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Test 1. GIFTED STUDENTS TESTS 34

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ĐỀ LUYỆN THI HSG ANH 9 NĂM 2022-2023 SỐ 1
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART A. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. The audience couldn’t listen to the lengthy and pointless speech _________.
A. far any more
B. any longer
C. any more far
D. any lengthier
2. He missed two most important lectures. He _________very ill.
A. had to be
B. must be
C. was to be
D. must have been
3. Allan: “Do you mind if I use your dictionary?” Nick: “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not
B. Without doubt
C. No, feel free
D. Straight ahead
4. Oh, I’m always forgetting _______ these medicines. Is that before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take
B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take
D. when I take
5. We rang the doorbell again _______ they hadn’t heard it the first time.
A. because
B. although
C. for fear of
D. in case
6. How boring the lecture was! I _______ just in the first half of it.
A. dropped off
B. fell out
C. called off
D. came out
7. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?
A. displeasure
B. alteration
C. difference
D. conflict
8. What time are you _______ duty? Let’s have a coffee after that.
A. over
B. on
C. off
D. out of
9. Don’t give up your harboring dream. _______ working harder and harder.
A. Try out
B. Keep on
C. Speed up
D. Go off
10. It’s been a good year. I’ve written two books and a couple of articles, and _______ are now in print.
A. both of which
B. both of them
C. all of which
D. all of them
11. A: Why didn't you go to work yesterday?
B: I was feeling a bit ____________.
A. under the weather
B. full of hot air
C. breeze
D. under pressure
12. The closets are filled with things we don’t need. We should have a _______ soon.
A. garage sale
B. rush hour
C. housekeeper
D. doggy bag
13. If you want to return the suit, you must bring the __________with you as proof of purchase.
A. note
B. recipe
C. prescription
D. receipt
14. Nancy and I had both bought exactly the same kind of school bag without knowing it. It was a complete
______.
A. luck
B. chance
C. fortune
D. coincidence
15. I think some modern designs are more like ________ of art.
A. works
B. makes
C. objects
D. jobs
16. Time will _________ whether I made a right choice or not.
A. see
B. say
C. know
D. tell
17. That kind of dress is the _________ of fashion these days.
A. height
B. top
C. head
D. lead
18. You are having problems now but I am sure things will change ______ the better soon.
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A. on
B. to
C. by
D. for
19. Despite being a very good student, she didn’t fulfill her ________ later in life.
A. makings
B. potential
C. capacity
D. aptitude
20. If you _______ any problems when you arrive at the airport, give me a ring.
A. come about
B. catch on
C. run into
D. face up
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. (0) have been done for
you.
Anthony Masters was a writer in exceptional gifts and prodigious energy. He began his eventful and
versatile career like a teenager, when he was expelled from school for organizing a revolt against the
school uniform. In order to earn a living, he fulfilled his childhood ambition and took on writing. In
1964, at the age of 23, he published A Pocketful of Rye, a collection of short stories where freshness of
style earned him a distinction of being runner – up in the John Llewellyn Rhys Memorial Prize, an
established and prestigious British – based literacy award. He made the award two years later with his
novel The Seahorse, after which he continued to display his considerable talent by writing both fiction
or non – fiction. The inspiration for many of his novels came from his experience helping the social
excluded: he ran soup kitchens for drug addicts and campaigned for the civic rights of gypsies and
another ethnic minorities. His non – fiction output was typically eclectic, ranged from biographies to
social histories, but it was a writer of children fiction that Masters outshone his contemporaries. His
work contains a sensitivity which remains unequalled by some other writer of the genre.
Answers: 0. in  of
Line & Mistake
Correction
Line & Mistake
Correction
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
With the development of fast motorway systems in many countries, once remote parts of the
countryside are (1. INCREASE) _____________ becoming (2. ACCESS) _____________ to people who
live in towns and cities. In many parts of the world, rising (3. PERSON) _____________ incomes have
resulted in mass (4. OWN) _____________ of motor cars at a time when people have more leisure time to fill.
This means that there is a lot of (5. PRESS) _____________ on the countryside to accept a growing
number of visitors. In Britain, for example, the (6. NATION) _____________ parks are used by more than
one hundred million people annually.
In (7. ADD) _____________, similar numbers visit areas that do not enjoy the same level of (8.
PROTECT) _____________. Some people regard this invasion of the countryside as (9. DESIRE)
_____________ and they have begun campaigning to try and save some aspects of (10. TRADITION)
_____________ rural culture.
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank.
1. That factory turns ________ hundreds of small appliances everyday.
2. The boss asked me to make _______ the hours I missed last week.
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3. The suspect was released from prison _______ bail.
4. Once again poor Colin has been passed _______for promotion.
5. Everyone approved of the scheme, but when we asked for volunteers they all hung _______.
PART B. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and “February” not called
“Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient times? Or is it because the
originators preferred odd words?
Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people don’t
know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the months came
mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important festivals, and the original
numbers of the months.
Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar developed a
new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from one spring season to
the next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they determined that there should
be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100
would not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar
was so accurate that today, scientists need only add leap seconds every few years to the clock in order to keep
the calendar matching the Earth’s cycles.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
B. how the months were named
C. how the leap year system was developed
D. how accurate the modern day is calendar
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are __________.
A. odd
B. difficult to pronounce
C. inappropriate
D. none of the answers
3. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______________.
A. calendars
B. days
C. astronomers
D. years
4. The word “accurate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. interesting
B. informative
C. correct
D. simple
5. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2300
B. 2400
C. 2200
D. 2500
6. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
A. It needs major improvements.
B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
C. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
D. none of the answers
7. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He changed the length of the year .
B. He extended summer.
C. He has a month named for him.
D. He altered the number of days in the year.
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8. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
A. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
C. names of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar
D. none of the answers
9. The word “refined” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. studied
B. invented
C. observed
D. improved
10. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
B. It is the length of a planetary year.
C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks.
The Alexandra Palace in north London was built with private funds as a “People’s Palace”. Serviced
by its own station, it was opened in 1873 and was extremely well (1)_______ until, two weeks after its
opening, it burnt down. It was replaced by a slightly larger building which opened in 1875 and featured,
(2)________other things, a splendid organ an Great Hall, which was the size of a football pitch. Despite the
extraordinarily wide range of events (3)_______ there – from dog shows to great concerts and banquets, from
elephant displays to bicycle matches – it always operated at a loss and by 1877 much of the park around it had
been sold to speculative builders, leaving only about half of the original land.
In 1900, a committee was appointed, whose principal duty was to run the palace and park “for the free
use of the people forever.” There were, however, (4) ________ to charge for entry so that the substantial costs
could be (5) _______ . The Palace continued, with (6) ________ degrees of success, as an entertainment
centre. In the 1930s, it was probably most (7) ________ for being the home of the world’s first high definition
television broadcasts.
In 1980 the building was once more devastated by fire and (8) _______ to a ruin. It was then decided
to (9) _________ it and to create a major exhibition centre with community (10)_______, such as a restaurant
and a health club.
1. A. inhabited
B. attended
C. crowded
D. visited
2. A. among
B. between
C. from
D. around
3. A. performed
B. set
C. staged
D. laid
4. A. powers
B. terms
C. allowances
D. authorities
5. A. fulfilled
B. covered
C. matched
D. made
6. A. unsteady
B. varying
C. altering
D. unsettled
7. A. distinct
B. marked
C. considerable
D. notable
8. A. turned
B. converted
C. reduced
D. wrecked
9. A. recover
B. revise
C. restore
D. reform
10. A. facilities
B. conveniences
C. supplies
D. appliances
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space.
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All tournament chess games are played with a chess clock – that is two clocks joined together. When
one player makes his move, he presses the button which stops his clock and starts his opponent’s clock.
(1)_________fails to keep the time limit, no (2)________ what the position on the board, loses the game.
Weekend tournaments with a fast time limit and long sessions of play of (3)________ to twelve
hours a day are very strenuous and result in fatigue and time troubles. The play is quite sharp. Active,
attacking chess is the (4)________ of the day and it is difficult to maintain (5)_________ sustained, precise
defense against such play. A score of the game must be (6)_________ as play goes on. Each move is written
down on a score sheet, which has to be handed to the tournament officials at the end of each round. The only
thought in everybody’s head is to win. Talent and youth – that’s (7)_________ is needed for success at chess,
with the (8)________ on youth. Some approach the board with a slow, purposeful manner (9)________ giving
you a second glance – you simply don’t count. The seem to imply that the outcome is a foregone conclusion
for them; you (10)_______ need to accept it with good grace.
IV. Read the passage below and complete the tasks given
DEVELOPING COURTIERS
A. The Ecotourism Society defines ecotourism as “a responsible travel to natural areas which
conserves the environment and improves the welfare of local people”. It is recognised as being particularly
conducive to enriching and enhancing the standing of tourism, on the basis that this form of tourism respects
the natural heritage and local populations and are in keeping with the carrying capacity of the sites.
B. Cuba is undoubtedly an obvious site for ecotourism, with its picturesque beaches, underwater
beauty, countryside landscapes, and ecological reserves. An educated population and improved infrastructure
of roads and communications adds to the mix. In the Caribbean region, Cuba is now the second most popular
tourist destination. Ecotourism is also seen as an environmental education opportunity to heighten both
visitors’ and residents’ awareness of environmental and conservation issues, and even to inspire conservation
action. Ecotourism has also been credited with promoting peace, by providing opportunities for educational
and cultural exchange. Tourists’ safety and health are guaranteed. Raul Castro, brother of the Cuban president,
started this initiative to rescue the Cuban tradition of herbal medicine and provide natural medicines for its
healthcare system. The school at Las Terrazas Eco-Tourism Community teaches herbal healthcare and
children learn not only how to use medicinal herbs, but also to grow them in the school garden for teas,
tinctures, ointments and creams. In Cuba, ecotourism has the potential to alleviate poverty by bringing money
into the economy and creating jobs. In addition to the environmental impacts of these efforts, the area works
on developing community employment opportunities for locals, in conjunction with ecotourism.
C. In terms of South America, it might be the place which shows the shortcoming of ecotourism.
Histoplasma capsulatum, a dimorphic fungus, is the most common endemic mycosis in the United States, and
is associated with exposure to bat or bird droppings. Most recently, outbreaks have been reported in healthy
travelers who returned from Central and South America after engaging in recreational activities associated
with spelunking, adventure tourism, and ecotourism. It is quite often to see tourists neglected sanitation while
travelling. After engaging in high-risk activities, boots should be hosed off and clothing placed in airtight
plastic bags for laundering. HIV-infected travelers should avoid risky behaviors or environments, such as
exploring caves, particularly those that contain bat droppings.
D. Nowhere is the keen eye and intimate knowledge of ecotourism is more amidst this fantastic
biodiversity, as we explore remote realms rich in wildlife rather than a nature adventure. A sustainable tour is
significant for ecotourism, one in which we can grow hand in hand with nature and our community, respecting
everything that makes us privileged. Travelers get great joy from every step that take forward on this endless
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but exciting journey towards sustainability. The primary threats to South America’s tropical forests are
deforestation caused by agricultural expansion, cattle ranching, fagging, oil extraction and spills, mining,
illegal coca farming, and colonization initiatives. Deforestation has shrunk territories belonging to indigenous
peoples and wiped out more than 90% of the population. Many are taking leading roles in sustainable tourism
even as they introduce protected regions to more travelers.
E. In East Africa, significantly reducing such illegal hunting and allowing wildlife populations to
recover would allow the generation of significant economic benefits through trophy hunting and potentially
ecotourism. “Illegal hunting is an extremely inefficient use of wildlife resources because it fails to capture the
value of wildlife achievable through alternative forms of use such as trophy hunting and ecotourism,” said
Peter Lindsey, author of the new study. Most residents believed that ecotourism could solve this circumstance.
They have passion for local community empowerment, loves photography and writes to laud current local
conservation efforts, create environmental awareness and promote ecotourism.
F. In Indonesia, ecotourism started to become an important concept from 1995, in order to strengthen
the domestic travelling movement, the local government targeting the right markets is a prerequisite for
successful ecotourism. The market segment for Indonesian ecotourism consists of: (i) “The silent generation”,
55-64 year-old people who are wealthy enough, generally well-educated and have no dependent children, and
can travel for four weeks; (ii) “The baby boom generation”, junior successful executives aged 35-54 years,
who are likely to be travelling with their family and children (spending 2-3 weeks on travel) – travelling for
them is a stress reliever; and (iii) the “X generation”, aged 18-29 years, who love to do ecotours as
backpackers – they are generally students who can travel for 3-12 months with monthly expenditure of
US$300-500. It is suggested that promotion of Indonesian ecotourism products should aim to reach these
various cohorts of tourists. The country welcomes diverse levels of travelers.
G. On the other hand, ecotourism provide as many services as traditional tourism. Nestled between
Mexico, Guatemala and the Caribbean Sea is the country of Belize. It is the wonderful place for Hamanasi
honeymoon, bottle of champagne upon arrival, three meals daily, a private service on one night of your stay
and a choice of adventures depending on the length of your stay. It also offers six-night and seven-night
honeymoon packages. A variety of specially tailored tours, including the Brimstone Hill Fortress, and a trip to
a neighboring island. Guided tours include rainforest, volcano and off-road plantation tours. Gregory Pereira,
an extremely knowledgeable and outgoing hiking and tour guide, says the following about his tours: “All of
our tours on St. Kitts include transportation by specially modified Land Rovers, a picnic of island pastries and
local fruit, fresh tropical juices, CSR, a qualified island guide and a full liability insurance coverage for
participants.
H. Kodai is an ultimate splendor spot for those who love being close to mother nature. They say
every bird must sing its own throat while we say every traveller should find his own way out of variegated and
unblemished paths of deep valleys and steep mountains. The cheese factory here exports great quantity of
cheese to various countries across the globe. It is located in the center of forest. Many travelers are attracted by
the delicious cheese. The ecotourism is very famous of this different eating experience.
TASK 1 – Use the information in the passage to match the place (listed A-D) with opinions or deeds
below. You may use any letter more than once.
1.
a place to improve local education as to help tourists
2.
a place suitable for both rich and poor travelers
3.
a place where could be easily get fungus
4.
a place taking a method to stop unlawful poaching
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5.
A. Cuba
a place where the healthcare system is developed
B. East Africa
C. South America
D. Indonesia
TASK 2 – Use the information in the passage to match the companies (listed A-C) with or deeds below.
A. eating the local fruits at the same time
B. find job opportunities in community
C. which is situated on the heart of jungle
D. with private and comfortable service
6. Visiting the cheese factory
7. Enjoying the honeymoon
8. Having the picnic while
9. The residents in Cuba could
TASK 3 – Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Ecotourism is not a nature (10) __________________ but a (11) __________________tour. The reason why
South America promotes ecotourism is due to the destruction of (12) __________________In addition, East
Africa also encourages this kind of tourism for cutting the (13) __________________ in order to save wild
animals.
PART C. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your
answers on your answer sheet.
1. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
Had _______________________________________________.
2. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On _______________________________________________.
3. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only __________________________________________.
4. Because of the traffic jam, Andrew couldn't get to the interview on time.
The traffic jam ______________________________________.
5. This old car probably won’t last for more than three years.
It’s unlikely ________________________________________.
II. Write a passage of about 250 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they are a
complete waste of time”
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PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (10pts)
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. D
19. B
10. D
20. C
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. You should also write
the line of the mistakes. (10pts)
Qs
Mistake
Correction
1
like
as
2
on
up
3
where
whose
4
made
won
5
or
and
6
social
socially
7
another
other
8
ranged
ranging
9
children
children’s
10
some
any
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (5
pts)
1. increasingly
2. accessible
3. personal
4. ownership
5. pressure
6. national
7. addition
8. protection
9. undesirable
10. traditional
IV. Complete the following sentences with one preposition/particle for each blank. (5 pts)
1. out
2. up
3. on
4. over
5. back
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. D
10. B
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks.
(10 pts)
1. B
2. A
3, C
4, A
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. C
10. A
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
1. whoever/who
2. matter
3. up
4. order
5. a/any
6. kept
7. what
8. emphasis
9. without
10. only
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PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. (5pts)
1. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have
invested into some computer companies.
2. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
3. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children /but
she manages to look after her five children as well.
4. The traffic jam prevented Andrew from getting to the interview on time.
5. It is unlikely that this old car will last for more than three years.
II. Write a passage of about 250 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they are a
complete waste of time” (15pts)
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English
language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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