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Exam 1 Practice Questions

1. What gram and catalase positive bacterial infection has a biofilm and is a cause of
infections of catheters and prostheses?
a. Staph aureus
A endocarditis
b. Staph saprophyticus
c. Staph epidermidis
Staph epidermidis
2. What is the bacteria that causes syphilis and what stage presents with lymphadenopathy,
condyloma lata (painless wart-like lesions), and a general widespread rash?
a. Borrelia burgdorferi; stage 2
b. Leptospira; stage 1
c. Treponema pallidum; stage 2
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum, stage 3
go gym
Treponema pallidum; stage 2
3. What bacterial infection is responsible for walking pneumonia in teens and young adults
and what gram stain designation does it have?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae; mycoplasma
b. Legionella pneumophila; gram negative Legionnaire's misterswater
c. S. pneumoniae; gram positive
0M diplococcimeningitis
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae; gram negativered
Mycoplasma pneumoniae; mycoplasma
4. What bacterial infection is responsible for the Bubonic plague and what gram stain is it?
a. Yersinia enterocolitica; gram negative
b. Yersinia enterocolitica; gram positive
c. Yersinia pestis; gram positive
d. Yersinia pestis; gram negative zoonotic
Yersinia pestis; gram negative
5. What gram negative bacteria is very motile; present in colon, soil, and water; and
commonly causes UTIs and hospital acquired infection (nosocomial)?
a. Staph saprophyticus
b. Group D strep, Enterococcus
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Bacillus cereus
Proteus mirabilis
6. What strep organism is responsible for dental caries (cavities)?
a. Group A strep, S. pyogenesx
b. Strep viridans
c. Group D strep, Enterococcus
d. Strep pneumoniaePNA
variablehemolysis biliaryUTI endocarditis
e. Group B strep, S. agalactiae
Strep viridans
353 weeks
7. A patient presents with fever, conjunctival redness, headache, and a palmar rash during
the summer, which you believe to be Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the
following is the required vector?
a. Livestock
b. Rats
c. Mouse
d. Dog
e. Tick
TickTickTickTick, Rickettsia rickettsii
What is chandelier sign and what is it associated with?
Urethritis caused by Ureaplasma urealyticum
Cervical tenderness caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
Urethritis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae diplococci
Urethritis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis
Firm, ulcerated lesion caused by Treponema pallidum stage
Cervical tenderness caused by Chlamydia trachomati….
A patient presents with bloody diarrhea. Which of the following bacteria are known for
causing this symptom?
A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeaejuggling
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Helicobacter pylori
E. Vibrio cholerawater Égaiaitonach
Campylobacter jejuni
27-year-old woman presents to an urgent care center because of 6 days
of increasing abdominal pain, bloating, and non-bloody diarrhea with four
or five loose bowel movements per day. She has had mild nausea, but no
vomiting and has been passing increased amounts of flatus. She has had no
fever. Two weeks before onset of diarrhea, she went on a 3-day camping
and rafting trip with her girlfriend, who is experiencing similar symptoms.
Meds: Multivitamin with iron.
• PE: T 36.6C BP 108/72 HR 110 RR 18
Abdomen is mildly distended with no guarding. Her abdomen is diffusely
tender. Rectal exam demonstrates pale-colored stool, which tests negative
for occult blood. Pelvic exam is normal.
• What diagnostic tests are appropriate to send? Stool 3stooltest s cysts
• How could this infection have been prevented? Boil watersterilizeH2O
• What is the most likely diagnosis? Giardia
giardia lamblia
A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for the evaluation of an
itchy vaginal discharge that she has had for about a week. She has had no fever,
abdominal pain, or dysuria. She became involved with a new sexual partner
approximately 3 weeks ago. She takes birth control pills but does not regularly
use condoms during intercourse. Her partner is asymptomatic. On examination,
her vital signs are normal, and a general physical examination is unremarkable.
On pelvic examination, her external genitalia are normal. After inserting a
speculum you see a bubbly, thin, yellow vaginal discharge. Her cervix is
erythematous but without discharge. She has no cervical motion or uterine or
adnexal tenderness. A wet mount of the vaginal discharge examined
microscopically reveals numerous motile, flagellated, pear-shaped organisms
along with numerous white blood cells.
• What is the most likely infectious cause of her vaginal discharge? TrichomoniasisTrichomoniasis
• What is the most likely source of her infection? New sexual partner (STI) unprotected
A 40-year-old man presents for a routine examination. He is generally
feeling well but complains of some mild dysuria and increasing urinary
frequency. He has never had a urinary tract infection (UTI) and thought
that the increasing urinary frequency was a normal part of aging. He has
not seen any blood in his urine but says that the urine does appear darker
than it used to look. He has no other complaints, and his review of systems
is otherwise entirely negative. He has no significant medical or family
history. He smokes a pack of cigarettes a day and denies alcohol use. He is
an immigrant from Ethiopia who has lived in the United States for 3 years.
His vital signs and physical examination, including genital and prostate
exams are normal. A urinalysis shows many red blood cells, a few white
blood cells, and oval-shaped parasite eggs with terminal spines.
w newpartner
parasite UTI
• What organism is the likely cause of his hematuria? Schistosomiasis haematobium schistosomiasis
• How does this organism gain entry into humans? Skin
A patient presents with attacks of shaking chills and anemia. In exam you observe icterus
and jaundice.You remember something about Sporozoites in the mosquito salivary gland and
suspect Malaria, but which species would cause the most severe infection?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium falciparum
tx quinine resistance
Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium falciparum
14. How do you diagnose malaria?
Stool sample
Wet Mount
Giemsa peripheralblood
Antibody detection
15. A pregnant patient was cleaning the litter box and developed mono like symptoms. What
infection is on the top of your differentials?
A. S. aureus
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Pasteurella
D. Toxoplasmosis
16. Kala-azar is transmitted by what and causes what?
A. Sandfly; Leishmaniasis
B. Mosquitoes; Maleria
C. Kissing bug/Reduviid; American Trypanosomiasis Chaya's
D. Tsetse fly; Trypanosoma sleeping
Sandfly; Leishmaniasis
17. African Trypanosoma causes what symptom that can lead to death?
A. Bladder cancer
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Myocarditis
D. Red blood cell lysis
Sleeping sickness
18. A patient presents with a chagoma on their arm. They also are positive for Romana’s sign.
What disease do you suspect?
A. Necator Americanus
B. Ascaris Lumbricoides
C. American Trypanosomiasis Chaya'sdisease
D. Schistosomiasis swimmers
American Trypanosomiasis
19. What is the treatment for entamoeba?
A. Metronidazole
giardia entamoeba trichomoniasis
B. Praziquantel
C. Ivermectin
D. Albendazole
20. Which is the most dangerous cestode?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Yersinia enterocolitica
Taenia solium
21. What pathogen is transmitted from contaminated freshwater, invades through the skin, and is
known as “swimmer’s itch”?
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Strongyloidiasis
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Vibrio cholera
22. This is transmitted through the fecal oral route and can be asymptomatic or perianal itching.
The diagnosis is via the “scotch tape” test.
A. Brucella
B. Pthirus pubis crabs
C. Enterobius Vermicularis pinworm
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Enterobius Vermicularis
23. What organ is part of the maturation process of Strongyloidiasis?
A. Lungs
B. Duodenum
C. Upper jejunum
D. Urinary system
24. A patient has moved from a humid tropical region and comes in to see you. They are experiencing
abdominal pain and persistent diarrhea. They are presenting with a cough, wheezing, and chronic
bronchitis. Their skin is presenting with pruritus and urticaria. What is the most likely cause?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Malaria
25. You ate salmon and trout while on vacation in Europe. Now you have nausea, diarrhea, and
weakness. What would be the best diagnostic test to identify the cause?
A. Brain CT or MRI
B. Abdominal US
C. Fecal sample
D. Colon biopsy
Brain CT or MRI for Diphyllobothrium Latum
26. What nematode causes intestinal obstruction, peritonitis, biliary obstruction, and malnutrition?
A. Plasmodium ovalex
B. Trypanosoma
C. Ascaris Lumbricoides
D. Strongyloidiasis
Ascaris Lumbricoides
27. What stain can you visualize fungi with?
A. Gram stain
B. India stain
C. Fluorescent stain
D. Acid fast
India stain
28. What do most antifungal agents work to disrupt?
A. Ergosterol
B. Cholesterol
C. Polysaccharides
D. Peptidoglycan
29. On physical examination you note hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches on your patient after
being in hot and humid weather. You do a KOH and discover “spaghetti and meatballs”. What do they
A. Candida albicans
B. Pityriasis versicolor dimorphic
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Cryptococcosis
Pityriasis versicolor
30. Dermatophytes and candida are what type of fungal infection?
A. Cutaneous
B. Superficial
C. Subcutaneous sporothrix schenkii s
D. Systemic
31. You discover a red raised border of active inflammation with a central clearing on your body. What
infection do you suspect?
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Staph epidermidis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Treponema pallidum
Tinea corporis
32. Wood’s light helps to diagnose which species?
A. Microsporum
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Candida
blastomycosis URI
D. Malassezia furfur
33. You see an infant in your clinic and on physical exam note a diaper rash with “satellite lesions”. What
is the most likely pathogen?
A. Malassezia furfur
B. Tinea cruris
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Candida albicans
Candida albicans
34. You have a patient who enjoys gardening. He recalls getting stuck by a rose thorn and now has a skin
infection on his hand that has become ulcerated and necrotic. What is the most likely pathogen?
A. Sporothrix schenckii
B. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
Sporothrix schenckii
35. A patient recently traveled to Ohio and explored a bat cave but avoided the forest. Now they have a
pulmonary infection. What should be at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A. Coccidioidomycosis
B. Leptospira
silent disseminate itraconazole
C. Ascaris Lumbricoides
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
blastomyces silent disseminate
Histoplasma capsulatum
36. The patient’s spouse from question 35 walks in and while in Ohio enjoyed nature hikes with
decomposing wood and leaves. They are worried because of their spouse and want to get checked for
any pathogens. What should you check for?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
spreadsto skint bones
B. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Epidermophyton
D. Sporothrix
Blastomyces dermatitidis
37. What is known as Valley Fever or Desert Rheumatism?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Mucormycosis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Cryptococcosis
Coccidioides immitis
38. You have an AIDS patient that was cleaning pigeon droppings off their driveway. They stopped taking
their fluconazole and now have meningitis. What is the most common life-threatening fungal disease
you suspect as the cause associated with pigeon droppings?
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii
B. Mucormycosis
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Aspergillosis
39. You notice a patient starts coughing up brownish phlegm containing hyphae and the patient seems to
be presenting with new onset asthma. What infection is causing it?
A. Aspergillosis
bronchiopulmonary aspergillosis fungalball
B. Staph saprophyticus
C. Mucormycosis
D. Strongyloidiasis
40. You get a new job in the burn unit. What fungal infection should you be on the look out for in your
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii
B. Mucormycosis
bloodvessels causeinfarction burnpatients
C. Cryptococcosisstack
D. Vibrio cholera
41. What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients that causes pneumonia?
A. Sporothrix
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Pneumocystis jirovecii
D. Coccidioidomycosis
Pneumocystis jirovecii
42. You ate rice and grains and now you have food poisoning. What spore, motile, exotoxin, aerobic,
gram positive rod is wrecking your GI system?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Enterotoxigenic E coli
Iwakylitfarrheat vibrio cholera
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Bacillus cereus
Bacillus cereus……...
med haemophilus
43. A child presents with otitis media and you suspect a coccobacillus gram negative rod. Whatstrep
is it?
Moraxella catarrhalis
Neisseria meningitidis dipplococci
Vibrio cholera water diarrhea
membranein pharynx
diptheria graypseudo
Moraxella catarrhalis
44. A patient was cleaning the urine from their dogs and rats, but didn’t perform proper hygiene and had
a skin abrasion. You see a spirochete hook under the microscope. What are they infected with?
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Leptospira
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Rickettsia rickettsii
45. Your patient has a bullseye rash 10 days after hiking in the woods. You are worried about this disease
causing neurologic damage in the late stage. What spiochete is causing this Lyme disease?
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma leprae
D. Atypical mycobacteria
Borrelia burgdorferi……..
46. A patient presents with a UTI that has dysuria and yellow discharge. You see the lab report it is a
bacteria that in 60% of patients it’s normal flora and has no cell wall. What is the pathogen?
A. E coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
Ureaplasma urealyticum
47. Your AIDs patient reports fever, night sweats, and diarrhea. It’s an opportunistic infection that is an
acid fast and aerobic rod. What is it?
A. Atypical mycobacteria
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Corynebacterium
Atypical mycobacteria
48. A college freshman presents with petechiae and meningitis. You suspect a gram negative diplococci
rod with a capsule and is endotoxic (LPS). What is the cause?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. E coli meningitis
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Brucella
Neisseria meningitidis
49. You observe a patient that coughs up currant jelly sputum. You recall from lecture that this is a gram
negative rod that is enteric and can cause sepsis, UTI, and pneumonia. This infection is what?
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Legionella pneumonia
Klebsiella pneumonia
50. A patient presents with Hansen disease and it’s an acid fast, aerobic infection. What is it?
A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Leptospira
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Clostridium perfringens
Mycobacterium leprae
51. The news reports a 0157:H7 outbreak from hamburger meat. What gram negative enteric rod is the
source of this outbreak?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Brucella
D. Enterotoxigenic E coli x enterohemorrhagic
Enterotoxigenic E coli
52. Your patient has a chest x ray with caseous necrosis caused by an acid fast, obligate aerobic rod.
What is it?
A. S. pneumoniae
B. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Mycobacteria tuberculosis
53. You went to Chipotle and now you have rice water diarrhea. You’re picturing the little flagellum of the
enteric gram negative rod and know the cause is fecal contaminated water. You have…
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Group D strep (Enterococcus)
Vibrio cholera………………….
54. A senator was sent a letter that contained a spore forming gram positive rod that infects the lungs,
skin, and intestines. What caused this?
A. Staph saprophyticus
B. S. aureus
C. S. pneumoniae
D. Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus anthracis
55. While in the ED you notice a patient with lock jaw going into respiratory failure. What gram positive
rod is causing this?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
paralysis no musclecontraction
C. E coli sepsis mostdangerous
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria grantisepsis
Clostridium tetani………….
56. A patient presents with epiglottitis (which is an emergency) because they didn’t receive their HIB
vaccine. What is causing this?
A. Brucella
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Viridans strep
Haemophilus influenzae
57. This gram positive cocci bacteria is catalase negative, part of the normal bowel, and can cause
endocarditis and UTI. What pathogen is this?
A. Group D strep (Enterococcus)
B. S aureus
D. Group A strep (S. pyogens)
Group D strep (Enterococcus)
58. You woke up this morning with strep throat. You try to remember everything about it: gram positive,
cocci, catalase negative, and beta hemolytic. What is the most likely pathogen?
A. S. pneumoniae
B. Group A strep (S pyogenes)
C. Group B strep (S agalactiae) impetigo
D. Viridans strep
Group A strep (S pyogenes)
59. What gram positive anaerobic rod causes gas gangrene?
A. Enteroinvasive E coli
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Haemophilus influenzae
Clostridium perfringens
Tentizing fascitis
60. This gram negative enteric rod causes bright red bloody diarrhea and humans are it’s only host.
A. Francisella tularensis
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Shigella
61. This gram positive cocci is catalase negative and beta hemolytic. It causes neonatal meningitis.
A. Group B strep (S agalactiae)
B. S aureus
D. Staph saprophyticus
Group B strep (S agalactiae)
62. This gram positive diplococci has a polysaccharide capsule that can cause pneumonia, meningitis,
and otitis media. What is it?
B. Staph saprophyticus
C. S pneumoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
S pneumoniae
63. Infants are not supposed to have honey before the age of 1 because this anaerobic bacteria can
block ACh.
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Corynebacterium diphtheria
D. Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium botulinum
64. You see a gram negative enteric rod that is the most common cause of sepsis. What is it?
B. S aureus
C. Salmonella typhi
D. E Coli sepsis
E Coli sepsis
65. There is an outbreak of contaminated cantaloupe and pregnant women are at high risk and it can
cause neonatal meningitis. What is this gram positive non-spore forming rod?
A. Brucella
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Bacillus cereus
Listeria monocytogenes
66. A patient presents with septic arthritis, cellulitis, and toxic shock syndrome. After wondering how they
are still alive, you remembered from school that this is from a coagulase positive cocci cluster. What is it?
B. S aureus
C. S epidermidis
D. Leptospira
S aureus….
67. A patient has traveler’s diarrhea similar to cholera. You’re smart and know you should also test for
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Enterotoxigenic E coli
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Atypical mycobacteria
Enterotoxigenic E coli
68. You work in the hospital and notice your patient has developed HAP (hospital acquired pneumonia)
that is resistant to penicillin G, gram positive, and cocci clusters. What is the most likely source of
A. S aureus
B. E coli pneumonia
D. S pneumoniae
69. This gram and catalase positive bacteria can cause UTI and is at risk of ascending to the bladder.
A. Staph saprophyticus
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
Staph saprophyticus…...
70. A patient presents with skin, conjunctiva, lung, and GI issues from eating infected milk products. What
gram negative zoonotic is the most likely cause?
A. Francisella tularensis
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Salmonella
D. Brucella
71. This is one of the most common bacterial infections in the United states and is a gram negative
diplococci that contains pili. It causes neonatal conjunctivitis and PID. What is the pathogen?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Leptospira
D. Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
72. This enteric gram negative enteric rod causes bloody diarrhea and is an immune mediated
inflammatory reaction. What is the most likely cause?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Enteroinvasive E coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pasteurella multocida
Enteroinvasive E coli
73. You handled your chickens and didn’t wash your hands and ate some eggs Gaston style. Now you
have gastroenteritis. What gram negative rod caused this infection?
A. Brucella
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Salmonella
74. A patient has developed a UTI, you know the most common UTI is cause by this gram negative rod.
A. Corynebacterium diphtheria
B. E coli UTI
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Group D strep (Enterococcus)
E coli UTI…………………………...
75. A patient was hanging out with their rabbits and developed ulceroglandular disease. You add the
Bubonic plague and this gram negative zoonotic rod bacteria to your differential list.
A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Leptospira
C. Borrelia pallidum
D. Francisella tularensis
Francisella tularensis…….
76. THis normal intestinal flora is motile and can cause hospital acquired infections and is a gram
negative enteric rod.
A. Brucella
B. Enterobacter
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Shigella
77. This infection is stored in the gallbladder of chronic carriers and causes fever, headache, abdominal
pain 1-3 weeks after exposure.
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Salmonella typhi
Salmonella typhi…….
78. This type of CAP (community acquired pneumonia) is found in AC units or other water environments.
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Klebsiella pneumonia
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. E coli pneumonia
Legionella pneumophila
79. A gram positive anaerobic exotoxin bacteria that causes pseudomembranous colitis.
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Enterotoxigenic E coli
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Yersinia enterocolitica
Clostridium difficile…...
80. A patient got bite by their cat and they have developed a wound infection that you know not to suture.
This gram negative zoonotic rod made you leery of shady cats.
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Rickettsia rickettsii
Pasteurella multocida
81. This cold surviving zoonotic is a gram negative rod that presents similar to Shigella and can be
caused by pork.
A. Yersina enterocolitica
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Salmonella
D. Clostridium difficile
Yersina enterocolitica
82. This bacteria has a vaccination and can cause death. It colonizes pharynx and forms a gray
pseudo-membrane. It is a gram positive non spore forming rod.
A. Moraxella catarrhalis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
83. This is the cause of a type of hospital acquired pneumonia, is gram negative, a rod, and enteric.
A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. E coli pneumonia
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E coli pneumonia…………….
84. A patient presents with a whooping cough that destroys trachea and bronchi cells. It can be treated
with azythromycin and is a gram negative rod.
A. Brucella
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Bordetella pertussis………….
85. This bacterial infection causes duodenal and gastric ulcers and is a gram negative rod.
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Pasteurella multocida
Helicobacter pylori…….
86. This negative bacteria rod is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, where they are the most
susceptible during the first month of life.
A. S pneumoniae
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Francesella tularensis
D. E coli meningitis
E coli meningitis……….
87. Which of the following is NOT true of prions?
A. Composed entirely of protein
B. Disrupts neuron function
C. Causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
D. Causes pneumonia
Answer: D
T/F: Naked viruses undergo fusion whereas enveloped viruses are engulfed by a vesicle
Answer: False
F other wayaround
89. Which of the following is NOT a way to identify a virus?
A. Light/ electron microscopy
B. Gram Stain
C. UV microscopy
D. Tzanck smear
Answer: B
90. A patient presents with URI symptoms, headache, malaise and fever. What is their broad diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis
B. Rabies
C. Meningitis
D. Pharyngitis
Answer D
91. Which is NOT a type of Influenza?
A. Influenza C
B. Influenza D
C. Influenza A
D. Influenza B
Answer: B
92. What is the incubation period for the flu?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 2 days
D. 4 days
Answer: C
93. A patient reports fever, myalgia, headache, chills followed almost immediately by a dry, nonproductive
cough. What is their likely diagnosis?
A. Common cold by rhinovirus
B. Croup from RSV
C. Aids from HIV
D. Mononucleosis from Epstein-Barr virus
E. Influenza by Influenza virus
Answer: E
94. The spread of the virus previously identified can be reduced through which antiviral?
A. Acyclovir
B. Cidofovir
C. Famciclovir
D. Oseltamivir
Answer: D (common name Tamaflu)
95. The action of this drug is to prevent the newly formed virions from exiting the infected cell. Which viral
glycoprotein is this then inhibiting?
A. Hemagglutinin
B. Neuraminidasepinging
C. Both
Answer: B
96. Which of the following is NOT a disease that results in Exanthem?
A. Fifth Disease
B. Rotavirus
C. Rubella
D. Roseola
E. Shingles
F. Measles
Answer: B
97. A patient presents with fever, malaise and a pruritic papulovesicular rash on trunk that spreads later
to their head and legs. What is the condition/ virus involved?
A. Rubella
B. Measles
C. Varicella
D. Fifth Disease
Answer: C
98. A patient presents with painful vesicles along a sensory nerve on their upper back. Which is the most
likely condition or virus involved?
A. Varicella
B. Shingles
C. Chicken pox
D. Measles
Answer: B
99. A patient presents with a fever, cough, conjunctivitis & coryza followed a couple days later by Koplik
spots and then followed a day later by a rash that begins on the head and then spreads to the trunk, arms
and legs. What is the most likely condition?
A. Measles
B. Chicken pox
C. Fifth Disease
D. Roseola
100. T/F: Koplik spots are seen in the mouth.
Answer: True
101. A patient presents with a fever and then several days later has a faint maculopapular rash that
spreads from their trunk to their arms and legs. Which virus causes this condition? (Bonus: What is the
disease name?)
A. Human Herpesvirus 6 roseola
B. Varicella-zoster
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Togavirus
Answer: A Bonus- Roseola
101. A patient presents with a swollen and tender salivary gland along with fever, malaise and anorexia.
What is the condition?
A. Measles
B. Roseola
C. Rubella
D. Mumps
Answer: D
102. A patient presents with a low grade fever, URI symptoms, and lymphadenopathy followed a day later
by a faint macular rash and petechial lesions on the soft palate. What is the most likely condition?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Roseola
Answer: C
103. T/F: One big complication with the disease previously mentioned can result in fetal damage.
Answer: True
104. A patient presents with fever, malaise, headache, myalgias, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, mild
leukopenia, anemia and an itchy confluent, indurated rash on the face. The rash progresses to a macular,
reticular rash on the arms and legs the next day. What is the condition?
A. Roseola
B. Rubella
C. Mumps
D. Fifth Disease
E. Chicken pox
Answer: D
105. A patient presents with vomiting that began abruptly and lasted a couple days followed by brown
watery diarrhea that lasted about a week. They also have a low-grade fever. Which virus is responsible
for this condition?
A. Hepatitis
B. Rotavirus
C. Norwalk Virus
D. Roseola
Answer: B
106. A patient states that they had vomiting & diarrhea that began abruptly and the condition lasted a
couple days. Which virus is responsible for this condition?
A. Norwalk Virus
B. Rotavirus
C. Mumps
D. Hepatitis
Answer: A
107. A patient presents with fever, anorexia, nausea, RUQ pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly, dark urine and
clay-colored stools. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Norwalk Virus
B. Rotavirus
C. Hepatitis A
D. Hepatitis C
Answer: C
108. A patient presents with fatigue, anorexia, nausea, RUQ pain/fullness, rash, clay-colored stools, dark
urine and jaundice. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Rotavirus
B. Hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis B
D. Norwalk Virus
Answer: C
109. A patient has previously been infected with Hep B and is an injection drug user. What chronic
cirrhosis virus would be most common for your patient to contract?
A. Hep A
B. Hep C
C. Hep D
D. Hep E
Hep D
110. This form of Hepatitis is transmitted via a fecal oral route and can be fatal in pregnancy when
symptomatic. This form of Hep also lacks a vaccine.
A. Hep A
B. Hep B
C. Hep D
D. Hep E
Hep E
111. This form of enterovirus causes abortive poliomyelitis, aseptic meningitis, and paralytic poliomyelitis.
A. Poliovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Echovirus
112. This enterovirus is known to cause hand foot and mouth disease.
A. Poliovirus
B. Coxsackievirus
C. Norwalk virus
D. Rotavirus
113. Your patient presents with infantile hepatitis and hemorrhagic conjunctivitis. What enterovirus is
infecting them?
B. Varicella zoster
C. Roseola
D. Echovirus
114. Your patient presents with acute febrile illness, encephalitis, and meningitis after traveling to a
tropical region. What family of viruses are you going to check for?
A. Arboviruses
B. Retroviruses
C. Paramyxoviruses
D. Parvoviruses
115. You went hiking in Sedona with some friends over the summer. You meet up with them again and
notice that your friend is having mental dysfunction interspersed with lucid periods. They seem to have
increased salivation as well. You start to wonder if they had interaction with the random racoon you met
on the trail that day. What virus are you worried your friend might have?
B. Rabies
C. Norwalk
D. Rubella
116. If a patient presents with fever, lethargy, sore throat, generalized lymphadenopathy, maculopapular
rash (trunks, arms,legs), and leukopenia what acute stage virus should be at the top of your differential
diagnosis list?
117.Scarlet fever is a complication of streptococcal infection and is preceded by
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Rheumatic fever
A. Pharyngitis
118. The virus responsible for causing AIDS (HIV) is classified as a retrovirus. A retrovirus contains an RNA
molecule and a protein that is required for the replication of the virus. This required protein is classified as a
A. Histone
B. Telomerase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Reverse transcriptase
a. Reverse transcriptase
119. A 22-year-old sexually active man develops pain when he urinates. He also notices a discharge when he
urinates. He goes to his family doctor. A Gram stain of the urethral discharge is done and intracellular diplococci are
visualized. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Primary syphilis
B. Condyloma acuminatum
C. Gonorrhea
D. Herpes genitalis
a. Gonorrhea
120. A 20-year-old pregnant woman presents at 21 weeks’ gestation with symptoms and signs of preeclampsia. Her
symptoms have been present for the past 2 days. Prior to that, she had flu-like symptoms and a lace-like rash on
her trunk and extremities and a flushed face. Intrauterine fetal demise was detected by ultrasonogram. Labor was
induced, and a stillborn male fetus was delivered. Serum was collected for viral titers of the suspected agent that
had caused the patient’s flu-like symptoms and fetal demise. The viral IgM titers were positive, as suspected. What
is the most likely offending agent?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Rotavirus
C. Varicella-zoster
D. Parvovirus B19
a. Parvovirus B19- aka 5ths disease
121. Which of the following are structurally most closely related to the influenza virus?
C. Paramyxoviruses
122. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is
B. Sporozoite
123. Which of the following is an enveloped RNA virus from the family Flaviviridae and is the major cause of
post-transfusion hepatitis?
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
Hepatitis C
124. Which of the following are non-motile enteric gram-negative bacteria with a very distinct polysaccharide
capsule? This capsule is thought to interfere with immunologic reactivity of the organism. These bacteria are
commonly associated with lobular pneumonia and can be highly resistant to antimicrobial agents
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Shigella
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
125. Which of the following about Dimorphic fungi is correct?
Are always non-pathogenic to humans
Can grow as yeast at 37° C and as mold at 23° C
Produces yeast forms at 23° C and motile rod forms at 45° C
Does not reproduce asexually
B. Can grow as yeast at 37° C and as mold at 23° C
126. Which of the following is true concerning leishmaniasis?
Worldwide, it is estimated that there are approximately five million individuals with leishmaniasis
Leishmaniasis is transmitted by phlebotomine sandflies
Kala azar is caused by Leishmania mexicana
The only known cure for diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis is amphotericin B
B. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by phlebotomine sandflies