AIRCRAFT STRUCTURE FINAL (SET A)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6. MS20426 AD 4 – 8 is the identifying code numbers to show that a solid rivet with
A) Material or alloy made of 2017
B) Diameter of 1/4”
C) Universal head style
D) Length of 8/32”
7. What is the biggest threat to the structural integrity of an airframe especially in the aircraft
damage and its surrounding areas?
A) Corrosion
B) Fatigue
C) Stress
D) Strain
8. _______ mounted on fibreglass nose radomes are a type of bonding
A) Bonding Strap
B) Quick disconnect valve
C) Lightning diverter strip
D) Anchor nuts
9. Most aircraft have __________ to give the fuselage its longitudinal strengths. They connect he
frames (formers) and are joined to the skin.
A) Stringers
B) Bulkheads
C) Landing gears
D) Pylons
10. As aircraft components are constructed separately, there needs to be processes that are
structurally sound to tie them all together. The most common assembly techniques are:
A) Riveting and bolting
B) Bolting and bonding
C) Riveting and bonding
D) Riveting , bolting , and bonding
11. Other fasteners such as Lock Bolts , Cherry Fasteners and Jo- Bolts only require access to one
side of the component and also called as :
A) Blind Fastener
B) Solid Fastener
C) Special Fastener
D) Hi lock Fastener
12. What is the name of protective coating for ferrous metal that known as silvery grey metal in
which is electroplated onto steel to a minimum thickness of 0.005 inch?
A) Alodizing
B) Cadmium plating
C) Anodizing
D) Metal Spraying
13. Rivet pitch is the distance between the
A) Centers of rivets in adjacent row
B) Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row
C) Head of adjacent rivets in adjacent row
D) imaginary lines from rivet to rivet
14. The identifying marks on the heads of an aluminium alloy rivets indicate the
A) Degree of dimensional and process control observed during manufacture
B) Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets
C) Head shape and shank size of the rivet adhered to during manufacture
D) Head shape , shank size , material used and specifications adhered to during manufacture
15. The advantage of corrugated skins on stabiliser construction is less weight as thinner skin and less
internal structure is required. Stabiliser skins on smaller aircraft can be manufactured with
corrugations to
A) Provide load path
B) Add strength
C) Minimize drag
D) Maximize lift
16. Wings with one spar are termed as
A) Rib
B) Beam
C) Monospar
D) Multispar
17. MS20426AD 6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has
A) a shank of 5/16 inch (excluding head)
B) a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head)
C) an overall length of 5/32 inch
D) an overall length of 5/16 inch
18. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?
A) Mild Steel
B) 5056 aluminium
C) Monel
D) Stainless Steel
19. Refer to Figure 1 below, the amount of material required to make the bend 90degree is
FIGURE 1 : BENDING SHEET METAL
A) 0.03436 inch
B) 0.3717 inch
C) 0.3925 inch
D) 0.3560 inch
20. Refer to Figure 1 , on the above, the length of Flat is
A) 3.500 inches
B) 3.750 inches
C) 3.875 inches
D) 3.560 inches
21. Which rivets should be selected to join two metals with the same material thickness of 0.032 inch
aluminium?
A) MS20470DD 4-3
B) MS20470AD 4-4
C) MS20430AD 4-5
D) MS20426DD 4-4
22. When repairing small hole on a metal stressed skin, the riveted joint needs to be designed so
that the rivets take the stress, and not the skin, so if there is a failure it will be the
A) Rivets that shear and not the skin that tears
B) Skin that shear and not the rivets that tears
C) Rivet and skin that shears
D) Both rivet and skin are not tears
23. Primary control surfaces such as ailerons, elevators , and rudders are attached to the aircraft by
A) high strength structural fastener
B) anchor nuts
C) hinges
D) access panels
24. What is used to support and protect the engine and its components?
A) Pylon
B) Nacelle
C) Firewall
D) Engine Mounting
25. Materials used in aircraft construction have changed significantly since the Wright Brothers built
the first practical airplane. Inventions and innovations made by the engineer but all of the repair
must refer to the
A) Technical Document
B) Certificate of Airworthiness
C) Type of Certificate
D) Structural Repair Manual
26. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 psi is
A) dangerously unstable
B) Within the allowable pressure limit
C) should be used when a reducing flame is necessary
D) usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8 inch thick
27. The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminium welding should
A) be slightly carburizing
B) be neutral and soft
C) be slightly oxidizing
D) be soft and sharp
28. Welding over brazed or soldered joint is
A) permissible for mild steel
B) permissible for most metals
C) permissible for most metals that are not heat treated
D) not permitted
29. Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene fuel gas
A) are red or maroon in colour
B) are green or blue in colour
C) are made of vulganized rubber
D) are not contain acetone
30. When inspecting a butt welded joint by visual means
A) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead
B) the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
C) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base material
D) there are at least ¾ inch of flux at the wields area
31. What is the preferred method of welding aluminium?
A) Gas tungsten Arc Welding
B) Shielded Metal Arc Welding
C) Tungsten Inert Gas
D) Brazing
32. What is the preferred method of welding magnesium?
A) Gas tungsten Arc Welding
B) Shielded Metal Arc Welding
C) Tungsten Inert Gas
D) Brazing
33. What factors determine the amount of heat delivered by a gas welding torch?
A) The size of materials to be weld
B) The type of material to be weld
C) The size of the torch tip and the gas pressure
D) The pressure of oxygen
34. When an acetylene torch is extinguish, which valve is turned off first?
A) Turn off the acetylene gas valve first
B) Turn off the oxygen gas valve first
C) Turn off the safety fuse plug first
D) Turn off the safety disk first
35. Aircraft maintenance personnel are no longer required to be highly proficient at performing weld
repair welded part for aircraft. However aircraft maintenance personnel are expected to have
sufficient knowledge to enable them to identify defective welds to determine the airworthiness of an
aircraft. Therefore, who is responsible to perform welding on structural repair ?
A) A person obtained Aircraft Maintenance Engineering License
B) A person obtained the first degree in Aviation College
C) A person obtained the approved welding certificate
D) A person obtained a Safety and Health Certificate
36. Two methods of inspection that utilize Eddy Current principle are
A) Comparison method and reference method
B) Comparison method and absolute method
C) Bridge type method
D) Single reference method
37. Person working with the X-ray or gamma ray should wear a _____
A) Dosimeter film badges
B) Safety boots and leather apron
C) Goggles and special gloves
D) White lab clothing
38.Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection ?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Magnesium alloy
Aluminium Alloy
Iron Alloy
Copper Alloys
A) i , ii , and iii only
B) ii and iii only
C) iii only
D) none of the above
39. Liquid Penetrant Inspection methods may be used on which of the following?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Porous plastics
Ferrous materials
Non-ferrous materials
Smooth un-painted wood
Nonporous plastics
A) ii , iii , and iv only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and v only
40. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear , the most probable cause is that
the part
A) was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied
B) was not thoroughly cleaned before the developer was applied
C) has no appreciably damage
D) was not thoroughly dry before the penetrant was applied
41. What reference tool is used to determine how the fibre of composite material is to be oriented
for a particular ply of fabrics?
A) Warp clock (compass)
B) Nibler
C) Router
D) Mixing Equipment
42. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals,
plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
A) Eddy current inspection
B) Magnetic Particle Inspection
C) Ultrasonic Inspection
D) Liquid Penetrant Inspection
43. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is used to determine the soundness of the
bonded honeycomb composite repair after the repair has cured?
A) Eddy current inspection
B) Magnetic Particle Inspection
C) Ultrasonic Inspection
D) Coin Tap test
44. Basic composite terminology of fibre orientation and their interaction in typical composite
structures can be best described as
A) Fibre – Content
B) Fibre -Direction
C) Resin - Content
D) Thread count
45. A post cure inspection of composite repair include the inspection of its adhesive layer for:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
voids
disbonding
cracking in the adhesive
poor adhesive flow and
porosity
A) i and iii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) all of the above
46. Which of the following is the best statement to define purpose of aircraft painting?
A) Act as a surface protection against corrosion and foreign object damage.
B) Act as surface protection and decorative purpose.
C) Act as top coat to give a good glossy look.
D) Act as decorative purposes to show the company name.
47. The first step in removal process is to clean the surface and determine both the type and extent
of corrosion. Therefore, regardless of the corrosion type or the metal involved, corrosion treatment
requires 3 steps. The steps involved are :
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
Remove every trace of corrosion
Remove every trace of dust and dirt
Neutralize any residual material
Restore the protective surface film
Re-painting
A) i , ii , and iii
B) ii , iii and iv
C) iii, iv and v
D) i, iii and iv
48. Which of the following are the best finishes products used for wing tips, cowling, and empennage
or colour bands?
A) Flat black lacquer
B) High visibility finishes
C) Wrinkle finishes
D) High temperature finishes
49. The purpose of primer is to provide good bond between the surfaces being finished and the
material used for topcoat and wash primer requires the mixing of
A) 3 parts primer with 2 parts activator
B) 4 parts primer with 1 parts activator
C) 4 parts primer with 2 parts activator
D) 3 parts primer with 1 parts activator
50. What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
A) Low atmospheric humidity
B) Too much material applied in one coat
C) Material is applied too far and fast
D) Material is applied too fast