Egypt lover
2018
?
1. M-,N-cholinomimetics:
-aceclidine
-pilocarpine
+acetylcholine
+carbacholine
-armin
?
2. M-cholinomimetics:
-carbacholine
-cytitonum
+aceclidine
+pilocarpine
-galantamine
?
3. N-cholinomimetics:
-proserinum (neostigmine)
-carbacholine
+nicotine
+cytitonum
?
4. Cholinesterase inhibitors:
+galantamine
-carbacholine
-pilocarpine
+armin
+proserinum (neostigmine)
-acetylcholine
?
5. Cholinesterase inhibitors with reversible action:
+galantamine
+proserinum
-armin
?
6. Cholinesterase inhibitors with irreversible action:
-galantamine
-proserinum
+armin
?
7. Effects of M-cholinomimetics in the eye:
+miosis
+spasm of accomodation
+paralysis of accomodation
+decease of intraocular pressure
-increase of intraocular pressure
?
8. Cardio-vascular effects of M-cholinomimetics:
+decrease of heart rate
-increase of heart rate
-facilitation of AV-conduction
+worsening of AV-conduction
+decrease of vessels tone and blood pressure
-increase of vessels tone and blood pressure
?
9. M-cholinomimetics:
+increase the secretion of excretory glands
- decrease the secretion of excretory glands
+increase the tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
-decrease the tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
-facilitate the neuro-muscular transmission
-suppress the neuro-muscular transmission
?
10. How does pilocarpine influence upon the eye?
+narrows the pupil
-expands the pupil
+causes the spasm of accommodation
-causes the paralysis of accommodation
+decreases the intraocular pressure
-increases the intraocular pressure
?
11. Under the action of aceclidine, the tone of intestine and bladder is:
+increased
-decreased
- does not change
?
12. Cytitonum:
+stimulates breathing
+stimulates the sympathetic ganglia
-decreases the blood pressure
+increases the blood pressure
?
13. The following effects are typical for M- and N-cholinomimetics:
+decrease of heart rate
-increase of heart rate
-facilitation of AV-conduction
+deterioration of AV-conduction
+expansion of blood vessels and decrease of blood pressure
- narrowing of blood vessels and increase of blood pressure
+increase of secretion of excretory glands
- decrease of secretion of excretory glands
+increase of tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
-decrease of tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
?
14. Indicate the eye’s effects of M-,N-cholinomimetics:
+miosis
-midriasis
+spasm of accommdation
-paralysis of accommodation
+decrease of intraocular pressure
-increase of intraocular pressure
?
15. Indicate the eye’s effects of cholinesterase inhibitors:
+contraction of iris sphincter
-relaxation of iris sphincter
+contraction of ciliary muscle
-relaxation of ciliary muscle
+facilitation of outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye
- worsening of outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye
?
16. Effects which are typical for action of cholinesterase inhibitors upon the
cardio-vascular system:
+decrease of heart rate
-increase of heart rate
-facilitation of AV-conduction
+worsening of AV-conduction
+decrease of blood pressure
-increase of blood pressure
?
17. Cholinesterase inhibitors:
+increase the secretion of excretory glands
- suppress the secretion of excretory glands
+increase the tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
- decrease the tone of smooth muscles of inner organs
+facilitate the neuromuscular transmission
- suppress the neuromuscular transmission
?
18. Proserinum causes:
+miosis
-midriasis
+bradicardia
-tachycardia
+decrease of blood pressure
-increase of blood pressure
?
19. Proserinum [neostigmine]:
+narrows the pupils
+causes the spasm of accommodation
-decreases the tone of bronchi
+stimulates the motility of intestine
-suppresses the secretion of excretory glands
+facilitates the neuromuscular transmission
?
20. Armin causes:
+miosis
+spasm of accommodation
-increase of intraocular pressure
+improving of outflow of aqueous humor
+decrease of intraocular pressure
?
21. Indicate the groups of drugs causing miosis:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M-,N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
22. Indicate the drugs’ groups decreasing the intraocular pressure:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M-,N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
23. Indicate the groups of drugs causing the spasm of accommodation:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M-,N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
24. Indicate the groups of drugs which increase the secretion of excretory
glands:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
25. Indicate the groups of drugs which increase the bronchial tone:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
26. Indicate the groups of drugs which increase the heart rate:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
27. Indicate the groups of drugs which suppress the AV-conduction:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
28. Indicate the groups of drugs which decrease the blood pressure:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
29. Indicate the groups of drugs which increase the intestinal motility:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
30. Indicate the groups of drugs which increase the tone of bladder:
+M-cholinomimetics
+M,-N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-all answers are incorrect
?
31. The neuromuscular transmission is improved by:
-M-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-M-,N-cholinomimetics
-all answers are incorrect
?
32. Cholinomimetics are:
+drugs which directly stimulate cholinergic receptors
-drugs which stimulate cholinergic synapses
?
33. Cholinesterase inhibitors are:
-drugs which block the action of acetylcholine
+drugs which increase the action of acetylcholine
+drugs which inhibit the cholinesterase
-drugs which stimulate the synthesis of acetylcholine
?
34. Indicate the localization of M2 and M3-cholinoceptors:
+cells of inner organs near the endings of cholinergic fibers
-neurons of sympathetic ganglia
-neurons of parasympathetic ganglia
-carotid sinus
-chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
-fibers of skeletal muscles
?
35. Localization of N-cholinoceptors:
-inner organs cells near the endings of cholinergic fibers
+neurons of sympathetic ganglia
+neurons of parasympathetic ganglia
+neurons of central nervous system
+carotid glomeruli
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
+fibers of skeletal muscles
?
36. The main subfamily of M-cholinoceptors in the heart is:
-M1-cholinoceptors
+M2-cholinoceptors
-M3-cholinoceptors
?
37. The main subfamily of M-cholinoceptors in the exocrine glands is:
-M1-cholinoceptors
-M2-cholinoceptors
+M3-cholinoceptors
?
38. The main subfamily of M-cholinoceptors in the smooth muscles is:
-M1-cholinoceptors
-M2-cholinoceptors
+M3-cholinoceptors
?
39. N-cholinomimetics directly stimulate the receptors of:
-neuro-effector synapses of parasympathetic innervation
-neuro-effector synapses of sympathetic innervation
+synapses of parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
+carotid glomeruli
?
40. M- and N-cholinomimetics with direct action stimulate the cholinoceptors of:
+neuro-effector synapses of parasympathetic nervous system
-+neuro-effector synapses of sympathetic nervous system
+synapses of parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
+carotid glomeruli
?
41. Cholinesterase inhibitors indirectly stimulate the cholinoceptors of:
+neuro-effector synapses of parasympathetic innervation
-neuro-effector synapses of sympathetic innervation
+synapses of parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
-carotid glomeruli
+neuro-muscular synapses
?
42. Indicate the groups of drugs which stimulate the secretion of adrenaline by
adrenal medulla:
-M-cholinomimetics
+M,N-cholinomimetics
+N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
?
43. Indicate the groups which stimulate the carotid glomeruli and reflectory
stimulate the breathing:
-M-cholinomimetics
+N-cholinomimetics
+M-,N-cholinomimetics
-cholinesterase inhibitors
?
44. Indicate the group of drugs which improves the neuro-muscular
transmission:
-M-cholinomimetics
-N-cholinomimetics
-M,N-cholinomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
?
45. N-cholinomimetics stimulate the breathing because:
-stimulate the N-cholinoceptors of vegetative ganglia
-directly stimulate the respiratory center
+stimulate N-cholinoceptors of carotid sinus
-stimulate N-cholinoceptors of skeletal muscles
?
46. N-cholinomimetics increase the blood pressure because:
+stimulate N-cholinoceptors of carotid sinus and reflectory increase activity of
neurons of vasomotor center
+stimulate N-cholinoceptors of sympathetic ganglia
+stimulate the adrenaline’s release by chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
-stimulate the N-cholinoceptors of parasympathetic ganglia
-stimulate the N-cholinoceptros of smooth muscles of vessels
?
47. Phosphorus-organic compounds (armin and others):
-destroy the synthesis of acetylcholine
-destroy the synthesis of cholinesterase
+irreversibly inhibit the cholinesterase
-irreversibly bind with cholinceptors
?
48. Indicate the therapeutically useful effects of M-cholinomimetics:
+miosis and decrease of intraocular pressure
-spasm of accommodation
+increase of tone of intestine and bladder
-increase of excretory glands secretion
-decrease of blood pressure
?
49. Indication for use for aceclidine:
-hypoacid gastritis
+glaucoma
-arterial hypotension
+atony of intestine and bladder
-arterial hypertension
?
50. Indication for use for pilocarpine:
-atony of intestine
-bronchial asthma
+glaucoma
-examination of eye fundus
-atony of bladder
-myasthenia
?
51. Indication for use of N-cholinomimetics:
-hypertension
-bronchial asthma
+reflectory stimulation of breathing
?
52. Indications for use of cholinesterase inhibitors:
+myasthenia gravis
+glaucoma
-spasm of intestine
+atony of intestine
-bronchial asthma
+atony of bladder
+paresis
?
53. Indications for use of proserinum:
+paresis
-bronchial asthma
-billiary colic
+atony of intestine
+myasthenia gravis
+glaucoma
+atony of bladder
?
54. Galantamine is used in:
+atony of bladder
-bronchial asthma
-hypertension
+atony of intestine
?
55. Indicate the drugs which are used for treatment of myasthenia:
-pilocarpine
+proserinum
+galanthamine
-cytitonum
?
56. Indicate the drugs which are used for treatment of bladder atony:
-cytitonum
+aceclidine
+proserinum
-pilocarpine
-armin
?
57. Indicate the drugs which are used for treatment of glaucoma:
+armin
+pi;ocarpine
+proserinum
-cytitonum
+aceclidine
?
58. Indicate the drugs which are used for treatment of intestine atony:
+proserinum
-cytitonum
+aceclidine
-armin
+galanthamine
-pilocarpine
?
59. M-cholinomimetics:
+decrase the intraocular pressure
-stimulate the breathing
+increase the motility of intestine
+increase the tone of bladder
?
60. N-cholinomimetics:
+stimulate the breathing reflectory owing to stimulation of N-cholinergic
receptors of carotid glomeruli
-act during several hours
+act during several minutes
+are used for short-term stimulation of breathing
?
61. Proserinum:
+is polar compound which can’t penetrate into the CNS
-directly stimulates N-cholinoceptors of skeletal muscles
+indirectly stimulate N-cholinoceptors of skeletal muscles owing to inhibition of
acenylcholinesterase
?
62. Indicate the groups of drugs which can reduce the effects of irreversibly
acting cholinesterase inhibitors:
+M-cholinoblockers
-V-cholinomimetics
-N-cholinomimetics
+reactivators of cholinesterase
?
63. М-cholinoblockers:
+scopolamine
+ipratropium bromide
+atropine
+pirenzepine
-galantamine
?
64. М-cholinoblockers of natural origin (alkaloids):
+atropine
+scopolamine
-ipratropium bromide
-pirenzepine
+platyphyllin
?
65. M-cholinoblockers of synthetic origin (polar compounds):
+pirenzepine
-atropine
-scopolamine
+metacinium
+ipratropium bromide
?
66. N-cholinoblockers are divided into two groups:
-quaternary ammonium compounds and tertiary amines
-drugs with short action and drugs with long action
-antidepolarizing drugs and depolarizing drugs
+ganglion blockers and peripheral myorelaxants
?
67. Ganglion blockers:
-dithylinum [suxamethonium]
-atropine
+benzohexonium [hexamethonium]
+hygronium [trepirium]
?
68. Ganglion blocker with short action (15 minutes):
-dithylinum
+hygronium
-tubocurarine
-benzohexonium
?
69. Ganglion blocker with intermediate duration of action (2-4 hours):
-tubocurarine
-hygronium
+benzohexonium
?
70. Peripheral myorelaxants:
-galantamine
-hygronium
+dithylinum
-benzohexonium
+tubocurarine
+pancuronium
?
71. Peripheral myorelaxant with short action (5-10 minutes):
-hygronium
-tubocurarine
+dithylinum
-pancuronium
?
72. Peripheral myorelaxants with long action (20-50 minutes):
-benzohexonium
+tubocurarine
+pancuronium
-dithylinum
?
73. Peripheral myorelaxants with antidepolarizing (nondepolarizing) action:
-dithylinum
-benzohexonium
+tubocurarine
+pancuronium
?
74. Peripheral myorelaxant with depolarizing action:
+dithylinum
-benzohexonium
-tubocurarine
-pancuronium
?
75. M-cholinoblockers cause:
+mydriasis
-miosis
?
76. М-cholinoblockers:
-constrict the iris sphincter
+ relax the iris sphincter
-don’t influence upon the iris sphincter
-constrict the radial muscle of iris
-relax the radial muscle of iris
+ don’t influence upon the radial muscle of iris
?
77. М-cholinoblockers:
-constrict ciliary muscle of eye (cause the spasm of accommodation)
+relax the ciliary muscle of eye (cause paralysis of accommodation)
-don’t influence upon ciliary muscle
?
78. M-cholinoblockers:
+increase the intraocular pressure
-decrease the intraocular pressute
-don’t influence upon intraocular pressure
?
79. Effect of M-cholinoblockers in the excretory glands:
+inhibition of secretion
-stimulation of secretion
?
80. Effect of M-cholinoblockers in the bronchi:
-the increase of bronchial tone
+the decrease of bronchial tone
?
81. M-cholinoblockers:
+increase the heart rate
-decrease the heart rate
-don’t change the heart rate
?
82. M-cholinoblockers:
+improve the atrio-ventricular conductivity
-suppress the atrio-ventricular conductivity
-don’t change the atrio-ventricular conductivity
?
83. M-cholinoblockers:
-increase the tone and motility of intestine
+decrease the tone and motility of intestine
-don’t change the tone and motility of intestine
?
84. M-cholinoblockers:
+decrease the tone of bladder
-increase the tone of bladder
-don’t change the tone of bladder
?
85. Ganglion blockers:
+cause mydriasis
-cause miosis
-don’t change the diameter of pupil
?
86. Ganglion blockers:
+decrease the secretion of exocrine glands
-increase the secretion of exocrine glands
-don’t change the secretion of exocrine glands
?
87. Ganglion blockers:
+increase the heart rate
-decrease the heart rate
-don’t change the heart rate
?
88. Ganglion blockers:
-increase the vessels tone
+decrease the vessels tone
-don’t change the vessels tone
?
89. Ganglion blockers:
-increase the blood pressure
+decrease the blood pressure
-don’t change the blood pressure
?
90. Ganglion blockers:
-increase the intestinal tone and motility
+decrease the intestinal tone and motility
-don’t change the intestinal tone and motility
?
91. Ganglion blockers:
+decrease the tone of bladder
-increase the tone of bladder
-don’t change the tone of bladder
?
92. Under the influence of peripheral myorelaxants, the tone of skeletal muscles
is:
-increased
+decreased
?
93. Indicate the agents which cause the relaxation of iris sphincter and
mydriasis:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
?
94. Indicate the agents which cause the relaxation of ciliary muscle and paralysis
of accommodation:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
?
95. Indicate the drugs which decrease the secretion of exocrine glands:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
?
96. Choose agents decreasing the bronchial tone:
+atropine
-tubocurarine
+scopolamine
+ipratropium bromide
?
97. Choose the agents decreasing blood pressure:
-atropine
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
-scopolamine
?
98. Choose the agents improving atrio-ventricular conductivity:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-tubocurarine
-benzohexonium
-hygronium
?
99. Choose the agents decreasing the motility of intestine:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
?
100. Choose the agents decreasing the tone of bladder:
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
?
101. Choose the agents which relax the skeletal muscles:
-atropine
-scopolamine
+tubocurarine
+dithylinum
-benzohexonium
+pancuronium
?
102. Choose the agent, therapeutic doses of which suppress the CNS:
-atropine
-benzohexonium
-tubocurarine
+scopolamine
-ipratropium
-pirenzepine
?
103. M-cholinoblockers cause mydriasis owing to:
-relaxation of ciliary muscle
+relaxation of iris sphincter
?
104. М-cholinoblockers cause the paralysis of accommodation owing to:
+relaxation of ciliary muscle
-relaxation of iris sphincter
?
105. М-cholinoblockers can increase the intraoccular pressure owing to:
+relaxation of iris sphincter
+worsening of outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber
-stimulation of production of aqueous humor
?
106. М-cholinoblockers decrease the secretion of excretory glands owing to
inhibiting of:
+parasympathetic innervation
-sympathetic innervation
?
107. The broncholytic effect of M-cholinoblockers is result of:
+decrease of parasympathetic influence upon the smooth muscles of bronchi
- decrease of sympathetic influence upon the smooth muscles of bronchi
?
108. М-cholinoblockers cause the tachycardia and facilitating of atrioventricular conduction owing to:
+blockage of parasympathetic influence upon the heart
-stimulation of sympathetic influence upon the heart
?
109. In poisoning by cholinesterase inhibitors, atropine reduce the symptoms
which are result of activation of:
-sympathetic synapses in inner organs
-neuro-muscular synapses
+parasympathetic synapses in inner organs
-ganglion synapses
?
110. Ganglion blockers block the cholinoceptors of:
+neurons of sympathetic ganglia
+ neurons of parasympathetic ganglia
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
-smooth muscle cells
-skeletal muscles
?
111. Indicate the effects of ganglion blockers which are result of inhibition of
parasympathetic ganglia:
+mydriasis
+paralysis of accommodation
+decrease of secretion of exocrine glands
-widening of peripheral vessels
-decrease of blood pressure
+decrease of intestinal tone and motility
?
112. Indicate the effects of ganglion blockers which are result of inhibition of
sympathetic ganglia:
-tachycardia
+decrease of vessels tone
+decrease of blood pressure
?
113. Ganglion blockers decrease the blood pressure because:
+block the sympathetic influence upon the heart
+decrease the sympathetic influence upon the resistive vessels
+decrease the sympathetic influence upon the capacitive vessels
-block parasympathetic influence upon the heart
-suppress the vasomotor center
?
114. Indicate the mechanism of action of tubocurarine:
+blockage of N-cholinoceptors of neuro-muscular synapses
-stimulation of N-cholinoceptors of neuro-muscular synapses
?
115. Indicate the mechanism of action of dithylinum:
- blockage of N-cholinoceptors of neuro-muscular synapses
+ stimulation of N-cholinoceptors of neuro-muscular synapses and stable
depolarization of postsynaptic membrane
?
116. Atropine blocks:
+ М1-cholinoceptors
+М2- cholinoceptors
+М3- cholinoceptors
-Nn-cholinoceptors
-Nm-cholinoceptors
?
117. Benzohexonium blocks the cholinoceptors of:
-neuro-muscular synapses
+neurons of vegetative ganglia
+chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
+carotid glomeruli
?
118. Hygronium decreases the blood pressure owing to:
-inhibition of vasomotor center
-blockage of N-cholinoceptors of parasympathetic ganglia
+ blockage of N-cholinoceptors of sympathetic ganglia
?
119. Indicate the drugs blocking N-cholinoceptors of skeletal muscles:
+tubocurarine
-benzohexonium
-hygronium
+pancuronium
?
120. Choose the indication for use of M-cholinoblockers:
+hypersecretion of salivary glands
+hyperacid gastritis
+bronchial asthma
-tachycardia
+premedication
+atrio-ventricular blockage
+biliary and urinary colic
?
121. M-cholinoblockers are used in:
-glaucoma
+selection of spectacles
+iridocyclitis
+examination of eye fundus
?
122. M-cholinoblockers are used in:
-hypoacid gastritis
+hyperacid gastritis
+ulcer disease of duodenum and stomach
+acute pancreatitis
+spasms of gastrointestinal tract
?
123. M-cholinoblockers are used in premedication for prevention of:
-reflex tachycardia
+reflex bronchospasm
+reflex bradicardia and cardiac arrest
+reflex hypersecretion of salivary and bronchial glands
?
124. In comparison with atropine, the scopolamine in most effective as:
+drugs for premedication
+drugs for treatment of motion sickness
-drugs for treatment of ulcer disease of duodenum
-broncholytic
?
125. In comparison with atropine, ipratropium bromide is used only in:
-ulcer disease of duodenum and stomach
+bronchial asthma
-spasm of smooth muscles of gastrointestinal tract
?
126. In comparison with atropine, pirenzepine is used only in:
+ulcer disease of duodenum and hyperacid gastritis
-bronchial asthma
-spasm of smooth muscles of gastro-intestinal tract
?
127. Indications for use of ganglion blockers are:
+hypertensive crisis
+spasm of peripheral vessels
+controlled hypotension
+brain or pulmonary edema
-chronic hypotension
?
128. What drug is used for controlled hypotension?
+hygronium
-benzohexonium
?
129. Indications for use of skeletal muscles relaxants:
+for relaxation of skeletal muscles in surgical operations
+tracheal intubation
+dislocations of joints
+reposition of bone fragments
+elimination of convulsions in tetanus
-for relaxation of smooth muscles in surgical operations
?
130. Choose the drug used for short-term relaxation of skeletal muscles:
-tubocurarine
+dithylinum
-pancuronium
?
131. Indicate the side effects of M-cholinoblockers:
+dryness in mouth
-hypersalivation
+dilatation of pupils
+paralysis of accommodation
-bradycardia
+tachycardia
?
132. The increase of intraocular pressure is typical side effect of:
-pilocarpine
+scopolamine
+atropine
-galantamine
?
133. M-cholinoblockers are contraindicated in:
-hypertensive disease
+glaucoma
+constipation
+intestinal atony
+tachycardia
?
134. Indicate the typical symptoms of poisoning by atropine:
+psychomotor excitement
-sedation
+dilatation of pupils
+dryness in mouth
+hallucinations, delirium
+hyperthermia
?
135. Indicate the side effects of ganglion blockers:
+postural hypotension
-diarrhea
+impairment of vision
+dryness in mouth
+intestinal atony
?
136. Choose the drugs which can cause the intestinal atony:
-tubocurarine
+benzohexonium
+atropine
+scopolamine
-dithylinum
?
137. Choose the drugs which can cause the impairment of vision owing to
paralysis of accommodation:
+M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockers
-M-cholinomimetics with direct action
-M-cholinomimetics with indirect action
?
138. Choose the agents which can cause the dryness in mouth:
+M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockerts
-M-cholinomimetics
?
139. The tachycardia is caused by:
+M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockers
-M-cholinomimetics
?
140. Orthostatic hypotension is caused by:
-M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockerts
-both answers are incorrect
?
141. Constipation is caused by:
+M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockers
- both answers are incorrect
?
142. Indicate the side effects of tubocurarine:
+decrease of blood pressure
-increase of blood pressure
-cardiac arrhythmias
-muscular pain in postoperative period
+bronchospasm
?
143. Indicate the side effects of dithylinum:
-decrease of blood pressure
+increase of blood pressure
+cardiac arrhythmias
+muscular pain in postoperative period
-bronchospasm
?
144. Choose М-cholinoblockers which badly penetrate through blood-brain
barrier:
-atropine
+pirenzepine
-scopolamine
+ipratropium bromide
?
145. Atropine:
+is non-selective blocker of M-cholinergic receptors
-selectively blocks M-cholinoceptors of excretory glands
+easily penetrates through blood-brain barrier
+can provoke the acute glaucoma attack
-is used as hypotensive agent
?
146. Pirenzepine:
-blocks M-cholinoceptors in all inner organs and tissues
+selectively blocks M-cholinoceptors of stomach
+is used for treatment of ulcer disease of duodenum and stomach
-is used in bronchospasm
?
147. Benzohexonium:
+is ganglion blocker of group of quaternary ammonium compounds
-ganglion blocker of group of tertiary amines
-acts during 10-15 minutes
+acts during 2-4 hours
-is the drug of choice for controlled hypotension
+is used in hypertensive crisis, spasms of peripheral vessels, pulmonary edema,
and brain edema
?
148. Hygronium:
+is ganglion blocker of group of quaternary ammonium compounds
-ganglion blocker of group of tertiary amines
-is administered enterally
+is administered parenterally
+acts during 10-15 minutes
+acts during 2-4 hours
+is the drug of choice for controlled hypotension
+is used in hypertensive crisis, brain edema, and pulmonary edema
?
149. Dithylinum:
+is peripheral myorelaxant with depolarizing action
-is peripheral myorelaxant with non-depolarizing action
-acts during 60 minutes
+acts during 5-10 minutes
?
150. Atropine eliminates the all following symptoms od poisoning by
cholinesterase inhibitors, except:
-pupil narrowing
-hypersecretion of excretory glands
-bradycardia and decrease of blood pressure
-increase of tone of smooth muscles
+increase of tone of skeletal muscles
?
151. Choose the drugs which eliminate the effects of M-cholinomimetics:
-benzohexonium
+atropine
+scopolamine
-hygronium
-tubocurarine
?
152. Choose the drugs which eliminate the neuromuscular blockage owing to
tubocurarine action:
-atropine
+galantamine
+proserinum
-benzohexonium
-hygronium
?
153. Choose the correct statements:
-drugs which block the cholinergic synapses are divided into drugs with nondepolarizing action and depolarizing action
+M-cholinoblockers decrease the tone of smooth muscles of inner organs, except
of smooth muscles of vessels
-ganglion blockers decrease the blood pressure, because block the
parasympathetic ganglia
+peripheral myorelaxants are used for relaxation of skeletal muscles in surgical
operations
?
154. Choose the correct statements:
-drugs which block the cholinergic synapses are divided into tertiary amines and
quaternary ammonium compounds
+M-cholinoblockers decrease the secretion of excretory glands
+ganglion blockers decrease the secretion of excretory glands owing to blockage
of parasympathetic ganglia
+peripheral myorelaxants are used for tracheal intubation
?
155. Choose the correct statements:
-drugs blocking the cholinergic synapses are divided into 3 groups: agents with
short-term action, agents with intermediate action, and agents with long action
+ganglion blockers decrease the tone of smooth muscles of vessels, intestine, and
bladder
+M-cholinoblockers increase the intraocular pressure
+peripheral myorelaxants are used for reposition of bone fragments and
dislocations
?
156. Alpha-adrenomimetics:
-noradrenaline
+mesatonum [phenylephrine]
-adrenaline
-isadrinum [isoprenaline]
-salbutamol
+halazolinum [xylometazoline]
?
157. Alpha1-adrenomimetic:
+mesatonum
-halazolinum
?
158. Alpha2-adrenomimetic:
-mesatonum
+halazolinum
?
159. Beta-adrenomimetics:
-ephedrine
+salbutamol
- halazolinum
-mesatonum
-noradrenaline
+isadrinum
+salmeterol
+fenoterol
+dobutamine
?
160. Alpha-beta-adrenomimetics:
-salbutamol
+adrenaline
-mesatonum
-halazolinum
+noradrenaline
-dobutamine
?
161. Beta1-adrenomimetic:
-isadrinum
-salmeterol
-fenoterol
-salbutamol
+dobutamine
?
162. Beta2-adrenomimetics:
-ephedrine
-isadrinum
+salbutamol
-adrenaline
+salmeterol
+fenoterol
?
163. Beta1,2-adrenomimetic:
-adrenaline
-noradrenaline
-ephedrine
-dobutamine
+isadrinum
?
164. Alpha1,alpha2,beta1-adrenomimetic:
-salbutamol
-fenoterol
-dobutamine
-adrenaline
-halazolinum
+noradrenaline
?
165. Sympathomimetic:
-isadrinum
-salbutamol
-halazolinum
-adrenaline
+ephedrine
?
166. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of excitation of alphaadrenoceptors:
-narrowing of pupils
+dilation of pupils
-relaxation of bronchi
-tachycardia
-facilitation of atrio-ventricular conductivity
-increase of heart rate
+narrowing of vessels
-dilation of vessels
?
167. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of stimulation of alpha1adrenoceptors:
+dilation of pupils
- relaxation of bronchi
-increase of heart contraction
-tachycardia
+narrowing of vessels
?
168. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of stimulation of alpha2adrenoceptors:
+narrowing of vessels
-relaxation of bronchi
-tachycardia
+decrease of noradrenaline’s release from the endings of adrenergic nervous
fibers
-increase of noradrenaline’s release from the endings of adrenergic nervous
fibers
?
169. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of stimulation of betaadrenoceptors:
-dilation of pupils
+increase of heart contraction
+increase of heart rate
+facilitation of atrio-ventricular conductivity
+increase of automatism of sinus node
+dilation of bronchi
+increase of renin’s secretion
?
170. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of stimulation of beta1adrenoceptors:
+increase of heart contraction
+increase of heart rate
+facilitation of atrio-ventricular conductivity
+increase of automatism of sinus node
-dilation of bronchi
+increase of renin’s secretion
?
171. Choose the effects of adrenaline which are result of stimulation of beta2adrenoceptors:
-narrowing of bronchi
+dilation of bronchi
-narrowing of vessels
+dilation of vessels
-suppression of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of adrenergic nervous
fibers
+ stimulation of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of adrenergic nervous
fibers
?
172. Adrenaline increases the concentration of:
+glucose in the blood
+free fatty acids in the blood
-glycogen in skeletal muscles
?
173. Choose the groups of drugs which cause the dilation of pupils without
influence upon the accommodation:
+alpha1-adrenomimetics
-alpha2-adrenomimetics
-beta-adrenomimetics
+alpha,beta-adrenomimetics
+sympathomimetics
?
174. Choose the drugs which cause the mydriasis:
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
-isadrinum
+noradrenaline
+mesatonum
?
175. Choose the drugs decreasing intraocular pressure:
+mesatonum
-halazolinum
-dobutamine
-salbutamol
-isadrinum
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
?
176. Choose the groups of drugs dilating the bronchi:
-alpha1-adrenomimetics
-alpha2-adrenomimetics
-beta1-adrenomimetics
+beta2-adrenomimetics
+beta1,2-adrenomimetics
+sympathomimetics
?
177. What is the main effect of dobutamine?
-increase of vessels tone
-decrease of bronchial tone
+increase of heart contraction
?
178. Choose the groups of drugs narrowing the vessels and increasing the blood
pressure:
+alpha1-adrenomimetics
-beta1-adrenomimetics
-beta2-adrenomimetics
-beta1,2-adrenomimetics
+alpha,beta-adrenomimetics
+sympathomimetics
?
179. Choose the groups of drugs dilating the vessels and decreasing the blood
pressure:
-alpha1-adrenomimetics
-alpha2-adrenomimetics
-beta1-adrenomimetics
+beta2-adrenomimetics
+beta1,2-adrenomimetics
-sympathomimetics
?
180. Choose the drug decreasing the blood pressure and causing tachycardia:
-mesatonum
-noradrenaline
+isadrinum
-dobutamine
-ephedrine
?
181. Choose the drugs increasing blood pressure and causing tachycardia:
-mesatonum
-noradrenaline
-isadrinum
-fenoterol
+ephedrine
+adrenaline
-salbutamol
?
182. Beta2-adrenomimetics cause:
-dilation of pupils
+dilation of bronchi
-decrease of blood pressure
+decrease of contraction and tone of uterus
?
183. Indicate the localization of adrenoceptors:
+cells of effector organs near the endings of sympathetic nervous fibers
- cells of effector organs near the endings of parasympathetic nervous fibers
-neurons of sympathetic ganglia
+neurons of CNS
-chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
+presynaptic membrane of adrenergic synapses
?
184. The mechanism of action of adrenomimetics is:
+direct stimulation of adrenergic receptors
-stimulation of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of sympathetic nervous
fibers
-supression of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of sympathetic nervous
fibers
?
185. The mechanism of action of sympathomimetics:
-stimulation of sympatheitc ganglia
+stimulation of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of sympathetic nervous
fibers
-supression of noradrenaline’s release by the ending of sympathetic nervous
fibers
?
186. Alpha1-adrenomimetics cause the dilation of pupils owing to contraction of:
-ciliary muscle
-iris sphincter
+radial muscles of iris
?
187. Alpha1-adrenomimetics decrease the intraocular pressure owing to:
-facilitation of outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber
+suppression of production of aqueous humor
?
188. Alpha1-adrenomimetics are effective agents in rhinitis because:
-narrow vessels and increase blood pressure
+narrow blood vessels of the mucous membrane of the nose and decrease the
stuffiness
-have the antimicrobial effect
?
189. Alpha1-adrenomimetics increase the blood pressure because:
+narrow the blood vessels
-increase the cardiac output
?
190. Alpha1-adrenomimetics decrease the heart rate owing to:
-direct stimulation of adrenoceptors of cardiomyocites
-direct inhibition of adrenoceptors in the heart
+increase of blood pressure and reflex activation of vagus’s influence upon the
sinus node
?
191. Beta1-adrenomimetics are effective in heart failure because increase:
+force of heart contraction
-heart rate
-atrio-ventricular conduction
-automatism of cardiomyocites
?
192. Beta1,2-adrenomimetics are effective in atrio-ventricular blockage because
increase:
-force of heart contraction
-heart rate
+atrio-ventricular conduction
-automatism of cardiomyocites
?
193. Beta1,2-adrenomimetics cause bronchodilation because stimulate:
-beta1-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of bronchi
+beta2-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of bronchi
-secretion of adrenaline by adrenal medulla
-releasing of noradrenaline by the adrenergic nervous in bronchi
?
194. Beta2-adrenomimetics cause bronchodilation because stimulate:
+beta2-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of bronchi
-secretion of adrenaline by adrenal medulla
-releasing of noradrenaline by the adrenergic nervous in bronchi
?
195. In intravenous administration, noradrenaline increase the blood pressure
owing to:
+excitation of alpha1-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of vessels
+excitation of alpha2-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of vessels
-excitation of beta1- and beta2-adrenoceptors of heart
-excitation of beta2-adrenoceptors of vessels
?
196. In intravenous administration, noradrenaline cause the bradycardia owing
to:
+increase of blood pressure and activation of baroreceptor reflex
-direct stimulation of neurons of baroreceptor reflex center
-direct inhibition of automatism of sinus node
?
197. Choose the drugs increasing blood pressure owing to the enhance of cardiac
output and of general peripheral resistance:
-isadrinum
-mesatonum
-noradrenaline
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
?
198. Mesatonum is used:
+in rhinitis
+in hypotension
-in bronchial asthma
-in atrio-ventricular blockage
+in open-angle glaucoma
?
199. Dobutamine is used:
+in acute heart failure
-in atrio-ventricular blockage
-in bradycardia
?
200. Choose the indications for use of beta2-adrenominetics:
+bronchial asthma
-heart failure
-arterial hypertension
+premature labor
?
201. Indications for use of isadrinum:
-arterial hypertension
+bronchial asthma
+atrio-ventricular blockage
-arterial hypotension
-premature labor
?
202. Indications for use of adrenaline:
+open-angle glaucoma
+interruption of asthma attacks
+heart arrest
+atrio-ventricular blockage
-chronic hypotension
+anaphylactic shock
+hypoglycemic coma
+together with solutions of local anaesthetics
?
203. The indications for use of noradrenaline:
-heart arrest
-atrio-ventricular blockage
-chronic hypotension
+acute vessels insufficiency
-anaphylactic shock
?
204. The indications for use of ephedrine:
-hypertension
+rhinitis
+bronchial asthma
+atrio-ventricular blockage
+chronic hypotension
+anaphylactic shock
?
205. Choose drugs which are used in open-angle glaucoma:
+adrenaline
-noradrenaline
-isadrinum
+mesatonum
?
206. Choose drugs which are used in rhinitis:
+halazolinum
-noradrenaline
-isadrinum
-salbutamol
+ephedrine
?
207. Choose agents which are used in bronchospasms:
+isadrinum
+fenoterol
-noradrenaline
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
+salmeterol
+salbutamol
?
208. Choose drug which is used in acute heart failure:
-salbutamol
-fenoterol
+dobutamine
?
209. Choose drugs which are used in atrio-ventricular blockage:
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
-mesatonum
+isadrinum
-fenoterol
-dobutamine
?
210. Choose drugs which are used for increase of blood pressure:
-isadrinum
+mesatonum
+noradrenaline
+ephedrine
-dobutamine
?
211. Choose agents which are used for prevention of premature labor:
-adrenaline
-mesatonum
-ephedrinum
+fenoterol
-dobutamine
+salbutamol
?
212. Choose agents which are used together with solutions of local anaesthetics:
+mesatonum
-isadrinum
-fenoterol
+adrenaline
-dobutamine
?
213. Indicate the side effect arising in intravenous administration of
noradrenaline or mesatonum with aim of increase of the blood pressure:
-reflex tachycardia
+reflex bradycardia
-increase of atrio-ventricular conduction
?
214. Indicate the side effects of beta-adrenomimetics:
+tachycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
+decrease of blood pressure
-increase of blood pressure
-hypoglycemia
+hyperglycemia
+tremor
?
215. Indicate the side effects of isadrinum:
+tachycardia
-bradycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
-increase of blood pressure
+decrease of blood pressure
+tremor
?
216. Indicate the side effects of adrenaline:
+tachycardia
-bradycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
+arterial hypertension
+hyperglycemia
-hypoglycemia
?
217. Indicate the side effects of ephedrine:
-bradycardia
+tachycardia
-drowsiness
+insomnia
-hypotension
+hypertension
+drug’s dependence
?
218. Tahyphylaxis is result of repeated administration of:
+ephedrine
-adrenaline
?
219. Mesatonum:
-stimulates heart contraction
+narrows blood vessels
+is administered locally, perorally, and parenterally
-is administered only parenterally
+is used in glaucoma, rhinitis, and hypotension
-is used in bronchial asthma, heart failure, and premature labor
?
220. Adrenaline and mesatonum are used together with local anaesthetics
solutions for:
+prolongation of local anaesthetics effect
-increase of absorption of local anaesthetic into the blood
+decrease of absorption of local anaesthetic into the blood
+decrease the systemic side effects of local anaesthetics
?
221. Halazolinum:
-is administered intravenously
-is used in arterial hypotension
+is used in rhinitis
?
222. Choose drugs which are effective in peroral administration:
-adrenaline
-noradrenaline
+salbutamol
+fenoterol
+ephedrine
?
223. Salbutamol:
+is used perorally
+is used in inhalations
-causes the marked tachycardia
+insignificantly influences upon the heart rate
+is used as broncholytic
+is used for prevention of premature labor
?
224. Adrenaline:
+can cause extrasystoles
+is drug of choice in anaphylactic shock
-decreases the oxygen demand of myocardium
+decreases the bronchial tone
+is effective only in parenteral administration
?
225. Isadrinum:
-is used perorally
+is used sublingually
+is used in inhalations
-stimulates both alpha- and beta-adrenoceptors
+relaxes the bronchi
+causes tachycardia
+is used in atrio-ventricular blockage and bronchospasms
?
226. Noradrenaline:
+stimulates alpha- and beta-1-adrenoceptors
+causes reflex bradycardia
-is effective broncholytic
+is effective vasoconstrictor
?
227. Choose the correct statements:
-drugs stimulating adrenergic receptors are divided only into two groups: alphaadrenomimetics and beta-adrenomimetics
+main effect of alpha-adrenomimetics is the narrowing of blood vessels
+indications for use of beta-2-adrenomimetics are bronchospasm and premature
labor
-alpha-adrenomimetics narrow blood vessels owing to stimulation of vasomotor
center
?
228. Alpha-adrenoblockers:
-reserpine
-anaprilinum [propranolol]
-metoprolol
+phentolamine
+prazosin
+terazosin
?
229. beta-adrenoblockers:
+metoprolol
-phentolamine
-labetalol
+atenolol
+anaprilinum
+pindolol
?
230. Alpha,beta-adrenoblocker:
-metoprolol
-talinolol
-phentolamine
-anaprilinum
-prazosin
+labetalol
?
231. Alpha-1-adrenoblockers:
+prazosin
+terazosin
-phentolamime
-tropaphenum
?
232. Alpha-1,2-adrenoblockers:
+phentolamine
-prazosin
-terazosin
+tropaphenum
?
233. Beta-1-adrenoblockers:
-sotalol
-anaprilinum
+atenolol
+metoprolol
?
234. Beta-1,2-adrenoblockers:
-metoprolol
+nadolol
+anaprilinum
-atenolol
?
235. Sympatholytics:
-prazosin
-talinolol
+reserpine
+octadinum
-anaprilinum
?
236. Alpha-adrenoblockers decrease:
+tone of blood vessels
+blood pressure
+tone of smooth muscle of the bladder neck and of the prostate
-heart rate
?
237. Phentolamine decreases:
+tone of blood vessels
+blood pressure
-heart rate
?
238. Beta-adrenoblockers decrease:
+force of heart contraction
+heart rate
+atrio-ventricular conduction
+automatism of sinus node
-bronchial tone
-contraction of uterus
+secretion of renin
+intraocular pressure
?
239. Beta-adrenoblockers can increase:
-force of cardiac contraction
+tone of peripheral vessels
+tone of smooth muscle of bronchi
+tone and contractility of uterus
-glucose’s level in the blood
?
240. Indicate the effects of anaprilinum:
+decrease of heart rate and force of cardiac contraction
+worsening of atrio-ventricular conduction
+decrease of automatism of sinus node
+lowering of blood pressure
-increase of renin’s secretion
+increase of tone and contractility of uterus
?
241. Labetalol decreases:
+force of cardiac contraction and heart rate
+cardiac output
+tone of blood vessels
+blood pressure
-tone of bronchi
-tone and contractility of uterus
?
242. Indicate the cardio-vascular effects of reserpine:
-increase of cardiac output
+decrease of cardiac output
-increase of tone of peripheral vessels (increase of general peripheral resistance)
+decrease of tone of peripheral vessels (decrease of general peripheral
resistance)
-increase of blood pressure
+decrease of blood pressure
?
243. Effect of reserpine in gastrointestinal tract:
+increase of intestinal motility
-decrease of intestinal motility
-both answers are incorrect
?
244. Reserpine:
+increases the gastric secretion
-suppresses the gastric secretion
?
245. Indicate the effects or reserpine in central nervous system:
-psychostimulative effect
+psychosedative effect
-antidepressive effect
+psychical depression
?
246. Indicate the drugs blocking adrenoceptors:
+anaprilinum
+atenolol
+phentolamine
-reserpine
?
247. Phentolamine blocks:
-sympathetic ganglia
+presynaptic alpha-adrenoceptors
+postsynaptic alpha-adrenoceptors
-postsynaptic beta-adrenoceptors
-presynaptic beta-adrenoceptors
+alpha-adrenoceptors located outside of the synapses
?
248. Phentolamine increases the release of noradrenaline from the sympathetic
nervous terminals owing to:
-sympathomimetic effect
+blockage of presynaptic alpha-2-adrenoceptors
-suppression of reuptake of noradrenalie
?
249. Choose the drugs which relax blood vessels and decrease the blood pressure
owing to blockage of alpha-adrenoceptors:
-anaprilinum
-reserpine
+phentolamine
+prazosin
?
250. Beta-adrenoblockers decrease the blood pressure owing to:
+decrease of cardiac output
-suppression of atrio-ventricular conduction
+decrease of renin’s secretion
?
251. Beta-adrenoblockers are effective in angina pectoris because:
-cause dilation of blood vessels
+decrease the heart work and oxygen demand of myocardium
-stimulate the metabolism of myocardium
?
252. Beta-adrenoblockers are effective in tachyarrhythmias and in extrasystoles
because:
-decrease the force of cardiac contraction
+ decrease the heart rate
+suppress the atrio-ventricular conduction
+decrease the automatism of cardiomyocytes
?
253. Labetalol decreases blood pressure because blocks:
+alpha-1-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of vessels
-alpha-2-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of vessels
- beta-2-adrenoceptors of smooth muscles of vessels
+ beta-1-adrenoceptors of cardiomycytes
?
254. Indicate the localization of action of sympatholytics:
-sympathetic ganglia
+endings of adrenergic nervous fibers
-adrenoceptors of cells of inner organs
?
255. What is the mechanism of action of sympatholytics?
-stimulation of MAO
-blockage of adrenoceptors
+decrease of noradrenaline’s release from the adrenergic nervous terminals
?
256. Reserpine blocks:
+the reuptake of noradrenaline by the vesicles of adrenergic fibers
-the releasing of noradrenaline by the adrenergic fibers
+the reuptake of dopamine by the vesicles of adrenergic fibers
?
257. Sympatholytics decrease the blood pressure owing to blockage of
sympathetic influence upon:
+the heart
+the blood vessels
-the chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
?
258. Choose the indications for use of alpha-adrenoblockers:
+treatment of hypertensive disease
+interruption of hypertensive crisis
+spasms of peripheral vessels
+pulmonary edema
+benign prostatic hypertrophy
+pheochromocytoma
-bronchial asthma
?
259. Choose alpha-adrenoblocker which is used for chronic treatment of
hypertensive disease:
+prazosin
-phentolamine
-tropaphenum
?
260. Choose the indications for use of beta-adrenoblockers:
+angina pectoris
+hypertensive disease
+tachyarrhythmias and extrasystoles
+glaucoma
-bronchial asthma
-atrio-ventricular blockage
?
261. Choose the drugs which are effective in angina pectoris:
-reserpine
-phentolamine
+anaprilinum
+metoprolol
+atenolol
?
262. Choose the groups of drugs which are effective in hypertensive disease:
+alpha-adrenoblockers
+beta-adrenoblockers
+alpha,beta-adrenoblockers
+sympatholytics
-beta-adrenomimetics
?
263. Choose the agents which are used for interruption of hypertensive crisis:
+phentolamine
-salnutamol
+labetalol
-octadinum
?
264. Choose the agents which are used for chronic treatment of hypertensive
disease:
-phentolamine
+prazosin
+anaprilinum
+talinolol
+labetalol
+reserpine
?
265. Choose the indications for use of labetalol:
+hypertensive crisis
+chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
-angina pectoris
-cardiac arrhythmias
-glaucoma
-pheochromocytoma
?
266. The main indication for use of reserpine is:
-hypertensive crisis
+chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
-pheochromocytoma
-angina pectoris
-cardiac arrhythmias
?
267. Indicate the side effects of non-selective alpha-adrenoblockers:
+tachycardia
+postural hypotension
-midriasis
-atrio-ventricular blockage
?
268. Tachycardia and postural hypotension are typical side effects of:
-anaprilinum
+tropaphenum
+phentolamine
?
269. Indicate the side effects of beta-1,2-adrenoblockers:
+bradycardia
+suppression of atrio-ventricular conduction
+aggravation of heart failure
+spasm of peripheral vessels
+bronchospasm
+increase of tone and contractility of uterus
-intestinal atony
?
270. Choose the typical side effects of beta-1-adrenoblockers:
+bradycardia
+inhibition of atrio-ventricular conduction
+aggravation of heart failure
-spasm of peripheral vessels
-bronchospasm
-increase of tone and contractility of uterus
?
271. Choose the side effects of alpha,beta-adrenoblockers:
+postural hypotension
+bradycardia
+suppression of atrio-ventricular conduction
+aggravation of heart failure
+bronchospasm
?
272. The side effects of sympatholytics are:
+bradycardia
+aggravation of heart failure
+increase of gastric secretion
+increase of intestinal motility
-bladder atony
?
273. Choose drugs causing postural hypotension:
+phentolamine
-anaprilinum
-atenolol
+labetalol
?
274. Indicate the drugs which are contraindicated in atrio-ventricular blockage:
-prazosin
+anaprilinum
-phentolamine
+atenolol
+metoprolol
?
275. Indicate the drugs which are contraindicated in bronchial asthma:
-prazosin
-phentolamine
+anaprilinum
+labetalol
+pindolol
?
276. The side effects of reserpine are:
+sedation
+psychical depression
-intestinal atony
+diarrhea
+stuffiness of nose
+increase of gastric secretion
?
277. Phentolamine:
-reduces all effects of adrenaline
+stimulates the release of noradrenaline from the adrenergic fibers
+causes the marked tachycardia
+is used in disturbances of peripheral blood flow
-is used for chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
?
278. Prazosin:
+selectively blocks alpha-1-adrenergic receptors
+decreases the blood pressure owing to the widening of blood vessels
+causes insignificant reflex tachycardia
-stimulates the heart work
+is used for chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
+is used for treatment of chronic heart failure
?
279. Anaprilinum:
+decreases the heart rate
+decreases the cardiac output
+eliminates the arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline
-facilitates the atrio-ventricular conduction
+is used for treatment of stenocardia, tachyarrhythmias, and hypertensive
disease
Egypt lover
2018
?
1. Choose the agents for inhalation anaesthesia:
-thiopental sodium
+phthorotanum [halothane]
+nitrous oxide
-ketamine [kalipsol]
+isoflurane
?
2. Gaseous anaesthetic:
-phthorotanum [halothane]
+nitrous oxide
-propanidid
-isoflurane
?
3. Volatile liquids:
+phthorotanum [halothane]
-nitrous oxide
-ketamine
+isoflurane
?
4. Drugs for intravenous anaesthesia:
+ketamine
-halotane
+thiopental sodium
+propanidid
?
5. Phthorothanum [halothane]:
+has high anaesthetic activity
+increases the sensitivity of heart to adrenaline
+increases the action of non-depolarizing myorelaxants
-is used for intravenous anaesthesia
?
6. Nitrous oxide:
+ has low anaesthetic activity
-causes significant relaxation of skeletal muscles
-irritates the mucous membranes of respiratory tract
+has marked analgesic activity
?
7. Thiopental sodium:
+causes anaesthesia in 1-2 minutes after intravenous administration
+acts during 20-30 minutes
-acts during 1-3 hours
+is accumulated in adipose tissues
-has marked analgesic action
?
8. The short-time action of thiopental sodium is result of:
-high speed of drug’s biotransformation in the liver
-fast drug’s elimination by kidneys
+fast drug’s redistribution in organism (accumulation in adipose tissues)
?
9. Ketamine:
-causes the deep surgical anaesthesia
+causes the loss of consciousness and general analgesia
-hasn’t analgesic activity
+is antagonist of NMDA-receptors
+can cause the disphoria and hallucinations in postoperative period
?
10. Propofol:
+causes the anaesthesia in 30-40 seconds after intravenous administration
-has marked analgesic action
+has short-time effect (3-10 minutes)
?
11. Choose the side effects of halothane:
-tachycardia
+bradycardia
-increase of blood pressure
+hypotension
+cardiac arrhythmias
?
12. Choose the side effects of ketamine:
-hypotension
+increase of blood pressure
+tachycardia
+postoperative hallucinations
?
13. Bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias are side effects of:
-thiopental sodium
-nitrous oxide
+halothane
-propofol
?
14. Choose the agents which promote the development of arrhythmias in
halothane anaesthesia:
-anaprilinum
+adrenaline
+ephedrine
?
15. Choose agent which increases the sensitivity of myocardium to adrenaline:
-thipental sodium
+halothane
-propofol
-nitrous oxide
?
16. The anaeasthetic action of general anaesthetics after the administration of
neuroleptics:
+is increased
-is decreased
-both answers are incorrect
?
17. The drug A. is inhalation anaesthetic with high anaesthetic activity. It causes
the bradycardia, decreases the blood pressure, and causes the sensitization of
myocardium to adrenaline. Define drug A.
-nitrous oxide
-propofol
+halothane
-ketamine
?
18. The drug A. is inhalation anaesthetic with low anaesthetic activity. An agent
has the marked analgesic action, is used for analgesia in myocardial infarction.
Define the drug A.
-halothane
-ketamine
-thipental sodium
+nitrous oxide
?
19. After the intravenous administration, the drug A. causes the development of
anaesthesia in 1-2 minutes. The duration of anaesthesia up to 30 minutes. The
drug A. is fastly accumulated in adipose tissues. Define the drug A.
-ketamine
+thiopental sodium
-halothane
?
20. The drug A. is administered intravenously. Duration of anaesthesia is 5-10
minutes. This drug causes the development of so-called “dissociative”
anaesthesia. In postoperative period, the hallucinations are common. Define the
drug A.
-halothane
-propofol
-thiopental sodium
+ketamine
?
21. Choose the correct statements:
-the duration of thiopental sodium action is 3-5 minutes
+nitrous oxide is used for analgesia in myocardial infarction
+ketamine is competitive antagonist of NMDA-receptors
?
22. Choose the correct statements:
-nitrous oxide is the most active agent for inhalation anaesthesia
+thiopental sodium has low analgesic activity
-halothane in administered intravenously
?
23. Choose the correct statements:
+ketamine is agent for intravenous anaesthesia
-the duration of thiopental sodium action is 1-3 hours
+halothane causes the sensitization of myocardium to adrenaline
?
24. Choose the correct statements:
+nitrous oxide has the marked analgesic action
-halothane has less anaesthetic activity than nitrous oxide
-halothane causes the dissociative anaesthesia
?
25. Choose the correct statements:
-halothane is drug for intravenous anaesthesia
+thiopental sodium is accumulated in adipose tissues
-propofol is drug for inhalation anaesthesia
?
26. Choose the correct statements:
-the duration of ketamine’s action is 1-3 minutes
-nitrous oxide has prolonged anaesthetic effect
+nitrous oxide has the less anaesthetic activity than halothane
?
27. Choose the correct statements:
-nitrous oxide causes the sensitization of myocardium to adrenaline
-thiopental sodium causes the prolonged stage of excitement
+halothane decreases the blood pressure
?
28. Choose the hypnotics of group of benzodiazepine derivatives:
-zolpidem
+phenazepam
+diazepam
-aethaminalum sodium
+nitrazepam
?
29. Choose hypnotics which are the agonists of benzodiazepine receptors:
-flumazenil
+diazepam
+zolpidem
+nitrazepam
?
30. Indicate the non-benzodiazepine agonist of benzodiazepine receptors:
-diazepam
-flumazenil
+zolpidem
-nitrazepam
-aethaminalum sodium
?
31. Choose the hypnotics with narcotic type of action:
+chloral hydrate
+aethaminal sodium
-nitrazepam
-zolpidem
?
32. Choose the hypnotic – derivative of barbituric acid:
-nitrazepam
+aethaminal sodium
-zolpidem
-chloral hydrate
?
33. Indicate the hypnotic which are aliphatic compound:
-nitrazepam
-zolpidem
-aethaminal sodium
+chloral hydrate
?
34. Choose the effects of diazepam:
+sedative
+hypnotic
+anticonvulsive
+anxiolytic
-increase of skeletal muscles tone
?
35. Choose correct statement: Продолжительность фазы «быстрого» сна
барбитураты:
-barbiturates prolong the duration of REM-sleep
+barbiturates decrease the duration of REM-sleep
-both statements are incorrect
?
36. Indicate the hypnotic which doesn’t affect the structure of sleep:
-aethaminalum sodium
-nitrazepam
+zolpidem
?
37. Choose the correct answer:
-benzodiazepines more influence upon the sleep structure than barbiturates
+benzodiazepines less influence upon the sleep structure than barbiturates
-both answers are incorrect
?
38. Choose the correct answers: При снижении активности микросомальных
ферментов печени длительность действия этаминал-натрия:
-in patient with low activity of microsomal enzymes the duration of
ethaminalum sodium action is decreased
+in patient with low activity of microsomal enzymes the duration of
ethaminalum sodium action is increased
-the activity of microsomal enzymes don’t influence upon the duration of
ethaminalum sodium action
?
39. Barbiturates:
+cause the induction of microsomal enzymes of liver
-inhibit microsomal enzymes of liver
-don’t influence upon the microsomal activity of liver
?
40. Zolpidem:
-blocks the benzodiazepine receptors in CNS
-decreases the GABA-ergic processes in CNS
+stimulates the GABA-ergic processes in CNS
+is used as hypnotic agent
?
41. Aethaminalum sodium:
-is benzodiazepine derivative
+significantly affects the structure of sleep
+causes the rebound-syndrome after sudden interruption of drug’s intake
+induces the microsomal enzymes of liver
+causes the drug dependence if is used chronically
?
42. Aethaminalum sodium:
-interacts with benzodiazepine receptors
+interacts with barbiturate receptors
+enhances GABA-ergic processes in CNS
-suppresses GABA-ergic processes in CNS
?
43. Nitrazepam:
+has anxiolytic effect
+has hypnotic effect
-relaxes skeletal muscles owing to blockage of neuro-muscular transmission
+relaxes skeletal muscles owing to central action
+has anticonvulsive effect
+can cause the drug dependence
+interacts with benzodiazepine receptors
?
44. Nitrazepam stimulates GABa-ergic processes in CNS owing to:
-inhibition of GABA-transpherase
-interaction with GABA-receptors
+interaction with benzodiazepine receptors
?
45. In comparison with ethaminalum sodium, nitrazepam:
-doesn’t cause sedation
+less influences upon the sleep structure
-doesn’t cause the drug dependence
?
46. Choose the side effects of barbiturates:
-seizures
+disturbances of sleep structure
+afteraction
+drug dependence
?
47. It is known, that after the sudden cessation of hypnotics intake the reboundsyndrome is commonly developed. What is cause of it?
-induction of microsomal enzymes of liver
+influence of drugs upon the structure of sleep
-material cummulation of drug
?
48. Choose hypnotic agent with the most significant influence upon the sleep
structure:
-nitrazepam
+aethaminalum sodium
-phenazapam
-zolpidem
?
22. An ability to shorten a phase of a REM-sleep decreases in sequence:
-zolpidem – nitrazepam – aethaminalum sodium
-aethaminalum sodium – zolpidem - nitrazepam
+aethaminalum sodium – nitrazepam – zolpidem
?
49. Indicate side effect which is result of ability of hypnotic drugs to destroy the
structure of sleep:
-afteraction
+rebound-syndrome
-tolerance
-drug dependence
?
50. In case of barbiturates use, the afteraction is result of:
-the change in sleep structure
-the induction of microsomal enzymes of liver
+the slow elimination of drug from the body
?
51. In case of poisoning by hypnotics, choose the measures which are used for
decrease of drug’s absorption in gastro-intestinal tract:
+gastric lavage
+administration of adsorptive drugs
+administration of saline laxatives
-administration of drugs decreasing of intestinal motility
?
52. In case of acute poisoning by hypnotics with narcotic type of action,
analeptics are used:
+only in easy degree of the poisoning
-only in heavy degree of the poisoning
-in any degree of the poisoning
?
53. Choose the agent which is used in acute poisoning by nitrazepam:
-zolpidem
+flumazenil
-cholinesterase reactivatirs
?
54. Flumazenil is:
-hypnotic agent
+derivative of benzodiazepine
-agonist of benzodiazepine receptors
+antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors
?
55. Choose correct statements:
-zolpidem is derivative of barbituric acid
-aethaminalum sodium is aliphatic compound
+phenazepam is agonist of benzodiazepine receptors
+zolpidem is non-benzodiazepine derivative of benzodiazepine receptors
?
56. Choose correct statements:
-chronic administration of aethaminalum sodium doesn’t result in drug
dependence
-barbiturates don’t affect the sleep structure
+phenobarbital is used for treatment of epilepsy
?
57. Choose correct statements:
+barbiturates can cause the rebound-syndrome
-diazepam inhibits GABA-ergic processes into the brain
-zolpidem inhibits GABA-ergic processes into the brain
?
58. Choose correct statements:
-nitrazepam is derivative of barbituric acid
+zolpidem insignificantly influences upon sleep structure
+aethaminalum sodium increases the GABA-ergic processes into CNS
?
59. Choose correct statements:
+flumazenil is antagonist of zolpidem
+in comparison with barbiturates, benzodiazepines less affect the sleep structure
-phenazepam suppresses GABA-ergic processes into CNS
?
60. Choose correct statements:
+nitrazepam is derivative of benzodiazepine
-aethaminalum sodium is excreted by kidneys mainly as unchanged substance
+zolpidem interacts with benzodiazepine receptors
+diazepam causes the relaxation of skeletal muscles
?
61. Choose correct statements:
+aethaminalum sodium is derivative of barbituric acid
+ in comparison with barbiturates, nitrazepam less affects the sleep structure
+diazepam has anxiolytic effect
+zolpidem has little influence upon the sleep structure
-barbiturates suppress the activity of microsomal enzymes of liver
?
62. Choose correct statements:
+nitrazepam is derivative of benzodiazepine
+aethaminalum sodium undergoes low metabolism in the liver
-phenazepam is derivative of barbituric acid
-flumazenil is antagonist of barbiturates
?
63. Choose correct statements:
-zolpidem suppresses GABA-ergic processes into CNS
+phenazepam is anxiolytic with marked hypnotic action
+nitrazepam increases the sensitivity of GABA-receptors to GABA
+phenazepam can cause the drug dependence
?
64. Choose antiepileptic drugs:
+valproate sodium
-cyclodolum
+lamotrigine
+ethosuximide
+dipheninum [phenytoin]
+phenobarbital
?
65. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of grand mal epilepsy:
+carbamazepine
-ethosuximide
+dipheninum [phenytoin]
+lamotrigine
+valproate sodium
?
66. Choose the drugs which are used for prevention of petit mal epilepsy:
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
+ethosuximide
-phenobarbital
?
67. Choose the drugs which are used for treatment of partial epilepsy:
+valproate sodium
+carbamazepine
+phenobarbital
-ethosuximide
+dipheninum [phenytoin]
+lamotrigine
?
68. Choose the drugs which are used for treatment of myoclonic epilepsy:
+valproate sodium
-ethosuximide
+clonazepam
?
69. Choose the drugs which are used for interruption of status epilepticus:
-ethosuximide
+diazepam
+general anaesthetics
?
70. What drugs are effective in all forms of epilepsy?
+valproate sodium
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
+lamotrigine
-phenobarbital
+clonazepam
?
71. Choose the antiepileptic agents having hypnotic and sedative effects:
-ethosuximide
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
+diazepam
+phenobarbital
?
72. Choose the agent with antiepileptic, central myorelaxive, hypnotic, and
anxiolytic effects:
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
+diazepam
-ethosuximide
?
73. What is mechanism of action of diazepam and phenobarbital?
-increase of GABA synthesis
-direct excitation of GABA-receptors
+increase of sensitivity of GABA-receptors to GABA
-inhibition of enzyme inactivating GABA
?
74. Valproate sodium:
-inhibits glutamate-ergic processes into CNS
+increases GABA-ergic processes into CNS
+increases the synthesis of GABA and suppresses GABA inactivation
+is used in all forms of epilepsy
?
75. Choose the indications for use of carbamazepine:
-myoclinic epilepsy
+grand mal epilepsy
+partial epilepsy
?
76. Choose the indications for use of dipheninum [phenytoin]:
-petit mal epilepsy
+grand mal epilepsy
+partial epilepsy
?
77. Choose the indications for use of phenobarbital:
+grand mal epilepsy
-petit mal epilepsy
-myoclonic epilepsy
?
78. Lamotrigine:
-activates GABA-ergic system of brain
+decreases the activity of glutamate-ergic system of brain
+decreases the release of glutamate by nervous fibers
+is effective in all forms of epilepsy
?
79. The drug A. has antiepileptic, hypnotic, and sedative effects. It stimulates
GABA-ergic processes in brain and induces the activity of microsomal enzymes
of liver. What is drug A.?
-lamotrigine
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
-carbamazepine
+phenobarbital
?
80. The drug A. has antiepileptic, hypnotic, central myorelaxive, and anxiolytic
activities owing to stimulation of GABA-ergic processes in brain. It is used for
interruption of status epilepticus. What is drug A.?
-dipheninum [phenytoin]
-ethosuximide
+diazepam
-lamotrigine
?
81. Choose the groups of drugs which are used for treatment of Parkinson
disease:
+central cholinoblockers
-drugs blocking dopamine-ergic receptors
+drugs stimulating dopamine-ergic processes in brain
+blockers of NMDA-receptors
-agonists of NMDA-receptors
?
82. Choose the groups of antiparkinsonic drugs which stimulate dopamine-ergic
processes in brain:
+precursors of dopamine
-blockers of cholinergic receptors
+inhibitors of МАО-В
+agonists of dopamine-ergic receptors
?
83. Choose drugs which are used for treatment of Parkinson disease:
+cyclodolum
+levodopa
-dipheninum
+midantanum [amantadine]
+bromocriptine
+selegiline [deprenyl]
?
84. Choose antiparkinsonic drugs stimulating dopamine-ergic processes in the
brain:
+bromocriptine
+levodopa
-cyclodolum
+selegiline [deprenyl]
?
85. Choose the drugs which increase the level of dopamine in the basal nucleus
of brain:
-cyclodolum
+levodopa
+selegiline [deprenyl]
?
86. Choose drug inhibiting cholinergic processes in brain:
+cyclodolum
-selegiline
-bromocriptine
-midantanum
-levodopa
?
87. Choose drug which inhibits glutamate-ergic processes in the brain:
-cyclodolum
-selegiline
-bromocriptine
+midantanum
-levodopa
?
88. Levodopa:
+is precursor of dopamine
+increases the synthesis of dopamine into the brain and in peripheral tissues
-suppresses the biotransformation of dopamine
-inhibits МАО-В
-directly stimulates dopamine receptors
+predominantly decreases the hypokinesia and rigidity in patients with
Parkinson disease
?
89. What enzyme participates in transformation of levodopa in dopamine?
-MAO-В
-COMT
+DОPА-decarboxylase
?
90. Indicate an agent which is used together with levodopa for reduction of
peripheral side effects and strengthening of antiparkinsonic action:
-cyclodolum
-midantanum
-bromocriptine
+carbidopa
?
91. What agent is inhibitor of peripheral DOPA decarboxylase?
-midantanum
-cyclodolum
-selegiline
+carbidopa
?
92. Carbidopa:
+doesn’t penetrate trough blood-brain barrier
-easily penetrates trough blood-brain barrier
-inhibits central DOPA-decarboxylase
+inhibits peripheral DOPA-decarboxylase
?
93. Carbidopa doesn’t interferes to transformation of levodopa in dopamene
into the brain because:
-DOPA-decarboxylase is insensitive to carbidopa
+carbidopa doesn’t penetrate trough blood-brain barrier
?
94. What is the aim of combination of levodopa with carbidopa?
-delay of dopamine inactivation into CNS
+inhibition of synthesis of dopamine in peripheral tissues
-stimulation of synthesis of dopamine into CNS
?
95. What is the aim of the simultaneous use of levodopa and carbidopa?
+decrease of side effects of levodopa in peripheral tissues
+increase of antiparkinsonic action of levodopa
-decrease of synthesis of dopamine into the brain
?
96. Choose groups of drugs which are used for reduction of side effects of
levodopa:
-non-selective MAO inhibitors
+inhibitors of peripheral DOPA-decarboxylase
+blockers of peripheral dopamine receptors
?
97. Selegiline:
+is inhibitor of МАО-В
-is central cholinoblocker
-is more effective than levodopa
+is commonly used together with levodopa
?
98. Cyclodolum:
+is central cholinoblocker
-is more effective than levodopa in treatment of Parkinson disease
+ is less effective than levodopa in treatment of Parkinson disease
+is contraindicated in glaucoma
+is used in iatrogenic parkinsonism
?
99. Midantanum:
-stimulates cholinoceptors
+is non-competitive antagonist of NMDA-receptors
-inhibits DOPA-decarboxylase
+decreases the hypokinesia and rigidity in patients with parkinsonism
+has less efficacy than levodopa
?
100. Choose opioid analgesics:
+promedolum
-paracetamol
+butorphanol
+morphine
-atropine
+buprenorphine
+fentanyl
?
101. Choose the agonists of opioid receptors:
+morphine
-buprenorphine
+fentanyl
-pentazocine
?
102. Choose the agonists-antagonists of opioid receptors:
-morphine
-fentanyl
-naloxone
+buprenorphine
+butorphanol
?
103. Choose the non-opioid analgesic with central mechanism of action:
-morphine
-butorphanol
-beprenorphine
+paracetamol
?
104. Indicate non-opioid drugs of different pharmacological groups which have
the analgesic activity:
-butorphanol
+amitriptyline
+carbamazepine
+ketamine
+nitrous oxide
?
105. Morphine is:
+opioid analgesic
+alkaloid of plant origin
-antagonist of opioid receptors
-inhibitor of COX
?
106. Choose the effects of opioid analgesics:
+euphoria
+inhibition of breathing
-decrease of body temperature
-anti-inflammatory effect
+drug abuse
+analgesia
+concstipation
+miosis
?
107. Morphine causes:
+analgesia
+inhibition of respiration
-anti-inflammatory effect
-antipyretic effect
+antitussive effect
+euphoria
+constipation
?
108. Under the influence of morphine, the sensitivity of respiratory center to
carbonic gas:
+is decreased
-is increased
-both answers are incorrect
?
109. Morphine:
-increases the sensitivity of cough center
+decreases the sensitivity of cough center
-doesn’t change the sensitivity of cough center
?
110. Morphine causes:
-dilation of pupils
+narrowing of pupils
-both answers are incorrect
?
111. Under the morphine influence, the tone of sphincters of gastro-intestinal
tract:
-is decreased
+is increased
-morphine doesn’t affect the tone of sphincters
?
112. Indicate the gastrointestinal effects of morphine:
+increase of tone of sphincters
+decrease of secretion of gastrointestinal tract
-increase of intestinal motility
+decrease of intestinal motility
+constipation
-diarrhea
?
113. The therapeutic doses of morphine:
-increase the blood pressure
-decrease the blood pressure
+don’t change the blood pressure
?
114. The duration of analgesic effect of morphine is:
-20-30 minutes
+4-6 hours
-8-12 hours
?
115. Fentanyl:
+opioid analgesic
+agonist of opioid receptors
-antagonist of opioid receptors
?
116. The analgesic activity of fentanyl is:
-equal to activity of morphine
+higher than activity of morphine
-less than activity of morphine
?
117. Fentanyl:
-suppresses the respiratory center as morphine
-suppresses the respiratory center less than morphine
+suppresses the respiratory center more than morphine
?
118. In comparison with morphine, fentanyl:
-has longer duration of action
+has shorter duration of action
?
119. Promedolum:
+is opioid analgesic
-is natural alkaloid
+is synthetic agent
-has higher activity than morphine
-acts longer than morphine
?
120. In comparison with morphine, the opioid analgesics of group of agonistsantagonists:
-are more effective
+less inhibit the respiration
-more often cause the drug abuse
+more seldom cause the drug abuse
-have more influence upon the smooth muscles of inner organs
+less inhibit the intestinal motility
?
121. Buprenorphine:
+is opioid analgesic
+is partial agonist of opioid receptors
-is antagonist of opioid receptors
+inhibits the respiration less than morphine
+causes drug abuse more seldom than morphine
?
122. Butorphanol:
+has analgesic activity approximately identical to morphine
+is partial agonist of opioid receptors
-inhibits the respiration more than morphine
+causes the drug abuse more seldom than morphine
+can cause the disphoria and hallucinations
?
123. Choose the endogenous opioid peptides:
-prostaglandins
+encephalin
+endorphin
?
124. Coose the drugs stimulating opioid receptors:
+morphine
-naloxone
+fentanyl
+promedolum
?
125. Choose the indications for use of opioid analgesics:
+strong pain in traumas, burns, malignant tumors
-headache
+pain in myocardial infarction
?
126. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of painful shock:
+morphine
+promedolum
-aspirin
+fentanyl
-atropine
+buprenorphine
?
127. Choose agents which are used for pain relief in myocardial infarction:
+morphime
+promedolum
-atropine
+fentanyl
?
128. Indicate agent which is used for neuroleptanalgesia:
-scopolamine
+fentanyl
-naloxone
?
129. Indicate the side effects of morphine:
+inhibition of respiration
+nausea, vomiting
-diarrhea
-increase of blood pressure
+constipation
+spasm of Oddi sphincter
?
130. The prolonged use of opioid analgesics result in:
+tolerance
+drug dependence
-cumulation
?
131. The withdrawal syndrome in persons chronically using morphine is result
of:
-increase of morphine dose
+interruption of morphine administration
+administration of naloxone
?
132. Choose the symptoms of acute poisoning by morphine:
+coma
-psychomotor excitement
+inhibition of respiration
+miosis
-increase of body temperature
?
133. Naloxone:
-stimulates the opioid receptors
+blocks the opioid receptors
+is used in overdose of opioid analgesics
?
134. Naloxone eliminates:
-only analgesic effect of opioid analgesics
-only inhibition of respiration owing to overdose of opioid analgesics
+both effects
?
135. Tramadol:
-blocks the sodium channels of neuronal membranes
-inhibits COX-3 into the brain
+is analgesic with mixed action (opioid + non-opioid)
+stimulates the opioid receptors
+activates the adrenergic and serotoninergic systems of brain
+has less narcogenic potential than morphine
?
136. The drug A. is natural alkaloid. It causes the analgesia, euphoria, miosis,
inhibition of respiration. This agent is used in traumatic and postoperative pain.
What is drug A?
-promedolum
-tramadol
+morphine
-fentanyl
?
137. The drug A. is synthetic opioid analgesic. This drug is characterized by less
analgesic activity than morphine and low insignificant influence upon the
smooth muscles of inner organs. The effects of drug A. is eliminated by
naloxone. What is drug A?
-fentanyl
+promedolum
-omnoponum
?
138. The drug A. has higher analgesic activity than morphine. It has short
duration of action and is used for neuroleptanalgesia. What is drug A?
-buprenorphine
-promedolum
-tramadol
+fentanyl
?
139. Choose the correct answers:
-tramadol is antispasmodic
+the analgesic activity of morphine is less than analgesic activity of fentanyl
+naloxone is antagonist of opioid analgesics
?
140. Choose the correct answers:
-fentanyl is antagonist of opioid receptors
+naloxone is antagonist of opioid receptors
-morphine relaxes the smooth muscles of bronchi
?
141. Choose the correct answers:
+morphine is plant alkaloid
+promedolum is opioid analgesic
-naloxone inhibits the respiration
?
142. Choose the correct answers:
+buprenorphine is agonist-antagonist of opioid receptors
+morphine blocks the pain transduction through the afferent pass-ways of brain
-fentanyl acts longer than 12 hours
?
143. Choose the correct answers:
+morphine causes the euphoria
-opioid analgesics don’t cause the drug abuse
+naloxone is used in acute poisoning by morphine
?
144. Choose the correct answers:
-promedolum is non-opioid analgesic
+morphine causes the euphoria
+morphine is used in myocardial infarction
?
145. Choose the correct answers:
+the analgesic activity of fentanyl is more than activity of morphine
-ketamine is opioid analgesic
?
146. Choose the correct answers:
-promedolum has the anti-inflammatory activity
+morphine suppresses the intestinal motility
+fentanyl is used for neuroleptanalgesia
?
147. Choose antipsychotic drugs:
+aminazine
-amitriptyline
+sulpiride
+haloperidol
+clozapine
?
148. Choose the typical antipsychotic drugs:
+aminazine
+fluphenazine
+haloperidol
-sulpiride
-clozapine
?
149. Choose the atypical antipsychotic drugs:
+sulpiride
+clozapine
-aminazine
-fluphenazine
-haloperidol
?
150. Choose the derivatives of phenothiazine:
-haloperidol
+aminazine
-chlorprothixene
+fluphenazine
-triftazine
?
151. Choose the butyrophenone derivatives:
-aminazine
-chlorprothixene
+haloperidol
-fluphenazine
?
152. Choose the effects of neuroleptics - phenothiazines:
+antipsychotic
+sedative
-increase of motor activity
+decrease of motor activity
+antiemetic
+hypotermic
?
153. Choose neuroleptics which reduce the productive symptoms of psychosis
(hallucinations and delirium) and commonly cause the extrapyramidal
disturbances:
+aminazine
+fluphenazine
+haloperidol
-sulpiride
-clozapine
?
154. Choose neuroleptics which reduce the productive symptoms of psychosis
(hallucinations and delirium) and seldom cause the extrapyramidal
disturbances:
+sulpiride
+clozapine
-aminazine
-fluphenazine
-haloperidol
?
155. Antipsychotic effect is result of:
-stimulation of adrenergic processes in CNS
-inhibition of adrenergic processes in CNS
-stimulation of dopaminergic processes in CNS
+inhibition of dopaminergic processes in CNS
?
156. What is the main mechainism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptics –
phenothiazine derivatives?
-decrease of dopamine storage into vesicles of neurons
+blockage of dopaminergic receptors in postsynaptic membrane
?
157. Antipsychotic effect of neuroleptics mainly is result of blockage of
dopaminergic neurons in:
-hypothalamus
-basal nucleus
+mesolymbic system
?
158. Antiemetic effect of neuroleptics is result of blockage of dopaminergic
receptors of:
+trigger-zone of emetic center
-mesolymbic system
-hypothalamus
-basal nucleus
?
159. Hypotermic effect of neuroleptics is result of blockage of dopaminergic
receptors in:
+hypothalamus
-mesolymbic system
-basal nucleus
?
160. Antipsychotic agents increase the release of prolactin owing to blockage of
dopaminergic receptors in:
-mesolymbic system
-basal nucleus
+hypothalamic-hypophisis system
?
161. Antipsychotic agents cause extrapyramidal disturbances owing to blockage
of dopaminergic receptors of:
-mesolymbic system
+basal nucleus
-hypothalamus
?
162. Аminazine:
+reduces the productive symptoms of psychisis (hallucination and delirium)
+has sedative action
+reduces the motor activity
-has antidepressive action
+has antiemetic action
+causes the extrapyramidal disturbances
?
163. The effects of hypnotics, general anaesthetics, and opioid analgesics under
influence of aminazine:
+is increased
-is decreased
-do not change
?
164. A blood pressure under the influence of aminazine:
-is increased
+is decreased
-don’t change
?
165. What neuroleptic has the most marked hypotensive action?
+aminazine
-haloperidol
-sulpiride
?
166. In comparison with aminazine, fluphenazine:
+has less sedative efect
+has less influence upon the vegetative innervation
-seldom causes the extrapyramidal disturbances
?
167. Haloperidol:
-is phenothiazine derivative
+has less sedative effect than aminazine
+has less peripheral effects than aminazine
?
168. Droperidol:
-acts longer than haloperidol
+acts shorter than haloperidol
+is used for neuroleptanalgesia
?
169. Clozapine:
+reduces the productive symptoms of psychosis (hallucination and delirium)
+has sedative efect
-has antidepressive effect
+can cause the leucopenia and agranulocytosis
+seldom causes the extrapyramidal disturbances
?
170. Sulpiride:
+is atypical neuroleptic
+has low sedative effect
-has antidepressive effect
+doesn’t affect the leucopoiesis
?
171. Choose the indications for use of neuroleptics:
+psychosis
+vomiting of central origin
+for potentiation of effects of general anaesthetics and analgesics
-for treatment of Parkinson disease
+for cessation of acute psycho-motor excitement
?
172. Choose neuroleptic which is used for neuroleptanalgesia:
-aminazine
-fluphenazine
+droperidol
-clozapine
?
173. What is cause of extrapyramidal disturbances in case of chronic
administration of typical neuroleptics?
+blockage of dopaminergic receptors of basal nucleus
-blockage of adrenergic receptors of basal nucleus
- blockage of cholinergic receptors of basal nucleus
?
174. Choose neuroleptics which commonly cause the extrapyramidal
disturbances:
+aminazine
+fluphenazine
+haloperidol
-sulpiride
-clozapine
?
175. Choose neuroleptics which seldom cause the extrapyramidal disturbances:
+sulpiride
+clozapine
-aminazine
-fluphenazine
-haloperidol
?
176. What group of antiparkinsonic drugs are used for correction of
neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism?
-agonists of dopaminergic receptors
+central cholinoblockers
-inhibitors of МАО-В
?
177. What antiparkinsonic drug is used for correction of neuroleptic-induced
parkinsonism?
-levodopa
+cyclodol
-selegiline
-bromocriptine
?
178. Choose antidepressants:
+imizine [imipramine]
-haloperidol
+moclobemide
+maprotiline
+amitriptyline
?
179. Choose antidepressants – nonselective inhibitors of neuronal reuptake of
monoamines:
+imizine [imipramine]
+amitriptyline
-moclobemide
-fluoxetine
?
180. Choose antidepressant – selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor:
-moclobemide
-amitriptyline
+fluoxetine
-maprotiline
?
181. Choose antidepressant – selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor:
-amitriptyline
+maprotiline
-moclobemide
-fluoxetine
-imizine
?
182. Choose antidepressant – non-selective inhibitor of МАО (МАО-А + МАОВ):
-amitriptyline
-maprotiline
-fluoxetine
-moclobemide
+nialamide
?
183. Choose antidepressant – selective inhibitor of МАО-А:
+moclobemide
-fluoxetine
-amitriptyline
?
184. Choose the effects of imixine:
+antidepressive
+psychostimulative
+sedative
-antipsychotic
?
185. Choose the effects of amitriptyline:
+antidepressive
-psychostimulative
+sedative
-antipsychotic
?
186. Moclobemide:
+inhibits МАО-А
+has antidepressive action
+has psychostimulative action
-inhibits the reuptake of monoamines
?
187. Fluoxetine:
-inhibits the reuptake of noradrenaline
+has psychostimulative action
+doesn’t affect the adrenoceptors
-blocks M-cholinoceptors
+inhibits the reuptake of serotonine
?
188. Maprotiline:
+has sedative action
-affects the reuptake of serotonine
+affects the reuptake of noradrenaline
-is antipsychotic agent
+is antidepressant
+has psychostimulative action
?
189. Antidepressive effect of imizine is result of:
+inhibition of neuronal reuptake of monoamines
-blockage of central M-cholinoceptors
-inhibition of activity of MAO
-direct excitation of adrenoceptors
?
190. Antidepressive effect of moclobemide is result of:
-inhibition of neuronal reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonine
+inhibition of МАО-А
-direct stimulation of adrenoceptors
?
191. Choose drugs which are used for treatment of depression:
-aminazine
-lithium carbonate
-haloperidol
+amitriptyline
+moclobemide
+imizine
?
192. Choose drugs’ groups which are used for treatment of mania:
-antidepressants
+lithium salts
+antipsychotics with marked psychosedative effect
?
193. Lithium salts are used for:
+treatment of bipolar psychosis (manic-depressive psychosis)
-for treatment of epilepsy
+for treatment and prevention of mania
?
194. Drug A. reduces the productive symptoms of psychosis (hallucinations,
delirium), has sedative and antiemetic activity, causes the extrapyramidal
disturbances, and decreases the blood pressure. What is drug A.?
+aminazine
-amitriptyline
-sulpiride
-lithium carbonate
?
195. What agent has antipsychotic, psychosedative, and antidepressive effects
and causes extrapyramidal disturbances?
-clozapine
-imizine
+chlorprothixene
-fluphenazine
?
196. Drug A. reduces the productive symptoms of psychosis (hallucinations and
delirium) and very seldom causes the extrapyramidal disturbances. As
complication of therapy by drug A., the agranulocytosis is possible. What is drug
A?
-aminazine
-amitriptyline
+clozapine
-fluoxetine
?
197. Drug A. has antidepressive and sedative effects. It is non-selective inhibitor
of neuronal reuptake of monoamines (noradrenaline and serotonine). Identify
drug A.:
+amitriptyline
-lithium carbonate
-fluoxetine
-maprotiline
?
198. Drug A. has antidepressive and psychostimulative effects. It is selective
inhibitor of serotonine reuptake. Drug has not antimuscarinic activity. Identify
drug A.:
+fluoxetine
-amitriptyline
-maprotiline
-imizine
?
199. Choose the correct statements:
-haloperidol has antidepressive effect
+imizine has sedative effect
-amitriptyline has psychostimulative effect
?
200. Choose the correct statements:
+aminazine is used for elimination of acute symptoms of psychosis (delirium,
halucination)
-sulpiride is used for treatment of depression
+maprotiline is used for treatment of depression
?
201. Choose the correct statements:
+lithium carbonate is drug for treatment and prevention of mania
-sulpiride is antidepressant
-maprotiline is antipsychotic agent
+fluphenazine is antipsychotic agent
?
202. Choose the correct statements:
+chlorprothixene is antipsychotic agent
-imizine is used for treatment of mania
-amitriptyline is antipsychotic agent
+haloperidol is antipsychotic agent
-lithium carbonate has marked psychosedative effect
?
203. Choose the correct statements:
+sulpiride is atypical antipsychotic agent
-fluoxetine inhibits reuptake of noradrenaline
-lithium carbonate is antipsychotic agent
+amitriptyline has not psychostimulative effect
?
204. Choose the correct statements:
+clozapine very seldom causes the drug-induced parkinsonism
-maprotiline inhibits the reuptake of serotonine
-fluoxetine has marked atropine-like action
+droperidol is used for neuroleptanalgesia
?
205. Antidepressive effect of amitriptyline is result of:
+inhibition of neuronal reuptake of monoamines
-blockage of central M-cholinoceptors
-inhibition of activity of MAO
-direct excitation of adrenoceptors
?
206. Choose tranquilizers:
+diazepam
+buspirone
+phenazepam
+mezapam
-piracetam
?
207. Choose anxiolytics – derivatives of benzodiazepine:
-buspirone
+diazepam
+phenazepam
+mezapam
?
208. Choose anxiolytic – agonist of serotonine receptors:
+buspirone
-diazepam
-phenazepam
-mezapam
?
209. Choose “daily” tranquilizers:
-diazepam
+mezapam
+buspirone
-phenazepam
?
210. Choose sedative drugs:
-diazepam
+bromides
-mezapam
+Valeriana
?
211. Choose the effects of diazepam:
+anxiolytic
+anticonvulsive
+hypnotic
-antipsychotic
+decrease of skeletal muscles tone
+sedative
+amnestic
?
212. What type of receptors is excited by diazepam?
-dopaminergic receptors
-adrenoceptors
+benzodiazepine receptors
?
213. Choose drugs which stimulate benzodiazepine receptors:
+phenazepam
+diazepam
-flumazenil
+mezapam
?
214. Anxiolytics – derivatives of benzodiazepine increase GABA-ergic processes
into the brain owing to:
-increase of GABA synthesis
-inhibition of GABA metabolism
-direct stimulation of GABA-receptors
+increase of sensitivity of GABA-receptors to mediator
?
215. Diazepam:
+stimulate the GABA-ergic processes onto the brain
+has anxiolytic activity
+has anticonvulsive activity
-causes the extrapyramidal disturbances
+is central myorelaxant
?
216. Phenazepam:
+has anxiolytic activity
-hasn’t hypnotic action
+has anticonvulsive action
+can cause drug’s dependence
?
217. Mezapam:
+stimulates benzodiazepine receptors
+has anxiolytic activity
-has hypnotic action
+is “daily” tranquilizer
?
218. Choose the indications for use of diazepam:
+insomnia
+diseases whish are accompanied by increasing skeletal muscles tone
+neurosis
+premedication
+interruption of status epilepticus
-narcolepsy
?
219. Choose the indications for use of phenazepam:
+insomnia
+diseases whish are accompanied by increasing skeletal muscles tone
+neurosis
-narcolepsy
?
220. Which drugs are used for elimination of alarm and fear in neurotic
patients?
+mezapam
+diazepam
+phenazepam
-sydnocarbum
?
221. Choose drugs which are used for treatment of insomnia:
+diazepam
-sydnocarbum
+phenazepam
-piracetam
?
222. Indicate the side effects of diazepam:
+drowsiness
+decrease of speed of psycho-motor reactions
-extrapyramidal disturbances
+drug dependence
?
223. Which drugs can cause the drug dependence?
+diazepam
-piracetam
+phenazepam
-aspirin
?
224. Choose the antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors:
-diazepam
-phenazepam
+flumazenil
?
225. Flumazenil prevents or diminishes the effects of:
+diazepam
-sydnocarbum
+phenazepam
-piracetam
?
226. What effect is typical for bromides?
+sedative
-antidepressive
-antipsychotic
?
227. What effect is typical for Valeriana?
+sedative
-antidepressive
-antipsychotic
?
228. Choose the indication for use of bromides:
-depression
+neurosis
-psychosis
?
229. Choose the indications for use of Valeriana:
+insomnia
+neurosis
-mania
?
230. Choose psychostimulants:
-phenazepam
-mezapam
+coffeinum
+sydnocarbum
?
231. Choose the effects of psychostimulants:
+temporary increase of mental and physical working capacity
+reduction of requirement of sleep
-extrapyramidal disturbances
?
232. Sydnocarbum causes:
+temporary increase of mental and physical working capacity
+reduction of requirement of sleep
-decrease of blood pressure
-reduction of skeletal muscles tone
?
233. Coffeinum causes:
+temporary increase of mental and physical working capacity
+reduction of requirement of sleep
-decrease of skeletal muscles tone
+increase of activity of respiratory and of vasomotor centers
+increase of heart rate and force of cardiac contraction
+increase of gastric secretion
-suppression of gastric secretion
?
234. Choose the indications for use of sydnocarbum:
-hallucinations and delirium
+narcolepsy
+for temporary increase of mental and physical working capacity
-neurosis
?
235. Choose the side effects of coffeinum:
+tachycardia
+insomnia
+motor excitement
-drug-induced parkinsonism
?
236. What drugs can cause the insomnia?
-diazepam
+sydnocarbum
+coffeinum
-phenazepam
?
237. What are contraindications for caffeine?
+marked hypertension
-hypotension
+insomina
?
238. What drugs can cause drug dependence?
-nootropic agents
+psychostimulants
?
239. Choose the nootropic agent:
-sydnocarbum
+piracetam
-mezapam
?
240. Choose the effects of nootropic agents:
+decrease of symptoms of mental insufficiency
+antihypoxic
-anxiolytic
-antidepressive
?
241. Choose the indications for use of piracetam:
+ symptoms of mental insufficiency
+insults and brain traumas
-drug-induced parkinsonism
?
242. What drug is used in mental insufficiency with organic damages of brain?
-caffeine
-sydnocarbum
-diazepam
+piracetam
?
243. Drug A. stimulates the mental and physical working capacity. It is has low
influence upon cardio-vascular system. The agent is used for treatment of
narcolepsy and asthenia. The side effects of drug A. are insomnia and increased
excitability. What is drug A.?
-caffeine
-mezapam
+sydnocarbum
-piracetam
?
244. Drug A. has antihypoxic activity. It is used in chronic vascular and
degenerative damages of brain with mental insufficiency. What is drug A.?
-phenazepam
+piracetam
-sydnocarbum
?
245. Choose the correct statements:
+phenazepam can cause drug dependence
+diazepam is used for interruption of status epilepticus
-piracetam causes the hypnotic effect
?
246. Choose the correct statements:
+diazepam activates GABA-ergic processes in the brain
+bromides have sedative action
+phenazepam has hypnotic action
-piracetam causes the drug dependence
?
247. Choose the correct statements:
+piracetam stimulates the cognitive activity
+mezapam is “daily” tranquilizer
-caffeine is agonist of GABA receptors
?
248. Analeptics stimulate:
+respiratory center
+vasomotor center
-vomiting center
?
249. Caffeine:
+stimulates respiration
+has cardiotonic action
+has psychostimulative action
-inhibits respiration
?
250. Caffeine stimulates the following center of CNS:
+respiratory
+center of vagus
+vasomotor
-vomiting
?
251. Influence of caffeine upon the vasomotor center results in:
+increase of vessels tone
-decrease of vessels tone
?
252. The direct influence of caffeine upon the smooth muscles of vessels result
in:
+decrease of vessels tone
-increase of vessels tone
?
253. Under an influence of caffeine, the tone of cerebral vessels:
+is increased
-is decreased
-both answers are incorrect
?
254. Choose the correct statements concerning influence of caffeine upon the
inner organs:
+caffeine stimulates the gastric secretion
+caffeine decreases the bronchial tone
+caffeine increases the diuresis
-caffeine decreases the skeletal muscles tone
?
255. Choose the correct statements concerning influence of caffeine upon the
metabolism:
+caffeine increases the basal metabolism
-caffeine inhibits glycogenolysis
+caffeine stimulates glycogenolysis
+caffeine causes hyperglycemia
+caffeine stimulates lipolysis
-caffeine inhibits lipolysis
?
256. What is mechanism of caffeine action?
+blockage of adenosine receptors
-excitation of adenosine receptors
-blockage of GABA receptors
-activation of phosphodiesterase
+ inhibition of phosphodiesterase
?
257. Camphor:
+has local irritative activity
+stimulates respiratory center
-causes the drug dependence
+stimulate vasomotor center
+has direct stimulative action upon the heart
+is used for breathing stimulation
?
258. Cordiamine:
-has direct antispasmodic action upon the vessels
+stimulates chemoreceptors of carotid glomeruli
+directly stimulates respiratory and vasomotor centers
+is used in collapse
?
259. Bemegride:
+directly stimulates respiratory center
-reflectory stimulates respiration
+stimulates vasomotor center
-has direct stimulative action upon the heart
?
260. Сhoose analeptics with direct stimulative influence upon the heart:
-bemegride
+caffeine
+camphor
?
261. Analeptics are used:
+for acceleration of recovery after general anaesthesia
-in high degree of poisoning by hypnotics
+in asphyxia of newborns
+in light degree of poisoning by hypnotics
?
262. Choose the indications for use of caffeine:
+migraine
+hypotensive disease
+for stimulation of respiration
+for stimulation of psychical activity
-hypertensive disease
?
263. Choose the indications of use of camphor:
+for stimulation of heart work
-hypertensive disease
+for stimulation of respiration
?
264. Choose the symptoms of overdose of caffeine:
-bronchospasm
+insomnia
+tachycardia
-collapse
+cardiac arrhythmias
Egypt lover
2018
?
1. Choose the stimulators of breathing:
+cordiaminum [nikethamide]
-codeine
+carbogen
+bemegride
+lobeline
+caffeine
+aethymizole
?
2. Choose breathing stimulators with direct influence upon the respiratory
center:
+camphor
+bemegride
-glaucine
+caffeine
-codeine
+aethymizole
?
3. Choose the breathing stimulator with reflex action:
-aethymizole
-bemegride
+lobeline
-caffeine
?
4. Choose the breathing stimulators with mixed action:
-aethymizole
+cordiaminum [nikethamide]
-bemegride
+carbogen
?
5. Choose antitussive drugs:
+codeine
+libexinum
-acetylcysteine
+glaucine
-bromhexinum
?
6. Choose antitussive agent with peripheral action:
-codeine
+libexinum
-glaucine
-tussuprex
?
7. Choose expectorant drugs:
+grass of Thermopsis
+ambroxol
-libexinum
+bromhexinum
+trypsin
+acetylcysteine
+desoxyribonuclease
?
8. Choose expectorant drugs with direct action:
+trypsin
-ipecacuanha
+potassium iodide
+sodium hydrocarbonate
+desoxyribonuclease
+ambroxol
+bromhexinum
?
9. Choose mucolytics:
-grass of Thermopsis
+bromhexinum
+acetylcysteine
+ambroxol
+trypsin
+desoxyribonuclease
?
10. Choose the expectorant drugs with reflex action:
-trypsin
-potassium iodine
-sodium hydrocarbonate
+grass of Thermopsis
-acetylcysteine
?
11. Choose groups of drugs which have broncholytic action:
+M-cholinoblockers
-alpha-adrenomimetics
-ganglion blockers
-beta1-adrenoblockers
+beta2-adrenomimetics
?
12. Choose broncholytic agents:
+isadrinum
-cromolyn sodium
+euphillinum [aminophylline]
-glaucine
+salbutamol
+ipratropium bromide
+formoterol
?
13. Choose the broncholytics of group of M-cholinoblockers:
-euphillinum [aminophylline]
-isadrinum
+ipratropium bromide
-salbutamol
+metacinium
-formoterol
?
14. Choose the broncholytics of group of adrenomimetics:
-prednisolone
+fenoterol
+formoterol
-euphillinum
+salbutamol
+isadrinum
?
15. Choose broncholytics of group of beta2-adrenomimetics:
-isadrinum
+fenoterol
-ephedrine
+salbutamol
+salmoterol
-ipratropium bromide
+formoterol
?
16. Choose broncholytic with direct myotropic action:
-ephedrine
-formoterol
-cromolyn sodium
-zafirlucast
-ipratropium bromide
+theophylline
?
17. What groups of drugs are used in bronchial asthma?
-analeptics
+beta2-adrenomimetics
+glucocorticoids
+M-cholinoblockers
+blockers of leukotriene receptors
+inhibitors of 5-lipoxygenase
-inhibitors of COX
?
18. Choose antiallergic agents which are used in bronchial asthma:
-tiotropium
-salbutamol
+cromolyn sodium
-theophylline
+nedocromil sodium
+ketotifen
?
19. Choose glucocorticoids which are used in bronchial asthma for inhalations:
+beclomethasone
-hydrocortisone
-prednisolone
-dexamethasone
+budesonide
+fluticasone
?
20. Choose antiasthmatic drugs which inhibit the synthesis of leukotrienes:
-theophylline
-ipratropium bromide
+zileuton
-salmoterol
-zafirlukast
+beclomethasone
?
21. Choose blockers of leukotrienes receptors:
-ipratropium bromide
-tiotropium
-cromolyn sodium
-nedocromil sodium
+zafirlukast
+montelukast
?
22. Choose the inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase:
-nedocromil sodium
-zafirlukast
+zileuton
-beclomethasone
-prednisolone
?
23. What drugs are used in pulmonary edema?
+ethyl alcohol
+morphine
+furosemide
-cromolyn sodium
+prednisolone
+sodium nitroprusside
?
24. Bemegride:
+stimulates the neurones of respiratory centre
-stimulates the receptors of carotid glomeruli
-stimulates respiratory centre both directly and indirectly
?
25. Lobeline:
-directly stimulates the respiratory centre
+reflectory stimulates the respiratory centre
-stimulates the respiratory muscles
?
26. Lobeline stimulates the breathing owing to excitation of N-cholinoceptors of:
-skeletal muscles
-chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
-vegetative ganglia
+carotid glomeruli
?
27. Choose drugs which inhibit the coughing centre:
+codeine
-libexinum
+glaucine
-bemegride
+tussuprex
?
28. Codeine:
-blocks the opioid receptors of coughing centre
+ stimulates the opioid receptors of coughing centre
-suppresses the sensitive receptors of respiratory ways
?
29. The antitussive effect of libexinum is result of:
-inhibition of excitability of neurones of coughing centre
-broncholytic action
-decrease of secretion of bronchial glands
+inhibition of sensitive receptors of respiratory ways
?
30. Choose expectorants which increase the secretion of bronchial glands:
+grass of Thermopsis
-grass Belladonna
+root of Ipecacuanha
-trypsin
?
31. Choose drugs which decrease the sputum viscosity owing to proteolysis:
-grass of Thermopsis
+trypsin
-sodium hydrocarbonate
+desoxyribonuclease
?
32. Grass of Thermopsis:
+stimulates the receptors of stomach
+reflectory increases the secretion of bronchial glands
-decreases the sputum viscosity owing to depolymerisation on proteins
+reflectory increases the bronchial peristalsis
?
33. Acetylcysteine:
-reflectory increases the secretion of bronchial glands
-directly stimulates the bronchial glands secretion
+decrease the sputum viscosity in result of proteolysis
?
34. The decrease of tone of bronchial smooth muscles develops in result of:
+blockage of M3-cholinoceptors
-stimulation of M3-cholinoceptors
-blockage of beta2-adrenoceptors
+stimulation of beta2-adrenoceptors
?
35. Choose drugs which relax bronchi in result of stimulation of beta2adrenoceptors:
+fenoterol
-ipratropium bromide
+salbutamol
+salmeterol
+isadrinum
+formoterol
?
36. The broncholytic effect of adrenaline is result of:
-excitation of alpha-adrenoceptors
-excitation of beta1-adrenoceptors
+excitation of beta2-adrenoceptors
-direct influence upon the smooth muscles of bronchi
?
37. What is result of stimulation of beta2-adrenoceptors in smooth muscles of
bronchi?
+increase the level of cAMP and decrease of concentration of calcium ions
- decraese the level of cAMP and decrease of concentration of calcium ions
?
38. Choose drugs which cause bronchodilation in result of blockage of
parasympathetic innervation:
-theophylline
+atropine
-isadrinum
-salbutamol
+ipratropium bromide
+metacinium
?
39. Ipratropium and tiotropium relax bronchi owing to blockage of:
+М-cholinergic receptors
-beta2-adrenergic receptors
-alpha1-adrenergic receptors
?
40. What drug does relax bronchi owing to myotropic antispasmodic action?
-adrenaline
-ephedrine
-atropine
+theophylline
-isadrinum
?
41. The relaxation of smooth muscles of bronchi is caused by drugs which:
+stimulate adenylyl cyclase
-inhibit adenylyl cyclase
-activate phospholypase С
-inhibit phospholypase А2
?
42. What is mechanism of broncholytic action of theophylline?
-blockage of M-cholinergic receptors
-stimulation of beta2-adrenergic receptors
+blockage of adenosine receptors
?
43. What drugs do decrease the release of bronchoconstrictive substances from
basophils?
+salbutamol
+flunisolide
+cromolyn sodium
+theophylline
-zafirlukast
+nedocromil sodium
?
44. Glucocorticoids are effective in bronchial asthma because have:
+anti-inflammatory action
+immunodepressive action
-myotropic antispasmodic action
?
45. What is mechanism of anti-inflammatory action of glucocorticoids?
+inhibition of phospholypase А2
-inhibition of expression of COX-1
+inhibition of expression of COX-2
+inhibition of activity of macrophages
-blockage of leukotriene receptors
?
46. Choose drugs which decrease the synthesis of leukotrienes:
+zileuton
-montelukast
+budesonide
-euphylline
-tiotropium
?
47. Choose drugs which interfere with bronchoconsntrictive effect of
leukotrienes:
+montelukast
-ipratropium
-salbutamol
-cromolyn sodium
+zafirlukast
?
48. Indicate the main principles of pharmacological therapy of pulmonary
edema:
+decrease of blood pressure in small circle of blood circulation
-increase of blood pressure in small circle of blood circulation
+elimination of foam in alveolus
-stimulation of breathing centre
?
49. Nitroprusside sodium is used in pulmonary edema because:
+it decreases the blood pressure in small circle of circulation
-it increases the diuresis
-it stimulate the cardiac contractions
?
50. Choose agents which decrease the blood pressure in small circle of blood
circulation owing to relaxation of peripheral vessels:
+hygronium
-anaprilinum
+phentolamine
+sodium nitroprusside
?
51. The therapeutic effect of furosemide in pulmonary edema is result of:
-elimination of foam into alveolus
-cardiotonic effect
+diuretic effect
+decrease of blood pressure in small circle of blood circulation
?
52. Caffeine:
+increases the frequency and depth of breathing
+has psychostimulative action
-decreases the blood can cause the tachycardia
?
53. Aethymizole:
+stimulates the respiratory centre
-is psychostimulator
+has psychosedative action
-relaxes the smooth muscles of bronchi
?
54. Codeine:
+suppresses the coughing centre
+suppresses the breathing when used in high doses
-decreases the bronchial tone
+has analgesic activity
+has sedative effect
+can cause drug dependence
+suppresses the intestinal motility
?
55. Glaucine:
+suppresses the coughing centre
-suppresses the breathing
-causes the drug dependence
?
56. Libexinum:
+suppresses the coughing reflex
-causes the drug dependence
-has sedative action
-suppresses the breathing
?
57. The grass of Thermopsis:
+increases the bronchial secretion
-has antitussive action
+increases the bronchial peristalsis
?
58. Acetylcysteine:
+decreases the viscosity of sputum
+increases the volume of bronchial secretion
-suppresses the coughing reflex
-relaxes the bronchial smooth muscles
?
59. Bromhexinum:
-suppresses the coughing reflex
+decreases the sputum viscosity
-relaxes the smooth muscles of bronchi
+stimulates the synthesis of surphactant
?
60. Adrenaline:
+decrases the bronchial tone
-suppresses the atrio-ventricular conduction
+increases the heart contraction
+increases the heart rate
-decreases the glucose level in the blood
?
61. Beta2-adrenominetics:
+decrease the bronchial tone
+cause the moderate tachycardia
-increase the blood pressure
+relax the blood vessels
+decrease the releasing of bronchoconstrictive substances from basophiles
?
62. Ephedrine:
+decreases the bronchial tone
+narrows the vessels of bronchial mucous membrane
-decreases the secretion of bronchi
+stimulates the heart work
+increases the blood pressure
-has sedative action
?
63. Atropine decreases:
+tone of bronchi
+bronchial secretion
-intraoccular pressure
-heart rate
-blood pressure
+intestinal motility
+bladder tone
?
64. Ipratropium bromide:
+decreases the bronchial tone
+decreases the bronchial secretion
-stimulates the CNS
-has mucolytic action
?
65. Theophylline:
+relaxes the bronchial smooth muscles
+increases the force of cardiac contraction
-causes the bradycardia
+increases the diuresis
-increases the tone of blood vessels
?
66. What effect of ethyl alcohol is used in pulmonary edema?
-narcogenic
-analgesic
-antimicrobial
+elimination of foam
-vasodilation
?
67. In the pulmonary edema, furosemide:
+decreases the volume of blood in circulation
+decreases the blood pressure in small circle of circulation
-has cardiotolic action
?
68. Lobeline is used:
+in asphyxia of newborns
-in postoperative period
-in poisoning by morphine
-in poisoning by barbiturates
?
69. Caffeine is used:
+in low degree of poisoning by hypnotics
+in postoperative period
+in narcolepsy
-in insomnia
?
70. Choose the indications for use of cordiaminum:
-heavy poisoning by hypnotics
-bronchial asthma attacks
+pulmonary hypoventilation on postoperative period
?
71. Choose analeptics with duration of action several hours:
-lobeline
+bemegride
+cordiaminum [nikethamide]
?
72. Choose analeptic with short duration of action:
-bemegride
+lobeline
-cordiaminum
?
73. Choose the correct statements:
+codeine is effective antitussive agent
-codeine is used as anxiolytic
-libexinum is used as sedative agent
+libexinum and glaucine are used for cough suppression
?
74. Drugs of grass f Thermopsidis are used:
+perorally
-in inhalations
-intravenously
-sublingually
?
75. Choose drugs which are used for interruption of bronchospasms:
+adrenaline
+salbutamol
-salmoterol
-thiotropium
?
76. Choose drugs which are used for chronic treatment of bronchial asthma:
-adrenaline
-isadrinum
+salmeterol
+salbutamol
+formoterol
+thiotropium
?
77. Choose drugs which are used for reduction of bronchospasms owing to high
tone of vagus nerve:
-salmeterol
-salbutamol
-formoterol
+ipratropium
+thiotropium
?
78. Choose groups of drugs which are used in bronchial asthma:
-non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
+glucocorticoids
+blockers of leukotriene receptors
+myotropic antispasmodic drugs
+drugs which prevent the degranulation of basophiles
?
79. Cromolyn sodium is used:
-only for interruption of bronchial asthma attacks
+only for prevention of bronchial asthma attacks
-both for interruption and prevention of bronchial asthma attacks
?
82. Zafirlukast is used:
-in anaphylactic shock
-for interruption of bronchial asthma attacks
+for prevention of bronchial asthma attacks
?
86. In pulmonary edema, the ethyl alcohol:
+decreases the surface tension of the foam in vesicles
-relaxes the bronchi
-causes the sedative-hypnotic effect
?
87. Choose the correct statements:
+non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs can increase the bronchial tone
-glaucine causes the drug dependence
+codeine can cause the constipation
-salbutamol doesn’t affect the heart rate
?
88. Choose the side effects of codeine:
-insomnia
+tolerance
+drug abuse
+inhibition of breathing
?
89. Choose antitussive agents which can cause drug dependence:
-glaucine
+codeine
-libexinum
+ethylmorphine
?
90. As broncholytic agent, adrenaline can cause such side effects as:
-postural hypotension
+increase of blood pressure
-bradycardia
+tachycardia
+extrasystoles
?
91. Choose the side effects of salbutamol:
+moderate tachycardia
-bradycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
-increase of blood pressure
?
92. Choose the side effects of isadrinum:
-increase of blood pressure
+extrasystoles
+tachycardia
-bradycardia
-AV-blockage
?
93. Choose the side effects of fenoterol:
+tremor
+tachycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
-increase of blood pressure
?
94. Salbutamol is contraindicated in:
-AV-blockage
+extrasystoles
-threat of premature birth
+uterus bleeding
?
95. As broncholytic, ephedrine causes following side effects:
-bradycardia
+tachycardia
-hypotension
+increase of blood pressure
+insomnia
+cardiac arrhythmias
?
96. Broncholytics of group of M-cholinoblockers are contraindicated in:
-bradycardia
-atrio-ventricular blockage
+glaucoma
+benign hyperplasia of prostate
-hyperacidic gastritis
?
97. Choose the side effects of theophylline:
+tachycardia
+increase of myocardial oxygen demand
+nausea and vomiting
-drowsiness
?
98. Choose a complication which can develop owing to chronic inhalations of
glucocorticoids:
-bronchospasm
-edema of bronchi
+candidiasis of oral cavity
?
99. The chronic administration of glucocorticoids in bronchial asthma can
cause:
+inhibition of synthesis of cortical hormones
+decrease of tolerance to infective diseases
-hypoglycemia
+suppressing of processes of tissues regeneration
+osteoporosis
+increase of blood pressure
+redistribution of fat tissue
+psychosis
?
100. Bemegride:
+is analeptic
+stimulates breathing
+stimulates the vasomotor centre
-has sedative action
+can cause convulsions
?
101. Caffeine:
+is analeptic
+has psychostimulative effect
-inhibits the heart contraction
+can cause the drug dependence
+has diuretic effect
?
102. Lobeline:
-directly stimulates the respiratory centre
+reflectory stimulates the respiratory centre
-is effective agent in poisoning by morphine
+is effective in asphyxia of newborns
-is administered perorally
+is administered intravenously
?
103. Choose the correct statement:
-glaucine stimulates the respiratory centre
+codeine has analgesic action
-salbutamol blocks beta2-adrenoceptors
-nitroprusside sodium is broncholytic
?
104. Codeine:
-relaxes the smooth muscles of bronchi
+suppresses the coughing centre
+causes tolerance and drug dependence
+has analgesic action
+can suppress the respiratory centre
?
106. Acetylcysteine:
-increases the secretion of bronchial glands
-inhibits the coughing centre
+decreases the sputum viscosity
+is used for inhalations
+is administered perorally
?
107. Adrenaline:
+is drug of choice in anaphylactic shock
+is used for cessation of bronchial asthma attacks
+decreases the edema of mucous membrane of bronchi
-is effective in case of peroral administration
+can causes the cardiac arrhythmias
?
108. Beta-2-adrenominetics:
-increases the tone of smooth muscles of bronchi
+decreases the concentration of calcium in smooth muscles of bronchi
-decreases the secretion of bronchial glands
+decreases the releasing of bronchoconstrictive substances from basophiles
+can causes the tachycardia
?
109. Ephedrine:
-is sympatholytic
+decreases the tone of smooth muscles of bronchi
-decreases the bronchial secretion
+increases the blood pressure
+can causes the drug dependence
?
110. Salbutamol:
-predominantly blocks beta-2-adrenoceptors
-decreases the vessels of mucous membrane of bronchi
+is used for treatment of bronchial asthma
-causes the moderate tachycardia
+can causes the cardiac arrhythmias
?
111. Unlike isadrinum, salbutamol:
+less influences upon the heart rate
-in used only for inhalations
+is used as tocolytic agent
-is used in heart insufficiency
?
112. Unlike salbutamol, salmoterol:
+has longer broncholytic effect
-acts shortly
-decreases the tone of vessels
-doesn’t cause the tachycardia
-is used perorally
?
113. Choose the identical properties of adrenaline, ephedrine, and salbutamol:
+broncholytic effect
-decrease the secretion of bronchial glands
+increases the heart rate
-increase the tone of vessels
-efficacy in case of peroral administration
?
114. M-cholinoblockers as broncholytics:
+relax the smooth muscles of bronchi owing to blockage of M3-cholinergic
receptors
-decrease the edema of mucous membrane of bronchi
+decrease the secretion of bronchial glands
+inhibit the release of bronchoconstrictive substances from basophiles
+are contraindicated in glaucoma
?
115. Unlike atropine, ipratropium bromide:
-selectively block the M-cholinoceptors of bronchi
+is used only in inhalations
+has insignificant systemic action
-doesn’t influence bronchial secretion
?
116. Unlike ipratropium bromide, thiotropium bromide is characterised by:
-more fast development of effect
+more slow development of effect
+longer duration of action
-short-time effect
?
117. Theophylline:
+is antispasmodic with myotripic action
-decreases the level of cAMP in smooth muscles of bronchi
+decreases the level of calcium in smooth muscles of bronchi
+inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictive agents from basophiles
+stimulates the CNS
?
118. Choose the cardiotonic agents with glycoside structure:
-dopamine
+digoxin
+strophanthin
-dobutamine
-adrenaline
+corglycon
?
119. Choose cardiac glycosides which obtained from foxglove (Digitalis):
+digoxin
-milrinone
+celanidum
+digitoxin
-corglycon
?
120. Choose the cardiotonic agents with non-glycoside structure:
-corglycon
-digoxin
+dobutamine
+dopamine
-strophanthin
+milrinone
?
121. Choose cardiotonics which stimulate beta-1-adrenoceptors:
-digoxin
+dobutamine
-caffeine
+dopamine
-strophanthin
-milrinone
?
122. Choose cardiotonic agent – inhibitor of phosphodiesterase:
-celanidum
-digoxin
+milrinone
-dobutamine
-digitoxin
?
123. Choose drugs which are used in poisoning by cardiac glycosides:
-milrinone
+lidocaine
+dipheninum [phenytoin]
+potassium chloride
+atropine
?
124. Cardiotonic effect is developed owing to:
+excitation of beta-adrenoceptors of cardiomyocytes
-excitation of M-cholinergic receptors of cardiomyocytes
+inhibition of Na,К-АТPase of membranes of cardiomyocytes
+inhibition of phosphodiesterase
?
125. Cardiac glycosides increase the heart contraction because:
-stimulate adenylyl cyclase
+inhibit Na К-АТPase
-inhibit phosphodiesterase
?
126. In cardiomyocytes, the cardiac glycosides increase the concentration of:
+sodium ions
-potassium ions
+calcium ions
-magnesium ions
?
127. In cardiomyocytes, the cardiac glycosides decrease the concentration of:
-sodium ions
+potassium ions
-calcium ions
?
128. Cardiac glycosides increase the concentration of calcium ions in
cardiomyocytes owing to:
-activation of calcium channels in membranes of cardiomyocytes
+increase of sodium ions level which results in change of calcium current from
the cells
-decrease of sodium ions level which results in change of calcium current from
the cells
?
129. The action of cardiac glycosides is accompanied by:
-increase of troponin influence upon the contractile proteins of myocardium
+reduction of troponin influence upon the contractile proteins of myocardium
+facilitation of interaction between actin and myosin
?
130. Choose effects which develop owing to influence of cardiac glycosides upon
the heart:
+activation of vagus influence upon the heart
-activation of sympathetic influence upon the heart
-inhibition of vagus influence upon the heart
?
131. Choose cardiotonic agents which increase the cAMP level in
cardiomyocytes:
+dopamine
+milrinone
+dobutamine
-digoxin
?
132. Dobutamine stimulates:
+predominantly beta1-adrenoceptors of the heart
-predominantly beta2-adrenoceptors of the heart
-both beta1- and beta2-adrenoceptors of the heart
?
133. What enzyme is activated owing to dobutamine action upon the heart?
-phosphodiesterase
+adenylyl cyclase
-Na, К- АTPase
?
134. In cardiomyocytes, dobutamine:
+increases the level of cAMP
+increases the concentration of calcium ions
-increases the concentration of sodium ions
-decreases the concentration of calcium ions
?
135. In therapeutic doses, the cardiac glycosides:
+decrease the heart rate
+increase the cardiac contraction
+suppress the atrio-ventricular conduction
-increase the oxygen demand of heart
?
136. Cardiac glycosides have:
+positive inotropic action
+negative dromotropic action
+negative chronotropic action
-positive chronotropic action
?
137. In patients with chronic heart failure, cardiac glycosides cause:
+increase of stroke volume and of cardiac output
+decrease of venous blood pressure
+decrease of edemas
-tachycardia
+increase of diuresis
?
138. Dobutamine:
+increases the power of cardiac contraction
-causes marked tachycardia
+facilitates the atrio-ventricular conduction
+increases the automatism of sinus node
?
139. Both digoxin and dobutamine have:
+positive inotropic action
-negative chronotropic action
-negative dromotropic action
?
140. Milrinone:
+stimulates the cardiac contraction
-causes bradycardia
+causes the vasodilation
+can cause the cardiac arrhythmias
?
141. Choose the correct statements:
-both digoxin and dobutamine increase the heart rate
+both dobutamine and dopamine facilitate the atrio-ventricular conduction
-dopamine causes bradycardia
?
142. Choose the clinical applications for cardiac glycosides:
+heart failure
-atrio-ventricular blockage
+supraventricular ciliary arrhythmia
-ventricular fibrillation
-extrasystoles
?
143. Choose cardiotonic drugs which are used in acute heart failure:
+corglycon
+strophanthin
+dobutamine
+dopamine
-digitoxin
+digoxin
?
144. Choose cardiotonic drugs which are used in chronic heart failure:
-dopamine
-milrinone
+digitoxin
-dobutamine
+digoxin
?
145. Dopamine is used in cardiogenic shock because:
+it increases the cardiac output
+it improves the blood flow in kidneys and intestine
-it increases the peripheral vessels resistance
?
146. Choose the correct statements:
-cardiac glycosides are used in ventricular extrasystoles
+digoxin is used in chronic heart failure
+dopamine is drug of choice in cardiogenic shock
?
147. Choose the symptoms of poisoning by cardiac glycosides:
+nausea and vomiting
+bradycardia
-arterial hypotension
+slow down of atrio-ventricular conduction
+extrasystoles
+disturbances of vision
?
148. Cardiac glycosides are contraindicated in:
-paroxysmal tachycardia
+atrio-ventricular blockage
+ventricular extrasystoles
+bradycardia
?
149. What drugs are used in poisoning by cardiac glycosides?
+potassium chloride
+panangin
-calcium chloride
+dipheninum
+lidocaine
+atropine
?
150. Choose the side effects of dobutamine:
+tachycardia
+cardiac arrhythmias
-atrio-ventricular blockage
-postural hypotension
?
151. Cardiac glycosides:
+are drugs of plant origin
+inhibit the Na,К-АТPase of cardiomyocytes
+increase the concentration of calcium in cardiomyocytes
-cause tachycardia
?
152. Digitoxin:
+is carditonic with glycoside structure
+is obtained from foxglove
-is obtained from lily of the valley (Convallaria)
+practically completely is absorbed from digestive system
+has the high degree of cumulation
?
153. Strophanthin:
+is badly absorbed from digestive system
-is administered perorally
+is administered intravenously
+has short latent period of action (5-10 minutes)
-has high degree of cumulation
?
154. Choose cardiotonics which are administered only intravenously:
-digoxin
+dobutamine
+dopamine
-digitoxin
?
155. Choose the organic nitrates:
+nitroglycerin
-dipyridamole
+trinitrolong
+nitrong
+nitrosorbide
-trimetazidine
+isosorbide mononitrate
?
156. Choose the sustained-release forms of nitroglycerin:
+nitrong
-nitrosorbide
+sustac
+trinitrolong
+nitroglycerin ointment
-isosorbide mononitrate
?
157. Choose the blockers of calcium channels:
+nifedipine
-atenolol
-nicorandil
+verapamil
-dipyridamole
-validolum
?
158. Choose antianginal agents which predominantly decrease the myocardium
oxygen demand:
-organic nitrates
-blockers of calcium channels
+beta-adrenoblockers
-cardioprotectors
?
159. Choose the beta-adrenoblockers:
+atenolol
-nitroglycerin
-nifedipine
-dipyridamole
+anaprilinum
-nicorandil
?
160. Choose antianginal agent which predominantly increases the oxygen
delivery to the heart:
-nitroglycerin
+dipyridamole
-anaprilinum
-trimetazidine
-verapamil
?
161. Choose the cardioprotective agent:
+trimetazidine
-nifedipine
-validolum
-dipyridamole
-nitrosorbide
?
162. The antianginal effect of organic nitrates is result of:
-increase of cardiomyocytes resistance to ischemia
+decrease of myocardium oxygen demand
+improving of coronary blood flow
-analgesic action
?
163. Nitroglycerin decreases the myocardium oxygen demand because:
+decreases the cardiac preload
+decreases cardiac afterload
-has marked direct inhibitory action upon the cardiac contraction
-causes the reduction of heart rate
?
164. Nitroglycerin decreases the cardiac preload owing to:
+widening of peripheral veins and drop of venous pressure
-widening of peripheral arteries and decrease of arterial pressure
-widening of coronary vessels and improving of coronary blood flow
?
165. Nitroglycerin decreases the cardiac afterload owing to:
-widening of peripheral veins and decrease of venous blood pressure
+widening peripheral arteries and decrease of arterial blood pressure
-widening of coronary vessels and improving of coronary blood flow
?
166. Nitroglycerin:
+widens predominantly large coronary vessels
- widens predominantly small coronary vessels
+promotes the blood redistribution to ischemic myocardial areas
+improves the blood flow in subendocardial layers of myocardium
?
167. Nitroglycerin widens vessels because:
-blocks calcium channels
-activates potassium channels
+releases NО group
-promotes the accumulation of adenosine
?
168. As antianginal drugs, blockers of calcium channels:
+decrease the tone of coronary vessels
+increase the oxygen delivery to myocardium
+decrease the oxygen demand of myocardium
-increase the resistance of cardiomyocytes to ischemia
?
169. Choose the effects of verapamil:
+antiarrhythmic
+antianginal
-hypertensive
-cardiotonic
?
170. Verapamil:
+blocks the calcium channels in membranes of cardiomyocytes and in
membranes of cells of smooth muscles of coronary vessels
+decreases the myocardium oxygen demand owing to decrease of force of
cardiac contraction and decrease of heart rate
-decreases the myocardium oxygen demand owing to decrease of afterload upon
the heart
?
171. Unlike verapamil, nifedipine:
+practically doesn’t influence upon the calcium channels of cardiomyocytes
+hasn’t antiarrhythmic effect
+has marked hypotensive effect
-doesn’t influence upon the tone of coronary vessels
?
172. Choose the effects of beta-adrenoblockers:
+antianginal
+antiarrhythmic
+hypotensive
-cardiotonic
?
173. Choose the effects of beta-adrenoblockers:
+decrease of adrenergic influence upon the heart
-widening of coronary vessels
-increase of oxygen delivery to myocardium
+decrease of oxygen demand of myocardium
?
174. Why beta-adrenoblockers decrease the oxygen demand of myocardium?
+because these drugs decrease the power of heart contractions
+because these drugs decrease the heart rate
-because these drugs decrease the preload upon the heart
?
175. Choose the antianginal drug with reflex type of action:
-anaprilinum
-verapamil
+validolum
-nifedipine
-nitroglycerin
?
176. Antianginal effect of dipyridamole is result of:
+widening of coronary vessels
-decrease of power of heart contractions and of heart rate
+antiplatelet effect
-cardioprotective effect
?
177. Trimetazidine:
-decreases the oxygen demand of myocardium
-increases the oxygen delivery to the myocardium
+increases the resistance of cardiomyocytes to ischemia
?
178. Choose antianginal drugs which decrease both preload and afterload upon
the heart:
+nitroglycerin
-verapamil
-anaprilinum
+nicorandil
-nifedipine
+nitrosorbide
?
179. Choose antianginal agents which don’t increase the coronary blood flow:
-nifedipine
-dipyridamole
-verapamil
+anaprilinum
+atenolol
+trimetazidine
?
180. Choose antianginal drugs with antiarrhythmic activity:
+verapamil
-nifedipine
+anaprilinum
+atenolol
-dipyridamole
?
181. Both anaprilinum and verapamil:
+decrease the force of heart contractions
+decrease the oxygen demand of heart
+suppress the atrio-ventricular conduction
-increase the coronary blood flow
?
182. Choose organic nitrates which are used for prevention of stenocardia
attacks:
-nitroglycerin
+nitrong
+nitroglycerin ointment
+nitrosorbide
+isosorbide mononitrate
+sustac
?
183. What is aim of using of calcium channels blockers in ischemic heart
disease?
-interruption of stenocardia attacks
+prevention of stenocardia attacks
-dissolution of thrombi in coronary arteries
?
184. Nifedipine is used as:
+antianginal agent
-antiarrhythmic agent
+hypotensive agent
?
185. Beta-adrenoblockers are used:
+in cardiac tachyarrhythmias
+for prevention of stenocardia attacks
-for interruption of stenocardia attacks
-for reduction of atrio-ventricular blockage
?
186. Choose antianginal drugs which are used for interruption of stenocardia
attacks:
-nitrong
-anaprilinum
-isosorbide mononitrate
+nitroglycerin
-trimetazidine
+validolum
?
187. Choose the groups of antianginal drugs which are used for prevention of
stenocardia attacks:
+blockers of calcium channels
+beta-adrenoblockers
+cardioprotectors
-antianginal drugs with reflex type of action
+coronarodilating drugs with myotropic action
?
188. Choose drug which increases the resistance of cardiomyocytes to ischemia:
-dipyridamole
-validolum
-isosorbide mononitrate
+trimetazidine
?
189. Choose drugs which are used for pain relief in myocardium infarction:
+opioid analgesics
+talamonal (fentanyl + droperidol)
+nitrous oxide
-nitrong
?
190. Choose antiarrhythmic which is used for cessation of ventricular
arrhythmias in myocardial infarction:
-quinidine
+lidocaine
-amiodarone
-verapamil
?
191. Choose the side effects of nitroglycerin:
+headache
+dizziness
+reflex tachycardia
-increase of blood pressure
-increase of bronchial tone
?
192. Choose the side effects of verapamil:
+constipation
-increase of bronchial tone
+slow down of atrio-ventricular conduction
+cardiac insufficiency
-pigmentation of skin
?
193. Choose the side effects of anaprilinum:
+atrio-ventricular blockage
+bradycardia
+cardiac insufficiency
-increase of blood pressure
+increase of bronchial tone
?
194. Choose antianginal drugs which can cause the suppressing of atrioventricular conduction:
-dipyridamole
-nitroglycerin
+anaprilinum
+verapamil
+atenolol
?
195. Choose the antianginal drugs which can aggravate the heart insufficiency:
-trimetazidine
+anaprilinum
+verapamil
-dipyridamole
+atenolol
-nitroglycerin
?
196. What is duration of action of nitroglycerin?
-7-8 hours
-3-4 hours
+up to 30 minutes
?
197. Choose antianginal drugs which are administered perorally:
+nitrong
+isosorbide mononitrate
-trinitrolong
-nitroglycerin
+nitrosorbide
-validolum
?
198. Choose antianginal drugs which are administered sublingually?
-trimetazidine
-anaprilinum
+nitroglycerin
+validolum
-dipyridamole
?
199. Choose the blockers of sodium channels:
+novocainamidum [procainamide]
+dipheninum [phenytoin]
-verapamil
-digoxin
+propafenone
+quinidine
?
200. Choose the blockers of sodium channels of subgroup ІА:
-lidocaine
+quinidine
-propafenone
+novocainamidum
-dipheninum
?
201. Choose the blockers of sodium channels of subgroup ІВ:
+lidocaine
-propafenone
-novocainamidum
+dipheninum
-quinidine
?
202. Choose the blockers of sodium channels of subgroup ІС:
-quinidine
-lidocaine
-dipheninum
-novocainamidum
+propafenone
-amiodarone
?
203. Choose the blockers of calcium channels:
-lidocaine
+verapamil
+diltiazem
-propafenone
?
204. Choose the beta-adrenoblockers:
-verapamil
+atenolol
-lidocaine
-“Asparcam”
+anaprilinum
?
205. Choose antiarrhythmic drug containing salts of potassium and magnesium:
-adenosine
+”Asparcam”
-amiodarone
-sotalol
-lidocaine
?
206. The slow down of slow diastolic depolarization results in:
-slow down of conduction
+decrease of automatism
-prolongation of effective refractory period
?
207. The slow down of fast depolarization results in:
+slow down of conduction
-increase of excitability
-decrease of automatism
?
208. Choose the blockers of sodium channels acting upon the all departments of
heart:
+quinidine
+novocainamidum
-lidocaine
-diphenine
?
209. Choose the effects of quinidine in conductive system of heart:
-increase of automatism
+decrease of automatism
-facilitation of conduction
+suppression of conduction
+prolongation of effective refractory period
-shortening of effective refractory period
?
210. Quinidine:
+suppresses the contraction of heart
-doesn’t influence upon the contraction of heart
+decreases the blood pressure
-increases the blood pressure
?
211. Both lidocaine and dipheninum:
+act predominantly upon the ventricles of heart
+suppress the automatism
-prolong the duration of action potential
-prolong the duration of effective refractory period
?
212. Both lidocaine and dipheninum:
+practically doesn’t suppress the contraction of heart
-markedly suppress the atrio-ventricular conduction
+practically doesn’t decrease the blood pressure
?
213. Amiodarone:
+markedly blocks the potassium channels
+moderately blocks the sodium and calcium channels
+blocks beta-adrenoceptors
-influence predominantly upon the ventricles
?
214. Under the influence of amiodarone, both the duration of action potential
and effective refractory period of cardiomyocytes:
-are decreased
+are increased
-both answers are incorrect
?
215. Under the influence of amiodarone, the automatism is:
+decreased
-increased
-both answers are incorrect
?
216. Sotalol as antiarrhythmic:
+blocks the potassium channels
-blocks the calcium channels
+blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
+prolongs the phase of repolarization and effective refractory period
?
217. Both amiodarone and sotalol:
-influence only upon the ventricles
- influence upon the atriums
+ influence both upon the ventricles and upon the atriums
?
218. The antiarrhythmic effects of verapamil is result of predominant influence
in the following part of heart conductive system:
-Purkinje fibers
+sinus node
+atrioventricular node
?
219. Choose the correct statements:
+verapamil decreases the automatism of sinus node
-verapamil increases the automatism of sinus node
+verapamil decreases the conduction through atrioventricular node
-verapamil facilitates the conduction through atrioventricular node
-verapamil decreases the effective refractory period of atrioventricular node
+verapamil prolongs the effective refractory period of atrioventricular node
?
220. Verapamil is used in:
+supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and supraventricular extrasystoles
-ventricular tachyarrhythmias and ventricular extrasystoles
-both supraventricular and ventricular extrasystoles and tachyarrhythmias
?
221. Choose the effects of verapamil:
-increase of heart contraction
+decrease of heart contraction
+increase of coronary blood flow
-decrease of coronary blood flow
?
222. Choose antiarrhythmic drugs decreasing the adrenergic influence upon the
heart:
-verapamil
+atenolol
-dipheninum
+anaprilinum
-atropine
-lidocaine
?
223. Anaprilinum as antiarrhythmic agent:
+decreases the heart rate and power of cardiac contraction
-increases the heart rate and power of cardiac contraction
+suppresses the conduction and automatism
-increases the conduction and automatism
?
224. Cardiac glycosides:
+increase the power of heart contraction
-decrease the power of heart contraction
-cause tachycardia
+cause bradycardia
-improve the atrioventricular conduction
+suppress the atrioventricular conduction
?
225. Cardiac glycosides are used in:
-tachyarrhythmias of ventricular localization
+tachyarrhythmias of supraventricular localization
-both ventricular and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
?
226. Choose the effects of potassium ions in the heart:
+decrease of automatism
-increase of automatism
+decrease of conduction
-increase of conduction
+decrease of heart rate
-increase of heart rate
?
227. The improvement of atrioventricular conduction is result of:
+stimulation of sympathetic nervous system
-inhibition of sympathetic nervous system
-stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system
+blockage of parasympathetic nervous system
?
228. Choose drugs which facilitate the atrioventricular conduction owing to
direct or indirect excitation of beta1-adrenergic receptors of heart:
+isadrinum
+ephedrine
-atropine
?
229. Choose drug which facilitates the atrioventricular conduction owing to
inhibition of cholinergic influence upon the heart:
-isadrinum
+atropine
-ephedrine
?
230. Both quinidine and novocainamidum are used in:
-ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
+both ventricular and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
?
231. Choose drug which is used for interruption of ventricular tachyarrhythmias
in myocardial infarction:
-quinidine
-anaprilinum
-verapamil
+lidocaine
-amiodarone
?
232. Dipheninum is used in:
-atrioventricular blockage
+arrhythmias induced by cardiac glycosides
-ciliary supraventricular arrhythmia
?
233. Amiodarone is used:
+both in supraventricular and in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-only in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
-only in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-in atrioventricular blockage
?
234. Verapamil is used:
-both in supraventricular and in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
+only in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
-only in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-in atrioventricular blockage
?
235. Beta-adrenoblockers are used:
+both in supraventricular and in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-only in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
-only in ventricular tachyarrhythmias
-in atrioventricular blockage
?
236. Cardiac glycosides are used:
+supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
-bradycardia
-ventricular extrasystoles
-atrioventricular blockage
?
237. Choose antiarrhythmic agents which are used in atrioventricular blockage:
+isadrinum
+atropine
-novocainamide
+ephedrine
-verapamil
?
238. Choose subgroup of sodium channels blockers which practically don’t
suppress atrioventricular conduction:
-drugs of subgroup І А
+drugs of subgroup І В
-drugs of subgroup І С
?
239. Choose the side effects of quinidine and novocainamidum:
-increase of blood pressure
+decrease of cardiac contraction
+suppressing of atrioventricular conduction
?
240. Choose the side effects of amiodarone:
+atrioventricular blockage
+disturbances of activity of thyroid gland
+grey-blue pigmentation of the skin
+photodermatitis
-arterial hypertension
?
241. Choose the side effects of verapamil:
-disfunction of thyroid gland
-bronchospasm
+heart insufficiency
+atrioventricular blockage
+constipation
?
242. Choose the side effects of anaprilinum:
+increase of bronchial tone
+bradycardia
-increase of blood pressure
+atrioventricular blockage
+heart insufficiency
?
243. Choose the side effects of cardiac glycosides:
+extrasystoles
+atrioventricular blockage
-heart insufficiency
-arterial hypotension
?
244. Choose antiarrhythmic agents which inhibit the atrioventricular
conduction:
+anaprilinum
-atropine
+novocainamidum
+verapamil
+amiodarone
?
245. Choose antiarrhythmic agents which can cause the decrease of cardiac
contraction:
+anaprilinum
+quinidine
+verapamil
-digoxin
-dipheninum
?
246. Choose antiarrhythmic agents which can decrease the blood pressure:
-atropine
+quinidine
+novocainamidum
+amiodarone
-ephedrine
?
247. Choose the groups of neurotropic hypotensive drugs:
+hypotensive drugs with central action
+ganglion blockers
+sympatholytics
+adrenoblockers
-angiotensin receptor blockers
-blockers of calcium channels
-potassium channels activators
?
248. Choose the hypotensive agents with central action:
+moxonidine
-losartan
-hydrochlorothiazide
+methyldopa
-labetalol
+clophelinum
?
249. Choose ganglion blockers:
-enalapril
-prazosin
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
-hydrochlorothiazide
?
250. Choose sympatholytics:
-diazoxidum
-atenolol
-prazosin
+reserpine
-losartan
?
251. Choose the hypotensive agents which block adrenergic receptors:
-moxonidine
-losartan
+prazosin
+anaprilinum
+atenolol
+labetalol
?
252. Choose the hypotensive agents – blockers of alpha-adrenergic receptors:
-labetalol
+prazosin
-anaprilinum
-atenolol
-losartan
?
253. Choose the hypotensive agents – blockers of beta adrenergic receptors:
+atenolol
-verapamil
+anaprilinum
-sodium nitroprusside
-apressinum
?
254. Choose the hypotensive agent – selective blocker of beta1-adrenergic
receptors:
-labetalol
-anaprilinum
-prazosin
+atenolol
-benzohexonium
?
255. Choose the hypotensive agent which blocks both alpha- and beta-adrenergic
receptors:
-sodium nitroprusside
-enalapril
+labetalol
-moxonidine
-hydrochlorothiazide
?
256. Choose the hypotensive agents – inhibitors of angiotensin-converting
enzyme:
+captopril
-losartan
-prazosin
-furosemide
+enalapril
?
257. Choose the hypotensive agents – blockers of angiotensin receptors:
-enalapril
-anaprilinum
-prazosin
+losartan
?
258. Choose the hypotensive agent – blocker of calcium channels:
-sodium nitroprusside
-apressinum
-magnesium sulfate
+nifedipine
-dibazolum
?
259. Choose the hypotensive agent – activator of potassium channels:
-enalapril
-sodium nitroprusside
-moxonidine
+minoxidil
-atenolol
?
260. Choose the hypotensive agent – donator of NO groups:
-captopril
+sodium nitroprusside
-clophelinum
-apressinum
-atenolol
?
261. Choose the groups of hypotensive agents which decrease the sympathetic
influence both upon the heart and upon the vessels:
+hypotensive agents with central action
+sympatholytics
-alpha1-adrenoblockers
-beta-adrenoblockers
+alpha-, beta-adrenoblockers
?
262. Clophelinum:
+stimulates central alpha2-adrenergic receptors and I1-imidazoline receptors
+decreases the tone of vasomotor centre
+decreases the blood pressure
-stimulates CNS
+has sedative and hypnotic effects
?
263. The hypotensive effect of clophelinum is result of:
-only widening of peripheral vessels
-only decrease of cardiac output
+both widening of peripheral vessels and decrease of cardiac output
?
264. Moxonidine:
+is hypotensive agent with central action
-stimulates both central alpha2-adrenergic and central I1-imidazoline receptors
+stimulates only central I1-imidazoline receptors
+hasn’t sedative and hypnotic action
?
265. Hypotensive effect of hygronium is result of:
-inhibition of vasomotor centre
-reduction of noradrenaline storage in endings of postganglionic adrenergic
fibers
-blockage of parasympathetic ganglia
+blockage of sympathetic ganglia
?
266. Hypotensive effect of sympatholytics is result of:
+both decrease of cardiac output and widening of peripheral vessels
-only decrease of cardiac output
-only widening of peripheral vessels
?
267. Reserpine:
-blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors of vessels
-blocks beta-adrenergic receptors of heart
+reduces noradrenaline storage in adrenergic fibers
+suppresses central nervous system
?
268. Hypotensive effect of prazosin is result of:
+widening of peripheral vessels
-decrease of cardiac output
-both widening of peripheral vessels and reduction of cardiac output
?
269. What is mechanism of hypotensive action of prazosin?
-blockage of angiotensin receptors
+blockage of alpha1-adrenergic receptors
-activation of potassium channels
-releasing of NO
-blockage of calcium channels
?
270. Labetalol decreases the blood pressure owing to:
+widening of peripheral vessels
+decrease of cardiac output
-elimination of sodium and water from the organism
?
271. Choose hypotensive agents which suppress the activity of renin-angiotensin
system:
+hypotensive agents with central action
+beta-adrenoblockers
+blockers of angiotensin receptors
+inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme
-diuretics
-alpha-adrenoblockers
?
272. Beta-adrenoblockers decrease the activity of renin-angiotensin system
because:
+inhibit the renin secretion by juxtaglomerular apparatus of kidneys
-inhibit renin activity
-inhibit the activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme
-block angiotensin receptors
?
273. Captopril decreases the activity of renin-angiotensin system because:
-suppresses the renin secretion
-suppresses renin activity
+inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme and destroys the formation of
angiotensin II
-blocks angiotensin receptors
?
274. Losartan decreases the activity of renin-angiotensin system because:
-inhibits the secretion of renin
-inhibits the activity of renin
-inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme
+blocks AТ1-angiotensin receptors
?
275. Choose the hypotensive agents which decrease the blood pressure owing to
widening of vessels:
-clophelinum
+sodium nitroprusside
+nifedipine
+apressinum
+prazosin
-labetalol
?
276. Nifedipine:
+widens arterial vessels and decreases the general peripheral resistance
-decreases the blood volume
-activates potassium channels of vessels
+blocks calcium channels of vessels
?
277. Clophelinum is used:
-only for interruption of hypertensive crisis
-only for chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
+both for interruption of hypertensive crisis and for chronic treatment of
hypertensive disease
?
278. Ganglion blockers are used:
+for interruption of hypertensive crisis
-only for chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
+in pulmonary edema
+for controlled hypotension
?
279. Labetalol is used:
-only for chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
-only for interruption of hypertensive crisis
+both for interruption of hypertensive crisis and for chronic treatment of
hypertensive disease
?
280. Beta-adrenoblockers are used as:
+hypotensive agents
+antianginal agents
+antiarrhythmic agents
-cardiotonic agents
?
281. Nifedipine is used as:
+hypotensive agent
+antianginal agent
-antiarrhythmic agent
-cardiotonic agent
?
282. Sodium nitroprusside is used for:
+interruption of hypertensive crisis
+controlled hypotension
-chronic treatment of hypertensive disease
?
283. Choose the hypotensive agents which are used mainly for chronic treatment
of hypertensive disease:
+inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme
+diuretics
+blockers of angiotensin receptors
+moxonidine
-sodium nitroprusside
-magnesium sulfate
?
284. Choose the hypotensive agents which are used for fast reduction of blood
pressure:
-methyldopa
-reserpine
+benzohexonium
+hygronium
+sodium nitroprusside
?
285. Choose the side effects of clophelinum:
+sedation
-psychomotor excitement
-drooling
+dry mouth
-reflex tachycardia
+retention of sodium and water
?
286. Choose the side effects of reserpine:
+bradycardia
-constipation
+increase of intestinal motility
+increase of gastric secretion
+sedation
-excitation of CNS
?
287. Choose the side effects of prazosin:
-bradycardia
+postural hypotension
+moderate reflex tachycardia
?
288. Choose the side effects of anaprilinum:
-postural hypotension
+slow down of atrio-ventricular conduction
+cardiac insufficiency
+bradycardia
+increase of bronchial tone
?
289. Choose the side effects of ganglion blockers:
+decrease of intestinal tone
+decrease of tone of bladder
+dry mouth
+paralysis of accommodation
+postural hypotension
-bronchospasm
?
290. Choose the hypotensive agents which can cause the reflex tachycardia:
+nifedipine
-anaprilinum
-clophelinum
+apressinum
+prazosin
?
291. Clophelinum:
+decreases the tone of vasomotor centre
+causes sedation, dry mouth
-acts during 24 hours
+is administered both perorally and parenterally
?
292. Benzohexonium:
+blocks both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
+is used for interruption of hypertensive crisis
-is used for controlled hypotension
+has duration of action 4-6 hours
?
293. Unlike benzohexonium, hygronium:
-blocks only sympathetic ganglia
+acts shortly (10-15 minutes)
+is used mainly for controlled hypotension
?
294. Anaprilinum:
-selectively blocks beta1-adrenergic receptors
+decreases the level of renin in plasma
+blocks the influence of catecholamines upon the heart
+is sued in hypertension, stenocardia, and tachyarrhythmias
-causes tachycardia
+increases the bronchial tone
?
295. Prazosin:
-blocks both alpha1- and alpha2-adrenoceptors
-decreases the sympathetic influence upon the heart and vessels
+causes moderate reflex tachycardia
+can cause postural hypotension
+acts during 10 hours
?
296. Losartan:
+blocks AT1-angiotensin receptors
-blocks alpha-adrenoceptors
-inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme
?
297. Nifedipine:
+blocks calcium channels of L-type
+decreases the general peripheral vascular resistance
+causes reflex tachycardia
-has duration of action several minutes
?
298. Choose the correct statements:
-prazosin is blocker of calcium channels
-methyldopa is hypotensive agent with direct myotropic action
+reserpine is sympatholytic
+ganglion blockers are used for interruption of hypertensive crisis
?
299. Choose the correct statements:
+clophelinum decreases the tone of vasomotor centre
-moxonidine is used for controlled hypotension
-sodium nitroprusside acts during several hours
+nifedipine is blocker of calcium channels
?
300. Choose the correct statements:
+labetalol blocks both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors
+hydrochlorothiazide is diuretic
-captopril is activator of potassium channels
-losartan blocks alpha-adrenoceptors
?
301. Choose the correct statements:
+anaprilinum decreases heart rate
+atenolol suppresses the atrio-ventricular conduction
+enalapril blocks the angiotensin-converting enzyme
-sympatholytics are mainly used for interruption of hypertensive crisis
?
302. Choose the correct statements:
-enalapril decreases the renin secretion
+apressinum and magnesium sulfate are myotropic hypotensive agents
-activators of potassium channels decrease the tone of vasomotor centre
?
303. Choose drugs increasing appetite:
-omeprazole
-phepranone
-metoclopramide
+absinthium tincture
+insulin
-ondansetron
?
304. Choose anorexigenic agents:
-metoclopramide
+phepranone
+desopimone
-ranitidine
?
305. Choose groups of drugs which decrease the secretion of salivary glands:
+М-cholinoblockers
-alpha-adrenoblockers
-cholinesterase inhibitors
+ganglion blockers
?
306. Choose drugs which increase the secretion of gastric juice:
+histamine
-ranitidine
+pentagastrin
-pepsin
?
307. Choose drugs decreasing the gastric secretion:
-blockers of Н1-histaminergic receptors
+blockers of Н2-histaminergic receptors
+M-cholinoblockers
-antacids
+inhibitors of Н+, К+-АТPase
?
308. Choose M-cholinoblocker which decreases predominantly the activity of
enterochromaffin-like cells of stomach:
-omeprazole
-ranitidine
+pirenzepine
-atropine
-misoprostol
-famotidine
?
309. Choose the blockers of Н2-histaminergic receptors:
-metoclopramide
-misoprostol
-pirenzepine
+ranitidine
-omeprazole
+famotidine
?
310. Choose the inhibitors of proton pump:
-pirenzepine
-ranitidine
-phepranone
+omeprazole
-misoprostol
+lansoprazole
?
311. Choose the synthetic analogue of prostaglandin Е1:
-omeprazole
-ranitidine
-pirenzepine
-sucralfate
+misoprostol
?
312. Choose antacids:
+magnesium hydroxide
-magnesium sulphate
+sodium hydrocarbonate
+aluminium hydroxide
+calcium carbonate
?
313. Choose gastroprotectors:
+De-nol
-ranitidine
-magnesium oxide
+misoprostol
-lansoprazole
+sucralfate
?
314. Choose gastroprotectors which create mechanical protection of gastric
mucosa:
-misoprostol
+De-nol
+sucralfate
-pirenzepine
?
315. Choose gastroprotectors which increase the protective properties of mucous
barrier:
-De-nol
+misoprostol
+sucralfate
-magnesium hydroxide
?
316. Choose the emetic agent with central action:
-copper sulphate
+apomorphine
-ondansetron
-thiethylperazine
-metoclopramide
?
317. Choose antiemetic agents:
+metoclopramide
+ondansetron
-apomorphine
+scopolamine
+domperidone
?
318. Choose antiemetic drugs which block D2-receptors:
-scopolamine
+metoclopramide
+domperidone
-ondansetron
+thiethylperazine
-scopolamine
+haloperidol
?
319. Choose М-cholinoblocker which is used as antiemetic agent:
-metoclopramide
-ondansetron
+scopolamine
-haloperidol
-domperidone
-atropine
?
320. Choose antiemetic drugs which block 5-НТ3-receptors:
-diprazinum
+ondansetron
-scopolamine
-domperidone
+metoclopramide
?
321. Choose the blocker of Н1-receptors which is used as antiemetic agent:
-ondansetron
-metoclopramide
+diprazinum
-domperidone
?
322. Choose prokinetic agents (agents which promote the gastric motility):
+domperidone
-scopolamine
+metoclopramide
-drotaverine
+cisapride
?
323. Choose drugs which decrease the gastric motility:
+M-cholinoblockers
+ganglion blockers
-sympatholytics
+myotropic spasmolytics
?
324. Choose drugs which decrease the gastric motility:
+atropine
-cisapride
-metoclopramide
+drotaverine
?
325. Choose bile-expelling drugs:
+tablets “Cholenzymum”
+oxaphenamidum
+drotaverine
+atropine
-ondansetron
?
326. Choose gepatoprotectors:
-loperamide
+Legalon
+ademethionine
-cisapride
?
327. What drug is used in chronic pancreatitis?
-pepsin
-Legalon
+pancreatin
-“Aeron”
?
328. Choose drugs which are used in insufficiency of digestive glands:
+Festal
+Panzinorm
-“Aeron”
+Kreon
?
329. Choose drugs which stimulate the intestinal motility:
+M-cholinomimetics
-beta-adrenomimetics
+cholinesterase inhibitors
-agonists of opioid receptors
+laxative drugs
?
330. Choose the drugs stimulating the intestinal motility:
-loperamide
+proserinum
+aceclidine
-atropine
+magnesium sulphate
+castor oil
+isaphenine
?
331. Choose the laxative drugs:
-drotaverine
+lactulose
+magnesium sulphate
+sodium sulphate
+castor oil
+isaphenine
-loperamide
?
332. Choose the laxative drugs containing anthraquinone glycosides:
-lactulose
-extract of Belladonna
+extract of buck-thorn (Rhamnus) cortex
+rhubarb root
+senna leaves
?
333. Choose the groups of drugs decreasing the intestinal motility:
+M-cholinoblockers
+agonists of opioid receptors
-cholinesterase inhibitors
+myotropic antispasmodic agents
-sympatholytics
?
334. Choose the drugs decreasing the intestinal motility:
+drotaverine
+loperamide
-proserinum
-aceclidine
+atropine
?
335. Atropine is:
+bile-expelling drug
-anorexigenous agent
-antiemetic agent
-prokinetic agent
+spasmolytic
+drug decreasing the gastric secretion
?
336. Metoclopramide is
+antiemetic agent
-laxative agent
+prokinetic agent
-gepatoprotector
-spasmolytic
?
337. Sucralfate is:
+gastroptotective agent
-gepatoprotector
-prokinetic
?
338. Domperidone is:
+antiemetic agent
+prokinetic agent
-bile-expelling agent
-laxative agent
?
339. Drotaverine is:
+bile-expelling agent
-antiemetic agent
-emetic agent
-laxative agent
+myotropic antispasmodic
?
340. Ranitidine blocks the action of histamine on the receptors of:
-enterochromaffinic cells
+parietal cells
-cells producing gastrin
?
341. Omeprazole blocks:
-adenylyl cyclase
-Н2-histaminergic receptors
+Н,К-АТPase
?
342. Antacids:
+neutralize the hydrochloric acid of gastric juice
-decrease the secretion of hydrochloric acid of gastric juice
?
343. Choose drugs which mechanically protect the gastric mucosa from the
action of damage factors:
-pirenzepine
+De-nol
-magnesium oxide
-omeprazole
-ranitidine
?
344. Choose the drug which increases the resistance of gastric mucosa to action
of damage factors:
-proserinum
-De-nol
+misoprostol
-ranitidine
-atropine
?
345. De-nol:
-inhibits the secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells
-stimulates the synthesis of prostaglandins
+creates the protective layer on the ulcer surface
+has some antimicrobial activity against H.pylori
?
346. Misoprostol:
+increases the secretion of bicarbonates in the stomach
+decreases the secretion of hydrochloric acid
+increases the secretion of mucous
-decreases the gastric motility
+increases the resistance of cells of gastric mucosa to action of damage factors
?
347. In the trigger zone of vomiting centre, apomorphine stimulates:
-cholinoceptors
-adrenoceptors
+dopaminergic receptors
-serotoninergic receptors
?
348. Antiemetic effect of scopolamine is result of:
+blockage of M-cholinergic receptors of vestibular nucleus
-blockage of D2-dopaminergic receptors of trigger zone of vomiting centre
-blockage of serotoninergic receptors of CNS
?
349. The antiemetic effect of metoclopramide is result of:
-blockage of M-cholinergic receptors in the brain
- blockage of alpha-adrenergic receptors in the brain
+blockage of D2-dopaminergic receptors in the brain
- blockage of GABA receptors in the brain
?
350. Choose antiemetic drugs which block D2-receptors of trigger zone of
voniting centre:
+thiethylperazine
+haloperidol
+metoclopramide
-scopolamine
+domperidone
-ondansetron
-diprazinum
?
351. Choose the antiemetic drugs which block 5-НТ3-serotonin receptors:
+ondansetron
+tropisetron
-domperidone
?
352. The antiemetic effect of ondansetron is caused by:
-blockage of D2-receptors in the CNS
+blockage of 5-НТ3-serotonin receptors in the CNS
-blockage of Н1-receptors in CNS
-blockage of М-cholinergic receptors in CNS
?
353. Choose laxative drugs which increase the osmotic pressure in the large
intestine:
+lactulose
+sorbitol
-isaphenine
-Ol. Vaselini [liquid paraffin]
?
354. Saline laxatives increase the peristalsis of intestine because:
+increase the osmotic pressure in the lumen of intestine
+increase the volume of intestinal content
-directly stimulate the sensitive receptors of intestine
?
355. What is mechanism of laxative action of isaphenine?
+stimulation of sensitive receptors in intestine
-increase of osmotic pressure in intestinal lumen
-stimulation of M-cholinergic receptors in intestine
?
356. Choose the drugs of substitutive therapy in hypoacid gastritis:
-ranitidine
-pancreatin
+pepsin
+hydrochloric acid
?
357. Choose drugs which are used in hyperacid gastritis:
-blockers of Н1-histamine receptors
+blockers of Н2-histamine receptors
+antacids
+blockers of M-cholinergic receptors
?
358. Blockers of Н2-histamine receptors are used in:
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
-hypoacid gastritis
+hyperacid gastritis
?
359. Choose drugs which are used in ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum:
+drugs decreasing the secretion of hydrochloric acid
+antacids
+gastroprotectors
-drugs stimulating appetite
?
360. Choose the indications for use of ranitidine:
+hyperacid gastritis
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
-hypoacid gastritis
-intestinal atony
?
361. Choose the indications for use of omeprazole:
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
+hyperacid gastritis
-intestinal atony
+syndrome of Zollinger-Ellison
?
362. Antacids are used in:
-spasms of smooth muscles of stomach
+hyperacid gastritis
+reflux-esophagitis
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
?
363. Choose the indications for use of De-nol:
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
+gastritis associated with Helicobacter pylori
-reflux-esophagitis
?
364. Choose antiemetic drugs for treatment of motion sickness:
-metoclopramide
-domperidone
-haloperidol
+dimedrolum
+scopolamine
+diprazinum
?
365. Choose the indications for use of atropine:
+ulcer disease of stomach and duodenum
+intestinal colic
-constipation
?
366. Choose laxative agents for treatment of chronic constipation:
+extract of buck-thorn cortex
+rhubarb root
-extract of Belladonna
+isaphenine
-sodium sulphate
-castor oil
?
367. Choose laxative drugs which are used for treatment of acute poisoning (for
reduction of absorption of poison from intestine):
-senna leaves
-isaphenine
+magnesium sulphate
+sodium sulphate
?
368. Choose antacids which can cause the systemic alkalosis:
+sodium hydrocarbonate
-magnesium oxide
-aluminium hydroxide
+calcium carbonate
?
369. Choose diuretics with direct influence on the function of epithelium of renal
tubules:
+furosemide
-mannitum
+oxodolinum
+triamterenum
?
370. Choose diuretics directly influencing on the function of epithelium of renal
tubules:
+clopamide
+ethacrinic acid
-spironolactone
+dichlothiazidum
?
371. Choose diuretic – aldosterone antagonist:
-dichlothiazidum
-furosemide
-mannitum
+spironolactone
-oxodolinum
?
372. Choose osmotic diuretic:
+mannitum
-clopamide
-oxodolinum
-furosemide
-triamterene
?
373. Choose potassium- and magnesium-sparring diuretics:
-furosemide
+spironolactone
-ethacrinic acid
+triamterene
-mannitum
-oxodolinum
?
374. Choose the basic process in nephron which is affected by the majority of
diuretics:
-increase of filtration
-increase of secretion
+decrease of reabsorption
?
375. What is principle of action of diuretics directly influencing on the function
of epithelium of renal tubules?
-drugs initially affect the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules
+drugs initially affect the ions reabsorption in the renal tubules
?
376. What is the main localization of action of furosemide and ethacrinic acid?
-proximal convoluted tubules
+ascending limb of the loop of Henle
-distal convoluted tubules
-collecting duct
?
377. Choose the effects of furosemide:
+significant increase of diuresis
-increase of osmotic pressure of plasma
+decrease of blood pressure
+decrease of excretion of urates
-decrease of glucose blood level
?
380. Choose the effects of dichlothiazidum:
-significant increase of filtration in renal glomerules
+decrease of reabsorbtion of sodium and chlorine ions in initial part of distal
convoluted tubules
-decrease of elimination of potassium and magnesium ions
+hypotensive effect
?
381. In patient with diabetes insipidus, dichlothiazidum:
-increases the diuresis
+decreases the diuresis
-both answers are incorrect
?
382. Indicate the localization of action of triamterene:
-proximal convoluted tubules
-ascending limb of the loop of Henle
+distal convoluted tubules
+collecting duct
?
383. Indicate the localization of action of spironolactone:
-proximal convoluted tubules
-ascending limb of the loop of Henle
+distal convoluted tubules
+collecting duct
?
384. Triamterene increases the elimination of following ions:
+sodium
+chlorine
-potassium
-magnesium
?
385. Indicate the mechanism of diuretic action of triamterene:
-blockage of aldosterone receptors
+blockage of sodium channels in distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct
- blockage of sodium channels in proximal convoluted tubules
?
386. The degree of diuretic effect of triamterene is independent from aldosterone
level.
+it is a true
-it is a false
?
387. Spironolactone:
-suppresses the synthesis of aldosterone
+blocks the aldosterone receptors and eliminates the aldosterone influence in
nephron
+increases the excretion of sodium and chlorine ions
+decreases the excretion of potassium and magnesium ions
?
388. The degree of diuretic effect of spironolactone is independent from
aldosterone level.
-it is a true
+it is a false
?
390. Mannitum:
-easily penetrates through cellular membranes and tissues barriers
+increases the osmotic pressure of plasma
+is strong diuretic
+increases the osmotic pressure in lumen of nephrons and destroys the
reabsorbtion of water
?
391. Choose diuretics which increase the excretion of potassium and magnesium
ions from the body:
+dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
-spironolactone
-triamterene
+oxodolinum
-mannitum
+ethacrinic acid
?
392. Choose the indications for use of diuretics:
+brain and pulmonary edema
+treatment of edemas in patient with chronic heart failure
+treatment of edemas in patient with kidneys and liver diseases
+treatment of arterial hypertension
+forced diuresis
-treatment of ulcer disease
?
393. Choose diuretics which are used for treatment of chronic heart failure:
+dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
-mannitum
+spironolactone
+oxodolinum
?
394. Choose diuretic for treatment of pulmonary edema:
-dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
-spironolactone
-triamterene
?
395. Choose diuretics for treatment of brain edema:
+mannitum
-triamterene
-dichlothiazidum
-spironolactone
+furosemide
?
396. Choose diuretics which are used for treatment of hypertensive disease:
+dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
-mannitum
+spironolactone
+oxodolinum
?
397. What diuretics are used for forced diuresis?
-dichlothiazidum
-triamterene
-spironolactone
+mannitum
+furosemide
?
398. Choose the indications for use of dichlothiazidum:
-pulmonary edema
+hypertensive disease
+edemas in patients with chronic heart failure
+diabetes insipidus
?
399. Choose the indications for use of furosemide:
+brain edema
+pulmonary edema
+chronic heart failure
-for prevention of hypokaliemia
+forced diuresis
+hypertensive disease
?
400. What is aim of simultaneous administration of triamterene with
dichlothiazidum?
-correction of acid-base balance
+prevention of hypokaliemia
?
401. Choose the indications for use of mannitum:
+brain edema
+forced diuresis
-hypertensive disease
-chronic heart failure
?
402. Choose diuretics which can cause hypokaliemia:
+dichlothiazidum
+ethacrinic acid
-triamterene
+furosemide
-spironolactone
+oxodolinum
?
403. Choose diuretics with can cause hyperkaliemia:
-dichlothiazidum
-mannitum
+spironolactone
+triamterene
-furosemide
-oxodolinum
?
404. Choose diuretic which can cause hypocalcemia:
-dichlothiazidum
-spironolactone
-oxodolinum
-mannitum
+furosemide
?
405. Choose diuretic which can cause hyperglycemia:
+dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
+clopamide
-triamterene
-spironolactone
-mannitum
?
406. Choose diuretics which can cause hyperuricemia:
-triamterene
+dichlothiazidum
+furosemide
-mannitum
+ethacrinic acid
?
407. Choose diuretics which can cause gynecomastia:
-furosemide
+spironolactone
-dichlothiazidum
-triamterene
-mannitum
?
408. Choose the side effects of dichlothiazidum:
+hypokalemia
+hypomagnesemia
+hypercalcemia
+hyperuricemia
+hyperglycemia
+alkalosis
-gynecomastia
?
409. Choose the side effects of furosemide:
+hypokalemia
+hypomagnesemia
+hypocalcemia
+hyperuricemia
+hyperglycemia
+ototoxicity
-acidosis
?
410. Choose the side effects of spironolactone:
-ototoxicity
+hyperkalemia
+gynecomastia
?
411. What are typical for furosemide?
+high diuretic activity
-moderate diuretic activity
+fast development of effect
-slow development of effect
+short duration of action
?
412. Dichlothiazidum has:
-high diuretic activity
+moderate diuretic activity
-low diuretic activity
?
413. Choose the correct statement about mannitum:
+it is diuretic with high activity
-it is administered perorally
+it is administered intravenously
+it is used in brain edema
+it is used for forced diuresis
?
414. Choose diuretics with high activity:
+furosemide
+ethacrinic acid
+mannitum
-dichlothiazidum
-spironolactone
-triamterene
?
415. Choose the correct statement:
+furosemide acts upon the ascending part of loop of Henle
+triamterene increases the level of potassium and magnesium ions in the blood
-dichlothiazidum is osmotic diuretic
+spironolactone can cause gyneconastia
?
416. Choose the correct statement:
+furosemide causes the marked diuretic effect
-clopamide is potassium-sparring diuretic
+dichlothiazidum is used in hypertensive disease
-triamterene is used in pulmonary edema
?
417. Choose drugs which stimulate the erythropoiesis:
-pentoxylum
+Fercoven
-filgrastim
+ferrous sulfate
+folic acid
+epoetin alpha
-molgrastim
+cyanocobalamin
+ferrous lactate
?
418. Choose drugs for treatment of hypochromic anemias:
+Fercoven
-cyanocobalamin
+ferrous lactate
-sodium nucleinate
+ferrous sulfate
+epoetin alpha
+Ferrum-Lek
+epoetin beta
?
419. Choose drugs which are used in iron-deficiency anemias:
-cyanocobalamin
-folic acid
+ferrous sulfate
+Ferroplex
?
420. Choose drugs containing iron:
+Fercoven
-filgrastim
+ferrous sulfate
+ferrous lactate
+Ferrum-Lek
?
421. Choose the recombinant human erythropoietins:
-molgrastim
-filgrastim
-methyluracilum
+epoetin alpha
+epoetin beta
?
422. Choose drugs for treatment of hyperchromic anemias:
-epoetin alpha
-ferrous sulfate
-Fercoven
+cyanocobalamin
-molgrastim
+folic acid
?
423. Choose drugs stimulating leukopoiesis:
-epoetin alpha
+pentoxylum
+molgrastim
+methyluracilum
+sodium nucleinate
+filgrastim
?
424. Choose the myeloid growth factors:
-sodium nucleinate
+molgrastim
+filgrastim
-methyluracilum
-mercaptopurine
?
425. Choose the drugs which inhibit leukopoiesis:
-sodium nucleinate
+myelosan
+mercaptopurine
+cyclophosphamide
+thiophosphamidum
+dopanum
?
426. Iron containing drugs:
+stimulate the erythropoiesis
-stimulate the leukopoiesis
+normalize the level of hemoglobin in the blood
-influence blood clotting
?
427. The rocombinant human erythropoietins:
-increase the iron absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
+stimulate the proliferation of erythrocytes
+stimulate the differentiation of erythrocytes
+are used for the treatment of aplastic anemias
?
428. Cyanocobalamin:
+normalizes the blood in megaloblastic anemia
-increases the iron absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
-stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin
?
429. Folic acid:
+normalizes the blood in macrocytic anemia
-is used for treatment of leucosis
?
430. Pentoxylum:
-stimulates the erythropoiesis
+stimulates the leukopoiesis
+inhibits the inflammation
+stimulates the tissue regeneration
?
431. Molgramostim stimulates:
-proliferation of erythrocytes
+proliferation of granulocytes
+differentiation of granulocytes
+proliferation of monocytes (macrophages)
+differentiation of monocytes (macrophages)
?
432. Filgrastim stimulates:
+proliferation of granulocytic progenitor cells
+differentiation of granulocytic progenitor cells
-proliferation of lymphocytes
+activity of mature granulocytes (neutrophils)
?
433. Choose drugs which are used in iron-deficiency anemias:
+Fercoven
-sodium nucleinate
+ferrous sulfate
-filgrastim
+Ferrum-Lek
+ferrous lactate
?
434. Choose iron-containing drugs which are used in the disorders of iron
absorption from gastro-intestinal tract:
-ferrous lactate
-Ascofer
+Fercoven
+Ferrum-Lek
?
435. Choose drug which is used for treatment of pernicious anemia:
+cyanocobalamin
-ferrous lactate
-epoetin alpha
?
436. Choose drug which is used for treatment of macrocytic anemia:
-ferrous lactate
-Fercoven
-epoetin beta
+folic acid
-methyluracilum
?
437. Molgrastim and filgrastim are used in:
+inhibition of leukopoiesis caused by intense myelosuppressive chemotherapy
-erythremia
+bone marrow transplantation
+AIDS
+aplastic anemia
?
438. Choose the iron-containing drugs for peroral administration:
-Fercoven
+ferrous sulfate
+ferrous lactate
-Ferrum-Lek
?
438. Choose the iron-containing drugs for parenteral administration:
-ferrous sulfate
-ferrous lactate
-Ascofer
+Fercoven
+Ferrum-Lek
?
439. Ferrous lactate:
-is used in hyperchromic anemias
+is used in hypochromic anemias
+is administered perorally
-is administered parenterally
-increases the intestinal motility
+can cause constipation
?
440. Choose the correct statements:
-iron-containing drugs are effective in both hypochromic and hyperchromic
anemias
-only molecular iron is absorbed from the gastro-intestinal tract
+it is necessary to avoid contact of iron-containing drugs with the oral cavity
+iron-containing drugs can cause the constipation
?
441. Choose the correct statements:
-cyanocobalamin is used in hypochromic anemia
+ cyanocobalamin is used in megaloblastic anemia
+cyanocobalamin is administered parenterally
?
442. Pentoxylum and methyluracilum:
+are synthetic stimulators of leukopoiesis
-are used in hypochromic anemias
+accelerate the healing of wounds
+have anti-inflammatory effect
?
443. Molgramostim:
-is synthetic agent
+is recombinant myeloid growth factor
+stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of granulocytes
+stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of monocytes (macrophages)
?
444. Filgrastim:
+is recombinant granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
-is drug of plant origin
-stimulates the erythropoiesis
+stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of granulocytic progenitor cells
?
445. Choose the antiaggregants:
+ticlopidine
+clopidogrel
-vicasolum
+epoprostenol
+abciximab
-aminocapronic acid
+acetylsalicylic acid
?
446. Choose antiaggregant decreasing the synthesis of thromboxane:
-dipyridamole
+acetylsalicylic acid
-clopidogrel
-abciximab
?
447. Choose the antiaggregant stimulating prostacyclin receptors:
-acetylsalicylic acid
-abciximab
+epoprostenol
-ticlopidine
-clopidogrel
?
448. Choose anticoagulants:
+heparin
+enoxaparin
-protamine sulfate
+warfarin
+syncumarum
+dalteparin
+sodium hydrocitrate
+neodicumarinum
+hirudin
?
449. Choose the anticoagulants with direct action:
-warfarin
+hirudin
+heparin
-syncumarum
+enoxaparin
+dalteparin
?
450. Choose the low-molecular-weight heparins:
-neodicumarinum
-hirudin
+enoxaparin
-epoprostenol
+dalteparin
?
451. Choose the indirectly-acting anticoagulants:
-dalteparin
+warfarin
-hirudin
+syncumarum
+neodicumarinum
?
452. Choose agents which increase the blood coagulation:
+phytomenadione
+fibrinogen
-streptokinase
+vicasolum
+thrombin
-neodicumarinum
-aprotinin
?
453. Choose fibrinolytics:
-epoprostenol
+streptokinase
+urokinase
-syncumarum
-aminocapronic acid
+alteplase
+anistreplase
?
454. Choose antifibrinolytics:
+aminocapronic acid
-acetylsalicylic acid
+tranexamic acid
-alteplase
?
455. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of thrombosis:
-aminocapronic acid
+acetylsalicylic acid
+heparin
-alteplase
+enoxaparin
+hirudin
+clopidogrel
?
456. Choose drugs which prevent the formation of thrombi:
+ticlopidine
-streptokinase
+epoprostenol
+abciximab
+warfarin
+syncumarum
?
457. Choose drugs which promote the thrombolysis:
-acetylsalicylic acid
-clopidogrel
+streptokinase
+alteplase
+urokinase
?
458. Choose drugs which are used for the arresting of hemorrhages:
+tranexamic acid
-clopidogrel
+phytomenadione
-dalteparin
+thrombin
+vicasolum
?
459. What drug is antagonist of heparin?
+protamine sulfate
-abciximab
-phytomenadione
?
460. Choose the antagonist of indirectly-acting anticoagulants:
-protamine sulfate
+vicasolum
-alteplase
?
461. The antiaggregating effect of acetylsalicylic acid is result of:
+inhibition of cyclooxygenase
-inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase
-inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
-blockage of thromboxane receptors
?
462. Dipyridamole inhibits the platelets aggregation, because:
+increases the level of adenosine
-stimulates adenylyl cyclase
+inhibits phosphodiesterase
?
463. Choose the vitamin which stimulates the synthesis of prothrombin in the
liver:
-cyanocobalamin
-folic acid
+phytomenadione
-thiamine
-retinol
?
464. Phytomenadione promotes:
+synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
-transformation of prothrombin to thrombin
-transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin
?
465. Choose agent which stimulates the transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin:
-prostacyclin
-urokinase
+thrombin
-thromboxane
-streptokinase
?
466. Heparin:
-is antagonist of vitamin К
+is co-factor of antithrombin ІІІ
+affects the transformation of prothrombin to thrombin
+decreases the activity of thrombin
?
467. Unlike heparin, the low-molecular-weight heparins:
-affect the transformation of prothrombin to thrombin
-decrease the activity of factor Ха
+don’t affect thrombin activity
-increase the platelets aggregation
-are effective in peroral administration
?
468. Syncumarum and warfarin:
+suppress the synthesis of active form of vitamin К1
+suppress the synthesis of clotting factors
-activate the antithrombin ІІІ
-decrease the thrombin activity
?
469. Choose drugs which interfere with synthesis of prothrombin in the liver:
-heparin
-enoxaparin
+warfarin
+neodicumarinum
-phytomenadione
+syncumarum
?
470. Streptokinase stimulates the transformation of:
-prothrombin to thrombin
-fibrinogen to fibrin
+profibrinolysin to fibrinolysin
?
471. Streptokinase and urokinase act:
-only in thrombi
-only in plasma
+both in thrombi and in plasma
?
472. Choose drugs which promote the formation of fibrinolysin:
+alteplase
-acetylsalicylic acid
-aminocapronic acid
+streptokinase
+urokinase
?
473. Acetylsalicylic acid:
+is antiaggregant
-is anticoagulant
+is anti-inflammatory drug
+has hypothermic effect
+has analgesic effect
-has gastroprotective effect
?
474. Choose drugs which interfere with platelets aggregation:
+ticlopidine
+abciximab
-tranexamic acid
+acetylsalicylic acid
-aprotinin
+clopidogrel
-warfarin
?
475. Choose drugs decreasing blood clotting:
+heparin
-clopidogrel
+enoxaparin
+hirudin
+warfarin
+neodicumarinum
+syncumarum
?
476. Choose anticoagulants interfering with fibrin formation only in vivo:
-heparin
+warfarin
-hirudin
+syncumarum
+neodicumarinum
?
477. Choose anticoagulants interfering with fibrin formation both in vivo and in
vitro:
-warfarin
+heparin
+hirudin
+enoxaparin
-neodicumarinum
+dalteparin
?
478. Choose the correct statement:
+the effect of heparin develops right after administration
+the effect of warfarin develops during 1-2 days
-the low-molecular weight heparins are effective only in vivo
-protamine sulfate is antagonist of both directly-acting and indirectly-acting
anticoagulants
?
479. Protamine sulfate inactivates:
-prothrombin
-thrombin
-fibrinogen
-fibrinolysin
+heparin
?
480. Streptokinase:
-directly act upon the fibrin and dissolves it
+activates fibrinolytic system
+causes the lysis of fibrinogen in the blood
+decreases the blood clotting
+decreases the platelets aggregation
?
481. Alteplase:
-decreases the blood clotting
-directly act upon the fibrin and dissolves it
+activates the fibrinolysis predominantly within the thrombus
-activates the transformation of profibrinolysin to fibrinolysin in plasma
-decreases the platelets aggregation
?
482. Choose drugs which promote the formation of thrombi:
-warfarin
+thrombin
+phytomenadione
+vicasolum
?
483. Choose drugs which interfere with lysis of thrombi:
-phytomenadione
-vicasolum
+aminocapronic acid
+tranexamic acid
?
484. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of thrombosis:
+acetylsalicylic acid
+neodicumarinum
+heparin
-aminocapronic acid
+ticlopidine
+warfarin
?
485. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of platelets aggregation:
-neodicumarinum
-enoxaparin
+acetylsalicylic acid
+dipyridamole
-syncumarum
+clopidogrel
+abciximab
?
486. Choose drugs which are used for prevention of thrombosis of coronary
arteries:
+acetylsalicylic acid
-aminocapronic acid
+dipyridamole
+clopidogrel
+abciximab
?
487. Choose drugs which are used for decrease of blood clotting:
+heparin
-acetylsalicylic acid
+warfarin
+dalteparin
+hirudin
+neodicumarinum
?
488. Anticoagulants are used:
+for prevention of thrombosis
-for lysis of thrombi
-both for prevention of thrombosis and for lysis of thrombi
?
489. Heparin is administered:
+intravenously
+subcutaneously
-orally
+locally
?
490. Warfarin is administered:
-intravenously
-subcutaneously
+orally
-locally
?
491. What drug is used in overdose of heparin?
-phytomenadione
+protamine sulfate
-streptokinase
?
492. Choose drugs which are used for increase of blood clotting:
+phytomenadione
+vicasolum
+thrombin
-warfarin
-syncumarum
?
493. Choose drug which is used locally for arresting of capillary hemorrhages:
-phytomenadione
-fibrinogen
+thrombin
-vicasolum
?
494. Choose drugs which are used for lysis of thrombi:
+streptokinase
-neodicumarinum
+alteplase
+urokinase
?
495. In hemorrhages due to increase of fibrinolytic activity, is used:
-acetylsalicylic acid
-urokinase
+aminocapronic acid
Salem akram
520
?
1. Choose the drugs of water-soluble vitamins:
+pyridoxine (В6)
+thiamine (В1)
-tocopherol (Е)
-phytonadione (К1)
+folic acid (Вс)
?
2. Choose the drugs of water-soluble vitamins:
-retinol (А)
+riboflavin (В2)
+rutin (Р)
+ascorbic acid (С)
?
3. Choose the drugs of water-soluble vitamins:
+pantothenic acid (В5)
+cyanocobalamin (В12)
-ergocalciferol (D2)
+nicotinic acid (РР)
-tocopherol (Е)
?
4. Choose the drugs of lipid-soluble vitamins:
+retinol (А)
-pantothenic acid (В5)
+ergocalciferol (D2)
+tocopherol (Е)
+phytonadione (К1)
?
5. The thiamine deficiency results in:
-pellagra
-scurvy
+beriberi
?
6. Indicate the system which is most suffering in thiamine deficiency:
-blood system
-urinary system
+nervous system
-bone and skeletal muscles
?
7. The deficiency of nicotinic acid results in:
-pernicious anemia
-beriberi
+pellagra
?
8. Choose the effects of nicotinic acid:
+hypolipidemic
+reduction of vessels tone
-diuretic
+elimination of the symptoms of pellagra
?
9. Unlike nicotinic acid, nicotinamide has not influence upon the vessels tone:
+it is true
-it is false
?
10. The deficiency of riboflavin results in:
-neuritis
+angular stomatitis
+glossitis
+vascular keratitis
+hemeralopia
?
11. Choose vitamins which are used for treatment of megaloblastic anemia:
+folic acid
-retinol
+cyanocobalamin
-tocopherol
?
12. In patient with deficiency of intrinsic Castle’s factor, the absorption of
cyanocobalamin in intestine:
-is decreased
+is increased
-doesn’t change
?
13. The deficiency of cyanocobalamin is accompanied by:
-macrocytic anemia
+megaloblastic anemia
+affection of mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
+peripheral neuritis
?
14. Folic acid deficiency is accompanied by:
-megaloblastic anemia
+macrocytic anemia
-leucopenia
+agranulocytosis
?
15. Under the influence of ascorbic acid, the synthesis of collagen is:
+increased
-decreased
-doesn’t change
?
16. Ascorbic acid:
-increases the vessels permeability
+decreases the vessels permeability
+accelerates the processes of regeneration
-slows down the processes of regeneration
?
17. Choose vitamin which improves the absorption of iron-containing drugs in
gastrointestinal tract:
-retinol
+ascorbic acid
-pyridoxine
-nicotinic acid
?
18. Choose vitamins which decrease the vessels permeability:
-retinol
+rutin
-nicotinic acid
+ascorbic acid
?
19. Choose the correct statements:
-rutin influences mainly upon the metabolism of phosphates and calcium
-rutin increases the vessels permeability
+rutin deficiency results in the increase of vessels permeability
?
20. Choose vitamin which influences upon the photoperception:
+retinol
-ergocalciferol
-tocopherol
-rutin
?
21. Whether it is true, that the insufficiency of vitamin A causes the
hemeralopia?
+yes
-no
?
22. Choose vitamin which stimulates the synthesis of prothrombin and
proconvertin in the liver:
-retinol
-ergocalciferol
+ phytonadione
-thiamine
?
23. Vitamin К:
-is anticoagulant
+is used for treatment of hemorrhages
+stimulates the synthesis of several clotting factors in the liver
+promotes the synthesis of ANP
?
24. Vitamin K is antagonist of:
-directly-acting anticoagulants
+indirectly-acting anticoagulants
?
25. Choose vitamins with anti-oxidative properties:
-retinol
+tocopherol
-ergocalciferol
+ascorbic acid
-nicotinic acid
?
26. Ergocalciferol regulates:
-carbohydrate metabolism
-peptide metabolism
+metabolism of phosphates and calcium
-lipid metabolism
?
27. Ergocalciferol:
+improves the absorption of calcium in the gastrointestinal tract
-worsens the absorption of calcium in gastrointestinal tract
+regulates the mobilization of calcium from the bones
-decreases the reabsorption of calcium in nephron
?
28. Choose the correct statements:
-tocopherol decreases the blood coagulation
+vitamin K increases the blood coagulation
+ergocalciferol regulates the bone mineralization
+deficiency of vitamin A results in hemeralopia
?
29. Choose the correct statements:
+deficiency of vitamin A results in xerophthalmia
+vitamin K is antagonist of indirectly-acting anticoagulants
-tocopherol influences photoperception
?
30. Choose the vitamin which used for prevention and treatment of pellagra:
-folic acid
-ascorbic acid
+nicotinic acid
-cyanocobalamin
?
31. Choose the indications for use of nicotinic acid:
+pellagra
+atherosclerosis
+spasms of vessels
-gout
?
32. Choose vitamin which is used for treatment of macrocytic anemia:
+folic acid
-nicotinic acid
-ascorbic acid
-cyanocobalamin
?
33. Choose vitamin which is the main drug for treatment of pernicious anemia:
-folic acid
-riboflavin
+cyanocobalamin
-rutin
?
34. Choose vitamin which is used for treatment and prevention of scurvy:
-rutin
-folic acid
+ascorbic acid
-nicotinic acid
?
35. Choose vitamins which are used for decrease of vessels permeability:
-cyanocobalamin
+rutin
+ascorbic acid
-folic acid
?
36. Choose the indications for use of ergocalciferol:
+rickets
+osteodystrophy
-keratomalacia
-hemeralopia
?
37. What are indications for use of retinol?
+keratomalacia
-osteomalacia
+hemeralopia
+xerophthalmia
+hyperkeratosis
?
38. What vitamin is used for treatment of bleeding owing to
hypoprothrombinemia?
-folic acid
-cyanocobalamin
-кислоту ascorbic acid
+vitamin K
?
39. Choose drugs which influence release of gonadotropins:
+gonadorelin
-somatropin
+danazol
+leuprolide
?
40. Choose drugs which influence release of growth hormone:
+octreotide
-leuprolide
+lanreotide
?
41. Choose drugs which influence release of thyrotropin:
-danazol
+rifathyroinum
-bromocriptine
?
42. Choose the hormonal drugs of anterior pituitary:
-oxytocin
+thyrotropin
+tetracosactide
-somatrem
?
43. Choose the hormonal drugs of anterior pituitary:
+lactinum
-rifathyroinum
+menopausal gonadotropin
+human chorionic gonadotropin
?
44. Choose the hormonal drugs of posterior pituitary:
+oxytocin
-lactinum
-gonadorelin
+desmopressin acetate
?
45. Choose hormonal drug with follicle-stimulating activity:
+menopausal gonadotropin
-human chorionic gonadotropin
-gonadorelin
?
46. Choose hormonal drug with luteinizung activity:
-menopausal gonadotropin
+human chorionic gonadotropin
-gonadorelin
?
47. Choose the antithyroid drugs:
+marcazolilum
-triiodthyroninum
+diiodthyrosine
+iodine
?
48. Choose the hormonal drugs of pancreas:
-oxytocin
-corticotropin
+insulin
+glucagon
?
49. Choose the groups of drugs which are used for treatment of diabetes
mellitus:
+preparations of insulin
+biguanide derivatives
+alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
-glucagon
+sulfonylurea derivatives
?
50. Choose the antidiabetic drugs – derivatives of sulfonylurea:
-metformin
+glibenclamide
-acarbose
+chlorpropamide
?
51. Choose the antidiabetic drugs – derivatives of biguanide:
-glibenclamide
+metformin
-acarbose
?
52. Choose the synthetic antidiabetic agents:
-glucagon
+chlorpropamide
+glibenclamide
+metformin
?
53. In the anterior pituitary, gonadorelin increases the release of:
-adrenocorticotropin
-prolactin
+gonadotropins
?
54. In pituitary, leuprolide inhibits the secretion of:
-adrenocorticotropin
-prolactin
+gonadotropins
?
55. Tetracosactide:
-increases the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone by hypothalamus
-inhibits the secretion of glucocorticoids
+stimulates the secretion of glucocorticoids
?
56. Octreotide:
-stimulates the synthesis of growth hormone by pituitary
+inhibits the synthesis of growth hormone by pituitary
?
57. Rifathyroinum:
-inhibits the synthesis of thyrotropin by pituitary
+stimulates the synthesis of thyrotropin by pituitary
?
58. The follicular development and the estrogens synthesis are stimulated by:
-human chorionic gonadotropin
-danazol
+menopausal gonadotropin
?
59. Choose gonadotropin which stimulates the ovulation:
-menopausal gonadotropin
+human chorionic gonadotropin
-danazol
?
60. Oxytocin:
+increases the tone of uterus
-decreases the uterus tone
+increases the contractile activity of uterus
-decreases the contractile activity of uterus
?
61. What is main effect of desmopressin acetate?
-stimulation of ovulation
-increase of tone and contraction of uterus
+regulation of water reabsorption in collective ducts
?
62. L-thyroxine sodium:
+stimulates the consumption of oxygen by tissues
+stimulates the catabolism of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
+increases the basal metabolism
-decreases the basal metabolism
+increases the effects of adrenaline
?
63. What is mechanism of action of mercazolilum?
-suppression of synthesis of thyrotropin by pituitary
+suppression of synthesis of thyroid hormones by thyroid glands
-destroying of the thyroid follicle cells
-reduction of absorption of iodine by thyroid gland
?
64. Choose drugs which decrease the level of glucose in the blood:
-glucagon
+insulin
+metformin
+glibenclamide
?
65. Insulin:
-decreases the absorption of glucose in the intestine
-increases the sensitivity of insulin receptors in the tissues
+promotes the penetration of glucose into the cells
+increases the synthesis of glycogen
?
66. Insulin drugs aren’t administered perorally because:
-insulin is badly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+insulin is destroyed by digestive enzymes
-insulin increases the glucose absorption
?
67. Drugs of insulin:
+are effective in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
+are effective in non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
+are administered parenterally
-are administered only intravenously
?
68. Drugs of insulin with prolonged action:
+are effective in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
+are effective in non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
-are administered intravenously
+are administered subcutaneously
?
69. Drugs of insulin with prolonged action aren’t used for cessation of
hyperglycemic coma because:
+these drugs aren’t administered intravenously
-aren’t administered perorally
+they have prolonged latent period of action
-they have low hypoglycemic effect
?
70. Glibenclamide:
+is easily absorbed from gastrointestinal tract
+stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta-cells of pancreas
-is drug of substitutive therapy in diabetes mellitus
+is administered only perorally
+is ineffective in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
?
71. What are mechanisms of action of metformin?
-stimulation of insulin release by beta-cells of pancreas
+improving of glucose penetration into the cells
+reduction of glyconeogenesis
+reduction of carbohydrates absorption in the intestine
?
72. Metformin:
+is administered perorally
+decreases the appetite and body weight
-is used in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
+ is used in non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
?
73. Rosiglitazone:
-increases the secretion of insulin by beta-cells of pancreas
+increases the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to endogenous insulin
+increases the absorption of glucose by peripheral tissues
?
74. Acarbose:
+is administered perorally
+inhibits the alpha-glucosidase
+reduces the absorption of carbohydrates into the intestine
-is used in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
+is used in non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
?
75. Danazol is used for treatment of:
-hypogonadism
+endometriosis
-adrenal insufficiency
?
76. Leuprolide is used for treatment of:
-cancer of mammary gland
+cancer of prostate
-cancer of ovary
?
77. Rifathyroinum is used for diagnosis of disturbances of function of:
-adrenal cortex
+thyroid gland
-pancreas
?
78. What drug is prescribed in adrenal insufficiency?
-octreotide
+tetracosactide
-leuprolide
?
79. What drug is used in dwarfish growth?
-octreotide
+somatrem
-bromocriptine
?
80. What is indication for use of octreotide?
-hypothalamic hypogonadism
+acromegaly
-hyperthyroidism
?
81. What drug is used for treatment of acromegaly?
+octreotide
-somatrem
-tetracosactide
?
82. What drug is used in hyperprolactinemia?
-octreotide
-somatrem
+bromocriptine
?
83. Octreotide is used in:
+acromegaly
+gastrinoma
+control of bleeding from esophageal varices
-dwarfish growth
?
84. Choose the indications for use of oxytocin:
-prevention of premature labor
+uterine subinvolution in the postnatal period
+stimulation of labor
+arresting of postnatal bleeding
?
85. What is indication for use of desmopressin acetate?
-diabetes mellitus
+diabetes insipidus
-acromegaly
-stimulation of labor
?
86. Choose drugs which are used in mixedema:
+triiodthyroninum hydrochloride
+L-thyroxine sodium
-mercazolilum
?
87. Choose drugs which are used in hyperthyroidism:
-triiodthyroninum hydrochloride
+mercazolilum
+diiodthyrosine
+potassium perchlorate
?
88. Leukopenia and agranulocytosis are side effects of:
-diiodthyrosine
-potassium iodide
+mercazolilum
?
89. Choose drugs which are used in diabetes mellitus:
-desmopressin acetate
+insulin
+chlorpropamide
+metformin
+acarbose
?
90. Choose peroral antidiabetic drugs:
-insulin
+sulfonylurea derivatives
+biguanide derivatives
+acarbose
?
91. Choose drug which is used for cessation of hyperglycemic coma:
-glibenclamide
-insulin “Ultratard HM”
+insulin “Actrapid MC”
-metformin
?
92. Choose correct statement:
-octreotide is used in dwarfish growth
+desmopressin acetate is used in diabetes insipidus
-insulin is used in hypoglycemic coma
-all statements are incorrect
?
93. Choose correct statement:
-mercazolilum is used for treatment of mixedema
-desmopressin acetate is used in diabetes mellitus
+oxytocin is used for stimulation of labor
?
94. Choose correct statements:
+tetracosactide increases the synthesis of glucocorticoids
-desmopressin acetate decreases the water reabsorption in nephron
+insulin decreases the blood glucose level
?
95. Choose correct statements:
+human chorionic gonadotropin stimulates the ovulation
+menopausal gonadotropin stimulates the follicular development
-somatrem increases the catabolism
?
96. Choose correct statements:
+L-thyroxine sodium increases the basal metabolism
-mercazolilum is used in mixedema
+tetracosactide is used in adrenal insufficiency
?
97. Choose correct statements:
+insulin is used for interruption of hyperglycemic coma
-acarbose is used in diabetes insipidus
+glibenclamide is used in non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
?
98. Choose correct statement:
+glibenclamide is derivative of sulfonylurea
-somatrem is used for treatment of hypothyroidism
-corticotropin is used in mixedema
?
99. Choose correct statements:
-human chorionic gonadotropin is used in breast cancer
+glibenclamide is administered perorally
+octreotide is analog of somatostatin
?
100. Choose correct statements:
-L-thyroxine is used in diabetes insipidus
+metformin is administered perorally
+desmopressin acetate is used for treatment of diabetes insipidus
+oxytocin increases the contractive activity of uterus
?
101. Choose glucocorticoids for systemic action:
+dexamethasone
-beclomethazone
+triamcinolone
+prednisoline
+hydrocortisone
?
10Choose glucocorticoids which are used only locally:
+beclomethazone
-prednisolone
+flunisolide
-hydrocortisone
+flumethasone
?
103. Choose glucocorticoid which is used in inhalations:
-dexamethasone
-flumethasone
-triamcinolone
-prednisolone
+beclomethazone
?
104. Choose mineralocorticoid:
-spironolactone
-flumethasone
+desoxycorticosterone
-mifepristone
?
105. Choose antagonist of glucocorticoids:
-spironolactone
+mifepristone
-dexamethasone
-tetracosactide
?
106. What drug is antagonist of mineralocorticoids?
-flunisolide
-mifepristone
+spironolactone
?
107. Choose estrogens:
-tamoxifen
-clomiphene
+synoestrolum
+estrone
?
108. What drugs are antagonists of estrogens?
-mifepristone
+clomiphene
+tamoxifen
-prednisolone
-progesterone
?
109. Choose progestin:
-synoestrolum
-mifepristone
+progesterone
?
110. What drug is progesterone inhibitor?
-prednisolone
-cyproterone
+mifepristone
?
111. Choose androgen:
-prednisolone
-retabolilum
-phenobolinum
+testosterone
?
112. What drugs are androgens antagonists?
+cyproterone
-mifepristone
+finasteride
?
113. Choose anabolic steroids:
-testosterone
+phenobolinum
-mifepristone
+retabolilum
?
114. What effects of glucocorticoids have the therapeutic value?
+anti-inflammatory
+antiallergic
-stimulation of catabolism
?
115. What are peculiarities of mechanism of action of glucocorticoids?
+drugs penetrate through cells membranes and act intracellularlly
-drugs interact with membrane receptors
+drugs regulate the gene transcription
+drugs regulate the synthesis of proteins and enzymes
?
116. What are peculiarities of glucocorticoid influence upon the metabolism?
+drugs increases the blood glucose level
-drugs decrease the blood glucose level
+drugs cause the redistribution of fats
+drugs cause the water and sodium retention
+drugs inhibit the protein synthesis
?
117. What are peculiarities of glucocorticoid influence upon the inflammation?
-drugs increase the exudation
+drugs suppress the exudation
+drugs decrease the activity of macrophages and fibroblasts
-drugs promote the accumulation of leukocytes in the inflammation region
+drugs suppress the synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrienes
?
118. In prolonged therapy with glucocorticoids, the production of
adrenocorticotropin is:
-increased
+decreased
-doesn’t change
?
119. Prednisolone and hydrocortisone:
-are badly absorbed from the place of local application
+are readily absorbed from the place of local application
-practically haven’t systemic effects
+have systemic effects
+have mineralocorticoid activity
?
120. Dexamethasone:
-is badly absorbed from the place of local application
+is superior to prednisolone after anti-inflammatory activity
-is anterior to prednisolone after anti-inflammatory activity
+ has low mineralocorticoid activity
-has marked mineralocorticoid activity
?
121. Beclomethazone:
+is badly absorbed in case of local application
-is readily absorbed in case of local application
-has marked systemic action
+practically hasn’t systemic effects
?
122. Desoxycorticosterone predominantly influence:
-carbohydrate metabolism
-peptide metabolism
+water-salt balance
-lipid metabolism
?
123. Choose the effects of mineralocorticoids:
+increase of sodium level
-decrease the sodium level
-increase the potassium level
+decrease the potassium level
?
124. Estrogens:
+promote the growth and development of stroma and ducts of the breast
+promote the proliferation of endometrium in the 1st phase of the menstrual
cycle
-promote the change in endometrium in 2nd phase of menstrual cycle
?
125. Progestins:
-stimulate the ovulation
+inhibit the ovulation
-increase the excitability of myometrium
+decrease the excitability of myometrium
?
126. Which drug blocks the estrogen receptors?
-estrone
-progesterone
-finasteride
+clomiphene
?
127. Anabolic steroids:
+increase the protein synthesis
+stimulate the regenerative processes
-decrease the body weight
+have low androgenic activity
+accelerate the calcification of bones
?
128. Glucocorticoids are used as:
+anti-inflammatory agents
+antiallergic agents
+drugs for elimination of shock
+immunodepressants
-contraceptives
?
129. Choose the indications for use of glucocorticoids:
+allergic reactions of immediate type
+inflammatory diseases of skin and mucous membranes
+autoimmunic diaseases
-arterial hypertension
+reactions of tearing away in transplantation of organs and tissues
?
130. Choose hormonal drugs which are used in autoimmune diseases:
-progestins
-estrogens
+glucocorticoids
-androgens
?
131. Choose glucocorticoids which are used only locally for treatment of
inflammatory and allergic diseases of skin and mucous membranes:
-prednisolone
-dexamethasone
+beclomethazone
+flumethasone
?
132. Choose glucocorticoid which is used in inhalations for treatment of
bronchial asthma:
-prednisolone
-dexamethasone
+beclomethazone
-flumethasone
?
133. Choose indications for use of mineralocorticoids:
-bronchial asthma
+chronic adrenal insufficiency
+myasthenia
-inflammatory diseases of skin and mucous membranes
?
134. Choose indications for use if estrogens:
+primary and secondary amenorrhea
+postmenopausal period
-recurrent abortions
?
135. Which hormonal drugs are used for prevention of abortions?
-estrogens
-glucocorticoids
+progestins
?
136. Choose indications for use of anabolic steroids:
+cachexia
+prolonged therapy by glucocorticoids
-premature labor
+bone fractures
+osteoporosis
?
137. Which hormonal drugs are used for stimulation of regenerative processes?
-glucocorticoids
+anabolic steroids
-mineralocorticoids
?
138. Choose the side effects of prednisolone:
+decrease of organism’s immunoresistance
+ulcers of the stomach
+arterial hypertension
-hypoglycemia
+edemas
?
139. In prolonged therapy by glucocorticoids, the functional activity of adrenal
cortex:
-is increased
-doesn’t change
+is decreased
?
140. Choose the group of hormonal drugs which most often cause the edemas:
-estrogens
+mineralocorticoids
-anabolic steroids
?
141. Choose drugs chronic administration of which may cause osteoporosis,
hyperglycemia, and arterial hypertension:
+prednisolone
-retabolilum
-beclomethazone
-desoxycorticosterone acetate
+hydrocortisone
?
142. Choose hormonal drugs which may cause the masculinization in woman:
-progesterone
-synoestrolum
+retabolilum
+phenobolinum
?
143. Choose hormonal drugs administration of which may cause the increase of
blood pressure:
-progesterone
+desoxycorticosterone acetate
+hydrocortisone
-clomiphene
+prednisolone
?
144. Choose the side effects of mineralocorticoids:
+edemas
+arterial hypertension
-osteoporosis
-ulcers of stomach
-muscular weakness
?
145. Choose the correct statements:
+prednisolone is glucocorticoid
-retabolilum is estrogen
+clomiphene is antiestrogen
+finasteride is antiandrogen
?
146. Choose the correct statements:
+retabolilum is used for acceleration of regenerative processes
+finasteride is used for treatment of benign hyperplasia of the prostate
+inhalations of beclomethazone are used in bronchial asthma
-desoxycorticosterone acetate is used in osteoporosis
?
147. Choose the correct statement:
-finasteride blocks the androgenic receptors
-progesterone has high anti-inflammatory effect
-clomiphene is used as contraceptive agent
+all statements are incorrect
?
148. Choose the correct statements:
-estrogens are used for prevention of premature labor
+glucocorticoids cause the ulceration of stomach
+retabolilum increases the protein synthesis
+finasteride blocks 5-alpha-reductase and decreases the intracellular level of
dihydrotestosterone
?
149. Choose the correct statement:
-beclomethazone is administered orally
+anabolic steroids increase the body weight
-finasteride is used as contraceptive
?
150. Choose the correct statements:
+beclomethazone hasn’t restorative effects
+dexamethasone has low mineralocorticoid activity
-flumethasone is easily absorbed through the skin
?
151. What group is steroid anti-inflammatory agents:
-derivatives of salicylic acid
+glucocorticoids
-mineralocorticoids
?
152. Choose glucocorticoids:
-celecoxib
+prednisolone
+dexamethasone
+hydrocortisone
?
153. Glucocorticoids which are used only locally:
+beclomethazone
-prednisolone
-dexamethasone
+flumethasone
?
154. Choose non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs:
-prednisolone
+indomethacin
+ibuprofen
+naproxen
+celecoxib
?
155. Choose non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents which inhibit both COX-1
and COX-2:
+indomethacin
-celecoxib
+ibuprofen
+acetylsalicylic acid
+diclofenac sodium
?
156. What drug is selective inhibitor of COX?
-diclofenac sodium
-naproxen
+celecoxib
-acetylsalicylic acid
?
157. Choose the main effects of steroid anti-inflammatory agents:
-analgesic
+immunodepressive
+anti-inflammatory
-antipyretic
?
158. The anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids is result of:
-inhibition of COX
-inhibition of lipoxygenase
+stimulation of lipocortines synthesis which inhibit the enzyme phospholipase
A2
?
159. Glucocorticoids affect the formation of:
-phospholipids
+arachidonic acid
+leukotrienes
+prostaglandins
+platelet activating factor (PAF)
?
160. The anti-inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is result of inhibition of
formation of:
-bradykinin
+prostaglandins
+leukotrienes
+platelet activating factor
?
161. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit enzyme:
-phospholipase A2
-lipoxygenase
+cyclooxygenase
?
162. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents inhibit the formation of:
-platelet activating factor
-arachidonic acid
+prostaglandins
-leukotrienes
?
163. Unlike glucocorticoids, non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs don’t affect
the formation of:
+arachidonic acid
-prostaglandins
+leukotrienes
+platelet activating factor
?
164. Prednisolone decreases the activity of:
-cyclooxygenase
-lipoxygenase
+phospholipase A2
?
165. Acetylsalicylic acid inhibits:
-phospholipase A2
+cyclooxygenase
-lipoxygenase
?
166. Analgesic effect of non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents is result of:
-stimulation of opioid receptors
+inhibition of biosynthesis of prostaglandins
+increase of threshold of nociceptor sensitivity to pain stimuli
?
167. In inflammatory area, glucocorticoids:
+narrow the small vessels
-increase the exudation
+decrease the exudation
+decrease the activity of macrophages and fibroblasts
+decrease the accumulation of leukocytes
?
168. Glucocorticoids:
+prevent the release of allergy mediators from the sensibilized basophils
-stimulate the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
+inhibit the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
-increase the cytotoxicity of T-lymphocytes
+inhibit the cytotoxicity of T-lymphocytes
?
169. What are effects of glucocorticoids upon the hemopoiesis?
-decrease the amount of neutrophils
+increase the amount of neutrophils
+decrease the amounts of eosinophils and lymphocytes
-increase the amounts of eosinophils and lymphocytes
?
170. Choose drugs which have analgesic effect:
-beclomethazone
+acetylsalicylic acid
+ibuprofen
+celecoxib
?
171. Choose drugs which have antipyretic effect:
+diclofenac sodium
-prednisolone
+ibuprofen
+naproxen
?
172. Choose the indications for use of steroid anti-inflammatory drugs:
+autoimmune disease
+allergic reactions of immediate type
+allergic reactions of delayed type
+reaction of tearing away in organs transplantation
-osteoporosis
?
173. Choose the indications for use of prednisolone:
+bronchial asthma
-ulcer disease of duodenum and stomach
+contact dermatitis
+collagenosis
?
174. Choose the indications for use of non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents:
+acute and chronic rheumatic diseases
+gout attacks
+hyperthermia
-pain relief in acute myocardial infarction
+pain relief in arthralgia, neuralgia and myositis
?
175. Choose drugs which are used as antipyretics:
-hydrocortisone
+acetylsalicylic acid
+naproxen
+diclofenac sodium
?
176. Steroid anti-inflammatory agents may cause:
+increase of blood pressure
+edemas
+hyperglycemia
+adrenal insufficiency
+ulcer of stomach
-bronchospasm
?
177. Choose the side effects of non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents:
+dyspepsia
+ulcer of stomach and duodenum
-adrenal insufficiency
+allergic reactions
?
178. Unlike glucocorticoids, non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents:
+don’t inhibit immunity
-don’t cause ulcer of stomach and duodenum
+don’t cause adrenal insufficiency
?
179. Choose the side effects of acetylsalicylic acid:
+edemas
-adrenal atrophy
+dyspepsia and ulcer of stomach
+bronchospasm
+gastrointestinal hemorrhage
?
180. The ulcerogenic effect of acetylsalicylic acid is result of inhibition of
synthesis of:
-leukotrienes
+prostaglandins
-thromboxans
?
181. Unlike non-selective inhibitors of COX, selective inhibitors of COX-2:
+seldom cause the ulceration of mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
-often cause the ulceration of mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract
+don’t influence platelets aggregation
?
182. Prednisolone:
+inhibits the activity of phospholipase А2
-increases the excretion of sodium and water from the body
+decreases the excretion of sodium and water from the body
+affects the synthesis of prostaglandins
+affects the synthesis of leukotrienes
?
183. Dexamethasone causes:
+inhibition of prostaglandins synthesis
+inhibition of synthesis of leukotrienes
-activation of immunity
+inhibition of immunity
+decrease of amount of lymphocytes and eosinophils in blood
?
184. Acetylsalicylic acid:
+blocks both COX-1 and COX-2
-selectively blocks COX-2
+blocks COX irreversibly
+inhibits the platelets aggregation
+has analgesic effect
?
185. Celecoxib:
+is non-steroid anti-inflammatory agent
+selectively blocks COX-2
-blocks both COX-1 and COX-2
-hasn’t antipyretic effect
?
186. Diclofenac sodium:
+is non-steroid anti-inflammatory agent
- selectively blocks COX-2
+has antipyretic and analgesic effects
+excels the salicylates after anti-inflammatory effect
?
187. Drug A. affects the synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrienes owing to
inhibition of phospholipase A2 and has anti-inflammatory and depressive
effects. Identify drug A.:
-ibuprofen
-diclofenac sodium
+prednisolone
-celecoxib
?
188. Drug A. affects the synthesis of prostaglandins owing to inhibition of
cyclooxygenase, has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, and analgesic effects;
decrease the platelets aggregation. Identify drug A.:
-prednisolone
-hydrocortisone
-diclofenac sodium
+acetylsalicylic acid
?
189. Choose the correct statements:
-hydrocortisone is selective inhibitor of COX-2
+prednisolone is steroid anti-inflammatory agent
-ibuprofen is glucocorticoid
+celecoxib is non-steroid anti-inflammatory agent
?
190. Choose the correct statements:
-diclofenac sodium is glucocorticoid
+prednisolone is steroid anti-inflammatory agent
+flumethasone is glucocorticoid for local use
+celecoxib is selective inhibitor of COX-2
?
191. Choose the correct statements:
+prednisolone is glucocorticoid
+ibuprofen is non-steroid anti-inflammatory agent
+glucocorticoids affect the formation of arachidonic acid
-hydrocortisone has antipyretic and analgesic effects
?
192. Choose the correct statements:
+dexamethasone is steroid anti-inflammatory agent
+acetylsalicylic acid inhibits cyclooxygenase
-prednisolone stimulate the immunity
+ibuprofen has analgesic effect
?
193. Choose the correct statements:
-hydrocortisone increases the excretion of water and sodium from the organism
+glucocorticoids stimulates the synthesis of lipocortines
-acetylsalicylic acid inhibits the synthesis of leukotrienes
?
194. Choose the correct statements:
-hydrocortisone is mineralocorticoid
+ibuprofen inhibits cyclooxygenase
+glucocorticoids increase the amount of neutrophils in the blood
?
195. Choose the correct statements:
-salicylates stimulate the synthesis of prostaglandins
-ibuprofen suppresses the immunity
+non-steroid anti-inflammatory agents can cause the ulcer of stomach
?
196. Choose drugs which are used for treatment of allergic diseases of immediate
type:
-cytotoxic agents
+glucocorticoids
+blockers of Н1-histamine receptors
+drugs preventing de-granulation of basophiles
+adrenomimetics
?
197. Choose drugs which prevent the release of allergy mediators from
sensibilized basophiles:
-blockers of Н1-histamine receptors
-cytotoxic agents
+glucocorticoids
+beta-adrenomimetics
+cromolyn sodium
?
198. Choose drugs which prevent the interaction of histamine with Н1-histamine
receptors:
+dimedrolum
+diazolinum
-cromolyn sodium
+phencarolum
+loratadine
?
199. Choose drugs which are used in delayed hypersensitivity reactions:
-blockers of H1-histamine receptors
+cytotoxic agents
+cyclosporine
+steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
+non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
?
200. Choose immunosuppressants:
+glucocorticoids
+cyclosporine
-non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
+cytotoxic agents
?
201. Glucocorticoids are:
+prednisolone
-interferon
+hydrocortisone
+beclomethazone
+flumethasone
?
202. Cytotoxic agents are:
-cyclosporine
+azathioprine
-prednisolone
-tactivinum
+cyclophosphamide
?
203. Choose immunomodulators:
-prednisolone
+interferon
-dimedrolum
+tactivinum
?
204. What is mechanism of action of cromolyn sodium?
-blockage of H1-histamine receptors
-affecting of synthesis of immunoglobulins
+blockage of the entering of calcium ions into tissue basophiles and stabilization
of membranes of basophiles
?
205. Choose the effects of histamine which are reduced by dimedrolum:
+increase of capillaries permeability
-increase of gastric secretion
+increase of bronchial and of intestinal tone
+decrease of arterial tone
?
206. Dimedrolum:
-interferes with release of histamine from tissue basophiles
+blocks H1-histamine receptors
+has hypnotic effect
+is used for treatment of allergic diseases of immediate type
?
207. Diazolinum:
+blocks H1-histamine receptors
-blocks H2-histamine receptors
-has hypnotic and sedative effects
+hasn’t influence upon the CNS
?
208. Choose H1-histamine receptor blockers which don’t influence upon CNS:
-dimedrolum
+diazolinum
+loratadine
+astemizole
?
209. Adrenaline:
+increases the blood pressure
+relaxes bronchi
+is used for interruption of asthma attacks
+is used in anaphylactic shock
-is used for treatment of allergic diseases of delayed type
?
210. Euphillinum:
-blocks H1-histamine receptors
-is adrenomimetic
+is broncholytic with direct myotropic action
+relaxes bronchi
+is used for prevention and interruption of bronchospasms
?
211. Choose the effects of glucocorticoids:
+anti-inflammatory
-hypothermic
+immunodepressive
+antiallergic
?
212. Glucocorticoids:
-increase the immunity
+suppress the immunity
+are effective in allergic diseases of immediate type
+ are effective in allergic diseases of delayed type
-are effective in immunodeficiency states
?
213. Glucocorticoids as immunodepressants:
+inhibit the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
-affect the synthesis of histamine
+reduce the synthesis of cytokines
+inhibit the cytotoxocity of sensibilized lymphocytes
+decrease the activity of T-killers
?
214. Cyclosporine:
+is immunodepressant
-is used in allergic diseases of immediate type
+is used in autoimmune diseases
+is used for prevention of tearing away reaction in organs transplantation
?
215. Choose the cytotoxic drugs:
-adrenaline
+azathioprine
+methotrexate
+cyclophosphamide
?
216. Choose the effect of tactivinum:
-anti-inflammatory
+immunostimulative
-immunodepressive
?
217. Cyclosporine:
-H1-histamine blocker
+inhibits the synthesis of interleukins
+decreases the production of gamma-interferon
+is nephrotoxic and hepatotoxic agent
+inhibits the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
?
218. Tactivinum:
+is hormone of thymus
+stimulates the production of lymphokines
+normalizes the activity of T-lymphocytes
-is used as immunosuppressor
?
219. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs:
-increase the immunity
-suppress the tearing away reaction in organs transplantation
+decrease the tissue damage in inflammation
?
220. Choose the effects of gamma-interferon:
+antiviral
+immunostimulating
-immunodepressive
?
221. Choose drugs which are used in allergic reactions of immediate type:
+prednisolone
+dimedrolum
-azathioprine
+cromolyn sodium
+adrenaline
?
222. Choose drugs which are used in anaphylactic chock:
-cromolyn sodium
+adrenaline
+prednisolone
-tactivinum
?
223. Choose the indications for used of drugs blocking H1-histamine receptors:
+nettle rash
-collagenosis
+pollinosis (hay fever)
+Quincke's edema
+serum sickness
?
224. Choose the indications for use of dimedrolum:
-hyperglycemia
+allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
+hay fever
+insomnia
?
225. Cromolyn sodium is used for:
-interruption of anaphylactic shock
-interruption of asthma attacks
+prevention of asthma attacks
+treatment of allergic rhinitis
?
226. Adrenaline is used for:
-prevention of asthma attacks
+interruption of asthma attacks
+interruption of anaphylactic shock
?
227. Euphyllinum is used for:
-increase of blood pressure in anaphylactic shock
+prevention of bronchospasm
+interruption of bronchospasm
?
228. Choose drugs which are used in allergic reaction of delayed type:
-cromolyn sodium
+dexamethasone
+azathioprine
+indomethacin
-tactivinum
?
229. Tactivinum is used in:
-allergic reactions of immediate type
-allergic reactions of delayed type
+immunodeficient states
?
230. Choose the correct statement:
+dimedrolum is blocker of Н1-histamine receptors
+prednisolone is immunodepressant
+hydrocortisone is glucocorticoid
-cromolyn sodium is adrenomimetic
?
231. Choose the correct statements:
-diazolinum is immunodepressant
+phencarolum is blocker of Н1-histamine receptors
-prednisolone is adrenomimetic
+interferon is immunomodulator
+tactivinum is immunomodulator
?
232. Choose the correct statements:
-loratadine is blocker of Н2-histamine receptors
+glucocorticoids inhibit the proliferation of lymphocytes
+cromolyn sodium is used for prevention of asthma attacks
+Cytotoxic drugs are used for treatment of allergic reactions of delayed type
?
233. Choose the correct statements:
+cyclosporine is immunodepressant
-diazolinum is used in allergic reactions of delayed type
+euphyllinum is used both for prevention and for interruption of
bronchospasms
+tactivinum is used for treatment of immunodeficient states
?
234. Choose the correct statements:
+prednisolone has the immunodepressive effect
+dimedrolum blocks H1-histamine receptors
+adrenaline is used for interruption of asthma attacks
-cyclosporine is immunomodulator
?
235. Choose the correct statement:
-loratadine is glucocorticoid
-prednisolone stimulates the activity of macrophages
-diazolinum is used in allergic reactions of delayed type
-cromolyn sodium is used in anaphylactic shock
+all statement are incorrect
?
236. Choose the correct statements:
+glucocorticoids prevent the release of allergy mediators from sensibilized
basophiles
+dimedrolum has the hypnotic effect
-cytotoxic agents have low toxicity
+tactivinum normalizes the activity of T-lymphocytes
?
237. Choose the correct statements:
-euphyllinum is blocker of H1-histamine receptors
+prednisolone has the anti-inflammatory effect
+immunodepressants are used in allergic reactions of delayed type
?
238. Choose the correct statements:
+euphyllinum is broncholytic
+diazolinum doesn’t influence CNS
+adrenaline is effective in anaphylactic shock
-cyclosporine is blocker of H1-histamien receptors
?
239. Choose the correct statement:
+prednisolone inhibits the proliferation of lymphocytes
-dimedrolum hasn’t hypnotic effect
-cyclosporine is used in anaphylactic shock
+cyclosporine is used for prevention of turning away reaction in organ
transplantation
?
240. Choose the correct statements:
+euphyllinum is myotropic antispasmodic agent
+cromolyn sodium is used for prevention of asthma attacks
+adrenaline is drug of choice in anaphylactic shock
-diazoline prevents the release of allergy mediators from the basophyles
?
1. Beta-lactam antibiotics:
+biosynthetic penicillins
-azalids
+semisynthetic penicillins
+cephalosporins
+monobactams
+carbapenems
?
2. Biosynthetic penicillins are:
+benzylpenicillin sodium
+Bicillin-1
-erythromycin
-аmoxicillin
+benzylpenicillin potassium
-imipenem
-azithromycin
?
3. Semisynthetic penicillins are:
-Bicillin-5
-azithromycin
+аmpicillin
+аmoxicillin
+oxacillin
-azthreonam
-vancomycin
?
4. Cephalosporins are:
-аmoxicillin
+cefaclor
-аmpicillin
-erythromycin
+сefotaxime
+сefpirome
-aztreonam
?
4. Macrolides are:
+erythromycin
-doxycycline
-clindamycin
+сlarithromycin
+roxithromycin
-azithromycin
-vancomycin
?
5. Azalids are:
-сefpirome
-Bicillin-1
-oxacillin
+azithromycin
-vancomycin
-clindamycin
+erythromycin acistrate
?
6. Tetracyclines are:
+doxycycline
+metacicline
-azithromycin
-clindamycin
-сefotaxime
-vancomycin
-erythromycin
?
7. Aminoglycosides are:
-imipenem
+streptomycin
-laevomycetinum
+gentamycin
+neomycin
-polymyxin B sulfate
+amikacin
?
8. Cyclic polypeptides are:
-vancomycin
-azithromycin
+polymyxin B sulfate
-imipenem
+colistimethate
-clindamycin
+colistin
?
9. Lincosamides are:
-erythromycin
-meropenem
-cefaclor
+clindamycin
-vancomycin
-amikacin
+lincomycin
?
10. Glycopeptides are:
-cefotaxin
-аztreonam
+vancomycin
-amikacin
+teicoplanin
-gentamycin
-imipenem
?
11. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are:
+gentamycin
-Bicillin-1
+аmpicillin
+cefaclor
-erythromycin
+tetracyclin
+rifampicin
?
12. Mainly gram-positive bacteria are affected by:
+erythromycin
-polymyxin M sulfate
-streptomycin
-cefpirome
+benzylpenicillin sodium
+Bicillin-5
+oxacillin
?
13. Mainly gram-negative bacteria are affected by:
+polymyxin M sulfate
-amikacin
+astreonam
-tetracyclin
-vancomycin
-clindamycin
-Bicillin-5
?
14. Are active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
-oxacillin
+gentamycin
+azlocillin
-benzylpenicillin sodium
-benzylpenicillin potassium
-Bicillin-1
+carbenicillin
?
15. Which of the following drugs inhibit the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall
components:
+biosynthetic penicillin’s
-tetracycline’s
-erythromycin
+vancomycin
+semisynthetic penicillin’s
+cephalosporins
-rifampicin
?
16. Which of the following drugs make a protein synthesis in the ribosomes of
microorganisms irreversible:
-rifampicin
-cephalosporins
+aminoglycosides
+erythromycin
+laevomycetinum
+tetracycline’s
-vancomycin
?
17. Rifampicin violates:
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of the RNA
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
?
18. Polymyxin M sulfate violates:
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of the RNA
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
+permeability of the cell membrane
?
19. Bactericidal antibiotics are:
-lincosamades
+aminoglycosides
-tetracycline’s
+rifampicin
+?-lactam antibiotics
+polymyxin M sulfate
+glycopeptides
?
20. Bacteriostatic antibiotics are:
+tetracyclines
-cephalosporins
-semisynthetic penicillins
-aminoglycoside
+laevomycetinum
+erythromycin
-glycopeptides
?
21. ?-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate:
-permeability of the cell membrane
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
22. Biosynthetic penicillins are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate :
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of the RNA
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
?
23. Semisynthetic penicillins are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate :
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of the RNA
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
?
24. Cephalosporins are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate :
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of the RNA
-permeability of the cell membrane
?
25. Carbapenems are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate :
-permeability of the cell membrane
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
26. Aztreonam is a bactericidal antibiotic because it violates:
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-permeability of the cell membrane
-synthesis of the RNA
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
?
27. Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic antibiotics because they violate :
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
28. Polymyxin M sulfate is a bactericidal antibiotic because it violates:
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
+permeability of the cell membrane
-synthesis of the RNA
?
29. Rifampicin is a bactericidal antibiotic because it violates:
+synthesis of the RNA
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
?
30. Laevomycetinum is a bacteriostatic antibiotic because it violates:
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
31. Glycopeptides are bactericidal antibiotics because they violate :
-synthesis of the RNA
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
?
32. Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic because it violates:
-synthesis of the RNA
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
?
33. The action spectrum of the biosynthetic penicillins includes:
-gram-positive cocci which produce penicillinase
+gram-positive cocci which do not produce penicillinase
+gram-negative cocci
+Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani
+Corynebacterium diphtheriae
+Bacillus anthracis
+Treponema pallidum
-Chlamydia
?
34. The action spectrum of oxacillin includes :
+gram-positive cocci which produce penicillinase
+gram-positive cocci which do not produce penicillinase
+gram-negative cocci
+Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani
+Corynebacterium diphtheriae
+Bacillus anthracis
-Treponema pallidum
-Chlamydia
?
35. The action spectrum of amoxicillin includes :
-gram-positive cocci which produce penicillinase
+gram-positive cocci which do not produce penicillinase
+gram-negative cocci
+Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani
+Corynebacterium diphtheriae
-Treponema pallidum
+Shigella, Salmonella
-Chlamydia
?
36. Semisynthetic penicillins, with the greatest activity against Pseudomonas
aeruginosa:
-ampicillin
-oxacillin
-amoxicillin
+carbenicillin
+azlocillin
?
37. Cefalosporins:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are effective against Chlamydia
-are active against Shigella, Salmonella
?
38. Carbapenems:
+have very extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are effective against Chlamydia
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
39. Aztreonam:
-has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is effective against Chlamydia
+is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
40. The most sensitive to erythromycin are:
+gram-positive cocci
-Shigella, Salmonella
+Treponema pallidum
-Chlamydia
-gram-negative cocci
?
41. The most sensitive to azithromycin are:
-gram-positive cocci
+gram-negative cocci
+Chlamydia
+Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma
-Shigella, Salmonella
?
42. Sensitive to tetracyclines are :
+Shigella, Salmonella
+Rickettsiae
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Vibrio cholera
+Pasteurella tularensis, Pasteurella pestis, Brucella
+Chlamydia
+gram-positive cocci and gram-negative cocci
?
43. Sensitive to laevomycetinum are:
+Shigella, Salmonella
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Rickettsiae
-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+Chlamydia
+Pasteurella tularensis, Pasteurella pestis, Brucella
+gram-positive cocci and gram-negative cocci
?
44. Sensitive to aminoglycosides are:
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Pasteurella tularensis, Pasteurella pestis, Brucella
+Shigella, Salmonella
-Rickettsiae
+gram-positive cocci
+Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-Chlamydia
?
45. Sensitive to polymixin m sulfate are:
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-gram-positive cocci
+Shigella, Salmonella
-Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani
?
46. Sensitive to clindamycin are:
+Streptococci and Staphylococci
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-Rickettsiae
+Bacteroides
-Shigella, Salmonella
?
47. Sensitive to glycopeptydes are:
+gram-positive cocci
+Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-Shigella, Salmonella
-Rickettsiae
?
48. Fusidic acid is active against:
+gram-positive cocci
-Rickettsiae
-Chlamidia
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
?
49. Biosynthetic penicillins:
-spectrum of their action is extended
-are not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
+are destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
-are bacteriostatic agents
+are bactericidal agents
+are destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
-are not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
?
50. Benzylpenicillin sodium:
-spectrum of their action is extended
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
+is bactericidal agent
-is administered per orally
+is administered parenterally
+duration of action after intramuscular administration - 3-4 hours
?
51. Comparable to the benzylpenicillin sodium benzylpenicillin novocainum:
-has a broad spectrum of action
-is resistant to ?-lactamases of gram-positive bacteria
-is effective when taken orally
+has longer the duration of action
?
52. Comparable to the benzylpenicillin sodium Bicillin-1 and Bicillin-5 :
-have a broad spectrum of action
-are not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
-are resistant to ?-lactamases of gram-positive bacteria
+have longer the duration of action
?
53. Оxacillin:
+is resistant to staphylococcal penacillinase
-has the extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
-is destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is administered per orally
+is administered parenterally
?
54. Аmpicillin:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is resistant to staphylococcal penacillinase
-is destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is administered per orally
+is administered parenterally
?
55. Amoxicillin:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is resistant to staphylococcal penacillinase
-is destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is administered per orally
-is administered parenterally
?
56. Carbenicillin:
+has the extended spectrum of action
+is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Proteus all
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is administered parenterally
?
57. Which of the following antibiotics are effective when administered per
orally:
-Bicillin-1
-Bicillin-5
-benzylpenicillin sodium
+oxacillin
+ampicillin
+amoxicillin
-carbenicillin
?
58. Semisynthetic penicillins with the extended spectrum of action are:
+ampicillin
-oxacillin
+amoxicillin
+carbenicillin
?
59. Semisynthetic penicillins resistant to staphylococcal penacillinase are:
-ampicillin
-amoxicillin
-azlocillin
+oxacillin
-carbenicillin
?
60. Which of the antibiotics are resistible to the acidic environment of the
stomach:
-Bicillin-1
-benzylpenicillin sodium
+oxacillin
-carbenicillin
+ampicillin
+amoxicillin
-azlocillin
?
61. Cephalosporins:
+have the extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are bacteriostatic agents
+are bactericidal agents
+are not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
?
62. Cefaclor:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+has no activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+is not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
+is destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
+is not destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
+is bactericidal agent
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is administered per orally
?
63. Cefotaxime:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+has no activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+is not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
+is inactivated by beta-lactamases of gram-negative bacteria
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
+is administered parenterally
?
64. Cefpirome:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria
+is not destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by gram-negative bacteria
+is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
+is administered parenterally
?
65. Imipenem:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+ is resistant to most ?-lactamases (penicillinase, cephalosporinase)
+is inactivated by dehydropeptidase-1 in renal tubules
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
+is administered parenterally
?
66. Meropenem:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is resistant to most ?-lactamases (penicillinase, cephalosporinase)
-is inactivated by dehydropeptidase-1 in renal tubules
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
+is administered parenterally
?
67. Aztreonam:
-has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+is resistant to ?-lactamases which synthesized by gram-negative bacteria
+is bactericidal agent
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is administered parenterally
?
68. Erythromycin:
-has the extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is bacteriostatic agent
-is bactericidal agent
?
69. Comparable to Azithromycin erythromycin:
+is less active of influence on Streptococci and Staphylococci
+is more active of influence on gram-negative cocci
+has a longer duration of action
-has a shorter duration of action
+is mostly accumulated in phagocytes
+is less absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
?
70. Tetracyclines:
+have the extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+inhibit the protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+are bacteriostatic agents
-are bactericidal agents
?
71. Laevomycetinum:
+has the extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+inhibits of protein synthesis in the ribosomes of microorganisms
+is bacteriostatic agent
-is bactericidal agent
?
72. Streptomycin:
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+has the extended spectrum of action
+inhibits of protein synthesis in the ribosomes of microorganisms
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
?
73. Polymyxin M sulfate :
-has the extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+violates permeability of the cell membrane
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
?
74. Clindamycin:
-has the extended spectrum of action
+is effective against Streptococci and Staphylococci, Bacteroides
+inhibits of protein synthesis in the ribosomes of microorganisms
-is bactericidal agent
+is bacteriostatic agent
?
75. Vancomycin:
-has the extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is effective against multiresistant strains of Staphylococcus
+is bactericidal agent
-is bacteriostatic agent
?
76. Identify the group of drugs: the spectrums of activity include grampositive cocci; it inhibits bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis; is not resistant to
?-lactamases which synthesized by gram-positive bacteria; it`s destroyed in acid
environment of the stomach;it`s administered parenterally :
-macrolides
-teracyclines
-cephalosporins
+biosynthetic penicillins
?
76. Identify the drug: is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria; inhibits
bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis; is not resistant to ?-lactamases which is
synthesized by gram-positive bacteria; isn`t effective against the spirochetes and
Borel; is resistant to the influence of acids; is administered parenterally and
perorally; duration of action – 4-6 hours:
-ampicillin
-amoxicillin
-erythromycin
-benzylpenicillin sodium
+oxacillin
?
77. Identify the drug: has the extended spectrum of action; inhibits bacterial
microbes cell wall synthesis; is not resistant to ?-lactamases which is synthesized
by gram-positive bacteria; it`s resistant to the action of acids; it`s administered
parenterally and perorally; duration of action – 4-8 hours:
-oxacillin
-amoxicillin
+ampicillin
-benzylpenicillin sodium
?
78. Identify the drug: the spectrum of action is similar to the benzylpenicillin
sodium; impairment of the protein synthesis in the ribosomes of microorganisms; is taken up by polymorphonuclear leukocytes and macrophages; is
administered perorally; duration of action – 4-6 hours:
-ampicillin
-oxacillin
+erythromycin
?
78. Identify the group of drugs: have the extended spectrum of action; are active
against Pasteurella pestis, Pasteurella tularensis, Vibrio cholerae, Ricettsia,
Chlamidia, Brucella; are less effective against Gram-positive bacteria than
benzylpenicillins preparations; impairment of the protein synthesis in the
ribosomes of micro-organisms; can be deposited in the bone:
-aminoglycosides
-cephalosporins
+tetracyclines
?
79. Identify the drug: has the extended spectrum of action; is active against
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, P. aeruginosa; inhibits of the protein synthesis in
the ribosomes of micro-organisms; has bactericidal action; is absorbed very
poorly from gastrointestinal tract; the resistance to micro-organisms develops
very slowly; is administered parenterally:
-tetracycline
+gentamycin
-erythromycin
?
80. Identify the drug: is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria; is
effective against P. aeruginosa; increases permeability of the cell membrane; is
absorbed very poorly from gastrointestinal tract; the resistance to microorganisms develops slowly; is administered perorally and locally:
+polymixyn M sulfate
-laevomycetinum
-tetracycline
?
80. Identify the drug: is influenced mainly by Streptococci and Staphylococci,
Bacteroides; inhibits the protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms;
is bacteriostatic agent; is absorbed very well from gastrointestinal tract; is
administered perorally:
+clindamycin
-erythromycin
-tetracycline
?
81. Identify the drug: is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria; is
resistant to ?-lactamases which is synthesized by gram-positive bacteria; inhibits
bacterial microbes’ cell wall synthesis; is absorbed very poorly from
gastrointestinal tract; is administered intravenously:
-oxacillin
+vancomycin
-erythromycin
?
80.
Five indications for use of benzylpenicillin sodium:
+syphyllis
+infection disorders caused by Streptococci
-tuberculosis
+infection decoders caused by pneumococci, meningococci, Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
-bacillary dysentery
+gas gangrene
+tetanus
?
80. What drugs are used for the treatment of infections caused by Staphylococci
that are resistant to biosynthetic penicillins :
+oxacillin
-ampicillin
+vancomycin
+macrolides
+cephalosporins
?
81. What drugs are the most effective for the treatment of infections caused by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
+aminoglycosides
+azlocillin
-tetracyclines
+carbapenems
-oxacillin
?
82. Indications for use of tetracyclines:
-tuberculosis
+tularemia
+cholera
+plague
+brucellosis
-gas gangrene
+tetanus
?
83. What drugs are used for the treatment of tuberculosis?
+streptomycin
-tetracyclines
+rifampicin
-ampicillin
-erythromycin
?
84. Indications for use of aminoglycosides:
+brucellosis
+plague
+infections caused by Escherichia coli
-syphyllis
-gas gangrene
+tuberculosis
?
85. What are indications for use of polymixyn M sulfate?
+infections caused by P. aeruginosa
-rickettsiosis
-tuberculosis
+for the preparing of the intestine before surgical operations
?
86. What are reserve antibiotics in the treatment of infections caused by
Streptococci?
-aminoglycosides
+macrolides
+cephalosporins
+tetracyclines
?
87. What are the side effects of antibiotics associated with chemotherapeutic
action?
-allergic reactions
-liver dysfunction
-renal toxicity
+dysbacteriosis
+reaction of «aggravation»
?
88. What are the side effects of antibiotics associated with direct toxic effects on
organs and tissues?
-allergic reactions
-dysbacteriosis
+renal toxicity
+liver dysfunction
+depression of hemopoiesis
+affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
-reaction of «aggravation»
+inhibibition the neuromuscular transmission
?
89. What are the side effects of biosynthetic penicillins?
+allergic reactions
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
+local irritating effect
+reaction of «aggravation»
?
90. What are the side effects of ampicillin?
+allergic reactions
-liver dysfunction
+dysbacteriosis
+reaction of «aggravation»
?
91. What are the side effects of cephalosporins?
+dysbacteriosis
+reaction of «aggravation»
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
+allergic reactions
?
92. What are the side effects of erythromycin?
+acute cholestatic hepatitis
-renal toxicity
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
?
93. What are the side effects of tetracyclines?
+allergic reactions
-renal toxicity
+hepatotoxic action
+dysbacteriosis
+photosensitization
+impair the formation of bones
?
94. What are the side effects of laevomycetinum?
+inhibition of hemopoesis
+dysbacteriosis
-hepatotoxic action
+allergic reactions
?
95.
What are the side effects of aminoglycosides?
+reaction of «aggravation»
+allergic reactions
-hepatotoxic action
+nephrotoxicity
+affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
+inhibibition the neuromuscular transmission
?
95. What are the side effects of polymixin M sulfate?
+nephrotoxic action
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
-local irritating effect
+dysbacteriosis
?
96. What are the side effects of clindamycin?
+allergic reactions
+pseudomembranous colitis
-nephrotoxic action
+neutropenia
+hepatotoxic action
?
97. What are the side effects of vancomycin?
+allergic reactions
+nephrotoxic action
-hepatotoxic action
+local irritating effect
+ototoxicity
+inhibition of hemopoesis
?
98. Which drugs have hepatotoxic action?
+tetracyclines
-aminoglycosides
+rifampicin
+erythromycin
?
99. Which drugs have nephrotoxic action?
-rifampicin
-macrolides
+polymixin M sulfate
+aminoglycosides
?
100. Which drugs are caused by reaction of «aggravation»?
+cephalosporins
+semisynthetic penicillins
-tetracyclines
-laevomycetinum
?
101. Which drugs are caused by reaction of «aggravation» ?
+bactericidal antibiotics
-bacteriostatic antibiotics
?
102. Which drugs have ototoxic action?
+aminoglycosides
-macrolides
-polymixin M sulfate
+vancomycin
?
103. Which drugs inhibit hemopoesis?
-macrolides
+vancomycin
-rifampicin
?
104. Which drugs inhibit the neuromuscular transmission?
-tetracyclines
-biosynthetic penicillins
-rifampicin
+aminoglycosides
?
105. The antibacterial activity of tetracyclineіs under the influence of ?-lactamantibiotics:
-increases
+decreases
-doesn`t change
?
106. The antibacterial effect of ampicillin under the influence of oxacillin:
-decreases
-doesn`t change
+increases
?
107. Miorelaxational effect of the curaromimetics under the influence of
aminoglycosides:
-doesn`t change
-decreases
+increases
108. Nephrotoxic action of polymyxin M sulfate under the influence of
streptomycin:
-decreases
+increases
-not change
?
109. The concentration of imipenem in the urine under the influence of
cilastatin:
-decreases
-doesn`t change
+increases
?
110. The spectrum of antimicrobial activity of amoxicillin clavulanic acid:
+expands
-doesn`t change
?
111. Ototoxic action of aminoglycosides with the "loop" diuretics (furosemide,
ethacrynic acid):
-decreases
-doesn`t change
+increases
?
112. Antimicrobial action of aminoglycosides under the influence of ?-lactam
antibiotics:
+increases
-decreases
-doesn`t change
?
113. The rational combination of the antibiotics:
+ampicillin + oxacillin
-benzylpenicillin sodium + tetracycline
-polymixin M sulfate + streptomycin
-streptomycin + amikacin
?
114. Mark the correct statements:
+doxycycline has extended spectrum of action
+ampicillin inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-erythromycin impairment of permeability of the cell membrane
+streptomycin don’t influence by anaerobic bacteria
?
115. Mark the correct statements:
+the resistance of micro-organisms to gentamycinis developed slowly
+laevomycetinum has extended spectrum of action
+amoxicillin administered perorally
-oxacillin is resistant to staphylococcal penicillinase
?
116. Mark the correct statements:
-is benzylpenicillin sodium is semisynthetic penicillin
+azlocillin is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+polymixin M sulfate has nephrotoxic action
+clavulanic acid extends the spectrum of antibiotic action of amoxicillin
?
117. Mark the correct statements:
-Bicillin is resistant to the action of acids
-oxacillin has extended spectrum of action
-the resistance of micro-organisms to erythromycin is developed slowly
+aminoglycosides affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair
of cranial nerves
?
118. Mark the correct statements:
+tetracyclines can be deposited in the bone:
+imipenem is inactivated by dehydropeptidase-I in renal tubules
-aztreonam is bacteriostatic agent
+cephalosporins have extended spectrum of action
?
119. Mark the correct statements:
+cefotaxime administered parenterally
+clindamycin is influenced by Bacteroides
+polymixin M sulfate impairs the permeability of the cell membrane
-vancomycin is bacteriostatic agent
?
120. Mark the correct statements:
-oxacillin is active against Spirochaeta and Borrelia
-tetracyclines are caused by reaction of «aggravation»
+laevomycetinum inhibits hemopoesis
+tetracyclines are caused by dysbacteriosis
?
121. Mark the correct statements:
+vancomycin is effective against multiresistant strains of Staphylococcus
+tetracyclines are drugs of choice for the treatment of cholera, plague,
brucellosis
+aminoglycosides have nephrotoxic action
-cefaclor is destroyed in acid environment of the stomach
?
122. Mark the correct statements:
+cefaclor is administered perorally
-meropenem is inactivated by dehydropeptidase-I in renal tubules
-tetracyclines are bactericidal agents
+laevomycetinum is caused by dysbacteriosis
?
123. Mark the correct statements:
-azlocillin is bacteriostatic agent
+tetracyclines are caused by allergic reactions
+streptomycin is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-laevomycetinum is caused by reaction of «aggravation»
?
124. Mark the correct statements:
+biosynthetic penicillins are destroyed by penicillinase which synthesized by
gram-positive bacteria
+gentamycin is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-vancomycin inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-polymixin M sulfate is bacteriostatic agent
?
125. Mark the correct statements:
+aminoglycosides have nephrotoxic action
-tetracycline is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+ampicillin has extended spectrum of action
-cephalosporins inhibit synthesis of the RNA
?
126. Mark the correct statements:
+amikacin is aminoglycosides
-vancomycin has extended spectrum of action
-Bicillin-1 is bacteriostatic agent
+amoxicillin has extended spectrum of action
?
127. Mark the correct statements:
-tetracyclines impairment of permeability of the cell membrane
+aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+rifampicin inhibits synthesis of the RNA
+cephalosporins inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
?
128. Mark the correct statements:
+rifampicin is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+aminoglycosides have extended spectrum of action
-azithromycin is tetracyclines
-tetracyclines caused by reaction of «aggravation»
?
129. Antiseptics and disinfectants are:
+detergents
-sulfonamides
+phenol derivatives
+dyes or tints
+halogens
+metallic salts
+oxidizers
+aldehydes and alcohol
+acids and alkalies
?
130. The detergents include:
-furacillinum
+cerigelum
-chloramine B
-mercury bichloride
+roccal
?
131. The group of stains includes:
+brilliant green
-ethyl alcohol
+methylene blue
+ethacridine lactatis
-chloramine B
?
132. The halogens include:
+chlorhexidine
-potassium permanganate
+chloramine B
+spirituous solution of iodine
?
133. The heavy metal compounds include:
-potassium permanganate
+mercury bichloride
+zinc sulfate
+silver nitrate
?
134. The oxidizers include:
-ammonium solution
+hydrogen peroxide
+potassium permanganate
?
7.The aldehydes and alcohol include:
+formaldehyde
-hydrogen peroxide
+ethyl alcohol
?
135. The acids and alkalies include:
+boric acid
-ethyl alcohol
+ammonium solution
?
136. The nitrofuran derivatives include:
+furacillinum
-carbolic acid
-chloramine B
?
137. The phenol derivatives include:
-ammonium solution
+resorcin
+phenol
?
138. The detergents:
+are surface-active compounds
-inhibit protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+decrease the surface tension of the microbial cell membranes
?
139. The dyes or tints:
+are inactivated by the enzyme systems of micro-organisms
-inhibit synthesis of the RNA
?
140. The oxidizers inhibit:
+oxidizing-restoring reactions of micro-organisms
-surface tension of the microbial cell membranes
-synthesis of the RNA
?
141. What is a mechanism of action of halogens:
+form hypochlorous acid, which acts as an oxidizer
+promote the accession of chlorine to the amino and imino group of proteins of
bacteria
-impair the permeability of the cell membrane
?
142. What is a mechanism of action of heavy metal compounds:
+create albuminates with bacterial proteins
+the blockade of sulfhydryl groups of the microbial thiol enzymes
-inhibit oxidizing-restoring reactions of micro-organisms
?
143. What is mechanism of action of aldehydes and alcohol:
+dehydrate microbial cells, which leads to the denaturation of proteins
-impair the permeability of the cell membrane
?
144. Furacillinum inhibits:
+replication of DNA
+bacterial enzymes involved in carbohydrate metabolism
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
?
145. The phenol derivatives:
+inhibit the activity of dehydrogenases of microorganisms
+have the properties of detergents
-inhibit synthesis of the RNA
?
146. The cerigelum:
+is detergent
+has a high surface activity
+decrease of the surface tension of the microbial cell membranes and pathogenic
fungi
+is used for disinfection of surgeons hands, instruments and equipment
-is used for disinfection of the infected cavities
?
147. The furacillinum:
+inhibits bacterial enzymes involved in carbohydrate metabolism of grampositive cocci, gram-positive cocci and protozoa
+inhibits replication of DNA угнетает репликацию ДНК
-is used for disinfection of surgeons hands, instruments and equipment
+is used for disinfection of wounds, skin, mucous membranes, washing of serous
and articular cavities
?
148. Phenol:
+inhibits the activity of dehydrogenases of microorganisms
+have the properties of detergents
+is active against vegetative forms of bacteria and pathogenic fungi
+is used for disinfection of instruments, floors and wall of rooms
-is used for disinfection of surgeons hands
?
149. The brilliant green:
+is stain
-has a high surface activity
+quickly develops antimicrobial effect
-slowly develops antimicrobial effect
+is used for disinfection of small cuts, scratches, pustules of the skin
?
150. Methylen blue:
+is from group of stains
+the activity exceeds the brilliant green
-the activity inferior to brilliant green
+is applied locally
+is used for the peroral use- infections of the urinary tract
+is used for the intravenous introduction – poisoning by cyanides
?
151. The ethacridine lactatis :
+is from group of stains
-quickly develops antimicrobial effect
+slowly develops antimicrobial effect
+is for the external use
+is used for washing of the infected pleural or abdominal cavity, urinary
bladder, uterus
?
152. The hydrogen peroxide:
+is oxidizer
+under the influence of catalase identifies molecular oxygen (O2), which has
antimicrobial activity
+oxygen bubbles and the formation of foam mechanically cleaned of the wound,
ulcers
-is an irritant
+has deodorant effect
-has a long duration of action
+has a short duration of action
?
153. The potassium permanganate:
+under the influence of catalase identifies molecular oxygen (O2), which has
antimicrobial activity
+inhibits oxidizing-restoring reactions of micro-organisms
-inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-has a short duration of action
+has a long duration of action
+has deodorant and astringent effects
+is used in solutions for disinfection of burn surfaces and wounds, for gargling
and rinsing
?
154. Formaldehyde solution:
+denaturates proteins of bacterial cells
-is an oxidizer
+thickens epidermis
+has deodorant effects
?
155. Chloraminum B:
+is a substrate for the hypochlorous acid creation,which is an oxidizer
+joins chlorum to amino- and iminogroups of microorganisms` proteins
-denaturates microorganisms` proteins
+is used for disinfection of hands,wound surfaces and non metallic objects
?
156. Mercury bichloride:
+creates albuminates with proteins
+the blockade of sulfhydryl groups of the microbial thiol enzymes
-is oxidizer
+use for disinfection of dishes, rooms
?
157. Mark the correct statements:
+cerigelum is detergent
+potassium permanganate in the presence of organic compounds distinguishes
atomic oxygen
-chloramine B is used for washing of the infected pleural or abdominal cavity,
urinary bladder, uterus
+furacillinum is nitrofuran derivatives
?
158. Mark the correct statements:
+brilliant green is used for disinfection of small cuts, scratches, pustules of the
skin
+methylen blue is from group of stains
+aqueous ammonium solution is used for the disinfections of surgeon`s hands
-solutions of phenol are used for the disinfections of skin and mucous
membranes
?
159. Mark the correct statements:
-mercury bihcloride is oxidizer
+potassium permanganate use for the treatment of burn
+hydrogen peroxide has deodorant effect
+the detergents are surface-active compounds
?
160. Naphtyridine and quinolone derivatives include:
+nalidixic acid
-nitroxoline
+ofloxacin
+gatifloxacin
+ciprofloxacin
+moxifloxacin
+norfloxacin
?
161. Fluoroquinoline derivatives include:
-nitroxoline
+ofloxacin
+gatifloxacin
+ciprofloxacin
+moxifloxacin
+norfloxacin
?
162. Oxi- and aminoquinoline derivatives include:
-furazolidone
+nitroxoline
?
163. Nitrofuran derivatives include:
+furadoninum
-quinoxidine
+ferazolidone
+furacillinum
+furaginum
?
164. Quinoxaline derivatives include:
-linesolid
+quinoxidine
+dioxidine
?
165. Oxazolidinones derivatives include:
+linesolid
-quinoxidine
?
166. The action spectrum of nalidixic acid includes:
+Escherichia coli
-Strepto- and staphylococcus
+Shigella, Salmonella
+Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+Proteus
?
167. Fluoroquinoline derivatives:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+are effective against Chlamydia
+are effective against Mycoplasma
?
168. Nitroxoline:
+has extended spectrum of action
-influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+effective against Candida fungi
?
169. The most sensitive to furazolidone are:
+enteric fever agent
+Trichomonas vaginalis
+Giardia lamblia
-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
?
170. Quinoxaline derivatives:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus vulgaris, pathogenic
anaerobes
?
171. Linesolid:
+has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
172. Have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
+fluoroquinoline derivatives
-nalidixic acid
+dioxidine
?
173. Are active against obligatory anaerobic bacteria:
+линезолид
+диоксидин
-нитроксолин
-кислота налидиксовая
+моксифлоксацин
?
174. Nalidixic acid violates:
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of the DNA
?
175. Fluoroquinoline derivatives violate:
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+DNA replication
+synthesis of the RNA
?
176. Nitrofuran derivatives:
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
+DNA replication
+synthesis of the RNA
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
?
177. Linesolid inhibits:
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-replication of the DNA
-synthesis of the RNA
?
178. What drugs have bactericidal action:
+naphtyridine and quinolone derivatives
+nitrofuran derivatives
-nitroxoline
+quinoxaline derivatives
+linesolid
?
179. What drugs have bacteriostatic action:
-quinolone derivatives
+nitrofuran derivatives
+nitroxoline
-quinoxaline derivatives
-linesolid
?
180. Nalidixic acid:
-has extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+is bactericidal agent
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is excreted by the kidneys in unchanged form
+resistance may develop rapidly
?
181. Fluoroquinoline derivatives:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
+inhibit bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV
+inhibit replication of the DNA and synthesis of the RNA
+are bactericidal agents
+resistance may develop slowly rapidly
?
182. Ciprofloxacin:
+has extended spectrum of action
+the spectrums of activity include Neisseria gonorrhea, E.coli, Shigella
+is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma,
Klebsiella
+crosses blood brain barrier
-doesn`t cross blood brain barrier
+is administered orally and intravenously
+is taken 2 times daily
?
183. Ofloxacin:
+has extended spectrum of action
+the spectrum of activity includes Neisseria gonorrhea, E.coli, Shigella
+effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Klebsiella
+crosses blood brain barrier
-doesn`t cross blood brain barrier
+is administered orally
+is taken 2 times daily
?
184. Comparable to ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin moxifloxacin:
+has greater activity against Gram-positive
+has greater activity against asporogenous (obligate) anaerobic bacteria,
Chlamydia, Mycoplasma
-has less activity against enteric bacteria
+doesn`t cross blood brain barrier
-is taken 1 time daily
?
185. Nitroxoline:
+has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+is effective against Candida fungi
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is excreted by the kidneys in unchanged form
+is bacteriostatic agent
+is administered orally
?
186. Linesolid:
+has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is bacteriostatic agent
+is bactericidal agent
?
187. Furasolidone:
+has extended spectrum of action
+is effective agent bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics and sulfonamides
+is bacteriostatic or bactericidal agent depending on the concentration
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is bed absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is administered orally, rectally, vaginally
+is taken 4 times daily
?
188. What are indications for use of nalidixic acid:
+the infectious diseases of the urinary tract caused by gram-negative bacteria
-the infectious diseases of the urinary tract caused by gram-positive bacteria
?
189. What drugs are used for treatment of the infectious diseases of the urinary
tract:
+nalidixic acid
+fluoroquinoline derivatives
+nitroxoline
+furadoninum
-furasolidone
?
190. What drugs are used for treatment of the intestinal diseases:
+furasolidone
+fluoroquinoline derivatives
-nalidixic acid
-nitroxoline
?
191. What are indications for use of furasolidone:
+bacillary dysentery
-amebiasis
+lambliasis
+trichomoniasis
?
192. What are indications for use of fluoroquinoline derivatives:
+the infectious diseases of the urinary tract
+the intestinal diseases
+the infectious diseases of the respiratory system
-lambliasis
-trichomoniasis
?
193. What are indications for use of dioxidine:
+the infectious diseases of the respiratory system
-the infectious diseases of the skin
-the infectious diseases of the CNS
-lambliasis
?
194. What are indications for use of nitroxoline:
+the infectious diseases of the urinary tract
-the infectious diseases of the respiratory system
-the infectious diseases of the CNS
?
195. What are indications for use of linesolid:
+infections of the skin, soft tissues, joints
+the infectious diseases of the respiratory system
-the infectious diseases of the CNS
?
196. What are the side effects of nalidixic acid:
+allergic reactions
+dyspeptic disorders
+transitory photodermatoses
-hearing loss and vestibular disorders
?
197. What are the side effects of fluoroquinoline derivatives:
+allergic reactions
+dyspeptic disorders
+dysbacteriosis
+insomnia
-hearing loss and vestibular disorders
+photosensitivity
?
198. What are the side effects of nitroxoline:
+dyspeptic disorders
-dysbacteriosis
-insomnia
-photosensitivity
+yellow discoloration of urine
?
199. What are the side effects of furasolidone:
+anorexia
+dyspeptic disorders
+allergic reactions
+disulfiram-like reaction with using of alcohol
-photosensitivity
+hemolytic anemia
?
200. What are the side effects of dioxidine:
+dyspeptic disorders
+seizure of the skeletal muscle
+headache
-nephrotoxic action
?
201. What are the side effects of linesolid:
+dysbacteriosis
+dyspeptic disorders
+allergic reactions
-nephrotoxic action
+anemia and thrombocytopenia
?
202. Mark the correct statements:
+ciprofloxacin has extended spectrum of action
+furasolidone is used for treatment lambliasis
-nalidixic acid has bacteriostatic action
+linesolid is oxasolidone derivative
?
203. Mark the correct statements:
+antibacterial effect of Furasolidonum depends on the concentration of the
preparation
+dioxidine is quinoxaline derivatives
-ofloxacin not crosses blood brain barrier
+linesolid may cause anemia and thrombocytopenia
?
204. Mark the correct statements:
-nitroxoline may cause visual impairment
+fluoroquinoline derivatives inhibit replication of the DNA and synthesis of the
RNA
+nalidixic acid is used for treatment of the infectious diseases of the urinary
tract
+furasolidone is used for treatment of intestinal infections
?
205. Mark the correct statements:
+moxifloxacin is effective against infections caused by asporogenous (obligate)
anaerobic bacteria
+linesolid has bactericidal action
-nitrofuran derivatives inhibit replication of the DNA and synthesis of the RNA
-natroxoline is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
?
206. Mark the correct statements:
-furasolidone is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+fluoroquinoline derivatives are effective against infections caused by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
+dioxidine has bactericidal action
+nalidixic action is quinolone derivative
?
207. Mark the correct statements:
-nalidixic action is effective against infections caused by asporogenous (obligate)
anaerobic bacteria
+ciprofloxacine crosses blood brain barrier
+nitroxoline is effective against Candida fungi
+moxifloxacin is more effective against Gram-positive bacteria than
ciprofloxacin
?
208. Mark the correct statements:
+furasolidone is use for the treatment of trichomoniasis
-nitroxoline has bactericidal action
+linesolid inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
+dioxidine is effective against infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
?
209. Antiviral synthetic drugs:
+nucleoside analogues
+peptide derivates
-interferon’s
-interferon synthesis inductors
?
210. Antiviral drugs with nonspecific action:
+interferon’s
-nucleoside analogues
+interferon synthesis inductors
?
211. Nucleoside analogues with antiviral action:
+acyclovir
+vidarabine
-rimantadine
+zidovudine
+idoxuridine
+ganciclovir
+ribavirin
?
212. Antiviral drugs which are not nucleoside analogues:
-saquinavir
+rimantadine
-idoxuridine
+foscarnet
+metiscasone
+oxoline
+arbidol
?
213. Interferon’s are:
+intron-А
+viaferon
+betaferon
-amixin
?
214. Interferon synthesis inductors are:
+amixinum
+poludanum
-betaferon
?
215. Agents which are active against DNA-containing viruses:
+drugs which are active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2
+drugs which are active against virus of variola
+drugs which are active against hepatitis B and C
-drugs which are active against affecting the retroviruses
?
216. Agents which are active against RNA-containing viruses:
+drugs which are active against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
-drugs which are active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2
+drugs which are active against influenza virus
+drugs which are active against respiratory-syncytial virus
?
217. Agents which are active against herpesviruses:
+drugs which are active against Herpes simplex virus-1 and 2
+drugs which are active against cytomegalovirus
+drugs which are active against Varicella zoster
-drugs which are active against influenza virus
?
218. Drugs which are active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2:
+aciclovir
-metisazone
+foscarnet
+aciclovir
+idoxuridine
+vidarabine
?
219. Drugs which are active against Herpes zoster:
+foscarnet
+aciclovir
-idoxuridine
-metisazone
?
220. Drugs which are active against cytomegalovirus:
-metisazone
+foscarnet
-lamivudine
+ganciclovir
?
221. Drugs which is active against virus of variola (smallpox):
-zidovudine
+metisazone
-aciclovir
?
222. Drugs which are active against hepatitis B and C:
+metisazone
-aciclovir
+interferon alfa
?
223. Drugs which are active against human immunodeficiency virus (HIV):
+zidovudine
+stavudine
-aciclovir
+saquinavir
?
224. Drugs which are active against influenza A:
+rimantadine
+ribavirine
+arbidol
+oseltamivir
-metisazone
?
225. Drugs which are active against influenza B:
-rimantadine
+ribavirine
+arbidol
+oseltamivir
-metisazone
?
226. Drug which is active against respiratory-syncytial virus
-metisazone
-rimantadine
+ribavirine
?
227. Drugs which inhibit the process of uncoating of the viral nucleic acid:
-aciclovir
+rimantadine
-zidovudine
+midantanum
-metisazone
?
228. Agents which inhibit the synthesis of viral nucleic acid:
+aciclovir
-rimantadine
+zidovudine
+idoxuridine
-metisazone
?
229. Agents which inhibit of the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase:
+zidovudine
-idoxuridine
+stavudine
+saquinavir
?
230. Agents which inhibit the synthesis of latent structural proteins:
+saquinavir
-idoxuridine
-metisazone
-zidovudine
+ritonavir
?
231. HIV protease inhibitors:
-zidovudine
+saquinavir
+ritonavir
-ritonavir
?
232. Inhibits the assembly of virions:
-aciclovir
+metisazone
-rimantadine
?
233. Inhibitors of influenza virus M2 protein are:
+rimantadine
-zidovudine
+midantanum
?
234. Inhibitors of influenza neuraminidase are:
+oseltamavir
-rimantadine
-ribavirin
+zanamivir
?
235. Interferons:
+stimulate the production of enzymes that inhibit mRNA
+inhibit the translation of mRNA into a viral protein
-inhibit the assembly of virions
?
236. Interferon synthesis inductors:
+increas interferon production by T lymphocytes
+have immunostimulatory activity
-have immunosuppressive activity
?
237. Aciclovir:
+is purine nucleoside analogues
+aciclovir triphosphate inhibits DNA-polymerase, that lead to inhibition of
replication virus DNA
-crosses the blood-brain barrier in the system application
+not crosses the blood-brain barrier in the system application
+is active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2, varicella-zoster virus
-is used intravenously and topically
?
238. Idoxuridine:
+is thymidine analogue
+binding to the viral DNA, that results in inhibition of replication of DNAcontaining viruses
-is affective against for the treatment of herpetic keratitis
+is used topically
+is used orally
?
239. Vidarabine:
+is adenosine analogue
+after penetretion into the cell it is phosphoriladet to form vidarabinetriphosphate which impairs synthesis f DNA
-after penetretion into the cell it is phosphoriladet to form vidarabinetriphosphate which inhibit the synthesis of latent structural proteins
+is active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2
+is used intravenously
+is used topically
?
240. Foscarnet:
+is an inorganic pyrophosphate compound
+inhibits viral DNA polymerase
-inhibits penetretion of viruses into the cell
+is active against Herpes zoster and cytomegalovirus
+is used intravenously
-is used orally
+is used topically
?
241. Metisazone:
+is thiosemicarbazone derivative
+inhibits the assembly of virions
-inhibits viral DNA polymerase
+is active against virus of variola (smallpox)
-is used intravenously
+is used orally
?
242. Remantadine:
+is adamantane derivative
+inhibits of influenza A virus M2 protein
-inhibits synthesis of viruses RNA
+is active against influenza A
+is used orally
?
243. Ribavirine:
+is guanosines analogue
+Ribavirin 5' monophosphates inhibit synthesis of guanine nucleotides
+Ribavirin 5' triphosphates inhibit of certain viral RNA-dependent RNA
polymerases which are essential to the replication cycle of RNA viruses.
-Ribavirin 5' triphosphates inhibit the assembly of virions
+is active against Herpes simplex virus-1 and 2, cytomegalovirus
+is used orally, inhalation, intravenously
?
244. Zidovudine:
+is thymine analogue
+inhibits HIV's reverse transcriptase, the enzyme that the virus uses to make a
DNA copy of its RNA.
+is effective in the early (first 6-8 months) stages of the disease
-is effective at all stages of the disease
-is used orally
?
245. Saquinavir:
+is peptide derivative
+inhibits of the enzyme HIV protease
+prevents the growth of HIV by inhibition of formation of structural proteins
and enzymes
-prevents the synthesis of DNA and RNA
+is used orally
?
246. Amixinum IC :
+activates the production of interferon
-inhibits the assembly of virions
+increases the production of interferon by T lymphocytes
+has immunostimulatory properties
-has immunosuppressive properties
?
247. Mark the correct statements:
+Aciclovir is active against herpes simplex virus-1 and 2, varicella-zoster virus
+Saquinavir inhibits of the enzyme HIV protease
-Ribavirine inhibits the assembly of virions
+Remantadine inhibits of influenza A virus M2 protein
?
248. Mark the correct statements:
+Amixinum IC activates the production of interferon
+Oseltamavir inhibits of influenza neuraminidase
+Zidovudine inhibits HIV's reverse transcriptase
-Metisazone is active against influenza
?
249. Mark the correct statements:
-Metisazone inhibits the process of releasing the viral genome
+Zidovudine is active against HIV
+Saquinavir inhibits the synthesis of latent structural proteins
+Amixinum IC has immunostimulatory properties
?
250. Mark the correct statements:
+Foscarnet is active against Herpes zoster and cytomegalovirus
+Zidovudine is active against HIV
+Arbidol is active against influenza A and B
-Idoxuridine use for the treatment of herpetic encephalitis
?
251. Mark the correct statements:
+Idoxuridine use for the treatment of herpetic keratitis
+Amixinum IC use for the treatment and prevention of influenza
-Remantadine is active against influenza A and B
?
252. What drugs are used for the treatment of intestinal nematodoses:
+mebendasole
+levamisole
+pyrantel pamoate
+pyperazine
+albendasole
-emetine
?
253. What drugs are used for the treatment of intestinal cestodoses:
+praziquantel
-mebendasole
-levamisole
-pyrantel pamoate
-pyperazine
-albendasole
?
254. What drugs are used for the treatment of intestinal trematodoses:
-emetine
+praziquantel
-levamisole
-pyrantel pamoate
-pyperazine
-albendasole
-mebendasole
?
255. What drugs are used for the treatment of extraintestinal nematodoses:
-levamisole
+ivermectin
+mebendasole
-praziquantel
-pyrantel pamoate
-pyperazine
?
256. What drugs are used for the treatment of extraintestinal cestodoses:
+mebendasole
+praziquantel
-pyrantel pamoate
+albendasole
-levamisole
-ivermectin
?
257. What drugs are used for the treatment of extraintestinal trematodoses:
+praziquantel
-ivermectin
-mebendasole
-pyrantel pamoate
-pyperazine
?
258. Mebendasole:
+inhibits glucose uptake by parasites, decreasing formation of ATP
-increases cell membrane permeability to calcium
-is used for the treatment of extraintestinal trematodoses
+is used for the treatment of intestinal nematodoses
?
259. Pyrantel pamoate:
+inhibits neuromuscular system of worms, blocks cholinesterase
-inhibits glucose uptake by parasites, decreasing formation of ATP
-is used for the treatment of intestinal trematodoses
+is used for the treatment of intestinal nematodoses
?
260. Levamisole:
-inhibits glucose uptake by parasites, decreasing formation of ATP
+causes contracture of worms that follows by it paralysis
+is used for the treatment of ascariasis
-is used for the treatment of enterobiasis
?
261. Pyperazine:
-causes paralyses of nematodoses by blocking GABA
+causes paralyses of nematodoses by blocking Acetylcholine
+is used for the treatment of ascariasis and enterobiasis
-is used for the treatment of intestinal cestodoses and trematodoses
?
262. Praziquantel:
+increases cell membrane permeability to calcium
-causes paralyses of nematodoses by blocking GABA
+is used for the treatment of intestinal strongyloidiasis
+is used for the treatment of intestinal cestodoses and trematodoses
+is used for the treatment of extraintestinal trematodoses
+is used for the treatment of extraintestinal cystycercosis
?
263. Ivermectin:
-causes paralyses of nematodoses by blocking Acetylcholine
+appears to paralyse nematodoses by itensufying GABA-mediated transmissions
of helmints
-is used for the treatment of intestinal nematodoses
+is used for the treatment of extraintestinal nematodoses
?
264. Albendasole:
+inhibits glucose uptake by parasites, decreasing formation of ATP
-inhibits neuromuscular system of worms, blocks cholinesterase
+is used for the treatment of intestinal nematodoses
+is used for the treatment of eshinococcosis and cycticercosis
?
265. What are indications for use of mebendasole:
+ascariasis
+enterobiasis
+trichocephaliasis
-taeniasis
+ancylostomiasis
+strongyloidiasis
?
266. What are indications for use of pyrantel pamoate:
-strongyloidiasis
+ascariasis
+enterobiasis
+ancylostomiasis
-trichocephaliasis
?
267. What are indications for use of levamisole:
+ascariasis
+ancylostomiasis
-enterobiasis
-trichocephaliasis
-strongyloidiasis
?
268. What are indications for use of pyperazine:
+strongyloidiasis
-ancylostomiasis
-trichocephaliasis
+ascariasis
+enterobiasis
?
269. What are indications for use of praziquantel:
-ascariasis
-enterobiasis
+paragomoniasis
+taeniarhynchiasis
+taeniasis
+diphyllobothriasis
+extraintestinal trematodoses
+cycticercosis
?
270. What are indications for use of ivermectin:
-intestinal nematodoses
-extraintestinal trichinelliasis
+extraintestinal filariasis
?
271. What are indications for use of albendasole:
+ascariasis and enterobiasis
+strongyloidiasis
+ancylostomiasis
+trichocephaliasis
-taeniasis
+eshinococcosis and cycticercosis
?
272. What drugs are effective agents for the treatment of ascasriasis:
+mebendazole
+pyrantel pamoate
-praziquantel
+levamisole
-ivermectin
-pervinium pamoate
+pyperazine
+albendasole
?
273. What drugs are effective agents for the treatment of enterobiasis:
+mebendazole
-praziquantel
+pyrantel pamoate
-levamisole
+pyperazine
-ivermectin
+pervinium pamoate
+albendasole
?
274. What drugs are effective agents for the treatment of cycticercosis:
+praziquantel
-levamisole
-pyrantel pamoate
+mebendazole
-pervinium pamoate
+albendasole
-ivermectin
?
275. What drugs are used for the treatment of eshinococcosis:
-ivermectin
+mebendazole
-levamisole
-praziquantel
-pervinium pamoate
-pyperazine
+albendasole
?
276. What drugs are effective agents for the treatment of trichostrongyloidosis:
-mebendazole
+pyrantel pamoate
+albendasole
+pyperazine
+levamisole
-praziquantel
?
277. What drugs are effective agents for the treatment of strongyloidiasis:
-levamisole
-pyrantel pamoate
-pervinium pamoate
+albendasole
+praziquantel
?
278. What drugs are used for the treatment of ancylostomiasis:
-praziquantel
-pervinium pamoate
+pyrantel pamoate
+levamisole
+albendasole
+mebendazole
?
279. What drugs are used for the treatment of trichocephaliasis:
-pyrantel pamoate
+mebendazole
-levamisole
-pyperazine
-pervinium pamoate
-praziquantel
+albendasole
?
280. What drug is effective agent for the treatment of trichinelliasis:
-praziquantel
+mebendazole
-levamisole
-pervinium pamoate
-pyrantel pamoate
-ivermectin
?
281. What drug is effective agent for the treatment of filariasis:
-mebendazole
+ivermectin
-praziquantel
-pervinium pamoate
-albendasole
?
282. Mark the correct statements:
+pyperazine causes paralyses of nematodoses by blocking Acetylcholine
-albendazole is effective agent for the treatment of intestinal cestodoses
+ivermectin is effective agent for the treatment of onchocerciasis eyes
+mebendazole is used for the of inestinal nematodoses, extraintestinal
trichinelliasis and eshinococcosis
?
283. Mark the correct statements:
+albendazole or mebendazole are prescribed for the treatment of echinococcosis
+praziquantel is used for the treatment of intestinal cestodoses, trematodoses
and cycticercosis
-ivermectin inhibits neuromuscular system of worms, blocks cholinesterase
+albendazole inhibits glucose uptake by parasites, decreasing formation of ATP
?
284. Mark the correct statements:
-levamisole is used for the treatment of enterobiasis
+mebendazole is effective agent for the treatment of trichocephaliasis, ascariasis
and enterobiasis
-pyperazine - a highly toxic drug
+ivermectin is used for the treatment of extraintestinal filariasis
?
285. Drugs which are used for the treatment of systemic mycosis:
+amphotericin B
+ketoconazole
+itraconazole
-griseofulvin
-nystatin
-terbinafine
?
286. Drugs which are used for the treatment of dermatomycoses:
+terbinafine
-amphotericin B
+griseofulvin
-ketoconazole
?
287. Drugs used for the treatment of the fungi Candida:
+amphotericin B
+nystatin
+clotrimazole
-terbinafine
?
288. Antifungal antibiotics:
-terbinafine
-ketoconazole
+nystatin
+amphotericin
+griseofulvin
+levorin
?
289. The group of polyene macrolides includes:
+nystatin
-griseofulvin
+amphotericin B
+levorin
?
290. Antifungal synthetic agents are antibiotics:
+ketoconazole
-nystatin
+fluconazole
-griseofulvin
-amphotericin B
-levorin
?
291. Antifungal synthetic agents – imidazole derivatives:
+ketoconazole
+miconazole
-clotrimazole
-itraconasole
-fluconazole
?
292. Antifungal synthetic agents – triazole derivatives:
+itraconasole
+fluconazole
-ketoconazole
-miconazole
?
293. What is mechanism of action of polyene macrolides:
+bind to ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+impairment of permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
-inhibit synthesis of nucleic acids
-inhibit of synthesis of ergosterol
?
294. Griseofulvin violates:
-permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
-synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+synthesis of nucleic acids
?
295. Imidazole derivatives violate:
-permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-synthesis of nucleic acids
?
296. Triazole derivatives violate:
-permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-synthesis of nucleic acids
?
297. Terbinafine violates:
-permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-synthesis of nucleic acids
?
298. Amphotericin B:
+is polyene macrolide
+impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
-crosses blood brain barrier
+doesn`t cross blood brain barrier
+is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+the resistance of fungi is developed slowly
+it is introduced intravenously, under the cerebral tunics, by inhaled or locally
?
299. Nystatin:
+is polyene antibiotic
+impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
-is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is used for the treatment of candidamycosis
+the resistance of fungi is developed very slowly
+is introduced orally or locally
?
300. Ketoconazole:
+is imidazole derivative
+inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-crosses blood brain barrier
+is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+it is indicated in the case when polyene antibiotic have no efficiency
+it is introduced orally
?
301. Fluconazole:
+is triazole derivative
+inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+crosses blood brain barrier
+is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+it is introduced orally, intravenously
?
302. Itraconazole:
+is triazole derivatives
+inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-crosses blood brain barrier
+is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+is effective agent for treatment of candidamycosis, which have resistance to
nystatin
+it is introduced orally
?
303. Griseofulvin:
+is antifungal antibiotic
-inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+inhibits of synthesis of nucleic acids
+it is accumulated in the cells which produce keratin
+the resistance of fungi is not developed
+is used for the treatment of dermatomycoses
-is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+is introduced orally
?
304. Terbinafine:
-impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
+is accumulated in the skin, subcutaneous fat, nails
+is introduced orally
+is introduced locally
?
305. What are the side effects of Amphotericin B:
+fever
+arterrial hypotension
+hypokaliemia
+allergic reactions
-hepatotoxic action
+nephrotoxic action
+neurotoxic action
+anemia
?
306. What are the side effects of ketoconazole:
+hepatotoxic action
-nephrotoxic action
+dyspeptic disorders
+endocrinological disorders
-dysbacteriosis
+allergic reactions
?
307. What are the side effects of fluconazole:
+allergic reactions
+hepatotoxic action
+dyspeptic disorders
-dysbacteriosis
?
308. What are the side effects of itraconazole:
+dyspeptic disorders
+allergic reactions
+hepatotoxic action
-dysbacteriosis
+neurotoxic action
?
309. What are the side effects of nystatin:
+dyspeptic disorders
-hepatotoxic action
-nephrotoxic action
-dysbacteriosis
?
310. What are the side effects of griseofulvin:
+dyspeptic disorders
+hepatotoxic action
-dysbacteriosis
-nephrotoxic action
?
311. What are the side effects of terbinafine:
+dyspeptic disorders
+muscle and joint pain
-nephrotoxic action
+hepatotoxic action
-dysbacteriosis
?
312. Mark the correct statements:
+amphotericin B is polyene macrolide
+ketoconazole inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-nystatin is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+terbinafine is used for the treatment of dermatomycoses
?
313. Mark the correct statements:
+amphotericin B impairments of permeability of the fungal cytoplasm
membrane
+fluconazole is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
-nystatin is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+griseofulvin inhibits of synthesis of nucleic acids
?
314. Mark the correct statements:
+terbinafine inhibits of synthesis of ergosterol of fungal cell membrane
-the resictance of fungi which causes systemic mycoses to amphotericin B is
developed quickly
+griseofulvin is used for the treatment of dermatomycoses
+nystatin impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
?
315. Mark the correct statements:
+ketoconazole is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+nystatin acts only upon the fungi Candida
-fluconazole impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+amphotericin B doesn`t cross blood brain barrier
?
316. Mark the correct statements:
+amphotericin B accumulates after repeated administration
-griseofulvin is used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
+the resictance of fungi to terbinafine is developed slowly
+nystatin is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
?
317. Mark the correct statements:
+griseofulvin is accumulated in the cells which produce keratin
+fluconazole is less toxic than ketoconazole
+nystatin is polyene antibiotic
-itraconazole crosses blood brain barrier
?
318. Mark the correct statements:
+amphotericin B is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+nystatin isn`t used for the treatment of systemic mycoses
-ketoconazole impairs the permeability of the fungal cytoplasm membrane
+griseofulvin has hepatotoxic action
?
319. Alkylating antitumoral drugs:
+sarcolysinum
-dactinomycin
+cyclophophanum
+chlorbutinum
+myelosanum
+dopanum
?
320. Antimetabolites antitumoral drugs:
-vincristine
+methotrexate
+phthoruracilum
-L-asparaginase
+mercaptopurine
?
321. Cytotoxic antibiotics include:
+dactinomycin
-tetracicline
+olivomycinum
+doxorubicin
-streptomycin
?
322. Cytotoxic agents of plant origin include :
-cyclophophanum
+colchamine
+vincristine
-methotrexate
?
323. Hormonal and antihormonal antitumoral drugs:
-oxytocin
+testosterone
+fosfestrol
-thyroxine
+synoestrolum
?
324. Antihormonal antitumoral drugs:
-L-asparaginase
+flumatide
+tamoxifene
-fosfestrol
?
325. The enzyme antitumoral drug:
+L-asparaginase
-flumatide
-tamoxifene
-fosfestrol
?
326. Сytokine - antitumoral drugs:
+aldesleukin
+alpha-interferon
-flumatide
-cisplatine
?
327. The drugs of monoclonal antibodies:
-interleukin-2
-flumatide
-tamoxifene
-cisplatine
+trastuzumab
?
328. What is mechanism of action of alkylating antitumoral drugs:
+inhibit the replication of DNA
-inhibit synthesis of nucleic acids
-inhibit mitotic sells at metaphase
?
329. What is mechanism of action of antimetabolites antitumoral drugs:
-blockade mitotic sells at metaphase
+inhibit synthesis of folic acid, purins and pyrimidines
-inhibit the replication of DNA
?
330. What is mechanism of action of cytotoxic antibiotics:
+inhibit synthesis and function of nucleic acids
-blockade mitotic sells at metaphase
-inhibit synthesis of folic acid, purins and pyrimidines
?
331. What is mechanism of action of colchamine:
+blockade mitotic sells at metaphase
-inhibist synthesis of folic acid, purins and pyrimidines
-inhibits the replication of DNA
?
332. What is mechanism of action of L-asparaginase:
+inhibits synthesis of asparagine which is necessary for the DNA synthesis
-blockade mitotic sells at metaphase
-inhibits the replication of DNA ?
333. Cyclophophanum is:
+alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
-cytotoxic agent of plant origin
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
?
334. Myelosanum is:
+alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-antiandrigen
-cytotoxic agent of plant origin
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
?
335. Chlorbutinum is:
+alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
-compound containing platinum
?
336. Dopanum is:
+alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
?
337. Sarcolysinum:
+alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
-compound containing platinum
?
338. Phthoruracilum is:
-alkylating antitumoral drug
+antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
-compound containing platinum
?
339. Mercaptopurine is:
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
-compound containing platinum
-alkylating antitumoral drug
+antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
?
340. Methotrexate is:
-alkylating antitumoral drug
+antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
-hormonal drug
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
-compound containing platinum
?
341. L-asparaginase is:
-antiestrogen
+enzyme drug
-alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-hormonal drug
-cytokine - antitumoral drug
?
342. Trastuzumab is:
+the drug of monoclonal antibodies:
-hormonal drug
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-cytotoxic agents of plant origin
-alkylating antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
?
343. Alpha-interferon is:
+cytokine -antitumoral drug
-alkylating antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
-hormonal drug
-antiestrogen
-enzyme drug
?
344. Flumatide is:
-cytokine-antitumoral drug
-alkylating antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
+antiandrogen
-antiestrogen
-enzyme drug
?
345. Cyproterone is:
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
+antiandrogen
-antiestrogen
-enzyme drug
?
346. Tamoxifene is:
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
-antiandrogen
+antiestrogen
-enzyme drug
?
347. Aldesleukin is:
-drug of alpha-interferon
+drug of interleukin-2
-antiandrogen
-antiestrogen
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-enzyme drug
?
348. Aromatase inhibitors are:
-trastuzumab
+letrosole
-L-asparaginase
+aminoglutethmide
-tamoxifene
?
349. Clomifene is:
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
-antiandrogen
+antiestrogen
-enzyme drug
?
350. Colchamine is :
-compound containing platinum
-antiandrogen
-antiestrogen
+cytotoxic agents of plant origin
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-the drug of monoclonal antibodies
?
351. Vincristine is:
+cytotoxic agents of plant origin
-alkylating antitumoral drug
-antimetabolites antitumoral drug
-cytokine -antitumoral drug
-antibiotic
-enzyme drug
?
352. What are indications for use of cyclophosphanum:
+leukemia
-carcinoma of larynx
-carcinoma of stomach
+breast cancer
+carcinoma of lung
+carcinoma of testis
?
353. What are indications for use of chlorbutinum:
-carcinoma of larynx
+chronic lymphosarcoma
+lymphogranulomatosis
-carcinoma of stomach
?
354. What are indications for use of cisplatinum:
+carcinoma of ovary testis
-carcinoma of larynx
-lymphogranulomatosis
+carcinoma of head and neck
+carcinoma of urinary bladder
?
355. What are indications for use of sarcolysinum:
+multiple myeloma
+reticulosarcoma
-carcinoma of lung
+seminoma of testis
?
356. What are indications for use of mercaptopurine:
+leukemia
-breast cancer
-carcinoma of stomach
?
357. What are indications for use of methotrexate:
-cancer of prostate
+choriocarcinoma
+acute leukemia
+breast cancer
?
358. What are indications for use of phthoruracilum:
+carcinoma of colon
-carcinoma of stomach
+carcinoma of larynx
-choriocarcinoma
?
359. What are indications for use of phthorafur:
+carcinoma of colon
+carcinoma of stomach
-carcinoma of larynx
-choriocarcinoma
?
360. What are indications for use of colchamine:
+skin cancer
-breast cancer
?
361. What are indications for use of vinblastine:
+choriocarcinoma
-carcinoma of stomach
+reticulosarcoma
+lymphogranulomatosis
?
362. What are indications for use of vincristine:
+acute leukemia in children
-melanoma
-carcinoma of larynx
?
363. What are indications for use of androgens:
+breast cancer
-cancer of prostate
?
364. What are indications for use of estrogens:
+treatment of breast cancer in women in menopause
+prostatic cancer
-treatment of breast cancer in women of reproductive age
?
365. What are indications for use of L-asparaginase
-prostatic cancer
-breast cancer
+acute lymphoblastic leukemia
-carcinoma of stomach
?
366. What drugs are used for treatment of carcinoma of larynx:
-vinblastine
+prospidium chloride
-cyclophosphanum
-sarcolysinum
?
367. What drugs are used for treatment of skin cancer:
+colchamine
-phthorafur
-myelosanum
-dopanum
?
368. What drugs are used for treatment of sarcomas of soft tissues:
-vinblastine
-vincristine
-colchamine
+doxorubicin
-myelosanum
+cisplatin
?
369. What drugs are used for treatment of acute leukemia:
+mercaptopurine
+cyclophosphanum
+methotrexate
-cisplatin
+doxorubicin
?
370. What drugs are used for treatment of choriocarcinoma:
+vinblastine
-sarcolysinum
+methotrexate
-doxorubicin
-colchamine
?
371. What drugs are used for treatment of prostatic cancer:
-androgens
+antiandrogens
+estrogens
-progestins
-glucocorticoids
?
372. What drugs are used for treatment of acute leukemia in children:
-colchamine
+vincristine
+doxorubicin
-phthorafur
+glucocorticoids
?
373. Where the preparation is used glucocorticoids:
-skin cancer
-prostatic cancer
+lymphosarcoma
+lymphogranulomatosis
+acute leukemia in children
?
374. The drugs of monoclonal antibodies trastuzumab is used for complex
therapy of:
-prostatic cancer
-skin cancer
+breast cancer
?
375. What is indication for use of antiandfogen flumatide:
-carcinoma of larynx
-sarcoma of soft tissues
-breast cancer
+prostatic cancer
?
376. What is indication for use of aromatase inhibitor letrosole:
+treatment of breast cancer in women in postmenopausal period
-prostatic cancer
-sarcoma of soft tissues
?
377. What is indication for use of antiestrogen tamoxifene:
+estrogen-dependent cancer of the breast cancer in women in menopause
-prostatic cancer
-treatment of carcinoma of uterus in women of reproductive age
?
378. What are the side-effects of alkylating agents:
+suppression of myelopoiesis
-euphoria
+nausea and vomiting
-bradycardia
+alopecia
?
379. What are the side-effects of antimetabolites antitumoral drugs:
+suppression of myelopoiesis
+alopecia
+dermatitis
+nausea and vomiting
+hepatotoxic action
-cardiac toxicity
?
380. What are the side-effects of cisplatin:
+hepatotoxic action
+hearing loss
+suppression of myelopoiesis
+nausea and vomiting
-bradycardia
?
381. What are the side-effects of vinblastine:
+suppression of bone marrow
+dyspeptic disorders
+phlebitis
-cardiac toxicity
?
382. What are the side-effects of colchamine:
+leukopenia
+local irritative action
+alopecia
-ulcerative stomatitis
?
383. What are the side-effects of phthoruracilum:
+suppression of bone marrow
+ulceration of the mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract
-psychosis
+dyspeptic disorders
+alopecia
?
384. What are the side-effects of methotrexate:
+ulcerative stomatitis
+suppression of bone marrow
+hepatotoxic action
-cardiac toxicity
?
385. What are the side-effects of L-asparaginase:
+hepatotoxic action
+inhibition of fibrinogen synthesis
-psychosis
+allergic reactions
-hearing loss
?
386. What are the side-effects of vincristine:
+neurotoxic action (ataxia, neuralgia, paraesthesia)
+nephrotoxic action
-cardiac toxicity
?
387. What drugs are used for the prevention and treatment of malaria:
+quinine
-metronidazole
+mefloquine
+chloroquanidine
+doxycycline
-furazolidone
+sulfonamides
?
388. Quinoline derivatives are:
+amidiaquine
-chloroquanidine
+mefloquine
+quinine
-primaquine
-doxycycline
?
389. Antimalarial drugs which are pyrimidine derivatives are:
-doxycycline
+chloroquanidine
?
390. Antiamebial drugs are:
+metronidazole
+tetracyclines
+chiniofon
+emetine hydrochloride
?
391. Drugs for the treatment of lambliasis:
+metronidazole
+furazolidone
-tetracyclines
?
392. Drugs for the treatment of trichomoniasis:
+metronidazole
+furazolidone
+tinidazole
-aminoquinol
?
393. Drugs for the treatment of toxoplasmosis:
+sulfadimezinum
+sulfadimethoxine
+chloridin
-tetracyclines
?
394. Drugs for the treatment of balantidiasis:
+chiniofon
+metronidazole
+tetracyclines
+monomycin
-chloridin
?
395. Drugs for the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis:
-chloridin
-monomycin
-tetracyclines
+solusurminum
+stibogluconate sodium
-metronidazole
?
396. Drugs for the treatment of trypanosomiasis:
+melarsoprol
+pentamidine
-tetracyclines
?
397. Blood schizonticides antimalarial drugs are:
+quinine
-primaquine
+chloridin
+mefloquine
+sulfadimethoxine
?
398. Tissue schizonticides antimalarial drugs are:
-quinine
+chloridin
+primaquine
?
399. Gametocodial antimalarial drugs are:
-quinine
+chloridin
+primaquine
?
400. Forms of malaria parasites, which are sensitive to chloridin:
+preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+erythrocytic forms
-para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
+gamecytes
?
401. Forms of malaria parasites, which are sensitive to primaquine:
-preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
+gamecytes
?
402. Forms of malaria parasites, which are sensitive to quinine:
-preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
-gamecytes
?
403. Antiamebial drugs with direct action:
+chiniofon
+metronidazole
-tetracyclines
+emetine hydrochloride
?
404. Antiamebial drug which is effective in any localization of Entamoeba
histolytica:
-chiniofon
+metronidazole
-tetracyclines
-emetine hydrochloride
?
405. Antiamebial drugs with indirect action:
-chiniofon
-metronidazole
+tetracyclines
?
406. Antiamoebic drugs which are effective in the localization of ameba’s in the
intestinal luminal:
+chiniofon
-emetine hydrochloride
+metronidazole
+tetracyclines
?
407. Antiamoebic drugs which are effective in the localization of ameba’s inside
the intestinal wall:
+metronidazole
+emetine hydrochloride
-chiniofon
+tetracyclines
?
408. Antiamoebic drugs which are effective in the localization of ameba’s in the
liver:
-chiniofon
-tetracyclines
+emetine hydrochloride
+metronidazole
?
409. Which agents are sensitive to chloridin:
-Giardia lamblia
+Plasmodium malariae
-Entamoeba histolytica
-Trichomonas vaginalis
-Balantidium coli
+Toxoplasma gondii
?
410. Which agents are sensitive to furazolidone:
-Plasmodium malariae
-Toxoplasma gondii
+Giardia lamblia
+Trichomonas vaginalis
?
411. Which agents are sensitive to metronidazole:
+Entamoeba histolytica
-Toxoplasma gondii
+Trichomonas vaginalis
+Giardia lamblia
+Balantidium coli
?
412. Which agents are sensitive to sulfonamides:
-Giardia lamblia
+Plasmodium malariae
+Toxoplasma gondii
-Entamoeba histolytica
?
413. What are indications for use of monomycin:
+skin leishmaniasis
-amebiasis
-malaria
+balantidiasis
?
414. Which agents are sensitive to sulfonamides:
+Plasmodium malariae
-Leishmania
-Trichomonas vaginalis
+Trypanosoma brucei
?
415. Which agents are sensitive to chiniofon:
+Entamoeba histolytica
-Plasmodium malariae
+Balantidium coli
-Giardia lamblia
?
416. Which agents are sensitive to solusurminum:
-Entamoeba histolytica
+Leishmania
-Toxoplasma gondii
-Giardia lamblia
?
417. For eliminate the clinical manifestations of malaria use drugs acting on:
-preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
-gamecytes
?
418. For prevention of recurrence of malaria using drugs acting on:
-preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
-gamecytes
?
419. For the individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria using drugs acting on:
+preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
+erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
-gamecytes
?
420. For the public chemoprophylaxis of malaria using drugs acting on:
-preerythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts)
-para-erythrocytic forms (hypnozoites)
+gamecytes
?
421. What are indications for use of chloridin:
+for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for public chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for prevention of recurrence of malaria
-for the treatment of clinical signs of malaria
?
422. What are indications for use of chingamine:
+for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for public chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for prevention of recurrence of malaria
+for the treatment of clinical signs of malaria
?
423. What are indications for use of mefloquine:
+for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for public chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-for prevention of recurrence of malaria
+for the treatment of clinical signs of malaria
?
424. What are indications for use of primaquine:
-for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
+for general chemoprophylaxis of malaria
+for prevention of recurrence of malaria
-for the treatment of clinical signs of malaria
?
425. What are indications for use of chingamine:
+malaria
+amebiasis
-toxoplasmosis
?
426. What are indications for use of chloridin:
+toxoplasmosis
-malaria
+amebiasis
?
427. What are indications for use of primaquine:
+malaria
-amebiasis
+trypanosomiasis
?
428. What are indications for use of metronidazole:
+amebiasis
+trichomoniasis
+lambliasis
-malaria
+infections caused by asporogenous (obligate) anaerobic bacteria
?
429. What are the side effects of chingamine:
+blurring of vision
+dyspeptic disorders
+hepatotoxic action
-nephrotoxic action
+dermatitis
+agranulocytosis, anemia
?
430. What are the side effects of quinine:
+allergic reactions
+dyspeptic disorders
+arrythmia
+hearing loss
+hepatotoxic action
+nephrotoxic action
-dysbacteriosis
+agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
?
431. What are the side effects of primaquine:
+dyspeptic disorders
+leucopenia, anemia
-dysbacteriosis
-hearing loss
?
432. What are the side effects of metronidazole:
+dyspeptic disorders
+incoordination, tremors
-dysbacteriosis
-blurring of vision
+concurrent use with alcohol has been associated with a disulfiram-type reaction
?
433. What are the side effects of chiniofon:
+diarrhea
+blurring of vision
-dysbacteriosis
-hearing loss
?
434. What are the side effects of emetine hydrochloride:
+dyspeptic disorders
+hypotension, tachycardia
-dysbacteriosis
+hepatotoxic action
+nephrotoxic action
?
435. What are the side effects of tetracyclines:
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
+dyspeptic disorders
-reactions of exacerbation
+hepatotoxic action
-nephrotoxic action
+photosensitivity
?
436. What are the side effects of furazolidone:
+anorexia
+dyspeptic disorders
+concurrent use with alcohol has been associated with a disulfiram-type reaction
+leucopenia, anemia
-dysbacteriosis
?
437. What are the side effects of sulfonamides :
+allergic reactions
+dyspeptic disorders
-reactions of exacerbation
+leucopenia, anemia
+crystalluria
-hepatotoxic action
+dysbacteriosis
?
438. Identify the drug: use for the treatment of clinical sings and the individual
chemoprophylaxis of malaria; the resistance of Plasmodium to them develops
very slowly; is effective agent for treatment of extraintestinal amebiasis; has
immunodepressive action; use orally and parenterally:
-chloridin
-quinine
+chingamine
?
439. Identify the drug: use for the individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria; the
resistance of Plasmodium to them develops very quickly; is effective agent for
treatment of toxoplasmosis; inhibits synthesis of nucleonic; take orally:
-quinine
-chingamine
+chloridin
?
440. Identify the drug: use for the treatment of clinical sings of malaria; effective
in the multidrug resistance of Plasmodium, the action develops quickly,
prescribe orally and parenterally:
-chingamine
-chloridin
+quinine
?
441. Mefloquine:
+use for the treatment of clinical sings and the individual chemoprophylaxis of
malaria
-acts longer than quinine
+acts shorter than quinine
+prescribe orally
-prescribe parenterally
?
442. Primaquine:
+use for prevention of recurrence and for public chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-use for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
-use for the treatment of clinical signs of malaria
+prescribe orally
?
443. Mark the correct statements:
+chingamine use for prevention of recurrence and for public chemoprophylaxis
of malaria
+metronidazole use for the treatment of lambliasis
-resistance of Plasmodium to chloridin develops slowly
+tetracyclines are antiamebial drugs with indirect action
?
444. Mark the correct statements:
+metronidazole is effective agent for treatment of trichomoniasis
+primaquine prescribe orally
-furazolidone is effective agent for treatment of malaria
?
445. Mark the correct statements:
-mefloquine prescribe parenterally
+metronidazole is effective agent that acts in any ameba’s localization
+chloridin is effective agent for treatment of toxoplasmosis
+monomycin use for treatment of balantidiasis
?
446. Mark the correct statements:
+solusurminum use for the treatment of leishmaniasis:
+furazolidone is effective agent for treatment of trichomoniasis
+primaquine use for prevention of recurrence and for public chemoprophylaxis
of malaria
-emetine hydrochloride is antiamebic drug which is effective in the localization
of ameba’s in the intestinal luminal:
?
447. Mark the correct statements:
-chiniofon is antiamebic drug because inhibits gram-positive and gram-negative
bacteria in bowel
+chloridin use for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria
+chingamine is effective agent for treatment of extraintestinal amebiasis
+furazolidone is effective agent for treatment of lambliasis
?
448. Mark the correct statements:
+sulfonamides use for the treatment of toxoplasmosis
-tetracyclines are effective agents for treatment of lambliasis
+metronidazole use for the treatment of balantidiasis
+chingamine acts on erythrocytic forms (tissue schizonts) of Plasmodium
?
449. What are antisyphilitic agents :
+benzylpenicillin preparations
+tetracyclines
+azithromycin
+ceftriaxone
+erythromycin
+organic bismuth compounds
-aminoglycosides
?
450. The main antibiotics which are used for the treatment of syphilis:
-erythromycin
-ceftriaxone
-azithromycin
-tetracyclines
+benzylpenicillin preparations
?
451. The reserve antibiotics for the treatment of syphilis:
+tetracyclines
+ceftriaxone
+azithromycin
+erythromycin
-amikacin
?
452. The organic bismuth compounds include:
+biiochinolum
-erythromycin
+bismoverolum
?
453. The benzylpenicillin preparations include:
+benzylpenicillin sodium
+Bicillin-1
+Bicillin-5
+benzylpenicillin procaine
+benzylpenicillin potassium
-ceftriaxone
?
454. Preparations of benzylpenicillin violates:
+synthesis of wall components of Treponema pallidum
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of Treponema pallidum
-permeability of the cell membrane
-synthesis of the RNA
?
455. The action spectrum of the benzylpenicillins includes:
+gram-positive cocci
+Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani
+gram-negative cocci
+Bacillus anthracis
+Corynebacterium diphtheriae
+Treponema pallidum
-Chlamydia
?
456. Ceftriaxone:
+has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
457. Ceftriaxone violates:
+synthesis of wall components of Treponema pallidum
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of Treponema pallidum
-permeability of the cell membrane
-synthesis of the RNA
?
458. Erythromycin:
-has extended spectrum of action
+is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
459. Erythromycin violates:
-synthesis of wall components of Treponema pallidum
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of Treponema pallidum
-permeability of the cell membrane
-synthesis of the RNA
?
460. Tetracyclines:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
461. Tetracyclines violate:
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
462. Azithromycin:
+has extended spectrum of action
-is influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-is influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
463. Azithromycin violates:
-permeability of the cell membrane
+protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-synthesis of the RNA
?
464. Organic bismuth compounds:
-have extended spectrum of action
+are influenced mainly by Treponema pallidum
?
465. What is the mechanism of action of organic bismuth compounds:
-inhibit synthesis of wall components of Treponema pallidum
+blockade of thiol enzymes of Treponema pallidum
?
466. Bactericidal action on Treponema pallidum have:
+benzylpenicillin preparations
-erythromycin
-tetracyclines
+ceftriaxone
-azithromycin
-organic bismuth compounds
?
467. What are the side effects of benzylpenicillins?
+allergic reactions
+local irritating effect
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
+reaction of «aggravation»
?
468. What are the side effects of ceftriaxone?
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
+reaction of «aggravation»
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
-hepatotoxic action
?
469. What are the side effects of erythromycin?
+allergic reactions
-reaction of «aggravation»
+hepatotoxic action
+dyspeptic disorders
+dysbacteriosis
?
470. What are the side effects of erythromycin?
+allergic reactions
-reaction of «aggravation»
-renal toxicity
+dyspeptic disorders
+dysbacteriosis
?
471. What are the side effects of tetracyclines?
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
-reaction of «aggravation»
+hepatotoxic action
+dyspeptic disorders
?
472. What are the side effects of organic bismuth compounds:
+gingivitis, stomatitis
-dysbacteriosis
+diarrhea
-affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
+hepatotoxic action
+renal toxicity
?
473. Identify the drug: inhibits bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis of
Treponema pallidum; has bactericidal effect on Treponema pallidum; is the
main antisyphilitic antibiotic; is used for the treatment of all forms of syphillis;
is administered parenterally 6-8 times a day; causes allergic reactions and
reaction of «aggravation», has local irritating effect:
+benzylpenicillin sodium
-ceftriaxone
-erythromycin
?
474. Identify the drug: inhibits bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis of
Treponema pallidum; has bactericidal action on Treponema pallidum; is the
main antisyphilitic antibiotic; is used for the treatment of all forms of syphillis;
is introduced intramuscularly 2-3 times a day; causes allergic reactions and
reaction of «aggravation», has local irritating effect:
-benzylpenicillin sodium
+benzylpenicillin potassium
-azithromycin
?
475. Identify the drug: inhibits bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis of
Treponema pallidum; has bactericidal action on Treponema pallidum; is the
main antisyphilitic antibiotic; is used for the treatment of all forms of syphillis;
is introduced intramuscularly 1 time in 7-14 days; causes allergic reactions and
reaction of «aggravation», has local irritating effect:
-benzylpenicillin procaine
+Bicillin-1
-Bicillin-5
?
476. Identify the drug: inhibits bacterial microbes cell wall synthesis of
Treponema pallidum; has bactericidal action on Treponema pallidum; is the
main antisyphilitic antibiotic; is uses for the treatment of all forms of syphillis; is
introduced intramuscularly 1 time in 30 days; causes allergic reactions and
reaction of «aggravation», has local irritating effect:
-Bicillin-1
-benzylpenicillin procaine
+Bicillin-5
?
477. Identify the drugs: the spectrum of action includes Treponema pallidum
onlyспектр; the mechanism of action is blockade of thiol enzymes; the type of
action is bacteriostatic; are less active than benzylpenicillin preparations; use
for the treatment of all forms of syphilis; are introduced intramuscularly; cause
gingivitis, stomatitis, diarrhea, colitis, dermatitis, liver dysfunction:
+organic bismuth compounds
-Bicillin-5
?
478. Identify the drug: has the extended spectrum of action; inhibits bacterial
microbes cell wall synthesis of Treponema pallidum; has bactericidal action on
Treponema pallidum; is less active than benzylpenicillin preparations;is used in
the case of allergic reactions to penicillins; is introduced intramuscularly and
intravenously 1 time a day; causes allergic reactions and reaction of
«aggravation», dysbacteriosis:
+ceftriaxone
-erythromycin
?
479. Identify the drug: influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria; impairment
of the protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms; has bacteriostatic
action on Treponema pallidum; is less active than benzylpenicillin preparations;
is used in the case of allergic reactions to penicillins; is introduced perorally and
intravenously 4 times a day; causes allergic reactions, dysbacteriosis and liver
dysfunction:
-ceftriaxone
+erythromycin
?
480. Basic (first-line) antituberculous agents are:
+isoniasid
-streptomycin
+rifampicin
-ethambutol
-para-aminosalicylate sodium
-florimycin
?
481. Supplemental (second-line) antituberculous agents are:
+ethionamide
+ethambutol
+streptomycin
-rifampicin
-isoniasid
+cycloserine
+amikacin
+florimycin
?
482. Moderate effects against mycobacterium tuberculosis are produced by:
-пиразинамид
-канамицин
+натрия параминосалицилат
+тиоцетазон
?
483. Synthetic antituberculous agents are:
+isoniasid
+ethambutol
+ethionamide
+pyrasinamide
-cycloserine
+para-aminosalicylate sodium
+thioacetazone
?
484. Antituberculous antibiotics are:
-tetracyclines
+kanamycin
+amikacin
-vancomycin
+streptomycin
+rifampicin
+cycloserine
+florimycin
?
485. Derivatives hydrazide of isonicotinic acid are:
+isoniasid
-ethambutol
+ftivaside
+metaside
-cycloserine
?
486. Bactericidal action on Mycobacterium tuberculosis have:
+rifampicin
+isoniasid
-ethionamide
+streptomycin
+cycloserine
-para-aminosalicylate sodium
+kanamycin
?
487. Bacteriostatic action on Mycobacterium tuberculosis have:
-cycloserine
-isoniasid
+ethambutol
-rifampicin
-streptomycin
+ethionamide
+pyrasinamide
?
488. What drugs inhibit synthesis of wall components of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
+cycloserine
-rifampicin
+isoniasid
-streptomycin
+ethambutol
?
489. What drugs inhibit protein synthesis in the ribosomes of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
-rifampicin
+streptomycin
-isoniasid
+kanamycin
+аmikacin
?
490. What drugs inhibit synthesis of the RNA of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
-isoniasid
+rifampicin
-cycloserine
-para-aminosalicylate sodium
?
491. What drug is structurally similar to para-aminobenzoic acid:
-cycloserine
-streptomycin
-isoniasid
+para-aminosalicylate sodium
-rifampicin
?
492. Antituberculous drugs with broad spectrum of action are:
+rifampicin
-isoniasid
+streptomycin
+kanamycin
+аmikacin
-ethambutol
+cycloserine
?
493. Mainly on Mycobacterium tuberculosis acting:
+isoniasid
+ethambutol
-cycloserine
-rifampicin
+ethionamide
-streptomycin
+para-aminosalicylate sodium
?
494. The action spectrum of rifampicin includes:
+gram-positive cocci
-Chlamydia
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Mycobacterium leprae
-viruses
?
495. The action spectrum of streptomycin includes:
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+gram-positive cocci
-anaerobic bacteria
+Shigella, Salmonella
-Chlamydia
?
17. The action spectrum of cycloserine includes:
+gram-positive cocci
-gram-negative cocci
-Treponema pallidum
-Rickettsiae
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-Chlamydia
?
496. The action spectrum of isoniasid includes:
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-gram-positive cocci
-gram-negative cocci
+Mycobacterium leprae
-Treponema pallidum
?
497. The action spectrum of ethambutol includes:
-gram-positive cocci
-gram-negative cocci
-Treponema pallidum
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
?
498. The action spectrum of ethionamide includes:
-Treponema pallidum
-gram-positive cocci
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-gram-negative cocci
+Mycobacterium leprae
?
499. The action spectrum of pyrasinamide includes:
-gram-positive cocci
-gram-negative cocci
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-Chlamydia
?
500. The action spectrum of para-aminosalicylate sodium includes
+Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-gram-positive cocci
-gram-negative cocci
?
501. Isoniasid:
+is the most effective antituberculous drug
-has the extended spectrum of action
+acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae
+inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids of the mycobacterial cell wall
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
+acts upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis which are located both intra- and
extracellularly
+penetrate blood brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
+is introduced intravenously
?
502. Rifampicin:
+is the most effective antituberculous drug
+has the extended spectrum of action
+is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae
+inhibits of the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+penetrates through brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
+is introduced intravenously
?
503. Ethambutol:
+is drug with high antituberculous activity
+acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-has the extended spectrum of action
+inhibits synthesis of wall components of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
+penetrates through brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
?
504. Streptomycin:
+is drug with high antituberculous activity
+has the extended spectrum of action
-acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+not penetrate s through brain barrier
+is introduced intramuscularly
?
505. Cycloserine:
+is drug with high antituberculous activity
-acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+has the extended spectrum of action
+inhibits synthesis of wall components
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+penetrates through brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
?
506. Ethionamide:
+is drug with high antituberculous activity
+acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-has the extended spectrum of action
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
+penetrates through brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
?
507. Para-aminosalicylate sodium (PAS):
+is drug with moderate antituberculous activity
-has the extended spectrum of action
+acts only upon Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+is an antagonist of of paraaminobenzoic acid
+the resistance of micro-organisms develops slowly
-the resistance of micro-organisms develops quickly
+doesn`t penetrate through brain barrier
+is introduced perorally
?
508. High level of acetalization of isoniasid requires administering of the
preparation:
-in ordinary doses
-in decreased doses
+in increased doses
?
509. Low level of acetalization of isoniasid requires administering of the
preparation:
-in ordinary doses
+in decreased doses
-in increased doses
510.
511. What are the side effects of isoniasid:
+allergic reactions
-dysbacteriosis
+dyspeptic disorders
-hearing loss and vestibular disorders
+hepatitis
+peripheral neuritis
-nephrotoxic action
+central nervous system
?
512. What are the side effects of rifampicin:
+dysbacteriosis
+allergic reactions
+dyspeptic disorders
+hepatitis
-central nervous system dysfunction
-nephrotoxic action
?
513. What are the side effects of ethambutol:
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
-peripheral neuritis
+impairment of vision
+hepatitis
-nephrotoxic action
?
514. What are the side effects of streptomycin:
+allergic reactions
+affection of the vestibular and acoustic ramus of the VIII pair of cranial nerves
-dyspeptic disorders
+nephrotoxic action
+dysbacteriosis
-hepatitis
?
515. What are the side effects of cycloserine:
+central nervous system dysfunction
+allergic reactions
-nephrotoxic action
-hearing loss and vestibular disorders
-hepatitis
+dysbacteriosis
?
516. What are the side effects of para-aminosalicylate sodium:
+allergic reactions
-hepatitis
+dyspeptic disorders
-dysbacteriosis
?
517. Affection of Riphampicinum on the liver is accompanied by:
+induction of the microsomal enzymes
-blockade of the microsomal enzymes
?
518. Effect of isoniazid on the central nervous system is manifested by:
+seizures
+insomnia
+psychosis
-narcolepsy
?
519. Isoniasid:
+inhibits synthesis of GABA
-accelerates the inactivation of GABA
+is a non-selective MAO inhibitor
-return blocking neuronal uptake of monoamines in the CNS
?
520. Effect of cycloserine isoniazid on the central nervous system is manifested
by:
+seizures
+insomnia
-narcolepsy
+depression
?
521. What drugs can cause dysbacteriosis:
+rifampicin
-isoniasid
+streptomycin
-ethambutol
?
522. What drugs can cause hearing loss and vestibular disorders:
-rifampicin
+streptomycin
+kanamycin
-cycloserine
+amikacin
?
523. What drugs have nephrotoxic action:
+streptomycin
-rifampicin
-ethambutol
+kanamycin
+amikacin
?
524. What drugs have hepatoxic action
-ethambutol
+isoniasid
+rifampicin
-streptomycin
-cycloserine
+pyrasinamide
?
525. What drugs have impairment of vision:
-isoniasid
+ethambutol
-streptomycin
-rifampicin
?
526. What drugs inhibit the synthesis of pyridoxal phosphate:
-ethionamide
+isoniasid
-streptomycin
+ftivaside
?
527. Neurotoxicity of isoniazid under the influence of pyridoxine:
+decreases
-increases
-not change
?
528. Ototoxic action of aminoglycosides (streptomycin, kanamycin, amikacin)
with the "loop" diuretics (furosemide, ethacrynic acid):
-not change
+increases
-decreases
?
529. The rational combination of the antituberculous drugs:
+isoniasid + rifampicin + ethambutol
+isoniasid + streptomycin +piridoxine
-isoniasid + streptomycin + kanamycin
?
530. Mark the correct statements:
+isoniasid is the most effective antituberculous drug
+streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
-para-aminosalicylate sodium is introduced intravenously
+rifampicin inhibits of the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
?
531. Mark the correct statements:
+rifampicin is the most effective antituberculous drug
+isoniasid inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids of the mycobacterial cell wall
+streptomycin can cause hearing loss and vestibular disorders
-ethambutol can cause dysbacteriosis
?
532. Mark the correct statements:
+isoniasid is synthetic antituberculous drug
+rifampicin is antibiotic with the extended spectrum of action
+para-aminosalicylate sodium can cause dyspeptic disorders
-ethambutol is the most effective antituberculous drug
?
533. Mark the correct statements:
-cycloserine is synthetic antituberculous drug
+streptomycin is antibiotic with the extended spectrum of action
+isoniasid neurotoxicity
+ethambutol is drug with high antituberculous activity
?
534. Mark the correct statements:
+rifampicin has hepatotoxic action
+streptomycin can cause dysbacteriosis
+ethambutol can cause impairment of vision
-cycloserine increase of permeability of the cell membrane
?
535. Mark the correct statements:
-isoniasid can cause dysbacteriosis
-ethambutol inhibits synthesis of DNA
+rifampicin crosses blood brain barrier
+cycloserine is antibiotic with the extended spectrum of action
?
536. Mark the correct statements:
+cycloserine inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
+the resistance of micro-organisms to ethionamide develops very slowly
+rifampicin can cause allergic reactions
-para-aminosalicylate sodium inhibits protein synthesis in the ribosomes
?
537. Mark the correct statements:
+the resistance of micro-organisms to isoniasid develops very quickly
+para-aminosalicylate sodium can cause allergic reactions
-streptomycin has bacteriostatic action
+cycloserine penetrate blood brain barrier
?
538. Mark the correct statements:
+isoniazid is used for the treatment of all forms of tuberculosis
+cycloserine can cause allergic reactions
-rifampicin has have nephrotoxic action
+the resistance of micro-organisms to ethambutol develops very slowly
?
539. Mark the correct statements:
+rifampicin is used for the treatment of all forms of
+isoniazid acetylates in the body
+para-aminosalicylate sodium is an antagonist of of paraaminobenzoic acid
-the resistance of micro-organisms to rifampicin develops very slowly
?
540. Drugs which are used for the resorptive action:
-phthalazolum
+aethazolum
+sulfadimezinum
+urosulfanum
+sulfalene
-sulfacylum-natrium
+sulfadimethoxine
?
541. Sulfonamides used for the resorptive action are divided into the following
groups:
-short-acting drugs (1-2 h.).
+short-acting drugs (4-6 h.).
+long-acting drugs (24-48 h.).
+ultra-long-acting drugs (about 3 days)
?
542. Short-acting drugs (4-6 h.) are:
-sulfalene
+sulfadimezinum
+aethazolum
+urosulfanum
-sulfadimethoxine
?
543. Long-acting drugs (24-48 h.) are:
+sulfadimethoxine
+sulfapyridazinum
-urosulfanum
-aethazolum
-sulfadimezinum
?
544. Ultra long-acting drug (about 3 days) are:
-phthalazolum
+sulfalene
-sulfadimethoxine
?
545. which of the preparations are mainly active in the intestinal cavity:
-сульфадимезин
-сульфален
-сульфадиметоксин
+фталазол
?
546. Drug for local using:
+sulfacylum-natrium
-sulfadimethoxine
?
547. Sulfonamides:
+have extended spectrum of action
-are influenced mainly by gram-positive bacteria
-are influenced mainly by gram-negative bacteria
?
548. The action spectrum of sulfonamides includes:
+gram-positive and gram-negative cocci
+Clostridium perfringens
-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
+Shigella шигеллы
+Chlamydiaхламидии
-bacteroids
?
549. Sulfonamides violate:
-permeability of the cell membrane
-protein synthesis in the ribosomes of micro-organisms
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
+synthesis of nucleic acids
?
550. Sulfonamides:
+are antagonists of para-aminobenzoic acid in the synthesis of folic acid
+inhibit the activity of dihydropteroate synthase
-inhibit the activity of dihydrofolate reductase
-blockade the sulfhydryl groups of the microbial thiol enzymes
?
551. Sulfonamides inhibit synthesis of nucleic acids because they are:
-dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
+dihydropteroate synthase inhibitors
+antagonists of para-aminobenzoic acid
-antagonists of purines and pyrimidine bases
?
552. Sulfanilamide preparations inhibit the synthesis of dihydrofolate acid but
do not damage the macroorganism`s cells because:
-they don`t penetrate into the macroorganism`s cells
-the synthesis of nucleic acids happens without participation of dihydrofolate
acid
+macroorganism`s cells don`t produce dihydrofolate acid but utilize it
?
553. Sulfonamides:
+are bacteriostatic agents
-are bactericidal agents
?
554. Trimethoprim violates:
-synthesis of bacterial cell wall components
-permeability of the cell membrane
+synthesis of nucleic acids
?
555. Trimethoprim inhibits synthesis of nucleic acids because :
+inhibits the activity of dihydrofolate reductase
-is antagonists of para-aminobenzoic acid
+inhibits transforms dihydrofolic acid into tetrahydrofolic acid
?
556. Which drugs are well absorbable in the intestine:
+sulfadimezinum
-phthalazolum
+sulfadimethoxine
+urosulfanum
+sulfalene
-sulfacylum-natrium
+aethazolum
?
557. Is Taken 4-6 times a day:
+aethazolum
-sulfadimethoxine
+urosulfanum
+sulfadimezinum
-sulfalene
?
558. Is Taken 1-2 times a day:
-urosulfanum
+sulfadimethoxine
-aethazolum
+sulfapyridazinum
?
559. Is Taken 1 time in 5-7 days:
-phthalazolum
+sulfalene
-sulfadimethoxine
-aethazolum
?
560. Phthalazolum is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract:
-well
+poorly
?
561. The two main factors that determine the long-term conservation of
sulfadimethoxine and sulfapiridazina in bacteriostatic concentrations in the
blood:
-have poorly absorbable in the intestine
+effective reabsorption in the kidney
+high level of blood proteins joining
562. Sulfadimezinum:
-poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is short-acting drug (4-6 h.)
-is excreted by kidneys in the acetylated form
+is excreted by kidneys almost in the unchanged condition
+is taken 4-6 times a day
-is taken 1-2 times a day
?
563. Urosulfanum:
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is short-acting drug (4-6 h.)
-is excreted by kidneys in the acetylated form
+is excreted by kidneys almost in the unchanged condition
+is used for the treatment of the urinary tract infections
-is taken 1-2 times a day
+is taken 4-6 times a day
?
564. Phthalazolum:
+is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is short-acting drug (4-6 h.)
-accumulates in the urine in high concentrations
+is used for the treatment of the urinary tract infections
?
565. Sulfadimethoxine:
+is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+is effectively reabsorbed in kidneys
+connects with blood proteins up to 80-85%
-is taken 4-6 times a day
+is taken 1-2 times a day
?
566. Identify the drug:is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract;is
acetylated to a lesser extent; is excreted by kidneys in the unchanged condition;
is used for the treatment of the urinary tract infections;is taken 4-6 times a day:
-sulfadimezinum
-phthalazolum
-sulfadimethoxine
+urosulfanum
?
567. Identify the drug: is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract;
antimicrobial effect is due to the formation of norsulfazola; is used for the
treatment of intestinal infections; is taken 4-6 times a day:
-urosulfanum
-sulfadimezinum
+phthalazolum
-sulfadimethoxine
?
568. Identify the drug;is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract;
effectively absorbed in kidneys;connects with blood proteins up to 80-85%; is
taken 1-2 times a day:
-фталазол
+сульфадиметоксин
-сульфадимезин
-уросульфан
?
569. Phtalazolum is mainly effective against enteric infections because:
+it`s poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and accumulates in the
intestines in high concentrations
-is the most effective comparable to other preparations used against enteric
infections
?
570. What are indications for use of sulfonamides:
+infection disorders caused by cocci
+bacillary dysentery
+toxoplasmosis
-tuberculosis
+infection desorders
+chlamidiosis
?
571. What drug is used for treatment and prevention conjunctivitis:
-phthalazolum
-sulfadimezinum
-sulfadimethoxine
+sulfacylum-natrium
?
572. Indications for use of urosulfanum:
+urinary tract infections
-intestinal infections
-infectious diseases of the eyes
?
573. What are the side effects of sulfonamides:
+crystalluria
+allergic reactions
+dysbacteriosis
-reaction of «aggravation»
+anemia, leukopenia
+dyspeptic disorders (nausea, vomiting)
?
574. crystalluria is caused by :
+shift urine pH to the acid side
-urine pH shift to the alkaline side
+high degree of acetylation of sulfonamides
?
575. What drugs cause crystallutia:
+sulfadimezinum
+aethazolum
-urosulfanum
+sulfadimethoxine
-phthalaxolum
?
576. How the shear crystalluria urine pH to the acid side:
+increases
-dicreases
-does not change
?
577. How the shear crystalluria urine pH to the alkaline side:
-increases
+dicreases
-does not change
?
578. In patients with deficiency of acetyltransferase side effects sulfonamides:
+increases
-dicreases
-does not change
?
579. Sulfanilamides cause hemolytic anemia which is characterized by the
deficiency of the following enzyme:
-acetyltransferase
+glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
-methemoglobin reductase
?
580. Sulfanilamides cause methemoglobinemia which is characterized by the
deficiency of the following enzyme:
-acetyltransferase
-glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
+methemoglobin reductase
?
581. Why does a long-term intake of phthalazolum leads to a deficiency of the
vitamins of B group?
-is antagonist of vitamins of B group
+inhibits the development of E. coli involved in the synthesis of vitamins of B
group
- prevents the absorption of vitamins of B group from the intestine
?
582. Trimethoprim antibacterial effect of sulfonamides:
+increases
-dicreases
-does not change
?
583. In combination with trimethoprim sulfonamides have such an effect:
+bactericidal action
-bacteriostatic action
?
584. The spectrum of the sulfonamides in combination with trimethoprim:
-expands
+does not change
?
585. Effectiveness of phthalazolum at intestinal infections increases by:
+tetracyclines
-biosynthetic penicillins
?
586. What are the rational combinations of the antibiotics:
+sulfonamides+trimetoptim
+sulfonamides+tetracyclines
+sulfonamides+laevomycetinum
-sulfonamides+folic acid
?
587. The antibacterial effect of sulfonamides in the local application in
combination with novocainum:
-increases
+dicreases
-does not change
?
588. Novocainum reduces the antibacterial effect sulfonamides because:
-forms with sulfonamides inactive compounds
+biotransformation of novocainum is accompanied by the formation of paraaminobenzoic acid
?
589. Mark the correct statements:
+phthalazolum is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
+sulfadimetoxine is taken 1-2 times a day
-urosulfanum causes crystalluria
-sulfacylum-natrium is used for treatment of intestinal infections
?
590. Mark the correct statements:
-sulfadimezinum is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
-sulfadimetoxine is not reabsorbed in the kidney
+aethazolum is taken 4-6 times a day
-phthalazolum is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
?
591. Mark the correct statements:
-sulfadimetoxine is not significantly associated with blood proteins
-sulfalene is taken 4-6 times a day
-sulfonamides can cause hearing loss and vestibular disorders
+sulfonamides have a broad spectrum of action
?
592. Mark the correct statements:
+sulfaslehe take1 time during 5-7 days
-aethazolum has bactericidal action
+PABA reduces effect of sulfacylum-natrium
-suldimezinum is long-acting drug
?
593. Mark the correct statements:
+aethazolum has broad spectrum of action
+phthalazolum is used for treatment of intestinal infections
-sulfadimethoxine is taken 4-6 times a day
+urosulfanum doesn`t cause crystalluria
?
594. Mark the correct statements:
-trimetoprim has bactericidal action
+sulfadimezinum has bacteriostatic action
+bactrim (sulfodimetaxazolum сул + trimetoprim) is more effective than
sulfonamides
+aethazolum causes crystalluria
?
595. Mark the correct statements:
+urosulfanum does not cause crystalluria
-aethazolum is taken 1-2 times a day
+sulfonamides cause allergic reactions
+bactrim has bactericidal action