. A 5 mOsm solution behaves as if it has
a. 5 Avogadro’s number of independent dissolved entities per liter.
b. 5 M of dissolved nonionic entities.
c. 5 mM dissolved nonionic entities.
d. 0.005 Avogadro’s number of independent dissolved entities per liter.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous
Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. The passive transport of water across a membrane is called
a. osmotic pressure.
b. osmosis.
c. diffusion.
d. ultrafiltration.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. The blood plasma of a freshwater teleost fish is _______ relative to the pond water in
which it lives.
a. isotonic
b. isosmotic
c. hyposmotic
d. hyperosmotic
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Osmosis
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 6: Nutrition, Feeding, and Digestion
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Among Africans, the Masai are unusual in that
a. adults are strict carnivores.
b. adults and children both produce lactase.
c. only adults produce lactase.
d. adults do not produce lactase but they can drink milk without gut distress.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Why do animals need to eat?
a. Individual molecules deteriorate.
b. Chemical-bond energy used in metabolism can be reused.
c. Animals are physiologically static systems.
d. Cells become damaged and need to be replaced.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which body component has the greatest mass in a normal, slender adult human?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acid
d. Carbohydrates
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Suppose a normal, slender adult gains 10 kg of fat. Which body component would
weigh the most?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acid
d. Body water
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. Which substances do not contain nitrogen?
a. Essential and nonessential amino acids
b. Carbohydrates and lipids
c. Lipids and proteins
d. Carbohydrates and polypeptides
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Herbivorous animals obtain their nitrogen primarily from
a. nitrogen gas.
b. nitrates in drinking water.
c. ammonium in drinking water.
d. proteins in plants they eat.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. In terms of essential nutritional requirements for particular molecules, the most
exacting requirements are for _______ and the least exacting are for _______.
a. proteins; carbohydrates
b. proteins; lipids
c. carbohydrates; lipids
d. carbohydrates; proteins
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. A nonessential amino acid is an amino acid that
a. is stored for future use in building proteins.
b. can be synthesized by the animal.
c. is deaminated and used in other biochemical pathways.
d. can be used to synthesize essential amino acids.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. In children, there are nine essential amino acids but in adults there are only eight. What
accounts for this?
a. Adults can synthesize enough of one amino acid that children cannot.
b. Children store one essential amino acid that they later use as adults.
c. Adults lose the ability to synthesize one amino acid that children can synthesize.
d. Adults have an amino acid transporter that children lack.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Lipids are important for all of the following except
a. reducing the permeability of the integument to water.
b. storing water.
c. forming cellular membranes.
d. serving as hormones (for example, steroid lipids).
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which organic compound is the most abundant among all animals in the biosphere?
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Chitin
d. Cellulose
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. The carbohydrates _______ are likely to be more important in insects than in
mammals.
a. trehalose and glycogen
b. trehalose and chitin
c. glucose and glycogen
d. trehalose and fructose
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. Organic chemists and biochemists often classify molecules based on similarities in
their chemical composition. For which compound would developing a generalizable
“formula” for chemical composition be most difficult?
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Vitamins
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Which vitamin is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin D
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Mineral deficiencies are a major problem in some impoverished regions of the world.
Ultimately, mineral deficiencies result from
a. soils with insufficient mineral availability.
b. diets low in lipids.
c. lactose intolerance.
d. diets with insufficient protein.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. One of the minerals that is particularly important for lactating females and their
offspring is
a. selenium.
b. calcium.
c. zinc.
d. riboflavin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. Which vitamin is most closely integrated with calcium metabolism?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. A newborn is having problems with excessive bleeding following a very minor
injury. It is therefore suspected that _______ was inadequate following birth.
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. The feeding modes that is most associated with a ruminant is
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. attack of individual prey items.
b. suspension feeding.
c. association with symbiotic microbes.
d. coprophagy
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. In the study by Mayntz et al., Wolf spiders were fed either a protein-rich or lipid-rich
diet of fruit flies (Drosophila) and then tested for their preference by being presented
with each diet in sequence. Which statement about the results of the study is true?
a. All spiders preferred protein because protein is both uniquely important and uniquely
tenuous in animal nutrition (i.e., it is “foremost”).
b. All spiders preferred lipid because it has the most energy per gram.
c. Spiders on the protein-rich diet ate flies rich in protein and spiders on the lipid-rich diet
ate flies rich in lipid.
d. Spiders on the protein-rich diet ate flies rich in lipid and spiders on the lipid-rich diet
ate flies rich in protein.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. The radular teeth of snails are sometimes hardened by the addition of
a. calcium and iodine.
b. iron and silica.
c. iron and folate.
d. copper and vitamin K.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. Suppose that large nonavian dinosaurs still roamed the earth. If the lowest level of the
food chains started with the same amount of energy, dinosaurs at the top of the food
chain would receive the most amount of energy from a _______ food chain.
a. three-level
b. four-level
c. five-level
d. six-level
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Suspension feeding is more common in aquatic environments than in terrestrial
environments because
a. terrestrial vertebrates are too large to suspension feed.
b. terrestrial animals are too selective in their feeding to be suspension feeders.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. terrestrial animals typically feed lower on the food chain than aquatic animals do.
d. small suspended food items are abundant in aquatic systems but not in terrestrial
systems.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. Which animal is not a suspension feeder?
a. Blue whale
b. Whale shark
c. Snail
d. Crabeater seal
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Suppose you discover the fossilized gill arches from a previously unknown species of
fish. The gill arches have long, closely packed gill rakers. This fish most likely obtained
its energy from
a. eating aquatic plants.
b. eating large molluscs.
c. autotrophy.
d. suspension feeding.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. You discover a fossil of an organism that came from a deep marine environment. The
fossil has no mouth or gastrointestinal tract, and your colleague thinks that it cannot be
that of an animal. Is your colleague correct?
a. Yes, because all animals have mouths.
b. Yes, because all animals have gastrointestinal tracts.
c. Yes, because all animals have both mouths and gastrointestinal tracts.
d. No, because some animals lack both mouths and gastrointestinal tracts.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
27. The microbes that live in the guts of animals are collectively known as the
a. gut microhome.
b. gut microbiome.
c. gut lumen.
d. gut culture.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
28. The sulfur-oxidizing bacteria of hydrothermal vent communities are
a. anaerobic and heterotrophic.
b. aerobic and heterotrophic.
c. anaerobic and chemoautotrophic.
d. aerobic and chemoautotrophic.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
29. The most abundant component of the gut microbiome in humans is(are)
a. archaea.
b. bacteria.
c. viruses.
d. prions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. Cellulose is one of the most abundant organic molecules in the biosphere, but most
animals lack the enzymes needed to break it down. Nevertheless, some animals have and
can digest a diet high in cellulose because
a. cellulose provides essential fatty acids.
b. their microbial symbionts break it down, allowing them to obtain energy from
cellulose indirectly.
c. cellulose is a required nutrient for microbial symbionts.
d. the only food supply available to them contains large amounts of cellulose.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
31. Which process is not a useful function of microbes in the rumen?
a. Breakdown of cellulose
b. Synthesis of B vitamins
c. Synthesis of essential amino acids
d. Water balance
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
32. Ruminants obtain energy from cellulose by
a. absorbing short-chain fatty acids produced by microbes and digesting microbes that
break down the cellulose.
b. absorbing proteins produced by microbes and digesting microbes that break down the
cellulose.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. absorbing both short-chain fatty acids and nonessential amino acids produced by
microbes.
d. absorbing both essential and nonessential amino acids produced by microbes.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. Which animal would be most likely to survive on a diet high in cellulose and low in
nitrogen?
a. Sheep
b. Horse
c. Rabbit
d. Koala
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
34. The reactor model that is most analogous to the rumen of a cow is the_______; the
model that is most analogous to the intestine of a cow is the _______.
a. continuous-flow reactor with mixing; continuous-flow reactor without mixing
b. continuous-flow reactor without mixing; continuous-flow reactor with mixing
c. batch reactor; continuous-flow reactor with mixing
d. continuous-flow reactor without mixing; batch reactor
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Nutritionally, the consumption of feces (coprophagy) makes more sense for hindgut
fermenters than foregut fermenters. Why?
a. Nutrients produced by microbes in the hindgut are not absorbed; therefore, coprophagy
enables hindgut fermenters to absorb nutrients produced by microbes.
b. Microbial symbionts are not activated to produce nutrients unless they have passed
through the digestive system at least twice.
c. Microbial symbionts are rarely excreted; therefore coprophagy enables hindgut
fermenters to increase the population of beneficial microbes.
d. The microenvironment in the hindgut is more favorable to microbes compared to the
foregut.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36.–38. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
36. What is the best title for this panel?
a. Death rate is altered by diet
b. Diet affects activity level
c. Balancing protein and lipid intake
d. Food selection affects metabolic rate
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. What is the best label for the y axis?
a. Food amount eaten (mg)
b. Metabolic rate (J/mg/h)
c. Activity (Watts/h)
d. Percent protein or lipid
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. According to the graph, spiders that fed most on protein-rich flies during the 24-hour
period before testing
a. were more active compared to those fed lipid-rich flies.
b. preferred lipid-rich flies over the next 72 h.
c. had a body composition higher in protein compared to fat.
d. had the highest metabolic rate.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. The posterior “pyloric” stomach chamber of a crustacean often has a lining of
bristlelike setae. Collectively, these setae share a functional similarity with the omasum
of ruminants, in that both
a. prevent larger food particles from passing down the digestive tract.
b. participate in the mechanical grinding of food.
c. participate in the storing of food.
d. are the primary site of nutrient absorption.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
40. Many bats and rodents feed on insects, but humans and rabbits generally do not.
These dietary habits suggest that
a. humans and rabbits are strict herbivores.
b. many bats and rodents produce cellulase and chitinase enzymes but humans and rabbits
do not.
c. many bats and rodents produce cellulase enzymes but humans and rabbits do not.
d. many bats and rodents produce chitinase enzymes but humans and rabbits do not.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
41. The entry of molecules into the living tissues of an animal from outside the living
tissues of an animal is called
a. targeted entry.
b. absorption.
c. intracellular digestion.
d. extracellular digestion.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. In vertebrates, the principal site of digestion of carbohydrates and lipids is the
a. headgut.
b. foregut.
c. midgut.
d. hindgut.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Which substance(s) is(are) secreted in one part of the digestive tract and then
reabsorbed downstream?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Bile salts and sodium
b. Proenzymes
c. Exopeptidases
d. Zymogens
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
44. A major difference between vertebrate and insect digestive systems is that
a. only vertebrates have a foregut.
b. gut motility is a characteristic of vertebrates only.
c. the hindgut affects urine composition in insects but not in vertebrates.
d. insects lack digestive enzymes and rely solely on endosymbionts.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. In crustaceans, the hepatopancreas performs functions very similar to those of the
_______ in vertebrates.
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. liver and pancreas
d. stomach
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. In which animal does intracellular digestion play a major role?
a. Fish
b. Molluscs
c. Insects
d. Crustaceans
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. Which substance is associated with extracellular digestion?
a. Intraluminal enzymes
b. Membrane-associated enzymes
c. Intracellular enzymes
d. Intraluminal enzymes and membrane-associated enzymes
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
48. Which substance is a disaccharidase?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Amylase
b. Lactase
c. Sucrose
d. Fructase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. _______ contain the greatest diversity of chemical bonds that must be broken down
during digestion.
a. Structural carbohydrates
b. Nonstructural carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Lipids
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. The inactive forms of digestive enzymes are called
a. endopeptidases.
b. inactivases.
c. zymogens.
d. bile salts.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. Bile salts are important for the effective functioning of
a. amylase.
b. endopeptidases.
c. exopeptidases.
d. lipases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
52. Two transporters are needed for secondary active transport of glucose into a midgut
epithelial cell. One transporter is needed to pump _______, and the other is needed to
_______.
a. Na+; cotransport glucose
b. glucose; pump water
c. Ca2+; cotransport glucose
d. glucose; pump galactose
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
53. In humans and many other vertebrates, the midgut contains minute fingerlike
projections called _______ that increase the surface area of the gut epithelium.
a. villi
b. goblet cells
c. crypts
d. enterocytes
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
54. Three polypeptide hormones secreted in the upper midgut are gastric inhibitory
polypeptide,
a. gastrin, and secretin.
b. cholecystokinin, and secretin.
c. gastrin, and cholecystokinin.
d. secretin, and acetylcholine.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
55. Which substance has stimulatory effects on acid-secreting cells, pepsinogen-secreting
cells, and muscle motility in the stomach?
a. Secretin
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Gastrin
d. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
56.–58. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
56. In which area(s) is sodium transport involved?
a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. II and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. In which area(s) is facilitated diffusion of fructose occurring?
a. I
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
58. In which area(s) is secondary active transport occurring?
a. I
b. II
c. I and III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
59.–60. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
59. What process is being shown by the figure?
a. Fatty acid absorption
b. Fatty acid metabolism
c. Bile synthesis
d. Glycerol cycling
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
60. Which label most accurately points to lipoproteins?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
61. Which hormone increases muscle motility of the stomach?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Leptin
d. Cholecystokinin
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
62. Following a large meal, which hormone(s) is downregulated?
a. Gastrin
b. Ghrelin
c. Secretin
d. Cholecystokinin
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Control of Hunger and Satiation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
63. Many “megachiropteran” bats feed on fruit, and many “microchiropteran” bats feed
on insects. Compared to “megachiropteran” bats, “microchiropteran” bats probably
secrete _______ amylase and _______ pancreatic peptidase. They also probably have a
_______ density of sugar transporters and a _______ density of amino acid transporters.
a. less; more; lower; lower
b. less; more; lower; higher
c. more; less; lower; higher
d. more; less; higher; lower
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
64. In a ruminant animal, the stomach chamber that secretes acid and digestive enzymes
is called the
a. rumen.
b. reticulum.
c. abomasum.
d. cecum.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Why is phenotypic plasticity important in digestion and absorption by vertebrates?
Answer: It is important in vertebrates because the particular enzymes or absorption
transporters expressed by a given animal at a given time may depend on the amounts and
types of foods it has recently eaten.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are essential fatty acids. Can eating saturated fatty
acids supply these essential nutritional needs? Explain.
Answer: Saturated fatty acids cannot supply these essential nutrients because omega-3
and omega-6 fatty acids are unsaturated.
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Explain how the chemical structure of the retinol (vitamin A) molecule makes it
suitable for inclusion in visual pigments of animals?
Answer: In plants and algae the molecule evolved for photon capture, which makes it
“opportunistically” suitable for photon capture in vision.
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Urea is highly soluble in water and readily diffuses across cells, but uric acid is
relatively insoluble in water and does not readily diffuse across cell membranes. If
ruminants excreted their nitrogenous wastes as uric acid, how might that affect the
benefits that symbiotic microbes provide to them?
Answer: It might affect the ability to recycle nitrogen because uric acid could not diffuse
across the rumen as urea does.
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. If the Na+–K+-ATPase in the basolateral membrane were blocked, would you predict a
larger effect on glucose transport or fructose transport? Why?
Answer: The blockage would have a larger effect on the glucose transport because
glucose relies on secondary co-transport, while fructose can cross the cell membrane via
facilitated diffusion.
Textbook Reference: Digestion and absorption
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Some people have trouble swallowing pills. What might account for this?
Answer: Such difficulty might be caused by an inability to relax the upper esophageal
sphincter.
Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. In some ways, short-chain fatty acids share similarities with monosaccharides and
amino acids. In other ways, they resemble long-chain fatty acids. What characteristic of
short-chain fatty acids accounts for these resemblances?
Answer: The relevant characteristic is solubility. Short chain fatty acids are water-soluble
like monosaccharides and amino acids, but they are also lipid-soluble like long chain
fatty acids.
Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. What response to the ingestion of food is shared by Burmese pythons and molluscs
such as oysters, muscles, and clams?
Answer: The molluscs rapidly synthesize new cell membranes to meet requirements for
phagocytosis and pinocytosis when exposed to food. Pythons substantially increase the
mass of their gut epithelium after eating.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Why can the nutritional value of a single food item vary across animals and across
time?
Answer: The nutritional value of a single item can vary because animals can upregulate
digestive enzymes and absorption transporters when they eat new types of foods.
Animals also differ in the digestive enzymes they possess.
Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Running is an energetically costly activity. If mice that normally run 4 km a day are
forced to run 10 km a day, what might happen to their digestive tract?
Answer: The length of their midgut might increase so that they could metabolize more
food.
Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In humans, which organ is responsible for the production of lactase?
a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Five students participate in a new reality TV show. Their only food for a week is bread
and milk. The _______ student is most likely to make it through the week without
gastrointestinal distress.
a. African-American
b. Chinese-American
c. Italian
d. Danish
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Proteins are important for all except
a. regulating biochemical reactions.
b. storing genetic information.
c. determining structural properties of tissues.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. transporting oxygen.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Saturated fatty acids are generally bad for human health. Based on the standard
symbols describing fatty acids, which fatty acid is probably most detrimental?
a. 16.0
b. 18.1
c. 18.3
d. 22.6
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. Flying is energetically expensive, and the energetic cost of flying increases with
increasing weight. For a bird flying across the Gulf of Mexico, which substance would be
the most efficient energy storage compound?
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Essential amino acids
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Which type of chemical compound contains common molecules that many animals
cannot digest?
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Fatty acids
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nutrition
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Compared to zebras, wildebeests have an exceptionally blunt muzzle and a wide row
of incisors. This makes them more effective than zebras at feeding on
a. short grasses.
b. shrubs.
c. sedges.
d. grasshoppers found on grass leaves.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. In clupeid fish with specialized gill rakers, as ingested water moves from the mouth
toward the throat, the
a. gill rakers function like a sieve.
b. concentration of food particles increases.
c. food particles are concentrated by water flowing in from the gill.
d. baleen captures the suspended food.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Coral bleaching refers to
a. loss of algal symbionts along with chlorophyll and other algal pigments.
b. treatment of corals reefs with bleach to kill parasites.
c. conversion of algal symbionts from photosynthesis to chemosynthesis.
d. loss of external coral coloration when coral is eaten by reef fish.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. In hydrothermal vent communities, a major source of energy is
a. sunlight.
b. oxidation of H2S to SO42–.
c. calcium carbonate.
d. phosphates.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. You are asked to identify the gut microbes contributing to the three major enterotypes
in humans. Which of the following would be the best way to accomplish this?
a. Sequence the proteins from a collective sample of the gut.
b. Sequence the DNA from a collective sample of the gut.
c. Electron microscopy
d. Direct culture of the microbes
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. The largest stomach chamber of a cow is the
a. cecum.
b. abomasum.
c. omasum.
d. rumen.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
13. Without symbioses, _______ can intrinsically produce the enzymes necessary to
digest cellulose.
a. Some ruminants
b. All invertebrates
c. Some invertebrates
d. All termites
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Feeding
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. In vertebrates, the principal site of absorption is the
a. foregut.
b. biliary system.
c. hindgut.
d. midgut.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which structure plays a crucial role in emulsifying lipids?
a. Pancreas
b. Foregut
c. Midgut
d. Biliary system
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which animal is most different from the others in terms of how food is moved
through the digestive system?
a. Baleen whales
b. Crustacean
c. Oyster
d. Insects
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Suppose an animal is fed a diet in which the only carbohydrate is glycogen. All of the
animal’s enzymes for digesting carbohydrates are disaccharidases. What percentage of
the glycogen can it digest?
a. 0%
b. 50%
c. 80–90%
d. 100%
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Inward diffusion of _______ drives the cotransport of glucose and galactose across
the apical membrane of epithelial cells in the vertebrate midgut.
a. ATP
b. K+
c. Na+
d. H2O
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. The transport of nutrients across the gut epithelium that relies on metabolically
generated electrochemical gradients of inorganic ions is called
a. secondary active transport.
b. electrochemical drive.
c. facilitated diffusion.
d. facilitated active transport.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Lipids are solubilized in the gut lumen by
a. chylomicrons.
b. micelles.
c. bile salts.
d. GLUT2.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Catabolic processes _______ and anabolic processes _______.
a. break down organic molecules to release energy; use energy to build molecules
b. use energy to build molecules; break down organic molecules to release energy
c. use energy to break down molecules; use energy to build molecules
d. use energy to break down all molecules; break down organic molecules
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The statement “If an isolated system undergoes internal change, the direction of
change is always toward greater disorder” is a description of
a. energy metabolism.
b. molecular kinetic energy.
c. physiological work.
d. the second law of thermodynamics.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which of the following is an example of an isolated system?
a. An electrically powered pump circulating hot water through an apartment building
b. A lone astronaut in the international space station
c. An individual bacterium in an animal’s gastrointestinal tract
d. A hypothetical construct in which neither energy nor matter can pass
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Animals need _______ to create and maintain internal organization.
a. entropy
b. heat
c. an open system
d. energy
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which type of energy cannot be used by animals to do physiological work?
a. Chemical energy
b. Electrical energy
c. Heat (molecular kinetic energy)
d. Mechanical energy
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which form of energy is totipotent for animals?
a. Electrical energy
b. Chemical energy
c. Heat (molecular kinetic energy)
d. Mechanical energy
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. In a fully grown animal (i.e., one that is not growing), ingested energy becomes
a. fecal chemical energy + absorbed chemical energy.
b. heat + chemical energy accumulated in body tissues.
c. exported chemical energy + mechanical energy of external work.
d. heat + absorbed chemical energy.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. “High-grade” energy refers to
a. chemical and mechanical energy.
b. chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy.
c. chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy + heat.
d. electrical and mechanical energy plus heat.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. An alpine skier rides a ski lift to the top of a mountain and then skis down a ski run. A
telemark skier skis up the same mountain and then down the same ski run. Assuming the
skiers weigh the same amount, which statement best describes the amount of work they
do?
a. Both skiers do the same amount of physiological work but the telemark skier does
more external work.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Both skiers do the same amount of external work but the telemark skier does more
physiological work.
c. Both skiers do the same amount of external work but the alpine skier does more
physiological work.
d. The telemark skier does much more work going up the mountain but both skiers do
about the same amount of work skiing down the mountain.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. What is different between the heat resulting from a fire and the heat produced by
animals?
a. There is no difference.
b. Heat from animals results from internal work and heat from a fire comes from external
work.
c. The heat that animals obtain from food is always less than heat obtained from burning
food in a fire.
d. Energy from fires always produces heat, but energy use by animals does not always
generate heat.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Suppose you eat five cookies, each of which contains 100 calories. If the same
amount of energy in the cookies was used to heat 50,000 g of water, the temperature of
the water would increase by
a. 0.1°C.
b. 1.0°C.
c. 10°C.
d. 100°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. A person’s resting heat production is approximately equivalent to that of a _______
incandescent light bulb.
a. 15-W
b. 50-W
c. 100-W
d. 300-W
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. A direct calorimeter measures the rate of
a. oxygen consumption.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. carbon dioxide production.
c. heat production.
d. oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Suppose that you use direct calorimetry to monitor a person enclosed in a small room.
During the measurement the person lowers many heavy weights from a desk onto the
floor. The heat production you measure will
a. slightly underestimate the person’s metabolic rate.
b. slightly overestimate the person’s metabolic rate.
c. precisely and directly measure the person’s metabolic rate.
d. be unrelated to the person’s metabolic rate.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Sprinting is an activity that relies heavily on anaerobic metabolism over short periods
of time. From a conceptual perspective, what would be the most accurate way to measure
metabolic rate during sprinting?
a. Material balance
b. O2 consumption
c. Direct calorimetry
d. Respiratory exchange ratio
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. Suppose an animal is oxidizing food according to the following reaction:
C6H12O6 + 6 O2  6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 2820 kJ/mol. What is the respiratory quotient?
a. 1
b. 6
c. 18
d. 2820
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Suppose an animal is oxidizing food according to the following reaction:
C16H32O2 + 23 O2  16 CO2 + 6 H2O + 10,042 kJ/mol. What is the respiratory quotient?
a. 23/16
b. 16/23
c. 10,042/23
d. 10,042/16
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. For which macromolecule is the conversion factor for heat to amount of oxygen
consumed furthest from the conversion factor for heat to amount of carbon dioxide
produced?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins
d. Nucleic Acids
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. Which factor is not an advantage of measuring metabolic rate via oxygen
consumption?
a. Technical ease of measurement
b. Small uncertainty of estimates under many conditions
c. Exclusion of the energy used in external work
d. Exclusion of metabolism by gut microbes
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. If an animal’s metabolic rate is measured in a respirometer that has a continuous
stream of air flowing through it, the type of calorimetry is called _______ and the type of
respirometry is called _______.
a. open; direct
b. open; indirect
c. indirect; open
d. direct; open
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. What is the respiratory quotient (RQ value) during the aerobic catabolism of a typical
lipid?
a. 0.71
b. 0.83
c. 1.00
d. 21.1 J/mL O2
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. The increase in the metabolic rate of an animal that results from eating food is called
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. specific dynamic action.
b. aerobic metabolism.
c. material balance.
d. diet induced thermogenesis.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
23. The specific dynamic action (SDA) is measured for an animal that eats 100 g of
protein. The measurement is repeated a few days later, after the animal has been fed 300
g of protein. According to the usual model of SDA, how will the magnitude of the second
SDA compare with the first SDA measurement?
a. It will be about the same.
b. It will be about three times as much.
c. It will be more than three times as much.
d. It is not possible to estimate without the RQ.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. The specific dynamic action (SDA) for an animal is measured in an animal that
consumes 100 g of carbohydrate. The measurement is repeated a few days later, after the
animal has been fed 200 g of protein. How will the magnitude of the second SDA
compare with the first SDA measurement?
a. It will be about the same.
b. It will be about twice as much.
c. It will be more than twice as much.
d. It is not possible to estimate without the RQ.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. Which factor exerts a particularly large effect on metabolic rates?
a. Environmental O2 level
b. Time of day
c. Age
d. Environmental temperature
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
26. In most animals, the largest contributions to SDA occur
a. during chewing.
b. during digestion.
c. during absorption.
d. after absorption.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. A semipermanent increase in metabolic rate in response to repeatedly eating
unusually large amounts food is called
a. diet-induced thermogenesis.
b. the heat increment of feeding.
c. fat-stimulated metabolism.
d. dietary scaling.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. Suppose an animal has been deprived of food so long that it is in a postabsorptive
state and its physiology is abnormal. Which measure would provide physiologically valid
results?
a. BMR
b. SMR
c. SDA
d. Rate of heat production
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. Specific conditions must apply when either basal or standard metabolic rate is being
measured. The animals must be
a. measured at standard temperature and pressure.
b. fully grown.
c. fed a standard diet.
d. fasting.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. A 30-g vole eats 175 g of forage per week and a 1900-kg rhino eats 650 kg of forage
per week. This demonstrates that
a. voles eat more than rhinos.
b. the energy needs of the two species are not proportional to body size.
c. the rhino has a higher SDA as a percentage of ingested energy.
d. the vole has a lower digestive efficiency than a rhino.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
31. The term “weight-specific metabolic rate” refers to
a. whole-animal metabolic rate at a specific body weight.
b. whole-animal metabolic rate divided by body weight.
c. the change in metabolic rate with body weight.
d. whole-animal metabolic rate multiplied by mass.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
32. Suppose that you compare the amount of food needed by four groups of lizards, each
of which has an MR that is expected for its body size. There are 10 lizards weighing 10 g
each, 5 lizards weighing 20 g each, 2 lizards weighing 50 g each, and a single 100-g
lizard. Assuming equivalent digestions, similar food, and so on, which lizard group
requires the most food?
a. The 10-g lizard group
b. The 20-g lizard group
d. The 100-g lizard
e. All lizard groups require the same amount of food.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. In which case would the equation M =aWb not be considered allometric?
a. a = 1 and b < 1
b. a = 1 and b > 1
c. a = 1 and b equals any value
d. b = 1 and a equals any value
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Suppose that a study reports the allometric equation relating whole-animal metabolic
rate to body weight for a new group of organisms. Based on existing data for other
groups, which value would you predict for b?
a. 0.5
b. 0.7
c. 1
d. 12
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
35. Suppose the value of b for the allometric equation for maximal metabolic rate (MMR)
and body weight is 0.87. The exponent for the equation relating the mass-specific MMR
to body weight would be
a. ‒0.87.
b. 0.13.
c. ‒0.13.
d. (0.87)2.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. Suppose that W (weight) for groups of big and little eaters has been measured in
grams. Daily food consumption of big eaters is described by the allometric equation: food
(g/day) = 5 W0.67. Daily food consumption of little eaters is described by the allometric
equation: food (g/day) = 0.75 W0.67. Each day, a 1-g big eater will need _______ more
food than a 1-g little eater.
a. (4.25)–0.33 g
b. (4.25)0.67 g
c. 4.25 g
d. no
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Assume that the standard allometric equation (M = aWb) applies to a given species.
Weight-specific metabolic rate will not depend on weight when
a. b < 0.
b. b > 1.
c. b = 1.
d. a = 1.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. Suppose that you want to plot metabolic data for animals ranging in weight from 2 g
to 10,000,000 g. A log‒log plot would be useful because
a. data > 1,000,000 g or < 1 g cannot be plotted on other kinds of graphs.
b. a log‒log plot transforms an allometric equation into a curve.
c. a log‒log plot puts all animals (e.g., birds and frogs) on the same trend line.
d. with a log‒log plot, a wide range of body weights can easily be plotted on the same
graph.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. You measure the metabolic rate of a group of poikilotherms that has never been
studied before. Compared to the relationship between metabolic rate and weight for birds,
the value of a for the new group is likely to be _______ and the value of b is likely to be
_______.
a. about the same; lower
b. lower; higher
c. lower; lower
d. lower; about the same
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. Suppose the relationship between resting heart rate (RHR, in beats/min) and body
weight (W, in grams) is: RHR = aW ‒0.23. What can be deduced from this relationship?
a. There is no systematic relationship between heart rate and weight, but large animals
have faster heart rates.
b. Heart rate tends to be faster for small animals.
c. Heart rate tends to be exponentially slower for animals weighing 23 g, 230 g, 2300 g,
and so on.
d. Heart rate tends to be faster for larger animals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
41. Larger mammals need more oxygen than smaller mammals, but they need less
oxygen per gram of body weight. Smaller mammals meet their need for more oxygen
with a _______ mass-specific heart size and a _______ heart rate.
a. bigger; faster
b. smaller; faster
c. similar; faster
d. bigger; slower
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. In order to measure the maximal aerobic metabolic rate of an animal, researchers
commonly induce it by exercise. In vertebrates, a useful rule of thumb is that the maximal
aerobic metabolic rate is about _______ times the resting metabolic rate.
a. 2
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. 3
c. 10
d. 50
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Small mammals need more O2 per gram of body weight than large mammals do.
Compared to large mammals, small mammals have _______ lungs and breathe _______
times per minute.
a. bigger; more
b. smaller; more
c. similar-sized; more
d. smaller; fewer
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. Suppose that the body‒surface area of mammals was proportional to weight 5/6.
Following the other lines of reasoning associated with Rubner’s surface “law,” what
would be the predicted relationship between metabolic rate and weight?
a. M = aW0.5
b. M = aW2/3
c. M = aW5/6
d. M = aW(2/3*5/6) = aW (5/9)
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
45. Rubner’s surface “law” cannot be applied to fish and crabs because
a. these animals do not elevate their body temperatures above those of the environment.
b. these animals are too small for it to be applicable.
c. these animals do not have four limbs.
d. it can be applied only to mammals.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. The exponent for the relationship between metabolic rate and weight
a. varies across different animals but is commonly around 0.5.
b. varies across different animals but is commonly around 0.7.
c. is two-thirds.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. is three-fourths.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47. Attempts to explain the mechanistic basis for the allometric scaling of metabolic rate
with size have focused mostly on the
a. skeletal muscles.
b. gastrointestinal tract.
c. lungs.
d. circulatory system.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48.–51. Refer to the figure below.
48. Which animal consumes the most oxygen per unit time?
a. Pygmy mouse
b. Wood rat
c. Gray squirrel
d. Desert cottontail
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
49. Where on the graph would you plot a wood frog?
a. About half way down directly below the pygmy mouse data point
b. Close to the x axis in the 0- to 100-gram weight range
c. Very close to the wood rat data point
d. About twice as high as the white-footed mouse data point
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
50. What would be the best label for the y axis?
a. Rate of oxygen consumption (ml O2/h)
b. Weight-specific metabolic rate (J/g•h)
c. Rate of oxygen consumption (ml O2/g•h)
d. Weight-specific metabolic rate (J/h)
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
51. Based on the graph, change the scale of both axes and change the y axis units to be
non-mass-specific. What is the best description of the line that fits the replotted data?
a. A straight line that begins low on the y axis and increases moving along the x axis
b. A straight line that begins high on the y axis and decreases moving along the x axis
c. Very similar shape to the plot above with different units on the y axis
d. An exponential curve that begins low on the y axis and increases moving along the x
axis
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. Humans can digest and absorb approximately _______% of their energy in cellulose.
a. 0
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53. Compared to gross growth efficiency, energy absorption efficiency
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. must be lower.
b. must be higher.
c. can be lower but does not have to be.
d. can be higher but does not have to be.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
54. Compared to net growth efficiency, gross growth efficiency
a. must be lower.
b. must be higher.
c. can be lower but does not have to be.
d. can be higher but does not have to be.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. As part of an exercise program, a person holds a heavy weight above the ground for 10
minutes without moving the weight. Is the person doing work?
Answer: The person is not doing mechanical (external) work because the weight is not
moving, but the person is doing physiological work.
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Do microorganisms produce heat?
Answer: Yes; like all animals, microorganisms produce heat because transformations of
high-grade energy always produce heat.
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Suppose you use direct calorimetry to measure heat production by a person picking
textbooks out of a box on the floor and stacking them onto a bookshelf. Is the measure of
heat production an accurate indicator of the person’s metabolic rate? Why or why not?
Answer: No. To measure the person’s metabolic rate accurately, you would need to
account for the potential energy change due to moving the books higher in Earth’s
gravitational field.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. The doubly labeled water (DLW) procedure entails injecting animals with water that
has labeled hydrogen and labeled oxygen atoms. In a complex way, the DLW method
makes it possible to estimate the rate of CO2 production. What kind of calorimetry is
this?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: This is indirect calorimetry because it is a measurement of CO2 production
rather than a direct measurement of heat (energy).
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Suppose you use indirect calorimetry to estimate an animal’s metabolic rate and you
do not know what foodstuff the animal is oxidizing. Is it better to estimate energy use
from O2 or CO2? Why?
Answer: It is better to estimate energy use from O2 because the conversion factors for
translating O2 consumption into energy are less variable for O2 than the comparable
conversion factors are for CO2 production.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. In the equation M =aWb, a and b are constants. Why, then, do the values of a and b
vary across different groups of animals or even with different samples from a related
group of animals?
Answer: The values of a and b depend on the particular data being used. They are
constant for a particular data set but they are not universal constants that apply to all data
sets.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. In English, the idiomatic expression “He eats like a horse” suggests that the person eats
a lot. The plot of metabolic rate versus body weight for carnivorous mammals depicts the
metabolic rate of the least weasel as higher than that of other carnivorous mammals of the
same weight. What would the phrase “He eats like a least weasel” mean?
Answer: The person eats a lot for his size (because he has a higher metabolic rate than
that predicted for other animals of the same size).
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Suppose you are a livestock manager tasked with maintaining or increasing the growth
efficiency of animals that normally have low levels of physical activity. What would be
the likely result if all animals were put on a regimen of vigorous physical exercise?
Answer: More energy would be used for maintenance (activity), so less would be left for
the growth of new tissue. Consequently, growth efficiency would be reduced.
Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Suppose you breed and market fish sold for food and your greatest expense is the cost
of the food. Why would it make sense to harvest animals either as soon as they reach
adult size or before?
Answer: Growth efficiency declines with age.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Why is thinking hard not an effective way to lose weight?
Answer: The increase in metabolic rate due to hard mental effort is too small to help with
a dieting program.
Textbook Reference: Postscript: The Energy Cost of Mental Effort
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLNE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following forms of energy can be used to do mechanical work in a
machine but cannot be used to do physiological work in an animal?
a. Chemical-bond energy
b. Electrical energy
c. Mechanical energy
d. Heat
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. While riding a stationary bicycle, the maximum efficiency of converting chemical
bond energy to external work is about
a. 5%.
b. 10%.
c. 30%.
d. 75%.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Animals use absorbed chemical energy for
a. exported chemical energy, fecal energy, heat, and mechanical energy of external work.
b. exported chemical energy and mechanical energy of external work only.
c. heat and mechanical energy of external work only.
d. exported chemical energy, heat, and mechanical energy of external work.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Consider a lactating animal that eats three times as much food as one that is not
lactating. The lactating animal does not grow, deposit fat, or markedly increase her
metabolic rate. The extra ingested energy was
a. saved, by reduced physical activity.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. exported, in the form of milk.
c. lost by the animal’s increased surface area.
d. turned to catabolized lipids for energy.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Imagine your physiology class has 100 students. It is winter and the heat has failed in
the classroom, but you are not worried because 100 sitting students produce heat at the
rate of about
a. 10 W.
b. 1000 W.
c. 10 kW.
d. 100 kW.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. During vigorous exercise at high altitude, which substrate would be best for an animal
to use if it needed to get the most energy production per unit of O2?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Lipid
c. Protein
e. Carbohydrate and lipid are equal and both are better than protein.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. The respiratory exchange ratio is
a. CO2 production/O2 consumption per unit of time, measured at the gas exchange organ.
b. O2 consumption/CO2 production per unit of time, measured at the gas exchange organ.
c. CO2 production/O2 consumption per unit of time, measured at the level of the cells.
d. O2 consumption/CO2 production per unit of time, measured at the level of the cells.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. With respect to the energy yield from the combustion of a carbohydrate in a bomb
calorimeter and the oxidation of the same quantity of carbohydrate in an animal,
a. less energy would be measured in the calorimeter.
b. more energy would be measured in the calorimeter.
c. biochemical inefficiencies in an animal would lead to more heat production and less
work.
d. the amount of energy measured would be equal in both cases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. _______ is the most common measure of metabolic rate.
a. Rate of CO2 production
b. Rate of O2 consumption
c. Rate of heat production
d. Ingested energy minus fecal energy
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. SDA tends to be _______ for meals high in _______.
a. lower; lipids
b. lower; protein
c. higher; lipids
d. higher; protein
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Suppose you feed a snake a large meal and then monitor the increase in its metabolic
rate after eating until the rate returns back to the fasting value. How would you quantify
the magnitude of the SDA?
a. Measure the metabolic rate exactly 1 hour after the meal
b. Measure the highest metabolic rate before the metabolic rate returns to the fasting level
c. Measure fasting CO2 production and add O2 consumption after eating
d. Measure the cumulative increase in metabolic rate above the fasting level
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. Carbohydrates can be fully oxidized by animals but proteins cannot. Consequently,
some of the energy from _______ must always be _______.
a. proteins; exported as chemical energy
b. carbohydrates; exported as chemical energy
c. proteins; used for external work
d. carbohydrates; used for external work
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Factors that Affect Metabolic Rates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. In homeotherms the resting metabolic rate of a fasting animal is the _______ and in
poikilotherms the equivalent term is the _______.
a. standard metabolic rate; basal metabolic rate
b. basal metabolic rate; standard metabolic rate
c. specific dynamic action; calorigenic effect of feeding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. routine metabolic rate; standard metabolic rate
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Suppose you are trying to heat a barn using the heat from your livestock. The most
total heat would be produced by _______ animal(s) that weigh _______.
a. 1000; 1 kg each
b. 100; 10 kg each
c. 10; 100 kg each
d. 2; 504 kg each
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Small mammals need more O2 per gram of body weight than large mammals do.
Compared to large mammals, small mammals have_______ mass-specific lung size and
breathe _______ times per minute.
a. larger; more
b. similar; more
c. smaller; more
d. larger; fewer
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Compared to small mammals, large mammals tend to
a. produce more heat per unit of body weight.
b. have a larger surface area per unit of body weight.
c. lose heat less rapidly per unit of body weight.
d. have a smaller volume per unit body weight
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. One of the first anatomically accurate descriptions of the human circulatory system
came from
a. Galileo.
b. Rembrandt.
c. Vesalius.
d. Rubner.
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. While the exponent for the metabolic rate to body weight relationship was originally
the source of some controversy, there is now
a. strong agreement that the universal scaling exponent is two-thirds.
b. strong agreement that the universal scaling exponent is three-quarters.
c. general recognition that no single scaling exponent applies across all animals.
d. general recognition that the exponent depends on lung volume.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body
Size
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. The common currency of life is
a. heat.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. energy.
d. oxygen.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Conclusion: Energy as the Common Currency of Life
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Suppose you eat five tangerines for lunch. On average, the energy from _______
would end up being used by your brain.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Postscript: The Energy Cost of Mental Effort
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 8: Aerobic and Anaerobic Forms of Metabolism
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Glycolysis occurs in the _______ and generates _______ NADH molecules.
a. cytosol; 4
b. cytosol; 2
c. mitochondria; 2
d. mitochondria; 4
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The enzyme _______ is needed to convert phosphoenolpyruvic acid to pyruvic acid.
a. hexokinase
b. phosphofructokinase
c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. pyruvate kinase
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. The substrate _______ is required for glycolysis to begin.
a. pyruvate
b. glucose
c. acetyl coenzyme A
d. NADH2
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. The enzyme _______ is required to convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.
a. hexokinase
b. phosphofructokinase
c. pyruvate kinase
d. isomerase
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. The reaction that uses _______ as a substrate is an oxidation reaction in glycolysis.
a. glucose
b. fructose-1,6-diphosphate
c. 2-phosphoglyceric acid
d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. The substrate needed to initiate the Krebs cycle is
a. pyruvate.
b. glucose.
c. acetyl coenzyme A.
d. citrate.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Which molecule(s) is(are) generated during aerobic metabolism?
a. CO2
b. Lactic acid
c. CO2 and lactic acid
d. CO2 and H2O
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces FADH2?
a. Succinate  fumarate
b. Citrate  isocitrate
c. Fumarate  malate
d. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces NADH?
a. Citrate  isocitrate
b. Succinate  fumarate
c. Fumarate  malate
d. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
10. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces GTP?
a. Succinate  fumarate
b. Fumarate  malate
c. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate
d. Succinyl coenzyme A  succinate
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. The specific role of oxygen in the cell is to
a. enhance the production of NADH in glycolysis.
b. promote oxidation of FADH2.
c. act as an energy source for ATP production.
d. act as a final electron acceptor.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. What effect would consumption of cytochrome c oxidase inhibitor have on an
animal?
a. The Krebs cycle would accelerate
b. The electron transport chain would be halted
c. NADH recycling to NAD+ would accelerate
d. FADH2 recycling will be directly inhibited
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. Which molecule oxidizes FADH2?
a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome b-c1
d. Cytochrome oxidase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Which molecule does not participate in proton pumping in the mitochondria?
a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome oxidase
d. ATP synthase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
15. The molecule that receives electrons from protein complex I is called
a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase.
b. ubiquinone.
c. cytochrome b-c1.
d. cytochrome oxidase.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. If 43 protons pass through the ATP synthase, _______ ATP are produced.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 43
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
17. If 20 ATP molecules are produced, _______ protons passed through ATP synthase.
a. 20
b. 36
c. 46
d. 86
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. If a P/O ratio is 1.9, oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport are said to be
a. partly coupled.
b. uncoupled.
c. loosely coupled.
d. tightly coupled.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. If a cell loses its mitochondria, the net number of ATP molecules that can be
produced from one glucose molecule is
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 21.
d. 29.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
20. When a glucose molecule is completely hydrolyzed, _______ NADH2 molecules and
_______ FADH2 molecules are produced.
a. 2; 10
b. 10; 2
c. 12; 3
d. 3; 12
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. Aerobic substrate-level phosphorylation produces a total of _______ ATP molecules
per glucose molecule.
a. 2
b. 6
c. 29
d. 31
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. Which enzyme is used to minimize the effect of reactive oxygen species?
a. Catalase
b. Phosphofructokinase
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Isomerase
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. Which enzyme is used to minimize the effect of reactive oxygen species?
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. cytochrome c oxidase
c. succinate dehydrogenase
d. coenzyme A
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. If the ratio of NAD to NADH2 in a cell is 1 (NAD/NADH2 = 1), the cell is in
a. an oxidative state.
b. a reduced state.
c. redox balance.
d. oxygen deficiency.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. The rate-limiting factor that determines whether a cell can undergo anaerobic
glycolysis is the amount of
a. ATP it produces.
b. pyruvate available.
c. protons available.
d. lactate dehydrogenase available.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. Blocking lactate dehydrogenase in a cell producing ATP in the absence of oxygen
would
a. not affect glycolysis.
b. halt the ETC that was functioning.
c. halt glycolysis.
d. allow two ATP molecules to be produced from each glycolysis cycle.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. Which statement regarding lactic acid is true?
a. It is generated during aerobic conditions.
b. It is produced in the mitochondrial matrix.
c. It is produced in the presence of oxygen.
d. It is an organic molecule.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. When pyruvic acid is metabolized, the ratio of ATP to lactic acid produced is
a. 2:27.
b. 27:2.
c. 2:31.
d. 31:2.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
29. Which molecule is not generated when phosphagens are used?
a. Creatine
b. Arginine
c. ATP
d. ADP
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. A blocker that inhibits creatine kinase would halt
a. glycolysis.
b. the citric acid cycle.
c. phosphagen production.
d. pyruvate oxidation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Which molecule is abundant in skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates?
a. Myoglobin
b. Hemoglobin
c. Calmodulin
d. Arginine
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32. During the only oxidation reaction in glycolysis, the molecule of primary importance
in combining with hydrogen atoms is
a. NAD.
b. NADH.
c. oxygen.
d. pyruvate.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. Pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle as
a. carbon dioxide.
b. acetyl coenzyme A.
c. lactic acid.
d. glucose.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34. The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is
a. oxygen.
b. NAD.
c. glucose.
d. water.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. In the mitochondria, ATP is formed by the direct movement of
a. electrons.
b. protons.
c. bicarbonate.
d. oxygen.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. Excess creatine kinase enhances
a. electron transport chain activity.
b. glycolysis levels.
c. burst exercise performance.
d. citric acid cycle productivity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Comparative Properties of Mechanisms of ATP Production
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. Which type of leg muscles do various animals depend on for long distance ground
locomotion?
a. Slow oxidative, because of their endurance
b. Fast glycolytic, because of their intensity
c. Slow glycolytic, because of their intensity
d. Fast oxidative, because of their endurance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
38. In the term “slow oxidative” used to describe muscle fibers, “oxidative” refers to
a. the physiology of energy production.
b. the fatigability rate.
c. motion of the muscle.
d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. In the term “fast glycolytic” used to describe muscle fibers, “fast” refers to
a. the physiology of energy production.
b. the motion of the muscle.
c. low resistance to fatigue.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. In the term “fast glycolytic” used to describe muscle fibers, “glycolytic” refers to
a. the physiology of energy production.
b. the fatigability rate.
c. motion of the muscle.
d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. During sustained muscular work in humans, the use of fatty acids as an energy source
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. does not change.
d. increases first and then decreases after 2 hours.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. Slow oxidative muscle fibers are used during
a. jogging.
b. speed skating.
c. weight lifting.
d. sprinting.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers are used during
a. walking.
b. running.
c. weight lifting.
d. standing.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
44. During a short intense bout of heavy weight lifting in a human, what is the source of
the initial supply of ATP?
a. Creatine Phosphate (the phosphagen system)
b. Anaerobic glycolysis
c. Aerobic catabolism using glucose
d. Aerobic catabolism using lipids
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
45. To escape from a predator, a fish most likely uses _______ muscles.
a. slow oxidative
b. fast glycolytic
c. a combination of oxidative and glycolytic
d. fast glycolytic first and after few seconds slow oxidative
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. While swimming in a school, a fish is most likely using _______ muscles.
a. slow oxidative
b. fast glycolytic
c. a combination of oxidative and glycolytic
d. fast glycolytic first and after few seconds slow oxidative
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. Which of the following would you expect to see in abundance in the muscles of a
sprinter?
a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Mitochondria
c. Myoglobin
d. ETC proteins
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. _______ exercise is the type of exercise in which a weight lifter is lifting the heaviest
weight he can handle.
a. Submaximal
b. Maximal
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Supramaximal
d. Oxygen deficit
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. Which statement about a rabbit and a lizard evading a common predator is true?
a. The rabbit would clear lactic acid faster than the lizard.
b. The lizard would clear lactic acid faster than the rabbit.
c. Both the lizard and the rabbit would clear lactic acid at the same rate.
d. Both the lizard and the rabbit would be in oxygen deficiency.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. The enzyme that muscle cells depend on during the oxygen deficit phase is
a. NADH-dehydrogenase.
b. ATP synthase.
c. coenzyme A.
d. creatine kinase.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
51.–55. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
51. According to the figure, which term best describes the y axis?
a. Exercise intensity
b. Oxygen consumption
c. Rate of oxygen demand or supply
d. Theoretical oxygen demand
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
52. Which graph represents “heavy submaximal exercise”?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. II and III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
53. According to the figure, the shaded area denoted by the arrow is the
a. oxygen deficit.
b. hyperoxygenation region.
c. postexercise oxygen consumption.
d. theoretical Vo2 max.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
54. In how many of the graphs does lactic acid accumulate?
a. none
b. one
c. two
d. three
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
55. Where is the maximum oxygen consumption represented on the graphs?
a. The horizontal dashed line
b. The shaded area at the beginning of the solid line curve
c. The shaded area at the end of the solid line curve
d. The solid curve line
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
56. Which statement regarding anoxia is false?
a. During anoxia, there is less oxygen available than the tissue demands.
b. During anoxia, vertebrates rely on anaerobic catabolism.
c. During anoxia, vertebrates generate a large amount of lactic acid.
d. During anoxia, vertebrates excrete excess lactic acid.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. Which of the following does not occur in mammals in hypoxic situations?
a. ATP concentration in brain tissues falls drastically.
b. Na+–K+-ATPase pumps ions across the cell membrane to reverse the effects of
hypoxia.
c. Action potentials cease.
d. The release of neurotransmitters is interrupted.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
58. Which animal can survive under completely anaerobic conditions?
a. Sea turtle
b. Slack-water darter
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Clam
d. Leopard frog
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
59. What occurs during anaerobiosis in invertebrates?
a. Decreased usage of alanine
b. Decreased usage of succinic acid
c. Decreased production of ATP
d. Decreased buffering mechanisms
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
60. When invertebrate anaerobes excrete their anaerobic byproducts, most likely,
a. their body fluid will become more acidic.
b. their body fluid will become less acidic.
c. they will gain organic by-products.
d. their body fluid will remain neutral.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
61–63. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
61. According to the figure, what do the dots scattered around line I represent?
a. Mean rates of oxygen consumption of different species
b. Individual measurements of rate of oxygen consumption in one species
c. Death rates
d. Individual measurements of oxygen consumption in many species
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
62. According to the figure, as the concentration of oxygen in the water drops, the slope
of lines I, II, and III change. What does this mean?
a. Animals go from becoming oxygen regulators to oxygen conformers.
b. Animals become physiologically compromised.
c. Animals go from becoming oxygen conformers to oxygen regulators.
d. Animals increase their metabolic rate.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
63. The additional lines added to the figure represent data from additional species. Using
this additional information, which line represents the species best able to cope with
hypoxic water?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. Glucose undergoes 10 chemical reactions during glycolysis to become pyruvate. Name
the reactants, enzymes, and products of two ATP-producing reactions in glycolysis.
Answer: Answers will vary and could include the following:
1,3 diphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate. The enzyme used is phosphoglycerate
kinase.
Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate. The enzyme used is pyruvate kinase.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Glucose undergoes 10 chemical reactions during glycolysis to become pyruvate. Name
the reactant, product, and enzyme of one NADH-producing reaction in glycolysis.
Answer: Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3 diphosphoglycerate. The enzyme used is
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. What are the net yields of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules during the breakdown
of one glucose molecule under aerobic conditions?
Glycolysis:
___ ATP
___ NADH
___ FADH2
Pyruvate oxidation: ___ ATP
___ NADH
___ FADH2
Citric acid cycle:
___ ATP
___ NADH
___ FADH2
Answer:
Glycolysis:
2 ATP
2 NADH
0 FADH2
Pyruvate oxidation: 0 ATP
2 NADH
0 FADH2
Citric Acid Cycle: 2 ATP (0 is acceptable if they are referring to GTP)
6 NADH
2 FADH2
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. Name and state the function(s) of four of the six proteins in the inner mitochondrial
membrane that play a role in ATP synthesis.
Answer: Protein complex I/NADH-Q reductase/NADH dehydrogenase accepts protons
and electrons from NADH and delivers them to ubiquinone; it also moves protons to the
intermembrane space.
Protein complex II/succinate dehydrogenase accepts protons and electrons from FADH2
and delivers them to ubiquinone.
Protein complex III/cytcochrome b-c1 reductase receives electrons from ubiquinone and
delivers them to cytochrome c; it also moves protons to the intermembrane space.
Cytochrome c carries electrons from cytochrome oxidase and delivers them to
cytochrome reductase.
Protein complex IV/cytochrome oxidase receives electrons from cytochrome c and
delivers them to oxygen; it also moves protons to the intermembrane space.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
ATP synthase acts as a proton pathway to move protons from the intermembrane space
back to the mitochondria; it uses the chemical energy of the protons to synthesize ATP
from ADP.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Explain what the fate of pyruvate would be under aerobic conditions and anaerobic
conditions in a vertebrate muscle cell. Include the name(s) of the enzyme(s) used.
Answer: Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate undergoes pyruvate oxidation and is
converted to acetyl-coA with the help of coenzyme A. Under anaerobic conditions,
pyruvate undergoes fermentation and is converted to lactate (or lactic acid) with the help
of lactate dehydrogenase.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Explain why reactive oxygen species (ROS) can be harmful to cells.
Answer: Reactive oxygen species have a high potential to react with cell lipids, proteins,
and nucleic acids. ROS can damage macromolecules upon which health and life depend.
ROS are the primary causative agents of aging and many diseases and muscle fatigue.
Mitochondria routinely generate superoxide, an ROS produced by metabolism, as a
byproduct of electron transport. Superoxide and its ROS products can injure
mitochondria by reacting in destructive ways with mitochondrial macromolecules.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Briefly describe the antioxidant mechanisms cells use to counter oxidative stress.
Answer: Cells possess enzymatic and non-enzymatic antioxidant mechanisms of
detoxifying reactive oxygen species (ROS). Enzyme antioxidants catalyze the
transformation of ROS to less-reactive chemical forms. For example, superoxide
dismutase converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide, and catalase converts hydrogen
peroxide to water and O2. Non-enzymatic antioxidants prevent the ROS from reacting
with other, more critical molecules.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What are phosphagens, and how can they be used to power muscle activities?
Answer: Phosphagen are compounds that serve as temporary stores of high-energy
phosphate bonds. Creatine phosphate and arginine phosphate are two examples.
Phosphagens are synthesized by the use of high-energy phosphate bonds taken from
ATP; later they can donate the phosphate bonds to ADP to form ATP. The reversible
reactions for creatine phosphate and arginine phosphate are catalyzed by phosphagen
kinases (creatine kinase and arginine kinase). When ATP concentrations fall, the
phosphagens react with ADP in the presence of their specific kinase and form ATP
without a simultaneous need for O2. Each ADP molecule in a vertebrate muscle cell can
be rephosphorylated three to six times by this mechanism.
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain, on the molecular level, why muscles can generate ATP under anaerobic
conditions, but neurons cannot.
Answer: Muscle cells can undergo fermentation because they have the enzyme lactate
dehydrogenase; neurons do not.
Neurons cannot generate ATP under anaerobic conditions because they lack lactate
dehydrogenase. In the muscles, fermentation can metabolize pyruvate by oxidizing
NADH to NAD+.
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. What is the pay-as-you-go phase?
Answer: Muscle cells need to produce ATP in order to initiate and maintain exercise.
When the lungs and the circulatory system sufficiently accelerate their rate of O2 delivery
to meet the full O2 demand of the exercise, the exercise is said to enter a pay-as-you-go
phase because thereafter its full O2 cost is met on a moment-to-moment basis by use of
O2 taken up from the environment by breathing. With all ATP being made by steady-state
aerobic catabolism, the exercise can, in principle, be sustained indefinitely. The onset of
the pay-as-you-go phase occurs soon enough to prevent biochemical self-termination of
anaerobic glycolysis, use of phosphagen, and use of O2 stores by delivering oxygen to the
needed tissues.
Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during
Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which enzyme is required to convert fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6diphosphate?
a. Hexokinase
b. Phosphofructokinase
c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
d. Pyruvate kinase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which enzyme is required to use an ATP molecule during glycolysis?
a. Phosphoglycerate kinase
b. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Phosphofructokinase
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which part of the cell would have a high level of activity when the lactic acid to
pyruvic acid ratio increases?
a. Cytosol
b. Intermembrane space
c. Mitochondrial matrix
d. Inner membrane of the mitochondria
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. How many ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule during the Krebs
Cycle?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which statement most accurately summarizes the chemiosmotic hypothesis?
a. Electrons are transferred along the electron transport chain and delivered to oxygen.
b. Hydrogen ions are pumped into the matrix to create an electrochemical gradient.
c. Protons move from low concentration to high concentration, creating unequal
distribution across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
d. A phosphate group moves from ATP to another substrate.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. What would happen to energy production if NADH2 and FADH2 were not available?
a. Glycolysis would continue.
b. Oxygen would become unavailable.
c. The Krebs cycle would stop.
d. The electron transport chain would stop.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
7. Protons are transferred back to the mitochondrial matrix via
a. succinate dehydrogenase.
b. cytochrome b-c1.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. cytochrome oxidase.
d. ATP synthase.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which protein does not participate in proton movement?
a. Cytochrome b-c1
b. Cytochrome oxidase
c. ATP synthase
d. Succinate dehydrogenase
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. The pH in the intermembrane space is
a. acidic because of proton diffusion.
b. acidic because of proton pumping.
c. basic because of proton diffusion.
d. basic because of proton pumping.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Redox balance is the
a. removal of electrons from a compound as quickly as they are added.
b. removal of electrons from a compound without any addition of them.
c. loss of electrons.
d. gain of electrons.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Which statement about reactive oxygen species (ROS) is false?
a. They are an ordinary mechanism of aerobic metabolism.
b. They are generated in the mitochondria.
c. The enzyme catalase converts oxygen free radicals to hydrogen peroxide.
d. The damage they cause is called oxidative stress.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Suppose that the ratio of FADH to FADH2 is 1. The molecule is said to be in
a. oxidative state.
b. reductive state.
c. redox balance.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. oxygen deficiency.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. The enzyme needed to convert pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called
a. hexokinase.
b. phosphofructokinase.
c. catalase.
d. lactate dehydrogenase.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. During anaerobic glycolysis, only about ______ of free energy from glucose is
released.
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 10%
d. 15%
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which molecule is generated during pyruvate oxidation?
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. ATP
d. Lactic acid
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. In vertebrate muscle, how is the supply of NAD regenerated in the absence of
oxygen?
a. Using the Krebs cycle
b. By forming pyruvate
c. By breathing faster
d. By forming lactic acid
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Which molecule, found in skeletal muscles of vertebrates, stores oxygen?
a. Myoglobin
b. Hemoglobin
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. ATP
d. Ubiquinone
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. In the term “slow oxidative,” used to describe muscle fibers, “slow” refers to
a. the length of time it takes for the muscle to contract.
b. the type of energy to be used.
c. their low resistance to fatigue.
d. the type of physical activity to be performed.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. During long term muscle activity, peak fuel usage occurs in which order?
a. Muscle glucose; muscle glycogen; phosphagens; glycogen brought in by the circulation
b. Phosphagens; muscle glucose; glycogen brought in by the circulation; muscle glycogen
c. Phosphagens; muscle glucose; muscle glycogen; glucose brought in by the circulation
d. Muscle glucose; phosphagens; muscle glycogen; glycogen brought in by the
circulation
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber
Types
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. In hypoxia,
a. ATP is being used.
b. ATP is being depleted.
c. there is a lack of oxygen.
d. there is a lack of lactate dehydrogenase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. The maintenance of a steady rate of oxygen consumption, regardless of the level of
oxygen in the environment, is called oxygen
a. regulation.
b. deficit.
c. conformity.
d. steady state.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
22. The metabolic by-product of anaerobic glycolysis that fish excrete across their gills is
a. lactic acid.
b. ethanol.
c. pyruvic acid.
d. succinic acid.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 9: The Energetics of Aerobic Activity
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. The metabolic rate of a young adult human is greatest while
a. walking at 4 miles per hour.
b. bicycling at 13 miles per hour.
c. running at 10 miles per hour.
d. crawl swimming at 2 miles per hour.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. In an experiment in which an animal is injected with deuterium and oxygen-18 (D218O
method) and then released into the wild, which of the following trends would you expect
to see from measurements taken after a period of rest and again after a period of exercise?
a. CO2 production will be higher during exercise than at rest.
c. CO2 production will be equal during exercise and at rest.
d. O2 production will be higher during exercise than at rest.
e. O2 production will be equal during exercise than at rest.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Which behavior represents the smallest component per unit time of the average daily
metabolic rate (ADMR)?
a. An animal chasing a prey
b. An animal avoiding a predator
c. An animal sleeping in the shade
d. An animal standing guard
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. If an animal spends 3 hours a day chasing a prey (49 kJ/hr) and 20 hours a day resting
(using 15 kJ/hr), its total daily cost of behavior in kJ is
a. 147 kJ/day.
b. 153 kJ/day.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. 300 kJ/day.
d. 447 kJ/day.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. A monitor placed on or in a study animal that stores data is called a
a. telemetric device.
b. data logger.
c. motor driven treadmill.
d. deuterium infusing device.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. A monitor placed on or in a study animal that transmits data is called a
a. telemetric device.
b. data logger.
c. motor driven treadmill.
d. deuterium infusing device.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. If an animal spends 3 hours a day running away from a predator and 20 hours a day
resting (using 20 kJ/hr), the total daily cost of behavior is 700 kJ. The kJ spent per hour
running away from a predator is _______ kJ/hr.
a. 60
b. 100
c. 300
d. 400
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
8. If an animal spends 6 hours a day chasing prey (50 kJ/hr) and 18 hours a day resting
(10 kJ/hr), its average hourly cost of behavior is _______ kJ/hr.
a. 20
b. 24
c. 30
d. 50
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
9. The average daily metabolic rate (ADMR) refers to the amount of energy expended
_______ in their natural habitat.
a. during routine lives of animals
b. during strenuous physical activities of animals
c. in animals chasing prey
d. in animals avoiding a predator
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. The relationship between average daily metabolic rate (ADMR) per unit of body
weight and body size is a(n)
a. inverse proportion.
b. direct proportion.
c. J-shaped curve.
d. U-shaped curve.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which animal would display a U-shaped curve of oxygen consumption per unit of
time relative to speed?
a. Sockeye salmon
b. Kangaroo
c. Ground squirrel
d. Magpie
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. Based on the study done by Taylor et al. (1970), the animal whose rate of oxygen
consumption relative to its running speed creates a linear plot is a
a. lizard.
b. magpie.
c. trout.
d. ground squirrel.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. As a human runs faster, her metabolic rate
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. decreases first and then increases.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Which rate would allow an animal to continue walking for the longest period of time?
a. 15 kJ/min
b. 20 kJ/min
c. 25 kJ/min
d. 30 kJ/min
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Which rate would be most advantageous for a fish trying to swim for the longest
period of time?
a. 1 m/h
b. 2 m/h
c. 3 m/h
d. 4 m/h
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. For animals of any given body size, engaging in their primary form of locomotion,
which activity would be the most energetically costly to cover a long distance?
a. Walking
b. Running at a high speed
c. Swimming (in fish)
d. Flying (in birds)
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. For animals of any given body size, engaging in their primary form of locomotion,
which is the least energetically costly way to cover a long distance?
a. Walking
b. Running at a high speed
c. Swimming (in fish)
d. Flying (in birds)
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Comparing animals that share a single primary mode of locomotion, large bodied
species will cover distances at a _______ weight-specific cost than small bodied species.
a. lower
b. slightly higher
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. higher
d. much higher
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. An animal weighing _______ kg can cover the greatest distance before running out of
fat (assuming all the animals have the same proportion of body fat).
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 500
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which animal covers the largest distance at the lowest weight-specific cost?
a. Millipede
b. Mouse
c. Dog
d. Horse
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. Which organism would have the lowest cost of transport?
a. Duck
b. Fish
c. Goose
d. Human
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. Which statement regarding an individual riding a bike and a running individual is
true?
a. The individual cyclist will have less cost of transport than the runner.
b. The runner will have less cost of transport than the cyclist.
c. Both individuals will have the same cost of energy.
d. The runner will have more cost of energy during the first ten minutes and then he will
have less.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
23. The speed that _______ the cost of transport is the speed that _______ the distance
that can be traveled with a given amount of energy.
a. maximizes; maximizes
b. sustains; maximizes
c. minimizes; maximizes
d. minimizes; minimizes
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24.–28. Refer to the figure below.
24. Choose the most appropriate label for the x axis.
a. Body weight (kg) on a log scale
b. Body weight (g)
c. Body weight (g) on a log scale
d. Swimming speed (m/s)
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Choose the most appropriate units for the y axis.
a. J/m•s
b. J/h•g
c. J/m•kg
d. J/g•h
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. Which data point indicates the most efficient swimmer?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
27. Of the three groups of data represented by the circled data points and the two lines, to
which group would a human belong?
a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group C
d. The data point for the human would fall outside of these groups
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28. If you were to plot a swimming mouse on this figure, where would the data point go?
a. Close to I
b. Close to III
c. Close to VI
d. Close to V
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
29. Energy production is highly correlated with the amount of
a. food consumed.
b. oxygen consumed.
c. water excreted.
d. carbohydrates used.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. If animal A has a V̇O2max of 22.4 ml/g•h and animal B has a V̇O2max of 24 ml/ g•h,
a. animal A can produce more energy.
b. animal B can produce more energy.
c. both animals can produce the same amount of energy.
d. animal A can produce more energy if it is bigger.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. V̇O2max refers to an animal’s
a. capacity to use fat as a source of energy.
b. maximum oxygen consumption.
c. maximum oxygen usage.
d. maximum energy production.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
32. Of the following values, an exercise requiring _______ of V̇O2max is the most
strenuous.
a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 65%
d. 75%
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. Assuming the same body size, an individual who is _______ years old would have
the lowest V̇O2max.
a. 35
b. 40
c. 50
d. 55
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Assuming individuals of the same body size, a person who is _______ years old
would have the most difficulty performing an exercise that requires 65% V̇O2max.
a. 35
b. 40
c. 50
d. 55
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Assuming individuals of the same body size, one who is at _______ would have the
lowest V̇O2max.
a. sea level
b. 500 feet above sea level
c. 1000 feet above sea level
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. 1500 feet above sea level
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. The symmorphosis hypothesis states that
a. the circulatory system is the “weakest link.”
b. V̇O2max is the maximal amount of oxygen consumed.
c. all systems have the same limitations when it comes to oxygen transport.
d. the consumed amount of oxygen is correlated with the amount of ATP produced.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. According to many physiologists, the _______ system is considered to be the
“weakest link” regarding V̇O2max.
a. circulatory
b. nervous
c. muscular
d. digestive
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
38. When comparing the difference in V̇O2max and resting O2 consumption at the same
temperature, we are referring to the
a. symmorphosis.
b. aerobic scope of activity.
c. aerobic expansibility.
d. aerobic capacity.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. According to the symmorphosis hypothesis, the skeletal system
a. and the circulatory system have the same capability regarding oxygen consumption.
b. has a higher capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the circulatory
system.
c. has a lower capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the circulatory
system.
d. has a lower capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the pulmonary
system.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
40. When looking at the ratio of V̇O2max to resting O2 consumption at the same
temperature, we are referring to
a. symmorphosis.
b. aerobic scope of activity.
c. aerobic expansibility.
d. aerobic capacity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its V̇O2max is 10
mL/g•h, its aerobic scope of activity will be _______ mL/g•h.
a. 9
b. 10
c. 0.1
d. 11
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its V̇O2max is 10
mL/g•h, its aerobic expansibility will be
a. 0.1.
b. 0.1 mL/g•h.
c. 10 mL/g•h.
d. 10.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its aerobic
expansibility is 10, its V̇O2max will be
a. 0.1.
b. 0.1 mL/g•h.
c. 10 mL/g•h.
d. 10.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44. If an organism has a V̇O2max of 5 mL/g•h, and its aerobic expansibility is 5, its resting
oxygen consumption will be
a. 1.
b. 1 mL/g•h.
c. 10 mL/g•h.
d. 10.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
45. If an organism has a V̇O2max of 10mL/g•h, and its aerobic scope of activity is 8
mL/g•h, its resting oxygen consumption will be _______ mL/g•h.
a. 2
b. 8
c. 0.1
d. 18
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. If a human has a V̇O2max of 2.5 ml O2/kg•min, his O2 consumption at rest is about
_______ O2/kg•min.
a. 0.025
b. 0.25
c. 2.5
d. 20
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. If a human has a resting O2 consumption of 10 mL/kg•min, her V̇O2max consumption
is _______ mL O2/kg•min.
a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 250
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. A pronghorn can run for a longer period of time than a cheetah because a pronghorn
a. is adapted to aerobic respiration during running while the cheetah relies on anaerobic
cellular respiration.
b. achieves faster speeds than the cheetah does.
c. has stronger sprinting skeletal muscles than the cheetah does.
d. more glycogen in its muscles than the cheetah does.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. An athlete weighs 70 kg. His V̇O2max is 30 mL/kg•min. After 6 months of regular
endurance training, his V̇O2max could be as high as _______ mL/kg•min.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. 10
b. 19
c. 39
d. 100
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Which animal will have the fastest rate of aerobic ATP production per unit of body
mass?
a. Lizard
b. Monkey
c. Salamander
d. They will all have the same rate
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
51. According to the study done by Lindstedt (1991), which animal has the highest
V̇O2max?
a. Horse
b. Dog
c. Fox
d. Pronghorn
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
52. An untrained sedentary person has a V̇O2max measured at 40 mL/kg•min. After 10
weeks of intense endurance training, this person’s aerobic performance has improved. A
reasonable measurement of this person’s V̇O2max would be _______ mL/kg•min.
a. 40
b. 48
c. 80
d. 100
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
53. Individual A has a V̇O2max of 30 mL O2/kg•min. Individual B has a V̇O2max of 60 mL
O2/kg•min. If both individuals are competing in a soccer activity, who will be able
compete for a longer period of time?
a. Individual A because he has a lower V̇O2max.
b. Individual B because he has a higher V̇O2max.
c. Both individuals will get tired at the same time.
d. Individual A because he has a higher capacity to produce ATP.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
54. Which activity requires the highest V̇O2max?
a. Long distance running
b. Canoeing
c. Ice hockey
d. Cross-country skiing
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
55. Which is the optimal temperature for bumblebees to fly at?
a. 15°C
b. 20°C
c. 25°C
d. 30°C
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Ecological Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Explain in detail how metabolism is studied in running animals.
Answer: For running animals, an animal stands on a motor-driven treadmill. The belt is
driven at a specific rate by a motor. The animal’s rate of O2 consumption is measured as
the speed of a treadmill is varied. Devices attached to the animal’s mouth ensure accurate
gas exchange readings. This method permits investigators to describe the relation
between speed and the metabolic cost of locomotion.
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. What are some specific characteristics of the relationship between the metabolic cost
per unit time and the speed of locomotion in swimming, running, and flying animals?
Answer: In swimming animals, such as a fish, the metabolic rate typically increases in a
J-shaped power function as speed increases. This relationship occurs because the drag
that a fish must overcome to move through water increases approximately in proportion
to the square of its speed of swimming.
In running animals, the metabolic rate usually increases as a linear function of the speed.
The relationship applies for running insects and terrestrial crabs as well.
In flying animals, the aerodynamic theory predicts a U-shaped relationship between
metabolic rate and speed.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What is the significance of V̇O2max in metabolism studies?
Answer: V̇O2max is a key property in studies of aerobic activity. It determines the peak rate
at which an animal can synthesize ATP by aerobic catabolism. Thus, it determines how
intensely an animal can exercise in a pay-as-you-go mode. A second reason that V̇O2max is
important is that the maximal rate of O2 consumption provides a benchmark by which to
judge the strenuousness of all aerobic physical activity.
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. What is the relationship between V̇O2max and aging? What effect does the change in
V̇O2max have on the type of exercise performed?
Answer: As people age beyond young adulthood, their V̇O2max tends to decline; after age
30; the decline is about 9% per decade for sedentary people. The rate of decline is only
about 5% for active individuals. Because of the decline in V̇O2max, an activity that requires
any particular absolute rate of O2 consumption tends to demand an ever-greater
proportion of V̇O2max as people age. Thus, the same activity becomes more strenuous. For
example, a form of exercise that demands 35% of V̇O2max in youth might require 50% in
old age; the exercise would thus shift from being sustainable for 8–10 hours in youth to
being sustainable for half that time in older age.
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. What are the physiological causes of the limits of oxygen consumption?
Answer: Some physiologists argue that a particular organ system sets the limit on V̇O2max.
For instance, some believe the circulatory system is the “weak link” in mammals, arguing
that all other organ systems could transport and use O2 at a greater rate if it were not for
the limits on how fast the circulatory system can transport O2. Another view is the
hypothesis of symmorphosis, which states that all organ systems that serve a single
function in an animal are interactively adapted to have approximately equal limits
because it would make no sense for any one system to have evolved capabilities that
could never be used because of more-restrictive limits in other systems.
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Suppose at a particular body temperature, a fish has a resting oxygen consumption rate
of 0.05 mL/g•h and an aerobic expansibility of 6. What is its aerobic scope?
Answer: Aerobic expansibility = V̇O2max/resting O2 consumption
V̇O2max = Aerobic expansibility  resting O2 consumption
V̇O2max = 6  0.05 mL/g•h
V̇O2max = 0.3 mL/g•h
Aerobic scope = V̇O2max – resting O2 consumption
Aerobic scope = (0.3 – 0.05) = 0.25 mL/g•h
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Explain how V̇O2max changes with endurance training.
Answer: As a result of endurance training, aerobic ATP production is improved and
V̇O2max increases. One reason for the increase in V̇O2max is the widespread change in gene
expression in exercising muscles. Endurance training effects an increase in numbers of
mitochondria in muscle cells and upregulation of mitochondrial enzymes of aerobic
catabolism, such as citrate synthase (or other CAC enzymes) and cytochrome oxidase (an
electron-transport enzyme). Other changes that affect V̇O2max include increases in muscle
glucose transporters, the density of blood capillaries in muscles, and the heart’s capacity
to pump blood.
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What is the fuel that birds store and use to meet their energy needs during migration?
How are birds are able to use this energy source?
Answer: Most of the energy used by birds during long distance migration comes from
stored fat. Birds accumulate fat prior to migration (they often increase 50–100% in body
weight) and use their stored fat during migration. Some of the organs that are involved in
building up fat stores shrink substantially after the fuel-storage phase and during
migration, thereby lightening the load that must be transported. Birds appear to have
highly developed mechanisms for fatty acid transport across cell membranes. Although
fatty acids are water-insoluble, birds have highly developed mechanisms for solubilizing
fatty acids, (formation of lipoprotein complexes) so the fatty acids can be distributed to
the working muscles from storage depots.
Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. In birds, what is the advantage of using proteins as a source of energy during
migration?
Answer: Although birds do not store proteins for energy use as they do fat, organ
reductions effectively free proteins for metabolism. About 10% of the energy used during
migration comes from protein catabolism. The brain needs glucose as a source of energy,
and the extra protein, due to organ reduction, undergoes gluconeogenesis to increase
glucose availability in the circulation to be used in the brain for ATP production.
Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Bumblebees require a specific flight muscle temperature to fly. What is this
temperature and how do bumblebees maintain it during flight and while hovering
between flowers?
Answer: Bumblebees require their flight muscles to be 30°C or higher to fly. They
maintain this temperature in flight by the heat produced from the flying muscles. When
bees land on flowers in cool weather, however, their temperature may decrease enough to
prevent them from taking off again. To keep their flight muscles warm while they are
alighted on flowers, bees produce heat by a process analogous to human shivering. The
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
intensity and energetic cost of this form of shivering becomes greater as the air
temperature decreases. Although shivering may be unnecessary at air temperatures
greater than 25°C, shivering at 5°C may raise a stationary bee’s metabolic rate to a level
necessary for flight.
Textbook Reference: Ecological Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. What is the best method for studying metabolic rate in animals in the wild?
a. Place the animal on a treadmill.
b. Inject them with deuterium and oxygen-18 then measure levels after the animal
engages in its normal behavior for a period of time.
c. Place the flying/swimming animal in a wind/water tunnel.
d. Use a mask and a valve system on the animal.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Which of the following isotopes is(are) used in the doubly labeled water method?
a. D216O
b. H218O
c. Both D216O and H218O
d. 14C
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Another term for ADMR is
a. telemetric device.
b. time–energy budget.
c. field metabolic rate.
d. D2 method.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. If an animal spends 4 hours a day chasing prey and 20 hours a day resting, its total
daily cost of behavior in kilojoules is
a. 5 KJ/day.
b. 16 KJ/day.
c. 24 KJ/day.
d. Insufficient data is provided to calculate the daily cost of behavior.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. An animal that spends 3 hours a day running from predators and 20 hours a day resting
(using 20 KJ/hour) has a total daily cost of behavior of 700 KJ. The total energy spent
running from predators is
a. 100 KJ/day.
b. 200 KJ/day.
c. 300 KJ/day.
d. 400 KJ/day.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. Which animal would display a J-shaped curve for its rate of oxygen consumption
relative to its speed?
a. Kangaroo
b. Sockeye salmon
c. Ground squirrel
d. Bird
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. An animal that weighs _______ will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate.
a. 65 g
b. 70 g
c. 65 kg
d. 80 kg
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Which type of migration is most favored by natural selection?
a. Long-distance migration
b. Short-distance migration
c. Long-distance migration, but only if the cost of covering distance is relatively low
d. Short-distance migration, but only if the cost of covering distance is relatively low
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
9. Which animal has the most expensive mode of locomotion?
a. Cheetah
b. Bird
c. Dolphin
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Eagle
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Cost of transport is the
a. energy cost for a unit of time.
b. energy cost of covering a unit of distance.
c. amount of fat required to a traverse a unit of distance.
d. speed required to travel a unit of distance.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which of the following is the most energetically expensive way to cover distance?
a. Running
b. Swimming
c. Flying
d. Both running and swimming
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. In vertebrates, V̇O2max is about _______ than resting O2 consumption.
a. 5 times lower
b. 2 times higher
c. 5 times higher
d. 10 times higher
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. An organism with a resting oxygen consumption of 1 mL/g•hr and an aerobic scope
for activity of 10 mL/g•hr will have a V̇O2max of _______ mL/g•hr.
a. 0.1
b. 0.11
c. 9
d. 11
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
14. The conventional unit of measure for V̇O2max in humans is
a. mL O2/kg•min.
b. mL O2/lbs•min.
c. mL O2/kg•hr.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. mL O2/lbs•hr.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Which of the following does not occur in endurance training to maximize V̇O2max
a. Increase in number of mitochondria
b. Increase in density of blood capillaries
c. Increase in small intestine glucose transporters
d. Increase in mitochondrial enzymes
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which enzyme increases during endurance training?
a. Hexokinase
b. Phosphofructokinase
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Citrate synthase
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. When training a group of athletes to increase their endurance, which change would
occur after 3 months of training?
a. V̇O2max would not change.
b. V̇O2max would increase.
c. Blood testosterone level would increase.
d. Blood testosterone level would decrease.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. In the general population of 20–50-year-old humans, ADMR tends to vary from
_______ to _______ times the BMR.
a. 1; 2
b. 2; 4
c. 1.2; 2.5
d. 2.5; 3.5
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Energetics of Routine and Extreme Daily Life
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which change occurs when migratory birds reduce their organ function?
a. Glucose synthesis from amino acids increases.
b. Protein anabolism increases.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Amino acid usage as a source of energy decreases.
d. Usage of fatty acids as a source of energy in the brain increases.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Which molecule is used as the principle fuel in migratory birds?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Nucleic acids
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 10: Thermal Relations
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. An ectotherm is also called a
a. thermoregulator.
b. thermoconformer.
c. homeotherm.
d. poikilotherm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. A homeotherm is a
a. nonthermoregulating poikilotherm.
b. thermoregulating ectotherm.
c. nonthermoregulating endotherm.
d. thermoregulating endotherm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Most animals are _______. Most endotherms are _______.
a. endotherms; thermoregulators
b. ectotherms; thermoconformers
c. endotherms; nonthermoregulators
d. ectotherms; thermoregulators
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Suppose that due to global climate change, the average minimum air temperature
during January increased by 4°C. What would be the likely effect on the northern range
limit for birds such as the eastern phoebe?
a. The limit would move farther north to the new ‒4°C isotherm.
b. The limit would move farther north to the new 0°C isotherm.
c. The limit would move farther north to the new 4°C isotherm.
d. The limit would move farther south.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which of the following is not one of the mechanisms by which animals exchange heat
with their environment?
a. Convection
b. Evaporation
c. Metabolic heat production
d. Thermal radiation
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which statement about an animal’s body temperature is true?
a. The body temperature of a poikilotherm is always constant.
b. The body temperature of an endotherm is always constant.
c. Body temperature will remain constant when heat gained is equal to heat lost.
d. Body temperature is always constant because metabolic heat production is equal to
heat exchanged by thermal radiation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. When the body temperature of ghost crabs is raised from 15°C to 24°C, resting
metabolic rate and V̇O2max both increase, but the increase in V̇O2max is much greater than
the increase in resting metabolic rate. Given this information, what would be the likely
result if ghost crabs in nature experienced conditions that raised their typical body
temperature from 15°C to 24°C?
a. Aerobic scope and capacity for aerobic exercise would increase.
b. Aerobic scope and capacity for aerobic exercise would decrease.
c. Aerobic scope would decrease and capacity for aerobic exercise would increase.
d. Aerobic scope would increase and capacity for aerobic exercise would decrease.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. For animals, an advantage of fur is that
a. if the air it traps is motionless, heat is transferred by convection.
b. if the air it traps is motionless, heat is transferred by conduction.
c. it has a high convection coefficient.
d. it has a high thermal conductivity.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
9. Besides temperature, the factor that is important for conduction, convection, and
thermal radiation is
a. thermal conductivity.
b. wind speed.
c. emissivity.
d. surface area.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. All else being equal, the convective coefficient (per unit area) is likely to be highest
when wind speed is _______ and animal size (diameter) is _______.
a. high; low
b. high; high
c. low; low
d. low; high
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Evaporation is an effective mechanism for cooling because the latent heat of
a. vaporization for water is large.
b. vaporization for water is small.
c. fusion for water is large.
d. fusion for water is small.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Suppose that an animal is sweating profusely. The dripping of sweat off the animal’s
surface
a. cools the animal due to the latent heat of condensation.
b. heats the animal due to the latent heat of fusion.
c. cools the animal due to the latent heat of vaporization.
d. does not contribute to heating or cooling of the animal.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. Animals, plants, and other objects in the natural environment generally emit radiation
at wavelengths of _______ or longer.
a. 3–4 nm
b. 3–4 m
c. 3–4 mm
d. 3–4 m
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Per unit of surface area, animals emit _______ radiation than the sun; at wavelengths
shorter than 3 m, they emit _______ radiation than the sun.
a. more; more
b. more; less
c. less; more
d. less; less
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. When thermal radiation strikes an object, it is
a. absorbed.
b. reflected or absorbed.
c. absorbed or transmitted (pass through).
d. reflected, absorbed, or transmitted (pass through).
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. On an overcast night, as opposed to a night with a clear sky, the thermal environment
experienced by a desert rodent will be
a. warmer because less radiant heat is lost to an overcast sky.
b. warmer because the rodent has lower emissivity when the sky is overcast.
c. cooler because the rodent has higher emissivity when the sky is overcast.
d. cooler because the atmosphere’s convective coefficient is increased by an overcast sky.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. You are in Las Vegas in summer and you see a dog tied to a fence with no access to
shade. As the dog is obviously having problems with the heat, what would be the fastest
means of cooling the dog’s internal temperature?
a. Put the dog in an 87°F pool of water.
b. Put a few ice cubes in the dog’s water bowl.
c. Put the dog in the shade and near a fan.
d. Shave the dog’s fur off.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. Animals most commonly use _______ in terms of their thermal relationship with the
environment.
a. poikilothermy.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. endothermy.
c. thigmothermy.
d. homeothermy.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Behavioral thermoregulation depends on _______ of the thermal environment and
preferential selection of _______ sites within the environment.
a. heterogeneity; particular
b. heterogeneity; sunny
c. homogeneity; sunny
d. homogeneity; particular
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. The three time frames over which animals respond physiologically to environmental
change are
a. acclimation, acclimatization, and adaptation.
b. acute, chronic, and evolutionary.
c. eons, eras, and periods.
d. behavioral, physiological, and cognitive.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. Based on how the metabolic rates of ectotherms and endotherms respond to
temperature, at which temperature would you expect the differences in metabolic rates
between ectotherms and endotherms to be largest? (Hint: Think about the response curve
of each type of animal to environmental temperature.)
a. 5°C
b. 15°C
c. 25°C
d. 35°C
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. Suppose an animal has a metabolic rate of 3 ml O2/h at 10°C? The Q10 is 2. What is
its metabolic rate at 20°C?
a. 2 ml O2/h
b. 3 ml O2/h
c. 6 ml O2/h
d. 9 ml O2/h
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Suppose an animal has a metabolic rate of 10 ml O2/h at 20°C. The Q10 is 2.5. What is
its metabolic rate at 10°C?
a. 2.5 ml O2/h
b. 4 ml O2/h
c. 10 ml O2/h
d. 25 ml O2/h
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. Most commonly, the slope of the line depicting the chronic response of metabolic rate
to temperature is _______ the slope of the lines depicting the acute response of metabolic
rate to temperature.
a. parallel to but higher than
b. parallel to but lower than
c. steeper than
d. shallower than
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. Compensation is acclimation via
a. behavioral changes.
b. metabolic rate changes.
c. postural changes.
d. changes in vasculature diameter.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
26. Performance curves
a. should always be calculated acutely.
b. should always be calculated chronically.
c. are equivalent to measurements of evolutionary fitness.
d. can be used to calculate critical temperatures.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. In aquatic poikilotherms, the most likely reason for impairment of function in the
pejus range is
a. destruction of DNA.
b. irreversible denaturation of proteins.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. oxygen limitation.
d. disruption of osmotic balance.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. The maximum sprinting speeds of lizards
a. are always highest near a body temperature of 40°C.
b. are often well-correlated with the average body temperature of the species in nature.
c. often peak at lower temperatures.
d. are uncorrelated with body temperature.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. Enzyme–substrate affinity
a. generally decreases with temperature.
b. generally increases with temperature.
c. does not vary with temperature.
d. increases with temperature in eurythermal species but decreases with temperature in
stenothermal species.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. At any given temperature, LDH–substrate affinity _______ across species of
poikilotherms; at the temperatures at which these species typically live in nature, LDH–
substrate affinity _______ across species.
a. varies; varies
b. is similar; varies
c. varies; is similar
d. is similar; is similar
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Antarctic fur seals live in cold water, thermoregulate, and maintain elevated core
body temperatures. Manatees, another marine mammal, live in warm water,
thermoregulate, and maintain elevated core body temperatures. Based on general
principles, one would predict that for Antarctic fur seals, the effect of temperature on
enzyme–substrate activity would be similar to that of _______-water fish, and for
manatees it would be similar to that of _______-water fish.
a. stenothermal cold; stenothermal warm
b. eurythermal cold; eurythermal warm
c. stenothermal cold; eurythermal warm
d. stenothermal warm; stenothermal warm
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32. When carp or goldfish that are acclimated to warm temperatures are subsequently
acclimated to colder temperatures, their swimming performance is impaired initially but
then improves over time. Which of the following is thought to be the most likely
explanation?
a. Shifts in myosin isoforms and shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis and the Krebs
cycle
b. Shifts in myosin isoforms, but no shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis or the Krebs
cycle
c. Shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, but no shifts in myosin
isoforms
d. Shifts in the amounts of enzymes for glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, but no shifts in
myosin isoforms
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. Some animals can survive freezing and others cannot. Which of the following is
associated with the ability of animals to survive freezing?
a. Freezing of the intracellular and extracellular fluids
b. Freezing of the intracellular fluids only
c. Freezing of the extracellular fluids only
d. Their colligative properties
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. Over evolutionary time, membrane fluidity can be maintained at lower temperatures
by
a. adding cholesterol to the membranes.
b. adding more saturation to the phospholipids.
c. unsaturating the phospholipids.
d. making the membranes thinner.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. Antifreezes are synthesized primarily by
a. marine and freshwater fish.
b. amphibians and marine fish.
c. insects and marine fish.
d. insects and amphibians.
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
36.–40. Refer to the figure below.
36. Fish were housed under three different temperature conditions. Their response to
acute and chronic temperature changes is plotted on the figure. What is the property most
likely to be plotted on the y axis?
a. Rate of oxygen consumption
b. Mass-specific metabolic rate
c. Metabolic rate on a log scale
d. Ventilation rate
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which line best represents the acute response line of animals acclimated to the
coldest temperature?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. Which line best represents the chronic response of animals being cooled from 30°C to
10°C?
a. I
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. What will happen to line IV as temperature continues to increase beyond the scale of
the visible x axis?
a. The line will continue along the same slope indefinitely.
b. The line will slope downward at 30°C until it reaches 0.
c. The line will continue along the same slope, but ultimately turn downward.
d. The line will increase along slope it reached at 30°C until the animal dies.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40.–42. Refer to the figure below.
40. Multiple species of poikilotherms that naturally experience different body
temperatures are shown in the figure. The response of each species at multiple
temperatures is plotted on the figure. What is the most appropriate label for the y axis?
a. Oxygen consumption
b. Metabolic rate
c. Enzyme-substrate affinity
d. Rate of performance
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Which line indicates the species that naturally experiences the narrowest body
temperature range?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. Which line indicates the species that needs to be coldest for enzyme function to be in
the range favored by evolution?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. Dry heat transfer refers to heat exchange
a. by convection only.
b. by conduction and convection only.
c. by conduction, convection, and thermal radiation.
d. in any environment with low humidity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. With respect to heat flow between animals and their environments, high conductance
corresponds to _______ insulation and to _______ resistance to heat loss
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. For a typical bird or mammal, the slope of the line below the thermoneutral zone
equals _______ and is steeper for an animal with _______ insulation and higher thermal
conductance.
a. C; higher
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. C; lower
c. –C; lower
d. –C; higher
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. Compared to the average field metabolic rates for a nonavian reptile, the average field
metabolic rate of a similar size bird or mammal is
a. twice as high.
b. 4–10 times higher.
c. 12–20 times higher.
d. 100–300 times higher.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. Birds adjust their insulation via
a. ptilomotor and vascular responses.
b. ptilomotor, vascular, and postural responses.
c. ptilomotor, vascular, postural, and thermogenic responses.
d. ptilomotor, vascular, postural responses, and nonshivering thermogenesis.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. Uncoupling protein 1 is critical for
a. freeze tolerance.
b. brown adipose tissue.
c. mitochondria in birds.
d. supercooling.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. In winter, some birds stand on frozen ponds and lakes. How do they prevent their feet
from freezing while simultaneously preventing excessive heat loss?
a. By alternately standing on one foot and then the other
b. By metabolizing brown adipose tissue in their lower legs and feet
c. By selective shivering
d. By allowing their feet to cool below core temperature but remain above freezing
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. A rete mirabile is
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. a specialized tissue for heat production.
b. a part of the body whose temperature differs from the core body temperature.
c. the splitting of arteries and veins into many intermingling finer vessels.
d. the controller “thermostat” for body temperature.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. In a very hot environment, the benefit of hyperthermia is that it
a. saves water and reduces heat gain.
b. saves water, but does not reduce heat gain.
c. reduces heat gain, although it does not save water.
d. maintains the lipid structure in the skin that prevents dehydration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
52. Which method of evaporative water loss can induce respiratory alkalosis?
a. Gular fluttering
b. Panting
c. Saliva spreading
d. Sweating
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53. Which group includes only forms of hypothermia?
a. Estivation, hibernation, and torpor
b. Thermogenesis, hibernation, and torpor
c. Shivering, thermogenesis, and metabolic heat production
d. Gular fluttering, panting, and sweating
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
54. Suppose that a mammal that was a temporal heterotherm needed to survive in a
winter environment with severely limited food resources. At which of the following mean
ambient temperatures would the animal most likely survive the winter?
a. 5°C
b. 10°C
c. 15°C
d. 25°C
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
55. _______ describes the process of rewarming of the tissues of a mammal after
controlled hypothermia.
a. Metabolic acclimatization
b. Endothermy
c. Q10 effect
d. Arousal
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
56.–59. Refer to the figure below.
56. One species of homeotherm under two different environmental conditions was
exposed to the temperature changes shown in the figure. What is the most appropriate
label for the y axis?
a. Maximum metabolic rate
b. Resting mass-specific oxygen consumption
c. Body temperature
d. Membrane-lipid fluidity
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. Data from which species is most likely represented in this figure?
a. Mouse
b. Naked human
c. Fox
d. Rabbit
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
58. Which term best describes what was studied in this experiment?
a. Acclimatization
b. Metabolic rate
c. Heterothermy
d. Thermal tolerance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
59. In the following list, what is the lowest lower-critical temperature represented in this
figure?
a. –50°C
b. –14°C
c. 0°C
d. 10°C
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
60. The dromedary camel can survive without drinking water for days because of
a. the water stored in its humps.
b. its very large bladder, which stores water.
c. daily heat loading and unloading.
d. its very low metabolic rate.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
61. Compared to a summer acclimatized fox, what is a winter fox’s resting metabolic rate
when both are placed at –50°C?
a. Resting metabolic rate in the winter fox is higher than the summer fox.
b. Resting metabolic rate in the winter fox is lower than the summer fox.
c. Resting metabolic rate in both foxes will be similar.
d. There is not enough information to predict the relationship of their resting metabolic
rates.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
62. What happens to a homeotherm’s resting metabolic rate when the temperature is
outside its thermoneutral zone?
a. Resting metabolic rate goes up.
b. Resting metabolic rate goes down.
c. Answer depends on whether it is too hot or too cold.
d. Resting metabolic rate does not change.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
63. In 10°C ocean water, you would expect the tip of a killer whale’s flipper to be about
a. 37°C
b. 8°C
c. 12°C
d. 45°C
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
64. Which structure has a physiological function that shares major similarities with the
function of brown adipose tissues?
a. Stomach of lamnid sharks
b. Parts of the extraocular eye muscles of billfishes
c. Red swimming muscles in tunas
d. White swimming muscles in tunas
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
65. What is the minimum number of times that endothermy has evolved independently in
vertebrates?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
66. Endothermy in insects
a. typically is restricted to the abdomen.
b. typically is restricted to the thorax.
c. occurs only in the largest insects.
d. occurs only during flight.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endothermy and Homeothermy in Insects
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
67. Which statement about insect flight is true?
a. In order to fly, all insects require high abdominal and high thoracic temperatures.
b. In order to fly, all insects require high thoracic but not high abdominal temperatures.
c. In order to fly, all insects require elevated flight muscle temperatures.
d. Some insects can fly despite low abdominal and low thoracic temperatures.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Endothermy and Homeothermy in Insects
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. Why can warmer winter temperatures have a negative impact on hibernators?
Answer: Warmer temperatures lead to higher metabolic rates than colder temperatures.
Since hibernators have to live off of stored fat or stored food, warmer temperatures are
likely to result in increased hunger, increased or early arousal, and, ultimately, an
increased likelihood of starvation.
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
2. How might a vapor barrier liner in a sleeping bag decrease a person’s heat loss when
camping outside in the cold?
Answer: By reducing water loss, the amount of heat lost via evaporation will be reduced.
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. How would the emissivities (e) of a desert rodent and a desert lizard compare at
wavelengths of 3‒4 mm or longer?
Answer: They would be about the same because all organisms have similar emissivities
at these wavelengths.
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Why is it that the body temperatures of terrestrial poikilotherms can substantially
exceed air temperature but body temperatures of aquatic poikilotherms are generally very
close to water temperature?
Answer: On land, thermal radiation can increase body temperature above the air
temperature. In water, thermal radiation would heat the surface of the water, not the
animal. The conductance of water is also very high such that true poikilotherms
essentially match water temperature.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. On hot days some dragonflies tip their abdomen and point it directly at the sun. From
the perspective of heat exchange, what effect might this have and why?
Answer: It may reduce heat gain from solar radiation and thereby help prevent the
dragonfly from overheating.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. Suppose you use inanimate lizard models to comprehensively and randomly sample
the thermal environment of a lizard’s habitat. You then compare that distribution of
inanimate model temperatures with the distribution of actual body temperatures from
lizards in that habitat. If the distributions differ, what does the discrepancy indicate?
Answer: It indicates that the lizards are behaviorally thermoregulating.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. You collect lizards from three populations, immediately measure each lizard’s
metabolic rate at 20°C, and find that the rates differ among the lizards. Other than genetic
differences among the populations, what factor could these differences be attributed to?
Answer: The populations may have been acclimatized to different conditions.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
8. Human blood has an osmolarity of about 300 mOsm and shark blood has an osmolarity
of about 1000 mOsm. If you collected blood samples from both humans and sharks and
attempted to freeze them, which would freeze at a lower temperature?
Answer: The shark blood would freeze at a lower temperature because its solute
concentration is greater. More concentrated solutions freeze at lower temperatures.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Why are antifreezes unimportant for most birds and mammals?
Answer: Most birds and mammals maintain high body temperatures that do not come
close to levels at which freezing would occur.
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Why is insulatory acclimatization typically more important for medium-sized and
large mammals than for small mammals?
Answer: Small species cannot have as thick a pelage given their size, so they rely more
on metabolic acclimatization. Larger species can more readily adjust their pelage
(insulation), which is a more energy-efficient strategy.
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. What are two major benefits of controlled hypothermia in birds and mammals?
Answer: Controlled hypothermia permits conservation of energy and water.
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
1. All animals produce heat but only some are endothermic. This is because
a. only endotherms produce heat fast enough or retain it well enough to elevate tissue
temperatures.
b. ectotherms are too small to be endothermic.
c. ectotherms cannot thermoregulate.
d. thermoregulation requires endothermy.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. If a 3800-kg elephant and a 20-g mouse both have body temperatures of 37°C, which
statement would be true?
a. The temperatures of the animals and the amount of heat they contain are similar but
different.
b. Both animals have the same temperature and contain the same amount of heat.
c. Both animals have the same temperature but contain different amounts of heat.
d. Both animals have the same temperature but the average molecular speed inside the
mouse is faster.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Temperature and Heat
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. What is the key distinction between conduction and convection?
a. In conduction, the atoms of the substance participate in transfer of heat, but in
convection they do not.
b. In convection, the atoms of the substance participate in transfer of heat, but in
conduction they do not.
c. Convection involves heat transfer through macroscopic motion.
d. Conduction involves heat transfer through macroscopic motion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Hradiative emission =   Tsurface4 is known as
a. the heat balance equation.
b. Bergmann’s rule.
c. the second law of thermodynamics.
d. the Stefan-Boltzmann equation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. The effects of animal coloration on heat balance are
a. greater at night.
b. greater in sunlight.
c. unaffected by sunlight.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. primarily via convection.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Compared to light-colored animals, dark-colored animals absorb _______ short
wavelength radiation and _______ longer wavelength radiation.
a. more; less
b. less; more
c. about the same amount of; more
d. more; about the same amount of
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. An animal that can function effectively over a wide range of temperatures and cannot
elevate its tissue temperature above the environmental temperature is a
a. stenothermal poikilotherm.
b. stenothermal endotherm.
c. eurythermal endotherm.
d. eurythermal poikilotherm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. As environmental temperature increases, a poikilotherm’s metabolic rate
a. stays the same if it is within its thermoneutral zone.
b. increases linearly.
c. increases exponentially.
d. can either increase or decrease, depending on the species.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. If metabolic rate (M) were a true exponential function of the body temperature (TB) of
an ectotherm, which equation would describe that relationship? (Assume that a and n are
constants for each data set.)
a. M = a·10n·TB
b. TB = aMn
c. M = aTB10·n
d. TB = aM10·n
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
10. Some Antarctic molluscs die of heat stress if their body temperature rises above 2°C
and some tropical molluscs die of cold stress if cooled to 4°C. This comparison illustrates
a. the phenomenon of acclimation.
b. the phenomenon of acclimatization.
c. the phenomenon of evolutionary specialization.
d. that the pejus temperature for molluscs is about 3°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Why do the eyes of cows and soldierfish get cold cataracts at low temperatures, while
the lenses of the Antarctic toothfish stay clear?
a. Toothfish are acclimatized to cold; cows and soldierfish are not.
b. The chemical structure of the crystalline proteins of the toothfish differ from that of the
cow and the soldierfish.
c. Toothfish have tissues that serve as heaters to keep their eyes warm in cold water; the
cow and the soldierfish do not.
d. Toothfish are eurythermal; the cow and soldierfish are stenothermal.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. If the temperature of the oceans increased by 4°C, which organism would likely be
most affected?
a. Pagothenia (an Antarctic genus of fish)
b. The mullet (a warm water fish)
c. Temperate water gobies
d. A very eurythermal fish
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. Animals from numerous habitats tend to have relatively similar membrane fluidities
when they are living at their respective, normal body temperatures. The relative
constancy of membrane fluidity regardless of tissue temperature is called
a. lipid stabilization.
b. saturation dynamics.
c. bilayer constancy.
d. homeoviscous adaptation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy)
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Homeothermy is
a. the regulation of body temperature by physiological means.
b. the regulation of body temperature through behavior.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. the regulation of metabolic rate within the thermal neutral zone.
d. equal to basal metabolic rate plus external work.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. As a mammal experiences an increase in ambient temperature from the lower critical
temperature to the upper critical temperature, its body temperature _______, metabolic
rate _______, and thermal conductance _______.
a. increases; increases; increases
b. increases; is relatively constant; decreases
c. is relatively constant; is relatively constant; decreases
d. is relatively constant; is relatively constant; increases
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. Which mechanism is used by mammals, but not birds, to ameliorate heat stress at
temperatures above thermoneutrality?
a. Shivering
b. Sweating
c. Gular fluttering
d. Panting
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. In the studies of Hill et al., the ear temperatures of resting jackrabbits were at about
8°C when air temperature was 8°C. Immediately after running, the rabbits registered ear
temperatures higher than 30°C, but in less than 30 minutes the temperatures had returned
to about 8°C. What is the likely reason for the increase in ear temperature during
running?
a. An increase in radiative heat gain by the ears
b. An increase in convective heat gain by the ears
c. Dissipation of excess metabolic heat produced during running
d. Retention of body heat during exercise
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. During a bout of fever in a placental mammal, _______ of cutaneous vascular beds
are activated when the set point of the thermoregulatory control system is above body
temperature. When the set point of the thermoregulatory control system is below body
temperature, _______ of cutaneous vascular beds are activated.
a. sweating and vasodilation; shivering and vasoconstriction
b. sweating and vasoconstriction; shivering and vasodilation
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. shivering and vasodilation; sweating and vasoconstriction
d. shivering and vasoconstriction; sweating and vasodilation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. In a limb, a countercurrent flow arrangement of arteries and veins short-circuits the
flow of _______ down its length.
a. heat
b. oxygen
c. nutrients
d. waste products
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Antelope ground squirrels are diurnally active rodents that live in hot deserts. In
summer, they alternate between trips above-ground and trips down to their cooler
burrows. When they are above-ground their body temperature temporarily rises (transient
hyperthermia). This most likely
a. conserves energy.
b. conserves water.
c. occurs because they are not capable of thermoregulation.
d. allows them to bring heat back down into the burrows to warm their young.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. Countercurrent heat exchange is important in the _______ of a warm-bodied fish.
a. backbone
b. gills
c. red swimming muscles
d. white swimming muscles
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 11: Food, Energy, and Temperature AT WORK:
The Lives of Mammals in Frigid Places
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Reindeer have low energy costs in cold environments because of their
a. skin.
b. pelage.
c. hypodermis.
d. antlers.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. In winter, reindeer _______ is _______.
a. fur; 3–4 cm thick.
b. fur; 1–2 cm thick.
c. skin; 3–4 cm thick.
d. skin; 1–2 cm thick.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. In winter, reindeer have low energy costs because they
a. increase their heart rate.
b. change their behavior by constantly moving to warm up.
c. maintain different temperatures in different body parts.
d. hide in caves where the temperature is warmer.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. According to the experiment done by Nilssen et al. (1984), the resting metabolic rate in
adult reindeer during winter
a. increases dramatically as the air temperature changes from –40°C to –20°C.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. decreases significantly as the air temperature changes from 20°C to 40°C.
c. remains about the same as the air temperature changes from 0°C to 10°C.
d. decreases drastically as the air temperature changes from 0°C to 10°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Oleic acid is _______ and contains _______ double bond(s).
a. monounsaturated; 1
b. monounsaturated; 2
c. polyunsaturated; 1
d. polyunsaturated; 2
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Fatty acids isolated from the distal limb of a reindeer would consist of
a. unsaturated fatty acids only.
b. some saturated fatty acids and some unsaturated fatty acids.
c. fatty acids that aggregate to form triglycerides.
d. more unsaturated than saturated fatty acids.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Which statement regarding microbes in reindeer rumen is false?
a. Microbes that digest fibers are less prevalent in summer communities than winter
communities.
b. Microbes that digest cellulose are less prevalent in winter communities than summer
communities.
c. Microbes that digest proteins are more prevalent in summer communities than winter
communities.
d. Microbes that digest starch are more prevalent in summer communities than winter
communities.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. In response to seasonal diets, the microbial community in reindeer will preferentially
breakdown _______ in the winter.
a. chitin
b. fiber
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. protein
d. starch
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9.–11. Refer to the figure below.
9. What is this figure showing?
a. Maximum metabolic rate at various temperatures in summer-acclimatized and winteracclimatized reindeer
b. Resting metabolic rate at various temperatures in summer-acclimatized and winteracclimatized reindeer
c. Maximum metabolic rate at various temperatures in a northern species and southern
species of reindeer
d. Resting metabolic rate at various temperatures in a northern species and southern
species of reindeer
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. According to the figure, which animal is saving the most energy?
a. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C
b. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C
c. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C
d. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. If animals in both groups of animals were exposed to progressively higher air
temperatures than shown, and data collection from the experiment continued, what results
would you expect to see?
a. Both metabolic rates would remain flat.
b. Both metabolic rates would decrease, however, the summer-acclimatized reindeer
would decrease first.
c. Both metabolic rates would increase, however, the winter-acclimatized reindeer would
increase first.
d. Only the summer-acclimatized metabolic rates would decrease.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. Which animal has the highest mass-specific metabolic rate?
a. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C
b. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C
c. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C
d. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. As the ambient temperature drops below zero, a newborn reindeer’s resting metabolic
rate
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. decreases first and then levels off.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. If a newborn reindeer’s maximum rate of metabolic heat production is 10 watts/kg, its
resting metabolic rate is _______ watts/kg.
a. 20
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Which protein is found in brown fat?
a. UCP1
b. UCP2
c. UCP1 and UCP2
d. UCP1 and UCP3
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which hormone was used to test for brown-fat function in newborn reindeer?
a. Thyroxine
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Testosterone
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. Which marker is used to test for the presence of brown fat?
a. UCP1
b. Lactate dehydrogenase
c. UCP2
d. Hexokinase
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. In newborn humans, brown fat concentration is
a. high and remains high throughout growth.
b. low and remains low throughout growth.
c. high and declines as growth occurs.
d. low and increases as growth occurs.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. If you were to do an immunocytochemistry experiment on a newborn reindeer, a onemonth-old reindeer, and a two-month-old reindeer to test for the presence of brown fat,
your results would show a _______ amount of brown fat on the _______ compared to the
_______-month old.
a. higher; newborn; one
b. lower; newborn; one
c. lower; newborn; two
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. higher; one-month-old; two
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. The elevated rate of oxygen consumption response to norepinephrine in newborn
reindeer has declined by _______ of age.
a. one week
b. one month
c. two months
d. one year
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. The major role of brown fat is to
a. warm the body by acting as insulation.
b. provide an energy source for muscle movement by storing lots of triglycerides.
c. warm the body by nonshivering mechanisms.
d. provide a source of fat for phospholipid synthesis.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. If an adult animal had a lot of brown fat,
a. its metabolic rate would be higher at rest compared to an animal of the same size that
does not have a lot of brown fat.
b. its metabolic rate would be lower during exercise compared to an animal of the same
size that does not have a lot of brown fat.
c. it would facilitate the storage of high-energy triglycerides.
d. the metabolism of its brown fat cells would increase during exercise due to the release
of cortisol.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
23. Which would have more brown fat, a lamb born in Palm Desert or one born in
Alaska?
a. The lamb born in Alaska
b. The lamb born in Palm Desert
c. Both lambs will have an equal amount of brown fat
d. Neither; brown fat is not produced in sheep
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
24. Which newborn animal does not have brown fat?
a. Reindeer
b. Mice
c. Lamb
d. Piglet
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Studies on domestic pigs have shown that the UCP1 gene is
a. duplicated.
b. mutated during the birthing process.
c. mutated by a deletion of 2 exons.
d. mutated by a deletion of 2 introns.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
26. How do newborn piglets stay warm?
a. Very thick fur
b. Non-shivering thermogenesis
c. Shivering thermogenesis
d. Very thick layer of blubber
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
27.–28. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
27. What does the figure show?
a. Changes in fur thickness as a function of temperature in four different species
b. Changes in metabolic rate as a function of temperature in different seasons
c. Changes in nonshivering thermogenesis as a function of temperature in different aged
animals
d. Changes in metabolic rate as a function of temperature in different aged animals
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. Which line most closely approximates an adult animal in the summer season?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. Lambs born to shorn mothers _______ at birth compared to lambs born to unshorn
mothers.
a. shiver more
b. engage in exercise more
c. have more brown fat
d. have less brown fat
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. If near-term sheep fetuses with normal blood circulation are cooled inside the
uteruses of their mothers,
a. brown fat is upregulated.
b. the fetus shivers.
c. fetal metabolic rate increases.
d. nothing happens.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Which animal will have the greatest amount of brown fat, relative to its body, at
birth?
a. Lamb
b. Piglet
c. Mouse
d. Rat
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with
Large
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32. Which will favor nonshivering thermoregulation at birth, a reindeer or a mouse?
a. The reindeer, because it is a larger mammal.
b. Both mice and reindeer use nonshivering thermogenesis at birth.
c. The mouse, because it is a small mammal.
d. The mouse, because it has to avoid predators.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with
Large
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. Which mammal would be most likely to maintain some brown fat as an adult?
a. Mouse
b. Beaver
c. Dog
d. Reindeer
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with
Large
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Which statement about white-footed mice newborns is false?
a. They are born in a highly protective habitat.
b. They can fully thermoregulate in isolation.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. They do not have any fur covering their bodies.
d. They can keep warm by shivering in secluded underground burrows.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with
Large
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
35. Which of the following is an advantage for small mammals, such as lemmings, in the
winter?
a. They can escape the cold by huddling together.
b. They can thermoregulate to lower their core temperature when ambient temperatures
are –30°C.
c. They can escape the cold by living under the snow.
d. They can keep warm because they grow a very thick pelage.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with
Large
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. The single greatest option large-bodied mammals have to beat the cold environment
is
a. migration.
b. daily torpor.
c. hibernation.
d. growing fur.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold
Environments: An Overview
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which animal is most likely to have the advantage of migration to a warmer region as
winter approaches?
a. Adult white footed mouse
b. Lemming
c. Alpine marmot
d. Bighorn sheep
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold
Environments: An Overview
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Based on the relationship of metabolic rate and body weight, an animal that weighs
_______ kg as an adult is most likely to hibernate.
a. 4
b. 9
c. 10
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. 20
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate?
a. Nonhibernating mouse
b. Small reindeer
c. Bear
d. Elephant
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. An animal that weighs _______ will have the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate.
a. 100 g
b. 1000 g
c. 10 kg
d. 100 kg
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Physiologists have always pondered the relationship of body size to the evolution of
hibernation. Based on evolutionary theory, an animal of that weighs _______ kg will
have the least energy savings in hibernation.
a. 400
b. 300
c. 200
d. 100
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. Which animal will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate during
hibernation?
a. Mouse
b. Marmot
c. Bear
d. All animals listed will have the same mass-specific metabolic rate during hibernation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. Which hibernating animal will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate in the
summer?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Mouse
b. Marmot
c. Bear
d. All animals listed will have the same mass-specific metabolic rate in the summer.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44. Which animal does not hibernate?
a. Arctic ground squirrel
b. Reindeer
c. Alpine marmot
d. Hoary bat
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Permafrost is
a. soil that thaws in the summer.
b. soil that never freezes.
c. soil that never melts throughout the year.
d. frost that never melts, (e.g., icebergs).
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. Ground squirrels that live in the Arctic Circle cannot burrow deeper than _______ m.
a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 0.8
d. 1
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. During winter in the Arctic Circle, the temperature inside a ground squirrel
hibernacula could reach as low as
a. –25°C.
b. –20°C.
c. –10°C.
d. 10°C.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. The fat stored in animals prior to hibernation is in the form of
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. fatty acids.
b. glycerol.
c. triacylglycerols.
d. phospholipids.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. Which of the following is most likely the cue for animals to begin to store nutrients in
preparation for hibernation?
a. Changes in Earth’s magnetic field
b. Decrease in length of daylight in the fall
c. Change in temperature in the spring
d. Change in temperature in the fall
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. Researchers have shown that animals that consume a diet rich in _______ can tolerate
the lowest body temperature without being aroused from hibernation.
a. carbohydrates
b. protein
c. saturated fats
d. unsaturated fats
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. When experimental animals are fed different diets and their subsequent hibernation
times are measured, the animals that hibernate the most effectively are animals that were
fed a _______ diet.
a. starchy
b. polyunsaturated fatty acid
c. mixed 75% saturated and 25% unsaturated fat
d. protein
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. When experimental animals are fed different diets and their body temperature is
monitored during subsequent hibernation, the animals that tolerate the lowest body
temperature without arousal are the animals that were fed a
a. carbohydrate-rich diet.
b. polyunsaturated fatty acids diet.
c. mixed diet of 65% saturated and 35% unsaturated fat.
d. protein diet.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
53. When experimental animals are fed different diets and the length of each continuous
hibernation bout at an ambient temperature of 5° C is measured, animals that have the
shortest continuous hibernation bouts are the animals that have been fed a
a. carbohydrate-rich diet.
b. polyunsaturated fatty acids diet.
c. saturated fat diet.
d. protein-rich diet.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
54. Which type of fat is important for calcium pump function in heart cells at low
temperatures?
a. Saturated fatty acids
b. Triglycerides
c. Omega-3 fatty acids
d. Omega-6 fatty acids
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
55. An early hypothesis for arousal during hibernation was that animals
a. must wake up to metabolize glucose in their brains.
b. produce nitrogenous wastes and therefore must wake up to void.
c. must wake up because they need to move their muscles regularly.
d. must wake up and move because they need to circulate their blood.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
56. In ground squirrels, testosterone levels _______ during hibernation.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
d. initially increase and then decrease
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
57. Which statement about small hibernating mammals is true?
a. Their chances for survival increase during hibernation.
b. Their chances for survival decrease with hibernation.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Their chances of encountering a predator increase with hibernation.
d. Testosterone plasma levels increase during hibernation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
58. In ground squirrels, males emerge before females because
a. males have more body mass and therefore can arouse sooner.
b. males have less brown fat and therefore cannot hibernate as long as females can.
c. the higher testosterone levels in males rouses them.
d. the testicles shrink during hibernation, so males emerge first to prepare to be successful
mates.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
59.–60. Refer to the figure below.
59. In the figure, what do the arrows represent?
a. Energy savings per gram per hour during hibernation
b. The aerobic scope per gram per hour in relation to body mass
c. The winter season metabolic effect per gram per hour
d. The mass effect on cost of metabolism with winter fur insulation
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
60. Which statement is not supported by data shown in the figure?
a. Larger animals save less energy during hibernation.
b. Smaller animals have higher nonhibernating metabolic rates.
c. There is no mass effect on metabolic rate in hibernating animals.
d. The larger the animal, the less likely they are to hibernate.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
61.–62. Refer to the figure below.
61. What is the most accurate title for this figure?
a. Annual cycle of energy use in alpine marmots
b. Annual metabolic rate cycling in ground squirrels
c. Hibernation frequency in alpine marmots
d. Hibernation effects on metabolic rate in ground squirrels
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
62. What best represents the actual cost savings of hibernation?
a. Line I
b. The difference between line I and line II
c. Line II
d. The difference between line II and line III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
63.–64. Refer to the figure below.
63. What is indicated by the arrow in the figure?
a. End of hibernation
b. Birth
c. Beginning of hibernation
d. Beginning of mating season
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
64. Which conclusion is best supported by the data in the figure?
a. As temperature increases, testicle size and testosterone level increase.
b. Following birth, testicle size and testosterone level increase.
c. Following hibernation, both testosterone levels and testicle size increase.
d. Longer summer days increase testosterone levels and testicle size.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. Explain the differences between brown fat and white fat.
Answer: Brown fat is much richer in mitochondria than white fat and therefore it
increases metabolism. The fat deposits in brown fat adipocytes are multilocular, whereas
white adipose deposits are unilocular. Many studies have shown that brown fat decreases
with age in many animals, whereas the quantity of white fat cells increases over the
course of an animal’s life.
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Describe the immunocytochemistry assay that was devised to test for brown fat in
newborn reindeer.
Answer: In the lab, experimenters produced antibodies to UCP1, found virtually
exclusively in brown fat. They then subjected different fat tissue samples from newborn
reindeer to the antibodies to UCP1 produced in the laboratory. The UCP1 in a newborn
reindeer can be identified by its antigen–antibody reaction (immunocytochemistry).
Studies have shown that all of the major adipose-tissue deposits in newborn reindeer
react with UCP1 antibodies.
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. It has been shown that fetuses inside the uterus do not rely on brown fat and only begin
to rely on it after birth. Describe an experiment to test this conclusion.
Answer: Separate the fetus’ circulation from the mother’s circulation by clamping the
umbilical cord and measure changes in rate of O2 consumption in the fetus. The fetus will
rapidly exhibit substantial nonshivering thermogenesis (NST). Another method is to
lower the ambient temperature of the fetus by circulating chilled fluid through a tube
coiled around the fetus while monitoring the fetus for NST. In the latter case, the fetus
does not engage in NST. These results indicate that the placenta supplies a signaling
molecule that inhibits the activation of brown fat.
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. Explain how body size relates to weight-specific metabolic rate in hibernating and
nonhibernating animals.
Answer: The weight-specific metabolic rates of hibernators in hibernation are the same,
statistically, regardless of body size. However, when animals are not hibernating, smallbodied species have higher weight-specific metabolic rates than large-bodied species.
Thus, the energy saved by hibernation decreases as body size increases.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Explain how technological advances have helped researchers record data pertaining to
hibernation and other physiological mechanisms.
Answer: Early advances included small radio transmitters that could be implanted in
animals and could report body temperatures by radiotelemetry. Today’s transmitters can
continuously transmit data for many months, and they transmit their data directly to
computers. In addition, data loggers are microcomputers that have large amounts of
internal memory to store the temperature measurements they take. (Answers may also
include the development of molecular genetic tools which have paved the way to
understanding physiological mechanisms on a molecular level.)
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Explain how animals prepare for hibernation. Include the cues that trigger preparation,
the type of nutrients stored, and the specific location of storage molecules.
Answer: Fattening is important to support metabolic needs during hibernation, thus
animals that hibernate markedly increase their food consumption as winter approaches.
The extra fat storage takes time and it must be set in motion by cues or processes that
occur well in advance of winter stresses. In some species, the primary controls of
fattening are photoperiodic—the shortening of day length in autumn. In other species, the
timing of fattening is endogenously programmed and under the control of a circannual
biological clock. Consumed fat is stored in white fat tissue. Triacylglycerols are stored in
adipocytes.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Which hypotheses for arousal during hibernation are currently popular?
Answer: Recent studies of brain function have suggested that brain dendrites tend to be
lost and synapses tend to deteriorate during hypothermia; arousal is required to restore
dendrites and synapses. Another theory postulates that normal immune responses may be
downregulated or blocked during hypothermia. Periodic arousals allow periodic function
of the immune system, thereby enabling hibernators to better combat pathogenic
organisms during hibernation.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Explain social hibernation using a specific animal example.
Answer: During social hibernation, individuals hibernate in social groups. Alpine
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
marmots, for example, live throughout the year in social groups and a typical social group
consists of a dominant male and female and an assemblage of related, younger animals of
various ages. All these animals hibernate together in sets that number up to 20
individuals.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain the significance of social hibernation.
Answer: Social hibernation has been shown to increase each individual’s chance of
survival, particularly among juveniles. To survive hibernation, marmots do not allow
their body temperatures to go below 3–4°C in winter, even though temperatures in their
hibernacula are often lower, meaning that hibernating animals must elevate their
metabolic rates to keep their body temperatures from going too low. Animals huddled
together in a large cluster are better insulated and require a smaller increase in metabolic
rate than those hibernating alone or in small groups.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain how certain animals undergo synchrony in their hibernation.
Answer: Adults and subadults in a hibernating group of alpine marmots usually undergo
their periodic arousals in close synchrony. This synchrony lowers their mutual energy
costs to arouse. If a single adult were to arouse alone within a hibernating group, it would
experience heightened energy costs in the group because the cold bodies of the other
animals in the group, pressed closely against it, would increase the heat production
required to raise its own body temperature. Adults and subadults in a group arouse
simultaneously, thereby lowering each other’s arousal energy costs by mutually warming
each other.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In the distal limb of a reindeer, the lipid composition
a. is mostly stearic acid.
b. is mostly palmitic acid.
c. has a very small amount of oleic acid.
d. has a high proportion of oleic acid.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement about reindeer is false?
a. There is more unsaturated fat in the distal limb than in the proximal limb.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. The microbe composition in their rumen changes in winter.
c. In winter, their ability to digest cellulose decreases.
d. Palmitic acid and stearic acid are less abundant in the distal limb.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Stearic acid is _______ and contains _______ double bond (s)
a. saturated; 0
b. monounsaturated; 1
c. polyunsaturated; 1
d. polyunsaturated; 2
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which fatty acid would you expect to find in the proximal limb of a reindeer?
a. Only stearic acid
b. Only oleic acid
c. Triglycerides
d. Some saturated fatty acids and some unsaturated fatty acids.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the
Lives of Adult Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. A newborn reindeer with a resting metabolic rate of 10 watts/kg may have a rate of
metabolic heat production of _______watts/kg.
a. 20
b. 10
c. 5
d. 1
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Which statement regarding microbes in the rumen of reindeer is true?
a. The microbes increase their activity to digest cellulose in summer as compared to
winter.
b. In winter, microbes that digest xylan decrease in activity relative to their activity in
summer.
c. In summer, microbes that digest proteins increase in activity relative to their activity in
winter.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. In summer, microbes that digest starch decrease slightly in activity relative to their
activity in winter.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. The gene for UCP1 is no longer expressed in newborn reindeer by _______ of age.
a. 1 week
b. 1 month
c. 2 months
d. 1 year
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which organelle is found in large quantities in brown fat cells?
a. Nucleus
b. Lysosome
c. Mitochondria
d. Golgi apparatus
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Which ability is most advantageous for a large mammal, such as a reindeer, in a cold
environment?
a. The ability to escape the cold by living under the snow
b. Possessing physiological modifications to thermoregulate
c. Finding refuge
d. Producing very thick pelage
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold
Environments: An Overview
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Mammals that weigh _______ are generally not hibernators.
a. 6 g
b. 1 kg
c. 4 kg
d. 50 kg
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Which animal would have the least energy savings per gram if it were to hibernate?
a. Elephant
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Bear
c. Mouse
d. Squirrel
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. Hibernators store fat in
a. hepatocytes.
b. enterocytes.
c. adipocytes.
d. reticulocytes.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. Which statement about hibernating animals storing nutrients to prepare for
hibernation is true?
a. Some animals start storing nutrients based on photoperiodic cues.
b. Some animals start storing nutrients based on pheromonal signals.
c. Some animals start storing nutrients just before the first frost.
d. Some animals start storing nutrients based on behavioral signals.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. The most common macromolecule stored in the adipocytes of animals prior to
hibernation is
a. carbohydrate.
b. fat.
c. protein.
d. nucleic acid.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which diet supports longer bouts of hibernation?
a. High starch diet
b. Protein-rich grain diet
c. Nucleic acid-rich diet
d. Polyunsaturated fat-rich diet
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. An animal with a saturated fatty acid to polyunsaturated fatty acid ratio of _______
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
will have the best hibernation performance.
a. 3:1
b. 2:1
c. 1.5:1
d. 1:1
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Animals are fed different diets and their oxygen consumption at an ambient
temperature of 2°C is measured. The animals that will have the lowest oxygen
consumption are the animals that have been fed a _______ diet.
a. carbohydrate-rich
b. polyunsaturated fatty acid-rich
c. saturated fat-rich
d. protein-rich
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Which is a plausible rationale for periodic arousal of animals during hibernation?
a. To restore synapses in the brain
b. To void
c. To exercise muscles
d. To increase blood circulation
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. If one alpine marmot consumes a diet poor in omega-6 PUFAs and another alpine
marmot consumes a diet rich in omega-6 PUFAs, the animal that consumed fewer
omega-6 PUFAs would
a. lose more weight during hibernation.
b. be a more effective hibernator.
c. have a lower body temperature.
d. have a superior lipid matrix for membrane protein function.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. In ground squirrels, the size of testes _______ during hibernation.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. increases first and then decreases
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 12: Neurons
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Initiation of the action potential usually occurs _______ of the neuron.
a. in the cell body
b. on the dendrites
c. at the axon initial segment
d. on the axon
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement about an animal’s nervous system is true?
a. Neurotransmitter is released throughout the body via the blood.
b. Signal transmission rate is relatively slow.
c. Neurons form highly discrete lines of communication.
d. Action potential signals degrade over distance.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. For a hormone to elicit a specific response from a cell, the cell must possess
a. a synapse.
b. a cell body.
c. dendrites specific to the hormone.
d. receptor proteins specific to the hormone.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Which statement about the startle response of the cockroach is true?
a. Vibrations of hairs generate nerve impulses in sensory neurons.
b. Sound waves or air currents synapse with the filiform hairs.
c. Sensory neurons synapse with and excite the dorsal hollow spinal cord.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. At the metathoracic ganglion, the interneurons synaptically inhibit leg motor neurons.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neurons Are Organized into Functional Circuits in Nervous
Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. Which glial cells are found in the peripheral nervous system?
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. Astrocytes
d. Microglial cells
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which statement about glial cells is true?
a. They integrate cell membrane potentials to enhance or inhibit action potentials.
b. They decrease the velocity of nerve-impulse propagation.
c. They help supply metabolic substrates to neurons.
d. They act as metabolic intermediaries between epithelial cells and neurons.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The separation of positive and negative charges constitutes
a. resistance.
b. an electric current.
c. a voltage.
d. capacitance.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which statement about membrane capacitance is true?
a. It is in series with membrane resistance.
b. In a cell, the membrane separates only similarly charged ions.
c. It is measured in ohms.
d. It is a function of the permeability of the membrane.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9.–10. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
9. What is occurring at the membrane?
a. Depolarization
b. Hyperpolarization
c. Increase in resistance
d. Decrease in capacitance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. In the lower panel, the difference between the dashed line and the solid red line is due
to
a. membrane resistance.
b. the fact that one represents a depolarization and the other represents a
hyperpolarization.
c. the capacitive properties of the membrane.
d. the difference in applied voltage.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11.–13. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
11. In the figure, the _______ decreases with distance.
a. graded potential
b. action potential
c. membrane current
d. membrane capacitance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. Which statement offers the best explanation for the difference between the middle
panel and the lower panel?
a. The membrane in the lower panel is producing a lower current.
b. There is a lower resistance in the lower panel at the point where voltage is measured.
c. There is a greater capacitance in the lower panel at the point where voltage is
measured.
d. The membrane voltage measured in the lower panel is farther away from the current
pulse.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. The properties shown in the figure can be measured in
a. neurons.
b. neurons and pacemaker cells.
c. muscle cells.
d. neurons, pacemaker cells, and muscle cells
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
14. Which variable does not contribute to the passive electrical properties of a cell?
a. Membrane resistance
b. Membrane capacitance
c. The resting membrane current
d. The time constant
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
15.–16. Refer to the figure below.
15. The figure shows that the membrane potential results from
a. the six pairs of ions sitting on the membrane.
b. the thousands of ions sitting on the membrane.
c. the overall difference intra- and extra cellular ion concentrations in the volume of cell
shown.
d. movement of ions across the cell membrane.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. In the figure, _______in the center of the cell.
a. there would be a slight negative charge
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. there would be a strong negative charge
c. the overall charge neutrality would be maintained independently of the membrane
potential
d. there would be a slight positive charge
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
17. Which characteristic is not a factor in the Nernst Equation?
a. Capacitance
b. Temperature
c. The valence of the ion species
d. The ion concentrations on the two sides of the membrane
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. In a cell, the difference in ion concentration between the intracellular and
extracellular fluids results from
a. active ion transport.
b. passive diffusion of ions.
c. bulk movements of intracellular and extracellular fluids.
d. both active ion transport and passive diffusion of ions.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. According to the Nernst equation, which change will depolarize Vm, the membrane
potential?
a. A decrease in temperature
b. An increase in the valence of the ion species involved
c. A decrease in the concentration of anions inside the membrane
d. A decrease in the electromotive force of the ion
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which statement regarding the ions in intracellular and extracellular fluids in a
standard animal cell is true?
a. Na+ leaks into the cell rapidly because its electrochemical gradient is large.
b. K+ leaks out of the cell slowly because the electrochemical gradient is small.
c. Cl– leaks into the cell rapidly because its electrochemical gradient is large.
d. Negatively charged proteins leak out of the cell slowly because their electrochemical
gradient is small.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. According to the Goldman equation, the contribution of each ion to the membrane
potential depends most on
a. its size.
b. its membrane permeability.
c. its activation energy.
d. the resting membrane potential.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
22. Which structure is most responsible for the all-or-none property of the action
potential?
a. Myelin
b. Voltage-gated K+ channels
c. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
d. Leakage of K+ channels
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23.–26. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
23. Which arrow best represents the point where permeability to sodium is the highest?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
24. Which arrow best represents the point where the voltage-gated sodium channels are
inactivated?
a. I
b. III
c. IV
d. III and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
25. _______ channels are responsible for the undershoot at point D of the figure.
a. Voltage-gated sodium
b. Voltage-gated potassium
c. Ligand-gated potassium
d. Voltage-gated calcium
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
26. What occurs when the membrane is clamped at –100 mV?
a. Voltage-gated ion channels behave in a similar manner as in the diagram.
b. Voltage-gated ion channels do not open at all.
c. There is a brief shift in ions and then a flat current at –100 mV.
d. Only ligand-gated channels work at this point.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27.–29. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
27. How many separate current pulses cause the membrane potential to reach the
threshold?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28. What would likely occur if stimulus 3 and 6 were performed simultaneously?
a. An action potential would likely occur.
b. An action potential would likely not occur.
c. Multiple action potentials would likely occur.
d. The threshold voltage would likely decrease.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
29. If stimulating current pulse 9 (not shown) was both stronger and longer than
stimulating current pulse 8, then
a. the train of action potentials would continue for the length of the stimulating current.
b. action potentials would increase in amplitude.
c. action potentials would first increase in frequency and then decrease.
d. the line at stimulus 9 would look exactly same as the line at stimulus 8.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
30. For an axon at resting membrane potential, the K+ leak channel is _______, the
voltage-gated Na+ channel is _______, and the voltage-gated K+ channel is _______.
a. open; inactivated; closed
b. closed; inactivated; closed
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. open; inactivated; open
d. open; closed; closed
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. During the falling phase of an action potential, the K+ leak channel on the axon is
_______, the voltage-gated Na+ channel is _______, and the voltage-gated K+ channel is
_______.
a. open; inactivated; closed
b. closed; inactivated; closed
c. open; inactivated; open
d. open; closed; closed
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32.–34. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
32. Which technique was used to collect the data in the bottom panel?
a. Patch-clamp
b. Voltage-clamp
c. Current-clamp
d. Hodgkin clamp
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
33. On the figure, I represents _______ currents through voltage-gated _______ channels.
a. outward; Na+
b. inward; Na+
c. outward; K+
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. inward; K+
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
34. Why do the channels at II on the figure stay open longer than those at I?
a. Channels at I are responding to a depolarization, whereas channels at II are responding
to a hyperpolarization.
b. The depolarization is a faster event compared to the repolarization.
c. Channels at I are less sensitive to voltage compared to channels at II.
d. Channels at I become inactivated, whereas channels at II close due to membrane
voltage.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
35.–37. Refer to the figure below:
35. Which technique was used to collect the data shown in the figure?
a. Patch-clamp
b. Hodgkin clamp
c. Current-clamp
d. Voltage-clamp
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
36. The treatment difference between the membranes shown in the graphs is that the
membrane on the left is being _______, while the membrane on the right is being
_______.
a. depolarized; depolarized in Na+-free seawater
b. hyperpolarized; hyperpolarized in an isoionic Na+ solution
c. hyperpolarized; depolarized
d. depolarized; hyperpolarized
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
37. How would the trace on the right look if the neuron was soaking in TEA?
a. The inward ionic current would disappear.
b. The outward ionic current would disappear.
c. The trace would look exactly like the trace in the left panel.
d. The outward ionic current would be amplified.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
38. Which statement about a voltage clamp of a neuron at 0 mV is true?
a. Once clamped, the membrane depolarizes then returns to resting potential.
b. Voltage-gated potassium channels open.
c. Apart from the initial current shift from the clamp, no other current is produced.
d. Voltage-gated sodium channels close
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
39. Which statement regarding the structure of the voltage-gated Na+ channels is false?
a. P loops mediate ion selectivity.
b. It has four domains with extensive sequence homology.
c. The channel protein changes its primary structure in response to membrane
depolarization.
d. A cytoplasmic loop is thought to inactivate the channel by blocking the opening.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. A spiking neuron and a nonspiking neuron share which characteristic?
a. High concentration of voltage-gated Na+ channels at the axon hillock
b. A graded potential down the entire length of the axon
c. An action potential down the entire length of the axon
d. Neurotransmitter secretion based on a change in membrane potential
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
41. How do nonspiking neurons function even though their depolarization signal
significantly degrades with distance?
a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels are replaced by ligand-gated Na+ channels.
b. These neurons are very short, so there is no major signal decrement.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. There are sufficient numbers of voltage-gated Na+ channels to convey the signal
without major decrement.
d. Voltage-gated K+ channels compensate for the lack of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42.–44. Refer to the figure below.
42. The figure depicts a
a. neuronal action potential.
b. cardiac action potential.
c. pacemaker potential.
d. graded potential.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
43. What is the best explanation for the plateau shown in the figure?
a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels remain open.
b. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels remain open.
c. Voltage-gated K+ channels close.
d. Leaky K+ channels remain open.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
44. Which statement about ion permeability as shown in the figure is true?
a. K+ permeability is at its lowest very close to the membrane potential peak.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. K+ permeability is at its highest very close to the membrane potential peak.
c. Na+ permeability is at its lowest very close to the membrane potential peak.
d. Na+ permeability is at its highest very close to the membrane potential peak.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
45. The absolute refractory period of the action potential is best explained by
a. inactivated voltage-gated sodium channels.
b. closed voltage-gated sodium channels.
c. open slow calcium channels.
d. inactivated voltage-gated potassium channels.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. Which statement about a local circuit in an axon is false?
a. Ions flow in intracellular fluid, carrying current to more distant parts of the membrane.
b. At the membrane, the ion movements change the distribution of charges on the
membrane capacitance.
c. An ionic current completes the local circuit as cations move toward the locus of the
action potential and anions move away.
d. Anions migrate into the membrane interior.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
47. _______ prevents bidirectional propagation of action potentials.
a. The inactivation of Na+ channels
b. A decrease in membrane resistance
c. Myelination
d. The K+ channel
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. Conduction velocity shows _______ axon diameter.
a. a proportional relationship to
b. a proportional relationship to the square root of
c. an exponential relationship to
d. either a proportional relationship to, or a proportional relationship to the square root of
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
49. Considering neurons in living systems, which variable affects conduction velocity the
most?
a. Myelination
b. Temperature
c. Length
d. Diameter
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
50. Myelination by Schwann cells increases the velocity of action potential propagation
by
a. increasing the resistance and decreasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential
to “jump” over the myelinated area.
b. decreasing the resistance and increasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential
to “jump” over the myelinated area.
c. increasing the resistance and increasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential
to “jump” over the myelinated area.
d. increasing the diameter of the neuron.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. Compare and contrast nervous systems and endocrine systems.
Answer: Neural and endocrine systems are both systems for communication within the
body. Nervous systems are faster and capable of much finer temporal and spatial control,
whereas endocrine systems typically control more widespread and prolonged activities.
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Describe the startle response in the cockroach.
Answer: The cockroach’s startle response is a reflex. Sound waves or air vibrate the
filiform hair receptors, which generate impulses in sensory neurons. The sensory neurons
excite the giant interneurons that synapse with leg motor neurons. Once excited, the leg
motor neurons activate the leg muscles.
Textbook Reference: Neurons Are Organized into Functional Circuits in Nervous
Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What are glial cells and how do they aid in the function of the nervous system?
Answer: Glial cells are the support cells of the nervous system. They form the myelin
around neurons, which increases action potential velocity. They surround capillaries and
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
act as metabolic intermediaries between neurons and their circulatory supply. They also
serve immune and scavenging functions in order to protect surrounding neurons.
Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Compare and contrast current and voltage with respect to the cell membrane.
Answer: The net movement of charge constitutes an electric current. The separation of
positive and negative charges constitutes a voltage. In terms of the cell membrane, the
current would be a flow of ions through channels in the membrane, whereas the voltage
would be the separation of charges across the membrane.
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Since the bulk solutions that make up the intracellular and extracellular fluids maintain
charge neutrality, how does the cell produce membrane potentials?
Answer: The charge separation producing the membrane potential is an extraordinarily
local phenomenon. According to Figure 12.11, in any given 1 µm3 section around each
side of the membrane, only six pairs of ions, from the 110,000 cations and 110,000
anions in each fluid compartment, need to sit on the membrane to charge its capacitance,
producing a membrane potential of –90 mV.
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Explain in mechanistic terms how the action potential is an all-or-none phenomenon.
Answer: The action potential is initiated only when a threshold depolarization is reached
near the axon hillock. That is, a certain critical number of voltage-gated Na+ channels
have to open in order to cause a depolarization that is strong enough to initiate the
Hodgkin cycle and, by definition, perpetuate the further opening of voltage-gated Na+
channels via their own depolarization. If the threshold is not reached, there will be no
Hodgkin cycle or action potential.
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Compare and contrast the techniques of patch clamping and voltage clamping.
Answer: Both patch clamping and voltage clamping provide experimental information
about membrane currents, especially during an action potential. The patch-clamp
technique uses a micropipette to record single channel currents, whereas the voltageclamp technique shows whole cell ionic currents.
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What are the similarities and differences among the channels in the voltage-gated
channel superfamily?
Answer: All the voltage-gated channels have principal subunits with extensive sequence
homology and thus are evolutionarily related. Voltage-gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels have
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
four domains, whereas the voltage-gated K+ channel has one domain that is homologous
to one of the domains on the Na+ channel.
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain in mechanistic terms why the action potential can travel a great distance along
an axon without degrading.
Answer: The same mechanism that is responsible for the rising phase of the action
potential also aids in its perpetuation along the axon without degradation. The action
potential on one location on the axon can itself initiate an action potential at a
neighboring location, and the induced action potential will have the same all-or-none
amplitude as the original.
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Describe the significance of myelination.
Answer: Myelination greatly increases conduction velocity of an axon by increasing the
membrane resistance while decreasing the membrane capacitance. In other words,
conduction velocity is increased by increasing the length constant without increasing the
time constant. Action potentials occur only at the nodes of Ranvier, in a process that is
called saltatory conduction.
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. The neuron converts an electrical signal to a chemical signal in the
a. dendrite.
b. presynaptic terminal.
c. cell body.
d. axon hillock.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Neurons that relay sensory signals to integrative centers of the CNS are called
a. interneurons.
b. afferent neurons.
c. synaptic neurons.
d. efferent neurons.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells
Compared
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which glial cells function as metabolic intermediaries between capillaries and
neurons?
a. Schwann cells
b. Oligodendrocites
c. Astrocytes
d. Microglial cells
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which term best describes the movement of ions across a membrane?
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. Capacitance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. A decrease in the absolute value of the membrane potential toward zero is called
a. depolarization.
b. an action potential.
c. hyperpolarization.
d. a membrane potential.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which of the following actively contributes to the cell’s membrane potential?
a. Permeability to K+
b. Permeability to Na+
c. The overall resistance of the membrane
d. Electrogenic ion pumps
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. The time constant (τ) depends on the _______ of the membrane.
a. resistance
b. capacitance
c. resistance and voltage
d. resistance and capacitance
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. If a current pulse is generated on the membrane and creates a passive potential, which
statement will be true?
a. The change in the membrane potential will increase as the distance from the current
pulse increases.
b. The change in the membrane potential will decrease as the distance from the current
pulse increases.
c. The change in the membrane potential will remain constant throughout the length of
the membrane.
d. The change in the membrane potential will fluctuate depending on the strength of the
initial current pulse.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. The plasma membrane of a resting neuron is most permeable to which ion?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Cl–
d. Ca2+
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. If ouabain was used to block Na+–K+-ATPase pumps,
a. Na+ would go to equilibrium across the cell membrane.
b. the membrane potential would become more negative.
c. the concentration of K+ would be equal on both sides of the membrane.
d. the cell would maintain steady state with a different membrane potential.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. In a typical neuron, which ion is in passive equilibrium across the cell membrane?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Cl–
d. Both Na+ and K+
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. A stimulating depolarizing current that depolarizes the axon hillock just slightly
negative to the threshold will
a. not change the overall membrane potential at all.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. produce an action potential.
c. produce a very small action potential.
d. produce a temporary graded potential.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. _______ channels govern the generation of an action potential.
a. Ligand-gated Na+
b. Ligand-gated K+
c. Voltage-gated Na+
d. Voltage-gated K+
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Considering the cycle of an action potential, when is the permeability to K+ at its
greatest?
a. During the resting membrane potential
b. During the rising phase of the action potential
c. At the peak of the action potential
d. During the falling phase of the action potential
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Which statement regarding the action potential is false?
a. In an extremely long axon, the action potential eventually will degrade.
b. During the “falling” phase, K+ permeability increases.
c. During the “rising” phase, Na+ moves into the neuron.
d. In the recovery phase, Na+ channels are closed.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
16. What allows the action potential to return to a repolarized state?
a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels become inactivated.
b. Voltage-gated K+ channels become inactivated.
c. Na+ reaches equilibrium across the neural membrane and stops leaking in.
d. Voltage-gated Na+ channels close.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Which statement regarding cardiac pacemaker cells is false?
a. They spontaneously generate action potentials.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. The frequency of action potential generation can be modified by neural input.
c. The pacemaker cells are modified neural tissue.
d. They are connected to myocardium via gap junctions.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. _______ are responsible for extending the time of the cardiac action potential relative
to a neural action potential.
a. Slow Ca2+ channels
b. Slow Na+ channels
c. Slow K+ channels
d. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Action Potential
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. Which character of neurons affects conduction velocity the least?
a. Axon diameter
b. Myelination
c. Axon length
d. Temperature
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20. In myelinated axons, action potentials occur
a. all along the axon.
b. only at the internodes.
c. only at the initial segment of the axon.
d. only at the nodes of Ranvier.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 17: Reproduction
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1.‒2. Refer to the figure below.
1. The figure shows a classic example of
a. induced ovulation.
b. testicular recrudescence.
c. a follicle-stimulating hormone surge.
d. seasonal ovulation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. According to the figure, copulation triggers an increase in _______.
a. luteinizing hormone
b. follicle-stimulating hormone
c. progesterone
d. estrogen
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Which is the correct order of events leading to the luteinizing hormone surge?
a. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates
ovulation in the ovaries → GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH →
neuronal impulses release norepinephrine
b. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates
ovulation in the ovaries → neuronal impulses release norepinephrine → GnRH stimulates
anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH
c. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → neuronal impulses release
norepinephrine → GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH → a surge of
LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries
d. GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH → copulation stimulates sensory
neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries → neuronal
impulses release norepinephrine
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. Which aspect of reproduction is not typically studied by physiologists?
a. Control of the annual cycle of reproduction
b. Mechanisms of function of the reproductive cells and organs
c. Sexual selection
d. Delivery of resources to offspring by parents
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: What Aspects of Reproduction Do Physiologists Study?
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. In temperate climates, temperature often _______ photoperiod timing in the
coordination of reproductive events.
a. magnifies
b. blunts
c. fine tunes
d. supersedes
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6.‒7. Refer to the figure below.
6. The graphs in the figure represent the
a. number of offspring produced in a given season.
b. number of copulating animals in a given season.
c. percentage of the population capable of reproducing.
d. percentage of pregnant females as a function of the season.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Which conclusion can be drawn from the information in the figure?
a. Populations at high latitudes reproduce during just 1–2 months.
b. High latitude populations breed all year long.
c. Populations at high latitudes show greater fecundity compared to populations at midlatitudes.
d. Populations at high latitudes reproduce over a period of many months.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
8. Which species is semelparous?
a. Human
b. Dogfish shark
c. Octopus
d. Dog
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Which species is iteroparous?
a. Octopus
b. Mayfly
c. Dogfish shark
d. Sockeye salmon
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Most mammals are
a. protandrous.
b. semelparous.
c. parthenogenetic.
d. iteroparous.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which is the best example of postnatal provisioning?
a. Lactation
b. Yolk deposition
c. Nutrient transfer via the placenta
d. Producing eggs that serve as food for young
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Eggs, Provisioning, and Parental Care
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Some species of female crabs, queen honey bees, certain bats, sharks, turtles, snakes,
and birds all share a common adaptation that permits flexible timing between copulation
and fertilization. This is called
a. embryonic diapause.
b. sperm storage.
c. delayed implantation.
d. seasonal estrous.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. In placental mammals, delayed implantation usually occurs when the
a. embryo is at the blastocyst stage.
b. fertilized egg is at the 4-cell stage.
c. embryo is at the trophoblast stage.
d. embryo is in the middle of the placental stage.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which statement regarding embryonic diapause in the Antarctic fur seal is true?
a. The resumption of development following diapause is under photoperiodic control.
b. Diapause delays implantation for 1‒2 months.
c. Delayed implantation is facultative in this species.
d. The period from copulation to birth is about 165 days.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
15. A protandrous animal is
a. an animal that can produce viable offspring without sperm.
b. a sex-changing species that begins as a male.
c. a sex-changing species that begins as a female.
d. a species that has both eggs and sperm simultaneously.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Sex Change
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Which statement regarding human female gametes is true?
a. All primary oocytes are formed during fetal life.
b. Primary oocytes are produced in the ovary as they are needed.
c. During ovulation, as many as four primary oocytes are released from the ovaries.
d. Oocytes complete meiosis and form secondary oocytes just prior to ovulation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. Which animal(s) menstruate(s)?
a. Humans only
b. Humans and horses
c. Humans and gorillas
d. Humans, horses, and gorillas
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. The oocyte and its layer of somatic cells together are called a
a. secondary follicle.
b. primordial follicle.
c. granulosa cell.
d. primary follicle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which statement about the mature (or Graafian) follicle is false?
a. There is an expanded, fluid-filled antrum.
b. It consists of many granulosa cells.
c. A layer of theca cells differentiates.
d. It contains the secondary oocyte.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20.‒23. Refer to the figure below.
20. What process is occurring at arrow III in the figure?
a. Ovulation
b. Estrous
c. Fertilization
d. Both ovulation and estrous
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. What process is occurring at arrow I in the figure?
a. Ovulation
b. Estrous
c. Fertilization
d. Menstruation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
22. Which of the following hormones would not be surging at the time of arrow III in the
figure?
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Follicle-stimulating hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Which arrow in the figure best corresponds to the time of the most likely success of
implantation?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. The enzyme responsible for converting androgens to estrogens is
a. androgenase.
b. aromatase.
c. granulase.
d. follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25.‒27. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
25. The release of LH and FSH is occurring at what letter in the figure?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. The hormones produced at location II in the figure are stimulating the _______ to
produce _______ at location III.
a. theca cells; androgens
b. theca cells; estrogen
c. granulosa cells; androgens
d. granulosa cells; estrogen
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. A hormone released from location _______ stimulates the granulosa cells to convert
androgens to estrogens using the action of the enzyme at location _______.
a. II; III
b. II; IV
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. III; IV
d. IV; V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. Which statement regarding estrogen during the follicular phase is true?
a. At high concentrations, estrogen has a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus,
suppressing luteinizing hormone.
b. At low concentrations, estrogen has a positive feedback effect on the anterior pituitary,
increasing FSH and LH secretions.
c. Along with follicle-stimulating hormone, estrogen stimulates the proliferation of
granulosa cells.
d. Estrogen initiates the sloughing off of the endometrium.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
29. The physiological trigger for the onset of menstruation in humans is caused by
a. ovulation.
b. an increase in estrogen.
c. the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum.
d. degeneration of the corpus luteum, resulting in a lack of progesterone for the support
of the endometrium.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
30. Sperm are produced in the
a. seminal vesicles.
b. seminiferous tubules.
c. epididymis.
d. vas deferens.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
31. The _______ cells support and regulate spermatogenesis.
a. Leydig
b. theca
c. Sertoli
d. granulosa
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
32. In human males, the scrotum
a. maintains the testes at 35°C, the optimum temperature for viable sperm.
b. provides for the production of all the supporting fluids in semen.
c. maintains the testes at 39°C, the optimum temperature for viable sperm.
d. prevents the testes from entering the body cavity.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. In an adult, there is a strong correlation between the _______ and both testis size and
the rate of sperm production.
a. number of Leydig cells that exist
b. number of Sertoli cells that exist
c. amount of follicle-stimulating hormone produced
d. amount of testosterone produced
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34. Refer to the figure below.
The figure shows _______ during the life span of _______.
a. follicle stimulating hormone secretion and gamete production; humans
b. egg production; human females
c. testosterone secretion and sperm production; human males
d. reproductive capability; human females
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Which structure is homologous to the scrotum?
a. Labia minora
b. Clitoris
c. Glans penis
d. Labia majora
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36.‒37. Refer to the figure below.
36. Which letter in the figure corresponds to the precursor tissue to the shaft of the penis?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which statement regarding the figure is true?
a. This is a diagram of a developing male.
b. The figure shows an indifferent state in development that is identical in males and
females.
c. This is a diagram of a developing female.
d. The labioscrotal swelling becomes the clitoris in the female.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. In a sexually indifferent embryo whose gonads will develop into ovaries, which
external structure will become the labia majora?
a. Labioscrotal swelling
b. Urethral groove
c. Urethral fold
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Perineum
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. Which substance is not contained in semen?
a. Sperm
b. Fructose
c. Albumin
d. Prostaglandins
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. The process that prevents polyspermy is
a. the acrosomal reaction.
b. the cortical reaction.
c. fertilization.
d. meiosis.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
41. To breach the zona pellucida, the sperm releases enzymes via exocytosis from the
acrosome in a process called
a. the acrosomal reaction.
b. the cortical reaction.
c. fertilization.
d. implantation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. The entry of the early embryo into the cellular matrix of the endometrium is called
a. the cortical reaction.
b. the acrosomal reaction.
c. fertilization.
d. implantation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Which statement regarding the placenta is true?
a. Maternal blood and embryonic blood mix.
b. The placenta supplies the embryo with O2 and nutrients from fertilization to
parturition.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. The placenta mainly secretes oxytocin during parturition.
d. The placenta carries out the main functions of the lung for the fetus.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
44. The main structure maintaining the production of progesterone before initial
implantation is the
a. chorion.
b. corpus luteum.
c. placenta.
d. zygote.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. Which event occurs during (or just prior to) parturition?
a. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells to remove gap junctions.
b. Oxytocin stimulates myometrial cells to produce estrogen receptors.
c. Mechanoreceptors in the placenta send action potentials to the hypothalamus.
d. Oxytocin is secreted into the general circulation at an increased rate.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
46. Which hormone is directly responsible for milk secretion by the alveolar epithelial
cells?
a. Oxytocin
b. Prolactin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. During the birthing process, the release of _______ results in myometrial muscle
contractions.
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
48. During the birthing process, a _______ feedback loop maintains high levels of
oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates smooth muscle, until _______ occurs.
a. positive; parturition
b. positive; uterine contraction
c. negative; parturition
d. negative; uterine contraction
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. During the birthing process, oxytocin stimulates the myometrial muscle to produce
a. estrogen.
b. prostaglandin.
c. progesterone.
d. chorionic gonadotropin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
50. Oxytocin, which initiates the birthing process, is produced by the
a. hypothalamus.
b. posterior pituitary.
c. myometrium.
d. fetus.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. What is the functional significance of induced ovulation? Provide an example.
Answer: Induced ovulators are classified as those species that release mature eggs from
the ovaries of the female as a result of the actual act of copulation. The advantage of this
simple synchronization is that copulation, the signal to release the eggs, maximizes the
chances that the eggs will meet the sperm and be fertilized. Induced ovulation occurs in
rabbits and hares.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. What is the functional significance of embryonic diapause? Provide an example.
Answer: Embryonic diapause is a programmed state of arrested or profoundly slowed
embryonic development. It serves to decouple fertilization and the full development of
embryos. This is important because the mating season and development of the young may
not be timed appropriately for birth in an advantageous environment. Antarctic seals, for
example, will delay implantation approximately 2‒3 months so that their normally 250-
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
day placental development will be extended to 365 days, thus ensuring birth during the
summer when the temperature is favorable.
Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What is the functional significance of sequential hermaphroditism? Provide an
example.
Answer: Sequential hermaphroditism is the ability of an animal to change sex and
produce the opposite gametes at some point during its lifetime. Biologists think this
feature evolved in cases in which lifetime reproductive output is maximized by a sex
change. In the bluehead wrasse, for example, there is a reproductive advantage to being
female when the fish is small, since a harem is controlled by one large male. When the
individual becomes large enough to control a harem, reproductive success can be
maximized further by becoming a male.
Textbook Reference: Sex Change
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Briefly compare and contrast the production of female and male gametes in humans.
Answer: The prevailing view is that most of the female gametes are formed during fetal
life. After a female reaches sexual maturity, one or a few of the primary oocytes in her
ovaries mature and undergo ovulation during each reproductive cycle. The rest remain in
the ovaries, awaiting ovulation, for many years. In contrast, males begin production of
sperm at puberty and continue this production for most of their adult life.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Androgens are classified as “male hormones,” yet they are produced in the female
mammal. Why are they important in the female mammal?
Answer: Androgens are importance precursors to estrogens. When LH binds to receptors
on the cell membranes of the theca cells, those cells are stimulated to produce androgens.
The androgens diffuse to the nearby granulosa cells. The binding of FSH to receptors on
the cell membranes of the granulosa cells stimulates the action of the enzyme aromatase,
which converts the androgens to estrogen.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Describe the role of luteinizing hormone as it leads to ovulation.
Answer: When the anterior pituitary gland secretes LH in amounts sufficient to produce a
surge, many reactions occur leading to ovulation. First, LH causes the granulosa cells to
secrete chemical mediators, inducing the oocyte to complete its first meiotic division. LH
also causes the granulosa cells to secrete progesterone, decrease their secretion of
estrogen, and release enzymes and prostaglandins that lead to the breakdown of the outer
follicular membranes and overlying ovarian epithelium. As the membranes rupture, the
oocyte is released into the oviduct from the ovary.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
7. What is the role of the corpus luteum in pregnancy and menstruation?
Answer: The corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle. It is the first structure to
produce progesterone in significant quantities following ovulation. Progesterone is
important in that it prepares the endometrium for implantation. If implantation occurs, a
hormonal signal sent from the implanted embryo maintains the corpus luteum and its
production of progesterone until the placenta forms and produces more progesterone. If
implantation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and the lack of progesterone
causes menstruation to occur.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Explain the functional significance of the scrotum.
Answer: The scrotum houses the testes outside the body cavity in most mammals.
Although the reason is debated, most mammals require that sperm be maintained at 35°C,
which is 2°C cooler than the normal abdominal temperature. Housing sperm in the body
cavity would offer greater protection, but it would render the sperm nonviable. The
reason for this temperature difference between body temperature and the temperature for
sperm viability is still being debated.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Since the mammalian embryo is in an “undifferentiated state” at 4 weeks of
development, how is sex determined?
Answer: At 4 weeks of development, the human is still in a sexually undifferentiated
state. This means that regardless of the chromosomal sex, the embryo will look the same
in terms of its genitalia. At around 5 months, the Y chromosome, if present, expresses a
gene that upregulates the production of testosterone. It is testosterone that causes the
external genitalia to develop into the male form. Without testosterone, the genitalia will
remain in the female form.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Describe the positive feedback loop during birth and how this feedback ends.
Answer: Myometrial contractions force the fetus against the cervix, stimulating
mechanoreceptors that send action potentials to the hypothalamus. This stimulates the
secretion of oxytocin, which stimulates the myometrial smooth muscles to contract. This
positive feedback loop continues and becomes stronger until birth.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
1. The term that refers to the increase in luteinizing hormone within an hour after
copulation in a female rabbit is
a. estrus.
b. spontaneous ovulation.
c. induced ovulation.
d. delayed implantation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. _______ is the process in which the female produces eggs that do not require sperm to
develop into an adult.
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Hermaphroditism
c. Cloning
d. Haploid zygoticism
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: What Aspects of Reproduction Do Physiologists Study?
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which statement regarding semelparity is true?
a. An octopus is considered a semelparous species.
b. Most species of animals are semelparous.
c. A human is considered a semelparous species.
d. Semelparity is very uncommon among insects.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. The hormone melatonin has strong effects on _______, and therefore also affects
reproduction.
a. the nutritional environment
b. the social environment
c. photoperiod
d. temperature
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. The process by which fertilization is decoupled from the full development of the
embryo is called
a. postpartum estrus.
b. embryonic diapause.
c. ovulation.
d. sperm storage.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. An animal that begins as female and later changes its sex to become a male is most
accurately referred to as
a. a hermaphrodite.
b. protandrous.
c. protogynous.
d. a sequential hermaphrodite.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Sex Change
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The spike of luteinizing hormone during the menstrual cycle of a woman causes
a. menstruation.
b. ovulation.
c. estrus.
d. endometrial regression.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. After the follicle ruptures during _______, it becomes the _______.
a. menstruation; corpus luteum
b. estrus; secondary oocyte
c. fertilization; secondary oocyte
d. ovulation; corpus luteum
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which physiological process takes place because of a hormone-level drop?
a. Ovulation
b. Growth of the corpus luteum
c. Estrus
d. Menstruation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. In a female mammal, _______ cells are capable of producing androgens.
a. Leydig
b. theca
c. granulosa
d. Sertoli
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Which statement regarding estrogen in late pregnancy is false?
a. Estrogen levels increase during late pregnancy.
b. Estrogen stimulates the release of oxytocin.
c. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells in the uterine smooth muscle to produce receptors
for oxytocin.
d. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells in the uterine smooth muscle to produce gap
junctions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Sperm are produced in the
a. seminiferous tubules.
b. seminal vesicles.
c. vas deferens.
d. epididymis.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. The hormone that directly stimulates Leydig cells to secrete androgens is
a. testosterone.
b. estrogen.
c. luteinizing hormone.
d. follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which statement about the trophoblast is true?
a. Cells from the trophoblast include cells from the developing embryo and cells that will
help form the placenta.
b. Cells from the trophoblast contribute to the formation of the placenta.
c. Cells from the trophoblast will ultimately develop into the newborn individual.
d. Cells from the trophoblast are produced immediately following the acrosomal reaction.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
15. Fertilization usually takes place in the
a. oviduct.
b. ovary.
c. uterus.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. cervix.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. During mammalian pregnancy, implantation of the _______ usually takes place in the
_______.
a. zygote; uterus
b. zygote; endometrium
c. blastocyst; myometrium
d. blastocyst; endometrium
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. In a primate or a horse, the hormone that prevents the corpus luteum from
degenerating is
a. progesterone.
b. estrogen.
c. chorionic gonadotropin.
d. follicle-stimulating hormone.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. Which hormone can be measured to detect early pregnancy in a primate?
a. Chorionic gonadotropin
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Which hormone has a more pivotal, clearly defined function in females than in
males?
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Both oxytocin and prolactin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which hormone is not directly involved in the process of lactation?
a. Prolactin
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Dopamine
c. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
d. Vasopressin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 19: Control of Movement: The Motor Bases of Animal Behavior
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Compared to the neural circuits responsible for reflexes of invertebrates, the circuits of
vertebrates involve
a. many more steps in sequence.
b. fewer steps in sequence.
c. many more individual neurons to complete the same steps.
d. fewer individual neurons to complete the same steps.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. According to the principle of reciprocity, when a muscle is stimulated to contract, its
a. agonists and antagonists also contract.
b. agonists and antagonists relax.
c. agonists contract while its antagonists relax.
d. antagonists contract while its agonists relax.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Agonists are
a. muscles that work together to generate a given motion.
b. muscles that extend a joint.
c. muscles that have opposing actions.
d. sensory fibers that detect pain in order to trigger protective reflexes.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. The muscle fibers in a muscle spindle
a. are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract.
b. function to maintain tension on spindle stretch receptors.
c. are recruited only during very high force contractions.
d. are recruited only during very low force contraction.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet,
a. the intrafusal muscle fibers in your left quadriceps contract.
b. many motor neurons innervating your left quadriceps are excited by 1a afferent fibers.
c. a single motor neuron innervating your left quadriceps is excited by a 1a afferent fiber.
d. a single motor neuron innervating your left quadriceps is inhibited by a 1a afferent
fiber.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet. What is the correct
sequence of the events that occur?
I. Inhibition of motor neuron innervating flexors
II. Action potentials in 1a sensory neuron
III. Muscle spindle stretch receptor activated
IV. Action potentials in neuron innervating flexors
V. Action potentials in neuron innervating extensors
a. III → II → I and V simultaneously
b. II → III → IV
c. III → II → I → V
d. II → IV and V simultaneously → III
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet, motor neurons
innervating the flexors of the left knee are inhibited by _______ in the _______.
a. interneurons; spinal cord
b. interneurons; muscle
c. interneurons; tendon
d. sensory neurons; muscle
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. In the stretch reflex, a signal from a sensory neuron that detects stretch in a muscle
reaches a motor neuron innervating the stretched muscle via
a. excitatory interneurons in the brain.
b. a single excitatory synapse.
c. inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord.
d. direct sensory-to-motor-neuron synapses as well as excitatory spinal interneurons.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which statement illustrates the principle of divergence?
a. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates many motor neurons.
b. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates a single spinal motor neuron.
c. Each motor neuron receives input from thousands of synapses.
d. Each motor neuron receives input that has passed through multiple synapses on its way
from the CNS.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. When you step on a tack, excitation of sensory afferents leads to excitation of motor
neurons innervating one set of muscles and inhibition of motor neurons innervating
another set of muscles. The stimulus produces opposite responses in different motor
neurons because
a. motor neurons innervating different muscles have different receptors.
b. the afferent neuron releases different neurotransmitters at different synapses.
c. the sensory afferents transmit both excitatory and inhibitory action potentials that are
sent to different motor neurons.
d. the signals reach some motor neurons via excitatory interneurons but they reach other
motor neurons via inhibitory interneurons.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. When you are walking barefoot and your left foot lands on a marble, the
a. flexors of your left leg relax.
b. flexors of your right leg contract.
c. extensors of your left leg contract.
d. extensors of your right leg contract.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. When you voluntarily pick up a glass of milk, your
a.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while γ motor neurons
stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to contract.
b.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while α motor neurons
stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to contract.
c.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while γ motor neurons
stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to relax.
d.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while α motor neurons
stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to relax.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. If only α motor neurons were activated during a voluntary movement, the muscle
spindle would be unable to transmit information to correct the rate of the movement
because the
a. extrafusal fibers would not shorten.
b. intrafusal fibers would be stretched excessively.
c. intrafusal fibers would be slack.
d. intrafusal fibers would remain at their resting length.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. If you voluntarily lift an object and have correctly judged its weight,
a. the intrafusal muscle fibers shorten at a rate that maintains constant tension on the
stretch receptor.
b. the muscle spindle afferents fire a rapid burst of action potentials.
c. α motor neurons fire action potentials but γ motor neurons do not.
d. γ motor neurons fire action potentials but α motor neurons do not.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. If you voluntarily lift an object and have underestimated its weight,
a. the intrafusal muscle fibers shorten at a rate that maintains constant tension on the
stretch receptor.
b. the muscle spindle afferents fire a rapid burst of action potentials.
c. α motor neurons fire action potentials but γ motor neurons do not.
d. γ motor neurons fire action potentials but α motor neurons do not.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. If you voluntarily lift an object and have underestimated its weight,
a. a burst of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting
muscles to contract more forcefully.
b. a burst of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting
muscles to stop contracting.
c. the absence of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the
contracting muscles to contract more forcefully.
d. the absence of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the
contracting muscles to stop contracting.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17.–18. Refer to the figure below.
17. According to the figure, which numeral represents the sensory neuron?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. Which neuron in the figure is inhibitory?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. All neurons are excitatory.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19.–20. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. Which numeral in the figure represents the 1a afferent pathway?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. The flexion-reflex afferent pathway originates with which neurons?
a. I
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21.–22. Refer to the figure below.
21. Which caption best describes the figure?
a. Intrafusal fiber training
b. Response of intrafusal fibers to no load
c. Successful lengthening extrafusal fibers under load via coactivation
d. 1a activated contraction of extrafusal fibers to lift heavy load
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. Of the four numerals in the figure, which one best represents a reflex pathway?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
23. In rhythmic behavior such as human walking, each muscle contraction occurs in
response to
a. nerve action potentials originating in the CNS.
b. nerve action potentials originating in peripheral neurons.
c. stretch reflexes originating in the muscle.
d. spontaneous action potentials originating in muscle cells.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
24. According to the peripheral control model of insect flight,
a. sensory detection of wing depression stimulates motor neurons innervating the
depressor muscles.
b. sensory detection of wing depression stimulates motor neurons innervating the levator
muscles.
c. motor neurons stimulating the depressors also inhibit the levators.
d. sensory detection of wind causes the depressors to contract.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. Which experimental results would demonstrate that central pattern generators are
involved in producing the muscle contractions involved in rhythmic movement?
a. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed can walk and run on a treadmill.
b. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed has impaired balance on a treadmill.
c. An insect in which the sensory afferents from the wings have been cut can fly.
d. An insect in which the sensory afferents from the wings have been cut has an
unusually slow wingbeat frequency.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. How are central pattern generators and peripheral reflexes thought to interact in
normal locomotion?
a. Peripheral reflexes initiate locomotion, and central pattern generators maintain it.
b. Central pattern generators initiate locomotion, and peripheral reflexes maintain it.
c. Central pattern generators control locomotion with no input from peripheral reflexes.
d. Central pattern generators initiate and maintain locomotion, and reflexes correct and
fine-tune motion.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
27. A cellular oscillator in a central pattern generator is a cell
a. whose membrane potential responds to stimulation from other cells.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. whose membrane potential goes through regular cycles of depolarization and
repolarization.
c. whose membrane potential is unusually resistant to depolarization or hyperpolarization.
d. that fires action potentials.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. Refer to the figure below.
In order to function effectively as an oscillatory network, the half-center model depicted
in the figure must
a. include a cell that depolarizes spontaneously.
b. involve a mechanism for the activated neuron to stop signaling.
c. involve a mechanism for one of the neurons to start signaling first.
d. include both excitatory and inhibitory synapses between the two neurons.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
In the closed-loop network depicted in the figure, stimulation from outside the network
would cause cell 3 to fire
a. an indefinite train of action potentials.
b. action potentials until it is inhibited by the CNS.
c. action potentials as long as it receives stimulation from the CNS.
d. action potentials until it is inhibited by cell 1.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. Oscillatory networks based on the half-center model are unstable unless
a. there is a fatigue mechanism so that the first neuron that fires action potentials stops
firing action potentials.
b. there is a stabilizing mechanism that helps the first neuron that depolarizes to remain
depolarized.
c. there is a stabilizing mechanism so that the first neuron that fires action potentials
keeps firing action potentials.
d. there is a fatigue mechanism so that the external command stimulation stops.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. The stomatogastric ganglion of decapod crustaceans has received extensive study
because
a. control of the crustacean stomach is very similar to control of the human stomach.
b. the stomatogastric ganglion is the simplest oscillator studied to date.
c. the stomatogastric ganglion generates a variety of rhythmic output with a small number
of neurons.
d. the drugs that act on the stomatogastric ganglion are likely to have effects similar to
those that act on the human digestive tract.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
32. Neuromodulators of the stomatogastric ganglion of a decapod crustacean would be
least likely to have what action?
a. Change the order in which the neurons of the pyloric circuit contract
b. Speed up the rhythm of contractions in the stomach
c. Slow down the rhythm of contractions in the stomach
d. Alter the strength of muscle contractions in the stomach
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33.–35 Refer to the figure below.
33. Which statement is the most likely explanation for the data shown in the figure?
a. PD/AB is a cellular oscillator that activates PY, which activates LP.
b. PD/AB is a cellular oscillator that inhibits both LP and PY, which are autoactive.
c. PY is a cellular oscillator that activates both PD/AB and LP.
d. LP is a cellular oscillator that inhibits both PD/AB and PY.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
34. If PD/AB fires first, which statement is true?
a. PY recovers the fastest and fires before LP
b. PD/AB activates firing of LP
c. LP and PY are activated and LP fires first
d. LP and PY are inhibited and LP recovers first and fires
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. The hybrid oscillator in the figure produces
a. a pyloric rhythm that controls the straining of food particles.
b. contractions that contract the gastric mill to grind food.
c. muscle cotractions that contract vertebrate jaws.
d. an esophageal rhythm that controls food movement through the esophagus.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. The action potentials that directly trigger muscle contractions of walking movements
in a vertebrate animal are initiated by neurons whose cell bodies are located in the
a. motor cortex.
b. cerebellar cortex.
c. basal ganglia.
d. spinal cord.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. Experiments in which cats with transected spinal cords are able to walk on treadmills
demonstrate that the
a. brain does not normally initiate walking in cats.
b. brain does not control the timing of repetitive limb/wing movements in all animals.
c. brain does not control the timing of repetitive limb movements in cats.
d. spinal cord is not necessary for communication between the brain and the limbs.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
38. Injections of L-dopa, the precursor of norepinephrine, can enable spinally transected
cats to walk on a treadmill. The most likely explanation for this result is that
a. norepinephrine stimulates spinal motor neurons, causing muscle contractions.
b. norepinephrine acts on the neuromuscular junctions of the limb muscles and causes
muscle contractions.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. norepinephrine activates sensory afferents that cause reflex muscle contractions in the
limbs.
d. norepinephrine activates the central pattern generator that causes rhythmic stepping
motions.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. Modeling experiments on walking and swimming in robotic salamanders suggest that
a. each type of repetitive motion that an animal performs is controlled by a distinct
central pattern generator.
b. some repetitive motions are controlled by a central pattern generator, but others are
not.
c. a particular central pattern generator always produces the same pattern of limb
movements.
d. simple changes in the coordination of central pattern generators can produce different
locomotor gait.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. In the network of central pattern generators that governs walking and swimming in
salamanders,
a. movement is normally initiated by sensory input from the limbs.
b. oscillators on opposite sides of the body are coupled so that they are active at the same
time.
c. stronger stimulation causes trunk oscillation to prevail over limb movements.
d. stronger stimulation increases the rate of movement and force of both trunk and limb
muscles.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. In the primary motor cortex, the neurons most responsible for sending motor output to
spinal motor neurons are the
a. mirror neurons.
b. pyramidal cells.
c. Purkinje cells.
d. granule cells.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. Output from the primary motor cortex consists mostly of action potentials that are
transmitted to
a. synapses with interneurons in the spinal cord.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. synapses with motor neurons in the brain.
c. synapses with motor neurons in the spinal cord.
d. the cerebellum.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. The primary motor cortex contains neurons that
a. make decisions about what movements to undertake.
b. encode the force and direction of movements.
c. correspond to individual muscles according to location in the cortex.
d. connect only to areas outside of the brain.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. Evidence for the role of the primary motor cortex comes from experiments that show
that
a. activation of individual neurons of the motor cortex matches activation of individual
muscles.
b. activation of individual neurons of the motor cortex matches activation of individual
motor units.
c. activity of some neurons of the motor cortex correlates with the force or direction of a
movement.
d. the number of motor cortex neurons that fire action potentials is linearly related to the
force of the muscle contraction.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
45. Electrical recordings from human volunteers indicate that the decision to move a
body part and the signals generating that movement arise from
a. one specific area of the motor cortex.
b. one specific area of the cerebellum.
c. one specific area of the spinal cord.
d. interactions of multiple cortical regions.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. A readiness potential is a(n)
a. localized electrical potential within the primary motor cortex that corresponds precisely
to the intended movement.
b. broad wave of electrical activity in the cerebral cortex that precedes a voluntary
movement.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. graded depolarization of spinal motor neurons that makes it easier for them to reach
threshold in response to sensory input.
d. electrical potential generated in the cerebellum in preparation for a voluntary
movement.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47. The frontal cortex contains areas that are involved in
a. receiving visual or auditory stimuli that might trigger a movement.
b. monitoring and correcting the accuracy of movement.
c. planning and organizing movement.
d. sending signals to muscle fibers.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. The main role of the cerebellum is to
a. make decisions on which voluntary movements to perform.
b. plan the sequence of muscle contractions involved in an involuntary movement.
c. send the signals to activate muscle fibers involved in a voluntary movement.
d. provide feedback to correct errors as a voluntary movement is performed.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Output from the cerebellar cortex is sent by
a. Purkinje cells.
b. Golgi cells.
c. granule cells.
d. stellate cells.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. The involvement of the cerebellum in motor learning is demonstrated by the
observation that patients with cerebellar lesions are
a. paralyzed on one side of their body.
b. paralyzed on both sides of their body.
c. capable of voluntary movements but are clumsy and uncoordinated.
d. capable of coordinated movement if they are helped with initiating the movement.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
51. The involvement of the cerebellum in preprogramming voluntary movements is
demonstrated by the observation that many patients with cerebellar lesions are
a. paralyzed on one side of their body.
b. paralyzed on both sides of their body.
c. capable of coordinated movement if they are helped with initiating the movement.
d. capable of voluntary movements but must think about each step in complex
movements individually.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
52. Most of the neurons in the basal ganglia are inhibitory. How can an inhibitory
synapse be involved in generating a movement?
a. Inhibitory action potentials are converted to excitatory action potentials when they
arrive at the neuromuscular junction.
b. Inhibition of a tonically active inhibitory neuron results in disinhibition of its target
neuron.
c. Muscle fibers receive the inhibitory input and convert it into excitatory input.
d. Inhibiting other motor pathways automatically excites the relevant motor pathway.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
53. Excitatory inputs from the cerebral cortex to the striatum will lead to what effects on
corresponding neurons downstream in the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?
a. Excitation in the globus pallidus and inhibition in the thalamus
b. Excitation in the globus pallidus and excitation in the thalamus
c. Inhibition in the globus pallidus and excitation in the thalamus
d. Inhibition in the globus pallidus and inhibition in the thalamus
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
54. Which human pathology has been linked to degeneration of the basal ganglia?
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Retrograde amnesia
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
55. Movement disorders such as Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease are
associated with degeneration in what areas of the central nervous system?
a. The frontal cortex
b. The primary motor cortex
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Spinal motor neurons
d. The basal ganglia
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
56. What experimental evidence indicates that the decision to perform a voluntary
movement originates in the association cortex?
a. A localized electrical potential in the association cortex is the first electrical signal
recorded prior to a motion.
b. Diffuse readiness potentials can be recorded over most of the cortical surface prior to
the localized potentials that precede movement.
c. Lesions of specific locations in the association cortex correspond to deficits in
movement of corresponding body parts.
d. Animals with superior motor coordination have significantly larger association cortices
than other animals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. The motor cortex sends output to the cerebellum as movements are initiated, and the
cerebellum
a. transmits output from the motor cortex to the spinal motor neurons.
b. transmits output from the motor cortex to the muscle fibers.
c. compares sensory feedback to the initial motor output to detect errors.
d. generates the readiness potential that precedes movement.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
58. A 66-year-old man has difficulty controlling voluntary movements. He can clearly
state what he intends to do, describe how he would do it, and initiate or stop the
movement. However, he has poor coordination and often misses his target. If his
difficulty arises from a defect in one particular area of the central nervous system, which
area is most likely to be involved?
a. Association cortex
b. Primary motor cortex
c. Muscle spindles
d. Spinocerebellum
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
59.–60. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
59. Joey is lying in bed motionless. Which neuron in this figure is tonically active?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
60. Beth knows the answer to a question and raises her hand. During the initiation of this
movement, which neuron in the figure becomes disinhibited?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. Write a paragraph describing the mechanism that causes you to withdraw your right
hand very rapidly when you reach out and touch a hot frying pan by mistake.
Answer: Painful stimuli activate flexion-reflex afferents that synapse on spinal
interneurons. These interneurons excite motor neurons leading to the ipsilateral flexor
muscles as well as interneurons that inhibit motor neurons leading to the ipsilateral
extensors. They also activate the crossed extensor reflex by exciting interneurons that
activate motor neurons of the contralateral extensors and inhibitory interneurons leading
to the contralateral flexors.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Explain why α‒γ coactivation is important for quality control of voluntary motions.
Answer: When extrafusal muscle fibers contract, the entire muscle shortens, including the
portion surrounding the intrafusal fibers that contain the muscle spindles. If the
contractile portion of the intrafusal fiber is not activated to contract, the normal baseline
tension on the muscle spindles will be released and the action potential frequency of the
spindle afferents will decrease or stop entirely. α‒γ coactivation ensures that the
intrafusal fiber contracts at a rate that corresponds to the expected rate of shortening of
the entire muscle. If the muscle shortens at the expected rate, the tension on the spindle
remains constant, resulting in a constant rate of action potentials in the 1a afferent fibers.
If the muscle shortens more slowly than expected, the tension on the spindle increases,
resulting in a higher action potential frequency in the 1a afferents. This would occur in
lifting an object heavier than anticipated. The feedback in this case would increase the
recruitment of muscle fibers in order to successfully lift the object. If the muscle shortens
too quickly, the tension on the spindle decreases, resulting in a lower action potential
frequency in the 1a afferents. This would occur in lifting an object that is much lighter
than anticipated. The feedback in this case reduces the recruitment of muscle fibers to
reduce the velocity of the lift and possibly prevent losing control of the object or injuring
oneself.
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Compare and contrast the central control hypothesis and peripheral control hypothesis
as they relate to insect flight
Answer: According to the central control hypothesis, a central pattern generator sends
alternating output that produces alternating contractions of depressor and levator muscles.
According to the peripheral control hypothesis, stretch of a muscle (or other sensory
feedback) activates receptors and neural pathways leading to contraction of that muscle.
Alternating stretch and contraction leads to rhythmic motion.
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Draw a diagram of a network oscillator involving at least three neurons, and label each
synapse as excitatory or inhibitory. Graph the membrane potential of each neuron in the
oscillator as a function of time on a single x-axis and write a paragraph describing how
the network works and the pattern of output that it generates.
Answer: Answers may vary. This is one example of a network oscillator. Many other
valid networks could be diagrammed.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
All synapses in the circuit are excitatory and each neuron fires a brief burst of action
potentials before fatiguing. The circuit is activated by a burst of action potentials from the
command neuron (C) and then continues oscillating through many cycles. Synaptic
transmission and axonal transmission are slow enough that neuron #1 recovers before it is
re-excited by neuron #3. The output of the entire network corresponds to the activity of
neuron #3. The circuit could stop sending output by one of several means. For example,
the #3 neuron could be inhibited by a neuron that is not shown in the diagram.
Alternately, neuron #1 could depend on low-level tonic output from the command neuron
to remain sensitive to excitation from neuron #3.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 6. Creating
5. Contrast the mechanisms by which cellular oscillators and network oscillators generate
patterns of rhythmic motion.
Answer: A cell that acts as a cellular oscillator has a combination of ion channels or other
cellular mechanisms that cause its membrane potential to oscillate spontaneously. It may
or may not fire action potentials when its membrane potential is depolarized in the cycle.
A network oscillator can generate rhythmic output without any single cell that oscillates
spontaneously. Network oscillators typically involve networks of cells that activate or
inhibit one another sequentially. If the cells inhibit one another, some or all of them may
be tonically active in the absence of inhibition. If the cells are tonically active or activate
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
one another, they are likely to have some intrinsic mechanism of fatigue or synaptic
antifacilitation to prevent indefinite activation.
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. The phrase “like a chicken with its head cut off” refers to a person rushing around
frantically or carelessly. Explain how a chicken might be able to run (briefly) after its
brain has been disconnected from the rest of its body.
Answer: Once initiated, rhythmic contractions of the limbs can be sustained by a spinal
central pattern generator. Neurons descending from the brain to the spinal cord are
depolarized due to the physical destruction of the neurons during detaching of the head.
Because the cerebellum and other portions of the brain are disconnected, normal quality
control of movement patterns will be absent and movements are likely to be poorly
coordinated.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
7. In what ways do mirror neurons in the premotor areas of the cerebral cortex highlight
the complexity of motor pathways?
Answer: The premotor area is involved in planning and organizing voluntary motor
patterns. Experiments on primates indicate that particular mirror neurons are activated
when an animal generates a particular movement, initially suggesting a simple
correspondence of neurons in the cortex to particular patterns of muscle contraction.
However, these neurons are also activated when an animal observes another animal
making the same movement. Thus the neurons cannot be immediately responsible for
causing the movement, and must operate at a higher level of motor programming.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Sketch and give a written description of how the nervous system plans, programs, and
executes a voluntary movement. Include a sentence describing the role of each of at least
four different brain areas.
Answer: A proper example includes something similar to Figure 19.14: The sensory
association cortex (as well as other cortical areas) funnels activity to premotor cortical
areas, including loops through the basal ganglia (selection and initiation of movement)
and the cerebrocerebellum (initial programming), in the planning and programming of the
movement. Activity passes to the primary motor cortex for executing the movement, with
correction from a cerebellar loop through the spinocerebellum. Inputs to the cerebral
cortex pass through the thalamus.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Describe how observations of human patients or animals with lesions of the nervous
system have contributed to our understanding of normal motor control. Include relevant
examples and relate them to general experimental principles.
Answer: Functional deficits observed in an animal with a lesion may indicate that the site
of the lesion is important to the function. However, some deficits may be related to more
general impairment or reduced connectivity of the nervous system. Proper controls need
to be included in the experimental design in order to determine the specificity of the
lesion.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Discuss some of the areas of scientific uncertainty regarding the control of voluntary
movement by vertebrate animals. Speculate on some experimental techniques (either
current or still to be developed) and possible experimental results that might help to
refine our models of motor control.
Answer: Important areas of uncertainty include how decisions are made to generate a
voluntary motion, how neurons in the central nervous system interact to generate a
voluntary motion, and the number of neurons that are involved in a simple motion. While
relevant areas of the brain have been identified, scientists lack “wiring diagrams” for the
generation of voluntary motions. High resolution functional imaging (both spatial and
temporal) may help to improve our models of motor control.
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Invertebrates have often been used in motor control studies because
a. invertebrates have many more motor neurons in a single pathway compared to
vertebrates.
b. individual neurons are simpler in invertebrates than in vertebrates, and therefore motor
control pathways are also simpler.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. motor control pathways in invertebrates are all reflex pathways and therefore are
simpler than pathways in vertebrates.
d. often only a few neurons are involved in a particular step in an invertebrate motor
control pathway.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. The 1a afferent fibers associated with muscle spindles increase their action potential
frequency only when the muscle
a. shortens more than expected during a voluntary contraction.
b. shortens involuntarily or shortens more than expected during a voluntary contraction.
c. lengthens involuntarily or shortens less than expected during a voluntary contraction.
d. lengthens involuntarily.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet, stretch is
sensed by sensory receptors associated with
a. extrafusal fibers in the patellar tendon.
b. intrafusal fibers in the patellar tendon.
c. extrafusal fibers in the quadriceps.
d. intrafusal fibers in the quadriceps.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Which statement illustrates the principle of convergence?
a. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates a single spinal motor neuron.
b. A single pain receptor afferent stimulates a single spinal interneuron.
c. Each motor neuron receives input from thousands of synapses.
d. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates many motor neurons.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. If you accidentally grab a very hot frying pan with your right hand, _______ will
_______ action potential frequency.
a. α motor neurons innervating the left elbow extensors; decrease
b. α motor neurons innervating the right elbow flexors; increase
c. afferent neurons from the Golgi tendon organ in the right elbow extensors; increase
d. afferent neurons from the intrafusal fibers of the right elbow flexors; increase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. Suppose that you contract your biceps brachii muscle to toss a juggling pin into the air
and find that it is much lighter than you expected. Which of the following will happen in
compensation?
a. The action potential frequency in the α motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be
decreased reflexively.
b. The action potential frequency in the α motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be
increased reflexively.
c. The action potential frequency in the γ motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be
increased reflexively.
d. The action potential frequency in the γ motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be
decreased reflexively.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Which experimental result would demonstrate most strongly that sensory feedback is
important in the control of rhythmic movement?
a. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed can still walk and run on a treadmill.
b. An insect in which sensory afferents from the wings have been cut can still fly.
c. Repetitive stimulation of sensory afferents alters the frequency of wingbeats in a
tethered insect.
d. Repetitive stimulation of sensory afferents does not alter the frequency of wingbeats in
a tethered insect.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Which statement about a network oscillator is true?
a. One or more neurons receive input that turns the network on, and then neurons interact
to generate a rhythmic output pattern.
b. A pacemaker cell outside of the network turns the network on and off to control other
effectors such as muscle fibers.
c. Each cell in the network has pacemaker properties that determine the rate of output
from the network.
d. The cells in the network depolarize in response to input from sensory afferents.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which statement about the stomatogastric ganglion of a crayfish is true?
a. The central nervous system sends output that depolarizes each cell in the ganglion
simultaneously.
b. The central nervous system sends a depolarizing signal that begins each wave of
depolarization.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. A rhythm generated by a cellular oscillator is reinforced and stabilized by network
properties.
d. A cellular oscillator generates rhythmic output under the control of a network of
ganglionic cells.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Compared to the repetitive motor patterns of locomotion, more complex motor
behaviors
a. probably involve many more spinal motor neurons in each step.
b. probably rely on mechanisms that are completely different from those involved in
locomotion.
c. may be composed of simple patterns linked by CNS commands and responses to
sensory feedback.
d. involve similar patterns within the CNS but different output pathways to the skeletal
muscles.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Experiments in which sensory afferent fibers in the hindlimbs of cats are transected
show that sensory feedback from the limbs
a. is necessary to maintain repetitive movements.
b. is not necessary to maintain repetitive movements.
c. is necessary to initiate locomotor movements.
d. normally acts to inhibit limb muscle contractions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Modeling experiments on walking and swimming in robotic salamanders have
concluded that walking and swimming
a. are completely distinct motor patterns involving separate central pattern generators.
b. use the same central pattern generator and timing, but the output goes to different
muscle groups for each mode of locomotion.
c. movements can be generated automatically by a network of central pattern generators
responding to the intensity of the central command.
d. movements are generated from a single central pattern generator responding to the
sensory feedback received by the salamander.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. Pyramidal cells are
a. neurons in the primary motor cortex that send output to activate spinal motor neurons.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. neurons in the cerebellum that send the sole output from the cerebellar cortex.
c. neurons in the cerebellum that exert excitatory effects on other cerebellar neurons.
d. sensory neurons that collect information on joint position and muscle length.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. In vertebrates, the highest-level planning of voluntary movement, such as deciding
whether or not to make a movement, begins in the
a. association cortex.
b. basal ganglia.
c. cerebellar cortex.
d. primary motor cortex.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum send _______ output from the cerebellar cortex
to the _______.
a. excitatory; cerebellar nuclei
b. inhibitory; cerebellar nuclei
c. excitatory; spinal cord
d. inhibitory; spinal cord
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Studies of the circuitry and function of the vertebrate cerebellum have resulted in
a. a detailed map of the representation of individual muscles in the cerebellar cortex, as
well as functional details of how the neurons interact to coordinate movement.
b. a detailed map of the representation of individual muscles in the cerebellar cortex,
although there is still some uncertainty about the function of the different neurons.
c. a detailed explanation of how different categories of neurons interact to coordinate
movement, but no spatial map.
d. several competing models of how the cerebellum might work to coordinate movement.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Voluntary movements in a vertebrate animal are generated by
a. the motor cortex.
b. the cerebellum.
c. basal ganglia.
d. interactions of several regions.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. How does the indirect pathway of synaptic transmission in the basal ganglia help to
fine tune voluntary movement?
a. The indirect pathway sends the signals that activate thalamic neurons associated with
the intended movement.
b. The indirect pathway inhibits thalamic neurons, thereby suppressing movements that
may compete with the intended movement.
c. The indirect pathway inhibits thalamic neurons, thereby modulating muscular force so
that movements are not too forceful.
d. The indirect pathway reinforces the direct pathway so that thalamic neurons stimulate
the motor cortex at higher frequency.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. According to the current general model describing planning and execution of a
voluntary movement, decisions generated in the _______ cortex are passed to the
_______ via the _______.
a. motor; association cortex; cerebellum
b. association; motor cortex; basal ganglia
c. association; cerebellum; basal ganglia
d. frontal; basal ganglia; motor cortex
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. A 52-year-old woman has difficulty initiating voluntary movements. She can clearly
state what she intends to do, describe exactly how she would do it, and picture herself
doing it easily. When she is able to begin the motion, she can complete it smoothly and
accurately, but she has difficulty beginning the motion. If the difficulty arises from a
defect in one particular area of the nervous system, which area is most likely to be
involved?
a. Association cortex
b. Basal ganglia
c. Spinal motor neurons
d. Spinocerebellum
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 15: Nervous System Organization and Biological Clocks
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement about the features of a nervous system is true?
a. The transmission rate is relatively slow.
b. Neurotransmitter release takes place throughout the body via the blood.
c. Neurons form highly discrete lines of communication.
d. In the PNS, a nerve consists of the axons of five or fewer neurons bundled together.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
2. Interneurons are located in
a. the central nervous system.
b. the peripheral nervous system.
c. the somatic system.
d. the autonomic system.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which statement describes a general feature of a nervous system?
a. Interneurons are collected into integrated areas at one end of the body rather than
randomly dispersed.
b. Sensory receptor cells transform electrical stimuli into environmental signals.
c. Central interneurons integrate signals from sensory receptors and other signals arising
within the animal, generating an integrated pattern of impulses.
d. Motor commands are sent out from the effectors to the CNS.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Which of the following is the effector in the startle response of the cockroach?
a. Movement of filiform hair receptors
b. Action potentials in the giant interneuron
c. Contraction of the hind leg muscle
d. A train of action potentials produced by the leg motor neuron.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which is the most primitive organism that contains genes for nervous system
organization?
a. Protists
b. Sponges
c. Arthropods
d. Echinoderms
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. In an arthropod, the bundle of nerve axons located within a ganglion is called a
a. connective.
b. sheaf.
c. neuropile.
d. tract.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. A structural organization in which integrating neurons are all collected into central
integrating areas rather than being randomly dispersed is referred to as
a. cephalization.
b. centralization.
c. centrification.
d. a ganglion.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. A connective is a bundle of
a. axons in the PNS.
b. axons within a ganglion.
c. axons between ganglia in the CNS.
d. axons between the right and left sides of a bilaterally symmetrical ganglion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. The figure below depicts a cross section of a(n)
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. vertebrate spinal cord.
b. arthropod ganglion.
c. vertebrate ganglion.
d. arthropod connective.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. In the vertebrate PNS, collections of neuronal cell bodies associated with peripheral
nerves are called
a. central ganglia.
b. peripheral ganglia.
c. a tract.
d. a commissure.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11.‒13. Refer to the figure below.
11. Which number(s) in the figure represent(s) the hindbrain?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. III
b. III and IV
c. IV
d. IV and V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. Which number in the figure best corresponds to the area of the brain responsible for
learning and memory?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. Which number in the figure best corresponds to the area of the brain responsible for
autonomic and respiratory control?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Which principle of functional organization of the vertebrate brain explains the
concept of memories?
a. Brains have maps.
b. The expansion of the forebrain is a recorded event in vertebrate brain evolution.
c. Brain function is somewhat localized.
d. Neural circuits are plastic.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
15. A map of the body projected to a brain area is called a
a. somatotopic map.
b. sensory homunculus.
c. motor homunculus.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. localization-of-function map.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which statement regarding the brain is true?
a. Processing capability is related to the hindbrain.
b. Primate brains have a similar cerebral cortex compared to amphibian brains.
c. The larger the cerebral cortex, the more the processing capability of the brain.
d. Primate brains are more evolved compared to the brains of fish.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Which area has the most sensory neurons per unit area of epidermis?
a. Scalp
b. Upper arm
c. Lips
d. Ring finger
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18.‒20. Refer to the figure below.
18. Which statement best reflects the adaptive significance of brain representations in the
star-nosed mole?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. The comparatively large brain representations reflect the importance of somatosensory
functions.
b. The mole shows evidence of plasticity of brain development.
c. The brain of the mole has very little area devoted to auditory processes.
d. The brain of the mole demonstrates a clear visual processing area.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
19. Which statement about the figure is true?
a. The figure on the left depicts a cross section of a somatosensory map in a star-nosed
mole.
b. The figure on the right depicts a side view map of the cerebral cortex in a star-nosed
mole.
c. The figure on the right depicts a somatosensory map of a hedgehog.
d. The figure on the left depicts a somatosensory map of a star-nosed mole.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which statement about the figure is false?
a. Both hedgehogs and star-nosed moles demonstrate localization of cerebral cortical
function.
b. Star-nosed moles can hear.
c. Hedgehogs are incredibly specialized visual animals.
d. In star-nosed moles, large amounts of sensory information are sent from their star
noses to their brains.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21. Which division of the nervous system regulates digestion?
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Enteric
d. Parasympathetic and enteric
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
22.‒26. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
22. The labels in the figure correspond to which parts of the nervous system?
a. I = somatic; II = parasympathetic; III = sympathetic
b. I = sympathetic; II = parasympathetic; III = somatic
c. I = somatic; II = autonomic; III = sympathetic
d. I = peripheral; II = autonomic; III = somatic
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Which neurotransmitter is being released at arrow V?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine/norepinephrine
c. Glutamate
d. GABA
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
24. Describe the effect of adding acetylcholine to the area indicated by arrow IV in the
figure.
a. Acceleration of heart rate
b. Deceleration of heart rate
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Complete stopping of the heart
d. There is no effect.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. Describe the effect of adding acetylcholine to the area indicated by arrow V in the
figure.
a. Acceleration of heart rate
b. Deceleration of heart rate
c. Complete stopping of the heart
d. There is no effect.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. In the figure, how many arrows (including labeled and unlabeled) are in the vicinity
of a possible EPSP?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Eight
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. The peripheral synapses between the first and second neurons in the sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions are located within clusters of neuronal cell bodies called
_______ ganglia.
a. enteric
b. peripheral
c. central
d. autonomic
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. The nerve that runs from the paravertebral ganglia to the heart would be termed a(n)
_______ neuron.
a. sympathetic postganglionic
b. parasympathetic postganglionic
c. sympathetic preganglionic
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. parasympathetic preganglionic
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. What would be the effect of applying epinephrine/norepinephrine to the paravertebral
ganglia in the upper thoracic area?
a. Acceleration of heart rate
b. Deceleration of heart rate
c. Complete stopping of the heart
d. There is no effect.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. A surprise phone call at 3 AM would likely cause which physiological reaction?
a. Increased salivation
b. Pupil dilation
c. Increased digestion
d. Decreased glucose production
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31.‒33. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
31. The structure at arrow I in the figure is the
a. paravertebral ganglion.
b. thoracic ganglion.
c. thoracic division of the spinal column.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. inferior mesenteric ganglion.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. If epinephrine/norepinephrine were applied in the vicinity of arrow II in the figure,
a. heart rate would accelerate.
b. hormone and enzyme release in the stomach would be inhibited.
c. the gallbladder would be stimulated to release bile.
d. there would be no effect.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
33. In the figure, the “+” symbol represents stimulation, increase, or constriction, and the
“–” symbol represents inhibition, decrease, or relaxation. Which numeral in the figure is
paired incorrectly with the symbol?
a. III
b. IV
c. V
d. VI
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
34. The preganglionic neuron of the sympathetic system releases the neurotransmitter
a. acetylcholine.
b. epinephrine/norepinephrine.
c. glutamate.
d. GABA.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. Which statement regarding the enteric system is true?
a. Neurons exit the CNS in the thoracic region to innervate the gut.
b. It plays a role in segmentation.
c. It is largely under autonomic control.
d. In humans, it contains about 2 million neurons.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
36. Rhythms that continue in the absence of environmental information about time are
called
a. entrained rhythms.
b. endogenous rhythms.
c. circadian rhythms.
d. free-running circadian rhythms.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. In mammals, what inhibits the activity of CLOCK/BMAL1?
a. PER
b. period mRNA
c. PER/CRY
d. PER/TIM
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
38.‒40. Refer to the figure below.
38. According to this figure, the light‒dark cycle _______ the physiological rhythms.
a. disrupts
b. phases
c. entrains
d. synchronizes
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
39. Which label is not appropriate for the y-axis of the figure?
a. Growth
b. Metabolic rate
c. Oxygen consumption
d. Urine output
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. Which statement about the figure is false?
a. The two rhythms shown here are in phase.
b. The rhythms are entrained to the light‒dark cycle.
c. The period of this rhythm is about 24 hours.
d. The figure likely represents a nocturnal animal.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
41. Which statement regarding biological clocks is true?
a. The period of an animal’s free-running rhythm is not affected by light‒dark cycles.
b. Biological clocks are very sensitive to internal (cellular) temperature.
c. Nocturnal animals often have periods of free-running rhythms much shorter than 24
hours.
d. Biological clocks permit the timing of processes during 24-hour periods when
environmental cues are unreliable.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
42.‒43. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
42. Which statement regarding the data in this figure is the most accurate?
a. The animal loses its circadian rhythm following destruction of the hypothalamus.
b. The animal loses its circadian rhythm following destruction of the suprachiasmatic
nucleus.
c. In part B, the activity period of the animal was entrained by the light‒dark cycle.
d. In part A, the activity period of the animal was entrained by the light‒dark cycle.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
43. The most accurate conclusion that can be made from the data shown in the figure is
that the free-running circadian rhythm of the animal
a. is not influenced by light or dark.
b. is slightly longer than 24 hours.
c. is slightly shorter than 24 hours.
d. when entrained is exactly 24 hours.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
44. Which statement best describes the mechanism for circadian rhythm?
a. There is an alternation between enhanced and inhibited expression of clock genes.
b. Clock genes inhibit gene expression of positive elements.
c. Clock genes inhibit expression of negative elements.
d. The time-keeping mechanism depends only on the breakdown of negative elements.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. When the suprachiasmatic nucleus in a horse is destroyed,
a. circadian rhythm becomes free-running.
b. a zeitgeber is induced.
c. the animal loses its ability to navigate.
d. most circadian activity ceases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46.‒48. Refer to the figure below.
46. What experimental procedure is indicated by the arrow in the figure?
a. Removal of the medial pituitary
b. Destruction of the hypothalamus
c. Removal of the cerebral cortex
d. Destruction of the suprachiasmatic nucleus
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. Which statement about the result of the experimental procedure indicated by the
arrow in the figure is the most accurate?
a. The circadian oscillator was activated.
b. The free-running circadian activity ceased.
c. A zeitgeber was induced.
d. Activity remained constant.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. Which statement is the most accurate conclusion that can be drawn from the data in
the figure?
a. The hamster’s hypothalamus was destroyed, and therefore it could not control the
animal’s circadian rhythm.
b. The thalamus is significantly involved in the circadian rhythm of the golden hamster.
c. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are significantly involved in the circadian rhythm of the
golden hamster.
d. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are likely not involved in the circadian rhythm of the
golden hamster.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
49. Physiological timing mechanisms that, like stopwatches, permit the timing of parts of
days for different functions are called
a. stochastic rhythms.
b. neurophysiological timers.
c. circannual rhythms.
d. interval timers.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. In vertebrates, melatonin is secreted in a circadian rhythm from the
a. pineal gland.
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
c. circadian oscillator.
d. clock genes.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Describe the two major trends in nervous system evolution once animal lineages
became bilaterally symmetrical.
Answer: The two major trends that characterize the evolution of nervous systems in
bilaterally symmetrical phyla are centralization and cephalization. Centralization of
nervous systems refers to a structural organization in which neurons are collected into
central integrating areas rather than being randomly dispersed. Cephalization is the
concentration of nervous structures and functions at one end of the body, in the head.
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
2. Compare and contrast the organization of arthropod and vertebrate central nervous
systems.
Answer: Both the arthropod and vertebrate central nervous systems are centralized in
organization and do show cephalization. However, the arthropod CNS consists of a chain
of segmental ganglia, whereas the vertebrate CNS consists of a continuous column of
neural tissue.
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Explain a somatotopic map.
Answer: A somatotopic map is a representation of the body that is projected to a brain
area in a way that preserves the relative anatomical position of the parts the body. The
relative sizes of brain areas that represent different parts of the body reflect the relative
number of neurons serving that area.
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Briefly explain what is meant by synaptic plasticity. Provide one example.
Answer: Synaptic plasticity refers to changes in synaptic properties over time. Synapses
may change in strength and efficacy with development, maturation, and experiences such
as learning. These changes can be temporary or permanent. For example, receptors can be
modified in number within the synapse, synapses can be created or destroyed, or they can
change size or efficacy. These changes can be seen microscopically or measured as
changes in efficacy (e.g., changes in PSP amplitude).
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. How do star-nosed moles exemplify the principles of brain functional organization?
Answer: The star-nosed mole provides a great example of functional organization of the
brain because the size of representations in the brain reflects the importance of different
sensory qualities. Somatosensory representations of the star and of the forepaws are large,
whereas areas devoted to vision are small. The star has three somatosensory
representations that together occupy more area in the brain than that devoted to the rest of
the body.
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Compare and contrast the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
systems.
Answer: Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are both divisions of the autonomic
nervous system that functionally link the CNS with autonomic effectors. However, the
two divisions typically have opposing effects. The sympathetic actions mediate “fight-orflight” responses, whereas the parasympathetic actions mediate “rest-and-digest.”
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. If atropine is an antagonist to acetylcholine, explain what this drug would do to the
heart.
Answer: If atropine is added to the heart, it will competitively bind to ACh receptors on
the heart. Since ACh receptors on the heart mediate the actions of the parasympathetic
system, blocking this signal on the heart will effectively increase its rate.
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Describe what is meant by entrainment and provide an example.
Answer: Entrainment is the process by which a biological rhythm is brought into phase
with an environmental rhythm. For example, the onset of darkness each night entrains the
circadian rhythm of the activity of nocturnal flying squirrels.
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Compare and contrast free-running circadian rhythms of nocturnal and diurnal
mammals.
Answer: Free-running circadian rhythms of both nocturnal and diurnal mammals are not
exactly 24 hours and thus will tend to slowly shift the sleep‒wake cycles of these
animals. Nocturnal mammals tend to have periods of free-running rhythm that are longer
than 24 hours, and many diurnal mammals tend to have periods shorter than 24 hours.
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain how the pineal gland may operate differently in nonmammalian vertebrates
compared to mammals.
Answer: The pineal physiology of nonmammalian vertebrates differs from that of
mammals in two ways. First, the nonmammalian pineal gland may be endogenously
rhythmic and can act as a primary circadian control center. Second, the pineal gland is
often light-sensitive and acts as a “third eye,” providing extraocular information about the
environmental day‒night cycle.
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Of a squid, an earthworm, a human, a cockroach, and a bacterium, how many have a
brain?
a. 2
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Which term refers to the concentration of nervous structures and functions in the head
region?
a. Centriolization
b. Centralization
c. Radialization
d. Cephalization
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. A _______ is a swelling that contains discrete aggregations of nerve cell bodies and
processes.
a. ganglion
b. connective
c. commissure
d. neuropil
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which of the following is characteristic of an arthropod central nervous system?
a. A cross section of a ganglion consisting of gray matter and white matter
b. Neuronal bodies located throughout the entire animal
c. A CNS consisting of a single continuous column
d. A CNS consisting of a chain of segmental ganglia
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Most tissues in the body are under _______ control.
a. neural
b. endocrine
c. both neural and endocrine
d. neurohormonal
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. Which statement regarding the vertebrate nervous system is true?
a. White matter is composed almost entirely of unmyelinated tracts of neurons.
b. The cerebral cortex is part of the midbrain, or mesencephalon.
c. Spinal nerves run from the brain to the spinal cord.
d. Gray matter is composed of intermingled neuronal cell bodies, processes, and synaptic
contacts.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. Which brain subdivision is responsible for higher sensory, motor, and integrative
functions?
a. Diencephalon
b. Mesencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Telencephalon
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. A _______ is a term used when parts of the body are mapped onto the cerebral cortex
in a way that preserves their anatomical position on the body.
a. localization of function map
b. somatotopic map
c. somatosensory cortex
d. brain map
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Which of the following is not directly related to neuronal plasticity?
a. Short-term memory
b. Localized increases in brain metabolic activity
c. Neural connections changing in strength
d. New neurons developing
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Acid-secreting cells of the stomach are controlled by
a. the autonomic system.
b. the enteric division.
c. hormones only.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. paracrine signaling only.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. The _______ division has a long preganglionic neuron synapsed with a short
postganglionic neuron.
a. sympathetic
b. enteric
c. parasympathetic
d. autonomic
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. What are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
a. Parasympathetic, sympathetic
b. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, somatic
c. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, enteric
d. Somatic, enteric
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. Application of acetylcholine along the paravertebral ganglia will
a. cause the heart to speed up.
b. cause the heart to slow down.
c. have no effect on the heart.
d. cause the heart to stop.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which action is considered a parasympathetic effect?
a. Simulation of the secretion of epinephrine
b. Inhibition of digestion
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Constriction of lung airways
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
15. Application of acetylcholine directly to the heart will
a. cause the heart to speed up.
b. cause the heart to slow down.
c. have no effect on the heart.
d. cause the heart to stop.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General
Organizational Features of Nervous Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which definition of circadian rhythm is the most accurate?
a. An endogenous rhythm that has a period of about one day
b. An entrained rhythm that has a period of about one day
c. An endogenous rhythm that has a period of precisely 24 hours
d. An entrained rhythm that has a period of precisely 24 hours
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. A biological rhythm brought into phase with an environmental rhythm is said to be
a. endogenous.
b. a free-running circadian rhythm.
c. entrained.
d. a zeitgeber.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. In the absence of environmental cues, the biological rhythm that persists is called a(n)
a. phasing factor.
b. zeitgeber.
c. entrained rhythm.
d. free-running rhythm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. The intrinsic timekeeping mechanism in a cell typically depends on
a. environmental information transduced into chemical information the cell can interpret.
b. the rhythmic alternation between enhanced and inhibited expression of clock genes.
c. the rhythmic alternation between expression of clock genes and transcription factors.
d. the alternation of various sets of inhibiting elements.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
20. Which of the following is not considered to be related to biological clocks?
a. Melatonin
b. Peristalsis
c. Superchiasmatic nucleus
d. Pineal gland
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 18: Integrating Systems AT WORK: Animal Navigation
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. The periodic movement of an animal from one region to another is called
a. migration.
b. homing.
c. piloting.
d. trail following.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. During the winter breeding season, humpback whales migrate from the polar seas to
tropical waters because warm water provides
a. less thermoregulatory stress for the young.
b. more food for the adults and young.
c. less predatory pressure on the young.
d. better shelter for the young.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. The _______ provides the most dramatic example of navigational skills involved in
natal philopatry.
a. humpback whale
b. starling
c. Pacific salmon
d. honeybee
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4.‒7. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. Panel A illustrates
a. migration.
b. path integration.
c. homing.
d. trail following.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Choose the correct order of the life cycle illustrated in the panels.
1. Live in lake
2. Live in ocean
3. Migrate from ocean to lake
4. Migrate from lake to ocean
5. Young hatch in lake
6. Young hatch in ocean
7. Spawn in lake
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. Spawn in ocean
a. 5 → 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 7
b. 6 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 → 8
c. 6 → 3 → 1 → 7 → 4
d. 5 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 7
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. The panels illustrate the life cycle of the
a. humpback whale.
b. starling.
c. Pacific salmon.
d. arctic tern.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. The main adaptive advantage of the process shown in the panels is
a. a consistent osmotic environment.
b. access to abundant food.
c. a predictable feeding environment.
d. adaptation to local breeding environments.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8.–10. Refer to the figure below.
8. What process is illustrated by the figure?
a. Migration
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Path integration
c. Homing
d. Trail following
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which number(s) correspond(s) to information about the direction of the food source,
as indicated by the honeybee?
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. IV
d. V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Which number(s) encode(s) information about the distance to the food source?
a. I and III
b. II
c. IV
d. V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Which of the following is not one of the five behavioral strategies animals use to
navigate?
a. Piloting
b. Path integration
c. Map-and-compass navigation
d. Map navigation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
12. Which statement about piloting animals is true?
a. They follow a discontinuous series of learned landmarks to obtain compass-heading
information.
b. They follow a continuous series of learned landmarks to determine where they are.
c. They follow a discontinuous series of learned landmarks to determine where they are.
d. They follow a continuous series of learned landmarks to obtain compass-heading
information.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
13. In a classic experiment, Nikkolaas Tinbergen showed that digger wasps can use
a. flowers as landmarks for piloting.
b. pinecones as landmarks for navigation.
c. landmarks for remembering the locations of hidden food.
d. pheromones as olfactory cues for trail following.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14.–17. Refer to the figure below.
14. Part A of the figure illustrates which navigational strategy?
a. Trail following
b. Piloting
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Path integration
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Part B of the figure illustrates which experimental procedure?
a. Displacement
b. Sensory deprivation
c. Sensory disruption
d. Landmark modification
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. What did the experimental procedure reveal?
a. Desert ants use trail following for homing.
b. Desert ants use path integration for homing.
c. Desert ants use compass navigation.
d. Desert ants use landmarks in navigation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. The animal searching for food in part B of the figure would need to use which
navigational strategy to return to its original starting point (or home)?
a. Piloting
b. Path integration
c. Compass navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Animals that use path integration, such as desert ants, must collect information in
order to identify the path home. What information do desert ants collect?
a. They collect directional information from the sun’s position and measure distance by
integrating proprioceptive information while walking.
b. They collect directional information from learned landmarks and measure distance by
integrating proprioceptive information while walking.
c. They collect directional and distance information from the sun’s position.
d. They collect directional information from the sun’s position and distance information
from learned landmarks
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. In attempting to understand how desert ants calculate distance while walking in the
desert, researchers altered the length of the ants’ legs. What were the results of their
experiment?
a. Ants with stilt legs found their home much faster compared to ants with normal legs.
b. Ants with stilt legs began their search for home far earlier than ants with normal legs.
c. Ants with stilt legs walked too far before searching for their home.
d. Ants with altered legs were able to use polarized light to correct their heading after
they noticed an error in their search for home.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Honeybees use _______ to estimate distances between the hive and food sources.
a. the sun
b. landmarks
c. optic flow
d. flight proprioception
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. A _______ is a mechanism that indicates geographical direction.
a. map
b. landmark
c. heading
d. compass
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. The sun compass requires integration of the sun’s position and
a. the direction of Earth’s movement.
b. circadian time information.
c. polarized light information.
d. the direction of magnetic north.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. Which statement about polarized light is true?
a. It is non-reflected light.
b. It vibrates in only one plane with respect to its line of propagation.
c. Light is never fully polarized.
d. It is perceived by all non-human mammals
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24.–27. Refer to the figure below.
24 Based on the information presented in the figure, this bird uses which type of
navigational strategy?
a. Piloting
b. Compass navigation
c. Path integration
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. In part A of the figure above, if the time at point I is 1:00 PM, then the time at point II
is
a. 7:00 AM.
b. 9:00 AM.
c. 3:00 PM.
d. 7:00 PM.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
26. Suppose that the time at point I is 1:00 PM (under normal conditions). The pigeon’s
circadian clock is then shifted 6 hours ahead, and it flies in the direction indicated in
panel B. What time must it be at point III?
a. 7:00 AM
b. 9:00 AM
c. 3:00 PM
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. 7:00 PM
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
27. Suppose that the time at point I is 1:00 PM (under normal conditions). The pigeon’s
circadian clock is then shifted 3 hours backward. What direction heading will it then take
at 7:00 AM?
a. South
b. East
c. Southeast
d. Southwest
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28. Which statement about polarized light is true?
a. Light is never fully polarized.
b. Light is fully polarized when the animal is in the direct light path from the sun.
c. Light is fully polarized at a reflection angle of 45°.
d. Light is fully polarized at a reflection angle of 90°.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. How do animals use polarized light for compass information?
a. They can detect the angle of polarization.
b. They can detect the gradients in the degree of light polarization.
c. They can relate polarized light to direct light information coming from the sun.
d. They can detect the angle of polarization and relate polarized light to direct light
information coming from the sun.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. Which navigational strategy is illustrated by the figure?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Magnetic compass navigation
b. Polarized-light compass navigation
c. Sun compass navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Which statement regarding the moon as a compass is true?
a. Many animals use the moon as a compass, but only at night.
b. Many animals use the moon as a compass, but only during the day.
c. Only aquatic animals can use the moon as a compass.
d. Animals do not use the moon as a compass.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32. Nocturnal migrants tend to use
a. a star compass.
b. a magnetic compass.
c. olfactory cues.
d. map-and-compass navigation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33.–34. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
33. The illustrations, which were generated from data on indigo buntings held in a
planetarium, show which navigational strategy?
a. Star compass navigation
b. Magnetic compass navigation
c. Olfactory cue navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. The illustration on the right represents an experimental treatment in which
a. the magnetic field was reversed.
b. circadian rhythm was shifted by 12 hours.
c. all sensory information was removed.
d. the star pattern was reversed.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. Indigo buntings know how to fly north via
a. an innate magnetic compass.
b. an innate star compass.
c. learned migration routes by following their parents.
d. a learned north star by observing constellations rotating.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. Animals that use a magnetic compass must be able to sense _______ of Earth’s
magnetic field.
a. the polar component
b. the inclination component
c. the variation in amplitude
d. either the polar component or the inclination component
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. Arthropods such as bees use their magnetic compass to sense _______ of Earth’s
magnetic field.
a. the polar component
b. the inclination component
c. the variation in amplitude
d. either the polar component or the inclination component
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
38. In one experiment, pigeons whose clocks were shifted 6 hours flew in the wrong
direction when they attempted to navigate by following their sun compass. What
happened when another group of identically treated pigeons navigated on a cloudy day?
a. They used their polarized-light compass and flew in circles.
b. They were able to navigate by using their polarized-light compass.
c. They were able to navigate on the basis of olfactory cues.
d. They were able to navigate by using their magnetic compass.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
39. Which animal does not use magnetic information for navigation?
a. Indigo Buntings
b. Monarch butterflies
c. Turtles
d. Pigeons
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40.–43. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
40. The illustrations, which are based on data from an experiment with pigeons, represent
which navigational strategy?
a. Star compass navigation
b. Magnetic compass navigation
c. Olfactory cue navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. The red dots in the figure represent the
a. direction faced by a pigeon that is about to be released.
b. distance traveled in a particular direction.
c. direction in which one pigeon was heading as it vanished over the horizon.
d. time of day when the pigeon flew off.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. The illustration on the right represents an experimental treatment in which
a. the magnetic field was reversed.
b. circadian rhythm was shifted by 12 hours.
c. all sensory information was removed.
d. the star pattern was reversed.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. What would happen in the experiment depicted by the figure if the animals were also
subjected to a time shift ahead 6 hours?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. The animals would fly 90 degrees off their original heading.
b. The results would remain the same since the experiment was performed on an overcast
day.
c. The magnetic treatment would no longer have an effect.
d. The animals would be unable to navigate whatsoever.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44.–45. Refer to the figure below.
44. The data on this map suggests that adult starlings use which type of navigational
strategy?
a. Star compass navigation
b. Magnetic compass navigation
c. Sun compass navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
45. Which is the most accurate conclusion that can be derived from the data illustrated in
the figure?
a. Juvenile birds migrate for longer distances than adults do.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Captured birds respond differently from naturally migrating birds.
c. Migrating adult and juvenile starlings respond differently to displacement.
d. Juvenile birds compensate for displacement by using map-and-compass navigation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. Pigeons whose sense of vision or magnetic field perception is experimentally altered
a. cannot navigate.
b. can navigate using olfactory cues.
c. can navigate based on tactile sensation.
d. can navigate based on proprioception.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47.–49. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
47. The data shown in the figure refer to the navigational strategies of which animal?
a. Whale
b. Pigeon
c. Salmon
d. Sea turtle
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. The data shown in the figure refer to which navigational strategy?
a. Star compass navigation
b. Magnetic compass navigation
c. Olfactory cue navigation
d. Map-and-compass navigation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. The red dots on the compasses in the figure represent the
a. direction faced by the animal about to be released.
b. distance traveled in a particular direction.
c. mean angle of one animal’s oriented movement.
d. time of day when the animal began to move.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Which animal best demonstrates the innate component of navigation?
a. Pigeons
b. Monarch butterflies
c. European starlings
d. Honeybees
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
51. The critical area for vertebrate spatial learning and memory is the
a. cerebellum.
b. hippocampus.
c. medulla oblongata.
d. cerebrum.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
52. Which statement does not describe one of the documented effects of hippocampal
lesions?
a. Lesioned rats cannot remember the location of a submerged platform in the Morris
water maze.
b. Lesioned rats cannot remember which radial arm (of a radial-arm maze) has food at the
end.
c. Lesioned nutcracker birds hide food normally but cannot recover their caches.
d. Lesioned nutcracker birds cannot pair a sound with a reward.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53. Which cells are involved in the active map-and-compass navigation of a rat in a
nonuniform environment?
a. Place cells
b. Head direction cells
c. Grid cells
d. Both place cells and head direction cells
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
Short Answer
1. Compare and contrast the terms “navigation,” “migration,” and “homing.”
Answer: These terms all refer to the movement of animals through their environment.
“Navigation” is the most general of the three terms. It refers to an animal’s movement on
a particular course and its use of sensory cues to determine direction and position.
“Migration” is a more specific term referring to periodic movement of an animal from
one region to another, usually as prompted by seasonal changes. On a more localized
scale, “homing” is the ability of an animal to find its way repeatedly to a specific point,
most often its nesting or dwelling place.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Discuss how navigational abilities promote reproductive success, and provide an
example.
Answer: Many animals reproduce at a time and place that presents the lowest degree of
stress to the parents and, more importantly, the offspring. Very often this place is not the
same as the feeding area. Therefore, many animals rely on navigation to get them to a
safe place to reproduce. One example is the humpback whale. These animals travel from
the food-rich polar seas of the Northern Hemisphere to tropical waters in order to
reproduce. Although these tropical areas do not have rich food supplies, they offer less
thermoregulatory stress, especially for the young.
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What is the adaptive significance of the honeybee waggle dance and how is
information coded in this dance?
Answer: The adaptive significance of the honeybee waggle dance is that one bee can
provide specific information about a food source to the entire hive. This allows many
bees to harvest food in a short period of time and increases the chances of the hive’s
survival. On a horizontal surface, the straight run of the waggle dance points to the food
source; on a vertical surface, the angle of the straight run from vertical indicates the
location of the food as measured from the angle from the sun. The distance of the food
source is coded in the duration of the waggle run.
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Compare and contrast the navigational strategies of path integration versus trail
following.
Answer: Trail following and path integration both involve the use of local sensory cues.
Although trail following can rely on visual cues, many animals use olfactory cues. Path
integration differs from trail following in that homing is not simply a retracing of steps
using local cues. Homing with path integration allows the animal to take a direct route
back to its home or nest, thus saving time and energy. Information on direction and
distance allows the animal to determine the direct line toward home.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Describe what displacement experiments tell us about navigational strategies.
Answer: Displacement experiments take animals during periods of navigation and move
them to another location. Many times this tells us a lot about how the animals are
navigating. For example, if an animal is trail following, simply moving the animal will
disrupt its navigation. For more advances types of navigation, other disruptions may be
required, sometimes including sensory deprivation. By varying the kinds of sensory
deprivation, researchers can determine which sensory input is most important for that
animal’s navigational strategy.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Use the example of a sun compass to explain what a compass is and how it is used.
Answer: A compass is a mechanism that indicates geographical direction. Because of the
predictable movement of Earth relative to the sun, the sun is often used as a compass. The
sun moves across the sky at about 15° per hour, so animals must know the time of day to
determine a compass heading. An animal that navigates using a sun compass must
integrate solar position and circadian time information in order to orient its path of travel.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Explain how a polarized light compass works.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: A polarized light compass is a sun compass in which the animal does not
directly see the sun. The animal is able to determine the location of the sun by calculating
the reflected angles of polarized light. Light emanating directly from the sun to the
animal’s eye is unpolarized. Light becomes polarized when it reflects off the surface of
things such as water droplets, dust, and ice crystals. The closer the angle of reflection gets
to 90°, the more polarized the light becomes. Although humans cannot detect useful
differences in polarized light, many animals, including insects, can distinguish these
reflected angles and calculate the location of the sun.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Compare and contrast map sense and compass sense. Describe experimental evidence
for these aspects of animal navigation.
Answer: Map sense and compass sense are both strategies used in navigation. Compass
sense is the awareness (from sensory cues) of direction. Map sense allows an animal to
identify its position relative to home or another goal location. Many migrating animals
use both map and compass sense to navigate. Experiments on migrating adult and
juvenile starlings showed that their map sense is not integrated or learned until they
complete one successful migration. First-time migrators that are moved mid-migration
are not able to figure out their position and therefore continue in their original direction.
This is not the case for adult starlings, which use their map sense to compensate for the
experimental disruption.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Compare and contrast the navigational abilities of pigeons and sea turtles.
Answer: Experimental evidence shows that both sea turtles and pigeons use magnetic and
visual information to navigate. Evidence shows that pigeons use polarized light
information when available. There is no evidence that sea turtles rely on polarized light,
and given that they are submerged (sometimes quite deep), it will not likely be found to
be a strong navigational cue. There is also no evidence showing turtles use olfactory cues,
whereas pigeons have a strong olfactory map. It is clear that both animals use multiple
senses for map and compass navigation and in the absence of one environmental cue, the
animal can use another.
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Describe and give an example of innate navigation and learned navigation.
Answer: Monarch butterflies provide an excellent example of innate navigation. An
individual monarch butterfly does not complete a migration; rather, it takes a few
generations for an entire migratory cycle to be completed. Therefore, it is the ancestors of
the original migrants that return to the starting point of the migration. The information
about the heading and distance of the migration must have a strong genetic component,
since there can be no learned component. The European starling offers an excellent
example of a learned navigation. In order to attain its full map sense for migration, it
must complete one migration event with the adults.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. The periodic movement of an animal from one region to another is termed
a. migration.
b. homing.
c. navigation.
d. piloting.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which species exhibits natal philopatry?
a. Bees
b. Sockeye salmon
c. Pacific salmon
d. Both Sockeye and Pacific salmon
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Bees communicate the distance of a food source via the
a. duration of the waggle run.
b. angle of the loop component relative to the sun.
c. direction of the straight waggle.
d. size of the figure eight.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Bees communicate the direction of a food source on either a horizontal or vertical
surface via the
a. intensity of the waggle run.
b. angle of the loop component relative to the sun.
c. direction of the straight waggle run.
d. size of the figure eight.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. The most rudimentary form of animal navigation is
a. piloting.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. trail following.
c. path integration.
d. compass navigation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. An animal that uses the stones around a burrow to return to the burrow is relying on
a. trail following.
b. piloting.
c. navigation.
d. landmark integration.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. The act of moving on a particular course by following a series of landmarks that help
an animal determine where it is located on the path with respect to its ultimate destination
is called
a. navigation.
b. homing.
c. trail following.
d. piloting.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. The observed use of path integration by desert ants means that
a. they have a true map-and-compass navigation strategy.
b. they follow a carefully marked trail back to the nest.
c. regardless of the paths taken, they can return to their nest via the most direct route.
d. they are able to find the shortest means to the food source.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. A honeybee estimates its distance between its hive and food source on the basis of
a. path integration.
b. compass navigation.
c. optic flow.
d. map-and-compass navigation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. Researchers typically disrupt an animal’s sun compass
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. by resetting the animal’s circadian clock.
b. by displacing the animal.
c. via induced migration.
d. through medication.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which of the following is not a type of compass?
a. Polarized-light compass
b. Star compass
c. Magnetic compass
d. Landmark compass
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. Which statement regarding caged buntings and migratory restlessness in the fall is
true?
a. Caged buntings that can see the night sky have the expected north-oriented
restlessness.
b. Caged buntings that can see a representation of the constellations in a planetarium do
not have expected north-oriented restlessness.
c. Caged buntings that can see the sun have the expected north-orientation restlessness.
d. Caged buntings have north-oriented restlessness during the migratory time, no matter
what visual cues they have.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. The navigational cues that animals use as a magnetic compass are provided by the
a. polarity of Earth’s magnetic field.
b. dip of Earth’s magnetic field.
c. rotational moment of Earth’s magnetic field.
d. dip and polarity of Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. At what location would an animal’s inclination compass be the least effective?
a. North magnetic pole
b. Magnetic equator
c. Geographical equator
d. Geographical north pole
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Experiments in which the magnetic field around a pigeon’s head was reversed
a. had no effect in any weather condition.
b. caused them to lose their navigational ability in all weather conditions.
c. caused them to navigate in the opposite direction, but only on overcast days.
d. caused them to navigate in the opposite direction in all weather conditions.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Based on our current understanding, which animal does not make use of magnetic
compass information?
a. Primates
b. Monarch butterflies
c. Pigeons
d. Sea turtles
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. The initial orientation cue for hatchling sea turtles is
a. magnetic.
b. the sun.
c. the ocean waves.
d. their mother.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. Which animal’s behavior suggests use of a magnetic map?
a. Monarch butterflies
b. Sea turtles
c. Starlings
d. Bees
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
19. Which statement about monarch butterflies is true?
a. Their navigational performance has a strong innate component.
b. Their navigational performance has a strong learned component.
c. They use primarily a magnetic compass for navigation, even during sunny days.
d. They use primarily a star compass for navigation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. The critical area for vertebrate spatial learning and memory is the
a. cerebellum.
b. hypothalamus.
c. hippocampus.
d. medulla oblongata.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 13: Synapses
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. A specialized site of contact of one neuron with another neuron (or effector) is known
as a
a. neuron.
b. receptor–neurotransmitter complex.
c. membrane.
d. synapse.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which of the following transmits information the fastest?
a. Ionotropic EPSP
b. Metabotropic IPSP
c. Electrical synapse
d. Fast EPSP
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. In an electrical synapse, the main structure responsible for transmission of an impulse
from one cell to the next is
a. any generic activating neurotransmitter.
b. acetylcholine.
c. the gap junction.
d. the cell membrane.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which structure is associated with signal transmission in an electrical synapse?
a. Postsynaptic densities
b. Synaptic vesicles
c. Neurotransmitters
d. Connexons
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which protein is most uniquely associated with a metabotropic receptor?
a. Neurotransmitter
b. Second messenger
c. Ligand-gated receptor
d. Voltage-gated receptor
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. In chemical synapses, neurotransmitters are released by
a. facilitated diffusion.
b. calcium-dependent exocytosis.
c. active transport.
d. vesicular cycling.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Ultimately, it is the _______ that determines whether the postsynaptic membrane
produces an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) or an excitatory postsynaptic
potential (EPSP).
a. frequency of action potentials
b. movement of ions
c. neurotransmitter
d. receptor’s affinity for the neurotransmitter
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Two sets of axons carry stimuli near the axonal hillock. One set produces an IPSP and
the other set produces an EPSP. If both sets produce action potentials at the same time,
what is the likely effect at the axonal hillock?
a. There will be a hyperpolarization.
b. There will be a depolarization.
c. An action potential will be produced.
d. The potentials created will cancel each other out.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9.–10. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
9. Where is depolarizing temporal summation occurring?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Where is hyperpolarizing spatial summation occurring?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. The _______ is the flow of ions through all the channels that open in response to
release of a neurotransmitter.
a. postsynaptic potential
b. synaptic current
c. action potential
d. voltage
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Once acetylcholine is released into the synapse it
a. is actively pumped back into the presynaptic neuron.
b. crosses the postsynaptic membrane and then is broken down inside that cell.
c. is inactivated by calcium.
d. is broken down by acetylcholinesterase.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. During an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, the postsynaptic membrane
a. increases in permeability to K+.
b. increases in permeability to Na+.
c. decreases in permeability to Cl–.
d. increases in permeability to Ca2+.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14.–17. Refer to the figure below.
14. What is occurring at IV?
a. Depolarization
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Hyperpolarization
c. An action potential
d. Muscle contraction
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
15. What is entering the cell at III?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Serotonin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
16. What is occurring at I?
a. Calcium is being pumped.
b. A second messenger system is being activated.
c. Acetylcholine is being broken down.
d. Acetylcholine is attaching to a receptor.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
17. What is the best description of II?
a. Na+, which just entered the cell, is now being transported deep into the muscle.
b. Ca2+ leaks into channels causing depolarization.
c. Acetylcholine binds to and opens ligand-gated channels.
d. Muscle fiber action potential.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. Which statement regarding postsynaptic potentials is true?
a. In a neuromuscular synapse, the main neurotransmitter is glutamate.
b. In a CNS neural synapse, serotonin produces an IPSP.
c. In a CNS neural synapse, K+ is the main ion producing the EPSP.
d. In a neuromuscular synapse, Na+ is the main ion producing the EPSP.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
19. Fast IPSPs result mainly from a(n) _______ in permeability to _______.
a. decrease; Na+
b. increase; Cl–
c. increase; K+
d. increase; Na+
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. What is a miniature EPSP (mEPSP)?
a. The movement of Na+ across the postsynaptic membrane
b. The diffusion of a neurotransmitter across the synapse
c. A depolarization caused by the release of a neurotransmitter from several synaptic
vesicles
d. The postsynaptic response to the release of the contents of one synaptic vesicle
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. A quantum is a
a. count of the number of acetylcholine molecules in a vesicle.
b. measure of the total amount of acetylcholine released into the synapse.
c. measure of the stored acetylcholine in the presynaptic terminal.
d. the number of vesicles in the synapse.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. How were extracellular ion concentrations manipulated in the experiments supporting
the theory of quantal release of neurotransmitters?
a. Ca2+ was increased in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release
many vesicles.
b. Ca2+ was absent in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release no
vesicles.
c. Mg2+ replaced Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release few
vesicles.
d. Mg2+ replaced Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release
many vesicles.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. How do we account for the two hypotheses of vesicular fusion and retrieval?
a. There is more experimental support for the classical pathway of neurotransmitter
release.
b. There was very little support for the classical pathway of neurotransmitter release,
therefore the kiss-and-run pathway is currently the favored pathway.
c. Both pathways are portions of a larger pathway and therefore there should be one
hypothesis.
d. The kiss-and-run pathway is likely used at lower rates of neurotransmitter release
while the classical pathway predominates at higher rates of neurotransmitter release.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
24. Which statement best describes the fusion process in exocytotic release of
neurotransmitter?
a. v-SNARE proteins attach to t-SNARE proteins.
b. Synapsin detaches the vesicle from the cytoskeleton.
c. Dynamin interacts with clathrin.
d. Calcium interacts with synaptotagmin.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
25. Which statement regarding the mechanism of vesicular docking and release is false?
a. Targeted vesicles move to active zones where they attach reversibly.
b. Docking is mediated by the formation of a SNARE complex.
c. The v-SNAREs and t-SNARES interact to hold the vesicle at the release site.
d. Fusion is triggered by the binding of Ca2+ to syntaxin.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
26. Which neurotransmitter elicits responses of both ionotropic and metabotropic
receptors?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Glutamate
d. Both acetylcholine and glutamate
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
27. The enzyme tryptophan hydroxylase synthesizes what neurotransmitter?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Serotonin
c. Dopamine
d. Norepinephrine
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. The major excitatory neuromuscular junction neurotransmitter in a moth is
a. acetylcholine.
b. glutamate.
c. glycine.
d. GABA.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
29. Which statement regarding neurotransmitters is true?
a. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are synthesized mainly in the nucleus.
b. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are contained in large dense-cored vesicles.
c. Neuropeptides are synthesized at the axon terminal.
d. The inactivation of small molecule neurotransmitters can occur via reuptake or via
enzymes.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. How does the acetylcholine receptor respond to prolonged exposure to acetylcholine?
a. The receptor will flicker, and the rate of flickering will increase.
b. Acetylcholine will no longer be able to bind to the receptor.
c. Acetylcholine will remain bound to the receptor, and the channel will remain open
indefinitely.
d. Acetylcholine will remain bound to the receptor, but the channel will close.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Which statement regarding the ligand-gated channel at the vertebrate neuromuscular
junction is false?
a. It binds acetylcholine.
b. K+ travels through this channel when it is open.
c. Two acetylcholine molecules need to bind to the intracellular side of the receptor.
d. When the channel opens, ions depolarize the membrane.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32.–34. Refer to the figure below.
32. What technique is being used to collect the data presented?
a. Voltage clamp
b. Ion flux
c. Stimulation
d. Patch clamp
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. What is the principal ion that is moving?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl–
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
34. Which statement best describes what is occurring in the bottom panel?
a. More electrical stimulation is occurring on the voltage-gated channels, therefore, they
open with more frequency.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. The increased concentration of acetylcholine eventually overwhelms the receptors, and
the bottom panel represents what will happen just before they remain open permanently.
c. Because the channels are staying open longer due to increased acetylcholine
concentration, K+ begins to move in significant quantities.
d. In this section of membrane, there are two acetylcholine channels that, in the presence
of increasing neurotransmitter concentration, have an increasing probability of being
open at the same time.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
35. Which statement best reflects the evolutionary history of the ligand-gated channel?
a. The sequence homology of the ligand-gated receptors is similar to that of voltage-gated
receptors.
b. Ligand-gated channels have had a minimum of three independent appearances in
evolutionary history.
c. Ligand-gated channels in the neuromuscular junction are evolutionarily distinct from
ligand-gated channels in the brain.
d. Most kinds of ligand-gated channels appear to have evolved from a common ancestor.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
36. How does the G protein activate adenylyl cyclase?
a. The G protein mediates the release of cAMP-dependent protein kinase, which activates
adenylyl cyclase.
b. The G protein activates various second messengers, which all activate pathways that
activate adenylyl cyclase.
c. The α subunit of the G protein, with GTP, diffuses laterally in the membrane and binds
to and activates adenylyl cyclase.
d. The G protein causes a depolarization, which activates adenylyl cyclase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein–
Coupled Receptors
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. Which response is not directly mediated by a G protein?
a. Activating cAMP-dependent protein kinase
b. Opening of a K+ channel
c. Activating adenylyl cyclase
d. Activating phospholipase C
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein–
Coupled Receptors
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Which second messenger acts directly to mediate the release of Ca2+ from the
endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Diacylglycerol (DAG)
b. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
c. Calmodulin
d. Phospholipase C
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein–
Coupled Receptors
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
39. When a superior cervical ganglion is heavily stimulated, how does it keep from
running out of acetylcholine?
a. Presynaptic inhibition occurs to conserve the acetylcholine.
b. Acetylcholinesterase is inhibited by the increased amount of acetylcholine.
c. More acetylcholine is created via second messenger systems.
d. More choline is produced in the cleft and taken back up into the cell to create more
acetylcholine.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. Antidepressants, such as Prozac, work by
a. upregulating the production of serotonin.
b. stimulating serotonin receptors.
c. inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.
d. increasing the number of serotonin receptors.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Which of the following would not be considered synaptic plasticity?
a. Altering the amount of calcium entering the cell at the presynaptic terminus
b. Increasing the amount of neurotransmitter released from an action potential
c. Increasing the number of receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
d. Reducing voltage gated Na+ channels on the neuron
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
42.–44. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
42. The primary site of behavioral plasticity is at the _______ synapse.
a. head-to-motor neuron
b. sensory-to-motor neuron
c. skin-to-sensory neuron
d. motor neuron-to-gill
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
43. Which mechanism explains Panel 1?
a. At the synapse, the neurotransmitter changes function.
b. The amount of neurotransmitter per presynaptic impulse changes.
c. Receptor density on the postsynaptic membrane changes.
d. The frequency of action potentials increases.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
44. What are the best titles for Panel 1 and Panel 2?
a. Panel 1 = Motor-neuron EPSP; Panel 2 = Gill withdrawal
b. Panel 1 = Skin PSP; Panel 2 = Gill contraction
c. Panel 1 = Synapse EPSP; Panel 2 = Head EPSP
d. Panel 1 = Synapse EPSP; Panel 2 = Gill contraction
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. Which statement best describes the mechanism of sensitization?
a. Protein kinase dephosphorylates Ca2+ channels and decreases the Ca2+ current that
normally terminates the action potential, which leads to a decrease in Ca2+ influx.
b. Protein kinase phosphorylates K+ channels and decreases the K+ current that normally
terminates the action potential, which leads to an increase in Ca2+ influx.
c. Protein kinase dephosphorylates K+ channels and increases the K+ current that
normally terminates the action potential, which leads to an increase in Ca2+ influx.
d. Protein kinase phosphorylates Na+ channels and decreases the Na+ current that
normally activates the action potential, which leads to a decrease in Ca2+ influx.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
46. Long-term potentiation has been extensively studied in the
a. hippocampus.
b. hypothalamus.
c. neuromuscular junction.
d. cerebellum.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. Which occurrence in the synapse is not likely to be involved in the formation of longterm memories?
a. Increase in AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane
b. NMDA receptors mediate increases in intracellular Ca2+
c. Long-lasting neurotransmitter release
d. Lengthening of dendritic spines
e. Growth of new dendritic spines
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. Which statement best describes long-term potentiation?
a. Increased synaptic response occurs with increased numbers of AMPA receptors.
b. Increased synaptic response occurs with increased numbers of NMDA receptors.
c. A massive amount of glutamate releases Mg2+ from the NMDA receptor.
d. A massive amount of glutamate releases Mg2+ from the AMPA receptor.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Which statement best describes of the mechanistic uniqueness of the Doogie mouse
strain?
a. They have longer-opening NMDA receptors compared to standard lab mice.
b. They produce more neurotransmitters than standard lab mice.
c. They produce more action potentials per second than standard lab mice.
d. They have a better long-term memory than standard lab mice.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. Compare and contrast electrical synapses with chemical synapses, including
advantages and disadvantages for each.
Answer: Both electrical and chemical synapses can rapidly change the membrane
potential of a postsynaptic cell. In electrical synapses, there is a direct electrical coupling
that allows current to flow between cells with only negligible delay. While this provides a
speed and synchronization advantage, there is low plasticity and directionality within
these synapses. In chemical synapses, on the other hand, a presynaptic neuron releases a
neurotransmitter, which diffuses across a synapse and binds to the postsynaptic receptor,
causing a postsynaptic potential. While generally slower than the electrical synapse, the
advantage of chemical synapses is their high plasticity, which gives them the ability to
integrate neuronal functions.
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Compare and contrast ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.
Answer: Ionotropic and metabotropic receptors are both found on the postsynaptic
membrane of a chemical synapse and respond to the binding of a neurotransmitter. When
bound to a neurotransmitter, ionotropic receptors directly alter permeability to ions,
whereas metabotropic receptors trigger a signaling cascade of second messengers.
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. If Na+ and K+ move in opposite directions through the acetylcholine receptor (which
has similar permeability to both ions) when it is bound to acetylcholine, why is there an
overall depolarization instead of no change in the membrane potential?
Answer: Although the acetylcholine channel has similar permeabilities to Na+ and K+,
most of the synaptic current underlying the EPSP is created by Na+ movement. This is
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
because the driving force for Na+ to enter the cell is far greater than the driving force for
K+ to leave the cell.
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Explain why it is the receptor and not the neurotransmitter that determines whether the
postsynaptic membrane produces an EPSP or an IPSP.
Answer: Whether the PSP is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what kinds of ions flow
through the ion channels when the channels open. A particular neurotransmitter can act at
different receptors, and they may produce similar effects or different effects.
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Briefly describe the mechanism of docking and fusion in the release of
neurotransmitters.
Answer: Docking is mediated by the formation of a SNARE complex; the v-SNAREs
and t-SNAREs interact to hold the vesicle at the release site. Following priming, Ca2+
entry through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels triggers fusion by the binding of Ca2+ to the
vesicular protein synaptotagmin. The Ca2+–synaptotagmin complex changes
conformation to fuse the vesicular and terminal membranes.
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Why were the terms nicotinic and muscarinic both used as names for the acetylcholine
receptor?
Answer: The two types of acetylcholine receptors were first characterized many years
ago by their pharmacological response. The acetylcholine receptor in skeletal muscle is
stimulated by nicotine and was hence named a nicotinic receptor. The acetylcholine
receptor on the heart muscle is stimulated by muscarine and was thus named a muscarinic
receptor.
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Briefly explain the patch clamp technique and why it is important.
Answer: The patch clamp technique uses a fine glass microelectrode, sealed to the
membrane with suction. The patch of membrane is then pulled from the cell, and the
researcher is then able to alter the solution on either side of the membrane, as well as
measure the receptor channel current. Because of its small size, researchers are able to
measure the current on isolated receptors, which has been invaluable in advancing the
field of receptor physiology and pharmacology.
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. How do most second messengers go on to affect the membrane potential?
Answer: Most second messengers activate protein kinases, which phosphorylate proteins,
such as ion channels, and change their permeability, which then alters the membrane
potential.
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein–
Coupled Receptors
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. In two sentences, explain the overall mechanism of presynaptic facilitation
(sensitization) in Aplysia.
Answer: Serotonin acts via a G protein to upregulate cAMP, which activates cAMPdependent protein kinases to phosphorylate the K+ channel. This leads to a decrease in
the repolarizing K+ current, allowing Ca2+ channels to stay open longer, mediating a
greater release of neurotransmitter per action potential.
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. List three specific changes in the synapse that would be categorized as synaptic
plasticity.
Answer: a) Number of receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
b) Amount of neurotransmitter released per action potential
c) The effectiveness of the uptake or breakdown of the neurotransmitter once released
into the synapse
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which substance is most directly responsible for exocytosis of synaptic vesicles?
a. Na+
b. Acetylcholine
c. K+
d. Ca2+
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement regarding chemical synapses is true?
a. Chemical synapses are only excitatory.
b. Chemical synapses transmit information in two directions.
c. Chemical synapses have high plasticity.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Pre- and postsynaptic currents are always similar.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What effect would injecting a leg muscle with a drug that binds to and disables
acetylcholinesterase have on that leg?
a. Delayed paralysis
b. Immediate tetany
c. Tetany once the leg muscle was contracted
d. Paralysis once the leg muscle was contracted
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic membrane open and K+ and Na+ both move
through these channels in opposite directions. Why then do we measure depolarization on
the postsynaptic membrane?
a. Na+ has a much stronger driving force into the cell.
b. K+ has a much stronger driving force into the cell.
c. Na+ has a much stronger driving force out of the cell.
d. K+ has a much stronger driving force out of the cell.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. The main ion responsible for the EPSP is
a. Na+.
b. K+.
c. Cl–.
d. Ca2+.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate
Neuromuscular Junction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. The limiting factor in the synthesis of acetylcholine is the speed at which
a. acetyl groups are formed.
b. vesicles are formed.
c. choline is recycled.
d. vesicles release choline.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The protein responsible for triggering the actual release of neurotransmitter at the
synapse is
a. synaptotagmin.
b. SNARE.
c. dynamin.
d. sytaxin.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in
Quantal Packets
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Epinephrine is
a. excitatory.
b. inhibitory.
c. simultaneously excitatory and inhibitory.
d. either excitatory or inhibitory.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which statement regarding vertebrate neurotransmitters is true?
a. Most synapses (numerically) in the CNS use peptide neurotransmitters.
b. In the CNS, many receptors for biogenic amines mediate fast ionic responses.
c. Biogenic amines are found in almost all neurons in the CNS.
d. A neuroactive peptide may be co-released with one or more small-molecule
neurotransmitters and may function as a cotransmitter.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Which statement regarding metabotropic receptors is true?
a. They can directly open or close ion channels.
b. They always activate a G protein.
c. They use no second messengers.
d. They mediate membrane voltage changes via slow postsynaptic potentials.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which statement about the neuromuscular junction acetylcholine (Ach) receptor is
false?
a. The probability an ACh channel will open depends on ACh concentration.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. The synaptic current is the sum of the net ionic currents through all activated ACh
receptors.
c. The opening of the ACh receptor is all-or-none.
d. The probability that an ACh channel will open depends on membrane voltage.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated
Channels
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Which protein cannot contact a G protein directly?
a. Protein kinase C
b. Potassium channel
c. Phospholipase C
d. Adenylyl cyclase
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein–
Coupled Receptors
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. During presynaptic inhibition, a(n)
a. metabotropic response reduces the number of action potentials reaching the synapse.
b. metabotropic response reduces the amount of calcium entering the nerve terminus.
c. ionotropic response reduces the number of action potentials reaching the synapse.
d. ionotropic response reduces the amount of calcium entering the nerve terminus.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14. How often does a neuron’s output equal its input?
a. All the time
b. Most of the time
c. Seldom
d. Never
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. What is the relationship between synaptic facilitation and behavioral sensitization?
a. Synaptic facilitation is a short term response and behavioral sensitization is a long term
response.
b. Synaptic facilitation is related to the sensory system and behavioral sensitization is
related to the motor system.
c. Synaptic facilitation underlies behavioral sensitization.
d. They are both fundamentally the same thing.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In Aplysia, the result of sensitization at the synapse is a(n)
a. decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter per impulse.
b. increase in the number of impulses per second.
c. increase in the amount of neurotransmitter per impulse.
d. decrease in the number of impulses per second.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. What is the mechanistic explanation for sensitization?
a. Increase in sodium flux
b. Increase in potassium flux
c. Decrease in potassium flux
d. Increase in calcium flux
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. Calmodulin binds to _______ and becomes activated.
a. G protein
b. Ca2+
c. protein kinase C
d. adenylyl cyclase
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. The induction of long-term potentiation occurs in the
a. presynaptic neuron.
b. synapse.
c. postsynaptic neuron.
d. motor neuron.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which statement best describes long-term potentiation?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. More sodium entering the postsynaptic membrane per presynaptic action potential
b. More neurotransmitter released per action potential
c. More action potentials sent per second
d. More calcium released per action potential
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and
Activity
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 20: Muscle
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. A striated muscle fiber is made up of many parallel _______, each containing a series of
_______.
a. fascicles; fibrils
b. myofibrils; sarcomeres
c. fascicles; Z discs
d. sarcomeres; myotomes
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, myosin heads pull on _______
filaments and _______.
a. thick; move the Z discs apart
b. thick; move the Z discs together
c. thin; move the Z discs apart
d. thin; move the Z discs together
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. The smallest unit of a skeletal muscle that shortens during a muscle contraction is the
a. myosin molecule.
b. thin filament.
c. sarcomere.
d. myofibril.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. In striated muscle, phosphate is released from the myosin head at the same instant that
a. the myosin head binds to actin.
b. the myosin head releases from actin.
c. the myosin head returns to the cocked position.
d. the myosin head starts the power stroke.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. In relaxed skeletal muscle, myosin heads are
a. bound to actin with ADP and phosphate bound.
b. bound to actin with ATP bound.
c. dissociated from actin with ATP bound.
d. dissociated from actin with ADP and phosphate bound.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. In skeletal muscle cells, cytoplasmic Ca2+ is bound by
a. actin.
b. myosin.
c. troponin.
d. tropomyosin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7.–9. Refer to the figure below.
7. In the figure, which numeral represents the A band?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What state of muscle activity does this figure represent?
a. Fully contracted
b. Somewhat contracted
c. Fully relaxed
d. Tetany
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
9. Which area(s) shorten(s) during muscle contraction?
a. I
b. III
c. I and III
d. III and V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10.–12. Refer to the figure below.
10. In the figure, which panel represents the transient rigor state?
a. I
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. IV
c. V
d. VI
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. In the figure, which panel represents the power stroke?
a. I
b. IV
c. V
d. VI
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. In the figure, which panel, taken out of context, represents a state where muscle relaxation
could be occurring?
a. I
b. II
c. IV
d. VI
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. What happens when Ca2+ increases in the cytoplasm of a striated muscle cell?
a. Myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, allowing a single cross-bridge cycle to occur.
b. Myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, allowing cross-bridge cycles to occur until Ca2+
drops again.
c. Actin-binding sites on myosin are exposed, allowing a single cross-bridge cycle to occur.
d. Actin-binding sites on myosin are exposed, allowing cross-bridge cycles to occur until Ca2+
drops again.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. In resting skeletal muscle, contraction does not occur because
a. there is very little ATP in the cytoplasm.
b. most of the ATP is bound to other molecules for storage.
c. there is very little calcium in the cytoplasm.
d. myosin is inactivated.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
15. Running mice are capable of moving their legs back and forth much more quickly than
elephants. Thus, compared to an elephant muscle cell, a mouse muscle cell likely contains more
a. actin.
b. myosin.
c. troponin C.
d. SR Ca2+-ATPase.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. When the cell membrane of a vertebrate skeletal muscle is depolarized, ryanodine receptors
change configuration and permit passage of Ca2+
a. passively, from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm.
b. passively, from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the cytoplasm.
c. actively, from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm.
d. actively, from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the cytoplasm.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. In striated muscle, _______ before the sarcomere can generate force.
a. Ca2+ must dissociate from troponin C
b. Ca2+ must be pumped by the SR Ca2+-ATPase
c. the SR calcium channel must open
d. calcium must bind to tropomyosin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. During the latent period of an isometric twitch,
a. myosin hydrolyzes ATP and releases from actin.
b. Ca2+ binds to troponin C.
c. ryanodine receptors open and conduct Ca2+ into the SR.
d. tropomyosin moves to block myosin-binding sites on actin.
e. dihydropyridine receptors open and conduct Ca2+ into the cytoplasm.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19.–21. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. What do the tiny dots at area I represent?
a. Ca2+
b. ATP
c. Phosphate
d. Na+
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. What is the best explanation for the release of the dots at area II?
a. DHPR actively pumping
b. DHPR changes conformation due to depolarization
c. RyR channel actively pumping
d. RyR changes conformation due to depolarization
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. What are the tiny dots at area III binding to?
a. Ca2+
b. ATP
c. actin
d. troponin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. Lengthening of a muscle occurs
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. as a result of an external load that acts on the muscle.
b. as the muscle cell action potential repolarizes.
c. as Ca2+ levels drop following a contraction.
d. only when the muscle is generating negative force.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. During an eccentric muscle contraction, the
a. length of the sarcomeres remains unchanged, but the length of the elastic component increases.
b. sarcomeres shorten, but the length of the elastic component remains unchanged.
c. muscle produces force and its length decreases.
d. muscle produces force and its length increases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
24. During an isometric tetanic contraction, the sarcomeres
a. shorten, but the elastic components lengthen.
b. shorten, but the elastic components stay the same length.
c. and the elastic components shorten.
d. lengthen, but the elastic components shorten.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding
25. Cross-bridges generate force in a skeletal muscle cell any time
a. the muscle is shortened.
b. there is an action potential in a motor neuron.
c. Ca2+ levels in the cytoplasm are high.
d. ATP levels are high enough.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding
26. During an isotonic muscle twitch, the presence of elastic elements causes the latent period to
be _______ than during an isometric twitch, and the peak force transmitted through the tendon to
be _______.
a. shorter; lower
b. shorter; higher
c. longer; higher
d. longer; lower
Answer: d
Textbook reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
27. The elastic component of the gastrocnemius
a. is composed of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium surrounding the muscle.
b. is composed of actin and myosin proteins within the muscle cells.
c. must be fully stretched before the gastrocnemius can exert any external force.
d. must be fully stretched in order for the muscle to exert maximum tetanic force.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. How can summation of skeletal muscle twitches occur if the motor neuron’s refractory
period prevents multiple action potentials from being transmitted to the neuromuscular junction
at the same time?
a. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much shorter than the time it takes for
calcium release and reuptake from the SR.
b. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much longer than the time it takes for
calcium release and reuptake from the SR.
c. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much shorter than the muscle action
potential.
d. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much longer than the muscle action potential.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s category: 3. Applying
29. A muscle produces less force during a twitch than during a tetanic contraction because during
a twitch
a. peak cytoplasmic Ca2+ is lower.
b. tropomyosin does not have time to unblock all of the actomyosin binding sites.
c. myosin does not have time to bind to as many actin molecules.
d. the elastic components of the muscle are not fully stretched.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s category: 3. Applying
30. In skeletal muscle, an incomplete tetanus would result from
a. action potentials arriving at a rate fast enough for the intracellular Ca2+ levels to rise much
higher than they would in a muscle twitch.
b. action potentials arriving at a rate fast enough for sarcomeres to generate force while the
elastic components of the muscle are still stretched.
c. action potentials arriving so quickly that there is no fluctuation in intracellular Ca2+ levels.
d. many, but not all, of the thin filaments being activated to permit cross-bridge formation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. Which condition contributes to the length‒tension relationship observed in skeletal muscle?
a. When sarcomere lengths are long, thin filaments overlap.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. When sarcomere lengths are long, thick and thin filaments do not overlap optimally.
c. When sarcomere lengths are short, thick and thin filaments do not overlap fully.
d. When sarcomere lengths are short, the elastic elements in the muscle are not fully stretched.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
32. The sarcomeres of vertebrate skeletal muscles are all about the same length, but squid have
different sarcomere lengths in different muscles in the body. If all other factors are equal, the
muscle with shorter sarcomeres will
a. shorten more slowly.
b. shorten more rapidly.
c. generate more force.
d. generate less force.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
33. The force‒velocity relationship for skeletal muscle indicates that a muscle
a. produces maximum force when contracting at its maximum velocity.
b. shortens at maximum velocity when contracting against the maximum load it can move.
c. produces maximum power when contracting isometrically.
d. shortens at maximum velocity when contracting against no load.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34. Suppose that muscle A is long with a narrow diameter and muscle B is short with a large
diameter. Compared to muscle A, muscle B is capable of producing a _______ maximum force
and a _______ maximum velocity.
a. lower; lower
b. higher; higher
c. lower; higher
d. higher; lower
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Suppose that each cross-bridge cycle moves the thin filament 10 nanometers relative to the
thick filament. If myosin in a particular muscle can go through the cross-bridge cycle at 250
cycles per second, what is the rate at which a muscle that is 30 cm long can shorten?
a. 75 mm/s
b. 0.30 m/s
c. 0.60 m/s
d. 2.5 m/s
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
[Instructor Note:
Assume a sarcomere length of 2.5 µm. Therefore, a 30 cm long muscle contains
(30 × 10–2m) / (2.5 × 10–6 m / sarcomere) = 1.2 × 105 sarcomeres
One x-bridge cycle pulls thin filament 10 nm toward the center on one side of the sarcomere
while x-bridge on facing side of sarcomere pulls thin filament10 nm toward center → sarcomere
shortens 20 nm per cycle. Thus, in one sec, the sarcomere shortens:
20nm/cycle × 250 cycles/sec = 5000 nm/sec = 5µm/sec = 5 × 10–6 m/sec
Therefore, the 30 cm long muscle consisting of 1.2 x 105 sarcomeres would shorten at a speed of
(5 × 10–6 m/sec/sarcomere) × (1.2 × 105 sarcomeres) = 6.0 × 10–1m/sec = 0.6 m/sec]
36. Muscle A has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 20 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 10 cm2.
Muscle B has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 10 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.
Which of the following statements about these muscles is true?
a. Both muscles can produce the same power, but they will shorten at different speeds.
b. Both muscles will shorten at the same speed, but they can produce different amounts of power.
c. Both muscles can exert the same force, but one will shorten more quickly than the other.
d. Both muscles can produce the same power and the same force.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which muscle can generate the most power per cubic centimeter of muscle?
a. A muscle containing mostly slow oxidative fibers contracting at its Vmax
b. A muscle containing mostly slow oxidative fibers contracting against a moderate load
c. A muscle containing mostly fast glycolytic fibers contracting at its Vmax
d. A muscle containing mostly fast glycolytic fibers contracting against a moderate load
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
38. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Which number on the diagram represents the most optimal positioning of actin and myosin
before contraction?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
39. When muscle is suddenly activated to perform contractions at a rapid rate, most of the ATP
to fuel the first 3‒5 seconds of exercise comes from
a. the aerobic breakdown of glycogen.
b. creatine phosphate hydrolysis.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. anaerobic glycolysis.
d. ATP stored in the cell.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers depend on carbohydrate as a fuel, whereas slow oxidative fibers
are capable of metabolizing carbohydrates, lipids, or amino acids. What is the physiological
reason for this difference?
a. Anaerobic glycolysis can produce ATP from glucose much more quickly than lipid or amino
acid oxidation can take place.
b. The myosin in fast glycolytic fibers can only bind to glycogen.
c. Compared to fast glycolytic fibers, slow oxidative fibers need to metabolize a wider variety of
fuels to meet a higher ATP demand.
d. Slow oxidative fibers need to metabolize lipid because they have less creatine kinase.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. Lactate produced by muscle cells
a. is produced only during very intense exercise.
b. is always broken down to yield ATP within the muscle cell that produced it.
c. is always used to produce glucose by gluconeogenesis in the cell that produced it.
d. can be exported into the bloodstream and used by other cells.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. Tonic muscle
a. is a form of smooth muscle.
b. has large amounts of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c. is found primarily in postural muscles.
d. consumes no ATP.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. One reason that fast glycolytic muscle fibers fatigue more rapidly than slow oxidative muscle
fibers is that fast glycolytic fibers
a. contain lower amounts of ATP than slow oxidative fibers.
b. have a lower capacity for glycolysis than slow oxidative fibers.
c. have a higher capacity for oxidative phosphorylation than slow oxidative fibers.
d. use ATP more rapidly than slow oxidative fibers.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
44. The diffusion rate of which factor best explains why vertebrates evolved to have slow
oxidative muscle fibers that are smaller in diameter than fast glycolytic fibers?
a. Lipid
b. Oxygen
c. Ca2+
d. Glucose
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
45. A skeletal muscle fiber with high myosin ATPase activity, a high rate of Ca2+ reuptake by the
sarcoplasmic reticulum, and large number of mitochondria would be classified as a
a. slow oxidative fiber.
b. fast oxidative glycolytic fiber.
c. fast glycolytic fiber.
d. slow glycolytic fiber.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers in skeletal muscle are used
a. only for motions requiring maximum power output, such as jumping.
b. constantly, for postural activities such as standing and sitting.
c. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic fibers alone
can produce.
d. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the slow oxidative fibers alone
can produce.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47. Slow oxidative fibers in skeletal muscle have
a. few mitochondria but abundant sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b. few mitochondria but numerous capillaries.
c. large diameters, to hold many mitochondria.
d. low levels of glycolytic enzymes but high levels of oxidative enzymes.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. The small diameter of slow oxidative muscle fibers is particularly advantageous for
minimizing the distance over which
a. calcium diffuses from the sarcolemma to the myofibrils.
b. oxygen diffuses from the sarcolemma to the mitochondria.
c. glycogen diffuses from the sarcolemma to the myofibrils.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. lactate diffuses from the myofibrils to the sarcolemma.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
49. The extraocular muscles that move the mammalian eyeball can contract and relax at much
higher frequencies than the muscles of the limbs, but they produce relatively low force as they
rotate the eye. These characteristics tell us that extraocular muscles have
a. high levels of myosin.
b. a high volume fraction of myofibrils.
c. a high volume fraction of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
d. troponin C with high Ca2+ affinity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. A vertebrate motor unit consists of
a. a single motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.
b. all of the muscles that contract to complete a particular body movement.
c. a particular muscle and all of its synergistic and antagonistic muscles.
d. all of the fibers of a particular fiber type in a given muscle.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. The force that a particular vertebrate skeletal muscle produces can be altered by a change in
the
a. size of the action potentials in motor neurons.
b. number of motor units recruited.
c. amount of calcium released in response to each action potential.
d. proportion of myofibrils activated per muscle fiber.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. Which statement is true of most arthropod and vertebrate skeletal muscle?
a. Muscle fibers are innervated by multiple neurons.
b. Muscle fibers receive both EPSPs and IPSPs.
c. Different myosin isoforms in adjacent fibers produce different maximum shortening velocities.
d. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to depolarization of the fiber.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
53. Which statement provides the most likely explanation for the differing patterns of innervation
in arthropod skeletal muscle (polyneuronal) and vertebrate skeletal muscle (single innervation)?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Vertebrates need to modulate muscle force, whereas arthropods always exert the same force
with a given muscle.
b. Action potentials in vertebrate neurons are all-or-nothing, whereas arthropod neurons fire
action potentials of varying magnitude.
c. Action potentials in arthropod neurons are all-or-nothing, whereas vertebrate neurons fire
action potentials of varying magnitude.
d. The two patterns are products of the evolutionary history of the two taxa, and each one allows
effective control of muscle contraction.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
54. Smooth muscle cells possess which component?
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. T-tubules
c. Multiple nuclei
d. Sarcomeres
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
55. Single-unit smooth muscle differs from multiunit smooth muscle in that multiunit smooth
muscle
a. contains gap junctions that link the cells as an electrical syncytium.
b. is often spontaneously active.
c. is usually stretch-activated.
d. has cells that function as independent units.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
56. For contraction to occur in smooth muscle,
a. myosin light chains must be phosphorylated.
b. myosin light-chain kinase must be phosphorylated.
c. calcium must bind to troponin C.
d. DHPR must interact physically with ryanodine receptor calcium channels.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. ATP use is lower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle in part because
a. there is no sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase in smooth muscle.
b. smooth muscle myosin does not require an ATP molecule for each cross-bridge cycle.
c. smooth muscle myosin completes the cross-bridge cycle more slowly than skeletal muscle
myosin does.
d. calcium removal from the cytoplasm does not require ATP in smooth muscle.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
58. The force produced by a smooth muscle cell could be increased by
a. inhibition of myosin light-chain kinase.
b. inhibition of myosin light-chain phosphatase.
c. inhibition of calmodulin.
d. an increase in the amount of Ca2+ binding to troponin C.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
59. In tonic smooth muscle that contracts continuously for long periods, the highly efficient
“latch state” depends on
a. high myosin ATPase activity.
b. very slow turnover of ATP bound to myosin.
c. slow release of Ca2+ by troponin C.
d. high activity of myosin light-chain phosphatase.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
60. Nervous signaling to smooth muscle cells
a. is always inhibitory.
b. can be excitatory or inhibitory.
c. is all-or-nothing.
d. can regulate frequency, but not force, of contraction.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
61. Mammalian cardiac muscle cells are stimulated to contract by
a. hormonal signals that trigger Ca2+ release and myosin light-chain phosphorylation.
b. electrical signals transmitted through gap junctions from other autorhythmic cardiac muscle
cells.
c. action potentials from excitatory autonomic neurons.
d. ion channels that open in response to stretch of the cardiac muscle cell membranes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Cardiac Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. Explain why a muscle always works by shortening and cannot actively increase its length
unless an external force pulls on it.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: During the cross-bridge cycle, myosin goes through a characteristic sequence of
conformational changes and interactions with actin. The power-stroke of the myosin head can
only pull the actin-containing thin filament in one direction, so the muscle always works by
shortening. However, external forces from other muscles or loads external to the body can act on
the muscle to lengthen it.
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Vertebrate skeletal muscle is characterized by thin-filament regulation of contraction while
smooth muscle is characterized by thick-filament regulation. Explain the distinction between
thin-filament and thick-filament regulation.
Answer: In skeletal muscle, actin and myosin are able to interact and generate force when
calcium binds to troponin C, which is part of the thin filament. In smooth muscle, actin and
myosin are able to interact when calcium triggers phosphorylation of myosin light chains by
myosin light-chain kinase.
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding
3. List four factors that could allow a leg muscle in one animal to activate and relax more quickly
than a leg muscle in another animal.
Answer: Possible factors include: higher levels of parvalbumin, higher density of sarcoplasmic
reticulum, greater quantities of SR Ca2+-ATPase, troponins that change configuration more
quickly, faster isoform of myosin ATPAse, and lower affinity of troponin for calcium.
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. Put the steps in neuromuscular junction synaptic transmission and EC-coupling in
chronological order.
1. Myosin heads hydrolyze ATP during the cross-bridge cycle.
2. An EPSP is generated in the muscle cell.
3. An action potential is conducted along the sarcolemma.
4. Voltage-gated Na+ channels open in sarcolemma.
5. Ca2+ rises in the muscle cell cytoplasm.
6. Vesicles containing acetylcholine fuse with axon terminal membrane.
7. Tropomyosin rotates into groove of thin filament.
8. Ca2+ dissociates from troponin.
9. Motoneuron axon terminal are depolarized.
10. RyRs open.
11. Acetylcholine receptors open and conduct ions.
12. Ca2+ binds to troponin C.
Answer: 9–6–11–2–4–3–10–5–12–7–1–8
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s category: 4. Analyzing
5. Why does a skeletal muscle twitch last longer than a skeletal muscle action potential?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: The twitch begins with the action potential but also requires opening of ryanodine
receptors, diffusion of Ca2+ from the interior of the SR to the myofibrils, Ca2+ binding to
troponin, configuration changes in tropomyosin, cross-bridge cycling, release of Ca2+ from
troponin, and removal of Ca2+ from the cytoplasm. Many fewer ions are moved by pumps per
unit time than occurs with fluxes of ions through channels. Each of these events takes time, so
the twitch lasts substantially longer than the action potential that produces it.
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Describe two mechanisms by which the human nervous system can voluntarily alter the force
and velocity of a contraction of the biceps muscle of the arm.
Answer: 1. Varying numbers of motor units can be recruited. 2. Varying action potential
frequency can generate twitches, unfused tetani, or fused tetanic contractions.
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Briefly explain why fast glycolytic muscle fibers fatigue more rapidly than slow-twitch muscle
fibers.
Answer: Fast glycolytic muscle fibers use ATP much more rapidly than slow-twitch fibers. At
first, they can produce ATP very rapidly through phosphagen breakdown and anaerobic
glycolysis. However, these pathways are limited by the quantity of phosphagen and the build up
of end products, including inorganic phosphate, pyruvate, and lactate. Fast glycolytic fibers have
fewer mitochondria per unit volume to generate ATP by aerobic mechanisms. Therefore, as the
ATP supply declines below ATP demand, fatigue sets in. Slow-twitch fibers use ATP more
slowly and have a higher capacity for sustained ATP production via aerobic pathways.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Identify the two major uses of ATP in skeletal muscle cells that are involved in contraction
and relaxation, and explain why each process uses ATP more rapidly in fast-twitch muscles than
in slow-twitch muscles.
Answer: Myosin hydrolyzes ATP as part of the cross-bridge cycle that generates force and
causes the muscle to shorten. The myosin isoforms in fast-twitch muscle go through the crossbridge cycle more quickly than the isoforms in slow-twitch muscle, so ATP is broken down more
rapidly. The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+-ATPase uses ATP to pump Ca2+ into the SR
during relaxation. Fast-twitch muscle has more sarcoplasmic reticulum containing more SR
Ca2+-ATPase and more ryanodine receptors than slow-twitch muscle. Therefore, Ca2+ is released
more rapidly and taken up more quickly in response to each action potential, requiring more
ATP.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. On the same set of axes, graph the relationship of velocity to force in two muscles of equal
mass from the same animal. Muscle A contains predominantly fast glycolytic fibers, while
muscle B contains predominantly slow oxidative fibers.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: The graph should show that both muscles produce the same maximum force, but muscle
A has a faster maximum shortening velocity when force is zero and shortens more quickly at any
given force/load.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Some crabs have giant skeletal muscle fibers that are much larger in diameter than muscle
fibers found in most other animals. What fiber type are these fibers likely to be and why?
Answer: The giant fibers are fast glycolytic fibers (FG). Oxidative fibers rely on continuous
diffusion of oxygen from outside the cell to the mitochondria in order to generate ATP, so they
can work effectively only if the fiber diameter (i.e., the diffusion distance for oxygen) is
relatively small. Glycolytic fibers can generate ATP using substrates contained within the cell.
Metabolic byproducts can then diffuse out of the cell slowly before the muscle is used again.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. Explain why muscles such as rattlesnake tail-shaker muscles, which are capable of very fast
activation and relaxation, tend to produce lower forces than other skeletal muscles.
Answer: Muscles that contract and relax very rapidly require small myofibrils surrounded by
extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. This arrangement minimizes the distance over which Ca2+
must diffuse to reach each thin filament within the myofibrils, speeding both contraction and
relaxation. Rapid Ca2+ pumping by the SR Ca2+ ATPase requires a large amount of ATP, so
mitochondria and glycogen granules tend to be abundant as well. If the SR, mitochondria, and
glycogen take up more of each muscle cell’s volume, there is less space available for myofibrils
containing actin and myosin, so fewer cross-bridges can form and the muscle cell cannot produce
as much force as a typical skeletal muscle. (In fact, in tail-shaker muscle, only a third of the cell
volume is devoted to myofibrils compared to about 85% in the body muscle.)
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which statement about skeletal muscle is true?
a. Proteins in thick filaments pull on thin filaments, while intermediate filaments hold
sarcomeres together.
b. Proteins in thin filaments pull on intermediate filaments, while thick filaments hold
sarcomeres together.
c. Proteins in thin filaments pull on thick filaments, while intermediate filaments hold
sarcomeres together.
d. Proteins in intermediate filaments pull on thin filaments, while thick filaments hold
sarcomeres together.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
2. The power stroke of the myosin head occurs in conjunction with what other event of the crossbridge cycle?
a. ATP hydrolysis to ADP and inorganic phosphate
b. ATP binding to the myosin head
c. Release of ADP from the myosin head
d. Release of inorganic phosphate from the myosin head
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. In the absence of _______, a muscle can contract but cannot relax.
a. Ca2+
b. myosin
c. ATP
d. oxygen
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. In a vertebrate skeletal muscle cell, depolarization of the t-tubule membrane causes
dihydropyridine receptors to
a. open and conduct Ca2+ into the t-tubule.
b. open and conduct Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c. change conformation and interact with ryanodine receptors.
d. bind dihydropyridines and change configuration.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. A hypothetical skeletal muscle cell with no t-tubules would probably
a. contract and relax more quickly during twitch contractions.
b. contract and relax more slowly during twitch contractions.
c. shorten more quickly during tetanic contractions.
d. have a lower rate of aerobic ATP production.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. During an isometric tetanic contraction, the sarcomeres generate
a. no force.
b. force but cannot stretch the elastic component of the muscle.
c. force and stretch the elastic component of the muscle, but they cannot move the load.
d. force but do not transmit it to the elastic component of the muscle.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Why is the latent period of an isotonic twitch different from that of an isometric twitch?
a. The motoneuron sends a longer action potential if there is an isotonic load on the muscle.
b. The motoneuron sends a longer action potential if there is an isometric load on the muscle.
c. An isotonic twitch does not begin until the muscle develops enough force to lift the load.
d. An isometric twitch does not begin until the muscle develops enough force to lift the load.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
8. Which of the following factors would increase the stimulation frequency at which a muscle
shifts from twitch to tetanic contractions?
a. Voltage-gated sodium channels with faster kinetics
b. A larger volume fraction of mitochondria
c. A larger volume fraction of myofibrils
d. A larger number of SR Ca2+-ATPase proteins
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
9. On the plateau of the length‒tension curve,
a. all myosin heads are in proximity to actin.
b. all actin monomers are in proximity to myosin heads.
c. the width of the A band is minimized.
d. the distance between Z disc is minimized.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. If a muscle contains 10,000 sarcomeres in a series (i.e., end-to-end along its length), each
sarcomere is ~2.5 µm in length, and each sarcomere can shorten by 2.5 µm/s, how fast can the
muscle shorten?
a. 2.5 µm/s
b. 2.5 mm/s
c. 2.5 cm/s
d. 2.5 m/s
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Muscle A has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 10 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.
Muscle B has a volume of 100 cm3, a length of 5 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.
Which statement about muscles A and B is true?
a. Both muscles can produce the same power, but they can shorten at different speeds.
b. Both muscles can shorten at the same speed, but they can produce different amounts of power.
c. Both muscles can exert the same force and can produce the same amount of power.
d. Both muscles can exert the same force, but one can shorten more quickly than the other.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. Order the mechanisms of ATP generation by decreasing yield per episode of use.
a. Creatine phosphate; anaerobic glycolysis; aerobic catabolism
b. Anaerobic glycolysis; creatine phosphate; aerobic catabolism
c. Aerobic catabolism; creatine phosphate; anaerobic glycolysis
d. Aerobic catabolism; anaerobic glycolysis; creatine phosphate
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. Which statement about slow oxidative and fast glycolytic muscle fibers is false?
a. Their thick and thin filaments are arranged differently.
b. They have different numbers of organelles such as mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c. They have different amounts of metabolic enzymes such as hexokinase or citrate synthase.
d. They have different amounts of certain excitation–contraction coupling proteins, such as SR
Ca2+-ATPase.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which best explains why fast glycolytic muscle fibers are larger than slow oxidative fibers?
a. Slow oxidative fibers rely on the diffusion of oxygen via capillaries.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Slow oxidative fibers can oxidize a variety of fuels, whereas fast glycolytic fibers primarily
oxidize glucose/glycogen.
c. Fast glycolytic fibers are larger to generate larger action potentials and greater force.
d. Fast glycolytic fibers are larger to exchange glucose across the sarcolemma more quickly.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
15. Slow oxidative fibers in skeletal muscle are used
a. only for motions requiring maximum power output, such as jumping.
b. constantly, for postural activities such as standing and sitting.
c. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic fibers alone
can produce.
d. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic and fast
oxidative glycolytic fibers alone can produce.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Compared to a typical avian leg muscle, hummingbird flight muscle
a. produces more force per cross-sectional area.
b. has an exceptionally high volume fraction of mitochondria.
c. has very high numbers of muscle fibers per capillary.
d. has very high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase, but low levels of mitochondria.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Muscles of the larynx that help mammals to produce complex sounds can contract and relax
at much higher frequencies than the muscles of the limbs, but they produce relatively low force
as they act on the vocal cords. Based on these characteristics, one would predict that laryngeal
muscles have
a. high levels of myosin.
b. high levels of parvalbumin.
c. high levels of troponin T.
d. unusually long sarcomeres.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling; Muscle Energetics
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. Calcium enters the cytoplasm of a smooth muscle cell by
a. active transport from the sarcoplasmic reticulum only.
b. active transport from the extracellular space and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
c. diffusion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum only.
d. diffusion from the extracellular space and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which of the following cannot modulate force production in smooth muscle?
a. Inhibition of myosin light-chain kinase
b. Inhibition of myosin light-chain phosphatase
c. Binding of Ca2+ to troponin C
d. Hormonal stimuli
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. In smooth muscle, calcium must bind to _______ to initiate contraction.
a. calmodulin
b. troponin C
c. myosin
d. ryanodine receptor
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 14: Sensory Processes
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. The conversion of stimulus energy into an electrical signal is known as
a. transference.
b. transduction.
c. an action potential.
d. a graded potential.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which receptor uses a metabotropic mechanism of signal transduction?
a. Photoreceptors
b. Vestibular receptors
c. Mechanoreceptors
d. Thermoreceptors
e. Auditory receptors
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. “The sensory modality or quality of sensation associated with a stimulus depends
solely on which receptor cells are stimulated, rather than on how they are stimulated.”
This generalization is known as the
a. brain partitioning principle.
b. principle of pathway analysis.
c. principle of labeled lines.
d. principle of sensory organization.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Which sense is based on indirect, G protein-coupled receptor activation?
a. Vertebrate touch
b. Insect hearing
c. Insect vision
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Vertebrate hearing
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5.–6. Refer to the figure below.
5. Which panel(s) would be categorized as a phasic receptor?
a. I
b. IV
c. I and II
d. III and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. Which panel best represents the action of a Pacinian corpuscle?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
7. In insects, the most common form of auditory organ is the
a. tympanal organ.
b. statocyst.
c. cochlea.
d. bristle sensillum.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which statement regarding the vertebrate hair cell is false?
a. The vertebrate hair cell is an epithelial cell.
b. Displacement toward the kinocilium produces a depolarization.
c. Displacement away from the kinocilium produces a hyperpolarization.
d. When displaced enough toward the kinocilium, the hair cell will produce a train of
action potentials.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which of the following defines the main transduction process of sound?
a. The hair cell bending
b. The vibration of the ear drum
c. The vibration of the stapes on the oval window
d. Action potentials sent to the brain along the auditory nerve
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Which statement best describes the vertebrate vestibular system?
a. Three semicircular canals detect movement via fluid that stimulates hair cells in the
crista ampullaris.
b. A circular canal detects movement via fluid that stimulates the oval window.
c. Four canals, including the cochlea, detect indirect movement of hair cells.
d. The incus, malleus, and stapes detect movement by amplifying sound to the oval
window.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
11. Which statement regarding the basilar membrane is false?
a. It separates the cochlea into an upper chamber and a lower chamber.
b. It is widest at its basal end and narrowest at its apical end.
c. It is stiffer at its basal end and more compliant near its apical end.
d. It responds maximally to high frequency sounds toward its basal end.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. In the ear, low-frequency sounds tend to displace
a. the whole length of the basilar membrane equally.
b. mainly the basal portion (oval window end) of the basilar membrane.
c. mainly the apex portion of the basilar membrane.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. only the portion of the basilar membrane between the basal portion and the apex.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. The major source of auditory input to the brain comes from _______ hair cell signals.
a. lateral line
b. semicircular canal
c. inner
d. outer
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Which statement about bat navigation is true?
a. Bats emit high-frequency sound pulses and detect the echoes reflected by the objects
around them.
b. Bats emit ultra-low-frequency sound pulses and detect the echoes reflected by the
objects around them.
c. In addition to detecting echoes from sound emissions, bats have keen night vision.
d. Bats navigate by detecting sounds from animals and those reflected by the objects
around them.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. Which statement regarding fish taste is true?
a. Fish taste buds are structurally very different compared to mammalian taste buds.
b. Fish do not have taste buds.
c. Fish have taste buds on their mouth and skin.
d. Fish do not have a sense of taste, only smell.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. The family of GPCRs that sense bitter compounds is much larger and more disparate
in amino acid sequence than those that sense sweet or umami. Why might this be
adaptive?
a. Bitter receptors do not have to be as sensitive as those for sweet or umami.
b. The ability to distinguish between many bitter compounds allows the animal to eat the
one most agreeable to its digestive system.
c. Bitter compounds are usually toxic, and so the ability to sense a wide variety of them is
protective.
d. Bitter compounds usually contain dense calories, which help a species survive and
thrive.
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Which sense perception depends on a metabotropic mechanism for initial signal
transduction?
a. Auditory reception
b. Touch
c. Bitter taste
d. Acceleration
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18.–19. Refer to the figure below.
18. How many different (taste) qualities depend on the mechanism shown in the figure?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19. Which taste qualities are represented by the mechanism shown in the figure?
a. Sweet, sour, umami, and bitter
b. Sweet, umami, and bitter
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Salty, umami, and bitter
d. Umami and bitter
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. Which statement regarding vertebrate olfactory receptor cells is true?
a. Their axons reside in the mucous layer.
b. They have fine, myelinated axons.
c. They undergo continuous turnover (die and are replaced).
d. Their axons are among the largest axons in the nervous system.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21.‒23. Refer to the figure below.
21. The sensory process shown in the figure is
a. the bitter taste response.
b. the vomeronasal mechanism.
c. vertebrate olfaction.
d. insect vision.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. Which key best represents the ion movement shown in the figure?
a. I = Na+ and Ca2+; II = Cl‒
b. I = K+; II = Cl‒
c. I = Na+ and Cl‒; II = Ca2+
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. I = Ca2+; II = K+
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
23. What is the resulting electrical event on the membrane as shown in the figure?
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization at I, hyperpolarization at II
c. Hyperpolarization at I, depolarization at II
d. Depolarization
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
24. In the mechanism of vertebrate olfaction, a G protein activates the enzyme
a. cGMP phosphodiesterase.
b. phospholipase C.
c. adenylyl cyclase.
d. transducin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Which statement best describes the ion movement on the cilium of the olfactory
receptor cell in vertebrate olfaction?
a. Na+ enters the cell and K+ leaves the cell.
b. Cl‒ moves out of the cell.
c. Na+ and Ca2+ enter the cell.
d. Na+ and Ca2+ move into the cell and Cl‒ moves out of the cell.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
26. Which statement about the mammalian vomeronasal organ is true?
a. It mostly detects pheromones and other chemical signals.
b. It integrates the olfactory information before sending it to the brain.
c. It interacts with the olfactory system to amplify the signal.
d. It detects chemicals from greater distances than olfaction does.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
What electrical outcome on the membrane is the end result of the mechanism shown in
the figure?
a. An action potential
b. A metabotropic response
c. Depolarization
d. Hyperpolarization
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. The molecule that absorbs light is called a
a. photoreceptor.
b. photochemical.
c. rhabdomere.
d. photopigment.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
29. Which of the following is the most common evolved feature of eyes?
a. A lens
b. A retina
c. Similar genes regulating eye development
d. A rhodopsin-based photoreceptor cell
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. Which statement regarding the transduction mechanism in vision is true of both
vertebrates and invertebrates?
a. G proteins activate cGMP phosphodiesterase.
b. Light triggers the conversion of cis retinal to trans retinal.
c. Cation channels are opened and Na+ enters the photoreceptor membrane.
d. Second messengers IP3 and DAG are synthesized.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
31. Phototransduction in Drosophila takes place on the membrane of the
a. microvilli of the retinular cell’s rhabdomere.
b. ommatidium of the compound eye’s retinular cell.
c. outer segment of the rod.
d. ommatidium’s rhabdomere.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32.‒34. Refer to the figure below.
32. The animals that make use of the sensory mechanism shown in this figure are all
a. arthropods.
b. arthropods with compound eyes.
c. insects.
d. vertebrates.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. Which letter in the figure corresponds to activated rhodopsin?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
34. What the mechanism is occurring at IV in the figure?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Second messengers have led to the opening of a K+ channel.
b. Second messengers have led to the opening of a Ca2+ channel.
c. Second messengers have led to the opening of a cation channel, causing depolarization.
d. G proteins open a sodium channel.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. For terrestrial vertebrates, the greatest amount of refraction occurs
a. at the interface between the air and the cornea.
b. in the aqueous humor.
c. in the lens.
d. in the vitreous humor.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
36. Which statement best describes the vertebrate mechanism that operates on the outer
segment cell membrane of the rod in the presence of light?
a. cGMP detaches from the sodium channels, causing them to close.
b. cGMP that is attached to the sodium channels causes them to open.
c. Light activates rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from cis to trans.
d. Light activates rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from trans to cis.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
37.‒39. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
37. The sensory mechanism depicted in the figure is that of
a. vertebrate vision.
b. invertebrate vision.
c. vertebrate sweet taste reception.
d. vertebrate olfaction.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
38. Which number in the figure corresponds to the location where an aldehyde is
isomerized?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. What would occur at location number 4 in the figure in the absence of light?
a. cGMP would detach itself from the sodium channels, causing them to close.
b. cGMP attached to the sodium channels would cause them to open.
c. Darkness would inactivate rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from cis to trans.
d. Darkness would inactivate rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from trans to cis.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. What happens in the vertebrate rod in the absence of light?
a. Rhodopsin is activated.
b. cGMP is converted back to 5'-GMP.
c. cGMP dissociates from Na+ channels.
d. cGMP opens Na+ channels.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
41. In the dark, a cone membrane of a fish will be
a. relatively depolarized.
b. relatively hyperpolarized.
c. at zero mV.
d. photochemically fluctuating.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
42. Which statement regarding the regeneration of rhodopsin in vertebrates is false?
a. All-trans retinol is re-isomerized back to all-cis retinol
b. Regeneration of rhodopsin is enzymatic.
c. All-trans retinal becomes unbound from the opsin protein.
d. An added photon is necessary to change all-trans retinal back to all-cis retinal.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
43. _______ cells are the output of the retina.
a. Amacrine
b. Horizontal
c. Bipolar
d. Ganglion
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. The area of the retina within which the membrane potential of a particular neuron can
be influenced by light is called the
a. on-center area.
b. straight-through area.
c. outer plexiform layer.
d. receptive field.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45.‒47. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
45. The figure shows the activity of _______ cells
a. bipolar
b. horizontal
c. cone
d. ganglion
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. If the top panel (activity trace) of the figure is the result of light shining in the center
of the receptive field, which of the following is true?
a. The entire receptive field has been inhibited.
b. Central illumination has increased activity.
c. This is likely an off-center cell response.
d. This is likely an on-center cell response.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
47. The bottom panel of the figure depicts _______ illumination of an _______ cell.
a. central; on-center
b. diffuse; on-center
c. peripheral; on-center
d. central; off-center
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
48.‒50. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
48. The light in the figure is entering
a. from the bottom.
b. from the top.
c. from the right.
d. by diffusion from all directions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. Which letter in the figure best represents only a depolarizing graded potential in the
presence of light.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. According to the letters in the figure, light inducing (activating) an on-center response
would proceed through which of the following sequences?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. I → II → III → V → IV
b. I → II → IV
c. I → III → V
d. I → II → V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. What are the four different ways a sensory receptor cell can be classified?
Answer: Sensory receptor cells can be classified by sensory modality, by the form of
stimulus energy, by the mechanism of transduction, and according to the location of the
source of the stimulus energy relative to the body.
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Explain the principle of labeled lines.
Answer: The principle of labeled lines explains why action potentials that appear to be
exactly the same are interpreted, when isolated, as the different senses. This relates to
where in the brain these action potentials are being interpreted. The sensory modality or
quality of sensation associated with a stimulus depends solely on which receptor cells are
stimulated, rather than on how they are stimulated.
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. How does the transduction mechanism work in a stretch (mechano-) receptor?
Answer: Stretch receptors have stretch-activated channels that are opened by the physical
stretching of the membrane of the receptor cell. Typically, cations (Na+ and Ca2+) will
then flow through these open channels and cause a depolarization on the membrane.
Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Describe the process of adaptation as it relates to mechanoreceptors in mammalian
skin.
Answer: Adaptation in a skin mechanoreceptor occurs as constant stimulation over time
produces a lower frequency of action potentials.
Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. How could the statocyst of a lobster be manipulated experimentally to cause the lobster
to behave as if Earth’s gravity were the opposite of its true gravity?
Answer: If the dense grains in the statocyst could be removed and replaced with magnetic
particles, such as small grains of iron, a simple magnet placed at the top of an aquarium
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
would move the grains to the “top” of the statocyst. This would then alter the sense of
gravity in the lobster and cause it to turn upside down.
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Explain how the hair cells transduce sound intensity and frequency.
Answer: In the cochlea, both the number of bending hair cells and the degree of the
bending transduce the mechanical information into a depolarization, which is decoded as
sound intensity. It is the actual location of the bending hair cells on the cochlea that
encodes frequency. Hair cells located toward the basal end of the cochlea will transduce
higher frequency sounds, while hair cells located toward the apical end will transduce
lower frequency sounds.
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. A blowfly can taste with its feet. Explain.
Answer: A blowfly has taste receptors located within sensilla on the terminal segment of
its legs. By walking into a substance, typically a fluid, it may be able to detect sugar or
salt, or even bitter substances.
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. How would you test whether an olfactory receptor cell responds to an odor?
Answer: A simple experiment is found in Figure 14.19 of the textbook. Typically, if you
can isolate the olfactory receptor cell and record the current through a channel or
channels, you only need to expose the cell to various odorants and a current change
would indicate that the odorant causes that receptor (or receptors) to respond.
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Compare and contrast vertebrate and invertebrate transduction in photoreception.
Answer: While vertebrate and invertebrate photoreception share a similar initial
transduction mechanism, with the activation of rhodopsin (cis to trans retinal), the second
messenger system is different and the ultimate electrical events on the membrane are the
opposite. Light on an invertebrate photoreceptor causes an eventual depolarization,
whereas light in a vertebrate photoreceptor causes a hyperpolarization.
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain how hyperpolarization of a vertebrate cone will eventually be transduced into
a train of action potentials sent to the brain via the optic nerve.
Answer: A hyperpolarization in a vertebrate cone will have two possible results on the
associated bipolar cells. If the bipolar cell is an on-center bipolar cell, it will depolarize in
response to the hyperpolarized cone, thus reversing the potential. On-center bipolar cells
can excite an on-center ganglion cell to send a train of action potentials to the brain via
the optic nerve.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In vestibular receptors, the stimulus perceived is
a. pressure.
b. chemicals.
c. sound.
d. body position and movement.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. How does the CNS differentiate between sensory signals from the PNS?
a. The action potentials are slightly different for each sense.
b. The different sensory pathways project to different areas of the cerebral cortex.
c. Some senses only produce graded potentials.
d. The frequencies of action potentials from each sensory modality are different.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Which mammalian skin mechanoreceptor cell is considered extremely phasic?
a. Merkel disk
b. Hair cell
c. Pacinian corpuscle
d. Ruffini ending
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which structure is most commonly used as the auditory organ in insects?
a. Semicircular canals
b. Statocyst
c. Tympanal organ
d. Hair cells
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which of the following does not directly relate to transduction of an aspect of sound?
a. The magnitude of hair cell bending
b. The location (population) of hair cells bending
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. The direction of hair cell bending
d. The number of action potentials coming from the hair cell
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Which statement regarding the transduction mechanism of the hair cell is true?
a. Displacement of the hair cell bundle toward the tallest stereocilia depolarizes the
membrane.
b. The vibration of the hair cell bundle produces an action potential on the membrane.
c. Displacement of the hair cell bundle in any direction depolarizes the membrane.
d. Displacement of the hair cell bundle toward the shortest stereocilia depolarizes the
membrane.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. Which statement regarding the mechanism of hearing is false?
a. Sound travels into the semicircular canal and vibrates the tectorial membrane.
b. The sound amplitude relates to the amount of hair cell membrane depolarization.
c. Inner hair cells are responsible for most of the afferent signal to the brain.
d. High frequency sounds tend to bend hair cells near the oval window.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. In the taste sensilla of Drosophila, which substance would likely elicit action potentials
in a deterrent cell?
a. 1 mM KCl
b. 30 mM sucrose
c. 50 mM NaCl
d. quinine
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which taste quality mechanism involves a G protein receptor?
a. Sweet
b. Salty and sour
c. Bitter and sweet
d. Bitter, sweet, and umami
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. Which sense has a receptor cell that directly produces an action potential?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Hearing
b. Olfactory
c. Taste
d. Vision
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which is the most likely mechanism for odorant receptor molecules in mammals?
a. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately opens
a cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channel.
b. Odorant receptors bind to the odorant molecule and open, producing a depolarization.
c. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately
produces a metabotropic action.
d. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately opens
potassium channels.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
12. In many vertebrates, _______ predominantly detect(s) pheromones.
a. specialized taste buds
b. the olfactory system
c. the vomeronasal organ
d. internal chemoreceptors
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Olfaction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. In the vertebrate eye, the main transduction event takes place
a. on the iris.
b. at the cornea.
c. in the retina.
d. at the lens.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
14. _______ is the vertebrate sense in which the “resting,” or unexcited, condition of the
receptor is depolarized.
a. Touch
b. Smell
c. Vision
d. Hearing
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Which statement best describes the first major transduction event in the vertebrate
eye?
a. Retinal changes from cis- to trans-isomer.
b. Opsin changes conformation.
c. Activated rhodopsin activates a G protein.
d. Light is refracted at the lens to focus on the retina.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
16. When light activates rhodopsin, the result at the vertebrate rod or cone outer
membrane is
a. depolarization.
b. hyperpolarization.
c. inhibition.
d. an action potential.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Which statement best describes the regeneration of rhodopsin in vertebrate rods?
a. Photochemical regeneration of rhodopsin is instantaneous.
b. Photochemical regeneration of rhodopsin is slow.
c. Enzymatic regeneration is slow.
d. Enzymatic regeneration is based on dark adaptation.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Photoreception
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. Which type of cells in the retina have their most prominent action in the lateral
pathway, as opposed to the straight-through pathway?
a. Bipolar cells
b. Horizontal cells
c. Ganglion cells
d. Cone cells
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. In the visual projection pathway of mammals, the geniculostriate pathway projects
a. from one eye to the primary visual cortex.
b. to the lateral geniculate nucleus within the primary visual cortex.
c. to the primary visual cortex and then to the lateral geniculate nucleus.
d. to the lateral geniculate nucleus and then to the primary visual cortex.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. Based on spectral sensitivities of human retinal cones, what types of cones do we
have?
a. Blue cones, green cones, and red cones
b. Yellow cones, green cones, and red cones
c. Ultraviolet cones, green cones, and red cones
d. Yellow cones, green cones, and violet cones
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 21: Movement and Muscle AT WORK:
Plasticity in Response to Use and Disuse
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. In response to exercise training, the muscles in adult mammals change as
a. muscle cells of one fiber type die and are replaced by muscle cells of different fiber
types.
b. new muscle cells are produced and work along with existing muscle cells.
c. proteins in muscle cells are broken down and replaced by proteins with different
properties.
d. existing muscle proteins change from one isoform to another.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Endurance exercise involves
a. few repetitions of movements involving low force and aerobic metabolism.
b. few repetitions of movements involving high force and aerobic metabolism.
c. repetitive movements involving high force and anaerobic metabolism.
d. repetitive movements involving low force and aerobic metabolism.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Isoforms of myosin are
a. different conformations of the same protein triggered by different cellular conditions.
b. versions of myosin that have the same function but different kinetics.
c. versions of myosin that perform different cellular functions.
d. versions of myosin that occur in different locations in the cell.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Glycolytic muscle fibers contain _______ and myosin isoforms that go through the
cross-bridge cycle _______.
a. low levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; slowly
b. high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; slowly
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. low levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; rapidly
d. high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; rapidly
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. In which order are motor units recruited as the load on a muscle increases?
a. Fast glycolytic, fast oxidative, slow oxidative
b. Fast oxidative, slow oxidative, fast glycolytic
c. Slow oxidative, fast oxidative, fast glycolytic
d. Slow oxidative, fast glycolytic, fast oxidative
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. The recruitment order of different fiber types matches and reinforces their cellular
properties because
a. Type I fibers are recruited most frequently, and this helps to maintain their oxidative
properties.
b. Type IIa fibers are recruited most frequently and are the most efficient in their use of
ATP.
c. Type I fibers are recruited most frequently because they have the largest diameters.
d. Type IIb fibers are recruited most frequently and thus require the largest stores of
glycogen.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. A single motor unit typically consists of
a. equal numbers of slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic fibers.
b. mostly fast glycolytic fibers along with a few fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers.
c. only a single fiber type.
d. a single muscle fiber and the motor neuron that innervates it.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8.–9. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. If the muscle represented in the figure can produce a maximal force of 20 N and has a
Vmax of 1 m/s, what is its maximal power output?
a. 2 watts
b. 10 watts
c. 20 watts
d. 200 watts
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
(Instructor Note: Power is the product of force times velocity, but maximum power is not
the product of maximum force times maximum velocity. Maximum force, or Fo is
produced during isometric or lengthening contractions (zero or negative velocity),
whereas maximum velocity is produced with no external load (zero force). Maximum
power occurs at intermediate force and intermediate velocity. Eyeballing the graph,
maximum power occurs where force is about one fourth of Fo and velocity is a bit less
than half of Vmax (perhaps 40% of Vmax).
Thus, maximum power = (0.25 × Fo) × (0.4 × Vmax) = 0.1 × 20 N × 1 m/s = 2 N × m/s =
2 watts)
9. If the muscle represented in the figure can produce a maximal power of 6 watts and has
a Vmax of 1.5 m/s, what is its maximum isometric force?
a. 0 newtons
b. 4 newtons
c. 9 newtons
d. 40 newtons
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
(Instructor Note: Refer to Note for #8.
Maximum power = (0.25 × Fo) × (0.4 × Vmax)
Fo = Maximum power / (0.25 × 0.4 × Vmax) = 6 N × m/s / (0.1 × 1.5 m/s) = 40 N)
10. Suppose you are comparing several muscles from the same animal. Which muscle
would have the highest power output?
a. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 10 cm2, composed primarily of fast
oxidative fibers
b. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 10 cm2, composed primarily of fast
glycolytic fibers
c. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 20 cm2, composed primarily of slow
oxidative fibers
d. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 20 cm2, composed primarily of fast
glycolytic fibers
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Fast glycolytic fibers can generate more power than slow oxidative fibers of similar
diameter because they
a. produce more force per cross-sectional area.
b. shorten more rapidly.
c. use ATP more efficiently.
d. have much more myosin per cross-sectional area.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. A training program that increased the proportion of slow oxidative fibers in a muscle
would _______ the muscle’s maximum _______.
a. increase; isometric force
b. increase; power output
c. decrease; isometric force
d. decrease; power output
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. In humans, endurance training typically causes _______ muscle fibers to be
converted to _______.
a. Type I; Type IIx.
b. Type I; Type IIa.
c. Type IIa; Type IIx.
d. Type IIx; Type IIa.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Suppose you take a muscle biopsy from an elite athlete and perform a histological
analysis on the sample. You find that the muscle cells are relatively small in diameter,
contain high numbers of mitochondria, and have an unusually large proportion of Type
IIa myosin. The athlete is most likely a
a. marathoner.
b. bodybuilder.
c. 100 m sprinter.
d. mile runner.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. To identify the cellular signals responsible for exercise effects in human muscle,
scientists can examine
a. mRNA expression in blood samples.
b. protein activation in blood samples.
c. information obtained from muscle biopsy samples.
d. information obtained from muscle samples obtained from cadavers.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In skeletal muscle, endurance exercise
a. increases VEGF levels, causing increased angiogenesis and leading to greater numbers
of capillaries.
b. increases the number of capillaries, allowing greater VEGF expression.
c. decreases the number of capillaries, causing decreased VEGF expression.
d. decreases VEGF levels, causing decreased angiogenesis and leading to fewer
capillaries.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. Endurance exercise generates signals in muscle cells, such as
a. high ATP.
b. VEGF.
c. high partial pressures of oxygen.
d. low calcium.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. Endurance training produces the greatest percentage increase in expression of genes
encoding
a. sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase.
b. Type IIx myosin.
c. the mitochondrial enzyme succinate dehydrogenase.
d. hexokinase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19. According to the data in the figure, a single bout of endurance exercise
a. increases VEGF mRNA levels, and the increase is greater in muscle that is not used in
exercising.
b. increases VEGF mRNA levels, and the increase is greater in muscle that has been
trained.
c. decreases VEGF mRNA levels, and the decrease is greater in muscle that has been
trained.
d. decreases VEGF mRNA levels, and the decrease is greater in muscle that is not used in
exercising.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. A single bout of exercise increases VEGF mRNA less in a trained muscle than in an
untrained muscle. The most plausible explanation for this difference is that trained
muscle has
a. more capillaries, so intracellular oxygen delivery remains higher during exercise.
b. more mitochondria, so it can generate much more force than untrained muscle.
c. more capillaries, so intracellular oxygen delivery remains lower during exercise.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. more mitochondria, so it does not need more capillaries.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. In skeletal muscle cells, endurance exercise training typically produces
a. increases in creatine phosphate levels.
b. increases in the mitochondrial enzyme citrate synthase activity.
c. increased phosphorylation of IGF-1.
d. increased myosin IIb expression.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. Increases in mitochondrial number and capillary number
a. increase the power of fast glycolytic muscle.
b. permit the muscle cells to use more oxygen per unit time.
c. increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
d. increase the oxygen-storage capacity of the muscle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Endurance training increases the amounts of both glycogen and lipid stored in muscle
cells. This most directly increases the
a. shortening velocity of the muscle cells when unloaded.
b. force output of the muscle cells in an isometric contraction.
c. amount of work that can be performed before the cells are depleted of fuel.
d. maximum frequency at which the cells can produce distinct twitch contractions.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
The figure illustrates a part of the typical response of skeletal muscle to
a. endurance training.
b. resistance training.
c. immobilization.
d. detraining following resistance training.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Resistance exercise involves _______ repetitions per unit time of movements
involving _______ force and _______ metabolism.
a. few; high; anaerobic
b. few; low; aerobic
c. many; high; anaerobic
d. many; low; aerobic
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26. Resistance training increases muscle mass primarily by increasing the
a. number of muscle cells.
b. length of muscle cells.
c. diameter of muscle cells.
d. thickness of the extracellular space in the muscle.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. In skeletal muscle cells, resistance training typically results in an increase in
a. the number of mitochondria.
b. the amount of Type IIx myosin.
c. muscle fiber diameter.
d. muscle fiber length.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
28. Many athletes engage in resistance training to increase the speed at which they can
perform motions required for their sports. Which statement best explains the effect of
resistance training on speed?
a. It increases the proportion of the fastest myosin isoforms.
b. It increases myosin expression of Type IIa and decreases Type IIx expression.
c. It increases the power output of the muscles, improving their ability to move loads.
d. It increases the number of mitochondria in the muscles, increasing the ATP supply.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
29. Resistance training of skeletal muscle would normally result in an increase in the
a. muscle’s maximum oxygen consumption.
b. muscle’s maximum isometric force.
c. muscle’s maximum unloaded shortening velocity.
d. number of capillaries in the muscle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Based on the figure, detraining following resistance training results in an increase in
_______ myosin relative to the _______ state.
a. Type I; untrained
b. Type IIa; untrained
c. Type IIa; trained
d. Type IIx; trained
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. Experiments that combine endurance and resistance training indicate that
a. resistance training prevents endurance training from having any effect on skeletal
muscle.
b. resistance and endurance training can produce some of their characteristic effects on
skeletal muscle simultaneously.
c. resistance and endurance training have identical effects on skeletal muscle.
d. resistance and endurance training produce different effects but activate the same
cellular pathways.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32. Bob has been sedentary for several years. As a New Year’s resolution, he starts an
intense exercise program, but after three months he stops exercising completely. What
was the likely effect of the program on his heart mass while he was exercising, and what
is the most likely outcome a year later?
a. His heart mass most likely increased during the exercise program and has remained at
the same larger size.
b. His heart mass most likely increased during the exercise program and then decreased
to its previous size.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. His heart mass most likely decreased during the exercise program and has remained at
the same smaller size.
d. His heart mass most likely decreased during the exercise program and has increased to
its previous size.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. Burmese pythons are a uniquely useful model for studies of cardiac hypertrophy
because their
a. heart anatomy is very similar to that of humans.
b. hearts increase in size very rapidly in response to exercise training.
c. hearts increase in size very rapidly in response to feeding.
d. hearts are highly resistant to atrophy and hypertrophy.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34. The figure shows changes in heart mass of Burmese pythons 3 days after feeding
(DPF), infusion with plasma from fed or fasted snakes, or infusion with a solution of
bovine serum albumin (BSA) with or without three specific fatty acids (FA) found in
blood of fed snakes. According to the figure, feeding increases heart mass primarily
through
a. the influence of an unknown hormone in the blood.
b. the influence of the three fatty acids tested.
c. nervous signals generated when the stomach stretches.
d. the action of bovine serum albumin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
35.–36. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
35. What is the likely treatment in this figure?
a. Microgravity
b. Resistance training
c. Endurance training
d. Resistance training followed by detraining
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. What best explains the results for the experimental group of mice on the right of the
figure?
a. The group of mice on the right lacked PGC-1α.
b. The group of mice on the right was the control group.
c. The group of mice on the right had an extra copy of PGC-1α.
d. The group of mice on the right lacked myostatin.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which statement about muscle atrophy is true?
a. Muscle atrophy occurs only in pathological conditions.
b. Muscle proteins are degraded only when atrophy is taking place.
c. Atrophy of muscle makes amino acids available for other systems in the body.
d. Muscle protein synthesis stops completely in muscles that are undergoing atrophy.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Experiments involving microgravity can be used to study the cellular processes
involved in
a. resistance training.
b. endurance training.
c. muscle atrophy.
d. muscle development.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. Atrophy of muscles due to disuse is accompanied by a shift in fiber type from
_______ fibers to _______ fibers.
a. faster and more glycolytic; slower and more oxidative
b. slower and more oxidative; faster and more glycolytic
c. faster and more oxidative; slower and more glycolytic
d. Type IIx; Type I
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. Based on the phenotype of patients who have been paralyzed for a substantial period
of time, scientists have inferred that the default fiber type of skeletal muscle is
a. fast oxidative.
b. fast glycolytic.
c. slow oxidative.
d. slow glycolytic.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
41. Sarcopenia, or age-related loss of muscle mass, is
a. due entirely to disuse atrophy as older people become less active.
b. due entirely to reduction in size of individual muscle fibers in aging individuals.
c. due entirely to reduction in the number of muscle fibers in aging individuals.
d. inevitable, but the rate of muscle loss can be minimized by resistance training.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. In the muscles of elderly people,
a. the ability to repair cellular damage is lost, leading to sarcopenia.
b. muscle deteriorates due to the same processes that lead to atrophy when muscle is
unloaded.
c. muscle becomes unresponsive to training, leading to sarcopenia.
d. normal repair and hypertrophy processes are still active but less effective than in
younger people.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. Studies of bears indicate that their adaptations for a lifestyle that involves hibernation
include
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. pronounced muscle hypertrophy during hibernation.
b. reduced rates of muscle atrophy during hibernation.
c. increased muscle protein synthesis during hibernation.
d. no muscle atrophy during hibernation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. “Double-muscled” animals such as Belgian Blue cattle and whippets have naturally
occurring mutations in the gene encoding the protein
a. myostatin.
b. myosin.
c. IGF-1.
d. Akt.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45.–46. Refer to the figure below.
45. What is the most logical label for the x axis?
a. Age (years)
b. Development (days)
c. Force (N)
d. Velocity (m/s)
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. An elite distance runner would display a curve that is closest to
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. curve I.
b. curve II.
c. curve III.
d. a curve that is much higher than curve I.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. Myostatin mutations that increase muscle mass may not be favored by evolution
because
a. larger muscles in animals that have impaired myostatin production actually produce
less force than normal muscles.
b. larger muscles fatigue more rapidly in myostatin-null animals.
c. impaired atrophy may deprive myostatin-null animals of the amino acids needed for
physiological processes in non-muscle tissues.
d. the high degree of conservation of the myostatin sequence in different tetrapods
indicates that the gene is not important in most animals.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
48. Binding of IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor-1) to its receptor on a skeletal muscle
cell membrane leads to _______ protein synthesis and _______ protein degradation.
a. increased; decreased
b. increased; increased
c. decreased; increased
d. decreased; decreased
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Cachexia, or muscle wasting (loss of muscle mass), is a common complication of
cancer. A muscle biopsy sample from a cancer patient would likely show
a. increased activation of PI3-kinase.
b. decreased levels of myostatin.
c. decreased phosphorylation of Akt.
d. decreased mRNA levels of atrophy promoting genes.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Which drug would likely be the most effective for restoring muscle mass in a cancer
patient undergoing chemotherapy?
a. A drug that blocks insulin receptors
b. A drug that activates the myostatin receptor
c. A drug that activates transcription of atrophy genes
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. A drug that enhances phosphorylation of Akt
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
51. Which drug would likely be the most effective for restoring muscle mass in a cancer
patient undergoing chemotherapy?
a. A drug that blocks insulin receptors
b. A drug that blocks the IGF-1 receptor
c. A drug that blocks the myostatin receptor
d. A drug that inhibits phosphorylation of Akt
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. Which experimental treatment would most likely increase levels of IGF-1 protein in a
rat’s plantaris muscle?
a. Putting the hindlimb in a cast for two weeks
b. Cutting the motor neurons that normally innervate the plantaris
c. Putting a running wheel in the rat’s cage so that it can perform voluntary endurance
exercise
d. Surgically removing the rat’s other calf muscles to overload the plantaris
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
53. Satellite cells
a. are stem cells that fuse into existing muscle cells to add nuclei to the muscle cells.
b. are stem cells that fuse into existing muscle cells to add cytoplasm to the muscle cells.
c. provide metabolic support to other muscle cells by processing lactate and other wastes.
d. are muscle cells that are not connected to tendons or other connective tissue.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
54. The number of myonuclei in a muscle cell is important to the process of muscle repair
and hypertrophy because each nucleus must
a. transcribe mRNA to serve as a template for protein synthesis.
b. translate protein to overcome protein degradation.
c. recycle proteins that are being degraded.
d. duplicate its DNA to make additional muscle cells.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
55. Which factor would most likely lead to muscle hypertrophy?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Increased levels of stress hormones, such as glucocorticoids
b. Increased intake of dietary protein
c. Increased caloric intake
d. Decreased levels of dietary protein
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
56. There currently is great scientific interest in identifying genetic polymorphisms that
underlie different individual responses to exercise training. The muscle size and bulk of a
champion bodybuilder, for example, might be due in part to a missense mutation in the
a. IGF-1 gene.
b. androgen receptor.
c. myostatin gene.
d. Akt gene.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. Explain how the cellular effects of endurance training improve the balance between
ATP supply and demand during extended exercise. Refer to specific changes that occur
and indicate whether they increase or decrease ATP supply or ATP demand.
Answer: In the course of endurance training, a shift from fast to slow myosins reduces
ATP demand per unit time. An increase in capillary density increases capacity for O2
uptake, increasing aerobic ATP supply. An increase in mitochondrial density increases
the capacity for aerobic ATP production, thus also increasing ATP supply.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Describe how force, speed, and power output differ among muscle fibers of different
fiber types.
Answer: FG, FOG, and SO fibers produce similar amounts of force per cross-sectional
area. Of the three types, FG fibers can shorten the most quickly and SO fibers are the
slowest. A muscle’s power output equals its force times its velocity. As a result of
differences in shortening velocity, FG fibers produce the greatest power and SO fibers
produce the least power.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. In humans, the vastus lateralis is a mixed fiber type muscle from which biopsies are
often taken in exercise studies. Why might it be particularly worthwhile to use a mixed
fiber type muscle in studies of exercise training?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Both resistance training and endurance training induce shifts in expression of
proteins associated with particular fiber types. These shifts may be particularly easy to
study in muscles that normally have a mixture of fiber types.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Explain how endurance training increases the ability of muscle cells to use oxygen.
Include three specific cellular effects of endurance training and explain how each one
increases oxygen uptake.
Answer: The increase in capillary number that results from endurance training steepens
increases the maximum rate of O2 diffusion. Increased numbers of mitochondria steepen
the PO2 gradient and provide more sites for oxygen to accept electrons from the electron
transport chain. Increased levels of Krebs cycle enzymes increase the rate at which
substrates such as carbohydrates and fatty acids can be processed upstream of the
electron-transport chain.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Describe the effects of exercise training on cardiac muscle and identify how they are
similar to the effects of either endurance or resistance training on skeletal muscle.
Answer: The cross-sectional area of cardiac myofibrils and overall mass of the heart
increase in response to an increased workload, which is similar to resistance training in
skeletal muscle. Capillary density in the heart increases, which is similar to the effects of
endurance training on skeletal muscle.
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Describe what happens to the muscle cells at the molecular level in a person’s biceps
when the person has to wear a cast for a broken arm.
Answer: The lack of contraction reduces the release of IGF-1 and similar signals, thus
reducing protein synthesis. Muscle fibers decrease in diameter as a result of atrophy.
Reduced activity causes the cells to revert to the “default” fast glycolytic fiber type.
Myosin expression shifts from Types I and IIa toward Types IIa and IIx. Mitochondrial
number and capillary density decrease.
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Describe the effects of wearing a cast for a broken foot on whole-muscle performance
in a person’s calf muscles.
Answer: Muscle fibers decrease in diameter, leading to a reduction in overall muscle
mass and cross-sectional area. The muscle’s force and power output decrease and the
muscle becomes more susceptible to fatigue.
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. List two experimental techniques used to study muscle atrophy in animal or human
models.
Answer: Denervation, limb immobilization, bed rest, and spaceflight are all acceptable
responses.
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using humans versus rodents for
experimental studies of muscle plasticity.
Answer: Humans can be told to follow specific exercise protocols and participate in tests
of muscular strength and endurance. However, tissue sampling in humans is limited to
small biopsies of easily accessible skeletal muscles. Rodents can be used for terminal
experiments in which hearts or entire skeletal muscles can be removed and analyzed.
However, it may not be possible to train rodents to perform in certain experiments.
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Compare and contrast the effects of resistance and endurance exercise on skeletal
muscle tissue. What changes in protein expression occur in each mode of training? How
do the overall effects on the muscle cells and the whole muscle differ between the two
modes?
Answer: Endurance exercise improves the balance between aerobic ATP supply and ATP
demand. Resistance exercise increases the diameter of muscle fibers and the overall
muscle mass to increase force production. Endurance exercise shifts myosin expression
toward slower myosins and increases expression of mitochondrial proteins and other
enzymes involved in aerobic metabolism. Resistance exercise increases expression of
myofibrillar proteins and tends to shift myosin expression from Types IIb and IIx toward
IIa.
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers can shorten more rapidly than slow oxidative muscle
fibers because fast glycolytic fibers have
a. more myosin.
b. a myosin that works faster than the myosin found in slow oxidative fibers.
c. more mitochondria.
d. more glycolytic enzymes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. A muscle that lifts 40 kg at a rate of 0.5 m/s would generate power at a rate of
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. 0.0125 watts.
b. 20 watts.
c. 80 watts.
d. 200 watts.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. In humans, endurance training typically causes _______ muscle fibers to be converted
to _______ muscle fibers.
a. fast glycolytic; fast oxidative
b. fast oxidative; fast glycolytic
c. slow oxidative; fast glycolytic
d. slow oxidative; fast oxidative
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Endurance exercise leads to increased transcription of genes encoding
a. faster myosin isoforms, glycolytic enzymes, and sarcoplasmic reticulum proteins.
b. faster myosin isoforms, mitochondrial proteins, and sarcoplasmic reticulum proteins.
c. slower myosin isoforms, mitochondrial proteins, and angiogenic signals.
d. slower myosin isoforms, creatine phosphate, and angiogenic signals.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Which effect on skeletal muscle would result from several weeks of endurance
exercise training, such as long-distance running?
a. An increase in enzymes needed for lipid oxidation
b. An increase in muscle cell cross-sectional area
c. An increase in myosin Type IIb
d. An increase in glycolytic enzyme concentrations
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. The increase in mitochondrial number that occurs with endurance training increases
the
a. rate at which ATP is used in the muscle.
b. rate at which ATP can be supplied by steady-state aerobic pathways.
c. rate of calcium release and reuptake in the muscle.
d. maximum shortening velocity of the muscle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
7. Resistance exercise generates signals in muscle cells. Plausible signals include
a. stretch of cell membranes and the cytoskeleton.
b. high partial pressures of oxygen.
c. high ATP.
d. low calcium.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Resistance training does not typically result in an increase in
a. muscle fiber diameter.
b. maximum isometric force.
c. mitochondrial number.
d. myosin mRNA levels.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. Increases in workload can cause cardiac myocytes to
a. increase in both cross-sectional area and length.
b. increase in cross-sectional area and decrease in length.
c. decrease in cross-sectional area and increase in length.
d. decrease in both cross-sectional area and length.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. When researchers compared the hearts of unfed Burmese pythons with hearts of
pythons that had eaten a large meal, they observed that fed pythons had larger hearts,
higher concentrations of myosin mRNA, and lower concentrations of DNA per gram of
heart muscle. These results indicate that the
a. heart cells of the fed animals could not synthesize as much protein.
b. fed pythons had more heart cells.
c. fed pythons had larger heart cells.
d. fed pythons had fewer heart cells.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Muscle atrophy takes place whenever protein
a. synthesis in muscle stops.
b. degradation in muscle stops.
c. degradation takes place in muscle.
d. degradation exceeds protein synthesis.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. During spaceflight, leg muscles atrophy more than arm muscles do. This may occur
because
a. leg muscles experience more training than arm muscles during daily activity in normal
gravity.
b. arm muscles lack the atrophy-promoting genes that are expressed in leg muscles.
c. arm muscles lack the gene for myostatin, so they maintain higher muscle masses.
d. leg muscles contain more protein, so the body catabolizes them first to maintain
protein balance.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
13. The muscle cells of patients who have been paralyzed for a substantial period tend to
a. consist of mostly slow oxidative fibers.
b. consist of mostly fast glycolytic fibers.
c. have a very slow unloaded shortening velocity.
d. be very efficient at using ATP.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Analysis of the athletic performance of aging athletes indicates that
a. muscle power increases with age, but endurance declines with age.
b. muscle endurance increases with age, but power declines with age.
c. both power and endurance performance decline with age, but endurance declines
sooner.
d. both power and endurance performance decline with age, but power declines sooner.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. When a motor neuron dies, the muscle fibers innervated by that motor neuron
a. are reinnervated by other motor neurons.
b. die.
c. are converted into slow-twitch fibers.
d. cannot contract, but they remain healthy.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Studies of the estivating frog Cyclorana alboguttata indicate that
a. their muscles are unusually plastic in response to immobilization and starvation.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. amino acids are readily liberated from muscle to maintain energy balance during
starvation.
c. high levels of reactive oxygen species are produced during estivation.
d. large muscles used in jumping are especially resistant to atrophy during estivation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Atrophy
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Which condition would be the most likely to increase expression of myostatin mRNA
in a person’s left calf muscles?
a. A whole-body weight-training program
b. A marathon training program
c. Immobilization of the right leg in a cast
d. Immobilization of the left leg in a cast
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Animals with myostatin gene mutations (including some dogs and cattle) have
increased muscle mass relative to animals with nonmutated myostatin genes. This
indicates that myostatin may
a. increase rates of muscle protein synthesis.
b. increase its target cell response by serving as an IGF-1 receptor agonist.
c. trigger pathways that increase rates of protein degradation, in addition to regulating
muscle mass by inhibiting protein synthesis.
d. increase phosphorylation of Akt.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. Satellite cells
a. divide and fuse into existing muscle cells when the cell is shrinking.
b. differentiate into endothelial cells to form capillaries in response to endurance exercise.
c. grow larger in response to resistance training and become new muscle cells.
d. divide and fuse into existing muscle cells to increase the number of nuclei in the
muscle cells.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. There is currently great scientific interest in identifying genetic polymorphisms
underlying different individual responses to exercise training. What polymorphism might
one expect to find in a champion distance runner?
a. A mutation that increases transcription of the mRNA for myostatin
b. A mutation that increases transcription of mRNA encoding Kreb’s cycle enzymes
c. A mutation that yields a missense reading in the myostatin gene
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. A mutation that increases transcription of the mRNA for atrophy genes
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 22: Introduction to Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Physiology
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which molecules are respiratory gases or chemical forms of respiratory gases?
I) O2
II) O3
III) CO2
IV) HCO3–
V) N2
a. I, II, and III
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I, III, and IV
d. I, III, and V
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. From the list below, choose the correct order of “physiological urgency” for each
element in a given terrestrial animal, beginning with the most urgent.
I) The need for water
II) The need to void CO2
III) The need to obtain oxygen
IV) The need for food
a. I, III, II, IV
b. III, II, I, IV
c. II, III, I, IV
d. II, III, IV, I
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. Respiratory gases move from place to place principally by
a. diffusion.
b. convection.
c. active transport.
d. both diffusion and convective transport.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. The diffusion of an uncharged solute in aqueous solution
a. always diffuses from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration.
b. will diffuse at a rate exponential to the difference in concentration between regions.
c. involves a passive diffusion component as well as an active diffusion component.
d. diffuses faster compared to charged solutes.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. The strength of a chemical substance’s tendency to undergo a physical or chemical
change is called
a. diffusion.
b. its partial pressure.
c. its chemical potential.
d. its potential energy.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which statement regarding the diffusion of materials between gas mixtures and
aqueous solutions is false?
a. Diffusion can be predicted by means of partial pressure measurements.
b. Diffusion can be predicted by using concentrations.
c. Respiratory gases can exist in the gas phase as well as dissolved in an aqueous
solution.
d. Each gas has a unique solubility in aqueous solution.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. Which statement regarding gas mixtures in aqueous solutions is false?
a. When a gas dissolves in a solution, it becomes incorporated into the liquid phase.
b. When a gas dissolves in a solution, the molecules become distributed among the H2O
molecules in much the same way as glucose molecules do.
c. Gas in solution can appear as microscopic bubbles.
d. When a large bubble rises to the surface of a solution, the solution is considered to be
in the gas phase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. The partial pressure of any given gas
a. cannot be calculated from the universal gas law.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. is dependent on any other gas present.
c. is the individual pressure exerted by the gas in a gas mixture.
d. is proportional to the size of the gas molecule.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Which factor is a constant according to the universal gas law?
a. Moles of gas
b. Temperature
c. The universal gas constant
d. Partial pressure
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. According to the universal gas law, _______ is(are) inversely proportional to the
partial pressure.
a. moles of gas
b. temperature
c. volume
d. the universal gas constant
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11.–14. Refer to the figure below.
11. According to the data in the figure, the partial pressures at sea level total
a. 1 atm.
b. 0.5 atm.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. 100%.
d. 1 kPa.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. If the total pressure was 2 atm, the partial pressure of CO2 would be _______ atm.
a. 0.04
b. 0.08
c. 0.0004
d. 0.0008
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. If the total pressure was 0.5 atm, the partial pressure of O2 would be _______ atm.
a. 20.95
b. 10.48
c. 0.2095
d. 0.1048
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. If the total pressure was 0.1 atm, the percent of O2 in the gas mixture would be
_______%.
a. 20.95
b. 2.095
c. 0.2095
d. 0.02095
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. The fraction of the total moles of gas in a gas mixture is called the
a. mole fractional concentration.
b. volume fractional concentration.
c. partial pressure.
d. absorption coefficient.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Suppose that at a temperature of 25°C and pressure of 1 atm, all the O2 is removed
from 10 L of dry atmospheric air, and the remaining gas is restored to the original
temperature and pressure. The final volume will be
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. 10 L.
b. about 7.9 L.
c. about 5 L.
d. about 2.1 L.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Consider two gas mixtures that are identical in temperature. The concentration of O2
in mixture #1 is 20 mmol/L, and the concentration of O2 in mixture #2 is 60 mmol/L.
Which statement about the mixtures is true?
a. The partial pressure of O2 in mixture #2 is three times higher than it is in mixture #1.
b. The partial pressure of O2 in mixture #2 is 3 times lower than it is in mixture #1.
c. The percent of O2 in mixture #2 is three times higher than it is in mixture #1.
d. The partial pressures of O2 in both mixtures are the same.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Henry’s law relates _______ in aqueous solutions.
a. partial pressure and concentration
b. partial pressure and volume
c. pressure and volume
d. temperature and concentration
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. The _______ of a particular gas in a mixture is the dissolved concentration of that gas
when the partial pressure is 1 atm.
a. gas tension
b. absorption coefficient
c. volume fractional concentration
d. density
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which statement about gases dissolved in aqueous solutions is true?
a. Different gases have different solubilities.
b. Gas solubilities increase strongly with increasing temperature.
c. Gas solubilities increase with increasing salinity.
d. Gas solubility decreases with increasing molecular size.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
21. Which scenarios will result in dissolved gas coming out of solution?
I) Collecting cold creek water, sealing the container, and allowing the solution to warm
II) Collecting warm water, sealing the container, and allowing the solution to cool
III) Collecting cold creek water, adding salt, sealing the container, and allowing the
solution to warm
IV) Collecting cold creek water, adding salt, sealing the container, and keeping the
solution at the original temperature
a. I, II, and III
b. I, III, and IV
c. II, III, and IV
d. III and IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. Which statement regarding the diffusion of gases is false?
a. Within gas mixtures, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial
pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure.
b. Within aqueous solutions, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high
partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure.
c. Across gas‒water interfaces, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high
partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure.
d. Depending on the circumstance, gases can diffuse from low to high partial pressure.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
23. If a water beetle has used up half of the oxygen in its air bubble, the concentration of
oxygen in the bubble is _______ the concentration of oxygen in the water. The partial
pressure of oxygen in the bubble is _______ the partial pressure of oxygen in the water.
Therefore, oxygen will move from the _______.
a. greater than; less than; water into the bubble
b. less than; less than; bubble into the water
c. less than; less than; water into the bubble
d. greater than; less than; bubble into the water
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. If a water beetle has been using an air bubble as a gill for 1 hour, the O2 partial
pressure will be _______ that of air and the N2 partial pressure will be _______ that of
air.
a. less than; less than
b. equal to; equal to
c. less than; equal to
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. greater than; greater than
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25. In which situation would a water beetle’s gas bubble last the shortest amount of time
as a functional gill?
a. Gas bubble = 0.1 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.21 atm of O2
b. Gas bubble = 0.1 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.1 atm of O2
c. Gas bubble = 0.2 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.1 atm of O2
d. Gas bubble = 1 atm O2; water = 0.21 atm of O2
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. A scuba diver remaining at a depth of 50 m for a significant amount of time needs to
worry about the possible effects of which gas when he or she ascends?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Nitrogen
d. Nitric oxide
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
27. The “bends” refers to a physiological condition sustained by a scuba diver in which
a. oxygen gas is too concentrated in the blood due to a dive that lasts too long at a deep
depth.
b. nitrogen gas is too concentrated in the blood due to a dive that lasts too long at a deep
depth.
c. oxygen gas comes out of solution in the blood due to a rapid ascent.
d. nitrogen gas comes out of solution in the blood due to a rapid ascent.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. In the diffusion equation, if the units of K are cm2 ∙ s–1, which of the following best
represents the units for J?
a. moles ∙ cm–2 ∙ s–1
b. moles ∙ sec–1
c. M ∙ g–1 ∙ cm–2
d. M ∙ cm2 ∙ s
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
29. In the diffusion equation, when X increases,
a. J increases.
b. J decreases.
c. J is not affected.
d. J can increase or decrease.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. In the diffusion equation,
a. permeability is integrated into P1–P2.
b. permeability is integrated into K.
c. P1–P2 represents permeability.
d. X represents permeability.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. The Krogh diffusion coefficient (K) for O2 in air is _______ K for O2 in water.
a. slightly greater than
b. slightly lower than
c. about 200,000 times lower than
d. about 200,000 times greater than
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32.–33. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
32. The eggs of which animal would most likely have the data profile in the figure?
a. Bald eagle
b. Snapping turtle
c. Bullfrog
d. Largemouth bass
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. According to the figure, what was the most likely cause of the zeroing of oxygen
partial pressure in the nest?
a. The eggs grew rapidly and used up the available oxygen.
b. The nest was flooded with water.
c. An algal bloom rapidly used up the available oxygen.
d. The eggs hatched and rapidly used up the available oxygen.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. Which of the following contributes to a respiratory gas partial pressure in solution?
I) O2
II) CO2
III) O2 bound to hemoglobin
IV) HCO3– dissolved in plasma
a. I and II
b. I, II, and III
c. I, II, and IV
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
35. If the diameter of the body of a larval fish exceeded _______, diffusion alone would
not be able to meet the demands of its oxygen consumption.
a. 0.1 mm
b. 1.0 mm
c. 5 mm
d. 1 cm
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. The process that occurs when a gas mixture or an aqueous solution flows and gas
molecules in the gas or liquid phase are carried from place to place by the fluid flow is
called
a. diffusion.
b. convection.
c. tidal flow.
d. partial pressure.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. The principle process(es) by which animals use convection to transport gases is(are)
a. ventilation.
b. the pumping of blood.
c. digestion.
d. ventilation and the pumping of blood.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. The rate of convective gas transport depends on the
a. partial pressure of a particular gas in solution.
b. rate of fluid flow.
c. total concentration of gas in the fluid.
d. rate of fluid flow and the total concentration of gas in the fluid.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. The movement of water across a fish gill is a good example of
a. permeability.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. tidal flow.
c. unidirectional flow.
d. Henry’s law.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40.–43. Refer to the figure below.
40. What process(es) is(are) occurring in the figure?
a. Diffusion
b. Convection
c. Active transport
d. Both diffusion and convection
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Which of the following correctly matches the process with the numerical label?
a. 1 = diffusion; 2 = diffusion; 3 = convection; 4 = diffusion
b. 1 = convection; 2 = diffusion; 3 = diffusion; 4 = diffusion
c. 1 = diffusion; 2 = convection; 3 = diffusion; 4 = convection
d. 1 = convection; 2 = diffusion; 3 = convection; 4 = diffusion
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. At what point(s) in the figure is the partial pressure of oxygen the lowest?
a. 1
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
43. Which of the following have the most similar O2 partial pressures?
a. Ambient air and alveolar gas
b. Alveolar gas and arterial blood
c. Arterial blood and average systemic capillary blood
d. Average systemic capillary blood and mitochondria
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44. Oxygen enters the mitochondria
a. by diffusion, at a rate that is dependent on the flow of the oxygenated capillary blood.
b. by diffusion, at a rate that is dependent on the difference in O2 partial pressure between
the blood systemic capillaries and the mitochondria.
c. by convection, at a rate that is dependent on the difference in O2 partial pressure
between the blood systemic capillaries and the mitochondria.
d. by convection, at a rate that is dependent on the flow of the oxygenated capillary
blood.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
a. Millimeters of mercury
b. Pascals
c. Pounds per square inch
d. mL O2/L
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other
Units
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. STP refers to a(n)
a. temperature of 37°C.
b. pressure of 1 atm.
c. volume of 22.4 L.
d. oxygen percent of 20.95.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other
Units
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47. If 2 L of air at 0°C contains 420 mL of O2, how many mL of O2 does it contain if the
air is warmed to 24°C?
a. 210 mL
b. 384 mL
c. 420 mL
d. about 600 mL
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. If air at 0°C contains 210 mL O2 per L, how much O2 does it contain if it is heated to
24°C?
a. 210 mL O2 per L
b. 420 mL O2 per L
c. 192 mL O2 per L
d. 105 mL O2 per L
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. Which environment has the lowest amount of O2 per L?
a. Air at 120°C
b. Air at –40°C
c. Freshwater at 24°C
d. Seawater at 40°C
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Which environment would have the lowest available oxygen?
a. At night, a small summer pond filled with algae
b. The summit of Mount Everest
c. The burrow of a black-tailed prairie dog
d. The burrow of a lemming beneath the arctic snow
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. Explain the two mechanisms by which oxygen and carbon dioxide move within
organisms.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Respiratory gases move from place to place principally by two mechanisms:
simple diffusion and convection or bulk flow. These are the only known mechanisms by
which oxygen moves, as there is no known active oxygen transporter. Carbon dioxide,
however, can be actively transported across cell membranes in the form of HCO3–.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Compare and contrast mole fractional concentration versus volume fractional
concentration.
Answer: Both mole fractional concentration and volume fractional concentration are
expressions of the proportions of gases found in a mixture. Mole fractional concentration
is the fraction of the total moles of gas represented by the gas in question. Volume
fractional concentration is the total volume represented by the gas in question. Equal
molar quantities of different gases occupy essentially equal volumes. Thus the volume
fractional concentration of a gas in a mixture is essentially the same as its mole fractional
concentration.
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. What are the three most important characteristics of gases dissolved in aqueous
solutions? Give examples in your answer.
Answer: (1) The solubilities of different gases are different. For example, CO2 has a
much higher solubility compared to O2 or N2. (2) The solubilities of gases in aqueous
solutions decrease strongly with increasing water temperature; for example, the solubility
of O2 at 40°C is less than half as great as it is at 0°C. (3) The solubilities of gases in
aqueous solutions decrease with increasing salinity. For example, the solubility of O2 in
seawater is much lower than its solubility in freshwater at the same temperature.
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. How does diffusion work in allowing a water beetle to use an air bubble as a gill? Why
does the bubble not collapse?
Answer: If a water beetle grabs a fresh bubble from the atmosphere, it will use the
oxygen in the bubble during its natural respiratory processes. As the partial pressure of
O2 in the bubble drops, it will eventually drop below that of the surrounding water. Once
this occurs, the oxygen in the water will diffuse into the air bubble, allowing it to act like
a gill. The bubble does not collapse because oxygen diffuses into it and because the
principal gas in the bubble, N2, tends to remain.
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Why is it important for scuba divers to understand the concept of diffusion, especially
as it pertains to N2?
Answer: As a diver dives, she is exposed to very high pressures, and the scuba equipment
must match these pressures in order to inflate the lungs. If, for example, a diver remains
at 3 atm for a long period of time, the N2 in her lungs eventually will equilibrate with the
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
body fluids at ~2.3 atm. This is not a problem unless the diver surfaces too rapidly. But if
the diver surfaces too quickly, bubbles of N2 can form in the blood as N2 comes out of
solution because the pressure at the surface is much lower (1 atm).This condition is called
the “bends” and can be extremely dangerous.
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Gas transport in animals often occurs by alternation of convection and diffusion.
Explain.
Answer: Only in very small animals can diffusion be the sole mechanism for gas
transport. With body sizes greater than about 2–3g, diffusion becomes inefficient because
the distance between the gas exchange surfaces and the metabolizing cells is too great.
Animals then tend to employ convective transport (e.g., by means of a circulatory
system) in order to transport oxygen in bulk form. Diffusion is often the mechanism that
transports oxygen to the mitochondria from the blood at the level of the tissues.
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What is meant by the oxygen cascade?
Answer: The oxygen cascade is a concept that summarizes how oxygen is transported
throughout the body based on drops in partial pressure. Since oxygen moves by diffusion
from the blood into the mitochondria, the rate depends on the difference in oxygen partial
pressure between the blood in the systemic capillaries and in the mitochondria
themselves. This partial pressure drop can be seen at each diffusion step along the way,
starting at the alveolar gas in the lungs.
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What is STP and why is it important when expressing volumes of gases? Include
information about the relationship between STP and 1 mole of gas.
Answer: STP stands for Standard Conditions of Temperature and Pressure and refers to a
temperature of 0°C and a pressure of 1 atm. For essentially all gases, for example, 1 mole
of gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. This is an important measure because gas volume changes
significantly with temperature and pressure. Therefore, it is important to have a standard
measure so that comparisons are valid.
Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other
Units
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Compare and contrast air and water as respiratory media. Include some approximate
quantitative data in your comparison.
Answer: Animals are typically either water-breathing or air-breathing, although some are
capable of breathing in either medium. Water is about 800 times more dense than air, and
its oxygen is also relatively lower in terms of amount and constancy. At its maximum,
water contains only about 1/20th of the amount of oxygen that air has. Therefore,
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
compared to air breathers, water-breathers generally must expend more energy in order to
obtain the same amount of oxygen.
Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Compare and contrast the respiratory stresses of terrestrial versus aquatic
environments.
Answer: Aquatic and terrestrial environments each have their own oxygen-limiting
stresses. In aquatic environments, local areas may be more prone to hypoxia due to lack
of mixing, as well as usage by local organisms such as algae. In open terrestrial
environments, this is typically not a problem because of the great convective movement
of air. But in microenvironments with minimal convective movement such as burrows,
hypoxia can be a problem. Altitude also has a profound effect on the availability of
oxygen. For example, at 4500 m, the oxygen content is only 60% that of sea level.
Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. The respiratory gas(es) is(are)
a. oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. nitrogen.
d. both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. In diffusion, materials tend to move in net fashion from regions of
a. high solubility to regions of low solubility.
b. high chemical potential to regions of low chemical potential.
c. low chemical potential to regions of high chemical potential.
d. low partial pressure to regions of high partial pressure.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. If the partial pressures of nitrogen, argon, and CO2 are 0.7808, 0.0093, and 0.0004 atm,
respectively, in air at 1 atm, what is the partial pressure of the oxygen in this air?
a. 0.2095%
b. 20.95%
c. 0.2095 atm
d. 20.95 atm
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Consider two gas mixtures at the same temperature. If the concentration of CO2 in
Mixture A is 10 mmol/L and the concentration of CO2 in Mixture B is 30 mmol/L, which
statement is also true?
a. The partial pressure of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times as high as in Mixture A.
b. The partial pressure of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times lower compared to Mixture A.
c. The percent of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times as high as in Mixture A.
d. The percent of CO2 is the same in both mixtures.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. _______ is the law that relates partial pressure and concentration in aqueous solutions.
a. The universal gas law
b. The partial pressure law
c. Henry’s law
d. Krogh’s law
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. What is the relationship between temperature and the solubility of gases in aqueous
solutions?
a. The solubility of gases in aqueous solution has an exponential relationship to
temperature.
b. As temperature increases, the solubility of gases in aqueous solutions increases.
c. As temperature increases, the solubility of gases in aqueous solutions decreases.
d. The solubility of a gas in an aqueous solution is directly proportional to temperature.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial pressure to areas of
relatively low partial pressure
a. within gas mixtures.
b. within aqueous solutions.
c. across gas–water interfaces.
d. in all combinations of gas–aqueous phases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which statement regarding the water beetle is true?
a. As oxygen in the bubble is used up, oxygen diffuses from the water into the bubble.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. As CO2 in the bubble increases, it causes oxygen to enter the bubble more readily.
c. As the beetle dives, the increase in pressure drives oxygen into the beetle.
d. The nitrogen in the bubble is responsible for maintaining the oxygen concentration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. During gas diffusion, as the distance between P1 and P2 increases, the
a. rate of net movement decreases.
b. rate of net movement increases.
c. rate of net movement does not change.
d. diffusion coefficient increases.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Which statement regarding gas diffusion is true?
a. Gases diffuse only slightly faster through the gas phase than through aqueous
solutions.
b. Gases diffuse many times faster through the gas phase than through aqueous solutions.
c. Gases diffuse at equal rates through the gas phase and aqueous solutions.
d. Gases diffuse only slightly slower through the gas phase than through aqueous
solutions.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Oxygen that is bound to hemoglobin
a. does not contribute to the oxygen partial pressure.
b. contributes the same amount to partial pressure as when it is dissolved in solution.
c. contributes more to partial pressure than when it is dissolved in solution.
d. increases the partial pressure of CO2.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. As a gas mixture or an aqueous solution flows, gas molecules in the gas or liquid are
carried from place to place by
a. tidal flow.
b. diffusion.
c. evaporation.
d. convection.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
13. Movement of air into and out of a human lung is an example of
a. diffusion.
b. Henry’s law.
c. unidirectional flow.
d. tidal flow.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Oxygen transport in animals occurs by
a. diffusion.
b. convection.
c. active transport.
d. both convection and diffusion.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. In oxygen transport to the mitochondria, diffusion occurs from
a. the mouth to the lungs.
b. the lungs to the red blood cells.
c. the red blood cells to the mitochondria.
d. both the lungs to the red blood cells and the red blood cells to the mitochondria.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Which O2 partial pressure value would you expect to find in the ambient air (AA),
arterial blood (AB), and systemic capillary blood (SCB) of an animal?
a. AA = 150 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 70 mm Hg
b. AA = 150 mm Hg; AB = 70 mm Hg; SCB = 100 mm Hg
c. AA = 70 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 70 mm Hg
d. AA = 70 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 150 mm Hg
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. At standard conditions of temperature and pressure (STP),
a. 1 mg of gas occupies 22.4 L.
b. 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L.
c. 22.4 moles of gas occupies 1 L.
d. 22.4 grams of gas occupies 1 L.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other
Units
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. Which statement regarding air and water is false?
a. Water is more viscous than air.
b. Air-breathing animals generally expend more energy ventilating than water-breathing
animals.
c. Per unit volume, water holds less oxygen than air.
d. Temperature affects the oxygen solubility in water more than it does in air.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. If the percentage of oxygen in air at sea level is 20.95%, what is the percentage of
oxygen in air at the top of Mount Everest?
a. Significantly higher than 20.95%
b. The same—20.95%
c. Significantly lower than 20.95%
d. Negligible—close to 0%
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Which organisms use CO2 during the day?
a. Fungi
b. Animals
c. Plants
d. Bacteria
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 16: Endocrine and Neuroendocrine Physiology
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1.‒3. Refer to the figure below.
1. Which diagram represents a neurosecretory system?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. Which diagram represents the mechanism of oxytocin release from the initial signal in
the hypothalamus?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Which diagram(s) represent(s) the process of chemical signaling from the initial signal
in the hypothalamus to the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone?
a. I
b. II and III
c. II and IV
d. I and II
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. Which compound functions as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter?
a. Thyroid hormone
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Gastrin
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Which hormone is categorized incorrectly?
a. Testosterone—steroid
b. Insulin—peptide
c. Growth hormone—steroid
d. Melatonin—amine
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
6. Which compound bypasses second messenger systems and alters gene expression?
a. Peptides
b. Steroids
c. Thyroid hormones
d. Melatonin
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7. Which hormone has the longest half-life?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Melatonin
b. Insulin
c. Testosterone
d. Thyroid hormone
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8.‒10. Refer to the figure below.
8. Arrow I in the diagram points to
a. preproinsulin.
b. proinsulin.
c. the P segment.
d. insulin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. The _______ in the diagram reaches its final form through _______.
a. insulin; ribosomal cleavage
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. glucagon; ribosomal cleavage
c. insulin; posttranslational processing
d. glucagon; posttranslational processing
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. What process is represented at arrow II?
a. Storage of insulin in vesicles
b. Release of insulin into the blood
c. Transporting of proinsulin to a different part of the cell, where it will mature into
insulin
d. Release of insulin and C-peptide into the blood
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which statement about insulin is true?
a. Insulin is synthesized at ribosomes, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand.
b. Insulin is synthesized in the nucleus and released into the blood by diffusion.
c. Insulin is synthesized on demand, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand.
d. Insulin is synthesized on demand and released into the blood by diffusion.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
12. Testosterone is synthesized
a. at ribosomes, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand.
b. in the nucleus and released into the blood by diffusion.
c. on demand, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand.
d. on demand and released into the blood by diffusion.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
13. Neurosecretory cells
a. are not connected to the nervous system.
b. release neurotransmitters into the blood.
c. transduce neural signals into endocrine signals.
d. do not typically produce action potentials.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14. An anatomically distinct site for the release of neurohormones is called a(n)
a. neurohemal organ.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. anastomosis.
c. adenohypophysis.
d. paraventricular nucleus.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?
a. Vasopressin and oxytocin
b. Antidiuretic hormone and prolactin
c. Vasopressin and antidiuretic hormone
d. Prolactin and vasopressin
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Which hormone is directly responsible for milk let-down (ejection)?
a. Oxytocin
b. Prolactin
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17.‒18. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. Which statement about the figures is the most accurate?
a. Only figure B contains a neurohemal organ.
b. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ.
c. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ, and figure B also contains a portal
system.
d. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ, and figure A also contains a portal
system.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. Which statement regarding the arrows is true in both figures?
a. I represents secretion of a neurotransmitter.
b. II represents the neurohemal organ.
c. III represents release of a neurohormone into the general circulation.
d. IV represents venous outflow that includes the hormone.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19. Which hormone is direct acting?
a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20. Which hormone functions in skin darkening in amphibians and non-avian reptiles?
a. Melanocyte stimulating hormones
b. Thyroid hormones
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Adrenocorticotropin
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. The most common posterior pituitary nonapeptide found in most bony fish is
a. arginine vasotocin.
b. oxytocin.
c. mesotocin.
d. isotocin.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. Which statement regarding the feedback mechanisms of the HPA axis is true?
a. Glucocorticoids enhance the secretion of CRH.
b. Glucocorticoids inhibit the secretion of ACTH.
c. ACTH enhances the secretion of CRH.
d. ACTH decreases the secretion of glucocorticoids.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
23. Injections of _______ would likely result in the highest blood glucose levels in a
mammal when measured 1 hour postinjection.
a. insulin and glucagon
b. insulin and epinephrine
c. glucagon and epinephrine
d. insulin, glycogen, and epinephrine
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24.‒25. Refer to the graph below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
24. Which plot line on the graph likely represents an insulin-only treatment?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. Which plot line represents antagonism toward insulin?
a. I
b. II
c. I, II, and III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26. Which physiological reaction would occur in response to direct sympathetic
activation?
a. Muscle protein anabolism
b. Release of glucose from muscle and liver
c. Increase in digestive activity
d. Decrease in ventilation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. Which of the following is not part of the mammalian stress response?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
b. Vasoconstriction of specific regions such as the skin
c. Increase in fat catabolism
d. Release of glucocorticoids
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. Which statement about synergistic components of the mammalian stress response is
true?
a. Catecholamines amplify glucagon’s effect in opposing the actions of insulin.
b. Epinephrine decreases an animal’s perception of pain.
c. Epinephrine inhibits the secretion of ACTH.
d. β-endorphin enhances the secretion of ACTH.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
29. Which of the following occurs after a significant blood loss?
a. Increase in aldosterone secretion to decrease Na+ reabsorption
b. Increase in vasopressin secretion to increase water reabsorption
c. Increase in atrial natriuretic peptide secretion to increase blood pressure
d. Stimulation of the vessels by catecholamines to dilate the vessels and maintain blood
pressure
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. Which statement about the mammalian stress response is true?
a. Glucocorticoids enhance the release of CRH.
b. Cytokines stimulate the release of CRH.
c. ACTH inhibits the production of glucocorticoids.
d. Glucocorticoids stimulate immune-system reactions, causing inflammation.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31.‒33. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
31. Which box in the figure represents the action of ACTH?
a. II
b. IV
c. I and II
d. II and V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
32. What would happen if levels of IV spiked?
a. Actions that cause inflammation would be suppressed.
b. Immune cells would be stimulated.
c. CRH activity would be enhanced.
d. The adrenal gland would be stimulated.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
33. Which box in the figure represents a substance that directly enhances the effects of
the sympathetic nervous system?
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and V
d. I and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Which hormone related to mammalian nutrient metabolism is secreted continuously?
a. Insulin
b. Osteocalcin
c. Thyroid hormone
d. Glucocorticoids
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. During a long period between meals, there is a rise in the blood concentration of
a. insulin.
b. glucagon.
c. glycogen.
d. epinephrine.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
36.‒37. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
36. If all of the panels in the figure represent data from one treatment, this treatment was
most likely
a. fasting.
b. fasting and ingestion of a high-carbohydrate meal.
c. fasting and ingestion of a high-protein meal.
d. fasting and ingestion of a high-fat meal.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. Which statement best explains the increase in insulin levels seen in the figure?
a. Insulin increases after a high-carbohydrate meal in order to enhance the removal of
blood glucose.
b. Insulin increases after a high-carbohydrate meal in order to stabilize blood glucose
levels and store the excess as glycogen.
c. Insulin increases after any meal in order to enhance the uptake of the broken-down
biomolecules into the blood from the intestines.
d. Insulin increases after a high-protein meal in order to promote the incorporation of
absorbed amino acids into body proteins.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (vasopressin) upregulates the _______ of aquaporins
into the _______ membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be _______.
a. insertion; apical; reabsorbed
b. insertion; apical; excreted
c. insertion; basal; reabsorbed
d. removal; apical; excreted
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39.‒41. Refer to the figure below.
39. What is the structure labeled by arrow I in the diagram?
a. Na+ channel
b. Aquaporin
c. K+ channel
d. Ca2+ channel
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. Which hormone is causing the mechanism represented in the diagram to occur?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Aldosterone
b. Atrial natriuretic peptide
c. Angiotensin
d. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. Which statement regarding the mechanism represented in the diagram is false?
a. The hormone binds to a receptor
b. A second messenger system acts to shuttle storage vesicles to the membrane.
c. Storage vesicles fuse with the apical membrane.
d. Water moves from the extracellular fluid into the collecting duct.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. The juxtaglomerular cells sense
a. low blood pressure in the carotid body and activate renin–angiotensin–aldosterone.
b. high blood pressure in the heart and increase urination.
c. low blood pressure and secrete renin.
d. low blood pressure and secrete angiotensin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. Which molecule must be present for the direct production of angiotensin II?
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin I
c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
d. Angiotensinogen
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. Which of the following is responsible for secreting paracrines that inhibit renin during
high blood pressure?
a. Carotid bodies
b. Macula dense cells
c. Juxtaglomerular cells
d. The atria of the heart
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. Which statement regarding vitamin D is false?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Inactive vitamin D is also called cholecalciferol.
b. Vitamin D can be obtained only through diet and from vitamin supplements.
c. Cholecalciferol is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver.
d. In the kidney, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is converted to 1,25(OH)2D3, the active form
of vitamin D.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. Which statement about calcium metabolism is true?
a. Chief cells secrete PTH when extracellular Ca2+ is high.
b. C cells secrete calcitonin when extracellular Ca2+ is low.
c. High extracellular Ca2+ stimulates C cells and inhibits chief cells.
d. Vitamin D is converted to its active form when plasma Ca2+ is high.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
47. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in signaling mechanisms on
adjacent cells?
a. Hormones
b. Gap junctions
c. Paracrines
d. Neurotransmitters
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Chemical Signals along a Distance Continuum
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. Which term is not directly related to insect metamorphosis?
a. Ecdysis
b. Bombykol
c. Instars
d. Pupa
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. The insect hormone that prevents metamorphosis is
a. ecdysone.
b. prothoracicotropic hormone.
c. terpene.
d. juvenile hormone.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
50. Which hormone is produced by neurosecretory cells?
a. Ecdysis-triggering hormone
b. Juvenile hormone
c. Ecdysone
d. Prothoracicotropic hormone
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Compare and contrast the synthesis, storage, and release of a peptide hormone such as
insulin to those processes in a steroid hormone such as testosterone.
Answer: Peptide hormones such as insulin are synthesized at ribosomes, stored in
vesicles, and secreted on demand. Steroid hormones, by contrast, are synthesized on
demand prior to secretion and are released into the blood via diffusion.
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Describe the two major classes of endocrine cells and how they work.
Answer: Endocrine cells are divided into two classes: epithelial, or nonneural, endocrine
cells and neurosecretory cells. The secretions of both types can be termed “hormones,”
but secretions from neurosecretory cells can also be called “neurohormones.” Nonneural
endocrine cells are stimulated by other hormones or neural input to secrete their
hormones into the blood. Neurosecretory cells act very much like neurons, but their
contents are secreted into the blood instead of into a synapse.
Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Compare and contrast the anterior and posterior pituitary glands.
Answer: Both the anterior and posterior pituitary glands are part of the pituitary gland,
which lies immediately below the hypothalamus. They both consist of cell bodies as well
as axons that originate in the hypothalamus. Both release hormones via neurosecretion,
however, they secrete different hormones and have different mechanisms for doing so. In
the posterior pituitary gland, action potentials originating in the hypothalamus result in
the neurosecretory release of oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) into the general
circulation. In contrast, the anterior pituitary releases “releasing hormones” or “releaseinhibiting hormones” via neurosecretion. These hormones enter a hypothalamohypophyseal portal system and not the general circulation. These hormones then directly
interact with the nonneural endocrine tissue in the anterior pituitary to increase or
decrease the secretion of specific hormones (growth hormone, prolactin, melanocytestimulating hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone,
luteinizing hormone, or follicle stimulating hormone). All of the hormones of the anterior
pituitary are synthesized and secreted by the endocrine cells within its tissues.
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. What is the physiological importance of the hypothalamo–hypophysial portal system?
Answer: The hypothalamo–hypophyseal portal system is a specific pathway of vessels
that connects the anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus. The axons of neurosecretory
cells in the hypothalamus terminate in this vessel system, which transports specific
releasing or inhibiting hormones to the anterior pituitary but not into the general
circulation.
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Describe the terms “antagonism” and “synergy” as they relate to hormones, and give
examples of each.
Answer: Antagonism occurs when one hormone opposes the action of another. An
example of antagonism is the interaction between insulin and glucagon. Insulin acts to
remove blood glucose from circulation, whereas glucagon stimulates the release of
glucose into the blood. Synergism refers to a hormone’s amplification of the effect of
another hormone. An example of synergism is the way glucagon and epinephrine amplify
each other’s efficacy in opposing the actions of insulin.
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Describe the two output branches as well as the two phases of the mammalian stress
response.
Answer: The two output branches of the mammalian stress response are the HPA axis
and the autonomic nervous system (specifically, the sympathetic nervous system). The
physiological effects of the stress response also occur in two phases. In the first phase,
the sympathetic nervous system plays an immediate role in initiating the stress response
(within seconds). It triggers the release of catecholamines, which immediately increase
heart rate and blood pressure. In the second phase of the stress response, the HPA axis
controls the release of glucocorticoids, whose effects are measurable about 1 hour after
the stress response has been initiated. Glucocorticoids reinforce the actions of the
sympathetic nervous system and have additional effects involving the mobilization of
energy stores.
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What is the mechanism by which chronic stress can negatively affect the immune
system?
Answer: Glucocorticoids suppress the actions of the immune system and can be
deleterious if exposure is prolonged.
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Describe how the kidney acts to conserve water when it senses low blood pressure.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney secrete renin when blood pressure is low.
Renin catalyzes the reaction forming angiotensin I from angiotensinogen, which then
forms angiotensin II with the help of ACE. Angiotensin II stimulates the constriction of
systemic arterioles, promotes thirst, stimulates vasopressin secretion, and stimulates
aldosterone secretion. All of these actions promote the conservation of water as well as
the increase in blood pressure.
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. How is vitamin D involved in calcium metabolism in mammals?
Answer: Vitamin D is activated when blood Ca2+ levels or PTH levels are low. Once
activated, vitamin D exerts action through gene transcription that leads to synthesis of
calbindin. Calbindin facilitates absorption of Ca2+ from the intestinal lumen into the
blood. Vitamin D also synergistically acts with PTH to release Ca2+ and phosphate from
the bone. Finally, activated vitamin D stimulates the reabsorption of both Ca2+ and
phosphate from the kidney nephron.
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Name, compare, and contrast the two major types of insect metamorphosis.
Answer: Both versions of metamorphosis result in the formation of a reproductively
mature adult insect. Hemimetabolous metamorphosis occurs in insects such as the
cockroach. The immature insects are called nymphs and resemble the adults, but they are
smaller and lack complete wings and functional reproductive structures. These insects go
through a series of molts in order to grow, with the final molt producing the adult. In
holometabolous development, eggs hatch into larvae (grubs, caterpillars, or maggots).
After several molts, the larvae enter a stage called the pupa, in which most of the tissues
are destroyed and replaced by adult tissues. The pupa then metamorphoses into the adult.
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. A neuron that releases the contents of its vesicles into the bloodstream rather than a
synapse is called a
a. neurohemal cell.
b. nonneural endocrine cell.
c. paracrine cell.
d. neurosecretory cell.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The cortex of the adrenal gland secretes primarily
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. nonneural peptides.
b. catecholamines.
c. steroid hormones.
d. acetylcholine.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Steroid hormones
a. pass through cell membranes and cause a delayed effect via alteration of gene
expression.
b. attach to cell surface receptors and cause a delayed effect via alteration of gene
expression.
c. pass through cell membranes and then exert rapid, non-genomic effects.
d. are polar molecules that attach to cell surface receptors to exert rapid, non-genomic
effects.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Peptide hormones are synthesized by
a. transcription of DNA.
b. transcription of DNA and translation.
c. transcription of DNA, translation, and posttranslational processing.
d. transcription of DNA, translation, posttranslational processing, and exocytosis.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Steroid hormones are synthesized from
a. transcription of DNA and are stored in vesicles until neurosecretory release.
b. transcription of DNA and are released into the blood via diffusion.
c. cholesterol on demand and are released into the blood via diffusion.
d. cholesterol and are stored in vesicles until neurosecretory release.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary gland?
a. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone and prolactin
b. Oxytocin and prolactin
c. Vasopressin and oxytocin
d. Vasopressin and prolactin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
7. The specialized vascular system in the anterior pituitary, which transports releasing
and inhibiting hormones from the neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus, is called the
_______ portal system.
a. neuro–hypophysial
b. hypophysial
c. anterior hypophysial
d. hypothalamo–hypophysial
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which hormone is directly controlled by a hypothalamic releasing hormone?
a. ACTH
b. Epinephrine
c. Vasopressin
d. Parathyroid hormone
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. Which hormone is direct acting?
a. Growth hormone
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Glucagon and epinephrine together amplify each other’s effectiveness in opposing the
actions of insulin. This amplification is an example of
a. permissiveness.
b. synergism.
c. antagonism.
d. agonism.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Which response is a result of sympathetic activation?
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Release of glucocorticoids
c. Increased digestion
d. Vasoconstriction
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
12. Which of the following occurs during a stress response?
a. An increase in insulin release
b. Release of glucocorticoids
c. Storage of glucose
d. Decreased ventilation
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. Which behavior will stimulate mobilization of glucagon?
a. Eating chocolate
b. Not eating
c. Injecting insulin
d. Eating pasta
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Which statement best describes the mechanism of ADH?
a. Aquaporins are added to the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be
reabsorbed.
b. Aquaporins are added to the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be
excreted.
c. Aquaporins are removed from the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water
can be reabsorbed.
d. Aquaporins are removed from the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water
can be excreted.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
15. Aldosterone _______ reabsorption of _______ so that more water is _______.
a. increases; Na+; reabsorbed
b. increases; K+; excreted
c. decreases; Na+; reabsorbed
d. decreases; K+; excreted
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Which hormone acts to reduce plasma volume?
a. ADH (vasopressin)
b. Angiotensin II
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Aldosterone
d. Atrial natriuretic peptide
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Which hormone is not directly involved in regulating the extracellular concentration
of calcium in mammals?
a. Parathyroid stimulating hormone
b. Active vitamin D
c. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
d. Calcitonin
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
18. Which chemical signals are released into the environment to convey information to
other animals of the same species?
a. Neurotransmitters and pheromones
b. Pheromones and synomones
c. Kairomones and pheromones
d. Allomones and synomones
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Chemical Signals along a Distance Continuum
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which hormones directly control insect metamorphosis?
a. Juvenile hormone and ecdysone
b. Juvenile hormone and prothoracicotropic hormone
c. Prothoracicotropic hormone, ecdysone, and juvenile hormone
d. Prothoracicotropic hormone, ecdysone, juvenile hormone, and bursicon
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which insect hormone is not directly involved in ecdysis?
a. Juvenile hormone
b. Pre-ecdysis triggering hormone
c. Ecdysis triggering hormone
d. Bursicon
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 23: External Respiration: The Physiology of Breathing
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. During high speed swimming, many fish rely on a method of ventilation called
a. ram ventilation.
b. opercular pumping ventilation.
c. the opercular suction pump.
d. buccal pressure pumping ventilation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement is the most accurate definition of external respiration?
a. Bulk flow (convection) of air or water to and from the gas-exchange membrane.
b. The process by which O2 is transported to the gas-exchange membrane from the
environmental medium and by which CO2 is transported away from the membrane into
the environmental medium.
c. The process by which CO2 is transported to the gas-exchange membrane from the
environmental medium and O2 is transported away from the membrane into the
environmental medium.
d. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across the gas exchange membrane.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
3. Which animal is an example of a bimodal breather?
a. Dog
b. Frog
c. Lizard
d. Crocodile
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. The rate of O2 uptake by the breathing organ depends on the
a. volume flow of air or water per unit of time.
b. amount of O2 removed from each unit of volume.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. amount of CO2 needing to be removed.
d. volume flow of respiratory medium per unit time and the amount of O2 removed from
each unit volume.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Which morphology sets up the least efficient gas exchange?
a. Cocurrent gas exchange
b. Convex current gas exchange
c. Cross-current gas exchange
d. Countercurrent gas exchange
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6.–8. Refer to the figure below.
6. The diagram is referring to what physiological process?
a. Cocurrent gas exchange
b. Countercurrent gas exchange
c. Nondirectional ventilation and gas exchange
d. Cross-current gas exchange
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. At I in the diagram, O2 partial pressures are _______ the corresponding medium values
and _______ from left to right.
a. lower than; increase
b. lower than; decrease
c. higher than; increase
d. higher than; decrease
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. O2 partial pressures at II in the diagram are always _______ those at III.
a. equal to
b. lower than
c. higher than
d. half of
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. CO2 is more easily transferred into water across respiratory membranes compared to
O2 because CO2
a. is more soluble in water.
b. moves faster.
c. is a smaller molecule.
d. has a higher cohesive force.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10.–11. Refer to the figure below.
10. Which of the shaded areas indicates the profile of a typical water breather?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. Which of the shaded areas best represents the profile of an adult bullfrog?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12.–13. Refer to the figure below.
12. Which area indicates free HIF-1?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. When O2 in a cell drops
a. more of compound I is created via enzymatic reactions.
b. more of compound II is created via enzymatic reactions.
c. more of compound I is produced by inhibiting its breakdown.
d. product III formation is catalyzed directly by low O2.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
14. HIF-1 and HIF-2 can help increase the O2-carrying ability of the blood by
a. increasing the secretion of erythropoietin.
b. increasing ventilation rate.
c. decreasing the diffusion distance at the lungs.
d. increasing circulation rate.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Which animal is likely to have the highest O2 and CO2 exchange percentage via the
skin?
a. Goldfish
b. Bullfrog larva
c. Lungless salamander
d. Adult bullfrog
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
16. In all vertebrates, the central pattern generators for breathing are located in the
a. cerebellum.
b. lungs.
c. cortex.
d. medulla.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17.–18. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. If the line near numeral I represents birds, what is a reasonable measurement for the y
axis?
a. surface area
b. mass-specific metabolic rate
c. gas exchange membrane thickness
d. heart rate
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Which numeral most closely fits the line for a tuna?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: C
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Of the animals in the figure, which one represents a primarily aquatic animal using lungs
as the primary source for O2 uptake?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. How does a typical teleost fish, such as a goldfish, maintain ventilation of its gills
when stationary in the water column?
a. With a buccal pressure pump
b. With an opercular suction pump
c. Via ram ventilation
d. With both a buccal pressure pump and an opercular suction pump.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
21. Fish make use of _______ exchange in their gills.
a. cross-current
b. concurrent
c. cocurrent
d. countercurrent
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
22. Which statement about air-breathing fish is false?
a. In most air-breathing fish, some part or branch of the alimentary canal has become
specialized as an air-breathing organ.
b. Most air-breathing fish have lost gill function.
c. Air-breathing fish typically void most of their CO2 into the water.
d. Many air-breathing fish are able to shunt blood.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
23. An adult bullfrog excretes CO2 primarily through its
a. skin.
b. gills.
c. lungs.
d. cloaca.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. During metamorphosis, a frog utilizes which gas-exchange organs?
a. Gills only
b. Lungs only
c. Gills and lungs
d. Gills, skin, and lungs
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. During the _______ developmental stage, the bullfrog splits oxygen uptake (roughly
50:50) between the gills and the skin.
a. aquatic tadpole
b. air-breathing tadpole
c. postmetamorphic froglet
d. adult
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26.–27. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
26. Which pair of lines best represents the lungs of the bullfrog?
a. I and IV
b. II and IV
c. I and VI
d. III and V
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
27. Which line best represents the excretion of CO2 via the skin?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28. Which is primarily responsible for moving air into the lungs of a lizard?
a. The buccal pump
b. The buccopharyngeal pump
c. The intercostal muscles
d. The diaphragm
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. Which statement is a recently discovered similarity between alligator respiration and
bird respiration?
a. Cross-current gas exchange takes place.
b. Air sacs are present.
c. Ventilation is tidal.
d. Ventilation is unidirectional.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. Which animal group(s) ventilate(s) with the use of negative pressure?
a. Reptiles
b. Mammals
c. Amphibians
d. Both reptiles and mammals
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. In which structure does diffusion of oxygen to capillaries not play a major role?
a. Terminal bronchioles
b. Respiratory bronchioles
c. Alveolar ducts
d. Alveolar sacs
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. The volume of air in the lungs following a complete exhalation of the expiratory
reserve volume is
a. one-half the inspiratory reserve volume.
b. called the tidal volume.
c. very close to 0 mL.
d. called the residual volume.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. If the inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL, the tidal volume is 500 mL, the
expiratory reserve volume is 1000 mL, and the residual volume is 1000 mL, what is the
vital capacity?
a. 3500 mL
b. 4500 mL
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. 5000 mL
d. 5500 mL
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. In the mammalian alveoli, the partial pressure of O2 is _______ that of atmospheric
air and the CO2 partial pressure is _______ that of atmospheric air.
a. higher than; lower than
b. lower than; higher than
c. lower than; lower than
d. the same as; higher than
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Which animal group(s) has(have) a true diaphragm?
a. Reptiles and mammals
b. Birds and mammals
c. Mammals
d. Birds
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. In mammals, ventilation is modulated by the chemosensation of
a. CO2.
b. CO2 and H+.
c. CO2 and O2.
d. CO2, H+, and O2.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. Hypoxia factors can respond to hypoxia (along with other possible cofactors or
coactivators) with all of the following responses except
a. increased erythropoiesis.
b. increased synthesis of glucose transporters.
c. increased synthesis of enzymes of aerobic metabolism.
d. the promotion of angiogenesis.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. A rise in arterial blood CO2 partial pressure by 5 mm Hg would increase ventilation
frequency in humans. This mechanism would likely trigger increased ventilation in
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. all vertebrates.
b. just terrestrial vertebrates.
c. just aquatic vertebrates.
d. all animals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. Which circumstance would increase ventilation frequency in humans?
a. A reduction in arterial blood CO2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg
b. A rise in venous blood CO2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg
c. A reduction in arterial blood O2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg
d. A rise in venous blood O2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. Suppose you are comparing blood samples and samples of alveolar gas from two
native Peruvians resting in their dwellings—one at sea level and one at 4500 m altitude.
The O2 partial pressure would likely be the most similar in
a. their alveolar gas.
b. their arterial blood.
c. their venous blood.
d. the air in their tracheas.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. When lowlanders first ascend to high altitude, which of the following occurs?
a. Hypoventilation
b. Bradycardia
c. Lowering of V̇O2max
d. Hyperventilation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. The rate at which new air is brought into the alveoli and other respiratory pathways is
called the
a. alveolar minute volume.
b. respiratory minute volume.
c. tidal volume.
d. ventilation rate.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
43. As mammals get smaller, lung volume _______ and breathing frequency _______.
a. increases exponentially; increases exponentially
b. decreases exponentially; increases exponentially
c. decreases proportionally; increases exponentially
d. increases proportionally; decreases proportionally
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. Pulmonary surfactant
a. keeps the alveoli from collapsing by reducing the surface tension.
b. inflates the alveoli by increasing the surface tension.
c. keeps the alveoli from collapsing by increasing the surface tension.
d. increases the rate of gas exchange across the alveoli by the secretion of phospholipids.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Which structure(s) is(are) primarily responsible for gas exchange in the bird
respiratory system?
a. Mesobronchus
b. Secondary bronchi
c. Parabronchi
d. Air sacs
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46.–47. Refer to the figure below.
46. The figure represents the respiratory system of which group of animals?
a. Amphibians
b. Reptiles
c. Birds
d. Fish
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. Which of the arrows in the figure is showing air movement during inhalation
incorrectly?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. Bird respiration is characterized by _______ air flow and _______ gas exchange.
a. nondirectional; countercurrent
b. unidirectional; cross-current
c. nondirectional; cross-current
d. unidirectional; countercurrent
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Branchial papulae are essentially gill processes in which major animal group?
a. Annelids
b. Horseshoe crabs
c. Aquatic snails
d. Sea stars
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. The evolution of sheetlike gills occurred in which major animal group?
a. Annelids
b. Horseshoe crabs
c. Echinoderms
d. Molluscs
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. The evolution of the mantle cavity into a lung occurred in which major animal group?
a. Annelids
b. Horseshoe crabs
c. Sea stars
d. Snails
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
52. An aquatic decapod crustacean moves water through the branchial chamber and
ventilates the gills with its
a. opercular pump.
b. buccal pump.
c. mouth.
d. scaphognathite.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53. Which statement about land crab respiration is true?
a. Most land crabs have evolved lungs.
b. They allow their gills to go dry and ventilate them with air.
c. Their gills are ventilated with water.
d. O2 is taken up chiefly by their branchial-chamber epithelium.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
54. The entrance to the gas exchange system of insects is via
a. spiracles.
b. the mouth.
c. the scaphognathite.
d. the branchial chamber.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
55. Although tracheoles run between cells, they also very commonly penetrate _______
cells.
a. flight muscle
b. nervous system
c. circulatory system
d. heart muscle
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
56. A key mechanism of gas transport through the tracheal system is
a. muscular contraction.
b. the scaphognathite.
c. diffusion.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. spiracle size.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
57. What is the main vulnerability of the insect respiratory system?
a. The release of accumulated CO2 is slow.
b. It is susceptible to evaporative water loss.
c. It must be continually ventilated.
d. O2 uptake is very slow.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
58. Aquatic insects sometimes have evaginations of the body surface called _______ that
are densely supplied with trachea and covered with a thin cuticle.
a. gills
b. book lungs
c. tracheal gills
d. spiracles
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Describe a bimodal breather and the advantages that bimodal breathing can offer an
animal.
Answer: A bimodal breather is an animal that can exchange respiratory gas with either air
or water. The obvious respiratory advantage is that the animal can take advantage of the
high oxygen partial pressure in the air and avoid a possible respiratory trap in hypoxic
water. At the same time, it can easily excrete CO2 into the water (water has a high CO2
solubility) so it will not build up in the blood.
Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. The O2 partial pressure in the blood leaving a breathing organ is considered the best
single measure of the breathing organ’s effectiveness. Why is the partial pressure of
blood going toward the breathing organ not an effective measure?
Answer: Since the breathing organ is the point at which O2 will diffuse into the blood of
the animal, the higher the O2 partial pressure in the blood leaving the breathing organ, the
more O2 will potentially be available for use by the mitochondria. The O2 partial pressure
in the blood going toward the breathing organ is an indication of how much was used by
the mitochondria in the tissues. This is independent of the breathing organ.
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Compare and contrast cocurrent gas exchange with countercurrent gas exchange and
indicate which is more efficient.
Answer: In cocurrent gas exchange, the medium flows parallel along the gas exchange
membrane in the same direction as the blood, whereas with countercurrent gas exchange,
the medium and blood flow parallel, but in opposite directions. With cocurrent gas
exchange, the medium and the blood will reach equilibrium with each other. However, as
the blood gains O2, the medium loses O2 and the final result is a blood O2 concentration
that is considerably lower than the original O2 concentration of the incoming medium.
However, as blood flows in the opposite direction of the medium in countercurrent
exchange, it steadily picks up O2 along the entire contact length. This significantly
increases the efficiency, and often the blood O2 values exceed those in the free medium.
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
4. Several morphological features of the bird respiratory system allow for more efficient
gas exchange. Describe these features.
Answer: For their given mass, birds have gas-exchange membranes with a higher surface
area compared to those of other major animal groups. Birds also have the thinnest gasexchange membrane of all major animal groups. Together, these features allow for more
O2 to diffuse across the respiratory membrane (both on a mass-specific basis) , as well as
at a faster rate compared to all other major animal groups.
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. What are the major stimuli for increasing ventilation in fish?
Answer: One of the major stimuli for increasing ventilation in fish is decreased O2 partial
pressure in the environment or blood. Low oxygen is detected by chemoreceptor cells in
the gills. Exercise is also a potent stimulus of ventilation in fish.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Compare and contrast the uptake of O2 and the excretion of CO2 in bullfrog tadpoles
and adults.
Answer: In bullfrog tadpoles, gills and skin play a fairly equal role in both O2 uptake and
CO2 excretion. However, as adults, the lungs play the primary role in the uptake of O2,
while the skin becomes the primary organ for excreting CO2.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Describe the quality of the gas within the alveoli of the mammalian lung and explain
how it differs from atmospheric air.
Answer: Because mammals are tidal breathers, the air at the very end of the alvaeoli sacs
(the blind end) is not moving at all. The gas movement at the level of the alveoli is based
solely on diffusion. This means that the gas in the alveoli cannot be completely refreshed
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
with atmospheric air. Therefore, the composition of the gas in the alveoli will have a
higher CO2 and lower O2 partial pressure than that of atmospheric air.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. How do both CO2 and H+ stimulate ventilation in mammals?
Answer: When the concentration of CO2 rises, the concentration of H+ typically increases
in parallel. The blood concentrations of both CO2 and H+ are independently sensed by
chemosensitive neural zones near the ventral surface of the medulla. For example, if CO2
increases, the neurons in the medulla will produce action potentials that increase the
ventilation rate so as to reduce the CO2 levels.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Describe the physiological advantages of the bird respiratory system that make it more
efficient than the mammalian system.
Answer: Birds have two functional advantages in their respiratory system compared to
mammals. First, the airflow in the lungs and air sacs of birds is unidirectional, which
means that atmospheric air can completely refresh the entire lung and air sac system.
Second, the crosscurrent gas exchange system provides the blood with an extended
diffusional contact time in which to load oxygen and excrete CO2.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. How do insects combat the evaporative water loss that is inherent in a tracheal
system?
Answer: Insects commonly solve the problem of evaporative water loss by keeping their
spiracles partially closed or by periodically opening and closing them, whenever this is
compatible with their needs for O2 and CO2 exchange.
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which statement is the best definition of external respiration?
a. The bulk flow of air or water to and from the gas-exchange membrane
b. The thin layer of tissue, typically consisting of one or two epithelia, that separates the
internal tissues of the animal from the environment
c. The process by which O2 is transported from the environment to the gas-exchange
membrane and CO2 is transported from the membrane to the environment
d. The use of O2 at the mitochondria, along with the production of CO2, during aerobic
metabolism
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. The partial pressure of O2 in the blood leaving the breathing organ depends on the
a. amount of blood.
b. flow of air or water at the interface.
c. size of the respiratory organ.
d. amount of blood and flow of air or water at the interface.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Which morphology allows for the most efficient gas exchange?
a. Cocurrent
b. Countercurrent
c. Cross-current
d. Concurrent
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. A blood sample that has an extremely low partial pressure of CO2 is most likely from
a(n)
a. fish.
b. marine animal.
c. terrestrial animal.
d. animal exchanging respiratory gas with water.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which animal group tends to have the thinnest gas-exchange membrane?
a. Mammals
b. Birds
c. Nonavian reptiles
d. Amphibians
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. The protective external flap that covers the gills on a fish’s head is called the
a. operculum.
b. secondary lamellae.
c. gill arches.
d. gill slits.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. The major stimulus for increased ventilation in fish is
a. decreased O2.
b. increased exercise.
c. decreased temperature.
d. both decreased O2 and increased exercise.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Carbon dioxide excretion in the bullfrog is highest across the
a. lungs only in the adult stage.
b. skin at all stages.
c. gills during the tadpole stage.
d. gills during the adult stage only.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Which animals use positive pressure ventilation?
a. Amphibians
b. Birds
c. Mammals
d. Reptiles
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
10. Which statement regarding mammalian ventilation is false?
a. Gas exchange occurs in the respiratory bronchioles.
b. Inspiration always requires muscle contraction.
c. Expiration always requires muscle contraction.
d. There is no convective movement of gas in the alveoli.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. The maximal possible tidal volume is called the
a. inspiratory reserve volume.
b. vital capacity.
c. expiratory reserve volume.
d. tidal volume.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
12. In mammals, moving air into the lungs is achieved mainly by
a. relaxing the abdominals.
b. contracting the diaphragm.
c. relaxing the diaphragm.
d. contracting the abdominals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. In mammals, ventilation is modulated by chemosensation of
a. CO2.
b. CO2 and H+.
c. CO2 and O2.
d. CO2, H+, and O2.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. The substance responsible for the prevention of alveolar collapse is
a. surfactant.
b. mucous.
c. water.
d. anticohesive.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. The bellows action used by birds in breathing is generated by
a. contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm.
b. contraction and relaxation of intercostals.
c. expansion and compression of the air sacs.
d. expansion and compression of the parabronchi.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. The gas-exchange system in birds is
a. concurrent.
b. countercurrent.
c. cross-current.
d. anticurrent.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. Within the molluscs, a lung modified from the mantle cavity to allow respiration of
air on land is seen in which group?
a. Snails
b. Bivalves
c. Cephalopods
d. Decapod crustaceans
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. The entrance to the insect tracheal system is via
a. modified lungs.
b. modified gills.
c. air sacs.
d. spiracles.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. In insects, oxygen moves through the tracheal system by
a. diffusion.
b. both diffusion and convection.
c. rhythmic tracheal compression.
d. diffusion, convection, and rhythmic tracheal compression.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Which animal uses a tracheal system?
a. Sea star
b. Mollusc
c. Crayfish
d. Flea
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 27: Water and Salt Physiology: Introduction and Mechanisms
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Larger crustaceans, such as a blue crab, have an exoskeleton impregnated with
a. cellulose.
b. calcium.
c. phospholipids.
d. proteoglycans.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The purpose of taking excess water into the body during the process of molting is to
a. provide structural rigidity.
b. increase the osmotic pressure.
c. expand the body to make a larger exoskeleton.
d. provide structural rigidity and expand the body to make a larger exoskeleton.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Most mammals are _______ water.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. In the body, water is found in the largest quantity in the
a. extracellular fluid.
b. interstitial fluid.
c. intracellular fluid.
d. plasma.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. In a person who weighs 70 kg, _______ of that is water.
a. 30 Kg
b. 42 Kg
c. 52 Kg
d. 62 Kg
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Which statement about the importance of ions in body fluids is false?
a. Ionic concentrations can have a direct effect on the three-dimensional shape of proteins
and thus their function.
b. Ionic concentrations can change the pH, increasing it or decreasing, thus affecting the
function of proteins.
c. Ionic concentrations can affect synaptic transmission in neurons.
d. Ionic concentrations have no effect on the rhythm of the heart.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Which process directly uses ATP to move ions to cross the cell membrane?
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Primary active transport
d. Secondary active transport
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body fluids
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which of the following does not allow movement of water across a cell membrane?
a. Carriers
b. Endocytotic vesicles
c. Channels
d. The lipid portion of the membrane
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body fluids
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. _______ allow for water and ion movement across the blood–capillary endothelium.
a. Pores
b. Channels
c. Carriers
d. Transporters
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Typically, if the blood osmolarity were 500 mOsm, then interstitial fluid osmolarity
would be _______ mOsm.
a. 300
b. 400
c. 500
d. 600
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. If you submerge a mussel in an environment in which the ambient osmotic pressure
progressively increases, the blood osmotic pressure of the mussel will
a. progressively increase.
b. progressively decrease.
c. increase first and then decrease.
d. not change.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. If you submerge an animal in an environment in which the ambient osmotic pressure
increases, but the animal’s blood osmotic pressure does not change, it can be concluded
that this animal is a
a. conformer.
b. regulator.
c. migrator.
d. concentrator.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. The maintenance of a constant concentration of ions in the blood plasma is known as
a. ionic conformity.
b. ionic regulation.
c. volume regulation.
d. volume conformity.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of salted popcorn, after few hours
your plasma salt concentration will
a. increase.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. decrease.
c. be at the normal level.
d. increase and then decrease.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of popcorn with salt, after few
minutes, your plasma salt concentration will
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. be at the normal level.
d. increase and then decrease.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. If a freshwater fish takes in a quantity of water from its dilute environment by
osmosis, the osmotic pressure in its plasma will tend to
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same.
d. increase then decrease.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17.–20. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. What does the dotted line represent?
a. The isosmotic line
b. The line of regulation
c. Ambient osmotic pressure
d. The ideal osmotic pressure
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. Which animal is a regulator?
a. Green crab
b. Mussel
c. Shrimp
d. Green crab and shrimp
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19. Based on the data shown, which animal can survive the widest range of salinity?
a. Green crab
b. Mussel
c. Shrimp
d. Green crab and shrimp
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
20. Which animal is a conformer?
a. Green crab
b. Mussel
c. Shrimp
d. Green crab and mussel
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21. Seawater in the open ocean has a uniform salinity of _______ g/kg.
a. 32–48
b. 30–32
c. 32–34
d. 34–46
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Aquatic Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. The mix of freshwater with ocean water along coastlines is termed
a. freshwater mixing.
b. salt water mixing.
c. brackish water.
d. pond water.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Natural Aquatic Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
23. Humidity refers to the _______ content in the atmosphere.
a. oxygen
b. water
c. carbon dioxide
d. nitrogen
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. Evaporation occurs if the partial pressure in a solution
a. is below the partial pressure in the plasma.
b. is below the partial pressure in the atmosphere.
c. exceeds the partial pressure in the plasma.
d. exceeds the partial pressure in the atmosphere.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
25. If the partial pressure of a substance in the atmosphere is 2x and the partial pressure
of the same substance in the body fluid is 4x, the evaporation rate will
a. stay the same.
b. decrease.
c. increase.
d. cease.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26. If the partial pressure of a substance in the atmosphere is 10 mmHg and the
evaporation rate increases, then we can assume that the partial pressure of the same
substance in the body fluid is _______ mmHg.
a. 1
b. 8
c. 10
d. 25
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. Animal A has a body temperature of 35°C and animal B has a body temperature of
40°C. Both of the animals are in an environment at 40°C and 25% relative humidity.
Which of the two animals would lose more water?
a. Animal A because the air it exhales has more water vapor.
b. Animal B because the air it exhales has more water vapor.
c. Animal A because the air it inhales has more water vapor.
d. Animal B because the air it inhales has more water vapor.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28.–30. Refer to the formula below.
28. With regard to terrestrial animals, the rate of evaporation, J, will increase if the
distance of solution from air, X,
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. does not change in value.
d. increases and then decreases.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
29. The rate of evaporation, J, will increase if
a. WVPs increases and WVPa decreases.
b. WVPs decreases and WVPa increases.
c. WVPs remains the same and WVPa increases.
d. WVPs decreases and WVPa remains the same.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. Which of the following will not increase the rate of evaporation, J?
a. An increase in K
b. An increase in WVPs
c. A decrease in WVPa
d. An increase in X
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
31. Which animal has the lowest K value?
a. Reindeer
b. Lizard
c. Mouse
d. Frog
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32. Assuming humidity is the only factor that affects evaporation, which animal will have
the highest rate of evaporation?
a. A mammal in a hot desert where humidity is very low
b. A mammal in a cold desert where humidity is very low
c. A lizard in a hot desert where humidity is very high
d. A lizard in a cold desert where humidity is very high
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
33. At which temperature will an animal whose body surface temperature is 32°C have
the highest rate of condensation?
a. 28°C
b. 30°C
c. 31°C
d. 35°C
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Which of the following will most likely accompany evaporation?
a. The blood will become hypertonic.
b. The blood will become hypotonic.
c. The blood tonicity will not change.
d. The blood will become isotonic.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
35. The most fundamental function of the _______ is to prevent an animal from reaching
an isosmotic line.
a. liver
b. small intestine
c. kidney
d. spleen
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. In most aquatic animals, the organ whose function is equivalent to the mammalian
kidney is the
a. kidney.
b. gill.
c. mantle.
d. aorta.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. An animal whose blood osmolarity is 100 mOsm and urine osmolarity is 80 mOSm
will have _______ that is _______ to the plasma.
a. urine; hyperosmotic
b. urine; isosmotic
c. blood; hyperosmotic
d. blood; hyposmotic
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38. An animal whose blood osmolarity is 70 mOsm and urine osmolarity is 90 mOsm will
have _______ that is _______ to the plasma.
a. urine; hyperosmotic
b. urine; isosmotic
c. blood; hyperosmotic
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. blood; hyposmotic
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. The range of osmotic U/P ratio in humans is
a. 0.1 to 2.
b. 0.1 to 3.
c. 0.1 to 4.
d. 0.1 to 5.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. Urine that is hyposmotic to the blood plasma contains a
a. large amount of water.
b. normal amount of water.
c. low amount of water.
d. high amount of solutes and waste product.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. An ionic U/P ratio that is greater than 1 indicates that the urine contains
a. more sodium compared to the plasma.
b. less sodium compared to the plasma.
c. the same amount of sodium as the plasma does.
d. more sodium compared to the plasma, however, the concentration is equal.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
42. If a human drank sea water, ingestion of which ion would be most responsible for
tissue dehydration?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Magnesium
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Plants that tolerate and assimilate high concentrations of salt are called
a. bryophytes.
b. ferns.
c. halophytes.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. stipes.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. Which substance results in water formation when consumed?
a. Proteins
b. Lipids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Both lipids and carbohydrates
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Which substance would cause the greatest loss of water when consumed?
a. Proteins, because they require urea for catabolism.
b. Carbohydrates, because they generate carbon dioxide.
c. Lipids, because they generate nitrogenous wastes.
d. Proteins, because they generate urea.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. Your friend is on a high-protein diet. As a result of the higher protein intake, your
friend will most likely
a. lose water because water is important for protein storage.
b. gain water because water is produced by the breakdown of protein.
c. lose water because water is needed to excrete the excess urea produced from protein
catabolism.
d. gain water because excess protein causes water storage.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47. Water produced by cellular respiration is called _______ water.
a. catabolic
b. cellular respiration
c. preformed
d. metabolic
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. The fluid that directly bathes the cells is called
a. cytoplasm.
b. plasma.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. extracellular fluid.
d. interstitial fluid.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
49. Kangaroo rats and laboratory rats differ in obligatory water loss via
a. respiration.
b. urine.
c. feces.
d. urine and feces.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
50. If cells are submerged in hypertonic solution they will
a. expand.
b. burst.
c. maintain the same volume.
d. shrivel.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
51. If the osmotic U/P ratio is greater than 1, and the plasma osmolarity is not adjusted to
match the interstitial fluid osmolarity, there is an increased tendency for water to move
a. into cells, causing them to expand and eventually lyse.
b. out of cells, causing them to shrivel.
c. into cells, causing them to expand but not lyse since water will move out immediately.
d. out of cells, but the cells will not shrivel because water will move in immediately.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52. If the osmotic U/P ratio is less than 1, and the plasma osmolarity is not adjusted to
match the interstitial fluid osmolarity, there is an increased tendency for water to move
a. into cells, causing them to expand and eventually lyse.
b. out of cells, causing them to shrivel.
c. into cells, causing them to expand but not lyse since water will move out immediately.
d. out of cells, but the cells will not shrivel because water will move in immediately.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
53. Which collection of solutes, when dissolved in 100 ml of distilled water, exerts the
highest osmotic pressure?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. 1 mmol NaCl; 1mmol Mg2+
b. 2 mmol sucrose; 1 mmol Na+
c. 2 mmol glycine; 1 mmol taurine
d. 2 mmol arginine; 1 mmol NaCl
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
54. In terms of osmotic pressure exerted, which comparison of dissolved chemicals is
true?
a. 1 mmol taurine = 1 mmol Na+
b. 1mmol of glycine > 1 mmol NaCl
c. 1 mmol trimethylamine oxide > 1 mmol Na+
d. 1 mmol Mg2+ > 1 mmol Na+
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
55.–56. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
55. The shaded area on the graph represents the
a. Rate of enzyme catalysis.
b. normal enzyme substrate affinity.
c. normal range of osmolarity.
d. optimal metabolic rate.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
56. In this figure, the solute that acts as a counteracting solute for urea is represented by
the
a. middle line.
b. top line.
c. bottom line.
d. shaded area.
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
Short Answer
1. Describe, in detail, how molting occurs in blue crabs.
Answer: Prior to the actual time of molting, seams in the exoskeleton are weakened under
hormonal control. Then the body takes on excess water from the environment and swells.
The swelling causes the old exoskeleton to crack along its seams so the animal can crawl
out. Because of its swelling with water, a crab’s body is bigger as soon as the animal
crawls out of its old exoskeleton. Synthesis of the new, bigger exoskeleton can therefore
begin immediately. Later, the crab will grow into its new exoskeleton, voiding excess
water as it does so. In this way, it is protected inside its new exoskeleton while most of its
growth takes place.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. When blue crabs start the molting process, their bodies swell with water. Explain the
significance of this swelling.
Answer: a) The purpose of the swelling is to crack the old exoskeleton so the animal can
crawl out.
b) It gives the animal’s body a degree of structural rigidity while the exoskeleton is gone.
Without the swelling, the crab’s muscles would have nothing to pull against.
c) The swelling allows a crab to start very quickly to make a new, larger exoskeleton.
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Explain the importance of electrolytes in the body fluids.
Answer: The ionic composition of body fluids affects the crucial three-dimensional
molecular conformations of enzymes and other proteins. The ionic composition can
indirectly affect pH. Ion concentrations in the intracellular and interstitial fluids are also
important in maintaining correct electrical gradients across cell membranes that allow
nerve-impulse transmission and muscle excitation.
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. The rate of evaporation (J) depends on multiple factors. Define each factor and state
how they are mathematically related.
Answer: The rate of evaporation (J) depends on differences in water vapor pressure.
Specifically, WVPs is the water vapor pressure of the solution, and WVPa is the water
vapor pressure in the air.
J = K (WVPs – WVPa)/X
Where X is the distance separating WVPs and WVPa, and K is a proportionality factor that
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
depends on the integument’s permeability.
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Explain what the osmotic U/P ratio is and what is indicated by different values.
Answer: The osmotic U/P ratio is the osmotic pressure of the urine divided by the
osmotic pressure of the blood plasma. Urine may be isosmotic, hyperosmotic, or
hyposmotic to the blood plasma. The osmotic U/P ratio reflects the osmoticity of the
urine relative to the osmoticity of the blood. If U/P = 1, the urine is isosmotic to the
plasma. If U/P < 1, the urine is hyposmotic to the plasma. If U/P > 1, the urine is
hyperosmotic to the plasma. The kidneys of an animal typically control the U/P ratio and
maintain it within a species-specific range.
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Explain how the kidneys in teleosts participate in ionic regulation but not osmotic
regulation.
Answer: The kidneys can play a role in ionic regulation even when not playing any direct
role in osmotic regulation. Marine teleosts are hyposmotic to the seawater in which they
live. Therefore, they lose water osmotically to their environment and simultaneously gain
ions by diffusion from the seawater. If unchecked, both of these processes tend to raise
the osmotic pressure and the ion concentrations of their blood plasma. Marine teleosts
produce a urine that is isosmotic to their plasma; their urine, therefore, plays no direct
role in solving their osmotic regulation problem. However, their urine differs
dramatically from their blood plasma in its solute composition. The excretion of urine by
these fish therefore serves the important ionic regulatory role of keeping down the
internal concentrations of ions which the fish tend to gain from seawater.
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Define and briefly explain obligatory respiratory water loss.
Answer: Obligatory respiratory water loss is the loss of water in the process of acquiring
the O2 necessary for catabolism. Aerobic catabolism requires O2, and when animals
breathe to obtain O2, they lose water by evaporation. The aerobic catabolism of all types
of food molecules causes obligatory respiratory water loss. The magnitude of the loss
depends on a species’ physiology of breathing and on the humidity of the ambient air.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Define and briefly explain the differences between obligatory urinary water loss and
obligatory fecal water loss.
Answer: Obligatory urinary water loss is the loss of urine water that is mandated by the
ingestion or catabolism of food molecules. Protein catabolism is the usual cause of
obligatory urinary water loss. Protein catabolism (not carbohydrates or lipids) produces
nitrogenous wastes (urea in mammals) that demand urine excretion. The excretion of
nitrogenous wastes requires water excretion.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Obligatory fecal water loss is the loss of water that must accompany feces for food
catabolism to take place. Obligatory fecal water loss occurs only when ingested foods are
catabolized. Ingested foods usually contain preformed water. If an animal loses more
water in its feces than it took in as preformed water with its ingested food, it incurs a net
fecal water loss for that food.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. In an environment in which the temperature is 25C, the relative humidity is 33%, the
food available is air-dried barley grain, and there is no drinking water, a kangaroo rat will
thrive, but a laboratory rat will not. Why?
Answer: The kangaroo rat will live largely on metabolic water but the laboratory rat will
deteriorate and ultimately require drinking water to survive. Though they both can
produce similar amounts of metabolic water, the effects of catabolism on water balance
are different between the two species. Exceptional water conservation in kangaroo rats
permits them to live on metabolic water. Kangaroo rats conserve water more effectively
than laboratory rats; they have lower urinary water losses because they can produce more
concentrated urine. They also produce drier feces. When the obligatory water losses of
the two species are subtracted from the gross amount of metabolic water produced, the
kangaroo rats, because they conserve water so well, enjoy a net gain of metabolic water.
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. What are the mechanisms by which invertebrates’ cells regulate the quantity of
dissolved organic molecules in their intracellular fluid when they are transferred into
ambient water with increased salinity?
Answer: Invertebrates employ multiple processes that raise intracellular quantities of free
amino acids; they decelerate amino acid catabolism, accelerate synthesis of new amino
acids, accelerate breakdown of intracellular proteins to release amino acids, and
accelerate active transport of amino acids into the cells.
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. A blue crab must molt about ______ times over the course of its life.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
2. Comparatively speaking, in what body compartment is water found in the lowest
quantity?
a. Interstitial fluid
b. Extracellular fluid
c. Cytoplasm
d. Plasma
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. A person who has 42 kg in water weight will have a total body weight of _______ kg.
a. 42
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. Typically, if the interstitial osmolarity is 400 mOsm, then blood osmolarity will be
_______ mOsm.
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 600
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. If ambient osmotic pressure increases, and an animal’s blood osmotic pressure
increases at the same rate, the animal is a
a. regulator.
b. conformer.
c. migrator.
d. Insufficient information is provided to classify the animal.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. If you conduct an experiment in which you submerge shrimp in an environment where
the ambient osmotic pressure keeps increasing, the blood osmotic pressure of the shrimp
will
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. increase first and then decrease.
d. not change.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The matching of ionic concentration in the blood plasma to the ionic concentration of
the external environment is known as
a. ionic conformity.
b. ionic regulation.
c. volume regulation.
d. volume conformity.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. The salinity of freshwater is less than _______ g/kg.
a. 2
b. 1.5
c. 1
d. 0.5
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. As the difference in partial pressure increases across two solutions, the rate of
evaporation
a. stays the same.
b. increases first slightly and then increases significantly.
c. decreases.
d. increases.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Consider two animals with different body temperatures: Animal A has a body
temperature of 25°C and animal B has a body temperature of 30°C. Which of the two
animals would exhale more water vapor?
a. Animal A, because cooler air holds more water vapor.
b. Animal B, because warmer air holds more water vapor.
c. Both animals would exhale the same amount of water vapor.
d. Animal B, because the air it inhales has more vapor pressure.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. Refer to the formula below. With regard to terrestrial animals, the rate of evaporation,
J, will increase if the proportionality factor, K,
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. does not change in value.
d. There is no relationship between the distance of a solution from air and the rate of
evaporation.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. Assuming humidity is the only factor that affects evaporation, which animal will have
the highest rate of dehydration?
a. A mammal in a hot desert with a core temperature of 37°C
b. A mammal in a cold desert with a core temperature of 35°C
c. A mammal in a hot desert with a core temperature of 40°C
d. Mammals have the same rate of evaporation regardless of core temperature.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. When an animal loses water by evaporation, osmotic pressure in the blood
a. decreases.
b. does not change.
c. increases.
d. There is no correlation between evaporation and osmotic pressure.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which organ plays the most important role in regulating blood composition?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Small intestine
d. Kidneys
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Urine that is hyperosmotic contains a
a. large amount of water.
b. normal amount of water.
c. small amount of water.
d. large amount of solutes and waste product.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. An ionic U/P ratio that is less than 1 indicates that the urine
a. contains more sodium compared to the plasma.
b. contains less sodium compared to the plasma.
c. contains an equal amount of sodium relative to the plasma.
d. appears to contain more sodium compared to the plasma; however, the concentrations
are equal.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. The amount of water formed per 1 gram of carbohydrates metabolized is _______ g.
a. 0.40
b. 0.50
c. 0.56
d. 1.07
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. When blood cells are submerged in a hypotonic solution they will
a. expand.
b. decrease in volume.
c. maintain the same volume.
d. shrivel.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Which ion is the principal solute used to regulate cell-volume in mammals?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Protons
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which compound does not tend to stabilize enzymes in cells?
a. Betaine
b. Trimethylamine oxide
c. Glycine
d. Urea
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 28: Water and Salt Physiology of Animals in Their Environments
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Marine teleosts that live in the ocean where the seawater has an osmotic pressure of
800 mOsm have an osmotic pressure of _______ mOsm.
a. 900
b. 800
c. 600
d. 500
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2. If the osmolarity of freshwater is 100 mOsm, the freshwater animals would regulate
their blood to an osmolarity of about _______ mOsm.
a. 80
b. 90
c. 100
d. 120
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. If the blood osmolarity of a freshwater animal is 100 mOsm, the freshwater osmolarity
is about _______ mOsm.
a. 90
b. 100
c. 110
d. 120
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. All freshwater animals regulate their blood osmotic pressures at levels ________ to
fresh water.
a. isosmotic
b. hyperosmotic
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. hyposmotic
d. isotonic
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Freshwater animals are
a. hyperosmotic regulators.
b. hyposmotic regulators.
c. isosmotic conformers.
d. hyperosmotic conformers.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which organism has the highest concentration of sodium ions in its plasma?
a. Freshwater mussels
b. Crayfish
c. Brown trout
d. Frogs
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Freshwater animals tend to
a. lose water and gain ions.
b. gain water and ions.
c. gain water and lose ions.
d. lose water and ions.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. If a crayfish’s antennal gland is damaged, which function is lost?
a. Sensation
b. Chemical detection
c. Defenses
d. Chemical consistency
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. The antennal gland opens at the base of the
a. first antenna.
b. second antenna.
c. first limb.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. second limb.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. The integument of freshwater crayfish is no more than _______ as permeable to
water and sodium as the integument of marine decapods of the same size.
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 21%
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. Fresh water animals’ integuments have low permeability so that
a. ATP production is great enough to maintain normal blood composition.
b. the rate of ion exchange is maximized without the expenditure of energy.
c. the rate of water exchange is minimized without the expenditure of energy.
d. ATP production is great enough to maintain normal intracellular fluid concentration.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. Gills in freshwater crayfish provide a(n)
a. advantage for oxygen intake but a disadvantage for water intake.
b. advantage for oxygen intake and an advantage for water intake.
c. disadvantage for oxygen intake and a disadvantage for water intake.
d. disadvantage for oxygen intake but an advantage for water intake.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. Which animal has the lowest osmotic U/P ratio?
a. Clawed toad
b. Goldfish
c. Mosquito larva
d. Crayfish
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Which organelle is the most important in moving sodium and chloride in freshwater
animals?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Lysosomes
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. In frogs, if the sodium concentration in the ambient environment increased, sodium
intake from the environment would
a. continue to occur by diffusion.
b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion.
c. continue to occur by primary active transport.
d. cease to occur by diffusion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16. In frogs, if the chloride concentration in the ambient environment increased, chloride
intake from the environment would
a. continue to occur by diffusion.
b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion.
c. continue to occur by active transport.
d. cease to occur by diffusion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Due to chloride active transport in the gills of freshwater fish, the epithelial cells of
the gills
a. become increasingly negative because chloride ions are negative.
b. become increasingly positive because chloride ions are positive.
c. are neutral because each chloride ion is exchanged with a sodium ion.
d. are neutral because each chloride ion is exchanged with a bicarbonate ion.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Due to sodium active transport in gills of freshwater fish, the epithelial cells of the
gills
a. become increasingly negative because sodium ions are negative.
b. become increasingly positive because sodium ions are positive.
c. are neutral because each sodium ion is exchanged with a proton.
d. are neutral because each sodium ion is exchanged with a chloride ion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. The bicarbonate that is pumped out of the gills, from freshwater fish into the water,
comes from
a. carbon dioxide.
b. consumption of food rich in sodium bicarbonate.
c. protein metabolism.
d. glycolysis.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which statement about sodium movement in frogs is true?
a. Sodium moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms.
b. Sodium movement regulates acid–base levels.
c. Sodium movement is directly associated with bicarbonate movement.
d. Sodium moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms, and its movement
regulates acid–base levels.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21. Which statement about chloride movement in frogs is false?
a. Chloride moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms.
b. Chloride movement regulates to acid–base levels.
c. Chloride movement is directly associated with bicarbonate movement.
d. Chloride movement is directly associated with proton movement.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. In adult freshwater fish, the major site of sodium exchange is the
a. kidney.
b. gill.
c. heart.
d. skin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
23. In early freshwater fish larvae, the major site of chloride exchange is the
a. kidney.
b. gill.
c. skin.
d. heart.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
24. In adult freshwater teleosts, ion exchange occurs in the
a. gill lamellae.
b. gill arches.
c. gill filaments.
d. skin.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. Based on the immunohistochemistry method used, the most common proteins found
in the cells of gills in freshwater teleosts are
a. Na+–K+-ATPases.
b. Na+/Cl– cotransporters.
c. Na+/Cl–/K+ cotransporters.
d. Na+–K+-ATPases and Na+/Cl–/K+ cotransporters.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
26. Which statement about chloride cells is false?
a. They produce a lot of carbon dioxide.
b. They take up a lot of nutrients, such as glucose and fatty acids.
c. They are surrounded by pavement cells.
d. They are found in the gills of freshwater fish in greater quantities than pavement cells.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. If you were to apply an inhibitor that shuts down the mitochondria, what would occur
in the gills of freshwater fish?
a. Chloride cells would cease to function.
b. Pavement cells would increase in function.
c. Sodium uptake would be unaffected.
d. Urination would cease.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. If a researcher applies BAPTA, a calcium chelator (binds calcium), to the
environment of freshwater fish, the
a. number of chloride cells in the fish will increase.
b. number of chloride cells in the fish will decrease.
c. number of chloride cells in the fish will remain the same.
d. oxygen uptake ability in the fish will increase.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 4. Applying
29. MRCs are abundant with Na+–K+-ATPases. In each cell, there are about _______
Na+–K+-ATPase molecules.
a. 100,000
b. 1,000,000
c. 10,000,000
d. 100,000,000
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
30. You perform an immunocytochemistry technique on fish MRCs and you observe that
the Cl–/HCO3– countertransport protein is expressed in greater quantities than normal.
The fish must have been living in a(n) _______ environment.
a. acidic
b. basic
c. pure water
d. neutral
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. You conduct an experiment in which you make the environment of freshwater fish
highly basic. You then isolate the ionocytes and conduct an immunocytochemistry
technique. Under these conditions, you would be most likely to observe _______ in Cl–
/HCO3– protein expression.
a. a drastic increase
b. a drastic decrease
c. a slight decrease
d. no change in
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. Which statement best describes the movement of sodium in freshwater fish?
a. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (2–3 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body
(240 µmole per day).
b. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (240 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body
(2–3 µmole per day).
c. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (2–3 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body
(2–3 µmole per day).
d. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (100 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body
(200 µmole per day).
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. Freshwater fish lose about _______ µmoles of sodium per day.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 240
d. 260
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. Squids’ inner body fluid is
a. hyposmotic to seawater.
b. hyperosmotic to seawater.
c. isosmotic to seawater.
d. sometimes hyperosmotic and sometimes hyposmotic to seawater.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
35. If an octopus has an osmolarity of 300 mOsm, the environment it lives in must have
an osmolarity of ________ mOsm.
a. 150
b. 200
c. 250
d. 300
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. If the sodium concentration in a squid’s body fluid is 456 mmol/kg of H2O, the
intracellular sodium concentration is _______ mmol/kg of H2O.
a. 5
b. 300
c. 456
d. 1056
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
37. If the potassium concentration in a squid’s body fluid is 22 mmol/kg of H2O, the
intracellular potassium concentration is _______ mmol/kg of H2O
a. 5
b. 12
c. 22
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. 400
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
38. The blood osmotic pressure of marine teleosts is about _____ mOsm _____ than the
environmental osmotic pressure.
a. 300; lower
b. 300; higher
c. 600; higher
d. 600; lower
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
39. Which statement regarding ionic movement across the gills of marine animals is true?
a. Sodium moves faster than chloride because of the overall positive charge inside the gill
epithelium.
b. Sodium moves faster than chloride because of the overall negative charge inside the
gill epithelium.
c. Sodium moves slower than chloride because of the overall positive charge inside the
gill epithelium.
d. Sodium moves slower than chloride because of the overall negative charge inside the
gill epithelium.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. The chloride channels in the mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts are located on
the _______ membrane(s).
a. apical
b. basolateral
c. blood cell
d. apical and basolateral
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
41. In mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts, Cl– enters the cell through the
a. apical membrane by simple diffusion and exits via the basolateral membrane by
secondary active transport.
b. basolateral membrane by simple diffusion and exits via the apical membrane by
secondary active transport.
c. basolateral membrane by secondary active transport and exits via the apical membrane
by simple diffusion.
d. apical membrane by secondary active transport and exits via the basolateral membrane
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
by simple diffusion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. Which animal is not a hyposmotic regulator?
a. Arthropod that lives in saline water
b. Marine reptile
c. Marine mammal
d. Marine echinoderm
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Species that are able to survive only within a narrow range of ambient salinities are
called
a. conformers.
b. stenohaline.
c. euryhaline.
d. xeric.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
44. Animals that leave a saltwater environment to breed in a freshwater environment are
known as
a. anadromous.
b. catadromous.
c. anadromous and euryhaline.
d. catadromous and stenohaline.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Animals that leave a fresh water environment to breed in a salt water environment are
known as
a. anadromous.
b. catadromous.
c. anadromous and stenohaline.
d. catadromous and stenohaline.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. If you take a freshwater animal and transfer it to seawater for 60 days, what do you
expect to see when you perform immunocytochemistry?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Increased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and decreased NKCC
expression in the gill lamellae
b. Increased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and increased NKCC
expression in the gill lamellae
c. Decreased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and increased NKCC
expression in the gill lamellae
d. Decreased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and decreased NKCC
expression in the gill lamellae
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
47.–49. Refer to the figure below.
47. How would you categorize the blue crab?
a. Hyperosmostic regulator
b. Hyper-isosmotic regulator
c. Hypo-isosmotic regulator
d. Hyperosmotic conformer
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. Overall, which animal represented in the graph is the best osmotic regulator?
a. Blue crab
b. Lined shore crab
c. Brine shrimp
d. Carp
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
49. Taking into account both numerical scales and shape on both graphs, which line most
closely represents that of a Pacific salmon?
a. Blue crab
b. Carp
c. Fiddler crab
d. Brine shrimp
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Animals that can live in dry, water poor environments are called
a. anadromous.
b. xeric.
c. catadromus.
d. stenohaline.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Responses to Drying of the Habitat in Aquatic Animals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
51. Which substance produces nitrogen waste when catabolized?
a. Lipids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Triglycerides
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
52. Which animal has the highest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss?
a. Screech owl
b. Zebra finch
c. Budgerigar
d. House wren
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53.–54. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
53. The line represented by I represents
a. total evaporative water loss.
b. cutaneous water loss.
c. respiratory water loss.
d. metabolic water production.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
54. The line represented by II represents
a. total evaporative water loss.
b. cutaneous water loss.
c. respiratory water loss.
d. metabolic water production.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
55. In terrestrial amphibians, the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is released from
the
a. anterior pituitary.
b. hypothalamus.
c. neurohypophysis.
d. thyroid.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
56.–58. Refer to the figure below.
56. What is the greatest contributor to total water loss in this animal?
a. Humidity
b. Feces
c. Urine
d. Evaporation
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
57. Why is preformed water in food not a consistent value?
a. Humidity affects the amount of water in the food.
b. Increased metabolic rate affects the water absorbed from the food.
c. Metabolic water is decreased in deceased humidity.
d. Evaporative water loss increases in decreasing humidity.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
58. Based on the figure, is there a point where this animal is out of water balance?
a. No, this animal is constantly in water balance.
b. Yes, but only at high humidity.
c. Yes, this animal is constantly out of water balance.
d. Yes, but only at very low humidity.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. List and briefly explain three factors that determine the rate of passive exchange of
water and ions.
Answer: 1) The magnitudes of the osmotic and ionic gradients between the blood and
ambient water;
2) the permeability of an animal’s outer body covering to water and ions;
3) the surface area across which exchange is occurring.
Any change (increase or decrease) in these factors, will have an effect on the rate of
passive exchange.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Why is the permeability of a freshwater animal’s integument to water and ions
relatively low?
Answer: In freshwater animals, evolution selected for this low permeability because it
reduces the rates of passive water and ion exchange and thus reduces the energy costs of
maintaining a normal blood composition. Low permeability slows the processes that tend
to bring the blood and ambient water to equilibrium.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Describe the structure of the gills and explain another role they serve, in addition to
being respiratory organs.
Answer: The gills of teleost fish carry out two major functions that serve homeostasis. In
both freshwater and seawater, the gills function both as ion-regulatory organs and as gasexchange organs. The gills are the principle sites where Na+ and Cl– are taken up from
freshwater. The microscopic structure of the filament consists of a thin, principal lamellar
element bearing many folds called the secondary lamellae. The secondary lamellae are
highly vascularized, increasing the surface area across which O2 and ions can move
inward from the ambient water to the blood.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. Explain, in detail, the structure of gills in freshwater fish, from the largest structure to
the smallest. Include the function of each structure.
Answer: Within the feather of the gill, the microscopic structure of the filament consists
of a thin, principal lamellar element supporting many folds known as the secondary
lamellae. The secondary lamellae greatly increase the surface area across which O2 can
diffuse from the ambient water into the blood. Within the cells of the lamellae there are
abundant membrane proteins that are instrumental in ion transport between the blood and
ambient water. Ion transport proteins, such as Na+–K+-ATPase and Na+, K+, Cl–
cotransporters, are instrumental in maintaining chemical consistency of the blood.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Explain how immunocytochemistry is used to study ion transport in animals.
Answer: Immunocytochemistry, applied to transport proteins, is the principal method
currently used to study gill ion-transport functions. Two fluor-labeled antibodies are
used: one to bind Na+–K+-ATPase and another to bind the cotransporter protein NKCC-1.
A gill filament is exposed to these antibodies, and then the filament is scanned with lasers
that excite the fluors. The antibody against Na+–K+-ATPase glows one color, whereas
that against NKCC-1 glows another color. An image of the fluorescing gill filament is
taken and evaluated. One color indicates where Na+–K+-ATPase is located, and the other
indicates where NKCC-1 is located. When both membrane proteins occur in
approximately the same location, a third color, resulting from the combination of the two
colors, appears.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. What conditions lead to an increase in the number of MRCs in the gills of fish?
Answer: The number of MRCs in the gill epithelium of a fish increase in alkalosis
(excess blood bicarbonate) conditions and the countertransport protein, Cl– /HCO3–,
which exports HCO3– from the body fluids in exchange for Cl–, is upregulated. Low or
decreased ambient Ca2+ concentrations also are associated with an increase in the number
of MRCs in the gills.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Why do freshwater fish make dilute urine?
Answer: To save energy. When producing dilute urine, the kidneys start with a fluid that
is as concentrated as blood plasma and actively extract Na+ and Cl– from it, lowering its
ion concentrations. In contrast, the concentrations of Na+ and Cl– in the ambient water are
always relatively low. Active uptake of Na+ or Cl– from a relatively concentrated source
requires less energy per ion than uptake from a dilute source. Thus, removing ions from
urine prior to excretion is less costly than replacing the same ions from the ambient
water.
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
8. Explain how teleosts can drink hyperosmotic seawater to replenish water loss by
diffusion and excretion.
Answer: In several species studied, ingested seawater travels through the esophagus,
stomach, and anterior intestine, and Na+, Cl–, and H2O diffuse into the blood across the
gut wall. Gradually, the ingested seawater in the gut expands in volume, becoming
diluted. Na+ and Cl– are actively transported out of the gut into the blood. This active
uptake of Na+ and Cl– into the blood creates conditions that favor the osmotic uptake of
water.
In other species, a process called near-isosmotic fluid transport occurs, in which the gut
fluids and blood plasma remain approximately isosmotic as water moves briskly by
osmosis into the blood; in this case, highly localized osmotic gradients within the
intestinal epithelium are involved in translating ion uptake into water uptake. Aquaporins
in the intestinal epithelia are instrumental in facilitating water uptake from the gut.
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Explain how rate of water loss is correlated with oxygen consumption.
Answer: Rate of water loss is correlated with oxygen consumption because of respiratory
evaporative water loss. This rate depends on an animal’s rate of O2 consumption and the
amount of water lost per unit of O2 the animal consumes.
Rate of water loss (mg H2O/hour) = rate of O2 consumption (mL O2/hour)  water loss
per unit of O2 consumed (mg H2O/mL O2)
An animal’s rate of metabolism is thus a major determinant of its rate of evaporative
water loss. The amount of water lost per unit of O2 consumed is affected by the
temperature of the exhaled air (lower exhalant temperatures mean lower water loss) and
the efficiency of the breathing organs at removing O2 from inhaled air.
Textbook Reference: Responses to Drying of the Habitat in Aquatic Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain how amphibians compensate for water loss.
Answer: Amphibians have an integument that poses little barrier to evaporative water
loss. They incorporate waste nitrogen (from their high-protein diet) mostly into urea, a
highly soluble compound that requires considerable amounts of water for its excretion.
Although amphibians are notably adept at shutting off urine outflow when faced with
dehydration, they are unable, when they do excrete urine, to produce urine that is more
concentrated than their blood plasma. Most amphibians compensate for this by absorbing
water across their skin. Many species can gain water at substantial rates by pressing their
pelvic patch against moist soil. The water permeability of the pelvic patch is modulated
by upregulating and downregulating aquaporins in the cell membranes.
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
1. Which organism has the highest concentration of potassium ions in their plasma?
a. Freshwater mussels
b. Brown trout
c. Crayfish
d. Frogs
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which structure in crayfish is analogous to the kidney?
a. Carapace
b. Antennal gland
c. Antenna
d. Heart
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which animal has the highest osmotic U/P ratio?
a. Clawed toad
b. Goldfish
c. Crayfish
d. Snail
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Freshwater animals transport sodium into their body from the environment via
a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. passive transport.
d. active transport.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. If the sodium concentration in a frog’s environment were to decrease to 0.01 mM,
sodium intake from the environment would
a. continue to occur by diffusion.
b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion.
c. continue to occur by active transport.
d. cease to occur by diffusion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. If the chloride concentration in a frog’s environment were to decrease to 0.01 mM,
chloride intake from the environment would
a. continue to occur by diffusion.
b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion.
c. continue to occur by active transport.
d. cease to occur by diffusion.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. The excess protons that fish gills pump into the environment are the product of
a. carbon dioxide reacting with water.
b. protein metabolism.
c. catabolism.
d. glycolysis.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. In adult freshwater fish, chloride exchange with the environment occurs primarily in
the
a. kidneys.
b. heart.
c. gills.
d. skin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. In adult freshwater teleosts, gas exchange occurs in the
a. skin.
b. gill arches.
c. gill filaments.
d. lamellae.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
10. Which organelle is most abundant in chloride cells?
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Mitochondria
c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. Ribosomes
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
11. If you were to decrease the calcium concentration in a freshwater fish’s environment,
a. the number of its chloride cells would increase.
b. the number of its chloride cells would decrease.
c. the number of its chloride cells would remain the same.
d. its oxygen uptake ability would increase.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
12. Which organism is most hyposmotic to seawater?
a. Mussel
b. Sea urchin
c. Hagfish
d. Teleost
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. In freshwater teleosts, blood osmotic pressure is _______ mOsm _______ than the
osmotic pressure of freshwater.
a. 300; lower
b. 300; higher
c. 600; higher
d. 600; lower
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. In fish, movement of sodium across the gills depends on
a. permeability and concentration gradient.
b. permeability, concentration gradient, and electrical gradient.
c. concentration gradient and electrical gradient.
d. permeability and electrical gradient.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. NKCCs in the mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleost are located
a. on the apical membrane.
b. on the basolateral membrane.
c. on the apical and basal membranes.
d. in the cytoplasm and on the apical and basolateral membranes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
16. In mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts, chloride moves by
a. primary active transport, using ATP directly.
b. secondary active transport, using ATP directly.
c. secondary active transport, using ATP indirectly.
d. simple diffusion—no need for ATP.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. Species that are able to survive within a broad range of ambient salinity are called
a. conformers.
b. stenohaline.
c. euryhaline.
d. xeric.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. Animals that ascend rivers from the ocean to breed are
a. anadromous.
b. catadromus.
c. stenohaline.
d. osmoconformers.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss?
a. White-crowned sparrow
b. Zebra finch
c. Gambel’s quail
d. Ostrich
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20.–21. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
20. What is this figure measuring?
a. Total evaporative water loss
b. Mass-specific metabolic rate
c. Urine osmotic pressure
d. Metabolic water production
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21. Where would you plot a goose on this figure?
a. Far below the black line, at the average weight of a goose
b. On the black line directly above the beaver
c. Close to the Kirk’s dik-dik
d. On the black line directly below Kirk’s dik-dik
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
22. In an experiment in which additional aquaporins are inserted onto the pelvic patch
membrane of a frog, what is most likely to occur?
a. Water permeability will remain the same.
b. Water permeability will decrease.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Water permeability will increase.
d. Salt permeability will increase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 29: Kidneys and Excretion (with Notes on Nitrogen Excretion)
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement about the kidneys is false?
a. They produce and eliminate aqueous solutions derived from the blood plasma.
b. They produce and eliminate watery solutions derived from the extracellular fluid.
c. They excrete solutes dissolved in water.
d. They produce urine that contains high levels of creatinine, which is a direct product of
lipid metabolism.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Which substance is typically found in urine at the highest concentration?
a. Sodium originated from plasma
b. Sodium generated from extracellular fluid
c. Urea generated from protein metabolism
d. Phosphate generated from energy production
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Which of the following would not be found in urine produced by healthy kidneys?
a. Potassium
b. Proteins
c. Phosphate
d. Creatinine
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. After the kidneys, the _______ contribute(s) most to filtration.
a. lungs
b. liver
c. heart
d. spleen
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. Podocytes are found in the
a. glomerulus.
b. Bowman’s capsule.
c. renal corpuscle.
d. glomerulus and the renal corpuscle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. A molecule greater than _______ kilodaltons cannot pass through the nephrons.
a. 6.5
b. 9
c. 9.5
d. 12.5
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. Which statement about amphibian nephrons is false?
a. Nephrons start at Bowman’s capsule.
b. Filtration occurs in the nephrons.
c. Nephron walls consist of a single layer of epithelia.
d. The loops of Henle are a few mm in length.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Filtration slits are found in
a. the glomerulus.
b. Bowman’s capsule.
c. the renal corpuscle.
d. both the glomerulus and the renal corpuscle.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Glomerular filtration rate in vertebrates is defined as the rate of _______ of an
animal’s kidney tubules.
a. secondary urine formation by all
b. secondary urine formation by one
c. primary urine formation by all
d. primary urine formation by one
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +5 kPa, the colloid osmotic
pressure is –2.5 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the
filtration pressure is _______ kPa.
a. 0.5
b. 4.5
c. 5.0
d. 5.5
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. If the filtration pressure is +7 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –3 kPa, and the
capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the blood pressure in the glomerular
capillaries is _______ kPa.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 8
d. 12
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +10 kPa, the filtration pressure is
+6 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the colloid osmotic
pressure is _______ kPa.
a. –2
b. –4
c. 2
d. 4
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +14 kPa, the filtration pressure is
+8 kPa, and the colloid osmotic pressure is –4 kPa, then the capsular fluid hydrostatic
pressure is _______ kPa.
a. –2
b. –4
c. 4
d. 10
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
14. The _______ system(s) effect(s) the change in flow resistance in the glomerular blood
pressure.
a. nervous
b. endocrine
c. digestive
d. nervous and endocrine
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. In amphibians, the first part of the nephron is
a. the proximal convoluted tubule.
b. Bowman’s capsule.
c. the Loop of Henle.
d. the collecting duct.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. The last part of the nephron in amphibians is
a. Bowman’s capsule.
b. the Loop of Henle.
c. the distal convoluted tubule.
d. the collecting duct.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. The filtered fluid that forms in the nephrons will first empty into the
a. urethra.
b. bladder.
c. ureter.
d. distal convoluted tubule.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. In the proximal convoluted tubules of the nephrons of amphibians, sodium is
reabsorbed via
a. passive transport.
b. active transport.
c. simple diffusion.
d. active transport and passive transport.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which substance(s) may be found in the proximal convoluted tubule in the nephrons
of amphibians?
a. Sodium
b. Sodium and chloride
c. Glucose
d. Sodium, glucose, and chloride
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. In the nephrons of amphibians, glucose in the proximal convoluted tubule returns to
the blood by
a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. primary active transport.
d. secondary active transport.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. Which values reflect the expected glucose concentrations (in mM) in micropuncture
samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s capsule, beginning
of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal convoluted tubule,
and beginning of collecting duct?
a. 0; 1; 2; 3; 2
b. 2; 2; 0; 0; 0
c. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0
d. 2; 2; 2; 0; 0
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. Which values reflect the expected amino acid concentrations (in mM) in
micropuncture samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s
capsule, beginning of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal
convoluted tubule, and beginning of collecting duct?
a. 0; 1; 2; 4; 2
b. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0
c. 1; 1; 0; 0; 0
d. 2; 2; 1; 0; 0
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
23. Which values reflect the expected albumen concentrations (in mM) in micropuncture
samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s capsule, beginning
of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal convoluted tubule,
and beginning of collecting duct?
a. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0
b. 0; 1; 2; 4; 2
c. 1; 1; 0; 0; 0
d. 2; 2; 1; 0; 0
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. ADH is released from the
a. anterior pituitary.
b. posterior pituitary.
c. kidneys.
d. hypothalamus.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. If you inject a known diuretic into a frog, the volume of its
a. urine will increase.
b. urine will decrease.
c. plasma will increase.
d. plasma will remain the same.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
26. In amphibians, ADH acts on which segment of the nephron to increase reabsorption?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Descending loop of Henle
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. Injection of an ADH inhibitor into a frog causes _______ at the distal convoluted
tubule than would occur without such an injection.
a. reabsorption of more waste
b. secretion of more sodium
c. reabsorption of less water
d. secretion of less water
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
28. If an ADH blocker is administered to an amphibian, the volume of the urine will
_______ and the volume of the blood will _______.
a. increase; increase
b. decrease; increase
c. increase; decrease
d. remain the same; increase
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. Administering a substance that enhances the release of ADH to a frog will cause the
distal convoluted tubule to
a. reabsorb more water than normal.
b. reabsorb less water than normal.
c. secrete less water than normal.
d. secrete more sodium than normal.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30. In mammals, the length of the loop of Henle in nephrons is correlated with the
a. size of the kidney.
b. thickness of the renal medulla.
c. thickness of the renal pelvis.
d. length of the renal cortex.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
31. In mammals, the nonurea solutes are trapped in the collecting duct because the
collecting duct is
a. permeable to both water and nonurea solutes.
b. impermeable to both water and nonurea solutes.
c. impermeable to nonurea solutes but permeable to water.
d. permeable to nonurea solutes but impermeable to water.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
32. In mammals, the medullary interstitial fluid is _______ to the fluid in the collecting
duct.
a. hyperosmotic
b. isosmotic
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. hyposmotic
d. isoionic and hyposmotic
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. The wall of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to
a. sodium.
b. potassium.
c. chloride.
d. water.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. A direct effect of the active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of
Henle is that the fluid in the _______ becomes _______.
a. lumen; hyposmotic
b. lumen; hyperosmotic
c. interstitial fluid; hyperosmotic
d. interstitial fluid; isosmotic
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. During active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, the
concentration of NaCl in the lumen
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. decreases at first and then increases.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
36. During active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, the
concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. stays the same.
d. decreases at first and then increases.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
37. In the collecting duct, urea reabsorption is mediated by
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. the lipid portion of the plasma membrane.
b. antiport proteins.
c. symport proteins that are regulated by aldosterone.
d. protein transporters.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
38. Do ATP blockers directly affect urea reabsorption in the collecting duct?
a. Yes, urea reabsorption depends on active transport via protein pumps.
b. Yes, urea reabsorption depends on active transport via protein transporters.
c. No, urea reabsorption is facilitated by protein pumps.
d. No, urea reabsorption is facilitated by protein channels.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
39. If the urea concentration in the interstitial fluid around the collecting duct is
increased, urea reabsorption will
a. continue because it depends on active transport.
b. continue because it depends on passive transport.
c. cease because it depends on active transport.
d. cease, because reabsorption depends on passive transport. Instead, urea secretion will
occur.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
40. Which statement about urea processing in the nephron is true?
a. More urea is excreted than filtered, and some of the urea that gets reabsorbed
accumulates in the medulla.
b. More urea is reabsorbed than excreted, and some of the urea gets filtered.
c. More urea is filtered than reabsorbed, and all of the urea gets excreted.
d. More urea is filtered than excreted, and some of the urea that gets reabsorbed
accumulates in the medulla.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. If a drug that blocks Na–K–2Cl cotransporters is administered, blood pressure will
_______ and plasma sodium concentration will _______.
a. increase; increase
b. decrease; increase
c. decrease; decrease
d. increase; decrease
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. If a person in antidiuresis produces urine with a concentration of 1200 mOsm, his
plasma osmolarity is about _______ mOsm.
a. 1200
b. 600
c. 300
d. 2400
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. If a person in diuresis produces urine with a concentration of 50 mOsm, her plasma
osmolarity is about _______ mOsm.
a. 250
b. 500
c. 600
d. 50
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
44. ADH acts specifically on the _______ by _______.
a. collecting duct; removing aquaporin channels from the membrane.
b. collecting duct; inserting aquaporin channels into the membrane.
c. loop of Henle; removing aquaporin channels from the membrane.
d. loop of Henle; inserting aquaporin channels into the membrane.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. The Na–K–2Cl cotransporter in the nephron is located on the
a. apical side and is electroneutral.
b. apical side and has a net charge of +1.
c. basolateral side and is electroneutral.
d. basolateral side and has a net charge of +1.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
46. If a new protein, aptly named Na–2K–Cl cotransporter, is introduced to the apical
side of the nephron in mammals, which of the following statements about this protein
would be true?
a. The protein has a net charge of +1.
b. The protein has a net charge of +2.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. The protein has a net charge of –1.
d. The protein has a net charge of –2.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
47.–51. Refer to the figure below.
47. Where is K+ most likely to be secreted into the tubular fluid?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. Where is most of the glucose reabsorbed from the tubular fluid?
a. I
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. During moderate diuresis, what is the most likely osmotic pressure in the tubular fluid
at V?
a. 300 mOsm
b. 600 mOsm
c. 75 mOsm
d. 5 mOsm
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. Where would amino acids be found in the tubular fluid?
a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. At all areas in the tubule
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
51. Where would sodium be moving across the apical membranes of the cells lining the
tubules?
a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. At all areas in the tubule
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52.–56. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
52. What portion of the kidney tubule does the diagram represent?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Descending loop of Henle
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Collecting duct
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
53. At which numeral is sodium moving across the membrane?
a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
54. Which process or processes are using the sodium gradient to bring substances into the
cell?
a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, and IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
55. Where is secondary active transport of glucose represented?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
56. Which numeral represents a transporter that could change the pH of the inside of the
cell?
a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. II and IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
57. Which organisms have loopless nephrons?
a. Some birds
b. Nonavian reptiles
c. Some birds and all amphibians
d. Some birds and all nonavian reptiles
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
58. Coelomosacs are found in
a. birds.
b. crustaceans.
c. marine fish.
d. amphibians.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Decapod Crustaceans
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
59. In insects, KCl is
a. secreted passively.
b. secreted actively.
c. absorbed passively.
d. absorbed actively.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
60. The principal waste product in ureotelic animals is
a. uric acid.
b. urea.
c. ammonia.
d. ammonium.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Nitrogen Disposition and Excretion
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
Short Answer
1. Kidney structure may vary from one species to another; however, all kidneys serve the
same purpose. What are the common elements and functions of the kidney?
Answer: All kidneys consist of tubular elements that discharge directly or indirectly to
the outside world. They maintain water balance by producing and eliminating aqueous
solutions derived from the blood plasma or other extracellular body fluids. Kidneys
maintain the homeostasis of various solute concentrations in the plasma and interstitial
fluid. Kidneys control the volume of the blood plasma and other extracellular body fluids
by controlling excretion of solutes and water.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Regulating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is very important in animals. Explain
how animals adjust their GFR.
Answer: The principal way GFR is adjusted is via the regulation of the function of each
individual nephron, ultimately influencing the entire kidney average GFR. Regulation is
achieved by modulating vasomotor changes in the diameter (and hence flow resistance)
of the glomerular afferent capillary. Vasomotor changes of this sort are controlled by the
autonomic nervous system and specific circulating hormones. Regulation of GFR in the
nephron also occurs by changes in the permeability of the nephron to water or certain
solutes.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which solutes are reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubules in the nephrons of
amphibians and how is each reabsorbed?
Answer: Sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl–) reabsorption occur at the proximal convoluted
tubule (PCT). Na+ is actively reabsorbed across the walls of the proximal tubule, whereas
Cl– is passively reabsorbed. The epithelial walls of the PCT are permeable to water to
facilitate osmosis. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into the cells of the PCT by
secondary active transport, driven by the primary active transport of Na+.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
4. Using sodium as an example, discuss the differences between concentration and
quantity.
Answer: Quantity is an absolute measure, whereas concentration is a relative measure
(quantity of solute relative to quantity of water). As a general principle, measures of
quantity provide the most direct insight into questions of salt and water balance. The
concentrations of Na+, Cl–, and water in the tubular fluid remain, on average, unchanged.
Yet, the quantities of these substances exiting the proximal tubule are much lower than
those entering. Measures of quantity and concentration are informative, although in
different ways. For instance, to determine whether an animal is in Na+ balance, you
would measure the quantity of Na+ gained per day and the quantity lost per day and
compare the values. Concentration is a measure of the proportion of one substance in
relation to another.
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Explain how the micropuncture technique is used to study the physiology of the
kidney.
Answer: The purpose of micropuncture is to monitor the filtrate solute concentration as it
travels through the nephron. In micropuncture, fine micropipettes are inserted into
individual nephrons at specific points from the Bowman’s capsule to the collecting duct
to sample the fluid. Researchers can look at various solutes (e.g., glucose or amino acid
concentrations) to assess whether they increase or decrease as they travel along the
nephron.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Explain, in detail, the functions of ADH in amphibians.
Answer: In amphibians, ADH increases the water permeability of parts of the distal
convoluted tubule and decreases the glomerular filtration rate. ADH reduces the
glomerulus filtration rate by reducing the numbers of actively filtering nephrons, an
effect mediated by inducing vasoconstriction in afferent glomerular blood vessels. The
decrease in GFR reduces urine production and promotes water retention in the body,
thereby complementing the increase in water reabsorption induced by ADH in the distal
tubules. ADH has the potential to increase the rate of active NaCl reabsorption from the
renal tubules. Overall, ADH promotes water retention because it enhances solute-driven
water reabsorption and decreases the solute load of the urine.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What are the differences between the countercurrent multiplier and countercurrent
exchanger systems?
Answer: The countercurrent multiplier is an active system exemplified by sodium
reabsorption in the loops of Henle. In this system, metabolic energy is used to transport
NaCl out of the ascending limb and induce fluxes of solutes into or out of the fluid
streams. The countercurrent exchange is a passive system exemplified by the heat
exchangers in the appendages of mammals. In this system, heat follows a temperature
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
gradient, moving from a warmer to a cooler region. This transfer may occur because the
expenditure of metabolic energy has caused a temperature gradient, but the transfer of
heat, itself, does not require expenditure of more energy.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Describe the role of ADH in mammalian nephrons.
Answer: In mammals, ADH affects the permeability of the collecting-duct epithelium to
water. The effect is mediated by aquaporin-2 (AQP-2), a membrane protein that is
inserted into and retrieved from the apical cell membranes of the collecting-duct
epithelial cells. The presence of ADH stimulates the insertion of AQP-2 molecules into
the apical cell membranes, leading to an increase in collecting-duct epithelial
permeability. This osmotic exit of water leads to a more concentrated urine. When ADH
levels fall, AQP-2 molecules are retrieved from the apical cell membranes, and epithelial
permeability to water decreases, leading to a more dilute urine.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Describe how urine formation differs between freshwater teleosts and marine teleosts.
Answer: In freshwater fish, the walls of the distal convoluted tubule are nearly
impermeable to water. Thus, as NaCl is reabsorbed and returned to the body fluids, water
remains behind in the tubule, and a dilute urine is produced. This is consistent with their
need to remove water from their plasma as they are hyperosmotic to their (freshwater)
environment. Marine teleost fish commonly lack the distal convoluted tubule; the loss of
water via the dilute urine that commonly occurs in distal convoluted tubules would be
disadvantageous to marine teleosts because they are hyposmotic to their (seawater)
environment. In addition, freshwater teleosts have relatively large numbers of nephrons
and well-developed glomeruli; their GFRs are relatively high. In contrast, marine teleosts
tend to have relatively few nephrons and small glomeruli; they have low GFRs.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Explain how potassium chloride is secreted in insects.
Answer: Potassium chloride (KCl) is secreted by the epithelium of a Malpighian tubule
from the blood (hemolymph) bathing the tubule into the lumen of the tubule. The K+
secretion occurs by secondary active transport: an H+-ATPase uses ATP to create
electrochemical gradients that drive the secondary active transport of K+. The secretion of
K+ into a Malpighian tubule is electrogenic, and Cl– accompanies the K+ passively by
following the electrical gradient set up by K+ secretion. Thus, KCl requires the use of
ATP for secretion. The movement of KCl into the lumen of a Malpighian tubule drives
osmotic entry of water, forming primary-urine.
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. What is the largest molecule that can pass through a nephron?
a. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 9.5 kilodaltons
b. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 12.5 kilodaltons
c. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 13.5 kilodaltons
d. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 14.5 kilodaltons
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The colloid osmotic pressure is best defined as the
a. pressure generated by the contraction of skeletal muscles pushing on the blood vessels.
b. osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins in the blood vessels.
c. pressure generated by the contraction of smooth muscles around the blood vessels.
d. pressure difference between the osmotic pressure of the blood plasma and the osmotic
pressure of the capsular fluid.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +7 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure
is –3 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the filtration
pressure is _______ kPa.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. If the filtration pressure is +8 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –2 kPa, and the
capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –1 kPa, then the pressure in the glomerular
capillaries is _______ kPa.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 11
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which of the following will not have an effect on the glomerular blood pressure?
a. Nervous system innervation of the smooth muscles that surround blood vessels
b. Endocrine system hormones acting on skeletal muscles
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. An increase in heart rate
d. A change in the diameter of the efferent blood vessel
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. In amphibians, sodium reabsorption begins in
a. the loop of Henle.
b. the proximal convoluted tubule.
c. Bowman’s capsule.
d. the distal convoluted to tubule.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. In amphibians, chloride reabsorption begins in
a. the proximal convoluted tubule.
b. Bowman’s capsule.
c. the loop of Henle.
d. the distal convoluted to tubule.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Which substance(s) can be present in the proximal convoluted tubule in amphibians’
nephrons?
a. Sodium
b. Amino acids
c. Sodium and chloride
d. Sodium, chloride, and amino acids
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. Which hormone controls water regulation in the kidney?
a. Cortisol
b. ADH
c. Oxytocin
d. Epinephrine
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. In amphibians, when ADH is released, the number of aquaporins in the bladder
a. increases.
b. decreases.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. and the distal convoluted tubule increases.
d. and the distal convoluted tubule decreases.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which sequence demonstrates the correct order of the structures of a mammalian
nephron from blood to ureter?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule; Bowman’s capsule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted
tubule
b. Bowman’s capsule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted
tubule
c. Bowman’s capsule; proximal convoluted tubule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted
tubule
d. Distal convoluted tubule; loop of Henle; Proximal convoluted tubule; Bowman’s
capsule
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. The macula densa in mammalian nephrons secrete
a. renin.
b. aldosterone.
c. ADH.
d. sodium.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
13. The active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of loop of Henle leads to
a. hyperosmotic fluid in the lumen.
b. hyperosmotic fluid in the interstitial region.
c. isosmotic fluid in the lumen.
d. hyposmotic fluid in the interstitial region.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
14. Urea is reabsorbed in the collecting duct by
a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. primary active transport.
d. secondary active transport.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
15. The vasa recta are
a. cells in the collecting ducts.
b. substances released from the afferent arteriole.
c. blood capillaries around loop of Henle in mammals.
d. blood capillaries around the proximal convoluted tubules in mammals.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. Some medications to treat hypertension act on the
a. sodium–potassium pumps.
b. sodium channels.
c. Na–K–2Cl cotransporter.
d. Na–Cl cotransporters.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
17. In the mammalian proximal convoluted tubule, sodium reabsorption is coupled with
a. sodium.
b. glucose.
c. protons.
d. glucose and protons.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18.–20. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
18. Which number corresponds to the lowest osmolarity?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
19. Which number signifies the area that will not reabsorb water?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Which area shows the highest variation in osmolarily?
a. I
b. II
c. III
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. Which structure is usually not found in marine teleosts?
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Glomerular capsule
c. Proximal convoluted tubule
d. Loop of Henle
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. Which statement about marine teleosts is true?
a. Some species lack glomeruli.
b. They are hyperosmotic to seawater.
c. They have more nephrons compared to freshwater teleosts.
d. They live in a hyposmotic environment.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. Insects have excretory tubules known as
a. Malpighian tubules.
b. nephridia.
c. loopless nephrons.
d. coelomosac.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 26: Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, and Internal Transport AT WORK:
Diving by Marine Mammals
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Most dives by Weddell seals are
a. short and shallow.
b. long and shallow.
c. very evenly distributed between short and shallow and long and deep dives.
d. long and deep.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement is not supported by the data in the figure?
a. Dives are either very long or very short.
b. Some dives can last longer than 1 hour.
c. Over 60% of all dives last for 10 minutes or less.
d. Very few dives are over 40 minutes long.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Which statement is supported by the data in the figure?
a. Most dives tend to be between 200–400 m.
b. Half of all dives are under 100 m.
c. The shallowest dives are under 10 m.
d. Over 90% of all dives are under 200 m.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. The figure best represents which behavior?
a. Diving behavior of male and female northern elephant seals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Foraging behavior of male and female sperm whales
c. Migration movements of male and female northern elephant seals
d. Foraging movements of bottlenose dolphins
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which animal is typically the shallowest diver?
a. Elephant seal
b. Cuvier’s beaked whale
c. Weddell seal
d. Northern fur seal
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which animal does not belong to the true (phocid) seal group?
a. Northern fur seal
b. Weddell seal
c. Ribbon seal
d. Harbor seal
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
7.–8. Refer to the figure below.
7. Which of the following is shown by the data in the figure?
a. Individual dive depths from one seal over many days
b. Dive depths for many seals of one species over many days
c. Dive depths for one seal during one day
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Dive depths for many seals of one species during one day
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. The data in the figure would not likely apply to which species?
a. Northern fur seal
b. Ribbon seal
c. Elephant seal
d. Harbor seal
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. If you were collecting diving data, which comparison would you expect to reveal the
greatest physiological differences?
a. A voluntary versus a forced dive
b. A morning versus an evening dive
c. A foraging-related versus a defense-related dive
d. A short versus a long dive (relative to the maximum duration for the species)
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Types of Dives and the Importance of Method
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Which statement describes an early piece of evidence showing that circulatory
function is sometimes radically altered during a dive?
a. A significant bradycardia occurs during a forced dive.
b. A significant bradycardia occurs during a voluntary dive.
c. Lactic acid increases primarily after a forced dive.
d. Lactic acid increases primarily after a voluntary dive.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Which statement regarding the diving reflex is true?
a. It is absent during a forced dive.
b. It represents an adjustment to the pattern of blood flow that allows the dive to be
extended.
c. It exists in all diving mammals.
d. It is strongly present during a voluntary dive.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
12. The amount of O2 stored in blood depends on the
a. oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. total volume of the blood.
c. circulatory rate.
d. oxygen-carrying capacity and the total volume of the blood.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. Seals such as the Weddell seal, which are capable of long and deep dives, typically
have blood-oxygen carrying capacities (per unit volume) that are _______ those of seals
such as the stellar sea lion, whose dives are short and shallow.
a. four times greater than
b. 1.5 times greater than
c. similar to
d. 1.5 times less than
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Mass-specific myoglobin levels in the most accomplished divers such as the Weddell
seal are _______ those of humans.
a. 10 times greater than
b. 2 times greater than
c. similar to
d. 2 times less than
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. A large O2 store in the lungs is an advantage to a diver for which reason?
a. Large amounts of air in the lungs affect buoyancy.
b. Alveoli are typically the first components of the respiratory system to collapse.
c. A large store of O2 also means a large store of N2.
d. In compression-resistant thoraxes, it increases shallow dive time.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In general, diving mammals have lung volumes (per unit mass) that are _______
those of terrestrial mammals.
a. 4 times greater than
b. 2 times greater than
c. similar to
d. 2 times less than
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. Which oxygen storage compartment tends to be the smallest in diving mammals?
a. Lungs
b. Blood
c. Myoglobin
d. Interstitial fluids
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18.–20. Refer to the figure below.
18. What data is represented in the figure?
a. Oxygen-carrying capacity
b. Total oxygen stores
c. Mass-specific oxygen stores
d. Mass-specific metabolic rates
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which data in the figure represents the lungs?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
20. Of the components shown in the figure, the one with the greatest effect on dive length
in true (phocid) seals is
a. the lungs.
b. the blood.
c. myoglobin.
d. dissolved O2 in fluids other than blood.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
21. A decrease in heart rate specifically in response to diving is referred to as
a. chronic tachycardia.
b. sinus bradycardia.
c. diving bradycardia.
d. diving tachycardia.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
22. During a landmark study by Bron (1966), regional vasoconstriction during a seal’s
dive was indicated by a measured lack of blood flow to the
a. kidneys.
b. brain.
c. lungs.
d. skeletal muscle.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. Which structure receives little or no blood during a prolonged forced dive?
a. Brain
b. Limbs
c. Lungs
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. Heart
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
24. During a prolonged forced dive, vasoconstriction causes which cardiovascular
parameter(s) to drop?
a. Heart rate
b. Stroke volume
c. Cardiac output
d. Heart rate and cardiac output
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. During a prolonged forced dive, vasoconstriction allows which cardiovascular
parameter(s) to remain unchanged?
a. Stroke volume
b. Blood pressure
c. Overall resistance to blood flow
d. Stroke volume and blood pressure
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26.–27. Refer to the figure below.
26. Which statement is supported by the data in the figure?
a. In freely diving seals, diving heart rate varies with dive duration in a graded manner.
b. In freely diving seals, the degree of bradycardia is proportional to dive duration.
c. In forcibly submerged seals, the degree of bradycardia is proportional to dive duration.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. In forcibly submerged seals, the degree of bradycardia is inversely proportional to dive
duration.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. Which value was most likely the resting pre-dive heart rate for the animals
represented in figure?
a. 60 beats/min
b. 50 beats/min
c. 10 beats/min
d. The answer is not shown on the y axis scale.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28.–29. Refer to the figure below.
28. The data in the figure represent _______ in fish removed from water.
a. ventilation rates
b. heart rates
c. metabolic rates
d. oxygen consumption
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
29. Suppose that the same parameter represented in the figure is measured in aquatic
animals that are moved from water to air and terrestrial animals that are moved from air
to water. In which animal would the change in the measured parameter be the smallest?
a. Weddell seal
b. Fish that regularly emerge into the air briefly, such as grunion and flying fish
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. Teleost fish
d. Humans
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
30.–31. Refer to the figure below.
30. Measurements of which body component(s) are shown in the figure?
a. Blood
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Muscle
c. Brain
d. Blood and muscle
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
31. Which statement regarding the data presented in the figure is true?
a. Blood circulation to muscle was significantly increased during the dives.
b. Oxygen supplies for the brain and myocardium remained low during the dives.
c. Muscles switch to anaerobic metabolism at some point during the dives.
d. Circulating blood oxygen continued to be made available from oxygen in muscle.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32.–33. Refer to the figure below.
32. What would be the best label for the x-axis in the graph?
a. Length of dive
b. Time after animal resurfaces
c. Duration of anaerobic tolerance
d. Time
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
33. Which statement regarding the data presented in the figure is the most accurate?
a. Blood concentration of lactic acid rises following a dive.
b. During a dive, lactic acid in the muscles increases dramatically.
c. During a dive, lactic acid is metabolized and eventually reaches undetectable levels.
d. Blood lactic acid and muscle lactic acid concentrations are typically mismatched
during and after dives.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
34. Metabolic limits on dive duration depend on which factor(s)?
a. O2 supplies
b. O2 supplies and O2 consumption
c. O2 consumption and tissue tolerance to lactic acid
d. O2 supplies, O2 consumption, and tissue tolerance to lactic acid
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
35. Refer to the figure below.
The data in the figure show that compared to nondiving mammals, diving mammals have
a. hearts that function more efficiently.
b. brains that tolerate hypoxia better.
c. muscles that remain active in the absence of oxygen longer.
d. a more functional nervous system.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
36. The metabolic rate in freely diving free-ranging Weddell seals is _______ the
metabolic rate of resting nondiving seals.
a. greater than
b. lower than
c. lower than or equal to
d. greater than or equal to
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
37. What is the primary stimulus for ventilation in diving mammals?
a. Low blood O2
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. High blood CO2
c. Low blood pH
d. High blood CO2 and low blood pH
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Following an extended dive, diving mammals require
a. a significant amount of time to fully metabolize the lactic acid.
b. access to air at the water’s surface and a significant amount of time to fully metabolize
the lactic acid.
c. an immediate shallow dive to metabolize accumulated lactic acid.
d. access to land in order to metabolize accumulated lactic acid.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39.–41. Refer to the figure below.
39. In the landmark 1980 study by Kooyman et al. that produced the data in this figure,
blood was collected from seals
a. via an implanted catheter during voluntary dives in the lab.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. via an implanted catheter during free diving in the wild.
c. following free diving in the wild.
d. following voluntary dives in the lab.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
40. According to the figure, approximately how long would it take an adult Weddell seal
to metabolize the lactic acid accumulated from a 1-hour dive?
a. 20 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. A little over 2 hours
d. Close to 6 hours
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. The data shown in the figure do not plot dives with durations longer than 80 minutes.
What is a possible explanation for this?
a. Sensors are not able to measure dives longer than 80 minutes.
b. Extremely long dives are rare because they require an extremely long recovery period.
c. Dives longer than 80 minutes would have skewed the data.
d. The species measured does not dive longer than 80 minutes.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
42. The aerobic dive limit (ADL) is the _______ dive that can be undertaken without a(n)
_______.
a. longest; net accumulation of lactic acid above resting level.
b. longest; accumulation of lactic acid.
c. deepest; accumulation of lactic acid.
d. longest; alteration of metabolic rate.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
43. According to a central hypothesis of diving physiology, it is adaptive for diving
mammals to keep their dives shorter than their species-specific aerobic dive limit (ADL)
because doing so maximizes _______ and minimizes _______.
a. time spent underwater; the time available for foraging
b. recovery time at the surface; the time spent underwater
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. the time available for foraging; exposure to predation
d. exposure to predation; the time available for foraging
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. In diving mammals, more than
a. 90% of dives are shorter than the ADL.
b. 75% of dives are shorter than the ADL.
c. 75% of dives are longer than the ADL.
d. 90% of dives are longer than the ADL.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
45. Diving mammals cannot reduce their metabolic rates while underwater by
a. allowing their tissue to cool.
b. postponing the digestion of food while diving.
c. developing a tolerance for lactic acid.
d. gliding instead of swimming continuously.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
46. Weddell seals employ which behavior(s) in order to reduce metabolic costs during a
dive?
a. Gliding alone
b. Alternation of stroking and gliding
c. Continuous stroking
d. Gliding and alternation of stroking and gliding
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
47. Decompression sickness occurs
a. in scuba divers who dive very deep.
b. when N2 is absorbed from a high pressure source.
c. when N2 comes out of solution in the blood.
d. when N2 is absent in the plasma.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
48. Decompression sickness may result in
a. bubbles of gas forming in the blood.
b. joint pain.
c. bubbles of gas forming in the blood and joint pain.
d. bubbles of gas forming in the blood, joint pain, and paralysis.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Diving mammals avoid decompression sickness
a. through increased solubility of N2 in blood plasma.
b. via alveolar collapse.
c. by binding excess N2 to hemoglobin.
d. by sequestering excess N2 in the spleen.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
50. Which are advantages of alveolar compression during a deep dive?
I) Prevention of N2 transfer into blood
II) Reserve of O2 for use on ascent
III) Prevention of CO2 transfer to lungs
a. II
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II, and III
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: A Possible Advantage for Pulmonary O2 Sequestration in Deep
Dives
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
Short Answer
1. Discuss how technology has advanced our knowledge of marine mammal diving
behavior. Provide an example.
Answer: Early studies of diving mammals were either observations of dive time of freeliving animals or observations carried out in giant pools. As technology advanced,
instruments could be attached to the animals to measure both duration and depth, but
these instruments were fairly primitive and had to be retrieved in order to collect the data.
Now, data can be radioed directly from free-living animals to satellite receivers and
retrieved from anywhere on the globe. For example, large amounts of data have been
collected about the migration routes of 30 northern elephant seals across the northern
Pacific Ocean.
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. In any given diving study, what are three important variables that one must know
before interpreting the data?
Answer: First, it is important to know whether the dives were voluntary or forced. It is
also important to know whether the dives were long or short relative to the speciesspecific maximum dive length, since we know now that qualitatively different suites of
responses are often used in long versus short dives. Finally, it is important to know the
pre-dive metabolic state of the animal–whether the animal was quiet or active.
Textbook Reference: Types of Dives and the Importance of Method
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. How was the original information on the diving reflex updated in studies performed
after the 1970s?
Answer: When animals were forcibly submerged (a routine procedure in diving
experiments before 1970), the adjustments in the pattern of blood flow and buildup of
lactic acid were predictable and thus labeled a diving reflex. However, as more and more
diving experiments were performed on voluntarily diving animals, researchers recognized
that the responses of the circulatory system were not as inflexible as once thought.
Animals can adjust their circulatory needs based on the length of the dive.
Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. What are the main O2 stores used during a dive? Are they similar across marine
mammal species?
Answer: The three main oxygen stores in diving mammals are blood oxygen in
hemoglobin, muscle myoglobin, and oxygen in air in the lungs. Not all species of diving
mammals use these oxygen stores similarly. Fur seals and sea lions tend to have much
smaller oxygen stores per unit of body mass, and this is perhaps reflected in the relatively
short durations of their dives. Species that dive deep and for long periods tend to have
more oxygen stores per unit of body mass, as well as a very large blood oxygen
component per unit of body mass.
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. How does vasoconstriction prolong a dive?
Answer: Vasoconstriction, if performed selectively, enables an animal to prolong a dive.
Blood must continue to flow (and thus deliver oxygen) to the brain, lungs, and
myocardium in order for the animal to continue to function. However, if vasoconstriction
reduces blood flow to limbs, skeletal muscles of the trunk, pectoral muscles, skin, and
visceral organs, then oxygen usage by those areas can be reduced and more oxygen is
available to the brain, lungs, and myocardium. The more oxygen that can be rerouted this
way, the longer the dive can be.
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
6. Is there a relationship between dive duration and bradycardia? If so, does it depend on
the type of dive performed?
Answer: In early studies of forced diving, the animals typically exhibited a massive
bradycardia that was almost immediate. There was no significant relationship between
any dive characteristic and the extent of the bradycardia. However, as more data about
voluntary dives was collected, it became clear that many species will adjust their
bradycardia depending on the length of the dive: the longer the dive, the more extensive
the bradycardia.
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
7. What are the factors that determine dive duration? Place them in order of significance.
Answer: The limits on dive duration have to do with metabolism. The most significant
requirement for a long dive is a very large oxygen supply. No matter what other
metabolic adjustments are employed, an animal without a significant supply of oxygen
will dive for only a relatively short period of time. In order to remain in an aerobic state
during a prolonged dive, some animals will reduce their metabolic demands, either
regionally or globally. However, while this prolongs the dive, it can affect the animal’s
ability to remain active while submerged. If all efforts to remain aerobic are exhausted,
lactic acid will be produced by anaerobic metabolism. If this situation occurs, the dive
may be prolonged further, depending on the animal’s ability to both produce lactic acid (a
signal that ATP is still being generated) and tolerate it.
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. Discuss the aerobic dive limit (ADL) and the adaptive significance of keeping dives
under this limit.
Answer: The aerobic dive limit (ADL) is the longest dive that can be undertaken without
a net accumulation of lactic acid above the resting level. Most diving physiologists agree
that it is advantageous for diving mammals to keep their dives under the ADL for their
species. By keeping their dives fully aerobic, they avoid lengthy recovery times to
metabolize lactic acid. Also, they can minimize their time at the surface and maximize
their time under water for foraging and to avoid predation.
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. What is decompression sickness and how do marine mammals avoid it?
Answer: Decompression sickness is a condition discovered in humans who scuba dive.
At great depths, the underwater pressure is significantly higher than the pressure at sea
level. The scuba tank and regulator must deliver air at a pressure that matches the high
pressure at a particular depth. This arrangement allows continued breathing, but it also
means that an unusually high N2 partial pressure is maintained in the lungs and also in the
body tissues, which gradually come to equilibrium with the lungs. If ascent to the surface
takes place too rapidly, nitrogen can come out of solution in the blood and form bubbles,
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a condition known as “the bends.” It is thought that diving mammals avoid this condition
by means of alveolar collapse, but this is an area that requires further research.
Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of sequestering O2 in the lungs during a deep
dive.
Answer: The disadvantage of an animal’s sequestering O2 in the lungs during a deep dive
is that it cannot be used as an O2 source during the dive. However, researchers have
postulated two possible advantages for sequestration. First, the physiological mechanism
of alveolar collapse causes the diffusion of nitrogen to be slowed or stopped, preventing
the possibility of decompression sickness upon the animal’s ascent. Second, deep dives
require a long period of ascent, which requires the use of oxygen. During the ascent, the
alveoli open and can slowly resume diffusion. This pulmonary O2 can be used as an O2
source during the long ascent.
Textbook Reference: A Possible Advantage for Pulmonary O2 Sequestration in Deep
Dives
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Dives by Weddell seals are mostly
a. short and shallow.
b. long and deep.
c. short and deep.
d. long and shallow.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. The deepest dives of Weddell seals are at a depth of about _______ m.
a. 300
b. 600
c. 900
d. 1,500
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Which animal is the deepest diver?
a. Weddell seal
b. Fur seal
c. Elephant seal
d. Crabeater seal
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
4. An animal’s maximum possible blood store of O2 is calculated by
a. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume and then
dividing by oxygen solubility.
b. dividing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume.
c. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume.
d. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume and
multiplying that product by animal mass.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. One the most consistent features of diving species of mammals is that, relative to
terrestrial species, they have
a. very high myoglobin concentration in their skeletal muscle.
b. very high myoglobin concentrations in their visceral organs.
c. very high hemoglobin concentrations.
d. high blood volumes.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. In diving mammals, the thorax
a. is rigid in order to prevent compression during dives.
b. can be either rigid or compressible during dives, depending on the species.
c. only compresses at depths beyond 1500 m.
d. is freely compressible during dives.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Which oxygen store (per kg) is significantly larger in true (phocid) seals, such as the
Weddell seal, compared to a human?
a. O2 bound to myoglobin
b. O2 bound to hemoglobin
c. O2 in the lungs
d. O2 bound to myoglobin and O2 bound to hemoglobin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
8. Which oxygen storage compartment tends to be the largest in diving mammals?
a. Lungs
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Myoglobin
c. Blood
d. Interstitial fluids
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. The predicted dive time of a Weddell seal based on calculations of its oxygen stores is
likely to be _______ the actual maximal dive times measured in the field.
a. shorter than
b. longer than
c. about the same length as
d. exactly half
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Which statement regarding circulation and diving is false?
a. Regional vasoconstriction occurs during a forced dive.
b. During an episode of regional vasoconstriction, flow to parts of the brain is cut off or
severely restricted.
c. Regional vasoconstriction occurs during a prolonged dive.
d. During an episode of regional vasoconstriction, flow to parts of the body posterior to
the heart is cut off or severely restricted.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
11. Because of a regional vasoconstriction during a prolonged dive, the heart responds
with a reduction in
a. pressure.
b. cardiac output.
c. heart rate.
d. cardiac output and heart rate.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. In freely diving marine mammals, heart rate
a. does not change with dive duration.
b. increases in a graded manner with dive duration.
c. decreases immediately after a dive and then becomes independent of dive duration.
d. decreases in a graded manner with dive duration.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
13. Fish removed from water are likely to exhibit
a. slight bradycardia.
b. profound bradycardia.
c. slight tachycardia.
d. profound tachycardia.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. During forced submergence, harbor seals deplete O2 in their _______, while O2 levels
in their _______ remain high.
a. lungs; blood
b. blood; muscles
c. muscles; blood
d. lungs; muscles
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
15. Following a 45-minute dive by a Weddell seal, circulating levels of lactic acid would
likely fall to pre-dive levels after about
a. 20 minutes.
b. 70 minutes.
c. 2 hours.
d. 4 hours.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. Metabolic limits on dive duration are determined by all of the following except
a. O2 stores.
b. rates of O2 use.
c. lactic acid production.
d. lactic acid clearance.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. During a voluntary dive, a Weddell seal’s metabolic rate is _______ that of a resting
seal on land.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. similar to
d. extremely variable compared to
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
18. During a dive, blood pH tends to _______ due to an increase in _______.
a. increase; lactic acid
b. increase; CO2 and lactic acid
c. decrease; CO2 and lactic acid
d. decrease; lactic acid
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. The longest dive that can be undertaken without a net accumulation of lactic acid
above resting level is called the
a. aerobic dive limit.
b. anaerobic threshold.
c. anaerobic diving limit.
d. aerobic dive scope.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for
Understanding Diving Behavior
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. What is the primary cause of decompression sickness?
a. An imbalance of CO2 caused by surfacing too quickly
b. Distention of lung tissue from rapid loss of pressure
c. Formation of O2 bubbles in the blood
d. Formation of N2 bubbles in the blood
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 30: Water, Salts, and Excretion AT WORK:
Mammals of Deserts and Dry Savannas
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Oryxes are
a. small herbivores.
b. small omnivores.
c. large omnivores.
d. large herbivores.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Introduction
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Deserts and semi-deserts cover about _______ of the land on Earth.
a. one-sixth
b. a quarter
c. a third
d. half
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Deserts receive less than _______ cm of precipitation per year.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Deserts and savannas affect biological life by
a. presenting challenges for animals, but not plants.
b. presenting challenges for plants, but not animals.
c. presenting challenges for plants and animals.
d. creating an environment that does not support life.
Answer: c
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. The dominant controlling factor of biological processes in dry savannas is
a. the air.
b. water.
c. the sun.
d. the sand.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
6. Which of the following does not occur in the Serengeti plains of East Africa?
a. Lack of rainfall for 4–6 months at a time
b. The drying of streams
c. Prolonged period during which soils are extremely wet
d. Dry, brown grass
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7. The principal reason deserts and savannas exist is
a. to balance out wetter areas of Earth.
b. because of the global pattern of air movements.
c. because of evaporation of water, which forms rain.
d. because of rain-shadowing caused by rivers.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Near Los Angeles, the coastal mountains force the prevailing winds blowing _______
from the Pacific Ocean to _______, causing mountain rain.
a. west; fall
b. east; rise
c. south; rise
d. north; fall
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
9. Scientists predict that the southern regions of Europe are likely to become _______ in
the future.
a. less dry
b. drier
c. colder
d. more temperate
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ have the most behavioral
advantages.
a. 500 g
b. 100 kg
c. 200 kg
d. 300 kg
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
11. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ have the fewest behavioral
advantages.
a. 200 g
b. 400 g
c. 500 g
d. 2 kg
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ face the heat most directly,
thereby generating high heat stress.
a. 200 g
b. 250 g
c. 300 g
d. 40 kg
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. In the desert heat, animals that are _______ have the best chance at survival
(assuming no shelter is available).
a. small with relatively high surface area for their size
b. small with relatively low surface area for their size
c. large with relatively high surface area for their size
d. large with relatively low surface area for their size
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
14. Which animal has the most body-surface area per unit of weight?
a. Squirrel
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. Mouse
c. Dog
d. Horse
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
15. Environmental heat enters an animal’s body when
a. the air temperature is lower than the body temperature.
b. the air temperature is higher than the body temperature.
c. the air temperature is equal to the body temperature.
d. there is enough water available in the environment.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. A large desert mammal regulates its temperature to maintain a constant body
temperature. When the air temperature is higher than the body temperature, the animal’s
evaporation rate will
a. create an unfavorable physiological condition.
b. be lower per unit of weight than for a smaller mammal.
c. decrease.
d. decrease first and then remain constant.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
17. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate?
a. Horse
b. Mouse
c. Kangaroo rat
d. Dog
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
18. Which animal’s core temperature will be affected most by an exogenous heat load?
a. Small with relatively high surface area for their size
b. Small with relatively low surface area for their size
c. Large with relatively high surface area for their size
d. Large with relatively low surface area for their size
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
19. Which animal has the highest rate of endogenous heat production per unit of body
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
weight?
a. Horse
b. Human
c. Kangaroo rat
d. Dog
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. Which animal has the greatest capacity to void both exogenous and endogenous heat
from its body through evaporation?
a. Mouse
b. Rat
c. Horse
d. Dog
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. In small desert mammals, the water cost of being active in the daytime soars due to
a. the fact that they often hide in burrows to escape the heat rather than seek water.
b. the percentage of body weight lost per hour via evaporative thermoregulation.
c. their relatively small body-surface area per unit of weight.
d. their low metabolic rate.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
22. Which animal has the highest mass-specific evaporative water loss?
a. Monkey
b. Squirrel
c. Lion
d. Elephant
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
23. Which animal has the highest weight-specific water costs to void endogenously
produced heat?
a. Squirrel
b. Monkey
c. Lion
d. Elephant
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
24. For most animals, dehydration becomes lethal under hot conditions when _______ or
more of total body weight has been lost.
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 8%
d. 12%
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
25. If a dog, a human, a kangaroo rat, and a horse set out walking in a hot desert during
the hottest part of the day, which animal would die first?
a. Dog
b. Human
c. Kangaroo rat
d. Horse
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
26. Which animal would have the least chance of finding food sources in distant
locations?
a. Grant’s gazelle
b. Zebra
c. Common eland
d. Dwarf antelope
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
27. The species that can travel furthest from standing water because they are drinkingwater-independent is the
a. dwarf antelope.
b. wildebeest.
c. zebra.
d. kangaroo rat.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. An organism meets 30% of its water needs from metabolic water; the rest of its water
needs are met
a. from preformed water.
b. by drinking.
c. by eating plants.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. from preformed water and by drinking.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
29. Why does water in deserts and dry savannas often become salty?
a. Salt dissolves from the soil.
b. The rain carries a trace of salt.
c. Salt collects from dead organisms.
d. Salt dissolves from the soil and is collect from rain.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. To maximize water intake, an animal living in dry savannas should eat leaves
a. just before dawn.
b. at noon.
c. in the afternoon.
d. in the evening.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. The ambient humidity in deserts is highest
a. at pre-dawn.
b. in the morning.
c. in the afternoon.
d. at night.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
32. Which species is considered a drinking-water- dependent herbivore?
a. Wildebeest
b. Eland
c. Zebra
d. Wildebeest and Zebra
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
33. Which species does not migrate?
a. Grant’s gazelle
b. Wildbeest
c. Thompson’s gazelle
d. Zebra
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
34. Which species is not drinking-water-independent?
a. Oryx
b. Eland
c. Wildebeest
d. Grant’s gazelle
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
35.–37. Refer to the figure below.
35. Which would be the most accurate y axis label for both figures?
a. Water loss (L/kg·day)
b. Water gain (L/kg·day)
c. Water flux (L/kg·day)
d. Metabolic water (L/kg·day)
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. Which panel shows evaporative water loss under near-desert temperatures?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. In which panel does the Wildebeest appear to be most dependent on preformed
water?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
38.–39. Refer to the figure below.
38. What do the two lines in this figure represent?
a. Species of perennial grasses
b. Species of drinking-water- dependent herbivores
c. Species of drinking-water- independent herbivores
d. Species of desert insects
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
39. Which statement about Arabian Oryxes is false?
a. The more they acclimate, the lower their respiratory surface area.
b. The more they acclimate, the more water they conserve.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. The more they acclimate, the less their total rate of evaporative water loss.
d. They turnover water at a rate one-quarter to that of other free living mammals their
size.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. If an Arabian oryx’s urine osmolarity is 240 mOsm and the U/P ratio is 8, its plasma
osmolarity would be _______ mOsm.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 240
d. 1920
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. If an Arabian oryx’s plasma osmolarity is 200 mOsm, its maximum urine osmolarity
would be _______ mOsm.
a. 200
b. 800
c. 1600
d. 3200
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. The osmotic U/P ratio for a dik-dik is about
a. 5.
b. 8.
c. 10.
d. 12.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
43. Among the animals listed, the species with the lowest peak urine osmotic pressure is
the
a. African buffalo.
b. Somali donkey.
c. Arabian oryx.
d. dromedary camel.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
44. On a summer day, oryxes exhibit the highest average body temperature at
a. midnight.
b. 6:00 AM.
c. noon.
d. 6:00 PM.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
45. Oryxes living in deserts or savannas raise their body temperature to
a. release heat.
b. absorb heat.
c. store heat.
d. evaporate excess heat.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
46. In an oryx living in a dry savanna, the amount of water saved per day as a result of a
cycling body temperature as opposed to a constant one is
a. 0.1 L.
b. 0.2 L.
c. 0.3 L.
d. 1.0 L.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
47. It has been shown that oryxes can survive without drinking water for
a. days.
b. weeks.
c. months.
d. years.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
48. The highest recorded rectal temperature in a vertebrate is
a. 38.5°C.
b. 43°C.
c. 46.5°C.
d. 49°C.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
49. Based on studies of recently dead animals, oryxes exposed to severe drought in their
natural habitat seem to die mostly of
a. predation.
b. dehydration.
c. hyponatremia.
d. severe nutritional deficiency.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
50. Which characteristic is unique to the sand gazelle, compared to other desert-dwelling
herbivores?
a. Its very low evaporative water loss
b. It never drinks
c. It uses its bladder for water storage
d. It has the highest variation in body core temperature cycling
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
51. The strategy that conserves the most water in large herbivores is
a. cessation of urination.
b. cycling body core temperature.
c. shedding fur.
d. lowering brain energy consumption.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
52.–53. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
52. The y axis is most likely measuring
a. urine concentration.
b. body temperature.
c. insulation thickness.
d. metabolic rate.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
53. The most accurate description of the results in the figures is
a. gazelles cycle their metabolic rate more in summer than in winter.
b. oryxes have less consistent body water content in winter than in summer.
c. gazelles have more variable urine concentrations in winter than in summer.
d. oryxes have more variable body temperatures in summer than in winter.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. According to most biologists, what is the proper definition of a desert?
Answer: A desert is a place where precipitation is so low that the availability of water
exerts a dominant controlling effect on biological processes. In deserts, rain comes
infrequently.
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Deserts and savannas have extreme conditions. Explain why these conditions exist.
Answer: One of the most important causes of desert conditions on a planetary scale is the
global pattern of air movements. Air warmed at the equator rises to high altitudes,
displacing air at those altitudes which then descends somewhere else. Air at high altitudes
contains little moisture, even when saturated with water vapor. Thus, in regions where
high-altitude air consistently tends to fall to low altitude, the land can become parched.
Another cause of desert or savanna conditions is rain-shadowing caused by highlands,
which push the winds up so that moisture condenses and falls before it can reach the
leeward side of the highlands, leaving a dry savanna “shadow.” Thus, water that is put
into the system is regularly lost to evaporation and only replenished in an unpredictable
fashion.
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. Describe the advantages and disadvantages that large mammals living in hot deserts
and dry savannas have over small mammals in the same environment.
Answer: Most apparent disadvantages of large size are behavioral. Large mammals
cannot take shelter underground by digging burrows. In hot environments, large
mammals confront the heat more directly, and the heat stress they experience can place
demands on their water resources. In contrast to the behavioral limitations they face,
large mammals are often in a distinctly more favorable physiological position because of
their ability to regulate body temperature. In addition, because large mammals have
relatively little body-surface area per unit of weight, they tend to experience less heat
entry per unit of weight over a period of time than small mammals do. Thus their water
costs to void the incoming heat are lower per unit of weight.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Describe the advantages and disadvantages that small mammals living in hot deserts
and dry savannas have over large mammals in the same environment.
Answer: Many of the most apparent advantages of small size are behavioral. Small
mammals can take shelter underground by digging burrows, and they are more likely to
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
find adequate shade or other protective microhabitats on the surface of the ground.
Therefore, small mammals confront the heat less directly, and the heat stress they
experience may not place much demand on their water resources. However, small
mammals are often in a distinctly less favorable physiological position because their rate
of endogenous heat production is relatively high and their weight-specific water costs to
void this heat are also high. Small mammals also have a larger body-surface area per unit
of weight, so they gain heat at a higher rate per unit of weight than larger mammals.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Endothermic animals that live in hot climates regulate their body heat. Where is the
heat coming from and how do they regulate it? Does the size of the animal play a role in
thermoregulation?
Answer: Endothermic animals in hot climates use evaporative cooling when confronted
with stressfully hot conditions. For an animal to thermoregulate, it must evaporate water
from its body not only to void the exogenous heat that enters its body from the hot
environment but also the endogenous heat produced by its own metabolism. Large body
size is an advantage for evaporative cooling since large animals lose less water per unit
mass due to evaporation. Large animals also gain heat much more slowly in direct
sunlight compared to smaller animals. In addition, large animals that are able to increase
their body temperature during the day and reduce it at night (temporal heterothermy) are
able to save substantial amounts of water normally lost in cooling the body.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. D. B. Dill was a pioneer in the study of exercise and heat. Describe his experiments
and explain the results.
Answer: D. B. Dill studied the physiological advantages of large size. In the 1930s, he
undertook the famous “walks in the desert” that provided the very first quantitative
information on the water costs of mammalian exercise under hot conditions. Acting as
one of the subjects, he took dogs and burros along with him in the Nevada desert,
sweating or panting to thermoregulate. As they walked, Dill measured their rates of
dehydration. Later, Dill and collaborators gathered more data of a similar sort on burros
and high-school students. He showed an inverse relationship between body size and rate
of evaporative water loss (grams of water lost per 100 g of body weight per hour).
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. In an experiment to study water budgets, the drinking-water-dependent common
wildebeest and the drinking-water-independent beisa oryx were studied under two sets of
conditions. Explain the results of this experiment.
Answer: Physiologically, the two species are dramatically different. The results reveal
that the drinking-water-dependent wildebeest has a far greater total water need, and a far
greater need for preformed water, than the drinking-water-independent oryx when both
species are studied side by side under identical conditions.
A second major insight revealed by the results is that the oryx requires considerable
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
quantities of preformed water (it takes in water that is found in food) to stay in water
balance. Metabolic water met only about 20% of the oryx’s total water need under both
sets of conditions. Preformed water, therefore, had to meet about 80% of its need.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. All species of large herbivores obtain a considerable amount of preformed water but
some require more than others. Explain how different groups of these mammals maintain
their water budget.
Answer: Drinking-water-dependent species cannot get all the preformed water they need
from their foods, either because they need more preformed water than available foods can
provide or because they are ineffective in selecting and processing foods to maximize
their acquisition of preformed water. Therefore, they have to drink each day for their total
intake of preformed water to be adequate.
Drinking-water-independent species can get from their foods all the preformed water they
need to stay healthy for many days in a row. They do not require drinking water very
often.
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. What are the mechanisms by which oryxes achieve exceptional water conservation and
low water turnover rates?
Answer: The kidneys of Arabian oryxes can concentrate urine to an osmotic urine-toplasma (U/P) ratio of about 8—a high value for mammals of their size. Free-living
Arabian oryxes lower their metabolic rates in summer to be only half as high as in winter.
They modify their behavior, remaining inactive and in the shade during the heat of the
day when under water stress. Reproduction is curtailed during drought. They modulate
body temperature in ways that minimize the use of water for thermoregulation (e.g., via
evaporative cooling).
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. List the strategies dromedary camels employ to conserve water.
Answer: They produce dry feces and concentrated urine.
They curtail their urine production rapidly when faced with dehydration.
They have thick fur that shields heat.
They minimize heat influx behaviorally by facing into the sun when resting in order to
narrow their body profile to the sun’s direct rays.
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Dry savannas are
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. forests.
b. deserts.
c. similar to deserts but not identical.
d. similar to forests but not identical.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which is a characteristic of the Serengeti plains of East Africa?
a. A one-month dry season
b. Four to six months without rain
c. The grass turns crisp and green
d. The absence of streams
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
3. A mammal living in dry savannas and deserts that weighs _______ would have the
least weight-specific water cost to void endogenously produced heat.
a. 20 g
b. 200 g
c. 300 g
d. 350 kg
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
4. Which animal has the least body-surface area per unit of weight?
a. Mouse
b. Rat
c. Dog
d. Horse
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. Which mammal has the highest weight-specific metabolic rate?
a. Horse
b. Kangaroo rat
c. Human
d. Dog
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. A mammal living in dry savannas and deserts that weighs _______ has the least
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
physiological advantage.
a. 100 g
b. 20 kg
c. 50 kg
d. 100 kg
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Which animal has the greatest rate of evaporation relative to its body size?
a. Squirrel
b. Dog
c. Mouse
d. Horse
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. In the Serengeti, there is a gradient of _______ moisture and _______ aridity from the
northwest to the _______.
a. increasing; increasing; southeast
b. decreasing; increasing; southeast
c. decreasing; decreasing; southwest
d. decreasing; increasing; southwest
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Some scientists believe that one of the reasons herds of wildebeest migrate, leaving the
southeast Serengeti ecosystem at the end of the rainy season, is the change in
a. heat.
b. water pH.
c. drinking water salinity.
d. food resources.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
10. At 25°C, about _______% of a kangaroo rat’s water needs are met by _______.
a. 70; water intake
b. 90; metabolic water
c. 80; metabolic water
d. 80; water intake
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
11. Oryxes are _______; they get their preformed water _______.
a. water independent; by drinking
b. water independent; in food
c. water dependent; by drinking
d. water dependent; in food
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Which statement regarding large, drinking-water dependent herbivores is true?
a. The majority of their water needs are met from metabolic processes.
b. They sometimes transition to drinking-water independent.
c. Most exhibit extreme fluctuations in body core temperature.
d. Some migrate to places where rain is falling.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
13. The best time to feed on leaves is
a. predawn.
b. morning.
c. evening.
d. midnight.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. In the Kalahari ecosystem, which month is the best to find grass with high protein
content?
a. January
b. April
c. August
d. November
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. Which statement about the Arabian oryx is true?
a. They have a U/P ratio of 12.
b. They are extinct.
c. They can store heat during hot days.
d. They have abundant water available throughout the year.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
16. In winter, at what time do Arabian oryxes exhibit the highest average body
temperature?
a. Midnight
b. 6:00 AM
c. Noon
d. 6:00 PM
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
17. On a summer day, the Arabian oryx’s body temperature at 6:00 PM could be as high
as _______°C.
a. 38
b. 40
c. 45
d. 49
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. Oryxes eat leaves that are firm but not juicy; they contain about _______% water.
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 75
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
19. Which statement about camels is false?
a. Their rumen contains more water than other any other ruminants’ rumen.
b. Their hump fat costs water to oxidize.
c. They drink only to make up for prior water loss.
d. They have an extraordinary ability to survive in deserts for long periods without
drinking.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
20. Which of the following is not employed as a water conservation strategy in
dromedaries?
a. They produce dry feces.
b. They produce concentrated urine.
c. They minimize heat influx behaviorally.
d. They metabolize their fat stores.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 25: Circulation
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which is the correct sequence of blood movement through the human heart?
a. Vena cavae → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein →
right atrium → right ventricle → aorta
b. Vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein
→ left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
c. Vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmonary artery
→ left atrium → left ventricle → aorta
d. Aorta → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein → right
atrium → right ventricle → vena cavae
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
2.‒5. Refer to the figure below:
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
2. Which area(s) contain oxygenated blood?
a. I, II, and III
b. IV and V
c. IV only
d. III only
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. Which area refers to the pulmonary artery?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
4. How many labeled areas refer to arteries?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. 5
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. What is the order of blood flow?
a. I → II → III → IV → V
b. I → V → IV → III → II
c. I → III → IV → V → II
d. IV → V → I → III → II
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
6. Which statement regarding cardiac output is true?
a. It is independent of stroke volume.
b. It is the product of heart rate and stroke volume.
c. It is the heart rate divided by stroke volume.
d. It is the product of heart rate and blood pressure.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
7.‒8. Refer to the figure below.
7. Which region represents the isovolumetric contraction portion of the heart cycle?
a. I
b. II
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
8. Which region represents the ventricular filling portion of the heart cycle?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. The myocardium of tunas is
a. composed of an outer compact layer with coronary vessels and an inner spongy layer.
b. spongy, with little or no development of coronary vessels.
c. compact, with coronary arteries and veins.
d. a mixed structure, with blood flowing from lumen into coronary veins.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Most crustaceans have _______ hearts.
a. myogenic
b. neurogenic
c. hemogenic
d. noninnervated
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
11. The ________ prevents the initial depolarization at the S-A node from spreading
across the heart from the atria through the ventricles and ending at the tip of the septum.
a. S-A node
b. connective tissue between the atria and ventricles
c. interventricular septum
d. bundle of Purkinje fibers
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. The pacemaker of a lobster heart is composed of
a. specialized myocardium that functions in a manner similar to the S-A node.
b. specialized myocardium that functions as a central pattern generator.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. a series of neurons connected to and controlled by the brain.
d. a posterior cardiac neuron that functions as a cellular oscillator and central pattern
generator.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
13. The P wave of the EKG is produced by the
a. contraction of the atria.
b. contraction of the ventricles.
c. depolarization of the atria.
d. repolarization of the atria.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. Which statement describes the Frank-Starling mechanism?
a. An increase in the filling time of the ventricles increases the contraction pressure.
b. Increasing flow from the heart increases arterial pressure.
c. Increasing pressure in the heart increases outflow.
d. Stretching of the cardiac muscle increases the force of its contraction at the cellular
level.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
15. The mean pressure in the systemic aorta in a healthy human is about _______ mm
Hg.
a. 120
b. 95
c. 75
d. 50
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. A tall human with normal blood pressure standing upright would be expected to have
a pressure of about_________ mm Hg in the leg artery, measured 130 cm below the
heart.
a. 95
b. 120
c. 150
d. 195
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
17. According to the Poiseuille equation, which of the following does not directly affect
flow rate?
a. Temperature of the tube
b. Viscosity of the fluid
c. Radius of the lumen of the tube
d. Pressure at the entry of the tube
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
18. Halving the radius of a vessel _______ the resistance to flow through the vessel by a
factor of _______.
a. decreases; 4
b. decreases; 16
c. increases; 4
d. increases; 16
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. The most important factor modifying flow in blood vessels is the
a. pressure in the vessel.
b. diameter of the vessel.
c. viscosity of fluid in the vessel.
d. length of the vessel.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. The reason why blood capillaries can be exceedingly thin-walled and yet resist
substantial pressures can be explained by
a. Laplace’s law.
b. Poiseuille’s equation.
c. Hagen’s equation.
d. Fick’s law.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
21. Which statement regarding microcirculatory beds is true?
a. Smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles are responsible for vasoconstriction and
vasodilation.
b. Anastomoses are the one possible path from an arteriole to a venule.
c. The walls of capillaries consist of vascular endothelium and a smooth muscle layer.
d. Venules and arterioles are the preeminent sites of O2 and water exchange.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
22.–24. Refer to the figure below.
22. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the highest pressure?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
23. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the lowest mean blood
velocity?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
24. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the highest vascular
resistance?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
25.–26. Refer to the figure below.
25. In section I, fluid is _______ the capillary due to _______.
a. leaking out of; hydrostatic pressure
b. leaking out of; colloid osmotic pressure
c. moving into; hydrostatic pressure
d. moving into; colloid osmotic pressure
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
26. The figure depicts the _______ hypothesis: the initial loss and then regaining of fluid
in the capillaries that results, overall, in a net _______ of fluid.
a. Frank‒Starling; loss
b. Starling‒Landis; loss
c. Frank‒Landis; gain
d. Poiseuille; gain
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
27. The main difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit is that the
pulmonary circuit
a. has a higher resistance.
b. produces lower pressures.
c. produces lower flows.
d. has a lower cardiac output.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
28. Which of the following best describes the contractile properties of the heart of the
elasmobranch fish?
a. There are four chambers, however only the atria and ventricle contract.
b. There are only two chambers, an atria and a ventricle, and they both contract.
c. There are four chambers, and three contract.
d. There are four chambers, and all four contract.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. Which characteristic is typical of teleost cardiovascular systems?
a. The heart receives oxygenated blood flowing from the gills.
b. Cardiac outputs are lower than those of similar-sized mammals.
c. Blood pressure increases significantly as blood passes through the gills.
d. Arterial pressures are higher than those of similar-sized mammals.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30.‒31. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
30. From where do vessels branch off to supply the head and gut with oxygenated blood?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. When an air-breathing organ at the mouth is integrated into the circulation depicted in
the figure, a new circulation loop is created connecting
a. I to III.
b. II to III.
c. I to IV.
d. III to IV.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32. In fish that have an air-breathing organ (ABO), the blood
a. leaving the ABO mixes with systemic and venous blood.
b. leaving the ABO mixes with blood leaving the gills.
c. enters the ABO following the exit from the gills.
d. leaving the ABO enters the gills.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
33. Which statement describes a characteristic not found in the African lungfish
Protopterus?
a. The ventral aorta is extremely long and branched.
b. The atrium and the ventricles are partially divided into left and right halves by septa.
c. The conus arteriosis has longitudinal ridges that divide the lumen into two channels.
d. The four pairs of branchial arteries arise immediately from the conus arteriosus.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
34.–36. Refer to the figure below.
34. Which plan represents the mammalian circulatory system?
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
35. Of the six circulatory plans above, how many partially or completely separate
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart?
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. Which circulatory plan allows the animals to modulate blood flow to the lungs
independently of blood flow to the rest of the body?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. II and V
b. II, IV, and V
c. I, III, and IV
d. I, IV, and V
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. Which animal does not modulate blood flow to the lungs independently of blood flow
to the rest of the body?
a. Lungfish
b. Amphibians
c. Crocodilians
d. Birds
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Which structure aids crocodilians in diverting blood flow during diving?
a. Foramen ovale
b. Foramen of Panizza
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Pulmonary artery
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
39. The _______ circulatory system of squids and octopuses consist of two _______.
a. open; branchial hearts and one systemic heart
b. open; systemic hearts and one branchial heart
c. closed; systemic hearts and one branchial heart
d. closed; branchial hearts and one systemic heart
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40.‒42. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
40. This circulatory plan belongs to which group of animals?
a. Decapod crustaceans
b. Invertebrates
c. Fish
d. Cephalopod molluscs
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
41. The most oxygenated blood would be found just exiting the structure(s) at
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
42. According to the diagram, the highest blood pressure would be found just exiting the
structure(s) at
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
43. A squid meets the increased demand for O2 at the tissues during intense exercise by
a. increasing its circulation rate.
b. pulling more O2 from the blood.
c. both increasing circulation rate and pulling more O2 from the blood.
d. making use of anaerobic metabolism only.
Answer: a
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. If a squid and a fish both double cardiac output during exercise, circulatory oxygen
delivery to the tissues in _______ will _______.
a. both animals; remain the same
b. both animals; double
c. the fish; be higher than in the squid
d. the squid; be higher than in the fish
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
45. Small spaces among cells of nonvascular organs and tissues are called
a. lacunae.
b. sinuses.
c. ostia.
d. interstitia.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. Which statement regarding the lobster circulatory system is false?
a. Hemolymph returns through holes in the heart called ostia.
b. All vessels connected to the heart are arteries.
c. The primary force that refills the heart is elastic rebound.
d. There is a clear distinction between blood and interstitial fluid.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47.‒49. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
47. This circulatory plan belongs to which group of animals?
a. Cephalopod molluscs
b. Invertebrates
c. Fish
d. Decapod crustaceans
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
48. The most oxygenated blood would be found
a. at I.
b. just exiting the structure at II.
c. at III.
d. just exiting the structure at V.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
49. The wavy boundaries at I and III represent the
a. lack of vessels in the systemic tissues.
b. gills.
c. venous system.
d. branchio-pericardial sinuses.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. The blood circulation of crustaceans is _______ than that of fish primarily because of
_______.
a. faster; lower resistance
b. faster; higher pressure
c. slower; lower pressure
d. slower; higher resistance
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
Short Answer
1. Describe the four systems that have evolved in animals to supply O2 to the
myocardium and name the main animal groups that use each one.
Answer: The myocardium is sometimes supplied with O2 by blood flowing through a
coronary circulation system, and sometimes it is supplied by blood flowing through the
heart lumen. The compact myocardium of mammals and birds is supplied by coronary
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
arteries and veins. The fully spongy myocardium characteristic of most teleost fish is
oxygenated mostly by luminal blood. In salmonids, tunas, and sharks, the ventricular
myocardium consists of an outer compact layer with a coronary circulation and an inner
spongy layer. In some octopuses, blood flows from the lumen through the myocardium
and into the coronary veins.
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Compare and contrast the myogenic and neurogenic heart.
Answer: In the myogenic heart the initial electrical impulse originates in modified muscle
cells, whereas in the neurogenic heart each impulse to contract originates in neurons. This
difference is independent of the fact that most hearts are innervated to modulate heart
rate.
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Why does the depolarization wave not travel across the mammalian heart from anterior
to posterior (atria to ventricles) in a linear wave?
Answer: The depolarization wave emanating from the S-A node in the mammalian heart
does not travel in a linear fashion from anterior to posterior because of the presence of
connective tissue insulation as well as specialized muscle cells forming a conducting
system. The fibrous connective tissue separating the atria from the ventricles prevents the
depolarization wave from spreading immediately across to the ventricles. Instead, the
atrioventricular bundle transmits the depolarization down the bundle branches and to the
Purkinje fibers. This allows the depolarization to travel from the tip of the ventricles up to
the base so the contraction can effectively propel the blood through the main arteries.
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Explain, according to the physics of fluid-column effects, why a vascular foot injury
needs to be elevated as much and as long as possible.
Answer: Because the vessels in the mammalian circulatory system follow the physics of
fluid column effects, the pressure of the fluid at the bottom of the column will increase as
the height of the column increases. Therefore, a standing person will have a much higher
mean arterial pressure in the lower leg compared to at the heart. For a foot injury that
may be bleeding, the pressure must be lowered to reduce the damage. Direct pressure
helps, but elevating the foot above the heart will substantially lower the internal pressure
and reduce bleeding.
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
5. How is vascular resistance related to the Poiseuille equation?
Answer: Although there is no direct value for resistance in the Poiseuille equation, it is
separated out in this equation. Since flow rate equals the pressure difference divided by
the resistance, and the Poiseuille equation also calculates flow rate, the resistance can be
calculated to equal 8ηl/πr4.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Describe and explain the linear velocity profile of red blood cells as they travel from
the heart through the systemic tissues and back.
Answer: As red blood cells leave the heart, their velocity is at the highest in the
circulatory cycle. As the blood proceeds through the arterioles, the velocity drops off
dramatically because the resistance to flow increases. At the capillaries, the resistance is
at its highest, and therefore the velocity is at its lowest. Interestingly, as the resistance
decreases in the venous vessels, the velocity increases as the blood returns to the heart.
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. Describe how an air-breathing organ is integrated into the circulatory plan of fish and
how this physiology relates to the oxygenation of the fish myocardium.
Answer: One of the limitations of the fish circulatory plan is that the blood returning to
the heart from the systemic tissues may be fairly deoxygenated, especially during
exercise or in hypoxic water. Air-breathing organs likely evolved to enhance the
oxygenation of the blood to the myocardium. Therefore, both common variations of
parallel ABO circulation (whether the originating split-off is before or after the gills)
merge back into the main circulation before returning to the heart. Although this welloxygenated blood will mix with postsystemic deoxygenated blood, the extra oxygen will
maintain the function of the myocardium under exercise or hypoxic conditions.
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. Explain how some animals modulate blood flow to their lungs independently of flow
to the rest of the body and what the advantages are to this arrangement.
Answer: When animals have an incomplete separation between the pulmonary and
systemic circulatory loops in the area of the heart, they are able (through changes in
resistance) to alter flow at the lungs independently of flow to the rest of the body. This is
important during extended breath-holding or diving in these animals, which include
lungfish, amphibians, lizards, snakes, and turtles. If air in the lungs is depleted of oxygen,
there is little change to oxygenate blood, so flow is reduced. In contrast, after a long bout
of apnea, blood flow to the lungs can be increased as fresh air circulates in the lungs.
Therefore, this modulation can achieve, to some degree, a ventilation-perfusion match.
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Compare and contrast the mammalian and cephalopod circulatory systems.
Answer: The mammalian and cephalopod circulatory systems are both closed and
therefore generate a significant amount of pressure. The pulmonary and systemic systems
of mammals and cephalopods are both in series, but they are separated anatomically in
the cephalopods by the existence of two branchial hearts located just before the gills. The
systemic heart of the cephalopods and the mammalian heart are both myogenic.
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Defend or refute this statement: “Blood flow through open systems is sluggish
because of the relatively low-pressure gradients in open circulatory systems.”
Answer: Many descriptions of open circulatory systems focus on the low pressure nature
of the system. When we think of low pressure, we often associate this with low flow.
While this is true in many cases, it is not true for many open circulatory systems,
including those of the crustaceans. By lowering the resistance to flow dramatically, the
low-pressure open circulatory system can generate incredibly rapid flow rates. The blood
circulation of crustaceans, in fact, is three times faster than that of fish!
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In the human heart, oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the heart by the
a. vena cava.
b. aorta.
c. pulmonary veins.
d. pulmonary arteries.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. Cardiac output is directly proportional to
a. heart rate.
b. stroke volume.
c. blood pressure.
d. both heart rate and stroke volume.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
3. The hearts of vertebrates are myogenic, meaning that
a. neurons control the inherent pace of the heart.
b. the myocardium is compact and therefore has a coronary circulation.
c. the impulse to contract originates within the muscle tissue.
d. there is a cardiac conduction system.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. The QRS complex arises from ventricular
a. depolarization.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. contraction.
c. repolarization.
d. diastole.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Hearts
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
5. Mean blood pressure in the brain of a standing person is _______ the blood pressure at
the heart.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. exactly the same as
d. approximately the same as
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. Which property has the greatest effect on the flow of liquid through a tube?
a. Pressure difference
b. Viscosity of the liquid
c. Length of the tube
d. Radius of the tube
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
7. Flow rate equals the difference in blood pressure between the entry of the vascular
system and the exit vessels, divided by
a. the viscosity.
b. vascular resistance.
c. the viscosity multiplied by radius4.
d. radius4.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which statement comparing the circulatory systems in mammals and birds is true?
a. Birds have far smaller hearts per gram.
b. Mammals have, on average, higher systolic blood pressures.
c. Mammals have a higher pressure systemic circuit.
d. Birds and mammals have essentially identical circulatory systems.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
9. In which vessel(s) is there a lack of pressure pulse?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Large arteries, terminal arteries, and arterioles
b. Terminal arteries, arterioles, capillaries, and venules
c. Capillaries, venules, and veins
d. Venules and veins
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
10. Which vessels of the systemic vascular system have the highest total cross-sectional
area?
a. Arterial vessels
b. Capillary beds
c. Venous vessels
d. Both arteries and veins have equal areas.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. In a mammal, blood pressure is lowest in the
a. arterioles.
b. capillaries.
c. venules.
d. veins.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
12. Excessive protein in the blood plasma will _______ the loss of fluid through the
capillaries.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. have no effect on
d. increase, and then decrease
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. When a mammal exercises, oxygen delivery is increased by
a. increased blood flow.
b. the extraction of more O2 per unit volume.
c. increased blood flow and the extraction of more O2 per unit volume.
d. increased blood flow, the extraction of more O2 per unit volume, and a lowering of
resistance in the systemic vasculature.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
14. In _______, there is no separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood at the
heart.
a. a teleost fish
b. a lungfish
c. amphibians
d. reptiles
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. The chambers of the teleost fish heart are the
a. atria and the ventricles.
b. atria, ventricles, and bulbus arteriosus.
c. sinus venosus, atrium, and ventricles.
d. sinus venosus, atrium, ventricle, and bulbus arteriosus.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
16. In a fish that has an air-breathing organ,
a. there are not likely to be functioning gills.
b. the blood leaving the air-breathing organ mixes with blood leaving the gills.
c. the blood leaving the air-breathing organ mixes with systemic venous blood.
d. the blood enters the air-breathing organ following its exit from the gills.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
17. Among nonavian reptiles, crocodilians are unique because they
a. have birdlike blood pressures.
b. have hearts that are large relative to their mass.
c. can shunt blood.
d. have a complete ventricular septum.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Which statement about squid is false?
a. Their systemic heart receives largely deoxygenated blood.
b. Their systemic heart is myogenic.
c. Blood enters the systemic heart from the gills.
d. Branchial hearts pump blood through the gills.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. In crustacean circulatory systems, deoxygenated blood from the tissues enters the
heart via
a. ostia.
b. the cardinal veins.
c. the dorsal abdominal artery.
d. the dorsal abdominal vein.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
20. Which statement about the insect circulatory system is true?
a. Insects have a closed circulatory system and a tracheal system for delivering O2.
b. Insects have an open circulatory system and a tracheal system for delivering O2.
c. Insects have an open circulatory system and a derived lung for delivering O2.
d. Insects have a closed circulatory system and solely a diffusion-based system for
delivering O2.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Test Bank
to accompany
Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition
Hill • Wyse • Anderson
Chapter 24: Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide in Body Fluids
(with an Introduction to Acid–Base Physiology)
TEST BANK QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is not a chemical category of respiratory pigment?
a. Hemocyanins
b. Hemerythrins
c. Chlorocruorins
d. Myoglobins
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
2. Which statement about hemoglobin is false?
a. It plays a role in CO2 transport.
b. It plays a role as a pH buffer.
c. It plays a role in N2 transport.
d. It is affected by temperature.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
3. Which statement comparing human adult and fetal hemoglobin is true?
a. Fetal hemoglobin contains one particular subunit that lowers its P50.
b. Fetal hemoglobin contains one particular subunit that raises its P50.
c. All subunits of fetal hemoglobin are different and result in a lower P50.
d. All subunits of fetal hemoglobin are different and result in a higher P50.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
4. Which statement about myoglobin is true?
a. It is a respiratory pigment found in the red blood cell.
b. It is exactly like hemoglobin but is found in a different location in the body.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. It is a type of fetal hemoglobin.
d. It is a respiratory pigment found in muscle cytoplasm.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
5. Hemocyanins occur in which animal groups?
a. Molluscs
b. Arthropods
c. Echinoderms and molluscs
d. Molluscs and arthropods
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. When the body detects _______, _______ is secreted to increase the production of red
blood cells.
a. high CO2 levels; erythropoeitin
b. high CO2 levels; myoglobin
c. low O2 levels; erythropoeitin
d. low O2 levels; myoglobin
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The image on a graph showing the functional relationship between the percentage of
oxygenated binding sites and the O2 partial pressure is best known as
a. the saturation curve.
b. the affinity curve.
c. the P50 curve.
d. the oxygen dissociation curve.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. A respiratory pigment that requires a relatively low O2 partial pressure for loading has
_______ affinity for O2.
a. a low
b. a high
c. no
d. a variable
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. In a healthy human at rest, what is the approximate O2 saturation of venous blood as it
is leaving the tissues?
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 0%
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10.‒12. Refer to the figure below.
10. The curve on the graph
a. represents oxygen delivery by human blood at rest and during vigorous exercise.
b. is a vertebrate oxygen dissociation curve.
c. is a mammalian oxygen dissociation curve.
d. represents the increase in oxygen concentration as blood travels to the lungs.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
11. Region I in the figure represents the
a. amount of oxygen used by the tissues at rest.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. oxygen concentration of blood in the tissues during exercise.
c. oxygen concentration of blood in the tissues at rest.
d. amount of oxygen used by the tissues during exercise.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. According to the figure, approximately how much more oxygen is used by the tissues
during exercise compared to at rest?
a. 15 mL O2/100 ml of blood
b. 10 mL O2/100 ml of blood
c. 15 mL O2/g
d. 10 mL O2/g
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. The venous O2 partial pressure below which aerobic catabolism becomes impaired is
known as the
a. minimal venous O2 partial pressure.
b. critical venous reserve.
c. venous threshold.
d. critical venous O2 partial pressure.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
14. Which statement regarding the figure below is false?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. The dotted line depicts a pigment showing cooperativity.
b. The solid line depicts a pigment displaying no cooperativity.
c. The solid line could represent human hemoglobin.
d. The solid line displays a generally higher O2 affinity compared to the gray line.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
15.–17. Refer to the figure below.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
15. Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure below would represent a diving
mammal such as a Weddell seal?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
16 Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure would represent a hypoxia-adapted
species such as a carp?
a. I
b. II
c. IV
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. V
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure carries the least amount of oxygen per
unit volume of blood?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18.‒20. Refer to the figure below.
18. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents a very high blood pH (e.g.,
7.6)?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
19. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents blood with a high CO2
partial pressure (e.g., 80 mm Hg)?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
20. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents a P50 of about 4 kPa?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
21. A respiratory pigment that requires a relatively low O2 partial pressure for loading
and has a high affinity for O2 would also have
a. a relatively low P50.
b. a relatively high P50.
c. no P50 at all.
d. a variable P50.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
22. The effect of acid in reducing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is called the _______
effect.
a. Haldane
b. dissociation
c. Root
d. Bohr
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
23. Which statement is not directly related to the Bohr effect?
a. The Hb‒O2 affinity increases as pH increases.
b. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as temperature increases.
c. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as CO2 partial pressure increases.
d. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as H+ concentration increases.
Answer: b
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
24. The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 increases with
a. decreasing temperature.
b. decreasing blood pH.
c. an increase in CO2 partial pressure.
d. increasing [H+].
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
25. The venous blood displays a reduced O2 affinity compared to arterial blood because
its
a. CO2 partial pressure is higher.
b. H+ concentration is higher.
c. hemoglobin concentration is lower.
d. CO2 partial pressure is higher and its H+ concentration is higher.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
26.‒27. Refer to the figure below.
26. The pattern of the curves in the figure demonstrates the
a. Root effect.
b. Haldane effect.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
c. fixed-acid Bohr effect.
d. CO2 Bohr effect.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
27. As shown in the figure, the P50 _______ declining pH.
a. increases with
b. decreases with
c. remains constant with
d. is unrelated to
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
28. The Root effect applies to which physiological mechanism?
a. The unloading of O2 in muscle tissue
b. The inflating of the swim bladder of many fish
c. The loading of O2 at the gills
d. The unloading of O2 in low pH regions of the stomach
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
29. During chronic exposure to high altitude, increasing 2,3-DPG
a. increases Hb‒O2 affinity.
b. increases the unloading of O2 at tissues.
c. increases the loading of O2 at the lungs.
d. decreases the P50 of hemoglobin.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
30. The figure below shows that a reduction in O2 affinity
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. impairs O2 unloading less than it enhances loading.
b. impairs O2 unloading more than it enhances loading.
c. enhances O2 unloading more than it impairs loading.
d. enhances O2 unloading less than it impairs loading.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
31. Which statement about respiratory pigments is false?
a. They serve as major buffers of blood pH.
b. They play critical roles in CO2 transport.
c. They play critical roles in the transport of nutrients.
d. They can function as O2 stores in invertebrates.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
32. According to the figure below, which statement is the most accurate?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. O2 concentrations of arterial blood are inversely proportional to swimming speed.
b. As O2 concentrations of blood drop in venous blood, swimming speed increases.
c. Cold-acclimated fish have a much lower saturation level during exercise than other fish
do.
d. As swimming speed increases, the arterial blood remains nearly saturated while the
venous blood decreases in saturation.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
33. In octopuses, venous saturation is about _______% at rest and about _______%
during exercise.
a. 75; 25
b. 30; 30
c. 30; 10
d. 10; 10
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
34. An octopus meets the increased demand for O2 at the tissues during intense exercise
by
a. increasing its circulation rate.
b. pulling more O2 from the blood (from its venous reserve).
c. switching to another form of hemoglobin.
d. increasing its circulation rate and pulling more O2 from the blood (from its venous
reserve).
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
35. The P50 in a fish species adapted to a low oxygen aquatic environment would likely
be _______ the P50 of a fish species adapted to a well-oxygenated aquatic environment.
a. higher than
b. equal to
c. lower than
d. extremely variable compared to
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
36. The figure below shows that
a. larger primates have fewer red blood cells than smaller primates do.
b. the whole blood of smaller primates has lower O2 affinity than that of larger primates.
c. the whole blood of smaller primates has greater O2 affinity than that of larger primates.
d. larger primates have more red blood cells than smaller primates do.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
37. The exposure of Daphnia to O2-poor water for days would result in
a. an increase in hemoglobin concentration.
b. a change in the globin subunits produced.
c. an increase in hemoglobin concentration and a decrease in the P50 of the blood.
d. an increase in hemoglobin concentration, a decrease in the P50 of the blood, and a
change in the globin subunits produced.
Answer: d
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
38. Antarctic icefish compensate for the lack of circulating red blood cells with
a. an increase in the amount of hemoglobin in their plasma.
b. the use of another type of respiratory pigment.
c. an increased circulation rate.
d. a lowering of their metabolic rate, along with general inactivity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
39. In many cases, lowland people who travel to an area of high altitude for an extended
period of time will develop a condition known as
a. polycythemia.
b. anemia.
c. bradycardia.
d. hypotension.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
40. The extent of bicarbonate formation in the blood depends primarily on the
a. solubility of bicarbonate in the plasma.
b. temperature.
c. blood buffers.
d. solubility of carbonic acid.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
41. The buffering effectiveness of any given buffer reaction is greatest when the
prevailing pH _______ the pK´ of the reaction.
a. is much greater than
b. matches
c. is much lower than
d. is as far away as possible from
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
42. What determines the shape of the CO2 equilibrium curve?
a. The kinetics of HCO3– formation
b. The amount of dissolved CO2
c. The number of carbamate groups and the amount of dissolved CO2
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
d. The kinetics of HCO3– formation, the number of carbamate groups, and the amount of
dissolved CO2
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
43. The deoxygenation of hemoglobin promotes CO2 uptake and the oxygenation of
hemoglobin promotes the unloading of CO2. This phenomenon is called the _______
effect.
a. Root
b. fixed-acid Bohr
c. Haldane
d. CO2 Bohr
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
44. Which species would have the highest total blood CO2 concentration?
a. Human
b. Turtle
c. Lungfish
d. Trout
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
45. The key enzyme involved in the formation of bicarbonate from CO2 is
a. lactate dehydrogenase.
b. alcohol dehydrogenase.
c. carbonic anhydrase.
d. bicarbonate dehydrogenase.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
46. The chloride shift refers to
a. rapid anion exchange proteins.
b. carbonic anhydrase.
c. carbamate formation.
d. the dissolving of CO2 in plasma.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
47. In mammals, the bulk of the CO2 is transported from the tissue to the lungs as
a. bicarbonate dissolved in the plasma.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
b. CO2 dissolved in the plasma.
c. CO2 bound to hemoglobin.
d. bicarbonate bound to hemoglobin.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
48. The alphastat hypothesis attempts to explain why _______ as temperature falls.
a. blood pH of ectotherms decreases
b. blood pH of ectotherms increases
c. muscle pH of ectotherms decreases
d. blood pH of endotherms decreases
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
49. Which of the following is(are) the main organ(s) responsible for adjusting blood pH
in terrestrial animals?
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Lungs and kidneys
d. Lungs, kidneys, and liver
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
50. If exhalation of CO2 is abnormally increased relative to production, the likely result
will be
a. respiratory acidosis.
b. metabolic acidosis.
c. metabolic alkalosis.
d. respiratory alkalosis.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
Short Answer
1. In what way can hemoglobin be considered an “honorary enzyme”?
Answer: Respiratory pigments have been dubbed “honorary enzymes” because many
important properties of the respiratory pigments resemble those of enzyme proteins. In
terms of their main respiratory functions, they are not enzymes. However, sometimes
respiratory pigments can act as enzymes. In mammals, deoxymyoglobin and
deoxyhemoglobin can catalyze the local formation of nitric oxide, a critically important
signaling compound.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
2. What do the main respiratory pigments have in common?
Answer: The main respiratory pigments discussed in the text are hemoglobins,
hemocyanins, hemerythrins, and chlorocruorins. While not all of these groups contain
heme, they all contain at least one metal ion per molecule (either copper or iron) to which
oxygen attaches.
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Explain the significance of measurements of mixed venous O2 partial pressure.
Answer: Mixed venous O2 partial pressure represents the average of the O2 partial
pressures of blood leaving all of the systemic tissues. It allows one to gauge the body’s
use of O2, provided there is flow data. It also allows one to calculate the venous reserve,
or the amount of O2 circulating back to the lungs. This reserve is the amount of O2 that
could be used if the tissues needed more O2—for example, during exercise.
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
4. Why is human hemoglobin a good example of evolutionary molecular design?
Answer: The human hemoglobin molecule is a good example of evolutionary molecular
design for three primary reasons. 1) Human hemoglobin is nearly saturated at the O2
partial pressures that are maintained in the lungs by breathing. 2) The oxygen equilibrium
curve of hemoglobin is nearly flat at pulmonary O2 pressures, so high oxygenation is
ensured regardless of variation in function. 3) The oxygen equilibrium curve is shaped in
such a way that 90% of the O2 bound to hemoglobin can be released for use at blood
partial pressures that are compatible with full mitochondrial function.
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
5. Compare and contrast oxygen affinity with P50.
Answer: Oxygen affinity and P50 are both ways of describing how saturated hemoglobin
may be at a given partial pressure of O2. The higher the oxygen affinity, the lower the
partial pressure of O2 can be for 100% loading of O2 onto hemoglobin. The P50, however,
is a more accurate representation of oxygen loading dynamics. The P50 is defined as the
partial pressure of O2 at which a pigment is 50% saturated. Therefore, the lower the P50,
the higher the oxygen affinity.
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
6. Compare and contrast the CO2 Bohr effect and the Haldane effect.
Answer: Both the CO2 Bohr effect and the Haldane effect have to do with CO2 and
hemoglobin, but the focus of each effect is different. The CO2 Bohr effect concerns how
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
CO2 concentration affects O2 loading on hemoglobin. Higher CO2 concentrations cause
the O2 affinity for hemoglobin to decrease. The Haldane effect concerns the effect of O2
partial pressure on CO2 loading and unloading. When the tissues use O2, the lower the
local partial pressure of O2 and promote the deoxygenation of hemoglobin. This changes
the conformation of hemoglobin such that it promotes the CO2 binding to hemoglobin.
Conversely, when the partial pressure of O2 is high, such as at the lungs, this favors O2
binding to hemoglobin, which changes hemoglobin’s conformation to favor the
unloading of CO2.
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. What is unique about the respiratory pigments and circulatory O2 transport of the
octopus?
Answer: The respiratory pigment of the octopus is hemocyanin. The main O2 circulation
anomaly is that, compared to mammals, octopuses have virtually no venous reserve, even
while at rest. This means that during exercise, oxygen delivery to the tissues can be
increased only by an increase in circulation.
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
8. What determines the shape of the CO2 dissociation curve?
Answer: All three kinds of CO2 being transported—CO2 dissolved in plasma, CO2 bound
to Hemoglobin, and HCO3‒ —affect the shape of the CO2 dissociation curve. However,
the shape is largely determined by HCO3‒ formation dynamics. This means that the shape
depends on blood buffer systems: the concentrations of the buffer groups, their pK´
values, and the extent to which they are loaded with H+ from acids other than CO2.
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
9. Why are carbonic anhydrase and anion transporters important in vertebrate CO2
transport?
Answer: Vertebrate CO2 is transported mainly as HCO3‒ dissolved in plasma. In order to
form this ion species from CO2, carbonic anhydrase is needed. Carbonic anhydrase is the
enzyme that greatly accelerates the conversion of CO2 into HCO3‒. However, this occurs
primarily in the red blood cell. The anion transporters, primarily the band 3 protein,
exchange HCO3‒ in the cell for Cl‒ outside the cell in a process known as the chloride
shift. The entire process is reversed at the lung so that CO2 can be re-formed for
exhalation.
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Why does temperature alter blood pH in ectotherms?
Answer: The current hypothesis for the increase in pH as blood temperature decreases in
ectotherms is known as the alphastat hypothesis. This hypothesis states that the changes
in pH are a means of maintaining a constant state of electrical charge on protein
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
molecules. Changes in temperature alter the chemical behavior of buffer groups on
protein molecules, and the change in pH maintains this buffering behavior.
Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. Which statement regarding hemoglobin is false?
a. Its affinity for O2 can change.
b. It is primarily an enzyme.
c. It binds to O2 via weak, noncovalent bonds.
d. It is a buffer.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
2. How many molecules of O2 does a molecule of vertebrate blood hemoglobin normally
bind?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
3. Which respiratory pigment contains copper at the O2 binding site?
a. Myoglobin
b. Chlorocruorin
c. Hemerythrin
d. Hemocyanin
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
4. Which statement about the four chemical classes of respiratory pigments is true?
a. All are metalloproteins.
b. All bind reversibly with O2 at specific O2-binding sites associated with metal ions.
c. All share the same heme structure.
d. All are metalloproteins and bind reversibly with O2 at specific O2-binding sites
associated with metal ions.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory
Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
5. In people at rest, the approximate O2 saturation of venous blood leaving the tissues is
a. 75%.
b. 5 ml O2/100 ml blood.
c. 10 ml O2/100 ml blood.
d. 5%.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
6. During exercise, the body supplies O2 to the muscles by
a. increasing muscle fiber declination.
b. increasing blood flow.
c. increasing blood flow and unloading more O2 to tissues from hemoglobin.
d. increasing muscle fiber declination, increasing blood flow, and unloading more O2 to
tissues from hemoglobin.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
7. The extent of O2-binding site cooperativity is expressed using a mathematical index
called the
a. Bohr effect.
b. Root index.
c. Haldane constant.
d. Hill coefficient.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
8. Which word best describes the mechanism for the steep portion of the oxygen
dissociation curve?
a. Cooperativity
b. Loading
c. Unloading
d. Coefficient
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
9. The process by which low pH aids in the decreasing affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is
called the _______ effect.
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Bohr
b. Root
c. Haldane
d. hemoglobin-shift
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
10. Which statement about the Bohr effect is true?
a. A higher temperature decreases the Hb‒O2 affinity.
b. A lower pH increases the Hb‒O2 affinity.
c. A higher partial pressure of CO2 decreases the Hb‒O2 affinity.
d. A higher H+ concentration increases the Hb‒O2 affinity.
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing
11. Which variable does not affect the properties of the O2 dissociation curve?
a. Temperature
b. Partial pressure of CO2
c. 2,3-DPG concentration
d. Cardiac output
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
12. Which hemoglobin has the highest P50?
a. Hemoglobin at a lower-than-normal temperature, such as 35°C
b. Fetal hemoglobin
c. Hemoglobin in a human residing at a high altitude for three weeks
d. Hemoglobin at a higher-than-normal pH, such as 7.6
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
13. A reduction in the amount of O2 bound to hemoglobin at saturation could be the result
of the _______ effect.
a. Bohr
b. fixed-acid Bohr
c. Root
d. Haldane
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
14. During chronic exposure to high altitude, increased 2,3-DPG
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. increases hemoglobin‒O2 affinity.
b. increases the unloading of O2 at tissues.
c. permits increased physical exercise.
d. increases the loading of O2 at the lungs.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
15. During exercise, squids and octopuses meet their O2 demand by
a. drawing additional O2 from venous reserve.
b. increasing their circulation rate.
c. increasing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2.
d. decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
16. In general, what is the relationship between primate size and Hb‒O2 affinity?
a. Larger primates tend to have a lower Hb‒O2 affinity.
b. Smaller primates tend to have a lower P50.
c. Larger primates tend to have a higher P50.
d. Smaller primates tend to have a lower Hb‒O2 affinity.
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
17. Compared to oxygenated blood, fully deoxygenated blood has a
a. higher affinity for CO2.
b. lower affinity for CO2.
c. higher affinity for bicarbonate.
d. lower affinity for O2.
Answer: a
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying
18. Bicarbonate created from CO2 in the red blood cell gets into the plasma
a. through exclusive bicarbonate channels.
b. via chloride exchange.
c. with the assistance of carbonic anhydrase, which shuttles it into the plasma.
d. via active transport in exchange for Na+.
Answer: b
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding
19. Which of the following is(are) involved in the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the
lungs?
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.
a. Bicarbonate
b. Bicarbonate and CO2 bound to hemoglobin
c. CO2 bound to hemoglobin and CO2 dissolved in plasma
d. Bicarbonate, CO2 bound to hemoglobin, and CO2 dissolved in plasma
Answer: d
Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport
Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating
20. According to the _______, changes in pH are a means by which ectotherms maintain
a constant state of electrical charge on protein molecules.
a. Root effect
b. Bohr shift
c. alphastat hypothesis
d. law of buffered reactions
Answer: c
Textbook Reference: Acid–Base Physiology
Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering
© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.