Systems Review Questions
C-40 USAF
18 August 2022
Revision 1.0
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Bleed Air
Air Conditioning
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700 Bleed air use ** Slide 2
Which systems rely on bleed air
for operation?
• Air conditioning/ pressurization
• Engine starting
• Hydraulic reservoirs
• Water tank pressure
• Aspirated TAT Probe
• Wing and engine thermal
anti-icing
• AUX fuel system
• NGS system
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700 Bleed elect
The engine bleed air valve is
____ activated and _______
operated?
• DC (electrically)
• Pressure
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700 Bleed elect
Engine bleed air is obtained from
which stages of the compressor
section?
• 5th and 9th.
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700 Bleed elect
During takeoff, climb, and most
cruise conditions, what is the
position of the high stage valve?
• Closed.
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700 Iso
What is the purpose of the
isolation valve?
• To isolate the left and right
sides of the bleed air duct
during normal operations.
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700 AC power
What is the power source
for the isolation valve?
• AC power.
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700 Iso position
What is the normal position of
the isolation valve in flight?
• Closed.
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700 iso open
Is the isolation valve in the
OPEN or CLOSE position
in this scenario?
• OPEN.
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700 iso open
What switches cause the
isolation valve to open in the
AUTO position?
• Either engine bleed air switch
or air conditioning pack switch
is positioned OFF.
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700 Bleed Trip
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Engine bleed air temperature
or bleed air pressure exceeds
limits.
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700 Bleed trip 2
In the event of a bleed trip, would
the isolation valve open?
• No.
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700 Dual bld
What caused the DUAL BLEED
light to illuminate in this
scenario?
• The Number 1 ENGINE
BLEED switch ON and APU
BLEED valve OPEN.
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700 Dual bld 2
What caused the DUAL BLEED
light to illuminate in this
scenario?
• The APU BLEED valve
OPEN.
• Number 2 ENGINE BLEED
switch ON.
• ISOLATION VALVE OPEN.
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700 Dual bld gnd air
With ground air connected and
the APU bleed valve open, will
the DUAL BLEED light
illuminate?
• Even though there is a
possibility of back pressuring
the APU, the DUAL BLEED
light will NOT illuminate.
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700 Dual bld 2
Just before taxi, you accomplish
a recall and discover that the
dual bleed light is still illuminated.
What is the problem?
• The APU Bleed Air Valve did
not close.
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700 APU bleed
Will the APU bleed valve open
if the APU is not running?
• No.
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700 APU power
The APU bleed air valve is ____
activated and _______ operated?
• DC (electrically).
• Pressure.
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700 deflector door
What is the purpose of the ram
air deflector door?
• Prevent slush ingestion prior
to liftoff and after touchdown.
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700 deflector door
When is the ram air deflector
door open (extended)?
• On the ground only.
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700 pack power
The Pack valve is ____ activated
and _______ operated?
• DC (electrically).
• Pressure.
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700 Bleed elect
When should the RAM DOOR
FULL OPEN lights extinguish?
• In flight, flaps up.
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700 single pack
True or False.
A single pack is capable of
maintaining pressurization
and acceptable temperatures
throughout the airplane up to
the maximum certified ceiling.
• True.
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700 single pack
While the airplane is electrically
powered, packs should be run or
cooling air supplied when the
OAT exceeds _____ (C/F).
• 40C/103F. (L.10 and FCOM)
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700 high flow
On the ground, what switch
positions will activate the APU
high air flow mode?
• APU Bleed switch ON
with APU running.
• Pack switch HIGH.
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700 Pack Trip
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Pack temperature exceeds limit.
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700 high flow
Both PACK switches in AUTO.
What would cause the LEFT pack
to automatically transition to the
HIGH flow mode in flight, flaps
up?
• The RIGHT pack valve closes.
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700 Bleed Trip
In flight, flaps up, in the event
of a bleed trip, what will occur
automatically?
• The bleed valve closes.
• The pack valve on the right
pack will close.
• The air mix valve on the right
pack will drive full cold.
• The left pack will go into the
high flow mode.
• For a left bleed trip, the NGS
system shuts down also.
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700 high flow
True or False.
For a “no bleeds” situation
(APU bleed valve open, Engine
bleed switches OFF) the packs
will transition to high air flow
regardless of flap position,
air/ground status, or number
of packs operating.
• True.
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700 high flow
True or False.
Packs should not be selected to
the HIGH switch position during
takeoff, approach or landing.
• True. (L.10)
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700 high flow
Is there a situation when a pack
may be in HIGH during takeoff,
approach or landing?
• Yes. If the fire protection nonnormal procedures require
the switch to be in the HIGH
position. (L.10)
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700 Trip reset
Do pilots receive air from the
recirculation system under normal
conditions?
• No.
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700 Recirc fan
What is the normal position of
the Overboard Exhaust Valve
in flight?
• Closed.
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700 Recirc fan
Where does the exhaust air go
when the overboard exhaust
valve is closed?
• It warms the forward cargo
compartment then is captured
by the recirculation fan and put
back into the mix manifold.
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700 Recirc fan
What switch positions on the Air
Conditioning Panel will cause
the Overboard Exhaust Valve
to open in flight?
• Recirculation switch OFF and
either pack switch in HIGH.
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700 Recirc fan
Is there a situation when the
Overboard Exhaust Valve will
drive to open in flight without
moving switches?
• Yes. Upon activation of a
Forward Cargo Fire Alarm.
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700 Recirc fan
When the RECIRC FAN switch is
in AUTO, the fan will operate
except________ ?
• When both packs are ON AND
one or both pack switches are
in the HIGH position, or
• Forward Cargo Fire situation.
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700 Wing body ovht
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Bleed air duct leak.
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700 Wing body ovht 2
Can this light/system be reset
with the TRIP RESET switch?
• No.
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700 Trip reset
Which lights can be reset with
the trip reset switch once the
condition that caused the trip
is no longer present?
• DUCT OVERHEAT.
• PACK TRIP OFF.
• BLEED TRIP OFF.
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Duct ovht ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Bleed air temperature in related
duct exceeds limit.
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Duct ovht2
What happens to the air mix valve
in this condition?
• It drives full cold.
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Duct ovht2
How may the pilot bypass
the automatic temperature
controller in the event of a
controller malfunction?
• Place the temperature
selector to the MANUAL
mode.
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Duct ovht reset
How is the system reset when
the temperature drops below
the exceedance temperature?
• By pressing the TRIP RESET
switch.
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Intro Window Heat ** Slide 1
What does the green ON light
indicate?
• Window heat is being applied
to the selected window.
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How is icing defined?
• Icing conditions exist when
OAT (on the ground) or TAT
(in-flight) is 10˚C or below and:
– Visible moisture (clouds, fog
with vis < 1 sm, rain, snow,
sleet, ice crystals) is present,
or
– Standing water, ice or snow
is present on the ramps,
taxiways, or runways (FOM,
SP.17.2).
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Intro Window Heat ** Slide 1
If one or more windows are not
being heated, what switch
actuation can give you
confidence that the system
is working correctly?
• Place the Test switch in the
PWR TEST position.
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WH Ovrht test sw
What occurs when this switch is
placed in the OVHT position?
• The system simulated a window
overheat condition for those
windows with the power switch
in the ON position.
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Window ovht
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Overheat is detected, or
• Electrical power is interrupted
to window.
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Window ovht
What occurs as a result of this
indication?
• Power is removed from window
Left number 1.
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Side pwr
Which switches control power to
windows 3 (4, and 5 if installed)?
• The SIDE switches.
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Side pwr
What device delivers heat to
windows 3 (4, and 5 if installed)?
• Thermal switches.
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Window glass
The conductive coating is on
the outer glass pane of which
windows?
• 1 and 2.
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Window glass
Which window can be opened from the exterior
of the airplane?
• 2R.
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Probe heat
What might cause erroneous or
unreliable airspeed indications?
• Blocked or frozen pitot-static
system(s).
• Severely damaged or missing
radome. (QRH Ch 10-Note)
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Probe heat
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• The related probe is not heated.
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Static ports
Are the static ports heated?
• No.
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Ignition req’d?
What is the purpose of engine
anti-icing?
• Prevent the formation of ice
on the engine cowl lip.
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Cowl bright blue
What is the position of the right
cowl anti-ice valve?
• CLOSED or in transit to OPEN.
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Ignition req’d?
Is ignition required during icing
conditions?
• Yes.
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Ignition req’d?
At what temperature (below 10°
Celcius) is anti-ice no longer
required during climb or cruise?
• -40° SAT. (L10.3)
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Cowl stik shkr
Discuss stick shaker logic in
reference to cowl anti-ice?
• When valve is open, stick
shaker logic is set for icing
conditions. When the valve
closes, stick shaker logic
returns to normal if wing anti-ice
has not been used in flight.
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Cowl AI lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• An overpressure condition
downstream of the engine
cowl anti-ice valve.
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WAI purpose
What is the purpose of the wing
anti-ice system?
• Provides protection for the three
inboard leading edge slats by
using bleed air.
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WAI le flaps not heated
Are the leading edge flaps
protected by the wing anti-ice
system?
• No. Neither are the outboard
leading edge slats.
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WAI AC valves
The wing anti-ice control valves
are ____ motor operated?
• AC.
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WAI bright blue
What is the position of the right
wing anti-ice valve?
• CLOSED or in transit to OPEN.
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WAI auto close
What two conditions will cause
the wing anti-ice valves to close
automatically on the ground with
the switch in the ON position?
• Thrust set above the takeoff
warning setting, or
• If either temperature sensor
detects a duct over-temperature.
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WAI auto switch off
What happens to the wing anti-ice
valve switch if it is ON at lift off?
• It trips OFF.
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WAI stick shakr
Discuss stick shaker logic in
reference to wing anti-ice?
• When valves are open in flight,
stick shaker logic is set for icing
conditions regardless of
subsequent switch position.
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WAI stick shakr
Above FL____ use of wing antiice may cause bleed trip off and
possible loss of cabin pressure
• 350. (L.10)
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Holding in icing conditions with flaps
extended is ______. (L.10)
A.
B.
C.
D.
fun
exciting
recommended
prohibited
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Holding in icing conditions with flaps
extended is ______. (L.10)
A.
B.
C.
D.
fun
exciting
recommended
prohibited
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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APU Start cycle
How long could the APU start
cycle be?
• 120 seconds. (7.30)
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APU maint lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• APU Maintenance problem
exists. APU may be operated.
Light is disarmed when APU
switch is OFF. (7.15)
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APU Low press
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• During start until APU oil
pressure is normal.
• Oil pressure is low causing an
automatic shutdown (after start
cycle is complete).
• If light is illuminated when APU
switch is placed to OFF, light
extinguishes after 5 minutes.
Light disarmed when APU
switch is OFF. (7.15)
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APU fault
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A malfunction exists causing
APU to initiate automatic
shutdown.
• If light is illuminated when APU
switch is placed to OFF, light
extinguishes after 5 minutes.
Light disarmed when APU
switch is OFF. (7.15)
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APU ovrspd
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• RPM limit exceeded causing
APU to initiate automatic
shutdown.
• Failed a self-test during normal
shutdown.
• If light is illuminated when APU
switch is placed to OFF, light
extinguishes after 5 minutes.
Light disarmed when APU
switch is OFF. (7.15)
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APU Load shed C40
Discuss APU automatic load
shedding?
• If APU is the only source,
all galley busses are shed.
• If more shedding is required,
both main AC busses, mission
busses, mission AC busses,
selected 60 Hz AC and selected
mission busses are shed.
• On the ground, full load is
attempted. Then sheds as
in flight. (7.30)
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APU Max alt bleed air
What is the maximum altitude
to use APU bleed air?
• 17,000 feet. (L10.3)
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APU Max alt elec
What is the maximum altitude
to use APU electrical load?
• 41,000 feet. (L10.3)
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APU Max alt bleed air + elec
What is the maximum altitude to
use APU bleed air and electrical
load?
• 10,000 feet. (L10.3)
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APU Max alt bleed air + elec
APU start attempts are not
recommended above ________
feet?
• 25,000 feet. (QRH Ch 6-Note)
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APU batt sw
What happens to the APU if the
battery switch is turned OFF?
• APU shuts down. (7.30)
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APU ECU functions
What are some of the functions
of the APU Electronic Control
Unit (ECU)?
• Automatic shutdown.
• Controls APU speed through
electronic fuel control.
• Load shed function.
• Regulates bleed air through
inlet guide vane control. (7.30)
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APU fire
If an APU fire is detected, will
the ECU shut down the APU
if airborne?
• Yes. It will do so on the ground
or in the air. (8.20)
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APU fire
Is there a situation in which the APU
fire bottle will automatically discharge?
• Yes. If on the ground and both
engines are shutdown, the fire bottle
will discharge 10 seconds after the
fire is detected. (01-0015, 01-0041,
01-0042, 02-0203-05-4613) (8.20)
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APU fire
What are the conditions that will
cause the APU to shutdown?
• Overspeed
• Low oil pressure
• High oil temperature
• EGT exceedence
• Fuel control unit failure
• APU fire. (8.20)
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Overwing Door ** Slide 1
What causes this light to illuminate?
• The related overwing exit is not closed and locked, or
• With takeoff thrust set, the related door flight lock failed
to engage when commanded locked. (1.30)
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Equip Door
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Either the Forward Equipment Compartment Door or the E&E
Doors are not closed and locked. (1.30)
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Bat Disch lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• An excessive battery discharge
is detected. (6.10)
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Batt chrgr
What DC bus is primarily powered by
TR3 under normal circumstances?
• Battery bus. (6.20)
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HBB
What switch activates the hot
battery bus?
The hot battery bus is always
connected to the main battery.
There is no switch in this circuit.
(6.20)
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HBB
When AC power is available to
charge the main battery, and
the battery is fully charged, what
powers the loads connected to
the hot battery bus?
The battery charger in constant
voltage TR mode. It also powers
the switched hot battery bus.
(6.20)
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TR lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• On the ground: any TR has
failed.
• In the air: TR1 failed or TR2
AND TR3 failed. (6.10)
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TR lite
Is autoland available if a TR UNIT
light illuminates while airborne?
• No.
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TR lite
What are the flight deck
indications of a failure of TR 4
or 5 (if installed)?
• There are no indications in
the flight deck. (6.10)
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Elec lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A fault exists in DC power
system or standby power
system.
• Illuminates on the ground only.
(6.10)
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Drive lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• IDG low oil pressure caused
by one of the following:
– IDG failure.
– Engine shutdown.
– IDG automatic shutdown.
due to high oil temperature.
– IDG disconnected through
generator drive disconnect
switch. (6.10)
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Drive lite
What conditions are necessary
in order to disconnect the IDG
with the generator drive
disconnect switch?
• The engine start lever is
in IDLE and
• Electrical power (switched hot
battery bus ─ not in FCOM)
is available. (6.10)
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Disc sw
Can the IDG be reconnected
in the air?
• No. (6.10)
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Stby Pwr lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• One or more of the following
busses are unpowered:
– AC standby bus.
– DC standby bus.
– Battery bus. (6.10)
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Stby power
Two fully charged batteries have
sufficient capacity to provide
standby power for a minimum
of _____ minutes.
• 60. (6.20)
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STBY PWR SW OFF
What occurs when the STANDBY
POWER switch is placed to OFF?
• STANDBY POWER OFF light
illuminates. AC standby bus,
static inverter, and DC standby
bus are not powered. (6.10)
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STBY PWR BATT
What occurs when the
STANDBY POWER switch
is placed to BAT?
• AC standby bus is powered
by battery through the static
inverter.
• DC standby bus, and
• Battery bus are powered
directly by battery. (6.10)
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GND AC Pwr Avail lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Ground Power is connected
and meets airplane power
quality standards. (6.10)
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GND AC Pwr Avail lite
With ground power on the airplane, must the ground power switch
be placed in the ON position in order to operate the lights and utility
outlets in the passenger compartment?
• No. The flight attendant may use the ground service switch on the
forward flight attendant panel.
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GND AC Pwr Avail lite
When is the ground service switch overridden?
• When both AC transfer busses are powered.
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GEN OFF BUS lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• IDG is not supplying power to
the related transfer bus. (6.10)
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APU AC Pwr lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• APU is running and not
powering a bus. (6.10)
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TXFR BUS lite amber
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Illuminates when the related
bus is not powered. In this
case, the automatic bus tie
breaker operation was
manually overridden by
placing the BUS TRANS
switch in the OFF position.
(6.10)
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SOURCE OFF BUS lite amber
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• No source has been manually
selected to power the related
transfer bus, or
• The manually selected source
has been disconnected. (6.10)
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Test
In this scenario, what is supplying
AC power to the transfer busses?
• Ground Power. (6.10)
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APU & GND PWR
Could you supply power to
transfer bus 1 from the APU
Generator and power to transfer
bus 2 from GND POWER
simultaneously?
• No. (6.20)
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Cross bus tie
In flight, the Master Caution
light illuminates with an ELEC
annunciation. You look up at the
AC power panel and see this
indication. What has happened?
• Generator number two has
tripped off and generator
number one is supplying
electrical power to both
transfer busses. (6.20)
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Cross bus tie
If the APU were running, would it
automatically switch to the APU
generator?
• No. There is no automatic
source switching. (6.20)
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Cross bus tie
In this scenario, what is powering
transfer bus two?
• Generator number one. (6.20)
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Test
In this scenario, assuming the
APU is running, what is supplying
AC power to the transfer busses?
• Transfer bus #1 – Generator #1.
• Transfer bus #2 – APU. (6.10)
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Auto connect
If the airplane is in the air in this
condition (APU running), what
will cause the engine generators
to automatically connect to their
related transfer busses?
• If the APU either shuts down
or fails. (6.20)
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Cross bus tie
When does the cross bus tie open
automatically to isolate DC bus 1
from DC bus 2?
• At glide slope capture during
a flight director or autopilot ILS
approach.
• Bus Transfer switch positioned
to OFF. (6.20)
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Auto connect
Discuss APU automatic load
shedding?
• If APU is the only source, all
galley busses are shed. If more
shedding is required, both main
AC busses are shed. (01-0015 02-0042 : mission busses,
mission AC busses, selected 60
Hz AC and selected mission
busses are shed.) On the
ground, full load is attempted.
Then sheds as in flight. (7.30)
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Cross bus tie
Discuss engine generator load
shedding.
• Engine generator sheds galleys
on transfer bus 2, then on
transfer bus 1; if an overload
still exists main bus 1 and main
bus 2 are shed. (01-0015-020042: Main bus shed logic also
sheds the mission AC bus, and
portions of the 60 Hz AC and
mission DC busses). (6.20)
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Auto connect
What conditions require the pilots
to “Plan to land at the nearest
suitable airport” ?
• One main AC power source
remains (such as engine or
APU generator).
• One hydraulic system remains
(the standby system is
considered a hydraulic system).
• Cabin smoke or fire persists.
• Any other situation determined
by the crew to have a significant
adverse effect on safety if the
flight is continued.
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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NOT ARMED lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• The Emergency Exit Lights
Switch is out of the ARMED
position. (1.40)
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Emerg exit lite auto
With the Emergency Exit Lights
ARMED, when will the emergency
exit lights illuminate
automatically?
• If electrical power to DC bus 1
fails or if AC power has been
turned off. (1.40)
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Emerg lite, flt attend
Can the Emergency Exit Light switch on the Attendant's panel
override this switch?
• Yes. (1.40)
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Eng St Gnd ** Slide 1
What occurs when the Engine Start switch is placed to GND?
• Start Valve Opens. Engine Bleed Valve Closes.
• On ground: selected igniter provides ignition when start lever raised
to IDLE.
• Releases to OFF at start valve cutout.
• Inflight: both igniters provide the ignition. (7.15)
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Eng St Gnd ** Slide 1
What power source is used to accomplish these functions?
• 28 volt DC battery power. (7.20)
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Eng St Off
The left igniter plug receives power from the associated
_______. The right igniter plug receives power from the
_______.
• Left – AC transfer bus.
• Right – AC standby bus. (7.20 )
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Eng St Cont
What occurs when the Engine Start switch is placed to CONT?
• Provides ignition to selected igniters when engine is operating
and engine start lever is in IDLE.
• In flight: provides ignition to both igniters when N2 is below idle
and engine start lever is in IDLE. (7.15)
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Eng St Flt
What occurs when the Engine Start switch is placed to FLT?
• Provides ignition to both igniters when engine start lever raised
to IDLE. (7.15)
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Eng St Off
Is there a situation when igniters will activate with the engine start
switch in the OFF position?
• Yes. When engine start lever is in IDLE and:
An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or, N2 is between
57% and 50% or, Inflight- N2 is between idle and 5%. (7.15)
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Eng St Inflight starts
Discuss the two methods of inflight restarts?
• Crossbleed and Windmill. If a crossbleed start is required, the
X-BLD indication (XB for compact display) is displayed above
the N2 dial. (7.20)
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Eng St Inflight starts
For inflight starts, at low N2 values, is it permissible to see a low
oil quantity indication? Why or why not?
• Yes, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure
to return oil to the tank. Normal oil quantity should be indicated
after start, however. (7.20)
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Low oil steady
What causes this light to illuminate steady?
• Oil pressure at or below red line. (7.15)
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Oil filter bypass steady
What causes this light to illuminate steady?
• Indicates an impending bypass of the scavenge oil filter. (7.15)
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Click on the
HOME button
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to the flight
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Exhaust off lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• No airflow from Exhaust Fan
(Normal fan in this situation).
• May also be an indication of
a pressurization problem.
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Exh fan off lite
Selecting the alternate fan should
cause the light to extinguish in
___ seconds?
• Five (5).
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Exhaust off lite ** Slide 1
What will cause the exhaust fan
to shut off automatically?
• A forward cargo fire warning.
The light is inhibited.
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EQUIP Supply off lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• No airflow from Supply Fan
(Normal fan in this situation).
• May also be an indication of
a pressurization problem.
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EQUIP Supply off lite
What occurs on the ground if this
light illuminates and either IRS
switch is out of the OFF position?
• The crew call horn in the nose
wheel well will activate.
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Click on the
HOME button
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to the flight
deck.
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FC Panel No A hydraulics ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Low pressure in the A hydraulic
system.
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No A, with Stby Rud
STBY
RUD ON
What happens to the light when
you place the FLT CONTROL A
switch to STBY RUD position?
• The light extinguishes because
it is deactivated and no longer
responds to hydraulic pressure
sensors. (13.10)
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No A, Stby Rud On, Light On
STBY
RUD ON
If the light remained illuminated,
what component has failed to
operate correctly?
• The Standby Rudder Shutoff
Valve did not open.
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No A, with Stby Rud
STBY
RUD ON
What causes this light to
illuminate?
The standby hydraulic system
is commanded on to pressurize
the standby rudder power
control unit. (13.10)
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Stby Rud Pump ON
STBY
RUD ON
What pump activates when you
place the switch to STBY RUD
position ?
• The Standby Hydraulic Pump.
(13.20)
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Stby Rud Low Press lite
STBY
RUD ON
What light illuminates momentarily
and then extinguishes to indicate
that the standby hydraulic system
has sufficient pressure?
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Stby Rud Low Press lite 2
STBY
RUD ON
What light illuminates momentarily
and then extinguishes to indicate
that the standby hydraulic system
has sufficient pressure?
• The STANDBY HYD low
pressure light. (13.20)
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Stby Rud Low Press lite Armed
STBY
STBY
RUD
RUD ON
ON
When is the STANDBY HYD low
pressure light armed?
• Only when standby pump
operation has been selected
or automatic standby function
is activated. (13.20)
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Stby Rud Low quant lite Armed
STBY
RUD ON
When does this light illuminate?
• When there is low quantity in
the standby hydraulic reservoir.
(13.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
When would the standby hydraulic
system initiate automatic
operation?
• When all of the following
conditions exist:
1. Loss of system A or B
2. Flaps extended
3. Airborne, or wheel speed
greater than 60 knots,
or
1. The main PCU Force Fight
Monitor (FFM) trips. (13.20)
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FFM
STBY
RUD ON
What is the purpose of the
Force Fight Monitor (FFM)
on the main rudder PCU?
• Detects opposing pressure
(force fight) between A and B
actuators. This may occur if
either system A or B input is
jammed or disconnected.
(9.20)
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FFM output
STBY
RUD ON
How would you know that the
FFM has sensed a jammed
rudder?
• The FFM output automatically
turns on the standby hydraulic
pump and opens the standby
rudder shutoff valve to
pressurize the standby rudder
PCU. This illuminates the STBY
RUD ON light and the Master
Caution light and FLT CONT
annunciator. (9.20)
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Alt Fl Mstr Sw Arm
What happens when you place
the ALTERNATE FLAPS master
switch to ARM?
• The standby hydraulic pump
activates
• Trailing edge flap bypass valve
closes, and
• The ALTERNATE FLAPS
position switch arms. (9.10)
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Alt Fl DOWN
What happens if you place the
ALTERNATE FLAPS position
switch to the DOWN position?
• Fully extends the LE devices
using standby hydraulic
pressure AND if held to DOWN
position, electrically extends
the TE flaps until released.
(9.10)
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Alt Fl DOWN
Can the LE devices be retracted
by the standby hydraulic system?
• No. (9.20)
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Alt Fl DOWN
With a loss of Hydraulic System
B, a flaps 15 approach and
landing is required. Are autoland
operations authorized for a flaps
15 landing?
• No. (QRH Ch 7 – Note)
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Alt Fl DOWN
Alternate flap extension time from
flaps up to flaps 15 is
approximately ____ minutes?
• 2. (QRH Ch 9 – Note)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
What is Manual Reversion?
• Operation of the primary flight
control inputs (pitch and roll)
through cables attached to the
control wheel. It occurs after a
loss of both A and B hydraulic
systems. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Which computer simulates
aerodynamic forces using
airspeed from the elevator
pitot system?
• Elevator Feel Computer.
(9.20)
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Feel Diff Press Lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• When either hydraulic system
fails or the elevator feel pitot
system fails. This indicates
excessive differential pressure
in the elevator feel computer.
(9.20)
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EFS Module
What is the purpose of the
Elevator Feel Shift (EFS)
module?
• Increases A system pressure
to the elevator feel and
centering unit during a stall.
This increases forward control
column force to approximately
four times normal feel pressure.
(9.20)
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EFS Module2
When is the Elevator Feel Shift
(EFS) module inhibited?
• On the ground
• Radio Altitude less than 100
feet and autopilot engaged.
However, if the EFS is active
when descending through 100
feet RA, it remains active until
the angle of attack is reduced
below stickshaker threshold.
(9.10)
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EFS Module2
What are the flight deck
indications that the Elevator Feel
Shift (EFS) module is properly
armed or activated?
• There are no flight deck
indications. (9.10)
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Rudder Authority
At speeds above approximately
____knots, both hydraulic system
A and B pressure are each
reduced within the main rudder
PCU by approximately 25% each.
This function limits full rudder
authority in flight after takeoff
and before landing.
• 135. (9.20)
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Speed Trim Fail
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A failure in the speed trim
system or failure of a single
FCC channel when recall is
activated and light extinguishes
when the Master Caution
System is reset. (9.10)
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Speed Trim Fail Purpose
What does speed trim
accomplish?
• It improves flight characteristics
during operations with low
gross weight, aft center of
gravity, and high thrust when
the autopilot is not engaged.
(9.20)
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Speed Trim Fail conditions
What are the conditions for
speed trim operation?
• N1 above 60%.
• Autopilot not on.
• Airspeed between 100 KIAS
and Mach .5.
• 10 seconds after takeoff.
• 5 seconds following release
of trim switches.
• Sensing of trim requirement.
(9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
What 3 systems work together
to help the pilot identify and
prevent further movement into
a stall condition?
• Elevator Feel Shift (EFS).
• Yaw damper.
• Speed Trim. (9.20)
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Mach Trim Fail lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A failure in the mach trim
system or failure of a single
FCC channel when recall is
activated and light extinguishes
when the Master Caution
System is reset. (9.10)
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Mach Trim Fail purpose
What does mach trim
accomplish?
• It provides speed stability
above Mach .615 by adjusting
the elevators through the mach
trim actuator. The actuator
simultaneously repositions the
elevator feel and centering unit
which adjusts the control
column neutral position. (9.20)
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Auto Slat Fail lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A failure in the auto slat system
or failure of a single Stall
Management Yaw Damper
computer when recall is
activated and light extinguishes
when the Master Caution
System is reset. (9.10)
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Auto Slat Fail purpose
What does the autoslat operation
accomplish?
• With the TE flaps 1 through 5
selected and the LE slats in the
extend position. As the airplane
approaches the stall angle, the
slats automatically drive to the
full extend position, prior to
stick shaker activation. It
enhances stall characteristics
at high angle of attack during
takeoff or approach to landing.
(9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
The Captain’s control wheel
(column) is connected by cables
to the _____ PCUs, the First
Officer’s control wheel is
connected by cables to the _____
PCUs.
• Aileron.
• Spoiler. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Why shouldn’t we use aileron trim
when the autopilot is engaged?
• If the aileron trim is used with
the autopilot engaged, the trim
is not reflected in the control
wheel position. Any aileron trim
applied when the autopilot is
engaged can result in an out
of trim condition and an abrupt
rolling movement when the
autopilot is disconnected. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
When the control wheel is
displaced more than
approximately ___ degrees,
spoiler deflection is initiated?
• 10 (ten). ( 9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
When is the autopilot stabilizer
trim active in the high speed
mode?
• When flaps are extended. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
If the autopilot is engaged and
you activate the control wheel
stabilizer trim switches, what will
occur?
• The autopilot will disengage
and the trim will reposition
the stabilizer. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
When would control column
stabilizer trim cutout switches
automatically stop operation of
the main electric and autopilot
trim?
• When the control column
movement opposes trim
direction. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
True or False. Manual rotation
of the trim wheels can be used to
override autopilot or main electric
trim.
• True. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Can you put more units of
stabilizer trim in with electric
trim or manual trim?
• Manual trim. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
If two pilots are applying
maximum manual effort to
control a runaway stab trim
wheel, may it cause a cable
or system failure?
• No. (QRH Ch 9 – Note)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Will elevator control be sufficient
to safely land the airplane
regardless of stabilizer position?
• Yes. (QRH Ch 9 – Note)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
What will occur if you attempt
to takeoff with the stabilizer trim
out of the green band?
• An intermittent horn sounds
(Takeoff warning horn).
• The TAKEOFF CONFIG light
illuminates.
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
What is the purpose of the yaw
damper?
• Prevents dutch roll
• Gust damping
• Turn coordination
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
After a loss of hydraulic system B,
what event will allow the YAW
DAMPER switch to be reset to
ON? Why?
• Loss of Hydraulic System A.
• Gives rudder assist to help turn
the airplane when control of the
ailerons is through manual
reversion.
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Operation of the speed brake
lever is different when on the
ground and in the air. Explain.
• On the ground flight spoilers
and ground spoilers actuate.
• In the air, only flight spoilers
actuate.
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Auto ops
SPEEDBRAKE
EXTENDED
When does the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate
in the air?
• When speed brakes are extended while in the landing configuration
or below 800 feet AGL.
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SPEEDBRAKE
EXTENDED
If you see the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate
on the ground, what has happened?
• There is hydraulic pressure sensed in the ground spoiler shutoff
valve with the speed brake lever in the DOWN position. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Why is moving the speed brake
lever beyond the flight detent
prohibited in flight?
• It causes buffeting. (9.20)
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
During landing, the auto speed brake
system operates when these conditions
occur:
• Speed brake lever is in the ARMED
position.
• SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is
illuminated.
• Radio altitude is less than 10 feet.
• Landing gear strut compresses on
touchdown.
• Both thrust levers are in IDLE.
• Main landing gear wheels spin up
more than 60 knots.
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Auto ops
STBY
RUD ON
Compression of any landing gear
strut enables the flight spoilers to
deploy. However compression of
the ____ main landing gear strut
enables the GROUND spoilers to
deploy.
• Right. (9.20)
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SB
STBY
RUD ON
If the SPEED BRAKE lever
is in the DOWN position during
landing or rejected takeoff,
the auto speed brake system
operates under these conditions:
• Main landing gear spin up
> 60 Kt.
• Both thrust levers in IDLE.
• Reverse thrust levers positioned
for reverse thrust. (9.20)
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Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
When do the leading edge flaps
extend fully?
• Flaps 1 or greater. (9.20)
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Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
At what flap setting are the slats
fully extended?
• Greater than Flaps 5.
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
What is the difference between
asymmetry and skew flaps?
• Asymmetry – a flap on one
wing does not align with the
symmetrical flap on the
other wing.
• Skew – a TE flap or LE slat
panel does not operate at the
same rate causing the panel
to twist during extension or
retraction.
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Flaps
What causes this light to
illuminate?
LE FLAPS
TRANSIT
• Any LE device in transit.
• Any LE device not in
programmed position with
respect to the TE flaps.
• A LE slat skew condition exists
(slats 2 through 7 only).
• During alternate flap extension
until LE devices are fully
extended and TE flaps reach
flaps 10. (9.20)
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Flaps
Is this light inhibited during
autoslat operation?
• Yes. (9.20)
LE FLAPS
TRANSIT
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Flaps
What is the purpose of the flap
load relief function?
• Protect the flaps from excessive
air loads. (9.20)
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Flaps
What flap settings does this function
operate?
• Flaps 30 and 40 only. (9.20)
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Flaps
At flaps 30, what happens if the flap load
relief function is activated?
• Retracts the TE flaps to 25.
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Flaps
At flaps 40, what happens if the flap
load relief function is activated?
• Retracts the TE flaps to 30.
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
What is the purpose of the
Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU)?
• Monitors the TE flaps for
asymmetry and skew conditions
and LE devices for improper
position and skew conditions
on slats 2 through 7.
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
What does the FSEU do if it
detects a trailing edge
asymmetry or skew condition?
• Closes the TE flap bypass valve.
• Displays a split needle on the
flap position indicator. (9.20)
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
Is slat skew detection inhibited
during autoslat operation?
• Yes. (9.20)
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
Uncommanded motion is detected when
no TE flap position or autoslat command
is present and 2 LE flaps move on one
wing or 2 or more slats move on one wing.
What occurs in this case?
• The FSEU shuts down the LE control
and illuminates the amber LE FLAPS
TRANSIT light.
• The FSEU maintains pressure on the
retract lines and depressurizes the
extend and full extend lines.
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
In the event of uncommanded motion
of the TE flaps, what occurs?
• The FSEU shuts down the TE drive
unit by closing the TE flap bypass
valve. (9.20)
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
How will the crew recognize this
failure?
• The flap position indicator
disagreeing with the FLAP
lever position (there is no flap
needle split). (9.20)
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
In the event of uncommanded
motion of the TE flaps, after the
FSEU shuts down the TE drive
unit, can the crew reset the
system?
• No. (9.20)
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Skew vs Asym Flaps
STBY
RUD ON
How will the crew operate the TE
flaps for landing?
• They must use the alternate flap
system to control the TE flaps.
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Alt Fl DOWN
STBY
RUD ON
What normal flap and slat
protections are no longer
operational in the alternate
flap mode?
• No skew protection
• No asymmetry protection
• No load relief
• No uncommanded movement
protection. (9.20)
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Engine Fuel Valve ** Slide 1
What causes the ENG VALVE CLOSED
lights to illuminate bright blue?
• When the valve is in transit or valve
position and engine start lever or engine
fire warning switch disagree. This valve
is powered from the battery bus.
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Spar Fuel Valve Power Source
What is the power source for opening
and closing the SPAR FUEL SHUTOFF
VALVES?
• DC power from the Hot Battery Bus.
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Fuel Temp
Where is the fuel temperature sensor
located?
• In the main tank number one. (12.10)
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Fuel Temp
What is the maximum fuel temperature?
• 49°C. (L10.4)
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Fuel Temp
What is the minimum inflight fuel
temperature?
• 3°C above the fuel freezing point or –43°C,
whichever is higher. (L10.4)
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Spar fuel flow measured
Fuel flow is measured after passing through
the ________________ valve?
• Engine fuel shutoff (fuel flow information is
also provided to the FMS). (7.20)
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HMU
To meet thrust requirements, the EEC
meters fuel through the _______ ______
unit?
• Hydro Mechanical Unit (HMU). (7.20)
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exchangers
What component heats the fuel prior to
reaching the second stage fuel pump?
• Fuel/oil heat exchangers. (7.20)
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CROSSFEED Fuel Valve lite
What causes the CROSSFEED VALVE
OPEN light to illuminate bright blue?
• When the valve is in transit or valve
position and crossfeed SELECTOR
disagree. (12.10)
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CROSSFEED power source
What is the power source for opening and
closing the CROSSFEED VALVE?
• DC from the battery bus.
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Boost pump power AC
What is the power source for the fuel
boost pumps?
• AC power.
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Loss of AC power for fuel pumps
If AC power was lost in flight, which fuel
tanks have trapped fuel that cannot be
suction fed to the engines?
• Center Wing and Aux Tanks.
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APU Fuel
When AC fuel pumps are operating, fuel for
the APU is supplied from the _______ side
of the fuel manifold.
• Left
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Filter Bypass lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Impending fuel filter bypass due to
a contaminated filter. (12.10)
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Filter Bypass lite
What may occur as a result of fuel
contamination?
• Erratic engine operation and flameout.
(QRH Ch 12-Note)
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CW Vs Main Pumps
What is the difference between the center
tank LOW PRESSURE lights and main tank
lights in operation?
• The center tank lights extinguish when
switches are placed in the OFF position.
• One center tank low pressure light will
result in a Master Caution alert.
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CW Vs Main Pumps
What is the difference between the center
and main tank pump operation?
• When a center tank low pressure light
illuminates, the pump shuts off after 10
seconds.
• Center tank pumps put out more pressure
than main tank pumps. (12.10)
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One Main Pump Fail and MC
Would the Master Caution light illuminate
in this scenario?
• No. (12.10)
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One Main Pump Fail and MC
What might cause a LOW PRESSURE light
to flicker?
• When tank quantity is low in turbulent air or
in a climb or descent. (QRH Ch 12-Note)
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
What power source is necessary to
illuminate the Fuel Quantity Indicators?
• Standby AC power.
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
For ground operations, center tank fuel
pump switches must not be positioned ON
unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds
_____ (lb/kg) except when defueling or
transferring fuel.
• 1000 /453. (L.10)
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
Which fuel tank does the scavenge jet pump
take fuel from?
• The center wing fuel tank.
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
The fuel scavenge jet pump uses what
kind of electrical power?
• The pump does not use electricity.
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
The fuel scavenge jet pump works
automatically as long as the following
conditions are met.
• Main tank fuel pump number 1 FWD
switch is on and
• Main tank number 1 is about one-half full.
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Fuel Quant Indic power source
A DC operated APU fuel boost pump is
installed to ensure positive fuel pressure
to the APU fuel control unit. During APU
operation the pump operates automatically.
When does the pump shut off?
• When an AC fuel pump pressurizes the
fuel manifold.
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Fuel Low Indication
When does the fuel LOW indication illuminate?
• When the fuel quantity is less than 2000 pounds/907 kilograms
in the related main tank. (12.10)
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Fuel Config Indication
When does the fuel CONFIG indication illuminate?
• When the center tank quantity is greater than 1600 pounds/726
kilograms, both center tank pumps are positioned off, and either
engine is running. (12.10)
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Fuel config if CW>1000
Main tanks must be full if the center tank contains more than
______ pounds/kilograms?
• 1000 /453. (L10.4)
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Fuel Imbal Indication
When does the fuel IMBAL indication illuminate?
• When main tank quantity differ by more than 1000 pounds/453
kilograms. Remains until imbalance is reduced to 200 pounds/
91 kilograms. (12.10)
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Fuel Imbal Indication scheduled
Allowable scheduled lateral imbalance between main tanks
1 and 2?
• Zero. (L10.4)
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Fuel Imbal allowed
Allowable random lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2
must not exceed ______ pounds/kilograms?
• 1000/453. (L10.4)
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Fuel imbal inhibit
When is the fuel IMBAL indication inhibited?
• When the airplane is on the ground or when the LOW
indication exists at the same time. (12.10)
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Aux fuel feed
Which tank is fed by auxiliary
fuel?
• Center tank.
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Aux fuel feed
What is the purpose of the two
vent valves in each auxiliary fuel
tank?
• They close to allow
pressurization of the aux tanks
so fuel will flow to the Center
Wing Tank.
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Aux fuel feed
The vent valves automatically
open upon landing. True or False.
• True.
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Aux fuel in FMC
Is auxiliary fuel quantity included
in the airplane total fuel quantity
sent to the FMC for fuel
computations?
• Yes.
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Maint messages in flight
Are MAINT messages
automatically displayed in flight?
• No.
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Maint messages in flight
Can the MAINT messages be
displayed in flight?
• Yes. By pushing the MAINT
switch. However, this is not
proper procedure.
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FWD
Alert messages displayed
LOW PRESSURE
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• An ALERT message is present.
(12.10)
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FWD
Alert messages displayed
LOW PRESSURE
How can multiple ALERT
messages be displayed?
• Repeated pushing of the
ALERT switch will cycle through
all active messages.
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Aux Fuel Bleed Air Normal
The transfer of fuel from aux tanks to the Center Wing tank is
accomplished using pressurized air from ___________?
• The cabin.
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Aux Fuel Bleed Air
What is the purpose of the AUX FUEL BLEED AIR switches?
• Bleed air can be selected to pressurize the aux fuel tanks if
cabin pressure is not adequate.
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Aux Fuel Transfer
What is the purpose of the AUX FUEL TRANSFER switches?
• OFF closes respective auxiliary fuel transfer valves. AUTO arms
respective auxiliary fuel transfer valves to begin fuel transfer.
(12.10)
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Aux Fuel Transfer
After these switches are in the AUTO position, how long after
takeoff will the auxiliary fuel system begin operation?
• No sooner than 10 minutes after takeoff.
• Center tank below 14,020 pounds (01-0015 thru 02-0042).
• Center tank below 24,000 pounds (02-201 thru 05-4613).
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Aux Fuel Transfer
The main fuel tanks must be full and center tank must be scheduled
______ if the auxiliary fuel system is to be loaded or contain fuel.
• To contain a minimum of 17,320 lbs /7856 Kgs of fuel (01-0015
thru 02-0042).
• To be full (02-201 thru 05-4613). (L.10)
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NGS
What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS)?
• Converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air and delivers it to the
center fuel tank to reduce flammability of the tank.
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NGS
What are the flight deck indications for the proper functioning
of the system?
• The NGS operation is transparent and there are no flight
deck indications.
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NGS
When does the NGS system automatically start?
• After takeoff and runs continuously through climb, cruise,
descent, landing, and during taxi for a short period of time.
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NGS
When does the NGS system automatically shut down?
• After a specified period of lack of bleed air pressure.
• Aircraft on the ground and not in test mode.
• Either engine not running in flight.
• Fire or smoke detection in the cargo or main deck areas.
• Left air conditioning pack overheat.
• Center tank refueling valve is open.
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NGS
Note: During the external
preflight, observe the Nitrogen
Generation System indication in
the Right Main Wheel Well
adjacent to the APU fire control
panel.
• Look for a green,
OPERATIONAL, light. Any other
indication requires you to
consult the MMEL or DDPG.
• Generally dispatch is
acceptable.
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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PUMP VOLUME
How many hydraulic systems are there?
• Three (3).
• A, B, and Standby. (13.20)
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PUMP VOLUME
The hydraulic systems power which airplane systems?
• Flight Controls
• LE / TE flaps and slats
• Landing Gear
• Wheel brakes
* Nosewheel steering
* Thrust reversers
* Autopilot
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PUMP VOLUME
Which system components are common to both A and B?
• Flight Spoilers
• Elevator
• Ailerons
• Rudder
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PUMP VOLUME
What electrical power source drives the electric motor driven
pumps?
• AC power
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PUMP VOLUME
Which transfer bus energizes the A electric motor driven pump?
• Number two (2).
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PUMP VOLUME
An engine driven pump supplies approximately ___ times the fluid
volume of the related electrical motor driven pump?
• Four (4).
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Eng Pump low pres lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Low output pressure of associated pump.
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Eng Pump low pres lite
One pump can supply sufficient pressure for normal system
operation. True or False?
• True. (QRH Ch 13-Note)
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Eng Pump low pres lite
In the event of a loss of the engine driven pump and a high demand
on the system, what might one expect to happen to the remaining
electrical driven pump system?
• An intermittent illumination of the electrical driven pump LOW
PRESSURE light. (QRH Ch 13-Note)
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LG TU OPS
Hydraulic fluid used for cooling and lubrication of the pumps passes
through a heat exchanger before returning to the reservoir. Where
is the heat exchanger for system A located?
• Main fuel tank number 1.
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LG TU OPS
What is the minimum fuel for ground operations of electric
motor-driven pumps?
• 1675 pounds/760 kgs in the related main tank.
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Pump ovht A Elec
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Electrical pump has overheated OR Hydraulic fluid used to cool
and lubricate electrical pump has overheated.
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PUMP
Turning on the engine hydraulic pump de-energizes a blocking valve
in the pump to allow pump pressure to enter the system. Why is the
switch left on?
• To prolong solenoid life.
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Hydr with FIRE SW pulled
How does pulling the
engine fire warning
switch affect the hydraulic
system?
• Shuts off fluid flow to
the engine driven pump.
• Deactivates the related
LOW PRESSURE light.
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Pump operation
Will the engine driven
hydraulic pump continue
to rotate even when the
fire switch is pulled?
• Yes, however fluid flow
is isolated from system
components.
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Syst press
Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized by bleed air?
• To ensure positive fluid flow to all hydraulic pumps.
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foaming fluid
What can occur at higher altitudes within the hydraulic reservoirs
if they are not properly pressurized?
• Foaming may occur.
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foaming fluid
What are some indications that foaming has occurred?
• Pressure fluctuations.
• Blinking of related LOW PRESSURE light.
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LEAK in A system
System A – If a leak develops in the engine driven pump or
related lines, will all fluid be eventually lost?
• No. A standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system
fluid loss.
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LEAK in A system
System A – With fluid level at the top of the standpipe, the reservoir
quantity displayed indicates approximately ____ % full.
• 20%
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LEAK in A system
System A – If a leak develops in the electric motor-driven pump,
will the quantity decrease to zero?
• Yes.
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LEAK in A system
System B – If a leak develops in the engine driven pump, will the
quantity decrease to zero?
• Yes.
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LEAK in A system
System B – If a leak develops in the electric motor-driven pump,
will the quantity decrease to zero?
• Yes.
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LEAK in A system
System B – What is the purpose of the standpipe then?
• It supplies fluid to both engine driven pump and electric motordriven pump and is sufficient for power transfer unit operation.
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B & STBY share fluid
The B system and the standby system share fluid. Will a leak in
system B affect operation of the standby hydraulic system?
• No.
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B & STBY share fluid
If a leak occurs in the standby hydraulic system, the B system will
continue to operate normally. What will the fluid level eventually
stabilize at?
• 72% full.
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PTU purpose
What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?
• Supply the additional volume needed to operate the autoslats
and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when system
B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost.
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PTU Operates
What conditions cause the PTU to operate?
• System B engine driven pressure below limits.
• Airborne.
• Flaps less than 15 but not up.
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LG TU purpose
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
• Supply the additional volume needed to raise the landing gear
at a normal rate when system A engine-driven hydraulic pump
volume is lost.
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LG TU OPS
What conditions cause the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate?
• Airborne.
• No. 1 Engine RPM drops below a limit value.
• Landing gear lever UP.
• Either main landing gear is not up and locked.
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Auto connect
What conditions require the pilots to “Plan to land at the nearest
suitable airport” ?
• One hydraulic system remains (the standby system is
considered a hydraulic system).
• Cabin smoke or fire persists.
• One main AC power source remains (such as engine or APU
generator).
• Any other situation determined by the crew to have a significant
adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued.
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Click on the
HOME button
to return
to the flight
deck.
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Press Sys Auto-fail ** Slide 1
What do these lights indicate?
• A single controller failure in the
pressurization system that has
automatically transferred to
the ALTN mode. (2.10)
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Press Sys Auto-fail ** Slide 1
What causes the AUTO FAIL
light to illuminate?
• Loss of DC power
• Controller fault
• Outflow valve control fault
• Differential pressure (>8.75)
• Excessive rate of cabin
pressure change (+/- 2000
feet per minute)
• Cabin altitude >15,800 feet
(2.40)
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Press Sys ALTN MODE
What does this panel indicate?
• The pressurization system is
in the ALTN mode. (2.10)
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Press Sys Dual fail
What does this panel indicate?
• A dual controller failure in the
pressurization system. (2.10)
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Press Sys Manual
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Placing the pressurization
system in the manual mode.
(2.10)
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Press Sys Manual
The outflow valve can take up to
___ seconds to open.
• 20. (QRH Ch 8 – Note)
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Press Sys Off sched des
What does this light indicate?
• Airplane descended before
reaching the planned cruise
altitude set in the FLT ALT
indicator. (2.10)
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Press Sys Off sched des
If no further inputs are given,
what landing elevation will the
controller program into the
system?
• Takeoff field elevation. (2.40)
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Press Sys Off sched des
If the FLT ALT indicator is
changed to extinguish the light
will the system continue to use
the takeoff field elevation for
landing?
• No, the automatic abort
capability to the original
takeoff field elevation is lost.
(2.40)
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Press Sys type power
What type of electrical power
does the pressurization system
require?
• 28v DC from DC Bus 1 and
DC Bus 2. (2.40)
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Press outflow vlv
What is the normal position of
the outflow valve on the ground?
• Full open. (2.40)
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OEV normal position
What is the normal position of
the Overboard Exhaust Valve
in flight and pressurized?
• Closed. Exhaust air from
the E&E bay is diffused to the
lining of the forward cargo
compartment. (2.40)
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OEV drive full open
What causes the Overboard
Exhaust Valve to drive full open
in flight?
• If either pack switch is in HIGH
and the recirculation fan is
OFF. This discharges air from
the E&E bay overboard for
smoke removal.
• Forward Cargo Fire. (2.40)
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Max cabin pres dif 9.1
What is the maximum cabin
pressure differential (relief
valves)?
• 9.1 psi. (L10.2)
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10,000 cabin alt warn horn
What cabin altitude activates
the Altitude Warning Horn and
Light?
• 10,000 feet. (2.10)
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10,000 cabin alt warn horn
(05-730, 05-0932) What cabin
altitude activates the Altitude
Warning Horn and Light if the
High Altitude Landing Switch is
energized?
• 14,000 feet. (2.10)
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10,000 cabin alt warn horn
(05-730, 05-0932) When the High
Altitude Landing system is
engaged and the actual landing
altitude is set, the controller
brings the cabin altitude to the
______ _____ elevation when the
descent mode is activated.
• Landing airport. (2.10)
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10,000 cabin alt warn horn
(05-730, 05-0932) Upon
departure from a high altitude
airport, the system returns to
normal operation as the cabin
descends through ___ feet.
• 8000. (2.10)
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Aft Overhead ****
Click a panel for
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Voice recorder ** Slide 1
The cockpit voice recorder uses
4 independent channels to record
flight deck audio for _____
minutes?
• 120. (5.20)
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Reverser lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to illuminate?
• One or more of the following has occurred:
• Auto-restow circuit has been activated.
• Thrust reverser sleeve(s) not in commanded state.
• Isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve not in commanded
position.
• Synchronization shaft lock circuitry failure. (7.15)
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Reverser lite ** hyd source
What hydraulic source is used for pressure for the operation of
engine No. 1 thrust reverser?
• A system. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** stby source
What hydraulic source is used as a backup system for pressure for
the operation of engine No. 1 thrust reverser in the event of an “A”
system failure?
• Standby hydraulic system. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** 12 sec
Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than ____
seconds, the MASTER CAUTION and ENG lights illuminate.
• 12. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** 10 feet
The thrust reverser can be deployed when either radio altimeter
senses less than ____ feet altitude?
• 10. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** detent 2
Under normal conditions the thrust reverser can be raised to
detent No. 2 while the amber REVERSER light is illuminated.
True or False?
• False. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** 16 sec
While positioning the thrust levers past the detent No. 1 towards
the stowed position, but not in the stowed position, a pause of
approximately ____ seconds engages the electro-mechanical lock
and prevents the thrust reverser sleeves from further movement?
• 18. (7.20)
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Reverser lite ** 16 sec
How may the pilot clear the fault and restore normal operations
in the condition previously described?
• Cycle the thrust reverser levers. (7.20)
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Eng control lite
Is it permissible to back up with reverse thrust?
• No. (L.10)
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Eng control lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
Faults in the Engine Control System. Not dispatchable.
Light operates when:
• Engine is operating.
• Airplane is on the ground and:
– Below 80 knots prior to takeoff, or
– Approximately 30 seconds after touchdown. (7.15)
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Eng control lite
What is the purpose of the EEC?
• Regulates the engine
• Monitors autothrottle and flight crew inputs to automatically set
engine thrust. (7.20)
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EEC ** 2 channels
The digital EEC has ___ independent control channels?
• 2. (7.20)
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EEC ** 2 channels
Does the EEC automatically control reverse thrust output?
• Yes. (7.20)
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EEC ** lever full
The full rated takeoff thrust for the installed engine is available at a
thrust lever position less than the forward stop. True or False?
• True. Fixed or assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust ratings
are set at thrust lever positions less than full rated takeoff. (7.20)
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EEC ** full thrust lever
True or False. If the thrust lever is advanced to the forward stop,
the EEC limits the maximum thrust according to the airplane model.
• True. (7.20)
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EEC ** HMU
The EEC provides N1 and N2 red line overspeed protection in
both the normal and alternate modes. True or False.
• True. (7.20)
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EEC ** HMU
During ground starts, the EEC monitors engine parameters
to detect___________.
• Impending hot starts,
• EGT start limit exceedences, and
• Wet starts. (7.20)
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EEC ** HMU
If a wet start is detected, the EEC turns off the ignition and shuts off
fuel to the engine ____ seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE.
• 15. (7.20)
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EEC ** HMU
During ground starts, the EEC monitors engine parameters to detect
impending hot starts, EGT start limit exceedances, and wet starts.
Are these protection features functional during inflight starts?
• No. (7.20)
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EEC ** HMU
At high altitudes or in heavy precipitation, engines may accelerate
to idle very slowly. True or False?
• True.
• Can you continue the start if the N2 is steadily increasing and EGT
stays within limits?
• Yes. (QRH Ch 7 – Note)
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EEC ** HMU
Does the EEC provides red line EGT exceedence protection
other than on the ground during engine start?
• No. The EGT limit must be observed by the crew. (7.20)
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EEC ** fuel flow
The EEC compares actual N1 to commanded N1 and adjusts
_________ to achieve commanded N1.
• Fuel flow. (7.20)
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EEC ** idle
What are the three possible “idle” settings available through the EEC?
• Ground Minimum Idle.
• Flight Minimum Idle.
• Approach Idle. (7.20)
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EEC ** app idle
When does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
• In flight and flaps in landing configuration OR engine anti-ice
is ON for EITHER engine. (7.20)
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EEC ** app idle
What is the purpose of Approach Idle?
• Improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.
(7.20)
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EEC ** app idle
If a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals,
below what altitude will the EEC begin the Approach Idle schedule?
• 15,000 feet. (7.20)
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Eng control ALTN lite
What mode is the EEC in?
• EEC has automatically switched to the SOFT alternate mode. It
could also be in the HARD alternate mode if this occurred in flight
and the thrust lever were moved to the IDLE position. In either
case, required signals are not available for normal operation.
(7.15, 7.20)
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SOFT alt
What does the EEC use to define engine parameters in the soft
alternate mode?
• The last valid flight conditions. (7.20)
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Hard alt 1
What mode is the EEC in, now?
• EEC has been manually switched to the HARD alternate
mode. (7.15)
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Hard alt 2
What does the EEC use to define engine parameters in this mode?
• The alternate mode thrust schedule.
Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal
mode thrust for same thrust lever position.
Maximum certified thrust rating can be exceeded. (7.20)
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DEU
Loss of either DEU will result in a loss of signal to both EECs.
True or False?
• True. Each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent the
engines from operating on a single source of data. (7.20)
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Flight Rec ** Slide 1 Normal in flight
When does the flight recorder operate?
• When In flight: it operates anytime AC electrical power is available.
• On the ground: after either engine is started. (10.16)
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Flight Recorder OFF lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Indicates the recorder is not operating or the test is invalid. May
indicate power failure, loss of input data, or electronic malfunction.
(10.16)
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Flight Recorder OFF lite 2
The light is illuminated on the ground with battery power applied.
When does it extinguish?
• When either engine is operating (on the ground). (10.16)
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Flight Recorder TEST
Why does the OFF light extinguish in the TEST position?
• Because the flight recorder receives power. If it is recording,
then the OFF light will extinguish. (10.16)
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GPS Lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Indicates a failure of both GPS
sensor units. If it illuminates
only after recall is pushed,
indicates a single GPS sensor
unit failure. (11.10)
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GPS Lite ** Slide 1
What effect will this have on
look-ahead terrain alerting and
displays?
• They will be unavailable due
to position uncertainty.
(QRH Ch 11 – Note)
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IRS On DC light ** Slide 1
What causes these lights to
illuminate?
• The related IRS is operating
on DC power from the switched
hot battery bus (AC power not
normal). If on the ground, the
crew call horn in the nose
wheel well sounds.
(11.10)
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IRS left irs power source
Which bus normally powers the
left IRS?
• AC Standby Bus.
(11.20)
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IRS right irs power source
Which bus normally powers the
right IRS?
• AC Transfer Bus 2.
(11.20)
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Auto switch to SW hot batt bus
If AC power is not normal, either
or both systems automatically
switch to DC power from which
bus.
• Switched Hot Battery Bus.
(11.20)
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IRS backup dc power to right IRS
Backup DC power to the right IRS
is automatically terminated if AC
power is not restored within ___
minutes.
• 5. (11.20)
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IRS Fault light
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• A system fault affecting the
related IRS ATT or NAV modes
has been detected. (11.10)
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IRS Fault light
In this situation, the IRS transfer
switch will be moved to the BOTH
ON R position. Will autopilot
operation be affected?
• Yes. Autopilot A is not available.
Autopilot B may be used except
during approach.
(QRH Ch 11 – Note)
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IRS DC fail
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• DC power is not normal for
the related IRS. If the other
lights are extinguished, the IRS
is operating normally on AC
power. (11.10)
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IRS DC fail
With both DC FAIL lights
illuminated, the ___________
battery bus is not powered or
the battery is nearly discharged?
• Switched Hot.
(QRH Ch 11 – Note)
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IRS Align ON
What causes these lights to
illuminate?
• Steady - IRS is operating in
the ALIGN mode, the initial ATT
mode, or the shutdown cycle.
• Flashing - alignment cannot
be accomplished due to: No
present position entry OR
significant difference between
previous and entered positions.
(11.10)
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IRS Align off
What causes the align lights
to extinguish?
• IRS not in align mode. With
mode selector in NAV,
alignment is complete.
• With mode selector in ATT,
attitude information is available.
Heading information is available
following entry of initial
magnetic heading. (11.10)
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IRS ATT
What is the left IRS providing
in this scenario?
• Only attitude and heading
information. The selector
must be cycled to OFF before
reselecting ALIGN or NAV.
(11.10)
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Mach a/s test ** Slide 1
On the ground, what will happen
if you push the Mach and
Airspeed Warning test button?
• It tests the respective Mach
warning system.
(15.10)
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Mach a/s inhibit
Is this function inhibited when
airborne?
• Yes. (15.10)
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Stall warn pwr source AC
Is AC power required for the Stall
Warning Test?
• Yes. (15.10)
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Stall warn computer (SMYD)
Which computer is checked
through this system?
• The Stall Management Yaw
Damper Computer. (15.20)
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Stall warn computer (SMYD)
Is this function inhibited when
airborne?
• Yes. (15.10)
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Normal crew Oxygen press ** Slide 1
What does this gage indicate?
• Crew Oxygen Cylinder pressure. (1.30)
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Auto Oxygen
What causes this light to illuminate with the switch in the NORMAL
position?
• Passenger oxygen activates automatically if cabin altitude climbs
to 14,650. Passenger masks drop. (1.30)
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Manual Oxygen
What happens if the pilot places the switch in the ON position?
• Passenger oxygen activates. Passenger masks drop. (1.30)
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Auto Oxygen
How long will passenger oxygen flow once initiated?
• Approximately 12 minutes.
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Auto Oxygen
Once initiated, can passenger oxygen be shut off?
• No. (1.30)
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Pseu lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to
illuminate on the ground?
• A fault in the PSEU or an
overwing exit flight lock fails to
disengage when commanded.
(15.10)
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Pseu in flight - not
What causes this light to
illuminate in flight?
• It does not. It is inhibited from
thrust lever advance for takeoff
until 30 seconds after landing.
(15.10)
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Click a panel for
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GPWS 1
What causes this light to illuminate?
• GPWS computer malfunction or
power loss. (15.10)
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GPWS Slide 1
The GPWS monitors terrain proximity
using a discrete function of the weather
radar system. True or False?
• False, it uses an internal world wide
data base. (15.20)
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GPWS Slide 1
What type of events will the GPWS alert
for?
• Excessive descent rate.
• Excessive terrain closure rate.
• Altitude loss after takeoff or go around.
• Unsafe terrain clearance when not in
the landing configuration.
• Excessive deviation below an ILS
glide slope.
• Excessive deviation below glide path.
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GPWS Slide 1
Can terrain and weather displays
appear on a display unit
simultaneously?
• No. (15.20)
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GPWS Slide 1
Can terrain and TCAS displays appear
on a display unit simultaneously?
• Yes. (15.20)
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GPWS Slide 1
If pilot reaction is immediate, a ground
proximity alert guarantees terrain
clearance. True or False?
• False. (15.20)
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Auto brake disarm lite ** Slide 1
What causes this light to illuminate?
• RTO selected on the ground.
• Malfunction in system.
• Manual brakes applied during RTO or
Landing.
• Landing with RTO selected.
• Speed Brake lever moved down during
RTO or Landing.
• Thrust levers advanced during RTO or
Landing. (14.10)
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Auto brake RTO
In the RTO position, above what speed will
the system apply maximum brake pressure
when thrust levers are retarded to idle?
• 90 knots. (14.10)
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Auto brake RTO conditions
What conditions must exist in order to arm the
RTO mode prior to takeoff?
• Switch in the RTO position.
• On the ground.
• Antiskid and autobrake systems operational.
• Wheel speed <60 Knots.
• Thrust levers in IDLE. (14.20)
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Auto brake RTO in air
In the air, with the switch in RTO, the RTO mode
is automatically disarmed. Will the AUTO
BRAKE DISARM light illuminate?
• No. (14.20)
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Auto brake RTO landing
If a landing is made with RTO selected will any
automatic braking occur?
• No. (14.20)
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Auto brake set at 80K
If the pilot selects a landing autobrake setting
during landing roll at 80 knots, will the system
begin braking?
• Yes. If selected prior to 30 knots of ground
speed, braking will begin immediately. (14.20)
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Auto brake set at 80K
With autobrakes set to 2, will the landing
distance be extended if the thrust reversers
are not used?
• No. The autobrakes detect the deceleration
and will apply more braking to stop the
airplane. (14.20)
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Auto brake three ways disarm
After auto braking has initiated, name three
ways the pilot may disarm the system?
• Apply manual brakes.
• Speed brake to down detent position.
• Advancing forward thrust levers (except
during first 3 seconds after touchdown).
(14.20)
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Auto brake three ways disarm
What causes this light to illuminate?
• An anti-skid system fault has occurred.
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Antiskid 2
When setting the parking brake, if the ANTI
SKID INOP light illuminates, what has occurred?
• The parking brake valve is not in the
commanded position. (14.20)
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Auto brake three ways disarm
Is locked wheel protection available in this
condition?
• No. (QRH Ch 14 – Note)
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Antiskid 1
Will antiskid protection be available with the
alternate brake system?
• Yes. (14.20)
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Antiskid 2
How does antiskid braking differ between
normal and alternate braking?
• With the alternate braking system, antiskid
protection is applied to main gear wheel pairs
instead of individual wheels. (14.20)
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Antiskid 2
Is locked wheel and hydroplane protection
available with Alternate brakes?
• Yes. (14.20)
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Antiskid 2
Is anti skid protection available if both “A”
and “B” systems are lost?
• Yes. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
Hydraulic power for retraction, extension, and nose wheel
steering is normally supplied by hydraulic system _____?
• A. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
What nose wheel deflection is achieved with full rudder
deflection?
• 7 degrees. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
What nose wheel deflection is achieved with full turn of the
Nose Wheel Steering?
• 78 degrees. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
On the ground, what prevents the landing gear lever from
moving to the retract position?
• A landing gear lever lock. (14.20)
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NWS
If you turn the nose wheel steering wheel and conduct
rudder pedal steering simultaneously, which one has
priority?
• Nose wheel steering wheel. (14.10)
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Red gear light
During retraction, the ALTERNATE brakes automatically
stop rotation of the main gear wheels. True or False?
• True. (14.20)
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Red gear light
During retraction, what stops the
nose gear tires?
• Nosewheel snubbers. (14.20)
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Red gear light
What does a red GEAR light indicate?
• Landing gear does not agree with the Landing Gear
position lever OR landing gear is not DOWN and
LOCKED with either or both thrust levers retarded
to idle and below 800 feet AGL. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
What happens when the landing gear lever is placed to
OFF?
• Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear
system. (14.20)
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LG lever off ** Slide 1
What is the landing gear retract speed limit?
• 235 Knots (See the placard). (14.20)
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Gear down – lever up
After takeoff you place the gear handle in the UP position
and you see this indication several minutes afterwards.
What could be the problem?
• The manual landing gear extension door might be
OPEN. (14.20)
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Gear down – lever up
With the manual landing gear extension door open, could
you extend the landing gear with the lever in the UP
position?
• Yes, however this is not proper procedure. (14.20)
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Nosegear doors
Once lowered manually, can the gear be retracted?
• No. (QRH Ch 14 – Note)
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NWS
Are the brakes for the nose wheels on the B hydraulic
system?
• There are no brakes for the nose wheels. (14.10)
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Fitting2
What will stop a spinning tire
with loose tread from entering
the main wheel well?
• A fitting in the wheel well ring
opening will break and that
gear stops retracting and free
falls back to the down position.
(14.20)
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Gear down – lever up
After takeoff, you raise the gear and see this indication.
What may have happened?
• The right main gear did not retract.
• May be caused if the blown tire impact fitting had broken
off. (14.20)
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Accumulator
If system B hydraulic pressure is lost, will the
accumulator continue to be pressurized by the
A system?
• No. However, trapped hydraulic pressure can
still provide several braking applications or
parking brake application. (14.20)
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Takeoff config1
When is the Takeoff Configuration
warning horn armed?
• On the ground and either or both
thrust levers are advanced for
takeoff. (15.20)
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Takeoff config2
What causes the Takeoff Configuration
light to illuminate and warning horn to
sound when the thrust levers are
advanced up for takeoff?
• TE flaps not in the 1 to 25
takeoff range.
• LE devices are not configured
for takeoff.
• Speedbrake lever not down.
• Spoilers not down.
• Parking brake set.
• Stabilizer trim not in the takeoff
range. (15.20)
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Lights
A landing gear is down and
locked as long as one associated
green indicator light (center or
overhead panel) is illuminated.
True or False?
• True. (QRH Ch 14-Note)
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Fitting1
Why would this light illuminate?
• With the autopilot engaged, it
means that the autopilot is not
trimming the stabilizer properly.
(4.10)
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Fitting1
Is a momentary illumination of this
light normal during large changes
in trim requirements?
• Yes. (QRH Ch 9 – Note)
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TO config lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Activates on the ground as
throttles are advanced if the
airplane is not properly configured
correctly for takeoff.
• Activation is simultaneous with
aural warning intermittent horn for
TAKEOFF CONFIGURATION
alert. (15.10)
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Cabin Alt lite
What causes this light to
illuminate?
• Illuminates at 10,000 feet if the
cabin has not been pressurized.
• During flight with loss of cabin
pressure.
• Activation is simultaneous with
aural warning intermittent horn
for CABIN ALTITUDE alert.
(15.10)
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Cargo Fire Test ** Slide 1
Is this a satisfactory test of the cargo fire panel?
• Yes. AC power is required. (8.20)
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Cargo Fire det fault
What causes this light to illuminate?
• After AC power is applied, both loops in one or both cargo
compartments have failed. During the TEST, one loop in
either or both cargo compartments has failed. (8.10)
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Cargo Fire FWD lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• At least one detector in each loop (in the forward cargo
compartment, in this scenario) detects smoke. If power failed
in one loop, at least one detector in the remaining loop detects
smoke. (8.10)
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Cargo Fire FWD lite
What else automatically occurs in the event of a forward cargo fire?
• The RECIRC FAN shuts down
• The exhaust fan shuts down
• The overboard exhaust valve opens
• The NGS system shuts down (for any cargo compartment fire)
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Cargo Fire Armed
What does activating the ARMED switch accomplish?
• Arms the extinguisher for the forward cargo compartment. (8.10)
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Cargo Fire Disch lite
What does the DISCH light signify?
• Any extinguisher bottle has discharged. (8.10)
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Cargo Fire Disch lite
After pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch, the light may need
up to _____ seconds to illuminate.
• 30. (QRH Ch 8 – Note)
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Cargo Fire 2nd bottle
When does the last bottle discharge?
• After 60 minutes.
• Airborne.
• The switch remains armed. (8.20)
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Cargo Fire elect pwr
What electrical power source is required to discharge the cargo
fire bottle(s)?
• Hot Battery Bus. (8.20)
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Auto connect
What conditions require the pilots to “Plan to land at the nearest
suitable airport” ?
• Cabin smoke or fire persists.
• One hydraulic system remains.
(the standby system is considered a hydraulic system)
• One main AC power source remains.
(such as engine or APU generator)
• Any other situation determined by the crew to have a significant
adverse effect on safety if the flight is continued.
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Auto connect
WARNING
Inform ground personnel NOT to open any cargo door after landing
until all passengers and crew have exited the airplane and fire fighting
equipment is nearby.
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Stab trim override
What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM
override switch?
• Control column actuated stabilizer trim
cutout switches stop operation of the
main electric and autopilot trim when the
control column movement opposes trim
direction. When the STAB TRIM override
switch is positioned to OVERRIDE,
electric trim can be used regardless
of control column position. (9.20)
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Cabin Smoke Detector
01-0015 - 02-0042
What is the purpose of the Cabin Smoke Detector?
• Detect smoke in the passenger cabin (8.20)
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Cabin Smoke Detector
01-0015 - 02-0042
What happens when you select the TEST position?
• Does a lamp test of the LAV indicators
• Initiates a test for the DV compartment smoke detectors (4)
• Initiates a test for the AVIO RACK 3/4 smoke detectors (2).
(8.20)
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Cabin Smoke Detector
01-0015 - 02-0042
How do you silence the alarm buzzer?
• Select the MUTE position of the selector switch (8.20)
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Cabin Smoke Detector
01-0015 - 02-0042
Do crew members in the passenger compartment receive a local
warning if there is smoke in the AVIO RACK?
• No. Pilot must inform them of the alarm. (8.20)
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Engine Fire Ovht
Is this a satisfactory test of the fire detection system?
• Yes. Is AC power available?
– Yes. (8.10)
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Engine Fire Ovht
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Indicates overheat in related engine. (8.10)
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Engine Fire Ovht
Is the Fire Switch for engine number one unlocked now?
• Yes. The switch unlocks upon activation of the overheat
indication. (8.20)
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Engine Fire Ovht
What happens when you pull the engine fire switch up?
• Engine Fuel Valve closes/Spar Fuel Valve closes.
• Hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes/Engine driven pump light is
deactivated.
• Generator trips.
• Bleed air valve closes.
• Disables thrust reverser.
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Apu det inop
What causes this light to illuminate?
• Indicates the APU detector loop has failed. (8.10)
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Engine Fire Fault lite
What causes this light to illuminate?
• With OVHT DET switch in Normal it indicates both detector loops
for one engine have failed. With the OVHT DET switch in A or B,
it indicates that the selected loop has failed. (8.10)
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Engine Fire fault and MC
Does the Master Caution light and OVHT/DET annunciator
illuminate with this light?
• No. (8.10)
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Apu bottle disch
What caused this light to illuminate?
• APU fire switch was pulled and rotated. (8.20)
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Apu bottle disch
If an APU fire occurs on the ground, while engines are shut down,
what occurs?
• The ECU causes the APU to shut down (inflight also)
• The extinguisher automatically discharges after 10 seconds
regardless of the fire switch position. (01-0015, 01-0041,
02-0042, 02-0203-05-0932) (8.20)
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Apu bottle disch
What happens when you pull the APU fire switch?
• APU fuel shutoff valve closes.
• APU bleed air valve closes.
• APU inlet door closes.
• APU generator trips.
• Arms the squib. (8.20)
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Engine Fire L bottle disch
What power source electrically discharges the APU and Engine fire
bottles?
Hot Battery Bus. (8.20)
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Warning System
What causes the FIRE WARN light to illuminate?
• Engine Fire.
• APU Fire.
• Cargo Fire.
• Wheel Well Fire. (15.10)
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Warning System
What else occurs when this warning light illuminates?
• The fire warning bell sounds.
• If on the ground and the APU is running, the remote APU fire
warning horn sounds. (15.10)
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Warning System
Will pushing the FIRE WARN light also silence the remote APU
fire warning horn?
• Yes. (15.20)
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Warning System
When does the MASTER CAUTION light illuminate?
• When any caution occurs outside the normal field of vision
of the flight crew. (15.20)
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Warning System
After resetting the system by pressing the MASTER CAUTION light,
how can you determine which faults are still stored in the Master
Caution System?
• Push the system annunciator to recall the fault(s) on the system
annunciator panel. (15.20)
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Warning System
If the recall switch were to fail, is there an alternate method
of finding the stored faults and causing them to annunciate?
• Place the Master Lights Test and Dim Switch in the TEST
position. A master caution recall and stored faults will cause the
associated light to remain illuminated when the switch
is released. (1.30)
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