NUR 216- NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT- SAS COMPILATION
SAS 1
1. Which of the following defines profession?
a. an occupation or calling
b. not requiring advanced training and experience in some specific body of knowledge
c. completion of basic nursing education program
d. provides service to society in all fields
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A professional nurse is a person who has completed basic nursing education program and
is licensed in his/her country
2. Which of the following is/are included in the criteria of a profession? SATA.
a. A profession must satisfy an indispensable social need and must be based upon well established and
socially accepted scientific principles.
b. It must demand the possession of a body of specialized and systematized training.
c. A profession has a clear standard of educational preparation for entry into practice.
d. It must have developed a scientific technique which is the result of tested experience.
ANSWER: A B D
RATIO: Choice C is a quality of a profession
3. All are cited as qualities of a profession, except.
a. It utilizes in its practice a well-defined and well-organized body of knowledge that is intellectual in nature
and describes its phenomena of concern.
b. A profession has a clear standard of educational preparation for entry into practice.
c. A profession is distinguished b the presence of specific culture, norms, and other values that are
common among its members.
d. Entrusts the education of its practitioners to institutions of higher education
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Although Choice D talks about profession stated by Genevieve K. and Roy W. Bixler but it
was not cited as a quality of a profession.
4. Who among the following cited and described the qualities of a profession?
a. Roy W. Bixler
b. Genevieve K.
c. Flexner
d. Webster
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Flexner cited and described the qualities of a profession
5. A professional nurse is:
a. A person who has completed a basic nursing education program
b. May or may not be licensed in his/her country
c. Distinguished by the presence of specific culture, norms, and other values
d. A member with lifelong obligations to remain current in order to “do no harm”
ANSWER: A
RATIO: A professional nurse is a person who has completed a basic nursing education program
and is licensed in his or her country to practice nursing profession.
6. The Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 is also known as:
a. R.A. 7164
b. R.A. 7146
c. R.A. 9173
d. R.A. 9137
ANSWER: C
RATIO: R.A. 7164 is the Philippine Nursing Act of 1991. RA 9173 is the Philippine Nursing Act of
2002.
7. The scope of nursing can be found in which section of the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002?
a. 6
b. 28
c. 27
d. 26
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Choice B is correct
8. The professional nurse must: SATA.
a. Have a license to practice nursing in the country;
b. Have a Bachelor of Science degree in Nursing; and
c. Be physically and mentally fit.
d. A warm personality and concern for people
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All the statements are correct
9. The two-year program curriculum is also known as.
a. Bachelor of Science in Nursing
b. Graduate in Nursing
c. Associate in Health Science Education (ASHE)
d. Practical Nursing Program
ANSWER: C
RATIO: BSN is a 4-year program course; Graduate in Nursing is a 3-year program course.
10. The BSN program intends to produce a professional nurse who demonstrates the following behaviors.
SATA:
a. Caring behavior (compassionate, competent and committed);
b. Ability to practice legal, ethico-moral, social responsibilities/accountabilities;
c. Critical and creative thinking; and
d. Skill in practicing S-K-A and values for the promotion of health, prevention of illness, restoration of
health, alleviation of suffering; assisting clients to face death with dignity and peace.
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All the statements are correct
SAS 2
1. Which of the following defines a license?
a. Record of names of persons
b. Recorded in a registry
c. A legal document given by the government
d. Mutuality in the grant and enjoyment of privileges between persons or nations
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A license is an official document which gives you permission to do, use, or own something.
2. Who is the appropriate authority to administer, implement, and enforce the regulatory policies of
government with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions?
a. Congress
b. President of the Philippines
c. Board of Nursing
d. PRC
ANSWER: B
RATIO: It was written on June 22, 1973 in the Presidential Decree No. 223 Section 5 about the
Powers of the Commission that the President of the Philippines will be the appropriate authority to
administer, implement, and enforce the regulatory policies of government with respect to the
regulation and licensing of the various professions.
3. Nurses’ names are recorder in a registry or registration book which contains the following information:
SATA
a. Place of business;
b. Post office address;
c. Name of school, college or university from which he or she graduated or in which he or she has studied;
d. Date of such graduation or term of study, together with the time spent in the study of the profession
elsewhere, if any
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All statements are correct
4. In what section of the RA 9173 was registration by reciprocity defined?
a. 20
b. 21
c. 13
d. 14
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Registration by Reciprocity is under in the Section 20 by R.A. 9173
5. In registration by reciprocity, how many years does the applicant needs to reside in the Philippines?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The applicant must reside in the Philippines for at least three consecutive years as provided
by RA 5181
6. Which of the following competencies is not included in the integrated comprehensive nursing licensure
examination?
a. Theoretical Foundations of Nursing
b. Maternal and Child Nursing
c. Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
d. Pharmacology and Therapeutics
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Five broad areas of nursing – Fundamentals of Nursing; Maternal and Child Nursing;
Community Health Nursing; Nursing of Adolescents, Adults, and Aged; and Mental Health and
Psychiatric Nursing including Physiology and Anatomy, Pharmacology and Therapeutics,
Microbiology and Diet Therapy.
7. This doctrine states that the nationality of a person is determined by the law of his descent or parentage?
a. Jus soli
b. Jos suli
c. Jus sanguinis
d. Jus sanguinos
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Jos soli doctrine determined about the law of the place that a person is born.
8. The schedule of mass oath-taking is within how many days upon the release of the results?
a. 2 years
b. 90 days
c. 15 days
d. 1 year
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Choice C is correct
9. What PRC resolutions requires professionals to have a total of 60 CPE credits before renewal of
license?
a. Article IV Section 1-5
b. PRC Resolution Number 2004-179 series of 2004
c. PRC Resolution Number 179-2004 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution Number 2002-179 series of 2002
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Entitled “Standardized guidelines and procedure for the implementation of the continuing
Professional education professionals”
10. The following are grounds for revocation/suspension of a professional’s license. SATA
a. For any of the causes mentioned in Section 22 of RA 7164;
b. For unprofessional and unethical conduct;
c. For gross incompetence or serious ignorance;
d. For malpractice or negligence in the practice of nursing;
ANSWER: B C D
RATIO: Choice A is incorrect; it must be the current Philippine Nursing Act of 2002.
SAS 3
1. Professional Regulation Commission was created by:
a. RA 8189
b. PD 223
c. PD 233
d. RA 8981
ANSWER: B
RATIO: PRC was created by PD 223 but is now repealed by RA 8981 “PRC Modernization Act of
2000”
2. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 is also known as:
a. RA 7164
b. RA 9173
c. RA 8981
d. RA 8189
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Choices A and B are the Philippine Nursing Act. Choice D is incorrect.
3. Which of the following is true regarding the composition of the Board of Nursing?
a. Composed of a Chairperson and six (6) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely,
nursing education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
b. Composed of a Chairperson and seven (7) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing,
namely, nursing education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
c. Composed of a Chairperson and five (5) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely,
nursing education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
d. Composed of a Chairperson and nine (9) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely,
nursing education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Choice A is correct
4. If the member of the Board was appointed to fill in a vacancy or perform the duties of an office during the
absence of a regular incumbent, he/she was appointed by:
a. Regular appointment
b. Ad Interim Appointment
c. Doctrine of Hold-over
d. None of the above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Regular appointment. The Philippine Nurses Association certifies for appointment to the
Nursing Board of the Professional Regulation Commission, twelve candidates who possess the
required qualifications. They are ranked accordingly. The list of the twelve certified nominee are
forwarded to the Commissioner of the Professional Regulation Commission for further screening.
The Commissioner, in turn, submits the first six from the list to the President of the Philippines. The
President appoints the board member. Such appointment is confirmed by the Commission in
Appointments.
Ad Interim appointment. A board member is appointed in the meantime to fill in a vacancy or
perform the duties of an office during the absence of the regular incumbent. There is no definite
term of appointment.
Doctrine of Hold-Over. In this instance, a member of the Nursing Board is permitted to continue to
exercise the functions of the office after the end of his/her lawful term until replaced.
5. A member of the Nursing Board is permitted to continue to exercise the functions of the office after the
end of his/her lawful term until replaced. This type of appointment is:
a. Regular appointment
b. Ad Interim Appointment
c. Doctrine of Hold-over
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Doctrine of Hold-Over. In this instance, a member of the Nursing Board is permitted to
continue to exercise the functions of the office after the end of his/her lawful term until replaced.
6. Who appoints the chairperson and members of the Nursing Board?
a. PRC
b. BON
c. Senators
d. President of the Philippines
ANSWER: D
RATIO: The President of the Philippines will be the one to appoint the Chairperson and the
members of the Nursing Board
7. Reappointment shall be subject to the provisions of:
a. PD 223
b. EO No. 469
c. EO No. 496
d. PD 233
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Reappointment shall be subject to the provisions of E.O. No. 496.
8. The following are the qualifications of the chairperson and members. SATA
a. a natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines
b. a member of good standing of the accredited professional organization of nurses
c. a registered nurse and holder of a master's degree in nursing, education or other allied medical
profession conferred by a college or university duly recognized by the Government, provided that the
Chairperson and majority of the Members must be holders of a master's degree in nursing
d. must have at least ten (10) years of continuous practice of the profession prior to appointment, the last
five (5) years of which must be in the Philippines
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All statements are correct
9. What refers to involvement of husband/wife, children, brothers/sisters, mother/father in any activity that
will conflict with
his/her position in the Board, particularly money matters?
a. Peculiary Interest
b. Pecuniary Interest
c. Peconiary Interest
d. Pecumiary Interest
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Pecuniary Interest refers to one’s interest in an estate that relates to money
10. The compensation of the Board members is base on what principle that means “as much as they
deserve”?
a. Subpoena ad testificandum
b. Subpoena duces tecum
c. Quantum meruit
d. All of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Subpoena ad testificandum is a writ summoning a witness to testify orally . Subpoena
duces tecum is to testify with documents.
SAS 4
1. Nursing in hospitals and related health facilities such as extended care facilities, nursing homes, and
neighborhood clinics, comprises all of the basic components of comprehensive patient care and family
health. This field of nursing is:
a. Hospital or Institutional Nursing
b. Public Health Nursing or Community Health Nursing
c. Industrial or Occupational Health Nursing
d. Nursing Education
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Nursing in hospitals and related health facilities such as extended care facilities, nursing
homes, and neighborhood clinics, comprises all of the basic components of comprehensive
patient care and family health. The concept of the modem hospital as a community health center
where in-patient and out-patient care are continuous describes the goal of medical care in most
general hospitals.
2. In what section of the RA 9173 are qualifications of nursing service administrators be found?
a.
28
b. 29
c. 31
d. 33
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Section 29 of RA 9173 specifies the qualifications of a person occupying supervisory or
managerial position requiring knowledge of nursing.
3. The beneficiaries of the comprehensive nursing specialty program are obligated to serve for how long in
any Philippine hospital?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The beneficiaries of Comprehensive Nursing Specialty Program are obliged to serve in any
Philippine hospital for a period of at least two (2) years of continuous service.
4. Public Health nursing refers to:
a. the practice of nursing in the 7 local, national and city health departments which include health
centers and public schools
b. nursing practice in a variety of roles, which at times include independent nursing practice
c. Both are correct
d. None are correct
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Public Health Nursing refers to the practice of nursing in the 7 local, national and city
health departments which include health centers and public schools. It is community health
nursing practice in the public sector. Option B refers to Community Health Nursing.
5. The following are the qualifications of Nursing Coordinator for Staff Development, except.
a. 2 years
clinical
experience
b. 4 years clinical experience
c. Master’s Degree
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Nursing Coordinators for Staff Development need to have at least four years of clinical
practice and research and a Master's Degree in Nursing.
6. Private duty nurses use the following titles: SATA
a. Private Nurse Practitioner
b. Special Duty Nurse
c. Private Duty Nurse Specialist
d. Caregivers
ANSWER: ABC
RATIO: Nurses in private practice are expected to be expert clinicians as well as expert generalists
in nursing. They use the title Private Duty Nurse, Private Nurse Practitioner, Special Duty Nurse or
Private Duty Nurse Specialist.
7. Private duty nurses should be an IV therapist certified by
a. PRC
b. BON
c. PNA
d. ANSAP
ANSWER: D
RATIO: A private nurse practitioner is required to show certification as an I.V. Therapist by the
ANSAP (Association of Nursing Service Administrators of the Philippines).
8. Which of the following should a dean in a college of nursing have?
a. 1 year of clinical practice in a field of specialization
b. Post-Master’s Degree
c. Doctoral Degree in Nursing
d. 5 years teaching experience
ANSWER: D
RATIO: A dean in a college of nursing should possess a Master's Degree in Nursing and must have
at least five (5) years of experience in teaching and supervision as per R.A. 9173. Those teaching at
the Graduate Programs for nurses must possess post-Master's Degree or a Doctoral Degree in
Nursing.
9. Who led the nursing of the sick and wounded Katipunan revolutionaries in 1890?
a. Elipido Quirino
b. Tandang Sora
c. Nurse Corps
d. Manuel Quezon
ANSWER: B
RATIO: When the famed Tandang Sora led the nursing of the sick and wounded Katipunan
revolutions in 1890, military nursing in the Philippines may be said to have begun.
10. The following are the responsibilities of a school nurse. SATA
a. organizing and implementing the school health program;
b. coordinating school health programs;
c. undertaking functions directly related to pupil's health;
d. evaluating school health programs
ANSWER: ABCD
RATIO: Some responsibilities of the school nurse are: organizing and implementing the school
health program; coordinating school health programs; undertaking functions directly related to
pupil's health; evaluating school health programs; and carrying out functions related to the health
of school personnel.
SAS 5
1. Which of the following is not a factor to consider in making self-evaluation?
a. Qualifications
b. Years of experience
c. Attitude
d. Age
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Options A, B, and D are factors needed to consider in making self-evaluation except C
2. The following are factors selecting a field of nursing. SATA.
a. Kind of work to be performed
b. Availability of work
c. Hours of work
d. Qualifications
ANSWER: A, B, C, D
RATIO: All options are factors in selecting a field of nursing
3. In writing you application, which of the following is the least helpful?
a. Use clean white paper
b. Use proper salutation
c. Enclose return postage
d. Use pencil in writing
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Using ink or pen in writing applications is ideal, it can also be typewritten.
4. An application letter contains the following, except.
a. Source and purpose
b. Expression of gratitude
c. Reference
d. A request for personal interview
ANSWER: B
RATIO: An application letter contains source and purpose, qualifications, reference, and a request
for personal interview. An expression of gratitude is not necessary.
5. Which of the following is true about personal interview?
a. Face-to-face conference between two people
b. Interview between an employer and an applicant
c. Give chance to assess each other
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: All statements are true about personal interview.
6.
Which of the following pointers is the least helpful to give applicant who will undergo interview?
a. Make a personal appointment
b. Be at the place at the appointed time
c. Be at your best
d. Ask questions about the job
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The Nursing Office or Personnel Division schedules time to conduct interview. It is
seldom that on-the-spot interviews are given. You cannot request for a personal appointment.
7.
If you are a female, which of the following is the most helpfutip when going for an interview?
a. Moderate to heavy make up
b. Any dress
c. Simple hairdo
d. Wear accessories that can catch the employer’s attention
ANSWER: C
RATIO: If you are a female, be neat, with a simple hairdo, moderate make-up, modest dress. Do
not appear as if you are going to a party.
8.
If you are a male, which of the following is the most helpful tip when going for an interview?
a. Make sure your clothes are clean
b. Have a decent haircut
c. Be well shaven
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: If you are a male, be sure your clothes are spotless and clean especially at the collar line.
Have a decent haircut and be well-shaven.
9. Causes of failure in a job may be due to the following, except.
a. Incompetence
b. Dishonesty
c. Balance time for relaxation and recreation
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Causes of failure in a job may be due to all of the following, except C.
10. When writing your resignation letter, observe the following points. SATA
a. Give the date of resignation
b. State the reason for resigning
c. Express gratitude for kindness and consideration given during the period of
employment
d. Attach clearance for money
ANSWER: A, B, C, D
RATIO: All of the following should be observed when writing a resignation letter.
SAS 6
1. This is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the other, to
give something or to render some service.
a. Agreement
b. Memorandum
c. Contract
d. Law
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Agreement is a harmony or accordance in opinion or feeling; Law is a negotiated and
typically legally binding arrangement between parties as to a course of action; Memorandum is a a
written message in business or diplomacy.
2. A contract that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which the law ascribes an
objective intention to enter into a contract.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: D
RATIO: A formal contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in
writing by some special laws. Examples are marriage contracts, mortgages, deeds of sale or work
contracts.
An informal contract is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or
correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as the result of oral
and spoken discussion between the parties or conduct between the parties, evidence and intention
to contract.
An express contract is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in
writing by the parties concerned.' An example of this is usually found in formal contracts wherein
the kind of services offered, salary, date and time of effectivity including fringe benefits, if any, are
specified. If a private duty nurse is asked by a physician to go on special duty for his patient and
the patient himself and his relatives do j not object to the service, it is implied that the private duty
nurse will be paid under the doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."
An implied contract is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which
the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.' To avoid subsequent problems,
nurses are advised to clarify the terms and conditions of employment before assumption of work
with the prospective employer.
3. This the type of contract in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in writing by
the parties concerned.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A formal contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in
writing by some special laws. Examples are marriage contracts, mortgages, deeds of sale or work
contracts.
An informal contract is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or
correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as the result of oral
and spoken discussion between the parties or conduct between the parties, evidence and intention
to contract.
An express contract is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in
writing by the parties concerned.' An example of this is usually found in formal contracts wherein
the kind of services offered, salary, date and time of effectivity including fringe benefits, if any, are
specified. If a private duty nurse is asked by a physician to go on special duty for his patient and
the patient himself and his relatives do j not object to the service, it is implied that the private duty
nurse will be paid under the doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."
An implied contract is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which
the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.' To avoid subsequent problems,
nurses are advised to clarify the terms and conditions of employment before assumption of work
with the prospective employer.
4. The doctrine “facio ut des” means
a. I do that you may give
b. I give that you may do
c. I receive what I deserve
d. I deserve what I receive
ANSWER: A
RATIO: If a private duty nurse is asked by a physician to go on special duty for his patient and the
patient himself and his relatives do j not object to the service, it is implied that the private duty
nurse will be paid under the doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."
5. What contract is concluded as the result of a written document or correspondence where the law does
not require the same to be in writing?
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: B
RATIO: A formal contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in
writing by some special laws. Examples are marriage contracts, mortgages, deeds of sale or work
contracts.
An informal contract is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or
correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as the result of oral
and spoken discussion between the parties or conduct between the parties, evidence and intention
to contract.
An express contract is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in
writing by the parties concerned.' An example of this is usually found in formal contracts wherein
the kind of services offered, salary, date and time of effectivity including fringe benefits, if any, are
specified. If a private duty nurse is asked by a physician to go on special duty for his patient and
the patient himself and his relatives do j not object to the service, it is implied that the private duty
nurse will be paid under the doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."
An implied contract is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which
the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.' To avoid subsequent problems,
nurses are advised to clarify the terms and conditions of employment before assumption of work
with the prospective employer.
6. This contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in writing by some
special laws.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: A
RATIO: A formal contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in
writing by some special laws. Examples are marriage contracts, mortgages, deeds of sale or work
contracts.
An informal contract is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or
correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as the result of oral
and spoken discussion between the parties or conduct between the parties, evidence and intention
to contract.
An express contract is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in
writing by the parties concerned.' An example of this is usually found in formal contracts wherein
the kind of services offered, salary, date and time of effectivity including fringe benefits, if any, are
specified. If a private duty nurse is asked by a physician to go on special duty for his patient and
the patient himself and his relatives do j not object to the service, it is implied that the private duty
nurse will be paid under the doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."
An implied contract is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which
the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.' To avoid subsequent problems,
nurses are advised to clarify the terms and conditions of employment before assumption of work
with the prospective employer.
7. What contract is expressly prohibited by law?
a. Formal contract
b. Illegal contract
c. Void contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Illegal contract is one that is expressly prohibited by law.
8. This contract is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be enforced.
a. Formal contract
b. Illegal contract
c. Void contract
d. Implied contract
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A void contract is one that is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be
enforced.
9. The following contracts are void or inexistent from the beginning. SATA
a. Those whose cause, object or purpose are contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public
policy.
b. Those whose cause or object did not exist from the time of transaction.
c. Those whose object is outside the commerce of man.
d. Those which contemplate an impossible service.
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All statements are correct
10. A failure to perform an agreement
a. Inexistent contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Illegal contract
d. Breach of contract
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Choice D is the correct answer.
SAS 7
1. Ethics came from this word which means moral duty:
a. Eros
b. Etos
c. Ethos
d. Ehos
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Choice C is the correct answer
2. What ethical approach focuses primarily on the heart of the person performing the act?
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Teleology comes from the Greek word telos or "goal or end." This is expressed in the
maxim, "the right thing to do is the good thing to do."
Deontology came from the Greek word deon which means duty. In this theory, the ethicist feels that
the basic rightness or wrongness of an act depends on the intrinsic nature rather than upon the
situation or its consequences.
Virtue ethics, known as aretaic ethics (from the Greek word arete), is focused primarily on the heart
of the person performing the act.
Divine command ethics is based on the theory that there is a Supreme or Divine being that sets
down the rules to provide guidance to moral decisions.
3. During the pandemic, nurses caring for Covid-19 patients despite the risks is an example based on what
ethical approach?
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Teleology comes from the Greek word telos or "goal or end." This is expressed in the
maxim, "the right thing to do is the good thing to do."
Deontology came from the Greek word deon which means duty. In this theory, the ethicist feels that
the basic rightness or wrongness of an act depends on the intrinsic nature rather than upon the
situation or its consequences.
Virtue ethics, known as aretaic ethics (from the Greek word arete), is focused primarily on the heart
of the person performing the act.
Divine command ethics is based on the theory that there is a Supreme or Divine being that sets
down the rules to provide guidance to moral decisions.
4. This approach is expressed in the maxim, “the right thing to do is the good thing to do”:
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Teleology comes from the Greek word telos or "goal or end." This is expressed in the
maxim, "the right thing to do is the good thing to do."
Deontology came from the Greek word deon which means duty. In this theory, the ethicist feels that
the basic rightness or wrongness of an act depends on the intrinsic nature rather than upon the
situation or its consequences.
Virtue ethics, known as aretaic ethics (from the Greek word arete), is focused primarily on the heart
of the person performing the act.
Divine command ethics is based on the theory that there is a Supreme or Divine being that sets
down the rules to provide guidance to moral decisions.
5. In healthcare, this refers to the right to demand, to be treated justly, fairly and equally:
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Justice
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning
governance. It involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision,
free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.
In Veracity, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth.
The principle of Beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
Justice in healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
6. This is stated as an admonition in the negative form to remind health practitioners to do no harm:
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning
governance. It involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision,
free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.
In Veracity, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth.
The principle of Beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
Justice in healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
7. This refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient:
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
ANSWER: A
RATIO: -Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning
governance. It involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision,
free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.
-In Veracity, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth.
-The principle of Beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
-Justice in healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
-The principle of Nonmaleficence is similar to the principle of beneficence. The distinction lies in
the fact that the principle of beneficence is stated in a positive form while nonmaleficence is stated
as an admonition in the negative form to remind health practitioners to do no harm.
8. When the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth to maximize the efficiency of
healthcare, this principle is:
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Justice
d. Beneficence
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning
governance. It involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision,
free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.
In Veracity, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth.
The principle of Beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
Justice in healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
9. This principle involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision, free
from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion:
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Justice
d. Beneficence
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning
governance. It involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision,
free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.
In Veracity, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth.
The principle of Beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
Justice in healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
10. The Senior Citizens Act is known as:
a. RA 7423
b. RA 3274
c. RA 7432
d. RA 4732
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Republic Act 7432 called the Senior Citizens Act, gives honor and justice to the elderly by
giving 20 percent discount in public establishments such as restaurants, and pharmacies; public
utility vehicles; and hospitals including free medical and dental check-up and free hospitalization in
all government hospitals.
SAS 8
1. “Exception to the general rule” refers to what moral principle?
a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
ANSWER: A
RATIO: In Epikia ther is an"Exception to the general rule." It is a reasonable presumption that the
authority making the law will not wish to bind a person in some particular case, even though the
case is covered by the letter of the law.
In Golden Rule, God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you." Since nurses
like others to treat them kindly and with respect, they should be willing to do the same to others
too.
The Two fold Effect happen when a nurse faced a situation which may have both good and bad
effects
In Principle of Totality the whole is greater than any of its parts.
2. God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you." This moral principle is
a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
ANSWER: B
RATIO: In Epikia ther is an"Exception to the general rule." It is a reasonable presumption that the
authority making the law will not wish to bind a person in some particular case, even though the
case is covered by the letter of the law.
In Golden Rule, God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you." Since nurses
like others to treat them kindly and with respect, they should be willing to do the same to others
too.
The Two fold Effect happen when a nurse faced a situation which may have both good and bad
effects
In Principle of Totality the whole is greater than any of its parts.
3. The whole is greater than any of its parts. Refers to
a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
ANSWER: D
RATIO: In Epikia ther is an"Exception to the general rule." It is a reasonable presumption that the
authority making the law will not wish to bind a person in some particular case, even though the
case is covered by the letter of the law.
In Golden Rule, God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you." Since nurses
like others to treat them kindly and with respect, they should be willing to do the same to others
too.
The Two fold Effect happen when a nurse faced a situation which may have both good and bad
effects
In Principle of Totality the whole is greater than any of its parts.
4. When a nurse is faced with a situation which may have both good and bad effects, how should she
choose which one to follow? The basis of action may be the following: SATA
a. that the action must be morally good;
b. that the good effect must be merely allowed and willed the bad effect;
c. that the good effect must not come from an evil action but from the initial action itself directly; and
d. that the good effect must be greater than the bad effect
ANSWER: A C D
RATIO: In choice B, it must be that the good effect be willed and the bad effect be merely allowed.
5. Giving a sleeping tablet to a chronically ill person so he/she can die in peace is morally wrong. This is
based on the principle
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Giving a sleeping tablet to a chronically ill person so he/she can die in peace is morally
wrong. This is based on the principle of “The end does not justify the means.”
6. Patients with a harelip or cleft palate may have their defects corrected by plastic surgery. This is stated in
what moral principle?
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Choice D is correct
7. In testifying before a court, no one can force any person to answer a question if such will incriminate
him/her. This is supported by the moral principle.
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Choice B is correct
8. During an epidemic, immunization against communicable diseases is administered to the people. This is
based on the moral principle
a. The greatest good for the greatest number.
b. A little more or less does not change the substance of an act.
c. The morality of cooperation
d. Principle relating to the origin and destruction of life.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Choice A is correct
9. Immoral operations such as abortion shall not be participated upon by a nurse even if the doctor
commands it. This is stated on the moral principle
a. The greatest good for the greatest number.
b. A little more or less does not change the substance of an act.
c. The morality of cooperation
d. Principle relating to the origin and destruction of life.
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Immoral operations such as abortion shall not be participated upon by a nurse even if the
doctor commands it. This is stated on the moral principle of morality of cooperation.
10. This is based on the biblical story of a man who aided an injured person who was waylaid by thieves
and was left half-dead.
a. Good Samaritan Act
b. Euthanasia
c. Dying patient’s bill of rights
d. Christian Nurse’s duty
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The Good Samaritan Act is based on the biblical story of a man who aided an injured
person who was waylaid by thieves and was left half-dead. The Samaritan took care of him with
compassion, bound up his wounds, brought him to an inn, and took care of him." Jesus told the
story of the good Samaritan to illustrate how we can love our neighbors.
SAS 9
1. These are systematic guides for developing ethical behavior:
a. Code of morality
b. Code of ethics
c. Moral principles
d. Ethical principles
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Codes of Ethics are systematic guides for developing ethical behavior. They answer
normative questions of what beliefs and values should be morally accepted. It should be noted,
however, that no code could possibly provide absolute or complete rules that are free from
conflict and ambiguity.
2. The Code of Good Governance promulgated by the Professional Regulation Commission on:
a. June 23, 2003
b. July 23, 2003
c. October 25, 1990
d. July 14, 2004
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The Code of Good Governance promulgated by the Professional Regulation
Commission on July 23, 2003 states that the hallmark of all professionals is their willingness to
accept a set of professional and ethical principles which they will follow in the conduct of their
daily lives.
3. The general principles of the Code of Good Governance include the following: SATA
a. Service to Others
b. Integrity and Observance
c. Professional Competence
d. Solidarity and Teamwork
ANSWER: A,C,D.
RATIO: Option A: Service to Others. This implies a commitment to a life of sacrifice and genuine
selflessness in carrying out their professional duties even at the expense of personal gain. Option
B: Integrity and Objectivity. Professionals should perform their responsibilities with the highest
sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and spiritual values. They should maintain
objectivity, be free from conflicts of interest, refrain from engaging in any activity that would
prejudice their abilities to ethically carry out their duties nor make any representations that would
likely cause a reasonable person to misunderstand and be deceived. Option C: Professional
Competence. A certain level of competence is necessary, i.e., knowledge, technical skills, attitudes
and experience, in undertaking only those professional services they can reasonably deliver. It is
their express obligation to keep up with new knowledge and techniques in their field and upgrade
their level of competence, part of a lifelong continuing education program. Option D: Solidarity and
Teamwork. Each professional shall maintain and support one professional organization that
promotes a deep spirit of solidarity and teamwork among its members.
4. Registered Nurses and Practice is:
a. Article I
b. Article II
c. Article III
d. Article IV
ANSWER: C
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT
ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
5. Article I is:
a. The Preamble
b. Registered Nurses and Practice
c. Registered Nurses and People
d. Registered Nurses and Co-Workers
ANSWER: A
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT
ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
6. Article 5 is:
a. Registered Nurses and People
b. Registered Nurses and Practice
c. Registered Nurses and Co-workers
d. Registered Nurses, Society, and Environment
ANSWER: D
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT
ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
7. Registered Nurses and People is:
a. Article I
b. Article II
c. Article III
d. Article IV
ANSWER: B
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT
ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
8. Registered Nurses and the Profession is:
a. Article IV
b. Article V
c. Article VI
d. Article VII
ANSWER: C
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT
ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
9. Administrative Penalties, Repealing Clause and Effectivity:
a. Article IV
b. Article V
c. Article VI
d. Article VII
ANSWER: D.
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED
NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
10. Registered Nurses and Co-workers is:
a. Article IV
b. Article V
c. Article VI
d. Article VII
ANSWER: C
RATIO: ARTICLE I -PREAMBLE
ARTICLE II-REGISTERED NURSES AND PEOPLE
ARTICLE III- REGISTERED NURSES AND PRACTICE
ARTICLE IV-REGISTERED NURSES AND CO-WORKERS
ARTICLE V- REGISTERED NURSES, SOCIETY, AND ENVIRONMENT ARTICLE VI- REGISTERED
NURSES AND THE PROFESSION
ARTICLE VII-ADMINISTRATIVE PENALTIES, REPEALING CLAUSE AND EFFECTIVITY
SAS 10
1. The first law that had to do with the practice of nursing was:
a. Act No. 2493 of 1915
b. Act 2808
c. RA 877
d. RA 4704
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The first law that had to do with the practice of nursing was Act No. 2493 of 1915, which
regulated the practice of medicine. This act provided for the examination and registration of nurses
in the Philippine Islands.
2. The Philippine Nursing Law is also known as:
a. RA 7164
b. RA 9173
c. Act No. 2493 of 1915
d. RA 877
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Congress enacted The Philippine Nursing Law, otherwise known as Republic Act 877, on
June 19, 1953.
3. Republic Act 7164 was introduced by:
a. Senator Heherson Alvarez
b. Senator Edgardo Angara
c. Pres. Corazon C. Aquino
d. Pres. Rodrigo Duterte
A.
Republic Act 7164, introduced by Senator Heherson Alvarez, codified and revised all the
laws regulating the practice of nursing in the Philippines. It was known as the Philippine Nursing
Act of 1991 which included the following changes.
4. Dangerous Drug Act is known as:
a. RA 2382
b. RA 5181
c. PD 541
d. RA 6425
ANSWER: D
RATIO: In 1972, Republic Act 6425 known as the Dangerous Drugs Act was passed. Article II,
Section 4 states that sale,
administration, delivery, distribution, and transportation of prohibited drugs are punishable by law.
5. This act prescribes permanent residence and reciprocity as qualifications for any examination or
registration for the practice of any profession in the Philippines:
a. RA 2382
b. RA 5181
c. PD 541
d. RA 6425
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Republic Act 5181. This act prescribes permanent residence and reciprocity as
qualifications for any examination or registration for the practice of any profession in the
Philippines.
6. Provides penalty for improper disposal of garbage and other forms of uncleanliness:
a. PD 996
b. PD 825
c. PD 856
d. PD 148
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Presidential Decree 825 provides penalty for improper disposal of garbage and other forms
of
uncleanliness.
7.
Requires compulsory immunization for all children below eight years of age against communicable
diseases:
a. PD 996
b. PD 825
c. PD 856
d. PD 148
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Presidential Decree 996 requires compulsory immunization for all children below eight
years of age against communicable diseases. Circular No. 14 of 1965 requires health examination
and immunization of all prospective Grade I pupils against smallpox, diphtheria and tuberculosis as
a pre-requisite for enrolment.
8. States that the employable age shall be 16 years:
a. PD 996
b. PD 825
c. PD 856
d. PD 148
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Presidential Decree No. 148 amending R.A. 679 (Woman and Child Labor Law), states
that the employable age shall be 16 years. This decree provides for the minimum employable
age and for privileges of working women.
9. Provides penalty for improper disposal of garbage and other forms of uncleanliness:
a. PD 996
b. PD 825
c. PD 856
d. PD 148
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Presidential Decree 825 provides penalty for improper disposal of garbage and
other forms of uncleanliness.
10. Limits paid maternity leave privileges to four children:
a. PD 791
b. PD 166
c. PD 148
d. PD 48
D. Presidential Decree No. 48 limits paid maternity leave privileges to four children.
SAS 11
1. Limits the number of children to four (4) for tax exemption purposes:
a. PD 69
b. PD 965
c. RA 1054
d. RA 4226
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Presidential Decree No. 69 limits the number of children to four (4) for tax exemption
purposes. Presidential Decree No. 965 requires that couples intending to get married must first
undergo a family planning and responsible parenthood instruction prior to the issuance of a
marriage license. Republic Act No. 1054 requires the owner, lessee or operator of any commercial,
industrial or agricultural establishment to furnish free emergency, medical and dental attendance
to his employees and laborers. Republic Act 4226, known as the Hospital Licensure Act, requires
all hospitals in the Philippines to be licensed before they can offer to serve the community. The
licensing agency is the Office for Hospital and Medical Services, Department of Health.
2. Requires the owner, lessee or operator of any commercial, industrial or agricultural establishment to
furnish free emergency, medical and dental attendance to his employees and laborers:
a. PD 69
b. PD 965
c. RA 1054
d. RA 4226
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Presidential Decree No. 69 limits the number of children to four (4) for tax exemption
purposes. Presidential Decree No. 965 requires that couples intending to get married must first
undergo a family planning and responsible parenthood instruction prior to the issuance of a
marriage license. Republic Act No. 1054 requires the owner, lessee or operator of any commercial,
industrial or agricultural establishment to furnish free emergency, medical and dental attendance
to his employees and laborers. Republic Act 4226, known as the Hospital Licensure Act, requires
all hospitals in the Philippines to be licensed before they can offer to serve the community. The
licensing agency is the Office for Hospital and Medical Services, Department of Health.
3. Requires that couples intending to get married must first undergo a family planning and responsible
parenthood instruction prior to the issuance of a marriage license:
a. PD 69
b. PD 965
c. RA 1054
d. RA 4226
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Presidential Decree No. 69 limits the number of children to four (4) for tax exemption
purposes. Presidential Decree No. 965 requires that couples intending to get married must first
undergo a family planning and responsible parenthood instruction prior to the issuance of a
marriage license. Republic Act No. 1054 requires the owner, lessee or operator of any commercial,
industrial or agricultural establishment to furnish free emergency, medical and dental attendance
to his employees and laborers. Republic Act 4226, known as the Hospital Licensure Act, requires
all hospitals in the Philippines to be licensed before they can offer to serve the community. The
licensing agency is the Office for Hospital and Medical Services, Department of Health.
4. Known as the Hospital Licensure Act:
a. PD 69
b. PD 965
c. RA 1054
d. RA 4226
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Presidential Decree No. 69 limits the number of children to four (4) for tax exemption
purposes. Presidential Decree No. 965 requires that couples intending to get married must first
undergo a family planning and responsible parenthood instruction prior to the issuance of a
marriage license. Republic Act No. 1054 requires the owner, lessee or operator of any commercial,
industrial or agricultural establishment to furnish free emergency, medical and dental attendance
to his employees and laborers. Republic Act 4226, known as the Hospital Licensure Act, requires
all hospitals in the Philippines to be licensed before they can offer to serve the community. The
licensing agency is the Office for Hospital and Medical Services, Department of Health.
5. Promulgated the guidelines for the implementation of a Specialty Certification:
a. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14
b. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166
c. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004
ANSWER: A
RATIO: PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14 Feb. 8, 1999 promulgated the guidelines for the
implementation of a Specialty Certification. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166 amended the filing
of application of various licensure examinations in the regional offices from twenty (20) days to
thirty (30) days before the first day of examination to give sufficient time for the Boards in Charge
in the Central Office to tally the report, review the qualifications, check the completeness and
accuracy of the documents thereby ensuring strict compliance with the "no deferent" policy. PRC
Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004 - requires applicants in the licensure
examination to submit transcript of records with scanned pictures and with the remarks "For
Board Examination Purposes only." PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004 - forfeits the
examination fees paid by the examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled examination.
6. Amended the filing of application of various licensure examinations in the regional offices from twenty
(20) days to thirty (30) days before the first day of examination:
a. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14
b. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166
c. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004
ANSWER: B
RATIO: PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14 Feb. 8, 1999 promulgated the guidelines for the
implementation of a Specialty Certification. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166 amended the filing
of application of various licensure examinations in the regional offices from twenty (20) days to
thirty (30) days before the first day of examination to give sufficient time for the Boards in Charge
in the Central Office to tally the report, review the qualifications, check the completeness and
accuracy of the documents thereby ensuring strict compliance with the "no deferent" policy. PRC
Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004 - requires applicants in the licensure
examination to submit transcript of records with scanned pictures and with the remarks "For
Board Examination Purposes only." PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004 - forfeits the
examination fees paid by the examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled examination.
7. Re-implemented continuing Professional Education requiring sixty (60) credit units for three (3) years for
professionals with bachelor's degree:
a. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14
b. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166
c. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution No. 2004-17 series of 2004
ANSWER: D
RATIO: PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14 Feb. 8, 1999 promulgated the guidelines for the
implementation of a Specialty Certification. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166 amended the filing
of application of various licensure examinations in the regional offices from twenty (20) days to
thirty (30) days before the first day of examination to give sufficient time for the Boards in Charge
in the Central Office to tally the report, review the qualifications, check the completeness and
accuracy of the documents thereby ensuring strict compliance with the "no deferent" policy. PRC
Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004 - requires applicants in the licensure
examination to submit transcript of records with scanned pictures and with the remarks "For
Board Examination Purposes only." PRC Resolution No. 2004-17 Series of 2004 re-implemented
continuing Professional Education requiring sixty (60) credit units for three (3) years for
professionals with bachelor's degree. Any excess unit earned cannot be carried on to the next
three-year period except for units earned for doctoral and master's degrees. The total CPE units
for registered professionals without baccalaureate degrees shall be thirty (30) units for three (3)
years Any excess shall not be carried on to the next three-year period.
8. Forfeits the examination fees paid by the examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled
examination:
a. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14
b. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166
c. PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004
ANSWER: D
RATIO: PRC Board of Nursing Resolution No. 14 Feb. 8, 1999 promulgated the guidelines for the
implementation of a Specialty Certification. PRC Board Resolution No. 2003-166 amended the filing
of application of various licensure examinations in the regional offices from twenty (20) days to
thirty (30) days before the first day of examination to give sufficient time for the Boards in Charge
in the Central Office to tally the report, review the qualifications, check the completeness and
accuracy of the documents thereby ensuring strict compliance with the "no deferent" policy. PRC
Board of Nursing Resolution No. 2004-200 series of 2004 - requires applicants in the licensure
examination to submit transcript of records with scanned pictures and with the remarks "For
Board Examination Purposes only." PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004 - forfeits the
examination fees paid by the examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled examination.
9. Series prohibits higher education institutions from forcing their students and graduating students to
enrol in their own
review centers and/or review centers of their own preferences:
a. PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004
b. Executive Order No. 566 Sept. 8, 2006
c. CHED Memorandum Order No. 49 series of 2006
d. CHED Memorandum Order No. 13
ANSWER: D
RATIO: PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004 - forfeits the examination fees paid by the
examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled examination. Executive Order No. 566 Sept.
8, 2006 directs the Commission on Higher Education to regulate the establishment and operation
of review centers and similar entities. CHED Memorandum Order No. 49 series of 2006 implements
the rules and regulations governing the operation of review centers pursuant to Executive Order
266. CHED Memorandum Order No. 13 - series prohibits higher education institutions from forcing
their students and graduating students to enrol in their own review centers and/or review centers
of their own preferences.
10. Implements the rules and regulations governing the operation of review centers pursuant to Executive
Order 266:
a. PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004
b. Executive Order No. 566 Sept. 8, 2006
c. CHED Memorandum Order No. 49 series of 2006
d. CHED Memorandum Order No. 13
ANSWER: C
RATIO: PRC Resolution No. 2004-189 series of 2004 - forfeits the examination fees paid by the
examinee who failed to report and take the scheduled examination. Executive Order No. 566 Sept.
8, 2006 directs the Commission on Higher Education to regulate the establishment and operation
of review centers and similar entities. CHED Memorandum Order No. 49 series of 2006 implements
the rules and regulations governing the operation of review centers pursuant to Executive Order
266. CHED Memorandum Order No. 13 - series prohibits higher education institutions from forcing
their students and graduating students to enrol in their own review centers and/or review centers
of their own preferences.
SAS 12
1. The elements of professional negligence are the following. SATA
a. existence of a duty on the part of the person charged to use due care under
circumstances
b. failure to meet the standard of due care
c. the foreseeability of harm resulting from failure to meet the standard
d. the fact that the breach of this standard did not result in an injury to the plaintiff.
ANSWER: A,B,C
RATIO: The elements of professional negligence therefore are (1) existence of a duty on the part of
the person charged to use due care under circumstances, (2) failure to meet the standard of due
care, (3) the foreseeability of harm resulting from failure to meet the standard, and (4) the fact that
the breach of this standard resulted in an injury to the plaintiff.
2. Which of the following is not an example of negligence?
a. Failure to report observations to attending physicians.
b. Mistaken identity.
c. Errors due to family assistance.
d. None of the above
ANSWER:
RATIO:
3. The doctrine that means “the thing speaks for itself”.
a. Res Ipsa Loquitur
b. Res Ipsa Loquitor
c. Respondeat Superior
d. Force Majeure
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Res Ipsa Loquitur means "the thing speaks for itself”. This means that the injury could not
have happened if someone was not negligent that no further proof is required.
4. The term for negligence or carelessness of professional personnel.
a. Negligence
b. Incompetence
c. Malpractice
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Malpractice is the term for negligence or carelessness of professional personnel. To
determine what is and what is not careless, the law has developed a standard of care which can be
determined by deciding what a reasonably prudent person would do under similar circumstances.
5. This means an irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable.
a. Res Ipsa Loquitur
b. Res Ipsa Loquitor
c. Respondeat Superior
d. Force Majeure
ANSWER: D
RATIO: The term "force majeure" means an irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable.
6. The term means "let the master answer for the acts of the subordinate."
a. Res Ipsa Loquitur
b. Res Ipsa Loquitor
c. Respondeat Superior
d. Force Majeure
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The term respondeat superior means "let the master answer for the acts of the
subordinate." Under this doctrine, the liability is expanded to include the master as well as the
employee and not a shift of liability from the subordinate to the master.
7. This is the lack of ability, or legal qualifications and being unfit to discharge the required duty."
a. Negligence
b. Incompetence
c. Malpractice
d. None of the above ‘
ANSWER: B
RATIO:Incompetence is the lack of ability, or legal qualifications and being unfit to discharge the
required duty. Although a nurse is registered, if in the performance of her duty she manifests
incompetency, there is ground for revocation or suspension of her certificate of registration.
8. What law states that "in the administration of intravenous injections, special training shall be required
according to protocol established."
a. Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 Section 21
b. Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 Section 30
c. Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 Section 28
d. Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 Section 20
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Nurses must remember that their legal right to give intravenous injection is based on the
Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 Section 28 which states that "in the administration of intravenous
injections, special training shall be required according to protocol established.
9. When taking a telephone order, which of the following if the least helpful?
a. The nurse should read back the physician’s order.
b. The physician must sign the order on his/her next visit within 48 hours.
c. The nurse should sign the name of physician per her own and note the time the order was received.
d. When a telephone order is being given there should be another resident physician or intern in the same
service to receive it.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Only in an extreme emergency and when no other resident or intern is available should a
nurse receive telephone orders. The nurse should read back such order to the physician to make
certain the order has been correctly received and written on the patients' chart. Such order should
be signed by the physician on his/her next visit within 24 hours. The nurse should sign the name of
physician per her own and note the time the order was received. Should any problem arise, the
order should be referred back to the ordering physician. It is safer that when a telephone order is
given, another resident physician or intern in the same service receive it since the latter can
discuss with the former the actual condition of the patient.
10. The essential elements of informed consent include the following. SATA
a. the diagnosis and explanation of the condition
b. a fair explanation of the procedures to be done and used and the consequences
c. a description of alternative treatments or procedures
d. a description of the benefits to be expected
ANSWER: A,B,C,D
RATIO:The essential elements of informed consent include (1) the diagnosis and explanation of the
condition; (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be done and used and the consequences; (3) a
description of alternative treatments or procedures; (4) a description of the benefits to be
expected; (5) material rights if any; and (6) the prognosis, if the recommended care, procedure, is
refused.
SAS 13
1. It serves as a legal protection for the hospital, doctor, and nurse by reflecting the disease or condition of
the patient and his management.
a. Medical Records
b. Consent
c. Advance Directives
d. Will
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Other than it serves as a legal protection, This also record illness and treatment, it
saves duplication in future cases and aids in prompt treatment. The record supplies rich material
for medical and nursing research. A will is a legal declaration of a person's intentions upon death. It
is called a testamentary document because it takes effect after the death of its maker. Consent is a
permission for something to happen or agreement to do something. Advance directives are legal
documents that allow you to spell out your decisions about end-of-life care ahead of time.
2. Who testifies that the patients' records are kept and protected from unauthorized handling and change?
a. Physician
b. Nurse
c. Administrator
d. Medical Records Librarian
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Nurses are responsible for safeguarding the patient's record from loss or destruction
or from access by persons who are not legally authorized to read such.
3. A legal wrong, committed against a person or property independent of a contract which renders the
person who commits it liable for damages in a civil action.
a. Crime
b. Tort
c. Malpractice
d. Negligence
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Crime is defined as an act committed or omitted in violation of the law. Medical
malpractice is the breach of the duty of care by a medical provider or medical facility. ... Medical
negligence applies when a medical provider makes a “mistake” in treating patient and that mistake
results in harm to the patient.
4. Is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact.
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False Imprisonment
d. Invasion of Right to Privacy
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Assault is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact. It is unjustifiable
to touch another person, or to threaten to do so in such circumstances as to cause the other to
reasonably believe that it will be carried out.
Battery is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person. It is, therefore, important that
before a patient can be touched, examined, treated or subjected to medical/surgical procedures, he
must have given a consent to this effect. If consent has not been secured, the person performing
the procedure may be liable for battery.
False imprisonment means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within
boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such
confinement.
The right to privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and
exposure to public view as well as the right to live one's life without having anyone's name, picture
or private affairs made public against one's will.
5. An intentional, unconsented touching of another person.
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False Imprisonment
d. Invasion of Right to Privacy
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Assault is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact. It is unjustifiable
to touch another person, or to threaten to do so in such circumstances as to cause the other to
reasonably believe that it will be carried out.
Battery is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person. It is, therefore, important that
before a patient can be touched, examined, treated or subjected to medical/surgical procedures, he
must have given a consent to this effect. If consent has not been secured, the person performing
the procedure may be liable for battery.
False imprisonment means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within
boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such
confinement.
The right to privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and
exposure to public view as well as the right to live one's life without having anyone's name, picture
or private affairs made public against one's will.
6. This means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within boundaries fixed by the
defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such confinement.
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False Imprisonment
d. Invasion of Right to Privacy
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Assault is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact. It is unjustifiable
to touch another person, or to threaten to do so in such circumstances as to cause the other to
reasonably believe that it will be carried out.
Battery is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person. It is, therefore, important that
before a patient can be touched, examined, treated or subjected to medical/surgical procedures, he
must have given a consent to this effect. If consent has not been secured, the person performing
the procedure may be liable for battery.
False imprisonment means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within
boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such
confinement.
The right to privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and
exposure to public view as well as the right to live one's life without having anyone's name, picture
or private affairs made public against one's will.
7. The right to privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and
exposure to public view as well as the right to live one's life without having anyone's name, picture or
private affairs made public against one's will.
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. False Imprisonment
d. Invasion of Right to Privacy
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Assault is the imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact. It is unjustifiable
to touch another person, or to threaten to do so in such circumstances as to cause the other to
reasonably believe that it will be carried out.
Battery is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person. It is, therefore, important that
before a patient can be touched, examined, treated or subjected to medical/surgical procedures, he
must have given a consent to this effect. If consent has not been secured, the person performing
the procedure may be liable for battery.
False imprisonment means the unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within
boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such
confinement.
The right to privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and
exposure to public view as well as the right to live one's life without having anyone's name, picture
or private affairs made public against one's will.
8. This is oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his reputation is
damaged.
a. Grapevine
b. Libel
c. Slander
d. Bullying
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Grapevine is used to refer to the circulation of rumors and unofficial information.
Slander is an oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his
reputation is damaged.
Libel is the defamation by written words, cartoons or such representations that cause a person to
be avoided, ridiculed or held in contempt or tend to injure him in his work.
Bullying seeks to harm, intimidate, or coerce.
9. Is the defamation by written words, cartoons or such representations that cause a person to be avoided,
ridiculed or held in contempt or tend to injure him in his work.
a. Grapevine
b. Libel
c. Slander
d. Bullying
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Grapevine is used to refer to the circulation of rumors and unofficial information.
Slander is an oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which his
reputation is damaged.
Libel is the defamation by written words, cartoons or such representations that cause a person to
be avoided, ridiculed or held in contempt or tend to injure him in his work.
Bullying seeks to harm, intimidate, or coerce.
10. Lack of education is not mitigating in which of the following?
a. Cyberbullying
b. Theft
c. Rape
d. Drunk driving
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: LACK OF EDUCATION IS NOT MITIGATING IN:
Rape; forcible abduction; arson; treason; in crimes against chastity like seduction and acts of
lasciviousness; and those acts committed in a merciless or heinous manner.
SAS 14
1. This is defined as the process by which a cooperative group directs actions towards common goals:
a. Nursing
b. Management
c. Leadership
d. Power
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Management is a process by which a cooperative group directs actions towards common
goals, Involves techniques by which a distinguished group of people coordinates the services of
people.
2. Which of the following is not a major function of management?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Directing
d. Communication
ANSWER: D
RATIO: MAJOR FUNCTIONS
1. Planning
2. Organizing
3. Directing
4. Controlling
3. The process of working through staff members to be able to provide comprehensive care to the patient:
a. Nursing
b. Management
c. Nursing Management
d. Leadership
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Nursing Management is the process of working through staff members to be able to
provide comprehensive care to the patient
4. It is an interpersonal process that involves motivating and guiding others to achieve goals:
a. Leadership
b. Management
c. Nursing
d. Power
ANSWER: A
RATIO: LEADERSHIP is the process of influencing others to achieve organizational goal,
Interpersonal process that involves motivating and guiding others to achieve goals
5. The College of Nursing Dean belongs to what level of management?
a. First line
b. Middle manager
c. Top Manager
d. Frontline
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Middle managers essentially have the important role of designing, selecting, and carrying
out the best plan possible as a means of propelling a company towards its overall goals. Job titles
of middle managers include Directors, Assistant Directors, Regional Directors, Division Managers,
Deans, Branch Managers, Site Managers, and so on.
6. Henry Laurence Gantt is the forerunner of PERT chart, which means:
a. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
b. Program Equation and Review Technique
c. Program Evaluation and Revision Technique
d. Program Evaluation and Recycle Technique
ANSWER: A
RATIO: PERT: Program Evaluation and Review Technique
7. A leader that uses participation and majority rule in setting goals and working towards achievement:
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Bureaucratic
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The democratic leadership style assumes that individuals are motivated by internal drives
and impulses, want active participation in decisions, and want to get the task done; the leader uses
participation and majority rule in setting goals and working toward achievement.
8. The leader that makes all the decisions & uses coercion, punishment, & direction to change followers’
behavior & achieve results:
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Bureaucratic
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Autocratic leadership style assumes that individuals are motivated by external forces, such
as power, authority, and need for approval; the leader makes all the decisions and uses coercion,
punishment, and direction to change followers’ behavior and achieve results.
9. The type of leader that trusts neither followers not self to make decisions and therefore relies on
organizational policies and rules:
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Bureaucratic
ANSWER: D
RATIO: the bureaucratic leadership style. The bureaucrat of assumes that employees are motivated
by external forces. This leader trusts neither followers nor self to make decisions and therefore
relies on organizational policies and rules to identify goals and direct work processes.
10. This leader acts as facilitator:
a. Autocratic
b. Democratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Bureaucratic
ANSWER: B
RATIO: a facilitator functions as a leader it is a one type of the 19 leadership styles — one that is is
very participative and democratic.
SAS 15
1. Who developed the system 4 management?
a. Likert
b. Ekvall
c. Tomson
d. Fiedler
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Likert (1967) developed the System 4 model of management based on the premise that
involving employees in decisions about work is central to effective leadership. The model is
composed of four dimensions based on increasing levels of employee involvement.
2. Which of the following is not included among the 4 dimensions of system 4 management?
a. Autocratic leaders
b. Bureaucratic leaders
c. Consultative leaders
d. Participative leaders
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The model is composed of four dimensions based on increasing levels of employee
involvement. Autocratic leaders have little trust in employees and systematically If exclude them
from decision making. Benevolent leaders are kind to employees but still do not involve them in
decision making. Consultative leaders seek employees' advice about decisions. Participative or
democratic leaders value employee involvement,teamwork, and team building; they also have high
levels of confidence in employees and seek consensus in decision making. In doing so, the
participative leader shares power.
3. The process of working through staff members to be able to provide comprehensive care to the patient:
a. Nursing
b. Management
c. Nursing Management
d. Leadership
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A nurse manager may use an authoritarian style when responding to an emergency
situation such as a cardiac arrest but use a participative style to encourage development of a team
strategy to care for patients with multiple system failure.
4. This leadership style based on the managerial grid believes that adequate organization performance is
possible through balancing the necessity:
a. Impoverished
b. Middle of the Road
c. Authority compliance
d. Country Club
e. Team
ANSWER: B
RATIO: "middle of the road" (moderate concern for both production and people),
5. In decreasing order of importance, arrange the 3 situational factors of leadership:
I. Manager-follower relationship
II. Manager power
III. Task structure
a. I,II, III
b. III,II, I
c. I,III,II
d. II,III,I
ANSWER: C
RATIO: A leader is most effective when he or she matches leadership style (relationship-oriented or
task-oriented) to situational factors.
6. Leaders should use what style if the followers are unable but willing or confident in performing the task?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The leader’s style should therefore be concerned with increasing the confidence and skills
of followers so that they can ultimately take on more responsibility for their actions.
7. Leaders should use what leadership style with followers who are both able and willing and have
confidence in performing the task?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
ANSWER: D
RATIO: This is very much a ‘hands-off approach’ as the subordinate is perfectly able and willing to
perform the tasks independently and with great responsibility.
8. Leaders should use what type of leadership style with followers who are able but unwilling or lacking in
confidence in performing the task?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
ANSWER: C
RATIO: This style (still) shows high supportive behaviours, but low directive Behaviours
9. Leaders should use what type of leadership style with followers who are unable and unwilling or insecure
about performing the task?
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
ANSWER: A
RATIO: A leader’s primary concern lays with the task delivery and less with the personal needs of
the subordinates.
10. According to Fieldler's contingency theory, which of the following factors is most related to appropriate
leader behaviors?
a. leader-member relations
b. task structure
c. strength of leader position power
d. all of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Manager follower relations reflect the degree to which the leader enjoys the loyalty and
support of subordinates. Task structure is the degree to which the task or result is clearly
described and/or standard operating procedures guarantee successful completion and evaluation
of the quality of the task. Position power is the degree to which leaders are able to administer
rewards and punishment by virtue of their positions (that is, legitimate power).
SAS 16
1. Defined as predetermined course of action in order to arrive at a desired result:
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Controlling
d. Evaluating
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Planning is the process of thinking about the activities required to achieve a desired
goal. It is the first and foremost activity to achieve desired results. It involves the creation and
maintenance of a plan, such as psychological aspects that require conceptual skills.
2. The following are the four-stage process of planning, except?
a. Establish subjective (goals).
b. Evaluate the present situation & predict future trends & events.
c. Formulate a planning statement (means).
d. Convert the plan into an action statement.
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Planning is a four-stage process to: Establish objectives (goals), Evaluate the present
situation and predict future trends and events, Formulate a planning statement (means) and
Convert the plan into an action statement.
3. The principles of planning are the following. SATA
a. Planning is always based & focused on the vision, mission, philosophy and clearly defined objectives of
the organization.
b. Planning is a continuous process.
c. Planning should be pervasive within entire organization.
d. Planning utilized all available resources.
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIONALE: Planning is the process of thinking about the activities required to achieve a desired
goal. It is the first and foremost activity to achieve desired results. It involves the creation and
maintenance of a plan, such as psychological aspects that require conceptual skills.
4. What type of planning is devised for an exceptional risk which is impractical or impossible to avoid:
a. Short term
b. Long term
c. Contingency
d. Middle range
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: A contingency plan is a plan devised for an outcome other than in the usual
(expected) plan. It is often used for risk management for an exceptional risk that, though unlikely,
would have catastrophic consequences.
5. This type of planning is achievable from 6 to 12 months:
a. Short term
b. Long term
c. Contingency
d. Middle range
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Short-term planning evaluates your progress in the present and creates an action plan
to improve performance daily.
6. A type of planning that take more than a year to be achieved:
a. Short term
b. Long term
c. Contingency
d. Middle range
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: long-term planning is a comprehensive framework that comprises of goals to be met
within a four- to five-year period.
7. Which of the following is not an element of planning?
a. Forecasting
b. Setting the Vision, Mission, Philosophy, Goals & Objectives
c. Developing & Scheduling Operations
d. Preparing the Budget
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Planning is a preparatory step for action. It means systematized pre-thinking for
determining a course of action to achieve some desired result.Option C should be Developing &
Scheduling Programs
8. This describes the goal to which the organization aspires:
a. Objective
b. Vision
c. Goal
d. Philosophy
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: A vision statement is an inspirational statement of an idealistic emotional future of a
company or group. Vision describes the basic human emotion that a founder intends to be
experienced by the people the organization interacts with, it grounds the group so it can actualize
some existential impact on the world.
9. This is where action commitments through which an organization’s mission & purpose will be achieved is
stated:
a. Objective
b. Vision
c. Goal
d. Philosophy
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: An objective explains in detail what steps you plan to take in order to achieve a
specific aim
10. A written statement that reflects the organizational values, vision &
mission:
a. Objective
b. Vision
c. Goal
d. Philosophy
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Philosophy describes how you operate, what you offer and how you are organized to
meet your goals.
SAS 17
PROBLEM: Find the number of nursing personnel needed for 150 patients in a secondary hospital.
1. How many patients needs minimal care?
a. 45
b. 97.5
c. 105
d. 15
ANSWER: B
RATIO: 150 (no. of patients) x .65 (percentage of patients at minimal care per secondary hospital) =
97.5 pts needing minimal care.
2. How many patients needs moderate care?
a. 45
b. 97.5
c. 105
d. 15
ANSWER: A
RATIO: 150 (no. of patients) x .30 (percentage of patients at moderate care per secondary hospital)
= 45 pts needing moderate care.
3. How many patients needs intensive care?
a. 22.5
b. 67.5
c. 7.5
d. 15
ANSWER: C
RATIO: 150 (no. of patients) x .05 (percentage of patients at intensive care per secondary hospital) =
7.5 pts needing intensive care.
4. Patients on level 1 care needs how much NCH?
a. 67.5
b. 146.25
c. 157.5
d. 22.5
ANSWER: B
RATIO: 97.5 x 1.5 (NCH at Level I) = 146.25 NCH/day
5. Patients on level 2 of care needs how much NCH?
a. 135
b. 292.5
c. 315
d. 45
ANSWER: A
RATIO: 45 x 3 (NCH at Level II) = 135 NCH/day
6. Patients on level 3 of care needs how much NCH?
a. 101.25
b. 303.75
c. 33.75
d. 67.5
ANSWER: C
RATIO: 7.5 x 4.5 (NCH at Level III) = 33.75 NCH/day
7. What is the total number of NCH per year for 150 patients?
a. 168,356.25
b. 283,331.25
c. 49,275
d. 114,975
ANSWER: D
RATIO: 315 NCH/day x 365 days/year = 114,975 NCH/yr
8. How many nursing personnel are needed?
a. 99
b. 166
c. 29
d. 67
ANSWER: D
RATIO: 8 hrs/day x 213 working days/year = 1,704 working hours/yr 114,975 NCH/yr (total NCH/year)
÷ 1,704 (working hours/yr) = 67 nursing personnel
9. How many relievers are needed?
a. 15
b. 25
c. 4
d. 10
ANSWER: D
RATIO: 0.15 (constant for 40 hrs) x 67 = 10 relievers
10. How many TOTAL Nursing personnel are needed?
a. 114
b. 191
c. 33
d. 77
ANSWER: D
RATIO: 67 nursing personnel + 10 relievers = 77
SAS 18
1. What is the purpose of recruitment?
a. To generate a pool of qualified applicants.
b. To generate a pool of unqualified applicants.
c. To match people to jobs;
d. To assess applicant’s ability, skills and motivation related to the requirements and rewards of the job
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The purpose of recruitment is to generate a pool of qualified applicants, whereas the
purpose of the selection process is to assess an applicant’s ability, skills, and motivation related to
the requirements and rewards of the job.
2. The purpose of selection process is/are the following, except?
a. To match people to jobs;
b. To assess applicant’s ability, skills and motivation related to the requirements and rewards of the job
c. To generate a pool of qualified applicants.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The purpose of recruitment is to generate a pool of qualified applicants, whereas the
purpose of the selection process is to assess an applicant’s ability, skills, and motivation related to
the requirements and rewards of the job and also to match people to jobs.
3. Selection process is the responsibility of which department?
a. Administrative department
b. Admission department
c. Human Resources Management (HRM) department
d. Medical records department
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Responsibility for selecting nursing personnel in health care organizations is usually
shared by the human resource management (HRM) department, which may include a nurse
recruiter, and nursing management. First-line nursing managers are the most knowledgeable about
job requirements and can best describe the job to applicants. HRM performs the initial screening
and monitors hiring practices to be sure they adhere to legal stipulations.
4. This describes the skills, abilities, & knowledge required to perform the job; must reflect current practice
guidelines.
a. Organization’s description
b. Selection description
c. Employer description
d. Position description
ANSWER: D
RATIO: The position description describes the skills, abilities, and knowledge required to perform
the job. The position description should reflect current practice guidelines.
5. Which of the following is not an instrument of the selection process?
a. Background check
b. Reference check
c. Tests
d. Managerial interviews
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The selection instruments used include: tests, reference checks, and managerial interviews.
6. The best recruitment strategy is
a. Resume
b. Reputation
c. Records
d. All of the above
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The best recruitment strategy is the organization's reputation among its nurses. BradySchwartz (2005) found that nurses in magnet hospitals demonstrated higher levels of job
satisfaction than those in non-magnet hospitals. It follows that satisfied nurses are more likely to
speak highly of the organization.
7. In choosing a job, the best place to look is
a. Newspaper announcement
b. Online
c. Referral
d. Own geographic area
ANSWER: D
RATIO: For most health care organizations, the best place to look is in their own geographic area.
8. The following are ways to look for a job. SATA
a. Posting Online on general job search / on nurse-specific referral sites
b. Employee Referrals
c. Advertising in Professional Journals
d. Attendance at Professional Conventions, Job Fairs, Career Days
ANSWER: A / B / C / D
RATIO: Posting online on general job search sites (e.g., www. monster.com) or on nurse-specific
job referral sites is a common practice. Employee referrals, advertising in professional journals,
attendance at professional conventions, job fairs, career days, visits to educational institutions,
employment agencies (both private and public), and temporary help agencies are all recruiting
sources.
9. The 4P’s of marketing includes the following, except.
a. Product
b. Place
c. Peace
d. Promotion
ANSWER: C
RATIO: four strategies are included in marketing plans and are called the 4 Ps of marketing:
Product; Place; Price; and Promotion
10. The following are the contents of job description. SATA
a. Contact information
b. Job summary
c. Qualification Requirements
d. Job Relationships
ANSWER: B / C / D
RATIO: The contents of Job Description include Identifying data, Job Summary, Qualification
Requirements, Job Relationships/ Source of workers and Specific and Actual Functions and
Activities
SAS 19
1. This is defined as the issuance of orders, assignments, and instructions that enable the nursing
personnel to understand what are expected of them.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Directing is process of getting the organization’s work done. The issuance of orders,
assignments, and instructions that enable the nursing personnel to understand what are expected
of them.
2. The two types of directing are the following, except?
a. Written
b. Verbal
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The two types of directing are written (memorandum) and verbal.
3. A memorandum is an example of which type of directing?
a. Written
b. Verbal
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Memorandum is an example of written directing.
4. The following are the elements if directing. SATA.
a. Delegation
b. Supervision
c. Communication
d. Coordination
ANSWER: A / B / C / D
RATIO: Elements of Directing include: Delegation; Supervision; Communication; Coordination;
Staff Development; and Decision Making
5. The process by which responsibility and authority for performing a task (function, activity, or decision) is
transferred to another individual.
a. Directing
b. Delegation
c. Accountability
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Delegation is the process by which responsibility and authority for performing a task
(function, activity, or decision) is transferred to another individual who accepts that authority and
responsibility. Although the delegator remains accountable for the task, the delegate is also
accountable to the delegator for the responsibilities assumed. Delegation can help others to
develop or enhance their skills, promotes teamwork, and improves productivity. Delegation skills
can be learned.
6. With the delegated task, who is accountable?
a. Delegator
b. Delegate
c. Nurse Manager
d. None
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Delegation is the process by which responsibility and authority for performing a task
(function, activity, or decision) is transferred to another individual who accepts that authority and
responsibility. Although the delegator remains accountable for the task, the delegate is also
accountable to the delegator for the responsibilities assumed. Delegation can help others to
develop or enhance their skills, promotes teamwork, and improves productivity. Delegation skills
can be learned.
7. This denotes an obligation to accomplish a task
a. Directing
b. Delegation
c. Accountability
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Responsibility denotes an obligation to accomplish a task, whereas accountability is
accepting
ownership for the results or lack thereof. Responsibility can be transferred, but accountability is
shared.
8. Defined as accepting ownership for the results or lack thereof
a. Directing
b. Delegation
c. Accountability
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Responsibility denotes an obligation to accomplish a task, whereas accountability is
accepting
ownership for the results or lack thereof. Responsibility can be transferred, but accountability is
shared.
9. The right to act is
a. Authority
b. Accountability
c. Directing
d. Delegation
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Authority is the right to act. Therefore, by transferring authority, the delegator is
empowering the delegate to accomplish the task.
10. Which of the following is the correct process of delegation?
a. Define the task -- Determine the task -- Decide on delegate -- Reach agreement -- Monitor performance
and provide feedback
b. Define the task -- Decide on delegate -- Determine the task -- Reach agreement -- Monitor performance
and provide feedback
c. Determine the task -- Decide on delegate -- Define the task -- Reach agreement -- Monitor performance
and provide feedback
d. Define the task -- Decide on delegate -- Determine the task -- Monitor performance and provide feedback
-- Reach agreement
ANSWER: B
RATIO: The process of Delegation has five steps: (1) Define the task, (2) Decide on Delegate, (3)
Determine the task, (4) Reach Agreement and (5) Monitor performance and provide feedback.
SAS 20
1. The following are potential environmental obstacles to delegation, except.
a. Standards
b. Job descriptions
c. Insecurity
d. Norms
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Insecurity is part of the potential delegator obstacles to delegation.
2. Which of the following is a potential obstacle on the delegator?
a. Management styles
b. Lack of trust
c. Fear of failure and reprisal
d. Fear of failure and reprisal
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Lack of trust and confidence is a potential obstacle on the delegator
3. The following are the possible obstacles on the delegate. Select all that apply:
a. Inexperience
b. Fear of failure and reprisal
c. Lack of confidence
d. Overdependence on others
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: All of the above are the possible obstacle on the delegate
4. Which of the following statements if made by the delegator indicates her/his fear of criticism?
a. Will the job be done right?
b. They already have so much to do; how can I suggest more?
c. Will I be kept informed?
d. What will others think?
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Fear of competition or criticism. What if someone else can do the job better or faster than I?
Will I lose my job? Be demoted? What will others think? Will I lose respect and control? This fear is
unfounded if the delegator has selected the right task and matched it with the right individual. In
fact, the delegate's success in the task provides evidence of the delegator's leadership and
decision-making abilities.
5. RNs often fear blame from management if something goes wrong when a task has been delegated to an
LPN or UAP, to avoid this, the following should be followed. Except.
a. State law
b. Organizational policies
c. Job descriptions
d. None of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: RNs often fear blame from management if something goes wrong when a task has been
delegated to an LPN or UAP, but those fears can be relieved if state law, organizational policies, and
job descriptions are followed.
6. Which of the following questions will least likely to prevent work duplication?
a. Is the delegate willing to accept the task?
b. How often does staff duplicate an activity that someone else has recently performed?
c. Why does this duplication occur and is it necessary?
d. How could nurses delegate to prevent duplication?
ANSWER: A
RATIO: To prevent work duplication, Barter (2002, p. 57) suggests that you ask:
• How often does staff duplicate an activity that someone else has recently performed?
• Why does this duplication occur and is it necessary?
• How could nurses delegate to prevent duplication?
7. The following are the reason underdelegation occurs, except.
a. The delegator fails to transfer full authority to the delegate;
b. The delegator takes back responsibility for aspects of the task; or
c. The delegator fails to equip and direct the delegate.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Under delegation occurs when
• The delegator fails to transfer full authority to the delegate;
• The delegator takes back responsibility for aspects of the task; or
• The delegator fails to equip and direct the delegate.
8. Reverse delegation means
a. Someone with a higher rank delegates to someone with lesser authority
b. Someone with a lower rank delegates to someone with more authority
c. Delegation with same ranks
d. Delegation with a different medical professional
ANSWER: B
RATIO: In reverse delegation, someone with a lower rank delegates to someone with more
authority.
9. The following are the five rights of delegation. Select all that apply:
a. Right task
b. Right circumstances
c. Right person
d. Right direction and communication
e. Right time
ANSWER: A B C D
RATIO: • Right task (task is one that can be delegated for specific patient)
• Right circumstances (setting is appropriate and resources are available)
• Right person (give the right task to the right delegate for the right patient)
• Right direction and communication (describe objectives, limits, and expectations)
• Right supervision (monitor, evaluate, give feedback, and intervene if necessary)
10. Who among the following identified the five rights of delegation?
a. American Nurses Association
b. World Health Organization
c. National Council of State Boards of Nursing
d. Association of Nursing Service Administrators of the Philippines
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (2007) identified the five rights of
delegation
SAS 21
1. The following are the principle of good supervision. Select all that apply:
a. Requires adequate planning & organization which facilitate cooperation, coordination & synchronization
of services.
b. Gives autonomy to workers depending on their competency, personality, & commitment.
c. Stimulates the worker’s ambition to grow into effectiveness.
d. Creates an atmosphere of credibility and trust.
ANSWER: A / B / C / D
RATIO: PRINCIPLES OF GOOD SUPERVISION
1. Requires adequate planning & organization which facilitate cooperation, coordination &
synchronization of services.
2. Gives autonomy to workers depending on their competency, personality, & commitment.
3. Stimulates the worker’s ambition to grow into effectiveness.
4. Creates an atmosphere of credibility and trust.
5. Considers the strengths & weaknesses of employees.
6. Strives to make the unit an effective learning situation.
7. Considers equal distribution of work considering age, physical condition and competence.
2. Which of the following is not true on the techniques in supervision?
a. Observation of the worker while making rounds.
b. Spot checking of charts through nursing audits.
c. Asking one patient about the care they receive.
d. Looking into the general condition of units.
ANSWER: B
RATIO: TECHNIQUES IN SUPERVISION
1. Observation of the worker while making rounds.
2. Spot checking of charts through nursing audits.
3. Asking every patient about the care they receive.
4. Looking into the general condition of units.
5. Getting feedback from co-workers or other supervisors or relatives.
6. Asking questions discretely to find out the problems they encounter in the wards or drawing out
suggestions from the workers for improvement of their work or work situation.
3. Nursing care assignment may also be called ___________.
a. Modalities of Nursing Care
b. Systems of Nursing Care
c. Patterns of Nursing Care
d. Styles of Nursing Care
e. All of the above
ANSWER: E
RATIO: NURSING CARE ASSIGNMENT
May be called by various terms:
ü Modalities of Nursing Care
ü Systems of Nursing Care
ü Patterns of Nursing Care
4. What is the original model of nursing care delivery?
a. Functional nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Total patient care
d. Primary nursing
ANSWER: C
RATIO: The original model of nursing care delivery was total patient care, also called case method,
in which a registered nurse was responsible for all aspects of the care of one or more patients.
5. This nursing care assignment was designed to place the registered nurse back at the patient’s bedside.
a. Functional nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Total patient care
d. Primary nursing
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Conceptualized by Marie Manthey and implemented during the late 1960s after two decades
of team nursing, primary nursing was designed to place the registered nurse back at the patient's
bedside (Manthey, 1980).
6. The nursing care assignment hat began in hospitals in the mid -1940s in response to a national nursing
shortage.
a. Functional nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Total patient care
d. Primary nursing
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Functional nursing, also called task nursing, began in hospitals in the mid -1940s in
response to a national nursing shortage. The number of registered nurses (RNs) serving in the
armed forces during World War II depleted the supply of nurses at home.
7. Under this system, a team of nursing personnel provides total patient care to a group of patients.
a. Functional nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Total patient care
d. Primary nursing
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Team nursing evolved from functional nursing and has remained popular since the middle
to late 1940s. Under this system, a team of nursing personnel provides total patient care to a group
of patients.
8. Which nursing care assignment is infrequently used in acute care facilities?
a. Functional nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Total patient care
d. Primary nursing
ANSWER: A
RATIO: functional nursing care is used infrequently in acute care facilities and only occasionally in
long-term care facilities.
9. In team nursing, the following are the activities done by the team leader. Except.
a. Developing or updating nursing care plans
b. Resolving problems encountered by team members
c. Conducting nursing care conferences
d. Communicating with physicians only.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: the team leader's time is spent in indirect patient care activities, such as:
• Developing or updating nursing care plans
•Resolving problems encountered by team members
• Conducting nursing care conferences
• Communicating with physicians and other health care personnel.
10. Total patient care delivery systems are typically used in which areas?
a. Critical care units
b. Post-anesthesia recovery area
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Total patient care delivery systems are typically used in areas requiring a high level of
nursing expertise, such as in critical care units or post-anesthesia recovery areas.
SAS 22
1. Which of the following is the correct definition of communication?
a. Simple, ongoing, dynamic process in which the participants simultaneously create shared meaning in an
interaction.
b. Complex, ending, dynamic process in which the participants simultaneously create shared meaning in an
interaction.
c. Complex, ongoing, dull process in which the participants simultaneously create shared meaning in an
interaction.
d. Complex, ongoing, dynamic process in which the participants simultaneously create shared meaning in
an interaction.
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Communication is a complex, ongoing, dynamic process in which the participants
simultaneously create shared meaning in an interaction.
2. The goal of communication is to:
a. Approach, as closely as possible, a common understanding of the message sent and the one received.
b. Recede, as closely as possible, a common understanding of the message sent and the one received.
c. Approach, as open as possible, a common understanding of the message sent and the one received.
d. Approach, as closely as possible, a unique understanding of the message sent and the one received.
ANSWER: A
RATIO: The goal of communication is to approach, as closely as possible, a common
understanding of the message sent and the one received.
3. Behaviors such as head or facial agreement or disagreement accompanies oral messages called:
a. Miscommunication
b. Misinterpretation
c. Metacommunication
d. Metainterpretation
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Oral messages are accompanied by a number of non-verbal messages known as meta
communications. These behaviors include head or facial agreement or disagreement; eye contact;
tone, volume, and inflection of the voice; gestures of the shoulders, arms, hands, or fingers; body
posture and position; dress and appearance; timing; and environment.
4. A manager states, “Come talk to me anytime”, but keeps on typing at the keyboard while you talk. This
can lead to:
a. Intrasender Conflict
b. Intersender Conflict
c. Intrareceptor Conflict
d. Interreceptor Conflict
ANSWER: A
RATIO: When a verbal message is incongruent with the nonverbal message, the recipient has
difficulty interpreting the intended meaning; this results in intrasender conflict. For example, a
manager who states, "Come talk to me anytime," but keeps on typing at the keyboard while you
talk, sends a conflicting message to the staff.
5. The risk manager may encourage a nurse to report medication errors, but the nurse manager follows up
with discipline over the error. This is an example of:
a. Intrasender Conflict
b. Intersender Conflict
c. Intrareceptor Conflict
d. Interreceptor Conflict
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Intersender conflict occurs when a person receives two conflicting messages from differing
sources. For example, the risk manager may encourage a nurse to report medication errors, but the
nurse manager follows up with discipline over the error. The nurse is caught between conflicting
messages from the two.
6. The nurse managers of the operating room and delivery room held a meeting regarding a CS client. This
is an example of what type of communication?
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Lateral communication
d. Diagonal communication
e. Grapevine
ANSWER: C
RATIO: Lateral communication occurs between individuals or departments at the same hierarchical
level (e.g., nurse managers, department heads).
7. The staff nurse is to report the daily activities to the nurse supervisor this is a/an:
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Lateral communication
d. Diagonal communication
e. Grapevine
ANSWER: B
RATIO: Upward communication often involves reporting pertinent information to facilitate problem
solving and decision making.
8. The staff nurse of the oncological unit coordinated with the ER nurse supervisor. This is a/an:
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Lateral communication
d. Diagonal communication
e. Grapevine
ANSWER: D
RATIO: Diagonal communication involves individuals or departments at different hierarchical levels
(e.g., staff nurse to chief of the medical staff).
9. The nurse manager assigned the staff nurse to be the medication nurse of the day. This is a/an:
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Lateral communication
d. Diagonal communication
ANSWER: A
RATIO: Downward communication (manager to staff) is often directive. The staff is told what needs
to be done or given information to facilitate the job to be done.
10. A rumor started in the unit about a staff nurse dating his/her patient. This came from what type of
communication?
a. Downward communication
b. Upward communication
c. Lateral communication
d. Diagonal communication
e. Grapevine
ANSWER: E
RATIO: An informal channel commonly seen in organizations is the grapevine (e.g., rumors and
gossip). Grapevine communication is usually rapid, haphazard, and prone to distortion.
SAS 23
1. Which of the following is not true about controlling?
a. A pre-determined level of excellence that serves as a guide to nursing practice
b. Involves comparing actual results with projected results
c. Includes assessing and regulating performance in accordance with the plans that have been adopted,
the instructions issued, and the principle established
d. This process opens opportunities for improvement and comparing performance against set standards.
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Controlling can be defined as that function of management which helps to seek
planned results from the subordinates, managers and at all levels of an organization. The
controlling function helps in measuring the progress towards the organizational goals & brings any
deviations, & indicates corrective action. Option A is the definition of standard.
2. Which of the following is true about standard?
a. A pre-determined level of excellence that serves as a guide to nursing practice
b. Desirable set of conditions and performance necessary to ensure the quality of nursing service
c. Established by an authority
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: A standard is a predetermined level of excellence that serves as a guide to nursing
practice and a desirable set of conditions and performance necessary to ensure the quality of
nursing service. A standard includes: Predetermined, Established by an authority and
Communicated to and accepted by the people affected by them
3. Components of control process includes the following, except?
a. Establish the Standards of Performance
b. Determining the Means or Methods to be Used in Measuring Performance
c. Established by an authority
d. Evaluating Performance
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Components of control process are the following: Establish the Standards of
Performance, Determining the Means or Methods to be Used in Measuring Performance, Evaluating
Performance and Providing Feedback
4. A major dimension of quality care which refers to those connected with the actual level of care:
a. Structure
b. Process
c. Outcome
d. Standard
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: A process is a series of progressive and interdependent steps by which an end is
attained. Process is involved with the actual level of care.
5. This dimension of quality care relate to the physical environment, organization, & management of an
organization.
a. Structure
b. Process
c. Outcome
d. Standard
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: structure defines how activities such as task allocation, coordination, and supervision
are directed toward the achievement of organizational aims. It also relate to the physical
environment, organization, & management of an organization
6. Which dimension of quality care involves the end results of care that has been given?
a. Structure
b. Process
c. Outcome
d. Standard
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Outcomes are the changes you expect to result from your program. These can be
changes in individuals, systems, policies, or institutions that you seek to achieve. They may reflect
shifts in relationships, knowledge, awareness, capabilities, attitudes, and/or behaviors.
7. Which of the following is not included in the principles of evaluation?
a. The evaluation must be based on the behavioral standards of performance which the position requires.
b. In evaluating performance, there should be enough time to observe employee’s behavior.
c. The employee should be given a copy of the job description, performance standards, and evaluation
form before the scheduled evaluation conference.
d. The employee’s performance appraisal should include only satisfactory results with specific behavioural
instances to exemplify these evaluative comments.
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: An evaluation is an assessment, as systematic and objective as possible, of an ongoing or completed project, programme or policy, its design, implementation and results. The aim
is to determine the relevance and fulfilment of objectives, developmental efficiency, effectiveness,
impact and sustainability.
8. The performance appraisal process includes
a. Day-to-day manager—employee interactions
b. Making notes about an employee's behavior
c. Completing the performance appraisal form
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: The performance appraisal process includes the following: Day-to-day manager—
employee interactions, Making notes about an employee's behaviour. Completing the performance
appraisal form, The formal appraisal interview and Follow-up sessions that may involve coaching
and/or discipline when needed
9. What is the primary reason performance appraisal is done?
a. Ensure the employee is doing her/his job.
b. Basis for salary changes
c. To give constructive feedback
d. To show authority
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Performance appraisals are conducted for a number of reasons. The primary reason is
to give constructive feedback. A good appraisal system ensures that staff know what they are to do
and how well they are doing it.
10. When a nurse manager overrates her/his staff’s performance, this is called?
a. Leniency error
b. Recency error
c. Halo error
d. Appraisal error
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Leniency error is when a raters' tendency is to rate all employees at the positive end
of the scale (positive leniency) or at the low end of the scale (negative leniency). This can happen
when a manager over-emphasizes either positive or negative behaviors.