21st Century Literature from the Philippines and the World (ENGL-121) - 2S Grade 11 CREATED BY KUYA PIOLO Week 1-10 Wag sana maraming reaklamo dyan bibinigyan kayo ng sagot 2nd attempt perfect kana Tang ina nyo gago bobo Wag kang mag reklamo kung hindi lumabas ang tanong sa oed sa source. Nakalagay naman po yong correct yong po ang sagot LEARNING ACTIVITY 1 "A big blue house, with a well-kept rose garden," is an example of a: Select one: a. Setting as Place CORRECT b. Effects of Setting c. Setting as Cultural Context (Condition) d. Setting as Time This Manobo/Ilianon tale tells the adventures of a hero and his people, and their journey to Nalandangan. Select one: a. Biag ni Lam-ang b. The Agyu CORRECT c. Aliguyon d. Labaw-Donggon The "Treaty of Paris" between Spain and the United States ceded the Philippines to US for how much? Select one: a. $2,000,000 b. $200,000,000 c. $20,000,000 CORRECT d. $30,000,000 Dubbed as the Great Propagandist, he was known for being a master in the use of his native language, Tagalog. Select one: a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar CORRECT b. Graciano Lopez-Jaena c. Mariano Ponce d. Jose P. Rizal The writers in Spanish were accustomed to write literary works that have themes of nationalism because they want to honor Jose Rizal. Select one: True CORRECT False Jose Corazon de Jesus began a famous column in Taliba called _____ Select one: a. Buhay Filipino b. Buhay Maynila CORRECT c. Buhay Pilipinas d. Buhay Manileno In Marcelo h. Del Pilar's Dasalan at Tocsohan, which of the following is said to be the Fifth Commandment of the Spanish Friars? Select one: a. "Manalangin ka sa Prayle Linggo man at piyesta." b. "Huwag kang makinakaw." c. "Huwag kang mamamatay kung wala pang salaping panlibing." CORRECT d. "Sambahin mo ang Payle lalo na sa lahat." It is easy to interpret poems. Select one: True False CORRECT A traditional depiction of the events before and after Jesus Christ was crucified. Select one: a. Sarsuela b. Duplo c. Moro-moro d. Senakulo CORRECT The following are known as Poets of the Heart (Makata ng Puso) except one: The correct answer is: Aurelio Tolentino He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature. The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol He was recognized in the Hispanic world as the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish." The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas. Jose Corazon de Jesus was most notable for writing which poem? a: BAYAN KO The correct answer is: Ballad In a drama, the plot encompasses all the incidents and provides aesthetic pleasure. The correct answer is: 'True' The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except: The correct answer is: Mayari It is the emotional high point of the story. It is also the most exciting part. The correct answer is: Climax Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots? The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father It is an example of an epic poem which tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials, and sufferings, and is sung during Holy Week. The correct answer is: Pasyon The Tagalog god of the sea, originally the god of the hunters. The correct answer is: Amanikable A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel. The correct answer is: Short Story A mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed. The correct answer is: Riddle It is an artistic piece of philosophical, personal, imaginative or inspirational nature that is laid out in lines. The correct answer is: Poetry The following are means for an alipin to become a freeman EXCEPT: The correct answer is: Getting captured in war Doctrina Cristiana was the first religious book published in the Philippines on July 15, 1593. The correct answer is: 'True' It is an allegory with moral or religious bent. Select one: a. fable b. fantasy c. allusion d. parable SHORT QUIZ 1 The name of Lam-ang's love interest. The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of cholera. The correct answer is: Ninay Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime. The correct answer is: 'True' It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry. The correct answer is: Fictional Literature The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry. The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots? The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin. The correct answer is: 'False' ___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events. The correct answer is: Epic Not every poem has a speaker. The correct answer is: 'False' The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland. The correct answer is: 'True' These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet. The correct answer is: Lyric poems Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the Marcos dictatorship. The correct answer is: 'False' He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism. The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos It is a story about animals that possess human traits. The correct answer is: 'Fable' ____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses. The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti "The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a: The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time' Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname? The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario' Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and enroll at University of Mexico. The correct answer is: 'True' This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines. The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the Spanish and Filipinos. The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being. The correct answer is: Character The American regime enforced free public education. The correct answer is: 'True' "Aso Mataas sa pag-upo, Mababa 'pag tumayo. Kaibigan kong ginto, Karamay at kalaro." The poem above is an example of: The correct answer is: Tanaga A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the poem. The correct answer is: Acrostic poem A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul. The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed. The correct answer is: epigram The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature. The correct answer is: 'True' The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization. The correct answer is: Baybayin The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen. The correct answer is: timawa Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize. The correct answer is: 'False' Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo? The correct answer is: The Lost Ones He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world. The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that became the code of revolution. The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs. The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT: The correct answer is: Mi Patria Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land. The correct answer is: 'True' It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words. The correct answer is: Rhyme He came up with a poetry compilation called Crisalidas in 1914. Select one: a. Jose Corazon de Jesus b. Fernando Ma. Guerrero CORRECT c. Cecilio Apostol d. Jose Garcia Villa The Tagalogs believe in the supreme deity called __. Select one: a. Christ b. Amanikable c. Bathala CORRECT d. Apolaki The American colonization over the Philippines began in 1898 and 1941. Select one: True False "Batikuling" was a penname used by which Filipino poet? Select one: a. Jose Corazon de Jesus b. Jesus Balmori c. Jose Rizal d. Claro M. Recto ____ is the play written by Jose Ma. Hernandez about a blacksmith from Pampanga who was the first Filipino who made a cannon. Select one: a. Sino ba kayo? b. The World is an Apple c. Sa Pula, Sa Puti d. Panday Pira Severino Reyes's Ang Kalupi was first performed at the Teatro Zorilla in 1902. Select one: True False It is the repetition of vowel sounds. Select one: a. Assonance b. Onomatopoeia c. Consonance d. Rhyme The following are pen names of Mariano Ponce, except: Select one: a. Nanding b. Taga-Ilog c. Tikbalang d. Kalipulako Some of this hero's notable literary works are "El Verdadero Decalogo" (The True Decalogue or Ten Commandments, and "Sa Bayang Pilipino" (To the Filipino nation). Select one: a. Antonio Luna b. Mariano Ponce c. Apolinario Mabini d. Jose Maria Panganiban The goddess of the moon and one of the three daughters of Bathala by a mortal woman. Select one: a. Hanan b. Anagolay c. Tala d. Mayari There are a few Spanish words integrated to our own language. Select one: True False Biag ni Lam-ang is one of the great epics that are able to survive with the help of oral transmission. Select one: True False The founder of La Vanguardia and La Opinion. Select one: a. Claro M. Recto b. Cecilio Apostol c. Jesus Balmori d. Lope K. Santos e. Fernando Ma. Guerrero The writing system of Filipinos in the Pre-Spanish period. Select one: a. Alphabet b. Baybayin c. Alibata d. none of the choices Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land. Select one: True False It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas. Select one: a. Free verse b. Ballad c. Sonnet d. Ode Essays that uses details related to the senses to create mental images for the reader. Select one: a. Descriptive essays b. Persuasive essays c. No correct answer d. Expository essays The goddess of lost things, she is also the wife of Dumakulem. Select one: a. Mayari b. Anagolay c. Dumakulem d. Anitun Tabu The Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela. Select one: a. Severino Reyes b. Lope K. Santos c. Jose Corazon de Jesus d. Paz Marquez Benitez He was one of the first Filipino writers to break free from the strict rules imposed on literature during the Propaganda movement. Select one: a. Jose Maria Panganiban b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Dr. Pedro Paterno d. Dr. Jose Rizal The repetition of consonant sounds in words. Select one: a. Alliteration b. Onomatopoeia c. Assonance d. Consonance There are more novels written during this era than poetry. Select one: True False The name of Lam-ang's love interest. The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who died of cholera. The correct answer is: Ninay Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime. The correct answer is: 'True' It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry. The correct answer is: Fictional Literature The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry. The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots? The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside became the Alipin. The correct answer is: 'False' ___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events. The correct answer is: Epic Not every poem has a speaker. The correct answer is: 'False' The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland. The correct answer is: 'True' These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet. The correct answer is: Lyric poems Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song during the Marcos dictatorship. The correct answer is: 'False' He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and capitalism. The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos It is a story about animals that possess human traits. The correct answer is: 'Fable' ____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses. The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except: The correct answer is: Mayari "The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a: The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time' Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname? The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario' Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United States and enroll at University of Mexico. The correct answer is: 'True' This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines. The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage between the Spanish and Filipinos. The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being. The correct answer is: Character The American regime enforced free public education. The correct answer is: 'True' "Aso Mataas sa pag-upo, Mababa 'pag tumayo. Kaibigan kong ginto, Karamay at kalaro." The poem above is an example of: The correct answer is: Tanaga A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the subject of the poem. The correct answer is: Acrostic poem A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul. The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed. The correct answer is: epigram The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature. The correct answer is: 'True' The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization. The correct answer is: Baybayin The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen. The correct answer is: timawa Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize. The correct answer is: 'False' Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo? The correct answer is: The Lost Ones He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world. The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag at Dilim" that became the code of revolution. The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs. The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel. The correct answer is: Short Story The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT: The correct answer is: Mi Patria Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land. The correct answer is: 'True' It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words. The correct answer is: Rhyme ENGL-121-20172S / ► Week 9: Short Quiz / ► Short Quiz Hinilawod is commonly sung for a period of three days, non-stop. =False Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg. =True The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature. =hiligaynon A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character. =Sabas Armenta An author from Bicol whose works are known for perceptivity and fatalism. =Angelo de Castro Pampa Bucaneg was also known as a Chris a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end. =16 The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod. =Alunsina Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression." =bicol ___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas. =Hiligaynon It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines". =Bannawag A song of allusion to mythical heroes. =Siday Biag ni Lam-ang was created before the Spaniards came. =true A folk theatrical that is a strictly private type of drama performed by friends and neighbors to divert a bereaved family from their sorrow. =Kolilisi People of Western Visayas are more well-versed in writing myths and folktales than poetry and prose. =True Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish? =geography The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas. =False Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature. =False Isabelo de los Reyes has ventured into journalism before he was 25. = True How long is Hinilawod usually sung? =3 weeks, 2 hours a night Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____. =oral transmission ENGL-121 Week 7: Philippine Regional Literature - Ilokano (... / ► Learning Activity 2 A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character. =Sabas Armenta Aside from being a writer, Pedro Bucaneg was also known as a Christian missionary. =True It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines". =. Bannawag It tells the quest of Lam-ang to find the Igorots who murdered his father. =The Quest for the Father Biag ni Lam-ang is an epic poem that consists of 1744 lines. =False The common name of Awit and Corridos. =kuriru The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards. =Mariano Shyna Perfecto Leon C. Pichay was considered the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation. =True The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family. =Ing Managne Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish? =no literary outlet Cardinal Bellarmine's catechism was the first book that was printed in Iloko. Select one: True False The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair). Select one: a. Crisot b. Jose M. Gallardo c. Amado Yuzon d. Aurelio Tolentino It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan. Select one: a. The Quest for the Father b. The Birth of Lam-ang c. The Quest for a Wife d. The Death and Resurrection of the Hero The Father of Pampango Literature. Select one: a. Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron b. Juan Crisostomo Soto c. Padre Anselmo Jorge de Fajardo The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature. Select one: a. Leon C. Pichay b. Isabelo de los Reyes c. Leona Florentino d. Genoveva Matute One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol. Select one: a. Bicolanan b. Bicoland c. Bicolanon d. Bicolandio Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works. Select one: True False The writer of Anti Cristo. Select one: a. Valerio Zinuga b. Asisclo Jimenez c. Manuel Fuentebella d. Justiniano Nuyda Leona Florentino was congenitally blind. Select one: True False Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg. Answer:True The Bukanegan is the Ilocano version of the Balagtasan Answer:True Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works. Answer:True Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature. Answer:False The writer of Anti Cristo. Answer:Justiniano Nuyda Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression." Answer:Bicol Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish? Answer:no literary outlet It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan. Answer:The quest for a wife Bicol Literature did not flourish because of the attitude of people towards it. Answer:True One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol. Answer: Bicolanon Leona Florentino was congenitally blind. Answer:False This writer detested the Spanish maladministration in the Philippines. Answer:Isabelo de los Reyes The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family. Answer:Ing Managne Who is known as the King of Crisotan? Answer:Amado Yuzon It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines". Answer:Bannawag The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair). Answer:Aurelio Tolentino The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards. Answer:Mariano Perfecto The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature. Answer:Leona Florentino A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character. Answer:Sabas Armenta The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas. Answer:False A humorous and satiric song in Hiligaynon literature. Select one: a. Ballad b. Haya c. Siday d. Bical e. Awit Vicente Y. Sotto began his journalistic career at the age of 22. Select one: True False The first short story in Sugbuanon. Select one: a. Maming b. Ang Suga c. La Justicia d. Hinilawod What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name? Select one: a. Mangyan b. Ibanag c. Itneg d. Ivatan Bukaneg was a co-author of the Ilocano-English grammar book and dictionary. Select one: a. False b. True Hiligaynon is the lingua franca of Northern Mindanao. Select one: True False Sugbuanon is a dialect spoken in central Visayas, as well as in the greater part of northern and central Mindanao. Select one: True False Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed. Select one: a. Iloilo b. Guimaras c. Capiz d. Antique Hinilawod is the oldest and longest epic poem in Panay. Select one: True False ___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan. Select one: a. Bukanegan b. None of the choices c. Balitaw d. Balagtas sa Balitaw A humorous and satirical song. Select one: a. Ambahan b. Haya c. Bical d. Siday Pampango poetry commonly has a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end. Select one: a. 14 b. 16 c. 12 d. 8 ____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from Ilocano writers. Select one: a. Balitaw b. Hinilawod c. Bannawag d. Bukanegan An old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry. Select one: a. Bagamundo b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw c. Pamalaye d. Kolilisi ___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler. Select one: a. Balitaw b. Maragtas c. Ambahan d. Hinilawod Haya is a dirge that is composed of three parts. Select one: True False Leona Florentino was fluent in Spanish, Tagalog, Ilokano and English. Select one: a. False b. True Ilocano literature is heavily influenced by religion. Select one: a. False b. True ___ thrive in the region because they depict history, important people and social condition. Select one: a. plays b. novels c. poems d. dramas e. short stories The Yuhum magazine in Iloilo was established by: Select one: a. UP Press b. Liwayway Publications c. PDI d. La Defensa Press Sugbuanon literature is characterized as: Select one: a. Abundant and varied b. No correct answer c. Old and extinct d. Unique and scarce An incorporation of duplo and balitaw where the courtship plot becomes a mere framework for an argument on a nonromantic subject. Select one: a. Bagamundo b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw c. Pamalaye d. Drama-Balitaw The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic. Select one: a. Lam-ang b. Bukaneg c. Bannawag d. Pedro The father of Ilocano Literature. Select one: a. Fray Francisco Lopez b. Leon C. Pichay c. Pedro Bucaneg d. Isabelo de los Reyes It introduces the story's characters, setting, and conflict. Select one: a. Climax b. Rising Action c. Exposition d. Falling Action e. Resolution A story about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people from Madrid. Select one: a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo b. Noche Buena c. La Hija del Fraile d. A Mi Madre He published his poetry book "Rimas Malayas" (Malayan Rhymes) at the age of 17 and even wrote a satirical column for La Vanguardia called "Vida Manilenas" Select one: a. Cecilio Apostol b. Jesus Balmori c. Fernando Ma. Guerrero d. Claro M. Recto The name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow. Select one: a. Gerado Luna b. Lucio Soliman c. Pancho Ismael d. Rosa The following are known as Poets of Stage EXCEPT: Select one: a. Patricio Mariano b. Aurelio Tolentino c. Pedro Deogracias d. Severino Reyes It was the very first book on Ilokano grammar written by Francisco Lopez. Select one: a. Arte de la Lengua Ilocana b. Arte de la Iloka c. Arte y Regalas de la Lengua Ilokana d. Compendio de la Lengua Iloka Alunsina and Datu Paubari in Hinilawod had twins. Select one: a. True b. False A Hiligaynon literary form that is a ballad of unrhymed couplets. Select one: a. Haya b. Awit c. Bical d. Ambahan e. Siday The story of Maragtas is about a group of datus and their escape from Borneo. Select one: True False Dubbed as the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation whose works often revolve around the theme of love for the country, spirituality and love for their local language. Select one: a. Isabelo de los Reyes b. Pedro Bucaneg c. Leon Pichay d. Leona Florentino A comic representation of the love chase in aa verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed in song and dance. Select one: a. Bagamundo b. Duplo c. Balitaw d. Drama-balitaw e. Balagtasan sa Balitaw he ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive. Select one: a. Yuhum b. La Defensa c. Hiligaynon d. None of the choices Long before the Spaniards came to the Philippines, Ilokanos have already established their own culture, along with their own mythology and folklore. Select one: a. True b. False Which of the following is not a contribution to literature of Vicente Y. Sotto? Select one: a. published La Justicia in Cebu b. the first published story in Sugbuanon, Maming c. wrote folk theatricals in his native language d. the first poetry in vernacular, Ang Suga This refers to an old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry. answer: pamalaye A comic representation of the love chase in a verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit combat performed in song and dance. Select one: a. Pamalaye b. Balitaw c. Kolilisi d. Duplo One of Haya's parts that is a song regretting the loss of a loved one and extolling him. Select one: a. parahaya b. siday c. anogon d. bical It is a character that remains essentially the same throughout the story. Select one: a. developing character b. static character c. flat character d. round character It is the pattern of sound created by the arrangement of stressed and unstressed syllables in a line. Select one: a. Rhythm b. Alliteration c. Assonance d. Consonance In a story, this character is complex, multi-faceted and has the qualities of real people. Select one: a. Round character b. Flat character c. Developing character d. Static character Banaag at Sikat was notable for its depiction of issues such as socialism, capitalism, and the works of the united association of laborers. Select one: True False The correct answer is: Match the writer to his/her famous literary work. Claro M. Recto - [Bajo los Cocoteros] Jose Corazon de Jesus - [Bayan Ko] Dr. Pedro Paterno - [Ninay] Mariano Ponce - [Mga Alamat ng Bulacan] Jose Esperanza Cruz - [Tatlong Maria] Fr. Modesto de Castro - [Urbana and Feliza] Clodualdo del Mundo - [Bulaga] Jose Ma. Hernandez - [Panday Pira] Stevan Javellana - [The Lost Ones] Narciso G. Reyes - [Lupang Tinubuan] Paz Marquez Benitez - [Dead Stars] Liwayway Arceo - [Uhaw ang Tigang ng Lupa] Graciano Lopez-Jaena - [Fray Botod] Marcelo H. Del Pilar - [Dasalan at Tocsohan] Jose Maria Panganiban - [A Nuestro Obispo] Andres Bonifacio - [Pag-ibig sa Tinubuang Lupa] Apolinario Mabini - [El Verdadero Decalogo] Emilio Jacinto - [Ang Liwanag at Dilim] Antonio Luna - [Noche Buena] Severino Reyes - [Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang] Fernando Ma. Guerrero - [Crisalidas] Jose Rizal - [Noli Me Tangere] Justiniano Nuyda - [Anti Cristo] Marcelino Foronda Jr. - [Ta Dida Ammo it Aramidda] Fray Francisco Lopez - [Cardinal Bellarmine’s catechism] Pedro Bukaneg - [Biag ni Lam-ang] Vicente Sotto - [Maming] Jose Garcia Villa - [Man Songs] Zoilo Galang - [A Child of Sorrow] Lope K. Santos - [Banaag at Sikat] Cecilio Apostol's poem that opened the world of Spanish poetry for him. The correct answer is: El Terror de Los Mares Indicos The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod. The correct answer is: Alunsina The ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive. The correct answer is: Yuhum Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed. The correct answer is: Antique The son of Idiyanale: he’s the strong and agile, the guardian of the mountains. The correct answer is: Dumakulem The Tagalog god of the sea, he was originally the god of hunters. The correct answer is: Amanikable ___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan. The correct answer is: Bukanegan The father of Ilocano Literature. The correct answer is: Pedro Bucaneg Both Tagalog and English were used as the medium of instruction in all levels of education in public schools. The correct answer is: False ____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary works from Ilocano writers. The correct answer is: Bannawag The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic. The correct answer is: Lam-ang Which of the following is Juan Crisostomo "Crisot" Soto's works? The correct answer is: Ing Managne The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature. The correct answer is: Hiligaynon A literary form that is a simple folk song, love song and work song. The correct answer is: Awit ___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler. The correct answer is: Maragtas Sugbuanon literature forms delivered orally are the following except: The correct answer is: plays What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name? The correct answer is: Itneg ___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas. The correct answer is: Hiligaynon The oldest and longest epic poem in Panay. The correct answer is: Hinilawod Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____. The correct answer is: oral transmission According to the Nicaraguan poet Daisy Zamora, poetry is: Select one: a. "a way of feeling life" b. "criticism of life" c. "blood, imagination and intellect running together" d. "the spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings" It is the method by which writers and speakers reveal attitudes or feelings. Select one: a. Syntax b. Style c. Theme d. Tone The full name of the author of "Lupang Tinubuan" that won first prize in the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943. Select one: a. Francisco Soc Rodrigo b. Gonzalo Flores c. Narciso Reyes d. Macario Pineda The conflict in a short story is a major element of plot because it arouses curiosity, causes doubt, creates tension and produces interest. Select one: True False Zoilo Galang's A Child of Sorrow was famous for being: Select one: a. The first Philippine novel written in the English language b. The first Philippine poem written in the English language c. The first Philippine short story written in the English language d. The first Philippine essay written in the English language A Manobo/Ilianon tale about the hero whose people had been driven out of their land. Select one: a. Agyu b. Aliguyon c. Biag ni Lam-ang d. Labaw-Donggon This author wrote "A Night in the Hills" which tells the story of Gerado Luna, a salesman in a jewelry store in Intramuros, Manila. Select one: a. Severino Reyes b. Paz Marquez-Benitez c. Lope K. Santos d. Jose Garcia Villa e. Jose Corazon de Jesus f. Zoilo Galang He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature. Select one: a. Cecilio Apostol b. Teodoro Agoncillo c. Jesus Balmori d. Lope K. Santos The second prize for the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943 is _______. Select one: a. Lupang Tinubuan by Narciso Reyes b. Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa by Liwayway A. Arceo c. Suyuan sa Tubigan by Macario Pineda d. Lungsod Ngayon at Dagat-dagatan by N.V.M. Gonzales The name of the magazine that recognized the brilliant minds behind literary works during this era. Select one: a. Pambata b. Filipinas c. Liwayway d. Ilustración Filipina The Father of Tagalog plays. Select one: a. Paz Marquez-Benitez b. Jose Garcia Villa c. Severino Reyes d. Lope K. Santos The term Alibata was coined by _______. Select one: a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar b. Father Antonio de Borja c. Paul Rodriguez Verzosa d. Jose P. Rizal The author of the speech, Sa Mga Pilipino, a speech aimed to improve the condition of the Filipinos to become free and progressive. Select one: a. Graciano Lopez Jaena b. Andres Bonifacio c. Mariano Ponce d. Antonio Luna He was the Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela and the one who wrote, "Walang Sugat" (No Wounds) about the Katipuneros in the later years of the Spanish occupation. Select one: a. Jose Garcia Villa b. Lope K. Santos c. Zoilo Galang d. Paz Marquez-Benitez e. Severino Reyes f. Jose Corazon de Jesus he name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow. Select one: a. Gerado Luna b. Rosa c. Pancho Ismael d. Lucio Soliman A poem consisting of four lines with seven syllables each, with each line ending in rhyme. Select one: a. Tanaga b. Haikai c. Tanka d. Haiku The type of government in the Philippines during the Pre-Spanish period. Select one: a. Autocracy b. Dictatorship c. Thalassocracy d. Democracy Jesus Balmori died on June 12, on Philippine Independence Day. Select one: True False Articles that explain the steps in a process, report the news, or analyze a work of literature are all examples of: Select one: a. Expository essays b. Descriptive essays c. Persuasive essays d. No correct answer Considered as the first modern English language short story writer from the Philippines. Select one: a. Jose Garcia Villa b. Severino Reyes c. Paz Marquez Benitez d. Zoilo Galang The term ____ refers to slaves that do not have the right to own property. Select one: a. saguiguilid b. timawa c. namamahay d. alipin Literature, in a literal sense, means: Select one: a. "placing, arrangement" b. "an acquaintance with letters" c. "love of wisdom" d. "a thousand" tory about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people from Madrid. Select one: a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo b. La Hija del Fraile c. Noche Buena d. A Mi Madre Use of Tagalog became widespread under the Japanese rule. Select one: True False The Father of Filipino Democracy. Select one: a. Andres Bonifacio b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar c. Emilio Aguinaldo d. Jose Rizal The ____ is an example of an epic poem that tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials and sufferings. Select one: a. Pasyon b. Credo c. Awit d. Pater Noster Drama is told mainly through the words and actions of characters and intended to be performed by actors. Select one: True False A ____ is a mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed. Select one: a. parable b. riddle c. epic d. fable The Bikolanos call their supreme being Asuang. Select one: True False Which of the following is not one of Mariano Ponce's pennames? Select one: a. Kalipulako b. Tikbalang c. Tagailog d. Naning A seven-lined diamond-shaped poem that specifies the part of speech in each line, sometimes with contrasting ideas. Select one: a. Acrostic poem b. Diamond poem c. Haiku d. Shape poem Philippine literature managed to thrive during this era. Select one: True False Aliguyon was the hero son of the goddess Alunsina, and the mortal Datu Paubari. Select one: True False Baybayin, the Filipino writing system in the Pre-Spanish period, is derived from the Tagalog word baybay which means: Select one: a. "to spell" b. "to speak" c. "to draw" d. "to read" Free public education made knowledge and information accessible to a greater number of Filipinos, which gave them the opportunity to join the educated masses. Select one: True False What are the most common works of literature during the Japanese regime? Select one: a. short story b. poems c. novels d. none of the choices On May 1, 1898, the Americans led by U.S. Navy Admiral George Dewey, along with Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo, attacked the Spanish Navy in Manila Bay. Select one: True False One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty. Select one: a. Ch'un Ching b. Li Ching c. I Ching d. Shih Ching e. Shu Ching Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami. Select one: a. False b. True The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure. Select one: a. Dharma b. Artha c. Kama d. Moksha ChinesA book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning." Select one: a. Lun Yu b. Meng Tzu c. Ta Hsueh d. Chung Yung Select one: a. separation b. individualization c. expression d. optimism 勇気 (Romaji: yuuki) means love. Select one: a. True b. False These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection. Select one: a. magatama b. ofuda c. taima d. omamori A way to achieve God through direct action. Select one: a. Karma b. Bakhti c. Jnana d. Sudra The Indian goddess of dance. Select one: a. Rakshasa b. Panchatantra c. Kisa Gotami d. Shivast The name of the tree on which Gautama vowed never to arise until he found the truth. Select one: a. Lumbini b. Piali c. Pipal d. Panna Time refers to ____ while moment means "for the time being." Select one: a. clear-cut situation b. relative situation c. all of the choices d. indistinct situation Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after they die. Select one: a. False b. True A way to achieve God by what you know. Select one: a. Jnana b. Bakhti c. None of the choices d. Karma The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty. Select one: a. False b. True Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped? Select one: a. Milleu b. Race c. Standard of living d. Power of the moment This term refers to Japanese festivals to celebrate and honor shrines. Select one: a. tanjou b. jinjitsu c. matsuri d. kouhaku Which of the following is incorrect? Select one: a. One of the four noble truths is that suffering arises from attachment to desires b. Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment. c. One of the factors of enlightment is equanimity d. Selflessness is one of the characteristics of existence A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness. Select one: a. anicca b. anatta c. dukkha d. sila A way to achieve God by how you act. Select one: a. Sudra b. Jnana c. Karma d. Bakhti The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure. Select one: a. Kama b. Dharma c. Moksha d. Artha Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___. Select one: a. protection b. guidance c. overpower d. strength Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____. Select one: a. patient b. gracious c. glorious d. gallant Which of the following is not one of the Confucian Thoughts from the Analects? Select one: a. “To be wealthy and honored in an unjust society is a disgrace.” b. "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step." c. “The superior man has a dignified ease without pride. The mean man has pride without a dignified ease.” d. “What you do not want done to yourself, do not do to others.” Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "___" or illusion. Select one: a. Sudra b. Purusha c. Brahmin d. Maya What marked the end of World War I? Select one: a. Hitler and his wife committed suicide b. Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles c. Friendship was secured between neighboring European countries d. Germany surrendered During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000 civilians? Select one: a. 1940 b. 1941 c. 1943 d. 1945 This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper. Select one: a. newsletter b. tabloid c. berliner d. compact Identify what the following statement describes: The art/literature has a realistic setting. Select one: a. Magic Realism and Realism b. Fantasy c. Magic Realism d. Surrealism e. Realism f. Magic Realism and Fantasy The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism. Select one: a. criticism of something broken b. tragedy of something broken c. celebration d. result of war and invasions e. lamentation and apathy Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492. Select one: a. False b. True Identify what the following statement describes: A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters. Select one: a. Realism b. Surrealism c. Magic Realism and Fantasy d. Magic Realism and Realism e. Fantasy f. Magic Realism Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a diverse range of available things"? Select one: a. playfulness b. parody c. irony d. pastiche e. bricolage Identify the aspect of modernism described: The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation. Select one: a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture b. an emphasis on fragmented forms c. a blurring of distinctions between genres d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word "pastiche"? Select one: a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect. b. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a humorous effect. c. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period d. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things. A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore. Select one: a. Vanguardia b. Surrealism c. Modernismo d. Colonial ideology A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling thoughts. Select one: a. Rene Magritte b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez c. Oswaldo Guayasamin Identify what the following statement describes: Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of humans. Select one: a. Fantasy b. Surrealism c. Magic Realism and Realism d. Magic Realism e. Realism f. Magic Realism and Fantasy This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below: Select one: a. Gabriel Garcia Marquez b. Rene Magritte c. Oswaldo Guayasamin The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this period. Select one: a. One Hundred Years of Solitude b. Chronicle of a Death Foretold c. The General in His Labyrinth d. Love in the Time of Cholera Identify the aspect of modernism described: Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials. Select one: a. an emphasis on impressionism and subjectivity in writing b. a tendency toward reflexivity or self-consciousness c. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view d. an emphasis on fragmented forms Identify the aspect of modernism described: Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming art. Select one: a. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs b. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view c. a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture d. a blurring of distinctions between genres Choose what type of control exists in the following dystopian novel, based on its synopsis: Ready Player One by Ernest Cline: "In the year 2044, reality is an ugly place. The only time teenage Wade Watts really feels alive is when he's jacked into the virtual utopia known as the OASIS. Wade's devoted his life to studying the puzzles hidden within this world's digital confines, puzzles that are based on their creator's obsession with the pop culture of decades past and that promise massive power and fortune to whoever can unlock them. When Wade stumbles upon the first clue, he finds himself beset by players willing to kill to take this ultimate prize. The race is on, and if Wade's going to survive, he'll have to win—and confront the real world he's always been so desperate to escape." Select one: a. Technological Control b. Corporate Control c. Philosophical/Religious Control d. Bureaucratic Control A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling thoughts. Select one: a. Rene Magritte b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez c. Oswaldo Guayasamin Small portions of West Africa are composed of people who believe in ______. Select one: a. Yourubu religion b. Islam c. Animism d. Christianity This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era. Select one: a. Modern America b. none of the choices c. European Enlightenment d. Scientific Revolution French-speaking African writers, politicians and intellectuals developed the ideological philosophy, Negritude. Select one: a. False b. True Which of the following statements is incorrect? Select one: a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved. b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note. c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?" Identify what the following statement describes: Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century. Select one: a. Fantasy b. Surrealism c. Magic Realism and Fantasy d. Magic Realism and Realism e. Magic Realism f. Realism In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies. Select one: a. Central America b. Peru c. Haiti d. Mexico The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for: Select one: a. Central America b. Texas c. Peru d. Mexico This massacre occurred in Rwanda causing millions to flee. Select one: a. none of the choices b. Ethiopian c. Hutus d. Zaire Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word "pastiche"? Select one: a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous effect. b. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things. c. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a humorous effect. d. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period n a dystopian world, ____ takes control of human minds. Select one: a. religion b. ruling power c. propaganda d. beliefs This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic aspect of modernism. Select one: a. Modernity b. Late Modernity c. Modernization d. Postmodernity Identify the aspect of modernism described: The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation. Select one: a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture b. a blurring of distinctions between genres c. an emphasis on fragmented forms d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs One of the themes reflected in postmodernism which means the construction or creation from a diverse range of available things. Select one: a. irony b. bricolage c. parody d. pastiche Identify what the following statement describes: Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of humans. Select one: a. Magic Realism and Realism b. Surrealism c. Fantasy d. Magic Realism e. Magic Realism and Fantasy f. Realism Which of the following statements is incorrect? Select one: a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved. b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note. c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?" Known as one of the authors of the 1935 Philippine Constitution. Select one: a. Severino Reyes b. Paz Marquez Benitez c. Lope K. Santos d. Claro M. Recto CREATED BY KUYA PIOLO PHYSICAL SCIENCE week 10 only Identification: Radiation emitted by a body that absorbed it first Answer: Blackbody Radiation Identification: Compactness of the arrangement of the molecules of a material Answer: Density Identification: Bond characterized by the sharing of electrons between atoms Answer: Covalent Bond Identification: Particles smaller than a proton with strong nuclear force holding the quarks together Answer: Gluons Covalent bond with unequal sharing of electrons Answer: Polar Identification: Repelled the directed alpha particles in the gold foil experiment Answer: Protons Identification: Reaction in giant stars for the fusion of hydrogen to form helium Answer: CNO Cycle Identification: It refers to tyhe speed of a chemical process Answer: Reaction Rate Substance that can turn lead to gold Select one: a. Jack-o-Lantern b. Philosopher's Stone(ANSWER) c. Witchlight d. Will-o-Wisp Identification: Atoms of the same element but with various atomic weights Answer: Isotope Identification: Component of chemical reaction present at its start Answer: Reactants Solid substance that settles when a liquid solution is left still for a long amount of time? Answer: Precipitate Identification: Compound formed by positive and negative atoms Answer: Ionic compound Factor in reaction rate related to the amount of reactants Select one: a. Concentration(ANSWER) b. No correct answer c. Temperature d. Both Concentration and Temperature Identification: Star with strong gravity allowing the formation of more oxygen and magnesium Answer: Supergiant Identification: Compound formed by electron sharing Answer: Covalent Covalent bond between identical atoms Answer: Nonpolar Property of a substance that is observable without changing it Answer: Physical property Identification: Nuclear particles that do not contribute to its charge Answer: Neutron Identification: Term used by scientists referring to the very small but detectable amount of heat residue of the Big Bang Answer: Background Radiation Covalent bonding resulting from unequal sharing of electrons between the atoms Select one: a. Nonpolar covalent bonding b. No correct answer c. Both polar and nonpolar covalent bonding d. Polar covalent bonding(ANSWER) Identification: Properties observable using your eyes Answer: Physical Property Identification: Catalysts in digestion of food Answer: enzyme Force between the molecules of a compound Answer: Intermolecular Force Bond where electrons are shared congruently throughout the molecule Select one: a. Polar covalent bonding b. No correct answer c. Both polar and nonpolar covalent bonding d. Nonpolar covalent bonding(ANSWER) Age of the universe (in billions of years) according to the most widely accepted cosmological theory of its existence Answer: 13.7 Identification: It refers to the cloud where stars are born Answer: Nebula Identification: Property of material to emit charged particles Answer: Radioactivity Identification: Reaction rate factor related to the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules Answer: Temperature The Gold foil experiment led to the discovery of this atomic part Select one: a. Electron b. Nucleus(ANSWER) c. Proton d. No correct answer Molecular compound where there is a slight difference in the charge between its opposite sides Select one: a. Polar(ANSWER) b. Both Polar and Nonpolar molecular compound c. Nonpolar Identification: Energy responsible different reaction rates Answer: Activation Energy Identification: Compounds that are dissolves easily in water Answer: Ionic compounds Fill in the blank: In a molecule of water, the atom more visited by the shared electrons would be Answer: Oxygen Identification: The more positive atom in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide Answer: Hydrogen Identification: Covalent bonding where electrons are shared equally between the atoms Answer: Nonpolar Identification: Reaction that fuses hydrogen to form helium in dwarf stars Answer: PP Chain Identification: Substance that cannot be simplified anymore Answer: Element Identification: This also means covalent compounds Answer: Molecular compounds Identification: Change resulting to new material that is entirely different from the reactants Select one: a. No correct answer b. Physical change c. Chemical change(ANSWER) d. Both Physical and Chemical change Behavior of the universe explaining the Big Bang Theory Select one: a. no correct answer b. shrinking c. expanding(ANSWER) d. stays constant in size Identification: Proton component that binds the other components together Answer: Gluon Change in which the product is the same as the reactants Select one: a. No correct answer b. Both physical and chemical change c. Physical change(ANSWER) d. Chemical change Identification: Substance that hastens chemical reactions Answer: Catalyst Identification: It is the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds Answer: Reactivity Identification: Material property making it capable of being hammered into thin sheets Answer: Malleability Identification: Smallest possible particle of an element containing all of the properties of the element Answer: Atom Identification: Lightest particles in an atom Answer: Electrons Covalent bond that may or may not exist between two different atoms Answer: Polar Negatively charged particles in atoms Select one: a. Protons b. Both Protons and Electrons c. No correct answer d. Electrons(ANSWER) LONGQUIZ 2 ;PHYSICAL SCIENCE 29/30 c- Josefa Marie Taguiam 1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of time. ans. Precipitate 2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes? ans.Enzymes 3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical processes? answer:activation energy 4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules? ans.Density 5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. ANWER:physical change 6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the molecule? answer:nonpolar 7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds? answer:Reactivity 8.Fill in the blank: The ______ property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical 9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent compound 10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules? wrong answer ako dito. 11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? answer:covalent bond 12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant 13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. answer:polar covalent bonding 14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar 15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the reactants? answer:chemical change 16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular compound 17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate 18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen atom 19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds 20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties 21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound 22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar 23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer: Intermolecular force 24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets? answer:malleability 25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen 26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst 27. In a ______ type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar 28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between the atoms? answer:polar 29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration 30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound Short Quiz 8:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun Answer: ANNUAL MOTION 2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion Answer: ZODIAC 3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe Answer: EARTH 4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system Answer: SUN 5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion Answer: ROTATION 6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator Answer: EQUINOX 7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR 8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes Answer: GRAVITY 9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth Answer: REVOLUTION 10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies Answer: DIURNAL MOTION Learning Activity 8 (Physics) Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis Answer: Axial precession Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis Answer: diurnal motion Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model Answer: Earth Motion of the Earth around the sun Answer: revolution Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion Answer: rotation Long Quiz 3:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus. Answer: SUN 2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun. Answer: PERIHELION 3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes. Answer: GRAVITY 4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law. Answer: ELLIPSE 5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model. Answer: EARTH 6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths. Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR 7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer Answer: SIRIUS 8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its user’s location. Answer: ASTROLABE 9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe. Answer: TYCHONIC 10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe models. Anwer: TYCHONIC 11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun. Answer: ANNUAL MOTION 12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus. Answer: CARACOL 13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion? Answer: ROTATION 14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion? Answer: ZODIAC 15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator? Answer: EQUINOX 16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion? Answer: ROTATION 17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe? Answer: EARTH 18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy? Answer: EARTH 19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system? Answer: SUN 20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler? Answer: AREA SPEED 21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun? Answer: REVOLUTION 22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in history? Answer: HALLEY’S COMET 23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis? Answer: DIURNAL MOTION 24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun? Answer: REVOLUTION 25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis? Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION 26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered? Answer: COPERNICAN 27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies? Answer: DIURNAL MOTION 28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit? Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD 29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit Answer: FOCAL POINT 30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered? Answer: PTOLEMAIC Learning Activity 9:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location Answer: ASTROLABE 2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe Answer: TYCHONIC 3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus Answer: CARACOL 4. Earth-centered system of the universe Answer: PTOLEMAIC 5. Sun-centered system of the universe Answer: COPERNICAN Short Quiz 9:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus Answer: SUN 2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy Answer: EARTH 3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model Answer: TYCHONIC 4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler Answer: AREA SPEED 5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun Answer: PERIHELION 6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws Answer: FOCAL POINT 7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history Answer: HALLEY’S COMET 8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD 9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law Answer: ELLIPSE 10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer Answer: SIRIUS Learning Activity 10:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum Answer: ACCELERATION 2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body Answer: ACCELERATION 3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force Answer: REACTION 4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle Answer: FORCE 5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion Answer: INERTIA Short Quiz 10:PHYSC Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced force to the body. Answer: ACCELERATION Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice? Answer: ONE SACK OF RICE This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are. Answer: LAW OF INTERACTION Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet? Answer: CABINET This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force that it experiences. Answer: LAW OF ACCELERATION Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an unbalanced force acts upon it? Answer: LAW OF INERTIA If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the reaction force? Answer: WALL What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving? Answer: INERTIA What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum? Answer: ACCELERATION Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat? Answer: cats Learning Activity 11:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it Answer: VELOCITY 2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration Answer: MASS 3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE 4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations Answer: LAW 5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident Answer: AXIOM Short Quiz 11:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions. Answer: FORCE 2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the ground. Answer: EQUAL 3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases? Answer: FORCE 4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body. Answer: MOMENTUM 5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations. Answer: LAW 6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence? Answer: AXIOM 7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems? Answer: TRANSFORMED 8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive? Answer: INCREASES 9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies increase? Answer: DECREASES 10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body? Answer: MASS Short Quiz 12:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?: Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic; Energy Answer: Momentum 2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum; Mass; Velocity; Energy Answer: Velocity 3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass; Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic Answer: Mass 4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Momentum Answer: Energy 5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum; Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic Answer: Momentum 6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force; Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum Answer: Energy 7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic; Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass Answer: Momentum 8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding: Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy; Velocity Answer: Inelastic 9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force; Energy; Inelastic Answer: Elastic 10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle? Answer: BICYCLE Learning Activity 12:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies Answer: INELASTIC 2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide Answer: ENERGY 3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies Answer: ENERGY 4. Quantity conserved in any collision Answer: MOMENTUM 5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision Answer: ELASTIC Short Quiz 13:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?: Absorption; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon; Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion Answer: Speed 2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror; Photon; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption; Refraction; Latitudinal Answer: Energy 3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.: Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal; Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse Answer: Wavelength 4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal; Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron; Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion; Wavelength; Speed Answer: Photon 5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron; Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of Refraction; Transverse; Absorption; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy Answer: Index of Refraction 6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon; Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Refraction Answer: Absorption 7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy Answer: Longitudinal 8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion; Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction; Energy; Longitudinal Answer: Mirror 9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction; Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal Answer: Transverse 10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction; Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron; Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed; Wavelength Answer: Transverse --ccto Learning Activity 13: PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light Answer: LENS 2. Particle of light that carries its energy Answer: PHOTON 3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle Answer: STRAIGHT LINE 4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules Answer: TRANSVERSE 5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum Answer: LONGITUDINAL Learning Activity 14:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow Answer: DIFFRACTION 2. Deflection of light along its path Answer: SCATTERING 3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up Answer: INTERFERENCE 4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors Answer: DISPERSION 5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you Answer: CONCAVE Short Quiz 14:PHYSC What exists between two charges in space? Select one: - Electrostatic force This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism. Select one: -Dispersion This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object. Select one: -Convex What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays? Select one: -Mirage According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field? Select one: - Induced voltage What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the speed of an electron at the same time? Select one: -Heisenberg's uncertainty principle How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle? Select one: - Electron clouds What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner? Select one: -Concave What can electric current produce along a wire? Select one: - Magnetic field What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray? Select one: - Dispersion Learning Activity 15:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating sparks.: True; False Answer: False 2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital converter Answer: charged-couple device 3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.: Impedance meter; Communication service monitor Answer: Communication service monitor 4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?: in the oscillator; receiving end Answer: receiving end 5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal? Answer: Sampling Short Quiz 15:PHYSC Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the secondary gap that is between points A and B in the image. Select one: - True According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing wave within the wire. Select one: - True When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean? Select one: - Power exceeds 120 percent of the range What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and") Answer: -Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio waves. Select one: -True If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely Select one: - External to the radio What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers with the word "and") Answer: -Gamma rays AND neutrons Who discovered radio waves? Answer: -Heinrich Hertz What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern? Select one: -48-bit transmitter only Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil. Select one: -True Short Quiz 16:PHYSC c-Joshua Ardeza 1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a definite velocity that is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.: False; True Answer: True 2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence of a physical aether.: True; False Answer: True 3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False Answer: True 4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical language of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False Answer: True 5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position 6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much space is occupied Answer: How much space is occupied 7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves; Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz 8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle. Answer: General relativity 9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects. Answer: Cosmic distance ladder 10. Known as the “dwarf planet” Answer: Pluto L.A 16:PHYSC Vibrations Select one: - Can sometimes be sensed Special relativity is a theory. Select one: - True States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its acceleration. Select one: -Newton's Second Law of Motion According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall depends only on its position and initial speed. Answer: -Newton's Law of Gravity Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring force of the vibrating object is Select one: -Opposite to and proportional to a displacement It is the passage of electromagnetic radiation through a medium. Select one: Answer: Transmission This Kepler's law states that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times as it moves along its orbit. Select one: Answer: Second law Which of Newton's laws states that an object either remains at rest or continuous to move at a constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force? Select one: Answer: First law Galileo looked at the Sun and found out that it had spots. Answer: True Mercury and Venus are never more than 200 and 450, respectively, from the Sun. Answer: False The Aristotelian view of the world made the certain basic assumption that the Earth is a sphere, fixed, and unmoving at the center of the universe. Answer: False Identification: Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? Catalyst Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. reaction rate True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles. True What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? reactant True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. false Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. polar covalent bonding True or False: Density decreases as temperature increases. True type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. nonpolar What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? Covalent compound Identification: Reaction rate factor that is due to the movement of the molecules of the reactants. Concentration True or False: Platinum has very high density. true helps determine how an element might be used. HARDNESS True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat. TRUE covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. nonpolar Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? hydrogen atom Identification: Substance that aides any chemical reaction. Reactants What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds? Reactivity In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the molecule? nonpolar What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds? Identification: Solid formed from the settling of solid particles in a liquid solution. PRECIPITATE refers to the concentration of a substance. Concentration Question 1 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a _______________. Select one: a. white dwarf b. black hole c. red giant d. dwarf star Question 2 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of these is not a basic idea of Dalton’s atomic theory? Select one: a. There are atoms gained/lost/changed in identity during a chemical reaction. b. All substances are made of atoms c. Atoms join together to form compounds, and a given compound always consists of the same kinds of atoms in the same proportions d. Chemical combination is simply the bonding of a definite number of atoms to make one molecule of the compound e. All atoms of the same element are alike and have the same mass. Question 3 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun? Select one: a. 6 million K b. 600 K c. 6000 K d. 6 billion K Question 4 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The planetary model of the atom is associated with Select one: a. Thomson. b. Rutherford. c. Bohr. d. Dalton. Question 5 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Who discovered the electron in 1897? Select one: a. Rutherford b. Thomson c. Bohr d. Dalton Question 6 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. Answer: Question 7 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Nearly 100% of mass of Earth's core is composed of the two elements Select one: a. oxygen and aluminum b. iron and nickel c. silicon and oxygen. d. aluminum and silicon Question 8 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The second most abundant element in the Earth's atmosphere is Select one: a. carbon dioxide. b. argon. c. nitrogen. d. oxygen. Question 9 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were originally ranked as what magnitude? Select one: a. Zero b. None of the choices c. First d. Sixth Question 10 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The various isotopes of an element all have Select one: a. the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. b. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. c. the same total number of neutrons and protons. d. the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons. Question 1 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: The rate of reaction is faster if the temperature of reactants is higher. Answer: Question 2 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond. Answer: Question 3 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding with them. Answer: Question 4 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that hlps in the breakdown of starch to sugar. Question 5 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things. Answer: Question 6 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer refers to the concentration of a substance. Question 7 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water. Answer: Question 8 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust. Answer: Question 9 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Sodium can exist by itself. Answer: Question 10 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer refers to the ability of matter to burn. Question 1 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Where are stars born? Answer: Question 2 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The most modern definition of element is Select one: a. a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods. b. a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons. c. the simplest form of matter. d. a substance that contains no neutrons. Question 3 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Bohr theory was developed to explain which of these phenomena? Select one: a. Line spectra b. The photoelectric effect c. Quantum numbers d. X-rays Question 4 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Formaldehyde is a nonpolar compound. Answer: Question 5 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Thomson referred to negatively charged particles as Answer before it became known as electrons. Question 6 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. Answer: Question 7 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The water solubility of molecular compounds is Answer. Question 8 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation? Select one: a. Davy b. Lavoisier c. Boyle d. Berzelius Question 9 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This fusion process details how helium is made in our sun. Select one: a. CNO cycle b. triple alpha process c. proton-proton chain Question 10 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer force refers to forces between molecules. Question 11 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an Answer. Question 12 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer compounds' physical state at room temperature can be gas, liquid or solid. Question 13 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Neutrons are found in all atoms except for most atoms of nitrogen. Answer: Question 14 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Aluminum is an example of Select one: a. an element. b. an alloy. c. a compound. d. a solution. Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The various isotopes of an element all have Select one: a. the same number of neutrons and the same number of protons. b. the same total number of neutrons and protons. c. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. d. the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Question 16 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of Select one: a. hydrogen nuclei to form helium nuclei. b. carbon nuclei to form magnesium nuclei. c. uranium to form lead, Pb. d. helium nuclei to form carbon nuclei. Question 17 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Who discovered the electron in 1897? Select one: a. Bohr b. Rutherford c. Dalton d. Thomson Question 18 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with Select one: a. Bohr. b. Rutherford. c. Thomson. d. Dalton. Question 19 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Thomson's revision of the model of the atom into what became known as Answer model. Question 20 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? Select one: a. Niels Bohr b. Henri Becquerel c. Marie and Pierre Curie d. Ernest Rutherford Matter is Answer if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes. Question 2 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. Answer: Question 3 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? Answer: Question 4 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer is occurring when gas bubbles are released during the reaction. Question 5 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Density decreases as temperature increases. Answer: Question 6 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A Answer is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction. Question 7 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. Answer: Question 8 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identification: What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the reactants? Answer: Question 9 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Fill in the blank: In a Answer type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. Question 10 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? Answer: Question 11 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs. Question 12 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond. Answer: Question 13 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Answer refers to the concentration of a substance. Question 14 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets? Select one: a. Density b. malleability c. no correct answer Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust. Answer: Question 16 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Catalysts in living things are called Answer: Question 17 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Fill in the blank: The Answer property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. Question 18 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles. Answer: Question 19 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Platinum has very high density. Answer: Question 20 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat. Answer: _____energy is the energy needed to start a reaction. ACTIVATION The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called PRECIPITATE Identification: What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes? ENZYMES Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called valence electrons Sodium is an example of Element What is element 61 called? Promethium The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with THOMSOM True or False: The Earth's core is is composed of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and about 1% argon. FALSE What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”? GREEK The remaining core of a planetary nebula is called a _______________. WHITE DWARF True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a whole can be nonpolar. TRUE This was one of Rutherford's famous experiements where he used a radioactive source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil. Gold foil experiment When the absolute magnitudes, or brightnesses, of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n) Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram. True or False: Molecular compounds' melting and boiling temperatures are generally low. TRUE What is the visible surface of the Sun called? Photosphere True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form. True The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle. Faster About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element? Hydrogen Who coined the term, "radioactivity"? Marie curie The horizontal rows of elements in the periodic table are called Families True or False: When a gas is compressed, its temperature decreases. False % of the universe is hydrogen. 75 The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% Helium The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins? 15million When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called Polar covalent He invented the neutron. James chadwick When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced? x-rays What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space? Universe Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it Had the simplest form True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances. false True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only. false By 1985, a total of 103 are fixed distances from the nucleus. Energy levels The Sun is a(n) Star The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle. Sunspots 74% of the mass of the Earth's crus is composed of only two elements. What are these? oxygen and silicon True or False: The matter in the early universe was not smoothly distributed across space. True According to the Big Bang theory, when did the universe begin? 13.7 The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ______________. Democritus is a form of carbon that is extremely hard and is one of the few materials that can scratch glass. Diamond This consists of fundamental particles called leptons. Electrons True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster. True True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability. false Identification: Factor in the rate of reaction that is caused by the amount of reactants. Concentration Identification: What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? Reactants True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds up. FALSE The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant stars. SUPERNOVA True or False: Dalton was the first to introduce the idea of the atom. False True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals. True True or False: The human body is composed of 65% oxygen & 18% carbon. True Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? Ernest Rutherford What is the formula unit of molecular compounds? Molecule is the small, dense region at the center of an atom where protons are also found. Nucleus of an element is the average mass of all its naturally occurring isotopes. Atomic mass Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place. Rate of reaction Identification: Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. Reactants Identification: What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of time? Precipitate PHYSICAL SCIENCE FOR GRADE 11 KINOMPILE KO LAHAT NG MGA SAGOT SA MGA NAKARAANG OED NILA TANGINA NIYO MAGSIBIGAY KAYO NG SOURCE MGA BOBO DI PURO SAKIM YUNG IBA. SARAP NIYONG IKICK SA SUCCOR LEAGUE E. PABUGBOG KO KAYO KAY BERNA! TAPOS KAY JOAQUIN NO! WEEK 1 TO 10 NOT SO LEGIT DAHIL KINOMPILE KO NGA DIBA HAYS! 7/10 , 17/20, 48/50 REATTEMPT NIYO NALANG KASI ALAM KO LEGIT YAN! HA! LIPAT NA KAYO SCHOOL HA WAG NA SA AMA MGA HINAYUPAK! CREATED BY: Russell Obsequio SUBSCRIBE TO MY CHANNEL: Russell Obsequio sa Youtube! Mababaog ang di magsubscribe! LEARNING ACT 1 What is element 61 called? Select one: a. francium b. astatine c. technetium d. promethium CORRECT The two types of bright nebulae are emission nebulae and _____________ nebulae. Select one: a. reflection CORRECT b. photonic c. absorption d. refraction The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% Select one: a. hydrogen. b. carbon. c. helium. CORRECT d. oxygen. The temperature of the Sun's interior is estimated to be about how many kelvins? Select one: a. 15 million CORRECT b. 5 billion c. 60,000 d. 1500 The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 75% Select one: a. carbon. b. helium. c. hydrogen. CORRECT d. oxygen. The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called Select one: a. series. b. groups. CORRECT c. periods. d. families. Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? Select one: a. Henri Becquerel b. Marie and Pierre Curie c. Ernest Rutherford CORRECT d. Niels Bohr Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? Select one: a. Thomson b. Rutherford CORRECT c. Dalton d. Bohr What is the visible surface of the Sun called? Select one: a. Photosphere CORRECT b. Stratosphere c. Atmosphere d. Glowing sphere The Sun is a(n) Select one: a. star. CORRECT b. galaxy. c. planet. d. cluster. The Sun is a(n) Select one: a. cluster. b. galaxy. c. planet. d. star. CORRECT According to the Big Bang theory, when did the universe begin? Select one: a. 15.2 billion years ago b. 13 billion years ago c. 13.7 billion years ago CORRECT d. 12.8 billion years ago When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a _____________. Select one: a. red giant CORRECT b. black hole c. white dwarf d. dwarf star The "billiard ball model" of the atom is associated with Select one: a. Thomson. b. Rutherford. c. Bohr. d. Dalton. CORRECT True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. Answer: true What is the visible surface of the Sun called? Select one: a. Atmosphere b. Glowing sphere c. Stratosphere d. Photosphere CORRECT Who discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911? Select one: a. Marie and Pierre Curie b. Henri Becquerel c. Ernest Rutherford CORRECT d. Niels Bohr The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ____________ configurations of the elements. Select one: a. neutron b. proton c. periodic d. electron CORRECT The "plum pudding model" of the atom is associated with Select one: a. Dalton. b. Bohr. c. Thomson. CORRECT d. Rutherford. In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation? Select one: a. Lavoisier b. Boyle CORRECT c. Berzelius d. Davy LONG QUIZ 1 This consists of fundamental particles called leptons. Select one: a. electrons CORRECT b. protons c. neutrons The Sun is a(n) Select one: a. star. CORRECT b. planet. c. cluster. d. galaxy. The heaviest elements are created in _____, the fantastic death of supergiant stars. Select one: a. nebulae b. red giant c. supernovae CORRECT What is the name given to all matter, energy, and space? Select one: a. Local group b. Galaxy c. Universe CORRECT d. Solar system What is element 61 called? Select one: a. technetium b. promethium CORRECT c. francium d. astatine This was one of Rutherford's famous experiements where he used a radioactive source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil. Answer: gold foil experiment In 1869, a major event in the history of chemistry occurred; it was the Select one: a. discovery of the law of conservation of mass. b. development of the periodic table. CORRECT c. discovery of the octet rule. d. discovery of the law of definite proportions. The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ____________. Select one: a. Plato b. Democritus CORRECT c. Zeus d. Socrates Who discovered the electron in 1897? Select one: a. Dalton b. Thomson CORRECT c. Bohr d. Rutherford True or False: High-mass stars eventually evolve into white-dwarves. Answer: False The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ____________ configurations of the elements. Select one: a. proton b. electron CORRECT c. neutron d. periodic In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation? Select one: a. Berzelius b. Boyle CORRECT c. Lavoisier d. Davy He defined the word element as a form of matter that could not be split into simpler forms. Select one: a. Niels Bohr b. Ernest Rutherford c. Robert Boyle CORRECT d. Mendeleev The region where an electron is most likely to be is called an Answer: orbital . Niels Bohr focused his attention on the element hydrogen because it Select one: a. had the simplest atom. CORRECT b. was inexpensive. c. was so abundant. d. could be obtained in extremely high purity. The Sun's photosphere is, by mass, about 25% Select one: a. carbon. b. oxygen. c. helium. CORRECT d. hydrogen. When electrons are not shared equally between two atoms, it is called Answer bonds Answer: polar covalent Sodium is an example of Select one: a. A compound b. An alloy c. An element CORRECT d. A solution Electrons at the outermost energy level of an atom are called . Answer: valence electron True or False: Melting a covalent network solid is accomplished by overcoming the relatively weak intermolecular forces. Answer: False The planetary model of the atom is associated with Answer: Rutherford The vertical columns of elements in the periodic table are called Answer: Groups If all samples of a material have identical properties and composition, it is Answer: element In 1661, who developed a definition of element that made the concept subject to laboratory investigation Answer: Boyle Who discovered the electron in 1897? Answer: Thomson The various isotopes of an element all have Answer: The same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? Answer: Rutherford The second most abundant element in the Earth’s atmosphere is Answer: Oxygen This was one of Rutherford’s famous experiments where he used a radioactive source to direct alpha particles toward a very thin sheet of gold foil. Answer: Gold foil experiment By 1985, a total of elements were known. Answer: 108 The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the configurations of the elements Answer: electron About 75% of the mass of the visible universe is composed of which element? Answer: Hydrogen He invented the neutron. Answer: James Chadwick Who discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911? Answer: Rutherford The planetary model of the atom is associated with Answer: Bohr True or False: Oxygen has two polar bonds. Answer: True True or False: The alchemists have been successful in changing lead to gold. Answer: False When the absolute magnitudes, or brightness of stars are plotted against their surface temperatures or colors, we obtain a(n) Answer: Hertzsprung-Russell (or H-R) diagram True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmentals. Answer: True The “billiard ball model” of the atom is associated with Answer: Dalton Who discovered the electron in 1897? Answer: J.J Thomson The Answer is the small,dense region at the center of an atom where protons are also found Answer: Nucleus Thomson”s revision of the model of the atom into what became known as Answer: Plum pudding True or False: Dalton was the first to introduce the idea of the atom. Answer: False True or False: Carbon dioxide is nonpolar Answer: True What was the nationality of the first persons who we know speculated about “elements”? Answer: Greek True or False: Ionic compounds are for both metals and nonmetals. Answer: True True or False: Dalton thought individual atoms were solid, hard spheres so he modeled them with wooden balls. Answer: True What is the formula unit of molecular compounds? Answer: molecule The Answer puts the elements in order of increasing atomic number, into seven horizontal rows. Answer: Periodic Table The most modern definition of element is Answer: a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods. About Answer % of the universe is hydrogen. Answer: 75 The heaviest elements are created in _______, the fantastic death of supergiant stars. Answer: Supernovae True or False: The Earth's core is composed of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and about 1% argon. Answer: False are fixed distances from the nucleus. Answer: Energy levels Who coined the term, "radioactivity"? Answer: Marie Curie LEARNING ACT 2 ACTIVATION energy is the energy needed to start a reaction A CATALYST is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction. True or False: Density decreases as temperature increases. Answer: True REACTIVITY is the ability of matter to combine chemically with other substances. True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. Answer: False True or False: Noble gases almost never react to other substances. Answer: False True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds up. Answer: False True or False: Sodium can exist by itself. Answer: False True or False: Sodium reacts violently with water. Answer: True True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster. Answer: True is an enzyme found in the mouth and small intestine that hlps in the breakdown of starch to sugar. Answer: Amylase True or False: Silver conducts electricity at minimal circumstances only. Answer: False True or False: In determining the limiting reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles. Answer: True helps determine how an element might be used. Answer: Hardness Catalysts in living things are called Answer: Enzymes True or False: Substances made of wood are not prone to flammability. Answer: False is occurring when gas bubbles are released during the reaction. Answer: Chemical Reaction True or False: Platinum has very high density. Answer: True Identification: What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the reactants? Answer: Chemical change Identification: This factor in a reaction rate results from the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules? Answer: Temperature The nuclear model of the atom is associated with Answer: Rutherford The majority of stars are small, cool, type-M stars called Answer: Red dwarfs When the Sun moves off the main sequence, it will next become a _______________. Answer: Red giant LONG QUIZ 2 1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of time. ans. Precipitate 2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes? ans.Enzymes 3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical processes? answer:activation energy 4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules? ans.Density 5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. ANWER:physical change 6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the molecule? answer:nonpolar 7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds? answer:Reactivity 8.Fill in the blank: The ____ property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical 9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent compound 10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules? wrong answer ako dito. 11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? answer:covalent bond 12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant 13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. answer:polar covalent bonding 14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar 15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the reactants? answer:chemical change 16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular compound 17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate 18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen atom 19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds 20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties 21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound 22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar 23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer: Intermolecular force 24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets? answer:malleability 25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen 26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst 27. In a ____ type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar 28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between the atoms? answer:polar 29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration 30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound Identification: What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes? Answer: enzyme In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? Answer: Oxygen Fill in the blank: The Answer property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. Answer: Physical Refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs. Answer: Reaction Rate True or False: Salt can conduct electricity in any form. Answer: False Identification: What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? Answer: Reactant What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets? Select one: a. Density b. malleability CORRECT c. no correct answer Answer energy is the energy needed to start a reaction. Answer: Activation Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? Answer: Catalyst Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. Answer: Polar True or False: Tools made from iron easily rust. Answer: True Answer refers to the concentration of a substance. Answer: Density The solid that settles out of a liquid solution is called Answer: precipitate . Fill in the blank: Answer covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. Answer: Non-polar Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? Answer: concentration True or False: Aluminum is a good conductor of heat. Answer: True What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? Answer: Covalent True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding with them. Answer: False Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. Answer: Ionic compound True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things. Answer: True True or False: Lower activation energy = more reactant particles with enough energy to react causing the reaction to occur faster Answer: True True or False: Platinum has very high density Answer: True Refers to how fast a chemical reaction occurs Answer: Reaction Rate Identification: Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? Answer: Catalyst Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. Answer: Physical Change Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process Answer: Reaction Rate True or False: Carbon in graphite can be described as hard as the carbon in diamond. Answer: False Refers to the ability of matter to burn. Answer: Flammability True or False: The catalyst brings the reactants together by permanently bonding with them. Answer: False True or False: Chemical reactions occur inside living things. Answer: True Identification: How fast or slow a chemical process takes place. Answer: Rate of Reaction Identification: Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants. Answer: Chemical reaction Identification: What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical processes? Answer: Chemical kinetics True or False: The catalyst is a reactant in the chemical reaction it speeds up. Answer: False Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. Answer: Intermolecular force Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. Answer: Physical properties Refers to the concentration of a substance. Answer: Density True or False: Chromium is one of the soft elements. Answer: False True or False: In determing the liming reactant, mass quantities must be converted to moles. Answer: True True or False: The rate of reaction is faster if the temperature of reactants is higher. Answer: True refers to an electrically neutral particle composed of two or more atoms chemically combined. Answer: molecule True or False: Neutrons are found in all atoms except for most atoms of nitrogen. Answer: False The periodic table is most easily understood in terms of the ______________ configurations of the elements. Answer: Electron True or False: Diamond does not melt at all. Answer: True What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun? Answer: 6000 K True or False: Diamond vaporizes to gas at temperatures above 3500 degrees Celsius. Answer: True The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle. Answer: sunspots 74% of the mass of the Earth's crus is composed of only two elements. What are these? Answer: Oxygen and Silicon True or False: If the covalent bonds are polar, then the covalent compound as a whole can be nonpolar. Answer: True The apparent brightness of stars is ranked according to magnitude. The brightest stars were originally ranked as what magnitude? Answer: First Matter is Answer if it can be rolled and stretched to long and thin shapes. Answer: ductile Identification: Factor in the rate of reaction that is caused by the amount of reactants. Answer: Concentration Identification: Reaction rate factor that is due to the movement of the molecules of the reactants. Answer: Catalyst Which of the following did not occur after the Big Bang? Answer: THE UNIVERSE IS COMPACTED INTO A VERY SMALL VOLUME Aluminum is an example of Answer: an element Which of these is not a basic idea of Dalton’s atomic theory? Answer: All atoms of the same element are alike and have the same mass. The Sun's energy is generated from the fusion of Answer: Hydrogen nuclei to Helium nuclei Wilhelm Roentgen discovered Answer: X-Rays When fast electrons strike a metal target, what are produced? Answer: X-Rays The greater the mass of a star, the _______________ it moves through its life cycle. Answer: Faster Reading and Writing Skills answers Disclaimer XD: ang mga sumusunod nasagot ay hindi ko pagaari, ito’y compilation lamang ng mg sagot mula sa FB group na Oral communication and EAPP posted by Elisha Joy Marquez Julian, ako’y walang kahit ano mang conneksyon sa taong yan, pero nais kong magpasalamat LEARNING ACTIVITY 1. READING AND WRITING. This is the stage where you polish the order of your ideas and filter the information needed to get your point across and correct any mechanical errors. The correct answer is: Revising This refers to the set of basic questions that can start the exploration of your topic. The correct answer is: journalists' questions This stage in the writing process narrows your topic into the most important and relevant. The correct answer is: Pre-writing Which of the following statements is not true? The correct answer is: You must start thinking about writing a completely unfamiliar topic and explore it along the way. True or False: Output is important, but an effective written work is still valued. The correct answer is: True Learning activity 2. reading and writing. Arrange the following sentences to form a comprehensive paragraph. 1.Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their area of operations 2.The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become 3.This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks in struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to the side which succeeds in rallying people 4.Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their ability to disengage, disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out 5.The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural masses Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question: (A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C) They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the dry season. (D) Fish abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood for people living along its shores. Which is the most fitting 4th sentence for the given paragraph? The correct answer is: B (A) Gone with the Wind is not just Scarlett O’Hara’s story; it is also the story of another remarkable woman, Melanie Wilkes. (B) The author describes Melanie as having “the face” of a sheltered child who had never known anything but simplicity and kindness, truth and love, a child who had never looked upon harshness or evil, and would not have recognized them if she saw them.” (C) Strangely enough, the qualities that weakened Melanie in Scarlett’s eyes— loyalty, naivete, and simplicity—actually proved to make Melanie a strong person. The correct answer is: C Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question. (A) Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their area of operations. (B) This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks in struggle with the government, ultimate victory goes to the side which succeeds in rallying people. (C) Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their ability to disengage, disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out. (D) The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural masses. (E) The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become. Which is the fitting 3rd sentence in the paragraph? The correct answer is: B Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of poorer nations. __________, the governments of richer nations should take more responsibility for helping the poorer nations in such areas. The correct answer is: However Learning Activity 3. Reading and Writing.. Read the following narrative essay: Jerry was the kind of guy you love to hate. He was always in a good mood and always had something positive to say. When someone would ask him how he was doing, he would reply, "If I were any better, I would be twins!" He was a unique manager because he had several waiters who had followed him around from restaurant to restaurant. The reason the waiters followed Jerry was because of his attitude. He was a natural motivator. If an employee was having a bad day, Jerry was there telling the employee how to look on the positive side of the situation.” The writer presented what point of view? The correct answer is: Second person Read the following narrative essay: I can remember my first ascension to a mountain top well. It happened about three years ago, when it was autumn, and the weather in the mountains was gloomy. My friends offered me to travel to the western Carpathian Mountains, and after a short period of hesitation, I accepted their invitation. There was nothing much to do for me at the time, so I thought a change of surrounding would only be of use to me. What narrative device was used in the paragraph? The correct answer is: Flashback A strategy in writing a definition paragraph that shows the evolution of the word and how it was formed. The correct answer is: Etymology True or False: The main aim of descriptive paragraphs is to describe a particular thing as accurately as possible. The correct answer is: False This is one of the terms used in writing narratives that refers to the outcome of the characters’ actions. The correct answer is: Resolution The correct answer is: Resolution LEARNING ACTIVITY 4. READING AND WRITING. ----There are five transition words used in the following cause and effect paragraph. Write them in order in the given spaces below: In recent decades, cities have grown so large that now about 50% of the Earth's population lives in urban areas. There are several reasons for this occurrence. First, the increasing industrialization of the nineteenth century resulted in the creation of many factory jobs, which tended to be located in cities. These jobs, with their promise of a better material life, attracted many people from rural areas. Second, there were many schools established to educate the children of the new factory laborers. The promise of a better education persuaded many families to leave farming communities and move to the cities. Finally, as the cities grew, people established places of leisure, entertainment, and culture, such as sports stadiums, theaters, and museums. For many people, these facilities made city life appear more interesting than life on the farm, and therefore drew them away from rural communities. 1. for 2. first 3.second 4.finally 5.therefore LEARNING ACTIVITY 5. READING AND WRITING. ---Which of the following statements is not true?� The correct answer is: Internet has become so widespread that it is hard to track the cause of serious problems encountered by its users. ----Which of the following is not a proposed solution of the author?� The correct answer is: Install anti-virus programs that could prevent potential malware. ----- According to the essay sample, which of these is not a problem specified by the author? (Write the letter of the correct answer) �a. children can access potentially dangerous sites� b. news and company websites are hacked �c. online fraud� d. websites with unverified authenticity. The correct answer is: d ----An example of a dangerous site that children can easily access: The correct answer is: pornography sites ----Is the conclusion positive or negative?� The correct answer is: Neutral� SHORT QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING. True or False: It's best to think of different topics and discover various points of focus so you can keep your options open before writing. The correct answer is: False True or False: In brainstorming, you must find the related ideas to the topic you have in mind and link it to subtopics. The correct answer is: False Learning to write is a The correct answer is: sequential A pre-writing strategy which is the process of pouring out all your thoughts nonstop in an exact order, language and form as you think them. The correct answer is: Freewriting Complete the following sentence: "Writing without _________ form and content Correct is like a human body without skeleton; writing without ___________ is like a skeleton with no flesh." The correct answer is: form and content In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and The correct answer is: form Which of the following statements is true? The correct answer is: You must come up with all the possible ideas from the pre-writing stage. A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors. The correct answer is: Revising True or False: The final draft does not require editing or revising. The correct answer is: False Pre-writing requires an The correct answer is: open SHORT QUIZ 2. READING AND WRITING.. 1. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. [There have been immense advances in technology in most aspects of people’s lives, especially in the field of education.]. [Nowadays, an increasing number of students rely on computers for research and to produce a perfect paper for school purposes. ]. [Others have decided to leave the original way of learning and to get knowledge through online schools.]. [These changes in the learning process have brought a special concern regarding the possible decrease of importance of teachers in the classroom.]. 2. Choose the correct transition words for the paragraph from the given choices below. You may use the same word multiple times. The correct answer is: Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events [such as] the Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in easing international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s economy and other governments were fighting over the land. The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring nations together, at least temporarily. [from] the ancient History, [when] Greeks and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent international disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and even embrace each other after an event. [moreover], these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible consequences of wars; [thus] some leaders have tried to reach agreements to end their disputes and live peacefully. Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in a daily internal civil war. [for example], Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to an immense embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem. [however], when the Football World Cup starts, the Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country. Most people seem to forget all their problems and even the criminal activity decreases. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and buy national flags. [moreover], the competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the games and celebrate peacefully. [in conclusion], popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown. 3. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. The correct answer is: [For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white, and yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season.]. [For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.]. [Still others are in trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.]. [Although millions of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies develop or why some people have them and others do not.]. [ Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis.]. [Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially treatable.]. 4.Which of the following contains the topic sentence? (A) Today’s world has been divided into developing and industrialized countries which the main difference between them is the amount of money that governments apply in important sectors such as education, health and commerce. (B) Most of the poorer nations are buried in debts as a result of their unbalanced finances which are reflect in a failed health care, an unstructured education system and a weak international trade. (C) This vicious cycle will continue indefinitely unless wealthier nations show interest in minimizing the worldwide economic differences, as well as taking more responsibility for assisting less fortunate countries. The correct answer is: A 5.Choose the proper pattern of arrangement of the following jumbled paragraph. (A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different purpose. (B) Today, these lands can be planted to palay during off-season. (C) They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are idle during the dry season. (D) Fish abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay has, for centuries, been a major source of livelihood for people living along its shores. The correct answer is: E, C, A, B, D 6. Which among the set of sentences is most appropriate to be the 4th sentence? (A) Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially treatable. (B) Still others are in trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts. (C) Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis. (D) For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes. (E) Although millions of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies develop or why some people have them and others do not. (F) For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white, and yellow blossoms announce the arrival of allergy season. The correct answer is: E 7.Which of the following contains the topic sentence? (A) As an English writer has written, “Providence in her wise disposition has placed these people in a garden of Eden, where the means of subsistence are found without much labor, and does not require them to toil and slave to satisfy their personal wants.” (B) By the yard stick of human action in temperature countries, the Filipinos do not work hard. (C) Foreign writers have rashly accused the Filipinos of “indolence.” (D) The Filipinos take life easy because of the tropical climate and the liberality of nature. (E) Such may seem the case, but foreign critics are interpreting it as a manifestation of racial laziness. The correct answer is: B LONG QUIZ 1. READING AND WRITING.. A. The correct answer is: Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Shakespeare never grows old. Why is that? It’s because he expresses timeless truths with unparalleled literary excellence. The study of Shakespeare is essential for a good education. [The first reason to study Shakespeare is to develop one’s appreciation for great literature]. [Shakespeare’s genius is evident, not only in his sonnets and other poems, but in some three dozen plays]. [His characters are vivid and his plots compelling]. [Once you’ve met them, who can ever forget Hamlet or Lady Macbeth - his grief, or her guilt - or Beatrice and Benedick, and their humorous banter?] It’s not an accident that Shakespeare is the most-quoted author in the English language. [He also confers a rich vocabulary]. [The prestigious Oxford English Dictionary estimates that Shakespeare “coined” about 1700 words]. [What better way to develop an appreciation for great literature than by studying the best?] [Clearly, there is an enduring value in Shakespeare]. [In addition to his literary gifts, Shakespeare reveals deep spiritual insights]. [ The plays of Shakespeare rest upon and express a Biblical worldview]. Although he tapped many sources for inspiration, his primary source was Scripture. One researcher has documented over 1,300 Biblical references in Shakespeare, an average of about forty per play. Shakespeare wrote from a God-centered, redemptive perspective. The great Biblical themes are all there. Given the magnitude of his contribution, it is no wonder that scholars like E. D. Hirsch have insisted on the importance of reading Shakespeare to develop a basic, “cultural literacy.” Shakespeare provides a wonderful ‘bridge’ for discussing the great questions of life, and for rediscovering the richness in Western civilization. The works of Shakespeare constitute a rich literary, spiritual and cultural treasure, just waiting for discovery. Students of Shakespeare are rewarded for their efforts. But that’s a bonus. It’s like getting paid to play. B. The correct answer is: Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events such as the Olympics and the Football World Cup in which athletes show their best performance to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have proved to be helpful in easing international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s economy and other governments were fighting over the land. [The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring nations together, at least temporarily]. [From the ancient History, when Greeks and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the more recent international disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and even embrace each other after an event]. [Moreover, these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible consequences of wars; thus some leaders have tried to reach agreements to end their disputes and live peacefully]. Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in a daily internal civil war. [For example, Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which leads to an immense embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem]. [However, when the Football World Cup starts, the Brazilian squad, which is considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country]. [Most people seem to forget all their problems and even the criminal activity decreases]. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian team shirts and buy national flags. [Moreover, the competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the games and celebrate peacefully]. [In conclusion, popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international tensions and liberating patriotic feelings as history has shown]. C. The correct answer is: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate transition word. Choose one from the given choices below. Turkish governments have been trying to join the European union for years. Despite all the difficult tasks that have to be achieved in order to join the EU, Turkish governments are persistent. Turkish citizens seem to agree with their governments, too. Why do we insist on becoming a member of the union then? It is probably because of the differences between the happiness levels of Turkish and EU citizens. A study has been conducted on contentment and optimism of people in Turkey and the EU, which revealed that as a nation we have low levels of satisfaction and happiness. Nearly two thirds of Turkish people are discontent with their lives, [while] four fifths of the EU citizens are satisfied with their lives. Approximately the same results can be observed on people’s thoughts about their countries’ present and future conditions. It is obvious that people in the EU are happier than the people in Turkey, [but] why are we unhappy and pessimistic in contrast to EU citizens? There are plenty of reasons for the discontentment of people in Turkey compared to those in EU, [but] there are some reasons of greater significance, [such as] differences in income, welfare, and stability. [first of all], it is known that there is a great gap between the incomes of Turkish and EU citizens. This means that a person in EU who does the same job as a person in Turkey will receive a higher salary in Europe than in Turkey. Similarly, an unemployed person in EU is paid more or has more pension and social rights than an unemployed person in our country. [moreover], there is another fact which is a result of earlier ones: there are many people below poverty line and starvation limit in Turkey. These conditions lead to dissatisfaction in the country, we cannot be happy when we are starving, can we? [furthermore], Turkish economic and government systems lack stability. Considering successive crises and growths following these, it can be said that Turkish economy is fluctuating. Just as the economy, government has no sign of continuity. Each new government blames the previous governments and changes what they have done. These acts are justified as being necessary [but] generally lead to nothing but corruption. Lack of continuity causes confusion, [as] people need time to get used to new conditions. If you do not give them enough time and change the conditions again, just like in Turkey, the result will be confusion followed by depression. [however], in Europe there is a system that goes on without great disruptions, which means that there is a stable life and a predictable, better to say a hopeful, future. As I mentioned before, our persistence in joining the EU may be because of their happiness against our discontentment. We hope to find satisfaction, which we could not find alone, in Europe. Considering the fact that neither EU nor any other unions can grant happiness without any effort, is it not better that we work for our own benefit, not only to join the EU? D. Identify the topic sentence. (A) Most people want to get married and have children. (B) Perhaps they want to leave a trace or offspring after them, so that they become somehow “immortal”. (C) And it is commonly said that children are the ultimate bliss in our lives. (D) Although many people agree with this statement, to my mind, it is not true The correct answer is: D E.Identify the topic sentence. (A) Everyday in one way or another we are trying to find happiness in a complete chaos, that is what all we are struggling for. (B) Actually, temporary happiness is everywhere if we want to find it and search for it. (C) Sometimes it is just as close as a cute kitten to us, sometimes giving a hand to someone who is in need of us is enough. (D) Even taking a breath may give somebody the absolute happiness at times. (E) But what if we leave temporary happiness alone and decide to construct our lives on basic principles of permanent happiness? (F) Certainly these principles depend on one’s characteristics and point of view. (G) In my opinion, social relations, acceptance and independence are the most important elements of permanent happiness in life. The correct answer is: G F. Identify the topic sentence. (A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should be solved in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad economic circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control, although may lead to religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to reduce the population growth rate. (C) Therefore, governments should begin programs of birth control even in a compulsory manner due to the fact that group survival is more important than individual freedom. The correct answer is: A long quiz 2. reading and writing.. ----What type of definition is used in the given paragraph? Newton’s First Law: If the total force acting on an object is zero, its center of mass continues in the same state of motion. In other words, an object initially at rest is predicted to remain at rest if the total force acting on it is zero, and an object in motion remains in motion with the same velocity in the same direction. The converse of Newton’s first law is also true: if we observe an object moving with constant velocity along a straight line, then the total force on it must be zero. You may encounter the term “net force,” which is simply a synonym for total force The correct answer is: Denotation ----True or False: The rising action refers to events caused by the climax. The correct answer is: False .----Read the following paragraph and identify what type of description is used: Back in 1999 this fearless athlete posed in this football picture. In the far distance below the cloudless sky stands an off-white stadium. Embedded in the center is large, cracked, blue, painted, letters that spell out BISON. Beneath the old stadium are rows of worn-out bleachers which are completely empty. Up in front stands the competitor down on one knee. As you observe more, the sport player is wearing a blue Bison jersey sporting the number 60. To the left above the freshly trimmed green grass that engulfs this player’s figure lays a football. In the center of the picture, you see her pale white face and dark brown eyes. Around these features you can not help but notice the bronzed hair; which appears to be pulled back around this slender face. Her stern look shows how proud she is; nonetheless, all the confidence she carries on her padded up shoulders. This unique woman is not only elegant and brave; she is my sister, Margaret Eva Hoyt. The correct answer is: Subjective description -----Read the given paragraph below: Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be definitely given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese language, watch dorama (dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read and write haiku, and make pen pals with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets and fly to the country of the rising sun to see its wonders with their own eyes. Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most known to the western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced traveler, there is a dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city of the future, and Kyoto has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on. Basically it is true, but at the same time, there also exist more subtle differences one should consider when choosing their destination point in Japan. The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of the most urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1 USD approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would cost around 850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range restaurant, in case you travel with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen (double the price if you want to live closer to the city center). Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen for two persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher: 235 yen for a ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do in Kyoto rather than in Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can save some money buying food in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some products in Japan cost a lot of money no matter where you buy them. For example, white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes, chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most expensive products both in Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying an apartment in Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you must pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it (Numbeo.com). Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of a megacity, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West usually tell about Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded” is a gentle way to put it; in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your feet will not even touch the floor, because you will be squeezed between other people so tight that you can even take a nap in this position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional Japanese culture: haiku, hanami, court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not see amazing skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya crossing; instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—this city already lives in the future (Go Overseas). It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or Kyoto. Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more suitable for those looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated palaces made during Heian-jidai. Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis, with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy everything. The atmospheres are different, but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you have a chance, you should definitely visit them. Based on the given example of compare and contrast essay, which of the two cities is cheaper in terms of dining? The correct answer is: Kyoto ------True or False: Descriptive paragraphs may or may not appeal to the five senses of the readers. The correct answer is: False ----Cause and effect requires a The correct answer is: coherent -------The correct answer is: Based on the sample paragraph, complete the outline: I. [Personal Computer] A. [Desktop] - [permanent location required] - [more power] - [more storage] - [more versatile] B. [Laptop/notebook] - [portable] - [battery-operated] - [slightly larger than a hardcover book] II. [Workstation] A. [enhanced capabilities] B. [suitable for game development] III. [Server] A. [needs optimization] B. [lots of memory] IV. [Main frame] A. [network of terminals] V. [Supercomputer] B. [for massive jobs of calculation] -----Read the given paragraph below: Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be definitely given to Japan. Millions of people all over the world study the Japanese language, watch dorama (dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or animation, read and write haiku, and make pen pals with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets and fly to the country of the rising sun to see its wonders with their own eyes. Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most known to the western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And perhaps for an inexperienced traveler, there is a dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo is a mega city of the future, and Kyoto has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on. Basically it is true, but at the same time, there also exist more subtle differences one should consider when choosing their destination point in Japan. The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of the most urbanized country in the world (the prices below are listed in Japanese yen: 1 USD approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive snack in Tokyo would cost around 850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range restaurant, in case you travel with your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen. A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the city center costs 77,853 yen (and this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will be tiny, with basic utilities, and with no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their house up on their own). If you think of buying an apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million yen (double the price if you want to live closer to the city center). Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen for two persons in a mid-range restaurant—transportation costs are surprisingly higher: 235 yen for a ride (however, if you want to purchase a monthly pass, it is cheaper to do in Kyoto rather than in Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can save some money buying food in a market, you are correct only in particulars: some products in Japan cost a lot of money no matter where you buy them. For example, white rice costs 850 yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes, chicken breasts, and especially cheese—these are the most expensive products both in Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying an apartment in Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you must pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square meter if you want to buy it (Numbeo.com). Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of a megacity, dive into its life, and experience all those crazy things people in the West usually tell about Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway— and “overcrowded” is a gentle way to put it; in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your feet will not even touch the floor, because you will be squeezed between other people so tight that you can even take a nap in this position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is good to visit for all those who feel inspired by traditional Japanese culture: haiku, hanami, court customs, the No theater, and so on. In Kyoto, you will not see amazing skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya crossing; instead, get prepared for temples, tea houses, museums: all things antique and authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not feel disappointed—this city already lives in the future (Go Overseas). It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or Kyoto. Kyoto is cheaper, especially in terms of renting an apartment, and is more suitable for those looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated palaces made during Heian-jidai. Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis, with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy everything. The atmospheres are different, but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you have a chance, you should definitely visit them. Which of the two cities has the higher cost for transportation? The correct answer is: Kyoto =----This refers to the logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another The correct answer is: consistency ---_____ refers to the technique that suggest hints on future events in a story. The correct answer is: Foreshadowing ----True or False: The subject in a descriptive paragraph may be conveyed in detail through an explanation of its significance. The correct answer is: True LONG QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING.. Read the following essay and answer the following questions. The times when parents were responsible for their children’s academic accomplishments—and students themselves—seem to have gone. Nowadays, many people believe it is the high school administration, teachers, and the government that are responsible for students getting good grades. Before, when you got an F, your parents would blame you; today, they would rather go to your school and demand your teacher to give you a better grade. Such an approach leads to irresponsible behavior: students care less about their grades and start skipping classes, considering them to be boring. And although there is seemingly nothing wrong with skipping a boring class you think you would not need in future, in fact doing so has a number of negative impacts on your future. To start with, parents of a student who skips school lose huge amounts of money (given that it is not the student who pays for studying). In the United States, free education is a rare privilege; every single class skipped is worth a certain amount of money. Whether a student studies at high school, college, or university, it does not matter—the average cost of a skipped class is in the range between $50 to $100 (IFR). If a student chooses to skip classes regularly, it will cost him or her or his or her parents a lot of money annually, without getting the result: education and knowledge. The likeliness to get lower grades when skipped classes is another consequence. Whereas those who stay in class obtain at least some knowledge, even if they are not bright, a person who skips classes is at higher risks of obtaining no knowledge at all. Besides, teachers may have a bias toward such a student, and will treat him or her unfairly even though this person might be bright and studied the subject on his or her own. Needless to say, this situation can lead to a failure during exams or getting expelled from an educational institution (FRI). According to research, only five absences is usually enough for a student’s academic performance to drop. Five more absences would most likely lead to a decreased chance to graduate a particular educational institution: on average, skippers are about 20% less likely to successfully graduate. If a student studies at high school, he or she has a 25% less chance to enter any type of higher education institution. They are also 2.5 times more likely to have to live on welfare compared to their more disciplined peers (Middle Earth). Skipping classes has yet another not-so-obvious consequence: a student is more likely to become engaged in activities that neither the American society nor the legislative system would approve. Skipping classes does not always imply staying at home; more likely, a student would spend their time outdoors, and chances to get involved in antisocial behavior (substance abuse, shoplifting, gambling, and so on) increase. No need to say it can cause a person to enter prison eventually. Skipping classes is not so harmless as it might seem. It is a direct waste of money for all those who have to pay for the education—and such people are the majority. Students who skip classes are more likely to get lower grades and face a biased attitude from their teachers; moreover, they have lower chances to successfully graduate, and enroll in a college—of any type. Such students are also more likely to live on welfare, and get engaged in antisocial behavior. Therefore, this problem should be treated with all possible attention from teachers, parents, and authorities. QUESTIONS: Paragraph order: Logical order =logical Signal words used (arranged according to its order in the essay): 1. before 2.today 3. although 4. in fact 5.to start with 6.Whether.. or 7.if 8.whereas 9.even if 10. besides 11.According to 12. yet 13.such 14. therefore Type of paragraph development: Answer: cause and effect THIRD PERIODICAL EXAM. READING WRITING. The most common method of discovering a topic. The correct answer is: Brainstorming Which step in writing process includes coming up with ideas for you to write? The correct answer is: Pre-writing Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. The leaves of the trees waved in the wind .The correct answer is: Personification The sequential flow of ideas in a sentence. The correct answer is: Coherence Each level of an outline must have same grammatical structures. The correct answer is: Parallel structure _________ is the part of the story where the characters and setting are introduced. It also tells backstories and other important plot events. The correct answer is: Exposition The logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another. The correct answer is: Consistency _________ is the formal definition of a term. The correct answer is: Denotation Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. Laughter is music for the soul. The correct answer is: Metaphor Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. Her eyes were like fireflies .The correct answer is: Simile Which of these statements are supporting details? I. But they face certain problems which cannot be discussed with his relatives – in whatever relation they may stand and here is the need of a friend, of course a true friend. There is no matter which cannot be discussed with a friend. II. Friendship is seen even among animals. III. Men of similar moral idea irrespective of social, cultural, educational and financial idea may grow true friendship. The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details _________ shows the formation of the word and how it has evolved through time. The correct answer is: Etymology There are terms that are defined by the author’s perspective and experiences. What are these terms called? The correct answer is: Connotation Nordquist suggested the structure of paragraphs in a problem-solution essay to serve as a guide on what to include in that type of essay. Which of the following is the elaboration of the problems and the search for the solution? The correct answer is: Problem Paragraph The most unrestrained method in finding a suitable topic. The correct answer is: Freewriting Which of the following is the best test of friendship? The correct answer is: Adversity Which step in the writing process includes expressing ideas in sentences and paragraphs? The correct answer is: Writing Why are human beings the best creation of God? The correct answer is: Because human beings have moral feelings. Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. I’m so hungry I could eat a horse! The correct answer is: Hyperbole The time and the place where the story takes place. The correct answer is: Setting Which of the following sentences is not coherent? The correct answer is: Summer is the smell of mowed grass, the sound of outdoor concerts, and the way grilled hamburgers taste. The highest point in a story. The correct answer is: Climax Which of the following statements is true about the three main principles in developing classification paragraphs? I. The specific items identified in paragraphs must belong to one class only to avoid confusion. II. Classification paragraphs must contain consistency wherein one sentence or paragraph is parallel to another. III. Classification paragraphs require the writer to include connected classes/groups to the paragraph to complete the image of the main idea. The correct answer is: All of the statements are correct. Which step in the writing process includes correcting mechanical errors and filtering the information needed to get your point across? The correct answer is: Revising The technique in finding a writing topic by finding the relationships between ideas. The correct answer is: Clustering The element of a paragraph that gives life to the characters and gives sense to the setting. The correct answer is: Plot A story cannot be without a foundation. The writer gives the readers a view of what has happened to the characters in the past and how they came to be. Which narrative device is used to show these parts of the story? The correct answer is: Backstory The intent of dividing items into groups. The correct answer is: Exclusiveness Which of the following sentences is the topic sentence of the paragraph? The correct answer is: Friendship means closeness, association, relationship, and mutual trust – without any selfish motive. Which of the following is not true about the topic sentence of a paragraph? The correct answer is: The topic sentence gives life to the paragraph. Which step in the writing process includes checking for errors of your work? The correct answer is: Editing _________ is the outcome of the events and the character’s actions. The correct answer is: Resolution Read the paragraph and answer the following questions. There are a few places that can boast an act of creation everyday. A newspaper is one of them. Out of the daily newsroom whirl emerges a remarkable product. In a matter of hours, thousands of words and pictures are put together in a cohesive pattern designed to inform, enlighten, and entertain the reader. To a casual observer, the men and women working in the newsroom may appear to be running about aimlessly amid the clatter of typewriters and the continually ringing telephones. Actually, the scurrying around, the occasional shouting, the general air of excitement are all part of a controlled procedure. Each editor, reporter, and copyboy has a designated job, the end result of which is the newspaper that rolls off the press on time. 1. The topic sentence in the paragraph is sentence number ANSWER: three =3 2. The type of paragraph development: Answer descriptive =description 3. Give one signal word from the paragraph, indicating space, location and place. Answer: amid Which narrative device is used by the writer to present hints to future events? The correct answer is: Foreshadowing Based on the paragraph, why are true friendships rarely seen? The correct answer is: Because true friendships depend upon selection of a friend. There are terms that are associated with indirectly related words through analogy. What are these terms called? The correct answer is: Comparison Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. He’s as gentle as a bunny. The correct answer is: Simile Learning Activity 7 (Reading and Writing Skills) Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the given sentence? "He admitted to plagiarizing this piece of text." ---The correct answer is: There are several passages that are exactly the same in structure, albeit the use of synonyms In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? What is the author trying to emphasize in the text? ---The correct answer is: Drawing Conclusions In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? How does this statement relate to the other parts of the text? ---The correct answer is: Organization Statements of ______ may be proven through personal observations, researches, and experimentation. ---The correct answer is: fact In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? To whom did the author intend to write the text for? ---The correct answer is: Audience Learning Activity 8 (Reading and Writing Skills) So, although on the surface volunteering may look like “working for free,” in fact it is a great investment in one’s future career. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value Defense mechanisms are numerous, and each person has a set of their own. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Stories about being abducted by aliens are frightening, because knowing the size of the Universe, one can never be sure that aliens do not exist, or that their intentions are non-hostile. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value During your first two days in a hostel, you can meet more new people than you did throughout your whole last year of office work. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value Too much alcohol may cause a lot of heart-related diseases. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Learning Activity 9 (Reading and Writing Skills) This is portrayed by the use paraphrasing another author's statement. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Intertext This is achieved through an accumulation of a variety of texts connecting to a single text to form a meaning. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Intertext This goes beyond what is included in the text, with references a reader can easily access. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Hypertext The commonly used strategy in digital media/text. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Hypertext This analyzes the media in which the text is used. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Context Learning Activity 10 (Reading and Writing Skills) Rowling created truly vivid characters; however, not all of them revealed their potential from the very beginning. Surprisingly, the one who truly took his time before finally showing his personality was Harry. Whereas Ron, Hermione, Draco, Snape, and other characters possessed vivid and readable personalities from the very beginning, for a long time, Harry remains some kind of an “event-trigger,” whose main goal is to move the story forward. ---The correct answer is: Counterclaim Many high school graduates simply do not have an opportunity to continue their education right away (Saiz, Report on Education to Career Conversion). ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact They conducted a study in which a group of healthy young men slept 8 hours one night, and then abstained from sleep another night. ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact Abortion causes severe psychological and emotional damage to a woman who has undergone this surgery. ---The correct answer is: Claim R. Dworkin does something rather novel and considers that, rather than being immoral, something could be from a different moral code (1977, p. 995). This, of course, makes perfect sense, and is what I have said already. I would even go so far as to suggest that it is impossible to act immorally. This is another reason morality and legality must remain separate, because, whereas illegal acts exist, immoral ones do not. ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact Learning Activity 11 (Reading and Writing Skills) What did the main idea of the story make you feel as the reader? Identify what is described. ---The correct answer is: theme A review of Harry Potter contains the following passage: It all starts in a rather trivial way though—with a boy being branded as the “unique one,” a survivor of a terrible assault with a destiny to defeat an evil overlord. However, this is the basic layer of the story, so to say. What guide question did it answer? ---The correct answer is: What is the conflict of the story? You must have an interest in the book you're analyzing. ---The correct answer is: True After reading the book, that's when to take notes of what you have read. ---The correct answer is: False This is where you identify the climax of the story. ---The correct answer is: plot Learning Activity 12 (Reading and Writing Skills) A part of the research report that gives the synthesis of the supporting details. ---The correct answer is: Review of Literature The part of a research report that describes the procedure to arrive at the result. ---The correct answer is: Methods This part of a research report describes the instrument used to arrive at a result. ---The correct answer is: Methods This identifies what type of research it is going to be. ---The correct answer is: Research questions/hypothesis The step in writing a research report wherein you formulate questions related to the topic. ---The correct answer is: planning the research Learning Activity 13 (Reading and Writing Skills) It is in bad taste to stress your interest in applying for the job in the company. ---The correct answer is: False Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: Certificate of N5 level Japanese Language Proficiency. ---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: Experienced with Moodle. ---The correct answer is: Technical/software skills You may choose not to include your address in the email copy of your application letter. ---The correct answer is: False The application letter must be in strict business letter format. ---The correct answer is: True Short Quiz 7 (Reading and Writing Skills) In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? How does this contribute to the variety of texts done discussing the same topic? ---The correct answer is: Research/Sources The text does not have a meaning by itself. ---The correct answer is: True In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? Is the stand of the author clear? ---The correct answer is: Topic and position Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the given sentence? "Drug use is detrimental to society." ---The correct answer is: There has been multiple instances and cases displaying the dire consequences of drugs on people. In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? Where was the text published or found? ---The correct answer is: Audience Which of the following words does not signal a statement of opinion? ---The correct answer is: according to This is a strategy that is purposefully writing a passage leaning towards a single perspective. ---The correct answer is: slanting In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall? In what tone did the author write the text? ---The correct answer is: Style Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the given sentence? "This group has garnered the most music awards for this year." ---The correct answer is: They have received multiple awards from different award-giving bodies. What do you call the terms used in a text that need further definition as they are exclusively used in a field of study? ---The correct answer is: jargon Short Quiz 8 (Reading and Writing Skills) If you move to China, you will discover another reason why this country is worth moving to: its prices. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value The police should be responsible of the people’s safety and not a source of fear. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy Global warming, despite others’ doubts, exists. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact The four circles, or stages of mourning are denial, anger, bargaining, and depression; the exit is acceptance. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Let us choose to believe the opposite, and not doubt the possibility of us being the masters of our lives, so that no ‘cunning demon’ can distract us with false perceptions and throw us off the right path. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy At least 25 percent of the federal budget should be spent on helping upgrade business to clean technologies, researching renewable energy sources, and planting more trees in order to control or eliminate pollution. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy Volunteering is a great alternative to a number of other activities, since it can help you acquire work experience and get a job. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value Time is gold. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value Anger can be effectively used to establish and defend your personal boundaries, personal space, sense of justice, beliefs, and so on. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Western classical music has not just artistic and cultural value, but also causes a number of unexpected and (fortunately) positive effects on the human mind. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Short Quiz 9 (Reading and Writing Skills) Through this, the text related to the topic you are reading may be easily found through search engines. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Hypertext At its whole, this will heavily affect the way the text is written. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Context These are the circumstances surrounding a topic. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Context This is also known as "interactive multimedia." ---The correct answer is: Hypertext This can be divided into static (or something prepared or stored in advance) or dynamic (something that continually changes). What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Hypertext In the analysis of this, even the way pictures are selected is scrutinized. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Context This is described as "a structural analysis of texts in relation to the larger system of signifying practices or uses of signs in culture." What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Intertext A nonlinear way of presenting information. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Hypertext This refers to the occasion or situation in which the reader can consider while analyzing. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Context This builds relationships and connections among social meanings. What is being described? ---The correct answer is: Intertext Short Quiz 10 (Reading and Writing Skills) St. Thomas Aquinas gave five proofs for God’s existence. The first two are cosmological: there can be no uncaused cause, so the universe could not have created itself, so there must be a first cause/prime mover, (Appiah, 2003, p. 322), which he calls “God.” This, in my view, does not prove anything. He is saying the universe cannot have come from nothing, but its creator can. If God is an exception to the “no uncaused cause” rule, why cannot the universe be? (Russell, 1927). ---The correct answer is: Counterclaim Lord Templeman suggested that the issue of consent was irrelevant to the question of the illegality of an action, since the latter constitutes a breach of the peace. This traces back to highminded English snobbery about a king needing able-bodied soldiers. The idea seems to be that a society is more important than its individuals. But this is, of course, erroneous, for it seems obvious, upon reflection, that there can be nothing more sacred than individual liberty. ---The correct answer is: Counterclaim On the other hand, the exploitation of the system of standardized testing is linked to a number of issues. Thus, many feel that tests do not provide accurate evaluations of a student’s knowledge and learning capabilities, particularly due to the fact that in order to pass a test, a simple memorization is preferred to critical thinking and higher learning (Strong 254). ---The correct answer is: Counterclaim Of course, any book can be described like this; for example, the plot of “The Lord of the Rings” can be described even in a shorter way: “Four guys go to a dangerous land to defeat ancient evil by destroying an important artifact, and their friends help them.” However, unlike Tolkien’s novel, Twilight has nothing to offer to a reader except the events described in the previous paragraph. This is ridiculous, considering four published books, some sort of online encyclopedia, and movies. ---The correct answer is: Counterclaim It is equally possible many gods could exist. Furthermore, St. Thomas uses “God” as a label for the first cause. The first cause is not necessarily the Christian God (Dawkins, 2007, p. 101)—allknowing, all-powerful, and all-good (all-k.p.g.), or anything God is usually considered to be. ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact Insomnia affects not only the mind, but also the body in ways no less devastating; specifically, according to a study conducted by the University of Chicago, sleep deprivation is closely connected to the reduced control of blood-sugar levels. ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact Insomnia, or sleep deprivation, is a dangerous condition leading to a wide range of health problems. ---The correct answer is: Claim Studying is a necessity rather than a privilege. ---The correct answer is: Claim A woman who has undergone the abortion procedure may develop such persistent symptoms as shame, a sense of isolation, a loss of self-confidence and/or trust in other people, nightmares, insomnia, anxiety, loneliness, and suicidal thoughts. As an unpleasant bonus, these symptoms can be accompanied with various eating disorders (American Pregnancy Association). ---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact What epicness is there in a lovey-dovey story about a relationship between a schoolgirl and a vampire? Obviously none, neither in the novel, nor in the movies—it is simply a marketing turn aimed at making the source look like something more worthwhile than it is. ---The correct answer is: Assertion - opinion Short Quiz 11 (Reading and Writing Skills) A review of the Twilight Saga contains the following passage: The first and foremost question: why would a 104 year-old person fall in love with a teenager? Theoretically, people get wiser when they get older, although reality proves it is not necessarily so. I would understand if Edward treated Bella as an adopted daughter, at least. But love? There is a special word for adult men having romantic and sexual relationships with teen girls. Also, according to folklore, vampires are sadistic, vile, and sexually-insatiable creatures, so in a proper vampire story, exploitation and being devoured would be Bella’s only options. But a true, clean, and romantic love? This is stupid. The only reason why it became possible is probably because aging has negatively affected Edward’s (and his family’s) mental capabilities. Also, why would Bella not feel scared of knowing people who suck blood, or who can turn into savage beasts? What kind of weird taste or fetish is that? And it is not only Bella and Edward acting weird— Jacob, Victoria, the vampire clans, and other folks appearing in Twilight seem to have little to no common sense, reason, or logic. What guide question did it answer? ---The correct answer is: What is the weakness of the plot? Where did the story take place and how does it relate to the story? ---The correct answer is: setting In evaluating an article, it is important for it to be generally unknown so you can grab the reader's attention. ---The correct answer is: False A critique must contain the following parts except for: ---The correct answer is: comparison with other relevant works This part of the literary analysis gives the subtopics. ---The correct answer is: body It is important to dwell on the author's life and his works in a literature analysis. ---The correct answer is: False There are different interpretations of a single literature. There may be similarities in some but there will always be differences. ---The correct answer is: True This part of a literature review contains the general indications of the work. ---The correct answer is: introduction What happens in the story that changed the course of the character/s? ---The correct answer is: conflict In writing a critique, focus on the flaws of the text. ---The correct answer is: False Short Quiz 12 (Reading and Writing Skills) The part of a project proposal that gives the funding details. ---The correct answer is: budget The cover sheet must be in ______ format. ---The correct answer is: APA A part of the project detail that emphasizes what the project can contribute to a group of people in the society. ---The correct answer is: Deliverables An element of a good project proposal that details where to get the funds to bring the project to fruition. ---The correct answer is: Resources A part of the project proposal that identifies similar solutions. ---The correct answer is: motivation This informs the recipient of what the project aims to achieve. ---The correct answer is: goals and objectives The references of the research report is recommended to be in MLA format. ---The correct answer is: False A part of the project detail that uses diagrams to illustrate what tools to use in the implementation of the project. ---The correct answer is: Architecture and environment This gives what the end product of the project is. ---The correct answer is: Deliverables This part of the project details identifies the implementation challenges. ---The correct answer is: project details Short Quiz 13 (Reading and Writing Skills) Use any font you want in creating your resume as long as it is somewhat readable. ---The correct answer is: False Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: Skilled in written and oral communication. ---The correct answer is: Key skills Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: Finished a Bachelor's Degree in Accountancy (2011-2015) ---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: I have volunteered for various non-government organizations, handling public relations and advertising of events. (She is applying for PR specialist in a company) ---The correct answer is: Opening statement The opening paragraph of your application letter must contain: ---The correct answer is: how you learned about the position or the company Your resume must include your birthday and gender. ---The correct answer is: False Prior research about the company you're applying for helps in composing your application letter. ---The correct answer is: True Factual errors in your resume are worse than typographical errors. ---The correct answer is: True Which is the usual format followed in sending an application letter via email? ---The correct answer is: name, position Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to: Can handle pressure. ---The correct answer is: Personal attributes Long Quiz 4 (Reading and Writing Skills) Critical reading is a way to identify new ways of thinking. ---The correct answer is: True Often mistaken as a plagiarized passage. ---The correct answer is: Intertext A strategy in critical reading that requires the reader to put himself/herself on the author's shoes. ---The correct answer is: Contextualizing This involves the analysis of the author's use of signs in obtaining the meaning of the text. ---The correct answer is: Intertext This element of text is identified for the reader to know how this was developed and asserted throughout the text. ---The correct answer is: purpose Therefore, I think it is important to learn to distinguish between light constructive feelings of care, and intense romantic addiction, which can lead to unforeseen consequences. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy The death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective means of punishment. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value Feminism should be seen as a movement that has a role and value for the real world that is extremely difficult to underestimate. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy You will identify this through comparing and contrasting the text to other works. ---The correct answer is: What a text does This uses various techniques such as allusion, quotation and referencing. ---The correct answer is: Intertext Reading like a writer can help you understand how the process of writing is a series of making choices, and in doing so, can help you recognize important decisions you might face and techniques you might want to use when working on your own writing. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact This helps the reader control the level of detail of the document he/she is examining. ---The correct answer is: Hypertext Video games are perhaps the most popular and widespread form of entertainment at present. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value One of the most important functions of the judicial system is to punish the criminals and to protect the innocent. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Instead of killing time playing Angry Birds, one might want to use their gadget as a learning tool —modern mobile devices are perfectly suited for this purpose. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy In ____, the critical reader does not accept anything at face value, thus recognizing the fact that everything must be thoroughly understood. ---The correct answer is: evaluating an argument The following are the types of reading and discussion in critical reading except: ---The correct answer is: What a text will do You will identify this through taking notes and paraphrasing the key points. ---The correct answer is: What a text says Standardized tests are meant to set a high standard and promote objectivity. ---The correct answer is: Claim of value For political correctness to achieve its goals, too many words have to be banned. ---The correct answer is: Claim of policy Critical reading may only consist of negative observations and analysis. ---The correct answer is: False One of the main purposes of testing is to set a standard: a performance baseline of progress for all parties involved in the educational process—students, teachers, and school districts, and to hold them accountable for achieving it. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact People in democratic countries vote for their candidates on presidential elections, freely express themselves, practice any religion they want, and enjoy many other rights and freedoms, all of which are guarded by numerous laws, bills, non-governmental organizations, and so on. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact This is used to establish connections between language, images, characters, topics, themes and the like. ---The correct answer is: Intertext It is recommended to read looking only for facts and more information. ---The correct answer is: False This type of reading aims to find a particular piece of information in a text. ---The correct answer is: scanning Execution is actually a judicial murder. ---The correct answer is: Claim of fact Critical reading aims to find the faults and flaws in the text. ---The correct answer is: False It is important to slowly read and savor the text you're reading in order to critically analyze it. ---The correct answer is: True It's deemed irrelevant to consider other points of view other than what the text presents. ---The correct answer is: False Long Quiz 5 (Reading and Writing Skills) Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The study, "A Content Analysis of The Catalyst’s News Stories From 1986 to 2010", seeks to find out how The Catalyst, the official student publication of Polytechnic University of the Philippines selected and treated the news articles they have published from 1986 to 2010. The researchers wanted to classify the news issues which The Catalyst gave emphasis on into categories: Political, Financial/Economic, Peace and Order, Social, Rebellion, Religious, Sports/Entertainment, Miscellaneous and Politics within University. The researchers also sorted The Catalyst’s news articles in terms of the following: Scope/Origin, Chronology/Sequence, Structure and Content. Lastly, the researchers intended to determine the treatment and the tone of the news articles. The researchers used convenience sampling method. The researchers have content analyzed 84 existing issues from the year 1986 up to 2010. The researchers categorized 586 news articles from the said issues into categories based on the criteria following the three major variables in content analysis by Elena Pernia (2004). Based on the observations and results of the content analysis, it was determined that The Catalyst’s style changed from the orthodox style in 1986 to different forms of layout in the later years. Moreover, The Catalyst transitioned from using blue ink to mainly using black ink and later on red ink. Moreover, the scope of The Catalyst’s news was mostly local. The student publication usually covered events within the university. Most of the student publication’s news stories were straight news. The news articles were mostly treated as neutral, meaning the news were written merely as statement of events in the simplest and most objective way. The researchers concluded that The Catalyst has performed its duty as the official student publication of PUP through disseminating information that would be of concern to the students and the university. ---The correct answer is: Abstract Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The researchers used the three major variables by Pernia (2004) as basic instrument in analyzing the news stories of The Catalyst. With each category is a set of keywords to make the coding easier for the coders. The coders would determine the category an article belongs to through the keywords provided. ---The correct answer is: Methods Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The researchers analyzed all the news stories of each issue of The Catalyst starting from 1986 up to 2010, with the exception of the special issues released and the issues without dates available in the university archives. There were no recorded issues of The Catalyst in the year 1989 and 1990 due to problems within the publication while there were no issues for the year 1999 at the archives during the time of the coding. News roundups and news bits in every issue are also not included in this particular study but would focus on the stories in the news section and sports section. ---The correct answer is: Limitations Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: Due to lack of job opportunities here in the Philippines, there are Filipinos who were willing to work abroad to earn higher salary compared to the Philippines’. These people are called OFWs or Overseas Filipino Workers. They are ready to sacrifice their lives here in the Philippines for the sake of earning more money. Because of this, they were referred to as “New Heroes”. Our government is not that vocal about the progress of the country’s economy through the help of OFWs yet they encourage more Filipinos to accept different jobs abroad. The OFWs’ children are the ones highly by their parent’s departure. They have to suffer the loneliness of not having their parent/s with them. Although they have guardians to look after them and to care for them, nothing can compare to a parent’s love and affection. There are laws and agencies that protect and support OFWs but the child would not be ensured of their parent’s safety. They would be surely anxious of the condition of their parents because of the distance that makes the young ones worry about them. ---The correct answer is: Results Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: In line with this, the scope of the publication’s news articles is within the immediate proximity which is the university and its branches. Therefore, these findings reflect that The Catalyst does its duty as the student publication to serve the student body, first and foremost. The ruling quantity of news classified into spot news depicted that the abundance of news within the local proximity were given the utmost priority by the editorial board. Events which occurred in PUP demanded immediate publication to easily spread the information to the rest of the university. ---The correct answer is: Conclusion Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: Departure of Filipinos was beneficial to the country and to the families of OFWs, since the dollar reserve that we can get from them saved us from economic turmoil. But let us think about the children as well, they may experience great loneliness due to their parent’s absence. Communication is important, considering the distance between the parent and the child. The OFWs should communicate with their children regularly so as not to create a distance between them. It could also help the child if the parent is easily approachable. Imagine if communicating devices did not exist. It would be a great suffering for both the parents and the children since snail mail, the alternative communication, would take a long time of process just to reach the receiver, unlike e-mail, in which the message would be sent in just a matter of seconds. If the parents truly care for the child, they would always make a way to extend their love overseas to reach them through communication. The children also need their guardians to plan “outings” and other activities that they would all enjoy for them not to feel alone. ---The correct answer is: Recommendations Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The History of Philippine Journalism Journalism in the Philippines has gone through a number of both setbacks and boosts. The history of Philippine journalism presented in this study is cited from “Journalism for Filipinos” by Malinao (2003). In the year 1637, the first Philippine Newsletter was published - the “Successos Felices” (Fortunate Events) of Tomas Pinpin, the father of Filipino printing. Aside from Pinpin’s one-shot fling at journalism, the “Hojas Volantes” (Flying sheets) or Spaniards’ notice to the public, were widely distributed in the country for mass readership. ---The correct answer is: Review of Literature Questions: 1. In the resume, where does the information number 6 fall under? ---The correct answer is: List of key skills 2. In the resume, where does the information number 5 fall under? ---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications 3. In the resume, where does the information number 3 fall under? ---The correct answer is: Opening Statement 4. In the resume, where does information number 4 fall under? ---The correct answer is: Personal attributes/career overview 5. In the resume, where does information number 2 fall under? ---The correct answer is: Contact details Questions: 1. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer: "The language Tolkien uses (and he was a British professor of linguistics and philology), the aforementioned epic scales of storyline, the incredibly diverse cultural background behind the novel—its characters, plot, described events—this and many other factors make reading the trilogy rather an intellectual than entertaining occupation." ---The correct answer is: Does the way a character speaks help you to understand how that character thinks and feels? If so, how? 2. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer: "And the books are indeed full of awe-inspiring moments; here are just a few of them: the first fight with the Nazguls; the battle with the ancient demon in desolated Moria and Gandalf’s disappearance; the death of Boromir (in my opinion, one of the most tragic moments in world literature of the 20th century); the resurrection of Gandalf the White; the transformation of King Theoden; the siege of Helm’s Deep; the uprising of the ents and Saruman’s exile; recruiting of the undead army by Aragorn; the battle for Minas Tirith and the sortie to the Black Gate of Mordor; the defeat of the Witch-King of Angmar; the annihilation of the Ring; Aragorn’s marriage with Arwen and honors to the hobbits; finally, Frodo’s departure to the West. ---The correct answer is: What is the high point of the story? Why is this incident more important than the others? 3. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample book review: "While working on the book, Tolkien invented at least two fully functional languages: Elven and Dwarven; he interpreted the Scandinavian myths (“The Saga of the Nibelungs“, in particular) and used them to create his own unique plot, world, and characters. The number of cultural and literary references used in “The Lord of the Rings” is enormous." ---The correct answer is: Dialogue 4. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample book review: "The saga tells a story unfolding around The One Ring, created and lost by Sauron—an ancient demigod of the world of Middle Earth, and the main antagonist of the saga." ---The correct answer is: Plot 5. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample book review: "It is almost impossible to say more about the plot, because at the end of the first book, it branches into multiple storylines." ---The correct answer is: Plot Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The research is a quantitative research dealing with the computed numerical figures from analyzing each news story. Through this, the researchers analyzed each criterion that will determine the changes made in The Catalyst’s news stories over the years in terms of physical changes, as well as in content. ---The correct answer is: Limitations Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: The researchers have coded a total of 586 news stories from The Catalyst’s issues from the year 1986 to 2010. The table above shows that focus-wise, The Catalyst presented a substantial amount of news articles with miscellaneous issues taking up 26.97% of the total number of articles. As provided in the definition of news by Bangkok Post, there are miscellaneous stories which continually appear in the news section. In this study, these news articles are common stories within PUP which did not fall to any of the other categories. ---The correct answer is: Results Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls: OFW parents could influence their children in either good or bad way. Children who have parents as overseas workers would be considered well-off in life because of the money, not to mention, dollars sent to them. But OFWs are willing to endure all the pains and sufferings of having their families away from them because in the end, they are recognized by the government and by every Filipino. Because of this, former President Corazon Aquino acknowledged their sacrifices, efforts and contributions by referring to them as the modern heroes in the speech she gave last 1988 to a group of domestic helpers in Hong Kong. In honor of the OFWs who kept our country’s economy afloat as well as their families’ lives, the Philippines celebrates December as the “Month of Overseas Filipino Workers”, to pay tribute to them. ---The correct answer is: Introduction Questions: 1. What type of job application letter is given? ---The correct answer is: hardcopy 2. What position is the person applying for? ---The correct answer is: programmer 3. In what paragraph number did the applicant summarize his experiences? ---The correct answer is: 3 4. In what paragraph number did the applicant describe his/her skills? ---The correct answer is: 2 5. What is the name of the applicant? ---The correct answer is: John Donaldson Questions: 1. What is the main goal/objective of the project proposal? ---The correct answer is: To identify and describe the monitoring of three common precursors and evaluate how accurate each monitoring is in predicting earthquakes. 2. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under: "Given that I can obtain all my sources for the literature review from the library, there is no appreciable cost associated with performing this literature review. The only costs, which will be minor, are for copying articles, printing the review, and spiral binding the review. I estimate that I can do these tasks for under $10." ---The correct answer is: Budget 3. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under: "I am a senior in the Geological Engineering Department at the University of Wisconsin at Madison. In my undergraduate courses I have taken rock mechanics, soil mechanics, geophysics, and stratigraphy, all of which have included the principles of seismology and stress-strain relationships." ---The correct answer is: Preparation 4. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under: "Because I already possess several books and articles on earthquake prediction, most of my time will be spent sifting through the information, finding the key results, and presenting those results to the audience." ---The correct answer is: Resources 5. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under: "A secondary audience for the review would be non-technical readers who either live in earthquake-prone areas or are affected financially when earthquakes occur." ---The correct answer is: Significance Fourth Quarter Exam (Reading and Writing Skills) Match the term to its description. ---The correct answer is: Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and Summarizing] Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the author's perspective. [Contextualizing] Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing] Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different ways. [Compare and Contrast] An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept. [Claim] This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion presented is worth accepting. [Support] Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to understanding the author's point of view. [Asking questions] Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation] The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation of his/her own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values] _______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the text in the shortest possible time. [Skimming] Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion] An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference] Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim] The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion] The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction] This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods] A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables] The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique. [Implementation Issues and Challenges] This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project Summary] This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting. [Motivation] In which element does the following questions fall? ---The correct answer is: Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position] From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style] Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by the needs of the audience? [Organization] Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources] Where is the text found? [Audience] Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context] Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence] Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence] How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization] What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style] Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and teenagers, ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes 5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of environments and people. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned. 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ... 5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty? ---The correct answer is: He/she is against it. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional. 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ... 5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be idyllic. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ... 5. What is the stand of the author in this argument? ---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ... Match the term to its description. ---The correct answer is: Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and Summarizing] Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the author's perspective. [Contextualizing] Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing] Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different ways. [Compare and Contrast] An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept. [Claim] This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion presented is worth accepting. [Support] Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to understanding the author's point of view. [Asking questions] Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation] The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation of his/her own beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to beliefs and values] _______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the text in the shortest possible time. [Skimming] Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion] An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference] Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim] The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion] The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction] This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods] A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables] The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique. [Implementation Issues and Challenges] This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project Summary] This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting. [Motivation] In which element does the following questions fall? ---The correct answer is: Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position] From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style] Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by the needs of the audience? [Organization] Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources] Where is the text found? [Audience] Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context] Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence] Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence] How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization] What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style] Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and teenagers, ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes 5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of environments and people. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned. 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: These has been numerous evidence ... 5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty? ---The correct answer is: He/she is against it. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional. 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ... 5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be idyllic. Questions: 1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay? ---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ... 2. Which of the following information does not support the claim? ---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ... 3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay? ---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ... 4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay? ---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ... 5. What is the stand of the author in this argument? ---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages .. SHORT QUIZ 3. READING AND WRITING..... ---- Refer to the given paragraph below, entitled “Picturing Don Quixote”: Seventeenth-century images emphasized the title character’s pompous folly as well as the often rough-and-tumble action of many episodes. The windmill scene, in which Don Quixote mistakes the technology that grinds the grain produced in the semi-arid Manchegan landscape for giants, became immediately iconic. The first representation of the scene appears in a Frankfurt edition of 1648, in which the windmill sail stabs Don Quixote. What type of description is used in the paragraph? The correct answer is: Subjective description ---The term that refers to the consequences or events caused by the climax. The correct answer is: Falling action ---What type of figure of speech is used in the following sentence? The lady in the water screamed like a banshee The correct answer is: Simile ----Read the following narrative essay: In blistering Nebraska, it was America’s Independence Day. As usual on every Independence Day since I was five years old, George and Terry, my two best friends, and I, went on a manly picnic. I diligently carried out my household chores, packed my picnic bag and off I went to collect my friends by way of bicycle. It is going to be an awesome day, I thought to myself as I sped down my neighborhood street on my beat-up blue Schwinn. THE writer presented what point of view? The correct answer is: First person ---Read the following excerpt from the short story, Dead Stars by Paz Marquez Benitez: Alfredo remembered that period with a wonder not unmixed with shame. That was less than four years ago. He could not understand those months of a great hunger that was not of the body nor yet of the mind, a craving that had seized on him one quiet night when the moon was abroad and under the dappled shadow of the trees in the plaza, man wooed maid. Was he being cheated by life? Love--he seemed to have missed it. Or was the love that others told about a mere fabrication of perfervid imagination, an exaggeration of the commonplace, a glorification of insipid monotonies such as made up his love life? Was love a combination of circumstances, or sheer native capacity of soul? In those days love was, for him, still the eternal puzzle; for love, as he knew it, was a stranger to love as he divined it might be. What narrative device was used in the paragraph? The correct answer is: Flashback --- Read the following example of a definition paragraph: The term protein quality refers to the ratio of essential amino acids (eaa) in a protein in comparison with the ratio required by the body. A high quality protein contains eaa in a ratio that matches human requirements. A protein which is lacking or low in one or more eaa is termed a low quality protein. The eaa which is in the shortest supply is called the ‘limiting’ amino acid. In general, animal proteins tend to be high quality while vegetable proteins tend to be low quality. The exception is soy protein which is quite high quality. What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph? The correct answer is: Denotation ----Refer to the given paragraph below on The Great Wall of China: The Great Wall, or Chang Cheng in Chinese, is massive. It begins in the east at the Yellow Sea, travels near China’s capital, Beijing, and continues west through numerous provinces. For thousands of miles, it winds like a snake through China’s varied terrain. Smaller walls extend from the main wall. According to conservative estimates, the Great Wall’s length is approximately 2,400 miles, its thickness ranges from 15-30 feet wide, and it reaches in height to about 25 feet. What type of description is used in the paragraph? The correct answer is: Objective description -----Read the following example of a definition paragraph: Soren Kierkegaard, another famous existentialist, comprehends absurd as a synonym to paradox. He defines it as a matter of faith and the only phenomena that allows a person to believe in self. According to his philosophy, a human being is a synthesis of opposites: eternal and temporary, finite and infinite, freedom and obligation. Due to the synthesis of these opposites in an individual’s consciousness, one constantly resides in fear and despair (Liam 194). And the more self-consciousness one possesses, the deeper these feelings are. The only way for salvation is faith in God and this is where absurd comes in. Kierkegaard refers to the biblical myth about Abraham and his son Isaac. According to this legend, God required Abraham to sacrifice his son to Him. In this case, Abraham’s faith led him to commit a crime; it transformed a murder into an act of charity and simultaneously, where faith had returned Isaac to his father alive. Faith cannot be logically argued, but it works and this is absurd. Individuals are free and this freedom lets them find their own way to God. (Source: https://academichelp.net/ …/a…/essays/definition/absurd.html…) What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph? The correct answer is: Extensive definition -----Given the following sentence from the story, Dead Stars: A round orange moon, "huge as a winnowing basket," rose lazily into a clear sky, whitening the iron roofs and dimming the lanterns at the windows. What is the figure of speech used for the round orange moon? The correct answer is: Simile -----The latin word from which the word "narration" comes The correct answer is: narrare Which of the following questions is not beneficial in exploring your topic? Answer: How does the issue relate to other public issues SHORT QUIZ 5. READING AND WRITING.. --Which of the following statements is not true according to the essay? The correct answer is: Volunteering is simply "working for free" --One advantage of volunteering is meeting new people. Which of the following is not one of the benefits it could yield? The correct answer is: have companions for future volunteer work --Which of the following is not said to be a health benefit of volunteering? The correct answer is: heals the body and mind of any mental and psychological problems --More and more employers are looking into volunteering experiences than personal skills. The correct answer is: True --What is the author's conclusion? The correct answer is: a summary of all the points that he/she presented in the essay. --Read the excerpt of a persuasive essay below and answer the following given questions. So, what makes Southeast Asia a tourism option you should consider? (1) The first reason is the prices all across the region: they are ridiculously low. (2) One of the first problems a backpacker needs to solve after arriving to a new country is accommodation. (3) In Southeast Asia—almost everywhere—accommodation is so cheap that for the money a tourist would spend on a hostel in Europe for one week, in this region, he or she could live one month! (4) See for yourself: if you go to Cambodia or Laos, a place in a dorm room would cost you somewhere between $2-5 per day. (5) A night in a Vietnamese hostel will cost you $8-10. Thailand is probably the most expensive in the list, with prices between $6-13. (6) If you are not fond of living with a bunch of unfamiliar people, get ready to pay only $15-20 for a private room. (7) Of course, these prices depend on cities—larger cities and popular tourist destinations will naturally be more expensive, but generally, throughout the entire Southeast Asia, you can find extremely cheap accommodation easily, especially considering there is no need to book a hostel in advance: basically, you show up and rent a room/bed in the spot (NomadicMatt). (8) So, if you are a tourist with a limited budget, worrying about a place to stay for a couple of weeks, Southeast Asia is your choice: living here is more than affordable. (9) By the way, the same refers to food. (10) Almost everywhere around Southeast Asia you will be able to find quality street food for low prices. (11) The price for a pack of chewing gum in the United States equals a huge portion of filling, exotic food in Vietnam. (12) As well as the “mainland” Asia, the region possesses ancient history and deep culture closely interconnected with Buddhism. (13) The ruins of Angkor Wat, Javans, Champa, pagodas of Bagan, millenary temples and shrines—all this and much more awaits a tourist discovering this part of Asia. (14) Relics of the past are so numerous that even if you spend a year in the region, you will probably not be able to see all of them. (15) Along with the ancient times, Southeast Asia has gone through intense political and military turmoils during the recent century. (16) The war in Vietnam, the terror of the Khmer Rouge, the destruction of Laos, Pacific navy battles, Japanese invasions—this is just a tiny part of what was going on here not so long ago. (17) Knowing about the hardships Southeast Asia had gone through, and witnessing its rapid development now, watching incredible contrasts intertwine and combine, it is difficult to not fall in love with this place. (18) Besides, if you are seeking for cultural diversity, Southeast Asia has it all: with such a diversity of languages, customs, ethnicities, religious beliefs, lifestyles, and fashions concentrated on such a relatively small piece of land, your immersion in the atmosphere of this place will be instant, deep, and impressive (Bootsnall.com). (19) Yet another good argument for a budget tourist visiting Southeast Asia is the convenience and affordability of transportation in the region. (20) Naturally, when you arrive to a new country, you do not want to spend your whole time in one city—you want to see all of what this country can offer, and this often implies using public transport, such as trains or buses. (21) Well, booking transportation in Southeast Asia is easier and cheaper than in many other regions of the world; every big city is flooded with travel agencies offering their services for almost no cost, and even getting to some distant islands is not a problem (Goatsontheroad.com). (22) A bus is usually the cheapest way to travel around the region: a 5-6 hours ride by a bus will cost you only $5-8. (23) Overnight buses are somewhat more costly —$10-15 dollars, depending on distance. (24) As for the transportation within big cities, there is only good news for a poor tourist. (25) For example, a bust around Bangkok costs only 10 cents, and the subway, $1. (26) The local train system of Singapore starts its pricing from $1 as well. (27) Taxis and minibuses are usually more expensive, but it is possible to bargain with the drivers, so you can get a price up to two times lower than the one initially suggested by a cab owner. (Nomadicmatt.com). (28) All of which means, in a nutshell, that you will be able to see everything you want, get everywhere, and spend a reasonable amount of money. (29) Southeast Asia is a unique region with ancient history, rich culture, incredible food, and unique experiences a traveler can get from visiting it. (30) With incredibly low accommodation prices, affordable food, and convenient transportation, this part of Asia is a number one choice for a budget tourist. (31) Therefore, when planning your next trip, you should definitely consider going there. QUESTIONS: Give the number of the sentence that conveys what is asked. Only one answer is required per question. Second reason presented by author on why Southeast Asia is a viable tourism option: Answer 9 =10 Correct An evidence of the second reason presented by the author. Answer 11 Correct A sentence which gives an evidence of the affordability of transportation in Southeast Asia. Answer 21 =22 =24 =25 =26 Correct The sentence concluding the first reason presented by the author. Answer 8 Correct The sentence concluding the paragraph on the diverse culture of Southeast Asia. Answer 17 =18 Correct Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences. The leaves of the trees waved in the wind .The correct answer is: Personification F. Identify the topic sentence. (A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should be solved in order not to confront in the near future big social problems such as bad economic circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth control, although may lead to religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to reduce the population growth rate. (C) Therefore, governments should begin programs of birth control even in a compulsory manner due to the fact that group survival is more important than individual freedom. The correct answer is: A "Brazilians are good at football." is an example of _____ Select one: a. Halo Effect b. Fad c. Stereotype d. Prejudice Question 2 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely random Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Scale-free network d. Random Network Question 3 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Information age is also known as Select one: a. Digital Age b. All of the answers are correct c. Computer Age d. New Media Age Question 4 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and becoming more common Select one: a. Fad b. Node c. Trend d. Synthesis Question 5 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Resistance to change is the tendency to react negatively to new ideas without giving fair consideration. Select one: True False Question 6 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In SWOT Analysis, _____ are elements or events that can cause problems Select one: a. Threats b. Strengths c. Opportunities d. Weaknesses Question 7 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Altered processes of validation means understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact. Select one: True False Question 8 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the mathematical term for a link. Select one: a. Edge b. Vertex c. Graph d. Node Question 9 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Universal Scepticism is not equal to critical thinking. Select one: True False Question 10 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In SWOT Analysis, _____ are the positive qualities and useful resources that you have. Select one: a. Threats b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Strengths Question 11 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is doing something while claiming to believe in the opposite. Select one: a. Hypocricy b. Cognitive dissonance c. Self-righteousness d. Saving face Question 12 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of distractions is also known as _____. Select one: a. Evaluation and authentication b. Anchoring c. Critical and creative thinking d. Contextualizing Question 13 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In SWOT Analysis, _____ are things that are out of your control. Select one: a. External Factors b. Weaknesses c. Strengths d. Internal Factors Question 14 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Person 1: First person shooter games like Call of Duty help children develop hand-eye coordination. Person 2: You're just saying that because you like violence. This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Circular Argument b. Post Hoc c. Ad Hoc d. Ad hominem Question 15 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the absence of knowledge coupled with the illusion of having knowledge. Select one: a. Double Ignorance b. Socratic Ignorance c. Simple Ignorance d. single ignorance Question 16 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text It is a scientific fact that sea levels are rising and the earth's surface is getting hotter. Select one: True False Question 17 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Coming up with a hypothesis is the first step of the Socratic Method. Select one: True False Question 18 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is a network in which most nodes are not directly linked but any two nodes are connected by short paths. Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Scale-free network Question 19 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a technology that allows sending, receiving, and processing of information wherever the users may be. Select one: a. Social Media b. Cloud computing c. Global warming d. Mobile computing Question 20 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Cloud computing uses clouds that are converted to transmit digital information. Select one: True False Question 21 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a mindset in which one considers himself or herself to be the center of everything. Select one: a. Social conformity b. Ethnocentrism c. Egocentrism d. Sociocentrism Question 22 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The call center industry is estimated to account for _____ of the Philippine economy? Select one: a. 30% b. 4% c. 10% d. 50% Question 23 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is an unjust opinion that is not based on critical thinking. Select one: a. Stereotype b. Ignorance c. Bias d. Prejudice Question 24 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A scale-free network is a complex network. Select one: True False Question 25 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following can be used as a guide for setting goals? Select one: a. SMART Criteria b. Critical thinking c. Strategic thinking d. SWOT Analysis Question 26 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a method that aims to discover a universal truth. Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Socratic method c. Scientific method d. Strategic Thinking Question 27 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time. Select one: a. Trend b. Pattern c. Fad d. Network Question 28 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation. Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Scientific method c. Socratic method d. Strategic thinking Question 29 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a type of bias in which our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person's specific qualities. Select one: a. Prejudice b. Conformity c. Halo Effect d. Stereotype Question 30 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What is the 1st criteria in SMART? Select one: a. Spontaneous b. Specific c. Systematic d. Simple Question 31 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is an informed guess that is based on gathered information Select one: a. Hypothesis b. Observation c. Analysis d. Strategy Question 32 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Tamagotchi is a Japanese delicacy that became an extremely popular in the Philippines during the late 1980's up to the early 90's. Select one: True False Question 33 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Information Age started on which decade? Select one: a. 1970's b. 1990's c. 1960's d. 2000's Question 34 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Acceptance of uncertainty means balancing what is known with the unknown...to see how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know. Select one: True False Question 35 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ are additional skills that learners need to have besides knowing how to use modern technologies Select one: a. 3Rs x 7Cs b. Technological fluency c. New literacies d. Computing and ICT literacy Question 36 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In this lesson, the fable about the monkeys was used as an example of _____ Select one: a. Social Conformity b. Social Conditioning c. Sociocentrism d. Halo Effect Question 37 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the belief of having higher or better moral standards than other people. Select one: a. Hypocricy b. Self-righteousness c. Resistance to change d. Saving face Question 38 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A node with a lot of links can be called a _____ Select one: a. Complex node b. Hub c. edge d. Power law Question 39 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have Select one: a. Scale-free network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Complex network Question 40 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the examination of trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future. Select one: a. Social Media b. Network Science c. Statistics d. Trend Analysis Question 41 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does R stand for in SMART? Select one: a. Realistic b. Reasonable c. Relevant d. Reliable Question 42 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is commonly known as "going with the flow" or "following the crowd." Select one: a. Social Conditioning b. Stereotype c. Social Conformity d. Halo Effect Question 43 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Internet became widely used by the public in the 1970's. Select one: True False Question 44 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does O stand for in SWOT? Select one: a. Offers b. Options c. Opportunities d. Output Question 45 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Network Science is the study of simple networks. Select one: True False Question 46 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does M stand for in SMART? Select one: a. Methodical b. Measurable c. Minimal d. Motivation Question 47 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Because of overpopulation and unequal economic development, people tend to settle in big cities, which results in the growth of shantytowns. Select one: True False Question 48 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ includes skills like operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the internet Select one: a. 5W1H b. Critical Thinking c. Strategic Thinking d. Technological Fluency Question 49 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the other. Select one: a. Complex network b. preferential attachment c. Random Network d. Power Law Question 50 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In what year did the Internet start in the Philippines? Select one: a. 2000 b. 1994 c. 1991 d. 1999 TRENDS LA8 QUESTION 1 Training is done by inputing large amounts of data called _____. Select one: c. Training examples QUESTION 2 _____ is the process of processing raw data and turning it into useful information. Select one: h. Data mining QUESTION 3 Each _____ in an artificial neural network performs a specific task Select one: h. Hidden layer QUESTION 4 One the desired result has been achieved, the information is passed on to the _____ Select one: f. Output layer QUESTION 5 What is the function of the given part of the neuron? Axons Select one: a. connected to the dendrites of other neurons b. acts like a factory that produces proteins c. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons d. contains most of our DNA e. sends out the neuron’s output TRENDS SQ8 QUESTION 1 The cell body is also known as _____. Select one: a. Dendrite b. Synapse c. Soma d. Axon QUESTION 2 Information enters the artificial neural network through the _____ Select one: a. Input layer QUESTION 3 What is the function of the given part of the neuron? Axon Terminal Select one: a. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons b. connected to the dendrites of other neurons c. acts like a factory that produces proteins d. contains most of our DNA e. sends out the neuron’s output QUESTION 4 _____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons Select one: a. Synapse b. Dendrite c. Soma d. Axon QUESTION 5 After the data has been received by an neural network, it is passed on to several _____ which perform specific tasks. Select one: a. Hidden layers b. Input layers c. Output layers d. Neural layers QUESTION 6 _____ is also known as a nerve cell. Select one: a. Axon b. Synapse c. Dendrite d. Neuron QUESTION 7 _____ is a cell that is capable of receiving, processing, and sending information in the form of very small electrical impulses. Select one: a. Synapse b. Axon c. Dendrite d. Neuron QUESTION 8 The human brain has approximately _____ neurons. Select one: a. 100 billion b. 1 million c. 100 million d. 100 thousand QUESTION 9 Information that enters an artificial neural network through the _____ Select one: a. Input layer b. Output layer c. Hidden layer d. Neural network QUESTION 10 _____ is a computing system that is modeled after the neural structure of the brain. Select one: a. Procedural neural network b. Software neural network c. Artificial neural network d. Structural neural network TRENDS LQ3 QUESTION 1 An average human brain has approximately 100 thousand neurons. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 2 _____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons Select one: a. Axon b. Synapse c. Soma d. Dendrite QUESTION 3 Social role is something that you have to do. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 4 _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node. Select one: a. Degree centrality b. Betweenness centrality c. Closeness centrality d. Social centrality QUESTION 5 Social status is something that you have to do. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 6 The social roles that come with a social status can change through time Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 7 The human brain is composed of 100 billion _____. Select one: a. Synapses b. Dendrites c. Neurons d. DNA’s QUESTION 8 Axon is also called soma Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 9 _____ is the way a society is organized. Select one: a. Social norm b. Social stratification c. Social structure d. Social status QUESTION 10 What is the first layer in an artificial neural network? Select one: a. Hidden layer b. Output layer c. Welcome layer d. Input layer QUESTION 11 What are informal rules and practices observed in a society Select one: a. Social rules b. Social norms c. Social structure d. Social stratification QUESTION 12 Social media sites create maps of the social connections of its users. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 13 Shaking hands, high five, peace sign, and other hand gestures are examples of social norms. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 14 _____ is something that you have. Select one: a. Social stratification b. Social norm c. Social role d. Social status QUESTION 15 _____is the process of studying social structures through network science. Select one: a. Social Network Science b. Social Networking c. Social Network Analysis d. Social Network Series QUESTION 16 What is the name of the sociologist who created the AGIL paradigm? Select one: a. Talcott Parsons b. Talcott Person c. Ascott Larson d. Talcott Pearson QUESTION 17 In real life, _____is measured by how many connections or social relationships you have. Select one: a. Degree centrality b. Betweenness centrality c. Closeness centrality d. Importance centrality QUESTION 18 What are considered as links in a social network? Select one: a. roles b. relationships c. norms d. people QUESTION 19 What is the name given to a group of people that are in constant interaction with each other? Select one: a. Society b. AGIL c. Stratification d. Network QUESTION 20 There can be several _____ in a neural network which perform specific tasks Select one: a. Hidden layers b. Input layers c. Output layers d. Neural layers QUESTION 21 The members of a society do not have to be in the same location Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 22 _____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has. Select one: a. Closeness centrality b. Social centrality c. Degree centrality d. Betweenness centrality QUESTION 23 _____ is something that you have to do. Select one: a. Social stratification b. Social role c. Social status d. Social norm QUESTION 24 In a society, people are categorized through _____. Select one: a. Social status b. Social norm c. Social structure d. Social stratification QUESTION 25 _____ is composed of software algorithms and/or hardware components and imitates the way the brain works. Select one: a. Artificial neural network b. Hardware neural network c. Biological neural network d. Software neural network QUESTION 26 A Nerve cell is also known as a _____. Select one: a. Neuron b. Dendrite c. Synapse d. Axon QUESTION 27 _____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network. Select one: a. Status b. Importance c. Centrality d. Neutrality QUESTION 28 _____ is the sum of the norms, responsibilities and expectations that applies to a person. Select one: a. Social role b. Social norm c. Social network d. Social status QUESTION 29 Betweenness centrality determines which node has the shortest average path to the other nodes in the network. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 30 _____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks. Select one: a. Artificial Learning b. Machine learning c. Artificial Intelligence d. Deep Learning TRENDS LA9 QUESTION 1 Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor Unemployment Select one: a. Pull b. Push QUESTION 2 Devastated by famine in the 1840’s because of potato blight Select one: h. Ireland QUESTION 3 Negative condition that drives people to leave a particular area Select one: c. Push factor QUESTION 4 Permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries Select one: f. Migration QUESTION 5 Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor Stable climate Select one: a. Push b. Pull TRENDS SQ9 QUESTION 1 _____ are conditions that attract people to a particular location. Select one: a. Pull factors b. Migration c. Refugees d. Push factors QUESTION 2 _____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries. Select one: a. Migration b. Citizenship c. Multiple Citizenship d. Immigration QUESTION 3 _____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a sovereign state Select one: a. Pull Factor b. Immigration c. Push Factor d. Citizenship QUESTION 4 In most cases, it is dangerous for a _____ to go back to his or her home country. Select one: a. Migrant b. Refugee c. Immigrant d. Dual Citizen QUESTION 5 A _____ is a person who has been forced to leave his or her country because of human conflict, natural disasters, or political persecution. Select one: a. Immigrant b. Dual Citizen c. Migrant d. Refugee QUESTION 6 Which event happened in the 1840’s and many people from Ireland to immigrate? Select one: a. Irish Potato Famine b. Irish Civil War c. Cold War d. Irish Gold Rush QUESTION 7 _____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area. Select one: a. Forced migration b. Pull factors c. Push factors d. Refugees QUESTION 8 What event started in 2011 and forced about 11 million people to leave their homes? Select one: a. Syrian Civil War b. California Gold Rush c. Cold War d. Migration of Filipinos QUESTION 9 _____ means moving to another country with the goal of becoming permanent residents. Select one: a. Dual Citizenship b. Citizenship c. Immigration d. Migration QUESTION 10 Flag question Question text _____ is when a person is a citizen of more than one country Select one: a. Migration b. Nationality c. Immigration d. Multiple citizenship TRENDS LA10 QUESTION 1 International trade leads to better product quality Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 2 The ASEAN Declaration was signed in Tokyo, Japan Select one: a. True b. False (BANGKOK) QUESTION 3 Expression of human creativity Select one: j. Art QUESTION 4 Specialized agency “responsible for coordinating international cooperation in education, science, culture and communication” Select one: j. UNESCO QUESTION 5 The UN had 21 founding members Select one: a. True b. False TRENDS SQ10 QUESTION 1 Composed of 28 members Select one: d. European Union QUESTION 2 International financial institution that provides loans to developing countries Select one: g. World Bank QUESTION 3 The WTO’s headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 4 Specialized economies are economies that rely on a particular kind of industry Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 5 International trade leads to lower prices Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 6 “One Vision, One Identity, One Community” Select one: i. ASEAN QUESTION 7 The Philippines is a Founding Member of ASEAN Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 8 Signed in Maastricht, Netherlands Select one: b. European Union QUESTION 9 Governmental actions that take place beyond the national level Select one: h. Political globalization QUESTION 10 Communication via written or spoken words Select one: d. Language TRENDS LQ4 QUESTION 1 The _____ is an international agency concerned with global public health Select one: a. UNESCO b. EU c. ASEAN d. WHO QUESTION 2 The WTO’s headquarters is in Paris, France Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 3 Which country experienced a famine in 1840’s caused by potato blight? Select one: a. East Germany b. Ireland c. Syria d. Rwanda QUESTION 4 Which organization has 28 member countries and was founded in November 1, 1993? Select one: a. World Health Organization b. United Nations c. European Union d. ASEAN QUESTION 5 The _____ was formed immediately after World War 2 and has 51 founding members. Select one: a. World Bank b. European Union c. World Trade Organization d. United Nations QUESTION 6 The conditions that attract people to a particular location are called _____. Select one: a. Pull factors b. Migration c. Push factors d. Immigration QUESTION 7 The ASEAN Declaration was signed in Bangkok, Thailand Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 8 Cambodia is a Founding Member of ASEAN Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 9 The S in UNESCO stands for Scientific Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 10 It is possible for a person to be a citizen of more than two countries. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 11 What is the official currency used by 19 member countries of the EU? Select one: a. Dollars b. Pound c. Euro d. European Dollar (EUD) QUESTION 12 ASEAN was founded on August 8, _____. Select one: a. 1967 b. 1957 c. 1975 d. 1965 QUESTION 13 _____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a country. Select one: a. Migration b. Immigration c. Refugee d. Citizenship QUESTION 14 Not all countries allow multiple citizenship. Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 15 Which intergovernmental organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”? Select one: a. European Union b. United Nations c. Association of Southeast Asian Nations d. UNESCO QUESTION 16 Which of the following is NOT a founding member of ASEAN? Select one: a. Thailand b. Brunei c. Singapore d. Philippines QUESTION 17 Saudi Arabia is the top destination for Filipino OFW’s. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 18 The conditions that drive people to leave a particular area are called _____. Select one: a. Refugees b. Citizenships c. Pull factors d. Push factors QUESTION 19 The WTO was established in January 1, 1996. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 20 Moving to another country with the goal of becoming a permanent resident is called _____ Select one: a. Citizenship b. Dual Citizenship c. Immigration d. Migration QUESTION 21 Question text _____ is the exchange of capital, goods, and services between entities from different countries. Select one: a. Specialization b. Globalization c. Social Organization d. International Trade QUESTION 22 Natural disasters such as earthquakes and typhoons are pull factors Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 23 _____ is another term for citizenship Select one: a. Refugee b. Nationality c. Famine d. Citizenship QUESTION 24 _____ is “the increasing interdependence of world economies as a result of the growing scale of crossborder trade of commodities and services, flow of international capital and wide and rapid spread of technologies.” Select one: a. Political Globalization b. Economic Globalization c. International trade d. Cultural Globalization QUESTION 25 _____is the international exchange of products, knowledge, and culture. Select one: a. Social Organization b. Specialization c. Globalization d. International Trade QUESTION 26 The E in UNESCO stands for _____. Select one: a. Economic b. Educational c. Environmental d. Entertainment QUESTION 27 In most cases, it is dangerous for a _____ to return home. Select one: a. Migrant b. Immigrant c. Refugee d. Citizen QUESTION 28 The _____ is an intergovernmental organization that regulates international trade. Select one: a. World Bank b. World Trade Organization c. United Nations d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations QUESTION 29 The UN had 51 founding members. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 30 Economies that rely on a particular kind of industry are called _____. Select one: a. Specialized Economies b. Developing Economies c. Developing Countries d. Special Economies TRENDS LA11 QUESTION 1 Magna Carta means “the Great Chapter”. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 2 Gettysburg Address Select one: f. Abraham Lincoln QUESTION 3 Freedom of expression is the right of every citizen to express his opinions without being censored or suppressed by others. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 4 Switzerland Select one: e. Direct democracy QUESTION 5 Freedom of assembly Select one: f. freedom of association TRENDS SQ11 QUESTION 1 The Ancient Greek word “demos” means _____. Select one: a. The Republic b. Power c. The people d. Strength QUESTION 2 _____ is the right of every citizen to voice out his or her opinions without being censored or suppressed by others. Select one: a. Freedom of speech b. Freedom of assembly c. Right to equal protection of the law d. Freedom of association QUESTION 3 Who gave the Gettysburg Address? Select one: a. Abraham Lincoln b. Aung San Suu Kyi c. Athens d. King John of England QUESTION 4 _____ is a government ruled by king, emperor, sultan, etc. Select one: a. Monarchy b. Roman Republic c. Oligarchy d. Democracy QUESTION 5 _____ is a form of government where power is held by a small group of people. Select one: a. Athenian Democracy b. Monarchy c. Democracy d. Oligarchy QUESTION 6 _____ is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in dialogue and decision making. Select one: a. Presidential Democracy b. Representative democracy c. Parliamentary Democracy d. Direct Democracy QUESTION 7 The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses? Select one: a. 62 b. 64 c. 65 d. 63 QUESTION 8 _____ is also known as freedom of association Select one: a. Freedom of expression b. Freedom of assembly c. Freedom of speech d. Right to due process and fair trial QUESTION 9 _____ is “a government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and exercised by them directly or indirectly through a system of representation usually involving periodically held free elections”. Select one: a. Oligarchy b. Republic c. Democracy d. Monarchy QUESTION 10 The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____. Select one: a. The Republic b. Power c. Democracy d. The people TRENDS LA12 QUESTION 1 National Aeronautics and Space Administration Select one: g. NASA QUESTION 2 Heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s atmosphere instead of escaping to space Select one: d. Greenhouse effect QUESTION 3 Movement of land masses Select one: h. Plate Tectonics QUESTION 4 A change in the typical or average weather of a region or city Select one: e. Climate change QUESTION 5 At least 97% of climate scientists agree that global warming is real and caused by humans. Select one: a. True b. False TRENDS SQ12 QUESTION 1 Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are examples of _____. Select one: a. deforestation b. fossil fuel c. greenhouse effect d. Greenhouse gasses QUESTION 2 _____ is a gas that is a byproduct of fertilizer use. Select one: a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Carbon d. Nitrous oxide QUESTION 3 What does ppm mean? Select one: a. Pieces per million b. Parts per million c. Particles per million d. People per millennium QUESTION 4 _____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city. Select one: a. Global warming b. Earth’s orbit c. Climate change d. Earth’s Axis QUESTION 5 _____ is what happens when more heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s athmosphere instead of being reflected back to space. Select one: a. Deforestation b. Greenhouse effect c. Plate tectonics d. Fossil Fuel QUESTION 6 _____ is the increase in the Earth’s overall atmospheric temperature. Select one: a. Climate change b. Global warming c. Deforestation d. Greenhouse Effect QUESTION 7 What is CO2? Select one: a. Carbon dioxide b. Carbon c. Nitrous oxide d. Fossil fuel QUESTION 8 _____ states that the land masses in our planet are moving in different directions Select one: a. Global warming b. Climate change c. Earth’s orbit d. Plate Tectonics Theory QUESTION 9 Within ideal levels _____ allow most of the sun’s radiation to escape the athmosphere so the Earth’s surface doesn’t get too hot but they also trap just enough heat to keep us from freezing. Select one: a. Ozone layer b. Climate change c. Greenhouse gases d. Fossil fuels QUESTION 10 The last _____ ended about 12 thousand years ago. Select one: a. Major Ice age b. Overpopulation c. Major Greenhouse effect d. Worldwide Global warming TRENDS LA1 Question 1 Which of the following terms correspond with: 1st century of the 3rd millennium Select one: j. 21st Century Question 2 Billions of people without access to resources and opportunities such as education, livelihood and health care. Select one: g. Extreme poverty Question 3 Which of the following terms correspond with: 10% of the Philippine economy Select one: a. call center industry Question 4 Which of the following terms correspond with: Internet in the Philippines Select one: h. 1994 Question 5 Which of the following terms correspond with: Portable computers & wireless Internet Select one: g. Mobile computing TRENDS SQ1 Question 1 Rising sea levels and increase on the Earth’s surface temperature are evidences of which 21st century challenge? Select one: a. Global warming b. Global migration c. Destruction of life in the oceans d. Spread of deserts Question 2 The Information age is also known as Select one: a. Computer Age b. New Media Age c. All of them d. Digital Age Question 3 _____ are internet-based technologies that are used to communicate and interact and relies on user participation Select one: a. Cloud Computing b. New Media c. Mobile Computing d. Social Media Question 4 Which of the following is NOT true? Select one: a. The call center industry is estimated to account for 10% of the Philippine economy. b. The world job market reduces opportunities for professionals in developing countries c. The call center industry is estimated to account for 3% of the Philippine economy. d. The world job market creates better opportunities for professionals in developing countries Question 5 Hand tools and manual labour were widely replaced by steam power and mass production during the _____. Select one: a. Stone Age b. Information Age c. Bronze Age d. Industrial Age Question 6 The Information age is said to have been started by the _____ Select one: a. Industrial Age b. Digital Revolution c. New Media Revolution d. Digital Age Question 7 Which of the following is true about the Information Age? Select one: a. The demand for technically skilled professionals declines b. The demand for manual labor increases c. The demand for manual labor declines d. The demand for technically skilled professionals and manual labor increases Question 8 Which of the following are requirements for mobile computing? Select one: a. fixed internet connection b. GPS-aided navigation c. search engine websites d. wireless Internet connection Question 9 The 21st century is the _____ Select one: a. first century of the second millennium b. 21st century of the third millennium c. First century of the 20th millennium d. first century of the third millennium Question 10 How many megaproblems were discussed in this lesson? Select one: a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 14 TRENDS LA2 Question 1 Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Evaluation and authentication - Determining the value of knowledge and ensuring authenticity. Answer: TRUE Question 2 Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Being human together - Understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact. Answer: FALSE Question 3 Match the definition with the correct term. Reading, Writing, and Arithmetic. Select one: b. 3R Skills Question 4 Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Navigate knowledge landscape - Balancing what is known with the unknown…to see how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know. Answer: FALSE Question 5 Match the definition with the correct term. Understanding, accepting, and knowing how to act properly when dealing with people from different backgrounds. Select one: a. Communications, information, and media literacy b. 21st Century Learning c. New Literacies d. Creativity and innovation e. Navigate knowledge landscape f. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership g. 3R Skills h. Technological fluency i. Career and learning self-reliance j. Cross-cultural understanding TRENDS SQ2 Question 1 Seeing how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know is part of _____ Select one: a. Acceptance of uncertainty b. Altered processes of validation c. Evaluation and authentication d. Critical and creative thinking Question 2 _____ involves determining the value of knowledge Select one: a. Connecting with each other b. Altered processes of validation c. Pattern recognition d. Evaluation and authentication Question 3 Knowing how to act properly when dealing with people from different backgrounds is a part of which competency? Select one: a. Creativity and innovation b. Cross-cultural understanding c. Computing and ICT literacy d. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership Question 4 Managing knowledge flow and extracting important elements is also known as Select one: a. Contextualizing b. Critical and creative thinking c. Filtering d. Anchoring Question 5 _____ are additional skills that learners need to have besides knowing how to use modern technologies Select one: a. Technological fluency b. Computing and ICT literacy c. Questioning and dreaming d. New literacies Question 6 _____ includes knowing how to effectively manage time, resources, and effort. Select one: a. Career and learning self-reliance b. Creativity and innovation c. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership d. Critical thinking and problem solving Question 7 What is the formula for 21st? Select one: a. 3Rs + 7Cs b. 7Cs - 3Rs c. 3Rs × 7Cs d. 3Cs × 7Rs Question 8 _____ is defined as the ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of distractions. Select one: a. Filtering b. Contextualizing c. Critical and creative thinking d. Anchoring Question 9 _____ involves knowing the context or the circumstances behind each person and idea Select one: a. Pattern recognition b. Connecting with each other c. Evaluation and authentication d. Altered processes of validation Question 10 _____ requires building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed. Select one: a. Evaluation and authentication b. Pattern recognition c. Altered processes of validation d. Connecting with each other TRENDS LA3 Question 1 Fill in the blank: Trends are a complete _____ of information from a wide variety of fields. Select one: d. synthesis Question 2 True or False: A fad is a pattern of change Answer: FALSE Question 3 Fill in the blank: A _____ can mean a new way of thinking, a new direction in technology or a major shift in culture. Select one: b. trend Question 4 True or False: Several fads can be a part of an ongoing trend. Answer: TRUE Question 5 True or False: In social media, the term “trending” can be used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention. Answer: TRUE TRENDS SQ3 Question 1 In social media what term is used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention? Select one: a. trending b. trendy c. fad d. trendsetter Question 2 True or False: Tamagotchi is one of the biggest fads of 2016. Answer: FALSE Question 3 _____ is defined as the examination of these trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future. Select one: a. Trending b. Trend Statistics c. Trend Science d. Trend Analysis Question 4 Anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time is called a _____ Select one: a. Synthesis b. Trend c. Pattern d. Fad Question 5 Which of the following is NOT true about trends? Select one: a. Trends use time frames to evaluate their evolution. b. Anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time then disappears almost entirely. c. Trends are a complete synthesis of information from a wide variety of fields. d. All trends use pattern identification and recognition to make predictions when talking about the future. Question 6 Which of the following is not a step in spotting trends? Select one: a. Predict the future b. Observe the present c. Study the past d. Connect the dots Question 7 True or False: The number of smartphone users has been steadily rising from 2014 up to the present. Answer: TRUE Question 8 True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s Answer: FALSE Question 9 Fill in the blank: Study the _____. Select one: a. past Question 10 Fill in the blank: Trends help predict the _____. Select one: a. Future TRENDS LQ1 (W4) Question 1 True or False: The 3R’s are Reading, ‘Riting, and Reasoning. Answer: false Question 2 True or False: During the Industrial Revolution further development of the diesel engine allowed for greater industrial applications which led to massive improvement in the manufacturing capabilities of various nation-states and private entities all over the world. Answer: false Question 3 How many megaproblems were discussed in Module 1? Select one: a. 15 b. 10 c. 16 d. 12 Question 4 The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year _____ Select one: a. 1760 b. 1770 c. 1670 d. 1869 Question 5 True or False: Trends are always obvious, especially in a large scale. Answer: false Question 6 The main difference between social media and other websites is that social media relies heavily on user _____. Select one: a. Payment b. Participation c. Transaction d. Reports Question 7 _____ is network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services? Select one: a. Social Media b. Cloud computing c. Trend d. Cloud Question 8 True or False: Mobile computing requires portable computers or mobile and wired Internet connection. Answer: false Question 9 _____ is “a general direction of change: a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and becoming more common.” Select one: a. Trend b. Fad c. Critical Thinking d. Network Question 10 True or False: A trend is anything that is popular for a short period of time then suddenly disappears. Answer: false Question 11 Basically, _____ is a pattern of change Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Fad c. Network d. Trend Question 12 The abundance and convenience of information in the 21st century is made possible by the continuing development of _____. Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Trends c. The Internet d. The Industrial Revolution Question 13 The Information age is said to have been started by the _____. Select one: a. Industrial Revolution b. Social Media Revolution c. Industrial Age d. Digital Revolution Question 14 _____ involves skills such as operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the Internet. Select one: a. Technological fluency b. Creativity and innovation c. Critical thinking d. New literacies Question 15 True or False: The 7C’s include Contextualizing. Answer: false Question 16 True or False: Cloud computing uses clouds that were converted to provide Internet-based services to users. Answer: false Question 17 What is the formula for 21st century learning? Select one: a. 3Rs × 7Cs b. 7Cs - 3Rs c. 3Cs × 7Rs d. 3Rs + 7Cs Question 18 The Industrial age is said to have been started by the _____ Select one: a. French Revolution b. Industrial Age c. Digital Age d. Industrial Revolution Question 19 The first Internet connection in the Philippines was established in what year? Select one: a. 1995 b. 1996 c. 1999 d. 1994 Question 20 Today, in the 21st century, advancements in telecommunications allow employers to _____ people from different parts of the world. Select one: a. Outsmart b. Outnumber c. Outsource d. Outsell Question 21 _____ of validation means “Validating people and ideas within an appropriate context.” Select one: a. Creative processes b. Connected processes c. Altered processes d. Increased processes Feedback Correct Marks for this submission: 1.00/1.00. Question 22 True or False: To spot a trend, first, you need to take a close look at what is currently happening. Answer: true Question 23 A _____ is anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time. Select one: a. Fad b. Network c. Trend d. Pattern Question 24 In social media, what term is used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention? Select one: a. hashtag b. trending c. Tweeting d. trendy Question 25 _____ is the examination of trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future. Select one: a. Trend Analysis b. Trend Science c. Social media science d. Network Science Question 26 In the Industrial age, hand tools and manual labor was replaced by _____ powered machinery and mass production Select one: a. Electricity b. Steam c. Horse d. Nuclear Question 27 Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram are examples of _____. Select one: a. New Media b. Social Media c. Internet d. Mobile Computing Question 28 The Information age is also known as Select one: a. Computer Age b. Digital Age c. New Media Age d. All of them Question 29 True or False: In the 21st century, the shift from digital to analog systems improved existing processes that were developed during the Industrial Age. Answer: false Question 30 True or False: A fad can be an indicator of the rise, fall, or continuation of a trend and several fads can be a part of an ongoing trend. Answer: TRUE TRENDS LA4 Question 1 Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking is NOT: Being open-minded Answer: C Question 2 Fill in the blanks: (Separate the answers with a comma) "Children must be taught HOW, WHAT to think, not ____ to think." - Margaret Mead. Marks for this submission: 1.00/1.00. Question 3 Fill in the blank: double ignorance is the lack of knowledge plus the belief of having knowledge. Question 4 Fill in the blank: The SCIENTIFIC METHOD is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation. Question 5 Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking is NOT: Come up with a new hypothesis Answer: B TRENDS SQ4 Question 1 The following are parts of the scientific method except _____ Select one: a. Observation b. Analysis c. Hypothesis d. Presentation Question 2 _____ is an evidence-based guess which is used a guide in finding the real answer Select one: a. Argument b. Hypothesis c. Ignorance d. Problem Solving Question 3 Which of the following is the final step in the Scientific Method? Select one: a. Observation b. Hypothesis c. Analysis d. Experimentation Question 4 _____ is a tool that can be used to determine which are the right questions to ask Select one: a. Socratic method b. Scientific method c. 5W1H d. Universal scepticism Question 5 _____ is considered valid if the result can be replicated by others. Select one: a. Observation b. Experimentation c. Conclusion d. Analysis Question 6 _____ aims to discover a universal truth. Select one: a. Thinking a lot b. Socratic method c. Critical Thinking d. Scientific method Question 7 Which of the following is the first step in the Scientific Method? Select one: a. Question b. Observation c. Hypothesis d. Analysis Question 8 A set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation is called the _____ Select one: a. Scientific method b. Critical Thinking c. Socratic method d. Thinking a lot Question 9 _____ is disciplined thinking that is clear, rational, open-minded, and informed by evidence Select one: a. Creative Thinking b. Critical Thinking c. Intuitive Thinking d. Strategic Thinking Question 10 Critical thinking promotes _____ by making us admit if our personal beliefs are wrong. Select one: a. Self awareness b. Problem solving c. Humility d. Intellectual independence TRENDS LA5 QUESTION 1 Match each example with the proper fallacy: When right, I’m right. Select one: h. Circular Argument QUESTION 2 Match each example with the proper fallacy: If you eat a slice of cake tonight, tomorrow, you will have two slices, then three, and after one month, you will be eating a whole cake per night. Select one: j. Slippery slope QUESTION 3 Match each example with the proper fallacy: The enemy of my enemy is my friend. h. False Dichotomy QUESTION 4 Match each example with the proper fallacy: I used this pen when I aced my exam. This pen is the reason why I aced my exam. Select one: g. Post Hoc QUESTION 5 Match each example with the proper fallacy: My dog has given birth twice and both times, there were three puppies. Her next litter will be three puppies for sure. Select one: i. Gambler’s Fallacy TRENDS SQ5 QUESTION 1 “All my previous boyfriends cheated on me. Men are all cheaters.” This is an example of _____. Select one: a. Circular Argument b. Gambler’s Fallacy c. False Analogy d. Hasty Generalization QUESTION 2 _____ is when individuals are trained to act in a manner that is deemed proper by society that they belong in. Select one: a. Social Conditioning b. Social Conformity c. Sociocentrism d. Ethnocentrism QUESTION 3 Our tendency to favour one thing over another is called _____ Select one: a. Bias b. Stereotype c. Prejudice d. Ego QUESTION 4 In this lesson, the fable about the monkeys was used as an example of _____ Select one: a. Sociocentrism b. Social Conformity c. Social Conditioning d. Halo Effect QUESTION 5 “You support gay marriage because you’re gay.” This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Gambler’s Fallacy b. Circular Argument c. Post Hoc d. Ad hominem QUESTION 6 “A Filipino taxi driver returned a bag that was full of cash. Filipinos are honest.” This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Straw Man b. Hasty Generalization c. Ethnocentrism d. Gambler’s Fallacy QUESTION 7 Following a fad without considering its possible negative effects is an example of _____ Select one: a. Ethnocentrism b. Social Conformity c. Sociocentrism d. Social Conditioning QUESTION 8 _____ is when our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person’s specific qualities. Select one: a. Superstition b. Straw man c. Halo effect d. Non Sequitur QUESTION 9 “It always rains when Dave is around. Don’t invite Dave.” This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Post Hoc b. Circular Argument c. Ad hominem d. Gambler’s Fallacy QUESTION 10 An opinion that is not based on critical thinking is called _____ Select one: a. Ego b. Stereotype c. Bias d. Prejudice TRENDS LA6 QUESTION 1 Correct Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Match the given term to its description: Weaknesses Select one: f. negative qualities QUESTION 2 Barry is a programmer and he is a candidate for promotion. Help him in his SWOT analysis by labelling the following factors. Write S for Strength, W for Weakness, O for Opportunity, and T for Threat: Some of the candidates have Masters Degrees while I only have a bachelor’s degree Answer: THREAT QUESTION 3 Barry is a programmer and he is a candidate for promotion. Help him in his SWOT analysis by labelling the following factors. Write S for Strength, W for Weakness, O for Opportunity, and T for Threat: Working overtime can boost my performance rating Answer: OPPORTUNITY QUESTION 4 Match the given term to its description: Intelligent Opportunism Select one: j. adapt to new developments QUESTION 5 Barry is a programmer and he is a candidate for promotion. Help him in his SWOT analysis by labelling the following factors. Write S for Strength, W for Weakness, O for Opportunity, and T for Threat: I’m not good at giving presentations Answer: WEAKNESS TRENDS SQ6 QUESTION 1 _____ means being mindful of the interconnection between the past, present, and the future. Select one: a. Thinking in Time b. Intelligent Opportunism c. Intent-focused d. Systems Perspective QUESTION 2 An informed guess that is based on gathered information Select one: a. Intent-focused b. Thinking in Time c. Hypothesis d. Hypothesis-driven QUESTION 3 _____ are things that are out of your control. Select one: a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. External Factors d. Internal Factors QUESTION 4 Positive qualities and useful resources that you have are considered as _____ Select one: a. Threats b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Strengths QUESTION 5 _____ can be defined as the ability to exploit new developments. Select one: a. SWOT Analysis b. Intent-focused c. Systems Perspective d. Intelligent Opportunism QUESTION 6 The following are parts of the SMART criteria except _____. Select one: a. Specific b. Attainable c. Measurable d. Realistic QUESTION 7 _____ is a method that is widely used by businesses to help create effective strategies Select one: a. Thinking in Time b. SMART CRITERIA c. Strategic thinking d. SWOT Analysis QUESTION 8 If you have limited capabilities and resources, you may have to set a more _____ goal Select one: a. Attainable b. Specific c. Relevant d. Measurable QUESTION 9 Adding a deadline to a goal makes it _____ Select one: a. Relevant b. Measurable c. Time-bound d. Specific QUESTION 10 _____ are elements or events that can cause problems Select one: a. Opportunities b. Weaknesses c. Strengths d. Threats TRENDS LQ2 QUESTION 1 A logical fallacy that is used to counter an argument by questioning the person who made the argument instead of the argument itself. Answer: AD HOMINEM QUESTION 2 A fallacy in which the conclusion does not follow the premise. Answer: NON SEQUITUR QUESTION 3 Following a fad without considering its possible negative effects is an example of _____ Select one: a. Sociocentrism b. Ethnocentrism c. Social Conditioning d. Social Conformity QUESTION 4 _____ is an opinion that is not based on critical thinking Select one: a. Ego b. Bias c. Stereotype d. Prejudice QUESTION 5 A fallacy in which one distorts or exaggerates an opposing argument. Answer: STRAW MAN QUESTION 6 A fallacy in which only a limited number of choices are presented without considering others that may exist. Answer: FALSE DICHOTOMY QUESTION 7 A fallacy that falsely assumes that something that happened before an event is the cause of that event. Answer: POST HOC QUESTION 8 In mathematical terms, a network is called a _____. Select one: a. Graph b. Complex Network c. Node d. Vertex QUESTION 9 _____ can be summed up as “I know that I do not know” Select one: a. Single Ignorance b. Double Ignorance c. Platonic Ignorance d. Socratic Ignorance QUESTION 10 The tendency to favour one thing over another is called _____ Select one: a. Bias b. Prejudice c. Ego d. Stereotype QUESTION 11 A set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation is called the _____ Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Thinking a lot c. Socratic method d. Scientific method QUESTION 12 An individual entity in a network is called a/an _____ Select one: a. Node b. Graph c. Edge d. Link QUESTION 13 _____ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely random Select one: a. Random Network b. Complex network c. Scale-free network d. Small world network QUESTION 14 ms, a link is called a/an _____. Select one: a. Vertex b. Graph c. Node d. Edge QUESTION 15 _____ aims to discover a universal truth. Select one: a. Socratic method b. Scientific method c. Thinking a lot d. Critical Thinking QUESTION 16 Absence of knowledge plus the illusion of having knowledge is known as _____ Select one: a. Socratic Ignorance b. Scientific Ignorance c. Double Ignorance d. Simple Ignorance QUESTION 17 _____ is an overly generalized description of members of a group Select one: a. Prejudice b. Sociocentrism c. Bias d. Stereotype QUESTION 18 A fallacy that happens when a conclusion or generalization is made without considering all the variables. Answer: HASTY GENERALIZATION QUESTION 19 Positive qualities and useful resources that you have are considered as _____ Select one: a. Threats b. Strengths c. Weaknesses d. Opportunities QUESTION 20 Which of the following is an internal factor in SWOT analysis? Select one: a. Specific b. Threats c. Weaknesses d. Opportunities QUESTION 21 A fallacy in which the conclusion of the argument is also used as the premise. Answer: CIRCULAR ARGUMENT QUESTION 22 A fallacy in which one tries to prove a point by comparing it to something that may look similar but is not really logically connected. Answer: FALSE ANALOGY QUESTION 23 The incorrect assumption that because something is happening frequently in the past, it will happen again in the future. Answer: GAMBLER’S FALLACY QUESTION 24 A _____ is a group of entities that are connected to each other. Select one: a. Network b. Link c. Node d. Vertex QUESTION 25 A _____ has few nodes with a lot of links and lot of nodes with few links. Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Scale-free network d. Random Network QUESTION 26 _____ is when our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person’s specific qualities. Select one: a. Non Sequitur b. Straw man c. Superstition d. Halo effect QUESTION 27 A _____ is a network in which most nodes are not directly linked but any two nodes are connected by short paths. Select one: a. Small world network b. Complex network c. Scale-free network d. Random Network QUESTION 28 A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the other. Select one: a. Random Network b. Power Law c. Complex network d. preferential attachment QUESTION 29 _____ is an evidence-based guess which is used as a guide in finding the real answer Select one: a. Problem Solving b. Argument c. Hypothesis d. Ignorance QUESTION 30 A node with a lot of links can be called a _____ Select one: a. edge b. Hub c. Power law d. Complex node TRENDS LA7 QUESTION 1 True or False: A small world network is a network where most nodes are directly linked. Answer: FALSE (NOT DIRECTLY) QUESTION 2 In mathematical terms, a link is called a/an EDGE. QUESTION 3 In mathematical terms, a node is called a/an VERTEX. QUESTION 4 A NETWORK is a group of entities that are connected to each other. QUESTION 5 True or False: Network science emerged as a field of study at the beginning of the 20st century. Answer: FALSE (20TH) TRENDS SQ7 QUESTION 1 The average size of a person’s social circle is 150-200. Willie’s social circle has 120, George’s has 170, Jessie’s has 350, and Lisa’s has 70. Which of them is a hub? Select one: a. Jessie b. George c. Willie d. Lisa QUESTION 2 Mary is going to France. From Manila, she takes a flight that goes to Singapore. From there, she boards another plane which goes to France. Considering that International air travel is a network, what kind of network is it? Select one: a. Random Network b. Small world network c. Social network d. Scale-free network QUESTION 3 A _____ has few nodes with a lot of links and lot of nodes with few links. Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Scale-free network d. Random Network QUESTION 4 A _____ is a group of entities that are connected to each other. Select one: a. Vertex b. Node c. Link d. Network QUESTION 5 A _____ is a network in which most nodes are not directly linked but any two nodes are connected by short paths. Select one: a. Small world network b. Scale-free network c. Random Network d. Complex network QUESTION 6 In mathematical terms, a network is called a _____. Select one: a. Node b. Vertex c. Complex Network d. Graph QUESTION 7 There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have. Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Scale-free network QUESTION 8 In mathematical terms, a link is called a/an _____. Select one: a. Edge b. Graph c. Node d. Vertex QUESTION 9 _____ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely random Select one: a. Complex network b. Random Network c. Scale-free network d. Small world network QUESTION 10 A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the other. Select one: a. Random Network b. Complex network c. Power Law d. preferential attachment TRENDS 3RD QE QUESTION 1 _____ is an unjust opinion that is not based on critical thinking. Select one: a. Ignorance b. Bias c. Stereotype d. Prejudice QUESTION 2 Person 1: First person shooter games like Call of Duty help children develop hand-eye coordination. Person 2: You're just saying that because you like violence. This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Ad Hoc b. Ad hominem c. Post Hoc d. Circular Argument QUESTION 3 A _____ is a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and becoming more common Select one: a. Synthesis b. Fad c. Trend d. Node QUESTION 4 _____ can be summed up as "I know that I do not know" Select one: a. Socratic Ignorance b. Double Ignorance c. Single Ignorance d. Simple Ignorance QUESTION 5 Acceptance of uncertainty means balancing what is known with the unknown...to see how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know. Select one: True False QUESTION 6 A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the other. Select one: a. Power Law b. Complex network c. Random Network d. preferential attachment QUESTION 7 _____ is commonly known as "going with the flow" or "following the crowd." Select one: a. Halo Effect b. Social Conditioning c. Stereotype d. Social Conformity QUESTION 8 _____is a network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services to users. Select one: a. The Internet b. Cloud Computing c. Digital Revolution d. The Cloud QUESTION 9 The Internet became widely used by the public in the 1970's. Select one: True False QUESTION 10 What is the formula for 21st Select one: a. 3Rs + 7Cs b. X + Y c. 7Cs - 3Rs d. 3Rs x 7Cs e. learning QUESTION 11 An individual entity in a network is called a_____ Select one: a. Node b. Link c. Graph d. Hub QUESTION 12 A group of entities that are connected to each other is called a _____. Select one: a. Link b. Node c. Vertex d. Network QUESTION 13 Hypothesis is the final phase of the Scientific Method. Select one: True False QUESTION 14 _____ is the mathematical term for a link. Select one: a. Vertex b. Edge c. Graph d. Node QUESTION 15 A fad is a pattern of change. Select one: True False QUESTION 16 What does M stand for in SMART? Select one: a. Measurable b. Methodical c. Motivation d. Minimal QUESTION 17 A _____ is a network in which most nodes are not directly linked but any two nodes are connected by short paths. Select one: a. Random Network b. Small world network c. Scale-free network d. Complex network QUESTION 18 Network Science is the study of simple networks. Select one: True False QUESTION 19 The Information age is also known as Select one: a. Computer Age b. New Media Age c. Digital Age d. All of the answers are correct QUESTION 20 _____ is the examination of trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future. Select one: a. Social Media b. Statistics c. Network Science d. Trend Analysis QUESTION 21 _____ is the discomfort that we feel when our personal beliefs are being challenged. Select one: a. Self-righteousness b. Cognitive dissonance c. comfort zone QUESTION 22 There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have Select one: a. Small world network b. Complex network c. Random Network d. Scale-free network QUESTION 23 _____ involves determining the value of knowledge Select one: a. Critical and creative thinking b. Anchoring c. Contextualizing d. Evaluation and authentication QUESTION 24 Which of the following can be used as a guide for setting goals? Select one: a. SWOT Analysis b. Strategic thinking c. SMART Criteria d. Critical thinking QUESTION 25 _____ is the belief of having higher or better moral standards than other people. Select one: a. Self-righteousness b. Saving face c. Resistance to change d. Hypocricy QUESTION 26 In mathematical terms, a network is called a _____. Select one: a. Node b. Graph c. Vertex d. Complex Network QUESTION 27 The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year 1960 when hand tools and manual labor was replaced by steam-powered machinery and mass production. Select one: True False QUESTION 28 Tamagotchi is a Japanese delicacy that became an extremely popular in the Philippines during the late 1980's up to the early 90's. Select one: True False QUESTION 29 _____ is a technology that allows sending, receiving, and processing of information wherever the users may be. Select one: a. Global warming b. Cloud computing c. Mobile computing d. Social Media QUESTION 30 The ability to stay focused on important tasks while undergoing a deluge of distractions is also known as _____. Select one: a. Critical and creative thinking b. Contextualizing c. Anchoring d. Evaluation and authentication QUESTION 31 Resistance to change is the tendency to react negatively to new ideas without giving fair consideration. Select one: True False QUESTION 32 Building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed is necessary in _____ Select one: a. Altered processes of validation b. Pattern recognition c. Evaluation and authentication d. Connecting with each other QUESTION 33 _____ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely random Select one: a. Scale-free network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Complex network QUESTION 34 _____ includes skills like operating computers and mobile devices and navigating the internet Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. 5W1H c. Technological Fluency d. Strategic Thinking QUESTION 35 An example of saving face is denying to have said something after being proven wrong. Select one: True False QUESTION 36 _____ is an informed guess that is based on gathered information Select one: a. Hypothesis b. Strategy c. Observation d. Analysis QUESTION 37 A random network is a complex network Select one: True False QUESTION 38 It is a scientific fact that sea levels are rising and the earth's surface is getting hotter. Select one: True False QUESTION 39 What is the 1st criteria in SMART? Select one: a. Simple b. Specific c. Spontaneous d. Systematic QUESTION 40 Universal Scepticism is not equal to critical thinking. Select one: True False QUESTION 41 _____ is a mindset in which one considers himself or herself to be the center of everything. Select one: a. Sociocentrism b. Ethnocentrism c. Egocentrism d. Social conformity QUESTION 42 "Brazilians are good at football." is an example of _____ Select one: a. Prejudice b. Halo Effect c. Fad d. Stereotype QUESTION 43 _____ is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation. Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Socratic method c. Scientific method d. Strategic thinking QUESTION 44 The Information Age started on which decade? Select one: a. 1960's b. 1970's c. 2000's d. 1990's QUESTION 45 A scale-free network is a complex network. Select one: True False QUESTION 46 In SWOT Analysis, _____ are elements or events that can cause problems Select one: a. Weaknesses b. Threats c. Strengths d. Opportunities QUESTION 47 In this lesson, the fable about the monkeys was used as an example of _____ Select one: a. Halo Effect b. Sociocentrism c. Social Conditioning d. Social Conformity QUESTION 48 In SWOT Analysis, _____ are the positive qualities and useful resources that you have. Select one: a. Weaknesses b. Opportunities c. Threats d. Strengths QUESTION 49 "Creativity and innovation" is one of the 7C's. Select one: True False QUESTION 50 A node with a lot of links can be called a _____ Select one: a. Hub b. Power law c. edge d. Complex node TRENDS LA9 QUESTION 1 The way a society is organized Select one: j. Social structure QUESTION 2 It is also possible for a society to be composed of people from different places. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 3 The social roles that come with a social status can change through time Select one: a. False b. True QUESTION 4 Closeness centrality determines which node has the shortest average path to the other nodes in the network. Select one: a. True b. False QUESTION 5 Measure of importance of a node in a network Select one: i. Centrality TRENDS SQ9 QUESTION 1 _____ is the things that we do in order to survive. Select one: a. Latency b. Goal attainment c. Adaptation d. Integration QUESTION 2 _____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has. Select one: a. Betweenness centrality b. Closeness centrality c. Social centrality d. Degree centrality QUESTION 3 People are the _____ in a social network Select one: a. Nodes b. Answer c. Networks d. Links QUESTION 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is an informal rule or practice that governs the behaviour of the members of a society. Select one: a. Social status b. Social structure c. Social norm d. Social stratification QUESTION 5 _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node. Select one: a. Closeness centrality b. Betweenness centrality c. Degree centrality d. Social centrality QUESTION 6 _____ is society’s way of ranking people based on factors such as wealth, intellect, power, etc. Select one: a. Social structure b. Social status c. Social norm d. Social stratification QUESTION 7 _____ is a group of people that constantly interact with each other. Select one: a. Society b. Social status c. Social norm d. Social stratification QUESTION 8 _____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network. Select one: a. Neutrality b. Centrality c. Importance d. Intensity QUESTION 9 ____ is the position of a person in a society. Select one: a. Social stratification b. Social structure c. Social status d. Social norm QUESTION 10 _____ is a part that a person is expected to play in a society. Select one: a. Social role b. Social status c. Stratification d. Social norm ___ is a network that has a structure and behavior that is neither totally predictable nor completely random Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Scale-free network Question 2 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text An individual entity in a network is called a_____ Select one: a. Node b. Link c. Graph d. Hub Question 3 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Resistance to change is the tendency to react negatively to new ideas without giving fair consideration. Select one: True False Question 4 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is anything that is extremely popular for a short period of time. Select one: a. Trend b. Fad c. Pattern d. Network Question 5 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Information age is also known as Select one: a. Digital Age b. Computer Age c. All of the answers are correct d. New Media Age Question 6 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ involves determining the value of knowledge Select one: a. Anchoring b. Contextualizing c. Critical and creative thinking d. Evaluation and authentication Question 7 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text "Brazilians are good at football." is an example of _____ Select one: a. Prejudice b. Halo Effect c. Stereotype d. Fad Question 8 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Industrial Age is an era that started around the year 1960 when hand tools and manual labor was replaced by steam-powered machinery and mass production. Select one: True False Question 9 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a set of techniques used to conduct a systematic and credible investigation. Select one: a. Critical Thinking b. Socratic method c. Strategic thinking d. Scientific method Question 10 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Network Science is the study of simple networks. Select one: True False Question 11 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is a way of behaving, proceeding, etc. that is developing and becoming more common Select one: a. Node b. Synthesis c. Trend d. Fad Question 12 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In what year did the Internet start in the Philippines? Select one: a. 1994 b. 1999 c. 1991 d. 2000 Question 13 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed is necessary in _____ Select one: a. Altered processes of validation b. Connecting with each other c. Evaluation and authentication d. Pattern recognition Question 14 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ is a statistical relationship between two quantities in which change in one quantity affects the other. Select one: a. Complex network b. Power Law c. Random Network d. preferential attachment Question 15 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is doing something while claiming to believe in the opposite. Select one: a. Saving face b. Self-righteousness c. Cognitive dissonance d. Hypocricy Question 16 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Altered processes of validation means understanding implications, comprehending meaning and impact. Select one: True False Question 17 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The Internet became widely used by the public in the 1970's. Select one: True False Question 18 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does M stand for in SMART? Select one: a. Measurable b. Methodical c. Motivation d. Minimal Question 19 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Critical thinking means thinking a lot and being open minded. Select one: True False Question 20 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a type of bias in which our general impression of a person, irrationally affects our opinion of that person's specific qualities. Select one: a. Prejudice b. Conformity c. Stereotype d. Halo Effect Question 21 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In SWOT Analysis, _____ are the positive qualities and useful resources that you have. Select one: a. Threats b. Strengths c. Weaknesses d. Opportunities Question 22 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is an unjust opinion that is not based on critical thinking. Select one: a. Bias b. Ignorance c. Stereotype d. Prejudice Question 23 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What is the formula for 21st Select one: a. 7Cs - 3Rs b. learning c. 3Rs + 7Cs d. X + Y e. 3Rs x 7Cs Question 24 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text There is a limit to how many or how few links a node in a _____can have Select one: a. Complex network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Scale-free network Question 25 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Cloud computing uses clouds that are converted to transmit digital information. Select one: True False Question 26 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In this lesson, the fable about the monkeys was used as an example of _____ Select one: a. Social Conditioning b. Social Conformity c. Sociocentrism d. Halo Effect Question 27 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In mathematical terms, a network is called a _____. Select one: a. Vertex b. Complex Network c. Node d. Graph Question 28 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the examination of trends and speculation on the likely impact they will have in the future. Select one: a. Statistics b. Network Science c. Social Media d. Trend Analysis Question 29 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____is a network of servers that work together to provide Internet-based services to users. Select one: a. The Internet b. Digital Revolution c. The Cloud d. Cloud Computing Question 30 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Universal Scepticism is not equal to critical thinking. Select one: True False Question 31 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the absence of knowledge coupled with the illusion of having knowledge. Select one: a. Socratic Ignorance b. Double Ignorance c. Simple Ignorance d. single ignorance Question 32 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a method that aims to discover a universal truth. Select one: a. Strategic Thinking b. Critical Thinking c. Socratic method d. Scientific method Question 33 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text It is a scientific fact that sea levels are rising and the earth's surface is getting hotter. Select one: True False Question 34 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the tendency to favour one thing over another. Select one: a. Bias b. Prejudice c. Trend d. Ego Question 35 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following can be used as a guide for setting goals? Select one: a. Strategic thinking b. SWOT Analysis c. Critical thinking d. SMART Criteria Question 36 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Tamagotchi is a Japanese delicacy that became an extremely popular in the Philippines during the late 1980's up to the early 90's. Select one: True False Question 37 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ can be summed up as "I know that I do not know" Select one: a. Single Ignorance b. Double Ignorance c. Socratic Ignorance d. Simple Ignorance Question 38 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A fad is a pattern of change. Select one: True False Question 39 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ are additional skills that learners need to have besides knowing how to use modern technologies Select one: a. Computing and ICT literacy b. Technological fluency c. New literacies d. 3Rs x 7Cs Question 40 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is commonly known as "going with the flow" or "following the crowd." Select one: a. Social Conditioning b. Stereotype c. Social Conformity d. Halo Effect Question 41 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does R stand for in SMART? Select one: a. Relevant b. Reasonable c. Realistic d. Reliable Question 42 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A node with a lot of links can be called a _____ Select one: a. edge b. Hub c. Power law d. Complex node Question 43 Not yet answered Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The call center industry is estimated to account for _____ of the Philippine economy? Select one: a. 50% b. 4% c. 10% d. 30% Question 44 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Person 1: First person shooter games like Call of Duty help children develop hand-eye coordination. Person 2: You're just saying that because you like violence. This is an example of _____ Select one: a. Post Hoc b. Circular Argument c. Ad hominem d. Ad Hoc Question 45 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What does O stand for in SWOT? Select one: a. Opportunities b. Offers c. Options d. Output Question 46 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is the belief of having higher or better moral standards than other people. Select one: a. Hypocricy b. Resistance to change c. Saving face d. Self-righteousness Question 47 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A group of entities that are connected to each other is called a _____. Select one: a. Vertex b. Node c. Link d. Network Question 48 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text In SWOT Analysis, _____ are things that are out of your control. Select one: a. Internal Factors b. Weaknesses c. External Factors d. Strengths Question 49 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text A _____ has few nodes with a lot of links and lot of nodes with few links. Select one: a. Scale-free network b. Small world network c. Random Network d. Complex network Question 50 Answer saved Marked out of 1.00 Flag question Question text What is the 1st criteria in SMART? Select one: a. Spontaneous b. Simple c. Specific d. Systematic 1. The social roles that come with a social status can change through time Select one: a. True b. False 2. _____ is the things that we do in order to survive. Select one: a. Adaptation b. Integration c. Goal attainment d. Latency 3. The term “neural network” can only apply to biological neural networks Select one: a. False b. True 4. _____ is the way a society is organized. Select one: a. Social structure b. Social status c. Social norm d. Social stratification 5. The relationships between people are the _____ in a network. Select one: a. Links b. Nodes c. AGIL d. Networks 6. People are the _____ in a social network Select one: a. Answer b. Links c. Networks d. Nodes 7. What is the rank or position of a person in a society. Select one: a. Social structure b. Social norm c. Social stratification d. Social status 8. What is the function of the given part of the neuron? Axons Select one: a. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons b. acts like a factory that produces proteins c. sends out the neuron’s output d. connected to the dendrites of other neurons e. contains most of our DNA 9. What is the name of the sociologist who created the AGIL paradigm? Select one: a. Talcott Parsons b. Talcott Person c. Talcott Pearson d. Ascott Larson 10. Society’s way of categorizing people Select one: a. Integration b. Social norms c. Social Stratification d. Centrality e. Social Status f. Social structure g. Society h. Social Roles i. Goal j. Adaptation 11. Involves the inherent need to connect with other human beings Select one: a. Centrality b. Integration c. Society d. Social Stratification e. Adaptation f. Social Roles g. Social Status h. Social structure i. Goal j. Social norms 12. _____ is the network inside the brain composed of interconnected neurons. Select one: a. Biological Neural Network b. Artificial Neural Network c. Social Neural Network d. Brain Neural Network 13. _____ is measured based on the number of links that a node has. Select one: a. Social centrality b. Betweenness centrality c. Degree centrality d. Closeness centrality 14. _____ is society’s way of ranking people based on factors such as wealth, intellect, power, etc. Select one: a. Social norm b. Social structure c. Social status d. Social stratification 15. Shaking hands, high five, peace sign, and other hand gestures are examples of social norms. Select one: a. True b. False 16. Training is done by inputing large amounts of data called _____. Select one: a. Neurons b. Training examples c. Training d. Machine learning e. Input layer f. Deep learning g. Artificial neural networks h. Data mining i. Hidden layer j. Output layer 17. _____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks. Select one: a. Neurons b. Data mining c. Training examples d. Training e. Machine learning f. Hidden layer g. Output layer h. Input layer i. Deep learning j. Artificial neural networks 18. _____ is something that you have. Select one: a. Social status b. Social stratification c. Social norm d. Social role 19. _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node. Select one: a. Social centrality b. Closeness centrality c. Degree centrality d. Betweenness centrality 20. What are informal rules and practices observed in a society Select one: a. Social norms b. Social rules c. Social structure d. Social stratification 21. _____ is a computing system that is modeled after the neural structure of the brain. Select one: a. Artificial neural network b. Software neural network c. Structural neural network d. Procedural neural network 22. An average human brain has approximately 100 thousand neurons. Select one: a. True b. False 23. Positive condition that attracts people to a particular location Select one: a. Saudi Arabia b. Immigration c. Refugee d. Nationality e. California f. Push factor g. Ireland h. Migration i. Pull factor j. Citizen 24. The Filipino tradition of pagmamano is an example of _____. Select one: a. Social status b. Social centrality c. Social norm d. Stratification 25. _____ is measured by how many indirect connections passes through a node. Select one: a. Degree centrality b. Closeness centrality c. Social centrality d. Betweenness centrality 26. International trade leads to better product quality Select one: a. True b. False 27. _____ is a subfield of Computer Science that is concerned with creating computers that can “learn” without having to be programmed by humans. Select one: a. Machine learning b. Deep Learning c. Artificial Learning d. Artificial Intelligence 28. Involves the inherent need to connect with other human beings Select one: a. Social Stratification b. Social Roles c. Goal d. Integration e. Centrality f. Social Status g. Adaptation h. Social norms i. Social structure j. Society 29. Rank or position of a person in a society Select one: a. Goal b. Society c. Social Status d. Adaptation e. Social structure f. Integration g. Social Roles h. Centrality i. Social Stratification j. Social norms 30. There can be several _____ in a neural network which perform specific tasks Select one: a. Input layers b. Hidden layers c. Output layers d. Neural layers 31. International financial institution that provides loans to developing countries Select one: a. United Nations b. ASEAN c. European Union d. Art e. UNESCO f. Language g. World Bank h. World Trade Organization i. Political globalization j. Treaty on European Union 32. What is the function of the given part of the neuron? Axon Terminal Select one: a. branch out to different directions and connect to other neurons b. sends out the neuron’s output c. connected to the dendrites of other neurons d. contains most of our DNA e. acts like a factory that produces proteins 33. Information enters the artificial neural network through the _____ Select one: a. Input layer b. Neurons c. Output layer d. Machine learning e. Artificial neural networks f. Hidden layer g. Training h. Training examples i. Data mining j. Deep learning 34. Social role is something that you have to do. Select one: a. False b. True 35. Choose push if item is a push factor and pull if item is pull factor Free health care Select one: a. Push b. Pull 36. Another term for citizenship Select one: a. Saudi Arabia b. Migration c. Refugee d. Pull factor e. Citizen f. Ireland g. Immigration h. California i. Nationality j. Push factor 37. Switzerland Select one: a. Direct democracy b. freedom of association c. ekklesia d. Magna Carta e. consul f. Abraham Lincoln g. power h. freedom of speech i. the people j. jury 38. Not all countries allow multiple citizenship. Select one: a. False b. True 39. _____ is the movement of organisms from one place to another. Select one: a. Nationality b. Migration c. Immigration d. Citizenship 40. The _____ was formed immediately after World War 2 and has 51 founding members. Select one: a. World Trade Organization b. United Nations c. World Bank d. European Union 41. Group that decides the outcome of a court trial Select one: a. consul b. Direct democracy c. freedom of speech d. Abraham Lincoln e. freedom of association f. Magna Carta g. ekklesia h. the people i. jury j. power 42. Representative democracy is a type of democracy where officials are elected by the citizens to act in their behalf. Select one: a. False b. True 43. Which country experienced a famine in 1840’s caused by potato blight? Select one: a. Ireland b. Syria c. East Germany d. Rwanda 44. The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses? Select one: a. 65 b. 62 c. 64 d. 63 45. The UN had 51 founding members. Select one: a. False b. True 46. _____ is “the increasing interdependence of world economies as a result of the growing scale of cross-border trade of commodities and services, flow of international capital and wide and rapid spread of technologies.” Select one: a. Cultural Globalization b. Political Globalization c. Economic Globalization d. International trade 47. Kratos Select one: a. jury b. ekklesia c. consul d. freedom of speech e. freedom of association f. the people g. Abraham Lincoln h. Direct democracy i. power j. Magna Carta 48. Representative democracy is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in dialogue and decision making. Select one: a. False b. True 49. _____ is also known as freedom of association Select one: a. Right to due process and fair trial b. Freedom of assembly c. Freedom of speech d. Freedom of expression 50. The E in UNESCO stands for _____. Select one: a. Entertainment b. Environmental c. Economic d. Educational 51. ASEAN was founded on August 8, _____. Select one: a. 1975 b. 1965 c. 1967 d. 1957 52. The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____. Select one: a. The Republic b. Democracy c. Power d. The people 53. It is possible for a person to be a citizen of more than two countries. Select one: a. True b. False 54. Natural disasters such as earthquakes and typhoons are pull factors Select one: a. False b. True 55. Freedom of assembly Select one: a. consul b. freedom of speech c. the people d. Direct democracy e. power f. jury g. freedom of association h. Abraham Lincoln i. Magna Carta j. ekklesia 56. What is the official currency used by 19 member countries of the EU? Select one: a. Euro b. Pound c. European Dollar (EUD) d. Dollars 57. The conditions that drive people to leave a particular area are called _____. Select one: a. Refugees b. Citizenships c. Pull factors d. Push factors 58. The S in UNESCO stands for Scientific Select one: a. True b. False 59. The democratic system practiced in Ancient Athens is an example of _____. Select one: a. Parliamentary Democracy b. Direct Democracy c. Representative democracy d. Presidential Democracy 60. The conditions that attract people to a particular location are called _____. Select one: a. Push factors b. Immigration c. Migration d. Pull factors 61. Moving to another country with the goal of becoming a permanent resident is called _____ Select one: a. Citizenship b. Migration c. Dual Citizenship d. Immigration 62. Demos Select one: a. the people b. ekklesia c. Abraham Lincoln d. freedom of speech e. freedom of association f. power g. Direct democracy h. consul i. Magna Carta j. jury 63. _____ is caused by an increase of greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere. Select one: a. Greenhouse effect b. Fossil Fuel c. Deforestation d. Plate tectonics 64. Cambodia is a Founding Member of ASEAN Select one: a. False b. True 65. Democracy is a “government of the people, by the people, for the people” Select one: a. True b. False 66. _____ is a form of government where power is held by a small group of people. Select one: a. Athenian Democracy b. Monarchy c. Democracy d. Oligarchy 67. Gettysburg Address Select one: a. freedom of association b. Abraham Lincoln c. freedom of speech d. power e. the people f. Magna Carta g. jury h. Direct democracy i. consul j. ekklesia 68. Movement of land masses Select one: a. Climate change b. Deforestation c. Fossil fuel d. NASA e. Greenhouse effect f. Plate Tectonics g. Global warming h. Greenhouse gases i. Methane j. Ellipse 69. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are examples of _____. Select one: a. Greenhouse gasses b. fossil fuel c. greenhouse effect d. deforestation 70. Which intergovernmental organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”? Select one: a. European Union b. United Nations c. UNESCO d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations 71. Ancient Rome is believed to be the first sovereign state to officially have a democratic government. Select one: a. False b. True 72. _____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city. Select one: a. Global warming b. Climate change c. Earth’s orbit d. Earth’s Axis 73. _____ is a type of democracy where members can personally participate in dialogue and decision making. Select one: a. Representative democracy b. Parliamentary Democracy c. Direct Democracy d. Presidential Democracy 74. _____ are economies that rely on a particular kind of industry. Select one: a. Specialized Economies b. Developing Countries c. Special Economies d. Developing Economies 75. The amount of energy that is released by the sun changes from time to time. Select one: a. False b. True 76. _____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area. Select one: a. Push factors b. Pull factors c. Forced migration d. Refugees 77. UNESCO stands for United Nations Economic, Scientific and Cultural Organization Select one: a. True b. False 78. Social role is something that you have. Select one: a. True b. False 79. Who said “Democracy is when the people keep a government in check.” Select one: a. Abraham Lincoln b. King John of England c. Aung San Suu Kyi d. Scipio Africanus 80. The _____ was founded immediately after World War 2. The Philippine Commonwealth was a founding member. Select one: a. European Union b. World Bank c. United Nations d. ASEAN 81. The human brain has approximately _____ neurons. Select one: a. 100 million b. 100 billion c. 100 thousand d. 1 million 82. The Increase in _____ in the Earth’s atmosphere contributes to global warming Select one: a. Fossil fuels b. Greenhouse gases c. Ozone layer d. Climate change 83. The _____ in a social network are people. Select one: a. Links b. Nodes c. Networks d. Answer 84. What event started in 2011 and forced about 11 million people to leave their homes? Select one: a. Migration of Filipinos b. California Gold Rush c. Cold War d. Syrian Civil War 85. Which of the Following is a proof of global warming? Select one: a. All of these b. Rising global temperature c. Decreasing Land Ice d. Rising sea level 86. The tilt of the Earth’s axis is permanent. Select one: a. False b. True 87. Which organization has the motto “One Vision, One Identity, One Community” Select one: a. European Union b. United Nations c. Association of Southeast Asian Nations d. World Bank 88. Global Warming is mainly due to an intensified Select one: a. Plate tectonic b. Greenhouse effect c. Sunlight d. Intensity 89. _____ is also known as a nerve cell. Select one: a. Axon b. Dendrite c. Synapse d. Neuron 90. _____ is the measure of importance of a node in a network. Select one: a. Centrality b. Importance c. Neutrality d. Intensity 91. _____ is the way a society is organized. Select one: a. Social norm b. Social structure c. Social status d. Social stratification 92. The hottest year on record is 2015. Select one: a. False b. True 93. The _____ is an Intergovernmental economic system that guarantees free movement of the 4 freedoms. Select one: a. European Single Market b. International Single Market c. International World Trade d. European Central Market 94. Which organization has the motto "United in diversity" Select one: a. ASEAN b. European Union c. World Health Organization d. United Nations 95. What is the official of most of the members of the European Union? Select one: a. Pound b. Dollars c. Euro d. German Franc 96. _____ are thin fibers that branch out of the cell body and connects to other neurons Select one: a. Axon b. Soma c. Dendrite d. Synapse 97. The WTO’s headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland. Select one: a. True b. False 98. _____ is a computing system that is modeled after the structure of the brain. Select one: a. Artificial neural network b. Procedural neural network c. Structural neural network d. Software neural network 99. The World Trade Organization has 154 member countries. Select one: a. True b. False 100. _____ is when a person is a citizen of more than one country Select one: a. Multiple citizenship b. Immigration c. Nationality d. Migration 101. "United in diversity" is ASEAN’s motto. Select one: a. True b. False 102. _____ is determined by measuring the average length of a node’s path to other nodes. Select one: a. Betweenness centrality b. Social centrality c. Closeness centrality d. Degree centrality 103. The _____ provides loans to developing countries. Select one: a. United Nations b. World Trade Organization c. European Union d. World Bank 104. _____ is a subfield of Computer Science that is concerned with creating computers that can “learn” without having to be programmed by humans. Select one: a. Deep Learning b. Artificial Intelligence c. Artificial Learning d. Machine learning 105. A majority of Japanese people celebrate Christmas as a religious tradition Select one: a. False b. True 106. What does ppm mean? Select one: a. Pieces per million b. People per millennium c. Parts per million d. Particles per million 107. There are 5 known major Ice ages in our planet’s history. Select one: a. True b. False 108. ASEAN has 10 member states. Select one: a. False b. True 109. _____is the international exchange of products, knowledge, and culture. Select one: a. Specialization b. Social Organization c. Globalization d. International Trade 110. Social status is something that you have to do. Select one: a. False b. True 111. _____ is the rank or position of a person in a society. Select one: a. Social structure b. Social status c. Social stratification d. Social norm 112. WHO stands for World Health Organization. Select one: a. False b. True 113. _____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries. Select one: a. Citizenship b. Migration c. Immigration d. Multiple Citizenship 114. _____ is the sum of the norms, responsibilities and expectations that applies to a person. Select one: a. Social norm b. Social status c. Stratification d. Social role 115. _____ is what happens when more heat from the sun is retained inside the Earth’s athmosphere instead of being reflected back to space. Select one: a. Deforestation b. Plate tectonics c. Fossil Fuel d. Greenhouse effect 116. Kingdom, empire, sultanate, are examples of a _____. Select one: a. Monarchy b. Roman Republic c. Oligarchy d. Democracy 117. Hand tools and manual labour were widely replaced by steam power and mass production during the _____. Select one: a. Stone Age b. Bronze Age c. Information Age d. Industrial Age 118. True or False: In social media, the term “trending” can be used to describe anything that is getting a lot of attention. Answer: TRUE 119. True or False: According to NASA, the levels of CO2 in the athmoshere is steadily dropping Answer: FALSE 120. Which of the following terms correspond with: Internet in the Philippines Select one: a. 1760 b. 16 c. 1970’s d. The Cloud e. 1990’s f. 1994 g. 1993 h. 21st Century i. call center industry j. Mobile computing 121. Which of the following is NOT true? Select one: a. The world job market creates better opportunities for professionals in developing countries b. The world job market reduces opportunities for professionals in developing countries c. The call center industry is estimated to account for 10% of the Philippine economy. d. The call center industry is estimated to account for 3% of the Philippine economy. 122. Match the definition with the correct term. Use unconventional methods and unstructured ways of thinking especially when tasked to come up with new ideas. Select one: a. New Literacies b. Technological fluency c. Communications, information, and media literacy d. Navigate knowledge landscape e. 21st Century Learning f. 3R Skills g. Creativity and innovation h. Collaboration, teamwork, and leadership i. Cross-cultural understanding j. Career and learning self-reliance 123. True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s Answer: FALSE 124. Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Filtering - Interacting at a human, not only utilitarian, level…to form social spaces. Answer: FALSE 125. Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Critical and creative thinking - Questioning and dreaming Answer: TRUE 126. Fill in the blank: Connect the _____. Select one: a. present b. future c. synthesis d. dots e. short-lived f. social interactions g. predictions h. past i. time frames j. trend 127. True or False: A fad is a pattern of change Answer: FALSE 128. True or False: The 7C’s include Contextualizing. Answer: FALSE 129. Fill in the blank: The Socratic Method is a method that aims to discover a Answer or at least get as close to the truth as possible. UNIVERSAL TRUTH 130. _____ requires building networks in order to continue to stay current and informed. Select one: a. Pattern recognition b. Evaluation and authentication c. Altered processes of validation d. Connecting with each other 131. The main difference between social media and other websites is that social media relies heavily on user _____. Select one: a. Participation b. Transaction c. Payment d. Reports 132. Which of the following is true about the Information Age? Select one: a. The demand for manual labor increases b. The demand for technically skilled professionals and manual labor increases c. The demand for manual labor declines d. The demand for technically skilled professionals declines 133. Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking is NOT: Analysis Answer: A 134. Write A if the item falls under Scientific Method, B for Socratic Method and C for What Critical Thinking is NOT: Come up with a new hypothesis Answer: B 135. he Industrial Age is an era that started around the year _____ Select one: a. 1670 b. 1869 c. 1760 d. 1770 134. Write True if the Net Literacy is matched with its correct definition and False if not. Altered processes of validation - Validating people and ideas within an appropriate context. Answer: TRUE 135. Fill in the blank: A _____ can mean a new way of thinking, a new direction in technology or a major shift in culture. Select one: a. short-lived b. trend c. predictions d. present e. past f. time frames g. synthesis h. dots i. social interactions j. future 136. In the Industrial age, hand tools and manual labor was replaced by _____ powered machinery and mass production Select one: a. Steam b. Horse c. Electricity d. Nuclear 137. Which of the following terms correspond with: Megaproblems Select one: a. 1760 b. 1994 c. 16 d. 1990’s e. 1970’s f. The Cloud g. Mobile computing h. 1993 i. call center industry j. 21st Century 138. True or False: The Pokemon Go is one of the most popular apps in the mid-90’s Answer: FALSE 139. Fill in the blank: Observe the _______. Select one: a. time frames b. dots c. predictions d. past e. trend f. future g. social interactions h. short-lived i. present j. synthesis 140. Seeing how existing knowledge relates to what we do not know is part of _____ Select one: a. Critical and creative thinking b. Acceptance of uncertainty c. Altered processes of validation d. Evaluation and authentication 141. Today, in the 21st century, advancements in telecommunications allow employers to _____ people from different parts of the world. Select one: a. Outsell b. Outsource c. Outnumber d. Outsmart 142. The planet’s surface is getting hotter. Select one: a. Water shortages b. Growth of shanty cities c. Mass famine in ill organized countries d. Global warming e. Unstoppable global migration f. Extreme poverty g. The spread of deserts h. Runaway computer integration i. War that could end civilization j. Pandemics 143. The Information age is said to have been started by the _____ Select one: a. New Media Revolution b. Industrial Age c. Digital Revolution d. Digital Age 144. Which of the following are requirements for mobile computing? Select one: a. fixed internet connection b. search engine websites c. GPS-aided navigation d. wireless Internet connection 145. An artificial Select one: a. Neural layers b. Middle layers c. Output layers d. Hidden layers 146. The _____ in a social network are the relationships between people. Select one: a. Networks b. Links c. AGIL d. Nodes 147. _____ are conditions that drive people to leave a particular area. Select one: a. Refugees b. Forced migration c. Push factors d. Pull factors 148. _____ is “a government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and exercised by them directly or indirectly through a system of representation usually involving periodically held free elections”. Select one: a. Democracy b. Monarchy c. Republic d. Oligarchy 149. Who gave the Gettysburg Address? Select one: a. King John of England b. Aung San Suu Kyi c. Abraham Lincoln d. Constantine the Great 150. The Increase in _____ in the Earth’s atmosphere contributes to global warming Select one: a. Ozone layer b. Climate change c. Fossil fuels d. Greenhouse gases 151. _____ is the increase in the Earth’s overall atmospheric temperature. Select one: a. Climate change b. Greenhouse Effect c. Deforestation d. Global warming 152. Which of the following is a founding member of ASEAN? Select one: a. Cambodia b. Vietnam c. Laos d. Indonesia 153. Who said “Democracy is when the people keep a government in check.” Select one: a. Abraham Lincoln b. King John of England c. Aung San Suu Kyi d. Scipio Africanus 154. The number of indirect connections that pass through a node is the measure of its _____. Select one: a. Closeness centrality b. Degree centrality c. Social centrality d. Betweenness centrality 155. Which event happened in the 1840’s and many people from Ireland to immigrate? Select one: a. Cold War b. Irish Potato Famine c. Irish Gold Rush d. Irish Civil War 156. “_____ is the “government of the people, by the people, for the people” Select one: a. Parliamentary System b. Democracy c. Oligarchy d. Monarchy 157. _____ is the permanent or semi-permanent movement of people across political boundaries. Select one: a. Migration b. Citizenship c. Immigration d. Multiple Citizenship 158. What does ppm mean? Select one: a. Parts per million b. People per millennium c. Particles per million d. Pieces per million 159. Which organization has the motto "United in diversity" Select one: a. ASEAN b. United Nations c. World Health Organization d. European Union 160. UNESCO stands for United Nations Economic, Scientific and Cultural Organization Select one: a. False b. True 161. ASEAN stands for Association of Southern Asian Nations. Select one: a. True b. False 162. At least 97% of climate scientists disagree that global warming is real and it is most probably caused by humans. Select one: a. False b. True 163. The World Trade Organization was established in January 1, 1995. Select one: a. False b. True 164. _____ is an informal rule or practice that is followed by the members of a society. Select one: a. Social stratification b. Social structure c. Social status d. Social norm 165. The last Ice Age ended about 12 thousand years ago. Select one: a. False b. True 166. _____ is defined as a change in the typical or average weather of a region or city. Select one: a. Earth’s orbit b. Global warming c. Climate change d. Earth’s Axis 167. The Ancient Greek word “kratos” means _____. Select one: a. The Republic b. The people c. Power d. Democracy 168. _____ is the exchange of capital, goods, and services between countries. Select one: a. International Trade b. Globalization c. Social Organization d. Specialization 169. The Ancient Greek word “demos” means _____. Select one: a. The people b. Power c. The Republic d. Strength 170. _____ is a cell that is capable of receiving, processing, and sending information in the form of very small electrical impulses. Select one: a. Neuron b. Dendrite c. Synapse d. Axon 171. Information that enters an artificial neural network through the _____ Select one: a. Output layer b. Input layer c. Neural network d. Hidden layer 172. _____ is the legal status of a person as a member of a sovereign state Select one: a. Push Factor b. Pull Factor c. Immigration d. Citizenship 173. _____ states that the land masses in our planet are moving in different directions Select one: a. Global warming b. Earth’s orbit c. Plate Tectonics Theory d. Climate change 174. Which of the following is a UN specialized agency? Select one: a. ASEAN b. UNESCO c. EU d. WTO 175. The European Union has how many member countries? Select one: a. 28 b. 32 c. 24 d. 22 176. A _____ is a person who has been forced to leave his or her country because of human conflict, natural disasters, or political persecution. Select one: a. Dual Citizen b. Immigrant c. Migrant d. Refugee 177. The _____ is “the only international organization dealing with the global rules of trade between nations.” Select one: a. World Trade Organization b. Association of Southeast Asian Nations c. United Nations d. World Bank 178. The number of the links that a node has is used to measure its _____. Select one: a. Betweenness centrality b. Social centrality c. Degree centrality d. Closeness centrality 179. _____ means moving to another country with the goal of becoming permanent residents. Select one: a. Dual Citizenship b. Citizenship c. Immigration d. Migration 180. The _____ was founded with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration? Select one: a. Association of Southeast Asian Nations b. European Union c. World Bank d. United Nations 181. _____is a body of ice that are connected to land. Select one: a. Iceberg b. Iceland c. Land ice d. Sea ice 182. Which of the following is NOT a specialized agency of the United Nations? Select one: a. World Trade Organization b. World Health Organization c. World Bank d. UNESCO 183. _____ is the network inside the brain composed of neurons. Select one: a. Brain Neural Network b. Social Neural Network c. Artificial Neural Network d. Biological Neural Network 184. The European Union has 22 member countries. Select one: a. True b. False 185. _____ are conditions that attract people to a particular location. Select one: a. Pull factors b. Refugees c. Push factors d. Migration 186. The United Nations has 61 founding members. Select one: a. True b. False 187. The soma is also known as _____. Select one: a. Synapse b. Cell body c. Dendrite d. Axon 188. _____ is society’s way of categorizing people. Select one: a. Social norm b. Social stratification c. Social structure d. Social status 189. The European Union was founded on January 1, 1993. Select one: a. False b. True 190. _____ is a branch of Machine Learning that uses algorithms based on artificial neural networks. Select one: a. Deep Learning b. Artificial Learning c. Machine learning d. Artificial Intelligence 191. Which of the Following is a proof of global warming? Select one: a. Decreasing Land Ice b. Rising global temperature c. Rising sea level d. All of these 192. _____ is a group of people that constantly interact with each other. Select one: a. Social status b. Social norm c. Society d. Social stratification 193. The last _____ ended about 12 thousand years ago. Select one: a. Worldwide Global warming b. Major Greenhouse effect c. Major Ice age d. Overpopulation 194. The Magna Carta is composed of how many clauses? Select one: a. 64 b. 61 c. 63 d. 62 OAM ANSWER KEY Learning Activity 1 Distinguishes a managerial position from a non-managerial one. The correct answer is: Coordinating and integrating others' work Mintzberg identifies twelve managerial roles grouped into three classes: Interpersonal, interorganizational, and decisional. The correct answer is: The statement contains two errors. Supervisory management spends most of his/her time: The correct answer is: Directing and controlling Strategic planning is done by: The correct answer is: Top managers Which of the following is not included in our definition of management? The correct answer is: Balancing efficiency against effectiveness Short Quiz 1 When call center managers spend much of their time monitoring customer calls and giving employees feedback about how to improve their dialogue with customers in the future, these managers are using __________ skills. The correct answer is: Technical Modern managers are: The correct answer is: All of the given options. A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management position? The correct answer is: All of the options may lead to successful management positions Which statement is wrong? The correct answer is: Disseminator role is under Interpersonal managerial roles They manage the activities of other managers. The correct answer is: Middle managers In the twenty-first century the four functions of management are: The correct answer is: planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees Which is Characteristic for Organization? The correct answer is: All of the given options Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others. The correct answer is: Managers _____ in businesses and organizations is the function that coordinates the efforts of people to accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively: The correct answer is: Management Learning Activity 2 Which of the following best describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs? The correct answer is: It is a highly flawed model, although it does recognize that people are motivated differently. It combines tech with business to get people the information they need to do their jobs better/faster/smarter. The correct answer is: Management Information System The application of scientific principles to management is called: The correct answer is: Scientific management It is concerned with managing the process that converts inputs into outputs. The correct answer is: Operations management The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs? The correct answer is: Safety Short Quiz 2 What characteristics is not a key feature of the 'Open System' model of management? The correct answer is: Morale Systems theory holds that: The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the parts. Which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic functioning in organizations? The correct answer is: Advertising and marketing brochures Fayol's functions of management include: The correct answer is: Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organization? The correct answer is: Change Which of the following is not a feature of a bureaucracy? The correct answer is: Generalism The main schools of management thought are: The correct answer is: Classical, human relations, systems, contingency. The study of management theory is important for which of the following reasons: The correct answer is: Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organizational changes. Humanistic realities were originally advocated by: The correct answer is: Maslow Which of the following is most closely associated with Henry Fayol? The correct answer is: Classical Management School Learning Activity 3 A small business owned by one person can only be set up as a sole proprietorship. The correct answer is 'False'. Used to describe a framework for the analysis of macro environmental factors: The correct answer is: PEST Analysis Which of the following is not considered as an internal strength of firms that succeed in cost leadership The correct answer is: Access to leading scientific research These factors include demographic and cultural aspects of the external macro environment and affect customer needs and the size of potential markets. The correct answer is: Social factors PEST stands for: The correct answer is: Political, Economic, Social, Technological Short Quiz 3 Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? The correct answer is: Rapid market growth The simplest form of business ownership is a: The correct answer is: Proprietorship A sole proprietorship is the simplest form of business organization. The correct answer is 'True'. The form of business organization that has the largest sales volume is the: The correct answer is: Corporation Which of the following is a Threat for an organization? The correct answer is: Economic downturn Which of the following does not form part of a firm's macro-environment? The correct answer is: internal environment The agreement to form a partnership may be oral, written, or implied from the conduct of the parties. The correct answer is 'True'. Which of the following is an advantage of a sole proprietorship? The correct answer is: All of the given options The main disadvantage of a general partnership is The correct answer is: the unlimited liability of the partners A _______ is a business with two or more owners: The correct answer is: Partnership Long Quiz 1 Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as part of a manager’s ____ role. The correct answer is: Informational _____ in businesses and organizations is the function that coordinates the efforts of people to accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively. The correct answer is: Management The application of scientific principles to management is called: The correct answer is: Scientific management This is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential performance of the organization. The correct answer is: Threat A company picnic addresses which of Maslow's hierarchy of needs: The correct answer is: Social PEST stands for: The correct answer is: Political, Economic, Social, Technological Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others. The correct answer is: Managers In the twenty-first century the four functions of management are: The correct answer is: planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees The first step in management by objectives is: The correct answer is: managers set goals for their departments The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs? The correct answer is: safety Humanistic realities were originally advocated by: The correct answer is: Maslow Manage the activities of other managers. The correct answer is: Middle managers In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need? The correct answer is: None of the given options The simplest form of business ownership is a: The correct answer is: Proprietorship Which of the following does not form part of a firm’s macro-environment? The correct answer is: internal environment Technical skills are most important for which of the following: The correct answer is: First line managers Which of the following does not form part of an organization’s micro-environment? The correct answer is: Statute legislation A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management position? The correct answer is: All of the given choices may lead to successful management positions. Strategic planning is done by: The correct answer is: Top managers A _____ is a business with two or more owners The correct answer is: Partnership Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? The correct answer is: Rapid market growth Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments? The correct answer is: All of the given options Which of the following hygiene factors are in Herzberg's theories? The correct answer is: company policy and administration The three main types of managers include: The correct answer is: general, functional, and frontline managers Which is a characteristic for organization? The correct answer is: All of the given options Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y? The correct answer is: primary motivators are fear and money Which of the following is an advantage of a sole proprietorship? The correct answer is: All of the given options The most effective form of business organization for raising capital is the: The correct answer is: Corporation SWOT is an acronym for: The correct answer is: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats Learning Activity 5 Contingency plans anticipate changing conditions. The correct answer is 'True'. Programmed decisions are decisions that are made for situations that have occurred often in the past and allow decision rules to be developed to guide future decisions. The correct answer is 'True'. A major advantage of the Delphi technique over other group decision-making techniques is that bias effects of group interactions are eliminated. The correct answer is 'True'. The main difference between risk and uncertainty is that with risk you know the probabilities of the outcomes. The correct answer is 'True'. Programmed and structured are the two classifications of management decisions. The correct answer is 'False'. Short Quiz 4 Assumptions about the environment in which the plan is to be carried out. The correct answer is: Premises They are a complex set of goals, policies, procedures, rules, task assignments, steps to be taken, resources to be employed, and other elements necessary to carry out a given course of action. The correct answer is: Programs They are general statements or understandings that guide or channel thinking in decision making. The correct answer is: Policies These permit managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their subordinates do. The correct answer is: Policies It means at the end of the period it should be possible to determine whether or not objective has been achieved. The correct answer is: Verifiable objectives It is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. The correct answer is: Budget They are the ends toward which activity is aimed The correct answer is: Objectives It is the determination of the basic long-term objectives of an enterprise and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve these goals. The correct answer is: Strategies _____develop and carry out tactical plans The correct answer is: Management by objectives In Setting goals the "S.M.A.R.T" stands for: The correct answer is: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely Learning Activity 4 Planning helps management pull the individual to achieve common goals by The correct answer is: Provision of well-defined objectives To be effective, an organization must have clearly defined sets of goals and objectives. The correct answer is: False First-line supervisors are responsible for directing the day-to-day activities of operative employees. The correct answer is: True Short term goals are a means to achieve long term goals. The correct answer is: True Planning is choosing a goal and developing a method of strategy to achieve that goal. The correct answer is: True Short Quiz 5 The first step in decision making is to: The correct answer is: Recognize need for a decision Decisions fall into two categories: The correct answer is: Programmed and nonprogrammed What are factors managers should consider in evaluating alternatives? The correct answer is: All of the given options A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? The correct answer is: Programmed decision Problems are usually of the following type(s): The correct answer is: All of the given options. It is the ability of the decision maker to discover novel ideas leading to a feasible course of action. The correct answer is: Creativity SWOT is an acronym for: The correct answer is: Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats. A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making is called a: The correct answer is: Non-programmed decision A decision for repetitive or routine problems for which the responses have been already been decided and been known to the person who will make the decision is called: The correct answer is: Programmed Long Quiz 2 Planning guarantees organizational success. The correct answer is: False They are general statements or understandings that guide or channel thinking in decision making. The correct answer is: Policies Strategic planning is usually carried out by top management. The correct answer is: True It means at the end of the period it should be possible to determine whether or not objective has been achieved The correct answer is: Verifiable objectives Decision making is (simplistically) typically described as which of the following? The correct answer is: choosing among alternatives They spell out specific required actions or non-actions, allowing no discretion. The correct answer is: Rules They are a complex of goals, policies, procedures, rules, task assignments, steps to be taken, resources to be employed, and other elements necessary to carry out a given course of action. The correct answer is: Programs The function of management that determines the objectives of business and how best to achieve them is called: The correct answer is: Planning Which of the following is incorrect? The correct answer is: Planning is a one-time event. The last two steps in the planning process are implementation and control. The correct answer is: True where we are to where we want to go. The correct answer is: Planning Strategic objectives are set by: The correct answer is: Top management. The basic purpose or function or tasks of an enterprise or agency or any part of it. The correct answer is: Mission Comprehensive, long range planning, focusing on broad enduring issues is called: The correct answer is: Strategic planning. In Setting goals the “S.M.A.R.T” standing for: The correct answer is: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely It is the determination of the basic long-term objectives of an enterprise and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve these goals. The correct answer is: Strategies Goals must be specific. The correct answer is: True They permit managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their subordinates do. The correct answer is: Policies It means that the whole is greater than its parts. The correct answer is: Synergy They are the ends toward which activity is aimed. The correct answer is: Objectives Planning is a primary function of: The correct answer is: management Assumptions about the environment in which the plan is to be carried out. The correct answer is: Premises Programmed decisions are more likely to occur at the top management level. The correct answer is: False The first step in the decision-making process is which of the following? The correct answer is: recognize need for a decision A company decision to diversify into new products and markets is an example of nonprogrammed decisions. The correct answer is: False Which one is benefit of planning? The correct answer is: All of the given options It is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. The correct answer is: Budget They are usually the simplest type of plan. The correct answer is: Rules The strategic planning process begins with: The correct answer is: defining the mission, vision, and values of the organization _____develop and carry out tactical plans. The correct answer is: Management by objectives Short Quiz 6 _____ is the process of using the resources and personnel of an organization in an orderly way to achieve the objectives and long-term goals of the organization. The correct answer is: Organizing Which of the following applies to the matrix structure? The correct answer is: It attempts to merge the benefits of decentralization with coordination across all areas of the business The framework of interrelationships among individuals and departments that describe relationships of reporting and accountability is called: The correct answer is: Organizational structure What is the term used to define the number of subordinates directly controlled by a manager? The correct answer is: Span of management The divisional structure may contain which type of division(s)? The correct answer is: Both product and geographic divisions Which of the following can affect the span of management? The correct answer is: All of the given options. ____is a diagrammatic representation of organization structure show names designation functions of personnel in the organization. The correct answer is: Organizational chart ______ is the formal arrangement of jobs within an organization. The correct answer is: Organizational structure The span of control refers to: The correct answer is: the number of subordinates reporting directly to a given manager or supervisor _______ is the form of departmentalization that groups similar jobs and activities into departments. The correct answer is: A functional structure Learning Activity 6 Organizing in management refers to the relationship between _____used to achieve the common objectives. The correct answer is: All of the given options The term organizational hierarchy implies The correct answer is: All of the given options. Specialization of labor refers to focusing an individual's efforts on a particular product or a single task. The correct answer is: True It is a design of organization movement or blueprint The correct answer is: Organization structure Functional structure is created based on the various ____ of an organization. The correct answer is: Functions Learning Activity 7 Formal organizations are designed to make work more efficient. The correct answer is: True What is the duty to act according to the authority that has been given? The correct answer is: Responsibility Authority moves _______, while accountability move________ within the organization. The correct answer is: downward, upward Formal organization is objective oriented. The correct answer is: True Organizing, as a management function, is accomplished by doing all of the following except: The correct answer is: monitoring performance to measure what is taking place Short Quiz 7 The systems approach ______. The correct answer is: Encourages managers to view the organization both as a whole and as part of a larger environment Which statement is wrong about Formal organization? The correct answer is: It is temporary and unstable The study of management theory is important for which of the following reason. The correct answer is: Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organizational changes Scientific management is based on the assumption that: The correct answer is: The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one best way to do the task. Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach? The correct answer is: Scientific management and bureaucracy Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behavior? The correct answer is: The classical approach Systems theory holds that: The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the parts. It is a network of interpersonal relationships that arise when people associate with each other. The correct answer is: Informal organization In order to accomplish the process of organizing, management must: The correct answer is: All of the given options It is the intentional structure of roles, in a formally organized enterprise. The correct answer is: Formal organization. OAM Third Quarter Exam Which of the following does not form part of an organization’s micro-environment? The correct answer is: Statute legislation Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance. Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory? The correct answer is: All of the given options. The most effective leader is one who: The correct answer is: has the leadership style most appropriate to the situation and the employee involved. When call center managers spend much of their time monitoring customer calls and giving employees feedback about how to improve their dialogue with customers in the future, these managers are using __________ skills. The correct answer is: Technical Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of: The correct answer is: Leadership Which is a characteristic for organization? The correct answer is: all of the given options Scientific management is based on the assumption that: The correct answer is: The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one best way to do the task. Which of the following best describes Maslow's hierarchy of needs? The correct answer is: It is a highly flawed model, although it does recognize that people are motivated differently. This is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential performance of the organization. The correct answer is: Threat It is concerned with managing the process that converts inputs into outputs. The correct answer is: Operations management Who is father of scientific management? The correct answer is: Frederick Winslow Taylor Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bureaucratic organization? The correct answer is: Change Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behavior? The correct answer is: The classical approach Which of the following is not a commonly used term to describe an element of the business environment? The correct answer is: Extrinsic environment A successful person in which of the following positions may be promoted to a management position? The correct answer is: All of the choices may lead to successful management positions Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments? The correct answer is: All of the given options Checking progress against plans. The correct answer is: Controlling Which of the following is a strength for an organization? The correct answer is: Low labor turnover _____ in businesses and organizations is the function that coordinates the efforts of people to accomplish goals and objectives using available resources efficiently and effectively. The correct answer is: Management Which of the following is most closely associated with Henry Fayol? The correct answer is: Classical Management School Supervisory management spends most of his/her time: The correct answer is: Directing and controlling Strategic planning is done by: The correct answer is: Top managers Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function”? The correct answer is: Measuring results against corporate objectives. One of the earliest and most enduring descriptions of managerial roles comes from: The correct answer is: Henry Mintzberg The application of scientific principles to management is called: The correct answer is: Scientific management Which of the following is not a measure of a manager’s effectiveness? The correct answer is: Speed of promotion through the organization In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need? The correct answer is: None of the given options Individuals in organizations who direct the activities of others. The correct answer is: Managers Humanistic realities were originally advocated by: The correct answer is: Maslow Which of the following does not form part of a firm’s macro-environment? The correct answer is: internal environment Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as part of a manager’s ____ role. The correct answer is: Informational The main schools of management thought are: Select one: The correct answer is: Classical, human relations, systems, contingency. Effectiveness is synonymous with ____. The correct answer is: Goal attainment Which one is not interpersonal managerial role? The correct answer is: Spokesperson In the twenty-first century the four functions of management are: The correct answer is: planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees What are the major functions Henry Fayol delineated for managers? The correct answer is: Planning, Organizing, Commanding, Coordinating & Controlling Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? The correct answer is: Establishing Internet sales Fayol's functions of management include: The correct answer is: Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling. The systems approach _____? The correct answer is: Encourages managers to view the organization both as a whole and as part of a larger environment . Distinguishes a managerial position from a non-managerial one. The correct answer is: Coordinating and integrating others’ work It is directing the work activities of others. The correct answer is: Leading Modern managers are: The correct answer is: All of the given options. Systems theory holds that: The correct answer is: The whole is greater than the sum of the parts. Manage the activities of other managers. The correct answer is: Middle managers The three main types of managers include: The correct answer is: general, functional, and front-line managers Which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic functioning in organizations? The correct answer is: Advertising and marketing brochures Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y? The correct answer is: Primary motivators are fear and money Internal Consists of the trends and events within an organization that affect_____. The correct answer is: All of the given options It combines tech with business to get people the information they need to do their jobs better/faster/smarter. The correct answer is: Management Information System Which of the following is a Threat for an organization? The correct answer is: Economic downturn OAM external recruiting means ... - false selection is the process of discovering .... - false training attempts to improve the ability .... - true it is the process of acquiring deploying ... - staffing it is the positive process of searching .... - recruitment compensation can be ... - both answers are correct any compensation plan must be ... - understandable , workable , acceptable transfer is the reassignment .. - true promotions involve the ... - true the remuneration system needs ... - all of the given options a prerequisite for a successful ... - HR policy the staffing system components model ... - recruitment , selection , employment the process of developing an applicants' .... - recruitment staffing systems exist , ... - contribute to the attainment ... advertisements through newspapers .... - indirect the process of acquiring, deploying .... - staffing are the resources that provide utility ... - men recruitment policy usually highlights ... - job specification teaching of current or employees ... - training which of the following is the most serious problem ... - internal resistance wages represent - hourly actions that employees does not do .... - performance basic compensations given to employees ... - base pay an aim of performance appraisal is to ... - motivate employee payments made to employees without taking ... - salaries factors affecting compensation levels are : - all of the given options performance appraisal feedback always include : ... - all of the given options company's HR team is responsible for ... - all of the given options which of the following is not advantage of promotion from within? ... - creates political infighting compensation given with base pay linked ... - wages effective managers "do the right things" to achieve ... - true with personal power a leader can exercise power ... - false transformational leadership works ... - false core competencies are the skills and abilities ... - true leadership is both an individual .... - true any condition to be taken into account ... - contingency factor McGregor assumed that people who are lazy ... - Theory X the willingness to exert high levels of effort ... - motivation the drive to find food, drink, and sexual ... - physiological Theory Y assumes that people inherently ... - want to work and exercise self-direction according to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded.... - all of the given options needs and expectations at work are sometimes ... - extrinsic/intrinsic influencing people towards the achievement ... - leadership Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged ... - all of the given options transactional leadership has which of the following ... - takes the view that rewards ... communication that takes place within prescribed ... - formal communication participation will be easier when individual ... - true effective communication is responsibility ... - false emergent change refers to initiatives .... - false first step in change management process is to prepare for change ... - true when the accounting manager communicates to the ... - horizontal communication which of the following is not a form of non-verbal communication ? ... - posters downward communication is used for all ... - progress reports to convert a message into groups of words .... - encoding is the individual or group that develops the message ... - source is the process by which the receiver interprets ... - decoding it is the transfer of information from a sender to a receiver ... - communication the communication process involves all of the following except:... - performing manuals and policy statements ... - upward communication suggestions for improvements from an employee ... - upward communication planning sets the goals for the organization ... - true management benchmarking compares various ... - false the outcome of controlling function is the accurate ... - true ROI Control measures both the absolute ... - true tests of operating leverage present ... - false control ensures that the .... - plan Don MacKinnon, the person in charge of ... - controlling it is an example of an effective standard ... - planning to increase sales of product ... control function of management cannot ... - planning it is information about what is happening ... - real-time information and control the last function in the sequence, which culminates ... - controlling it is the first step in management control ... - determine desired performance buying and assembling ... - false promotional activities and advertising are best ways to... - true orientation is the process of captivating ... - false capital budgeting is primarily a bottom-level ... - false HRM is all about acquiring services of people ... - true the planning function in managerial function ... - all of the given options the functions of HRM is pertained to ... - whole organization states the way about what are the activities ... - planning allowance and bonus of the employees ... - compensation managing people is not the primary responsibility ... - true which is discussed in compensation policy? ... - %of bonus human resource management policies ... - HR Department human resource planning is a part of ... - operational the internet is not important to the foundation ... - false functions are the HR functions that are required ... - operational payments made to employees without ... - salaries any condition to be taken into account ... - contingency factor Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged .. - all of the given options when an employee has a need for ... - self-actualization needs assumes that employees have little ambition ... - Theory X the process of developing an applicants' pool for ... - recruitment wages represents ... - hourly needs and expectations at work ... - extrinsic/intrinsic recruitment policy usually highlights ... - job specification McGregor assumed that people ... - Theory X according to Herzberg, which of the following ... - all of the given options performance appraisal feedback ... - all of the given options advertisements through newspapers, ... - indirect an individual who wants to buy a home ... - safety which of the following is the most serious ... - internal resistance negative feelings resulting from ... - frustration according to herzberg, which is not ... - work conditions the willingness to exert high levels ... - motivation the process of acquiring, deploying ... - staffing suggestions for improvements ... - upward communication influencing people towards ... - leadership it is personal power that ... - charisma basic compensations given to employees ... - base pay downward communication is used ... - progress reports the drive to find food, ... - physiological compensation given with base ... - wages it is the transfer of information ... - communication factors affecting compensation levels .. - all of the given options when the accounting manager communicates ... - horizontal communication within maslow's hierarchy of needs, ... - social needs a person who recognize, manages ... - entrepreneur is a document that thoroughly explains ... - business plan writing a business plan can ensure ... - figures out how to make ... which of the following qualities will increase ... - all of the above the business plan should be ... - crisp and concise is best described by stating it is any business ... - small business is defined as the blueprint describing the business strategy ... - business plan which one is not considered a key ... - method for dissolution of the organization common reasons for entrepreneurial failure ... - adequate financial support which statement is not true about entrepreneurs? .. - they generally stick ... the entrepreneur who is committed to the ... - opportunist all but which of the following is considered to be a myth ... - first ventures ... all of the following are characteristics of small ... - small business emphasize new ... which of the following is not recognized as a misconception ... - entrepreneurial ventures .. four small business owners, one ... - profitability the last function in the sequence ... - controlling an example of an effective standard ... - planning to increase sales ... functions are the HR functions ... - operational orientation is the process of captivating ... - false states the way about what ... - planning the functions of HRM is pertained to ... - whole organization which of the following management functions are closely related? ... - planning and control promotional activities and advertising ... - true investment decisions determine ... - true is based on norms - clan control human resource management policies ... - HR department tests of liquidity - true planning sets the goals - true strategic benchmarking compares ... - false designing marketing strategies ... - false it is the first step in management control - determine desired performance it compares various strategies and identifies ... - strategic benchmarking control ensures that the ... - plan Participative leadership involves staff and others in the decision making process. - true A laissez faire leadership style occurs when all power is passed onto the staff. - true It refers to the effective communication between people/ workers/ clients of different cultural background. - b. Intercultural communication Which one is not leadership styles based on use of authority? d. Transformational leaders The following is not a concept of wage b. daily wages Promotion involves the reassignment of an employee to a higher level job. b. true Transformational leadership recognises that success results from their belief in both themselves and their staff. b. True Participative leadership has which of the following characteristics? d. Seeks to involve staff in the decision making process An autocratic leadership style occurs when power is split between the leader and his or her staff. a. False Management is the ability to direct staff towards achieving goals. b. False Layoff is when employees voluntarily decide to end their employment with an organization. a. false Planned change refers to a situation in which change can originate from any level in the organization. b. False Filling and keeping filled, positions in the organization structure. c. Staffing Termination is the practice of putting an end to the employer-employee relations initiated by the employer with prejudice to the worker. b. true Benefits is pay provided by an employer to an employee for services rendered. b. false The output of job analysis is the job description and the job specifications. a. True External recruiting is the process of attracting individuals outside the organization to apply for positions with the firm. b. True Which of the following factor influence(s) employee compensation? a. All of the given options Theory Y assumes people regard work as a normal activity and are self-motivated. a. True The process, tools and techniques to manage the people-side of change to achieve the required business outcome(s) b. Change management Budget is a quantitative expression of a plan for a defined period of time. True The ____ analysis addresses the roles of the community, region, nation, and world in a business. b. Environmental All of the following are popular demographic factors about entrepreneurs, except: c. Self confidence Selling includes transfer of ownership of products to the buyer. True OAM4th Q problems are usually ... - all of the given opyions is the form of departmentalization that groups ... - a functional structure which of the following is a strength for an organization ? ... - low labor turnover it is directing the work activities ... - leading they are a complex of goals, policies ... - programs recruitment policy usually highlights ... - job specification humanistic realities ... - maslow which of the following are sub-groupings ... - scientific management and bureaucracy which of the following does not form part ... - internal environment it means that the whole is greater ... - synergy which of the following is the most serious problem ... - internal resistance which of the following would be included ... - measuring results .... the framework of interrelationships .... - organizational structure the systems approach .... - encourages managers to .... the process of acquiring .... - staffing the main disadvantage of general partnership is ... - the unlimited liability of the partners it means at the end of the period ... - verifiable objectives it is concerned with managing the process .... - operations management SWOT is an acronym for: ... - strengths , .... which statement is wrong? - disseminator role ... which of the following are sub-groupings .... - scientific management and bureaucracy advertisements through newspapers ... - indirect the most effective form of business - corporation basic compensation - base pay supervisory management spends - directing and controlling which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic - advertising and marketing ... provides for the greatest degree of continuity - corporation it combines ... - management information system which one is benefit of planning - all of the given options a manger who is helping a customer return ... - programmed decision the application of scientific principles to management is called ... - scientific management strategic planning is done by: - top managers planning, organizing, directing .... - functions of management the staffing system components model says that the phases ... - recruitment, selection, employment which one is not interpersonal managerial role? - spokesperson which of the following is not an advantage of group decision-making? - group think in maslow's hierarchy of needs, which is the highest level of need? - none of the given options who is the father of scientific management ? - frederick winslow what are factors managers should consider ... - all of the given options checking progress againts plans. - controlling non programmed decisions are most likely to be made by - top management which of the following is not included in our definition of management? - balancing efficiency against effectiveness modern managers are: - all of the given options it is a statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms. - budget scientific management is based on the assumptions that: - the scientific observation of people ... the process of developing an applicants' pool for job openings ... - recruitment the study of management theory is important ... - management theories are interpretive ... the simplest form of business ownership is a - proprietorship is the process of using the resources and personnel .... - organizing The five needs expressed in Maslow's hierarchy are: b. Physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization Decisions fall into two categories: d. Programmed and non-programmed What are the major functions Henry Fayol delineated for managers? b. Planning, Organizing, Commanding, Coordinating & Controlling In the twenty-first century the four functions of management are: a. planning, organizing, controlling, and leading employees In Setting goals the “S.M.A.R.T” standing for: a. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What is the term used to define the number of subordinates directly controlled by a manager? b. Span of management In order to carry out a SWOT analysis, a company must _________. b. All of the given options. Internal consists of the trends and events within an organization that affect_____. b. None of the given options A decision for repetitive or routine problems for which the responses have been already been decided and been known to the person who will make the decision is called: Select one: b. Programmed. Behavioral Science Approach is an extension of the ______. Select one: b. Human Relations Approach They permitting managers to delegate authority and maintain control over what their subordinates do. Select one: b. Policies The systems approach _____? Select one: d. All of the choices Which approach to the study of organizational behavior emphasizes the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behavior? Select one: b. The classical approach A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? Select one: a. Programmed decision Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing: Select one: a. Job specification Factors affecting compensation levels are: Select one: b. All of the given options The span of control refers to: Select one: a. the number of subordinates reporting directly to a given manager or supervisor Which statement is wrong? Select one: b. Disseminator role is under Interpersonal managerial roles One of the earliest and most enduring descriptions of managerial roles comes from: Select one: a. Henry Mintzberg It combines tech with business to get people the information they need to do their jobs better/faster/smarter. Select one: a. Management Information System Payments made to employees without taking hours for which they worked into consideration are called Select one: a. Salaries Teaching of current or employees with skills needed to perform effectively on job is Select one: b. Training A solution to a problem that is arrived at through an unstructured process of decision making is called a: Select one: b. Non-programmed decision Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments? Select one: c. All of the given options It is a network of interpersonal relationships that arise when people associate with each other. Select one: c. Informal organization The offering of employee health insurance addresses which of Maslow's needs? Select one: a. Safety Which of the following is a Threat for an organization? Select one: d. Economic downturn Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? Select one: b. Rapid market growth The form of business organization that has the largest sales volume is the: Select one: c. Corporation Problems are usually of the following type(s): Select one: b. All of the given options. Checking progress against plans. Select one: c. Controlling Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of: Select one: a. Leadership Systems theory holds that: Select one: a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts. Which of the following is an opportunity for an organization? Select one: d. Establishing Internet sales The application of scientific principles to management is called: Select one: a. Scientific management Which one is known as early systematize of management? Select one: b. Henry R. Towne Fayol's functions of management include: Select one: a. Planning, commanding, organizing, coordinating, controlling. Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory Y? Select one: a. Primary motivators are fear and money Actions that employees does not do or must do in a job is classified as Select one: a. Productivity ______ is the formal arrangement of jobs within an organization. Select one: b. Organizational structure The most effective form of business organization for raising capital is the: Select one: c. Corporation The selection of a course of action from among alternatives. Select one: b. Decision making Which of the following would be included in the "controlling function”? Select one: c. Measuring results against corporate objectives. _____develop and carry out tactical plans. Select one: a. Management by objectives Which of the following is not an assumption of Theory X? Select one: a. Employees are creative The main schools of management thought are: Select one: b. Classical, human relations, systems, contingency. The simplest form of business ownership is a: Select one: c. Proprietorship Which of the following is not an advantage of group decision-making? Select one: a. group think Scientific management is based on the assumption that: Select one: a. The scientific observation of people at work would reveal the one best way to do the task. It is concerned with managing the process that converts inputs into outputs. Select one: b. Operations management Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment? Select one: c. internal resistance Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach? Select one: a. Scientific management and bureaucracy Which of the following is a strength for an organization? Select one: a. Small competitors in the home market Compensation given with base pay linked to individual team or organizational performance is classified as Select one: c. Salaries Which of the following is not advantage of promotion from within? Select one: c. Creates political infighting The most effective leader is one who: Select one: d. all of the given options Which of the following is most closely associated with Henry Fayol? Select one: a. Classical Management School Statistics and Probability (STAT-112) Grade11 WEEK 1 Learning Act. 1 Stats Which of the following statement is TRUE. Select one: a. All of the statements are TRUE. b. Countable number of values are called discrete variables c. Non-countable values are called discrete variables d. Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Answer: Countable number of values are called discrete variables Question 2 The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of Select one: a. Discrete Continuous Random Variable b. Continuous Discrete Random Variable c. Continuous Random Variable d. Discrete Random Variables e. None of the choices Answer: Continuous Random Variable Question 3 True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete random variable. Answer: false Question 4 Which of the following is incorrect? Select one: a. Probability distribution equals to one. b. Probability distribution equals to zero. c. Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables d. None of the choices e. Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables Answer: Probability distribution equals to zero. Question 5 What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins? Select one: a. 0.1255 b. 0.25 c. 1 d. None of the choices e. 0 Answer: 0.1255 Short Quiz 1 Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space Select one: a. Sample space is also known as probability mass function. b. Sample space is a subset of events. c. Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one. d. Sample space are possible outcomes Answer: Sample space are possible outcomes The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to _____ Answer: 1 How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. Answer: 8 Salary, scores and age are examples of answer: continuous.. random variables Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable? Select one: a. The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference. b. The tuition fee enrolled in different universities c. The number of volunteers in a community d. The number of senators elected in the Philippines Answer: The number of senators elected in the Philippines Countless number of values are also known as Answer continuous.. variables. Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable? Select one: a. Distance travelled of a tourist bus. b. Depth of building excavation. c. None of the choices. d. Height of students enrolled in an online course. e. Wind speed during typhoon. Answer: None of the choices. The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1. Select one: a. The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE b. The statement is TRUE. c. The statement is FALSE. d. The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE Answer: The statement is TRUE. A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment. Select one: a. None of the choices b. The statement has insufficient information. c. True d. False Answer: True This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values. Answer: Probability Distribution Week3 Stats WEEK 3 Learning Activity 3 AND SHORT QUIZ 3 It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean. Select one: a. Median b. Z-score c. Normal Distribution Measurement d. Empirical Rule Feedback The correct answer is: Z-score In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 75 and the standard deviation was 5. If Pam z-scored is 1.5, what was her score in the examination? Select one: a. 117.50 b. 487.50 c. None of the choices d. 82.50 Feedback The correct answer is: 82.50 Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after? Select one: a. Carl Friedrich Gauss b. William Gosset c. Ronald Fisher d. John Tukey Feedback Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Carl Friedrich Gauss Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution. Select one: a. Mount-shaped distribution b. Bell-shaped c. None of the choices d. Perfectly asymmetric Feedback The correct answer is: Perfectly asymmetric How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve? Select one: a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 1 Feedback The correct answer is: 3 Short Quiz 3 In a normal distribution curve, Select one: a. Mean is equal to Median and Mode b. None of the choices c. Mean is equal to Mode d. Mean is equal to Median Feedback The correct answer is: Mean is equal to Median and Mode It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean. Select one: a. Empirical Rule b. Median c. Z-score d. Normal Distribution Measurement Feedback The correct answer is: Z-score Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile Select one: a. 8 b. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, c. 3 d. 0 Feedback The correct answer is: 8 In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 50 and the standard deviation was 3. If Pam z-scored is 1, what was her score in the examination? Select one: a. 53.00 b. None of the choices c. 80.50 d. 82.50 Feedback The correct answer is: 53.00 Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE. Select one: a. All values are greater than the mean. b. All values are less than the mean. c. All values are equal to the mean. d. All values are equal to the z-score Feedback The correct answer is: All values are less than the mean. Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper quartile Select one: a. 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 b. 18 c. 22 d. 0 Feedback The correct answer is: 18 Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 Select one: a. 36.45 b. 24 c. 30 d. 31 Feedback The correct answer is: 31 Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 How many numbers are in the lower quartile? Select one: a. 0 b. 10 c. 6 d. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 Feedback The correct answer is: 6 Normal Distribution Curve is also called Select one: a. Arc-Shaped Curve b. Bell Curve c. Basic Curve d. All of the choices Feedback The correct answer is: Bell Curve In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE. b. None of the choices c. The statement is FALSE. d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set. Feedback The correct answer is: None of the choices Week 5 Stats Learning Activity 4 True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter The correct answer is: FALSE True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design The correct answer is: TRUE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The correct answer is: No Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places. 1112345558888 The correct answer is: 4.53 Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places. 4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 The correct answer is: 2.60 Week 5 Stats short quiz 4 Short Quiz 4 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. The correct answer is: No True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means The correct answer is: FALSE It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole. Select one: a. Mode b. Deviation Error c. Parameter d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means e. Random Sample f. Mean g. Sampling Error h. Population Mean i. Median j. Statistics k. Distribution Error l. Sample Distribution of sample means m. Standard Curve n. Sample o. Standard Deviation p. Sample q. Population The correct answer is: Sample Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights. The correct answer is: No The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population Select one: a. Deviation Error b. Parameter c. Sample d. Standard Deviation e. Distribution Error f. Population g. Random Sample h. Mode i. Sampling Error j. Population Mean k. Mean l. Statistics m. Median n. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means o. Sample Distribution of sample means p. Sample q. Standard Curve The correct answer is: Sample Distribution of sample means Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Each audience in a game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to choose random contestants. The correct answer is: Yes If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? The correct answer is: 60 Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one decimal place. 3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30 The correct answer is: 10.8 True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample The correct answer is: TRUE True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. The correct answer is: FALSE Learning Activity 6 Stats To calculate the mean from a sample, Select one: a. Get the half of the sum of the all the values b. Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples c. Divide each value with the sum of all values d. None of the choices The correct answer is: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest hundredths or has two decimal places. Write the measurement at the end of the answer. Average Speed of a car Car 1 Car 2 Car 3 Car 4 80 kph 75 kph 60 kph 66 kph The correct answer is: 7 0 . 2 5 k p h This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie. Select one: a. Interval Estimate b. Points Estimate c. Coefficient Estimate d. Point to point Estimate The correct answer is: Interval Estimate Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest hundredths or has two decimal places, if necessary. Scores of students in quizzes The correct answer is: 77.70 Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. (Round off your answer to the nearest hundredths.) The correct answer is: 85.75 Point estimate is Select one: a. none of the choices b. always equal to the mean c. used to estimate population parameter Correct d. the number of samples e. a range of possible values of population mean Feedback The correct answer is: used to estimate population parameter A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. Select one: a. Sample distribution Incorrect b. Confidence Limit c. Confidence coefficient d. Sample Mean Feedback The correct answer is: Sample Mean Short Quiz 6 Stats Confidence interval is associated by confidence level Select one: a. TRUE b. FALSE The correct answer is: TRUE The effectiveness of the sample android application can be measured by the proportion of mobile users who install the application. To determine this proportion for a specific android app, the distributed to 500 users and 450 user install the app. The point estimate is ____________. Select one: a. .85 b. .80 c. .90 d. .95 The correct answer is: .90 Which measure of tendency is the best estimator? Select one: a. Mode b. Mean c. Standard Deviation d. Median The correct answer is: Mean Confidence level indicates the level of assurance that confidence interval encloses the: Select one: a. unknown population mean b. biased sample c. known population mean d. unbiased sample The correct answer is: unknown population mean Which of the following applies to confidence interval Select one: a. Confidence interval is used to the true mean of population b. As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level increases c. Confidence interval is associated by confidence level d. None of the choices e. All of the choices The correct answer is: All of the choices A 95% confidence interval means 95% of all samples of size n would fall ______ our confidence interval Select one: a. Below b. Outside c. None of the choices d. Within e. Above Feedback The correct answer is: Within You need to calculate for the confidence interval for the population mean. The population standard deviation is known. There are 50 sample observations. You will use 95 percent level of confidence. The appropriate value of z is: Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. 1.64 c. 2.58 d. 1.96 e. 1 The correct answer is: 1.96 Point estimate is always equal to the sampling coefficient. Select one: a. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is equal to the number of samples” b. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is used to estimate population parameter” c. TRUE d. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of population mean” The correct answer is: FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of population mean” Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. Select one: a. TRUE b. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to confidence limit c. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean d. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to Confidence Limit The correct answer is: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean The confidence level is expressed as a fraction Select one: a. FALSE The correct answer is: FALSE Short Quiz 8 The “p hat” is calculated as Select one: a. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes b. Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Correct c. 1- (Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes) d. (Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements) – 1 Feedback The correct answer is: Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Sampling distribution of proportions is ______________ distributed Select one: a. Normally Correct b. Randomly c. Evenly d. Unevenly Feedback The correct answer is: Normally A survey was conducted to 300 Grade 10 students who have Internet access to determine who access social media websites after attending classes. Based on the survey, 250 students responded Yes. What is the population proportion to students who do not access social media after attending classes? Select one: a. 80% b. 20% c. 17% Correct d. 83% Feedback The correct answer is: 17% When the confidence level is 95%, the ____________________ are +- 1.96 Select one: a. Margin of Errors b. Confidence coefficients Correct c. Confidence intervals d. “p hat” values Feedback The correct answer is: Confidence coefficients Point estimate is Select one: a. Always equal to the number or samples b. A range of possible values for a population parameter. c. Equal to the population mean d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter Correct Feedback The correct answer is: A statistical that estimates a population parameter The ^p is the ____________ estimate of p. Select one: a. balanced b. unbiased Correct c. biased d. inverse Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution, find the margin of error. Select one: a. 1.24 Correct b. 26.76 c. 3.16 d. 0.63 Feedback The correct answer is: 1.24 Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 99% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution, find the interval estimate of the population mean. Select one: a. (11.34, 14.89) b. (1.63, 2.25) c. (21.36, 24.63) d. (26.36, 29.63) Correct Feedback The correct answer is: (26.36, 29.63) What is in the center of the confidence interval? Select one: a. Margin of Error b. Point Estimate Correct c. Population Parameter d. Number of samples Feedback The correct answer is: Point Estimate In a survey of 500 individuals, 300 likes to eat dinner in a restaurant. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who like to eat dinner in a restaurant based on the sample. Select one: a. 45% b. 0.40 c. 55% d. 0.60 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 0.60 Learning Activity 8 Stats Margin of error is Select one: a. the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size Correct b. the quotient of confidence coefficient and standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size c. the product of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided by standard deviation d. the quotient of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided standard deviation Feedback The correct answer is: the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size Given n=100, x¯ =45, s=2.0, 90% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution, find the interval estimate of the population mean. Select one: a. (42.103, 43.970) b. (43.355, 46.645) c. (44.461, 45.329) Incorrect d. (46.921, 47.727) Feedback The correct answer is: (43.355, 46.645) Given n=100, x¯ =80, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution, find the margin of error. Select one: a. 0.348 Incorrect b. 0.20 c. 0.392 d. 0.196 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.392 A survey was conducted from the 250 individuals. Based on the result of the survey, 170 are satisfied with the current Local Government administration. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who are not satisfied based on the sample provided. Select one: a. 55% b. 0.32 Correct c. 0. d. 0.68 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.32 A survey was conducted to 110 college students to determine who are using the Library Resource Center of the university. Based on the survey, only 30% responded Yes. Based on the survey, how many students are not using the Library Resource Center? Select one: a. 33 b. 30 c. 67 Correct d. 70 Feedback The correct answer is: 67 Learning Activity 9 Stats A survey of 200 people finds that they work on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98% confidence level is 1.2 hours. How do you compute for the lower confidence interval? Select one: a. 8 hours less 1.2 hours b. Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours Correct c. None of the choices d. 8 hours less 1.2 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level Feedback The correct answer is: Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours King Lo Electronics claims that the new brand of computer will last for 25,000 hours. A research company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 20,000 hours, with a standard deviation of 1000 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular phone. Select one: a. (17,482, 18,649) b. (19,804, 20,196) Correct c. (23,467, 24,639) d. (26,928, 27,375) Feedback The correct answer is: (19,804, 20,196) Given the sample size (n=400) and sample proportion (p=0.56), find the approximate margin of error for the 99% confidence interval: Select one: a. 0.043 Incorrect b. 0.052 c. 0.064 d. 0.074 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.064 Given the sample size (n=200) and sample proportion (p=0.70), find the approximate margin of error for the 90% confidence interval: Select one: a. 0.053 b. 0.085 c. 0.072 Incorrect d. 0.039 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.053 A private organization telephone poll of 750 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that 60% of citizen feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ± 20 percentage points. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion. Select one: a. (0.490, 0.601) b. (0.452, 0.538) c. (0.565, 0.640) Correct d. (0.316, 0.483) Feedback The correct answer is: (0.565, 0.640) Short Quiz 9 Given the sample size (n=400) and sample proportion (p=0.70), find the approximate margin of error for the 99% confidence interval: Select one: a. 0.086 b. 0.059 c. 0.039 Incorrect d. 0.330 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.059 Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for 300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who have this cancer. Determine a 90% confidence interval for the proportion successful treated. Select one: a. 0.564 < p < 0.640 b. 0.640 < p < 0.742 Incorrect c. 0.742 < p < 0.834 d. 0.834 < p < 0.927 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.564 < p < 0.640 A private organization telephone poll of 900 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that 75% of citizen feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10 percentage points. Find a 90% upper confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion. Select one: a. 0.077 b. 0.329 Incorrect c. 0.834 d. 0.290 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.077 Lim Electronics claims that the new brand of cellular phone will last for 80,000 hours. A research company conducted a test on the information. The company randomly select and test 100 cellular phone. The data from the sample shows that the mean life of the cellular phone is 60,000 hours, with a standard deviation of 1500 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life of the cellular phone. Select one: a. (79,301 , 80,890) Incorrect b. (59,706 , 60,294) c. (59,301 , 60,890) d. (79,706 , 80,294) Feedback The correct answer is: (59,706 , 60,294) A survey of 900 female finds that they sleep on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 95% confidence level is 1.3 hours. Find the confidence interval? Select one: a. 4.50 hours < p < 5.89 hours b. 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Correct c. 8.66 hours < p < 11.26 hours d. 7.34 hours < p < 8.66 hours Feedback The correct answer is: 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Given the sample size (n=300) and sample proportion (p=0.56), find the approximate margin of error for the 90% confidence interval: Select one: a. 0.055 b. 0.069 c. 0.047 Correct d. 0.039 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.047 Given the problem in item 9, what does the answer tells about? Select one: a. Lim Electronics can use the survey conducted for their advertisements. b. The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics. c. The confidence interval support the claim of Lim Electronics. Incorrect d. The information is not sufficient to conclude. Feedback The correct answer is: The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics. A survey of 900 people finds that they work on average of 9 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98% confidence level is 1.5 hours. What is the solution to find the lower confidence interval? Select one: a. Z score plus less the square root of 9 hours less 1.5 hours b. None of the choices c. 9 hours less 1.5 hours Correct d. All of the choices e. 9 hours less 1.5 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level A private organization telephone poll of 900 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that 75% of citizen feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for a second opinion or do additional research. The margin of error for this survey was given as ±10 percentage points. Find a 90% lower confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion. Select one: a. 0.0726 b. 0.8932 c. 0.4508 Incorrect d. 0.0934 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.0726 Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for 300 of the patients. Assume that these patients are representative of the population of individuals who have this cancer. Calculate the sample proportion that was successfully treated. Select one: a. 0.85 Incorrect b. 0.72 c. 0.30 d. 0.60 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.60 Learning Activity 12 Stats In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE. Correct b. The statement is FALSE. Feedback The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE. This separates the rejection region to the region where we do not reject the null hypothesis. Select one: a. Z score b. Null value Incorrect c. Critical value d. chi value The correct answer is: Critical value Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: –4 Select one: a. Do not Reject b. Reject Correct c. Cannot be determined Feedback The correct answer is: Reject St. Therese senior high school have an average achievement test score of 96. From a random sample of 49 students St. Therese students we find the average achievement test score to be 98 with a standard deviation of 88. We want to know if these high school students are representative of the overall population. What can we conclude based? Select one: a. Accept null hypothesis b. Reject null hypothesis c. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect d. Reject alternative hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: 2.35 Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. Reject c. Do not Reject Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: Reject Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 25, s = 5, n = 80, x¯ = 23.4 Answer: -5 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: -2.86 Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2 Answer: -12.83 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 2.09 Short Quiz 12 Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney. What is the value of the test statistics? Select one: a. 3.49 Incorrect b. – 1.85 c. – 1.85 d. – 1.33 Feedback The correct answer is: – 1.85 Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 8.5, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2 Answer: 34.32 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: -3.23 Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: 3.31 Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. Reject Correct c. Do not Reject Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather than a jeepney. What can we conclude based the value of the test statistics? Select one: a. Reject null hypothesis b. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect c. Reject alternative hypothesis d. Accept null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis Values supporting the ___________________ occurs in the rejection region. Select one: a. Critical values b. Alternative hypothesis and critical values Incorrect c. Null hypothesis d. Null hypothesis and critical values e. Alternative hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis and critical values A sample is small when n=30. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect b. The statement is FALSE. Replace the letter n with letter x. c. The statement is FALSE. Replace the = with = d. The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large. Feedback The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large. In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making. Select one: a. The statement is FALSE. b. The statement is TRUE. Correct Feedback The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE. Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: 0.131 Select one: a. Do not Reject b. Reject Incorrect c. Cannot be determined Feedback The correct answer is: Do not Reject Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: 1.11 Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. Do not Reject Correct c. Reject Feedback The correct answer is: Do not Reject Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2 Answer: 56.23 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 2.09 Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the following. Express your answer in 2 decimal places. µ = 8, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2 Answer: -1.99 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: -1.99 Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: 1.20 Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. Reject c. Do not Reject Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Do not Reject Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted: – 0.6 Select one: a. Cannot be determined b. Do not Reject Correct c. Reject Feedback The correct answer is: Do not Reject Learning Activity 13 Stats A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching. What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.033 b. 0.028 c. 0.066 Incorrect d. 0.041 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.041 A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching. What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.932 b. 0.400 c. 0.783 d. 0.600 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 0.400 A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 75% of his budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found out that in 6 of the processed food, the cost of the material is higher. What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.442 Incorrect b. 0.391 c. 0.137 d. 0.296 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.137 A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 75% of his budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found out that in 6 of the processed food, the cost of the material is higher. At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Reject the null hypothesis b. Accept the null hypothesis Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching. At the 10% level of significance, test the Police Sub Station claims. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct b. Reject the null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the accidents are related to cell phone snatching. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. -0.066 b. 2.112 c. -1.231 d. 1.992 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 1.992 A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 75% of his budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found out that in 6 of the processed food, the cost of the material is higher. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. 0.899 b. 1.203 c. 0.996 d. 1.095 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 1.095 Short Quiz 13 Stats The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct b. Reject the null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. 0.983 b. 2.181 c. 3.004 d. 1.191 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 1.191 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.087 Correct b. 0.0632 c. 0.032 d. 0.051 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.087 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.041 b. 0.089 c. 0.026 Correct d. 0.011 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.026 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. -2.729 b. -0.998 c. -3.661 d. -1.260 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: -1.260 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.372 b. 0.419 c. 0.267 Correct d. 0.189 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.267 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.667 Correct b. 0.429 c. 0.739 d. 0.921 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.667 The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. 0.0548 b. 0.0808 c. 0.0993 d. 0.0741 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 0.0741 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct b. Reject the null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.963 b. 0.675 Correct c. 0.367 d. 0.822 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.675 Short Quiz 13 Stats The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct b. Reject the null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. 0.983 b. 2.181 c. 3.004 d. 1.191 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 1.191 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.087 Correct b. 0.0632 c. 0.032 d. 0.051 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.087 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.041 b. 0.089 c. 0.026 Correct d. 0.011 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.026 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. -2.729 b. -0.998 c. -3.661 d. -1.260 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: -1.260 About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette: What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.372 b. 0.419 c. 0.267 Correct d. 0.189 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.267 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.667 Correct b. 0.429 c. 0.739 d. 0.921 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.667 The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. What is the test statistic for this scenario? Select one: a. 0.0548 b. 0.0808 c. 0.0993 d. 0.0741 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 0.0741 A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor and material is going up and accounts for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the cost of the material is higher. At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you conclude? Select one: a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct b. Reject the null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. What is the observed value of the sample proportion? Select one: a. 0.963 b. 0.675 Correct c. 0.367 d. 0.822 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.675 The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random sample of 200 accidents, it is found that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles. What is the standard error of the proportion? Select one: a. 0.062 b. 0.077 c. 0.034 correct d. 0.045 Short Quiz 15 Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.01 Select one: a. No apparent correlation Correct b. Weak positive correction c. Strong positive correction d. Minimal positive correction Feedback The correct answer is: No apparent correlation Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and ____. Select one: a. 0, 100 Incorrect b. 1, 100 c. +1, -1 d. 0, 1 Feedback The correct answer is: +1, -1 Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines Select one: a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect b. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable c. Cannot be determined Feedback The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable Describe the relationship based on the r-value r=0, Select one: a. No relationship b. Deterministic relationship Incorrect c. Weak relationship d. Strong relationship Feedback The correct answer is: No relationship The value of a perfect positive coefficient is ________. Select one: a. A positive number greater than 1 b. Equal to zero. c. None of the choices d. Equal to 1. e. A positive number greater than 0. Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: Equal to 1. Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.75 Select one: a. Minimal positive correction Incorrect b. Weak positive correction c. No apparent correlation d. Strong positive correction Feedback The correct answer is: Strong positive correction The variable that causes an effect Select one: a. Response variable b. Explanatory variable Correct c. Trend variable d. Correlation variable Feedback The correct answer is: Explanatory variable This pattern is produced when the score of one observation is high, the score of the other observation to be high. Select one: a. XY Plot b. Positive Correlation c. Direct Correlation Incorrect d. Negative Correlation Feedback The correct answer is: Positive Correlation Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines Select one: a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect b. Cannot be determined c. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable Feedback The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable The variable that reflects the effect Select one: a. Explanatory variable b. Response variable Correct c. Correlation variable d. Trend variable Feedback The correct answer is: Response variable Learning Activity 15 Stats Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.63 Select one: a. Minimal positive correction b. Strong positive correction Correct c. No apparent correlation d. Weak positive correction Feedback The correct answer is: Strong positive correction The symbol used to measure the strength and direction of a linear correlation Select one: a. r2 b. r c. XY d. None of the choices Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: r It is also called independent variable Select one: a. Explanatory variable b. Response variable Incorrect c. Trend variable d. Correlation variable Feedback The correct answer is: Explanatory variable Salary and number of years of experience Select one: a. Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Correct b. Salary is the explanatory variable and number of years is the response variable c. Cannot be determined Feedback The correct answer is: Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.20 Select one: a. No apparent correlation b. Minimal positive correction Incorrect c. Weak positive correction d. Strong positive correction Feedback The correct answer is: Weak positive correction Expenditure is an example of a Select one: a. Trend variable b. Explanatory variable c. Correlation variable d. Response variable Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Response variable Short Quiz 5 Stats True or False: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation. The correct answer is: FALSE True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to 20. The correct answer is: FALSE True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated by dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square of the sample size. The correct answer is: FALSE True or False: A random sample of size 49 is selected from a known population with a mean of 29 and a standard deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve. The correct answer is: TRUE Margin of Error is the value that _______________ from the mean to identify the confidence interval. A: add/subtract In a normal curve, a _____ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average. The correct answer is: Z score Empirical rule states that _______ % of data falls within 2 standard deviation. The correct answer is: 95 True or False: Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean. The correct answer is: TRUE True or False: If the population is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of sample mean is equal to 1. A: false If there are 2 volunteers that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will be the possible samples? A: 45 The correct answer is: FALSE The average of the population. The correct answer is: Mean PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem. REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA. If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many possible samples will there be? The correct answer is: 1140 True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the population mean. The correct answer is: TRUE It is located at the middle of the normal curve. The correct answer is: Mean Bell shaped curve. The correct answer is: Normal Curve In a normal curve, the mean always has a z score of ____ The correct answer is: 0 Week 6 Learning Activity 5 Stats Different questions. Comment below yung questions kapagwala pa rindito. If the population is normally distributed, Select one: a. All of the choices b. The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal Correct c. Standard deviation is equal to Mean d. Standard deviation is distributed along the normal curve Feedback The correct answer is: The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE Correct b. None of the choices c. The statement is FALSE d. The statement do not have sufficient information to conclude The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE A random sample of size is 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 13 and a standard deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. What is the approximate standard deviation of the sample means? Select one: a. 12.692 b. 0.066 c. 0.467 Correct d. 15.15 Feedback The correct answer is: 0.467 A random sample of size 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 25 and a standard deviation of 5.2. Samples of the same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. What does the problem tells us? Select one: a. All of the above statements does not describe the problem b. Standard deviation of the sample mean is calculated by 5.2 divided by size of the sample which is 50 c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve d. Z score can be calculated by dividing 25 by the size of samples which is 50 Answer: c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve If there are 5 students that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will be the possible samples? Select one: a. 250 b. 126 c. 50 d. 252 Answer: 252 In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated by Select one: a. Mean of the population multiplied by the standard deviation of the population b. Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size c. Dividing the mean of the population by the square root of the deviation of the population d. Mean of the population divided by the mean of the sampling distribution Answer:Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem? Select one: a. None of the answers is correct. b. All of the answers are correct. c. Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal to 30. d. When the sample size is large or above 30, the population is not normal Incorrect e. Population is normally distributed when standard deviation is large Feedback The correct answer is: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal to 30. Short Quiz 7 Stats Margin of Error is the value that ______ from the mean to identify the confidence interval. Select one: a. Subtracted b. Added c. None of the choices d. Added and subtracted The correct answer is: Added and subtracted Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 88 Standard deviation = 6 Sample size = 100 Confidence level = 95% Select one: a. 73.89, 79.89 b. 80.08, 84.23 c. 89.05, 92.45 d. 86.82, 89.18 The correct answer is: 80.08, 84.23 The number of degrees of freedom is ________ the sample size. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Greater than c. Equal to d. Less than The correct answer is: Less than Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 66 Standard deviation = 5 Sample size = 100 Confidence coefficient = 1.645 Select one: a. 70.04, 71.34 b. 71.90, 72.22 c. 69.33, 70.02 d. 65.18, 66.82 The correct answer is: 65.18, 66.82 Find the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. The answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. The correct answer is: 8 6 . 2 5 The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean is called the Margin of Error. Select one: a. TRUE b. FALSE The correct answer is: FALSE Which of the following does not describes a T distribution? Select one: a. None of the choices b. Bell shaped curve c. Symmetrical d. Mean of Means is equal to 0 The correct answer is: Mean of Means is equal to 0 Compute for the margin of error given the following data: Mean = 80 Standard deviation = 4 Sample size = 100 Confidence level = 95% Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. Answer: Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 0.78 Which of the following is used to estimate population parameter? Select one: a. Point Estimate b. Central Limit Theorem Estimate Incorrect c. Mean Estimate d. Biased Estimate Feedback The correct answer is: Point Estimate Mean of means is also called Select one: a. Unbiased estimate b. Interval Estimate Incorrect c. Point Estimate d. Population Mean Feedback The correct answer is: Point Estimate Compute for the margin of error given the following data: Mean = 77 Standard deviation = 3 Sample size = 100 Confidence coefficient = 2.58 Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. Answer: Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 0.77 Learning activity 7 Stats Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 66 Standard deviation = 3 Sample size = 100 Confidence level = 95% Select one: a. 66.03, 69.03 b. 64.04, 67.96 c. 65.41, 66.59 d. 69.03, 70.99 The correct answer is: 65.41, 66.59 Common choices for the confidence level. Select one: a. 68%, 95%, 99.7% b. 90%, 95%, 99% c. 95%, 99%, 100% d. 0%, 50%, 100% The correct answer is: 90%, 95%, 99% In T distribution, if we increase the number of observations Select one: a. the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution b. the mean approaches zero c. the curve lies within the horizontal axis d. the mean increases e. all of the choices The correct answer is: the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. Select one: a. Confidence Limit b. Sample Mean Correct c. Sample distribution d. Confidence coefficient Feedback The correct answer is: Sample Mean For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing a value outside of this area is ____________. Select one: a. Less than 10% b. Higher than the 2 nd standard deviation Incorrect c. Greater than 10% d. Lower than the 2 nd standard deviation Feedback The correct answer is: Less than 10% This is the value that is added to and subtracted from the mean to identify the confidence interval. Select one: a. Confidence Level b. Margin of Error c. Confidence Interval Incorrect d. Standard Deviation Error Feedback The correct answer is: Margin of Error Learning Activity 10 Stats Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and p ^ =0.25. Select one: a. 34 Incorrect b. 33 c. 31 d. 32 Feedback The correct answer is: 33 Find the sample size given 90% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and ^p =0.25. Select one: a. 20 Incorrect b. 22 c. 23 d. 21 Feedback The correct answer is: 23 Find the sample size given 99% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.10 and ^p =0.35. Select one: a. 389 b. 215 Incorrect c. 139 d. 152 Feedback The correct answer is: 152 Find the sample size given 99% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.18 and ^p =0.30. Select one: a. 41 b. 42 c. 44 Incorrect d. 43 Feedback The correct answer is: 43 The Engineer of the building wants to use the proportion of the population to determine the sample size needed to interview regarding their idea about the new color design of the building. He wants to be able to assure with probability 0.90 that his error will be most 0.10. Similar surveys during past year that 85% approved the new color design. How large a sample does the Engineer need? Select one: a. 278 Incorrect b. 2,145 c. 1,372 d. 196 Feedback The correct answer is: 196 Short Quiz 11 Stats Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis: The proportion of computer in the software laboratory is lower than the total number of BS IT students in the university. Answer: alternative hypothesis Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ________________. Select one: a. Mutually exclusive b. All of the choices c. None of the choices d. Mutually inclusive Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Mutually inclusive Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis: The proportion of an employee income is greater than the monthly expenses of the employee. Answer: null hypothesis Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis William collected a random sample of 88 people, asking how many times they open ABC web site per day on average, and calculated x¯ = 50.30. ABC suggests that µ = 55, and s = 10. William thinks the actual mean is less than the website owner claims. What is the null and alternative hypothesis? Select one: a. 55 b. Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55 c. Null hypothesis µ ? 55, Alternative hypothesis µ d. Null hypothesis µ > 55, Alternative hypothesis µ = 55 e. 55, Alternative hypothesis µ ? 55 Correct f. Null hypothesis µ Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55 A type of test that is denoted by the symbol Ho. Select one: a. Rejection hypothesis Incorrect b. Statistical hypothesis c. Alternative hypothesis d. Null hypothesis Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis The probability of making type I error is Select one: a. ß b. 1- a c. 1- ß d. a Correct e. µ - a Feedback The correct answer is: a For the 99% confidence level, Select one: a. a b. a c. a d. 0.001 e. a f. 0.010 g. 0.005 h. 0.025 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 0.010 Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis: A police precinct claims that there is ten crimes on the average are reported. Answer: alternative hypothesis Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis This refers to the area where the value of the test statistic lies for which we will reject the null hypothesis. Select one: a. Rejection region and Null region b. Rejection region and Critical region Correct c. Null region and Critical region d. Null region e. Critical region f. None of the choices g. Rejection region h. All of the choices Feedback The correct answer is: Rejection region and Critical region Learning Activity 11 Stats Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis: The average income of an employee is 12,000 pesos. Answer: null hypothesis Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis The level of significance is the Select one: a. 1 - p value b. Same as confidence interval c. Maximum allowable probability of Type II error d. Minimum allowable probability of Type II error e. Probability of committing a Type I error Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Probability of committing a Type I error What is the null hypothesis to the claim that people like android phone than IOS? State the null hypothesis. Select one: a. Less people like IOS than android b. More people like android than IOS phone Correct c. Less people like android and IOS phone d. More people like IOS phone than android phone Feedback The correct answer is: More people like android than IOS phone If the null hypothesis is true and rejected, the decision is incorrect – Type I Error Select one: a. Rejection Error b. Type I Error Correct c. Correction Error d. Type II Error Feedback The correct answer is: Type I Error Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis: The average internet usage of a College student is 6 hours. Answer: null hypothesis Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Null hypothesis Short quiz 14 In a ____________, high values in one variable correspond to high values in the other variable. Select one: a. Perfect Correlation Incorrect b. Positive Correlation c. Scattered Correlation d. Negative Correlation Feedback The correct answer is: Positive Correlation Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables. Select one: a. Line Plots Incorrect b. XY intersection plot c. scatter plot d. Cartesian plane Feedback The correct answer is: scatter plot When examining scatterplot and draw an ellipse around the data, long and narrow ellipses means Select one: a. Negative linear association b. Weak linear association c. Positive linear association Incorrect d. Strong linear association e. Cannot determine with the given information Feedback The correct answer is: Strong linear association This measures relationship between bivariate data. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Correlation Correct c. All of the choices d. Linear Regression e. Scatterplot Analysis Feedback The correct answer is: Correlation A _____________ is simply a scatterplot in which we connect successive chronological observations with a line segment to give more information about how the data values are changing over a period of time. Select one: a. XY Plot b. Scatter Plot c. Correlation Plot d. Line plot Correct Feedback The correct answer is: Line plot The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also decreases. Select one: a. negative linear association Incorrect b. proportional association c. elliptical association d. positive linear association Feedback The correct answer is: positive linear association The goal of examining bivariate data is to show some relativity or association between two or more variables. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect b. The statement is FALSE. Feedback The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Learning Actvity 14 Stats Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables. Select one: a. Positive linear association Incorrect b. Weak linear association c. Strong linear association d. None of the choices e. Negative linear association Feedback The correct answer is: Negative linear association The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also increases. Select one: a. positive linear association Correct b. proportional association c. elliptical association d. negative linear association Feedback The correct answer is: positive linear association The line that is closest to the points is called _____________. Select one: a. Trend line Correct b. Correlation line c. Cross line d. Scatter line Feedback The correct answer is: Trend line The three important characteristics of a bivariate? Select one: a. Elliptical, Rounded, Scattered b. Proportional, Directional, Elliptical c. Direction, Shape, Strength d. Line, Points, Shape Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: Direction, Shape, Strength The series of disconnected points is referred to as _________________________ Select one: a. XY Plots b. Trend line plots c. Bivariate data d. scatter plot Correct Feedback The correct answer is: scatter plot Short Quiz 16 Stats The equation y=2x2 + 9 will produce a Select one: a. Parabola Correct b. Ellipse c. Circle d. Straight line Feedback The correct answer is: Parabola When slope is positive, Select one: a. y increases as x increases Correct b. y decreases as x increases c. y increases, x values approaches point of origin d. y decreases, x values approaches 1 Feedback The correct answer is: y increases as x increases In the slope-intercept equation of a line, the slope of the line is represented as the coefficient of the variable x. Select one: a. FALSE b. Cannot be determined c. TRUE Correct Feedback The correct answer is: TRUE Given the table below, what is the linear equation? Select one: a. y=3x + 11 Incorrect b. y=6x + 5 c. y=8x + 3 d. y=3x + 8 Feedback Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: y=8x + 3 If the line has no slope, Select one: a. The line is a horizontal line b. The line is at the point of origin c. The line intercepts the x and y axis d. The line lies at the x axis Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: The line is a horizontal line Given the table below, what is the slope? Select one: a. 9 b. 11 c. 8 d. 3 Incorrect Feedback Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: 8 Given the equation y = 7x+ 30, what is the slope? Answer: 4.2 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 7 Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation. Select one: a. y=5x + 1 b. y=10x + 2 Incorrect c. y=5x + 2 d. y=10x + 1 Feedback Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: y=5x + 1 Given the equation 9y = 2x + 81, what is the y intercept? Answer: Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 9 The equation y=mx + b is also known as Select one: a. slope intercept form b. y intercept Incorrect c. correlation intercept form d. xy intercept form Feedback The correct answer is: slope intercept form Learning Activity 16 Stats Given the equation y = 3x+ 10, what is the slope? Answer: 3 Correct Feedback The correct answer is: 3 Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation. Select one: a. y=3x + 1 b. 2y=6x + 3 c. y=-3x + 3 Correct d. 2y=6x + 1 The correct answer is: y=-3x + 3 Given the table below, what is the slope? Select one: a. 2 Correct b. 1 c. 8 d. 7 Feedback Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: 2 Given the equation 2y = 3x + 10, what is the y intercept? Answer: 2 Incorrect Feedback The correct answer is: 5 Given the table below, what is the linear equation? Select one: a. y=2x + 7 Correct b. y=5x + 2 c. y=7x + 1 d. y=7x + 5 Feedback Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: y=2x + 7 Write the slope-intercept equation of the line that has slope 6 and y-intercept 4. answer: 6x+4 Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. A: False Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif A: Variance Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 A: 31 Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: Sample Mean Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation. A: False Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1. A: The statement is TRUE. True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value ANSWER: TRUE Q: As the sample size increases, A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution. Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 A: 4.53 Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. A: 8 Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university A: CONTINUOUS Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. A: False Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. A: False Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39 A: 39 Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution? A: Mean of Means is equal to 0 Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order A: True Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to 20. A: False Q: To calculate the mean from a sample, A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter? A: Point Estimate Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. A: Yes Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community A: DISCRETE Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Bell Curve Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the A: Population mean Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator? A: Mean Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the population mean within the given interval. A: Confidence Level Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average. A: Z score Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the population mean. A: True Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing a value outside of this area is ____________. A: Less than 10% Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution A: Normal quantile plot Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a varsity team A: DISCRETE Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables. A: Mean Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. A: Yes Q: Consider the given the probability distribution A:4.100 Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem. REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA. If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many possible samples will there be? A: 1140 Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve. A: All of the choices Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population A: False Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve? A: 3 Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Bell Curve Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile? A: 4 Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______. A: 30 Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after? A: Carl Friedrich Gauss Population Mean is an example of a parameter. A: true Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample A: True Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean. A: 68 Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to A: 1 Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete random variable. A: False Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts examination to all his students. A: No Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile A: 14 Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score? A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? x,0,1,2 p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10 A: None of the choices Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. A: False It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. Select one: a. Variance b. Standard Deviation c. Mean d. Probability What is the common symbol for the mean? Select one: a. ∑ b. Α c. Ω d. µ True or False: Mean is computed as the weighted average of the possible numbers of random variables. ANSWER: TRUE Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE. Select one: a. All values are less than the mean. b. All values are equal to the z-score c. All values are equal to the mean. d. All values are greater than the mean. True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. Answer: true How do you determine the value of the mean, Select one: a. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X. b. None of the choices c. Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X. d. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume. Answer: FALSE true or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean. ~ true The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume. Select one: a. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement. b. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement. c. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement. d. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. Which of the following applies to a normal distribution? Select one: a. Mean is greater than Median. b. Data is exactly equal to the mean. c. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. d. Median is greater than Mean. e. None of the choices What are the percentages of normal distribution within 1, 2 and 3 standard deviation. Select one: a. Approximately 50% and 50% respectively b. Exactly 25%, 25% and 50% respectively c. Exactly 100% be applied to each standard deviation d. Approximately 68%, 95% and 99.7% respectively In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size ________________________. Select one: a. Must be greater than zero. b. Must be greater than sample distribution. c. Must be equal than the sample mean. d. Must be greater than 30. This is a representative subset of a population. Select one: a. Standard Deviation b. Sample c. Statistics d. Mean In the Empirical Rule, _______ % of data will fall in with two standard deviation. Select one: a. 99.7 b. 34 c. 50 d. 100 e. 95 This is always in the center of the normal curve Select one: a. Mode b. Median c. Standard Deviation d. Mean True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value. A: false In a normal curve, the mean is located at the Select one: a. highest point of the curve b. lowest point of the curve c. midpoint of the curve d. intersection of the lowest and highest point The range of probability is Select one: a. can be any number (positive or negative) b. from zero to 1 c. negative 1 to positive 1 d. from zero to any positive number The standard deviation of the normal distribution is Select one: a. should always be a positive number b. always equal to zero c. always equal to one d. greater than or equal to zero This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value. Select one: a. Median b. Standard Deviation c. Variance d. Mode e. Mean The mean of the normal distribution is Select one: a. should always be a positive number b. always equal to zero c. always equal to one d. greater than or equal to zero This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population Select one: a. Standard Deviation b. Mean c. Sample Distribution of sample means d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means e. Sample f. Parameter g. Random Sample h. Standard Curve i. Sampling Error j. Population k. Population Mean l. Distribution Error m. Median n. Mode o. Statistics p. Sample q. Deviation Error True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8. Answer: false The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean. Select one: a. Standard Deviation Error b. Confidence Interval c. Margin of Error d. Confidence Level The t-distribution shape changes as the _______________ changes. Select one: a. Population Mean b. None of the choices c. Sample Mean d. Sample size The confidence level is expressed in terms of ____________. Select one: a. Percentage b. Whole Number c. Fraction d. Ratio In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the population is estimated by dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square of the sample size. Select one: a. The statement is TRUE b. The statement is FALSE c. The statement is SOMETIMES FALSE d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. A: False Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif A: Variance Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 A: 31 Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: Sample Mean Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation. A: False Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1. A: The statement is TRUE. Q: As the sample size increases, A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution. Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 A: 4.53 Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. A: 8 Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university A: CONTINUOUS Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. A: False Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. A: False Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39 A: 39 Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution? A: Mean of Means is equal to 0 Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order A: True Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to 20. A: False Q: To calculate the mean from a sample, A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter? A: Point Estimate Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. A: Yes Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community A: DISCRETE Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Normal Curve Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the A: Population mean Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator? A: Mean Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the population mean within the given interval. A: Confidence Level Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average. A: Z score Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the population mean. A: True Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing a value outside of this area is ____________. A: Less than 10% Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution A: Normal quantile plot Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a varsity team A: DISCRETE Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables. A: Mean Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. A: Yes Q: Consider the given the probability distribution A: Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem. REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA. If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many possible samples will there be? A: 1140 Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve. A: All of the choices Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population A: False Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve? A: 3 Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Basic Curve Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile? A: 4 Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______. A: 30 Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after? A: Carl Friedrich Gauss Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample A: True Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean. A: 68 Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to A: 1 Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete random variable. A: False Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts examination to all his students. A: No Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile A: 14 Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score? A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? x,0,1,2 p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10 A: None of the choices Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. A: False STAT-112-20172S / ► Week 10: Quarterly Exam / ► Quarterly Exam Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. A: False Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif A: Variance Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 A: 31 Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: Sample Mean Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation. A: False Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1. A: The statement is TRUE. Q: As the sample size increases, A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution. Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 A: 4.53 Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. A: 8 Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university A: CONTINUOUS Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. A: False Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. A: False Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39 A: 39 Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution? A: Mean of Means is equal to 0 Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order A: True Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to 20. A: False Q: To calculate the mean from a sample, A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter? A: Point Estimate Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. A: Yes Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community A: DISCRETE Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Normal Curve Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the A: Population mean Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator? A: Mean Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the population mean within the given interval. A: Confidence Level Q: In a normal curve, a _ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average. A: Z score Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the population mean. A: True Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population. A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing a value outside of this area is __________. A: Less than 10% Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution A: Normal quantile plot Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a varsity team A: DISCRETE Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables. A: Mean Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. A: Yes Q: Consider the given the probability distribution A: Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem. REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA. If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many possible samples will there be? A: 1140 Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve. A: All of the choices Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population A: False Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve? A: 3 Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called A: Basic Curve Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile? A: 4 Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _____. A: 30 Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after? A: Carl Friedrich Gauss Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample A: True Q: Empirical Rule states that ___ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean. A: 68 Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to A: 1 Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete random variable. A: False Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts examination to all his students. A: No Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile A: 14 Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score? A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? x,0,1,2 p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10 A: None of the choices Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. A: False Which of the following is tells about t distribution, A: all of the choices Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices; Mean is equal to Mode; Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes 1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest tenths): 4.2 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb CONTINUOUS In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; None of the choices; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set. None of the choices True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8. False True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value. False Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places. 4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60 True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. Yes True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume. False True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: Continuous Discrete Random Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut CONTINUOUS This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.: Mean; Median; Standard Deviation; Variance; Mode Variance It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Sample; Mode; Random Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Statistics; Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Population; Distribution Error; Population Mean; Mean; Sample; Median; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter Sample True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE 1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest tenths): 4.2 The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Mean; Parameter; Random Sample; Mode; Statistics; Standard Curve; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Population; Median; Sample; Population Mean; Distribution Error Sample The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Z-score; Normal Distribution Measurement; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is equal to Median; Mean is equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is TRUE.; The statement is FALSE.; None of the choices; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set. None of the choices Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 6; 1; 4; 0 4 Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of the choices ; (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) None of the choices True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population FALSE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0.1255; 0; None of the choices; 1 0.1255 Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume. False True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results in all areas in the Philippines during election No Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of building excavation.; Height of students enrolled in an online course.; None of the choices.; Wind speed during typhoon.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus. None of the choices. What is the common symbol for the mean?: Α; ∑; µ; Ω µ What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; None of the choices; 0.1255; 1 0.1255 Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one decimal place. 3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30 10.8 How do you determine the value of the mean,: Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Parameter; Sampling Error; Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Mode; Standard Curve; Sample; Population; Median; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Statistics Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: None of the choices; Perfectly asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution; Bell-shaped Perfectly asymmetric It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Median; Normal Distribution Measurement; Empirical Rule; Z-score Z-score Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community DISCRETE In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; straight live curve; skewed to the right; narrower curve; skewed to the left wider curve Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one.; Sample space are possible outcomes; Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample space is also known as probability mass function. Sample space are possible outcomes Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are less than the mean. It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Empirical Rule; Median Z-score Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All of the statements are TRUE. Countable number of values are called discrete variables True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a varsity team DISCRETE The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); negative 1 to positive 1; from zero to any positive number; from zero to 1 from zero to 1 Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables; Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; Probability distribution equals to one.; None of the choices Probability distribution equals to zero. Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are less than the mean. Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve; All of the choices Basic Curve Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts examination to all his students. No Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65 True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal distribution TRUE Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile : 8; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3 8 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of students in a University DISCRETE In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: can be any number (positive or negative); One; Zero; All positive numbers One This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.: Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score Empirical Rule Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the problem? : ; None of the choices; ; The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1 Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18 The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein mean is greater than median.: None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 0; 4; 6; 1 4 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 1; 4; 6; 0 4 It is computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: Random Sample; Standard Deviation; Median; Parameter; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Sample; Mean; Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sampling Error; Sample; Statistics; Mode; Standard Curve; Distribution Error; Population Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Mean; Random Sample; Mode; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter; Standard Curve; Statistics; Population; Population Mean; Sample; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Sample Parameter True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False It is measure of the number of standard deviations a particular data value: Z score; Normal quantile plot; None of the choices; Empirical Rule Z score True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. False Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Normal Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve Normal Curve Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population: Population Mean; Distribution Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Parameter; Sampling Error; Mode; Sample; Mean; Standard Curve; Population; Sample; Median; Random Sample Sample Distribution of sample means Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places. 4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60 Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: William Gosset ; Carl Friedrich Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald FisherCarl Friedrich Gauss True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Height of students enrolled in an online course.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; Depth of building excavation. None of the choices. Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one.; Sample space is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space are possible outcomes Sample space are possible outcomes Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile : 3; 0; 8; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2 1.65 True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 Which of the following is incorrect?: None of the choices; Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; Probability distribution equals to one.; Probability distribution equals to zero. Probability distribution equals to zero. This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values. Probability Distribution equals to zero Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; All of the choices; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve Basic Curve Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 30; 31; 24 31 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Speed of a tropical storm in the Philippines CONTINUOUS Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper quartile : 18; 0; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7 39 It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Variance Rule Empirical Rule Use to check the normality of a distribution: Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the choices Normal quantile plot True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population FALSE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. Yes How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; None of the choices Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. A curve is said to be symmetric if all data points lies at the right side of the curve. A: false As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level decreases. A: false The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; always equal to zero; should always be a positive number; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60 True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; narrower curve; skewed to the right; skewed to the left; straight live curve wider curve True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal distribution TRUE True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in the Philippines who are affected by typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 75 and the standard deviation was 5. If Pam z-scored is 1.5, what was her score in the examination?: 82.50; 487.50; None of the choices; 117.50 82.50 It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Median; Sample; Mean; Mode; Sample; Standard Deviation; Population Mean; Standard Curve; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Parameter; Statistics; Population; Random Sample; Distribution Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sampling Error Sample Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices Basic Curve Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places. 4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.42.60 True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean. All values are greater than the mean. Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut CONTINUOUS The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Random Sample; Population Mean; Median; Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Mean; Distribution Error; Sampling Error; Population; Parameter; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Deviation Error; Mode Random Sample Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.: Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the choices Empirical Rule Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable is a random variable where data can take infinitely many variables; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment; A discrete variable are countable number of possible values; Continuous random variables are finite numbers A discrete variable are countable number of possible values Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 2.466; 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 1.99 It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Distribution Error; Population; Mean; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample; Random Sample; Parameter; Standard Curve; Median; Deviation Error; Mode; Standard Deviation; Statistics Sampling Error True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample TRUE Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8 Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper quartile : 18; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18 A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.: None of the choices; True; False; The statement has insufficient information. True t is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter: Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Mode; Population; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Median; Parameter; Mean; Population Mean; Distribution Error; Sample Sampling Error 1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest tenths): 4.2 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; All of the choices Normal Curve True or False: The bigger the sample size, the more closely the samples will be clustered around the true value. TRUE Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a varsity team DISCRETE This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Distribution Error; Population; Parameter; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Statistics; Sampling Error; Sample; Mode; Standard Curve; Random Sample; Median; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample; Standard Deviation; Mean Statistics Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein mean is greater than median.: The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None of the choices.; The statement is INCORRECT The statement is INCORRECT The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); from zero to any positive number; negative 1 to positive 1; from zero to 1 from zero to 1 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community DISCRETE Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 31; 36.45; 30 31 In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 50 and the standard deviation was 3. If Pam z-scored is 1, what was her score in the examination?: 80.50; None of the choices; 53.00; 82.50 53.00 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39 Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places. 1112345558888 4.53 True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the sample size. FALSE Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of volunteers in a community; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.; The tuition fee enrolled in different universities; The number of senators elected in the Philippines The number of volunteers in a community Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ; (0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) ; (0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of the choices None of the choices It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median; Empirical Rule Z-score Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor households in a community in areas in the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber CONTINUOUS True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample TRUE In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: One; can be any number (positive or negative); Zero; All positive numbers One Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable are countable number of possible values; A discrete variable is a random variable where data can take infinitely many variables; Continuous random variables are finite numbers; A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment A discrete variable are countable number of possible values The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Mean; Standard Deviation; Variance Mean The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should always be a positive number always equal to one Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 2.466 1.99 True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean. True Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 1; 0; 4; 6 4 The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; should always be a positive number; always equal to one; greater than or equal to zero always equal to zero What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 1; None of the choices; 0.1255; 0.25; 0 0.1255 What is the probability of getting all head when a three coins are tossed? 1/8 Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; Basic Curve; All of the choices Normal Curve Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Bell Curve Basic Curve True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the population FALSE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. Yes Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 30; 31; 36.45 31 Countless number of values are also known as _____________ variables. Continuous It is computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Sampling Error; Mean; Standard Deviation; Mode; Statistics; Sample; Median; Random Sample; Population; Standard Curve; Sample Distribution of sample means; Population Mean; Sample; Parameter; Distribution Error Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. 8 It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical Rule; Normal Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median Z-score Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper quartile : 0; 18; 22; 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18 Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results in all areas in the Philippines during election No How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 4; 2; 1; 3 3 True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8. False Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 4; 0; 1; 6 4 This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values. Probability Distribution Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: Mean is greater than Median.; Median is greater than Mean.; None of the choices; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Variance; Standard Deviation; Mean Mean Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: Bell-shaped; None of the choices; Perfectly asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution Perfectly asymmetric Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university DISCRETE Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. Yes True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑; Α; Ω; µ µ Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve Basic Curve Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor households in a community in areas in the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; 0.1255; 1; None of the choices 0.1255 It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule; None of the choices Empirical Rule The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; always equal to zero; should always be a positive number always equal to one It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter: Mean; Standard Deviation; Random Sample; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample Distribution of sample means; Median; Parameter; Population Mean; Mode; Sample; Standard Curve; Population; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Sample; Statistics Sampling Error It is the degree of error expected for a given sample design: Population; Random Sample; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Deviation Error; Population Mean; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Standard Curve; Sample; Parameter; Statistics; Mode; Mean Sampling Error The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population: Population; Sample; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Distribution Error; Median; Mode; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean; Parameter Sample Distribution of sample means The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population. Sample Distribution of sample means Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal distribution TRUE A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the problem? : None of the choices; ; ; In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 50 and the standard deviation was 3. If Pam z-scored is 1, what was her score in the examination?: 53.00; 80.50; None of the choices; 82.50 53.00 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. Yes Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Each audience in a game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to choose random contestants. Yes What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously? 1 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2; 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 39 39 True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. False Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All values are equal to the z-score; All values are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are greater than the mean. The range of probability is: from zero to any positive number; negative 1 to positive 1; can be any number (positive or negative); from zero to 1 from zero to 1 In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is equal to Mode; None of the choices Mean is equal to Median and Mode True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value. False True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Variance Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Empirical Rule Empirical Rule The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a university DISCRETE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor households in a community in areas in the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager chooses 30 employees randomly from a department. Yes Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means? 60 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Wind speed during typhoon.; Depth of building excavation.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; None of the choices.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices. The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; should always be a positive number; greater than or equal to zero; always equal to zero always equal to one What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously? 1 Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 1.233; 2.466 1.99 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of colored balls, reach in and select a marble with eyes closed. Yes Consider the given the probability distribution The value of the mean is ________. : 4.100 ; 1.233 ; 2.466; 0.082 4.100 A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.: None of the choices; False; True; The statement has insufficient information. True A representative subset of a population: Random Sample; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Distribution Error; Median; Sampling Error; Mean; Population; Sample; Sample; Standard Deviation; Statistics; Parameter; Mode Sample Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Population Mean; Parameter; Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Sample; Distribution Error; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard Curve; Sample; Mode; Deviation Error; Median; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Population Random Sample Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; 44 39 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. Yes True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein mean is greater than median.: The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None of the choices.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical Rule; Median; Z-score; Normal Distribution Measurement Z-score Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 31; 24; 30 31 Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample space are possible outcomes; Sample space is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one. Sample space are possible outcomes True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8. False Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of building excavation.; Wind speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; Height of students enrolled in an online course. None of the choices. How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 3; 2; 4; 1 3 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the lower quartile?: 0; 1; 6; 4 4 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber CONTINUOUS Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: Carl Friedrich Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher ; William Gosset Carl Friedrich Gauss The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable; None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables Continuous Random Variable Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile: 13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16; 24; 16; 14 14 The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1.: The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is FALSE.; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE. Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university CONTINUOUS rue or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE In a normal curve, the mean is located at the: midpoint of the curve; intersection of the lowest and highest point; lowest point of the curve; highest point of the curve highest point of the curve Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; None of the choices; Probability distribution equals to one. Probability distribution equals to zero. True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results in all areas in the Philippines during election No What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑; Ω; Α; µ µ True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean. True True or False: The formula of mean is relative to compute for the variance. True True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12, 8 True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter FALSE True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8. False Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All of the statements are TRUE.; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: None of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Continuous Random Variable Continuous Random Variable Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts examination to all his students. No The sum of all the prob abilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1 The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein mean is greater than median.: The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is INCORRECT; None of the choices. The statement is INCORRECT True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes. False In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.; None of the choices; The statement is TRUE. None of the choices Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered voters in a community whose family income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 An example of a parameter.: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Random Sample; Population; Mode; Sample; Median; Mean; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Standard Deviation; Sample; Sampling Error Population Mean Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower quartile : 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3; 8; 0 8 Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 How many numbers are in the lower quartile? : 10; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10; 6 6 How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places. 1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 4.53 Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 39; 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2 39 Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Parameter; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Sample; Population Mean; Median; Mode; Sample; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Standard Curve; Sample Distribution of sample means; Statistics; Population; Mean Parameter Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: None of the choices; Median is greater than Mean.; Mean is greater than Median.; Data is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community DISCRETE True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 31; 36.45; 30; 24 31 The mean of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should always be a positive number; always equal to zero always equal to zero True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies the probability associated with each possible value that the random variable can assume. False In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Mode; Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices; Mean is equal to Median and Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1 It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual but unknown value of the parameter: Parameter; Mean; Sample; Mode; Distribution Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Median; Sampling Error; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Standard Curve; Population; Population Mean; Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Random Sample Sampling Error Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of internet in all areas in the Visayas Region. Yes It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.: Probability; Standard Deviation; Variance; Mean Probability Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb CONTINUOUS It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; None of the choices; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule Empirical Rule This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Random Sample; Statistics; Population Mean; Sample; Deviation Error; Population; Standard Deviation; Parameter; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Standard Curve; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Distribution Error; Mean Statistics Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS Use to check the normality of a distribution: None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score; Empirical Rule Normal quantile plot Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are called discrete variables Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a community DISCRETE Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights. No Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of senators elected in the Philippines; The number of volunteers in a community; The tuition fee enrolled in different universities; The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference. The number of senators elected in the Philippines Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number of students who rides on the train. Yes True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1 Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10 Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company collects information on businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal 1.: The statement is FALSE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The statement is TRUE. An example of a parameter.: Standard Deviation; Sample; Random Sample; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Mode; Median; Sampling Error; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Mean; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample means; Population Population Mean The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Random Variables; None of the choices Continuous Random Variable True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population TRUE 1. Given the data set below, compute for the variance. (Round off your answer to the nearest hundredths): A: 5.98 The degree of error expected for a given sample design A: sampling error This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie. A: interval estimate Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem? A: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal to 30. These are numbers that summarizes data from a sample. A: statistics The average of the population. A: mean Confidence interval is associated by confidence level A: true In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the A: population mean Which of the following does describes a T distribution? A: all of the choices In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, which of the statement applies? A: A sample size greater than or equal to 30 Margin of Error is computed as quotient of the standard deviation and the ____________ of the sample size multiplied by the confidence coefficient. A: square root In a normal distribution curve, the total area of the curve is A: 1 Number of rooms & employees are examples of _________________. A: Discrete Random Variables What is the formula to calculate the standard deviation of the sampling distribution? A: Standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of the sample size The formula to computer for the confidence interval is? A: The mean of sample should fall ________________ the lower and upper values of the confidence interval. A: within Which of the following describes a T distribution? A: all of the choices As the confidence interval for a given statistics increases in length, A:confidence level increases T distribution is use to estimate population mean interval for: A: Smaller samples In a normal curve, z-score is ______________. A: Always equal to zero. Also known as Bell shaped curve. A: normal curve In a normal distribution, the tail of the curve __________ along the horizontal axis. A: flatten Formula to compute for the variance A: According to the Empirical Rule, ________ % of the sample estimates will fall within one standard error above the population parameter. The process of assigning a number to each member of the population A: Random Sampling Created ByKuyaPiolo In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing progresses. Select one: True False Badminton can be played in both singles and doubles. Select one: True False The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break. Select one: True False Another name for a shuttlecock. Select one: a. bird b. ball c. cock d. shutter The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less than 20mm. Select one: True False The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a and downward swing. (table tennis) Select one: a. drive b. smash c. serve d. drop The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in width and 11 inches in head length. Select one: True False The official badminton court for a game of singles is: Select one: a. 40ft long x 22ft wide b. 44ft long x 22ft wide c. 44ft long x 17ft wide d. 40ft long x 17ft wide When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____. Select one: a. clear b. fault c. let d. drop This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located underneath the rubber surface. Select one: a. padding b. none of the choices c. sponge d. rubber Which of the following is not a part of a badminton racket? Select one: a. stringed area b. face c. frame d. head e. throat f. handle In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side. Select one: a. Forehand b. Backhand c. Match d. Drive e. Clear In badminton, this term refers to loss of service. Select one: a. let b. hand-out c. love d. fault Badminton was said to be similar to what game? Select one: a. tennis b. table tennis c. none of the choices d. battledore The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other fingers spread over the back. (table tennis) Select one: a. western grip b. handshake grip c. penhold grip d. eastern grip In badminton, ___ is the stroke used to initiate play and used to begin each point in the match. Select one: a. smash b. service c. play d. drive This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court. Select one: a. short base line b. short service line c. long service line d. base line The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock. Select one: a. 64mm to 70 mm b. 65mm to 75mm c. 58mm to 68mm d. 25mm to 28mm The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton) Select one: a. Drop b. Rally c. Setting the Game d. Fault e. Net flight A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short chopping motion. (table tennis) Select one: a. smash shot b. push shot c. top spin serve d. chop stroke e. drop shot The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines. Select one: a. Philippine Badminton Federation b. Badminton Association of the Philippines c. Association of Badminton in the Philippines d. none of the choices This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side. (badminton) Select one: a. Net shot b. Smash c. Drive d. Overhand stroke e. Drop shot ___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible. Select one: a. clears b. backhands c. hand-outs d. faults The two types of shuttlecocks are the feathered and the ___. Select one: a. synthetic b. plastic c. recreational d. authentic Which of the following is not considered a fault? Select one: a. If in play, shuttle lands nearly on boundary lines and fails to go past the net or touches the ceiling or walls b. If server misses the shuttlecock c. If service is not correct d. If a player misbehaves or repeated misconduct during the game Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets. Select one: True False Which Olympic host country was badminton presented as a demonstration sport? Answer: Singles serve and receive in the service court. (table tennis) The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of the table. (table tennis) Select one: a. push shot b. drop shot c. top spin serve d. smash shot e. chop stroke How many points must a player get to win a badminton game? Answer: 21 The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide. Select one: True False This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton) Select one: a. Clear b. Fault c. Drive d. Ace e. Bird The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight. Select one: a. paddle b. sponge c. none of the choices d. ball In India, Badminton was known as ____. Answer: Poona Matches in table tennis can get up to what number? Answer: 7 Color of boundary lines in badminton courts. Answer: White or yellow Reaching 40 points is also called . (tennis) The tennis court for a singles game must be feet wide At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at to point opposite the right hip. (tennis) Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game Answer which the racket game originated from. (tennis) In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball. Select one: a. True b. False The backswing in the technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis) Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand. Select one: True False Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a . (tennis) Feet are turned in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis) This refers to chasing how many points to play when the score becomes tied in 13-all or 14-all. (badminton) A: setting the game In doubles, the receiving side may change depending on the serving team's score. (table tennis) A: true Badminton was said to be similar to what game? A: battledore The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton) A: net flight ___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position and regroup and to move the opponent as far away from the net as possible. A: clears Hungary and Czechoslovakia are some of the countries that dominated the table tennis international competitions. A: true The official badminton court for a game of singles is: A: 44ft long x 17ft wide Table tennis originated on December 1890. A: false The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines. A: Badminton Association of the Philippines The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other fingers spread over the back. (table tennis) A: penhold grip The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less than 20mm. A: false A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short chopping motion. (table tennis) A: chop stroke Scoring used in table tennis is called A: love The first player in badminton to reach ___ points wins a game. A: 21 The ball is in play from the moment it is projected from the hand in service. (table tennis) Which of the following statements is not true about table tennis? A: A good stance in serving the ball is that the shoulder of the non-racket hand is parallel to the net in the backhand position. Singles serve and receive in the right service court The Premier International Men's Team Thomas Cup was established in 1948. (badminton) This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located underneath the rubber surface. A: sponge How many, at the most, are the sets in one match? (table tennis) A: 5 The meaning of IBF. A: international badminton federation The number of feathers fixed in the base of a shuttlecock. A: 16 The ball is not in play anymore if it has been struck by either play at least once. (table tennis) A: false The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock. A: 64mm to 70 mm The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in width and 11 inches in head length. A: false This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court. A: short service line In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing progresses. A: false In badminton, this term refers to loss of service. A: hand-out The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less than 20mm. A: false The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight. A: ball stroke refers to the act of striking the ball with the racket. (tennis) When the points reach 40-40, it is called a deuce Occasionally move your body forward with a swing as it will direct the flight of the ball. (tennis) A: false Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game playing ball A score that means zero. (tennis) A: love backhand stroke is used in baseline rallies. (tennis) How many games are there in one set? (tennis) A: 6 What does Paume mean? A: palm The game is won if one of the player gets four points. (tennis) A: true Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a winner The most popular grip in tennis. A: eastern grip The length of the tennis court is 78 feet backswing must be executed with an extended arm and firm wrist. (tennis) eastern grip allows extremely wide reach and maximum power with minimum effort. (tennis) Two points in tennis is equal to 30 points technique, eastern forehand grip is used for the left hand (for right-handed players) and continental grip for right hand (if the player is left-handed). (tennis A: two-handed backhand For the forehand stroke, the player may choose to reach for the incoming ball. (tennis) A: false The server's score is always first. (tennis) A: true Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand. A: true The least practiced tennis stroke. A: backhand stroke One-handed backhand technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The player steps forward using the right foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis) The most prestigious tennis tournament is the Wimbledon refers to the move of hitting the ball in a high arc. (tennis A: LOB is seldom used because of the limited stroke production and awkward grip. (tennis) A: western grip The tennis court for a singles game must be A: 27 in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis) A: sideways The base of the shuttlecock must be: A: 25 to 28mm in a western grip stroke. (tennis) A: downward motion Full extension of the arm and racket will minimize the line of the shot in a backhand stroke. (tennis) A: false In a doubles game, the tennis court is 36 In a doubles game, the players must maintain their A: parallel Where did badminton originate from an old and similar game? A: india This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side. (badminton) A: drive Correct ____ and footwork is needed in playing table tennis. A: stance ____ is the basic offensive shot in badminton. A: smash The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less than 20mm. A: false Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets. A: true Table tennis can only be played indoors. A: false In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side. A: backhand These are shots struck on the side away from the racket (left side for the right-handed and right side for the left-handed). (badminton) A: backhand stroke The post of the badminton net should be ___ meters in height. A: 1.55 Table tennis is also known as ___. A: ping pong Correct gripping is the most vital factor in badminton and winning matches. A: true If the serving team commits a fault, A: side-out Double games are played up to A: 21 Up to how many feathers does a standard shuttlecock have? A: 16 The ____ grip is done by gripping the short handle of the racket very closely to the blade, wherein the forefinger is positioned behind the blade for support. (table tennis) A: handshake When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____. A: let The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break. A: true At a game where both players reach 40 points each, one player must win at least one point over the other to win. (tennis) A: false In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball. A: true Reaching 40 points is also called A: match point At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at A: hip level back requires a strong wrist to be effective. (tennis A: continental forehand The hands and racket is highly used in taking the racket back for a backhand stroke. (tennis) A: true power is generating from the speed and velocity of the forward and upward movements of arms, legs and body. (tennis A: forward swing The tennis tournament in the USA is called the A: US open This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton) A: ace A serve made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot. (badminton) A: drive serve service is always from the right service court to the opponent's right service court. (table tennis A: first The badminton court is longer for a doubles game. A: false The badminton racket should be A: 9 If the player served when the opponent is not ready, it is considered a A: let Which of the following describes the net of a table tennis table? A: light in texture, stretched across the center of the table and attached to the outside by vertical standards In table tennis, both players change ends once one reaches 15 points. A: false Another name for a shuttlecock. A: bird The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide. A: false The tennis ball is A: bright yellow The receiver must return the serve on its A: first Players change ends after every even-numbered game. (tennis) A: false The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it bounce on the table side of the server before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of the table. (table tennis) A: push shot is delivered by projecting the ball from the free hand and the projection starts from above the playing surface. (table tennis A: service When was the first Badminton association formed? A: 1899 The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a vicious forward and downward swing. (table tennis) A: smash If the player's freehand touches the playing surface while in play, the point is awarded to the ____. (table tennis) A: opponent shuttles are used for recreational badminton games A: synthetic A student of court tennis who introduced the game "Playing Ball" A: Major walter wingfield Players alternate in serving the ball every other game. (tennis) A: true Balls with worn-off fuzz become A: very light True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals In executing forehand strokes, the left foot and left shoulder should approximately towards the table. (badminton) A: False - Backhand A player scores 21 points. (table tennis) A: set True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals At score 20-20 or "deuce," the player changes after every serve. (badminton) A: True True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A game of badminton is won by the player who first scores 21 points. A: True A player won 2 out of 3 sets. (table tennis) A: match True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The International Table Tennis Federation was established in 1936. A: False - 1926 An entire play from service until ball is dead. (tennis) A: rally True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The table tennis ball is made of celluloid and is white in color. A: True An illegal action wherein the player hits the ball before it bounces. (table tennis) A: volley True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The linesman announces the score of the players. (badminton) A: False - umpire The stroke used in returning a high shot and in which arm and shoulder are fully extended. (badminton) A: overhand stroke True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Reaching over the net to hit a bird is a fault. (badminton) A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The ball should bounce first on the server's court after service. (table tennis) A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals All shots are played with the body at right angle to the net. (tennis) A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A single game is played by two players in each court. A: False - one The act of striking the ball with a racket. (tennis) A: stroke The stroke used in returning the bird from the left side of the body. (badminton) A: backhand stroke A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net. (badminton) A: drive True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals In the next game of table tennis, the winning player of the first game may choose to serve first. A: True A rally which is not scored and being replayed. (tennis) A: let The measurement of the playing table of table tennis. A: 2.74 m x 1.52 cm True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Badminton was first organized in India. A: true An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it. (badminton) A: smash The stroke used in returning the bird from right side of the body. (badminton) A: forehand stroke A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket. (badminton) A: ace True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The penhold grip is executed by grasping the racket as if to shake hands with it. (table tennis) A: False - eastern/ handshake/ shakehand/ shakehands/ true (wrong) Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the serve or the point. (table tennis) A: fault True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals An outer bird is light in weight and is a sphere of cork covered with white hide. (badminton) A: False - shuttlecock What move is illustrated in the picture? A: backhand True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A table tennis game is started with a toss of a coin. A: True 9/10 A low shot close to the net made from back court that fails or drops sharply immediately after crossing net. (badminton) A: drop True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The British introduced badminton to our country. A: False - Badminton Association of the Philippines/ true (wrong) What move is illustrated in the picture? A: backhand A bird which touches top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court. (badminton) A: let A ball bouncing near the net. A: short True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A player gains a point if he fails to make a good return. A: false - loses True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals At the start of a new game, the player who serves first in the previous game becomes the receiver. (table tennis) A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A match shall consist of the best of five out of five games. (badminton) A: False - three True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A drive serve is made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot. (badminton) A: true What grip is illustrated in the picture? A: western grip 9/10 What move is illustrated in the picture? A: two-handed backhand To put the bird in play. (badminton) A: serve True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals A player is allowed to touch the table while playing. (table tennis) A: False - not allowed True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals The server serves the ball with open palm. (table tennis) A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Half volley is a main offensive stroke. (table tennis) A: false - defensive True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Table tennis is also known as pingpong. A: true True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the underlined word with the correct term. Note that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are reptiles. A: False - mammals Change of service takes place after either player reaches 8 points throughout the game. (table tennis) A: true Hitting the ball in a high arc. A: lob refers to the point won by a server in tennis. A: Advantage The height of the net in the playing surface from the floor. (table tennis) A: 76 cm RESEARCH 110 (COMPILED BY EZRA) 1 Requires the interviewers have telephone False 2 It is the most common measure of central tendency Arithmetic Mean 3 Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 400 708 504 802 400 400 4 What kind of sampling if your sample is Professor I from the Universities in the region IV A? Stratified Sampling 5 It is neither the subject nor the experimenter knows whether the subject is in the treatment of the control condition Double Blind 6 213 and 314 101 7 A researcher will represent and manipulate certain observations that they are studying True 8. Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 165 765 545 165 415 165 9.This reliability the consistency of results across items, often measures with Cronbach's Alpha Internal Consistency 10 one of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and interpretation is the subtitles of section are based on the questions in the statement of the problem, stated in declarative form, single space bond True 11. In order to have a random selection method of sampling that utilizes some form of random selection True 12. It means that a tool measures what it sets out to measure for example, that a pain assessment tool measures pain intensity rather than anxiety Measurement Validity 13. 211 and 219 8 14. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start at perhaps the 8th person, and then select every 150th person from that point on? Systematic Planning 15. 2 and 12 10 16. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. Type your answer in the space provided 16 78 54 82 40 54 17. Identify the mode of the following set of numbers 100 700 500 800 100 100 18. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start perhaps the 17th person, and then select every 50th person from that point on Systematic Planning 19. What is the median of the following set of numbers 12 13 14 15 16 14 20. Solve the mean of the following set of give answers. Type your answer in the space provided 12 79 59 87 43 56 21. You want to know the Number of Students in San Jose NHS Survey research 22. Saves time involved in processing the data True 23. The power of a test is the probability of finding significance if the alternative hypothesis is true True 24. In this scale are the ultimate nirvana when it comes to measurement scales because tell us about the order, they tell us the exact value between units Ration Scale 25. This reliability the reliability of two tests constructed the same way, from the same content Parallel-Forms Reliability 26.A score on a well-constructed test is believed to reflect a psychological construct such as achievement in a school subject, cognitive ability, aptitude, emotional functioning, personality, etc. True 27. Recommendations are not based on important results and conclusions False 28. This is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions Accessible population 29. The specific questions should follow the order they are given under the statement of the problem True 30. IN THIS SCALE it is the order of the values is what is important and significant but the differences between each one is not really known Ordinal scale 31. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. 15 75 55 85 45 55 32. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is an introductory paragraph is provided at the start of the chapter True 33. It is the mid point of a distribution Median 34. It refers to an ANOVA using two independent variable TWO-WAY ANOVA 35. You want to know who is better in learning section 1 or section 2 Survey research 36. In this scale it is used numeric scale in which we know noit only the order but also the exact differences between the values Interval scale 37. The consistency of results across items often measures wit Cronbach's Alpha True 38. What kind of sampling if your sample is every 21st of the participants from the 1800 participants in the training seminar Systematic sampling 39. Solve the mean 106,708,504,802,400 504 40. 15 and 35 20 41. What kind of sampling if your sample is religious affliction from each of the 50 states Stratified sampling 42. What king of sampling if your strata where individual school in the division of antipolo you would randomly select perhaps 20 schools and test all of the students within those schools Cluster sampling 43. This research may include case studies, ethnographic studies, ethological studies whose primary characteristics is being observed or recorded Observational research 44. This is the group that receives the experimental treatment manipulation or is different form the control group on the variable under study Experimental or treatment group 45. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is the tables and figures should be in continuous numbering. It should be presented the first before discussion enclose tables with double line on top should be used, graphs should be colored True 46. It is true experiments but use naturally formed or pre existing groups Quasi-experiment 47. It is a subject that has an equal probability of being selected for either the treatment or control group Random assignment 48. Correlational research involves comparative in this research the study of two or more groups is done without focusing on the relationship False 49. What kind of sampling if your sample is doctorate degree holder form the 20 divisions in the NCR Stratified sampling 50. You want to explore who is dominant graduate of BSED or BEED survey research 51. what kind of sampling you were going to use if your sample is every 20th child in the 1000 children in a single row systematic sampling 52. you want to know who is better section Narra or section Santol survey research 53. casual comparative research is the bed rock of most sciences most specifically natural sciences true 54. saves the interviewer from carrying around hundreds of questionnaires true 55. a descriptive study establishes only associations between variables an experimental study establishes casualty true 56. tables and figures should not be im continuous numbering it should be presented first before discussion enclose tables with double line on top should be used graphs should be colored false 57. this reliability the degree toi which different raters/ observers give consistent answers of estimates inter-rater/ observer reliability 58. it is more structured method than in qualitative research compare to quantitative research interview method RSCH G11 -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of interest -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? b. Research Adventure -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc) should not be coerced to participate in a research. c. Investigators should mind the reduction of risk that might occur from the research. d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality c. It is a case involving required reporting d. The research paper is not published yet. -What is scientific method? Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research instruments -Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. -Which of the following is not included in the research experience? Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d. Emotions of the researcher -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential material and identifying characteristics d. His/her name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and confidential material -Research is Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new information c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position. Select one: False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images Answer: APPLIED -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: True False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias -What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do? Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b. Ascertain what is already known about a topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological strategies for designing the study. e. All of the choices -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published accounts of researchers -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. Answer: APA -Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated -Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review? Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data. c. It helps researchers to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher needs to read about his/her research -What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried women gathered social and economic histories from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with present and formal officials known as cadres and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers ournals and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from asking direct uestions aout resistance the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and uestionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes however that their conversations with the researchers oth peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. adres for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning campaigns peasant women were reluctant to talk aout steriliation. hese silences form one part of the unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More eplicit protests were registered in informal conversations. rom these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose etween a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of hinese culture and of practical reason. Answer: searching for missing information -Artwork of the child participants Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics -Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "How does your family view your situation?" Answer: 4 -Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below. Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases paying particular attention to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. an one of her informants says that marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees marriages as something that has properties like strength and staying power and as something that reuires work to produce. ome marriages are put together well while others fall apart like so many cars or toys or washing machines. Answer: Metaphors and analogies Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as profession social status socioeconomic class religion or ethnicity Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d. Appearance e. Personal space f. People who stand out What do you think about the two presidential candidates? Answer: OPEN Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned. Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors and analogies g. opare and contrast h. utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing information k. onnectors l. Social science queries What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now Answer: 5 -The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other. Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f. Social science queries g. compare and contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in contet I k. utting and Sorting l. Transitions -Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews so arkin et al. roke the coding process into two steps. hey started with three maor themes that they developed from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the uotes that pertained to each of the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from each maor theme into piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to identify suthemes shared across coders. Answer: cutting and sorting -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics -The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. Answer: False -Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? Answer: Identification of problem -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? Answer: Emotions Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? Answer: Naturalistic observation -Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. -False -Informed consent requires that individuals… Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality -What is a research instrument? Answer: a tool for data collection -A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called Answer: inductive method -It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. -What is an ethical dilemma? Answer: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants -Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis? Answer: pertinent question -Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? Answer: fabricator of data -Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown. -True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. Answer: true -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Answer: Falsification of data bank -Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. Answer: true -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Answer: False -Which of the following is a good research question? Answer: How do teenagers view the word "forever"? -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the university. Answer: SCOPE -The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. -What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researchers interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained Answer: Importance of context -It clearly states the constructs to be examined. Answer: True -Reliability of survey questions was not established. Answer: DELIMITATION -In the title "The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could e the possible beneficiaries of the research Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers -What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem? Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers. -The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. Answer: DELIMITATION -It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. Answer: True -Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. Answer: DELIMITATION -Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in Answer: Significance of the study -How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. -What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. -It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables Answer: True -Which of the following titles is best for applied research? Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs -What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? Answer: The participants and the researcher share the "research space". -What is the scope of the research? Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. -The researcher invented the results of the study. Answer: Fabrication -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The government is the only one who can help the homeless Answer: False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Answer: The authenticity of the information -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Answer: Published accounts of researchers -The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html Answer: APA -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. Answer: False -Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." Answer: 8 nurses -A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. Answer: Plagiarism -What information is required for the APA in-text citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index Answer: McCullough, 2001 -What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives? Answer: Chronology -Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. Answer: Falsification -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home -Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless. Answer: True -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html Answer: MLA -What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Answer: Syndicated -What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. Answer: MLA -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students Answer: female senior students -Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature? Answer: Introduction -A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. -Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? Answer: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?" Answer: 5 -The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. Answer: True -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. Answer: Physical behavior and gestures -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions -Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. Answer: False -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now living cancer free for more than 5 years." Answer: 2 -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Summary of research findings Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Area plan of a research field Answer: Graphics -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." Answer: 6 -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. Answer: Compare and contrast -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Do you think he is gay? Answer: LEADING -Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion. Answer: true -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems. Answer: Social science queries -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they are alone or accompanied; number of people Answer: Human traffic -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll? Answer: MAPPING -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. The list of research participants Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon. -What is a research design? Answer: all of the choices -What is bibliography? Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents in the education system Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following is the correct notion about observation? Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences -Which of the following is not a type of narrative research? Answer: Case study -What is the final stage of analyzing data? Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form -Which of the following is NOT the function of references? Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list -A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? Answer: Qualitative -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with grounded theory methodology Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following titles is a narrative research? Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal -How does verification of data happen? Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. -When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? Answer: The layout of the site -A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? Answer: Observation -Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? Answer: All of the choices -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations Answer: Action Research -__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? Answer: Focus group discussion -The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the research design applied? Answer: Ethnographic -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children Answer: Ethnographic Research -What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis? Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study -Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid. -What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC) -What type of source are documentary films? Answer: Static -What influences the choice of the research design? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following belongs to related literature? Answer: textbook -Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies? Answer: Reviewed materials must be many. -Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________. Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed. -What is common in data collection among qualitative researches? Answer: Language based -Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study -In participant observation, what information can be observed? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper? Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references -Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? Answer: Focus group discussion -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which of the following citation used the APA format? Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication -Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research? Answer: Focus on your research questions. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing Answer: Ethnographic Research -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships? Answer: Rather than -A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data collection was used? Answer: Interview -The entire research project is an exercise in Answer: All of the choices -Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? Answer: APA format -Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? Answer: All of the choices -What are research data? Answer: All of the choices -Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. -What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? Answer: Mapping questions -What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? Answer: Lying by fabrication -What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility -Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? Answer: Action research -What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis. Answer: Enumerative approach -What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? Answer: Conclusion -Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? Answer: Establish an initial rapport Question 1 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written only author's name. Select one: d. APA System Question 2 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Unpublished Theses Select one: d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 3 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Professional journals Select one: a. Both of these b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies c. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies d. None of these Question 4 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not the features in characteristics of a research.? Select one: c. Using marginalized in the society Question 5 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not the function of the related literature? Select one: c. It helps you to disregard your research findings into the existing body of knowledge. Question 6 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that after providing your readers with some background, use essay introduction to outline what you are going to discuss. Select one: c. Lay it on 'em Question 7 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: School document Select one: a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 8 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Abarquez, O.L Select one: a. APA System Question 9 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the primary function of a title is to provide a precise summary of the paper's content. Select one: a. Keep it simple, brief and attractive Question 10 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dela Gracia, Jonel T. Select one: a. MLA System Question 11 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not the a good research title? Select one: a. Create a research with lengthy pages Question 12 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the good research title should contain key words used in the manuscript and should define the nature of the study. Select one: c. Keep it simple, brief and attractive Question 13 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Raymond, B.N Select one: d. APA System Question 14 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that a thesis statement or research paper is the main point of your paper; it is narrow, focused, and specific. Select one: c. What's your point? Question 15 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a process wherein you need to have different skills like planning, organizing and the like in order to come up good research. Select one: a. Research process Question 16 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: San Joseph, K.L. Select one: a. APA System Question 17 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is by means of statistics that involve collection and study of numerical data. Select one: d. Quantitative Research Question 18 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the other lesser-known or specific abbreviations and jargon that would not be immediately familiar to the readers should be left out. Select one: c. Avoids abbreviations and j argon Question 19 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following that the literature review can help in many ways in relation to the study? Select one: d. Contextualized the recommendations Question 20 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that if you really want to draw readers in, you have to start your introduction with something attention grabbing. Select one: c. Start with a bang Question 21 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will underlined or italicized title with all content words capitalized Select one: a. MLA System Question 22 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that you must provide your readers with a little background or basic information about the topic you are covering. Select one: c. Be general before you're specific Question 23 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research entails both reading and writing? Select one: d. A Seed to love reading, writing analyzing and sharing valuable information Question 24 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Government Libraries Select one: d. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 25 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Private Offices Select one: b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 26 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This research used a scale, range and verbal interpretation in conducting the research. Select one: c. Descriptive Research Question 27 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Reports from seminar Select one: d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 28 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Belchez, Romana F. Select one: a. MLA System Question 29 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Books Select one: c. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 30 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a word that is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspects of the natural word, based on a body of facts that have been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experiment. Select one: c. Theory Question 31 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the base word of the variable. Select one: a. Vary Question 32 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research is required not just for students but for all professionals? Select one: a. A tool for building knowledge and efficient learning Question 33 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will italicized title with only the beginning word capitalized. Select one: a. APA System Question 34 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Encyclopedias Select one: d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 35 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Why experimental research is considered to be true experimental? Select one: a. Because uses valid results Question 36 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the tips in writing the significance of the study that by looking into the general contribution of your study. Select one: d. Write from general to specific Question 37 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that there is no rule for exactly how long an introduction should be you must consider your length of paper. Select one: a. What's your point? Question 38 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research has a vital role in business? Select one: a. An aid to business success and job search Question 39 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: National Library Select one: b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 40 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following you need to keep in mind in choosing your own topic that make sure you select a subject that you can develop with sufficient details? Select one: c. Choose a topic on which you can find material Question 41 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Newspaper Select one: c. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 42 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Periodicals Select one: a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 43 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: 80. Museum Select one: c. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 44 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written after the publisher's name. Select one: d. MLA System Question 45 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Private Libraries Select one: b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 46 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Magazines Select one: d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 47 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Classify the following material: Almanacs Select one: b. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies Question 48 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text This is kind of quantitative research that the best example is true experimental research. Select one: b. Experimental Research Question 49 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that television shows and movies ooze with research - both on the part of the writers and the actors? Select one: b. Means to understand various issues Question 50 Complete Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dimaano, Richard B. Select one: c. MLA System Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: c. Falsification of data bank True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? Select one: b. Research Adventure What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality What is scientific method? Select one: b. Systematic process Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. Which of the following is not included in the research experience? Select one: c. Social class of the researcher Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics Research is Select one: b. Analyzing and interpreting new information It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). Select one: False The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world. Select one: True The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly Answer: PURE It is biased in terminology or position. Select one: False Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. Select one: True It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images Answer: APPLIED It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: False The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Select one: c. The authenticity of the information What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do? Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Select one: d. Published accounts of researchers Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog Select one: a. Syndicated Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. Answer: APA Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: Select one: b. Key word searches Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) Select one: b. Static Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review? Select one: b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data. What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? Select one: g. APA and MLA Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna Select one: c. Static Identify the technique used to discover the themes in the data below. In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 evermarried women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth interviews with present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason. Answer: searching for missing information Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Artwork of the child participants Select one: a. Pictures Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "How does your family view your situation?" Answer: 4 Identify the technique used to discover the themes in the data below. Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She began by looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying particular attention to informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. Nan, one of her informants, says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor indicates that Nan sees marriages as something that has properties, like strength and staying power, and as something that requires work to produce. Some marriages are "put together well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or washing machines. Answer: metaphors and analogies Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such as profession, social status, socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity Select one: d. Appearance Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. What do you think about the two presidential candidates? Answer: OPEN Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned. Select one: j. Searching for missing information Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?" Answer: 5 Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. Select one: g. Compare and contrast Identify the technique used to discover the themes in the data below. Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians, community leaders, and parents about what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. These were long, complex interviews, so Barkin et al. broke the coding process into two steps. They started with three major themes that they developed from theory. The principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the quotes that pertained to each of the major themes. Then four other coders independently sorted the quotes from each major theme into piles. Then, the pile sort data were analyzed with multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to identify subthemes shared across coders. Answer: cutting and sorting What is a research design? Select one: b. all of the choices What is bibliography? Select one: c. A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents in the education system Select one: b. Grounded Theory Which of the following is the correct notion about observation? Select one: d. A key data gathering method in social sciences. Which of the following is not a type of narrative research? Select one: c. Case study What is the final stage of analyzing data? Select one: d. Presenting the data in tabular form Which of the following is NOT the function of references? Select one: c. To ensure sufficiently long reference list A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? Select one: d. Qualitative Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with grounded theory methodology Select one: c. Grounded Theory Which of the following titles is a narrative research? Select one: c. The Life and Works of Rizal How does verification of data happen? Select one: b. Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? Select one: b. The layout of the site A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? Select one: a. Observation Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? Select one: d. All of the choices Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations Select one: a. Action Research __________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? Select one: c. Focus group discussion The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the research design applied? Select one: b. Ethnographic Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children Select one: d. Ethnographic Research What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis? Select one: d. To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? Select one: b. Recommendations should be logical and valid. What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? Select one: d. Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC) What type of source are documentary films? Select one: a. Static What influences the choice of the research design? Select one: b. All of the choices Which of the following belongs to related literature? Select one: b. textbook Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies? Select one: c. Reviewed materials must be many. Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________. Select one: a. The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed. What is common in data collection among qualitative researches? Select one: a. Language based Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? Select one: b. Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study In participant observation, what information can be observed? Select one: a. All of the choices Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper? Select one: d. Introduction, method, results, discussion and references Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? Select one: d. Focus group discussion Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers Select one: d. Phenomenological Research Which of the following citation used the APA format? Select one: b. Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research? Select one: d. Focus on your research questions. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing Select one: d. Ethnographic Research Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines Select one: a. Phenomenological Research Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships? Select one: b. Rather than A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data collection was used? Select one: a. Interview The entire research project is an exercise in Select one: d. All of the choices Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? Select one: b. APA format Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? Select one: b. All of the choices What are research data? Select one: c. All of the choices Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? Select one: d. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? Select one: c. Mapping questions What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? Select one: c. Lying by fabrication What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? Select one: b. Memoing, verification and credibility Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? Select one: d. Action research What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis. Select one: d. Enumerative approach What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? Select one: b. Conclusion Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? Select one: c. Establish an initial rapport Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. Select one: False Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? Select one: b. Identification of problem True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? Select one: a. Emotions Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? Select one: d. Naturalistic observation Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. Select one: False Informed consent requires that individuals… Select one: b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality What is a research instrument? Select one: d. a tool for data collection A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called Select one: d. inductive method 1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. Select one: c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. What is an ethical dilemma? Select one: a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis? Select one: b. pertinent question Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? Select one: b. fabricator of data Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong Select one: d. Research is an investigation of the unknown. True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. Answer: True Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: d. Falsification of data bank Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. Select one: True Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: False Which of the following is a good research question? Select one: a. How do teenagers view the word "forever"? Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university. Answer: SCOPE The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to Select one: a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained. Select one: b. Importance of context Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It clearly states the constructs to be examined. Select one: True Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Reliability of survey questions was not established. Answer: DELIMITATION In the title "The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could be the possible beneficiaries of the research? Select one: c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem? Select one:. c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers. Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. Answer: DELIMITATION Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. Select one: True Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. Answer: DELIMITATION Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in Select one: c. Significance of the study How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? Select one: b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? Select one: b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True Which of the following titles is best for applied research? Select one: c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? Select one: a. The participants and the researcher share the "research space". What is the scope of the research? Select one: d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: The researcher invented the results of the study. Select one: a. Fabrication b. Plagiarism c. Falsification The correct answer is: Fabrication Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The government is the only one who can help the homeless. Answer: False The correct answer is: False The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Select one: a. The authenticity of the information b. The lack of bias c. The number of "hits" for the site d. The honesty of the reported information The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Select one: a. Any paper source b. Any written material c. Any highly regarded novel d. Published accounts of researchers The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html Answer: APA The correct answer is: APA Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. Answer: False The correct answer is: False Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." Select one: a. experiences of these nurses b. crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies c. antipsychotic medications d. 8 nurses The correct answer is: 8 nurses Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. Select one: a. Falsification b. Plagiarism c. Fabrication The correct answer is: Plagiarism What information is required for the APA in-text citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index. Select one: a. McCullough, 2001 b. David Mc Cullough, 2001 (p.703-726) c. David Mc Cullough, 2001 d. McCullough, 2001 (p.703-726) The correct answer is: McCullough, 2001 What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives? Select one: a. Theme b. Chronology c. Development of ideas d. Section The correct answer is: Chronology Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. Select one: a. Plagiarism b. Falsification c. Fabrication The correct answer is: Falsification Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. Select one: a. semi-structured interviews, completed diaries b. staff of one hospice and one nursing home c. facilitators and barriers of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS) d. one hospice and one nursing home The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless. Answer: True The correct answer is: True Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html. Answer: MLA The correct answer is: MLA What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Select one: a. Static b. Syndicated c. Dynamic d. All of the choices The correct answer is: Syndicated What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. Select one: a. CMS b. APA c. MLA d. None of the choices The correct answer is: MLA Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students. Select one: a. female senior students b. Latin foreign language students c. French foreign language students d. relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores The correct answer is: female senior students Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature? Select one: a. Introduction b. All of the choices c. Conclusion d. Body The correct answer is: Introduction A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? Select one: a. All of the choices b. Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. c. Examples used to prove a point are managed a little differently than opinions, ideas, or facts. These are treated the same way one would treat common knowledge, and not referenced. d. Include them in one parenthetical citation or endnote after you have finished listing them. The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? Select one: a. Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters b. Critically evaluating the personal study like how one does to other research work c. All of the choices d. Using the internet to find the key researchers The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. Select one: b. True Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. Select one: f. Physical behavior and gestures Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction Select one: d. Verbal behavior and interactions Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. Select one: a. False Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now living cancer free for more than 5 years." Answer: 2 Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Summary of research findings Select one: c. Word Tables and Lists Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." Select one: d. He will still participate in the activities of the organization. Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Area plan of a research field Select one: c. Graphics Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." Answer: 6 Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. Select one: f. Compare and contrast Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Do you think he is gay? Answer: LEADING Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion. Select one: b. True Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems. Select one: h. Social science queries Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." Select one: c. Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they are alone or accompanied; number of people Select one: c. Human traffic Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll? Answer: MAPPING Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). Select one: a. We should use given information in inferring ideas. Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. The list of research participants Select one: a. Word Tables and Lists Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. Select one: c. Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon. Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of c. values and judgement Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? c. Identification of problem Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. " -Zora Neale Hurston h. Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose. A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher? Select one: a. Collecting data What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? Select one: b. Research Adventure Which of the following is a type of quantitative research design? b. Television ratings Question text Confidentiality is used to protect a participant's privacy by Select one: c. Sharing only the information permitted by the participant Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: b. His/her name and identifying characteristics True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False What is scientific method? Select one: c. Systematic process Research hypotheses can be defined as a. A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of the investigation. What is the common research experience of a novice researcher? Select one: c. Reading various materials in answering assignments. What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience? a. Education Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "All I'm armed with is research." -Mike Wallace h. Research can equip anyone. What is a research instrument? d. a tool for data collection Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Research is the highest form of adoration" ? Pierre Teilhard de Chardin d. Research is valuing others' work. Which of the following is not part of the library research? b. Decide the research design appropriate for the topic. Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers? Select one: a. descriptive research Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by Select one: a. Offering small incentives Debriefing shoulD c. Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to. b. conclusion 1.Which part of the research paper do you find the following? It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the variables under study. ANSWER:Statement of the Problem 2.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. ANSWER:TRUE 3.Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly ANSWER:PURE 4.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem ANSWER:TRUE 5.Which part of the research paper do you find the following? It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study ANSWER:Research Title 6.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It clearly states the constructs to be examined. ANSWER:TRUE 7.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position. ANSWER:FALSE 8.Which part of the research paper do you find the following? This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study. ANSWER:Significance of the Study 9.Which part of the research paper do you find the following? It must also reflect the variables under study. ANSWER:Research Title 10:Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has multiple possible answers. ANSWER:FALSE RSCH G11 -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of interest -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc) should not be coerced to participate in a research. c. Investigators should mind the reduction of risk that might occur from the research. d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality c. It is a case involving required reporting d. The research paper is not published yet. -What is scientific method? Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research instruments -Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. -Which of the following is not included in the research experience? Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d. Emotions of the researcher -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential material and identifying characteristics d. His/her name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and confidential material -Research is Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new information c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images Answer: APPLIED -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: True False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias -What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do? Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b. Ascertain what is already known about a topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological strategies for designing the study. e. All of the choices -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published accounts of researchers -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. Answer: APA -Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated -Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review? Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data. c. It helps researchers to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher needs to read about his/her research -What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried women gathered social and economic histories from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with present and formal officials known as cadres and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers ournals and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from asking direct uestions aout resistance the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and uestionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes however that their conversations with the researchers oth peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. adres for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning campaigns peasant women were reluctant to talk aout steriliation. hese silences form one part of the unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More eplicit protests were registered in informal conversations. rom these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose etween a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of hinese culture and of practical reason. Answer: searching for missing information -Artwork of the child participants Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics -Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "How does your family view your situation?" Answer: 4 -Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below. Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases paying particular attention to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. an one of her informants says that marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees marriages as something that has properties like strength and staying power and as something that reuires work to produce. ome marriages are put together well while others fall apart like so many cars or toys or washing machines. Answer: Metaphors and analogies Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as profession social status socioeconomic class religion or ethnicity Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d. Appearance e. Personal space f. People who stand out What do you think about the two presidential candidates? Answer: OPEN -Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned. Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors and analogies g. opare and contrast h. utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing information k. onnectors l. Social science queries What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now Answer: 5 -The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other. Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f. Social science queries g. compare and contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in contet I k. utting and Sorting l. Transitions -Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews so arkin et al. roke the coding process into two steps. hey started with three maor themes that they developed from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the uotes that pertained to each of the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from each maor theme into piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to identify suthemes shared across coders. Answer: cutting and sorting -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics -The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. Answer: False -Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? Answer: Identification of problem -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? Answer: Emotions Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? Answer: Naturalistic observation -Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. -False -Informed consent requires that individuals… Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality -What is a research instrument? Answer: a tool for data collection -A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called Answer: inductive method -It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. -What is an ethical dilemma? Answer: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants -Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis? Answer: pertinent question -Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? Answer: fabricator of data -Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown. -True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. Answer: true -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Answer: Falsification of data bank -Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. Answer: true -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Answer: False -Which of the following is a good research question? Answer: How do teenagers view the word "forever"? -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the university. Answer: SCOPE -The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. -What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researchers interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained Answer: Importance of context -It clearly states the constructs to be examined. Answer: True -Reliability of survey questions was not established. Answer: DELIMITATION -In the title "The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could e the possible beneficiaries of the research Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers -What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem? Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers. -The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. Answer: DELIMITATION -It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. Answer: True -Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. Answer: DELIMITATION -Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in Answer: Significance of the study -How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. -What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. -It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables Answer: True -Which of the following titles is best for applied research? Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs -What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? Answer: The participants and the researcher share the "research space". -What is the scope of the research? Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. -The researcher invented the results of the study. Answer: Fabrication -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The government is the only one who can help the homeless Answer: False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Answer: The authenticity of the information -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Answer: Published accounts of researchers -The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html Answer: APA -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. Answer: False -Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." Answer: 8 nurses -A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. Answer: Plagiarism -What information is required for the APA in-text citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index Answer: McCullough, 2001 -What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives? Answer: Chronology -Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. Answer: Falsification -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home -Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless. Answer: True -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html Answer: MLA -What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Answer: Syndicated -What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. Answer: MLA -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students Answer: female senior students -Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature? Answer: Introduction -A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. -Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? Answer: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?" Answer: 5 -The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. Answer: True -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. Answer: Physical behavior and gestures -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions -Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. Answer: False -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now living cancer free for more than 5 years." Answer: 2 -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Summary of research findings Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Area plan of a research field Answer: Graphics -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." Answer: 6 -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. Answer: Compare and contrast -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Do you think he is gay? Answer: LEADING -Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion. Answer: true -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems. Answer: Social science queries -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they are alone or accompanied; number of people Answer: Human traffic -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll? Answer: MAPPING -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. The list of research participants Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon. -What is a research design? Answer: all of the choices -What is bibliography? Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents in the education system Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following is the correct notion about observation? Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences -Which of the following is not a type of narrative research? Answer: Case study -What is the final stage of analyzing data? Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form -Which of the following is NOT the function of references? Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list -A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? Answer: Qualitative -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with grounded theory methodology Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following titles is a narrative research? Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal -How does verification of data happen? Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. -When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? Answer: The layout of the site -A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? Answer: Observation -Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? Answer: All of the choices -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations Answer: Action Research -__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? Answer: Focus group discussion -The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the research design applied? Answer: Ethnographic -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children Answer: Ethnographic Research -What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis? Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study -Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid. -What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC) -What type of source are documentary films? Answer: Static -What influences the choice of the research design? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following belongs to related literature? Answer: textbook -Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies? Answer: Reviewed materials must be many. -Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________. Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed. -What is common in data collection among qualitative researches? Answer: Language based -Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study -In participant observation, what information can be observed? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper? Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references -Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? Answer: Focus group discussion -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which of the following citation used the APA format? Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication -Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research? Answer: Focus on your research questions. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing Answer: Ethnographic Research -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships? Answer: Rather than -A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data collection was used? Answer: Interview -The entire research project is an exercise in Answer: All of the choices -Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? Answer: APA format -Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? Answer: All of the choices -What are research data? Answer: All of the choices -Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. -What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? Answer: Mapping questions -What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? Answer: Lying by fabrication -What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility -Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? Answer: Action research -What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis. Answer: Enumerative approach -What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? Answer: Conclusion -Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? Answer: Establish an initial rapport Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: c. Falsification of data bank True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? Select one: b. Research Adventure What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality What is scientific method? Select one: b. Systematic process Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. Which of the following is not included in the research experience? Select one: c. Social class of the researcher Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics Research is Select one: b. Analyzing and interpreting new information Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). Select one: False Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world. Select one: True Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly Answer: PURE Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position. Select one: False Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. Select one: True Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images Answer: APPLIED Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: False Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: d. His/her name and identifying characteristics Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. Select one: False Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? Select one: b. Identification of problem True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? Select one: a. Emotions Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? Select one: d. Naturalistic observation Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. Select one: False Informed consent requires that individuals… Select one: b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality . What is a research instrument? Select one: d. a tool for data collection A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called Select one: d. inductive method 1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. What is an ethical dilemma? Select one: a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis? Select one: b. pertinent question Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? Select one: b. fabricator of data Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong Select one: d. Research is an investigation of the unknown. True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. Answer: True Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: d. Falsification of data bank Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. Select one: True Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: False \Which of the following is a good research question? Select one: a. How do teenagers view the word "forever"? Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university. Answer: SCOPE The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to Select one: a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained. Select one: b. Importance of context Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It clearly states the constructs to be examined. Select one: True Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Reliability of survey questions was not established. Answer: DELIMITATION In the title "The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could be the possible beneficiaries of the research? Select one: c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem? Select one: c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers. Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. Answer: DELIMITATION Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. Select one: True Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. Answer: DELIMITATION Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in Select one: c. Significance of the study How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? Select one: b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? Select one: b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True Which of the following titles is best for applied research? Select one: c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? Select one: a. The participants and the researcher share the "research space". What is the scope of the research? Select one: study. d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. RESEARCH 111 (COMPILED BY ROI) +95 ANSWERS It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of variables relationship. False Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative research. "The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age, anything goes. The trick is to produce intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss." ? David Silverman a. The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic describe in this quotation. It involves multilayered process which may include anything but the inductive approach will shape the result into an intelligent and disciplined work that will really make a difference. Which of the following statements is wrong? c. Research must give pride to its investigator. Qualitative research addresses scientific issues. False What should happen if a participant withdraws from your research? d. Discard the data collected from the withdrawn participant and respect his/her personal decision. Which sample belongs to quantitative research? Representative sample Ethical standards promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual respect and fairness. The writing of research reports is best regarded as a. an academic chore Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all researchers. True It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. True Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including… Illegal behaviors Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth. False It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes, measuring how the end result changes by altering a variable. False Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research? a. Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use. Research done in natural settings is b. more likely to involve applied research than basic research Which part of the research paper do you find the following? A brief statement of the general purpose of the study. Statement of the Problem Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: How Do Slime Molds Reproduce PURE Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful APPLIED It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study. Research Title Which of the following guide questions does NOT define your research purpose? Do you intend to publish your research? Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels PURE How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research? b. Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to websites, and voice response. Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with "variables" that are defined by the researcher prior to the research project because d. All of the above Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study? c. Possible recommendations to the research findings. Which of the following statements is true? c. Everyday life is a research methodology. The researchers also determined the children's reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on television. SCOPE Qualitative design is a flexible design because B. All parts will continually be shaped during the research project. Daily life research is advisable for students because B. It involves their experience. Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder APPLIED Dependent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic. Effect Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research? d. The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study. DELIMITATION Theory of Relativity PURE Which part of the research paper do you find the following? The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were gathered. a. Scope and Delimitations Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy SCOPE Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school. SCOPE What study is focused on qualitative research? d. Social Science Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university. SCOPE Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted. DELIMITATION What is "timeliness" applied in the scope and delimitation? c. The suitability of the study to the beneficiaries Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. DELIMITATION Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if it is a restriction of the research. This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays. SCOPE What is the composition of a research title? b. The title must reflect the variables under study. Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children APPLIED "The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on the issues that we face on a day-to-day basis. " -Ben Bernanke b. Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues. Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and may result to vagueness b. Statement of the Problem What does research implication mean? Research proposition Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful APPLIED Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are the only topics to be used for qualitative research. True Fraud in research comprises d. all of the choices Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled circumstance. False Which statement is correct? a. Research is exciting and challenging if people understand it and its demands. b. Research is communicating existing knowledge. c. Research is exclusively done by students. d. Research is difficult, tedious, and cumbersome. Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation? a. Identifying an area of research and formulating research questions b. Coming up with detailed explanations of the overall process of research and the results c. Developing a clear research strategy, research design, and choice of methods d. Getting funding for the research How does a researcher gain research knowledge? a. by publishing the complete and well-written research paper b. by conducting the data collection properly, ethically and factually. c. by realizing the usefulness of those research outputs by employing the systematic process of research d. by studying and synthesizing a complete review of related literature Who is responsible for ethical behavior? Select one: a. the researchers b. the participants c. both participant and researchers d. the authorities in the research locale Researcher's involvement to the research means Select one: a. It is the researcher's quest of something new. b. The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance. c. It examines the personal side of research and how the researcher manages the research difficulties. d. Research enthusiasts start as critical readers of research projects. What step can one take before starting a research? Select one: a. Be familiar with the needed software for the data analysis. b. Get an approval from the research adviser. c. Find a research partner or group. d. Find an interesting social issue to address. What scope of research is providing effective ways in practical solution? Select one: a. Education b. Profession c. Business d. Administration Critical researchers are primarily concerned with Select one: a. ethical violations in methodology b. misuse of statistics c. what researchers take for granted d. how research is funded What is the role of research in the daily life of people? Select one: a. It requires students to pass their subjects. b. It aims human satisfaction and understanding. c. It generates income to publishers. d. It promotes the authors of the theses, books and journals. Research is Select one: a. Analyzing and interpreting new information b. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge What is the purpose of informed consent? Select one: a. To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research and to communicate their right to withdraw at any stage. b. To be able for the participant to make an informed choice about his/her participation and not undertake any action which he/she may otherwise have declined to do. c. To ensure that participants would not lie to about the time commitment involved in their participation. d. To distribute incentives to the participant as a payment for his/her cooperation. Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes. True Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative research. "The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and descriptions are written, usually resulting in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies of the situation." - Myers e. The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of explorations in qualitative research. The setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from the locale will surely help the researcher to explain the unexplainable. Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all researchers. True "Find out what's really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference." Marilyn Manson f. Research is finding out there what other's has not seen so you make a difference. The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed. False - can How does a researcher avoid fraud? a. Stress that ethical research practice involves honesty during training of scientists. It is the arrangement of the individual's arrangements of a particular person. True Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources. True Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because c. The in-depth comprehensive approach to data gathering limits the scope of the research. What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research? d. It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument. ____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations. a. Measurability Which of the following topics should ethical consideration be applied? a. Capital punishment Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research? a. Anthropology It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the variables under study. a. All of the above Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher? e. Technically capable in operating statistical devices. This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy. SCOPE Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? a. Flexible design Why are research questions used in qualitative research? b. All of the above The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study. c. Significance of the Study What is the basic research? a. Acquire new knowledge. In what type of research does a researcher study an individual subject in depth? a. Case study Research is b. Searching for the truth in a scientific way Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader? c. in the introduction Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on daily activities and experiences. True What is a research rationale needed in scope and delimitation? a. It gives reasons for the beneficiaries of the study. What does "context" mean in qualitative research? a. The situation where the data is obtained Qualitative method is focused on the authentic experiences of the participants and their critical voices because b. It investigates the real-life human practices and statements. Which of the following is NOT found in scope and delimitation of research? a. The benefits and beneficiaries of the study How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation? a. Acknowledge the researcher's co-authors. Which of the following is a myth about qualitative research? a. All of the above Limitations of research refer to the a. Restrictions identified by the researcher. How does everyday life research encourage diversity? b. It is widely used among marginalized groups to privilege their personal perspectives. The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test. False What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution? b. Administration RESEARCH 110 - 3RD QUARTER EXAM (PARTIAL COVERAGE) (COMPILED BY ROI T.) WITH ANSWERS) (156 QUESTIONS Change the topic "Overseas Filipino Workers (OFW's)" into an effective research title. Select one: a. The Dilemma of OFW's b. The Plight of OFW's and their families in the Philippines c. None of the choices d. The Effects of Overseas Work An understanding of qualitative research is important because Select one: a. The daily life activities can be studied. b. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics. c. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place. d. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school. When you write a research paper, your goal is to Select one: a. Inform your reader. b. Persuade your reader. c. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject d. Save your reader time. What is the criticism on qualitative research? Select one: a. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail. b. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected c. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways. d. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher. What statement is incorrect? Select one: a. The title reflects the findings of the study. b. The title embodies substantive words that describe the study. c. The study must reflect the purpose of the study. d. The title must reflect the variables under study. Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma? Select one: a. Informed consent b. Conflict of interest c. Falsification of documents d. Misconduct in research What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being. Select one: a. Researcher's involvement b. All of the choices c. Emotional aspect of research d. Researcher's adventure No generalization should be applied in this method. Select one: a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. All of the choices d. None of the choices Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge? Select one: a. Determined students travel to search for topics. b. Critical readers become curious analysts. c. A social media user surveys online. d. A child is learning how to speak. Research is Select one: a. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity c. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems d. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity's recent scandal involving the "hacking" of her personal photographs on iCloud where her personal information was accessed for a research on the lifestyle of local celebrities. Select one: a. Informed consent b. Conflicts of interests c. Misconduct in research d. Authorship What is in significance of the study? Select one: a. research coverage b. research beneficiaries c. research questions d. research purpose Which of the following is not a result of research? Select one: a. None of the choices b. Deep well water c. Caesarian birth d. Solar powered objects What is the last step of the research process? Select one: a. Build the reference page. b. All of the choices c. Determine the implications and conclusions. d. Make recommendations for further research. What is the use of research hypotheses? Select one: a. It prevents blind research. b. All of the choices c. It saves time, money and energy. d. It separates relevant from irrelevant observation. What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate individuals to take part in mass events? Select one: a. Major problem b. Sub-problem c. Rhetorical question d. Sub-question Which of the following is a good research question? Select one: a. What are the basic values or goals of the organization? b. How many teenagers are using the social media? c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem? d. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences? What is the synonym of dependent variable? Select one: a. Stimuli b. Result c. Basis d. Origin What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity's recent scandal involving the "hacking" of her personal photographs on iCloud where her personal information was accessed for a research on the lifestyle of local celebrities. Select one: a. Informed consent b. Misconduct in research c. Authorship d. Conflicts of interests What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Emotional aspect of research c. Researcher's involvement d. Researcher's adventure It lets the meaning emerge from the participants. Select one: a. Statement of the Problem b. Scope and Delimitation c. Quantitative Research d. Significance of the Study e. Qualitative Research They must be clear and free from double meanings. Select one: a. Scope and Delimitation b. Quantitative Research c. Statement of the Problem d. Significance of the Study e. Qualitative Research In formulating research questions, the _____________ governs the entire study. Select one: a. Statement of the problem b. Major problem c. Title d. Sub-problem What is the criticism on qualitative research? Select one: a. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher. b. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail. c. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected d. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways. What is the simplest meaning of inductive approach in qualitative research? Select one: a. Practical solutions b. Addressing the need c. Proving the observations d. Learning from experience What skill set is required from a qualitative researcher? Select one: a. Investigative, subjective and interpretative abilities b. Writing, listening, and reading skills c. Observational, objective and mathematical skills d. Organization, attention to details and analytical abilities What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008). Select one: a. Flexible design b. Importance of meaning c. Participant-researcher relationship d. Importance of context What is a conceptual audacity? Select one: a. A concrete object in the everyday life of humans. b. A tool to see new and surprising aspects of the human everyday lives c. The critical voices of the participants d. The filtered reality of human's local, historical, contextual, and multiple lenses Which of the following is a qualitative method? Select one: a. Observation b. Survey c. Statistics d. Experiment What is the third step in the research process? Select one: a. Formulate research questions b. Design the study c. Do the library search d. Form a hypothesis Which of the following is the NOT a strength of qualitative research? Select one: a. It answers problems encountered in human's daily life. b. None of the choices c. It becomes a source of empowerment from the filtered reality of their local, historical, contextual, and multiple lenses. d. The means of the researcher to be closer to the world of his/her participants. What is the importance of research in everyday life? Select one: a. It has brought the human race farther. b. It makes the school days more interesting. c. It makes the human routine complicated. d. It develops math operational skills. It is also known as the research plan. Select one: a. Research design b. Research purpose c. Research hypothesis What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate individuals to take part in mass events? Select one: a. Major problem b. Sub-problem c. Sub-question d. Rhetorical question Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research because Select one: a. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect. b. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use. c. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements. d. The researcher will only consider epistemological queries. Choose the correct research question. Select one: a. Where did the first election happen in the Philippines? b. When did the election start according to Philippine history? c. How did election start according to Philippine history? d. How many voted in the first election in the Philippines? It is an exploratory research. Select one: a. Qualitative b. All of the choices c. None of the choices d. Quantitative Which of the following is NOT an ESSENTIAL element of ethical research? Select one: a. Valuable scientific question b. Balance of risks and benefits c. Subject selection based on locality d. Independent review What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008). Select one: a. Importance of context b. Flexible design c. Participant-researcher relationship d. Importance of meaning What is wrong with double meaning question in research? Select one: a. It is a rhetorical question. b. It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question. c. None of the choices d. It is grammatically incorrect. Reliability in research means Select one: a. Factual results b. Discordance of findings c. Commonality of data d. Repeatability of findings What is the classification of research areas? Select one: a. Education, business and science b. Economics, governance and society c. Engineering, profession and science d. Education, profession and administration Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research because Select one: a. The researcher will only consider epistemological queries. b. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements. c. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use. d. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect. Hypothesis refers to the Select one: a. A form of research bias b. Conclusion drawn from the experiment c. A tentative statement about the relationship d. Outcome of an experiment It generates data about human groups in social settings. Select one: a. Qualitative Research b. Quantitative Research c. Scope and Delimitation d. Statement of the Problem e. Significance of the Study What is the best description of "research space" that the researcher and participants share? Select one: a. Research partnership b. Participant-researcher relationship c. Research location d. None of the choices It lets the meaning emerge from the participants. Select one: a. Statement of the Problem b. Quantitative Research c. Qualitative Research d. Significance of the Study e. Scope and Delimitation What is the intervention used in quantitative research? Select one: a. Participant involvement b. Immersion and simulation c. No participant involvement d. Case to case basis It is objective, replicable and reliable. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Qualitative c. Quantitative d. All of the choices What question does qualitative research answer? Select one: a. When b. Which c. Why d. How Which of the following is not a synonym for independent variable? Select one: a. Manipulated b. Stimulus c. Presumed cause d. Consequence They must be clear and free from double meanings. Select one: a. Qualitative Research b. Scope and Delimitation c. Significance of the Study d. Statement of the Problem e. Quantitative Research Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems? Select one: a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data b. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial c. Because of the ability to insure data integrity d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records Which of the following applies the double meaning questions? Select one: a. Citing all the resources correctly and with complete information b. Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants c. Honesty between the researcher and participants d. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners) should not be coerced to participate in a research. Which of the following is a required element of an informed consent based on ethical consideration in research? Select one: a. Participation may start before consent is signed. b. Participation may start after consent is signed. c. Participation is required after consent is signed. d. Participation is required before consent is signed. Quantitative research shows clarity based on interpreting _____________ data. Select one: a. Interviewed b. Observed c. Subjective d. Numerical A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way. Select one: a. Research purpose b. Research Questions c. Variables d. Words Which of the following is a research design? Select one: a. Observation b. Qualitative c. Pure/ basic research d. Everyday life What type of issue is addressed by qualitative research? Select one: a. Simple b. Public c. Indifferent d. Contextual Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge? Select one: a. Determined students travel to search for topics. b. Critical readers become curious analysts. c. A child is learning how to speak. d. A social media user surveys online. It is an exploratory research. Select one: a. Qualitative b. Quantitative c. All of the choices d. None of the choices This part distinguishes the constraints of the study by stating the demarcations of time, measurability, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations. Select one: a. Scope and Delimitation b. Significance of the Study c. Quantitative Research d. Statement of the Problem e. Qualitative Research Which of the following is a good research question for an everyday life research? Select one: a. How can one distinguish a generic drug from a branded one? b. What chemical content makes the soda drink produce bubbles? c. How does the image of the ideal man influences the male population between the ages 20 and 35? d. What is the biggest size of a super moon that can be seen by the naked eyes? What part of the research problem is described here? It must be free from biases and impartiality. Select one: a. Form a hypothesis b. Analyze data c. Design the study d. Determine a problem It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Quantitative c. None of the choices d. Qualitative Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to capture individuals' thoughts, feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008). Select one: a. All of the choices b. It is used to study paranormal activities that humans experience. c. It is used to survey the number of participants affected by the research problem. d. It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations of humans. When you write a research paper, your goal is to Select one: a. Save your reader time. b. Inform your reader. c. Persuade your reader. d. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject What is the separation between independent and dependent variable? Select one: a. An independent variable is being tested in an experiment. b. An independent variable is changed in an experiment. c. All of the choices d. A dependent variable is controlled in an experiment. What is the intervention used in quantitative research? Select one: a. Case to case basis b. Participant involvement c. No participant involvement d. Immersion and simulation Which of the following is a good research question? Select one: a. How many teenagers are using the social media? b. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences? c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem? d. What are the basic values or goals of the organization? It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. Select one: a. Hypothesis b. Delimitation c. Limitation d. Scope What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study? Select one: a. Title b. Significance of the Study c. Scope and Delimitation d. Statement of the Problem It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice to the development of new knowledge. Select one: a. Scope and Delimitation b. Qualitative Research c. Quantitative Research d. Significance of the Study e. Statement of the Problem Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma? Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of documents d. Conflict of interest What is pure research? Select one: a. It develops or refines theories. b. It taking the results of scientific research and utilizing it directly in real world situations. c. Psychologists working in human factors often do this research. d. It is used to find solutions to everyday problems, cure illness, and develop innovative technologies. What is the last step of the research process? Select one: a. Make recommendations for further research. b. All of the choices c. Determine the implications and conclusions. d. Build the reference page. Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems? Select one: a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data b. Because of the ability to insure data integrity c. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records Professionals do not need to use this method even when they have research problems at work. Select one: a. Qualitative b. All of the choices c. Quantitative d. None of the choices What is in significance of the study? Select one: a. research purpose b. research beneficiaries c. research coverage d. research questions Which title uses the qualitative inquiry? Select one: a. Starbucks and its Peers: Corporate Social Responsibility and Corporate Financial Performance b. Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan c. Analysis of the Performance of Initial Public Donations d. Under Pricing of Convertible Bonds in Asia Which of the following is not a characteristic of research? Select one: a. Research is guided by specific problem or question. b. Research questions are on existing information. c. Research divides the major problems into sub-problems. d. Research begins with an unanswered problem or question. What makes qualitative research a flexible design? Select one: a. need a special class of analytical skills b. a participant observer has little control over the activities of the observed c. all of the choices d. analyze their outcomes from the inside out Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question? Select one: a. Interesting b. Trendy c. Unique d. Empowerment What is a variable? Select one: a. The unpredictable words in research. b. Something that can be changed in research. c. Anything that has a quantity or quality that varies. d. The composition of research questions and titles. What is the classification of research areas? Select one: a. Economics, governance and society b. Education, business and science c. Education, profession and administration d. Engineering, profession and science Research is Select one: a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources b. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems c. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity d. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge The variable which is not influenced by other variables in the study. Select one: a. Independent variable b. Common variable c. Dependent variable d. Discrete variable Its method is limited by variables. Select one: a. Qualitative b. All of the choices c. None of the choices d. Quantitative There should be a general statement of the problem which narrows down to sub-problems or specific questions. Select one: a. Significance of the Study b. Scope and Delimitation c. Statement of the Problem d. Qualitative Research e. Quantitative Research Which of the following is a proof of the research experience? Select one: a. Biography of the researcher b. Researcher's identity and insights c. All of the choices d. Researcher's emotions An understanding of qualitative research is important because Select one: a. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics. b. The daily life activities can be studied. c. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school. d. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place. What is the independent variable in the title stated in the previous item? Select one: a. Manila b. intervention c. Dogs d. Children with Disabilities Which of the following is not under qualitative research? Select one: a. everyday life research b. pure research c. applied research d. none of the choices Which of the following is NOT a description of a good research? Select one: a. Research scope is ambiguous. b. Research process is detailed. c. Research design is thoroughly planned. d. Purpose is clearly defined. What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller & Lavraks, 2015). Select one: a. Importance of context b. Presence of absolute truth c. Inductive approach d. Flexible design It is used to measure attitudes, opinions, behaviors, and other defined variables - and generalize results from a larger sample population. Select one: a. Qualitative b. All of the choices c. None of the choices d. Quantitative It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis. Select one: a. All of the choices b. None of the choices c. Quantitative d. Qualitative Generalize the beneficiaries of a study. Select one: a. Teenagers are always involved in social issues. b. Students will learn much information in any research. c. The government must be concerned in any human problem. d. The readers are involved in all the studies that they read. What process in research is described in this sentence? It can be a qualitative or a quantitative research. Select one: a. Form a hypothesis b. Determine a problem c. Collect data d. Design the study Which one is the independent variable in this title: The Plight of Filipino Migrant Workers in the Middle East? Select one: a. Filipino Migrant Workers b. Plight c. Middle East d. Both Filipino Migrant Workers and Middle East It is considered valid and reliable. Select one: a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. None of the choices d. All of the choices What research purpose could be used in this title, Dogs: Intervention for Children with Disabilities in Manila? Select one: a. Applied b. none of the choices c. both choices are correct d. Pure/basic Identify the wrong statement about research. Select one: a. The purpose of research leads to the construction of research questions. b. Research aims to answer or solve specific issue or problem. c. Research discovers the potential power of a researcher. d. Research has the ultimate goal of developing an organized body of scientific knowledge. What subject involves the everyday life? Select one: a. Social science b. Mathematics c. Humanities d. Business Where can one find the literature of a qualitative research? Select one: a. Ending part b. Beginning part c. Reference part d. Middle part Which of the following is not a basic ethical principle of research? Select one: a. Minimize possible harms b. Respect for persons c. Respect for nature and animals d. Observe justice What is the research experience? Select one: a. researcher's personal aspects b. one's research knowledge c. researcher's achievements d. researcher's expertise Research is Select one: a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity c. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge d. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems Which of the following is incorrect about everyday life research? Select one: a. It is a scientific research methodology. b. It focuses on details and seemingly insignificant occurrences. c. It is a participatory action research methodology. d. It is written in second hand person voice. Which of the following is not a thesis statement? Select one: a. Man's greatest treasures are the lessons he learned. b. The wanton cutting down of trees. c. Coffee is now considered a health drink. d. The Israeli-Hebollah conflict in Lebanon has placed the UN in the difficult position. Which word was developed from the everyday life of man? Select one: a. Social b. Science c. Qualitative d. Quantitative Which of the following is a product of qualitative research? Select one: a. Medicines b. Policies c. Automobiles d. All of the choices Which of the following applies the double meaning questions? Select one: a. All of the choices b. Is this tool interesting and useful? c. How often and how much time do you spend on each visit to a hospital? d. How satisfied are you with your pay and job conditions? Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis? Select one: a. A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing. b. Childhood obesity is alarming nowadays. c. The amount of sun exposure is good to a plant. d. More students get sick during the final week of testing than at other times. It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research. Select one: a. Quantitative b. All of the choices c. Qualitative d. None of the choices In ethical dilemma of research, authorship requires Select one: a. Accurate data recording b. All of the choices c. Significant intellectual contribution d. Correct citation of authors ____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the readers will find. Select one: a. variable; findings b. scope and delimitation; significance of the study c. all of the choices d. research question; hypothesis What is the basic skill required of any researcher? Select one: a. Ability understand major philosophical issues b. Ability to source data c. Ability to calculate statistics d. Ability to generate ideas for research projects It is quantitative research designed to portray a complete and accurate description of historical events. Select one: a. Case study research b. Historical research c. Descriptive research d. Correlational research It describes a problem or condition from the point of view of those experiencing it. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. None of the choices Which of the following is not a characteristic of qualitative research? Select one: a. Inductive approach b. Flexible design c. Important context d. Presence of absolute truth Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. None of the choices What is the sample size in qualitative research? Select one: a. big b. holistic c. representative d. small Which of the following is correct about research questions? Select one: a. None of the choices b. All of the choices c. They must guide the design of the study. d. They must inform the content of the research discussion. e. They must articulate the gap found in the literature. Which of the following is excluded in the scope and delimitation? Select one: a. Research findings b. The general purpose c. Locale of the study d. The population or universe Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation? Select one: a. Rationale b. Solutions c. Timelessness d. Problems It mentions the restrictions identified by the researcher that may affect the outcome of the study which he/she has little or no control, but are anticipated. Select one: a. Scope and Delimitation b. Qualitative Research c. Quantitative Research d. Statement of the Problem e. Significance of the Study What is the first thing to do in formulating research title? Select one: a. Identify the problem and the participants involve. b. All of the choices c. Choose the right words (i.e. nouns, prepositions, verbs). d. Construct the variables under study. It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information about the world. Select one: a. Quantitative Research b. Qualitative Research c. Scope and Delimitation d. Statement of the Problem e. Significance of the Study In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when Select one: a. The researcher's background is not related to his/her research topic. b. The researcher bribes the authority to be in the research location. c. The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study. d. The researcher gives money for participants to join. Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by Select one: a. All of the choices b. Limiting free-text responses and maximizing the use of standard vocabularies c. Validating data values whenever possible d. Eliminating redundancy e. None of the choices Applied research is done ______________________. Select one: a. in natural setting b. in computer simulation c. anywhere d. in a laboratory It does need any research instrument to collect its data. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Qualitative c. All of the choices d. Quantitative Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic? Select one: a. Personal experience b. All of the choices c. Looking for the next step in the research process d. Getting an idea from your adviser The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings. Select one: a. True b. None of the choices c. False d. Depending on the topic In selecting factors for a study, which of these does a researcher needs to consider? Select one: a. They have been investigated before. b. They are not of interesting so only few will choose them. c. They are available for investigation. d. They do not lead to another question. The method is affected by the researcher. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. All of the choices It has primarily deductive process used to test pre-specified concepts, constructs, and hypotheses that make up a theory. Select one: a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. None of the choices d. All of the choices What is the best description of research rationale? Select one: a. Location of the research b. Similar to research hypothesis c. Reasons for conducting the research d. The scope and delimitation of research Validity in research refers to Select one: a. The power of the instrument to be used b. How well a test measures what it is supposed to measure c. the legality of the test to be used d. How the researcher uses the instrument to the participants What implications do human values have on qualitative research? Select one: a. They set the price the research is worth to be sold for. b. They influence the ethical decisions of the researcher. c. They contribute to the value of the data set by other researchers. d. They influence the number of researchers to be involved in the study. What is an example of qualitative research? Select one: a. Historical research b. Descriptive research c. Correlational research d. Case study A case study methodology is useful in Select one: a. Studies with big population b. Study of a bounded entity c. Statistical analysis d. Study spreads in large geographic areas What is the use of research variables? Select one: a. They are quiet detailed with an overview of in depth. b. They have a period when they starts and stops. c. They are the measurable factors of the research. d. They may have a pattern such as daily, weekly, ad-hoc and monthly. Which of the following best describes a hypothesis? Select one: a. The data that need to be supported b. A clear relationship between factors c. Basis for research questions d. Statement that the researcher set out to prove Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research? Select one: a. A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a criminal record to deal with aggression b. A shopper wants to compare the number of shoppers during ordinary and Christmas season. c. A lawmaker is thinking of an innovation for a cleaner election. d. A teacher was considering a computer instructional tool for active learning pedagogy. In qualitative research, researchers evaluate any number of variables to make sense of the data. These variables include Select one: a. Language of the participants b. All of the choices c. Educational background of participants d. Quantity of participants Which of the following is a comparison between pure and applied research? Select one: a. Both of them are good research design. b. None of them is applicable for everyday life research. c. Both of them need statistical measurement. d. Both of them are feasible research purpose. Which research refers to scientific study and research that seeks to solve practical problems? Select one: a. Pure research b. Both Basic and Applied research c. All of the choices d. Both Basic and Pure research e. Both Pure and Applied research f. None of the choices g. Basic research h. Applied research Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research? Select one: a. It is focused on the scientific explanations of facts. b. It measures reliability and validity of instruments using figures. c. This may in turn generate new forms of human action. d. The theme of everyday life is very subjective. What is the prevention to the situation mentioned in the previous item (no. 107)? Select one: a. Millenials must protect their social media accounts by using complicated passwords and customizing their account settings. b. People must secure their photographs and personal information from public viewing. c. All of the choices d. Millenials should not save many pictures and personal information in their gadgets (i.e. smart phones, laptop, etc.) What is the contrast of everyday life research from others? Select one: a. It documents the particulars of life. b. All of the choices c. It captures life as it is lived. d. It allows the researcher to describe behavior as it occurs in natural contexts. It is the best research method to use in any field of study. Select one: a. None of the choices b. Quantitative c. All of the choices d. Qualitative Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Qualitative c. Quantitative d. None of the choices What would happen if the constructed research question has no precise answer? Select one: a. The results will not be accurate and valid. b. The results will not address the specific need of the problem. c. All of the choices d. The whole research process is useless. It provides observed effects (interpreted by researchers) of a program on a problem or condition. Select one: a. All of the choices b. Quantitative c. None of the choices d. Qualitative RSCH The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). We should use given information in inferring ideas Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation. False The best research design is the qualitative research design. False Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. Mateo heard a weather forecast? it would rain in the afternoon. Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexicanbackground students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential of the Mexicanbackground students. Ethnographic Research Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." 8 nurses Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She contended that, unfortunately, the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle, helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance. Phenomenological Research Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Being homeless is a choice and individual decision. True Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Homelessness is a perennial global problem True Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." Narrative Research Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment? emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort. Grounded Theory Research Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexicanbackground students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential of the Mexicanbackground students high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street. True Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment? emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort. hospitalized patients Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document. True Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. False Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica's turn to choose, and only Kurt was left. Jessica said, "Kurt." Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team. You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went out of the kitchen to answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips on the floor. Your little sister was tearyeyed and said, "I'm sorry. It was an accident." Your sister decided to get her own snacks Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion. True The list of research participants Word Tables and Lists Characteristics of the people being studied Word Tables and Lists It is highly recommended through texts and marking them up with different colored highlighter pens. Pawing Organizational chart of the institution being studied Graphics Spradley (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) recorded conversations among tramps at informal gatherings, meals, card games, and bull sessions. As the men talked to each other about their experiences, there were many references to making a flop. Spradley combed through his recorded material and notes looking for verbatim statements made by informants about his topic. On analyzing the statements, he found that most of the statements could fit into subcategories such as kinds of flops, ways to make flops, ways to make your own flop, kinds of people who bother you when you flop, ways to make a bed, and kinds of beds. Spradley then returned to his informants and sought additional information from them on each of the subcategories. indigenous categories He stole the recipe from the chef. Plagiarism Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly, vol. 23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63. CMS Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey Dynamic An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West, Paramount, 2006. MLA She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. Falsification The researcher invented the results of the study. Fabrication Theatrical play Dynamic Food blog Syndicated The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list. Fabrication The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from APA "What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?" 5 "Good morning. I'm a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of our community." 1 Do you find her comments on your website offensive? Leading How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions? what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. Physical behavior and gestures Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers? dynamics of interaction Verbal behavior and interactions A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends without asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit? Plagiarism Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative study? It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher. In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct? This point has been argued before (Frye 197). Which of the following statements is correct? The reference list is doublespaced with hanging indents. Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source? paintings Arrange the correct order of the guidelines for a coherent review of related literature: 1. Avoid misinterpretation or distortion of the writer's original meaning by direct quotation. 2. Analyze their respective content, facts, findings, methods, concepts and implications. Cite properly all relevant literature into a meaningful whole. 3. Synthesize into holistic body of content or in one relevant discussion. 4. Classify and identify the appropriate categories, relationship, similarities, of both local and international studies. 4, 2,1,3 Which of the following is an example of static type of source? Html coded web sites Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature? Examine all potential literature. When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to All of the choices Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. MLA What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Syndicated What does CMS citation style mean? Chicago Manual Style Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: Key word searches What comes first before planning the structure of literature review? Outlining the aim of the research Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research? Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703726. New York : Simon & Schuster Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism? Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that information In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was called "divisionism." As Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting order, harmony, emotional stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on the subject. This was an important idea for Matisse. No year of publication beside the cited names Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism? Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited. What information is required for the APA intext citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index. McCullough, 2001 Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes? All of the choices The literature review must be: Required reading for the program of the study What does the researcher engage in reading the literature? An evaluation of the literature What is the purpose of the search for literature in research? The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature. Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies? The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible. In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations? They should be used only when absolutely necessary. Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources? To show readers the materials where the researcher base his/her analysis, narrative or conclusion. Which of the following is the best way to protect yourself against plagiarism? All of the choices Describe your relationship with your colleagues. Open Where people enter and exit? how long they stay? who they are (ethnicity, age, gender)? whether they are alone or accompanied? number of people Human traffic Would you like to continue that kind of relationship? Mapping "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." 6 "One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after chemotherapy. Could you tell me your experience?" 4 What do you think about the two presidential candidates? Open What individuals' preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships Personal space "How old were you when you discovered your disease?" 3 Do you feel great when people admire your work? Leading "How does your family view your situation?" 4 Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. APA Research journal Syndicated Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato'sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439-58. CMS Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) Static The bibliography is incomplete. Fabrication The researcher manipulated the results of the study. Falsification Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html. MLA Official website Static A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. Plagiarism Spolarium by Juan Luna Static Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited. False References can be the same as bibliography. False The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." He will still participate in the activities of the organization. James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net) What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article? Identical twins have a lot in common Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study. True "English has been dubbed as the "language of the world". Over a billion people in the world have considered English as their second language. With over 2,500 OFW's leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe, Filipinos are expected to arm themselves with English to communicate with the world."(Excerpt from "Nursing the Carabao English",in Yu& Plata, 2006) Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work abroad. The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. True The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important. True James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net) What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article? Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same things. Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn't be spending hours staring blankly at a screen. Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches. Some cartoons are not good for Maria. In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 evermarried women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted indepth interviews with present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birthplanning campaigns? peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason. searching for missing information Geographic map of the study area Graphics Summary of research findings Word Tables and Lists Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content. Transitions Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems Social science queries The changing image of public transportation Pictures The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires paper and scissors. Cutting and Sorting The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that might produce patterns in those metaphors. Metaphors and analogies Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things. Connectors Artwork of the child participants Pictures Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong standards. Narrative Research Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation. 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82 Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. Action Research Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. staff of one hospice and one nursing home Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Common people are powerless to help the homeless. False Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation. Phenomenological Research Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Homelessness is hopeless to be solved. False Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong standards. 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. False Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable? I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Not all homeless are impoverished. True Textbooks Static The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis. Plagiarism She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey. Falsification Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/aninconvenienttruth2006. Accessed 15 June 2016. MLA Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall. APA Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005. CMS Live concert Dynamic Discovery Channel Syndicated Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt. Developmental Psychology, 35,127145. APA The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn't. Fabrication RSCH 4th quarter exam RSCH-111 WEEK:11 SHORT QUIZ 7 Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn't. - Fabrication Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient- truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016. -MLA Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative study? A: It is a continuing process because the research problem becomes more focused throughout the research. Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall. -APA Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Live concert -Dynamic Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005. -CMS Discovery Channel -Syndicated She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey. -Falsification Textbooks -Static The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis. -Plagiarism Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt. Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145. -APA RSCH-111 WEEK 11: L.A 7 He stole the recipe from the chef. -Plagiarism Milken, Michael, et al. &quot;On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances.&quot; New Perspectives Quarterly, vol. 23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63. -CMS She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. -Falsification An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West, Paramount, 2006. -MLA Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey - Dynamic research long quiz 4 30/30 c-Misha Sanches Which of the following is the first to help improve the use of the research literature? Keep a researcher notebook What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon &amp; Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index. Cullough, David. John Adams, p. 703-726. New York : Simon &amp; Schuster (2001). Print. Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources? Examine all potential literature. What is the purpose of the search for literature in research? The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature. Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism? Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited. What does the researcher need to generate useful and thorough key word searches? A search and reading strategy What comes first before planning the structure of literature review? Outlining the aim of the research What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Published accounts of researchers What citation style was used in this source? Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2. APA What does the researcher engage in reading the literature? An evaluation of the literature A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends without asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit? Plagiarism The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? The authenticity of the information Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism? Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that information. Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research? Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources. The literature review must be: Required reading for the program of the study What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? APA and MLA Which one is an example of a correct in-text quotation? Eguchi and Eguchi (2006) and Icassatti (2006) mentioned that students showed enthusiasm while using these strategies. Last week your professor talked about her theory of the best method for electoral reform in a lecture. Since she knows all about it, do you need to reference this? You need to cite it in the body of your paper and in the reference list. Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes? All of the choices Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies? The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible. In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct? This point has been argued before (Frye 197). What is the difference of related literature from related studies? Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books. Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature? Introduction What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Syndicated Which of the following is an example of static type of source? Html coded web sites What information is required for the APA in-text citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon &amp; Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index. McCullough, 2001 What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise? Theme What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. MLA What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published medical literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution? Plagiarism RSCH-110 QE Which of the following can be found in the final part of the research paper? Select one: - Conclusion and recommendations of the study Data gathering techniques are part of Select one: - The methodological framework What is literature in research? Select one: - All of the choices What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender, physical appearance of respondents? Select one: -Appearance Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? Select one: -Recommendations should be logical and valid. Which of the following is correct? Select one: -Only research conducted by academic staff with human participants requires ethical approval. Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships? Select one: - Rather than Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct? - All of the choices Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London&#39;s Inner-City Children Select one: - Ethnographic Research The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the research design applied? Select one: - Ethnographic What is a research design? Select one: -all of the choices The entire research project is an exercise in Select one: -. All of the choices What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through photos? Select one: -Visual data What is the basis of research conclusion? Select one: - Data results What influences the choice of the research design? Select one: - All of the choices In participant observation, what information can be observed? Select one: - All of the choices Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation? Select one: -. All of the choices Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with grounded theory methodology Select one: - Grounded Theory Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families Select one: - Phenomenological Research Which of the following citation used the APA format? Select one: - Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar &amp; composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event in order to situate people's behavior within their own socio-cultural context? Select one: -. Observation Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? Select one: -. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents in the education system Select one: - Grounded Theory Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e. political, methodological, geographical, literary)? Select one: - Sector What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach? Select one: - Grounded theory What are research data? Select one: - All of the choices Which of the following is the basic rule in data collection? Select one: - Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data. Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? Select one: - Establish an initial rapport Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? Select one: - All of the choices Which of the following is qualitative data analysis? Select one: -. All of the choices A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for displaying qualitative data should he use? Select one: -Graphics What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? Select one: - Conclusion The research project is Select one: - A scientific endeavor Thea is interested to study the young people with dementia - chronic disorder caused by brain disease or injury. What research design is appropriate for her research inquiry? Select one: -Phenomenological research What is common in data collection among qualitative researches? Select one: -Language based Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? Select one: -Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study Which of the following titles is a narrative research? Select one: - The Life and Works of Rizal Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations Select one: - Action Research It is also known as the research plan. -Research Design How does key word in context (KWIC) work for novice researchers? - Researchers identify key words and then systematically search the corpus of text to find all instances of the word or phrase. Which of the following is the content of conclusion? - A judgment or final decision What is the grounded theory research design? Select one: - The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction shaped by the views of a large number of participants. Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? Select one: - All of the choices What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? Select one: -Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words- in-contexts (KWIC) Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________. Select one: - The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed. What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? Select one: -Memoing, verification and credibility Which of the following is not normally associated with qualitative data? Select one: -Pie charts A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? Select one: -Qualitative What is the final stage of analyzing data? Select one: -Presenting the data in tabular form A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to- face in shopping areas. What qualitative data collection was used? Select one: - Interview What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? Select one: -Mapping questions Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods? Select one: - Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status? Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines Select one: - Phenomenological Research Which of the following is NOT the function of references? Select one: -To ensure sufficiently long reference list How does verification of data happen? -Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle Select one: -Action Research Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? Select one: -APA format What is the optimal number of participants for a focus group discussion? Select one: - 8-12 members Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing Select one: - Ethnographic Research Which of the following is an example of falsification in research? Select one: -Manipulated data from the findings Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? Select one: -Action research Which of the following belongs to related literature? Select one: -textbook When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? Select one: - The layout of the site Which of following should NOT be considered in conducting in-depth interview? Select one: - Pretend to be interested in hearing about the life of the interviewee. __________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study. Select one: -Sampling unit A teacher conducts an action research study of the problem-solving methods used by students in her ninth-grade Algebra I classes. Which of the following can she assume on the basis of her study? Select one: -Results apply only to Algebra I students in ninth grade. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Student awareness in global warming Select one: - Action Research What type of source are documentary films? Select one: - Static What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis. Select one: - Enumerative approach What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis? Select one: - To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study What is bibliography? Select one: - A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? Select one: -Lying by fabrication A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? Select one: - Observation Which of the following is not a type of narrative research? Select one: - Case study Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies? Select one: -Reviewed materials must be many. According to historical accounts, face-to- face methods have been used since the early years of civilization to collect population figures. Why were these records kept? Select one: - All of the choices Which of the following is the correct notion about observation? Select one: - A key data gathering method in social sciences. Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers Select one: - Phenomenological Research A literature review should include material that is _____________________. Select one: - Directly related to the research questions Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? Select one: - Focus group discussion __________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? - Focus group discussion What is the best research design? - For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is accessible. What kind of research will answer a social inquiry? The correct answer is: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual respect and fairness. The correct answer is: Ethical standards True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. The correct answer is: False Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. The correct answer is: True Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Research is the highest form of adoration" ? Pierre Teilhard de Chardin The correct answer is: Research is valuing others' work. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "I believe in innovation and that the way you get innovation is you fund research and you learn the basic facts. " -Bill Gates The correct answer is: Innovation is funding a research and learning its basic facts. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Do research. Feed your talent. Research not only wins the war on cliche, it's the key to victory over fear and it's cousin, depression." ? Robert McKee The correct answer is: Research is not only answering questions but also discovering one's talent and skill Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "The measure of greatness in a scientific idea is the extent to which it stimulates thought and opens up new lines of research." ? Paul A.M. Dirac The correct answer is: Research starts from the stimulated mind and may end to measure of greatness. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. " -Zora Neale Hurston The correct answer is: Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "All I'm armed with is research." -Mike Wallace The correct answer is: Research can equip anyone. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on the issues that we face on a day-to-day basis. " -Ben Bernanke The correct answer is: Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong The correct answer is: Research is an investigation of the unknown. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Research is about engaging in a conversation with a brand." -Matthew Rhodes The correct answer is: Research is discussing specific issues. Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "Find out what's really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference." Marilyn Manson The correct answer is: Research is finding out there what other's has not seen so you make a difference. Debriefing should… The correct answer is: Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when The correct answer is: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by The correct answer is: Offering small incentives Confidentiality is used to protect a participant's privacy by The correct answer is: Sharing only the information permitted by the participant Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… The correct answer is: His/her name and identifying characteristics Research hypotheses can be defined as The correct answer is: A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of the investigation. Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research? The correct answer is: Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use. Which of the following is not considered to be an example of misconduct in research? The correct answer is: Fabrication of data Informed consent requires that individuals… The correct answer is: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including… The correct answer is: Illegal behaviors Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader? The correct answer is: in the introduction What is the purpose of informed consent? The correct answer is: To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research and to communicate their right to withdraw at any stage. What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience? The correct answer is: Education What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution? The correct answer is: Administration Which of the following should not be done by the researchers? The correct answer is: Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects. Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? The correct answer is: Falsification of data bank Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers? The correct answer is: descriptive research Critical researchers are primarily concerned with The correct answer is: ethical violations in methodology Fraud in research comprises The correct answer is: all of the choices What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? The correct answer is: Emotions Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher? The correct answer is: Collecting data What is a research instrument? The correct answer is: a tool for data collection What is an ethical dilemma? The correct answer is: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct Which of the following statements is wrong? The correct answer is: Research must give pride to its investigator. Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation? The correct answer is: Getting funding for the research Researcher's involvement to the research means The correct answer is: The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance. Research in daily life has The correct answer is: Practical value Research is The correct answer is: Analyzing and interpreting new information Which of the following best describes a hypothesis? The correct answer is: Proposed before a good research question can be developed. Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of The correct answer is: values and judgement Almost all research plans include the following components: The correct answer is: a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis. Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? The correct answer is: fabricator of data A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called The correct answer is: inductive method Research is The correct answer is: Searching for the truth in a scientific way Who is responsible for ethical behavior? The correct answer is: the researchers Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? The correct answer is: Identification of problem Which of the following is not included in the research experience? The correct answer is: Social class of the researcher Research done in natural settings is The correct answer is: more likely to involve applied research than basic research What is a major ethical drawback of offering financial incentive for participation? The correct answer is: It can be coercive. Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to. The correct answer is: conclusion Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative research. "The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and descriptions are written, usually resulting in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies of the situation." - Myers The correct answer is: The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of explorations in qualitative research. The setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from the locale will surely help the researcher to explain the unexplainable. Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative research. "Formal symbolic representation of qualitative entities is doomed to its rightful place of minor significance in a world where flowers and beautiful women abound." Albert Einstein The correct answer is: Qualitative research is everyday life research. The issues to be addressed are in the beautiful places where problems are least expected to arise such as home, school, church, tourist spots, etc. Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes. The correct answer is: True Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative research. "The most important advances, the qualitative leaps, are the least predictable. Not even the best scientists predicted the impact of nuclear physics, and everyday consumer items such as the iPhone would have seemed magic back in the 1950s." - Martin Rees The correct answer is: The flexible design of qualitative research is illustrated in the quotation since it can be modified from modern to conservative or vice-versa depending on the need of the study. The skill set required of the researcher is the key to interpret unpredictable findings. Online and mobile technology offer limited enhancements to qualitative research designs. The correct answer is: False - unique Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources. The correct answer is: True The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed. The correct answer is: False - can Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth. The correct answer is: False - absence of absolute truth Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are the only topics to be used for qualitative research. The correct answer is: True Qualitative research uses survey as an instrument for data collection. The correct answer is: False - observation Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on daily activities and experiences. The correct answer is: True Qualitative research addresses scientific issues. The correct answer is: False - personal Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all researchers. The correct answer is: True "The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age, anything goes. The trick is to produce intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss." ? David Silverman The correct answer is: The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic describe in this quotation. It involves multilayered process which may include anything but the inductive approach will shape the result into an intelligent and disciplined work that will really make a difference. "Modernity is a qualitative, not a chronological, category." - Theodor Adorno The correct answer is: The unique capabilities of online and mobile qualitative research can be under modern category and they are very much useful in qualitative research. Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful The correct answer is: Applied Which part of the research paper do you find the following? The weaknesses spring out of the inaccuracies of the perceptions of the respondents. The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children The correct answer is: Applied Which part of the research paper do you find the following? Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and may result to vagueness. The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem Which part of the research paper do you find the following? Possible solutions to existing problems or improvement to unsatisfactory conditions. The correct answer is: Significance of the Study The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test. The correct answer is 'False'. Individuals are like scientists who develop theories on how the world and their own activities function. The correct answer is 'True'. Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. The correct answer is 'False'. It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes, measuring how the end result changes by altering a variable. The correct answer is 'False'. The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. The correct answer is 'False'. It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. The correct answer is 'True'. It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of variables relationship. The correct answer is 'False'. Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled circumstance. The correct answer is 'False'. It is the arrangement of the individual's arrangements of a particular person. The correct answer is 'True'. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. The correct answer is 'True'. Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images The correct answer is: Applied Which part of the research paper do you find the following? It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one's research study. The correct answer is: Research Title It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the variables under study. The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons The correct answer is: Pure It must also reflect the variables under study. The correct answer is: Research Title Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Match the general term to its specific topic. 1. Generalization - [OFWs and migration] 2. Theater - [Les Miserables] 3. Texting - [Code switching] 4. Cloning - [Stem cell research] 5. Emotional quotient - [cyberbullying] 6. Anime - [manga] 7. Nuclear power - [Fukushima crisis] 8. Holidays - [Eid ul Fitr] 9. Natural material - [wood] 10. Dogs - [cross breeding] College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful The correct answer is: Applied This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study. The correct answer is: Significance of the Study A brief statement of the general purpose of the study. The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly The correct answer is: Pure How Do Slime Molds Reproduce The correct answer is: Pure It is biased in terminology or position. The correct answer is 'False'. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. The correct answer is 'True'. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. The correct answer is 'False'. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). The correct answer is 'False'. It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world. The correct answer is 'True'. It clearly states the constructs to be examined. The correct answer is 'True'. It has multiple possible answers. The correct answer is 'False'. It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. The correct answer is 'True'. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. The correct answer is 'True'. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. The correct answer is 'True'. Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels The correct answer is: Pure The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were gathered. The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder The correct answer is: Applied Theory of Relativity The correct answer is: Pure The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study. The correct answer is: Significance of the Study No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted. The correct answer is: DELIMITATION The researchers also determined the children's reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on television. The correct answer is: SCOPE This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays. The correct answer is: SCOPE Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. The correct answer is: DELIMITATION The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. The correct answer is: DELIMITATION Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study. The correct answer is: DELIMITATION This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy. The correct answer is: SCOPE Reliability of survey questions was not established. The correct answer is: DELIMITATION The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school. The correct answer is: SCOPE The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university. The correct answer is: SCOPE The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to The correct answer is: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation? The correct answer is: Acknowledge the researcher's co-authors. Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher? The correct answer is: Technically capable in operating statistical devices. Limitations of research refer to the The correct answer is: Restrictions identified by the researcher. Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research? The correct answer is: Anthropology Why are research questions used in qualitative research? The correct answer is: All of the above Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with "variables" that are defined by the researcher prior to the research project because The correct answer is: All of the above In the title "The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could be the possible beneficiaries of the research? The correct answer is: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers What is the characteristic of a specific question in the statement of the problem? The correct answer is: It must contribute to the development of the whole research problem or topic. What is the composition of a research title? The correct answer is: The title must reflect the variables under study. Which of the following is NOT strength of qualitative research? The correct answer is: Subjectivity leads to procedural difficulty. Which sentence belongs to the Scope and Delimitation of a research? The correct answer is: This study determines the status of irregular second year students enrolled in a Catholic school. Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher because The correct answer is: They are particularly useful for exploring how and why things that have happened. Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because The correct answer is: The researcher strives to collect information from which some level of useful knowledge can be gained. What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? The correct answer is: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study? The correct answer is: Possible recommendations to the research findings. Scope and delimitation distinguishes the constraints of the study by delimiting the topic in terms of time, ____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations. The correct answer is: Measurability Which of the following titles is best for applied research? The correct answer is: The effectiveness of abstinence programs What are the types of issues that qualitative research commonly answers? The correct answer is: Sensitive or personal issues What contributes to the messiness of qualitative research messy? The correct answer is: the inductive approach Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research? The correct answer is: The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? The correct answer is: Flexible design What is the purpose of daily life research? The correct answer is: To study the social interaction in a natural environment. Daily life research is advisable for students because The correct answer is: It involves their experience. How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? The correct answer is: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? The correct answer is: The participants and the researcher share the "research space". What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research? The correct answer is: It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument. What is the coverage of ethical considerations in research? The correct answer is: Human and non-human participants How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research? The correct answer is: Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to websites, and voice response. Independent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic. The correct answer is: Solution It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis. The correct answer is: Qualitative What is the last step of the research process? The correct answer is: Make recommendations for further research. A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way. The correct answer is: Variables What subject involves the everyday life? The correct answer is: Social science It is considered valid and reliable. The correct answer is: All of the choices It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information about the world. The correct answer is: Quantitative Research Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study. The correct answer is: Qualitative What is the use of research hypotheses? The correct answer is: All of the choices ____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the readers will find. The correct answer is: research question; hypothesis The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings. The correct answer is: False It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice to the development of new knowledge. The correct answer is: Significance of the Study Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by The correct answer is: All of the choices Hypothesis refers to the The correct answer is: A tentative statement about the relationship Restate the statement: Although it might be said that an absolute truth is intangible in all forms of research, the interactive, personal and interpretive approach in qualitative inquiry extinguishes the notion that the outcomes represent an absolute truth. The correct answer is: Absolute truth in non-existing in qualitative inquiry. What is pure research? The correct answer is: It develops or refines theories. Research is The correct answer is: investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources Which title uses the qualitative inquiry? The correct answer is: Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when The correct answer is: The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study. Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic? The correct answer is: Personal experience Which word was developed from the everyday life of man? The correct answer is: Social What is the research experience? The correct answer is: researcher's personal aspects Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question? The correct answer is: Unique Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study. The correct answer is: Quantitative Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis? The correct answer is: A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing. Generalize the beneficiaries of a study. The correct answer is: The readers are involved in all the studies that they read. What is the best definition of justice in research? The correct answer is: Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants They must be clear and free from double meanings. The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem Its method is limited by variables. The correct answer is: All of the choices It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem. The correct answer is: Qualitative What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher's interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller & Lavraks, 2015). The correct answer is: Importance of context What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study? The correct answer is: Significance of the Study It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. The correct answer is: Scope It is an exploratory research. The correct answer is: Qualitative Which of the following is a proof of the research experience? The correct answer is: All of the choices An understanding of qualitative research is important because The correct answer is: The daily life activities can be studied. Which of the following is a product of basic research? The correct answer is: natural sciences What is the intervention used in quantitative research? The correct answer is: No participant involvement It generates data about human groups in social settings. The correct answer is: Qualitative Research It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research. The correct answer is: Quantitative Which of the following is not under qualitative research? The correct answer is: pure research Which of the following applies the double meaning questions? The correct answer is: All of the choices What is the basic skill required of any researcher? The correct answer is: Ability to source data What is wrong with double meaning question in research? The correct answer is: It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question. Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research? The correct answer is: A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a criminal record to deal with aggression Time expenditure on research is lighter on the planning end and heavier during the analysis phase. The correct answer is: Qualitative Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation? The correct answer is: Timelessness Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research? The correct answer is: This may in turn generate new forms of human action. Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to capture individuals' thoughts, feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008). The correct answer is: It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations of humans. Which of the following is not a thesis statement? The correct answer is: The wanton cutting down of trees. Which of the following statements is true based on the question: which of these is a way to build the general knowledge of a research topic? I. Read a good recent textbook chapter. II. Look for the recent publication before reading a material. III. Find and use a reader on the topic in question. The correct answer is: I and III 4TH QUARTER EXAM He stole the recipe from the chef. The correct answer is: Plagiarism Research survey The correct answer is: Dynamic Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly, vol. 23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63. The correct answer is: CMS An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West, Paramount, 2006. The correct answer is: MLA She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. The correct answer is: Falsification Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt. Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145. The correct answer is: APA Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016. Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016 The correct answer is: MLA The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis. The correct answer is: Plagiarism The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn't. The correct answer is: Fabrication Live concert The correct answer is: Dynamic She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey. The correct answer is: Falsification Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall. The correct answer is: APA Discovery Channel The correct answer is: Syndicated Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005. The correct answer is: CMS Textbooks The correct answer is: Static The researcher invented the results of the study. The correct answer is: Fabrication Theatrical play The correct answer is: Dynamic Food blog The correct answer is: Syndicated The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list. The correct answer is: Fabrication The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html The correct answer is: APA The bibliography is incomplete. The correct answer is: Fabrication Spolarium by Juan Luna The correct answer is: Static Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) The correct answer is: Static Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato'sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439-58. The correct answer is: CMS Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. The correct answer is: APA Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html. The correct answer is: MLA The researcher manipulated the results of the study. The correct answer is: Falsification Research journal The correct answer is: Syndicated Official website The correct answer is: Static A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. The correct answer is: Plagiarism The literature review must be: The correct answer is: Required reading for the program of the study Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes? The correct answer is: All of the choices What should be used in writing a related literature review? The correct answer is: All of the choices What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise? The correct answer is: Theme What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? The correct answer is: APA and MLA Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research? The correct answer is: Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources. Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies? The correct answer is: The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible. What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. The correct answer is: MLA A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends without asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit? The correct answer is: Plagiarism Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source? The correct answer is: paintings What is the purpose of the search for literature in research? The correct answer is: The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature. Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature? The correct answer is: Examine all potential literature. Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2. The correct answer is: APA What comes first before planning the structure of literature review? The correct answer is: Outlining the aim of the research What is the difference of related literature from related studies? The correct answer is: Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books. When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to The correct answer is: All of the choices What does the researcher engage in reading the literature? The correct answer is: An evaluation of the literature The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters What is the context of "literature" in a research project? The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism? The correct answer is: Paraphrasing other people's information and citing the source of that information. What is missing in the following passage from a student paper? In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was called "divisionism." As Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting - order, harmony, emotional stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on the subject. This was an important idea for Matisse. The correct answer is: No year of publication beside the cited names What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index. The correct answer is: Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations? The correct answer is: They should be used only when absolutely necessary. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review? The correct answer is: It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data. What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published medical literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution? The correct answer is: Plagiarism A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: The correct answer is: Key word searches In MLA, which of the following is the correct way to cite a website in a text? The correct answer is: Both choices are correct Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative study? The correct answer is: It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher. Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." The correct answer is: Narrative Research Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort. The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential of the Mexican-background students. The correct answer is: high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street. The correct answer is: True Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of hospitalized patients. Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological process identified by the researchers was labeled "optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort." Personal control referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort. The correct answer is: hospitalized patients Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong standards The correct answer is: Narrative Research Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation. The correct answer is: 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82 Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. The correct answer is: Action Research Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Common people are powerless to help the homeless. The correct answer is: False Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these experiences affect aged peoples' sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82, recruited from a retired peoples' organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results showed that generally the experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self, and finding ways to feel at home in this changed situation. The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Homelessness is hopeless to be solved. The correct answer is: False Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is linked to life course events and experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York, particularly 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity represented participants' confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances. Most participants had faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions). Participants linked strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial circumstances or the absence of strong standards. The correct answer is: 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. The correct answer is: False Not all homeless are impoverished. The correct answer is: True Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She contended that, unfortunately, the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle, helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance. The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research Being homeless is a choice and individual decision. The correct answer is: True Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how Mexican-background students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential of the Mexican-background students. The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research Homelessness is a perennial global problem. The correct answer is: True Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." The correct answer is: 8 nurses Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students. The correct answer is: female senior students Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students. The correct answer is: Action Research Being homeless is a permanent social status. The correct answer is: False Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and participants. School-based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-healing. The correct answer is: program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators The government is the only one who can help the homeless. The correct answer is: False Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless. The correct answer is: True Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men's gender identity development. In order to try to meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance that was like wearing a mask or "putting my man face on." This process included learning societal expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study were all aware that they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities. Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society. The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men's gender identity development. In order to try to meet these expectations and be seen as men, participants described putting on a performance that was like wearing a mask or "putting my man face on." This process included learning societal expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men in this study were all aware that they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities. Their resulting insecurities led them to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society. The correct answer is: college men Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She contended that, unfortunately, the mother's experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone in the struggle, helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance. The correct answer is: 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and benefits of school based support groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant observations were conducted weekly at two high schools over one semester. Interviews were conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators, and participants. School-based support group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-healing. The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. The correct answer is: Physical behavior and gestures "Good morning. I'm a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of our community." The correct answer is: 1 "Can you describe how you first became aware of your sickness?" The correct answer is: 3 Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such as profession, social status, socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity The correct answer is: Appearance What do you feel when people admire your work? The correct answer is: Open Would you like to continue that kind of relationship? The correct answer is: Mapping What individuals' preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships The correct answer is: Personal space Do you think he is gay? The correct answer is: Leading "How does your family view your situation?" The correct answer is: 4 What do you think about the two presidential candidates? The correct answer is: Open The characteristics of these individuals; what differentiates them from others; whether people consult them or they approach other people; whether they seem to be strangers or well known by others present. The correct answer is: People who stand out "This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now living cancer free for more than 5 years." The correct answer is: 2 "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." The correct answer is: 6 "One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after chemotherapy. Could you tell me your experience?" The correct answer is: 4 Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they are alone or accompanied; number of people The correct answer is: Human traffic Organizational chart of the institution being studied The correct answer is: Graphics Another way to find themes is to look for local terms that may sound unfamiliar or are used in unfamiliar ways. The correct answer is: Indigenous category Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She began by looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying particular attention to informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. Nan, one of her informants, says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor indicates that Nan sees marriages as something that has properties, like strength and staying power, and as something that requires work to produce. Some marriages are "put together well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or washing machines. The correct answer is: metaphors and analogies Area plan of a research field The correct answer is: Graphics The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. The correct answer is: Compare and contrast Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things. The correct answer is: Connectors The changing image of public transportation The correct answer is: Pictures The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires paper and scissors. The correct answer is: Cutting and Sorting The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that might produce patterns in those metaphors. The correct answer is: Metaphors and analogies Sherzer (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) presents a detailed analysis of a two-hour performance by Chief Olopinikwa of a traditional San Blas Kuna chant. The chant was recorded in 1970. Like many linguistic anthropologists, Sherzer had taught an assistant, Alberto Campos, to use a phonetic transcription system. After the chant, Sherzer asked Campos, to transcribe and translate the tape. Campos put Kuna and Spanish on left- and right-facing pages. By studying Campos's translation against the original Kuna, Sherzer was able to pick out certain recurrent features. Campos left out the chanted utterances of the responding chief (usually something like "so it is"), which turned out to be markers for verse endings in the chant. Campos also left out so-called framing words and phrases (like "Thus" at the beginning of a verse and "it is said, so I pronounce" at the end of a verse). These contribute to the line and verse structure of the chant. Finally, "instead of transposing metaphors and other figurative and allusive language into Spanish" Campos "explains them in his translation". The correct answer is: transitions Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content. The correct answer is: Transitions It is based on a simple observation: if you want to understand a concept, then look at how it is used. The correct answer is: Key words in context (KWIC) In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 evermarried women, gathered social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth interviews with present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason. The correct answer is: searching for missing information Geographic map of the study area The correct answer is: Graphics Artwork of the child participants The correct answer is: Pictures Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document. The correct answer is: True Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. The correct answer is: False Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica's turn to choose, and only Kurt was left. Jessica said, "Kurt." The correct answer is: Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team. You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went out of the kitchen to answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips on the floor. Your little sister was teary-eyed and said, "I'm sorry. It was an accident." The correct answer is: Your sister decided to get her own snacks. Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion The correct answer is: True Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study. The correct answer is: True James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net) What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article? The correct answer is: Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same things. References can be the same as bibliography. The correct answer is: False Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited. The correct answer is: False The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important. The correct answer is: True The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." The correct answer is: He will still participate in the activities of the organization. The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. The correct answer is: True James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different homes. They did not meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer's first wife was named Linda and his second wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had owned a dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school. They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from http://www.gedonlineclass.net) What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article? The correct answer is: Identical twins have a lot in common. "English has been dubbed as the "language of the world". Over a billion people in the world have considered English as their second language. With over 2,500 OFW's leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe, Filipinos are expected to arm themselves with English to communicate with the world."(Excerpt from "Nursing the Carabao English",in Yu& Plata, 2006) The correct answer is: Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work abroad. Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn't be spending hours staring blankly at a screen. Worse yet, some of her wild behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches. The correct answer is: Some cartoons are not good for Maria. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). The correct answer is: We should use given information in inferring ideas. Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. The correct answer is: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon. The best research design is the qualitative research design. The correct answer is: False The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." The correct answer is: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation. The correct answer is: False Arrange the following parts of the research paper by numbering them chronologically from 1 to 10. Methodology Significance of the Study Conclusions and Recommendations Introduction Review of Related Literature Title References Statement of the Problem Presentation and Interpretation of Data Scope and Delimitation Which of the following is the content of conclusion? The correct answer is: A judgment or final decision Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? The correct answer is: All of the choices What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event in order to situate people's behavior within their own socio-cultural context? The correct answer is: Observation What is literature in research? The correct answer is: All of the choices What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? The correct answer is: Memoing, verification and credibility Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? The correct answer is: APA format Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach? The correct answer is: Grounded theory What is bibliography? The correct answer is: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report. What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? The correct answer is: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC) How does verification of data happen? The correct answer is: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods? The correct answer is: Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status? Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? The correct answer is: Recommendations should be logical and valid. What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through photos? The correct answer is: Visual data What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? The correct answer is: Lying by fabrication What is the grounded theory research design? The correct answer is: The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction shaped by the views of a large number of participants. Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e. political, methodological, geographical, literary)? The correct answer is: Sector __________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study. The correct answer is: Sampling unit A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? The correct answer is: Qualitative It is also known as the research plan. The correct answer is: Research design Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? The correct answer is: Focus group discussion Which of the following is an example of falsification in research? The correct answer is: Manipulated data from the findings A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? The correct answer is: Observation Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct? The correct answer is: All of the choices Which of the following titles is a narrative research? The correct answer is: The Life and Works of Rizal Which of the following citation used the APA format? The correct answer is: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? The correct answer is: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. The research project is The correct answer is: A scientific endeavor Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? The correct answer is: All of the choices A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for displaying qualitative data should he use? The correct answer is: Graphics What type of source are documentary films? The correct answer is: Static What influences the choice of the research design? The correct answer is: All of the choices Data gathering techniques are part of The correct answer is: The methodological framework What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender, physical appearance of respondents? The correct answer is: Appearance What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? The correct answer is: Mapping questions Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? The correct answer is: Establish an initial rapport What is the best research design? The correct answer is: For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is accessible. A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle The correct answer is: Action Research What is pawing in context analysis? The correct answer is: Marking the texts up with different colored highlighter pens. Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? The correct answer is: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study Which of the following is qualitative data analysis? Select one: a. All of the choices b. Involves the uncovering information relating to languages within cultural contexts. c. Involves seeking meaning and developing interpretive explanation through the process of feedback. d. Needs to maintain a detailed and critically reflective diary record and be prepared to subject himself/herself to regular periods of debriefing with a supervisor or colleague. Feedback The correct answer is: All of the choices What is the basis of research conclusion? The correct answer is: Data results Student awareness in global warming The correct answer is: Action Research What is a research design? The correct answer is: all of the choices __________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? The correct answer is: Focus group discussion What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? The correct answer is: Conclusion When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? The correct answer is: The layout of the site Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? The correct answer is: Action research What is the final stage of analyzing data? The correct answer is: Presenting the data in tabular form Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation? The correct answer is: All of the choices RSCH G11 -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of interest -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher? Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc) should not be coerced to participate in a research. c. Investigators should mind the reduction of risk that might occur from the research. d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants. -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality c. It is a case involving required reporting d. The research paper is not published yet. -What is scientific method? Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research instruments -Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process. -Which of the following is not included in the research experience? Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d. Emotions of the researcher -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential material and identifying characteristics d. His/her name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and confidential material -Research is Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new information c. Collecting existing information d. Modifying established knowledge -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.). Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It is biased in terminology or position. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this information. Select one: True False -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables. Select one: True False -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images Answer: APPLIED -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Select one: True False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias -What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do? Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b. Ascertain what is already known about a topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological strategies for designing the study. e. All of the choices -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published accounts of researchers -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore's Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin. Answer: APA -Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using: Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson) Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated -Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review? Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data. c. It helps researchers to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher needs to read about his/her research -What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers? Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA -Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static -In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried women gathered social and economic histories from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with present and formal officials known as cadres and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers ournals and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from asking direct uestions aout resistance the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and uestionnaire data contains few overt challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes however that their conversations with the researchers oth peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. adres for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning campaigns peasant women were reluctant to talk aout steriliation. hese silences form one part of the unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More eplicit protests were registered in informal conversations. rom these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose etween a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance that violated the norms of hinese culture and of practical reason. Answer: searching for missing information -Artwork of the child participants Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics -Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "How does your family view your situation?" Answer: 4 -Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below. Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover concepts underlying American marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y looking at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases paying particular attention to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. an one of her informants says that marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees marriages as something that has properties like strength and staying power and as something that reuires work to produce. ome marriages are put together well while others fall apart like so many cars or toys or washing machines. Answer: Metaphors and analogies Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as profession social status socioeconomic class religion or ethnicity Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d. Appearance e. Personal space f. People who stand out What do you think about the two presidential candidates? Answer: OPEN -Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned. Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors and analogies g. opare and contrast h. utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing information k. onnectors l. Social science queries What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now Answer: 5 -The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other. Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f. Social science queries g. compare and contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in contet I k. utting and Sorting l. Transitions -Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout what physicians could and did do to prevent violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews so arkin et al. roke the coding process into two steps. hey started with three maor themes that they developed from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the uotes that pertained to each of the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from each maor theme into piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to identify suthemes shared across coders. Answer: cutting and sorting -Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher… Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics -The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught how to do it. Answer: False -Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process? Answer: Identification of problem -True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study. Answer: False -What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research deadlines? Answer: Emotions Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? Answer: Naturalistic observation -Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. -False -Informed consent requires that individuals… Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research -A researcher may withhold a participant's name and any identifying characteristics when asked to present such information when Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality -What is a research instrument? Answer: a tool for data collection -A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called Answer: inductive method -It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes. Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation. -What is an ethical dilemma? Answer: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct -What does "observe justice" mean in ethical research? Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants -Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis? Answer: pertinent question -Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher? Answer: fabricator of data -Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge and experience. "In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. " -Neil Armstrong Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown. -True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting. Answer: true -Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research? Answer: Falsification of data bank -Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is incorrect. The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical, emotional and bodily aspects. Answer: true -Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it is an incorrect description. It has the potential to suggest directions for past research. Answer: False -Which of the following is a good research question? Answer: How do teenagers view the word "forever"? -Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons Answer: PURE -Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is a restriction of the research. The study is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the university. Answer: SCOPE -The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem. -What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the researchers interpretation of the data - hinge greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained Answer: Importance of context -It clearly states the constructs to be examined. Answer: True -Reliability of survey questions was not established. Answer: DELIMITATION -In the title "The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in Bangued, Abra", who could e the possible beneficiaries of the research Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers -What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem? Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers. -The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs. Answer: DELIMITATION -It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation. Answer: True -Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results. Answer: DELIMITATION -Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in Answer: Significance of the study -How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research? Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase. -What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research? Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead. -It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables Answer: True -Which of the following titles is best for applied research? Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs -What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research? Answer: The participants and the researcher share the "research space". -What is the scope of the research? Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues, respondents, and time. -The researcher invented the results of the study. Answer: Fabrication -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The government is the only one who can help the homeless Answer: False -The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet? Answer: The authenticity of the information -What is the context of "literature" in a research project? Answer: Published accounts of researchers -The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html Answer: APA -Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money. Answer: False -Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and 1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient's body instead of on the patient's mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a "thankless job." Answer: 8 nurses -A director didn't cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest. Answer: Plagiarism -What information is required for the APA in-text citation? Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001. Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index Answer: McCullough, 2001 -What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives? Answer: Chronology -Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the correct answer: She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time. Answer: Falsification -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one hospice and one nursing home setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS. Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home -Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE for disagree. Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it's a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don't know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don't know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don't know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can't ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the streets - well I don't believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say - it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don't know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013) Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless. Answer: True -Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google. "Google Privacy Policy." Last modified March 11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html Answer: MLA -What type of source is the newspaper clipping? Answer: Syndicated -What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print. Answer: MLA -Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer: Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally, the study explored whether or not the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in SAT Verbal averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students Answer: female senior students -Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature? Answer: Introduction -A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point. How can he pull them all together and use them in his own paper in a list? Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them. -Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature? Answer: Reviewing the researcher's notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?" Answer: 5 -The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have indicated that change is necessary. Answer: True -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals' behaviors indicate about their feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession. Answer: Physical behavior and gestures -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions -Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for impossible. Answer: False -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now living cancer free for more than 5 years." Answer: 2 -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Summary of research findings Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The club president tendered his resignation and said, "While I may no longer lead this organization, I will continue to support its endeavors and activities." Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. Area plan of a research field Answer: Graphics -Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said. "Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring." Answer: 6 -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other. Answer: Compare and contrast -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Do you think he is gay? Answer: LEADING -Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings - simple answer the research questions, and draw the conclusion. Answer: true -Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description: Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which people acquire and maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems. Answer: Social science queries -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. The coordinator made an announcement, "Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The others would have to come back tomorrow." Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow. -Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best answer. Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they are alone or accompanied; number of people Answer: Human traffic -Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING. Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll? Answer: MAPPING -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can read between the lines. In order to fully understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006). Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas. -Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the correct answer. The list of research participants Answer: Word Tables and Lists -Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer. Mateo almost wished that he hadn't listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning. Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon. -What is a research design? Answer: all of the choices -What is bibliography? Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in the report. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents in the education system Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following is the correct notion about observation? Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences -Which of the following is not a type of narrative research? Answer: Case study -What is the final stage of analyzing data? Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form -Which of the following is NOT the function of references? Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list -A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this? Answer: Qualitative -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with grounded theory methodology Answer: Grounded Theory -Which of the following titles is a narrative research? Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal -How does verification of data happen? Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid. -When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important? Answer: The layout of the site -A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use? Answer: Observation -Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability? Answer: All of the choices -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations Answer: Action Research -__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address topics introduced by a group moderator? Answer: Focus group discussion -The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the research design applied? Answer: Ethnographic -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children Answer: Ethnographic Research -What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis? Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study -Which statement is true in writing research recommendations? Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid. -What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation? Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC) -What type of source are documentary films? Answer: Static -What influences the choice of the research design? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following belongs to related literature? Answer: textbook -Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies? Answer: Reviewed materials must be many. -Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________. Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed. -What is common in data collection among qualitative researches? Answer: Language based -Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations? Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study -In participant observation, what information can be observed? Answer: All of the choices -Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper? Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references -Which of the following method is used in qualitative research? Answer: Focus group discussion -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which of the following citation used the APA format? Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication -Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research? Answer: Focus on your research questions. -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded theorizing Answer: Ethnographic Research -Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines Answer: Phenomenological Research -Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships? Answer: Rather than -A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data collection was used? Answer: Interview -The entire research project is an exercise in Answer: All of the choices -Which citation style is usually used in social science researches? Answer: APA format -Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion? Answer: All of the choices -What are research data? Answer: All of the choices -Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies? Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations. -What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews? Answer: Mapping questions -What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project? Answer: Lying by fabrication -What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research? Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility -Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action that was taken? Answer: Action research -What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the production of "objective" accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis. Answer: Enumerative approach -What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study? Answer: Conclusion -Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview? Answer: Establish an initial rapport Interdisciplinary discussion becomes more comprehensive through this principle. A: sector Paraphrasing must be done properly to avoid plagiarism. What is paraphrasing? A: All of the choices Drinking to cope is very common among college students and is related to much higher levels of alcohol consumption, episodes of heavy drinking, and levels of both negative and positive alcohol related consequences" (p. 486). Levenson and Park (2002) A: Levenson and Park (2002) found that drinking to cope is very common among college students and it is related to much higher levels of alcohol consumption and related consequences. DISS LA1 Question 1 The purpose of social science is to Select one: a. to study the behavior of wildlife and how they affect the en b. no correct answer c. study systematically all aspects of human behavior and the human condition, using a methodology borrowed from the physical sciences wherever possible. Question 2 Each newly born human being enters a social world which has been shaped by those born previously and is continually reshaped by each new generation. Select one: a. True b. False Question 3 This branch of science deals with the physical world. Select one: a. Natural Sciences b. Humanities c. No correct answer Question 4 A method of procedure which has characterized natural science since the 17th century, consisting in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation, testing, and modification of hypotheses. Select one: a. Scientific Experiment b. Scientific Study c. Scientific Observation d. Scientific Method Question 5 Social science is the study of Select one: a. society and animal behavior b. animal and human behavior c. society and human behavior d. no correct answer DISS SQ1 Question 1 Each newly born human being enters a __________ that has been shaped by those born previously and is continually reshaped by each new generation. (Perry & Perry, 2003) Select one: a. crippled world b. real world c. natural world d. social world Question 2 Which discipline doES social sciences rely heavily upon when it comes to matters of methodology? Select one: a. Life Science b. Psychology c. Physical Science d. Mathematics Question 3 The purpose of the social sciences is Select one: a. is to create a new field specifically for the study of society b. is to study systematically all aspects of human behavior/condition c. is to inject an intellectual culture among the people d. is to examine the creativity of the human mind Question 4 Which of the following is NOT a discipline of the social sciences? Select one: a. economics b. none of the above c. philosophy d. history e. political science Question 5 Social science is the study of ___________. Select one: a. mind and human behavior b. society and cultural influences c. society and human behavior d. human behavior and politics Question 6 The entry of the human person into the world of societies is something that can be avoided. Select one: a. Perhaps b. True c. False Question 7 What do all the disciplines within the social sciences have in common? Select one: a. passion for knowledge b. interest in human behavior c. scientific method d. source of educated insights Question 8 Social science is a unified science consisting of only one discipline. Select one: a. False b. True Question 9 How is social science different from social philosophy? Select one: a. interest in society b. history and origins c. spelling d. the inclusion of the scientific method Question 10 This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have originated with the goal of examining it with the exact same ____________ that the sciences use. Select one: a. concepts and theories b. method and principle c. scientific methodology d. organization DISS LA2 Question 1 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: Social Science is the study of society and human behavior. Answer: T Question 2 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The purpose of social science is to study systematically all aspects of human behavior and of the human condition, without having to borrow the methodology used by the people practicing physical sciences. Answer: F Question 3 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The Natural Sciences is divided into two groups. Answer: T Question 4 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: The factor unique to the social sciences compared with the disciplines under Natural Sciences is its focus on society accompanied by the use of a scientific method that, in a way, becomes a unity for both the natural and the humanities. Answer: T Question 5 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: What makes social science a science is its determination to use the scientific method to study specific aspects of human behavior in the social world. Answer: T DISS SQ2 Question 1 Social science is, in a way, a unity of __________. Select one: a. physical science and the humanities b. philosophy and psychology c. art and science d. natural science and the humanities Question 2 Which of these disciplines is part of the humanities? Select one: a. Biology b. Psychology c. Philosophy d. Economics Question 3 The __________ is learning or literature concerned with human culture. Select one: a. humanities b. literature c. work of art d. museum Question 4 This is what makes social science a science. Select one: a. structure and internal organization b. parallel words c. focus on society d. none of the above Question 5 The Natural Sciences is a branch of science that deals with the _________. Select one: a. social world b. supernatural world c. physical world d. whole world Question 6 What makes social science unique from natural science and the humanities? Select one: a. emphasis on the role of the community in fostering human life b. focus on human culture and everyday life c. inclusion of economics into its study of society d. focus on society accompanied with scientific method Question 7 The Natural Sciences are divided into two groups: Select one: a. rocket and physical science b. life and meteorological science c. physical and life science d. life and death science Question 8 Which of the following is/are aspects covered by the social sciences? Select one: a. specific aspects of human behavior b. society c. life d. society and specific aspects of human behavior Question 9 Science may be briefly defined as a method using a system of rational inquiry dependent on the ___________. Select one: a. preference of the researcher b. careful analysis of data and statistics c. system applied to it d. empirical testing of facts Question 10 Which of the following is NOT an example of natural science? Select one: a. chemistry b. biology c. political science d. geology e. all of the choices DISS LQ1 Question 1 This consists in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation, testing, and modification of hypotheses. Select one: a. Linguistic Analysis b. Statistics c. Laboratory Experimentation d. Scientific Method Question 2 What does all the disciplines within the social sciences have in common? Select one: a. source of educated insights b. scientific method c. passion for knowledge d. interest in human behavior Question 3 Which of these disciplines is part of the humanities? Select one: a. Biology b. Philosophy c. Economics d. Psychology Question 4 Which of the following is NOT an example of natural science? Select one: a. chemistry b. all of the above c. geology d. biology e. political science Question 5 When was the scientific method first created and applied? Select one: a. 12th century b. 16th century c. 45 B.C.E. d. 17th century Question 6 The life sciences are also called: Select one: a. biological science b. natural science c. pre-medical science d. evolutionary science Question 7 The Natural Sciences is a branch of science that deals with the _______. Select one: a. physical world b. supernatural world c. social world d. whole world Question 8 Science may be briefly defined as a method using a system of rational inquiry dependent on the _______. Select one: a. empirical testing of facts b. careful analysis of data and statistics c. preference of the researcher d. system applied to it Question 9 The following are disciplines of the humanities except: Select one: a. Political Science b. History c. Geology d. Literature Question 10 Which discipline does social sciences rely heavily upon when it comes to matters of methodology? Select one: a. Mathematics b. Physical Science c. Psychology d. Life Science Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a discipline of the social sciences? Select one: a. political science b. philosophy c. none of the above d. economics e. history Question 12 What makes social sciences “social”? Select one: a. society as its subject b. society as creating the science c. both choices d. none of the choices Question 13 The purpose of the social sciences Select one: a. is to create a new field specifically for the study of society b. is to study systematically all aspects of human behavior/condition c. is to examine the creativity of the human mind d. is to inject an intellectual culture among the people Question 14 Which aspect of society does social science concern itself with? Select one: a. literacy of the people b. economic stature c. all aspects of society including human behavior d. influence of science Question 15 Each newly born human being enters a ________ that has been shaped by those born previously and is continually reshaped by each new generation. (Perry & Perry, 2003) Select one: a. real world b. social world c. crippled world d. natural world Question 16 Social Philosophy and Social Sciences are one and the same. Select one: a. False b. True Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text The _________ is learning or literature concerned with human culture. Select one: a. museum b. humanities c. work of art d. literature Question 18 Which of the following is/are aspects covered by the social sciences? Select one: a. specific aspects of human behavior b. society c. specific aspects of human behavior and society d. life Question 19 The entry of the human person into the world of societies is something that can be avoided. Select one: a. False b. True c. Perhaps Question 20 Social science is a unified science consisting of only one discipline. Select one: a. True b. False Question 21 This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have originated with the goal of examining it with the exact same ________ that the sciences use. Select one: a. scientific methodology b. organization c. concepts and theories d. method and principle Question 22 The Natural Sciences are divided into two groups: Select one: a. life and meteorological science b. life and death science c. physical and life science d. rocket and physical science Question 23 Social science is the study of _________. Select one: a. mind and human behavior b. human behavior and politics c. society and cultural influences d. society and human behavior Question 24 Politics is the only power that social science emphasizes. Select one: a. False b. True. Question 25 What makes social science unique from natural science and the humanities? Select one: a. emphasis on the role of the community in fostering human life b. inclusion of economics into its study of society c. focus on human culture and everyday life d. focus on society accompanied with scientific method Question 26 This is what makes social science a science. Select one: a. parallel words b. structure and internal organization c. focus on society d. none of the above Question 27 Social science is, in a way, a unity of _________. Select one: a. art and science b. philosophy and psychology c. physical science and the humanities d. natural science and the humanities Question 28 How is social science different from social philosophy? Select one: a. history and origins b. spelling c. interest in society d. the inclusion of the scientific method Question 29 Correct Is sociology the same with the social sciences? Select one: a. True b. False Question 30 To which discipline does physics fall under: Select one: a. Medicine b. Social Science c. Humanities d. Natural Science DISS LA3 Question 1 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: Anthropology combines natural science and information gathered from the social sciences to uncover the relationships between biological traits acquired socially by living in groups. Answer: T Question 2 Fill in the blanks: the word Anthropology comes from two ancient Greek words anthropos and logos, which means ____ and _____ respectively. Select one: a. society and study b. human being and study c. animal being and study d. study and society Question 3 This is a social science that seeks to understand human origins and adaptation,and the diversity of cultures and worldviews. Answer: ANTHROPOLOGY Question 4 True or False. Write T if the answer is true, and F if false: As social science is concerned with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is not only composed of one science or one subject. Answer: T Question 5 He is considered the father of modern anthropology. Answer: FRANZ BOAS DISS SQ3 Question 1 Social Science is not only composed of one science or one subject. Since it concerns itself with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is naturally divided into __________, all of which share an interest in human behavior. Select one: a. branches b. disciplines c. straws d. theories Question 2 Geography is considered to be both a natural science and a social science. Select one: a. True b. False Question 3 “Language is an everyday occurrence in society, and one cannot possibly communicate with individuals within society without the usage of language.” Select one: a. Perhaps b. True c. False Question 4 Anthropology comes from two Greek words: Select one: a. anthrax and logia b. anthros and logos c. anthropos and logos d. anthros and logia Question 5 Linguistics is the scientific study of: Select one: a. human language b. grammar and composition c. source of educated insights d. culinary art Question 6 Geography is concerned with: Select one: a. the population b. human behavior and politics c. rocks and sediments d. structure of the planet earth Question 7 Which of the following is NOT a branch of linguistics? Select one: a. syntax b. semantics c. morphology d. diction Question 8 For John and Erna Perry, an important part of political science is _________, which tries to uncover patterns of behavior among the nations of the world. Select one: a. stability and unity b. economic growth c. proper distribution of power d. international relations Question 9 ______________ is a study of the past, one that describes/narrates and analyzes human activities in the past and the changes that these had undergone. Select one: a. philosophy b. economics c. political science d. history Question 10 This discipline probes the need for an institution to maintain order, make decisions, and provide for defense. Select one: a. sociology b. political science c. peace and order d. military science DISS LA4 Question 1 He was one of the proponents of proto-anthropology. Answer: HERODOTUS OF HALICARNASSUS Question 2 The father of modern Economics. Select one: a. No correct answer b. Herodotus of Halicarnassus c. Franz Boas d. Adam Smith Question 3 Which of the following is NOT true about Economics? Select one: a. It deals with resources, and how the proper management of these sources will lead to the prosperity of society as a unit. b. it is a social science that deals with the optimum allocation of scarce resources among its alternatives to satisfy the unlimited human wants and needs of the people. c. Unlike other discplines, which are more inclined to discover the very ideals that enable society to function, Economics limits itself to that of the mateial component of the society. d. It is a discipline that was only established recently,because our ancestors did not believe in the value of private property. Question 4 This refers to the lack of proper resources for the needs of a person or a group of people. Answer: SCARCITY Question 5 Economics comes from the Greek word ta oikonomika, meaning Select one: a. science of the household b. science of the coin c. science of the academy d. science of the government DISS SQ4 Question 1 __________ is considered the father of modern anthropology. Select one: a. Plato b. Karl Marx c. Keira Knightley d. Franz Boas Question 2 The Greek word politika means: Select one: a. affairs of the cities b. rule of law c. governance d. management Question 3 Herodotus wrote which work that earned him the title of the father of history? Select one: a. De Natura b. A History of Time c. The Histories d. Greek History Question 4 In other words, political science as a discipline found its roots in Ancient Greek _________, that ultimately led to its continuous development in other major civilizations. Select one: a. philosophy b. rhetoric c. cuisine d. drama Question 5 Eriksen and Nielsen note that one particular Greek, namely Herodotus of Halicarnassus (c. 484–425 BCE), was one of the proponents of what is called a ___________, or the prelude to modern anthropology as we know today. Select one: a. scientific anthropology b. philosophical anthropology c. proto-anthropology d. social philosophy Question 6 Which of these individuals is the father of modern linguistics? Select one: a. C.S. Peirce b. Bertrand Russell c. Ludwig Wittgenstein d. Noam Chomsky Question 7 “The most concrete origin, however, can be found in Ancient China with the writings of Fan Li (also known as Tao Zhu Gong) who wrote a __________ for businessmen. (Wang, 2012) Select one: a. novel b. book c. law of Chinese trade d. golden laws for businessmen Question 8 What is one of the most notable proponents of the study of geography, and is still recognized today as an intellectual treasure? This came from 600 BCE in Babylon. Select one: a. Code of Hammurabi b. Imago Res c. Imago Dei d. Imago Mundi Question 9 _____________ is considered the father of geography. He is known as the first person to actually use the term. Select one: a. Eleanor b. Euripedes c. Eratosthenes d. Erasmus Question 10 “The history of linguistics is a branch of intellectual history, for it deals with the history of ideas – ideas about language – and directly with language itself.” Select one: a. False b. True DISS LQ2 Question 1 What does the word scarcity mean? Select one: a. lesion or wound b. metropolitan c. amusement park d. lack of resources Question 2 __________ is considered the father of geography. He is known as the first person to actually use the term. Select one: a. Eleanor b. Erasmus c. Eratosthenes d. Euripedes Question 3 Which of the following is NOT a branch of linguistics? Select one: a. semantics b. morphology c. syntax d. diction Question 4 What is one of the most notable proponents of the study of geography, and is still recognized today as an intellectual treasure? This came from 600 BCE in Babylon. Select one: a. Imago Res b. Imago Dei c. Code of Hammurabi d. Imago Mundi Question 5 Eriksen and Nielsen note that one particular Greek, namely Herodotus of Halicarnassus (c. 484–425 BCE), was one of the proponents of what is called a _______, or the prelude to modern anthropology as we know today. Select one: a. philosophical anthropology b. proto-anthropology c. social philosophy d. scientific anthropology Question 6 According to Ajan Raghunatan, “Plato believed that body and mind are two united entities and mind could exist even after death.” Select one: a. False b. True Question 7 Sociology comes from the Latin word _________ meaning “companion” with the Greek word _______ which means “study” or “word.” Select one: a. socia and logos b. socialus and logia c. socius and logos d. socius and loguis Question 8 Geography is concerned with: Select one: a. the population b. rocks and sediments c. human behavior and politics d. structure of the planet earth Question 9 The Greek word politika means: Select one: a. management b. affairs of the cities c. governance d. rule of law Question 10 Linguistics is the scientific study of: Select one: a. source of educated insights b. grammar and composition c. human language d. culinary art Question 11 Anthropology comes from two Greek words: Select one: a. anthros and logia b. anthros and logos c. anthropos and logos d. anthrax and logia Question 12 For John and Erna Perry, an important part of political science is _________, which tries to uncover patterns of behavior among the nations of the world. Select one: a. economic growth b. international relations c. stability and unity d. proper distribution of power Question 13 _________ is considered the father of modern anthropology. Select one: a. Karl Marx b. Franz Boas c. Keira Knightley d. Plato Question 14 This discipline probes the need for an institution to maintain order, make decisions, and provide for defense. Select one: a. political science b. military science c. sociology d. peace and order Question 15 Jean-Jacques Rousseau wrote which political science work? Select one: a. The Social Contract b. Les Histoires c. Émile d. On the Nature of Social Structures Question 16 Social Science is not only composed of one science or one subject. Since it concerns itself with all aspects of society and human behavior, it is naturally divided into __________, all of which share an interest in human behavior. Select one: a. theories b. disciplines c. branches d. straws Question 17 As John and Erna Perry put it, “The discipline does attempt to study systematically a sequence of related events – or a number of such sequences – for the purpose of learning about, verifying, and establishing meaningful relationships among them.” (Perry & Perry, 2003) Select one: a. False b. True Question 18 “Language is an everyday occurrence in society, and one cannot possibly communicate with individuals within society without the usage of language.” Select one: a. Perhaps b. False c. True Question 19 __________ is a study of the past, one that describes/narrates and analyzes human activities in the past and the changes that these had undergone. Select one: a. political science b. economics c. history d. philosophy Question 20 “Economists do not perceive people as complex ____________.” -Wilkins, 1979 Select one: a. rational animals b. social builders c. systems of thought d. social creatures Question 21 The chief concern of political science is __________. Select one: a. distribution of goods b. study of power c. legislature d. government officials Question 22 In other words, political science as a discipline found its roots in Ancient Greek ____________, that ultimately led to its continuous development in other major civilizations. Select one: a. drama b. philosophy c. cuisine d. rhetoric Question 23 Which of these individuals is the father of modern linguistics? Select one: a. C.S. Peirce b. Noam Chomsky c. Ludwig Wittgenstein d. Bertrand Russell Question 24 Economics comes from the Greek ta oikonomika meaning “____________“ Oikonomika itself comes from the Greek word, oikos meaning --- or ---. Select one: a. science of the factory b. science of the household c. science of the domain d. structure of the home Question 25 ____________ is the study of populations, including increases and decreases in size, composition, age grouping, and future trends. (Perry & Perry, 2003). Select one: a. philosophy b. demography c. statistics d. applied mathematics Question 26 Herodotus wrote which work that earned him the title of the father of history? Select one: a. Greek History b. The Histories c. De Natura d. A History of Time Question 27 Geography is considered to be both a natural science and a social science. Select one: a. True b. False Question 28 History can be derived from two Greek terms: ________ meaning “learned or wise man,” and ________ meaning “finding out.” Select one: a. histōr and histōria b. logos and histor c. histor and historesis d. historianus Question 29 “The history of linguistics is a branch of intellectual history, for it deals with the history of ideas – ideas about language – and directly with language itself.” Select one: a. True b. False DISS LA5 Question 1 According to Karl Marx, the proletariat refers to the Select one: a. the government b. working class c. owners of production in society d. academics Question 2 Which of the following is NOT true about capitalism? Select one: a. It is a method for analyzing the language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that uncovers basic elements that form structures. b. It is and economic and political system in which a country's trade and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state. c. It involves mass production, for mass production develops into mass money. d. Its evolution dates back to at least the 17th century, when private ownership overcome the standard "one for all, all for one," system of ownership in older societies. Question 3 This level of alienation occurs when the production becomes the only focus that the worker should have. Personal issues and development, as well as experiences which could enhance human nature, end up neglected for more production. Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature b. Alienation of Worker from Products c. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers d. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process Question 4 The Parsonian theory is also known as Select one: a. no correct answer b. Structural Democracy c. Structural-Marxism d. Structural-Functionalism Question 5 This theory became the first and foremost response to the despotic rule of capitalism. Select one: a. Anthropology b. Alientation c. Structural-Functionalism d. Marxism DISS SQ5 Question 1 That is why apart from the disciplines, the social sciences have what we call the dominant approaches and ideas that are present within the different disciplines. These are the ________ of a discipline, or better yet, the very inspiration of the different social sciences. Select one: a. legs b. principles c. roots d. rules Question 2 ____________ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions). Select one: a. conventionalism b. pure mathematics c. structuralism d. scientific literature Question 3 It is defined as an approach that sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote solidarity and stability. It looks for a structure’s social function. Select one: a. structural-functionalism b. functionalism c. functional-structuralism d. both functionalism and functional-structuralism Question 4 Parsons determined that each individual does not have expectations of the other's action and reaction to his own behavior, and that these expectations would (if successful) be "derived" from the accepted norms and values of the society they inhabit only on condition. (Parsons, 1961) Select one: a. True b. False Question 5 He (Parsons) held that "the social system is made up of the: Select one: a. actions of individuals b. different classes c. living units of the families d. critical individual parts Question 6 Parsons doctoral dissertation was entitled _______ with his main focus on the work of Werner Sombart and Max Weber. Select one: a. On the Genealogy of Morals b. The Art of War c. The Concept of Monetary Displace d. The Concept of Capitalism in the Recent German Literature Question 7 “Simply put, structuralism is understanding human culture and elements in terms of their relationship with a larger, overarching system.” Select one: a. True b. False Question 8 These are known as classic writers of sociology except: Select one: a. Jean Valjean b. Adam Smith c. Emile Durkheim d. Max Weber Question 9 The disciplines prove how social science is __________ meaning that the social sciences are things that you can use everyday to understand reality much better. Select one: a. applicable and useful b. theoretical and practical c. applicable and practical d. practical and judicial Question 10 Talcott Parsons was greatly influenced by which thinker: Select one: a. Vilfredo Pareto b. Samson McGregor c. Jean-Paul Sartre d. Aristocles DISS SQ6 Question 1 This exploitation of wage labor led to the creation of two ‘classes’: Select one: a. ruler and worker b. first and second c. worker and laborer d. ruler and subjects Question 2 Karl Marx was highly influenced by which German philosopher: Select one: a. G.W.F. Hegel b. Friedrich Nietzsche c. Martin Heidegger d. Edmund Husserl Question 3 What is another word for the ruling class? Select one: a. bourgeoisie b. elites c. false prophets d. untouchables Question 4 Capitalism made its breakthrough in ________. (Fulcher, 2004) Select one: a. The United States of America b. Scotland c. The Kingdom of Nova Scotia d. Britain Question 5 The evolution of capitalism, according to Fulcher’s account, dates back to at least the century, when private ownership overcome the standard “one for all, all for one” system of ownership in older societies. Select one: a. 3rd b. 17th c. 19th d. 11th Question 6 Which of the following is NOT a communist country? Select one: a. People’s Republic of China b. Laos c. Russian Federation d. Vietnam Question 7 _____________ is defined as an economic and political system in which a country's trade and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state. Select one: a. capitalism b. hedonism c. imperialism d. minimalism Question 8 _________ is one’s stature in society, normally based on economic capabilities. critical individual parts. Select one: a. reputation b. class c. power d. identity Question 9 According to Fulcher, “Capitalist production depends on the exploitation of wage labor, which also fuels the consumption of the goods and services produced by capitalist enterprises. Production and consumption are linked by the markets that come to mediate all economic activities.” (Fulcher, 2004) Select one: a. False b. True Question 10 Which book did Marx write with Friedrich Engels? Select one: a. Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften b. The Communist Manifesto c. The Communist Manifesto and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften d. Das Kapital and The Commmunist Manifesto* e. Das Kapital DISS LQ3 Question 1 What is another word for the ruling class? Select one: a. bourgeoisie b. elites c. false prophets d. untouchables Question 2 __________ is defined as an economic and political system in which a country's trade and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state. Select one: a. capitalism b. imperialism c. minimalism d. hedonism Question 3 It is defined as an approach that sees society as a complex system whose parts work together to promote solidarity and stability. It looks for a structure’s social function. Select one: a. functional-structuralism b. functionalism c. functionalism and functional-structuralism d. structural-functionalism e. functionalism and structural-functionalism Question 4 “In this class conflict, the working class merely works for the profit of the bourgeoisie. Capitalism, thus, favors the increase of the higher classes’ private property and control over the means of production.” Select one: a. False b. True Question 5 Parsons doctoral dissertation was entitled ______ with his main focus on the work of Werner Sombart and Max Weber. Select one: a. On the Genealogy of Morals b. The Concept of Capitalism in the Recent German Literature c. The Concept of Monetary Displace d. The Art of War Question 6 Talcott Parsons was greatly influenced by which thinker: Select one: a. Samson McGregor b. Jean-Paul Sartre c. Vilfredo Pareto d. Aristocles Question 7 Private property is replaced with ________, and man becomes friend once more to fellow man. It is in a communist setting, Marx envisions, that society will flourish. Select one: a. common ownership b. proper distribution c. joint custody d. military possession Question 8 Which book did Marx write with Friedrich Engels? Select one: a. Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften b. Das Kapital c. The Communist Manifesto and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften d. The Communist Manifesto e. Das Kapital and The Communist Manifesto f. Das Kapital and Ideen und Geisteswissenchaften Question 9 According to Fulcher, “Capitalist production depends on the exploitation of wage labor, which also fuels the consumption of the goods and services produced by capitalist enterprises. Production and consumption are linked by the markets that come to mediate all economic activities.” (Fulcher, 2004) Select one: a. False b. True Question 10 “The ______________ conditions the social, political and intellectual life process in general. It is not the consciousness of men that determines their being, but, on the contrary, their social being that determines their consciousness.” (Marx, 1859)” Select one: a. economic b. mode of production of material life c. means of production d. dictate of the bourgeoisie Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a communist country? Select one: a. People’s Republic of China b. Laos c. Russian Federation d. Vietnam Question 12 These are known as classic writers of sociology except: Select one: a. Max Weber b. Emile Durkheim c. Adam Smith d. Jean Valjean Question 13 That is why apart from the disciplines, the social sciences have what we call the dominant approaches and ideas that are present within the different disciplines. These are the ________ of a discipline, or better yet, the very inspiration of the different social sciences. Select one: a. roots b. principles c. legs d. rules Question 14 ________ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions). Select one: a. scientific literature b. conventionalism c. pure mathematics d. structuralism Question 15 “The goal of an economic-centered and capitalist-inspired work place is the generation of more products. Once the worker is done with the product, he disowns it.” Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers b. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature c. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process d. Alienation of Worker from Products Question 16 What is another term for the working class? Select one: a. proscetariat b. slaves c. proletariat d. merchants Question 17 Which of the following is a communist country? Select one: a. Kazakhstan b. China c. Norway d. Denmark Question 18 Which of the following is the Marxist wing of Philippine parties? Select one: a. Philippine Marxist Association b. Partido Komunista Liberal c. Communist Party of the Philippines d. Communist Society of Education Question 19 The evolution of capitalism, according to Fulcher’s account, dates back to at least the century, when private ownership overcome the standard “one for all, all for one” system of ownership in older societies. Select one: a. 11th b. 3rd c. 17th d. 19th Question 20 “The goal of an economic-centered and capitalist-inspired work place is the generation of more products. Once the worker is done with the product, he disowns it.” Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Products b. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature c. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers d. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process Question 21 “Production is the only focus the worker should have. One’s personal issues and development, as well as experiences that could enhance human nature are neglected for more production. Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature b. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers c. Alienation of Worker from Products d. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process Question 22 The disciplines prove how social science is _______ meaning that the social sciences are things that you can use everyday to understand reality much better. Select one: a. applicable and useful b. applicable and practical c. practical and judicial d. theoretical and practical Question 23 _________ is one’s stature in society, normally based on economic capabilities. critical individual parts. Select one: a. identity b. class c. reputation d. power Question 24 “The worker is forced to abide by the same technique, the same default setting, when attempting to produce something from their labor. It takes away creativity from the worker, and results in a monotonous, robot-like mode of production.” Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process b. Alienation of Worker from Products c. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers d. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature Question 25 “Simply put, structuralism is understanding human culture and elements in terms of their relationship with a larger, overarching system.” Select one: a. False b. True Question 26 Parsons determined that each individual does not have expectations of the other's action and reaction to his own behavior, and that these expectations would (if successful) be "derived" from the accepted norms and values of the society they inhabit only on condition. (Parsons, 1961) Select one: a. True b. False Question 27 He (Parsons) held that "the social system is made up of the: Select one: a. actions of individuals b. living units of the families c. critical individual parts d. different classes Question 28 “Workers are forced to pay attention to the production only. Thus they will have no time to interact with fellow workers, whose main focus too is to do labor in exchange for salaries. Workers are alienated from this experience to make way for an undivided attention for the production of goods.” Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature b. Alienation of Worker from Products c. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process d. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers Question 29 Capitalism made its breakthrough in ________. (Fulcher, 2004) Select one: a. Scotland b. The Kingdom of Nova Scotia c. Britain d. The United States of America Question 30 Karl Marx was highly influenced by which German philosopher: Select one: a. Martin Heidegger b. Friedrich Nietzsche c. G.W.F. Hegel d. Edmund Husserl DISS SQ7 Question 1 When one speaks of a ___________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that includes those who claim that an ideology or proposition is true if it works satisfactorily, that the meaning of a proposition is to be found in the practical consequences of accepting it, and that unpractical ideas are to be rejected. (McDermid, 2009) Select one: a. social science b. political practice c. pragmatic philosophy d. theoretical and practical Question 2 It is a movement in psychology and philosophy that emphasized the outward behavioral aspects of thought and dismissed the inward experiential, and sometimes the inner procedural, aspects as well. Select one: a. essentialism b. behaviorism c. cataclysm d. fundamentalism Question 3 Mead published several books, including Carus Lectures as well as the Philosophy of Social Action. Select one: a. True b. False Question 4 Which element of communication is regarded as “symbolic”? Select one: a. Grammar b. Prose c. Diction d. Language Question 5 Which pragmatic thinker did Mead transfer with to Chicago and was greatly influenced by? Select one: a. James Dewey b. John Rawls c. William Smith d. John Dewey Question 6 The term “symbolic interactionism” was coined by which of Mead’s students: Select one: a. Harold Buchanan b. Henri Thoreau c. Spencer Hawkes d. Herbert Blumer Question 7 “Meaning can be described, accounted for, or stated in terms of symbols or language at its highest and most complex stage of development.” (Mead, 1972) Select one: a. False b. True Question 8 Pragmatic philosophy is more focused on theory than practice: Select one: a. False b. True Question 9 Behaviorist approaches tend to focus more on the empirical or outward observation of the subjects. Select one: a. True b. False Question 10 Symbolic interactionism’s key principles can be seen in the work: Select one: a. On the Precision of Vocal Communities b. Mind and the Spirit c. None of the choices d. The Theory of Language DISS SQ8 Question 1 In 1885-86, Freud spent the greater part of a year in Paris, where he was deeply impressed by the work of the French neurologist Jean Charcot who was at that time using ________ as a medical technique. Select one: a. acupuncture b. pills c. cannabis d. hypnotism Question 2 His academic interests were broad, but he settled for _________ at the University of Vienna in 1873 and obtained his degree in 1881. Select one: a. philosophy b. law c. medicine d. psychology Question 3 In 1895, Freud and his colleague Josef Breuer published: Select one: a. On the Nature of the Mind b. Studies in Hysteria c. The Communist Manifesto d. The Interpretation of Dreams Question 4 “The Freudian view of human nature is basically _______. According to him, our behavior is determined by irrational forces, unconscious motivations, biological and instinctual drives, as these evolve through key psychosexual stages in the first six years of life. (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. altruistic b. weak c. demonstrative d. deterministic Question 5 Freud was a mentor to two other major psychologists: Select one: a. May and Bellini b. Adler and Jung c. Marx and Lenin d. James and Franco Question 6 Psychoanalysis as an approach was only considered a major psychological and sociological theory during the life of its proponent: Select one: a. Sigmund Freud b. Rollo May c. William Adler d. Carl Jung Question 7 Freud places no emphasis on the sexual formation of an individual, and how rooting out these past experiences in psychoanalysis will be a good form of treatment. Select one: a. False b. True Question 8 It is a source of motivation that encompasses sexual energy. Select one: a. libido b. friends c. happiness d. confidence Question 9 Which Freudian work is considered the most important one? Select one: a. The Id and Ego b. Against Academics c. The Interpretation of Dreams d. Studies in Hysteria Question 10 According to Stephen Thornton, “Freud’s psychoanalytic theory was initially not well received – when its existence was acknowledged at all it was usually by people who were, as Breuer had foreseen, scandalized by the emphasis placed on sexuality by Freud.” (Thornton, 2010) Select one: a. True b. False DISS LQ4 Question 1 Which element of communication is regarded as “symbolic”? Select one: a. Prose b. Grammar c. Diction d. Language Question 2 Freud places no emphasis on the sexual formation of an individual, and how rooting out these past experiences in psychoanalysis will be a good form of treatment. Select one: a. False b. True Question 3 “The Freudian view of human nature is basically _________. According to him, our behavior is determined by irrational forces, unconscious motivations, biological and instinctual drives, as these evolve through key psychosexual stages in the first six years of life. (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. demonstrative b. weak c. altruistic d. deterministic Question 4 These three principles are important for Mead because these form a symbolic interaction that enables society to be united and become real active agents of social progress. With the use of communication, there arises a universal want for the: Select one: a. engaging dialogue b. common good c. justice for the oppressed d. human rights Question 5 Which pragmatic thinker did Mead transfer with to Chicago and was greatly influenced by? Select one: a. John Rawls b. John Dewey c. James Dewey d. William Smith Question 6 The ______ is the original system of personality; at birth a person is _______. The ________ is the primary source of psychic energy and the seat of the instincts. It lacks organization, and it is blind, demanding and insistent.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. none of the choices b. superego c. id d. ego Question 7 In 1895, Freud and his colleague Josef Breuer published: Select one: a. Studies in Hysteria b. The Interpretation of Dreams c. On the Nature of the Mind d. The Communist Manifesto Question 8 “Symbolic interaction is an entire process of ________: meaning, speaking, and thinking.” Select one: a. rhetoric b. organism c. learning d. dialogue Question 9 The principle of meaning teaches us that human persons interact, and that we do so through the use of: Select one: a. symbols b. writings c. puzzles d. speeches Question 10 When one speaks of a __________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that includes those who claim that an ideology or proposition is true if it works satisfactorily, that the meaning of a proposition is to be found in the practical consequences of accepting it, and that unpractical ideas are to be rejected. (McDermid, 2009) Select one: a. theoretical and practical b. pragmatic philosophy c. political practice d. social science Question 11 Freud was a mentor to two other major psychologists: Select one: a. James and Franco b. May and Bellini c. Adler and Jung d. Marx and Lenin Question 12 It is a movement in psychology and philosophy that emphasized the outward behavioral aspects of thought and dismissed the inward experiential, and sometimes the inner procedural, aspects as well. Select one: a. essentialism b. behaviorism c. fundamentalism d. cataclysm Question 13 Which of the following is a part of the Structure of Personality? Select one: a. body b. ego c. super id d. spiritus Question 14 Thought is based on language. While in a conversation, your mind is imagining or thinking about the different points of view or meanings to what the other person is saying to you. Select one: a. True b. False Question 15 Mead published several books, including Mind, Self, and Spirit as well as the Philosophy of Social Action. Select one: a. True b. False Question 16 According to Stephen Thornton, “Freud’s psychoanalytic theory was initially not well received – when its existence was acknowledged at all it was usually by people who were, as Breuer had foreseen, scandalized by the emphasis placed on sexuality by Freud.” (Thornton, 2010) Select one: a. True b. False Question 17 The term “symbolic interactionism” was coined by which of Mead’s students: Select one: a. Herbert Blumer b. Harold Buchanan c. Spencer Hawkes d. Henri Thoreau Question 18 When Mead mentions the ‘taking the role of the other,’ he implies that through language, human persons could interpret the of the individual he is communicating with. Select one: a. symbolic nature b. complex ideas c. signs and symbols d. hidden message Question 19 Pragmatic philosophy is more focused on theory than practice: Select one: a. True b. False Question 20 In 1885-86, Freud spent the greater part of a year in Paris, where he was deeply impressed by the work of the French neurologist Jean Charcot who was at that time using ______ as a medical technique. Select one: a. cannabis b. acupuncture c. hypnotism d. pills Question 21 “Meaning can be described, accounted for, or stated in terms of symbols or language at its highest and most complex stage of development.” (Mead, 1972) Select one: a. False b. True Question 22 Symbolic interactionism’s key principles can be seen in the work: Select one: a. None of the choices b. On the Precision of Vocal Communities c. The Theory of Language d. Mind and the Spirit Question 23 It includes a person’s moral code, the main concern being whether action is good or bad, right or wrong. It represents the ideal rather than the real, and strives not for pleasure but for perfection. The rewards are feelings of pride and self-love; the punishments are feelings of guilt and inferiority.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. id b. superego c. ego d. none of the choices Question 24 “It is the ‘executive’ that governs, controls and regulates the personality. As a ‘traffic cop’ it mediates between the instincts and the surrounding environment. The __________ controls consciousness and exercises censorship.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. ego b. id c. none of the choices d. superego Question 25 The very basic principle of the id is to attain pleasure and avoid pain. Select one: a. True b. False Question 26 Behaviorist approaches tend to focus more on the empirical or outward observation of the subjects. Select one: a. False b. True Question 27 Which Freudian work is considered the most important one? Select one: a. Studies in Hysteria b. The Interpretation of Dreams c. The Id and Ego d. Against Academics Question 28 His academic interests were broad, but he settled for _______ at the University of Vienna in 1873 and obtained his degree in 1881. Select one: a. philosophy b. medicine c. law d. psychology Question 29 Psychoanalysis as an approach was only considered a major psychological and sociological theory during the life of its proponent: Select one: a. William Adler b. Sigmund Freud c. Rollo May d. Carl Jung Question 30 It is a source of motivation that encompasses sexual energy. Select one: a. friends b. happiness c. confidence d. libido DISS SQ9 Question 1 The “rational” approach started at the dawn of the Cold War. Select one: a. False b. True Question 2 Rational Choice Theory is primarily a part of theory as well as that of social theory. Select one: a. logical b. practical c. scientific d. economic Question 3 If one thinks about it, rational choice seems to have been around for quite some time, since the primary inclination of a human being is to choose what is most rational. However, rational choice as a theory applied in both sociology and economics has been applied only recently. Select one: a. False b. True Question 4 The value of historical institutionalism is that it shows how an institution can reflect the changes within society, and how one need not to extensively pursue a conclusion based on multiple observations on society, but rather can be focused on one body that sufficiently accounts for a proper description of society’s progress. Select one: a. False b. True Question 5 Rationality could take various forms, but applied to sociology, it becomes the ___ of society. Select one: a. creation b. improvement c. devotion d. identity Question 6 New institutionalism and old institutionalism are the same. Select one: a. True b. False Question 7 This traces the progress of both socio-economic behavior in society through the growth and history of an institution. Select one: a. Historical institutionalism b. Fundamental Institutionalism c. New Institutionalism d. Old Institutionalism Question 8 Which of the following is a work of Michel Foucault? Select one: a. The Birth of Tragedy b. The Last Resort c. Discipline and Punish d. Creation of Adam Question 9 According to Blume and Easley, rational choice had been around ever since the rise of through the rise of Adam Smith. Select one: a. capitalism b. fascism c. economics d. communism Question 10 The basic premise of rational choice is that social behavior and attitude is the result of ____. Select one: a. deliberation and choice b. individual actions and choices c. communal agreement d. mutual understanding DISS LQ Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text _____ is a method for analyzing language, narratives, and cultural phenomena that uncovers basic elements that form structures (often binary oppositions). Select one: a. structuralism b. scientific literature c. pure mathematics d. conventionalism Question 2 This traces the progress of both socio-economic behavior in society through the growth and history of an institution. Select one: a. Fundamental Institutionalism b. Old Institutionalism c. New Institutionalism d. Historical institutionalism Question 3 To which discipline does physics fall under: Select one: a. Social Science b. Humanities c. Natural Science d. Medicine Question 4 “It is the ‘executive’ that governs, controls and regulates the personality. As a ‘traffic cop’ it mediates between the instincts and the surrounding environment. The __________ controls consciousness and exercises censorship.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. none of the choices b. superego c. ego d. id Question 5 New institutionalism and old institutionalism are the same. Select one: a. False b. True Question 6 According to Blume and Easley, rational choice had been around ever since the rise of through the rise of Adam Smith. Select one: a. capitalism b. economics c. communism d. fascism Question 7 This consists in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation, testing, and modification of hypotheses. Select one: a. Laboratory Experimentation b. Linguistic Analysis c. Scientific Method d. Statistics Question 8 Rationality could take various forms, but applied to sociology, it becomes the ___ of society. Select one: a. identity b. improvement c. creation d. devotion Question 9 Question text “Production is the only focus the worker should have. One’s personal issues and development, as well as experiences that could enhance human nature are neglected for more production. Select one: a. Alienation of Worker from Labor Process b. Alienation of Worker from Human Nature c. Alienation of Worker from Products d. Alienation of Worker from Other Workers Question 10 When Mead mentions the ‘taking the role of the other,’ he implies that through language, human persons could interpret the of the individual he is communicating with. Select one: a. hidden message b. symbolic nature c. complex ideas d. signs and symbols Question 11 Thought is based on language. While in a conversation, your mind is imagining or thinking about the different points of view or meanings to what the other person is saying to you. Select one: a. False b. True Question 12 If one thinks about it, rational choice seems to have been around for quite some time, since the primary inclination of a human being is to choose what is most rational. However, rational choice as a theory applied in both sociology and economics has been applied only recently. Select one: a. True b. False Question 13 This social world was not always understood. But in the last 200 years, disciplines have originated with the goal of examining it with the exact same ____ that the sciences use. Select one: a. concepts and theories b. method and principle c. scientific methodology d. organization Question 14 Geography is concerned with: Select one: a. human behavior and politics b. rocks and sediments c. the population d. structure of the planet earth Question 15 The ______ is the original system of personality; at birth a person is _______. The ________ is the primary source of psychic energy and the seat of the instincts. It lacks organization, and it is blind, demanding and insistent.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. id b. superego c. ego d. none of the choices Question 16 According to Stephen Thornton, “Freud’s psychoanalytic theory was initially not well received – when its existence was acknowledged at all it was usually by people who were, as Breuer had foreseen, scandalized by the emphasis placed on sexuality by Freud.” (Thornton, 2010) Select one: a. False b. True Question 17 In 1895, Freud and his colleague Josef Breuer published: Select one: a. On the Nature of the Mind b. Studies in Hysteria c. The Communist Manifesto d. The Interpretation of Dreams Question 18 What is another term for the working class? Select one: a. proletariat b. proscetariat c. merchants d. slaves Question 19 In 1885-86, Freud spent the greater part of a year in Paris, where he was deeply impressed by the work of the French neurologist Jean Charcot who was at that time using ______ as a medical technique. Select one: a. acupuncture b. cannabis c. pills d. hypnotism Question 20 Which of the following is a work of Michel Foucault? Select one: a. Discipline and Punish b. Creation of Adam c. The Last Resort d. The Birth of Tragedy Question 21 The “rational” approach started at the dawn of the Cold War. Select one: a. True b. False Question 22 Rational Choice Theory is primarily a part of theory as well as that of social theory. Select one: a. scientific b. economic c. logical d. practical Question 23 The basic premise of rational choice is that social behavior and attitude is the result of ____. Select one: a. mutual understanding b. individual actions and choices c. communal agreement d. deliberation and choice Question 24 It includes a person’s moral code, the main concern being whether action is good or bad, right or wrong. It represents the ideal rather than the real, and strives not for pleasure but for perfection. The rewards are feelings of pride and self-love; the punishments are feelings of guilt and inferiority.” (Corey, 2009) Select one: a. ego b. none of the choices c. id d. superego Question 25 “Symbolic interaction is an entire process of ________: meaning, speaking, and thinking.” Select one: a. rhetoric b. dialogue c. learning d. organism Question 26 The very basic principle of the id is to attain pleasure and avoid pain. Select one: a. False b. True Question 27 When one speaks of a __________, it means that it is a philosophical movement that includes those who claim that an ideology or proposition is true if it works satisfactorily, that the meaning of a proposition is to be found in the practical consequences of accepting it, and that unpractical ideas are to be rejected. (McDermid, 2009) Select one: a. pragmatic philosophy b. political practice c. theoretical and practical d. social science Question 28 The value of historical institutionalism is that it shows how an institution can reflect the changes within society, and how one need not to extensively pursue a conclusion based on multiple observations on society, but rather can be focused on one body that sufficiently accounts for a proper description of society’s progress. Select one: a. True b. False Question 29 The Greek word politika means: Select one: a. rule of law b. management c. affairs of the cities d. governance Question 30 Private property is replaced with ____, and man becomes friend once more to fellow man. It is in a communist setting, Marx envisions, that society will flourish. Select one: a. proper distribution b. military possession c. common ownership d. joint custody DISS LA6 Question 1 The most important work of de Beauvoir that contributed to feminist theory is her work: Select one: a. Creation of Adam b. The Second Sex c. Interpretations of Reality d. Woman Demystified Question 2 In the 20th century, ‘first-wave’ feminists had demanded civil and political equality. Select one: a. False b. True Question 3 The word feminist or feminism emerged in Europe around the later years of the 1600s and in the United States in 1910. (Goldstein, 1989) Select one: a. False b. True Question 4 Renowned feminist and French philosopher ___ was born in Paris on the 9th of January, year 1908. Select one: a. Simone de Beauvoir b. Simone Weil c. Simon Blackwell d. Jean-Paul Sartre Question 5 The father of modern phenomenology is the philosopher: Select one: a. Charles Taylor b. Edmund Husserl c. Martin Heidegger d. Wilhelm Dilthey Question 6 The last wave of feminism, also known as third-wave feminism, is an acceptance of the second-wave and is a support of sorts of the preceding wave. Third-wave feminism distinguished itself from the second wave around issues of sexuality, challenging female heterosexuality and celebrating sexuality as a means of female empowerment. (Holt & Cameron, 2010) Select one: a. False b. True Question 7 de Beauvoir studied _____ at the University of Paris and eventually studied mathematics at the Institut Catholique de Paris and literature at the Institut de Sainte-Marie. Select one: a. literature and philosophy b. mathematics and philosophy c. physical science and medicine d. natural science and mathematics Question 8 Second-wave feminism concentrated on the ___ sector, pushing not for exact rights, but for social recognition and a new identity. Second-wave feminism reacts negatively to the age-old view of women: weak and undetermined. Select one: a. scientific b. economic c. social d. political Question 9 Hermeneutics, on the other hand, comes from the Greek word ‘hermeneutikos’ meaning: Select one: a. puzzle b. messaging c. interpret d. isolation Question 10 Charles Fourier was known to coin the term: Select one: a. feminieuse b. feminisme c. feminierre d. feminin DISS LA7 Question 1 This is typically defined as the sociological study of societal-environmental interactions, although this definition immediately presents the problem of integrating human cultures with the rest of the environment. (Schaefer, 2016) Select one: a. human ecology b. psychological sociology c. environmental sociology d. economic environmentalism Question 2 There is no clear definition for human environment system, as it crosses ____ at once such as ecology, sociology and environmental demographics. Select one: a. a number of roads b. multiple disciplines c. uncharted borders d. varying social sciences Question 3 Although the focus of the field is the relationship between society and environment in general, environmental sociologists typically place special emphasis on studying the social factors that cause environmental problems, the societal impacts of those problems, and efforts to solve the problems. Select one: a. False b. True Question 4 There is no clear definition for human environment system, as it crosses multiple disciplines at once such as ecology, sociology and environmental demographics. Select one: a. True b. False Question 5 As a social science, the origins of human-environment systems did not actually begin with society itself, but rather with ____ themes. Select one: a. economic b. tantric c. ecological d. overarching Question 6 Human-Environment System can also be called: Select one: a. environmental personal theory b. human demographics c. human ecology d. sociology Question 7 The primary thrust of this theory is that the two parties: humans and the environment, are in a state of continuous seclusion and disintegration. Select one: a. True b. False Question 8 Ecology is defined as “the branch of biology that deals with the ____ of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.” Select one: a. relations b. differences c. understanding d. equality Question 9 Human-environment system means that society lives in a blank, dysfunctional world and a world that affects society greatly. Select one: a. True b. False Question 10 This is the totality of things that in any way may affect an organism, including both physical and cultural conditions; a region characterized by a certain set of physical conditions. Select one: a. society b. environment c. nature d. world DISS SQ10 Question 1 His (Mercado’s) style of writing and analysis of Philippine society and culture is ____, meaning that for him, language is an important facet in understanding Filipino society as a whole. Select one: a. unequal b. quantitative c. analytic d. meta-linguistic Question 2 The people must be educated in civic virtues and enlightened in all possible senses to be able to struggle for their rights. Select one: a. False b. True Question 3 Manuel Dy, Jr. mentions in his book Contemporary Social Philosophy that “a Filipino ethics must value ____.” (Dy, 2013) Select one: a. holiness b. welfare c. solidarity d. ethics Question 4 Schools of sufficient quality and quantity must be established throughout the archipelago primarily for enlightenment and secondarily, livelihood. Select one: a. True b. False Question 5 Isabelo de los Reyes is also credited to be the first Filipino: Select one: a. socialist b. warrior c. journalist d. poet Question 6 Rizal envisioned a Philippine society that had ___, and the desire to serve one’s country wholeheartedly and without reservation. Select one: a. confidence b. growing investments c. service d. racial pride Question 7 Mercado's work ____ talks about the fundamental trait of Filipinos to incorporate the religious into their social lives, and how Philippine society is shaped by the values and teachings of a belief in a Supreme Being or God. Select one: a. Elements of Philosophy b. True Blood c. Inculturation and Filipino Theology d. Elements of Philippine Philosophy Question 8 According to Rolando Gripaldo’s work Filipino Philosophy, Rizal envisioned a ____ society. Select one: a. united b. capitalist c. noble d. utopian Question 9 Filipinos place a great amount of importance on close family ties that it is arguably the most practiced Filipino value at present. Select one: a. False b. True Question 10 Rizal is not only known for his dedicated life and the works Noli Me Tangere and: Select one: a. El Filibusterismo b. Consejo de las Casas c. Mi Amor d. Ibong Adarna DISS SQ11 Question 1 The most important aspect of this definition is the Filipino orientation. For centuries, Filipino behavior has been analyzed and interpreted in the light of ____ theories. Select one: a. Western b. American c. Eastern d. Spanish Question 2 Question text From the beginning of the periods when the Philippines was colonized by Spain, and then the USA, academic psychology, or the psychology taught in schools, was predominantly ____ in theory and in methodology Select one: a. Spanish b. Western c. American d. Eastern Question 3 Pua and Marcelino regard him as the founder of Sikolohiyang Pilipino Select one: a. Virgilio G. Enriquez b. Virgilio S. Lorenzo c. Virgilio Ramos d. Carpio Santos Question 4 “Sikolohiyang Pilipino is anchored on Filipino thought and experience as understood from a Filipino perspective (Enriquez, 1975).” Select one: a. False b. True Question 5 In simpler terms, Sikolohiyang Pilipino is aimed at understanding the Filipino ____ the Filipino. Select one: a. referring to b. according to c. disloyal to d. in line with Question 6 Enriquez also eliminated the bondage of Western tradition that bothered Filipino intellectuals before him. This proves that Sikolohiyang Pilipino is something original to the Filipino, and that Filipino culture is not destined to live under the shadows of another culture or an outside nation. Select one: a. True b. False Question 7 Sikolohiyang Pilipino is a by-product of Western psychology. Select one: a. False b. True Question 8 Filipinos have never been a strictly intellectual culture. Their mindset even before the dawn of the 21st century has always been a collection of both the strictly academic and the open culture that Filipinos have always espoused. Select one: a. True b. False Question 9 The principle emphasis of Sikolohiyang Pilipino is to destroy national identity and consciousness, social involvement, and psychology of language and culture. Select one: a. True b. False Question 10 Since the Philippines was a colony of three different countries, they have been exposed to culture after culture, all of them distinct and special in their own way, that have led to the Filipinos having a certain kind of: Select one: a. self-awareness b. class conflict c. identity crisis d. classification DISS LQ7 Question 1 Apart from the suggestions given above, a degree in the social sciences will also be the key to teaching other learners about the different elements of the social sciences. Select one: True False Question 2 Social Anthropologist Select one: a. History b. Economics c. Anthropology d. Political Science e. Psychology Question 3 Guidance Counselor Select one: a. History b. Anthropology c. Psychology d. Economics e. Political Science Question 4 Politician Select one: a. Political Science b. History c. Psychology d. Anthropology e. Economics Question 5 The social sciences are not limited to the four corners of a classroom. It is something active, and plays a continuous part in society. Select one: True False Question 6 It is a sense or ideology of wanting something to happen to your nation. It is, in a way, willing that a society take a certain shape according to what you think is best for the progress of a nation. Select one: a. Patriotism b. Puritanism c. Nationalism d. Valor Question 7 Public Administration Teacher Select one: a. Anthropology b. Economics c. Political Science d. Psychology e. History Question 8 Granted, most individuals would have different opinions on what is the best for a perfect society to take shape. However, the common goal here is for society itself to_______. Select one: a. diminish b. integrate c. prosper d. solidify Question 9 The most concrete of this participation and active involvement of the social sciences can be seen in the different ______ available to those who pursue this colorful field. Select one: a. professions b. institutions c. theories d. literature Question 10 Clinical Psychology Select one: a. History b. Political Science c. Anthropology d. Economics e. Psychology Question 11 History Teacher Select one: a. History b. Economics c. Psychology d. Political Science e. Anthropology Question 12 Lawyer Select one: a. Psychology b. Political Science c. Economics d. Anthropology e. History Question 13 Industrial Psychiatrist Select one: a. History b. Economics c. Psychology d. Political Science e. Anthropology Question 14 Economics Teacher Select one: a. Political Science b. History c. Economics d. Psychology e. Anthropology Question 15 _______ work as coaches to other people in areas including business, sport and education. They also work in hospitals and health centers, (i.e. in clinical settings) helping to support people with a range of psychological problems. Select one: a. Market Researchers b. Sociologists c. Psychologists d. Economists Question 16 University work, administrative work, and mentoring are fueled by social science experts who share the common vision of an examined and critical society. Select one: True False Question 17 Stock Market Analyst Select one: a. Psychology b. History c. Economics d. Anthropology e. Political Science Question 18 Your role is to analyze the allocation of material goods of society and how it affects the daily life of each individual as well as society in general. Select one: a. Psychologists b. Economists c. Market Researchers d. Sociologists Question 19 The reason why nationalism can be so strong is that individuals within the society seeks a progressive society distant to its own cultures and traditions without the influence of other societies as much as possible. Select one: True False Question 20 Non-Profit Organization Administrator Select one: a. Psychology b. Anthropology c. Political Science d. History e. Economics Question 21 Market Researcher Select one: a. Political Science b. Economics c. Anthropology d. History e. Psychology Question 22 Ancient Civilization Researcher Select one: a. Political Science b. Anthropology c. History d. Economics e. Psychology Question 23 On the other hand,_____ also serves a purpose in understanding more the social phenomenon of nationalism. When one has nationalistic ideas, he seeks the progress of his nation. This includes a desire for a country's economy to grow. Select one: a. business b. human resources c. economics d. accountancy Question 24 Museum Curator Select one: a. History b. Psychology c. Political Science d. Economics e. Anthropology Question 25 Trade Union Management Select one: a. Economics b. Anthropology c. History d. Political Science e. Psychology Question 26 Through the lens of anthropology (and even psychology) we can see that what drives the social phenomenon of nationalism is a sense of both racial pride and a degree of __________ (a fear of foreigners or other cultures). Select one: a. fear b. xenophobia c. discrimination d. hate Question 27 Another point is that the social sciences are composed of different disciplines that provide multiple perspectives on how society should be studied and examined. Select one: True False Question 28 This is the association between the social sciences and the humanities in analyzing society. Select one: a. Theory and Practice b. Dominant Approaches c. Multi-disciplinarity d. Disciplines Question 29 ________ work in many sectors - for the government, for charities and for a variety of commercial organizations. Researchers can be employed directly, or through an agency, or they may work as freelancers, (i.e. be self-employed). Select one: a. Market Researchers b. Sociologists c. Psychologists d. Economists Question 30 “The most concrete origin, however, can be found in Ancient China with the writings of Fan Li (also known as Tao Zhu Gong) who wrote a _________ for businessmen. (Wang, 2012) Select one: a. novel b. book c. golden laws for businessmen d. law of Chinese trade