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Air Law
01 International Law: Conventions, Agreements And Organisations
1. Q(6220) According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Convention of Warsaw
The Convention of Chicago
The Convention of Tokyo
The Convention of Rome
2. Q(6227) If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state, which convention covers this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rome
Chicago
Tokyo
Paris
3. Q(6212) The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 years
3 years
10 years
1 year
4. Q(6221) Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Chicago Convention
The Montreal Convention
The Geneva Convention
The Tokyo Convention
5. Q(3497) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
the security system at airports
the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported
6. Q(6211) Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
A.
B.
C.
D.
New York
London
Montreal
Paris
7. Q(4247) Which of the following is obligatory for members of ICAO?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
8. Q(5193) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :
A. offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
B. Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
C. Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
D. Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
9. Q(6204) What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only.
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO.
The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
10. Q(6213) Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The 1st freedom
The 3rd freedom
The 2nd freedom
The 4th freedom
11. Q(6214) The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The 3rd freedom
The 2nd freedom
The 4th freedom
The 1st freedom
12. Q(6222) Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No.
Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights).
Yes, but only mail and international cargo.
Yes but only to internal, not international flights.
13. Q(6223) Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Montreal Convention
The Warsaw Convention
The Tokyo Convention
The Chicago Convention
14. Q(5328) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Montreal
Warsaw
Chicago
The Hague
15. Q(6216) The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The first freedom of the air.
The fifth freedom of the air.
The fourth freedom of the air.
The second freedom of the air.
16. Q(5331) The first freedom of the air is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The right to overfly without landing.
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
The right to land for a technical stop.
17. Q(4385) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chicago convention 1944
Geneva convention 1948
Geneva convention 1936
Warsaw convention 1929
18. Q(6208) Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the
state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Convention of The Hague.
Warsaw agreement.
Cyprus convention.
Agreement of Paris.
19. Q(5195) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling
therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Warsaw Convention
the Montreal Convention
the Chicago Convention
the Rome Convention
20. Q(5334) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and
freight is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Warsaw Convention.
Hague Convention.
Montreal Convention.
Tokyo Convention.
21. Q(6205) If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:
A.
B.
C.
D.
It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard.
22. Q(6219) Why is the 8th freedom of the air particularly applicable to the European Union?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Because the EU is primarily a commercial arrangement and itis commercially sensible to prevent non-EU carriers from profiting in Europe.
To prevent non-JAA states operating domestic scheduled services in Europe.
Because the EU is effectively one state as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.
Because the Chicago Convention allows a state to give exclusivity of internal air services to another state.
23. Q(6224) The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 year
5 years
6 months
2 years
24. Q(6210) The Air Navigation Commission consists of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
33 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly.
15 members appointed by the ICAO Council.
25. Q(6217) The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called:
A. The third freedom of the air.
B. The first freedom of the air.
C. The fifth freedom of the air.
D. The second freedom of the air.
26. Q(5191) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence
against penal law
A.
B.
C.
D.
may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
may request such person to disembark
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
27. Q(6226) Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Tokyo Convention
The Montreal Convention
The Rome Convention
The Guatemala Convention
28. Q(5329) The second freedom of the air is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
right to land for a technical stop
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
right to overfly without landing
29. Q(2216) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Council
the Regional Air Navigation meeting
the Assembly
the Air Navigation Commission
30. Q(2643) Chicago Convention. "Cabotage" refers to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a flight above territorial waters;
crop spraying
a national air carrier;
domestic air services ;
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31. Q(5196) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the convention of Chicago
the convention of Paris
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Rome
32. Q(5194) The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by
foreign aircraft is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Paris Convention
the Tokyo Convention
the Warsaw Convention
the Rome Convention
33. Q(6203) Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
None of the above
Security
Facilitation
Aerodromes
34. Q(6229) In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe.
Regional air navigation planning in Europe.
National airspace management within Europe.
Regulation of civil aviation in Europe.
35. Q(5197) The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Warsaw
the convention of Madrid
the convention of Rome
36. Q(6209) An aircraft flying to another contracting state:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid remaining only.
Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil and fuel remaining only.
Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty.
Is liable to pay customs duty on all unused fuel and oil carried.
37. Q(12295) The Convention of Rome 1933/1952 for the Unification of certain Rules Relating to Damage caused by Aircraft was established in order to define the
liability in case of damage:
A.
B.
C.
D.
to other aircraft in case of a midair collision.
to other aircraft while operating on ground.
to third parties on the surface.
caused by Dangerous Goods that have been carried by an aircraft.
38. Q(6228) What is the status of IATA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.
It represents the air transport operators at ICAO.
It is an associate body ICAO.
It is the international legislative arm of ICAO.
39. Q(6206) For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation.
The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.
The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown.
The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.
40. Q(3495) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
approve new international airlines
approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
develop principles and technique for international aviation
41. Q(6218) What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refuelling.
The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing.
Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas.
The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.
42. Q(3349) Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in a neighbouring State?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1st freedom
2nd freedom
4th freedom
3rd freedom
43. Q(6215) An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare- paying passengers
to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
It receives permission of the State of Registry.
It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft.
It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred.
The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away.
44. Q(3496) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
A.
B.
C.
D.
binding for all air line companies with international traffic
binding for all member states
advice and guidance material to be included into the national aviation legislation of a Contracting State.
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
45. Q(6225) A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that caused the damage:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Took place on board the aircraft.
Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger.
Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking.
Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking including time spent after the passenger has
checked in for flight.
46. Q(6207) Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only 52 nations were permitted to attend.
All states in the world attended.
Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
Each state was required to recognise the other states attending.
47. Q(5333) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
02 Airworthiness Of Aircraft
1. Q(5251) The loading limitations shall include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
all limiting mass and centres of gravity
2. Q(5243) When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
A.
B.
C.
D.
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
letters used for ICAO identification documents
four letter combinations beginning with Q
3. Q(3355) When is an Airworthiness Certificate required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any flight operation
Only flights that land in an airport different from the departure airport.
Any flight with passengers
International flight
4. Q(5249) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes
specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
5. Q(6557) Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum separation time for a LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane from
an intermediate part of the same runway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes
5 minutes
4 minutes
3 minutes
6. Q(10983) According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Requirements laid down by ICAO
Laws of the State in which is operated
Laws of the State of registry
Laws of the State of registry and operation
03 Aircraft Nationality And Registration Marks
1. Q(5247) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 50 centimetres
at least 60 centimetres
at least 75 centimetres
at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
2. Q(5245) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
A.
B.
C.
D.
LLL
PAN
RCC
DDD
3. Q(12276) Registration mark. Some letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks. Which of the following combinations might be confused with an
urgent or distress signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
III
RCC
DDD
XXX
4. Q(5246) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
A.
B.
C.
D.
DDD
XXX
RCC
LLL
5. Q(5248) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 40 centimetres
at least 20 centimetres
at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
at least 30 centimetres
6. Q(5244) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
A.
B.
C.
D.
LLL
RCC
FFF
TTT
7. Q(5242) According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
the International Telecommunication Union
the state of registry only
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
04 Personnel Licensing
1. Q(2932) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
after one calendar month of consecutive illness
After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
2. Q(5219) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.
20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
3. Q(10077) According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A):
A.
B.
C.
D.
Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction
Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceeding 12 months
Without restriction
Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction
4. Q(5215) Type ratings shall be established
A.
B.
C.
D.
only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
all the answers are correct
for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
5. Q(5205) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than .................................. hours, either as pilot in
command or made up by not less than .................hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of
the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated
above hours are respectively :
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 hours and 75 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
250 hours and 100 hours
6. Q(5815) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
One year
Five years after licence issue.
Two years
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
7. Q(5218) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
8. Q(5212) The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin at the date:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the licence is delivered to the pilot
the medical assessment is issued
the licence is issued or validated
the licence is issued or renewed
9. Q(5813) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is
that the aeroplane has:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
10. Q(5812) JAR-FCL 1 / Class rating. In JAR-FCL1, the Single Engine Piston (A) Class rating is established for Single Pilot Single Engine Aeroplanes not requiring
a Type rating. It includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
Touring Motor Glider / TMG.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
11. Q(6230) When does FLIGHT TIME end?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At touchdown.
When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers.
When all the passengers have disembarked.
At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay.
12. Q(10991) According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes
Revalidate any rating or licence
Obtain a professional pilot licence
Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes
13. Q(10984) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1,500 hours of flight time, including
A. 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight
engineer.
B. 500hours in multi-pilotoperations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23,including 200hours of night flight as pilot-incommand or as co-pilot.
C. 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot-in-command
D. 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.
14. Q(12044) Minimum and maximum age for ATPL holders. According to ICAO Annex 1, the minimum / maximum age for the holder of an ATPL is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
18 and 60 years.
16 and 60 years.
21 and 59 years.
17 and 59 years.
15. Q(1934) In accordance with ICAO Annex 1. when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is only considered for PPL.
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL.
Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
16. Q(5201) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
A.
B.
C.
D.
a current class II medical assessment
a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
a current class I medical assessment
a current class III medical assessment
17. Q(5209) The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of
the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
18. Q(1933) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the
discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
19. Q(12048) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two years
Five years after licence issue.
One year
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
20. Q(4555) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
21. Q(12169) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
A.
B.
C.
D.
With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating
With a CPL
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
With a PPL plus CPL theory
22. Q(14518) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
23. Q(10990) According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are:
A. class 1 only.
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3 and 4
24. Q(5206)The applicant for an Airline Transport PilotLicence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ................................ hours of cross-country flight
time, of which not less than ...............hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties
and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 hours and 75 hours
250 hours and 10 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
25. Q(2220) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
16 years
18 years
21 years
17 years
26. Q(5199) The holder of a pilotlicence, when acting as co-pilotof an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
27. Q(5814) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Of issue
The application is received by the Authority.
Of the last medical certificate
Of the skill test
28. Q(1705)The proficiency check ofa pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new
proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
31th of December the same year
30th of October the same year
30th of April the following year
15th of October the same year
29. Q(2217) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
A.
B.
C.
D.
With an ATPL
With a CPL
With a theoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
30. Q(6231) When does night exist?
A.
B.
C.
D.
From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise.
During the hours of darkness.
During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon.
From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight.
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
31. Q(5203) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ................................. hours of cross country flight time as pilot
in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........................... km (-NM),in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:
A. 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
B. 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
C. 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
D. 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
32. Q(5330) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Annex 2
Annex 1
Annex 12
Annex 11
33. Q(5216) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command
shall be credited:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
34. Q(5217) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at
night
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
35. Q(10989) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of
any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority
or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
More than 12 hours
Any period
More than 12 days
More than one week
36. Q(5207) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
37. Q(5211) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as
an exception and shall not exceed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
38. Q(5918) The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in
aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I,
PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine
.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
Single-engine/inactive.
Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
Land/inactive.
39. Q(6232) Which of the following approach speed ranges (V□t) is applicable for Category B aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91 kts to 120 kts
261 km/h to 307 km/h
121 kts to 141 kts
224 km/h to 261 km/h
40. Q(14134) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed
as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 hours of flight time
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
200 hours of flight time
41. Q(2218) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 years
6 months
1 year
5 years
42. Q(12187) JAR-FCL1. In accordance with JAR-FCL1 the credit for MPA co-pilot time is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
100 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
75 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence.
100 hours of the flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence.
43. Q(5208) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
44. Q(10985) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of
an aeroplane type certificated for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR
the carriage of passengers at night.
operations by pilots under training.
a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.
45. Q(14135) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ..................................hours of cross country flight time as pilot
in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........................... km (-NM),in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made. The hours and distance referred are :
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
46. Q(2931) JAR-FCL3, Information of the Authority in case of illness The holder of a pilot's licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which involves the
incapacity to undertake licence related functions for a certain number of days. The number of days is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
21
30
90
60
47. Q(5210) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ........................................ hours
of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ........................................ hours shall be
in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 10 hours
48. Q(5811) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a nightqualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command ofaeroplanes.
49. Q(2638) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
18 and 60 years
16 and 60 years
21 and 59 years
17 and 59 years
50. Q(4554) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of
any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority
or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Any period
More than one week
More than 12 hours
More than 12 days
51. Q(5200) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
16 years of age
18 years of age
17 years of age
21 years of age
52. Q(4553) According to JAR-FCL, a professional flightcrew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a
JAA Member State
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
'At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period agreed
At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
53. Q(5213) When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation
A.
B.
C.
D.
shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion
54. Q(5204) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
55. Q(12291) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation
none of the answers are correct
to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
56. Q(5810) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
one year
Indefinitely
two years
The period of validity of the licence.
05 Rules Of The Air
1. Q(84) Interception : An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the
appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Code 7000.
Code 7700.
Code 7500.
Code 7600.
2. Q(29) If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be
pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Descend
You land
Descend for landing
Let down
3. Q(6252) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area have to give way to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Follow my vehicles (and pedestrians)
Aircraft taking off.
Aircraft landing.
Aircraft landing and taking off.
4. Q(3347) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;
No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;
5. Q(30) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CAN NOT
CAN NOT COMPLY
NOT POSSIBLE
UNABLE TO COMPLY
6. Q(6233) An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying.
Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration.
7. Q(12223) Avoidance of collisions. The highest priority for landing has:
A.
B.
C.
D.
an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.
a military aircraft.
an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state).
an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).
8. Q(14694) Interception If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible, attempts shall
be made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and pronunciations, transmitting each phrase twice. The standard phrase with the
meaning "Descend for landing" for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
DESCEND FOR LAND DEE-SEND FOR LAAND
DESCEND DEE-SEND
LET DOWN LET-DAUN
YOU LAND YOU-LAAND
9. Q(12190) Interception. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft
or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.5 MHz. If no contacthas been established, and ifpracticable, repeat this call on the frequency 282.8 MHz.
121.5 MHz. If no contacthas been established, and ifpracticable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.
243MHz. If no contact has been established, and ifpracticable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.
121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz.
10. Q(6262) In areas where a separation minimum of1000ftis applied up to FL 410,authorisation for VFR flight shall not be granted above which flight level?
A.
B.
C.
D.
FL 290
FL 200
FL 190
FL 240
11. Q(5350) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
A.
B.
C.
D.
may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
must return to its point of departure.
must stop.
is cleared for take-off.
12. Q(6265) A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:
A.
B.
C.
D.
CTR and TMA
CTR
CTR, TMA and AWY
CTR and CTA
13. Q(358) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
14. Q(12225) Authority.The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
aircraft owner.
Pilot-in-command.
Operator.
ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
15. Q(12263) Visual Flight Rules. An aircraftoperating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000ft AMSL,outside controlled airspace
shall maintain at least
A.
B.
C.
D.
a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
a distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km.
a distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.
16. Q(2221) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
17. Q(6243) What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55 ft.
1000 ft within a radius of 8 km.
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.
The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure.
18. Q(5348) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
A.
B.
C.
D.
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
19. Q(12178) Interception, DAY or NIGHT. Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to
the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"?
A. Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.
B. Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft, after acknowledgement by intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).
C. An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted
aircraft.
D. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a counter-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, in a clockwise pattern for helicopter.
20. Q(3405) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
this aerodrome is using parallel runways
taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
glider flying is performed outside the landing area;
landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
21. Q(5338) The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
A.
B.
C.
D.
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
22. Q(6242) The signal from pilot to marshaller which means - brakes applied - is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face.
Fist clenched in front ofthe face then fingers extended.
Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, the move arms outwards.
Right arm and hand with fingers extended in front of face, then clench fist.
23. Q(3346) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required
Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;
Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;
Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;
24. Q(6251) Which is the correct order of priority:
A.
B.
C.
D.
All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft.
Gliders do not give way to balloons.
Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
25. Q(6253) What does a red flashing light from the control tower to an aircraft on the manoeuvring area mean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Return to the start point.
Stop.
Clear to taxi.
Move clear of the landing area.
26. Q(6256) On the ground, when two aircraft are approaching head on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Traffic patrol has to be informed.
Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear.
Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the left to keep well clear.
Both should declare an urgency.
27. Q(3491) Unlawful interference (Hijacking) in non RVSM airspace: If an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') in non RVSM airspace and the
pilot is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS, he shall try to
A. fly the emergency triangle and try to establish radiotelephony contact with the interference coordinator of the appropriate ATS unit on 121.5 MHz.
B. slow the speed of the aircraft down to minimum, squawk A7700 and declare emergency on 121.5 MHz.
C. proceed at a level which differs from the cruising level normally used for IFR flights in that area by 1000 ft if the aircraft is operated above FL 290 or 500 ft if the aircraft is
operated below FL 290.
D. commence as soon as possible an emergency descent in order to minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure.
28. Q(6239) Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Between SS and SR or any other period specified by the appropriate authority.
All aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area.
All aircraft operating on the movement area.
As soon as engines are running.
29. Q(6249) An aircraft that has the right way shall maintain its:
A.
B.
C.
D.
course, speed and height
course and speed
right of progress
heading and speed
30. Q(6264) VFR operations can be suspended by which of the following:
A.
B.
C.
D.
None of the other answers.
Any aerodrome controller.
The appropriate aerodrome authority.
The area control centre within whose CTA the aerodrome is located.
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31. Q(6248) Flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, above the transition level, shall be conducted in terms of…
A.
B.
C.
D.
height
flight levels
QNH
altitude
32. Q(704) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
Come back and land.
33. Q(6254) A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the Aerodrome Control tower means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airfield closed, do not land here.
Clear the landing area immediately.
Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere.
Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
34. Q(6236) Right of way. An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
70° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
80° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
60° with the plane of symmetry of the latter.
35. Q(12179) Signal from a signalman to an aircraft. A signalman requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
Crossing arms extended above his head.
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms towards ground.
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
36. Q(6259) In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes.
The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable.
A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC.
None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan.
37. Q(3403) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous
areas shall be for an IFR flight :
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
at least1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
at least2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
38. Q(5326) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
A.
B.
C.
D.
not land because the airport is not available for landing.
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
give way to another aircraft.
39. Q(1928) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:
A.
B.
C.
D.
need to file a flight plan
may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
40. Q(87) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided) .
The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).
41. Q(6268) If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Try to contact another aircraft for relay.
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and reportto ATS.
Try to make contact on another frequency with either a ground station or another aircraft.
Continue the flight according to flight plan.
42. Q(5349) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft
:
A.
B.
C.
D.
may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
must stop.
must return to its point of departure.
must vacate the landing area in use.
43. Q(12161) ICAO Annex 2 - Definitions. Who is charged with the safe conduct of a flight?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.
The pilot-in-command.
The airline operator.
The aircraft owner.
44. Q(6250) To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lighted stop bars may only be crossed with the authorisation of aerodrome control tower.
An aircraft has to stop and hold at all lighted stop bars if so required by the aerodrome control tower.
An aircraft shall stop and hold at all lighted stop bars unless otherwise authorised by the aerodrome control tower.
An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off.
45. Q(6266) How is Flight Visibility defined?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The forecast visibility at3000 ft above the aerodrome.
The measured visibility assessed by a certified meteorological observer.
The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity.
The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aeroplane in flight.
46. Q(6255) An aircraft operated on, or in the vicinity of, an aerodrome shall whether or not within an ATZ: 1) Observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding
collision.2) Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation. 3) Make all turns to the right,when approaching for landing or taking-off unless
otherwise instructed. 4) Land and take-off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction
should be used.
A.
B.
C.
D.
All statements except 4) are correct.
All statements except 1) are correct.
All statements except 2) are correct.
All statements except 3) are correct.
47. Q(12189) Interception. If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted
aircraft shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.
48. Q(12043) Minimum level IFR. Over high terrain or mountainous areas, where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with
IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 000ft above the highestobstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
2 000ft above the highestobstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
2 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
49. Q(5354) Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a
500 ft margin above the following two levels:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
50. Q(6267) What is Special VFR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR.
A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR.
Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC.
51. Q(6247) Where no minimum flight altitudes have been established for IFR flights, which statement concerning minimum flight altitudes for IFR flights is correct:
A. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, ata level which is at least 300m(1000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position
of the aircraft.
B. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, ata level which is at least 600m (2000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 nm of the estimated position
of the aircraft.
C. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, ata level which is at least 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 nm of the estimated position
of the aircraft.
D. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600m (2000ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the
aircraft.
52. Q(12042) Minimum level IFR. When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in
accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 000ft above the highestobstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
2 000ft above the highestobstacle located within 10 NM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
2 000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
53. Q(6240) While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100° relative bearing. In that case you should see his:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green and white navigation lights.
Green navigation light.
Red navigation light.
White navigation light.
54. Q(699) Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on itsleft
Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right
Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching
55. Q(32) On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
other vehicles and pedestrians
other converging aircraft
aircraft taking off or about to take off
56. Q(12262) Visual Flight Rules. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR of Airspace
Class C or D or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the
A.
B.
C.
D.
ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.
ceiling isless than 1 500ft or the ground visibility isless than 5 km.
ceiling is less than 2 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
57. Q(6235) The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area, is to include:
A. A careful briefing of the passengers.
B. A careful study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route.
C. A careful study of the available weather charts.
D. A careful briefing of the crew.
58. Q(6245) Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of
persons shall not be flown at a height less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
600m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300m from the aircraft.
300m above the highest obstacle.
300m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
300m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft.
59. Q(12208) Aircraft equipped with red anticollision lights may display them:
A.
B.
C.
D.
outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight period this procedure is not applicable.
outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when being towed.
on the ground when the engines are running.
while taxiing, but not when being towed.
60. Q(6238) An aircraft being towed by night must display:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The same lights that are required in flight.
Flashing navigation lights.
Steady navigation lights.
An anti-collision beacon.
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
61. Q(31) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Continue circling and wait for further instructions
Give way to other aircraft in emergency
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
The airport is unsafe, do not land
62. Q(6234) When is deviation from the rules of the air permitted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anytime the PIC thinks it isnecessary.
Only when it is economically advantageous.
Only if the operator has special dispensation from the aircraft manufacturer.
Only in the interests of flight safety.
63. Q(6241) When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the face this means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brakes released
Remove chocks
Brakes engaged
Insert chocks
64. Q(3404) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
A.
B.
C.
D.
outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
on the ground when the engines are running
outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
65. Q(6261) Which of the following defines flight visibility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation.
The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric conditions.
The ability to determine in the air the distance and identify unlighted objects by day and lighted objects by night.
The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
66. Q(6257) RPL's are used for flights with which of the following properties:
A.
B.
C.
D.
All flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least 10 occasions.
VFR flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least 10 occasions.
IFR and SVFR flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least 10 occasions.
IFR flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least 10 occasions.
67. Q(5337) The planned cruising speed for the firstleg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
true air speed (TAS).
indicated air speed (IAS).
true air speed at 65% power.
estimated ground speed (G/S).
68. Q(12264) Visual Flight Rules. Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather
minima:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.
a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.
a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.
69. Q(6270) After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its wings. This means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Understood
Will comply
NO
You are not to enter this airspace
70. Q(6246) Except where necessary for landing and take off, VFR flights are not permitted over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements, or over an open air
assembly of persons at a height less than … above the highest obstacle within a radius of … from the aircraft.
A. 300m, 600 ft
B. 300m, 600m
C. 500 ft, 600m
D. 1000 ft, 600 ft
71. Q(3401) In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
it is a deviation from the track.
the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
of an emergency.
72. Q(5347) The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
A. 14 000 kg.
B. 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
C. 20 000 kg.
D. 7 000 kg.
73. Q(83) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
A. 10 %
B. 5%
C. 3%
D. 2%
74. Q(5342) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :
A.
B.
C.
D.
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
must land immediately and clear the landing area.
must give way to another aircraft.
is cleared to land.
75. Q(86) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
76. Q(14696) Right of way - Converging Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on
converging courses. Aircraft "A" is flying under IFR, Aircraft "B" is flying under VFR. Who has the right of way?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aircraft "B", providing it has "A" on its left.
Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction from which "A" is approaching.
Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction from which "B" is approaching.
Aircraft "A", providing it has "B" on its right.
77. Q(6263) SVFR may be authorized when the ground visibility is not less than:
A. 5 km
B. 1500m
C. 1800 m
D. 1000 m
78. Q(12045) Light signals. A red flare addressed to an aircraft in flight means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Give way to another aircraft and remain in the circuit.
Airfield is unsafe, do not land.
Return to the airfield and land.
Notwithstanding any other instructions, do not land at the moment.
79. Q(6244) No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements unless ata height that willpermit, in the event of an emergency, a
landing to be made safely. Exceptions to this rule are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Take-off and landing.
None of the above.
Take-off and landing and permission from the appropriate authority.
Permission from the appropriate authority.
80. Q(6269) If a communications failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall:
A. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
B. Try to reach VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
C. Proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expected approach time or, if no expected approach time has been
received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan.
D. Proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the estimated time of arrival or the expected approach time,
whichever is later.
81. Q(3348) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;
Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;
82. Q(6258) An airborne flight plan must be submitted:
A. 60 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area.
B. 10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area.
C. 15 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area.
D. 30 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area.
06 Procedures For Air Navigation Services – Aircraft Operations
1. Q(6311) When you are asked to hold on a non standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At pilots discretion
Left
It depends upon the inbound holding track
Right
2. Q(6296) For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this
distance can be?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38 km (20 nm)
28 km (15 nm)
9 km (5 nm)
19 km (10 nm)
3. Q(6297) For a non-precision approach, the final approach fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum
this distance can be?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28 km (15 nm)
38 km (20 nm)
9 km (5 nm)
19 km (10 nm)
4. Q(12202) Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude. The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1500 ft AGL.
3000 ft AGL.
1000 ft AGL.
2500 ft AGL.
5. Q(6332) Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approaches and one drifts into the NTZ. What would the approach
controller be required to do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Issue appropriate control instructions to manoeuvre the threatened aircraft on the adjacent ILS approach.
Advise the transgressing aircraft to break-off the approach and go around.
Order the transgressing aircraft to climb immediately.
Give instructions to the transgressing aircraft to turn away from the other traffic.
6. Q(1733) SSR - Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
A.
B.
C.
D.
regardless of ATC instructions.
unless otherwise directed by ATC.
only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
only when directed by ATC.
7. Q(10078) Circling approach. One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.
The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
8. Q(1732) SSR - Transponder: When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder
A. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
B. Only when directed by ATC.
C. Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
D. At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
9. Q(6276) What is the meaning of AGL?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aerodrome ground level.
Above ground level.
Above ground level or aerodrome ground level.
Altitude of ground level.
10. Q(6331) When parallel runway operations are in progress and a reduced radar separation of 3 NM between approaching aeroplanes is maintained,
what type of operations are being carried out?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mode 2
Mode 4
Mode 1
Mode 3
11. Q(6323) Flight above the transition altitude is referenced to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Altitude with reference to the standard atmospheric pressure.
Altitude with reference to local QNH.
Flight levels with reference to local QNH.
Flight levels when 1013 hPa is set.
12. Q(10080) Altimeter setting procedures - Definitions. The Transition Level:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-incommand.
shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.
13. Q(1725) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Landing runway.
Final missed approach track.
MAP.
FAF.
14. Q(1708) Abbreviations. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Obstruction in surface.
Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstacle identification surface.
15. Q(1713) Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the
alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than:
A. 15°.
B. 45°.
C. 12.5°.
D. 30°.
16. Q(6316) You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhead the VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will you perform?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A direct entry
A reciprocal entry
An offset entry
A parallel or offset entry
17. Q(1709) Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Direct entry route.
Departure end of runway.
Displaced end of runway.
Distance error in routing.
18. Q(6337) During a pre-flight a SSR transponder is found to be inoperative and immediate repair is not possible:
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is necessary to specify this failure in the appropriate field of the flight plan.
A flight can be continued only to the destination airport.
A flight can not be made.
A flight to the closest airport, where a repair can be made is allowed.
19. Q(12174) Departure procedure - Design. The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
availability of navigation aids.
ATC availability and requirements.
20. Q(6301) Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3° be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable.
For aircraft with STOL capabilities.
Where noise abatement restrictions make a less steep approach impracticable.
Parallel runway operations.
21. Q(12200) Altimeter setting procedures - transition level.The transition level:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
will be passed to aircraft by ATS units
is published and updated in the NOTAM
is calculated by the Pilot-in command
22. Q(6305) The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.5% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority.
2% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority.
3.3% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority.
0.8% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority.
23. Q(242) Approach procedures - final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation
from:
A. 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
B. 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
C. 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
D. 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
24. Q(6310) A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. When is this permitted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCH calculated without consideration of that obstacle.
Flight visibility of 1500m or more and cloud ceiling of 850 ft or more.
The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas.
The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway.
25. Q(6330) During initial climb in an uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be:
A. local QFE
B. standard pressure setting
C. local QNH
D. any desired value
26. Q(6328) On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005°, the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight levels is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
FL 70
FL 55
FL 65
FL 60
27. Q(6306) Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Where the turn towards the IAF is made.
Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At 394ft AGL.
At the point where the climb is established.
28. Q(1714) Holding procedures - Offset Entry. Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 minutes.
2 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
1 minute.
29. Q(1724) Approach procedures - Final approach segment. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the
A.
B.
C.
D.
IF.
FAP.
MAP.
FAF.
30. Q(6280) For a turning departure turns may be :
A.
B.
C.
D.
All answers are correct.
At a facility.
At a fix.
An altitude or height.
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31. Q(12191) Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction. Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength.
correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.
ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
32. Q(327) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
240 kt IAS.
230 kt IAS.
230 kt TAS.
240 kt TAS.
33. Q(6287) The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a localiser accuracy of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/2 scale
1/4 scale
Full scale
On localiser centre line only
34. Q(6309) When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 to ± 5 seconds
0 to ± 3 seconds
3 seconds
0 to ± 5 seconds
35. Q(6314) You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound
track from on top the fix towards the outbound leg?
A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 20°
D. 60°
36. Q(12256) SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAWK IDENT unless they:
A.
B.
C.
D.
operate within controlled airspace.
operate outside controlled airspace.
are requested by ATC.
operate a transponder with Mode C.
37. Q(6278) Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for takeoff.
Cloud ceiling and RVR for takeoff.
Cloud base and RVR for takeoff.
Cloud base and ground visibility for takeoff.
38. Q(6333) The NTZ extends from … to …
A.
B.
C.
D.
The start of the approach, the touchdown point of the first runway.
The final approach fix, the end of the nearest runway.
The nearer runway threshold, the point at which both aircraft are established on the centre line of the runways.
The threshold of the nearer runway, the point at which 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft.
39. Q(6273) The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Convention of Chicago
The Air Navigation bulletin
The Air Pilot
PAN OPS Doc 8168
40. Q(6319) What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the bigger area (5 nm outside of the holding area) of a holding pattern?
A. 0 m (0 ft)
B. 300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)
C. 90 m (300 ft)
D. 150 m (500 ft)
41. Q(861) Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168). What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning
of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Race track
Base turn
Reversal procedure
Procedure turn
42. Q(1729) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: A. 3000 ft.
B. 2500 ft.
C. 1000 ft.
D. 1500 ft.
43. Q(6308) What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
A. 2.5%
B. 3.30%
C. 2.5°
D. 3°
44. Q(6288) Where an operator establishes an aerodrome operating minima, the minima:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Should not be higher than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located.
Shall not be higher than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located.
Shall not be lower than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located.
Should not be lower than any that may be established for such aerodromes by the state in which the aerodrome is located.
45. Q(245) Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - Phases. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrival, intermediate and final.
Initial and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
Initial, intermediate and final.
46. Q(5352) Approach procedures - missed approach climb. Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
A. 2%
B. 3.3%
C. 2.5%
D. 5%
47. Q(6313) In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the … by making allowance for wind by applying corrections to … during entry and while flying the
holding pattern.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heading, time.
Track, heading.
Heading, track and time.
Track, heading and time.
48. Q(6284) What is a STAR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Special terminal arrival
Supplementary terminal arrival
Standard instrumental arrival
Standard arrival
49. Q(10079) Holding procedures. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he
should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.
follow the radio communication failure procedure.
advise ATC as early as possible.
50. Q(6299) When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facility assumed for a VOR is: A. +- 1.4°
B. +-10.3°
C. +-6.2°
D. +-4.5°
51. Q(6295) Object located beyond the 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles in flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed … in
height.
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 m
150 m
250 m
100 m
52. Q(6279) During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track?
A. 150 m
B. 1000 ft
C. 120m (394 ft)
D. Transition altitude
53. Q(6335) What SSR squawk indicates communications failure?
A. 7700
B. 7500
C. 2000
D. 7600
54. Q(6292) When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
MSL
Threshold
Highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome
Aerodrome reference point
55. Q(6275) For an instrument departure (SI what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?
A. 5%
B. 3.30%
C. 3.50%
D. 2.50%
56. Q(1798) SSR - Transponder. When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT.
use the word WILCO.
use the word ROGER.
read back the mode and code to be set.
57. Q(331) Holding procedures: The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
2 minutes 30 seconds.
1 minute 30 seconds.
58. Q(194) You are on an IFR flightexecuting a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2.
visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination
regrouping all the correct answers is :
A. 1, 2, 3.
B. 1, 2.
C. 1, 3.
D. 2, 3.
59. Q(6277) What is the meaning of MEHT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Minimum elevation height
Mean height over threshold
Maximum eye height
Minimum eye height
60. Q(6304) What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Glide path
Final approach
Go around / Missed Approach
Approach to landing
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61. Q(1727) Holding Procedures - Entry. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there isa zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries
of:
A. 15°.
B. 20°.
C. 10°.
D. 5°.
62. Q(6293) What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 NM either side of the approach path.
1/2 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach.
3/4 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach.
1/4 of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach.
63. Q(12204) Altimeter setting procedures - Definitions The Transition Level:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-incommand.
is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.
shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
64. Q(6294) During the arrival and initial segments ofan instrument procedure, what is the obstacle clearance provided (no in mountainous areas)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 m
Not less than 300 m
300 m reducing to 150 m
It depends upon the MSA
65. Q(1797) SSR - Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they:
A.
B.
C.
D.
are requested by ATC.
operate outside controlled airspace.
operate a transponder with Mode C.
operate within controlled airspace.
66. Q(6290) The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path including an allowance for aircraft speed plus a margin.
The OCA/H based on the obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height loss on any go around.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on and go around, plus
a margin for operational factors.
67. Q(6334) When two-way radio communication is lost, a pilot should select … on the transponder.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mode A 7500
Mode A 7700
Mode C 2000
Mode C 7600
68. Q(6324) In the standard atmosphere FL35 is equivalent to:
A. 1200 m
B. 3500 m
C. 105 m
D. 1050 m
69. Q(1712) Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance. The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.8 % gradient.
3.3 % gradient.
0 ft.
35 ft.
70. Q(6320) In the standard atmosphere FL 150is equivalent to: A. 6100
m
B. 15,000 m
C. 455 m
D. 4550 m
71. Q(6307) The initial missed approach segment:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Begins at MDH and ends when 50m OCH is obtained and can be maintained.
Begins where the pilot looses the guidance criteria and ends when OCH is passed.
Begins at the threshold and ends at the point where the climb is established.
Begins at the MAP and ends where the climb isestablished.
72. Q(6286) The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass.
1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mas.
1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass.
1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass.
73. Q(6291) OCH for a precision approach is defined as:
A. The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements.
B. The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight.
C. The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate
obstacle clearance criteria.
D. The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements.
74. Q(6336) An aircraft equipped with an SSR transponder is expected to operate the transponder on Mode A code … to indicate specifically that is subjected to
unlawful interference.
A. 7500
B. 7400
C. 7900
D. 7600
75. Q(1730) Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to
be reported:
A.
B.
C.
D.
as altitude.
as height.
according pilot's choice.
as Flight Level.
76. Q(6283) What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach?
A. 300 ft
B. 350 ft
C. 250 ft
D. 450 ft
77. Q(6300) For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be: A. +- 3.1
nm
B. +- 1.5 nm
C. +-3.1km
D. +-1.5km
78. Q(6312) What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3° per second
15° bank angle maximum
30° bank angle maximum
5° per second
79. Q(6322) With QFE set a serviceable altimeter will indicate:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The elevation of the point selected plus the height of the altimeter above this point within a tolerance of +- 20 ft for altimeters with a test range of 0 to 50,000 ft.
The elevation of the point selected plus the height of the altimeter above this point within a tolerance of +- 20 m for altimeters with a test range of 0 to 30,000 ft.
The elevation of the point selected plus the height of the altimeter above this point within a tolerance of +- 20 ft for altimeters with a test range of 0 to 30,000 ft.
The elevation of the point selected plus the height of the altimeter above this point within a tolerance of +- 20 m for altimeters with a test range of 0 to 50,000 ft.
80. Q(251) Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling. A circling approach is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight while at MDA/H..
81. Q(6317) When holding at FL 110, what is the normal outbound leg time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 min 30 sec
30 sec
1 min 15 sec
1 min
82. Q(1796) SSR - Transponder. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to
Mode A, Code
A. 7500.
B. 7000.
C. 7700.
D. 7600.
83. Q(6303) "An IFR Flight shall not be cleared for an initial approach below the appropriate minimum altitude as specified by the State concerned nor to descend below
thataltitude unless: I) The pilot has reported passing an appropriate pointdefined by a geographical location. II) The pilot reports that the aerodrome is and can be
maintained in sight. III) The aircraft is conducting a visual approach. IV) The aircraft's position has been positively determined by the us of radar."
A.
B.
C.
D.
II, III and IV are correct
I, II and IV are correct
All statements are correct
I, II and III are correct
84. Q(6271) A radial is:
A. A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station.
B. A QDM.
C. A magnetic bearing to a VOR station.
D. A magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR.
85. Q(6321) During flight below the transition altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of height.
QNH and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude.
QNE and its vertical position is expressed in term of flight levels.
QNE and its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude.
86. Q(6281) When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISA + 15° C corresponding to the altitude.
JSA + 15° C corresponding to the altitude.
JSA - 15° C corresponding to the altitude.
ISA - 15° C corresponding to the altitude.
87. Q(12308) SSR - Transponder. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode
A.
B.
C.
D.
unless otherwise directed by ATC.
only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
only when directed by ATC.
regardless of ATC instructions.
88. Q(193) Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to
intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Procedure turn.
Reversal track.
Base turn.
Race track.
89. Q(12047) OCA An OCA is referenced to
A.
B.
C.
D.
an Aerodrome Elevation
Mean Sea Level
the Aerodrome Reference Point
the relevant Runway Threshold
90. Q(6289) Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The competence and experience of flight crews.
The frequency of meteorological reports.
Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
Adequacy and provision of ground aids.
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91. Q(12163) Holding procedures (outbound time): The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.5 minutes.
2 minutes.
30 seconds.
1 minute.
92. Q(6327) Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be:
A. QNE
B. QFE
C. QNH
D. 1013,2 hPa
93. Q(6326) Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone.
It is always a blanket altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state.
The calculated height should be rounded up to the nearest 1000ft.
The transition altitude shall not be less then 5000 ft.
94. Q(6325) Which of the following defines transition altitude?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The flight level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to 1013 hPa.
The altitude at which 1013 hPa is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level.
The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QHN.
The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to QFE.
95. Q(7222) What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?
A. Reducing from 300 m to 150 m
B. 300 m (984 ft)
C. 150 m (492 ft)
D. 200 m (656 ft)
96. Q(249) Approach Procedures - Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring
(circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option isexercised, the published procedure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Permits circling only in VMC.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
97. Q(6315) A holding pattern is established on inbound radial 000° to VOR NTM. You are approaching the VOR from the Southwest. What type of entry procedure
is required?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parallel entry (sector 1)
Offset entry
Teardrop entry (sector 2)
Direct entry (sector 3).
98. Q(330) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°.
You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parallel.
Off set.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
Direct.
99. Q(6285) Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearance for aircraft up to and including:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Category B
Category A
Category D
Category C
100. Q(6274) The PDG is made up of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.8% increasing obstacle clearance.
2.5% gradient of obstacle identification.
2.5% gradient of obstacle identification minus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance.
2.5% gradient of obstacle identification plus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance.
101. Q(12201) Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer. Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller, when passing through the transition layer, a
pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as:
A. flight level in a descent.
B. altitude in a descent.
C. either altitude or flight level in a climb.
D. altitude in a climb.
102. Q(1723) Approach segments: In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Intermediate approach segment.
Initial approach segment.
Arrival segment.
Final approach segment.
103. Q(6318) What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
250 m
Nil
100 m
300 m
104. Q(12203) Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of
aircraft shall be expressed in term of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
flight level at or above the transition altitude
altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude
altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude
flight level at or below the transition level
105. Q(3407) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
the first part of the segment ;
the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully;
the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
106. Q(5345) SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320.In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mode A Code 7500
Mode A Code 5320
Mode A Code 7700
Mode A Code 7600
107. Q(1728) Holding Procedures - Buffer Area. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 NM.
3 km.
3 NM.
5 km.
108. Q(6329) A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:
A.
B.
C.
D.
On the apron.
At the holding point.
At a known elevation on the aerodrome.
On the manoeuvring area.
109. Q(248) Approach Procedures - Circling The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into
position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Visual approach.
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Contact approach.
110. Q(12164) Holding procedures (entry). You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound,
inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°.Select the appropriate entry procedure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
direct only.
parallel or direct.
offset only.
either offset or parallel.
111. Q(6298) Where a final approach fix (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the minimum obstacle clearance fixed margin that is
applied for all aircraft?
A. 75 m (246 ft)
B. 100 m (316 ft)
C. 120 m (400 ft)
D. 90 m (295 ft)
112. Q(6282) What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glideslope) non-precision approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 ft
250 ft
100 ft
300 ft
113. Q(246) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: A. 5%.
B. 3.3%.
C. 0.8%.
D. 2.5%.
114. Q(6302) Where does the final approach segments for a precision approach start?
A.
B.
C.
D.
FAH
FAF
IAF
FAP
115. Q(2955) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
centreline is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 degrees or less
20 degrees or less
40 degrees or less
10 degrees or less
116. Q(6272) PANS-OPS means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pilots Alternative Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures.
Primary and Alternative Navigation Systems and Operations.
Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations.
Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations.
07 Air Traffic Services And Air Traffic Management
1. Q(379) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flightin accordance with visual flight rules, until the
destination is reached: 1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR") 2 He must request and obtain clearance. 3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to
a VFR flight plan. 4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan. The correct combination of statements is:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 4
2. Q(1909) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
3. Q(12076) Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC. Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication
failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC?
A. Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.
B. Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.
C. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan
destination at the planned ETA.
D. Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
4. Q(4680) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3,050 m (10,000 ft) AMLS, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Not applicable
260 KT, IAS
250 KT,TAS
250 KT, IAS
5. Q(12168) General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended
or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
6. Q(1914) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an
angle not greater than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 degrees.
20 degrees.
15 degrees.
30 degrees.
7. Q(1903) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position
and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 minutes.
3 minutes.
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
8. Q(1166) What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
Radar Service is terminated.
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
9. Q(1054) The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
A. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
B. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
C. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
D. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
10. Q(5239) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
C, D, E, F, and G
F only
F and G only
A, B, C, D, E, F and G
11. Q(6345) DETRESFA is where:
A. The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.
B. An aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land.
C. No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received and
where an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land.
D. No communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received.
12. Q(4653) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation :
A.
B.
C.
D.
At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
13. Q(14516) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach
track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
14. Q(4693) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight
information service if requested, is classified
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace G
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace F
15. Q(5236) An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which
may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region
concerned or sub-area thereof is
A.
B.
C.
D.
An En-Route Meteo Report
A NOTAM
An AIRMET information
A SIGMET information
16. Q(2636) Definitions - Visual Approach. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed :
A.
B.
C.
D.
during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
during IFR approaches, ifthe cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure, and the visibility is at least 5.5 km.
when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.
17. Q(1051) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
B. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
C. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
D. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
18. Q(430) Separation methods and minima - Vertical Separation Minima (VSM) acc. DOC 4444: Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM)
for aircraft flying in the same direction shall be
A.
B.
C.
D.
4000 feet.
2 000feet.
1 500feet.
3 000feet.
19. Q(4660) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes
3 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
20. Q(5340) An air traffic control unit:
A.
B.
C.
D.
must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there isa risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a
repetitive flight plan.
21. Q(14141) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector
shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 degrees
15 degrees
20 degrees
30 degrees
22. Q(1158) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
To provide radar separation.
To assist aircraft on the location storms.
To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
23. Q(372) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
24. Q(4670) Horizontal separation - Independent parallel approaches. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS
localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.0 NM
1.0 NM
2.0 NM
5.0 NM
25. Q(12218) Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments. The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an
instrument approach procedure is at least:
A. 600m (1968 ft).
B. 450m (1476 ft).
C. 150m (492 ft).
D. 300m (984 ft).
26. Q(4379) IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
A.
B.
C.
D.
only in airspace class A
if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
Above the transition altitude when applicable
When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
27. Q(1927) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
28. Q(12192) Inadvertent changes from a Flight plan. The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
if the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% from that given in the flight plan.
if the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than ten minutes from that notified to ATS.
about any track deviation.
about any deviation in TAS.
29. Q(10086) Separation - VMC and own separation. The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meterological conditions" may be given by the
appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight
Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight
Airspace Class C, D, VMC
Airspace Class B, C, D and E, VMC
30. Q(6350) Above flight level FL 290 (non-RVSM) the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3000 ft
1500 ft
2000 ft
4000 ft
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31. Q(1048) Air Traffic Service unit means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.
32. Q(4690) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified
as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace E
Airspace B
Airspace C
Airspace D
33. Q(12230) Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-in:A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the
angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is
A. 40° or less
B. 20° or less
C. 10° or less
D. 30° or less
34. Q(3402) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
you are not allowed to commence the flight
the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
35. Q(2642) Airspace Classification - Services: During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace Class C
A.
B.
C.
D.
ATC will provide separation between flights under IFR, Pilots are responsible for separation between flights under VFR.
Pilots are responsible for separation with arriving and departing aircraft.
ATC will provide separation with other traffic.
ATC will provide separation with arriving but not with departing traffic.
36. Q(1053) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 metres.
500 metres.
200 metres.
300 metres.
37. Q(5353) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
A.
B.
C.
D.
will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
will stop on the parking area.
will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
will land (touch down).
38. Q(12275) Right of way / Avoidance of collisions. When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
switch on all available lights in order to warn the other traffic.
turn, climb or descent as appropriate in order to avoid.
alter its heading to the left.
alter its heading to the right.
39. Q(10081) General provisions - change from IFR to VFR. A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is
permitted in that air space and when
A.
B.
C.
D.
the PIC has requested and obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.
the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC.
ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.
the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight".
40. Q(4380) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
A.
B.
C.
D.
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
Only when leaving controlled airspace
If the commander so requests
41. Q(5234) ATIS broadcast
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
42. Q(1924) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, ifthe position or identification of the
aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 NM.
4 NM.
2 NM.
3 NM.
43. Q(1162) When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
44. Q(14700) Independent Parallel Approaches - Requirement for a No-Transgression Zone Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways
provided that a No-Transgression Zone / NTZ is established equidistant between the extended runway centre lines.
A.
B.
C.
D.
710 m
600 m
610 m
500 m
45. Q(431) Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA. Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle
clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this
circle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 NM
5 NM
20 NM
25 NM
46. Q(1908) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM.
5 NM.
20 NM.
47. Q(1926) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when
established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
A. +/- 15 kt.
B. +/- 8 kt.
C. +/- 20 kt.
D. +/- 10 kt.
48. Q(4382) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain
conditions
A.
B.
C.
D.
The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
The approach must be passing the FAF
Continued approach will be according to VFR
49. Q(6356) When under radar-control, the Radar-Controller shall issues a missed approach instruction, when the Tower-Controller has not issued the Clearance to land
by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 NM from the touchdown
5 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
50. Q(384) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The pilot in command.
The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
The ATC.
The aircraft operator.
51. Q(14517) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and
both are using the same runway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
4 minutes
52. Q(4647) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more
than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
53. Q(4666) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
54. Q(1904) Longitudinal Separation: The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent
determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt faster or more than the succeeding aircraft, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 minutes.
6 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
55. Q(12231) Approach procedures - MDH / OCH. For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
350 ft
400 ft
the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
200 ft
56. Q(1153) Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within
controlled airspace, below FL 290 is:
A. 2500 feet (750 m).
B. 500 feet (150 m).
C. 2000 feet (600 m).
D. 1000feet (300 m).
57. Q(7961) A Special Air Report shall be made:
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the ETA changes by more than 10 minutes.
In case an unruly passenger is on board
In case of an AIRPROX
When experiencing severe icing or turbulence.
58. Q(6353) A separation minimum of two minutes shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a
MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the light aircraft is landing on the same runway in the
opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction when the runway is separate by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
760 m
Less than 730 m
Less than 760 m
730 m
59. Q(12232) Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the appropriate minimum.
the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
the first part of the segment.
a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.
60. Q(4694) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace G
Airspace E
Airspace F
Airspace C
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61. Q(2644) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;
flight identification and weather noted ;
urgent messages
weather noted ;
62. Q(12186) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, the radar controller shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
inform the pilot prior to issuing instructions based on the use of radar.
request the pilot to squak ident for identification.
inform the aircraft only when identification had been achieved by using primary radar.
only communicate with the pilot when work load permits.
63. Q(1154) Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between flights operating in accordance with IFR, within
controlled airspace, above FL 290 is:
A. 2000 feet (600 m).
B. 4000 feet (1200 m).
C. 1000 feet (300 m).
D. 500 feet (150 m).
64. Q(4368) According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic:
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
Before landing and take-off
In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
65. Q(1923) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar
approach is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 NM.
8 NM.
10 NM.
5 NM.
66. Q(4646) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction
A. until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
B. until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
C. until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
D. untilfive minutesbefore the arriving aircraft isestimated to be over the instrument runway
67. Q(6346) Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established.
Information is received which indicated that the operating efficiency of an aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely.
An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC.
An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.
68. Q(1164) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Code 7600.
Code 7700.
Code 7500.
Code 2000.
69. Q(12175) Definitions - Visual Approach. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
during IFR and VFR approaches in VMC.
during IFR approaches, if the cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure.
during IFR approaches, ifthe cloud base is 1000 ft higher than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure, and the visibility is at least 5.5 km.
when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.
70. Q(1061) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
operational air traffic control centres
air traffic co-ordination services
search and rescue co-ordination centres
flight information or control organisations
71. Q(1907) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
72. Q(2639) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 minutes
20 minutes
15 minutes or more
5 minutes or more.
73. Q(4654) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 KT
8 KT
5 KT
10 KT
74. Q(432) Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches: A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the
approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to
A.
B.
C.
D.
keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.
maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.
notify the time when passing a specified point.
pass a specified point inbound at a previously notified time.
75. Q(5344) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
A.
B.
C.
D.
it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
76. Q(4661) Longitudinal separation minima based on time. For aircraft at the same cruising level, when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more, faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 minutes
3 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
77. Q(4679) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
260 KT, IAS
Not applicable
250 KT, TAS
250 KT, IAS
78. Q(1920) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that itis within:
A. +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
B. +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
C. +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
D. +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
79. Q(1922) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.5 NM.
3.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
80. Q(5232) ATIS - Updating. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
A.
B.
C.
D.
as prescribed by the meteorological office
as prescribed by the state
immediately a significant change occurs
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
81. Q(4668) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft
when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :
A.
B.
C.
D.
760 m
Less than 730 m
730 m
Less than 760 m
82. Q(4691) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR
flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights.VFR flights receive traffic information in respect ofall other flights, is classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace A
Airspace E
Airspace B
Airspace D
83. Q(1925) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the
appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 NM from touchdown.
2 NM from touchdown.
1 NM from touchdown.
2.5 NM from touchdown.
84. Q(4675) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
85. Q(1921) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that ithas passed this level in
the required direction by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
More than 300 ft.
300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
86. Q(14138) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 KT
8 KT
3 KT
10 KT
87. Q(1056) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
88. Q(12172) Flight plan - Inadvertent track changes. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan, action should
be taken in order to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.
notify the appropriate ATS unit immediately notifying the new track and to comply with instructions from ATS.
climb or descent by 500 ft, inform the appropriate ATS unit.
maintain VMC, wait for instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.
89. Q(4685) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
90. Q(3350) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall
never be more than :
A.
B.
C.
D.
15knots atany stage
25knots atany stage
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
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91. Q(4381) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of aerodromes, separation may be reduced
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
at discretion of the responsible air traffic controller.
if the commander of one of the involved aircraft so requests.
Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
92. Q(4362) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe
turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
93. Q(1057) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Achieving separation between IFR flights
Providing advisory service
Providing flight Information Service
Achieving separation between controlled flights
94. Q(1918) Radar services - Radar Separation - Minima Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
A. 3.0 NM.
B. 10.0 NM.
C. 3.5 NM.
D. 5.0 NM.
95. Q(5341) The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may
deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5
- may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
A. 3 - 5
B. 3 - 4 - 5
C. 2 - 3 - 5
D. 1 - 4
96. Q(370) The Alerting Service is provided by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
Only by ATC units.
The Area Control Centres.
The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
97. Q(12229) Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre - Circling. A circling approach is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
98. Q(6341) When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900m MSL. The minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is:
A. 1000 ft
B. 5 km
C. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
D. 1500 m
99. Q(6344) A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?
A.
B.
C.
D.
INCERFA
DETRESSFA
RESERFA
ALERFA
100. Q(12193) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
The width of the aircraft wing.
The length of the aircraft fuselage.
Only the aircraft wing span.
101. Q(12234) Approach procedures - Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument
approach. You have to initiate a go-around:
A.
B.
C.
D.
maintain visual ground contact, provided other cues of the aerodrome environment are visible.
make a turn towards the aerodrome, maintaining altitude and speed, requesting instructions from ATC.
make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.
make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach procedure.
102. Q(221) Aerodrome traffic is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
All traffic on the manoeuvring area
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome
103. Q(2957) Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;
Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
104. Q(1060) When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise hourly
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
105. Q(5228) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the
straight leg segments with a radius of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and belowFL190
22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
106. Q(4648) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when, as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits it to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level
information shall be given at each:
A.
B.
C.
D.
half NM
1 NM
half mile
1.5 NM
107. Q(1049) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
108. Q(4383) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 km
6 NM
2 km
3 NM
109. Q(5238) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
A.
B.
C.
D.
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
by regional air navigation agreements
by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
110. Q(220) ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified
as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Class D.
Class E.
Class B.
Class A.
111. Q(14698) Radar Services - Radar Separation Minima When radar capabilities at a given location so permit, the minimum radar separation of 5 NM may be
reduced, but shall not be less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.0 NM.
1.5 NM.
3.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
112. Q(1165) Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircrafthas been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions willbe provided until radar identification isterminated.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
113. Q(2641) During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landingclearance" at the moment the aircraft is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4 NM from touch-down;
1NM from touch-down;
3 NM from touch-down;
2 NM from touch-down;
114. Q(4243) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2000 feet
1500 feet
1000 feet
500 feet
115. Q(1050) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service only.
116. Q(4664) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
1 minute
117. Q(4659) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises
"on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 NM
25 NM
20 NM
10 NM
118. Q(4652) What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and
final approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
± 25 KT
± 20KT
± 15 KT
± 10KT
119. Q(2640) Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of
controlled airspace than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.5 NM
5 NM
3 NM
1.5 NM
120. Q(12228) CTR - Minimum lateral limits: How many NM shall a Control Zone extend at least from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodromes into
the direction from which approaches may be made?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 NM.
5 NM.
15 NM.
7.5 NM.
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
121. Q(4682) A strayed aircraft is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
122. Q(6348) In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between FL 290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of
350 would be expected to fly at:
A.
B.
C.
D.
FL 115
FL 410
FL 110
FL 400
123. Q(4384) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each
other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
A. 10 NM
B. 15 NM
C. 12 NM
D. 20 NM
124. Q(1906) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft
is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
10 minutes.
125. Q(371) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
126. Q(12177) General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance: Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain
clearance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The aircraft operator.
The ATC.
The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan.
The pilot-in-command.
127. Q(4649) Clearance on Final Approach. A pilot may expect to receive the clearance to land or any alternative clearance before the aircraft reaches a
distance of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 NM from touchdown
4 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
128. Q(1910) A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from
the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 NM.
50 NM.
80 NM.
20 NM.
129. Q(4650) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar
controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
130. Q(4665) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the
aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :
A.
B.
C.
D.
D and E airspaces
D airspace
C, D and E airspaces
E airspace
131. Q(387) General provisions - handling an ATC-flightplan in case ofa delay In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flightfor which a flightplan has been submitted,
the flightplan should be amended or a new flightplan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original
A. estimated departure time by 60 minutes.
B. estimated off-block time by 30 minutes.
C. estimated departure time by 30 minutes.
D. estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.
132. Q(6339) If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No.
Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft.
Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.
Yes.
133. Q(437) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase means that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
You are to contact the centre atthe next reporting point.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.
134. Q(5346) When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
A.
B.
C.
D.
030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
030° true
030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
030° magnetic
135. Q(1161) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the
touchdown of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4 NM.
5 NM.
3 NM.
2 NM.
136. Q(1911) Separation methods and minima - essential traffic A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled
airspace classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
B, C, D and E.
B, C and D.
B.
B and C.
137. Q(1058) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Providing flight Information Service
Providing advisory services
Providing alerting services
Achieving separation between controlled flights
138. Q(12182) Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION. Essential traffic is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.
Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.
Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.
139. Q(1149) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
140. Q(4683) Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A to E (inclusive)
F and G
C to G (inclusive)
A to G (inclusive)
141. Q(4684) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
only cumulonimbus
below 2 000 m (6600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
142. Q(14697) Use of Radar in the Approach Service - Vectoring to final approach track When an aircraft is vectored by radar to the localizer course, the angle between
the interception course and the localizer course is normally 30 degrees. In accordance with DOC 4444 this angle shall not be greater than:
A. 40°
B. 50°
C. 35°
D. 45°
143. Q(4674) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course
A.
B.
C.
D.
at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
144. Q(12236) Approach Control Service. An Expected Approach Time / EAT will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it
has to hold
A.
B.
C.
D.
for 30 minutes or more.
for 10 minutes or more.
for 20 minutes or more.
for 15 minutes or more.
145. Q(14136) An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which
may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region
concerned or sub-area thereof is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A NOTAM
An AIRMET information
An En-Route Meteo Report
A SIGMET information
146. Q(4689) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR
flights and from VFR flights, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flight is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace C
Airspace E
Airspace B
Airspace D
147. Q(219) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control area.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.
Air traffic zone.
148. Q(4677) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Not applicable
240 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
149. Q(12196) Communication failure. After experiencing a communication failure on a flight in accordance with IFR, the aircraft shall comply with the communication
failure procedures. When flying in VMC, the aircraft shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its arrival by most expeditious means tothe appropriate ATS unit.
continue on to destination, complying with last received and confirmed clearances or with filed flight plan.
descend to Minimum Safe Altitude / Level, continue to the nearest aerodrome with instrument approach procedure.
adopt a VFR flight level and continue according to VFR to the flight plan destination.
150. Q(4676) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft
when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 minute
3 minutes
2 minutes
5 minutes
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151. Q(6352) An expected approach time is given:
A.
B.
C.
D.
on all flight
when an aircraft is instructed to hold
on request
once an aircraft has been holding for 20 minutes
152. Q(5230) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the
straight leg segments defined with a radius of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
153. Q(4663) Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights other than IFR flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and:
A.
B.
C.
D.
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days
On at least 20occasions
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
On at least 20 days consecutively
154. Q(12233) Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach - ILS The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not
normally deviate from the centreline more than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.
One full scale deflection after being established on the track.
One and a half of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
A quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.
155. Q(4667) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track.
This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
A. 100 m (330 ft)
B. 150 m (500 ft)
C. 300 m (1000 ft)
D. 200 m (660 ft)
156. Q(3492) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
A.
B.
C.
D.
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
157. Q(5343) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another unit is done:
A.
B.
C.
D.
automatically at the control zone boundary.
with the pilot's consent.
through a central control unit.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
158. Q(1157) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
159. Q(3397) Which statement is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;
The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;
160. Q(1916) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
161. Q(6340) You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,000 ft horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically.
2,000 ft and 3 NM horizontally.
1,000ft vertically and 1.5km horizontally.
Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
162. Q(4692) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights
receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airspace E
Airspace A
Airspace D
Airspace B
163. Q(4657) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not
provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
164. Q(14142) Longitudinal Separation Minima . Mach Number Technique based on RNNAV Distance. When the Mach number separation technique
(MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft maintains a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft an RNAV distance based separation minimum may
be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 NM
80 NM
60 NM
70 NM
165. Q(6338) Which type of service is provided in Class F airspace:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air traffic control service
FIS
Air traffic advisory service and FIS
Air traffic advisory service
166. Q(5235) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 minute of UTC at all times
10 seconds of UTC at all times
15 seconds of UTC at all times
30 seconds of UTC at all times
167. Q(4673) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
168. Q(6343) The different emergency phases (in correct order) are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
INCERFA, ALERTFA, DISTRESFA
ALERTFA, DISTRESFA, RECUEFA
INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA
DETRESFA, ALERTFA, INCERFA
169. Q(3398) The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combined separation
Essential separation
Reduced separation
Composite separation
170. Q(5237) Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 NM or more
100 NM or more
60 NM or more
75 NM or more
171. Q(12165) General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance. When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Always when ATS are provided.
ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.
ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.
172. Q(12220) Classification of Airspace. Above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, the VMC minima for VFR flights in all Classes of airspace are:
A. Visibility: 8 km, Distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical.
B. Visibility: 8 km, clear of clouds.
C. No minima defined, VFR flights are not permitted.
D. Visibility: 5 km, Distance from clouds: 1500 m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical.
173. Q(1917) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: A. +/- 250 ft.
B. +/- 500 ft.
C. +/- 200 ft.
D. +/-300ft.
174. Q(12289) Urgency signals: The crew of an aircraft uses the following signal in order to give notice of difficulties, which compel it to land without requiring immediate
assistance
A.
B.
C.
D.
Switching on and off three times the navigation lights.
Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS.
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
175. Q(6355) When a surveillance radar approach is to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more
than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
176. Q(12173) Deviation from Flight Plan. Pilots of controlled flights are requested to inform the appropriate ATS whenever the average TAS at cruising level between
reporting points varies or is expected to vary from the TAS given in the flight plan by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5%
2%
4%
3%
177. Q(4678) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
240 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
178. Q(12171) Flight Plan. For flights in accordance with IFR within advisory airspace a flight plan
A. shall be submitted. Changes to the flight plan have to be reported.
B. does not have to be submitted.
C. may be submitted at the pilots discretion. In case a flightplan is submitted all changes shall be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATS
unit.
D. shall be submitted. There is no obligation to report changes.
179. Q(6351) A visual approach is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria.
Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC.
An approach made under VFR using height and track guidance.
The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is to be made.
180. Q(373) Alert phase is defined as follows:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
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181. Q(1059) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Do not take off before 0920
After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flightplan
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
The take off clearance is expected at 0920
182. Q(5360) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the radar controller.
the airport controller.
The pilot in command.
the approach controller.
183. Q(5229) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
A.
B.
C.
D.
plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
184. Q(429) Communications Failure - Flight Procedures You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you
receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised". At 18:37 UTC you discover a
communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again.
A.
B.
C.
D.
You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.
You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.
You continue on Heading 050.
You have to return to your current flight plan route.
185. Q(5233) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of
A.
B.
C.
D.
both air traffic services and the meteorological office
the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
the unit as prescribed the states
the air traffic services
186. Q(1912) One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
A.
B.
C.
D.
25° immediately after take-off.
30° immediately after take-off.
45° immediately after take-off.
15° immediately after take-off.
187. Q(6347) When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles on the ground rests with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the aircraft commander
air traffic control
all of the above
the handling pilot
188. Q(4656) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 KT
10 KT
4 KT
5 KT
189. Q(14514) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area;
An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;
190. Q(4686) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
191. Q(4244) Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
A.
B.
C.
D.
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
as instructed by an air traffic control unit
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
192. Q(1919) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may
specify a smaller criterion):
A. +/- 150 ft.
B. +/- 300 ft.
C. +/- 200 ft.
D. +/- 250 ft.
193. Q(4655) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 KT
5 KT
4 KT
2 KT
194. Q(2958) Radar Services - Precision Surveillance Radar: At what distance from the end of the runway may a pilot expect that his aircraft can be identified on
departure when ATC is equipped with and using PSR?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1NM
3NM
5NM
2NM
195. Q(12166) General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444). A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony
shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over.
1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over.
1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.
1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.
196. Q(1163) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
A.
B.
C.
D.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
197. Q(5250) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
A.
B.
C.
D.
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
198. Q(12181) Separation Methods and Minima - General. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Composite separation.
Time separation and track separation.
Vertical and horizontal separation.
Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.
199. Q(1052) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
200. Q(1160) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
201. Q(434) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use
more than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 metres.
30 metres.
50 metres.
45 metres.
202. Q(12235) Approach procedures - Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach segment. What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the
end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m.
450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).
300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).
150m (492 ft) reducing to 0 m.
203. Q(12205) Altimeter setting (change during climb). On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
transition level.
transition layer.
level specified by ATC.
transition altitude.
204. Q(6349) What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC, whereby the separation may be reduced?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Time separation and track separation.
Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.
Vertical and horizontal separation.
Composite separation.
205. Q(218) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flight Information Region.
Control area.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.
206. Q(12075) Radar services - Identification without SSR. "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available. For radar identification ATC may request the pilot
to execute one or more heading changes of
A. 45°.
B. 20° or more.
C. 10°.
D. 30° or more.
207. Q(4688) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
208. Q(12180) Separation methods and minima - vertical separation. Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 000feet.
2000 feet.
1 500feet.
4 000feet.
209. Q(5231) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 minute
3 minutes
2 minutes
30 seconds
210. Q(4651) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for
any significant interval during the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Last 5 NM of the approach
Last 2 NM of the approach
Last 3 NM of the approach
Last 4 NM of the approach
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211. Q(12227) Arrival and Approach segments - General. What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.
Initial, intermediate, final.
212. Q(2637) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the pilot is following the published approach procedure
the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
all mentioned answers are correct
the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
213. Q(12170) General provisions - amended clearance. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft
A.
B.
C.
D.
The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will only be given when VMC prevails.
The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC.
The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request.
214. Q(4242) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
Position reports may be omitted
The aircraft is subject to positive control
215. Q(6354) When ATC is equipped with an using PSR, at whatdistance from the end of the runway may a pilotexpected that his aircraft can be identified?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 NM
3 NM
2 NM
5 NM
216. Q(1159) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
217. Q(4662) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 minutes
3 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
218. Q(6342) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "C" above 10,000 ft MSL are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 ft vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
219. Q(2963) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
A. Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this;
B. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
C. The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication
should have been received;
D. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service may be provided by the same ATS unit
220. Q(4658) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following
aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 NM
70 NM
80 NM
100 NM
221. Q(12041) Minimum Radar Separation on final approach The minimum radar separation provided between aircraft established on the same localizer course
shall be: (plus additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence)
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 NM.
3 NM.
5 NM.
2.5 NM.
222. Q(2956) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a clearance is required.
a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.
a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.
two way radio communication is not required.
08 Aeronautical Information Service
1. Q(5171) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
YELLOW
GREEN
ORANGE
RED
2. Q(12198) AIP. Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AD
ENR
FAL
GEN
3. Q(884) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is
called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
AIRAC.
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
NOTAM.
4. Q(12055) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Not more than one month
Not more than 10 days
No more than 15 days
Not more than 28 days
5. Q(5915) Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change
for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ASHTAM
GVATAM
VULTAM
NAVTAM
6. Q(5164) An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
A.
B.
C.
D.
AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
7. Q(14402) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A NOTAM RAC.
An Advisory NOTAM.
An AIRAC.
An ATS NOTAM.
8. Q(4369) Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP
A.
B.
C.
D.
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
DME-frequencies
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
OCA or OCH
9. Q(5166) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
A.
B.
C.
D.
At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
10. Q(5173) AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ENR
MET
AD
GEN
11. Q(12211) AIP. Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
A.
B.
C.
D.
AD
GEN
METEO
ENR
12. Q(5175) AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ENR
GEN
MAP
AD
13. Q(5165) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
14. Q(6357) What is a danger area?
A. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace
classification.
B. A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded.
C. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
D. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight of aircraft is prohibited.
15. Q(886) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.
Only NOTAMs and Circulars.
Only AIP and NOTAMs.
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
16. Q(3399) The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
A. in the NOTAM and in the AIP including Supplement.
B. only in AIP
C. in the NOTAM, AIP and MAL
D. only in NOTAM
17. Q(5917) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:
A.
B.
C.
D.
NOTAM
Trigger NOTAM
AIP Supplements
AIP Amendments
18. Q(2219) AIP. Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
GEN
LOC
AD
ENR
19. Q(12210) AIP. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
SAR
GEN
AD
ENR
20. Q(12209) AIP. Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The AIP does not contain this information
ENR
GEN
AD
21. Q(5167) Temporary changes of "long duration" and information of "short duration" with extensive text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. It is
considered a long duration.
A.
B.
C.
D.
six months or longer.
two months or longer.
one year or longer.
three months or longer.
22. Q(5332) An AIRAC is:
A. A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
B. A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility
service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
C. A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
D. An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
23. Q(14701) Information on holding, approach and departure procedures Which part of the AIP contains this information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
MAP
AD
GEN
ENR
24. Q(5916) The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified
by the acronym:
A.
B.
C.
D.
AIRAC
EATCHIP
NOTAM
IFPS
25. Q(5168) Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified
AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
09 Aerodromes/Heliports
1.Q(6358) What is the meaning of DER:
A.
B.
C.
D.
dead end of runway
departure end of runway
dead reckoning
displaced end of runway
2.Q(899) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed lights showing green.
Fixed lights showing blue.
Fixed lights showing white.
Fixed lights showing yellow.
3.Q(6386) Are runways edge lights required to show at all angles in azimuth (omni-directionally)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No, they are only required to showin azimuth in both runway directions.
Yes but only where they are intended to provide guidance during circling.
Yes, but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizon).
No, only in the direction of the approach.
4.Q(6367) Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the signals area indicates that glider flying is in progress?
A.
B.
C.
D.
a white double cross
a white dumb bell
a green ball suspended from a mast
a black letter - C - on a yellow background
5.Q(891) Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Code letter "B".
Code letter "D".
Code letter "C".
Code letter "E".
6.Q(6369) What colour are apron markings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
White.
Red.
Green.
A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.
7.Q(356) Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed orange.
Flashing yellow.
Fixed red.
Flashing red.
8.Q(4241) Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
A. 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B. 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
C. 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
D. 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
9.Q(913) High intensity obstacle lights should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flashing red.
Flashing white.
Fixed orange.
Fixed red.
10. Q(888) "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
18 m.
25 m.
23 m.
15 m.
11. Q(6390) A black letter "C" on a yellow background indicates:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The location of the control tower.
Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots.
The location of ATC on an airfield.
The location where visiting pilots should report.
12. Q(894) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions.
These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6D.
4F.
2B.
5E.
13. Q(6392) Mandatory instructions signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow inscription on a black background.
Black inscription on a red background.
Black inscription on a yellow background.
White inscription on a red background.
14. Q(6378) Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator.
A. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it isphysically impracticable to do so.
B. A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp units equally spaced and normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do
so.
C. Ten lightunits arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single wing bar of four lightunits, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights.
D. Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line in the form of two wing bars of four light units each with bisecting longitudinal lines of
six lights.
15. Q(6379) "3-BAR AVASIS" , "PAPI" and "T-VASIS" shall be provided for aircraft having eye-to-wheel heights, when in the flare altitude, not exceeding:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Approximately 16 m
Approximately 15 m
Approximately 14 m
Approximately 18 m
16. Q(12277) Visual aids for navigation - Runway End Lights. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:
A. yellow
B. green
C. white
D. red
17. Q(6384) A runway guard lights shall be provided at each taxiway/runway intersection associated with a runway intended for use in …
A.
B.
C.
D.
RVR conditions of less than 1200m where the traffic density is high.
All RVR conditions.
RVR conditions of more than 550m where a stop bar is not installed.
RVR conditions of less than 550m where a stop bar is not installed.
18. Q(6374) The number of stripes on each side of the centre line of a runway which has a width of 45m is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6
8
3
4
19. Q(12199) Definitions - Aerodrome. A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial
climb to a specified height is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Runway end safety area (RESA).
Clearway.
Stopway.
Take-off run available (TORA).
20. Q(6389) Visual aids for navigation - Lights Runway threshold identification lights are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed white lights.
Flashing white lights.
Flashing green lights.
Steady yellow lights.
21. Q(6398) Crash/Rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The
categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Overall length and wingspan width.
Overall length and fuselage width.
Maximum number of passengers on board.
Overall length and maximum take-off mass.
22. Q(6362) Regarding declared airfield distances the ASDA is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the clearway.
The area beyond the end of the prepared surface only available to aircraft stopping in an emergency.
The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway.
The distance from the start of the take-off run to the last point capable of bearing the full weight of the aircraft under normal operating conditions.
23. Q(6396) What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Orange.
Green.
White and red chequered.
A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green.
24. Q(6385) What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400m?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Edge lighting and centre line lighting.
Centre line lighting.
Either edge lighting or centre line lighting.
Edge lighting.
25. Q(904) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
A.
B.
C.
D.
By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".
By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.
26. Q(12265) Visual Aids for Navigation. Runway-lead-in lighting shall consist:
A.
B.
C.
D.
of a group of at least 5 flashing yellow lights.
of groups of at least three white lights, flashing in sequence towards the runway.
of an arbitrary amount of green lights.
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
27. Q(902) The "PAPI" shall consist of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
28. Q(12215) Aerodrome Identification Beacon. The light shown by an Aerodrome Identification Beacon of a land aerodrome shall be flashing, giving the aerodrome
identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green.
White.
Yellow.
Blue.
29. Q(12056) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided) .
The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).
30. Q(2959) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
A.
B.
C.
D.
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
of an arbitrary amount of green lights.
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;
of flashing lights only;
take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ | take it easy champ
31. Q(6375) Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
grey
red
white
yellow
32. Q(6361) Airfield reference code "E" is used for aircraft with a maximum wingspan of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
36m or more, but less than 65m
65mup to but not including 80m
36m or more, but less than 52m
52m or more, but less than 65m
33. Q(6394) Which of the following describes a location sign?
A. Black writing on a yellow background.
B. Yellow writing on a black background.
C. Red writing on a white background.
D. White writing on a red background.
34. Q(6370) Do all runways require centreline markings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200 m long.
No, only runways over 50 m wide.
No, only paved runways.
No, only instrument runways.
35. Q(889) "TODA" take-off distance available is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.
The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).
36. Q(890) "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
37. Q(6383) Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable … from the threshold to the point 900m from the runway end, alternate … and variable … from
900m to 300m from runway end, and … from 300m to the runway end.
A.
B.
C.
D.
White, red and white, red.
Green, yellow, red.
Red, red and white, white.
White, yellow, red.
38. Q(6399) One of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two airplanes approaching head-on will alter course to the left.
A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over a taxiing aircraft.
A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft.
An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right.
39. Q(6364) A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Snow, ice and slush.
Clear ice, rime ice and snow.
Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard.
Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice.
40. Q(903) In the "PAPI"system the pilot during an approach willsee the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white
when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Below the approach slope.
On or close to the approach slope.
Above the approach slope.
Only on the approach slope.
41. Q(3352) What is a "barrette"?
A.
B.
C.
D.
a CAT II or III holding position.
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
42. Q(896) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
43. Q(910) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
44. Q(911) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
2 or 3.
3.
2.
45. Q(6381) Alternate yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A rapid exit taxiway.
The proximity of a runway.
An ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.
A stopway.
46. Q(6395) Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The runway or taxiway should be used with caution.
The section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement.
The runway or taxiway should be used in emergency only.
The threshold has been displaced.
47. Q(6371) Fixed distance markings on certain precision approach runways are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,500 ft from the threshold.
150 m from the threshold.
650 m from the threshold.
300 m from the threshold.
48. Q(12183) Light signals for aerodrome traffic: A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stop and taxi back, you are on the wrong taxiway.
Give way to other aircraft taxiing.
Slow down taxi speed.
Taxi clear of landing area in use.
49. Q(892) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
52 m up to but not including 65 m.
15 m up to but not including 24 m.
36 m up to but not including 52 m.
24 m up to but not including 36 m.
50. Q(6359) A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO Annex…
A.
B.
C.
D.
12
3
9
14
51. Q(12046) Aerodrome - General. A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft
can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off, is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Clearway.
Obstacle free zone (OFZ).
Runway end safety area.
Stopway.
52. Q(12240) Visual aids for navigation - Lights. Runway threshold identification lights are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
flashing green lights.
fixed white lights.
steady yellow lights.
flashing white lights.
53. Q(906) Runway end lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
Fixed lights showing variable red.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
54. Q(6377) How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for any use by aircraft, marked?
A.
B.
C.
D.
By a yellow X.
By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold.
By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold.
By a white X.
55. Q(3493) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway
with runway code 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 metres
45 metres
35 metres
40 metres
56. Q(6380) When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows:
A.
B.
C.
D.
two red lights and two white lights
four red lights
three white lights and one red light
four white lights
57. Q(12197) Light signals for aerodrome traffic: A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cleared to land.
Continue circling and give way to other aircraft.
Return for landing.
Make a short appproach and land as soon as possible.
58. Q(3400) Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
A.
B.
C.
D.
information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
59. Q(355) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
A. Flashing red or preferably yellow.
B. Fixed red or preferably blue.
C. Flashing blue.
D. Fixed red or preferably orange.
60. Q(912) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: A. 250 m.
B. 300 m.
C. 200 m.
D. 150 m.
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61. Q(12284) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flashing white.
Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
62. Q(6365) A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear of all obstructions is
called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sensitive area
Critical area
Non transgression zone
Obstacle free zone
63. Q(908) Visual aids for navigation - Lights: Runway edge lights shall consist of at least
A.
B.
C.
D.
flashing lights showing variable green.
fixed lights showing variable white.
flashing lights showing variable yellow.
fixed lights showing steady green.
64. Q(6366) What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is only used for VFR operations.
It must be clearly visible from all parts of the manoeuvring area.
It must be big enough to contain all signals.
It must be clearly visible from the air.
65. Q(359) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The longest aeroplane maximum width only
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
66. Q(887) "Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
Precision approach runways in general.
Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
67. Q(12285) Visual aids for navigation - Lights - PAPI How does a pilot see the PAPI wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are steady white, the two in the centre are flashing white.
The unit nearest to and the unit farthest from the runway are white, the two others are red.
All the four units are steady white.
All the four units are flashing white.
68. Q(6391) Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Runway designation sign.
Road holding position sign.
Direction sign.
Taxi-holding position sign.
69. Q(6360) For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What
does the number relate to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crash/Rescue category.
Load classification number.
Single wheel loading classification.
Aerodrome reference field length.
70. Q(895) According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: A. 1 200 m.
B. 1 500 m.
C. 1 600m.
D. 1 800 m and over.
71. Q(909) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flashing green.
Fixed white.
Flashing white.
Fixed green.
72. Q(901) The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Precision Approach Power Indicator.
Precision Approach Power Index.
Precision Approach Path Index.
Precision Approach Path Indicator.
73. Q(12297) ICAO Annex 14 - Visual aids for navigation - Lights - Displaced Threshold: When a threshold is displaced, what colour shall the lights have in approach
direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold?
A.
B.
C.
D.
flashing red, intermittent with flashing white.
red.
white.
blue, this portion of the runway is considered as taxyway.
74. Q(6376) The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway, but not for normal movement of aircraft is marked with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
White arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displace threshold.
A yellow X.
A white X.
Yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold.
75. Q(898) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.
3.
2.
None.
76. Q(6373) An aiming point marking shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway of:
A. Greater than 1200 m in length.
B. Greater than 1000 m in length.
C. Greater than 600 m in length.
D. Greater than 800 m in length.
77. Q(14513) The runway edge lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
red
green
white
blue
78. Q(12278) Visual aids for denoting obstacles: Low intensity obstacle lights on vehicles other than those associated with emergency or security shall be
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed blue.
Flashing blue.
Fixed red.
Flashing yellow.
79. Q(6388) Which of the following describes threshold lights?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red omni-directional
Red unidirectional
Red unidirectional Green omni-directional
Green unidirectional
80. Q(12266) Visual aids for navigation - Lights. Which is the principal composition of a precision approach category I lighting system?
A. A PAPI or T-VASIS-system.
B. A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 600 m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 450 m
from the runway threshold.
C. A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 900 m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 300 m from the
runway threshold.
D. A row of lights on the extended centre line of the runway, extending over a distance of 420 m from the runway threshold and a crossbar at a distance of 250 m
from the runway threshold.
81. Q(6368) A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal, displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exercise special care when landing.
Land on paved surface only.
Aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements, and landing are prohibited.
Normal safety services are not available.
82. Q(12287) Visual aids for navigation - Approach Lights. The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system shall be fixed lights,
showing variable intensity ofthe following colour:
A.
B.
C.
D.
yellow
green
white
blue
83. Q(900) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed lights showing variable green.
Flashing lights showing variable white.
Flashing lights showing variable green.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
84. Q(6387) Where a runway has a displaced threshold, what colour are the edge lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold showing
in the direction of the approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green
Red
Blue
White
85. Q(12296) Visual aids for navigation - Runway threshold Lights. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
white
yellow
flashing white
green
86. Q(6382) What is the colour of runway edge lights?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Blue
White
Red
Yellow
87. Q(12246) Visual aids for navigation - Markings. On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways, the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as
follows:
A. In case of three parallel runways by adding "L" to the designation of the runway farthest to the left, adding one "R" to the central runway and adding two "R" to
the designation of the runway farthest to the right.
B. In case of two parallel runways by adding "10" to the left runway designation and by subtracting "10" from the right runway designation.
C. In case of three parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" for the outer runways and no letter supplement for the central runway.
D. In case of two parallel runways by the letter "L" and "R" in the sequence from left to right.
88. Q(6397) Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome.
This classification is based upon…
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maximum number of passengers and crew.
Maximum landing mass and maximum number of passengers.
Aeroplane overall length and fuselage width.
Aeroplane length and maximum take-off mass.
89. Q(12176) Definitions - Aerodrome. Non-precision approach runways and precision approach runways CAT I, II and III are defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Non-instrument runways.
Movement area.
Parallel Runways.
Instrument runways.
90. Q(14699) Aeronautical Ground Lights on and in the Vicinity of aerodromes Aeronautical Ground Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided
that they can be brought back into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft in at least
A.
B.
C.
D.
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
5 minutes.
one hour.
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91. Q(905) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flashing showing blue.
Fixed showing yellow.
Fixed showing blue.
Fixed showing green.
92. Q(6393) Where on a taxiway is the runway vacated sign located?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60 m from the runway centre line.
30 m from the runway centre line.
Next to the runway holding position marking.
At the boundary of the ILS/MLS sensitive area.
93. Q(12185) Light signals for aerodrome traffic: A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slow down taxi speed, but continue.
Cleared to taxi.
Stand by, clearance for take off will be given in short time.
Accelerate taxi speed.
94. Q(907) Runway threshold lights shall be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
95. Q(3351) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II:
A.
B.
C.
D.
600m
900m
150m
300m
96. Q(12184) Light signals for aerodrome traffic: A series of red flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Give way to other aircraft in emergency.
Continue circling and wait for further instruction.
Aerodrome temporarily closed, continue circling.
Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.
97. Q(357) Visual aids for navigation - Runway End Lights: The colour of fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights is
A.
B.
C.
D.
green
white
yellow
red
98. Q(6363) The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The take-off distance available less the clearway and the stopway.
The same as the landing distance available.
The take-off distance available less the stopway.
The take-off distance available less the clearway.
99. Q(6372) When taxiing on a surface with white markings, you are rolling on a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
taxiway
runway
clearway
movement area
100. Q(12137) Visual signals. In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on
bursting, red and green lights or stars. The meaning of this signal is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, stay in the circuit, do not land for the time being.
The aerodrome nearby you have chosen for landing is unsafe, do not attempt to land. Proceed to your alternate.
The unauthorised aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary.
10 Facilitation
1. Q(6405) What documentation is required by persons travelling by air, for entry into a state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Passport, visa and any necessary health documentation (vaccination certificates).
Passport and visa.
Passport and confirmation of inclusion on the general declaration passenger manifest.
The same as would be required if the person arrived by ship.
2. Q(6402) On a general declaration form, the following data can be found:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aircraft registration mark, flight number, date and place of departure, destination and, number of crew and passengers.
The nature of goods embarked on the aircraft (e.g. dangerous goods).
Passenger names, passenger addresses and other personal data.
A complete description of payload (passengers, cargo and mail).
3. Q(5188) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
annex 8
annex 15
annex 6
annex 9
4. Q(5187) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
A.
B.
C.
D.
shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
5. Q(5183) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment
cargo and is covered by a traffic document
6. Q(6404) The crew member certificate (CMC) shall be accepted by each Contracting State for identification purposes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Together with a valid passport.
Together with a visa if required.
Together with a valid flight crew license.
None of the other answers is correct.
7. Q(12222) Characteristics of T-VASIS: Each wing bar has
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 lights
5 lights
4 lights
3 lights
8. Q(702) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms towards ground.
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Crossing arms extended above his head.
9. Q(4363) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Medium/poor
Good
Medium
Poor
10. Q(6401) What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not destined for the state in which the
aeroplane has landed in, known as?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green Channel operations
Open skies policy
Duty free zoning
Facilitation
11. Q(6403) What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate (CMC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To permit access to the air side of an aerodrome for aircrew.
To allow flight crew to be exempted from customs, health and immigration formalities when disembarking.
To replace the crew member's licence.
To provide identification of aircrew.
12. Q(5186) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
A.
B.
C.
D.
are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink
has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
are accepted at the contracting state discretion
has to be typewritten
13. Q(5177) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the
aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are :
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 of each
2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copy of a simple stores list
2 of each
2 copies of General Declaration and one of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
14. Q(5189) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
annex 8
annex 9
annex 16
annex 15
15. Q(6400) Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Annex 9
Annex 8
Annex 2
Annex 3
16. Q(361) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been
definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
The stated above is correct.
The operator has no obligation.
11 Search And Rescue
1. Q(12270) ICAO Annex 12 - Search and Rescue signals: The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "NEGATIVE" is
A.
B.
C.
D.
V
X
Y
N
2. Q(6411) What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?
A. Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace.
B. Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace.
C. Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace.
D. Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.
3. Q(6417) You are flying in a mountainous region and you see the letter X on the ground. What does this mean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Medical assistance required.
All are injured.
Mechanical assistance required.
All have survived.
4. Q(6426) At night you observe ground signals from survivors of a disaster. What do you do to indicate that you have seen and understood the signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flash you landing lights or navigation lights.
Make a low pass over the survivors.
Rock the wings.
Turn off the anti-collision light.
5. Q(6422) Which of the following signals is a distress signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
In radiotelephony the spoken words PAN, PAN.
The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights.
A parachute flare showing a red light.
6. Q(6415) You are flying over the NAT region when you intercept a distress call. You record the message, get a bearing on itfrom the ADF, and tell Shanwick control.
The radio operator at Shanwick tells you to standby. What should you consider doing whilst awaiting instructions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Call your operator and advise him that you are now on SAR duty and will need to divert to nearest aerodrome at the end of your duty.
Proceed to the position given in the distress message.
Descend to low level and carry out a surface search for ships.
Make a general call on 121.5 asking other airplanes to assist.
7. Q(6423) What is the meaning of SAR signal "N" when used by survivors on the ground:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Require assistance
Negative
Affirmative
Require medical assistance
8. Q(6407) Survival equipment, dropped by SAR and containing food and water will be packed in containers and indicated by streamers of following colour:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green
Yellow
Red
Blue
9. Q(6413) Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
A.
B.
C.
D.
At every ATS facility.
In each search and rescue region.
If they are adjacent to the sea.
At every international airport.
10. Q(6416) What is the meaning of V seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supplies and fuel required
Assistance required
No significance
Medical assistance required
11. Q(1929) Search and Rescue Signals, droppable containers Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of
the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow
Black
Blue
Red
12. Q(1932) The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
according to the following code:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
Black for food and water.
Red for food and water.
13. Q(12269) Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
N
X
Y
V
14. Q(12267) Search and Rescue Signals, droppable containers. Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of
the content indicated by a colour code. The colour for blankets and protective clothing is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
blue.
yellow.
red.
black.
15. Q(6419) In the ground/air emergency code the symbol X means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Require medical assistance
Place suitable for helicopter landing
Require assistance
Yes
16. Q(6418) Which signal indicates 'operations complete'?
A.
B.
C.
D.
V
LLL
N
NN
17. Q(12273) Search and Rescue - Organisation: The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rescue Co-ordination Centre
Area Control Centre
Flight Information Centre
Alerting Centre
18. Q(6424) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "NEGATIVE" is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
N
Y
X
V
19. Q(12271) ICAO Annex 12 - Search and Rescue signals: The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on groung to indicate "AFIRMATIVE" is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
X
N
V
20. Q(12053) ICAO Annex 13 - Accident / Incident notification and reporting: The aircraft has made a complete stop on the apron. When leaving the aircraft, one of the
passengers walks into the trailing edge of the wing and gets seriously injured.
A. This is a matter of passenger insurance as the flight is terminated and the aeroplane doors are open. The airport operator or the company in charge of the
handling shall establish a report for the insurance company.
B. This is an incident. The pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
C. This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant for this case.
D. This is an irregularity in the handling. The handling agent must inform his insurance company.
21. Q(12258) Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
X
N
V
22. Q(12077) ICAO Annex 12 - Search and Rescue. The procedure for the pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be followed in case of intercepting a distress
transmission is:
A. record the position of the transmission, proceed according to the flight plan, complete the SAR report form at the next airport, indicating where you can be reached
in order to supply further information.
B. record the position of the craft in distress, take the bearing of transmission, inform the appropriate RCC or ATS using the appropriate VHF and/or HF
frequencies, proceed on the most expeditious way towards the position given in transmission
C. hold at the position where the distress signal and/or message is received, co-ordinate the SAR operation by using the appropriate VHF and/or HF frequencies
until released by a SAR unit.
D. record the position of the craft in distress if given, if possible take a bearing of the transmission, inform the appropriate RCC or ASS and, while awaiting instructions,
proceed at your discretion towards the position given in the transmission
23. Q(1931) Search and Rescue Signals, droppable containers Containers or packages containing survival euipment for dropping should have the general nature of
the content indicated by a colour code. The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply
A.
B.
C.
D.
Red
Black
Blue
Yellow
24. Q(6414) Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC of an aircraft, he shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enter into a holding pattern and wait for an SAR aircraft to arrive.
Record the position of the craft in distress ifgiven.
If possible take a bearing on the transmission.
Record the position of the craft in distress if given and if possible take a bearing on the transmission.
25. Q(6421) Survivors of an aircraft accident, requiring medical assistance will display the following letter on the ground:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
M
X
V
26. Q(6409) An aircraft is in emergency when:
A. It is threatened by grave danger and requires immediate assistance.
B. All answers are correct.
C. It is threatened by grave danger.
D. It is forced to land.
27. Q(6425) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground to indicate "AFFIRMATIVE" is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
V
X
N
28. Q(12272) Search and Rescue - At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot
shall:
A.
B.
C.
D.
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.
29. Q(12261) Visual ground signals. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
special precautions is needed while approaching for landing on the runway in use.
this area is unfit for the movement of aircraft.
special precautions must be observed due to the state of the taxiways.
the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
30. Q(1930) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
according to the following code:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Black for food and water.
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
Red for food and water.
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31. Q(6412) Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided:
A.
B.
C.
D.
From sunset to sunrise.
When an emergency has been declared.
On a 24 hour basis.
When the authority of the contracting state decides to do so.
32. Q(6406) What colour streamer identifies food and water dropped to survivors?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Yellow
Black
Blue
Red
33. Q(362) Search and Rescue - Organisation. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service in each SAR region is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alerting Centre
Area Control Centre
Rescue Co-ordination Centre
Flight Information Centre
34. Q(5335) Search and Rescue signals. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals,
the pilot must:
A.
B.
C.
D.
make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.
transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.
35. Q(12260) Visual ground signals. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion placed in the
signal area indicates that:
A.
B.
C.
D.
aircraft are required to land and take off on runways and all other manoeuvres need to be confined to runways or taxiways.
aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways.
a parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome.
the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed on a parallel runway.
36. Q(6410) "A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants" is the definition for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Distress phase
Emergency phase
Alert phase
Uncertainty phase
37. Q(6420) In the ground to air emergency signalling code, the code symbol X means:
A.
B.
C.
D.
No or negative
Wrong
Require assistance
Require medical assistance
38. Q(10083) Search and Rescue signals. The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
N
Y
V
X
39. Q(12259) Visual ground signals. A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicates:
A.
B.
C.
D.
that turns in the aerodrome circuit have to be made to the left, but gliders have to make the turns to the right.
the position of the Aerodrome Reference Point / ARP.
that 180 degree turns on the runway for backtrack have to be made to the right.
that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take off.
40. Q(6408) COSPAS-SARSAT is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A communication system linking major airports
A SAR satellite-aided tracking system
A space system for the search of vessels in distress
Both a communication system linking major airports AND a SAR satellite-aided tracking system
41. Q(2928) Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Y
V
X
N
12 Security
1. Q(5224) Annex 17 - Security. Each Contracting State shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for the supporting resources and facilities required by the
aviation security services to be available:
A.
B.
C.
D.
on a common basis for all airports within that State.
for administrative staff of each airport within that State
for every airline operating in that State.
at each airport serving international civil aviation.
2. Q(6428) What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Private flights only.
Public transport flights only.
All flights.
Military flights only.
3. Q(10982) A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference,
A.
B.
C.
D.
during a period of investigation
if is requested by an individual passenger
and arrange for them to return to their country of origin
until their journey can be continued
4. Q(6429) Where a parking bay is provided atan aerodrome suitable for the parking of an aircraft which isknown of believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, what is the minimum distance that this parking bay needs to be separated form any other parking areas, buildings.
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 m
50 m
200 m
100 m
5. Q(5221) Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation
and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
A.
B.
C.
D.
to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
6. Q(5226) Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
A.
B.
C.
D.
None of the answers is correct
Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
Deportees and inadmissible persons only
Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
7. Q(6427) Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Security
Operation of aircraft
Facilitations
Aerodromes
8. Q(5227) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
boarding after to all other passengers
boarding prior to all passengers
the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
9. Q(10999) The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers
A.
B.
C.
D.
and baggage
cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
checked baggage, cargo and other goods
checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design
10. Q(14370) In the event of being hijacked in an area where regional procedures have not been established the pilot should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
fly a standard racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC instructions
fly a left-hand racetrack pattern at the next reporting point on track and await ATC instructions
fly a right hand orbit and await ATC instructions
proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the area by 300m (1,000ft) above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace or 150m (500ft)
above FL290 in RVSM airspace or below FL290
11. Q(5225) When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of
aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival
Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a
decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
12. Q(5919) Definitions The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof with controlled access are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Airside.
Terminal.
Manoeuvring area.
Security program.
13. Q(5223) When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the
security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
A.
B.
C.
D.
only the passengers are to be re screened
only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
14. Q(5220) The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
ICAO
ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
Each contracting state
ECAC
15. Q(12237) A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers
only permission to land
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
13 Aircraft Accident And Incident Investigation
1. Q(10085) Accident investigation. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The aircraft manufacturer.
The State of design and manufacturer.
The Operators of the same aircraft type.
The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
2. Q(12067) ICAO Annex 13 - Notification and reporting: During the climb-out phase of a flight the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co- pilot takes over
control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
This is an irregularity. The pilot-in-command or the Operator must deposit a report on behalf of the involved airport Authority within the following 48 hours.
This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident.
This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an accident.
This is an irregularity in the operation. The operator must inform the Authority by writing an Irregularity Report.
3. Q(363) Accident, Incident notification and reporting. After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the
aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure.
A. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
B. Since there is no person injured and the flightis terminated, a damage report has to be made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and
taxiways for the insurance company.
C. This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
D. This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a report.
4. Q(12051) Accident investigation, objective. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the
A.
B.
C.
D.
prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.
prevention of accidents or incidents and to establish liability.
prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design.
prevention of accidents or incidents.
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