1
THE AGENTS INFLUENCE THE
EFFECTORY ORGANS
CARDIAC GLYCOSIDES AND OTHER CARDIOTONIC
DRUGS
A patient suffers from chronic
insufficiency.
What
medication
administered?
A *Digoxin
B Bemegride
C Etimizole
D Vinpocetine
E Pyracetam
left-ventricular
should
be
A patient that entered the admission office had the
following signs of acute cardiac insufficiency:
paleness, acrocyanosis, frequent shallow respiration.
What drug is indicated in this case?
A *Corglycon
B Digitoxin
C Cordiamin
D Nitroglycerine
E Adrenaline hydrochloride
Patient complaines of weakness, dyspnea, low
extremities oedema. Diagnosis: chronic cardiac
insufficiency. What medicine should be prescribed
first of all?
A *Digitoxin
B Caffeine
C Papaverine
D Propranolol
E Raunatin
A patient suffering from chronic cardiac insufficiency
was recommended to undergo a prophylactic course
of treatment with a cardiological drug from the group
of cardiac glycosides that is to be taken enterally.
What drug was recommended?
A *Digoxin
B Strophanthine
C Corglycon
D Cordiamin
E Cordarone
A 50 y.o. patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency
and tachyarrythmia was prescribed a cardiotonic drug.
What drug was prescribed?
A *Digoxin
B Dopamine
C Dobutamine
D Amyodarone
E Mildronate
1. A patient with pulmonary edema caused by acute left
ventricular insufficiency patient was treated with cardiac
glycoside. In 10-15 min, his condition improved and maximal
effect - was in 1-1,5 hours, after that the action gradually
decreased. What drug has been injected?
A. * Strophanthin
В. Digoxin
C. Celanidum
D. Digltoxin
E. Adonisidum
2. A patient had been suffering from heart insufficiency was
treated with digoxinum. He took diuretic Dichlothiazidum without
the doctor's knowledge and after 2 days he felt worse and was
obliged to address this matter to the doctor. Doctor administered
several drugs to improve patient's state and among these drugs
was Unithiolum. Indicate the mechanism of action of this agent
A. *It has got free sulfhydril groups which bind to the molecules
of digoxinum
B. Promotes excretion of calcium ions from the organism
С. Promotes retention of potassium ions in the organism
D. Decrease oxygen demand of the myocardium
E. Creates complexes with calcium ions
3. Specify the cardiac glycoside which posseses the fastest onset of
the action.
A. *Strophanthin
В. Celanidum (lanatoside)
С. Digitoxin
D. Digoxinum
E. Adonisidum
4. What effect of cardiac glycosides is of greatest importance?
A. *Increase of myocardium contractility
B. Increase of myocardium excitability
C. Decrease of myocardium automatism
D. Decrease of myocardium conductivity
E. Increase of diuresis and elimination of edemas
8. Indicate the mechanism of cardiotonic action
glycosides
A. *Inhibition of Na-K-ATPase of cardiomyocyte
membranes
B. Excitation of B-adrenoceptors of myocardium
С Activation of calcium channels of cardiomyocyte
membranes
D Oppression of phosphodiesterase of cardiomyocytes
E. Activation of potassium channels of cardiomyocytes
9. Indicate the group of drugs which is the most expedient for
treatment of ciliary arrhythmia?
A. *Cardiac glycosides
B. M -cholinoblockers
C. Na-channels blockers
D. Beta-adrenomimetics
E. Alfa-adrenoblockers
10. Indicate the group of drugs, overdosage of which is
accompanied by following signs: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
infringement of heart activity (extrasystoles, delay of
atrioventricular conductivity), headache, vision impairment
(xanthopsia, diplopia).
A. * Cardiac glycosides
B. Organic nitrates
С Ca-channels blockers
D. Beta-adrenoblockers
E. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
11. Why do strophanthin and corglycon possess fast action after
the introduction into the organism?
A. * They have low affinity to plasma proteins
B. They have high molecular weight
С. They have low molecular weioht
D. They have high affinity to plasma proteins
E. They have short half-life period
ANTIARRHYTHMIC AGENTS.
16. Indicate the group of drugs which is used for treatment of
atrioventricular blockade
A. * M-cholinoblockers
B. Ca-channels blockers
С. Local anaesthetics
D. Beta-adrenoblockers
E. Potassium containing remedies
15. A patient has lengthening of P-Q interval on the
electrocardiogram under the treatment with an antiarrhythmic
drug. What agent could cause it?
A. *Atenolol
B. Prazosin
С. Atropine
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D. Lidocaine
E. Plathyphyllin
14. It is necessary to appoint an anti-arrhythmic agent to a patient
with ciliary arrhythmia accompanying by bronchial asthma. What
drug from listed below is contraindicated to this patient?
A. *Anaprilinum (propranolol)
B. Verapamil
С. Aimalin
D. Digoxine
E. Novocainamidum (procainamide)
12. Indicate the mechanism of action of Verapamil
A * Blockade of calcium channels
B. Inhibition of Na-K-ATPase
С Activation of beta-adrenoceptors
D. Activation of M-cholinoceptors
E. Blockade of beta-adrenoceptors
13. A patient suffers from allergic reaction to iodine. Indicate an
antiarrhythmic agent, which is absolutely contraindicated to him.
A. *Amiodarone
В. Verapamil
С. Novocainamidum (procainamide)
D. Ornidum (bretytium)
E. Quinidine sulfate
1. In a clinic, the patient complained of unpleasant sensations
in the heart region, and attacks of weakness and loss of
consciousness. Inspection of the patient's electrocardiogram
had revealed the presence of II degree atrioventricular block.
Specify a drug which should be used in this situation.
A. * Isadrinum
B. Novocainamide
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Stropnanthin
E. Anaplilinum
Indicate the mechanism of anti arrhythmic action of quinidine
sulphate
A. *Blockade of sodium channels of the cardiomyocyte
membranes
B. Blockade of calcium channels of the cardiomyocyte
membranes
С. Blockade of β-adrenoceptors of the myocardium
D. Blockade о α- and β-adrenoceptors of the myocardium
E. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors of the myocardium
5. Specify the mechanism of anti arrhythmical action of
verapamil
A. *Blockade of calcium channels of the cardiomyocyte
membranes
B. Blockade of sodium channels of the cardiomyocyte
membranes
C. Blockade or β-adrenoceptors of the myocardium
D Blockade of α- and β-adrenoceptors of the myocardium
E. Blockade of М-сholinoreceptors of the myocardium
ANTIANGINAL DRUGS
A patient with coronary artery disease was admitted to
the cardiological department. For stenocardia
prevention a drug from the group of beta-adrenoceptor
blockers was administered. What drug is it?
A *Metoprolol
B Atropine sulfate
C Morphine hydrochloride
D Oxytocin
E Furosemide
After a tooth extraction a patient felt persistent pain
behind his breast bone. After sublingual intake of an
antianginal drug the pain behind the breast bone
disappeared, but the patient complained of headache
and dizziness. What drug are these properties typical
for?
A *Nitroglycerin
B Propranolol
C Metoprolol
D Validol
E Verapamil
A patient who had myocardial infarction was
administered 75 mg of acetylsalicinic acid a day. What
is the purpose of this administration?
A *Reduction of thrombocyte aggregation
B Inflammation reduction
C Pain relief
D Temperature reduction
E Coronary vessel dilatation
A patient suffers from stenocardia and takes isosorbide
mononitrate. He was prescribed a complementary drug
with disaggregating effect. What drug is it?
A *Acetylsalicinic acid
B Nitroglycerine
C Propranolol
D Nifedipine
E Validol
A patient suffering from coronary artery disease had
taken a certain drug many times a day in order to
arrest stenocardia attacks. Overdose of this drug
finally caused intoxication. Objectively: cyanotic skin
and mucous membranes, dramatic fall in the arterial
pressure, tachycardia, respiration inhibition. Blood
has increased concentration of methemoglobin. The
drug the patient had taken relates to the following
group:
A *Organic nitrates
B alpha-adrenoceptor blockers
C Calcium channel blockers
D Adenosine drugs
E Myotropic spamolytics
Anapriline therapy caused positive effect in the
dynamic of the disease of a 44-year-old
woman suffering from stenocardia. What is the main
mechanism of the effect of this medicine?
A *Blockade of beta-adrenoreceptors and decrease
myocardial requirements to the oxygen.
B Decrease of oxidative exchange in myocardium
due to enzyme blockade of Krebs' cycle
C Decreased power inputs of myocardium due to
reduced loading
D Increased oxygen supply to the myocardium
E Decreased need in increasing of oxygen supply to
the myocardium
1. Determine an antianginal agent by its pharmacological effect.
It insignificantly improves coronary circulation (especially in
subendocardial layers), but the main cause of elimination of
stenocardia is dilation of peripheral veins and arteries, that leads
to decrease of cardiac work and myocardial oxygen demand.
Besides, it oppresses the central links of cardiostimulating
reflexes.
A. * Nitroglycerine
B. Phenihydinum
С Amiodaronum
D. Validolum
E. Anaplilinum
2. A patient who had been suffering from stenocardia
accompanied by cardiac arrhythmia (paroxysmal tachycardia)
and arterial hypertension was admitted to the hospital. Specify
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antianginal drug and the group which it belongs to, which should
be administered taking into account the patient's diseases.
A. *β-adrenoblocker - anaprilinum
B. Organic nitrate - nitroglycerinum
C. Myotropic spasmolytic agent – No-spa
D. Calcium antagonist - nifedipin
E. Potassium channel activator nicorandil
3. Indicate the nitroglycerin's drug with prolonged action
A. *Sustac
B. Validolum
С. Amylnitrite
D. Natrium nitroprussid
E. Dipiridamolum
4. Indicate the drug which exerts antianginal action because of
decrease of oxygen demand and increase of oxygen delivery to
the myocardium.
A. *Nitroglycerinum
B. Anaprilinum
C. Dipiridamolum
D. Talinololum
E. Carbocromenum
5. Indicate the state which requires
nitroglycerine
A. *An attack of stenocardia
B. Acute cardiac failure
С Hypertensive crisis
D. Chronic cardiac insufficiency
E. Endarteritis obliterans
administration of
6. Indicate the mechanism of action of nitroglycerine
A. * Release of NO groups which activate guanylyl cyclase
B. Blockade of calcium channels
C. Blockade of adenosine receptors
D. Activation ol adenylyl cyclase
E. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
7. А patient with ischemic heart disease complaints of worsening
of his state that is caused by overdosage of antianginal agent.
What group of drugs can cause this state it it is known that
concentration of methemoglobin in patient’s blood is increased?
A. *Organic nitrates
B. Beta-adrenoblockers
С. Blockators of calcium channels
D. Activators of potassium channels
E. Myotropic coronary dilators
8. After sublingual introduction of nitroglycerine its maximal
concentration in blood is developed in:
A. * 4-5minutes
B. 15minutes
С. 1 minute
D. 30 minutes
E. 1 hour
9. Why are the tablets of nitroglycerine introduced sublingually
only?
A. *The substance is being considerably destroyed during its first
passage through the liver
B. The substance is badly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract
С The 'substance operates reflexly from oral cavity receptors
D. The substance is destroyed under the action of gastric Juice
E. It causes less side-effects in such way of introduction
10. Determine an antianginal agent according to its
pharmacological effects: dilating coronary arteries it increases
myocardial blood supply, dilating peripheral veins it decreases
myocardial preload, dilating perypheral arteries it decrease
myocardial postload, besides it oppresses the central links of
coronaroconstrictive and cardiostimulatory reflexes:
A. *Nitroglycerine
B. Fenigidinum
С. Amiodarone
D. Validolum
E. Anaprilinum
11. Introduction of an antianginal drug to a patient with stenocardia
caused improvement of patient's state and also arterial hypotension,
tachycardia and throbbing headache. Indicate this drug.
A. *Nitroglycerine
B. Carbocromen
С. Dipyridamole
D. Mildronate
E. Verapamil
12. A 50 years old patient has suffered from angina pectoris for
several months. As a rule he has successfully used a tablet of
validolum during the attack but last 2 weeks this remedy hasn’t
been effective. What drug should be administered to the patient for
elimination of the attack?
A. * Nitroglycerine
B. Nifedipine
С Verapamil
D. Anaprilinum (propranolol)
E. Isosorbide mononitrate
13. The calcium channels of cardiomyocytes have been blocked on
an isolated rabbit's heart. What changes in the heart's activity can
happen as a result?
A. *Decrease rate and force of heart beat
B. Heart stops in systole
C. Decrease of heart beat rate
D. Decrease force of the contraction
E. Heart stops in diastole
HYPO- AND HYPERTENSIVE DRUGS
A patient with hypertensic crisis was admitted to the
cardiological
department,
he
was
injected
intravenously with an antihypertensive drug - salt of
an alkaline-earth metal. What drug was injected?
A *Magnesium sulfate
B Potassium chloride
C Sodium hydrocarbonate
D Calcium lactate
E Benzohexamethonium
A patient with II stage hypertension has been taking
one of hypotensive medications for the purpose of
treatment. After a time arterial pressure decreased,
but the patient started complaining of flaccidity,
sleepiness, indifference. A bit later he felt stomach
pain. He was diagnosed with ulcer. What hypotensive
medication has the patient been taking?
A *Reserpine
B Dibazole
C Furosemide
D Verapamil
E Captopril
A 66 year old female patient got intravenous injection
of magnesium sulfate solution for the purpose of
elimination of hypertensive crisis. But arterial
pressure didn't go down and after repeated
introduction of the same preparation there appered
sluggishness, slow
response, inhibition of
consciousness and respiration. What preparation is
antagonist of magnesium sulfate and can eliminate
symptoms of its overdose?
A Calcium chloride
B Potassium chloride
C Sodium chloride
D Activated carbon
E Potassium permanganate
A 63 y.o. man with collapse symptoms was
delivered to the emergency hospital. A doctor
chose noradrenaline in order to prevent
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hypotension. What is the action mechanism of this
medication?
A *Activation of alpha-1-adrenoreceptors
B Activation of serotonin receptors
C Activation of beta-adrenoreceptors
D Activation of dopamine receptors
E Block of M-cholinoreceptors
1. The patient suffering from arterial hypertension with
hyperkinetic type of circulation and the high contents of rennin,
accompanied by stenocardia and sinus tachycardia has been
treating for 10 years. Indicate the group of drugs should be
administered in this situation.
A. * Beta-adrenoblockers
B. Drugs of nitroglycerine
C. Alfa-adrenoblockers
D. Sympatholytics
E. Ganglioblockers
2. A 45 year old patient, who had been suffering from idiopathic
hypertension, was treated by an antihypertensive drug. After 4
days his arterial pressure decreased, but he complained of
sleepiness and psychological suppresion. With which drug was
the patient treated?
A * Clophelinum
B. Prazozinum
С. Captopril
D. Enalapril
E. Apressine
3. A patient who had been suffering from hypertonic disease
had been treated for a long time with the drug from the group of
Rauwolf ia alkaloids and began to complain of heartburn, pain
in the epigastrial area and bad mood. Indicate the drug which
caused these complications.
A. *Reserpinum
В. Octadinum
С. Clophelinum
D. Papaverinum
E. Dlbazolum
4. A patient who had been suffering from arterial hypertension
had taken a hypotensive drug, but in an hour his blood pressure
increased and 2 hours after it decreased. Indicate this
antihypertensive agent.
A *Octadimlm
B. Prazosinum
С. Captoprii
D. Anaprilinum
E. Nifedipinum
5. A patient had been suffering from hypertonic disease
accompanied by chronic bronchitis with asthmatical component.
Indicate the drug which is contraindicated due to it's action on the
bronchi.
A *Anaprillinum
B. Captopril
С. Prazosinum
D. Nifedipine
E. Dichlothiazidum
6. A doctor has administered to a patient clonidine (clophelinum)
for elimination of hypertensive crisis. What class of hypotensive
drugs does the named agent belong to?
A * Central neurotropic
В. Peripheral neurotropic
С. Diuretics
D. Drugs affecting the renin-angiotensin system
E. Myotropic (vasotropic) hypotensive agents
7. A patient with hypertensive disease caused by raised
sympathoadrenal system activity requires administration of a drug
reducing neurogenic tone of vessels. What is the most suitable
agent to be administered?
A. *Clophelinum
B. Losartane
С. Verapamil
D. Hydrochlorthiazide
E. Apressinum (hydralazine)
8. Hypertensic crisis characterized by sharp headache, dizziness,
hyperemia of face, pains in the region of heart, rapid pulse, arterial
pressure of 220/110 mm Hg has developed in a patient suffering
from essential hypertension during the visit to the dentist. What
agent is it necessary to introduce to the patient?
A. *Clophelinum (clonidine)
В. Pinlenum fpempidine)
С. Timolol
D. Moxonidine
E. Anaprilinum fpropranolol)
9. Indicate the antihypertensive agent which can cause such sideeffects as dryness in the mouth, constipation and retention of water
in the organism
A. * Clophelinum (clonidine)
B. Coraiaminum (nikethamide)
С. Verapamil
D. Anaprilinum fpropranolol)
E. Nifedipine
10. Stable arterial hypertension was arisen in the patient who had
been suffering from chronic glomerulonephritis. Indicate the most
effective group of drugs to treat this patient.
A. *Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
B. Ganglion blockers
С. α-adrenoblockers
D. Myotropic spasmolytics
E. Calcium antagonists
THE AGENTS USED IN INSUFFICIENCY OF CEREBRAL
CIRCULATION. HYPOLIPIDEMIC AGENTS
1. The patient who had been treated with a vitamin drug for the
prophylaxis of brain vessel constriction complained of
unpleasant sensations: blushing of upper part of the body,
vertigo, flushing of blood to the head. Which drug exerts this
effect
A. * Nicotinic acid
В. Tocopherol acetate
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamini bromidum
E. Calcium pangamate
2. A patient suffering from atherosclerosis is treated with
lovastatinum 0,04 g PO before sleep. Why is this drug
administered once a day and before sleep?
A. *Cholesterol is synthesized only at night
B. Development of sleepiness in the action of the drug.
С. In the evening the drug is better absorbed.
D. The cataboiism of a cholesterol goes mainly at night.
E. The cholesterol is excreted from an organism mainly at
night
3. A patient admitted to the neurology department with
complaints of severe headache, nausea, vomiting, feeling of
numbness and weakness of the right arm, disorders of speech. BP
– 220/130 mm Hg. During 15 years he had been suffering from
arterial hypertension. After the examination the following
diagnosis was made: ischemia of the left hemisphere due to
vascular spasm and impairment of venous outflow. Specify the
drug which is the most preferable for the improvement of
cerebral blood supply due to decrease of hypercoagulation.
A. *Xanthinoli nicotinas
В. Sydnophenum
С. Coffetnum
D. Meridilum
E. Aminalonum
4. A patient admitted to a hospital with complaints of decrease of
memory, feeling of "noise" in the head. The diagnosis which had
established after examination was atherosclerosis of brain blood
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vesseles. Indicate the agent which can be administered to the
patient.
A. *Clofibratum
B. Euphyllinum
С Dibazolum
D. Nimodipin
E. Minoxidilum
5. A 58 year old woman suffered from cerebral atherosclerosis.
The complex therapy administered by the physician included
vitamins E and C. Indicate the role of these drugs in the
treatment of atherosclerosis.
A. *Inhibition of lipids' peroxydation
B. increase of release of the pituitary gonadotropic hormones
С. Decrease of release of glucocorticoids in adrenal cortex
D. Activation of the antitoxic function of the liver
E. Improvement of coronary circulation
6. A patient was admitted to the clinic of nervous diseases with
increased arterial pressure (220/130 mm Hg). It was diagnosed
that he had ischemia of the left hemisphere of the brain as a
result of vessel spasm and impairment of venous outflow.
Choose the preparation from the listed ones which is preferable
for improvement of brain blood supply and which removes
hypercoagulation in an acute period of the illness:
A. * Xantinol nicotinate
B. Caffeine (coffeinum)
С. Meridilum (methylpnenidate)
D. Aminalonum (gamma-aminobutyric acid)
E. Sydnophenum (pheprosidine)
7. Indicate the main effect of Piracetam
A. * Improves memory and cognition
B. Decreases the integrating processes in the brain
С. Slows down synthesis of GABA in the brain
D. Reduces resistance of the brain tissue to hypoxia
E. increases brain necessity in oxygen
8. A patient was admitted to the neurological department
complaining of memory impairment and decrease of intellectual
capacity after the car crash head trauma. Offer the remedy for
improvement of metabolism in the brain:
A. * Pyracetam (Nootropil)
B. Nifedipinum
С. Sydnocarbum
D. Caffeine (coffeinum)
E. Analginum (metamizole)
9. What class of lipoproteins is the most atherogenic?
A. * Low density lipoproteins
B. Chylomicrons
С. High density lipoproteins
D. Very low density lipoproteins
E. Intermediate density lipoproteins
10. Indicate the principle of an antiatherosclerotic action of
Lovastati-num
A. *Oppression of endogenous cholesterol synthesis in the liver
B. Inhibition of peroxide radicals formation
С. Infringement of exogenous cholesterol absorption
D. Inhibition of lipolysis in fatty tissue
E. Prevention or penetration of atherogenic lipoproteins in
tunica intima of vessels
11. A patient with atherosclerosis of vessels was treated with one
of the hypolipidemic drugs which reduces cholesterol synthesis
due to inhibition of enzyme 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutarylcoenzyme A reductase. Indicate the drug
A. * Lovastatinum
B. Cholestyramine
С. Clofibrate
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Probucol
12. Among special hypolipidemic agents the most effective ones
are those which block synthesis of endogenous cholesterol in the
liver. What drug from listed below has such mechanism of
action?
A. *Lovastatinum
B. Clofibrate
С. Cholestyramine
D. Parmidinum
E. Probucol
13. A patient has the family hypercholesterolemia. Indicate the
drug which may be used due to ability to inhibit the main enzyme
of cholesterol synthesis?
A. * Lovastatinum
B. Colestipol
С. Cholestyramine
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Probucol
15. Indicate the hypolipidemic agent which may be used in
atherosclerosis of brain arteries
A. *Lovastatinum
B. Cinnarizine
С. Pyracetam
D. Tocopherol acetate
E. Ascorbinic acid
16. Specify the principle of antihy-perlipidemic action of
lovastatinum.
A. *Inhibition of synthesis of endogenous cholesterol in the liver
B. Impairment of creation of superoxide radicals
С. Impairment of absorption of cholesterol in the intestine
D. Impairment of lipolysis in the fatty tissue
E. Impairment of binding of atherogenous lipoproteins with
endotheliocytes
DIURETIC AGENTS. DRUGS USED IN GOUT.
A patient takes digoxin for treatment of cardiac
insufficiency. What diuretic may increase digoxin
toxicity due to the intensified excretion of K+ions?
A *Hydrochlorothiazide
B Spironolactone
C Panangine
D Siliborum
E Lisinopril
A patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency has been
treated with cardiotonic drugs and a thiazide diuretic,
but in spite of it there are still edemata and risk of
ascites. What medication should be prescribed to
amplify diuretic effect of the applied drugs?
A *Spironolactone
B Furosemide
C Amyloride
D Clopamide
E Manitole
The alternate usage of dichlotiazide, etacrin acid and
lasix didn't cause marked diuretic effect in patient
with marked peripheral edema. Increased amount of
aldosterone is in the blood. Indicate the medicine to
be prescribed?
A *Spironolacton
B Mannit
C Clopamid
D Urea
E Amilorid
Diuretic drug was prescribed to the patient with
hypertension in the course of complex treatment. In a
few days BP decreased but signs of hypokaliemia
developed. What drug could cause such
complications?
A *Lasix
B Spironolactone
C Clophelin
D Triamterene
E Enalapril
6
A 65 year old female patient suffers from chronic
renal insufficiency accompanied by evident edemata
caused by chronic glomerulonephritis. What diuretic
should be administered for forced diuresis?
A *Furosemide
B Hydrochlorothiazide
C Chlorthalidone
D Cyclometazide
E Acetazolamide
1.The diuretic agent in dosage 0,025 g 2 times a day had been
prescribed to the patient with the beginning stage of idiopathic
hypertension. In 7-8 days, the arterial pressure had slightly
decreased, but he began to complain of pain in the heart region,
muscle weakness, and tremor. The analysis of blood has revealed
hypokalemia. Which from the listed drugs may cause this side
effect
A. * Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Spironolactonum
С Triamterenum
D. Amilorid
E. Mannit
3. A patient had taken celanidum for long time due to chronic
heart failure. The physician administered to him dichlothiazidum
to eliminate leg edemas. Which drug should be taken together
with the diuretic to prevent hypokalemia?
A. *Kalii chloridum
B. Calcii chloridum
С. Unithiolum
D. Natrii sulfas
E. Magnii sulfas
4. A patient has been treated for a long time with cardiac
glycoside digoxinum in connection with congestive heart failure.
Now the patient's state is stable, but there are remaining edemas
on the legs and face. What diuretic should be taken to avoid sideeffects caused by simultaneous administration of cardiac
glycosides and diuretics?
A. *Spironolactonum
B. Oxodolinum
C. Dlchlothiazidum
D. Diacarbum
E. Cyclomethiazidum
6. The usage of dichlotiazide, etacrinic acid and furosemide did
not cause marked diuretic effect in the patient with marked
peripheral edemas. The aldosterone level in the blood is
increased. Indicate which medicine should be prescribed:
A. *Spironolactone
B. Mannit
C. Amilorid
D. Clopamid
E. Urea
7. A doctor administered Allopurinol to a 26-year-old man with the
symptoms of gout. What pharmacological action of Allopurinol
ensures therapeutical effect?
A. *Inhibition of uric acid synthesis
B. Increase of uric acid excretion
C. Inhibition of leucocyte migration into the joint
D. Analgesic effect
E. Antinflammatory effect
8. Indicate the diuretic agent which should be used to treat
pulmonary edema
A. *Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorthiazide
С. Triamteren
D. Spironolactone
E. Acetazolamide (diacarbum)
THE AGENTS AFFECTING THE MYOMETRIUM TONE
AND CONTRACTILE ABILITY.
A 45 year old woman had referred to her gynaecologist with
complaints of menorragia. The doctor had administered
ergometrinum, which helped the woman. Specify the main effect of
the drug.
A. * Produces spastic contraction of the myometrium
B. Accelerates process of coagulation
С Oppresses proliferation of the endometrium cells
D Produces vasoconstriction endotheliocytes
E. Produces rhythmic contractions of the myometrium
5. 1 ml of an agent causing contraction of the myometrium was
introduced intramuscularly to a woman after abortion. In few
minutes she began to complain of headache. AP -160l100 mm Hg.
Earlier she had initial stage of arterial hypertension. Choose among
the following drugs which is preferred in this case, taking into
account the woman had inclination to arterial hypertension
A. *Oxytocin
B. Pituitrinum
С. Serotoninl adlpinas
D. Hyphitocinum
E. Mammophysinum
THE AGENTS AFFECTING FUNCTIONS OF THE
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
A patient suffering from chronic bronchitis takes a
synthetic mucolytic drug that facilitates the sputum
thinning. What drug is it?
A *Acetylcysteine
B Diazepam
C Heparin
D Furosemide
E Enalapril
A 70-year-old man, who suffered from chronic
bronchitis, was prescribed medicine for the cough codeine. What is the mechanism of anticoughing
effect?
A *Central
B Reflex
C Competitive
D Local effect
E Peripheral effect
1. А patient had been suffering from chronic bronchitis, was
treated with an expectorant drug. In a week the symptoms of
rhinitis, tearing, itching of the skin and rashes appeared. What
agent may cause these side effects?
A. * Potassium iodide
B. Terpinhydratum
С Acetylcysteinum
D. Infusum herbae Thermopsidis
E. Alatriihydrocarbonas
2. A 40 year old patient has been suffering from bronchial
asthma, accompanied with cardiac arrythmia (tachycardia) for 10
years. Indicate adrenomimetic which should be administered for
treatment taking into account accompanied disease.
A. *Salbutamol
B. Adrenaline
С. Isadrinum
D. Orciprenalin
E. Ephedrine
3. Indicate broncholytic which should be administered to a
patient suffering from bronchial asthma accompanied with
stenocardia.
A *Salbutamol
B. Ephedrine
С. Isadrinum
D. Orciprenalin
E. Adrenaline
4. A child was born with asphyxia. What agent is it necessary
to introduce for stimulation of breath?
А. Promedolum
B.*Aetlumlzole
7
C. Prazozin
D. Atropine
E. Proserinum
5. To specify an analeptic which possesses sedative activity and
can be used as desensibilizing agent in bronchial asthma
A. *Aethimizole
B. Camphor
С. Cordiaminum
D. Carbogen
E. Dimedrolum
6. Indicate antitussive agent possessing properties of opioid
analgesics
A.*Codeine
В. Libexinum
C. Tussuprex
D. Glaucine
E. Falimlnt
7. An antitussive agent (1 tablet 3 times a day) was
administered to a patient. Cough has decreased but the patient
has started complaining of dizziness, general weakness and
arterial hypotension has been' revealed. Indicate the drug.
A. *Glaucine
В. Codeine
С Libexinum (prenoxdiazine)
D. Oxeladine
E. Faiimint
8. Indicate the drug oppressing a peripheral link of cough
reflex
A. * Libexinum
В. Codeine phosphate
С. Ethylmorphine hydrochloride
D. Bromhexinum
E. Atropine suifate
9. Thes mechanism of expectorant' action of Thermopsis
herb infusion is:
A. *It stimulates bronchial secretion reflexively irritating the
stomach receptors
B. Directly stimulates peristalsis of bronchial smooth muscles
С. It destroys proteins of sputum
D. Irritates bronchial glands during excretion that leads to
stimulation of their secretion
E. It inhibits the cough center
10. Indicate an expectorant agent possessing the reflex type of
action
A, * Thermopsis herb infusion
B. Bromhexinum
С. Acetylcysteine
D. Trypsine
E. Potassium iodide
І
11. A patient with acute bronchitis I suffers from intolerable dry
cough. What from enumerated below agents 'can transform dry
cough into wet cough?
A. *Thermopsis grass infusion
B. Codeine phosphate
С. Libexinum
D. Glaucine hydrochloride
E. Falimint
12. Indicate an expectorant agent that is an inorganic substance
and is usually used orally as a solution, rarely as an inhalation,
ft exerts direct irritating action on bronchial glands.
A. *Kalium iodide
В. Bromhexinum
C. Trypsin
D. Acetylcysteine
E. Libexinum
13. Mark the group of drugs used for elimination of bronchial
asthma attacks
A. *Beta-adrenomimetics
B. M-chotinomimetics
С. Sympatholytics
D. Beta-adrenoblockers
E. M-chotinomimetics
14. A patient with bronchial asthma was treated with the combined
drug in tablets that caused insomnia, irritability, headache and rise of
arterial pressure. What agent could cause these side-effects?
A. *Ephedrine
B. Adrenaline
C. Libexinum
D. Euphyliinum
E. Furosemide
15. A patient suffering from bronchial asthma was treated with the
drug which caused in several days insomnia and tachycardia.
Indicate this drug.
A. * Ephedrine
B. Plathyphylline
С. Adrenaline
D. Euphyllinum (aminiphylline)
E. Salbutamolum
16. Indicate the mechanism broncholytic effect of adrenaline
A. * Stimulation of beta2-adrenoceptors
B. Stimulation of beta1 and beta2-adnenoceptors
С Blockade of beta2-adrenoreceptors
D. Stimulation of alfa1 and alfa2-adrenoceptors
E. Blockade of N-cholinoceptors
17. Indicate the diuretic agent which should be used to treat
pulmonary edema
A. *Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorthiazide
С. Triamteren
D. Spironolactone
E. Acetazolamide (diacarbum)
18. Indicate the drug used for elimination of pulmonary edema
caused by systemic arterial hypertension.
A. * Pentaminum
B. Strophanthin
С Bemegridum
D. Cordiaminum
E. Spiritus aethylicus
19. Indicate the drug used in pulmonary edema accompanying by
formation of foam to decrease superficial tension of bubbles to
turn foam into
A. *Spiritus aethylicus
B. Pentaminum
С. Strophanthin
D. Bemegridum
E Cordiaminum (nikethamide)
THE AGENTS INFLUENCING FUNCTIONS OF THE
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
A 37-year-old man was admitted to the surgical
department with symptoms of acute pancreatitis:
vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia,
hypotention,
weakness, dehydration of the organism. What
medicine should be used first of all?
A *Contrycal
B No-spa
C Platyphylline
D Etaperazine
E Ephedrine
A patient suffering from chronic hyperacidic gastritis
takes an antacid drug for heartburn elimination. After
its ingestion the patient feels better but at the same
time he has a sensation of stomach swelling. Which
of the following drugs might be the cause of such
side effect?
A *Sodium hydrocarbonate
B Magnesium oxide
C Magnesium trisilicate
D Aluminium hydrooxide
E Pepsin
A liquidator of a breakdown at a nuclear power plant
who was irradiated complained about vomiting that
8
occurs all of a sudden. What medication should be
prescribed?
A *Metoclopramide
B Reserpine
C Atropine
D Aeron
E De-Nol
1. The patient was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis:
peptic ulcer of the duodenum bulbus. Analysis of his gastric
juice revealed increased acidity. Choose the agent which
decreases the secretory ability of gastric glands due to blockade
of H2-histaminic receptors.
A. *Panitidinum
B. Extract of belladonna
C. Atropinum
D. Methacinum
E. Platyphytlinum
2. A 25 year-old man, suffering from peptic ulcer of the
stomach, has been treated with omeprasole. In 3 weeks the ulcer
was healed. What mechanism of action does this drug produce?
A. * Blockade of H+-K+-ANP-ase (the proton pump)
B. Blockade of M-cholinoceptors
С. Blockade of synthesis of Gastrin
D. Blockade of H+-K+-ANP аsе
E. Blockade of H1 histaminic receptors
3. Patient who had been suffering from chronic gastritis was
treated with an antacidic drug, after introduction of which he felt
better however at the same time he experienced bloating of the
stomach together with eructation. Indicate the drug which might
cause this side effect.
A. *Natrii hydrocarbonas
В. Magnesu trisilicate
С. Magnesii oxydum
D. Almagel
E Aluminii hydroxydum
4. Indicate the drug to stimulate appetite, mechanism of action
of which is associated with irritation of the mucus membrane of
the oral cavity, that leads to reflex excitation of the hunger
center in the hypothalamus.
A. *Absinthium tincture
В. Phepranonum
C. Desopimonum
D. Fenfluramine
E. Insulin
5. Indicate the drug which increases appetite due to decrease of
glucose concentration in the blood
A. *Insulin
B. Mazindolum
С. Fenfluramine
D. Absinthium tincture
E. Phepranonum
6. A 32 year old patient had been suffering from the ulcer of the
duodenal bulb was treated with Farmotidin which caused him to
feel better. Indicate the mechanism of action of this agent.
A. *Blockade of Н2-histaminic receptors
B. Inhibition of gastrin release
С. Suppression of the function of the gastric mucousal cells
D. Decrease of release of hydrochloric acid
E. Decrease of pepsin release
7. A patient suffering from chronic hypoacidic gastritis with
remained secretory function requires administration of an agent
which is physiological stimulant of the gastric glands. Indicate this
agent
A. *Carbonaceous mineral water
B. Pepsin
С. Histamine
D. Diluted hydrochloric acid
E. Natural gastric juice
8. A patient with essential hypertension was treated for a long
period of time with preparations containing reserpin. During last 23 months he started to suffer from pains in the region of stomach,
heartburn and nausea. The diagnosis of hyperacidic gastritis was
made after the clinical examination. Indicate the group of drugs
which possesses etiotropic curative action in this case.
A. *M-cholinoblockers
B. Astringent agents
С. Antiacidic agents
D. Inhibitors of proton pump
E. H2-histamine receptors blockers
9. Indicate the remedy increasing bile secretion:
A. *Oxaphenamidum
B. Apomorphine
С. Cimetidine
D. Almagel
E. No-Spa (drotaverine)
10. Indicate the agent which stimulates contraction of gall bladder
smooth muscle and causes evacuation of bile into the intestine?
A. *Magnesium sulfate in enteral introduction
B. Magnesium sulfate in parenteral introduction
С. Dehydrocholic acid
D. Legaion (silimar in)
E. No-Spa (drotaverine)
11. Indicate the agent which may be used in an attack of biliary
colic to relax smooth muscles?
A. *Platyphyllinum
B. Paracetamolum
С. Analginum (metamizole)
D. Pentazocine
E. Morphine
12. A 40 years old patient was admitted to the hospital with the
biliary colic attack. What agent should be administered in this
case?
A. *No-spa (drotaverine)
B. Almagel
С Pancreatin
D. Contrycal (aprotinine)
E. Metoclopramide
13. Indicate the drug from the group of myotropic spasmolytics
which is suitable to eliminate pain in intestinal colic
A. *Papaverine
B. Neostigmine (proserinum)
C. Piridostigmine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Prazosine
14. Indicate a cholagogue agent used for treatment of chronic
cholecystitis
A. *Allocnolum
B. Absinthium (sagebrush) tincture
С. Metoclopramide
D. Almagel
E. Plathyphyllin
15. Specify an agent from the group of hepatoprotectors which
restores normal structure and function of hepatocytes, used in
different liver deseases.
A. * Essentiale
B. Tetracycline
С. Cholenzymum
D. Tocopherol acetate
E. Allocholum
16. Indicate the drug, which is used in chronic pancreatitis,
accompanied by enzymesT insufficiency, for improvement of
digestion processes.
A. *Festalum
B. Pepsin
С Acidin-pepsinum
D. Natural gastric Juice
E. Diluted nydrocnloric acid
17. Why is contrycal (aprotinine) used in the case of acute
9
pancreatitis?
A. *It inactivates trypsin which causes autolysis of pancreas
B. It opens Oddies sphincter
С. It reduces the activity of hyaluronidase
D. It impairs secretion of trypsinogen
E. It oppresses secretion of bile
18. Indicate an anti-enzymatic agent inhibiting activity of
trypsin, kallikrein and fibrinolysis
A. *Confrykal (aprotinine)
B. Cholenzymum
E. Pancreatin
D. Pancreozymin
E. Festal
19. A 37-year-old man was admitted to the surgical department
with the symptoms of pancreatitis: vomiting, diarrhea,
bradycardia, hypotension, weakness, dehydration. What
medicine should be used first of all?
A. *Contrycal
B. Etaperazine
C. No-spa
D. Platyphylline
E. Ephedrine
THE AGENTS INFLUENCING THE BLOOD
COAGULATION, ERYTHRO- AND LEUCOPOIESIS.
Before tooth extraction a patient was advised to take
a certain drug for haemorrhage prevention. What
drug was advised?
A *Vicasolum
B Heparin
C Asparcam
D Magnesium sulfate
E Dimedrol
A patient ill with essential hypertension was
recommended a drug that prevents thrombosis. It is
to be taken parenterally. What drug is it?
A *Heparin
B Amben
C Protamine sulfate
D Neodicumarin
E Syncumar
1. The patient was admitted to the traumatologic department due
to fracture of chin bones, damages of soft tissues and massive
bleeding. Examination revealed paleness of the skin, pain in
palpation of area of trauma, swelling of the skin, bleeding on the
whole surface of the wound. Specify a drug for local use to stop
the bleeding.
A. * Thrombinum
B. Calcii chloridum
С. Vikasolum
D. Aminocapronic acid
E. Ambenum
2. Drugs delaying blood coagulation (anticoagulants) are used for
prevention and treatment of thrombosis. Specify an anticoagulant
which antagonist is protamine sulfate.
A. * Heparinum
B. Meodicoclmarin
C. Syncumarum
D. Phenilinum
E. Sodium hydrocitrate
3. A patient was delivered to a hospital with complaints of loss of
appetite, decrease of body weight, fatigue, pain around the epigastric
area. Examination of the blood revealed megaloblastic anemia.
Specify the main agent for the treatment of this disease.
A. *Cyanocobalaminum
B. Ferri lastas
C. Folic acid
D. Fercovenum
E. Coamidum
4. Specify the antagonist of the anticoagulants with indirect action.
A. *Vikasolum
B. Fercovenum
С Pentoxylum
D. Protamini sulfas
E. Contrykalum
5. Specify the coagulant agent available for local use only (to stop
bleedings from small blood vessels).
A. *Hemostatic sponge
B. Vikasolum
С Calcii chtoridum
D. Fibrinogen
E. Aminocapronic acid
6. Specify the thrombolytic agent which belongs to with direct
action plasma proteins.
A. *Fibrinolysin
В. Streptokinase
C. Contrycalum
D. Urokinase
E. Streptodecase
7. Inhibition of leukopoiesis is observed in a 43 years old
roentgenologist. The amount of leukocytes 3,5*109/l. Specify the
agent to be used for correction of leukopoiesis.
A. *Pentoxylum
B. Ferroplexum
С. Hemostimulinum
D. Cvanocobalaminum
E. Ascorbic acid
VITAMINS
In order to accelerate healing of a radiation ulcer a
vitamin drug was administered. What drug is it?
A *Retinol acetate
B Retabolil
C Prednisolone
D Levamisole
E Methyluracil
A 64 year old woman has impairment of twilight vision
(hemeralopy). What vitamin should be recommended
in the first place?
A *Vitamin A
B Vitamin B2
C Vitamin E
D Vitamin C
E Vitamin B6
A patient presents with twilight vision impairment.
Which of the following vitamins should be
administered?
A *Retinol acetate
B Cyanocobalamin
C Pyridoxine hydrochloride
D Ascorbic acid
E Nicotinic acid
A patient suffers from vision impairment hemeralopy (night blindness). What vitamin
preparation should be administered the patient in
order to restore his vision?
A *Retinol acetate
B Vicasol
C Pyridoxine
D Thiamine chloride
E Tocopherol acetate
1. A 64 year old woman suffers from night blindness
(hemeralopia). What vitamin drug should be recommended?
A. * Retinolum
B. Riboflavin
С. Tocopherolum
D. Pyridoxinum
E. Ascorbic acid
10
2. A 58 year old woman suffers from cerebral atherosclerosis.
Complex of her pharmacotherapy includes drug of vitamin E &
С. Which pharmacological effect of these drugs is the main for
treatment of this disease?
A. * Inhibition of free-radical oxidation of lipids
B. Increase of gonadotropic hormones synthesis in the pituitary
body
С. Decrease of glucocorticoids release by adrenals
D. Strengthening of the antitoxic function of the liver
E. Improvement of the coronary circulation
3. A patient who had been taking л vitamin drug for the
prevention of cerebrovascular spastic reactions began to
complain of unpleasnt feelings: hyperemia of the face and upper
part of the body, vertigo, feeling of blood influx into the head.
What drug may cause these side-effects
A. *Nicotinic acid
В. Tocopheroli acetas
C. Nicotinamidum
D. Thiamin/ bromidum
E. Calcii pangamas
4. A patient had been taking vitamin D for a long time for
treatment of rickets. Soon the signs of vitamin D intoxication
developed: loss of appetite, nausea, headache, fatigue, increase of
body temperature, etc. What vitamin decreasing the toxic
influence of vitamin D should be administered?
A *Vitamin A
B. Vitamin С
C. Vitamin В12
D. Vitamin PP
E. Vitamin B2
5. A 55 year old patient was admitted to the haemotological
department with signs of acute anemia. After laboratory
examination megaloblastic hyperchromic anemia was diagnosed,
which drug must be administered to the patient first of all?
A. *Cyanocobalaminum
B. Hemostimulinum
C. Ferroplexum
D. Ferrum-Lek
E. Folic acid
6. A 55 year old patient suffering from hyperchromic anemia
obtained long-term treatment with vitamin В12 parenterally. Why
the parenteral way of introduction of vitamin B12 is prefered
more than the peroral way?
A.*It isn't absorbed in the intestine in oral introduction due to
deficit of gastromucoproiein
B. It is faster absored
С It is longer circulated in the blood
D. It is faster penetrated to the bone marrow
E. it isn't destroied in the liver
7. A patient has diarrhoea, dementia and dermatitis. What vitamin
has to be included into the complex pharmacotherapy?
A. *Nicotinic acid
B. Thiaminum
C. Cyanocobalaminum
D. Panthotenic acid
E. Riboflavinum
8.There is an inhibited coagulation in the patient with bile ducts
obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of absorbtion of a
vitamin. What vitamin is in deficiency?
A. *Vitamin К
B. Vitamin D
С. Carotene
D. Vitamin A
E. Vitamin E.
9. A patient with diabetes mellitus is treated by injections of
vitamin B1 to eliminate metabolic acidosis. Which biochemical
mechanism of action of vitamin B1 ensures the positive effect?
A. * Activation of dehydrogenases of the Krebs cycle
B. Activation of adenylate cyclase
С. Blockade or phosphodiesterase
D. Acceleration of acetylcholine synthesis
E. Acceleration of adrenaline synthesis
10. Metabolic acidosis arose in a patient due to impairment of
carbohydrate metabolism and accumulation of ketoacids in the
organism, indicate the vitamin drug which promotes its
elimination due to decrease concentration of ketoacids.
A. *Thiamine
B. Pyridoxins
С. Folic acid
D. Riboflavine
E. Ascorbic acid
11. A patient suffers from chronic alcoholism with the following
symptoms: pain in arms and legs, impairment of skin sensitivity,
muscle weakness, edemas and increased amount of pyruvate. Which
vitamin drug should be prescribed to the patient?
A. * Thiamine
B. Ergocalciferol
C. Retinol
D. Rutin
E. Vikasoium (Menadione)
12. 55 years old patient was admitted to the hematological
department with acute anemia: RBCs - 1,5 x 1012/litre; Hb - 80g%,
colour index - 1,3. Hyperchromic anemia was diagnosed. Which
drug should be administered for treatment of this disease?
A. *Cyanocobalamine
B. Ferroplexum
С. Hemostimuline
D. Ferrum-lek
E. Folic acid
13.Which of the acids below decreases permeability of
connective tissue structures, possesses antioxidant activity due
to ability to be transformed from the oxydized form into
reduced and on the contrary?
A. * Ascorbic acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Mefenamic acid
D. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
E. Aminocaproic acid
14. For synthesis of the basic substances of connective tissue
(mucopolysaccharides and collagen) an essential agent is:
A. * Ascorbic acid
B. Nicotinic acid
С. Folic acid
D. Salicylic acid
E. Acetylsalicylic acid
15. Radiation therapy is performed to the patient. What vitamin
drug with antioxidant properties is necessary for administration
to increase stability of tissues in this case?
A. * Ascorutinum
B. Vitamin B6
С Thiamine chloride
D. Cyanocobaiamine
E. Folic acid
16. The woman of 25 years who anted to get thin was on a diet
hich consisted of 2 cups of coffee ithout sugar, 3 crackers from
white bread, 2 sausages or 2 eggs in a day within 1,5 months.
The mass of a body has dropped on 5 kg, but there were
developed strong headaches, often nasal bleedings, bleeding,
sickness of gums, shaking of teeth, -.helling of sfcin and
shedding of hair.What vitamin drug is expedient in this (ase?
A. *Ascorbic acid
B. Folic acid
C. Retinol acetate
D. Cyancobalamine
E. Vikasolum (Menadione)
17. The patient who was treated by a vitaminic drug for
prophylaxis of vasospasms of the brain, has developed
complaints of the unpleasant sensations related to taking of this
medicine: reddening of the face and the upper half of a trunk,
giddiness, sence of flush of blood to a head. For what drug the
specified side-effects are characteristic?
11
A. *'Nicotinic acid
B. Nicotinamidum
C. Thiamine bromide
D. Tocoferol acetate
E. Calcium pangamate
18. Bioflavonoids (rutin, quercetin) possess all listed below
pharmacodynamic effects, except for:
A. * Dilation of capillaries
B. Antioxidant activity
C. Inhibition of hyaluronidase activity
D. Decrease of permeability of capillary wall
E. Protections of ascorbic acid, assistance to its transport and
accumulation
19. 64 years old woman suffers from hemeralopia (disturbance
of vision in darkness). What vitaminic drug should be
recommended her first of all?
A. *Retinoli acetate
B. Tocoferol acetate
C. Pyridoxin
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Riboflavin
20. What vitamin promotes growth and development of
epithelial cells, including epidermal ones?
A. *Retinol
B. Ergocalciferol
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Lipoic acid
21. 39 years old patient suffers from hyperkeratosis, disturbance
of vision in darkness, frequent infectious diseases. What
vitaminic drug should be administered for treatment .
A. *Retinol acetate
B. Pyridoxin
С. Riboflavin
D. Ergocalciferol
E. Tocoferol acetate
22. What vitamin is formed in skin under
influence of ultraviolet radiation?
A. *Cholecalciferol
B. Ascorbinic acid
C. Retinole acetate
D. Calcium pantotenate
E. Riboflavin
23. To the child with signs of rachitis the pediatrist and the
"dentist administered a liposoluble vitamin which influences an
exchange of phosphorus and calcium in an organism, promotes
sedimentation of calcium in bone tissue and dentins. Determine a
drug.
A. *Ergocalciferol
B. Tocoferol acetate
С. Retinoli acetate
D. Vikasolum (Menadione)
E. Thyreoidinum
24. Parasthesia, xeroderma arid sticking out of fontanel are
observsed at the 6 months child under the treatment by a vitaminic
drug. Specify this drug.
A. *Ergocalciferol
B. Pyridoxine
С. Riboflavin
D. Retinoli acetate
E. Tocoferol acetate
25. The dentist administered to his patient liposoluble vitamin with
antioxidant activity for treatment of parodontitis. Specify this
vitaminic drug.
A. * Tocoferol acetate
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Rutin
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Ergocalciferol
26.A doctor administered tocoferol acetate to a patient with
ischemic heart disease. What effect of a drug does the doctor
expect?
A. *Antioxidant
B. Spasmolytic
С. Hypotensive
D. Increase of oxygen delivery to myocardium
E. Positive inotropic
27. What enzymatic drug is used with the purpose of dropping of
density and rising of permeability of connective tissue structures?
A. *Lidase
B. Lipase
С. Cocarboxylase
D. Cholines terase
E. Amylase
PLASMA SUBSTITUTES. AGENTS FOR CORRECTION
OF WATER-SALT BALANCE
1. A patient was admitted to the intensive care unit after taking a
large dose of Phenobarbitalum with the purpose of suicide.
Investigation of the patient revealed respiratory olic acidosis. What
drug should be used for the correction of acid-base state?
A * Trisaminum
B. Sodium chloride
C. Calcium chloride
D. Ammonium chloride
E. Potassium chloride
2. During treatment of the patient with digitoxin, extrasystoles,
muscle weakness, diarrhea, vomiting, and impairment of vision
developed. What drugs should be used to eliminate these signs of
intoxication?
A. * Drugs of potassium
B. Drugs of calcium
С. Iron preparations
D. Drugs of sodium
E. Drugs of magnesium
3. What agent acts as magnesium ions' antagonist and is used in
overdosage of parenteral introduction of magnesium sulphatis?
A. *Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Iron
E. Bromine
4. Specify the drug which eliminate both intra- and extracellular
acidosis.
A. *Trisaminum
B. Natrii hydrocarbonas
С. Natrii lactas
D. Ammonii chioridum
E. Natrii hydroxydum
5. Specify the drug of first choice to be administered in a 7-year
old child with multiple caries.
A. *Calcii glycerophosphas
B. Calcii gluconas
С. Calcii chloridurn
D. Calcii hydroxydum
E. Calmecinum
6. The worker who several days ago started working in foundry,
was addressed to the doctor with complaints of headache,
nausea. Due to excessive diaphoresis he drank nearly 5 liters of
tap water per day. What drug will promptly and effectively
eliminate the specified signs and normalize state of the worker?
A. * Sodium chloride
B. Decamevitum
С Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)
D. Analginum (methamizole)
E. Pentalginum
7. Ketoacidosis and dyspnoe are observed at the patient with
non-compensated diabetes mellitus. Which drug should be used
for normalization of patient’s state?
A. *Sodium hydrocarbonate
12
B. Naloxone
C. Bemegride
D. Pananginum
E. Ammonium chloride
E. Polydesum
PRINCIPLES OF TREATMENT OF ACUTE POISONINGS
BY DRUGS
8. It is necessary to eliminate ketoacidosis at the patient with
sugar diabetes complicated by hyperglycemic coma. What
solution, being the intracellular buffer, can be administered?
A. * Trisamine (trometamol)
B. Solution of Sodium hydrocarbonate
С. Solution of Sodium lactate
D. Neohemodesum
E. Ringer’s solution
1. A 38 year-old patient was admitted to a hospital due to acute
poisoning with mercury dichloride. Indicate the antidote which
should be introduced to the patient immediately.
A. * Unithiolum
B. Dipyroximum
С. Atropinum
D. Nalorphinum
E. Isonitrosinum
9.Ths patient suffering from ollagenosis has been treated for a
long time by Prednisolone in a dose of 30 mq per day. Recently
he has started to complain of painful convulsions of skeletal
muscles of lower extremities. What agent may be used or
improvement of patient's state?
A * Panangin
В. Ergocatciferol
С. Calcitonin
D Diazepam
E. Aminazine (chlorpromazine)
2. A patient was admitted to a hospital by the ambulance due to
acute poisoning with morphine. Indicate the agent which is used for
gastric lavage in this situation.
A. *Potassium permanganate
B. Natrii hydrocarbonas
С. Furacilinum
D. Tanninum
E. Boric acid
10. The patient was admitted to the hospital with signs of
dehydration. The doctor has immediately administered him
intravenous infusion of Sodium chloride. At what situation is
necessary to use this drug?
A. *Cholera
B. Toxicosis of pregnancy
C. Osteoporosis
D. Edemas
E. Arthritis
3. In a patient with syphilis there are grey stains on the oral cavity
mucosa and the signs of nephropathy developed during treatment
with bismuth compounds. Specify the agent which is used as
antidote in poisonings by bismuth compounds,
A. *Unithiolum
В. Nalorphine
С. Bemegridum
D. Naloxone
E. Methylen blue
11. Convulsions and laryngospasm have developed at the patient
with hypoparathyrosis. Laboratory examination revealed
significant decrease of calcium ions concentration in the blood
and slight elevation of pH. Which drug should be introduced for
correction of metabolic alkalosis?
A. *Ammonium chloride
B. Trisamine
C. Magnesium oxide
D. Aluminium hydroxide
E. Sodium hydrocarbonate
4. A patient after drinking unknown liquid was admitted to a
hospital with complaints of stomachache, pain in gullet and
diarrhea with little amount of blood. Under examination hyperemia
of throat mucous membranes, gums' bleeding, lymphatic nodes
enlargement and metallic aftertaste were revealed. Within 2-3 days
renal insufficiency was developed. Determine the agent which
caused named above symptoms:
A. *Salts of heavy metals
B. Furacilinum
С. Ethylic alcohol
D. Boric acid
E. Atropine
12. Which of plasma substitutes listed below circulates in the
blood for a long time?
A. * Rheopolyglucinum
B. 5% glucose solution
С. 0.9% solution of Sodium chloride
D. Ringer-Locke solution
5. After treatment with bismuth preparation, a patient with syphilis
developed symptoms of kidney insuffuciency and gray strains on
mouth mucous membranes. Indicate a drug a doctor has to use as
specific antidote in the case:
A. *Unithiol
B. Bemegrid
С. Nalorphine
D. Naloxone
E. Methylenum coeruleum (methylene blue)
6. A 38 years-old male was admitted to ICU of a hospital with
severe poisoning by mercury chloride. Determine specific
antidote:
A. *Unithiol
B. Dipiroxime
С. Atropine
D. Nalorphine
E. Isonitrosine
CHEMOTHERAPEUTICAL DRUGS
ANTISEPTICS AND DESINFECTANTS
Burned skin surface was treated with a certain
preparation. Its antiseptic properties are provided by
atomic oxygen that is formed in presence of organic
substances. What preparation was applied?
A *Potassium permanganate
B Furacillin
C Chlorhexidine bigluconate
D Alcoholic iodine solution
E Sodium hydrocarbonate
Patient with abscess of the cut wound applied to the
traumatological department. Doctor for
the cleaning of the wound from the pus washed it
with 3% hydrogen peroxide. Foam was
absence. What caused the absents on the drug
activity?
A *Inherited insufficiency of catalase
B Low concentration $H_{2}O_{2}$
C Inherited insufficiency phosphatdehydrogenase of
erythrocyte
D Shallow wound
E Pus in the wound
For the preparation of a patient's burn skin surface a
certain medication was used. Its
antiseptic action is provided by free oxygen that
segregates in presence of organic
substances. Choose the right answer:
A *Potassium permanganate
B Furacilin
C Chlorhexidine
D Boric acid
13
E Sodium bicarbonate
1. The patient addressed to the doctor in relation with trauma of
the foot. The foot was bandaged with a dirty gauze bandage,
impregnated with purulent discharges. Attempt to take off a
bandage for survey and processings of a wound invoked an
acute pain as the bandage had stuck to wound surface. Choose
an antiseptic which will facilitate taking off of a bandage and
will mechanically clear a wound of mud and pus.
A. * Hydrogen peroxide
В. Aethacridinum lactate
С. Aethonium
P. Potassium permanganate
E. Furacilinum
2. The patient addressed to the doctor with complaints of
pustular pimples on the skin of the face. In bacteriological
analysis of contents of pustules staphylococcus aureus was
found and the diagnosis of staphylococcal pyodermia was
given. Choose the most efficient drug from the listed antiseptics
for local use in pustular pimples.
A.* Brilliant green
B. Ethyl alcohol
С. Chlorhexidinum
P. Potassium permanganate
E. Aethacridinum lactate
3. A patient addressed to г ophthalmologist with complaints of
eye discomfort, discharge of purulent exudate, disorders of
vision. Specify the antiseptic available for rinsing of the eyes.
A. *Silver nitrate
B. Lugol's solution
С Potassium permanganate
P. Salicylic acid
E. Ammonium solution
4. In a patient with varicose dilation of veins the trophic ulcer
of the leg developed. The bacteriological examination of the
ulcer discharge revealed Staphylococcus infection. For the
local treatment of the ulcer an antiseptic in the form of
ointment from the group of detergents was administered.
Specify it.
A. *Ethonium
B. Brilliant green
С Furacil/inum
D. Potassium permanganate
E. Ethacridini iactas
5. Which acid possesses the properties of an antiseptic?
A. *Boric acid
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Folic acid
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Dehydrocholic acid
6. Specify the antiseptic which is used for disinfection of operation
field and surgeon's hands.
A. *70% solution of ethyl alcohol
B. Furacilinum
C. Ethonium
D. Potassium permanganate
E. 95% solution of ethyl alcohol
7. Determine the following drug: it contains an halogen, exerts
antimicrobial and deodorizing action, is used for disinfection of
non-metal instruments, as an antiseptic - for processing of hands
A.*Chloraminum
B. Hydregen peroxide
C. Formaldehyde
D. Phenol
E. Resorcinum
8. A patient was admitted into the emergency department in
relation with acute poisoning - by mistake he drank mercury
dichloride solution. The patient complained of severe pain in the
oral cavity, along the esophagus and in the epigastric area,
hypersalivation, fatigue, tachycardia. Specify the agent which
would neutralize the absorbed mercury binding to it.
A. *5% solution of unithiolum intramuscularly
B. Methylene blue with 5% glucose solution intravenously
solution of sodium
C. 4% solution of sodium carbonate intravenously
D. 2% solution of sodium nitrite intravenously
E. 2% solution of furosemide
9. All antiseptics possess ail following properties except:
A *Selective antimicrobic action
B. Versatile antimicrobic action
С. Bactericidal action
D. Highly toxic for human
E. Are not introduced parenterally
10. Chloramine possesses all following effects, except:
A. *Antiallergical
B. Deodorization
C. Antiseptic
D. Spermicidal
E. Fading
11. Formaldehyde solution is used for disinfection of non-metallic
surgical tools. Indicate the correct name of group of formaldehyde:
A. * Aliphatic agents
B.
C.
D.
E.
Aromatic agents
Spirits
Halogen-maintained agents
Detergents
12. 70% solution of aethyl spirit was used by a surgeon for
cleaning his hands before operation. Explain the mechanism of
action of the antiseptic drug:
A. *Protein dehydration of microbes protoplasm
B. Blockade of sulfhydryl groups of enzymes
C. Oxidation of organic components of microbes 'protoplasm
D. Interaction with aminogroups of protoplasm proteins of
microbes
E. Interaction with hydroxilic groups of microbes enzymes
13. A doctor used 5% spirituous solution of iodine for cleaning of
operation field. Indicate its mechanism of action:
A. *Interaction with amino groups of microbes 'proteins that
disposes to their denaturation
B. Dehydration protoplasm's proteins
C. Bound to enzymes' sulfhydric groups
D. Formation of albuminates
E. inhibition of dehydrogenase
14. A female suffers from varicose veins dilatation of lower
extremity which is complicated by ulceration on ankle. The ulcer
is accompanied by local hyperemia and itching around and
discharges pus with staphylococci. An antiseptic ointment from
the group of detergents was administered for treatment. After
treatment all of the symptoms are diminished. Indicate the drug:
A. * Ethonium
B. Furacilhium fnitrofuran)
С Viride nitens (brilliant green)
D. Aethacrydine lactate
E. Potassium permanganate
SULFONAMIDES AND OTHER SYNTHETIC
ANTIBACTERIAL AGENTS
Patient with pneumonia has intolerance to
antibiotics. Which of the conbined sulfanilamide
medicines should be prescribed to the patient?
A *Biseptol
B Aethazol
C Natrium sulfacyl
D Streptocid
E Sulfadimethoxine
A 7 year old child is ill with bronchitis. It is necessary
to administer him an antibacterial
drug. What drug of fluoroquinolone group is
14
\textbf{CONTRA-INDICATED} at this age?
A *Cyprofloxacin
B Ampicillin
C Amoxicillin
D Sulfadimethoxine
E Ampiox
Gonorrhoea was revealed in the patient on
bacterioscopy of the smear from urethra. Taking into
account that medecines for gonorrhoea are
fluorquinolones, patient should be prescribed:
A *Ciprofloxacin
B Furazolidone
C Fluorouracil
D Urosulfan
E Cefazoline
1. The doctor administered Sulfadimezinum in tablets to the
patient with bacterial infection, and advised to take the drug with
alkaline mineral water. Indicate the purpose of the given
reference.
A. * For prophylaxis of crystallization of acetylated
derivants of the drug in renal tubules
B. For prolongation of action
С For reducing of the irritative action on the stomach
D. For neutralization of HCl of a gastric juice
E. For shift of blood pH in the alkaline side
2. A 37 year-old patient was admitted to an infectious diseases
hospital with the diagnosis of dysentery. Indicate the drug which
should be appointed to the patient?
A. * Ciprofloxacin
B. Erythromycin
С. Oxacillinum
D. Phenylsalicylate
E. Imodium
3. Specify the sulfonamide drug which is poorly absorbed in the
intestine and is used for the treatment of intestinal infections.
A. *Phthalazolum
B. Ethazolum
С. Sulfadimethoxinum
D. Sulfadimezinum
E. Sulfacylum-natrium
4. Specify the sulfonamide agent for the treatment of
conjunctivitis.
A. *Sulfacylum-natrium
B. Phthalazolum
С. Urosulfanum
D. Sulfadimezinum
E. Biseptoium
5.Specify the combined sulfonamide agent.
A. *Biseptolum
B. Ethazolum
С. Sulfacylum-natrium
D. Sulfadimethoxinum
E. Streptocidum
6. A patient visited a physician with complaints of painful and
frequent urination, pain in the lower part of the back. After
laboratory and bacteriologic examination of the urine (it revealed
gram-positive cocci, Proteus, acute cystitis and urethritis were
diagnosed. Specify the agent that should be administered taking
into account the localization of its action.
A. *Nitroxlinum
B. Ethazolum
C.Biseptoium
D. Sulfadimezinum
E. Furasolidonum
6. Specify the antimicrobial drug from the group of 8-oxiquinolirte
derivatives.
A. *Nitroxolinum
B. Biseptoium
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Ciprofloxacinum
E. Furaginum
7. Specify the antimicrobial drug from the group of nitrofurans.
A. *Furaginum
B. Biseptoium
С Nalidixic acid
D. Nitroxolinum
E. Ciprofloxacinum
8. Specify the antimicrobal
fluoroquinolones.
A. *Ciprofloxacinum
B. Biseptoium
С. Nalidixic acid
D. Nitroxolinum
E. Furaginum
drug
from
the
group
of
9. During examination in out-patient department a physician
identified pneumonia and- prescribed in-patient treatment by
ampicillin and cefalexin. However, the patient started treatment at
home with the same antibiotics, dosage and timing prescribed by
the doctor. Within three days the sick person felt better, fever and
cough reduced. The treatment was discontinued and the patient
turned back to work. Next day he/she felt much worse, fever
and cough were developed again, that is why the patient had to
be examined by the physician, indicate please which principle of
chemotherapy was disobeyed by the patient:
A. *Duration of treatment
B. Combined usage of agents
C.The earliest chemotherapy beginning
D. Effective agent choice based on clinical and
bacteriological diagnosis
E. Optimal selection of dosage, timing and
introduction ways of agent
10. Patient with pneumonia was treated by injections of
antibiotic. Determine the type of chemotherapy:
A. *Causal treatment
B. Substitute treatment
C.Preventive treatment
D. Symptomatic treatment
E. Pathogenic treatment
11. Duration of sulfonamide agents' activity depends on:
A. *Affiliate activity with proteins of blood or/and reabsorption
in renal canaliculi
B. Aptitude of enterohepatic circulation
С. Speed of absorption in GIT
D. Level and speed of metabolic biotransformation in liver
E. All named above
12. After antimicrobial treatment of pneumonia within 8 days
patient developed painful urination, pain in kidneys area, the
urine has brown. Indicate the drugs group that used in the case:
A. *Sulfonlamide
B. Lincomycin
C. Β- lactam antibiotic
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Cephaiosporines
13. After long-term treatment by antibiotics at the in-patient
department a patient developed dyspeptic syndrome.
Investigation of stool revealed diminished amount of
Bifidobacterium and Bacillus coli. What is the reason of present
illness?
A. *Disbacteriosis
B. Enteric colibacillosis
C. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
D. Toxic action of the agents
E. Acquisition of nosocomial infection
14. Indicate an antibacterial agent from the group of
fluoroquinolone:
A. *Ciprofloxacin
15
B. Nalidix acid
С. Nitroxolin
D. Furosemide
E. Biceptol
D. Cefazolinum
E. Chloramphenicol
ANTIBIOTICS (I)
A 60-year-old patient was admitted to the surgical
department because of infection caused
by blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa)
which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics.
Indicate which of the given penicillins has marked
activity to the Pseudomonas
aeruginosa?
A *Carbenicillin disodium
B Benzylpenicillin
C Phenoxymethylpenicillin
D Oxacillin
E Methicillin
A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis.
Doctor administered her complex
therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt.
What is the mechanism of action of this
drug?
A *It blocks synthesis of peptidoglycan of microbal
membrane
B It blocks synthesis of cytoplasm proteins
C It blocks thiol enzymes
D It blocks RNA synthesis
E It blocks DNA synthesis
A patient with bacterial pneumonia was prescribed
benzylpenicillin. What is the mechanism
of its antibacterial effect?
A *Inhibition of synthesis of microorganism wall
B Inhibition of intracellular protein synthesis
C Abnormal permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
D Inhibition of SH-groups of microorganism enzymes
E Antagonism with p-amino-benzoic acid
3. A patient was delivered to the surgical department with
anaerobic gangrene. Specify the antibiotic of first choice for the
treatment of this infection.
A. *Benzylpenicillinum natrium
В. Tetracyclinum
С. Clindamycinum
4. Specify the main antibiotic for the treatment of diphtheria.
A. *Erythromycinum
B. Laevomycetinum
С. Cefazolinum
D. Gentamycinum
E. Tetracyclinum
7. Specifу the group of antibiotics whose mechanism of action is
connected with inhibition of synthesis of bacterial ceil wall.
A. *Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Lincosamides
8. Specify the most typical side-effect of penicillins.
A.*Allergic reactions
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Anemia
D. Decrease of audition
E. Hepatotoxic influence
9. Specify the antibiotic from the group of semisynthetic penicillins.
A. *Ampiciilinum
B. Phenoxymethylpenici/linum
C. Benzylpenicillinum natrium
D. Benzylpenicillinum kalium
E. Benzylpenicillinum novocainum
14. Indicate a drug group which oppresses synthesis of cell
membrane components:
A. *Penicillines
B. Tetracyclines
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Lincosamides
E. Macrolides
15. Drug with β-lactam ring was prescribed to a patient with
streptococci gums inflammation. Indicate this drug:
A. *Benzylpenicin
B. Rifampicine
C. Erythromycin
D. Streptomycin sulfate
E. Laevomycetine
16. A patient was admitted to a hospital with diagnosis: gaseous
gangrene. Drugs for its treatment are divided on two groups: basic
and reserve. Indicate the basic antibiotic:
A. *Benzylpenicillin natrium
B. Tetracycline
C. Laevomycetine
D. Clindamycin
E. Cefazolin
17. Cephalosporines possess following properties,
except:
A. *Detergent activity
B. Mechanism of action linked to infringement of microbe
s membrane synthesis
C. Bactericidal activity
D. Distinguished from penicillines by higher persistence
toward β-lactamase
E. Distinguished from penicillines by spectrum of
antimicrobial activity
18. 56-years old male was admitted to a hospital with pneumonia.
It is known he suffers from hay fever and seasonal vasomotor
rhinitis. What drug should be administered in the case?
A. *Cefazolin
B. Benzylpenicillin
С. Bicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Ampiciliin
19. 14-years old boy developed acute pneumonia in low lobe of
the right lung. The agent in sputum analysis was resistant to
penicillin. Choose the drug for treatment in this case:
A. Gentamycin
B. Laevomycetine
С. Streptomycin
D. Tetracycline
E. *Cefazolin
20. Determine drug by following: it oppresses of protein
synthesis by microbes ribosomes because of inhibition of
peptidtranslocase, belongs to reserve macrolide, causes side
effects relatively seldom.
A. *Erythromycin
B. Sygmamycin
С. Tetraolean
D. Azithromycin
E. Tetracycline
23. A patient with diminished hearing has severe bacillary
infection. Which drug group is contradicted to the patient?
A. *Aminoglycosides
B. Peniciltines
C. Cephalosporines
D. Tetracyclines
E. Rifampicines
24. Patient with acute appendicitis, was admitted to a surgical
16
department. Appendectomy was performed. During ten days
after operation patient received an antibiotic. After a while
lowering of hearing were revealed. Indicate drug group with the
same side effects:
A. *Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Polymyxines
D. Macrolides
E. Penicillines
25. Determine the drug for treatment infections of bones that able
to penetrate to bone tissue and bone marrow:
A *Lincomycin
В. Benzylpenicillin
С. Bicitlin-3
D. Gentamycin
E. Synthomycinum
29. A patient with diagnosed streptococcal bronchopneumonia
after treatment with an antibiotic suffers from allergic symptoms.
Determine the drug:
A. *Benzylpenicillin-natrium (penicillin G sodium)
B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamycin
D. Laevomycetineum (chloramphenicol)
E. Doxicycline
30. Infectious agent determined by lab tests is known to be
sensitive to third generation cephalosporins. Choose the drug for
treatment:
A. Cefazolin
B. Cefalexin
С Cefalotin
D. *Cephtriaxone
E. Cefaloridin
31. A patient with bacterial pneumonia was treated by the
erythromycin which acts on microbes by interaction with their
free 50S subunits of ribosomes. What process does this drug
block?
A. *Proteins' synthesis
B. RNA synthesis
C. DNA synthesis
D. Lyposynthesis
E. Polysaccharides' synthesis
26. An antibiotic with ability to penetrate to bones tissue was
prescribed to 30 years old patient with osteomyelitis. After three
weeks of using it the patient felt much better. Determine the
drug:
A. Lincomycin
B. Bicilline-3
C.
D.
E.
Benzylpenicillin
Polymixine M
Ampicillin
2. A patient started to complaint of worsening of audition after
treatment with antibiotic because of purulent complication after the
surgical operation. Specify the group of antibiotics which posses
ototoxic activity.
A. * Aminoglycosides
В Penicillins
С. Tetracyclines
D. Polymyxins
E. Macrolids
ANTIBIOTICS (II). ANTIFUNGAL AGENTS
A patient underwent appendectomy. In the
postoperative period he has been taking an
antibiotic. The patient complains about hearing
impairment and vestibular disorders. What
group of antibiotics has such by-effects?
A *Aminoglycosides
B Penicillins
C Tetracyclines
D Macrolides
E Cephalosporins
A patient has herpetic rash. What medication should be
administered?
A *Acyclovir
B Gentamycin
C Clotrimazole
D Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
E Biseptol
Patient
was admitted to the infection unit with
diagnosis of bacterial dysentery. On laboratory studies
it was revealed that causative element is sensative to
the many antimicrobial medicines, but patient has
anemia. What medicine is contra-indicated to the
patient?
A *Levomycetin
B Phthalazol
C Furazolidone
D Enteroseptol
E Ampicillin
A patient suffers from severe postoperative
pseudomonadous infection. What of the following
antibiotics should be administered in this case?
A *Amicacin sulfate
B Benzylpenicillin
C Cephazolin
D Erythromycin
E Doxycycline
1. The patient with the diagnosis of cholera was admitted to
the infection diseases hospital. Specify a group of antibiotics
of the first choice for treatment of this disease
A. *Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
С. Penicillins
D. Macrolids
E. Cephalosporines
5. A woman addressed to a dentist with complaints of teeth
destruction in her little child. It was revealed that during
pregnancy the woman took antibiotics. Specify the group of
antibiotics that could cause these side-effects.
A. *Tetracyclines
B. Macrolides
C.Penicillins
D. Cephalosporins
E. Aminoglycosides
6. An antibiotic was administered to a patient suffering from
abdominal typhoid. Soon there was general improvement, but on
the 2nd week after the treatment the patient had elevation of body
temperature, signs of tonsillitis, and rashes on mucous
membranes of lips & nose. In laboratory examination of
discharges, Candida fungi were found. The blood analysis
revealed leukopenia and agranulocytosis. Which antibiotic could
cause these complications?
A. *Laevomycetinum
B. Tetracyclinum
С. Polymyxins
D. Gentamycinum
E. Cefazolinum
10. Specify the group of antibiot ics whose mechanism of action
involves inhibition of protein synthesis by microorganisms.
A. *Tetracyclines
B. Penicillins
С. Cephalosporins
D. Monobactams
E. Polymyxins
11. In the treatment with wide-spectrum antibiotics some
complicaions, including candidiasis may occur. Specify the agent
for the treatment of candidiasis.
A. *Ketoconazole
В Amphotericinum B
C. Griseofulvinum
D. Gramicidinum
E. Undecinum
12. A patient with dermatomycosis took antifungal agent which
was able to be accumulated within the cells producing keratin
(skin, nails, hairs), in several clays the patient visited the
physician complaining of headache, desorientation. Specify the
appointed antibiotic.
A. *Griseofulvinum
B. Levorinum
С. Amphotericinum В
D. Mycogeptinum
E. Nystatinum
13. After long-term treatment with tetracyclinum a patient was
hospitalized in relation, with aphthous stomatitis. During
laboratory examination the Candida fungi were identified.
Specify the agent available for the treatment of candidiasis.
A. *Nystatinum
В. Furazolidonum
С. Griseofuivinum
D. Amicazolum
E. Cefalexinum
21. Determine drug with wide spectrum of antibiotic activity, a
basic antibiotic agent of treatment enteric fever and other
salmonellosises and possesses following side effects: oppresses
of bone marrow activity, disbacteriosis and dyspeptic disorders:
A. *Laevomycetine
B. Phthalazolum
С. Benzylpenicillin natrium
D. Neomycin sulfate
E. Tetracycline
22. Which drug is used for treatment of enteric fever?
A. *Laevomycetine
B. Ampicillin
C .Cefalexin
D. Benzylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin
27. Deteirmine drug for treatment of candidiasis:
A. *Nystatin
B. Kanamycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Benzylpenicillin
28. Considerable number of Candida albicans was revealed on
cytological investigation of smear of 25 years-old woman with
exacerbation of chronicle vaginitis. Which drug should be
prescribed?
A. *Nystatin
B. Amphotericine
C. Miconazole
D. Clotrimazole
E. Metronidazole
32. An antibiotic for treatment of enteric fever was administered to
a patient. Clinical recovery was achieved, but within 2 weeks the
patient developed symptoms of quinsy, fever, rashes at mucous
membranes of lips and nose. Blood test revealed diminished amount
of WBC and granulocytopenia. Choose an antibiotic which can
cause these side effects:
A. Tetracycline
B. *Laevomycetinum (chloramphenicol)
С. Роlymyxine М sulfate
D. Cefazoline
E. Gentamycine
33. Tetracycline was administered PO for treatment of acute
purulent sinusitis. What antimycotic drug should be administered to
a patient to prevent candidiasis?
A. Griseofulvin
B. Levamisole
C. Furazolidone
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. *Nystatin
34. After taking tetracycline for a long period of time, patient
developed candidiasis of mucous membranes of mouth. Which drug
should be used for treatment?
A. *Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin
С. Nitrofungine
D. Nitroxoffne
E. Furadon/ne
ANTITUBERCUFOUS, ANTIVIRAL AND ANTISYPHILITIC
AGENTS.
A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During
treatment neuritis of visual nerve
arose. What drug has caused this by-effect?
A *Isoniazid
B Ethambutol
C Kanamycin
17
D Rifampicin
E Streptomycin
A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary
tuberculosis. What drug should be
prescribed in the first place?
A *Isoniazid
B Sulfalen
C Cyclocerine
D Ethionamide
E Ethoxide
1. The patient who had been suffering from tuberculosis was
treated with Isoniazidum. After a while the patient began to
complaint of muscle weekness, decrease of skin sensitivity,
impairment of vision and motor discoordination. Indicate the
vitamin's drug which should be administered to eliminate the
specified phenomena?
A. * Pyridoxin (B6)
B. Retinol (A)
С. Ergocalciterol (D)
D. Cyanocobatamin (B12)
E. Ascorbinic acid (C)
2. Indicate the drug which is used for intranasal dropping with the
purpose of prophylaxis of infuenza.
A. * Interferon
B. Remantadinum
С. Ampicillinum
D. Aciclovir
E. Paracetamolum
3. Specify the antibiotic available for the treatment of
tuberculosis.
A.*Rifampicinum
B. Tetracyclinum
С. Ampici/linum
D. Erythromycinum
E. Lincomycinum
4. Specify the antituberculous agent which inhibits synthesis of
mycolic acids by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
A. *Isoniazidum
B. Ethambutolum
C. Streptomycinum
D. Cycloserinum
E. PAS
5. Indicate the most effective synthetic antituberculous drug.
A. Kanamycinum
18
B. Streptomycinum
С. Rifampicinum
D. PAS
E. *Isoniazidum
6. A patient, 60 years old had been treated for tuberculosis for a
long time. Recently he began to omplain of decrease in audition,
which drug should be contraindicated?
A. *Streptomycinum
B. Ftivazidum
С Ethambutolum
D. Isoniazidum
E. Rifampicinum
7. Drugs of which group must be administered first of all to a girl
1.5 years old in relation with acute herpetic, stomatitis during
rash period?
A. *Antiviral agents
B. Antiallergic agents
С. Antibiotics
D. Antiseptics
E. Keratoplasty
8. Specify the agent which could be used for the prevention of
influenza during epidemic period.
A. *Remantadinum
B. Biseptolum
С. Ampicillinum
D. Anaiginum
E. Paracetamolum
9. In the newborn department of a hospital there was sudden
increase of acute respiratory disease caused by venous types of
viruses. To prevent spread of the infection it was recommended
to use human leukocytic interferons. Specify the available way of
introduction in this case.
A. *Intranasal
B. Subcutaneous.
С Intramuscular
D. Peroral
E. Inhaled.
10. A woman 25 years old was hospitalized for treatment of
syphilis. Specify one of the main antibiotics for treatment of this
disease.
A. *Benzylpenicillinum natrium
В Erythromycinum
C. Tetracyclinum
D. Lincomycinum
E. Vancomycinum
11. A 35-year-old man under the treatment for pulmonary
tuberculosis suffers acute pain of the right big toe, accompanied by
swelling and slight fever. The gouty arthritis was diagnosed and
high serum uric acid level was found. Which of the following
antituberculos drug is known for causing high uric acid levels?
A. *Pyrasinamide
B. Cycloserine
С. Rifampicine
D. Thioacetazone
E. Aminosalicylic acid
12. Patient has inherited of acetyl-transferase insufficiency. Which
drugs can cause severe intoxication in this case?
A. *Hydrazids of isonicotinic acid
B. Barbiturates
С. Antibiotics-tetracyc/ines
D. β-adrenoblockers
E. Nitrates
13.Which antituberculous drug from the following oppresses
transcription DNA to RNA?
A. *Rifampicine
B. Isoniazid
С. Streptomycin
D. Ethionamide
E. PAS
14. Patient with leprosies developed hypopigmentic rash with
absence of perception in its location. An antibiotic that is the basic
antituberculous agent was prescribed. Indicate this drug:
A. *Rifampicine
B. Amoxicillin
С. Erythromycin
D. Nitroxoli
E. Cefazolin
15. After treatment of patient suffering from tuberculosis, his vision
worsened rapidly, visual fields were narrowed. Determine the drug
which caused these side effects:
A *Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Kanamycin sulfate
D. Ethionamide
E. Rifampicine
16. 60-Years old male, with diagnosed tuberculosis long time ago,
timely receives antituberculous treatment. He developed neuritis of
nervous facials. Which drug can cause this side effect and should
be accepted from the therapy:
A *Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
С. Rifampicine
D. Streptomycin
E. PAS
17. After treatment by antituberculous drugs during three month,
a patient developed daltonism, reduced ability to distinguish red
and green colors. Which antituberculous agent can cause this
side effect?
A *Ethambutol
B. Streptomycin
С. PAS
D. Rifampicine
E. Cycloserine
18. Determine drug for AIDS treatment with following
mechanism of action: it is able to be phosphorilizated in cells and
transformed to triphosphate, and then it inhibits viral
transcriptase and impede of DNA synthesis from viral RNA.
A. *Zidovudine
B. Saquinavir
С. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir
E. Virasept
19. After treatment by the antiretroviral drug from the group of
nucleosides within six month a patient with AIDS developed
reducing amount of RBC, neutrophilic cells and platelet cells in
the blood. Indicate the agent that is able to cause these side
effects?
A. *Zidovudine
B. Sackvinovir
С. Acilovir
D. Valaciclovir
E. Remantadine
20. 19-Years old patient with primary syphilis receives complex
treatment by benzylpenicillin natrium. What is its mechanism of
action?
A. *Blockade of murein synthesis in cell walls
B. Blockade of protein synthesis in cytoplasm
С. Blockade of tiotic groups of enzymes
D. Blockade of RNA synthesis
E. Blockade of DNA synthesis
21. A patient has been suffering from tuberculosis associated
with intracellular location of mycobacterium for a long period of
time. What drug must be included in complex treatment?
A. Rifampicine
B. *Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Ethionamide
E. Natrium paraaminosalicilate
19
22. A patient known to be treated of pulmonary tuberculosis
noticed that his lachrymal liquid and urine became red. What
drug is able to develop such side effect?
A. *Rifampicine
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethionamide
D. Streptomycin sulfas
E. Ethambutol
23. 39-years-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis received
effective complex treatment composed of 3 antituberculous agents
including Steptomycin sulfate. What is its mechanism of action?
A. *Blockade of proteins synthesis
B. PABA anti-metabolite
C. Blockade of RNA synthesis
D. Inhibition of DNA replication
F. Inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis
24. A patient with primary syphilis has allergy to
benzylpenicillin. What drug can be prescribed in the case?
A. *Erythromycin
B. Amoxicillin
С. Amoxiclav
D. Carbenicillin
E. Lincomycin
30. 25-years old woman was admitted to a hospital with
diagnosed syphilis. Indicate the main antibiotic for her
treatment:
A. *Benzylpenicillin natrium (penicillin G sodium)
B. Tetracycline
С. Lincomycin
D. Vancomycin
E. Erythromycin
ANTIPROTOZOAL AND ANTHELMINTIC AGENTS.
A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent
inflammation of his gums. What drug will
be the most effective if it is suspected that a
causative agent is an anaerobe?
A *Metronidazole
B Gentamicin
C Oxacillin sodium
D Co-trimoxazole
E Nitroxoline
A 30-year-old patient complains about having
abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days;
body temperature rise up to $37,5^oC$ along with
chills. The day before a patient had
been in a forest and drunk from an open water
reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to
make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What
is the drug of choice for its
treatment?
A *Metronidazole
B Furazolidonum
C Levomycetin
D Phthalazol
E Emetine hydrochloride
Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver,
lungs was diagnosed in a
52-year-old patient. What drug should be prescribed?
A *Metronidasol
B Quiniofone
C Tetracycline
D Quingamine
E Enteroseptol
A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction.
The doctor established symptoms of
duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination
helped to make the following diagnosis:
lambliosis. What medication should be administered?
A *Metronidazole
B Erythromycin
C Monomycin
D Chingamin
E Tetracycline
A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain
drug. The use of alcohol together with
this drug is contra-indicated because the drug inhibits
metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What
drug is it?
A *Metronidazole
B Reserpine
C Clonidine
D Diazepam
E Aminazine
1. A female patient addressed to gynecologist with complaints of
undant discharges from vagina with pleasant smell. After
bacteriological vestigation the diagnosis of trichmo-•sis has been
given. Specify the ug which should be administered.
A. * Metronidazolum (Trichopolum)
В. Sulfadimezinum
C. Chingaminum
D. Chloridinum
E. Monomycinum
2. Mother addressed to the pediatrician with the child who
complained of strong itch in the region around the anus, pain
intensified at night. After investigation of feaces the diagnosis of
enterobiasis was given. Indicate the drug which should be
administered.
A. *Levamisolum
B. Trichlorophenum
С. Phenasalum
D. Ditrazinum
E. Aminoacrichinum
3. Indicate the antimalarial agent which is active against
paraerythrocytic forms of Plasmodium.
А *Рrimachinum
В Chingaminum
С. Galochinum
D. Hydroxychlorochinum
E. Aminoacrichinum
4. Specify the drug which is used in amebiasis of any localization
of pathological process.
A. *Metronidazolum (Trichopolum)
B. Chingaminum
C. Emetinum hydrochloridum
D. Chiniophonum
E. Tetracyciinum
5. A patient visited a physician with complaints of bowel
dysfunction. After laboratory examination the diagnosis of
lambliasis was made. Specify the drug that should be used.
A. *Metronidazolum (Trichopolum)
B. Tetracycilinum
С. Trichomonacid
D. Monomycinun
E. Chingaminum
6. During summer vacations a student from tropical country
developed tertian malaria. After recovery he turned back to
Ukraine for study extension. In January an exacerbation was
developed, it is known from past history of disease that drug
acting on paraerythrocytic plasmodium malariae for prevention of
relapse was not prescribed. Indicate the drug:
A. Chingaminum
B. Halochin
С. Hydroxychloroquine
D. Amodiaquine
E. *Primaquine
7. Patient addressed to a physician to get a drug for prevention of
malaria. Indicate the drug:
A. *Primaquine
B. Clotrimazole
С. Mebendazole
D. Furazolidone
E. Fenasal
8. What is the mechanism of anthelmintic action of levamisole?
A. *Oppression ot succinate dehydrogenase, ATPase
В. Oppression of MAO
C. DNA synthesis damage
D. Cholinesterase activation
E. Oppression of N-acetyltransferase
9. A drug is administered for prevention and treatment of malaria,
treatment of amebiasis and diseases of connective tissue. Indicate
the drug.
A. *Chingaminum (chloroquine)
B. Tetracycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Erythromycinum
E. Quinine
10. A drug was administered to a patient with ascaridosis. It is
known to have influence on immune system, and is used as
immunological modulator. Indicate the drug!
A. *Levamisole
B. Piperazine
С. Pyrantel
D. Phenasaium (niclosamide)
E. Praziquantel
11. A patient complaints of nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite.
After investigation of stool ascaridosis was revealed. A drug
with immune modulation activity was prescribed for single
usage. Indicate the drug:
A. *Levamisole
B. Mebendazole
С. Pyrantel
D. Naphtamonum
E. Piperazine
ANTITUMOAL AGENTS
1.
The antitumoral agent from the group of antimetabolites
(antagonists of folic acid) was administered to the patient
with acute leucosis. Indicate this drug.
A. *Methotrexatum
B. Fluorouracil
C. Myelosanum
D. Mercaptopurine
E. Hexestrolum
2. Determine a drug for treatment of lympholeukosis:
A. *Embichinum
B. Phthoruracilum
C. Depostat
D. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Phenobolinum
3. A drug belongs to the group of anti-metabolites being an
antagonis causes impairment of purines' synthesis, and thus lead to
diminishing of nucleic acids' synthesis. Determine the drug:
A. *Methotrexate
B. Mercaptopurine
C. Phthoruracilum (fluorouracil)
D. Cytarabine
E. Cispiatine
4. Antitumoral drug from the group of antimetabolites is used for
treatment of leucosis of children and cancer of adults. Determine
the drug:
A. *Methotrexate
B. Sarcolysinum
С. Colchamine
D. Rubomycin
E. Prednisolonum
THE TREATMENT OF ACUTE POISONONGS BY DRUGS
A patient with acute morphine poisoning was delivered
to a hospital. What specific narcotic
antagonist should be chosen in this case?
A *Naloxone
B Paracetamol
C Methacin
D Digoxin
E Unithiol
Patient with mercury poisoning was admitted to the
toxicological department from the
chemical industry. What medicine should be used?
A *Unithiol
B Isonitrozin
C Naloxone
D Activated carbon
E Enterosorbent
A patient suffering from syphilis has been treated with
bismuth preparations. As a result of
20
it some grey spots turned up on the mucous
membrane of the oral cavity; nephropathy
symptoms were also present. What drug should be
used for treatment of bismuth
intoxication?
A *Unithiol
B Methylene blue
C Naloxone
D Bemegride
E Nalorphine
2009
1. A man came to a pharmacy and asked to recommend him a drug for treatment of
allergic rhinitis that occurs in the period of linden flowering. What drug may be applied?
A. Adrenaline
B. Losartan
C. Anaprilinc
*D. Loratadine
E. Ambroxol
2. During an operation a dentist needs to reduce salivation in a patient. The dentist has to use a
drug of the following pharmacological group:
A. Adrenoceptor blocker
B. Adrenomimetics
C. Muscarinic and nicotinic cholinomimetics
*D. Muscarinic receptor blockers
E. Muscarinic cholinomimetics
3. A patient suffering from neurosis accompanied by anxiety and fear development was
prescribed diazepam. What pharmacological effect makes it possible to apply the drug for
this disease treatment?
* A. Anxiolytic
B. Anti-inflammatory
С Antiarrhythmic
D. Antianginal
E. Hypotensive
4. A patient with bronchial asthma was prescribed salbutamol that has led to relief of
bronchospasm symptoms. This is associated with stimulation of:
* A. 2-adrenoreceptors
B. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors
C. 1-adrenoreceptors
D.Acetylcholine synthesis
E. 1-adrenoreccptors
5. A patient got an injection of 0,25% novocaine solution for the purpose of anaesthetization.
Suddenly the patient has presented with red spots, intense sweating, tachycardia,
bronchospasm, edema of nasal mucous membrane. What is the cause of this complication?
A. Local irritation
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Abstinence syndrome
* D. Immediate allergy
E. Delayed allergy
6. Which preparation from the group of laxative agents IS NOT to be administered in case of
intoxication with CNS-inhibiting substances?
A. Bisacodyl
B. Vaseline oil
1
C. Sodium sulfate
D. Guttalax
* E. Magnesium sulfate
7. A 52-year-old patient complains of having increased arterial pressure for a month. She has
a 5-year history of bronchial asthma. What group of hypotensive drugs should NOT be
recommended this patent?
* A. -adrenoreceptor blockers
B. Angiotensin receptor blockers
C. Diuretics
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Tranquilizers
8. A patient suffering from ulcer disease was prescribed famotidine. What is the mechanism
of its action?
A. Block of cholinoreceptors of sympathetic ganglions
B. Block of Нг-histamine receptors
* C. Block of H2-histamme receptors
D. Inhibition of adenosine triphosphatase activity
E. Block of muscarinic cholinoreceptors
9. A 52-year-old patient had myocardial infarction and was discharged from the hospital
after the stationery treatment. What daily dose of acetylsalicylic acid should be administered
in order to prevent thrombosis?
A. 1000 mg
B. 50 mg
* C. 100 mg
D. 200 mg
E. 500 mg
10. A patient suffering from chronic cardiac insufficiency was prescribed a cardiac glycoside
from the foxglove (Digitalis) group. What drug is it?
A. Corvalol
B. Corglycon
* C. Digoxin
D. Cordiamin
E. Strophanthine
11. A hospital admitted a child with signs of poisoning with belladonna alkaloids. What drug
should be applied as an antidote?
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Sodium caffeine benzoate
С Paracetamol
* D. Proserin
E. Sodium valproate
2
12. A pharmacy received a new-generation nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drug "meloxicam"
that mainly blocks cyclooxygenase-2. What advantages does this preparation have in
comparison with other nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs?
A. Evident myospasmolytic action
B. Significant inhibition of protease activity
* C. Minimal side effect on alimentary tract
D. Interteronogenic properties
E. Minimal side effect on hematogenesis
13. A patient suffering from stomach 4 ulcer was prescribed almagel. Which of its
pharmacological properties is intended for treatment of this pathology?
A. Blocking the muscarinic choli-noreceptors
B. Local anaesthetization
* C. HCl neutralization
D. Anti-inflammatory action
E. Blocking the H2-histamine receptors
14. 52-year-old patient was diagnosed with systemic amebiasis accompanied by bowels, liver
and lungs affection. What preparation should be administered?
A. Chingamin
B. Tetracycline
С Phthalazol
* D. Metronidazole
E. Chiniofon
15. What drug may cause constipation in a patient undergoing combined therapy for arterial
hypertension?
* A. Verapamil
B. Panangin
С Furosemide
D. Trimetazidine
E. Acetylsalicilic acid in small dosages
16. A 33-year-old woman who has been treated for chronic polyarthritis for a long time
complains about arterial pressure rise, change of adipose tissue distribution, menstrual cycle
disorder. What preparation has she taken?
A. Diclofenac sodium
B. Butadion
* C Prednisolone
D. Synaflan
E. Indometacin
17. A 32-year-old patient takes antituberculous drugs. Some time later he has noticed that his
urine turned orange. What preparation is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?
A. Ethambutol
B. Pyrazinamide
3
* C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid
E. Streptomycin sulfate
18. A 26-year-old pregnant woman (III trimester of pregnancy) complains about body
temperature rise up to 39°C. What febrifuge may be recommended in this case?
A. Diclofenac
B. Analgin
C. GjAspirin
D. Indometacin
* E. Paracetamol
19. Examination of a patient who has been treated for rheumatoid arthritis for a long time
revealed hyperglycemia. It might have been caused by the following drug:
* A. Dexamethasone
B. Diclofenac sodium
С. Delagil
D. Levamisole
E. Ibuprofen
20. А patient who has taken phenobarbital for a long time was prescribed diclofenac sodium.
However the anti-inflammatory effect of diclofenac appeared to be less than expected due to
the pharmacokinetic interaction of these drugs. Such interaction might be the result of the
following processes:
A. Decelerated drag metabolism in liver
B. Change of receptor sensibility
* С. Accelerated drug metabolism in liver
D. Increased drug dosage
E. Reduced protein concentration in plasma
21. An internship doctor prescribed his patient nifuroxazid from the group of nitrofurans for
treatment of urinary tracts infection. The doctor made a mistake because:
A. It is excreted from the orghanism very slowly
B. It has nephrotoxic effect
* C. It cannot be absorbed from the digestive tract
D. It has bacteriostatic effect
E. It is excreted with urine in the inactive state
22. A 57-year-old female patient was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis; she has also a
history of stomach ulcer. What drug from the group of nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs
may be recommended this patient?
A.
Diclofenac
* В. Celecoxib
C.
Mefenamic acid
D.
Indometacin
E. Aspirin
4
23. A 25-year-old patient has been taking antibiotics for 7 days. Antibiotic therapy has
caused a complication in form of bowel dysbacteriosis. This complication should be
treated with drugs of the following pharmacological group:
* A. Probiotics
B. Antacids
С Adaptogens
D.
Cholagogic
E. Spasmolytics
24. A patient suffering from arterial hypertension and chronic bronchitis suddenly presented
with dry cough and dyspnea. Body temperature remained unchanged. It "is known that the
patient takes captopril These symptoms can be explained by increased concentration of:
A. Natriuretic peptide
B. Angiotensin-1
* C. Bradyquinine
D. Renin
E. Aldosterone
25. A 48-year-old patient was given an intravenous injection of prednisolone in order to arrest a
severe attack of bronchial asthma. Prednisolone relates to the following group of hormonal
drugs:
A. Estrogens
* B. Glucocorticoids
C. Mineral corticoids
D. Gestagenic drugs
E. Anabolic steroids
26. A 67-year-old patient who undergoes treatment for bronchial asthma presents with limb
tremor, headache, insomnia, extrasystole. What drug might have caused such symptoms?
A. Intal
* B. Theophylline
C. Tavegyl
D. Acetylcysteine
E. Prednisolone
27. A 46-year-old patient suffering from chronic bronchitis came to a pharmacy. What
expectorative drug may be recommended?
A. Salbutamol
B. Libexin
C. Glauvenl
D. Falimint
* E. Ambroxol
28. A 40-year-old patient suffers from bronchial asthma and cardiac rhythm disturbance in
form of bradyarrhythmia. Drugs of which pharmacological group should be administered
for bronchospasm elimination?
A. Muscarinic cholinomimetics
5
B. Muscle relaxants
С Anticholinesterase drugs
D. Beta-adrenoceptor blockers
* E. Muscarinic receptor blockers
29. A 56-year-old patient suffering from essential hypertension was prescribed an inhibitor of
angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) and a potassium-sparing diuretic. Such combination is:
A. Reasonable because it decreases risk of hyperkaliemia development
* B. Unreasonable because it increases risk of hyperkaliemia development
С Unreasonable because it increases risk of orthostatic collapse development
D. Unreasonable because it reduces hypotensive effect of ACE inhibitor
E. Reasonable because it potentiates hypotensive effect of ACE inhibitor
30. A patient suffering from stomach ulcer was prescribed an antiulcer drug that also reduces
secretion of hydrochloric acid and inhibits Chelicobactcr pylori. What drug is it?
A. Gastrocepine
* B. Omeprazole
С Maalox
D. Almagel
E. Famotidinc
31. A patient suffering from essential hypertension has increased concentration of renin in
blood plasma. Which pharmacological group should be preferred for this patient treatment?
* A. ACE inhibitors
B. -adrenoblockers
С. Sympatholytics
D. Blockers of calcium channels
E. Diuretics
32. A patient was warned that taking the prescribed preparation might cause cough. What
drug is it?
A. Clonidine
*B. Lisinopril
C. Dichlothiazide
D. Phenihidine
E. Metoprolol
33. A 34-year-old patient suffering from bronchitis was prescribed an antitussive drug of
central action. What drug is it?
A. Corglycon
* В. Glaucine
С. Enalapril
D. Fercoven
E. Furosemide
34. A patient suffering from allergic rhinitis was prescribed ephedrine in form of nasal drops.
The patient has significantly benefited from nasal instillation, and this stimulated him to use the
6
drug every 2 hours. But under these conditions the drug appeared to be ineffective. What is the
most likely cause of this phenomenon?
A. Cumulation
B. Idiosyncrasy
С. Allergy
* D. Tachyphylaxis
E. Drug dependence
35. During the sensitifity test for benzylpenicillin a patient developed anaphylactic shock.
The following preparation must be injected around the spot of antibiotic injection:
* A. Adrenaline hydrochloride
B. Ceftriaxon
C. Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Propranolol
36. A patient with arterial hypertensition was administered a non-prescription drug for
symptomatic treatment of rhinitis. What pharmaceutical form should be recommended the
patient in order to reduce as much as possible the likelihood of development of undesirable
systemic vasoconstriction?
A. Drops
B. Tablets
C. Aerosol
D.Gel
* E. Ointment
37. А patient who has been taking phenazepam for a month came to a pharmacy. He insisted
on buying another two packs of this drug. According to the patient, he feels unwell without
phenazepam. What is the mechanism of the developed side effect?
* A. Drug dependence
B. Cumulation
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Aftereffect syndrome
E. Addiction
38. 6 months after treatment a patient with coronary heart disease developed tolerance to the
nitrates with prolonged action. What drug with nitrate-similar effect should be recommended in
this case?
A.
Nifedipine
B. Prasosine
С Metoprolol
* D. Molsidomine
E. Verapamil
39. A woman who has been treated for infiltrative focal tuberculosis for a long time
complains of acute hearing impairment. Which of the following preparations might be the
cause of such side effect?
7
* A. Streptomycin
B. Ethionamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethambutol
E. Rifampicin
40. Continuous taking of a drug results in reduction of its efficiency. This phenomenon is
called:
A. Cumulation
B. Sensibilization
C. Dependence
* D. Habituation
E. Tachyphylaxis
41. During local anaesthetization novocaine solution is usually compounded with solution
of adrenaline hydrochloride. What is the purpose of this action?
A. Decrease in smooth muscle tone
B. Increase in smooth muscle tone
C. Vasodilatation
D. Algesthesia reduction
* E. Vasoconstriction
42. An 18-year-old patient was diagnosed with disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis. What
drug will provide etiotropic pharmacotherapy?
A. Metronidazole
B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
* C. Isoniazid
D. Lincomycin
E. Trimethoprim
43. А patient with acute cardiac insufficiency and cardiac glycoside intolerance got an
injection of dobutamine. What is the mechanism of its action?
A. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
B. Block of K+-, Na+-adenosine triphosphatase
* C. Stimulation of 1-adrenoreceptors
D. Stimulation of muscarinic cholinoreceptors
E. Stimulation of 1-adrenoreceptors
44. Choose an optimal antibacterial drug for the mycoplasmal pneumonia treatment:
A. Ampicillin
B. Gentamycin
C. Penicillin
D. Amoxyclav
* E. Rovamycin
8
45. During digitoxin therapy for chronic cardiac insufficiency, a patient developed signs of
intoxication with this preparation. The patient was prescribed unithiol. What is the
mechanism of unithiol action in case of intoxication with cardiac glycosides?
* A. Reduction of K+-Na+-adenosinetriphosphatase
B. Binding of calcium ions
С. Increased potassium permeability in the cardiomyocytes
D. Increase of sodium concentration in the cardiomyocytes
E. Binding of glycoside into the complex compound
46. A patient suffering from epilepsy has taken Phenobarbital for a long time and developed
drug tolerance. What is the mechanism of this phenomenon development?
A. Weakening of absorption
B. Inhibition of biotransformation
C. Increase of receptor sensibility
* D. Acceleration of biotransformation
E. Accumulation of the drug in the organism
47. Treatment course of essential hypertension includes diuretics. Which diuretic DOES NOT
NEED to be combined with potassium preparations?
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Furosemidc
C. Clopamide
D. Dichlothiazide
* E. Triamteren
9
2010
1. After a craniocerebral trauma a patient was administered pyracetam. This drug relates to
the following pharmacological group:
A. Nonnarcotic (nonopioid) analgetic
B. Tranquilizers
* C. Nootropic agent
D. Anesthetic agent
E. Neuroleptic
2. A patient with hypertension was administered metoprolol for the arterial pressure
reduction. What is its mechanism of action?
A. Angiotensinic receptors blockade
*B. Beta adrenoreceptor blockade
C. Indirect adrenomimetic action
D. Antispasmodic
E. Alpha adrenoceptor blockade
3. A patient being treated in the infectious disease ward for dysentery is administered
phthalazol. What is the reason for phthalazol being used only for treatment of enteric
infections?
A. The high degree of reabsorption in the kidneys
B. Rapidly excreted in unchanged form
* C. The drug is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
D. Slowly eliminated from the body
E. Rapidly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract
4. Which of the below-listed drugs is used for thrombolytic therapy in case of myocardial
infarction?
A. Ticlopidine
*B. Streptokinase
C. Acetylsalicylic acid
D. Phenylinum
E. Heparinum
5. A patient with hypertensive crisis received an injection of ganglionic blocker
benzohexonium. What side effect might be expected after the drug injection?
A. Diarrhea
B. Central nervous system depression effect
C. Withdrawal (abstinence) syndrome
* D. Orthostatic hypotension
E. Taste violation
6. 68-year-old female patient has been continuously taking furosemide for heart failure
treatment. What drug should be used to prevent hypokalemia in patients taking furosemide?
10
A. Mildronatum
* B. Panangin
С. Atp-long
D. Sustac forte
E. Trimetazidine
7. A patient fell ill with severe pneumonia was prescribed ceftriaxonum once a day.
Prescription of ceftriaxonum once a day connected with the fact that the drug:
A. Pluripotential
B. Has bactericidal effect
C. Accumulates in the lungs
* D. Slowly eliminated from the body
E. Poorly absorbed from the injection site
8. A patient with cholelithiasis was prescribed the following drug for the purpose of
cholesterol gallstone dissolution:
* A. Ursodeoxycholic acid
B. Citric acid
C. Gamma-amino-butyric acid
D. Acetylsalicylic acid
E. Mefenamic acid
9. Which preparation is the specific antidote in case of intoxication with iron preparations?
A. Penicillamine
B. Atropinum
* C. Deferoxamium
D. Bemegridum
E. Protamine sulfate
10. Which anaesthetic, anti-inflammatory, the least harmful for the stomach preparation can
be recommended to a patient with exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Diclofenac sodium
* B. Celecoxib
C. Ibuprofenum
D. Indometacinum
E. Acetylsalicylic acid
11. A 24-year-old patient has been suffering for diabetes mellitus type I for 8 years. Diabetic
nephropathy provoked development of symptomatic arterial hypertension. Which of the
folowing drugs is indicated for long-term therapy?
A. Clonidine
* B. Enalapril
C. Dibazol
D. Dichlothiazide
E. Propranolol
12. Choose an optimal antibacterial drug for the mycoplasmal pneumonia treatment:
11
A. Amoksiklav
* B. Rovamycine
C. Penicillin
D. Gentamycinum
E. Ampicillin
13. Which of the following drug forms is produced in granules?
A. Revitum
B. Diazolinum
* С. Plantaglucide
D. Mucaltinum
E. Lincomycin hydrochloride
14. For thrombosis treatment a patient was prescribed a drug from the group of direct
anticoagulants. What drug is it?
* A. Heparin
B. Neodicumarin
С. Vikasol
D. Syncumar
E. Fenilin (phenylinum)
15. A patient has chronic pancreatitis with apparent presentations of pancreatic exocrine
hypofunction. Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate in this case?
A. Drotaverine
B. Omeprazole
* C. Pancreatinum
D. Acidin pepsinum
E. De-Nol
16. In course of pharmacotherapy of Bronchitis a patient was found to have dyspeptic
disorders, photodermatitis, liver dysfunction. Which of the prescribed drugs might have
caused these manifestations?
A. Acetylcysteinum
* B. Doxycyclin
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Codeine phosphate
E. Paracetamolum
17. A patient who has been suffering from gastric diseases for a long time is found to have
hyperchromic anemia. Which of the following drugs is applied for this pathology treatment?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Unitiol
C. Oxyferriscorbone
* D. Cyanocobalamine
E. Ferrum Lek
12
18. A 54-year-old patient who has been suffering from hyperacidic gastritis for several
years was prescribed Almagel. What pharmacotherapeutical complications on the part of
digestive organs may be expected in the first place?
A. Emesis
B. Nausea
* C. Constipation
D. Diarrhea
E. Anorexia
19. A 40-year-old patient suffers from bronchial asthma and cardiac rhythm disturbance in
form of bradyarrhythmia. Drugs of which pharmacological group should be administered for
bronchospasm suppression?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Cholinesterase inhibitors
C. Muscle relaxant
* D. M-cholinergic antagonists
E. M-cholinomimetics
20. A patient suffering from peptic ulcer was administered ranitidine. Gastric juice acidity
has reduced considerably. What mechanism underlies the action of this drug?
A. Autonomic ganglion H-cholinergic receptors blockade
B. M-cholinergic receptors blockade
C. H, K-ATPase activity inhibition
* D. N2-histamine receptors blockade (it’s mistake: H2-histamine receptors blockade)
E. N1-histamine receptors blockade(it’s mistake: H1-histamine receptors blockade)
21. Which of the following is the drug choice for bronchial asthma attacks prevention?
A. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
B. Salbutamol
C. Ambroxol
* D. Cromolyn sodium
E. Drotaverine
22. A patient suffering from epilepsy has taken Phenobarbital for a long time and
developed drug tolerance. What is the mechanism of this phenomenon development?
A. Substances accumulation in the body
B. Inhibition of biotransformation
C. Absorption process reduction
D. Receptor's sensitivity enhancement
* Е. Acceleration of biotransformation
23. Examination of a patient who has been treated for rheumatoid arthritis for a long time
revealed hyperglycemia. What drug might have caused it?
A. Chloroquine
* B. Dexamethasone
C. Levamisole
D. Diclofenac sodium
13
E. Ibuprofen
24. A 6-year-old child with pneumonia was prescribed an antibiotic. After the treatment the
child became death. Which antibiotic group might have caused this complication?
* A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Macrolides
D. Natural penicillin
E. Semisynthetic penicillin
25. A patient consulted an ophthalmologist about scotopic vision impairment, cornea
dryness. What drug was prescribed?
* А. Retinolum
B. Pyridoxine
C. Tocopherol
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Cocarboxylasum
26. It is necessary to prescribe non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug for patient with
rheumatoid arthritis and concomitant duodenal ulcer. Which drug is the drug of choice in
this case?
* A. Celecoxib
B. Analgin
C. Paracetamol
D. Diclofenac sodium
E. Acetylsalicylic acid
27. Mother of a 2-month-old child came to a pharmacy and asked for a febrifuge. What
drug should be recommended for the child?
A. Nimesulide
* B. Paracetamolum
C. Diclofenac sodium
D. Indometacinum
E. Acetylsalicylic acid
28. A child has accidentally drunk a solution that was used by his grandmother for
glaucoma treatment. The solution turned out to be pilocarpine hydrochloride. What drug
can be used as an antidote?
A. Carbacholinum
B. Pentaminum
C. Aceclidinum
D. Benzohexonium
* E. Atropinum
29. Absorption of tetracycline preparations will be reduced when they are administered
simultaneously with antacids. This is an example for:
* A. Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
14
B. Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
С. Pharmaceutical incompatibility
D. Functional drugs antagonism
E. Drugs synergism
30. Which of the listed pharmacological groups of antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated the patients with bronchial asthma?
A. Angiotensin receptors blockers
B. Diuretics
C. АСЕ inhibitor
* D. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent
E. Calcium channel blockers
31. A gravida in her 20th week of gestation fell ill with pneumonia. What
chemotherapeutical drug may be administered with no risk for the fetus development?
A. Laevomycetinum
B. Gentamycin
C. Sulfalenum
D. Ofloxacinum
* E. Benzylpenicillinum
32. A patient suffering from allergic rhinitis was prescribed ephedrine in form of nasal
drops. The patient has significantly benefited from nasal instillation, and this stimulated
him to use the drug every 2 hours. But under these conditions the drug appeared to be
ineffective. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?
A. Drug dependence
B. Cumulation
* C. Tachyphylaxis
D. Allergy
E. Idiosyncrasy
33. Which of the listed preparations should be used as antidote and included into the first-aid
kit required at factories where acute intoxications with arsenic, mercury, chrome and
bismuth compounds are possible?
A. Adrenalinum
B. Droperidolum
C. Morphinum
D. Atropinum
* E. Unithiolum
34. When fenoterolum for inhalations not available in a pharmacy, it can be substituted by
the following drug from the group of bronchoselective beta-2-adrenomimetics:
A. Ephedrinum
B. Metacinum
* C. Salbutamolum
D. Euphyllinum
E. Isadrinum
15
35. А 25-year-old woman presenting with acute morphine intoxication was given an
injection of naloxone that caused rapid improvement of her condition. The mechanism of
action of this preparation is based on the block of the following receptors:
* A. Opioid receptors
B. Serotonin receptors
C. GABA-receptors
D. Dopamine
E. Benzodiazepine receptors
36. 6 months after treatment a patient with coronary heart disease developed tolerance to
the prolonged-action nitrates. What drug with nitrate-similar effect should be
recommended in this case?
A. Verapamil
* B. Molsidomine
C. Metoprolol
D. Prazosin
E. Nifedipine
37. A 60-year-old patient has essential hypertension stage II, coronary disease, bronchial
asthma. After pharmacotherapy correction the patient exhibited a bronchospastic attack,
intensified dyspnea. What drug provoked this complication?
A. Salbutamolum
B. Euphyllinum
* C. Propranolol
D. Nifedipine
E. Mucaltinum
38. A 26-year-old patient was diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia provoked by
mycoplasma. Choose the appropriate antimicrobial preparation for the patient treatment:
A. Amoksiklav
B. Benzylpenicillinum
C. Gentamycinum
D. Amoxicillin
* E. Rovamycine
39. Аn interhospital pharmacy got an огdег from a surgical department for a depolarizing
muscle relaxant for surgical interventions. What drug was ordered?
A. Hygronium
B. Nicotine
* C. Dithylinum
D. Methacin
E. Atropine sulfate
40. During a surgical operation the muscle relaxant tubocurarine chloride was used. What
antagonist drug should be injected in order to allow the patient to breath independently?
A. Cytitonum
16
B. Dithylinum
C. Aethimizolum
D. Benzohexonium
* E. Proserinum
41. А pregnant woman fell ill with severe pneumonia. What antibacterial drug may be
prescribed?
A. Co-trimoxazolum
* B. Cefotaxime
C. Gentamycin sulphate
D. Ofloxacinum
E. Tetracycline hydrochloride
42. A patient after bee's stings has angi-oedema (Quincke's edema). Which drug should be
immediately inject to eliminate this condition?
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Sodium chloride
C. Platyphyllini hydrotartras
D. Anaprilinum
* E. Epinephrine hydrochloride
43. A patient suffering from hypertension consulted a doctor about dry cough that was
presumably provoked by antihypertensive therapy. What anti-hypertensive drug had she
been taking?
A. Atenolol
* B. Lisinopril
C. Nifedipine
D. Hydrochlorthiazide
E. Furosemidum
44. A 70-year-old patient consulted a doctor about elevated arterial pressure. He has a
history of benign hyperplasia of prostate. What drug should be administered in this case?
A. Losartan
B. Diltiazem
C. Propranolol
D. Enalapril
* E. Doxazosin
45. Which of the listed antibacterial drugs should NOT be administered to a patient with
diabetes mellitus type II being treated with glibenclamid?
* A. Co-trimoxazolum
B. Doxycycline
C. Benzylpenicillinum
D. Midecamycin
E. Gentamycinum
17
46. A woman who has been treated for infiltrative focal tuberculosis for a long time
complains of acute hearing impairment. Which of the following preparations might be the
cause of such side effect?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
* C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
E. Ethionamidum
47. On the 4th day of treatment with indometacin a 55-year-old patient developed
gastrorrhagia as a result of gastric mucosa ulcer. Ulcerogenic effect of this drug is explained
by the lowered activity of the following enzyme:
* A. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX -1)
B. Prostacyclin sintetaza
C. Thromboxanetin sintetaza
D. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX -2)
E. Lipoxygenase (LOG)
48. A 67-year-old patient with chronic heart failure takes digoxin. In order to reduce its side
effects the patient's doctor recommended to combine it with the followig drug:
A. Euphyllinum
B. Calcium gluconate
* C. Panangin
D. Calcium chloride
E. Hydrochlorthiazide
49. Which antiseptic preparation has bactericidal effect due to the formation of atomic oxygen?
A. Silver nitrate
* B. Potassium permanganate
C. Furacilinum
D. Aethonium
E. Chloraminum
50. Benzylpenicillin sodium is not used per os, because this drug:
A. Poorly absorbed in the intestine
В. Reduces formation of gastric HCl
* С Destroys gastric HCl
D. Irritates gastric mucosa
E. Is destroyed by penicillinase
18
2011
Krok-2. Pharmacology
1. For what purpose did the patient with stenocardia recieve acetilsalicylic acid?
A.*Antiplatelet action
B. Reduction in fibrinolytic activity of the blood
C. Aggregant action
D. Anti-inflammatory action
E. Induction of fibrinolytic activity of the blood
2.A 32 year old patient is recieving antitubercular agents. After some time he noticed, that his urine
turned an orange-red color. Which preparation could have caused this?
A.*Rifampicinum
B. Isoniazidum
C. Pyrazinamidum
D. Ethambutolum
E. Streptomycinum
3. Neuroleptanaesthesia was given to a patient with myocardial infarction.Which preparation from the
neuroleptic group is most frequently used along with phentaline?
A. *Droperidolum
B. Etaperazinum
C. Levomepromazinum
D. Clozapinum
E. Sulpiride
4.A 55 year old patient on the 4th day of Indometacine treatment, a gastral bleeding started as a result of
ulcer of mucous stomach membrane.
A. Reduction in the activity of cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)
B. Reduction in the activity of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)
C. Reduction in the activity of lipooxygenase (LOX)
D. Reduction in the activity of thromboxane synthetase
E. Reduction in the activity of prostacyclinsynthetase
5.A 45 year old patient who was, for 2 weeks taking Neodicumarinum for treatment thrombophlebitis.
During daily inspection, blood reduction in prothrombin was noted as well as microhematuria. Which
preparation should be used as an antagonist to Neodicumarinum?
A. *Vikasolum
B. Protamini sulfas
C. Natrii sulfas
D. Heparinum
E. Aminocapronic acid
6.A patient was delivered to the recieving department with complaints of hardened breathing, salivation,
acute abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vertigo, reduction of visual perseption. Phosphoorganic poisoning was
diagnosed. Which preparations is reasonable to include to pathogenic therapy?
A. *Atropini sulfas
B. Natrium Thiosulfate and Bemegride
C. Tetacinum Calcium and Unithiol
D. Nalorphini hydrochloridum and Bemegridum
E. Glucosa and Bemegridum
19
7.A patient was delivered to the recieving department with complaints of dry mouth, photophobia and
eyesight disfunction. Skin is red, dry, pupils are wide, tachicardia. Belladonna alcaloid poisoning was
diagnosed. Which preparation is reasonable to prescribe?
A. *Proserpinum
B. Aceclidinum
C. Pylocarpinum
D. Armine
E. Dipiroximum
8.Patient with hypertonia was prescribed Captopril. What is the mechanism of its action?
A. *Reduction of angiotensin-converting enzyme
B. Beta-adrenoceptors blocking
C. Alpha-adrenoceptors blocking
D. Blockade of angiotensin-2 receptors
E. Blockade of slow Calcium chanells
9. A patient with hypertension crysis was injected Clophelin (Clonidine). Which mechanism lies at the
base of its antihypertensive action?
A. *The stimulation of presynaptic alpha-2-adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of peripherial alpha-1-adrenoceptors
C. Blockade of beta-adrenoceptors
D. Blocksde of N-cholinoceptors of the visceral ganglii
E. Direct myotropic action on vessels
10. Patient with ulcer disease Ranitidin was prescribed. The stomach acidity was significantly reduced.
Which mechanism lies at the base of this preparation's action?
A. *Blockade of H2-histaminoreceptors
B. Blockade of H1-histaminoreceptors
C. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
D. Reduction in H+/K+ ATPase activity
E. Blockade of N-cholinoreceptors of visceral ganglii
11. A patient with heart glycoside intoxication symptoms was prescribed Unithiol. What is the healing
mechanism of this preparation?
A. *Reactivation membraneus H+/K+ ATP-ase
B. Binding of ionised Ca2+
C. Increase K+ heart muscles
D. Increase the amount of Na+ in the myocardium
E. Induction heart glycosides metabolism
12.To remove delirium and hallucinations from a shizophrenic woman, the doctor used Aminasin. What
is the mechanism of its action?
A. *Inhibition of the dopaminergic processes in th CNS
B. Stimulates the adrenergic and dopaminergic processes in the CNS
C. Stimulates the holinergic processes in the CNS
D. Inhibition of the holinergic processes in the CNS
E. Inhibition of the adrenegic processes in the CNS
13. A 52 year old man was diagnosed with systemis amoebiasis with the damage of intestines, liver and
lungs. Which preparation should you prescribe?
A.* Metronidazolum
B. Chiniofon
C. Tetracyclinum
D. Chingaminum
E. Phthalazolum
20
14. As a result of myocardium infarction in patient ventricular arythmia has developed. Heart rate was
brought back to normal, upon recieving an antiarrhythmic drug with local anaesthetic activity. Which
preparation was used?
A. *Lidocainum
B. Novocainum
C. Verapamilum
D. Pananginum
E. Propranololum
15. A 38 year old patient was delivered to the recieving department in serious condition who was
poisoned by mercury. Which antidote should be imidiately given to the patient?
A. *Unithiol
B. Dipiroximum
C. Atropine
D. Nalorphine
E. Isonitrosine
16.A 33 year old woman, who was taking chronic polyarthritis and treating or a long time, complains
about rising blood pressure, different fat deposition areas, unregular menstrual periods. Which preparation does
the woman take?
A. *Prednisolonum
B. Indometacinum
C. Butadionum
D. Fluocinolone acetonide
E. Diclofenac sodium
17. A pregnant woman (20 weeks) has caught pneumonia. Which chemotherapy preparation can be
recommended without the risk to the foetus?
A. *Benzylpennicilin
B. Gentamicinum
C. Sulfalenum
D. Levomicetinum
E. Ofloxacinum
18. During a surgical operation, as a muscle relaxant, Tubocurarine choride was used. Which antagonist
preparation should be given to the patient, in order to renew breathing?
A. *Proserinum
B. Dithilinum
C. Cytisine
D. Etimizolum
E. Benzohexonium
19.A patient with alergic dermatitis was prescribed Suprastine. Which group of antialergic preparations
does it belong to?
A. *H1 histamine receptor blocker
B. Glucocorticosteroids
C. Inhibitors of mast cell degranulation
D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists
E. H2 histamine blockers
20. A child accidentally drank a solution from a bottle which contains grandma's glaucoma treatment. It
came out to be Pilocarpine hydrochloride. Which preparation could be used as an antidote?
A. *Atropine
B. Carboholine
21
C. Aceclidine
D. Benzohexonium
E. Pentamine
21. A woman who suffers from neurosis, doesn't sleep well. Which of the listed preparations should be
chosen to treat insomnia?
A. *Nitrazepam
B. Phenobarbital
C. Aethaminalum-natrium
D. Bromisoval
E. Tincture Valerianae
22.Drug addicts after the narcotic action resides, feel very serious psychic, neurotic and somatic
disfunctions. What is this complex of symptoms called?
A. *Abstinent syndrome
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Sensibilisation
D. Cumulation
E. Tolerance
23. With which group of diuretics is it forbidden to prescribe hypotensive drugs from the angiotensin
converting enzyme group?
A. *Potassium- sparing
B. Thiazides
C. Digitalis
D. Xanthines
E. Osmotic
24. A patient came to the pharmacy, who was for a month taking phenazepam. The patient insisted on
buying two more packs, explaining that he doesn't feel well without it. What lies at the base of this side effect?
A. *Drug addiction
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Hangover syndrome
D. Cumulation
E. Tolerance
25. A patient with alergic rhinitis was prescribed ephedrine in nose drops form. Using this preparation,
significantly improves the patient's state which made him use it every 2 hours, but the effect wasn't present.
What lies at the base of ephedrine's uneffectiveness?
A. *Tachyphylaxis
B. Drug addiction
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Allergy
E. Cumulation
26.A patient with hypertensive crisis during complex treatment needs to be prescribed diuretics. Advise
the intern, which preparation should be used?
A. * Furosemidum
B. Diacarbum
C. Spironolactonum
D. Triamterenum
E. Amiloridum
27. Which antiprotozoal agent can be recommended to a woman, who suffers from Trichomoniaz.
A. * Metronidazolum
22
B.
C.
D.
E.
Primachinum
Chloridinum
Solusurminum
Chiniofonum
28. Recommend a patient with chronic bronchitis, which expectorant drug can be bought in the
pharmacy to ease the extraction of thick and viscous sputum.
A. * Ambroxolum
B. Falimint
C. Glauvent
D. Libexinum
E. Salbutamolum
29. Choose an antiseptic from the Halogenic group, which can be put in a child's first-aid kit, who is
going to summer camp?
A. * Iodine spirit solution
B. Brilliant green
C. Cupri sulfas
D. Methylenium blue
E. Formaldehyde solution
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
30. Which local anaesthetic is the best choice for anaesthetization during tooth extraction?
* Lidocainum
Dicainum
Anesthesinum
Sovcainum
Cocainum
31. A drug from new generation of nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs came to the pharmacy. Its name
is "meloxicam". What are its advantages as a COX-2 blocker, in comparison with other nonsteroid
preparations?
A. * Minimum side ffects on the digestive tract
B. Significant miospasmolytic effect
C. Interferonogenic properties
D. Minimum hemotoxic effects
E. Significant inhibition of protease’s activity
32. In the absence of Fenoterol in the inhalator form, which preparation from the bronchoselective beta2-adrenomimetics can be used to replace it?
A. * Salbutamolum
B. Isadrinum
C. Metacinum
D. Ephedrinum
E. Euphyllinum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
33. Consult the doctor, which preparation can be best used to replace Acetylcystein?
* Ambroxolum
Natrii chloridum
Codeini phosphas
Libexinum
Natrii hydrocarbonas
34. Answer the general practitioner's question- which modern antihistamine preparation is the best
choice for people who's work demands quick reactions?
A. * Loratadinum
23
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dimedrolum
Diprasinum
Suprastinum
Pipolfenum
35. In the absence of Strophantine in the pharmacy, which preparation from the heart glycosides group
should be used to replace it?
A. * Corglyconum
B. Isolanidum
C. Digitoxinum
D. Adonisidum
E. Celanidum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
36. Name the most common symptom of atropin poisoning.
* Dilation of the pupil, without reaction on the light
Narrowing of the pupil without reaction on the light
Increasing of sweating
Bradicardia
Decrasing of intraocular pressure
37. A patient has come to the doctor with complaints of loosing night sight, and dry cornea. Which
preparation did the doctor prescribe.
A. * Retinolum
B. Piridoxinum
C. Tocoferolum
D. Ascorbinic acid
E. Cocarboxylasum
38. A patient with hypertensia has a high level of renin in the blood plasma. Which pharmacological
group should be given privilege over the others.
A. * ACE-inhibitors
B. Alfa-adrenoblockers
C. Diuretics
D. Ca ions antagonists
E. Sympatolytics
39. A patient with stomach ulcer was prescribed Almagel. Which pharamcological property of the
preparation is used to treat this pathology?
A. * HCl neutralisation
B. Local anestetic activity
C. Blockade of H2-histaminoreceptors
D. Blockade of M-histaminoreceptors
E. Anti-inflammatory activity
40. After a long usage of phenobarbital, a patient with epilepsy has developed a tolerance to the
preparation. What lies at the base of this action?
A. * Acceleration of biotransformation
B. Weakening of drug absorbtion
C. Increasing of receptors sensitivity
D. Weakening of biotransformation
E. Cumulation of the drug in the organism
41. The doctor prescribed a preparation from the tricyclic antidepressants group for a patient with
depression. Name the preparation.
A. * Amitriptillinum
24
B.
C.
D.
E.
Phenozepamum
Droperidolum
Aminalonum
Coffeinum
42. A patient with hypertension has consulted a doctor, complaining on dry cough, which appeared as a
result of treatment. Which hypotensive preparation did she use?
A. * Lisinopril
B. Atenololum
C. Nifedipinum
D. Furosemidum
E. Dichlothiasidum
43. A patient with ulcer was prescribed Famotidine. Explain which mechanism is in the base of its
action?
A. * Blockade of H2-histaminoreceptors
B. Blockade of H1-histaminoreceptors
C. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
D. Inhibition of Н+К+АТP-ase activity
E. Blockade of cholinoreceptors of sympathetic ganglions
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
44. Explain what does the medical term period of half-excretion mean?
* The time required to decrease the drug concentration in the blood by one-half.
The plasma volume which is relieved from the drug during depend time
The time of total elimination of the grug from the organism
The speed of renal excretion of the drug
The ratio of the speed of excretion of the drug and its plasma concentration
45. Reduction in the absorbtion of tetracycline preparation group at their simultaneous usage, with
antacids is an example of:
A. * Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
B. Pharmaceutic incompatibility
C. Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
D. Sinergism of drugs
E. Functional antagonism of the drugs
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
46. An epileptic patient is prescribed a diuretic. Name the drug.
* Diacarbum
Verospironum
Furosemidum
Hypothiasidum
Mannitum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
47. Help a medical student choose an adrenergic preparation to treat anaphylactic shock.
* Adrenalini hydrochloridum
Clophelinum
Galasolinum
Phenoterolum
Isadrinum
A.
B.
C.
D.
48. Give an answer to a visitor of your pharmacy. What side effect is specific for Captopril?
* Dry cough
Hypertension
Hyperglicemia
Disturbances of cardiac rhyth
25
E. Hypokaliemia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
49. Consult, which antihistamine preparation does not have a soporific and sedative action?
* Loratadinum
Dimedrolum
Diprasinum
Suprastinum
Tavegil
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
50. Give an answer to an intern: which preparation is derived from the back of the pitiutary gland.
* Oxitocinum
Insilinum
Prednisolonum
Thyreoidinum
Estronum
51. Help the doctor choose the preparation for replacement therapy after the extraction of the thyroid
gland.
A. * L-thyroxinum
B. Insulinum
C. Prednisolonum
D. Parathyreoidinum
E. Mercasolilum
52. Treating hypertensia, a doctor has prescribed a preparation which blocks angiotensive receptors.
Name it.
A. * Losartanum
B. Nifedipinum
C. Prasosinum
D. Captoprilum
E. Apressinum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
53. What is the mechanism of action of diclofenac sodium?
* Blockade of cyclooxygenase
Activetion of phosphodiesterase synthesis
Inhibition of cholinesterase
Activetion of adenilatcyclase
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
54. A patient with ulcer was prescribed Omeprazole. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
* Inhibition of Н+К+-АТP-ase
Blockade of histaminic H2-receptors
Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
Neutralisation of HCl
Stimulation of mucous secretion
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
55. Which anticeptic provides its bactericidic action by the formation of atomic Oxygen?
* Kalii permanganas
Chloraminum
Furacilinum
Etonium
Argenti nitras
56. A patient with dyskinesia of the digestive tract was prescribed Metoclopramide. What is the
antiemetic action of this preparation related with?
26
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Blockade of D2-receptors
Blockade of M1-cholinoreceptors
Blockade of H1-cholinoreceptors
Stimulation of beta-adrenoreceptors
Stimulation of M1-cholinoreceptors
57. While treating chronic heart failure with digitoxinum, the patient started showing signs of
intoxication. The doctor prescribed Unithyol. Explain, the action of unitiol during heart glycosides intoxication.
A. * Restoration of К+-Na+АTP-ase activity
B. Binding of Ca2+ions
C. Increasing of Na+ level on cardiomyocytes
D. Increasing of permeability of cardiomyocytes for K+
E. Binding of glycoside into the non-active complex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
58. The part of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation is called:
* Bioavaliability
Period of half-adsorbtion
Period of half-excterion
Volume of distribution
Period of half-elimination
59. A 67 year old patient with chronic heart failure is taking digoxin. To reduce the side effects of
digoxin, the doctor advices him to combine it with:
A. * Pananginum
B. Calcii gluconas
C. Euphyllinum
D. Dichlothiazidum
E. Calcii chloridum
60. As a resul of prolonged usage of heparin a stomach bleeding has occured in a patient. Name the
specific heparin antidote, which should immidiately be used.
A. * Protamini sulfas
B. Dipiroximum
C. Vicasolum
D. Bemegridum
E. Natrii citras
61. Which is the main mechanism of action of benzilpenicillinum which provides antibacterial effect
against the coccus flora?
A. * Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. impairment the permeability of the cytoplamatic membrane
D. Activation of immine system of a macroorganism
E. Stimulation of fagocyte’s activity of leucocytes
62. A patient suffering from neurosis with fear and anxiety, was administered Diazepam. Which
pharmacological effect, allows it to be used to treat these symptoms?
A. * Anxiolytic
B. Antiarrythmic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Hypotinsive
E. Antianginal
63. A patient with disturbances of cardiac rhythm was given lidocain. Which pharmacological effect,
except local anaesthesia does this preparation have?
27
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Antiarrythmic
Hypnotic
Anti-fever
Antidepressive
Nootropic
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
64. A patient with acute intoxication needs a forced diuresis. Which drug should be used?
* Furosemidum
Coffeini-natrii benzoas
Galantamini hydrobromidum
Enalaprilum
Pyracetamum
65. A patient who has suffered a brain trauma, was prescribed Piracetam. Which pharmacological group
does this preparation belong to?
A. * Nootropic drugs
B. Non-narcotic analgesics
C. Tranquilizers
D. Drugs for narcosis
E. Neuroleptics
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
66. A patient with hypertensia, a doctor rescribed Lisinopril. What is the mechanism of its action?
* Blockade of ACE (angiotensine-converting enzyme)
Blockade of alfa-adrenoreceptors
Blockade of beta-adrenoreceptors
Stimulation of beta-adrenoreceptors
Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
67. For aterosclerosis treatment a patient in a pharmacy bought hypolipidemic agents from the fibrates
group. Name the preparation.
A. * Fenofibrate
B. Drotaverini hydrochloridum
C. Bisacodilum
D. Spironolactonum
E. Siliborum
68. To prevent stenocardiac attack, a patient is taking Nitroglycerine in capsules. Which is the rational
way of taking the medicine?
A. *Sublingual
B. Peroral
C. Rectal
D. Inhaled
E. Subcutaneous
69. A child is delivered to the hospial with signs of belladonna alcaloids intoxication. Which preparation
should be immediately used as an antidote?
A. * Proserinum
B. Magnesii sulfas
C. Coffeini-natrii benzoas
D. Paracetamolum
E. Natrii valproas
70. a doctor prescribed a patient with chronic constipation the preparation Bisacodyl. After 3 weeks of
treatment the patient noticed the laxative efeect diminished. Which side effect is this associated with?
A. * addictivion
28
B. Sensibilisation
C. Cumulation
D. Disbacteriosis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
71. Advice a patient with acute bronchitis, a mucolitic preparation with expectorant action.
* Acetylsysteinum
Glaucinum
Loratadinum
Diclophenac-sodium
Drotaverini hydrochloridum
72. You are an employee in a pharmaceutical warehouse. While entering recieved preparations into the
computer, name the category of preparations into which you would write Paracetamol?
A. * Non-narcotic analgesic
B. Hypnotic drug
C. Diuretic drug
D. Hypotensive drug
E. Antianginal drug
73. A provisor consulted a patient to buy a preparation that reduces stomach acid production, via
blocking of H2 histamine receptors of the stomach.
A. * Famotidinum
B. Omeprasolum
C. Almagel
D. Atropini sulfas
E. Pirensepinum
74. A patient with stenocardia recieved a prescription for Metoprolol. Which pharmacological effect
allows us to use this preparation for stenocardia treatment?
A. * Antianginal
B. Hypotensive
C. Antiarrythmic
D. Antiplatelet
E. Broncholytic
75. Due to lack of labour activity, a doctor prescribed the woman a hormonal preparation to stimulate
the delivery. Name the preparation.
A. * Oxytocinum
B. Glibenclamidum
C. Prednisolonum
D. Insulinum
E. L-thyroxinum
76. Answer a question of your collegue, the provisor. Which nonsteroid drug is related to the selective
COX-2 blockers?
A. * Celecoxib
B. Analginum
C. Paracetamolum
D. Diclophenac-sodium
E. Acidum acetylsalicylicum
77. Answer a nurse's question. Hypoglycemic action of which preparation is the result of stimulating the
beta-cells of the pancreas?
A. * Glibenclamidum
B. Prednisolonum
29
C. Adrenalini hydrochloridum
D. Retabolilum
E. Heparinum
78. An old patient developed post-opertive intestinal atonia. Which anticholinesterase drug does he
need?
A. * Proserinum
B. Dithylinum
C. Pilocarpini hydrochloridum
D. Atropini sulfas
E. Metoprolol
79.A patient suffering from Parkinsonism was prescribed a preparation with dominante influence on the
dophaminergic system. Name the preparation.
A. * Levodopa
B. Zopiclon
C. Droperidolum
D. Aminazinum
E. Lorazepamum
80. A patient who had been suffering from urolithiasis was delivered to the emergency department with
kidney colic. Which preparation should be given to remove the colic?
A.*Drotaverini hydrochloridum
B. Silibor
C. Almagel
D. Aethymisolum
E. Proserinum
81. Patient N. 56 years old who is suffering from ishemic heart disease was given Metoprolol. What is
the mechanism of beta-adrenoblocker's action on ishemic heart disease?
A. *Decrease oxygen demands of myocardium
B. Increase oxygen demands of myocardium
C. Dilate coronary blood vessels
D. Decrease tone of peripheral vessels
E. Constrict coronary vessels
82. A patient who is suffering from allergic dermatitis came to the hospital. Which preparation, with
antiinflammatory properties should be prescribed?
A. * Prednisolonum
B. Etamidum
C. Oxytocinum
D. Insulinum
E. Retabolilum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
83. A patient with atherosclerosis was given an antiatherosclerotic preparation. Name it.
* Phanofibrate
Ascorbinic acid
Pyracetam
Dexamethasonum
Butadionum
84. A patient after bee bites developed Quincke's edema. Which preparation should be immidiately
injected to remove the allergic reaction?
A. * Adrenalini hydrochloridum
B. Natrii chloridum
30
C. Plathyphyllini hydrotartras
D. Atropini sulfas
E. Anaprillinum
85. A 55 year old man is complaining on insomnia, irritation, and weakness. Which of the preparations
listed below is reasonable to give to the patient in this case?
A. * Nitrasepam
B. Aminasinum
C. Triftasinum
D. Droperidolum
E. Amitriptilinum
86. A patient with hypertonia, was given Metoprolol to reduse the blood pressure. What is the
mechanism of its action?
A.* Blockade of beta-adrenoreceptors
B. Blockade of alfa-adrenoreceptors
C. Indirect adrenomimetic action
D. Spasmolytic action
E. Blockade of angiotensine receptors
87. A patient with bronchial asthma, in order to arrest the onset, was given a preparation, which works
on the base of beta-2-adrenoreceptor stimulation. Name the preparation.
A. * Salbutamolum
B. Adrenalini hydrochloridum
C. Droperidolum
D. Clophellinum
E. Isadrinum
88. A patient with parkinsonism to remove the muscle rigidity was prescribed a preparation, which is a
precursor of dophamine. Name the preparation.
A. * Levodopum
B. Aminazinum
C. Paracetamolum
D. Scopolamini hydrobromidum
E. Atropini sulfas
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
89. A patient with neurosis was given an anxiolitic, derivative of benzodiazepine. Name the preparation.
* Diazepam
Atropini sulfas
Piroxicam
Petabolilum
Cyclodolum
90. A 34 year old patient, who has bronchitis, the doctor prescribed an antitussive preparation with
centrl action. What is the preparation?
A. * Glaucinum
B. Corglyconum
C. Enalapril
D. Furosemidum
E. Fercovenum
91
To patient with insulin independent diabetes the synthetic antidiabetic drug of sulfonylurea group was
appointed. Product name is:
31
*A. Glibenclamid
B. Insulin
C. Anaprylin
D. Prednisolone
E. Furosemide
92
Help physician to choose the drugs of NSAID, which is an inhibitor of COX-2 and does not damage the
stomach.
*A. Celecoxib
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Indomethacin
D. Paracetamol
E. Diclofenac sodium
93
Explain the doctor, what is correctly call the phenomenon of reducing the drug effectiveness in long term
using:
*A. Habituation
B. Sensitization
C. Accumulation
D. Dependence
E. Tachyphylaxy
94
The patient was warned that taking of the drug may cause cough. Name this drug is:
* A. Lizinopryl
B. Clophelinum
C. Fenihidyn
D. Dihlorthiazydum
E. Metoprolol
95
To patients with acute poisoning for forced diuresis the loop diuretic was appointed. What is this medicine?
* A. Furosemide
B. Mannit
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Triamteren
E. Spironolactone
96
Lisinopril was appointed to patients with hypertension. What is a typical side effect inherent in it?
*A. Dry cough
B. Constipation
C. Increased appetite
D. Insomnia
E. Vomiting
97
Recommend to patients with glaucoma drugs of M-cholinomimetics group:
*A. Pilokarpine hydrochloride
B. Ephedrine hydrochloride
C. Sulfate sodium
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Laevomicetin
32
98
Physician said to pharmacist: "Remind me, my colleagues, what so called phenomenon that one drug enhances
the effect of the other":
*A. Potentiation
B. Antagonism
C. Sensitization
D. Abstinence
E. Tachyphylaxy
99
Consult medical interns why Antacids should not use together with iron preparations?
* A. Deceleration of absorption of iron preparations
B. Increases binding to blood proteins
C. Violated deposition of iron in the body
D. Amplifies iron intoxication drugs
E. Accelerated elimination of iron preparations
100
Patients assigned to treat pneumonia Doxyciclini hydrochloride. Which group of antibiotics includes this drug?
* A. Tetracyclines
B Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Cephalosporins
E. Penicillins
101
You are the pharmacist of the pharmacy. Which group of broncholitics should order to pulmonology
department for treatment of patients with asthma?
* A. Beta2-adrenomimetics
B Beta-blockers
C. M-cholinomimetics
D. N-cholinomimetics
E. Anticholinesteraze drugs
102
Dobutamine was introduced to patient with acute heart failure and intolerance to cardiac glycosides. What is the
mechanism of action of this drug?
*A. Stimulation of beta 1-adrenoceptors
B. Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
C. Blockade of K +, Na + ATPase
D. Inhibition of an activity of phosphodiesterase
E. Stimulation of M-cholinoreceptors
103
The doctor has prescribed the drug to the patient for the treatment of thrombosis. The drug was from the group
of anticoagulants of direct action. Name this drug.
*A. Heparin
B. Pheniline
C. Syncumar
D. Neodicumarine
E. Vicasol
33
104
A doctor has appointed a cardiac glycoside from a group of digitalis to the patient with chronic heart failure.
Name this drug:
*A. Digoxin
B. Strophanthin
C. Corvalolum
D. Corglycone
E. Cordiaminum
105
Anaphylactic shock was developed in the patient after vaccination. What was the drug of choice?
*A. Adrenaline (epinephrine) hydrochloride
B Anaprylin
C. Naphtizyn
D. Salbutamol
E. Dytylinum
106
Elderly patients suffering constipation, which is based on hypotonia of a thick intestine. Which drug should be
appointed to the patient for treatment of constipation?
*A. Bisacodyl
B. Sodium sulfate
C. castor oil
D Atropini sulfate
E. Novocainamide
107
A doctor has appointed mucolitic drug to the patient with acute bronchitis. Name it
*A. Acetylcysteine
B. Glaucine
C. Codeine phosphate
D. Ethymizol
E. Bemegride
108
Woman has a bad sleep after suffering a stress. Which of these hypnotic drugs should be preferred to treat
insomnia?
* A. Nitrazepame
B. Phenobarbital
C. chloral hydrate
D. Aminazynum
E. Barbitalum
109
In the addicts after the expiration of drug acting the severe mental, neurological and somatic disorders arise.
What is the name of this symptom?
* A. Abstinence syndrome
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Sensitization
D. Cumulation
E. Tolerance
110
Woman is 65 with mandibular fractures. She takes narcotic analgesic. Name of this drug is:
*A. Promedole
34
B. Pyracetamum
C. Heparin
D. Cinnaryzyne
E Furosemide
111
Patient with hypertensive disease takes the drug of the nonselective beta-adrenoblockers group. Name the
drug.
* A. Anaprylin
B. Prazozyne
C. Proserin
D. Epinephrine hydrochloride
E. Labetalol
112
Which drug should enter as the antidote to the patients with acute morphine poisoning?
*A. Naloxone
B. Lobelini hydrochloride.
C. Bemehryd.
D. Atropini sulfate
E. unitiolum
113
For the treatment of glaucoma a doctor decided to direct cholinomimetic drug of direct action. What is this
medicine?
*A. Pilocarpini hydrochloride
B. Zinc sulfate
C. Sulphacil sodium
D. Platyfillini hidrotartrat
E. Atropini sulfate
114
In process of pharmacotherapy of bronchitis dyspeptic disorders, photodermatitis and liver dysfunction arise
in the patient. Which drug is designed to the patient could cause these effects?
* A. Doxycycline
B. Paracetamol
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Acetylcysteine.
E. Codeine phosphate
115
Patient suffering gall-stone disease. Which drug should be appointed to removal of hepatic colic?
*A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Amalgel
C. Contrical
D. Bisacodyl
E. Pancreatin.
116
Help the doctor to choose the narcotic analgesic that can be used for anesthesia delivery?
*A. Promedol
B. Paracetamol
C. Codeine phosphate
D. Fentanyl
E. Analgine
35
117
A patient with a diagnosis of stomach ulcer in the acute phase was hospitalized. Consult medical intern, what is
the drug reduces the function of stomach glands by blockade of H2-receptors:
*A. Famotidine
B. Belladonna dry extract
C. Metacynum
D. Atropini sulfate
E. Platiphyllini hydrotartrat
118
Choose on the pharmacy stock anticholinesteraze drug of reversible action for the surgery department for
patients with intestene and urinary bladder atonia in the postoperative period
*A. Proserin
B. Phosphacol
C. Benzohexonium
D. Atropini sulfate
E. Dytylinum
119
Came the order from the surgery department to the hospital pharmacy to receive the drug of the group of
depolarizing myorelaxants for surgical interventions. What medicine was ordered?
*A. Dytylinum
B. Nicotine
C. Atropini sulfate
D Metacynum
E. Hygronium
120
The patient asked the pharmacist to give the drug that treats the headache that has antiplatelet action. Name
this medicine is:
*A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Codeini phosphate
C. Promedol
D. Tramadol
E. Fentanyl
121
Patient who suffered acute myocardial infarction a doctor recommended to take acetylsalicylic acid during 3-4
months. What is the action of acetylsalicylic acid the doctor calculated?
*A. Antiplatelet
B. Antipyretic
C. Analgesic
D. Antiinflammatory
E. Antispasmodic
122
The doctor-intern asked the pharmacist for advice, which drug is better to take the patient with the diagnosis of
amebic dysentery.
*A. Metronidazole
B. Pirantel
C. Levomizolum
D. Bicillinum -5
E. Benzylpenicillinum sodium
36
123
During the surgical interference with the application of neuromuscular blocking agent tubocurarine the
respiratory violation is developed in the patient, and this violation was eliminated after the introduction of
Proserinum. What is the name of this interaction between the drugs?
*A. Antahonyzm
B. Accumulation
C. Incompatibility
D. Tachyphylaxy
E. Synergism
124.
in patient that a long time suffered diseases of stomach The hypercromic anemya was revealed in patient
that a long time suffered diseases of stomach. What the drug is used for treatment of this disease?
* A. Cyanocobalamine
B. Ascorbynic acid
C. Unytyolum
D. Ferrum Lek
E. Oxyferryscabone
125
There is the woman of 25 years with the phenomenon of acute morphine intoxication. Naloxone was
introduced her and it caused the improving of her condition. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
*A. Blockade of opioid receptors
B. Blockade of GABA receptors
C. Serotonin receptors blockade
D. Blockade of dopamine receptors
E. Blockade of benzodiazepine receptors
126
To narcological department a patient with morphinism was hospitalized. The doctor appointed the reduction
of pharmacological activity of morphine. What is the phenomenon of reducing the effect of morphine in the reintroduction?
*A. Habituation
B. Material cumulation
C. Functional cumulation
D. Antagonism
E. Summation
127
Drug of choice for treatment of trichomoniasis are:
*A. Metronidazole
B. Oletetryn
C. Norfloxacinum
D. Nystatin
E. Claforan
128
Select a drug for treatment of bronchial asthma from the group of α2-Adrenostymulators.
*A. Salbutamol
B. Euphylin
C. Atrovent
D. Ketotifen
E. Beclometasone
37
129
The antipsychotic drug was assigned to the patient with schizophrenia. Which of the following drugs belongs
to this group?
*A. Aminazynum
B. Celecoxib
C. Anaprylin
D. Morphine
E. Pyracetamum
130
A student with a request addressed to a pharmacy to advise the drug for elimination of manifestations of
allergic rhinitis, which occurs in during of the flowering limes. Which drug you can apply?
* A. Loratadine
B. Adrenaline
C. Anaprylin
D. Ambroxol
E. Losartan
131
There is the patient with the stomach ulcer. The drug which of these groups need to use in complex therapy of
the patient?
*A. H2 blockers of histamine receptors
B. H1 blockers of histamine receptors
C. β-blockers
D. α–adrenoblockers
E. α- adrenomimetics
132
Patient with rheumatoid arthritis and concomitant peptic ulcer of duodenum should be appointed NSAID drugs.
Which drug is the drug of choice in this case?
*A. Celecoxib
B. Aspirin
C. Paracetamol
D. Analgene
E. Diclofenac sodium
133
To the patient with ischemic heart disease for a quick withdrawal of angina attack a doctor appointed a
medicine that should be taken under the tongue. Specify this preparation.
*A. Nitroglycerin
B. Corglycon
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Lisinopril
E. Amiodarone
134
In a test for sensitivity to benzylpenicillin the patient was developed anaphylactic shock. Which drug should be
introduced to place of direction of antibiotic?
* A. Adrenaline hydrochloride
B. Norepinephrine
C. Atropine sulfate
D. Propranolol
E. Ceftriaxon
38
135
Name the drug of tetracyclines, which was appointed to the patient with bronchitis for treatment
* A. Doxycycline hydrochloride
B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C. Acyclovir
D. Isoniazid
E. Chingaminum
136
For the treatment of atherosclerosis, the patient acquired in the pharmacy lipid-lowering drug fenofibrate.
Which pharmacological group is this drug?
*A. Fibrates
B. Nitrofurans
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. β-blockers
E. M-cholinoblockers
137
Remind your colleague as a pharmacist called the phenomenon, when one drug attenuates the effects of
another?
*A. Antagonism
B. Habituation
C. Sensibilization
D. Potentiation
E. Tachyphylaxis
138
Explain to your colleague, who is the pharmacist, what the indication for the use of naloxone?
*A. Acute narcotic poisoning
B. Heavy metal poisoning
C. Poisoning by cardiac glycosides
D. Poisoning by ergot alkaloids
E. Poisoning by atropine sulfate
139
Patient for the treatment of bronchial asthma, a doctor has prescribed the drug from the group of αadrenoagonists. Specify this drug.
*A. Salbutamol
B. Diazepam
C. Doxycycline hydrochloride
D. Nitroglycerin
E. Digoxin
140
Which of the following drugs for sublingual application quickly relieves angina pectoris?
*A. Nitroglycerin
B. Digoxin
C. Amiodarone
D. Lisinopril
E. Corglycon
141
Thanks to what pharmacological effect of diazepam is used to treat neuroses?
* A. Anxiolytic
39
B. Analgesic
C. Diuretic
D. Antipyretic
E. Antidepressant
142
You are pharmacist, passing an internship. At the time the test examination select the pharmacological effect
of Chlorpromazine which allows to treat psychoses?
* A. Antipsychotic
B. Hypothermic
C. Anti-inflammatory
D> Antiemetics
E. Spasmolitic
143
Answer the question of his colleague pharmacist What the mechanism of action of NSAIDs
Celecoxib?
*A. Selective inhibition of COX-2
B. Blockade of ACE
C. Stimulation of the M-cholinergic receptors
D. Blockade of H2-histamine receptors
E. Stimulation β2-adrenoceptors
144
Answer the question the young doctor: What is name the ability of drugs to accumulate in the patient body?
*A. Cumulation
B. Antagonism
C. Synergy
D. Habituation
E. Allergies
145
You are the pharmacist of the hospital. Select from the received drugs in your pharmacy the drug, which refers
to the fat-soluble vitamins
* A. Retinol acetate
B. Oxytocin
C. Acyclovir
D. Heparin
E. Diphenhydramine
146
Help a young doctor to choose from available in your pharmacy chemotherapeutic drugs the medicine for the
treatment of a patient suffering Herpes
*A. Acyclovir
B. Rifampicin
C. Doxycycline hydrochloride
D. Hingamin
E. Metronidazole
147
What is the pharmacological effect of acetylsalicylic acid can be used in patients with ischemic heart disease to
prevent thrombosis?
* A. Antiplatelet
B. Analgesic
C. Antipyretics
40
D. Ulcerogenic
E. Anti-inflammatory
148
Patient with glaucoma doctor has ordered Neostigmine methylsulfate in the form of eye drops. To what
pharmacological group is this drug?
*A. Anticholinesterase of reversible action
B. M-holinoblocker
C. N-cholinomimetik
D. α-adrenoblocker
E. α -adrenoceptors agonists
149
Which drug from the group of local anesthetics is used in patients with irregular heartbeat?
*A. Lidocaine
B. Paracetamol
C. Morphine hydrochloride
D. Caffeine-sodium benzoate
E. Nitrazepam
150
Patients with renal colic takes the complex therapy with one added spasmolytic from cholinoblocker. group.
Name this drug is:
*A. Aatropine
B. Neostigmine methylsulfate
C. Galantamine
D. Dytylin
E. Benzohexonium
151
The nonselective β-adrenoblocker was used in treating of extrasystolia:
* A. Anaprylin
B. Atenolol
C. Fentolamin
D. Prazozin
E. Reserpine
152
Antipsychotic was appointed to patient with psychosis:
* A. Aminazyn
B. Diazepam
C. Cyclodol
D. Caffeine
E. Phenobarbitalum
153
The fear, emotional stress in a patient with neurosis allowed the doctor to pick up drug reducing these
symptoms:
*A. Diazepam
B. Lithium carbonate
C. Sydnocarbum
D. Nootropil
E. Caffeine
41
154
Salbutamol was appointed to patient with bronchial asthma. After that the symptom of bronchospasm was
disappeared. This is due to stimulation of:
*A. beta2-adrenoreceptors
B. Alpha1- adrenoreceptors
C. M-cholinoreceptors
D. Synthesis of acetylcholine
E. Beta1- adrenoreceptors
155
After long-term receiving of Isosorbite to prevent attacks of angina pectoris the patient noted a significant
reduction of its effect. What phenomenon occurred?
*A. Tolerance
B. Accumulation
C. Physical dependence
D. Allergies
E. Potentiation
156
During the weakness of delivery was prescribed:
*A. Oxytocin
B. No Spa
C. Progesterone
D. Vikasol
E. Fenoterol
157
The drug of NSAID group was assigned to patient with chronic coronary disease to prevent thrombosis.
*A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Ibuprofen
C. Piroxicam
D. Mefenamic acid
E. Indomethacin
158
The anticoagulant of direct action was injected intravenously to patients with myocardial infarction:
*A. Heparin
B. Neodicumarinum
C. Vikasol
D. Thrombin
E. Calcium gluconate
159
Specify antibiotic for treatment of syphilis is:
*A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Kanamycin
D. Amphotericin
E. Nystatin
160
The diagnosis is trichomoniasis. What antimicrobial agent should be appointed for treatment of this disease?
* A. Metronidazole
B. Ampicillin
C. Chloroquine
42
D. Nystatin
E. Gentamicin
161
Herpetic rash was appeared in the patient. What drug should be appointed for treatment?
*A. Acyclovir
B. Gentamicin
C. Clotrimazolum
D. Benzylpenicyllin
E. Biseptol
162
For individual prevention of malaria the drug was appointed:
*A Chingaminum
B. Rifampicin
C. Ampicillin
D. Gentamicin
E. Biseptol (Co-trimoxazolum)
163
On what typical side effect of Glaucinum hydrochloricum should notify the patient with chronic bronchitis?
* A. Reducing blood pressure
B. Excitation of the central nervous system
C. Destroy of cardiac rhythm
D. Increased intraocular pressure
E. Allergic skin rashes
164
Patients with allergic dermatitis after bee stings was designed Loratadine. for treatment. What is the
mechanism of this anti-allergic drug?
*A. Inhibition of histamine H1-receptors
B. Inhibition of histamine H2-receptors
C. Blockade of D4 -leucotrien receptors
D. Reducing of leukotriene releasing
E. Antiserotonin activity
165
A doctor in case of suspicion of cholera appointed to patient Doxycycline hydrochloride. What
group of antibiotics includes this drug?
*A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillins
C. Cephalosporin
D. Cyclic polypeptides
E. Macrolides and Azalides
166
Which cholinotropic drugs are used in glaucoma to reduce intraocular pressure?
* A. Pilocarpinum
B. Atropine
C. Platyphyllinum
D. Skopolaminum
E. Methacinum
167
There is the patient of 30 with sleep disorder and neurosis. The doctor appointed him Diazepam. What caused
43
the psycho-sedative effect of the drug?
*A. Activation of GABA system
B. Inhibition of the limbic system
C. Inhibition of reticular formation
D. Reducing of norepinephrine in the CNS
E. Inhibition of opioid receptors
168
Why Benzylpenicillin sodium salt isn’t used inside (per oral)?
*A. Is destroyed by HCl of stomach
B. Has bad absorbtion in the GIT
C. Irritates the mucous membrane of the stomach
D. Reduces the formation of gastric HCl
E. Is destroyed by penicillinase
169
Advise to doctor the drug which is an antagonist of Neodicumarinum in case of bleeding is caused by
prolonged use of this drug.
*A. Vikasol
B. Aminokapronovaya acid
C. Etamzylat
D. Fibrinogen
E. Ascorbic acid
170
Which drug in overdose of narcotic analgesics should be used as an antidote to relieve inhibition of the
respiratory center?
* A. Naloxone;
B. Cordiamin;
C. Etymizol;
D. Camphora
E. Solutio Ammonii caustici
171
Women has a protracted period of delivery. Select the drug from the list which has physiological action for
stimulation of uterus.
* A. Oxytocinum
B. Proserinum
C. Pachycarpinum
D. Progesteronum
E. Estronum
172
Patient is 48. For removal of heavy attacks of asthma the solution of Prednisolone was entered intravenously.
To which hormonal group Prednisolone belongs?
*A. Glucocorticoids
B. Gestagen preparations
C. Estrogenic preparations
D. Mineralocorticoid hormones
E. Anabolic steroids
173
You work in a pharmacy, which is located in the Skin -Venereal Diseases Dispensary. Consult medical interns:
what is the antibiotic which is the drug of choice (the best drug) for treatment of syphilis?
* A. Benzylpenicillinum sodium salt
44
B. Lincomycin hydrochloride
C. Levorynum sodium salt
D. Streptomycin sulfate
E. Polymyxin M sulfate
174
You work in pharmaceutical firm in the market department. Explain intern: which of pharmacological groups
Phenofibrate belongs:
*A. Hypolipidemic drugs
B. Fibrinolysis inhibitor
C. Soporific means
D. Antihypertensive drugs
E. Anticoagulant of indirect action
175
You are an pharmacist-informator and work at the pharmacy. Advise patient with acute rheumatoid arthritis
anti-inflammatory analgesic drug, that is less than the whole stomach hurts.
*A. Celecoxib
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Acetylsalicylic acid
D. Ibuprofen
E. Indomethacinum
176
You are pharmacist. For window dressing of Pharmacy select the loop diuretics of emergency, strong and
short-term actions:
*A. Furosemide
B. Clopamide
C. Diacarbum
D. Spironolactone
E. Triamterenum
177
During local anaesthetization novocaine solution is usually compounded with solution of
adrenaline hydrochloride. What is the purpose of this action?
A Vasoconstriction
B Vasodilatation
C Increase in smooth muscle tone
D Decrease in smooth muscle tone
E Algesthesia reduction
45
2011-2012
TESTS for training
1. A patient with symptoms of phosphorganic poisoning was taken to emergency department. Which of the
following drugs must be used as a drug of first aid?
A. Unithyolum
B. Potassium chloride
С. Atropine
D. Chlorpromazine (Aminazine)
E. Glucose
2. After abdominal surgery performed under general anaes thesia with non-depolarizing myorelaxant
spontaneous respiration was not restored. Which of the following drugs is to be used as an antidote of nondepolarizing myorelaxant?
A. Aceclidinum
B. Pilocarpin
C. Neostigmine (Proserin)
D. Hyascine
E. Isonitrosine
3. A 5 years old child was taken to toxicological department with Belladonna poisoning. Alongside with
peripheral manifestations the CNS symptoms were manifested. Which of the following agents has to be
administered as an antidote?
A. Aceclidin
B. Pilocarpin
C. Neostigmine (Proserin)
D. Adrenaline
E. Galantamine hydrobromide
4. A patient suffering from insomnia addressed his doctor. The main problem was in the difficulties with sleep onset.
Doctor prescribed zolpidem. Which of the following characteristics is true for this agent?
A. It belongs to benzodiazepine derivatives
B. It belongs to barbiturates
C. It has the ability to cause quick onset of sleep
D. It's poorly absorbed from GIT
E. It poorly binds to protein
5. A 67 year-old male patient suffering from arthritis was treating himself with acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin).
In 2 weeks patient addressed doctor complaining of pain in epigastric area. On examination of the patient doctor
prescribed anti-inflammatory agent, selectively inhibiting COX-2. Point out this drug.
A. Paracetamole
B. Diclophenac-sodium
C. Celecoxib
D. Metamisole (Analginum)
E. Indomethacine
6. In complex treatment of a patient with angina pectoris non-narcotic analgesic exerting antiplatelet activity
was included. Point out this agent.
A. Meperidine
B. Morphine
С. Tramadol
D. Metamizole
E. Aspirin
7. A patient was treated for psychosis for 2 weeks. The psychic patient's condition improved but rigidity, tremor,
and hypoki-nesia developed. Which of the drugs can cause such complications?
46
A. Diazepam
B. Chlorpromazine (Aminazinum)
С. Amytriptiline
D. Piracetam
E. Chlordiazepoxide
8. For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed antiadrenergic drug, first administration of which
in therapeutic dose caused "first dose syncope". Which drug was most probably used?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Prazosin
D. Reserpin
E. Propranolol
9. A 43 year-old male patient is suffering from hypertension. His blood pressure was successfully controlled by
monotherapy with adrenoblocker. With time treatment was complicated with diarrhoea and impotence. The
patient addressed his doctor and the drug was changed for another adrenoblocker. Which of adrenoblockers can
cause above listed side effects?
A. Metoprolol
B. Salbutamol
С Propranolol
D. Dobutamine
E. Prazosin
10. Which of the listed drugs is usually added to local anaesthetic to prolong its action and to decrease toxicity?
A. Noradrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Adrenaline
D. Reserpine
E. Atropine
11.
For testing refraction of eye atropine was instilled into conjunctival sac. On completion of the procedure
another cholinergic drug was used to counteract mydriasis and cycloplegia, caused by atropine. Point out this
drug.
A. Pilocarpine
B. Lobeline
С Hyoscine (Scopolamine)
D. Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
E. Pirenzepine
12. In complex treatment of a child, suffering from cerebral palsy, a doctor decided to include anticholinesterase
drug moder ately improving mental development. Choose this drug.
A. Physostigmine
B. Neostigmine (Proserinum)
C. Galanthamine
D. Pilocarpine
E. Lobeline
13. Administration of pirenzepine in patients with gastric peptic ulcer is not accompanied by numerous side effects
characteristic for atropine and other M-cholinoblckers due to
A. Inability to penetrate through blood brain barrier
B. Selective inhibition of Mi-cholinoceptors
С. Inhibition of all types of M-cholinoceptors
D. Inhibition of cholinesterase
E. Significant protein binding
14. It is known that administration of tubocurarine during surgery can enhance the development of postoperative
paralyticileus. What is the mechanism of this side effect of tubocurarine?
A. Inhibition of M-cholinoceptors
47
B. Inhibition of cholinesterase
С. Ganglion blocking activity
D. Stimulation of M-cholinoceptors
E.
Stimulation of both M- and N-cholinoceptors
15. A 56-year-old patient with chronic alcoholism became aggressive. To abolish aggression chlorpromazine
(aminazimim) was administered. What is the mechanism of antipsychotic effect of this drug?
A. Blockade of reticular formation
B. Blockade of dopamine D2-receptors
С. Blockade of M-cholinoceptors
D. Blockade of a-adrenoceptors
E. Blockade of [3-adrenoceptors
16. To perform fundoscopy ophthalmologist instilled in the eye an agent capable of causing mydriasis without
cycloplegia. Point out this agent.
A. Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
B. Noradrenaline
С. Atropine
D. Pilocarpine
A. Isoprenaline (Isadrinum)
17. A young woman with breast cancer after surgery was treated with a chemotherapeutic complex. At the very
beginning of treatment the patient experienced much distressing nausea and vomiting. Choose the best agent to
relieve patient's condition
A. Hyoscine (Aeronum)
B. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrolum)
C. Validolum
D. Chlorpromazine (Aminazinum)
E. Metoclopramide
18. Due to inhibition of COX aspirin exerts all the following effects except
A. Anti-inflammatory
B. Antiplatelet
C. Increase in warfarin efficacy
D. Antipyretic
E. Analgesic
19. Which of the following antiadrenergic drugs used in the treatment of hypertension is contraindicated in
patients prone to bronchospasm?
A. Prazosin
B. Metoprolol
C. Reserpine
D. Atenolol
E. Propranolol (Anaprilinum)
20. Characteristic side effects associated with sulfa drugs are all the following except
A. Allergic reaction
B. Hypokalemia
C. Crystallurea
D. Agranulocytosis
E. Kernicterus
21. Patient with gastric peptic ulcer was treated with omeprazole. This agent is capable of decreasing in HCl
production because it
A. Neutralizes gastric acid
B. Blocks Eb-histamine receptors
C. Inhibits the H+, K+-ATPase proton pump
48
D. Coats gastric mucosa
E. Blocks muscarinic receptors
22. In the presence of a beta-blocker administration of adrenaline is most likely to cause:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperglycemia
E. Hypotension.
23.
Very painful uterine contractions have been occurring in a pregnant woman at normal term. To relieve the
woman's condition during labour, a doctor decided to use opioid (narcotic) analgesic. Which of the listed drags can
be used in this case?
A. Trimeperidine (Promedolum)
B. Morphine
C. Metamizole (Analginum)
D. Papaverine
E. Codeine
24. Point out antihypertensive agent that increases salts and H2O excretion and can cause hyperglycemia and uric
acid retention?
A. Nifedipine
B. Propranolol
С. Prazosin
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
E. Acetazoleamide (Diacarbum)
25. Which of the following conditions is alleviated by centrally acting anti-cholinergic drugs?
A. Depression
B. Multiple sclerosis
С. Mania
D. Parkinsonism
E. Psychosis
26. Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce positive inotropic and negative chronotropic effects?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Furosemide
C. Diltiazem
D. Procainamide
E. Digoxin
27.
A hypertensive patient was treated with the drug suppressing the formation of angiotensin II and preventing
degradation of bradykinine. Point out the drug realizing antihypertensive effect by these mechanisms.
A. Nifedipine
В. Guanethidine
C. Clonidine
D. Enalapril
E. Propranolol
28. A hypertensive patient was fond of meat dishes and did not keep proper diet. In the course of complex
antihypertensive treatment an acute attack of gout developed. Which of the following agents is responsible for
worsening of patient condition?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Prazosin
C. Allopurinol
D. Acetazolamide
E. Propranolol
49
29. A 46-year-old patient with a history of epilepsy (grandmal) developed status epilepticus. Choose the
drug to arrest convulsions.
A. Sodium valproate
B. Diazepam
C. Levodopa
D. Chlorpromazine
E. Droperidol
30. A 67-year-old man treated with hydrochlorothiazide for control of mild hypertension visited his doctor
complaining of pains in joints. Which of the listed side effects is the most probable cause of patient's complains?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Drug hypersensitivity
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hypokalemia
31. A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with severe epigastric pain. On the base of patient
examination and laboratory findings an acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the drugs is to be administered in
this case?
A. Pancreatin
B. Mezym forte
C. Contrycal
D. Morphine
E. Fentanyl
32. On discontinuation of heparin treatment of patient with myocardial infarction administration of warfarin
was started. This drug exerts its anticoagulant effect by
A. Blocking calcium binding to clotting factors
B. Forming a complex with clotting factors
C. Breaking down thrombin
D. Inhibiting of pro-clotting factor synthesis in the liver
E. Depolymerization of fibrin
33. A patient with angina pectoris was helping himself with nitroglycerin. One day the patient used
nitroglycerin several times because of frequent episodes of pain. So as the last sublingual administration of
nitroglycerin did not relieve pain, the patient addressed his doctor. Doctor advised him to withdraw nitroglycerin
for 8 hours and prescribed another drug. After 8 hours the effect of nitroglycerin was restored. Which phenomenon
did take place in this case?
A. Increase in nitroglycerin metabolism
B. Increase in protein binding
C. Decrease of absorption
D. Drug dependence
E. Tolerance
34.
A patient in an unconscious state was admitted to the emergency room. Diabetic coma was diagnosed.
Intravenous administration of regular insulin was performed. Which of listed agents in addition to insulin is
commonly used intravenously to normalize patient's condition?
A. Acarbose
B. Tolbutamide
С. Glibenclamide
D. Metformin
E. Sodium bicarbonate
35. A patient with toothache was relieving his pain with help of metamizole (analginum). Point out another
useful effect of this drug that contributes to the improvement of patient's condition
A. Sedative effect
50
B. Anti-inflammatory effect
C. Antlplatelet effect
D. Antioxidative effect
E. Antimicrobial effect
36. The usage of acetylsalicylic acid resulted in occurrence of epigastric pain in patient. On examination
of the patient gastric ulcer was revealed. What the mechanism is responsible for ulcerogenity of this drug?
A. Stimulation of pepsin secretion
B. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
С Increase in bile production and its refluxr
D. Spasm of vessels
E. Spasm of gastric smooth muscles
37. A patient with bronchial asthma addresses his doctor with complaints about unpleasant palpitations
that occur after usage of inhalation form of isoprenaline (isadrinum). What is the cause of this side effect?
A. stimulation of ai-adrenoceptros
B. stimulation of аг-adrenoceptros
C. stimulation of pVadrenoceptros
D. stimulation of p2-adrenoceptros
E. inhibition of M-chlolinoceptors
38. A patient with poisoning caused by carbon monoxide was administered directly acting analeptic
drug. What medicine was used?
A. Codeine
B. Ephedrine
C. Caffeine
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Lobeline
39. A patient with pinpoint pupils, sweating, salivation, abdominal cramps, disturbances in respiration
was admitted to the emergency room. Poisoning with what substance is the most likely occurred?
A. Non-narcotic analgesics
B. Sedatives
C. Narcotic analgesics
D. M-cholinergic antagonists
E. Muscarine
40. A teenager with a fracture of the hand was taken to the emergency room. To perform reposition of
fractured bones it was necessary to relax skeletal muscle. For this purpose myorelaxant causing
depolarization of the post synaptic membrane was administered. Which of the following agents was
used?
A. Pancuronium
B. Atracurium
C. D-tubocurarine
D. Succinylcholine
E. Neostigmine (Proserinum)
41. In the treatment of a patient suffering from congestive heart failure resistant to digitalis an
adrenomimetic was used as an inotropic agent. Point out which of the following drugs was
administered.
A. Phenylephrine
B. Partusisten
C. Dobutamine
D. Adrenaline
E. Noradrenaline
42. A premature newborn was apnoic. Directly acting analeptic drug was given to restore breathing. What medicine
was most probably administered to the patient?
51
A. Aethimisolum
B. Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
C. Adrenaline
D. Atropine
E. Lobeline
43. A 72-year woman suffering from angina pectoris was treat ed by propranolol (anaprilinium). On the
background of the treatment cough with bronchospastic components was developed. Doctor replaced propranolol
with metoprolol. This resulted in abolishing of respiratory disturbances. What is the reason for the beneficial effect of
metoprolol?
A. Block of M-cholinoceptors
B. Absence of upon pYadrenoceptors
C. Stimulating of M-cholinoceptors
D. Inhibition of m-cholinireceptors
E. Absence of action on a-adrenoceptors
44. Doctor prescribed selective ai-adrenoceptor blocker for treatment of hypertensive patient. Which of the
following drugs belongs to this group?
A. Metoprolol
B. Phentolamine
С. Amiodarone
D. Tropaphenum
E. Prazosin
45. A patient with angina pectoris was treated with a drug decreasing oxygen demands of myocardium. During
treatment, the patient started to complain of coldness of extremities especially fingers. Which of the drug was used?
A. Atenolol
B. Propanol (anaprilin)
C. Reserpine
D. Prazosin
E. Labetalol
46. A patient, after the stroke, developed paralysis of the hand and leg. To restore movement of the paralyzed
extremities the patient was treated with cholinomimetic. Which of the listed drugs was used for this purpose?
A. Aceclidinum
B. Pilocarpine
C. Physostigmine
D. Neostigmine (proserinum)
E. Lobeline
47. A patient suffering from gastric peptic ulcer was treated with cholinotropic drug selectively blocking Micholinoceptors of parietal cells of gastric glands. Point out this drug?
A. Atropine
B. Plathyphylline
C. Methacinum
D. Pirenzepine
E. Hyoscine (Scopolamine)
48. A 63 years patient with symptoms of collapse was admitted into emergency department. The doctor chose
noradrenaline to overcome collapse. What mechanism is responsible for therapeutic effect of this drug?
A. Activation of ai-adrenoceptors
B. Activation of (32-adrenoceptors
C. Activation of dopaminergic receptors
D. Blockade of M-cholinoceptors
E. Activation of serotonin receptors
52
49. A 60 year-old woman addressed her doctor complaining of side effects, which appeared while treatment with
chlorpromazine (aminazinum). She was troubled with tremor and disturbances of movements. What is the
mechanism of these side effects?
A. Activation of hyppocampus
B. Inhibition of reticular formation (ai-adrenoceptors)
C. Inhibition of neostriatum (D2 receptors)
D. Inhibition of hypothalamus
E. Inhibition of hyppocampus
50. A 50 years old patient with chronic alcoholism became aggressive. To abolish aggression, chlorpromazine was
administered intramuscularly. The patient's attempt to rise soon after an injection resulted in loss of consciousness.
What is the probable cause of such complication?
A. Blockade of reticular formation
B. Disturbance of coronary blood circulation
С. Blockade of a- adrenoceptors
D. Inhibition of hypothamus
E. Blockade of M-cholinoceptors'
51. To lance abscess a doctor performed local anaesthesia with a therapeutic dose of Procaine (Novocainamidum), but
it was not sufficient. What was the cause of decrease in anaesthetic effect?
A. Quick absorption of drug
B. Quick metabolism of anaesthetic
C. Alkaline medium
D. Acidic pH of tissues
E. Neutral medium
52. A patient with Raynaud disease was treated with niphedipme. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Blockade of p-adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of a-adrenoceptors
C. Decrease in neurotransmitter amount
D. Calcium channels' blockade
E. Blockade of central M-cholinoceptors
53. A patient with initial form of hypertension complains of pain in heart and tachycardia. Which of the
following drugs has to be used in the treatment of this patient?
A. Phentolamine
B. Dihydroergotamine
C. Propranolol (Anaprilin)
D. Prazoscin
E. Guanethidine (Octadinum)
54. Patient having episodes of bronchial asthma in the past addressed his doctor with heart pains. An angina
pectoris was diagnosed. The doctor decided to treat the patient with β-adrenoblocker. Which of βadrenoblocker is not contraindi-cated in this case?
A. Propranolol (Anaprilinum)
B. Metoprolol
C. Oxprenolol
D. Pindolol
E. Nadolol
55. A surgeon is going to perform the operation under local anaesthesia. The probable duration of operation is
more than 2 hours. In the past the patient was complaining for ventricular extrasystole. Which anaesthetic is
reasonable to chose for local anaesthesia?
A. Tetracaine (dicainum)
B. Procaine (novocainum)
C. Benzocaine (anaesthesinum)
D. Lidocaine
E. Cocaine
53
56.
A dentist revealed that his patient is suffering from hyper-sensitivity to procaine. Which of the following
agents may be used for local anaesthesia in this case?
A. Benzocaine (anaesthesinum)
B. Tramadol
C. Tetracaine (Dicainum)
D. Lidocaine
E. Cocaine
57. A psychiatrist was invited to a patient who made an attempt to commit suicide. Doctor diagnosed
endogenous depression. Choose the most suitable drug for treatment of this patient.
A. Nootropil (piracetam)
B. Amytriptyline
C. Sydnocarbum
D. Ethymisolum
E. Caffeine
58. A patient had a stroke. Which of the listed drugs is necessary to include in the complex therapy in order to
improve mental performance?
A. Caffeine
B. Piracetam
C. Diazepam
D. Phenazepam
E. Amitryptiline
59. What is the main mechanism by which amitriptyline in creases amount of catecholamines in CNS synapses?
A. Increase in catecholamines release from presynaptic membrane
B. Increase in catecholamines synthesis in presynaptic membrane
C. Prevention of catecholamines degradation in the synapse
D. Inhibition of neuronal re uptake of catecholamines
E. Inhibition of MAO
60. After emotional stress patient was permanently in a condition of nervous tension and had poor sleep. Doctor
prescribed him diazepam. Which of the listed effects of this drug is responsible for its clinical use?
A. Hypotensive effect
B. Analgesic effect
C. Anticonvulsant
D. Tranquilizing
E. Anti psychotic
61. Antiepileptic drug, which prevents metabolism of GAB A, was included in complex therapy of patient with
epilepsy (grand mal). Point out this drug.
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbitone
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ethosuximide
E. Sodium valproate
62. A 60-year-old male is brought to emergency room. He is comatose and his pupils are constricted.
Physician suspects opium overdose. What is the best drug to be administered?
A. Flumazanil
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Naloxone
E. Atropine
63.
A young boy with dislocation of shoulder joint is brought to emergency ward. It is necessary to relax
skeletal muscles to set dislocated bone. For this purpose succinylcholine (dithylinum) is comonly used. But doctor
54
avoids this agent due to his tory of death of one of patent's relatives after succinylcholine administration. What
was the cause of death connected with succinylcholine?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Cardiac insufficiency
D. Triggering of malignant hyperthermia
E. Severe bronchospasm
64. A patient given succinylcholine for skeletal muscle relaxation during an operation has not restored
spontaneous respiration after operation. What must be used to restore the respiration?
A. Carbogen
B. Lobelin
С Neostigmine
D. Blood transfusion
E. Caffeine
65. A 59-year-old man develops excessive salivation and sweating, diarrhea, and bradycardia while being treated
with neostigmine for myasthenia gravis. Choose the drug to abolish above-mentioned side effects.
A. Atropine
B. Carbachol
С Edrophonium
D. Adrenaline
E. Pralidoxime
66. The blood pressure of hypertensive patient is successfully controlled by administration of enalapril. Which
mechanism is responsible for antihypertensive effect of this drug?
A. Inhibition of peripheral ai-adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C. Inhibition of renin release
D. Inhibition of ACE
E. ACE inhibition and stimulation of kallikrein–kinin system
67. Metabolism can render pharmacological activity to some initially inert substances (pro-drug). Point out the
substance, which is pro-drug, used for treatment of hypertension.
A. Levodopa
B. Enalapril
C. Verapamil
D. Reserpine
E. Propranolol
68. A 62-year-old patient, prone to bronchoconstriction, addressed his doctor with complaints of
tachyarrhythmia troubling him several times a day. The doctor prescribed anaprilin (propranolol).
Administration of this drug provoked severe attack of bronchospasm. What is the mechanism of this side
effect?
A. Stimulation of Mi-cholinoceptors
B. Inhibition of a-adrenoceptors
C. Inhibition of P2-adrenoceptors
D. Increase in n. vagus tone
E. Stimulation of leukotriene release
69. A pregnant woman developed rhythmic uterine contractions at the physiological term of delivery. But
contractions were not progressing in force and frequency. Choose the drug for stimulation of uterine contraction.
A. Oxytocin
B. Ergometrine
C. Partusisten
55
D. Physostigmine
E. Castor oil
70. In complex therapy of bronchial asthma myotropic spasmolytic drug was added. Soon after its usage,
nervousness and sleep disturbances occurred. Which of the following drugs can cause above-mentioned side effect?
A. Papaverine
B. Platyphilline
C. Aminophylline
D. Drotaverine
E. Ephedrine
71. To maintain normal sinus rhythm in a patient with atrial fibrillation the doctor prescribed an antiarrhythmic
drug. After laboratory testing of thyroid function administration of this drug was withdrawn. What drug was
initially prescribed?
A. Verapamil
B. Amiodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
E. Lidocaine
72. A car driver has got involved in an accident and was admited to emergancy department. Surgical invasion in
abdominal cavity was successfully performed, but postoperative period was complicated by peritonitis. Bacterial
analysis revealed Pseudomonas aeruginosa. For treatment of this patient any of antibiotics leasted below can be
used with axception of
A. Azlocillin
B. Genamycine
C. Cefotaxim
D. Imipenem (Tienam)
E. Doxycycline
73. A 6-year boy was admitted to hospital with pneumonia. Treatment with amoxicillin was not effective.
Bacterial analysis revealed Micoplasma pneumoniae. Choose the most suitable drug for treatment of this child.
A. Tetracycline
B. Azithromycin
C. Bicillin-5
D. Nystatin
E. Oxacillin
74. A 20 years old man with gonorrhea was treated with preparation of natural penicillin. His condition
improved, but 1 week later the patient was still complaining of a persistent urethral discharge and pain on
urination. Laboratory test revealed chlamydia in discharge. Which of the listed drugs effective both in case of
gonorrhea and chlamidial infection must be used for further treatment?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Oxacillin
D. Gentamycin
E. Streptomycin
75. A 5 year-old child was suffering from bronchitis, accompanied by a productive cough with thick sputum. In
addition to antimicrobial treatment a mucolytic drug was prescribed. This drug was especially beneficial for the
child due to its ability to stimulate production of surfactant. Point out this drug.
A. Codeine
B. Ambroxolum
C. Oxeladine
D. Ethylmorphine
E. Potassium iodide
56
76. Patient suffering from tuberculosis was treated with isoniazid. In the course of treatment peripheral neuritis was
developed. What is the mechanism of this side effect?
A. Direct toxic effect of drug on peripheral nerves
B. Inhibition of myoneural junctions
C. Interference with pyridoxine metabolism
D. Interference with folic acid synthesis
E. Inhibition of sodium channels
77.
Patient with tuberculosis was on the complex treatment including antibiotics. At the end of the first
course the doctor noticed significant decrease in patient hearing. Which of the following drugs can cause such
side effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
С Streptomycin
D. Paraaminosalicylic acid
E. Pirazinamide
78. Patient with phenobarbital poisoning was presented to emergency department. To promote kidney
excretion of poison sodium bicarbonate was administered intravenously. What mechanism is responsible for an
increase in barbiturate excretion?
A. Increase in polarity of barbiturate
B. Increase in fat solubility of barbiturate
C. Increase in barbiturate reabsorption
D. Increase in rate of glomerular filtration
E. Decrease in protein binding
79. Hypertensive patient was treated with the drug that decreases vascular tone. His treatment was
complicated by persistent dry cough. Which drug most probably was used?
A. Papaverine
B. Phentolamine
С. Lisinopril
D. Prazosin
E. Clonidine
80. One of the problems in the treatment of tuberculosis is caused by existence of metabolically dormant
forms of myco-bacteria. Which of the drugs is effective against all subpopu-lations of Mycobacteria
tuberculosis and causes sterilizing effect?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Kanamycin
D. Rifampicin
E. Paraaminosalicylic acid
81. A patient suffering from hypertension was treated with hy-drochlorothiazide. With time he addressed doctor
complaining of worsening of his condition. On examination of the patient hypokalemia was diagnosed. Choose
the drug, which has to be added aiming at enhancement of diuretic effect and abolishing of hypokalemia.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Spironolactone
E. Chlorothiazide
82. A 7-year-old boy with bacterial meningitis was treated with long acting cephalosporin of the III generation.
What the drug was used for treatment of this child?
A. Carbenicilin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Cefalexin
D. Gentamycin
57
E. Doxycycline
83. A patient with moderate hypertension was treated with the drug that realizes its effect by decrease in
noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings. While treatment patient experienced drowsiness. What the
drug was used?
A. Prazosin
B. Reserpin
C. Drotaverine
D. Atenolol
E. Dichlorothiazide
84. The tuberculous patient was treated with combination of antituberculous drugs, including isoniazid. Which
drug must be added to prevent neurological side effects of isoniazid?
A. Streptomycin
B. PASA
C. Rifampicin
D. Pyridoxine
E. Ascorbic acid
85. The patient with arthritis was treated with prednisolone for a long period. Doctor decided to discontinue
prednisolone administration and change it by another drug. What is the right way of this drug
discontinuation?
A. It must be preceded by corticotropin administration
B. It must be done in a vary short time
С. It must be preceded by administration of ADH
D. It must be performed on the background of mineralocortcoid administration
E. It must be preceded by growth hormone administration
86. A little boy of 7 years old was complaining of thirst and frequent urination. On examination hyperglycaemia
was revealed and diabetes mellitus was diagnosed. Which of antidi-abetic drugs most probably can be used for
treatment of this patient?
A. Acarbose
B. Chlorpropamide
С. Insulin
D. Metformin
E. Glibenclamide
87. The treatment of a patient suffering from pneumonia with ciprofloxacine was not effective, due to this the
drug was changed for potent aminoglycoside antibiotic. Point out this antibiotic
A. Ampicillin
B. Amikacin
C. Azithromycin
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Tetracycline
88. An 11 year-old boy with pneumonia was treated with amoxicillin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Disturbances of structure and function of cell membrane
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
С. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
E. Inhibition of folic acid metabolism
89. Patient suffering from tachyarrhythmia was treated with calcium channel blocker. What drug was used?
A. Niphedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Labetolol
D. Alprenolol
E. Nicardipine
90. Choose the inotropic drug for treatment of patient suffering from congestive heart failure, not responding to
digitalis.
58
A. Phenylephrine
B. Dobutamine
C. Clonidine
D. Noradrenaline
E. Salbutamol
91. Severe attack of bronchospasm and cough occurred in a patient with bronchial asthma. Choose the best drug
for quick relief of the patient condition.
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Orciprenaline sulfate
C. Atropine
D. Adrenaline
E. Noradrenaline
92. A 52-year-old patient with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia was using antiarrhythmic drug of class III. For a
long period it maintained the normal cardiac rhythm, but with time dispnoe started to occur while going upstairs.
Patient addressed doctor. The examination revealed pulmonary sclerosis. Which of the antiarrhythmic drug can
cause such side effect?
A. Verapamil
B. Amiodarone
C. Bretylium
D. Lidocaine
E. Procainamide
93. A patient addressed doctor with complaints of heartburn often troubling him. On examination ulcerative
esophagitis was diagnosed and inhibitor of proton pomp was prescribed. Which of the following drugs was
prescribed?
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole
D. Misoprostol
E. Metronidazole
94. A patient with acute poisoning was admitted to emergency department. It was established that poisonous
substance was excreted by kidney. Choose the best diuretic for forced diuresis.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
95. For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed captopril, but soon patient addressed doctor,
complaining of dry cough and rashes. Doctor substituted captopril for losartan. What is the mechanism of the
last drug action?
A. Inhibition of renin release
B. Inhibition of ACE
C. Inhibition of angiotensinogen conversion to angiotensin I
D. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
E. Increase in bradykinin level
96. A 60 year-old patient with angina pectoris visited her doctor for routine examination. Blood sampling revealed
elevated level of cholesterol in the plasma. Due to this antisclerotic drug was added to antianginal therapy. This
drug enhanses lipopro-tein lipase synthesis and dicreases hepatic synthesis of triglyc-erides. What the drug was
prescribed?
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Probucol
59
C. Lovastatin
D. Fenofibrate
E. Colestipol
97. A patient with clinical manifestations of malaria was prescribed erythrocytic schizontocidal fast acting drug,
which in addition to antimalarial effect has anti-inflammatory property and is used in the treatment of
rheumatoid arthritis and lupus erhythematosus. Point out this drug.
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Chloroquine (Chingaminum)
C. Trimetoprim
D. Chloroguanide
E. Sulfadimethoxin
98. To prevent the onset of myocardial infarction in a patient with angina pectoris aspirin was used. Due to which
of listed effects aspirin is beneficial in this case?
A. Antiinflammatory
B. Antiplatelet
C. Analgesic
D. Antipyretic
E. Ulcerogenic
99. A young women with 6 months pregnancy visited her doctor complaining of periodical slight contractions
of uterus To prevent premature labour doctor prescribed partusisten (fenotrrol). What is the mechanism of action
of this drug?
A. Stimulation of pYadrenoceptors
B. Inhibition of p2-adrenoceptors
С. Stimulation of ai-adrenoceptors
D. Inhibition of ai-adrenoceptors
E. Stimulation of M-cholinoceptors
100. Antiprotozal agent of wide spectrum was included in complex treatment of patient with gastric peptic ulcer.
Doctor warned patient about prohibition of alcohol usage during treatment with this drug. What the drug was
used?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Metronidazole
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Chloroquine
E. Praziquantel
101. A young women was diagnosed atopic dermatitis. She asked her doctor to prescribe the drug, which does
not interfere with driving her car. The doctor prescribed the drug that belongs to 2 nd generation of
antihistaminics. Point out this drug
A. Cromolin-sodium
B. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrolum)
C. Loratadine
D. Famotidine
E. Prednisolone
102. Digoxin in tablets was prescribed to patient with chronic congestive heart failure. After 1 month of
treatment decrease in heart rate was noted; doctor advised the patient to continue treatment with lower dose of
digoxin. In spite of this the bradycardia was soon transformed into A-V-block. Choose the necessary drug for
abolishing of this manifestation of glycoside toxicity.
A. Potassium chloride
B. Phenytoin
C. Atropine
D. Lidocaine
E. Propranolol
60
103. A patient with myocardial infarction was treated with intravenous infusion of heparin. What is the goal of
this drug administration?
A. To cause the lysis of thrombus directly
B. To transform plasminogen into plasmin
C. To prevent further thrombosis
D. To prevent platelets activation
E. To decrease the area of necrosis
104. A patient with a history of angina pectoris and high plasma cholesterol level was prescribed phenofibrate.
What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Activation of lipoprotein lipase
B. Inhibition of lipoprotein lipase
C. Inhibition of hydroxymethyl glutaryl coenzyme A
D. Inhibition of LDL oxidation
E. Bile acid sequestration
105. A 40 year-old woman addressed her doctor complaining of frequent and painful urination. Uretritis was
diagnosed and fluorinated quinolone derivative was prescribed. Point out this drug.
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Nitroxoline
D. Furazolidone
E. Cotrimoxazole
106. It is known that morphine can cause a shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit. It results in
lowering of resistance in pulmonary vascular bed. In which case it may be used?
A. Bronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. Bronchiectatic disease
E. Emphysema
107. A 72 year-old patient addressed doctor complaining of decrease in appetite, episodes of nausea and
vomiting, poor sleep. These disturbances started to trouble him for last 2 weeks. Analysis revealed
ascariasis. Doctor prescribed the drug, which in addition to anthelminthic action exerts immu-nostimulating
effect. Point out this drug.
A. Mebendasole
B. Pyrantel
C. Levamisole
D. Piperazine
E. Praziquantel
108. Regular medical examination of schoolchildren revealed a 7-year boy infected with Enterobius
vermicularis. For his treatment mebendazole was prescribed. What is the mechanism of this drug action?
A. It causes persistent depolarization and spastic paralysis of worm
B. It blocks carbohydrate metabolism and inhibits p- tubulin polymerization
C. It causes leakage of intracellular calcium and paralysis of parasite
D. It causes hyperpolarization of worm's muscle and its relaxation
E. It alters the surface structures of parasite and kills it
109. Surgical treatment of benign tumor of prostate in 67-year patient was postponed; instead
pharmacotherapy with adrenergic drag was started. Point out which of the drugs was most probably used.
A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Prazosine
D. Propranolol (Anaprilinum)
E. Atenolol
61
110. A young man was taken to emergency department with numerous traumas of chest and head.
Anesthesiologist proposed to inject morphine to relieve patient's condition, but traumatologist rejected
proposition of his colleague. Why morphine is contraindicated in this case?
A. It increases intracranial pressure
B. It stimulates vagal center
C. It decreases intraocular pressure
D. It causes miosis
E. It depresses center of cough reflex
111. Point out the neuroleptic that is most commonly used in neuroleptanalgesia.
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Droperidol
C. Diazepam
D. Chlorprotixene
E. Sulpiride
112. Patient with gastric peptic ulcer addressed his doctor. After examination doctor prescribed famotidine
aiming at inhibition of gastric acid secretion. What is the mechanism of this drag action?
A. Inhibition of proton pump
B. Neutralization of gastric acid
C. Prevention of histamine release
D. Blockade of Hi histamine receptors
E. Blockade of H2 histamine receptors
113. Doctor visited a 5-year-old child with fever and complaints of headache. Doctor suspected the onset of viral
infection. To relieve patient's condition doctor prescribed non-opi-oid analgesic, which additionally exerts
antipyretic effect but lacks anti-inflammatory action. Point out the prescribed drug
A. Metamizole (Analginum)
B. Celecoxib
С. Aspirin
D. Acetaminophen (Paracetamol)
E. Diclophenac-sodium
114. Deficiency in dopamine production by neurons of strio-pallidal system is considered to be one of the main
causes of Parkinson's disease. Point out the drug used for replacement therapy of this disease
A. Atropine
B. Dopamine
C. Levodopa
D. Carbidopa
E. Amantadine
115. Patient suffering from pernicious anemia is treated with folic acid. Which agent is to be added to make
effective the treatment of this disease?
A. Retinoli acetas
B. Cyancobalamin
С Thiamine bromide
D. Retabolil
E. Insulin
Answers to "Step-2"
1 - C ; 2-C; 3-Е; 4-C; 5-C; 6-Е; 7-B; 8-C; 9-Е; 1 0 - C 11-A; 12-C; 13-B; 14-C; 15-B; 16-A; 17-Е; 18-С; 19Е; 20-В; 21-C; 22-C; 23-A; 24-D; 25-D; 26-E; 27-D; 28-A; 29-B; 30-B; 31-C; 32-D; 33-E; 34-E; 35-B; 36-B; 37- C;
62
38-C; 39-E; 40-D; 41-C; 42-A; 43-B; 44-E; 45-B; 46-D; 47-D; 48-A; 49-C; 50-C; 51-D; 52-D; 53-C; 54-B; 55-D; 56D; 57-B; 58-B; 59-D; 60-D; 61-E; 62-D; 63-D; 64-D; 65-A; 66-E; 67-B; 68- C; 69-A; 70-C; 71-B; 72-E; 73-B; 74-B;
75-B; 76-C; 77-C; 78-A; 79-C; 80-D; 81-D 82-B; 83-B; 84-D; 85-A; 86-C; 87-B; 88-B; 89-B; 90-B; 91-D; 92-B; 93-C;
94-D; 95-D; 96-C; 97-B; 98-B; 99-A; 100-B; 101-C; 102-C; 103-C; 104-A; 105-B; 106-C; 107-C; 108-B; 109-C;
110-A; 111-B; 112-E; 113- D; 114- C; 115 -B.
63
2012-2013
Тести для англомовних студентів
Questions
During local anaesthetization novocaine
solution is usually compounded with
solution of adrenaline hydrochloride.
What is the purpose of this action?
A Vasoconstriction
B Vasodilatation
C Increase in smooth muscle tone
D Decrease in smooth muscle tone
EAlgesthesia reduction
A 32-year-old patient takes
antituberculous drugs. Some time later
he has noticed that his
urine turned orange. What preparation is
the most likely cause of this
phenomenon?
A Rifampicin
B Isoniazid
C Pyrazinamide
D Ethambutol
EStreptomycin sulfate
On the 4th day of treatment with
indometacin a 55-year-old patient
developed gastrorrhagia
as a result of gastric mucosa ulcer.
Ulcerogenic effect of this drug is
explained by the lowered
activity of the following enzyme:
A Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)
B Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)
C Lipoxygenase (LOG)
D Prostacyclin synthetase
EA 45-year-old patient has been taking
neodicumarinum for thrombophlebitis
for two weeks. The regular blood test
revealed a decrease in prothrombin
concentration, microhematuria.
Which drug should be used as
neodicumarinum antagonist?
A Vicasol
The correct answers with an explanation
Vasoconstriction
Rifampicin
Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)
Vicasol
64
B Protamine sulfate
C Sodium citrate
D Heparin
EAminocaproic acid
A patient complaining of dry mouth,
photophobia and blurred vision has been
delivered to the admission ward.
Objectively: the skin is hyperemic, dry,
mydriatic pupils and tachycardia are
present. He has been diagnosed with
belladonna alkaloids intoxication.
Which of the drugs
should be given as an antidote?
A Neostigmine
B Aceclidine
C Pylocarpine
D Armin
EDipiroxim
A patient suffering from peptic ulcer
was administered ranitidine. Gastric
juice acidity has reduced considerably.
What mechanism underlies the action of
this drug?
A H2-histamine receptors blockade
B H1-histamine receptors blockade
C M-cholinergic receptors blockade
D H,K-ATPase activity inhibition
EAutonomic ganglion H-cholinergic
receptors blockade
A 52-year-old patient was diagnosed
with systemic amebiasis accompanied
by bowels, liver and lungs affection.
What preparation should be
administered?
A Metronidazole
B Chiniofon
C Tetracycline
D Chingamin
EPhthalazol
A 33-year-old woman who has been
treated for chronic polyarthritis for a
long time complains about arterial
pressure rise, change of adipose tissue
distribution, menstrual cycle disorder.
What preparation has she taken?
A Prednisolone
B Indometacin
Neostigmine
H2-histamine receptors blockade
Metronidazole
Prednisolone
65
C Butadion
D Synaflan
EDiclofenac sodium
A gravida in her 20th week of gestation
got ill with pneumonia. What
chemotherapeutical drug may be
administered with no risk for the fetus
development?
A Веnzylpenicillinum
B Gentamycin
C Sulfalenum
D Laevomycetinum
EOfloxacinum
During a surgical operation the muscle
relaxant tubocurarine chloride was used.
What
antagonist drug should be injected in
order to allow the patient to brief
independently?
A Neostigmine
B Dithylinum
C Cytitonum
D Aethimizolum
EВеnzohexonium
A child has accidentally drunk a
solution that was used by his
grandmother for glaucoma
treatment. The solution turned out to be
pilocarpine hydrochloride. What drug
can be used as an antidote?
A Аtropinum
B Carbacholinum
C Aceclidinum
D Веnzohexonium
E Реntaminum
Choose an antiseptic from the group of
halogen containing drugs that can be
included into the first-aid kit for a child
going to a summer camp:
A Alcoholic iodine solution
B Brilliant green solution
C Copper sulfate solution
D Methylene blue solution
E Formaldehyde solution
A pharmacy received a new-generation
nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drug
"meloxicam" that mainly blocks
Веnzylpenicillinum
Neostigmine
Аtropinum
Alcoholic iodine solution
Minimal side effect on alimentary tract
66
cyclooxygenase-2. What advantages
does this preparation have in
comparison with other nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs?
A Minimal side effect on alimentary
tract
B Evident myospasmolytic action
C Interferonogenic properties
D Minimal side effect on hematogenesis
E Significant inhibition of protease
activity
When fenoterolum for inhalations is not
available in a pharmacy, it can be
substituted by the following drug from
the group of bronchoselective beta-2adrenomimetics:
A Salbutamolum
B Isadrinum
C Metacinum
D Ephedrinum
E Еuphyllinum
A patient consulted an ophthalmologist
about scotopic vision impairment,
cornea dryness.
What drug was prescribed?
A Retinolum
B Pyridoxine
C Тосоpherol
D Ascorbic acid
E Сосаrboxylasum
A patient suffering from essential
hypertension has increased
concentration of renin in blood
plasma. Which pharmacological group
should be preferred for this patient
treatment?
A ACE inhibitors
B α-adrenoblockers
C Diuretics
D Blockers of calcium channels
E Sympatholytics
A patient suffering from stomach ulcer
was prescribed almagel. Which of its
pharmacological properties is intended
for treatment of this pathology?
A HCl neutralization
B Local anaesthetization
Salbutamolum
Retinolum
ACE inhibitors
HCl neutralization
67
C Blocking the H2-histamine receptors
D Blocking the muscarinic
cholinoreceptors
E Anti-inflammatory action
A patient with depression has been
administered a drug from the group of
tricyclic antidepressants. Specify this
drug:
A Amitriptyline
B Phenazepam
C Droperidol
D Aminalonum
E Caffeine
A patient suffering from hypertension
consulted a doctor about dry cough that
was presumably provoked by
antihypertensive therapy. What
antihypertensive drug had she been
taking?
A Lisinopril
B Аtеnоlоl
C Nifedipinе
D Furosemidum
E Hydrochlorthiazide
A patient suffering from ulcer disease
was prescribed famotidine. What is the
mechanism of its action?
A Block of Н2-histamine receptors
B Block of Н1-histamine receptors
C Block of muscarinic cholinoreceptors
D Inhibition of adenosine triphosphatase
activity
E Block of cholinoreceptors of
sympathetic ganglions
Which antiseptic preparation has
bactericidal effect due to the formation
of atomic oxygen?
A Potassium permanganate
B Chloraminum
C Furacilinum
D Aethonium
E Silver nitrate
During digitoxin therapy for chronic
cardiac insufficiency, a patient
developed signs of
intoxication with this preparation. The
patient was prescribed unithiol. What is
Amitriptyline
Lisinopril
Block of Н2-histamine receptors
Potassium permanganate
Reduction of К+-Na+-adenosine triphosphatase
68
the mechanism of unithiol action in
case of intoxication with cardiac
glycosides?
A Reduction of К+-Na+-adenosine
triphosphatase
B Binding of calcium ions
C Increase of sodium concentration in
the cardiomyocytes
D Increased potassium permeability in
the cardiomyocytes
E Binding of glycoside into the complex
compound
A 67-year-old patient with chronic heart
failure takes digoxin. In order to reduce
its side effects the patient's doctor
recommended to combine it with the
followig drug:
A Раnangin
B Calcium gluconate
C Еuphyllinum
D Hydrochlorthiazide
E Calcium chloride
A patient suffering from neurosis
accompanied by anxiety and fear
development was prescribed diazepam.
What pharmacological effect makes it
possible to apply the drug for this
disease treatment?
A Anxiolytic
B Antiarrhythmic
C Anti-inflammatory
D Hypotensive
E Antianginal
After a craniocerebral trauma a patient
was administered pyracetam. This drug
relates to the following pharmacological
group:
A Nootropic agent
B Nonnarcotic (nonopioid) analgetic
C Tranquilizers
D Anesthetic agent
E Neuroleptic
In order to arrest stenocardia attacks a
patient takes nitroglycerin capsules.
What is the
rational way of the drug introduction?
A Sublingual
Раnangin
Anxiolytic
Nootropic agent
Sublingual
69
B Peroral
C Rectal
D Inhalation
E Hypodermic
A hospital admitted a child with signs
of poisoning with belladonna alkaloids.
What drug should be applied as an
antidote?
A Proserin
B Magnesium sulfate
C Sodium caffeine benzoate
D Paracetamol
E Sodium valproate
Recommend a patient with acute
bronchitis a mucolytic drug that ease
difficulty in
expectoration:
A Acetylcysteine
B Glaucine
C Loratadine
D Diclofenac sodium
E Drotaverine hydrochloride
You are employed in a pharmaceutical
storehouse. When adding newly
received
preparations to the computerized
database, specify the pharmacological
group of
paracetamol:
A Nonnarcotic analgetic
B Hypnotic
C Diuretic
D Hypotensive drug
E Antianginal drug
A patient with atherosclerosis has been
administered an anti-atherosclerotic
agent. Specify this drug:
A Phenofibrate
B Ascorbic acid
C Pyracetam
D Dexamethasone
E Phenylbutazone
A patient after bee's stings has
angioedema (Quincke's edema). Which
drug should be
immediately inject to eliminate this
condition?
Proserin
Acetylcysteine
Nonnarcotic analgetic
Phenofibrate
Epinephrine hydrochloride
70
A Epinephrine hydrochloride
B Sodium chloride
C Platyphyllini hydrotartras
D Atropine sulfate
E Аnарrilinum
A patient with hypertension was
administered metoprolol for the arterial
pressure reduction.
What is its mechanism of action?
A Beta adrenoreceptor blockade
B Alpha adrenoceptor blockade
C Indirect adrenomimetic action
D Antispasmodic
E Angiotensinic receptors blockade
A 34-year-old patient suffering from
bronchitis was prescribed an antitussive
drug of central
action. What drug is it?
A Glaucine
B Corglycon
C Enalapril
D Furosemide
E Fercoven
Continuous taking of a drug results in
reduction of its efficiency. This
phenomenon is called:
A Habituation
B Sensibilization
C Cumulation
D Dependence
E Tachyphylaxis
A patient was warned that taking the
prescribed preparation might cause
cough. What drug is it?
A Lisinopril
B Clonidine
C Phenihidine
D Dichlothiazide
E Metoprolol
A patient with acute cardiac
insufficiency and cardiac glycoside
intolerance got an injection of
dobutamine. What is the mechanism of
its action?
A Stimulation of β1-adrenoreceptors
B Stimulation of α1-adrenoreceptors
C Block of K+-, Na+-adenosine
Beta adrenoreceptor blockade
Glaucine
Habituation
Lisinopril
Stimulation of β1-adrenoreceptors
71
triphosphatase
D Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
activity
E Stimulation of muscarinic
cholinoreceptors
For thrombosis treatment a patient was
prescribed a drug from the group of
direct
anticoagulants. What drug is it?
A Heparin
B Fenilin (phenylinum)
C Syncumar
D Neodicumarin
E Vikasol
A patient suffering from chronic cardiac
insufficiency was prescribed a cardiac
glycoside from the foxglove (Digitalis)
group. What drug is it?
A Digoxin
B Strophanthine
C Corvalol
D Corglycon
E Cordiamin
A patient presents with morphine
intoxication. Which drug should be
injected as an antidote?
A Naloxone
B Lobeline hydrochloride
C Bemegride
D Atropine sulphate
E Unithiol
In course of pharmacotherapy of
bronchitis a patient was found to have
dyspeptic disorders,
photodermatitis, liver dysfunction.
Which of the prescribed drugs might
have caused these
manifestations?
A Doxycyсlin
B Paracetamolum
C Ascorbic acid
D Асеtуlсуsteinum
E Codeine phosphate
A patient who has been suffering from
gastric diseases for a long time is found
to have
hyperchromic anemia. Which of the
Heparin
Digoxin
Naloxone
Doxycyсlin
Сyanocobalamine
72
following drugs is applied for this
pathology treatment?
A Сyanocobalamine
B Ascorbic acid
C Unitiol
D Ferrum Lek
E Охуferriscorbone
A 25-year-old woman presenting with
acute morphine intoxication was given
an injection of
naloxone that caused rapid improvement
of her condition. The mechanism of
action of this
preparation is based on the block of the
following receptors:
A Opioid receptors
B GABA-receptors
C Serotonin receptors
D Dopamine
E Benzodiazepine receptors
A man came to a pharmacy and asked
to recommend him a drug for treatment
of allergic rhinitis that occurs in the
period of linden flowering. What drug
may be applied?
A Loratadine
B Adrenaline
C Anapriline
D Ambroxol
E Losartan
It is necessary to prescribe non-steroid
anti-inflammatory drug for patient with
rheumatoid
arthritis and concomitant duodenal
ulcer. Which drug is the drug of choice
in this case?
A Celecoxib
B Acetylsalicylic acid
C Paracetamol
D Analgin
E Diclofenac sodium
During the sensitifity test for
benzylpenicillin a patient developed
anaphylactic shock. The
following preparation must be injected
around the spot of antibiotic injection:
A Adrenaline hydrochloride
Opioid receptors
Loratadine
Celecoxib
Adrenaline hydrochloride
73
B Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
C Atropine sulfate
D Propranolol
E Ceftriaxon
A patient with bronchial asthma has
been administered a drug from the
group of
beta-adrenergic agonists. Specify this
drug:
A Salbutamol
B Diazepam
C Doxycycline hydrochloride
D Nitroglycerine
E Digoxin
A patient has been administered a
spasmolytic from the group of
muscarinic receptor antagonists as a part
of the complex treatment for renal colic.
Specify this drug:
A Atropine
B Neostigmine
C Galantamine
D Dithylinum
E Benzohexonium
A patient with bronchial asthma was
prescribed salbutamol that has led to
relief of
bronchospasm symptoms. This is
associated with stimulation of:
A β2-adrenoreceptors
B α1-adrenoreceptors
C Muscarinic cholinoreceptors
D Acetylcholine synthesis
E β1-adrenoreceptors
notes a significant decrease in the effect
of the drug. What is this phenomenon
called?
A Tolerance
B Cumulation
C Physical dependence
D Allergy
E Potentiation
A patient with chronic bronchitis wants
to buy glaucine hydrochloride at a
pharmacy. What
typical side effect of the drug should the
patient be warned against?
Salbutamol
Atropine
β2-adrenoreceptors
Tolerance
Drop of arterial pressure
74
A Drop of arterial pressure
B Excitation of the central nervous
system
C Irregular heartbeat
D Rise of intraocular pressure
E Allergic skin rash
A 30-year-old patient with a sleep
disorder and psychoemotional
disbalance has been
administered diazepam. What is the
mechanism of its psychosedative
action?
A Activation of GABAergic system
B Inhibition of the limbic system
C Inhibition of the reticular formation
D Reduction of noradrenaline amount in
the CNS
E Inhibition of opioid receptors
Benzylpenicillin sodium is not used per
os, because this drug:
A Destroys gastric HCl
B Poorly absorbed in the intestine
C Irritates gastric mucosa
D Reduces formation of gastric HCl
E Is destroyed by penicillinase
A female has prolonged labour. Select a
drug that stimulates labour activity due
to its
physiological effect from the listed
below:
A Oxytocin
B Neostigmine
C Pachycarpine
D Progesterone
E Estrone
A 48-year-old patient was given an
intravenous injection of prednisolone in
order to arrest a severe attack of
bronchial asthma. Prednisolone relates
to the following group of hormonal
drugs:
A Glucocorticoids
B Gestagenic drugs
C Estrogens
D Mineral corticoids
E Anabolic steroids
A patient who has been taking
Activation of GABAergic system
Destroys gastric HCl
Oxytocin
Glucocorticoids
Drug dependence
75
phenazepam for a month came to a
pharmacy. He insisted on buying
another two packs of this drug.
According to the patient, he feels unwell
without phenazepam. What is the
mechanism of the developed side effect?
A Drug dependence
B Idiosyncrasy
C Aftereffect syndrome
D Cumulation
E Addiction
A patient suffering from allergic rhinitis
was prescribed ephedrine in form of
nasal drops. The patient has
significantly benefited from nasal
instillation, and this stimulated him to
use the drug every 2 hours. But under
these conditions the drug appeared to be
ineffective. What is the most likely
cause of this phenomenon?
A Tachyphylaxis
B Drug dependence
C Idiosyncrasy
D Allergy
E Cumulation
Which anaesthetic, anti-inflammatory,
the least harmful for the stomach
preparation can be
recommended to a patient with
exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A Celecoxib
B Diclofenac sodium
C Acetylsalicylic acid
D Ibuprofenum
E Indometacinum
Select a loop diuretic of strong,
emergency and short-term action from
the listed below:
A Furosemide
B Clopamide
C Acetazolamide
D Spironolactone
E Triamterene
A patient suffering from epilepsy has
taken Phenobarbital for a long time and
developed drug tolerance. What is the
mechanism of this phenomenon
Tachyphylaxis
Celecoxib
Furosemide
Acceleration of biotransformation
76
development?
A Acceleration of biotransformation
B Absorption process reduction
C Receptor's sensitivity enhancement
D Inhibition of biotransformation
E Substances accumulation in the body
Absorption of tetracycline preparations
will be reduced when they are
administered
simultaneously with antacids. This is an
example for:
A Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
B Pharmaceutical incompatibility
C Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
D Drugs synergism
E Functional drugs antagonism
A patient being treated in the infectious
disease ward for dysentery is
administered
phthalazol. What is the reason for
phthalazol being used only for treatment
of enteric
infections?
A The drug is not absorbed from the
gastrointestinal tract
B The high degree of reabsorption in the
kidneys
C Slowly eliminated from the body
D Rapidly absorbed in the
gastrointestinal tract
E Rapidly excreted in unchanged form
During an operation a dentist needs to
reduce salivation in a patient. The
dentist has to use a
drug of the following pharmacological
group:
A Muscarinic receptor blockers
B Muscarinic cholinomimetics
C Adrenomimetics
D Adrenoceptor blocker
E Muscarinic and nicotinic
cholinomimetics
A consulting pharmacist informed a
patient about possible side effect of
metronidazole that is normally
provoked by alcohol intake. What is the
mechanism of this phenomenon?
Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
The drug is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal
tract
Muscarinic receptor blockers
Enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase blocking
77
A Enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
blocking
B Enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase
activation
C Enzyme acetylcholinesterase blocking
D Enzyme acetylcholinesterase
activation
E Enzyme glucose 6-phosphate
dehydrogenase activation
following drug combinations should be Fentanyl with droperidol
used in this case?
A Fentanyl with droperidol
B Droperidol with prednisolone
C Fentanyl with diazepam
D Diazepam with aminazine
E Promedol with amitriptillin
A 40-year-old patient suffers from
M-cholinergic antagonists
bronchial asthma and cardiac rhythm
disturbance in form of
bradyarrhythmia. Drugs of which
pharmacological group should be
administered for bronchospasm
suppression?
A M-cholinergic antagonists
B Beta-blockers
C M-cholinomimetics
D Cholinesterase inhibitors
E Muscle relaxant
An interhospital pharmacy got an order Dithylinum
from a surgical department for a
depolarizing muscle
relaxant for surgical interventions. What
drug was ordered?
A Dithylinum
B Nicotine
C Atropine sulfate
D Methacin
E Hygronium
A patient who has taken phenobarbital
Accelerated drug metabolism in liver
for a long time was prescribed
diclofenac sodium.
However the anti-inflammatory effect
of diclofenac appeared to be less than
expected due to the pharmacokinetic
interaction of these drugs. Such
interaction might be the result of the
following processes:
78
A Accelerated drug metabolism in liver
B Decelerated drug metabolism in liver
C Reduced protein concentration in
plasma
D Change of receptor sensibility
E Increased drug dosage
79
Фармакологія 2013
1
A patient with stenocardia has been administered acetylsalicylic acid for:
A Antiplatelet effect
B Inhibition of blood fibrinolytic activity
C Aggregate effect
D Anti-inflammatory effect
E Increase in blood fibrinolytic activity
2
A patient with hypertensive crisis has been given an intravenous injection of clonidine. What
mechanism underlies the antihypertensive effect of clonidine?
A Stimulation of presynaptic central α2 adrenoceptors
B Blockade of peripheral α1-adrenoceptors
C Blockade of beta-adrenoceptors
D Blockade of N-cholinergic receptors
E Direct myotropic effect on blood vessels
3
A patient with hypertensive crisis should be administered a diuretic as a part of complex therapy.
What drug should be given the patient?
A Furosemide
B Diacarb
C Spironolactone
D Triamterene
E Amiloride
4
Consult a patient on which antihistamine drug DOES NOT have sedative and hypnotic effect:
A Loradatine
B Diphenhydramine
C Promethazine
D Suprastinum
E Tavegil (Clemastine)
5
A patient with hypertension has been prescribed a drug that blocks angiotensin receptors.
Specify this drug:
A Losartan
B Nifedipine
C Prazosin
D Captopril
E Apressin
6
A patient with gastric ulcer has been administered omeprazole. What is the mechanism of its
action?
A Inhibition of H+, K+-ATPase
B Blockade of histamine H2-receptors
C M-cholinergic receptor blockade
D Neutralization of HCl
E Stimulation of mucus production
80
7
A patient with a heart rhythm disorder has been given lidocaine. Apart from the local anesthetic
effect, this drug has the following pharmacological effect:
A Antiarrhythmic
B Hypnotic
C Antipyretic
D Antidepressant
E Nootropic
8
A patient with acute heart failure and cardiac glycosides intolerance was given an injection of
dobutamine. What is the mechanism of its action?
A Stimulation of β1-adrenoceptors
B Stimulation of α1-adrenoceptors
C Blockade of K+-, Na+-ATPase
D Inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
E Stimulation of M-cholinergic receptors
9
A patient with renal colic has been administered a spasmolytic from the group of M-cholinergic
antagonists as a part of the complex therapy. Specify this drug:
A Atropine
B Proserin
C Galantamine
D Dithylinum
E Benzohexonium
10
A pharmacy dispenses glaucine hydrochloride to a patient with chronic bronchitis. The patient
must be warned about the following typical side effect of the drug:
A Blood pressure fall
B Excitation of the central nervous system
C Arrhythmia
D Rise of intraocular pressure
E Allergic skin rash
11
A 40-year-old patient has a history of bronchial asthma and bradyarrhythmia. In order to
eliminate bronchospasm, the drugs of the following pharmacological group should be
administered:
A M-anticholinergics
B β-adrenergic blocking agents
C M-cholinergic agents
D Anticholinesterase agents
E Muscle relaxants
81
1
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY
Morphology
1.
The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic
material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes which consist of DNA strands and protein
molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms:
A. Eukaryotes B. Bacteriophages
C. Prokaryotes D. Viruses
E. Bacteria
2.
Infectious agents of various ultrastructures can be etiological agents of infectious diseases.
Which of the groups named below HAS NO cellular structure, protein synthesizing, enzyme and energy
systems?
A. Viruses
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa
E. Rickettsia
3.
Etiological factors for the infectious diseases are often microorganisms with various
ultrastructure. Which of the following microorganism groups relates to the eukaryotes?
A. Protozoa
B. Viruses
C. Viroids
D. Prions
E. Scotobacteria
4.
A child is presumably ill with diphtheria. A specimen of affected mucous membrane of his
pharynx was taken for analysis. The smear was stained and microscopic examination revealed yellow rods
with dark blue thickenings on their ends. What structural element of a germ cell was revealed in the detected
microorganisms?
A. Volutin granules
B. Plasmids
C. Capsule
D. Spores
E. Flagella
5.
On examination of a 6-year-old child the doctor noticed greyish film on the child’s tonsils.
Microscopy of the smear stained by Neisser method detected there Corynebacterium diphtheria. What
morphologic feature was the most indicative for determining the type of the agent?
A. Fence-like position of the agent’s cells
B. Spores that exceed cells in diameter
C. Localization of the causative agent within macrophages
D. Polar placement of volutin granules
E.
Presence of the capsule
6.
During the staining of sputum smear of a patient with suspected croupous pneumonia the
following reactives and stainers were used: gential violet solution, Lugol's solution, 96 0 spiritus and water
fuchsin. What method of staining is used in this case?
A. Leffler's
B. Gram's
C. Ziehl-Neelsen's
D. Neisser's
E. Romanovsky's
7.
A smear of sputum from the patient with suspected lobar pneumonia was stained with the use
of the following stains and reagents: solution of gentian violet, Lugol’s solution, 96o alcohol, watermagenta.
What staining method was applied in this case?
A. Gram B. Ziehl-Nielsen C. Romanovsky D. Neisser E. Leffler
8.
In a bacteriological laboratory some bacterial smears had to be stained by Gram’s method. For
this purpose the following reagents were prepared: gentian violet, Lugol’s solution, aqueous fuchsin solution.
What other reagent is required?
A. 96% ethanol
B. 5% sulfuric acid
C. Methylene blue solution
D. Carbolic fuchsin
E. 3%hydrogen peroxide
9.
When preparing a dental plague smear and staining it according the gram method, a student
during microscopy detected there various violet and pink microorganisms. What structural component of
microorganisms causes different response to stains?
A. Cell wall
B. Cytoplasm
C. Cytoplasmic membrane
D. Internal periplasmic space
E. Outer membrane
10.
A smear of streptobacillus preparation stained by Ozheshko method has been studied
microscopically with oil immersion. What structural feature of the bacteria has been studied?
A. Spores
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
2
D. Inclusions E. Structure of cell wall
11.
A specimen stained by Ozheshko method contains rod-like microorganisms stained blue with
round terminal components stained red. What are these components called?
A. Spores
B. Cilia C. Flagella
D. Capsules
E. Mesosomas
12.
The laboratory for especially dangerous infections conducts microscopic examination of
pathological material from a patient with suspected plague. The sample was stained by Burri-Gins technique.
What property of the causative agent can be identified by this technique?
A. Capsule formation
B. Spore formation
C. Acid resistance
D. Alkali resistance
E. Presence of volutin granules
13.
When a smear is stained by Burry- Gins method a mucous structure that is tightly bound with
the cellular wall of bacteria and has well-defined outer boundaries can be detected. This element of a bacteria
cell is called:
A. Capsule
B. Spore
C. Filaments
D. Ribosomes E. Episomes
14.
Capsuliferous bacteria has been detected during microbiological inspection of crude drugs.
What method of staining has been used to detect capsules?
A. Burri-Gins
B. Ziehl–Neelsen
C. Neisser
D. Gram
E. Aujeszky
15.
During microbiological inspection of crude drugs encapsulated bacteria were revealed. What
method was applied for capsule detection?
A. Burry-Gins B. Ziehl-Neelsen
C. Neisser
D. Gram
E. Ozheshko
16.
Microbiological analysis of medicinal raw materials revealed capsular bacteria. What stain
method was used to detect the capsules?
A. Gin’s
B. Ziehl-Neelsen’s
C. Neisser’s
D. Gram’s
E. Ozheshko’s
17.
In course of long-term treatment of an infectious patient with penicillin, the pathogen
transformed into the L-form. What changes occur in the pathogen cell in case of L-transformation?
A. Absence of a cell wall
B. Absence of flagella
C. Absence of a capsule
D. Absence of a spore
E. Absence of inclusions
19. The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What
function do these structures have?
A. RNA exchange between cells
B. Inhibition of complement activity
C. Nutrient transport into the cell
D. Resistance to antibody opsonization
E. Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation
20. During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed
sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
A. Gram
B. Giemsa
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Burry
E.
Gins
Special
1.
Microscopy of a smear obtained from a patient with acute purulent periostitis revealed grampositive bacteria arranged in clusters resembling bunch of grapes. What microorganisms is this morphology
typical for?
A.
Staphylococci
B.
Sarcina
C.
Tetracocci
D.
Candida fungi
E.
Streptococci
2.
Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed rather elongated
gram-positive diplococci with somewhat pointed opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the
sputum?
A.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
3
B.
Staphylococcus aureus
C.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
D.
Neisseria meningitidis
E.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
3.
Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed slightly elongated
gram-positive diplococci with tapered opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum?
A.
Stretpococcus pneumoniae
B.
Neasseria gonorrhoeae
C.
Neisseria meningitidis
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
E.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
4.
A patient has a suspected pneumonia. In his sputum there were revealed grampositive
diplococci, prolonged with the slightly pointed opposite ands. What microorganisms are revealed in the
sputum?
A.
Staphylococcus aureus
B.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C.
Neisseria meningitidis
D.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
E.
Streptococcus pneumonia
5.
Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed slightly elongated
gram-positive diplococci with tapered opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
6.
Blood of a patient with presumable sepsis was inoculated into sugar broth. There appeared
bottom sediment. Repeated inoculation into blood agar caused growth of small transparent round colonies
surrounded by hemolysis zone. Examination of a smear from the sediment revealed gram-positive cocci in
form of long chains. What microorganisms are present in blood of this patient?
A.
Streptococci
B.
Micrococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Tetracocci
E. Sarcina
7.
Gramnegative bin-shaped diplococcus inside and outside of leucocytes were detected on
bacteriological examination of the purulent exudates from the cervix of the uterus. Name the causative agent
of purulent inflammation of the cervix of the uterus.
A.
Haemophilus vaginalis
B.
Chlamidia trachomatis
C.
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
8.
Microscopic study of discharges from urethra of a patient suffering from acute urethritis
revealed bean-shaped microorganisms up to 1 micrometer in diameter arranged in pairs and placed inside the
leukocytes. What microorganisms are these?
A.
Gonococci
B.
Meningococci
C.
Tetracocci
D.
Streptococci
E.
Staphylococci
9.
While studying blood and mucus samples from the nasopharynx, a bacteriologist took certain
measures to conserve the pathogens in the material. Bacterioscopic study revealed the presence of gramnegative cocci looking like coffee beans and arranged in pairs or tetrads. Name the pathogen that was isolated
by the bacteriologist:
A.
Neisseria meningitidis
4
B.
Staphilococcus aureus
C.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D.
Moraxella lacunata
E.
Acinetobacter calcoaceticus
10.
A young woman suddenly developed fever up to 39oC accompanied by a strong headache.
Examination revealed marked nuchal rigidity. Spinal puncture was performed. Gram-stained smear of
cerebrospinal fluid contained many neutrophils and Gram-negative diplococci. What bacteria could be the
cause of this disease?
A.
Neisseria meningitidis
B.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
C.
Haemophilus influenza
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
E.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
11.
Microscopy of a smear taken from the film that appeared on the peptone water 6 hours after
seeding and culturing of a fecal sample in a thermostat revealed mobile gram-negative bacteria curved in form
of a comma that didn’t make spores or capsules. What microorganisms were revealed?
A.
Vibrios
B.
Spirochetes
C.
Clostridia
D.
Corynebacteria
E.
Spirilla
12.
Vomiting matters of a patient suspected of having cholera were delivered to the bacteriological
laboratory. The material was used for preparing a "hanging drop" specimen. What type of microscopy will be
applied for identification of the causative agent by its mobility?
A.
Phase-contrast microscopy
B.
Electron microscopy
C.
Immune and electron microscopy
D.
Fluorescence microscopy
E. Immersion microscopy
13.
Patient with diarrhoea was admitted to the infection unit. Gramnegative curved rod-like
bacteria were founded on bacterioscopic examination of faecal masses. What is the most likely disease in this
patient?
A.
Typhoid fever
B.
Cholera
C.
Diphtheria
D.
Intestinal form of plague
E.
Salmonellosis gastroenteritis
14.
A man is suffering from diarrhea. In summer he spent his vacation in the south at the sea coast.
Bacteria with the following properties were detected in his feces: gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous
bacilli that do not produce spores or capsules. They are undemanding to nutrient medium but require alkaline
reaction (рН 8,5-9,5). Described are the agents of the following enteric infection:
A.
Cholera
B.
Shigellosis
C.
Typhoid fever
D.
Colienteritis
E.
Pseudotuberculosis
15.
From the feces of a patient with acute gastroenteritis a pure culture of microorganisms was
obtained. The microorganisms are small mobile slightly curved gram-negative bacilli that within 6 hours grow
into a light blue film on the 1% alkaline peptone water. Such properties are characteristic of the following
microorganism:
A.
Bacillus
B.
Clostridium
C.
Spirochete
D.
Spirillum
5
E.
Vibrio
16.
A child is presumably ill with diphtheria. A specimen of affected mucous membrane of his
pharynx was taken for analysis. The smear was stained and microscopic examination revealed yellow rods
with dark blue thickenings on their ends. What structural element of a germ cell was revealed in the detected
microorganisms?
A.
Volutin granules
B.
Plasmids
C.
Capsule
D.
Spores
E.
Flagella
17.
On examination of a 6-year-old child the doctor noticed greyish film on the child’s tonsils.
Microscopy of the smear stained by Neisser method detected there Corynebacterium diphtheria. What
morphologic feature was the most indicative for determining the type of the agent?
A.
Fence-like position of the agent’s cells
B.
Spores that exceed cells in diameter
C.
Localization of the causative agent within macrophages
D.
Polar placement of volutin granules
E.
Presence of the capsule
18.
A smear from the tonsillar coating of a patient with suspected diphtheria was found to contain
blue bacilli with a thickening at the poles. What method of smear staining was used?
A.
Leffler
B.
Burri
C.
Hins
D.
Gram
E.
Neisser
19.
Microscopy of smear preparation stained with methylene blue revealed bacilli with clublike
expansions on their ends similar to C. diphtheriae. What additional method of staining should be used to verify
this assumption?
A.
Neisser
B.
Kozlovsky
C.
Ziehl-Neelsen
D.
D. Zdrodovsky
E.
E. Aujeszky
20.
A smear prepared from material obtained from patient with suspected diphtheria contains
yellow bacilli with blue grains at their ends. What staining was used in this case?
A. Ziehl-Nielsen
B. Kozlovsky
C. Romanovsky
D. Neisser
E. Loefler
21.
There are several cases of children from boarding school suffering from sore throat.
Microscopy of tonsil smears stained according to Neisser method has revealed thin yellow bacilli with dark
brown grains on their ends placed in the shape of Roman numeral five. What infection can be suspected in
this case?
A.
Diphtheria
B.
Infectious mononucleosis
C.
Listeriosis
D.
Tonsillitis
E.
Scarlet fever
22.
Specimen of a patient’s sputum was stained with the following dyes and reagents: Ziehl’s
solution, methylene blue solution, 5% solutoin of sulfuric acid. What staining method was applied?
A.
Ziehl-Neelsen
B.
Burri’s
C.
Gram’s
6
D.
Peshkov’s
E.
Neisser’s
23.
A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum staining
should be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch’s) bacillus?
A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen
B. Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa
C. Method of Gram
D. Method of Neisser
E. Method of Burry-Gins
24.
A centrifugate of urine sample obtained from patient with suspected renal tuberculosis was
used to make a slide mount for microscopy. What method should be used to stain the slide and detect the
causative agent?
A. Zielh-Neelsen stain
B. Loeffler stain
C. Gram stain
D. Aujeszky stain
E. Burri stain
25.
A patient complained about a carbuncle on his face. Examination results: neither dense nor
painful edema of subcutaneous cellular tissue, there is black crust in the middle of the carbuncle and peripheral
vesicular rash around it. Bacteriological examination revealed presence of immobile streptobacilli able of
capsulation. What microorganisms are causative agents of this disease?
A.
Bacillus antracis
B.
Staptylococcus aureus
C.
Bacillus anthracoides
D.
Bacillus megaterium
E.
Bacillus subtilis
26.
A 34 year old male patient consulted a doctor about face carbuncle. Objectively: a loose,
painless edema of hypodermic tissue; black crust in the center of carbuncle, vesicular rash around it.
Microbiological examination revealed static streptobacilli capable of capsule building. What microorganisms
are the causative agents of this disease?
A. Bacillus antracis
B. Staptylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus anthracoides
E. Bacillus megaterium
27.
Microscopic examination of a microbial culture revealed fusiform spore-forming
microorganisms
that get violet-blue Gram’s stain. What microorganisms were revealed?
A.
Clostridia
B.
Streptococci
C.
Spirochaete
D.
Actinomycete
E.
Diplococci
28.
On microscopic examination of leftovers of the canned meat eaten by patient with severe food
toxicoinfection the following was detected: gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and
configuration alteration of bacilli generally resembling a tennis racket. What agent was detected?
A. C.botulinum
B. P.vulgaris
C. E.coli
D. S.aureus
E. S.enteritidis
29.
Botulism agent causes severe food toxicoinfection. Point out the most characteristic
morphologic feature of botulism agent.
A. Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with subterminal spore
B. Thick gram-positive non-sporeforming bacilli
C. Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with terminal spore
D. Thin mobile spore-forming bacilli with central spore
E. Thick gram-positive non-sporeforming bacilli
30.
The causative agent of botulism causes severe food poisoning. Specify the most characteristic
morphological feature of botulism causative agent:
A. Gram-positive bacillus with subterminal spore
7
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thick gram-positive non-spore-forming bacillus
Gram-positive bacillus with terminal spore
Thin mobile bacillus with central spore
Thick gram-positive bacillus without spores and flagella
31.
A patient has food poisoning. Laboratory analysis revealed a culture of anaerobic gram-positive
spore-forming bacteria. What is the most likely kind of the isolated causative agent?
A. C. perfringens
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. P. mirabilis
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus
E. Esherichia coli
32.
While studying a microslide obtained from the punctuate of a regional lymph node and stained
by Romanovsky-Giemsa method a physician revealed some light pink thin microorganisms with 12-14 regular
spiral coils and pointed ends, up to 10-13 micrometer long. This might be the causative agent of the following
disease:
A.
Syphilis
B.
Trypanosomiasis
C.
Leptospirosis
D.
Relapsing fever
E.
Leishmaniasis
33.
In the micropreparation made from patient’s regional lymph node punctate and stained
according to Romanovsky-Giemsa method, the doctor found out thin microorganisms with 12-14 equal
ringlets and pale-pink sharp pointes 10-13 mkm in length. The pathogen of what disease is it about?
A.
Leishmaniasis
B.
Leptospirosis
C.
Surra
D.
Syphilis
E.
Relapsing fever
34.
In a microslide of the patient’s regional lymph node stained with Giemsa method a doctor
detected thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils with pointed tips, 10-13 micrometers in length, pale
pink in color. In this case they can be identified as infectious agents of the following disease:
A. Syphilis
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Relapsing fever
E. Leishmaniasis
35.
Bacterioscopic examination of chancre material revealed some mobile, long, convoluted
microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. These features are typical for:
A.
Treponema
B.
Borrellia
C.
Leptospira
D.
Vibrios
E.
Campylobacter
36.
A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic
rash on the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of
renal tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C and
S letters. What bacteria were revealed?
A.
Leptospira
B.
Treponema
C.
Spirilla
D.
Borrelia
E.
Campilobacteria
37.
Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines, disorder
of GIT. Examination of the feces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts should be hospitalized
immediately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?
A. Lamblia
B. Dysenteric amoeba
C. Balantidium
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
8
38.
Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness,
pain in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient,
who had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following
protozoon:
A.
Entamoeba histolytica.
B.
Entamoeba coli.
C.
Balantidium.
D.
Trichomonad.
E.
Lamblia.
39.
Microscopy of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms. Their cytoplasm had two distinct
layers, barely visible core, wide pseudopodia. The patient is most likely to have:
A. Entamoeba gingivalis B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Trichomonas tenax
D. Lamblia
E. Entamoeba coli
40.
Carious cavities of a 29-year-old patient contain the parasitic protozoa. It is established that
they relate to the Sarcodina class. Specify these single-celled organisms:
A.
Entamoeba gingivalis
B. Entamoeba histolutica C. Entamoeba coli
D. Amoeba proteus
E. Lamblia intestinalis
41.
A patient complains of acute spastic abdominal pain, frequent urge to defecate, liquid bloody
feces with mucus. Laboratory analysis of fecal smear revealed inconstant in shape organisms with erythrocyte.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.
Amebiasis.
B. Lambliasis.
C. Schistosomiasis.
D. Intestinal trichomoniasis.
E. Balantidiasis.
42.
A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and
blood. Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short
pseudopodia, containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient
have?
A.
Amebiasis
B.
Leishmaniasis
C.
Trichomoniasis
D.
Giardiasis
E.
Toxoplasmosis
43.
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four
pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral
side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
A.
Lamblia
B.
Toxoplasma
C.
Leishmania
D.
Intestinal trichomonad
E.
Trypanosome
44.
Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and
four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc.
What protozoan representative was found in the patient?
A. Lamblia
B. Toxoplasma
C. Leishmania
D. Intestinal trichomonad
E. Trypanosome
45.
A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large.
They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of
body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
A.
Lamblia
B.
Dysentery ameba
C.
Trichomonas
D.
Intestinal ameba
E.
Balantidium
9
46.
A 13 year old child complains about poor appetite, pain in the right subcostal area.
Microscopical examination of duodenal contents revealed big pyriform cells with two nuclei. What
microorganism was revealed?
A.
Lamblia
B.
Trichomonas
C.
Amoeba
D.
Trypanosoma
E.
Toxoplasma
47.
Sanitary assessment of a pond, where the children from a recreation summer camp take their
swims, detected there oval cysts 50-60 micron in diameter, with 2 nuclei visible in their cytoplasm
(macronucleus and micronucleus). What protozoa do these cysts belong to?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Amoeba
C. Balantidium
D. Lamblia
E. Euglena
48.
A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with
admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large intestine revealed ulcers
from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease should
be suspected?
A.
Balantidiasis
B.
Amebiasis
C.
Toxoplasmosis
D.
Lambliasis
E.
Trichomoniasis
49.
Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man’s feces. The
body is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round shaped
back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleuses and two short vacuoles.
For whom are the described attributes typical?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Lamblia
C.
Dysenteric amoeba
D.
Trichomonas
E.
Intestinal amoeba
50.
A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear
revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big
nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?
A.
Trichomonas vaginalis
B.
Trichomonas hominis
C.
Trichomonas buccalis
D.
Trypanosoma gambiense
E.
Lamblia intestinalis
51.
A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation.
A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating
membrane. What disease can be suspected?
A.
Urogenital trichomoniasis
B. Lambliasis
C. Intestinal trichomoniasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Balantidiasis
A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous
membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies;
big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?
B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
C.
Trichomonas hominis
D.
Trichomonas buccalis
E.
Trypanosoma gambiense
F.
Lamblia intestinalis
10
52.
Microscopical examination of discharges from the gums of a patient ill with paradontosis
revealed some protozoan pear-shaped organisms 6-13 micrometer long. The parasite has one nucleus and
undulating membrane, there are four flagella at the front of its body. What protozoan were found?
A.
Trichomonads
B. Leishmania
C. Amoebae
D. Balantidia
E. Lamblia
53.
A smear from frothy and purulent vaginal discharges of a 42 y.o. woman was stained by
Romanovsky-Giemsa method. Its analysis revealed some microorganisms of flagellates class. What
microorganism were the most probably revealed?
A.
Trichomonas vaginalis
B.
Leishmania donovani
C.
Trypanosoma gambiense
D.
Trihomonas hominis
E.
Lamblia intestinalis
54.
A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by
Romanovsky-Giemsa’s method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely
microorganism that has been found by the doctor?
A.
Trichomonas vaginalis
B.
Trypanosoma gambiense
C.
Leishmania donovani
D.
Trihomonas hominis
E.
Lamblia intestinalis
55.
A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined.
Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky’s stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end,
blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
A.
Toxoplasmas
B.
Malarial plasmodiums
C.
Dermotropic leishmania
D.
Viscerotropic leishmania
E.
Trypanosomes
56.
A puncture sample taken from the lymph node of a patient with preliminary diagnosis of
protozoan disease has been investigated. The preparation was processed with Giemsa stain and the following
was detected: crescent-shaped bodies with pointed tips, blue cytoplasm and red nuclei. What protozoa have
been detected in the preparation?
A.
Toxoplasma
B.
Plasmodium malariae
C.
Trypanosoma
D.
Viscerotropic Leishmania
E.
Dermatotropic Leishmania
57.
Examination of a man revealed a protozoan disease that affected brain and caused vision loss.
Blood analysis revealed unicellular half-moon-shaped organisms with pointed end. The causative agent of this
disease is:
A.
Toxoplasma
B.
Leishmania
C.
Lamblia
D.
Amoeba
E.
Trichmonad
58.
A man is ill with a protozoan disease characterized by cerebral affection and loss of sight. Blood
analysis revealed halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends. This disease is caused by:
A.
Toxoplasma
B.
Leishmania
C.
Lamblia
D.
Amoeba
E.
Trichomonad
11
59.
The contents of vesicles that appeared on the mucous membrane of a patient with variola were
sent to a virological laboratory. Which of the listed changes were revealed during the smear microscopy?
A. Paschen bodies
B. Babes-Negri bodies
C. Guarnieri bodies
D. Babes-Ernst bodies
E. Syncytium
60.
A three-year-old child has had marked diarrhea for three days. Immune electron microscopy of
his excrements revealed bilayer pseudocovered capsid viruses that looked like small spoke wheels. What
viruses have been revealed?
A. Rotaviruses
B. Coxsackie viruses C. ECHO viruses
D. Coronaviruse E. Reoviruses
61.
An outbreak of an intestinal infection occurred in a kindergarten on the eve of New Year
holidays. Bacteriological examination of patients’ feces didn’t reveal any pathogenic bacteria. Electron
microscopy revealed roundish structures with clear outer edges and a thick core resembling a wheel. Specify
the most likely causative agent of this infection:
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Coxsacki-virus
D. E. coli
E. P.vulgaris
62.
A 40 year old man noticed a reddening and an edema of skin in the area of his neck that later
developed into a small abscess. The incised focus is dense, yellowish-green. The pus contains white granules.
Histological examination revealed drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, macrophages. What type
of mycosis is the most probable?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candidosis
D. Sporotrichosis
E. Coccidioidomycosis
63.
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually
a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses
there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages
detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Furuncle
C. Carbuncle
D. Syphilis
E. Leprosy
64.
Microscopical examination of an infiltrate removed from the submandibular skin area of a 30
y.o. man revealed foci of purulent fluxing surrounded by maturing granulations and mature connective tissue,
the pus contains druses consisting of multiple short rod-like elements with one end attached to the homogenous
centre. What disease is it?
A.
Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. Candidosis
E. –
65.
A 32-year-old patient who lives in the countryside consulted a doctor about a painful swelling
and a fistula in the submandibular region. Examination revealed an infiltration with a fistula discharging thick
pus and containing white granules. On dissection the infiltration tissues turned out to be dense, yellow-green
and had honeycomb structure because of multiple abscesses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Lepra
D. Syphilis
E. Submandibular abscess
66.
Microscopic examination of pus sample taken from mandibular fistula canal and stained by
Gram’s method has revealed druses with gram-positive coloring in the center and cone-shaped structures with
gram-negative coloring. Such morphology is characteristic of the agent of:
A. Fusobacteriosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
D. Anaerobic infection
E. Candidiasis
12
Physiology of microbes
1.
The sterile Petri dishes and pipettes are necessary to prepare for microbiological tests in
bacteriological laboratory. What way of sterilization should be applied in this case?
A. Dry-heat sterilization
B. Tyndallization
C. Pasteurization
D. Boiling
E. Steam sterilization in autoclave
2. What method should be applied for sterilization of heatproof and moistureproof stomatological
instruments in order to ensure total destruction of viruses, vegetative and spore forms of microorganisms?
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Pasteurization
D. Tyndallization E. Burning in the flame of gas burner
3. Which of the following sterilization methods ensures total death of microorganisms and their spores
during onetime thermal processing of an object?
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Tyndallization
D. Pasteurization E. –
4. Meat peptone broth is prepared for sterilization in bacteriological laboratory. What sterilization
method is advisable?
A. Autoclaving B. Ignition C. Boiling D. Filtering E. Dry heat
5. Bacteriological laboratory has the task to sterilize nutrient mediums containing substances that
convert under the temperature over 1000C (urea, carbohydrates). What method of sterilization should be used?
A. Fluid steam sterilization
B. Autoclaving
C. Boiling
D. Tindalization E. Pasteurization
6. What method of sterilization should be used during the manufacturing liquid dosage forms
containing proteins?
A. Filtering
B. Boiling
C. Gas sterilization
D. Autoclaving
E. Pasteurization
7. In order to keep vitality and stability of eubiotics microorganisms in frozen state are dried under
conditions of high vacuum. What method is it?
A. Lyophilization B. Pasteurization
C. Tyndallization D. Inactivation
E. Hybridization
8. What method ensures reliable sterilization of biological liquids (serums, solutions, enzymes,
vitamines etc.) that cannot be exposed to high temperatures?
A. Tyndallization B. Dry heat
C. Flowing steam
D. Moist steam under pressure
E. Flaming
9. Having completed work in a laboratory, a student must tidy up the workspace, perform disinfection
of the workbench and tools. What chemicals should be used for disinfection?
A. Chloramine
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Formalin
D. Chloroform
E. Ether
10. In the surgical ward, the dressing material was undergoing sterilization in an autoclave. Through
an oversight of a nurse the mode of sterilization was changed and the temperature in the autoclave reached
only 100°C instead of the due 120°C.What microorganisms can stay viable under these conditions?
A. Bacilli and clostridia
B. Staphylococci and streptococci
C. Mold and yeast fungi
D. Salmonella and klebsiella
E. Corynebacteria and mycobacteria
11. Passive and active transport of substances is realized through the cell membrane. Name the type of
active transport by which the membrane changes its structure:
A. Endocytosis
B. Osmosis
C. Filtration
D. Diffusion
E. Facilitated diffusion
12. Those organisms which in the process of evolution failed to develop protection from H2O2 can
exist only in anaerobic conditions. Which of the following enzymes can break hydrogen peroxide down?
A. Peroxidase and catalase B. Oxygenase and hydroxylase
C. Cytochrome oxidase, cytochrome B5
13
D. Oxygenase and catalase E. Flavin-dependent oxidase
13. A bacterial cell obtains nutrients by different ways. One of them is the facilitated diffusion that is
realized by special membrane carrier proteins. What are these proteins called?
A. Permeases B. Lyases C. Oxidoreductases D. Isomerases E. Ligases
14. Pathogenic microorganisms produce various enzymes in order to penetrate body tissues and spread
there. Point out these enzymes among those named below.
A. Hyaluronidase, lecithinase
B. Lyase, ligase
C. Transferase, nuclease
D. Oxydase, catalase
E. Esterase, protease
15. Pathogenic microorganisms are characterized by presence of aggression enzymes that determine
their virulence. Select an aggression enzyme:
A. Hyaluronidase B. Carbohydrase C. Transferase D. Oxidase E. Lyase
16. Pathological material taken from a patient suffering from pulpitis was inoculated onto Kitt-Tarozzi
cultural medium. It is planned to find the following microorganisms:
A. Anaerobic
B. Acid-resistant
C. Acidophilic
D. Haemolytic E. Aerobic
17. A patient was taken to a hospital with acute food poisoning caused by homemade canned
mushrooms. The product analysis revealed some microorganisms that develop only in the absence of oxygen.
What microorganisms caused the poisoning?
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Microaerophiles
D. Obligate aerobes
E. Capnophiles
18. The causative agents of intestinal infections can grow at refrigerator temperatures, which may
cause infection in people. What type of temperature optimum do these microorganisms relate to?
A. Psychrophilic
B. Mesophilic C. Thermophilic
D. Anthropophilic E. Necrophilic
19. For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What
type of breathing is typical for Brucella?
A. Capnophilic
B. Facultative anaerobic
C. Obligate anaerobic
D. Obligate aerobic
E. Any
20. A patient underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Analysis of the biopsy material enabled
doctors to diagnose him with helicobacteriosis. What property of the bacteria found in this patient had to be
obligatory taken into account during their cultivation?
A. Microaerophilic ability B. Presence of urease
C. Colonisation of gastral cells
D. Absence of spores and capsules
E. Presence of six polar flagella
21. In microbiology class students had been growing pure bacterial culture. Bacterial inoculation of
solid medium was performed to obtain separate visible colonies, resulting in two colonies, R-type and S-type,
grown in thermostat after one day of incubation. What microorganism properties were described by students?
A. Cultural
B. Tinctorial
C. Biochemical
D. Morphologic
E. Antigenic
22. A 55-year-old male patient was hospitalized to a surgical clinic for suspected septicemia. What
material should be taken for analysis?
A. Blood, sugar broth
B. Liquor, serum agar
C. Urine, beef-extract broth
D. Pus, yolk saline agar
E. Lymph node punctate, cysteine agar
23. A patient operated for acute paraproctitis undergoes antibacterial and detoxification therapy.
According patient state doctor suspected sepsis. What study will confirm the diagnosis?
A. Blood culture for a pathogen
B. X-ray of lungs
C. Liver ultrasound
D. Determining the rate of microbial contamination of wound
E. Determining the rate of average-weight molecules
14
24. A 4-year-old child presents with general weakness, sore throat and deglutitive problem. After his
examination a doctor suspected diphtheria and sent the material to the bacteriological laboratory. In order to
determine the diphtheria causative agent the material should be inoculated into the following differential
diagnostic medium:
A. Blood tellurite agar
B. Endo’s agar
C. Ploskyrev’s agar
D. Sabouraud’s agar
E. Levenshtein-Yessen agar
25. It is suspected that the workers of a serum drugs plant at a regional hemotransfusion station are
carriers of pathogenic staphylococcus aureus. In order to detect staphylococcus carriage, the material from the
nasopharynx of the workers should be inoculated into the
following medium:
A. Egg-yolk-salt agar
B. Endo agar
C. Meat infusion broth
D. Kessler medium E. Blood agar
26. Microbiological studies of air in the pharmacy room revealed the presence of pathogenic
staphylococci. Select the medium in which you can detect the lecithinase activity of the isolated
microorganism:
A. Yolk-salt agar
B. Blood agar
C. Bismuth sulfite agar
D. Sugar agar
E. Meat-extract agar
27. It was suspected that among workers of serum medications factory of regional hemotransfusion
station there are carriers of pathogenic cocci. What medium should the material from nasopharynx of workers
be inoculated of in order to reveal Staphylococcous carriage?
A. Yolk-salt medium
B. Endo agar
C. Beef-extract broth
D. Ressler’s medium E. Blood agar
28. Examination of air state in drugstore premises for preparation of injection drugs was done by
method of sedimentation. It revealed 5 small roundish colonies with zone of hemolysis around them.
Inoculations were made on the following cultural medium:
A. Blood agar
B. Endo agar
C. Meat infusion agar
D. Egg yolk and salt agar
E. Lewin’s agar
29. In order to establish the possible contamination of a medication with fungi, a nutrient medium was
inoculated, which resulted in growth of large cream-like colonies. What nutrient medium was used in this
case?
A. Sabouraud
B. Lowenstein-Jensen
C. Roux
D. Loeffler
E. Finn-2
30. Crude herbal drugs must be examined for yeast-like fungi. What agar can ensure development of
these microorganisms so that associating microflora will grow very slowly or won’t grow at all?
A. Sabouraud’s peptone agar
B. Endo agar
C. Meat infusion agar
D. Milk-salt agar
E. Blood agar
31. A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue
and lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material
under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Sabouraud
B. Endo
C. Loewenstein-Jensen D. Roux
E. Clauberg
32. A patient has a necrotizing phlegmon of his lower extremity. A doctor suspects a gas gangrene.
Microscopy reveals grampositive bacilli. In order to confirm the diagnosis further bacteriological tests should
include inoculation of the material into the following nutrient medium:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi medium B. Endo agar
C. Levine agar
D. Meat-peptone agar
E. Milk-salt agar
33. A lot of pyoinflammatory processes in oral cavity are caused by anaerobes. What nutrient medium
can be used for control of wound textile contamination by anaerobes?
A. Kitt-Tarozzi
B. Endo
C. Roux
D. Sabouraud’s
E. Ploskirev’s
15
34. In 8 days after a surgery the patient develops tetatus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be
caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological
laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
A. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
B. Endo agar
C. Hiss medium
D. Sabouraud agar
E. Egg-yolk salt agar
35. A 12-year-old boy has been hospitalized for suspected food poisoning. The fecal samples were
inoculated on the Endo agar, which resulted in growth of a large number of colorless colonies. What
microorganism is most likely to be EXCLUDED from the list of possible causative agents of the disease?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Yersinia enterocolitica
36. Red colonies spread in the large quantity in the Endo culture medium were revealed on
bacteriological stool examination of a 4-month-old baby with the symptoms of acute bowel infection. What
microorganism can it be?
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
E. Shigella
37. On bacteriological examination of the defecation of a 4-months-old baby with the symptoms of
acute bowel infection there were revealed red colonies spread in the large quantity in the Endo environment.
What microorganism can it be?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Shigella
D. Salmonella
E. Escherichia
38. During bacteriological examination of solutions prepared in a drug-store there appeared red
colonies with metallic shining that grew on Endo agar. What bacteria can they be?
A. Escherichia
B. Shigella
C. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci
E. Salmonella
39. During bacteriological analysis of solutions prepared in a pharmacy some red colonies with
metallic glitter have grown on Endo agar. What microbes were revealed?
A.Escherichia B.Shigella C.Staphylococci D.Streptococci E. Salmonellа
40. Bacteriological examination of a patient with food poisoning required inoculation of a pure culture
of bacteria with the following properties: gramnegative movable bacillus that grows in the Endo’s medium in
form of colourless colonies. A representative of which species caused this disease?
A. Salmonella B. Shigella C. Yersinia D. Esherichia E. Citrobacter
41. On bacteriological study of rinsing water of the patient with food poisoning, the pure bacterial
culture was inoculated with the following properties: gram-negative motile bacillus in the Endo environment
grows like achromic colony. Representative of what genus has caused the illness?
A. Yersinia B. Citrobacter C. Salmonella D. Shigella E. Escherichia
42. A patient was admitted to the infectious department of a hospital. His provisional diagnosis was
"acute gastroenteritis". Inoculation of feces on bismuth-sulfite agar induced growth of black colonies with
metallic glitter. What microorganisms should you think of?
A. Salmonella B. Escherichia C. Shigella D. Yersinia E. Brucella
43. After inoculation of the material obtained from the pharynx of an angina patient onto the bloodtellurite agar, grey colonies could be observed. They were 4-5 mm in diameter, radially striated (in form of
rosettes). Microscopical examination revealed gram-positive bacilli with clavate swollen ends arranged in
form of wide-spread fingers. Identify these microorganisms:
A. Diphtheria corynebacteriae
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci E. Streptobacilli
44. Inoculum from pharynx of a patient ill with angina was inoculated into bloodtellurite agar. It
resulted in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies 4-5 mm in diameter. Grampositive
bacilli with clublike thickenings on their ends placed in form of spread wide apart fingers are visible by
microscope. What microorganisms are these?
A. Diphtheria corynebacteriae
B. Botulism clostridia
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci E. Streptobacilli
45. A sample taken from the pharynx of a patient with angina was inoculated on the blood-tellurite
agar. This resulted in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies up to 4-5 mm in diameter.
16
Microscopically there can be seen gram-positive rods with club-shaped ends arranged in form of spread
fingers. What microorganisms are these?
A. Corynebacteria diphtheriae
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci E. Streptobacilli
46. Blood of a patient with presumable sepsis was inoculated into sugar broth. There appeared bottom
sediment. Repeated inoculation into blood agar caused growth of small transparent round colonies surrounded
by hemolysis zone. Examination of a smear from the sediment revealed gram-positive cocci in form of long
chains. What microorganisms are present in blood of this patient?
A.Streptococci B.Micrococci C.Staphylococci D.Tetracocci E.Sarcina
47. Examination of a patient with pustular skin lesions allowed to isolate a causative agent that forms
in the blood agar roundish yellow middle-sized colonies surrounded by haemolysis zone. Smears from the
colonies contain irregular-shaped clusters of gram-positive cocci. The culture is oxidase- and catalasepositive,
ferments mannitol and synthesizes plasmocoagulase. What causative agent was isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
48. Purulent discharges of a patient with a mandibulofacial phlegmon contain spheroid
microorganisms making S-shaped colonies with golden pigment that produce lecithinase, plasmocoagulase,
hemolysin and decompose mannitol under anaerobic conditions. Specify the kind of microorganisms that had
caused the suppuration:
A. S. aureus
B. Str. pyogenes C. Str. mutans
D. S. epidermidis
E. Str. sanguis
49. From the purulent exudate of a patient with odontogenic phlegmon a pure culture of Gram(+)
microorganisms was segregated. This culture was lecithinously active, coagulated plasma of a rabbit,
decomposed mannitol under anaerobe conditions. What microorganism may have contributed to the origin of
suppurative complication?
A. S.aureus
B. S.epidermidis
C. S.pyogenes
D. S.viridans
E. S.mutans
50. After inoculation of feces sample into the 1% alkaline peptonic water and 8-hour incubation in the
thermostat at a temperature of 37oC a culture in form of a tender bluish film has grown. Such cultural
properties are typical for the causative agent of the following disease:
A. Cholera B.Plague C.Typhoid fever D.Paratyphoid fever E.Dysentery
2018
From the feces of a patient with acute gastroenteritis a pure culture of microorganisms was obtained. The
microorganisms are small mobile slightly curved gram-negative bacilli that within 6 hours grow into a light
blue film on the 1% alkaline peptone water. Such properties are characteristic of the following microorganism:
A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Spirochete D. Spirillum
E. Vibrio
Initial inoculation of water in 1% peptone water resulted in growth of a thin film on the medium surface in 6
hours. Such cultural properties are characteristic of causative agent of the following disease:
A. Dysentery
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Plague
E. Cholera
In 8 days after a surgery the patient developed tetanus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be caused by
suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological laboratory. What
nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
A. Kitt-Tarozzi medium. B. Endo agar.
C. Sabouraud agar.
D. Egg-yolk salt agar. E. Hiss medium
A bacteriological laboratory received a sample of dried fish from an outbreak of food poisoning. Inoculation
of the sample on Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms resembling tennis racket. These
microorganisms are causative agents of the following disease:
A. Botulism.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Typhoid fever.
D. Salmonellosis.
E. Dysentery.
Special
17
During inspectation of dental tools for sterility in one case gram-positive cocci were detected. They were
situated in clusters and yielded positive plasma coagulation reaction; the cocci were fermenting mannitol in
anaerobic conditions and exhibiting lecithinase activity. What microorganism as detected?
A. St. saprophiticus
B. St. epidermidis
C. Corynebacterium xerosis
D. Staph. aureus
E. Str. pyogenes
Microbiological purity of tableted drugs had been tested at factory. Samples cultivation in mannitol salt agar
resulted in growth of golden-yellow colonies, microscopic examination of colonies detected grampositive
globular bacteria positioned in clusters; microorganisms had plasma coagulation properties. What pure
bacterial culture was obtained?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staph. saprophyticus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Bacilli were extracted from investigated sample. The bacilli are curved, extremely mobile, gram-negative,
form no spores or capsules, have anaerobic form of respiration. They form transparent smooth colonies in
alkaline agar, ferment saccharose and mannose into acid, produce exotoxin, fibrinolysin, collagenase, and
hyaluronidase. What
agent was extracted?
A. Comma bacillus
B. Proteus
C. Dysentery bacillus
D. Blue pus bacillus
E. Colibacillus
Initial inoculation of water in 1% peptone water resulted in growth of a thin film on the medium surface in 6
hours. Such cultural properties are characteristic of causative agent of the following disesase:
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
E. Pseudotuberculosis
A 4-year-old child presents with general weakness, sore throat and deglutitive problem. After his examination
a doctor suspected diphtheria and sent the material to the bacteriological laboratory. In order to determine the
diphtheria causative agent the material should be inoculated into the following differential diagnostic medium:
A. Blood tellurite agar
B. LevenshteinYessen agar
C. Ploskyrev’s
agar
D. Sabouraud’s
agar
E. Endo’s agar
A bacteriological laboratory received a sample of dried fish from an outbreak of food poisoning. Inoculation
of the sample on Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms resembling tennis racket. These
microorganisms are causative agents of the following disease:
A. Botulism.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Typhoid fever.
D. Salmonellosis.
E. Dysentery.
A bacteriological laboratory studied the home-made dried fish which had caused a severe food poisoning.
Microscopy of the culture grown on the Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed
microorganisms resembling
a tennis racket. What is the most
18
likely diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
E. Typhoid fever
A bacteriological laboratory has been investigating a sample of homemade dried fish that was the cause of
severe food poisoning. Microscopy of the culture inoculated in Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms
resembling a tennis racket. What diagnosis can be made?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
E. Typhoid fever
A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed mercury-drop like
colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small
ovoid gram-negative
bacilli sized 1-3
microns. What
microorganisms
were isolated?
A. Bordetella
B. Corynebacteria
C. Mycobacteria
D. Meningococcus
E. Brucella
During bacteriological examination of sputum of a child with choking cough and fever there were revealed
glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar and reminding of mercury drops. Microscopic
examination revealed short Gram-negative bacteria. What microorganism was secured from the sputum?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Haemophylus influenzae
C. Corynebacterium dyphtheriae
D.Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects of betalactam antibiotics. The patient’s sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which resulted in
growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried eggs). What
microorganism caused the disease?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Str. pneumoniae
D. L. pneumophila
E. Chlamidia pneumoniae
From a medicinal herb a certain phytopathogenic microorganism was secured. In the nutrient medium it forms
"fried egg"colonies. What is the most likely agent?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Yeasts
C. Actinomycetes
D. Nocardia
E. Pseudoonas
Bacteriological examination of the urine of the patient with pyelonephritis revealed microorganisms that
produced yellow-green pigment and a characteristic odor in meat-peptone agar. What are they called?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Escherichia
C. Proteus
D. Klebsiella
E. Azotobacter
Many diseases of medicinal plants are caused by bacteria of the Pseudomonas genus. Select the bacteria
19
relating to this genus:
A. Blue pus bacillus
B. Colon bacillus
C. Proteus
D. Mycoplasma
E. Micrococci
Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative bacilli.
Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What
microorganism is the most probable cause of the
disease?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Escherihia coli
D. Proteus mirabilis
E. Salmonella enteritidis
A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her
belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidasepositive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it
be?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Mycoplasma pneumonie
C. Str.pyogenes
D. E. coli
E. Proteus mirabilis
A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram-negative
bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on
the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated
from the patient’s wound?
A. P. aeruginosa B. P.vulgaris C. S.aureus D. S.pyogenes E. S.faecalis
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the
wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed
microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staph. epidermidis
C. B. subtilis
D. Pr. vulgaris
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A patient in the oral surgery department has got purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound
material found a culture that produces cyan pigment. What microorganism is the most probable causative
agent?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staph. epidermidis
C. B. subtilis
D. Kleb. pneumoniae
E. Pr.vulgaris
A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluish-green color
that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this causative
agent?
A. Gram-negative stain
B. Presense of spores
C. Coccal form
D. Cell pairing
E. Mycelium formation
Bacteriological inspection of disinfection quality at a pharmacy revealed a microorganism in an utility room
(in the sink). The microorganism has the following properties: mobile nonspore-forming gram-negative
bacteria that form capsular substance, grow well on ordinary nutrient media, secrete the blue-green pigment.
This microorganism is most likely to be of the following genus:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Proteus
C. Clostridium
D. Shigella
E. Vibrio
A sample of a finished dosage form was found to be contaminated with some microorganisms exhibiting the
following properties: greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that grew on the
medium for the detection of pyocyanin. The bacilli release the bluegreen pigment into the medium. What
microorganisms contaminated the finished dosage form?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
20
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Staph. saprophyticus
During bacteriological examination of the purulent discharge obtained from a postoperative wound an
inoculation on meat infusion agar has been performed. The inoculation has resulted in large colorless mucous
colonies that in 24 hours with exposure to sunlight developed green-blue pigmentation and smell of honey or
jasmine. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichea. What bacterial culture is contained in purulent
discharge?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Klebsiella osaenae
C. Streptomyces griseus D. Proteus vulgaris E. Brucella abortus
A 3 m.o. baby has white film on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. A doctor suspected
candidosis. What nutrient medium should be applied for inoculation of the material under examination in
order to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Sabouraud’s
B. Endo
C. Jensen’s
D. Roux
E. Clauberg’s
Virological laboratory has received patient’s nasopharyngeal lavage. What can be used to single out influenza
virus from the patient’s lavage?
A. Chick embryo
B. Endo’s medium
C. Meat infusion agar
D. Meat infusion broth
E. Lowenstein–Jensen medium
21
IMMUNILOGY, CHEMOTHERAPY, GENETICS, INFECTION
Immunity
1. Examination of a child who frequently suffers from infectious diseases revealed that IgG
concentration in blood serum was 10 times less than normal, IgA and IgM concentration was also significantly
reduced. Analysis showed also lack of B-lymphocytes and plasmocytes. What disease are these symptoms
typical for?
A. Bruton’s disease
B. Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia
C. Dysimmunoglobulinemia
D. Louis-Bar syndrome
E. Di George syndrome
2. Parents of a 5-year-old child report him to have frequent colds that develop into pneumonias,
presence of purulent rashes on the skin. Laboratory tests have revealed the following: absence of
immunoglobulins of any type; naked cells are absent from the lymph nodes punctate. What kind of immune
disorder is it?
A. X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton type agammaglobulinemia)
B. Autosomal recessive agammaglobulinaemia (Swiss type)
C. Hypoplastic anemia D. Agranulocytosis E. Louis-Barr syndrome
3. A doctor examined a patient, studied the blood analyses, and reached a conclusion, that peripheral
immunogenesis organs are affected. What organs are the most likely to be affected?
A. Tonsils
B. Thymus
C. Kidneys
D. Red bone marrow
E. Yellow bone marrow
4. A 32-year-old patient has purulent wound in the lower third of forearm. Smear of purulent wound
content has been made. What cells will be generally detected, if it is stained using Romanovsky-Giemsa stain?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Lymphocyte
D. Erythrocyte
E. Basocyte
5. Cellular composition of exudate largely depends on the etiological factor of inflammation. What
leukocytes are the first to be involved in the focus of inflammation caused by pyogenic bacteria?
A. Neutrophil granulocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Myelocytes
D. Eosinophilic granulocytes
E. Basophils
6. A patient with clinical presentations of immunodeficiency has undergone immunological tests. They
revealed significant decrease in number of cells that form rosettes with sheep erythrocytes. What conclusion
can be drown on the ground of the analysis data?
A. Decrease in T-lymphocyte level B. Decrease in B-lymphocyte level
C. Decrease in natural killer level (NKcells)
D. Decrease in complement system level
E. Lack of effector cells of the humoral immunity
7. A patient with clinical presentations of immunodeficiency went through immunological
examinations. They revealed significant loss of cells that form rosettes with erythrocytes of a ram. What
conclusion can be made according to the analysis data?
A. Decrease of T-lymphocytes rate B. Decrease of B-lymphocytes rate
C. Decrease of natural killer cell rate
D. Decrease of complement system rate
E. Insufficiency of effector cells of humoral immunity
8. Donor skin transplantation was performed to a patient with extensive burns. On the 8-th day the
graft became swollen and changed colour; on the 11-th day graft rejection started. What cells take part in this
process?
A. T-lymphocytes B. Erythrocytes
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils
E. B-lymphocytes
9. A female patient underwent liver transplantation. 1,5 month after it her condition became worse
because of reaction of transplant rejection. What factor of immune system plays the leading part in this
reaction?
A. T-killers
B. Interleukin-1
C. Natural killers
22
D. B-lymphocytes
E. T-helpers
10. A patient with skin mycosis has disorder of cellular immunity. The most typical characteristic of
it is reduction of the following index:
A. T-lymphocytes B. Immunoglobulin G C. Immunoglobulin E
D. B-lymphocytes
E. Plasmocytes
11. Recovery from an infectious disease is accompanied by neutralization of antigens by specific
antibodies. What cells produce them?
A. Plasmocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Tissue basophils
D. Eosinophils
E. T-lymphocytes
12. Throughout a year a 37-year-old woman periodically got infectious diseases of bacterial origin,
their course was extremely lingering, remissions were short. Examination revealed low level of major classes
of immunoglobulins. The direct cause of this phenomenon may be the following cell dysfunction:
A. Plasmocytes
B. Phagocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages
E. Lymphocytes
13. Loose fibrous connective tissue of salivary glands contains oval average-sized cells which
synthesize antibodies. The cells have round eccentric nucleus and "spoke-wheel" chromatin pattern made by
small clumps of chromatin. What are these cells called?
A. Plasma cells
B. Adipocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Fibroblasts
E. Macrophages
14. A 37-year-old woman periodically got infectious diseases of bacterial origin, their course was
extremely lingering, remissions were short. Examination revealed low level of major classes of
immunoglobulins. The direct cause of this phenomenon may be the following cell dysfunction:
A. Plasmocytes
B. Phagocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages
E. Lymphocytes
15. Blood analysis of a 16-year-old girl suffering from the autoimmune inflammation of thyroid gland
revealed multiple plasmatic cells. Such increase in plasmocyte number is caused by proliferation and
differentiation of the following blood cells:
A. B-lymphocytes
B. T-helpers
C. Tissue basophils
D. T-killers
E. T-supressors
16. Humoral immune response to an antigen results in generation of antibodies produced by
plasmacytes. Plasmacytes arise as a result of immunostimulated division from the following cells of immune
system:
A. B-lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Granulocytes D. T-helpers
E. T-killers
17. In a patient with clinical signs of immunodeficiency the number and functional activity of T and B
lymphocytes are not changed. Defect with dysfunction of antigen-presentation to the immunocompetent cells
was found during investigation on the molecule level. Defect of what cells is the most probable?
A. Т-lymphocytes, В-lymphocytes
B. 0-lymphocytes
C. Fibroblasts, Т-lymphocytes, В-lymphocytes
D. NK-cells
E. Macrophages, monocytes
18. A patient with clinical presentations of primary immunodeficiency displays disturbance of antigenpresenting function by immunocompetent cells. What cells may have structure defect?
A. Macrophages, monocytes
B. T-lymphocytes
C. B-lymphocytes D. Fibroblasts
E. 0-lymphocytes
19. Live vaccine is injected into the human body. Increasing activity of what cells of connective tissue
can be expected?
A. Fibroblasts and labrocytes
B. Adipocytes and adventitious cells
C. Macrophages and fibroblasts
D. Plasmocytes and lymphocytes
E. Pigmentocytes and pericytes
20. In order to speed up healing of a wound of oral mucosa a patient was prescribed a drug that is a
thermostable protein occurring in tears, saliva, mother’s milk as well as in a new-laid hen’s egg. It is known
that this protein is a factor of natural resistance of an organism. What is it called?
A. Lysozyme
B. Complement
C. Interferon D. Interleukin E. Imanine
23
21. In order to administer general health improving therapy a parodontist intends to study factors of
nonspecific resistance of saliva and mucous secretion. Which of the following factors of nonspecific resistance
should be studied in the first line?
A. Lysozyme
B. Secretory IgA
C. Properdin
D. Interferon
E. Complement
22. Lymphocytes and other cells of our body synthesize universal antiviral agents as a response to viral
invasion. Name these protein factors:
A. Interferon
B. Interleukin-2
C. Cytokines
D. Interleukin-4 E. Tumor necrosis factor
23. Examination of patients with periodontitis revealed the interdependence between the rate of
affection of periodontal tissues and the amount of lysozymes in saliva and gingival liquid. These results can
be obtained during studying the following protection system of an organism:
A. Non-specific resistance B. Humoral immunity
C. Cellular immunity
D. Autoresponsiveness E. Tolerance
24. Blood serum of a newborn contains antibodies to measles virus. What kind of immunity is this
indicative of?
A. Natural passive B. Natural active C. Artificial passive
D. Artificial active E. Heredoimmunity
25. A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What
immunity will be formed in the given patient?
A. Antitoxic passive immunity B. Infection immunity
C. Antitoxic active immunity D. Antimicrobic active immunity
E. Antimicrobic passive immunity
26. For the specific prevention of influenza, the employees of an enterprise were vaccinated with
"Influvac". What type of immunity will develop in the body of the vaccinated?
A. Artificial active B. Innate congenital
C. Artificial passive D. Natural active E. Natural passive
27. In our country, routine preventive vaccinations against poliomyelitis involve using live vaccine
that is administered orally. What immunoglobulins are responsible for the development of local postvaccination immunity in this case?
A. Secretory IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. Serum IgA E. IgE
28. Various cells of the oral mucous membrane and antimicrobial substances synthesized by these cells
play an important part in the local immunity of the oral cavity. Specify the key factors for the local immunity:
A. Secretory IgA B.
B-lymphocytes
C. IgG
D. Macrophages E.
Eosinophils
29. A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection
of tetanus serum. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by
Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?
A. Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells
B. Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells
C. Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen
D. Stimulation of the synthesis of antigenspecific IgG
E. Binding of IgE receptors to the mast cells
30. A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus
serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization
method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?
A. Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells
B. Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators
C. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
D. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 synthesis
E. Binding of IgE receptors on mast cells.
31. A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a glass shard, when playing, and was delivered to outpatient
department to receive anti-tetanus serum. To prevent development of anaphylactic shock the serum was
introduced by Bezredka method. This method of organism hyposensitization is based on the following
mechanism:
24
A. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2
B. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
C. Stabilization of mast cell membranes
D. Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis
E. Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE
32. A 27- year-old woman has dropped penicillin containing eye drops. In few minutes there appeared
feeling of itching, burning of the skin, lips and eyelids edema, whistling cough, decreasing of BP. What
antibodies take part in the development of this allergic reaction?
A. IgA and IgM
B. IgM and IgG C. IgM and IgD
D. IgG and IgD
E. IgE and IgG
33. Skin samples of a patient with bronchial asthma revealed allergen sensitization of poplar fuzz.
What factor of immune system plays the main part in development of this immunopathological state?
A. IgE
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. Sensitized Т-lymphocytes
E. –
34. A youth, aged 15, from childhood suffers from atopic dermatitis and allergy to the shellfish. In the
last 3 months after acquiring aquarium fish, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, itching in the nose developed. What level
of immunologic index should be defined in this case?
A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgA
E. Circulating immunocomplexes
35. A 7-year-old child complains of itching, papular erythematous rash, dry skin. Objectively: there is
lichenification in the popliteal fossae and antecubital spaces. What immunologic indicator if found in the blood
serum will verify the diagnosis (atopic dermatitis)?
A. Total IgE
B. Secretory IgA
C. IgM
D. IgG
E. IgD
36. What condition may develop 15-30 minutes after re-administration of the antigen as a result of the
increased level of antibodies, mainly IgE, that are adsorbed on the surface of target cells, namely tissue
basophils (mast cells) and blood basophils?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
D. Immune complex hyperresponsiveness E. Serum sickness
37. A 22-year-old woman ate some seafood. 5 hours later the trunk and the distal parts of limbs got
covered with small itchy papules which were partially fused together. After one day, the rash disappeared
spontaneously. Specify the hypersensitivity mechanism underlying these changes:
A. Atopy (local anaphylaxis) B. Systemic anaphylaxis
C. Cellular cytotoxicity
D. Immune complex hypersensitivity
E. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytolysis
38. A 30-year-old patient has dyspnea fits, mostly at night. He has been diagnosed with bronchial
asthma. What type of allergic reaction according to the Gell-Coombs classification is most likely in this case?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Stimulating
D. Immune complex E. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
39. During surgical manipulations a patient has been given novocaine injection for anesthesia. 10
minutes later the patient developed paleness, dyspnea, hypotension. What type of allergic reaction is it?
A. Anaphylactic immune reaction B. Cellulotoxic immune reaction
C. Aggregate immune reaction
D. Stimulating immune reaction
E. Cell-mediated immune reaction
40. A 50 year old man who was referred to the hospital for treatment of cervical lymphadenitis
underwent test for individual sensitivity to penicillin. 30 seconds after he went hot all over, AP dropped down
to 0 mm Hg that led to cardiac arrest. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is it?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic
D. Immunocomplex-mediated
E. –
41. A 50-year-old patient has been referred for treatment of neck lymphadenitis. His individual
penicillin sensitivity was tested. In 30 seconds fullbody fever raised in the patient and his arterial blood
pressure dropped to 0mm Hg followed by cardiac arrest. Resuscitation was unsuccessful. Autopsy revealed
25
acute venous hyperemia of viscera. Histological study revealed mastcells (tissue basocytes) degranulation in
the skin (at the area of injections), myocardium and lungs. What kind of hypersensitivity reaction occurred in
the patient?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic
D. Immune complex-mediated
E. –
42. Several minutes after a dentist administered novocaine for local anaesthesia of a patient’s tooth,
the following symptoms sharply developed in the patient: fatigue, skin itching. Objectively the following can
be observed: skin hyperemia, tachycardia, BP dropped down to 70/40 mm Hg. What kind of allergic reaction
is this pathology?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Stimulating
D. Cell-mediated immune reaction
E. Immune complex
43. A woman complaining of coryza, phonastenia, eyelids redness and lacrymation during spring
period came to the doctor. What type of allergic reaction by Gell ano Coombs classification develops in this
case?
A. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
B. Immunocomplex
C. Stimulating
D. Cytotoxic
E. Anaphylactic
44. A patient who had been suffering for many years from bronchial asthma died from asphyxia. The
histological examination of his lungs revealed the following: much mucus with eosinophiles contents in the
lumen of bronchioles and small bronci, sclerosis of interalveolar septa, dilation of alveolar lumen. Which of
the mechanisms of allergy development is it?
A. Immunocomplex B. Cytolysis, caused by lymphocytes
C. Cytotoxic
D. Reagin
E. Granulomatosis
45. A patient with paroxysmal attacks of asphyxia, which appear after inhalation of different aromatic
substances has been made a diagnosis of bronchial asthma. Ig E rate is elevated. What type of reaction is it
the most typical for?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
C. Autoimmune
D. Cytotoxic
E. Immunocomplex
46. A patient suffering from periodical attacks caused by inhalation of different flavoring substances
was diagnosed with atopic bronchial asthma. IgE level was increased. This is typical for the following type of
reactions:
A. Anaphylactic reactions
B. Cytotoxic reactions
C. Immunocomplex reactions D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. Autoimmune reactions
47. During anaesthetization of the oral cavity mucous tunic a patient developed anaphylactic shock
(generalized vasodilatation, increase in vascular permeability along with escape of liquid to the tissues). What
type of hypersensitivity has the patient developed?
A. I type (anaphylactic)
B. II type (antibody-dependent)
C. III type (immune complex) D. IV type (cellular cytotoxicity)
E. V type (granulomatosis)
48. A teenger had his tooth extracted under novocain anaesthesia. 10 minutes later he presented with
skin pallor, dyspnea, hypotension. When this reaction is developed and the allergen achieves tissue basophils,
it reacts with:
A. IgE B. IgА C. IgD D. IgМ E. T-lymphocytes
49. A surgeon used novocaine as an anaesthetic during surgical manipulations. 10 minutes after it the
patient became pale, he got dyspnea and hypotension. What type of allergic reaction is it?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Stimulating
E. Cell-mediated
50. During anesthesia of the oral mucosa a 37-year-old patient has had anaphylactic reaction
(widespread vasodilation, increased vascular permeability with liquid exiting the blood vessels and penetrating
in the tissues). What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurred in the patient?
A. Type I (anaphylactic)
B. Type II (antibody-dependent)
26
C. Type III (immune complex)
D. Type IV (cell cytotoxicity) E. Type V (granulomatosis)
51. After anaesthetic application during tooth extraction the patient developed marked soft tissue
edema of the upper and lower jaw, skin rash on the face, reddening, and itching. What pathological process
results in such reaction to the anaesthetic?
A. Toxic action of drug
B. Disturbed lymph drainage
C. Allergy
D. Iflammation
E. Circulatory deficiency
52. A patient has been administered conduction anesthesia with novocaine in preparation for tooth
extraction. After the anesthesia administration the patient developed swelling and hyperemy around the
injection site, skin itch, general fatigue, motor agitation. Name the developed complication:
A. Allergy
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Tachyphylaxis
D. Drug dependence
E. Inflammation
53. A man with a long-term history of bronchial asthma died from asphyxia. What mechanism accounts
for the development of hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Reagine reaction
B. Cytotoxic reaction
C. Immune complex reaction D. Lymphocyte-mediated cytolysis
E. Granulomatosis
In a woman with bronchial asthma, a viral infection provoked a fatal status asthmaticus. Pulmonary
histology shows a spasm and an edema of bronchioles. A marked infiltration with lymphocytes, eosinophils,
and other leukocytes, as well as degranulation of mast cells, can be observed in their walls. What mechanism
of hypersensitivity underlies the described changes?
A. Immune-mediated cytolysis
B. Immune complex mechanism
C. Reaginic hypersensitivity reaction
D. Inflammatory mechanism
E. Autoimmune mechanism
54. A 38 year old patient died during intractable attack of bronchial asthma. Histological examination
revealed mucus accumulations in bronchi’s lumen, a lot of mast cells (labrocytes) in bronchi’s wall, some of
these cells are degranulated, there are also many eosinophils. Name pathogenesis of these changes in bronchi:
A. Atopy, anaphylaxis
B. Cytotoxic, cytolytic effect of antibodies
C. Immune complex mechanism
D. Cell-mediated cytolysis
E. Granulematosis
55. For the purpose of anaesthetization a patient got injection of local anesthetic. A few minutes later
the patient got dyspnea and tachycardia; he lost consciousness. What type of shock is it?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Haemorrhagic
D. Traumatic
E. Burn
56. In order to estimate antibiotic susceptibility of a patient doctors introduced him intracutaneously
0,2 ml of penicillin solution. Ten minutes after introduction there appeared hyperemy and edema. What type
does this reaction relate to (according to Coomb’s and Gell’s classification)?
A. Anaphylactic reaction
B. Cytotoxic reaction
C. Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. Tuberculine reaction
57. A patient with acute bronchitis has been prescribed sulfanilamide drugs for treatment. In an hour
after administration the patient developed itching and vesicles filled with light transparent liquid on the face,
palms and soles. Name the mechanism of immune response:
A. Reaginic reaction
B. C. Antibody-mediated cytolysis
27
D. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
E. Cell cytotoxicity
58. A few minutes afer repeated introduction of penicillin a patient got dyspnea, tongue numbness,
hyperemia and then skin pallor. The patient also lost consciousness. What is the cause of such a grave
condition?
A. Anaphylactic shock B. Serum sickness C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
E. Bronchial asthma
59. After a 10-year-old child had been bitten by a bee, he was delivered to a hospital. There were lip,
face and neck edemata. The patient felt hot and short of breath. Objectively: breathing was laboured and noisy.
There were foamy discharges from the mouth, cough. The skin was pale and cold. There was bradypnoea.
Heart sounds were muffled and arrhythmic. Thready pulse was present. What diagnosis was made by the
expert in resuscitation?
A. Anaphylactic shock B. Quincke’s edema
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Acute cardiovascular collapse
E. Cerebral coma
60. Every year during the plant blossoming a female patient develops acute catarrhal inflammation of
conjunctiva and nasal mucosa that is the clinical presentation of an allergy. These symptoms relate to the
following type of allergic reactions:
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Immune complex
D. Cell-mediated
E. Cellular dysfunction
61. After eating strawberries a child presented with itchy red spots on the skin (hives). According to
the classification of Coombs and Jell this reaction relates to the following type of allergic reactions:
A. Reagin (anaphylactic)
B. Immunocomplex
C. Cytotoxic
D. Cell-mediated E. Stimulating
62. 30 minutes after drinking mango juice a child suddenly developed a local swelling in the area of
the soft palate, which impeded swallowing and, eventually, respiration. Mucosa of the swollen area was
hyperemic and painless. Blood test revealed moderate eosinophilia. Body temperature was normal. Anamnesis
states that the elder sister of the child has been suffering from bronchial asthma attacks. What kind of edema
has developed in the child?
A. Allergic
B. Inflammatory
C. Cardiac
D. Alimentary
E. Hepatic
63. 1 minute after the patient had been administered penicillin the patient’s arterial pressure sharply
dropped, pulse became thread, cold sweating and clonic convulsions began. Name this condition.
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Traumatic shock
C. Burn shock
D. Septic shock E. Cardiogenic shock
64. A 35 year old woman consulted a doctor about affection of arm skin and lower third of forearm in
form of a large edema, hyperemia, vesiculation and maceration. The disease developed after using a laundry
detergent "Lotos". The patient has been using it for a month. She hasn’t suffered from dermatological diseases
before. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Allergic dermatitis B. Dermatitis simplex C. Toxicoallergic dermatitis
D. Microbial eczema E. Localized neurodermatitis
65. A 22-year-old girl has been complaining of having itching rash on her face for 2 days. She
associates this disease with application of cosmetic face cream. Objectively: apparent reddening and edema
of skin in the region of cheeks, chin and forehead; fine papulovesicular rash. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Allergic dermatitis
B. Dermatitis simplex
C. Eczema
D. Erysipelas
E. Neurodermatitis
66. Hemotransfusion stimulated development of intravascular erythrocyte hemolysis. The patient has
the following type of hypersensitivity:
A. II type hypersensitivity (antibodydependent)
B. I type hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
C. III type hypersensitivity (immune complex)
D. IV type hypersensitivity (cellular cytotoxicity)
28
E. V type hypersensitivity (granulomatosis)
67. The patient’s condition after blood transfusion has been aggravated by posttransfusion shock.
Name the type of allergic reaction causing this pathology.
A. Cytotoxic
B. Anaphylactic C. Immune complex
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. Receptor-mediated
68. During blood transfusion a patient has developed intravascular erythrocyte hemolysis. What kind
of hypersensitivity does the patient have?
A. II type (antibody-dependent)
B. I type (anaphylactic)
C. III type (immune complex)
D. IV type (cellular cytotoxicity)
E. IV type (granulomatosis)
69. On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of
his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380С, pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests
revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic
C. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
D. Stimulating
E. Immunocomplex
70. A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in
the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and
spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
A. Immunocomplex B. Hypersensitivity of immediate type
C. Cytoxic
D. Hypersensitivity of delayed type E. –
71. A patient has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis that developed after he had had
streptococcal infection. It is most likely that the affection of basal glomerular membrane is caused by an
allergic reaction of the following type:
A. Immune complex
B. Anaphylactic
C. Cytotoxic
D. Delayed
E. Stimulating
72. 10 days after having quinsy caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus a 6-year-old child exhibited
symptoms of glomerulonephritis. What mechanism of glomerular lesion is most likely in this case?
A. Immunocomplex
B. Cellular cytotoxicity
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Atopy
E. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytolysis
73. A male patient has been diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. It is most
likely that the lesion of the basement membrane of renal corpuscles was caused by the following allergic
reaction:
A. Immune complex
B. Anaphylactic
C. Cytotoxic
D. Delayed
E. Stimulating
74. A 12-year-old child has developed nephritic syndrome (proteinuria, hematuria, cylindruria) 2
weeks after the case of tonsillitis, which is a sign of affected glomerular basement membrane in the kidneys.
What mechanism is the most likely to cause the basement membrane damage?
A. Immune complex B. Granulomatous C. Antibody-mediated
D. Reaginic
E. Cytotoxic
75. A 30 year old woman has applied a lipstick with a fluorescent substance for a long time. Then she
got a limited erythema and slight peeling on her lip border, later there appeared transversal striae and cracks.
Special methods of microscopic examination of the affected area helped to reveal sensibilized lymphocytes
and macrophages in the connective tissue; cytolysis. What type of immunological hypersensitivity was
developed?
A. IV type (cellular cytotoxicity)
B. I type (reaginic)
C. II type (antibody cytotoxicity)
D. III type (immune complex cytotoxicity) E. Granulomatosis
76. A 30 year old woman has been continuously using lipstick with a fluorescent substance that led to
development of a limited erythema on the prolabium, slight peeling, and later small transversal sulci and
fissures. Microscopic examination of the affected zone revealed in the connective tissue sensibilized
lymphocytes and macrophages, effects of cytolysis. What type of immunological hypersensitivity has
developed on the lip?
29
A. IV type (cellular cytotoxicity)
B. I type (reagin type)
C. II type (antibody cytotoxicity)
D. III type (immune complex cytotoxicity) E. Granulomatosis
77. A patient visited a dentist with complaints of redness and edema of his mouth mucous membrane
in a month after dental prosthesis. The patient was diagnosed with allergic stomatitis. What type of allergic
reaction by Gell and Cumbs underlies this disease?
A. Delayed type hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic
C. Immunocomplex D. Anaphylactic
E. Stimulating
78. A woman has been applying a new cosmetic preparation for a week that resulted in eye-lid
inflammation accompanied by hyperemia, infiltration and painfulness. What type of allergic reaction was
developed?
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III
E. V
79. Tuberculine was injected intracutaneously to the child for tuberculin test. Marked hyperemia, tissue
infiltration developed on the place of injection in 24 hours. What mechanism caused these modifications?
A. Cells cytotoxity B. Reagin type cytotoxity C. Granuloma formation
D. Immunocomplex cytotoxity
E. Antibody cytotoxity
80. 48 hours after performing tuberculin test (Mantoux test) to a child a 10 mm papule appeared on the
spot of tuberculin introduction. What hypersensitivity mechanism underlies these changes?
A. Cellular cytotoxicity
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
D. Immune complex cytotoxicity
E. Granulomatosis
81. A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8
mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after
the tuberculin injection?
A. Type IV hypersensitivity B. Arthus phenomenon C. Seroreaction
D. Atopic reaction
E. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
82. A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to
8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has
developed after tuberculin injection?
A. Hyperresponsiveness type IV
B. Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type
C. Reaction of serum sickness type
D. Atopic reaction
E. Hyperresponsiveness type II
83. A 10 year old child underwent Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later there apperaed a
papule up to 8 mm in diameter on the site of tuberculin injection. Tuberculin injection caused the following
hypersensitivity reaction:
A. IV type hypersensitivity reaction
B. Arthus reaction
C. Seroreaction
D. Atopic reaction
E. II type hypersensitivity reaction
84. A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening
and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity
reaction is this test based upon?
A. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D. Immediate hypersensitivity
E. –
85. A 45-year-old male died from disseminated tuberculosis. On autopsy the symptoms of tuberculosis
were confirmed by both microscopic and histological analyses. What kind of hypersensitivity reaction
underlies the process of granuloma development?
A. Delayed
B. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
C. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity
D. Anaphylactic
E. Immune complex
30
86. A child with suspected tuberculosis was given Mantoux test. After 24 hours the site of the allergen
injection got swollen, hyperemic and painful. What are the main components that determine such response of
the body?
A. Mononuclear cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
B. Granulocytes, T-lymphocytes and IgG
C. Plasma cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
D. B-lymphocytes, IgM
E. Macrophages, B-lymphocytes and monocytes
87. A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there
was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?
A. No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
B. Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
C. No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
D. No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis
E. Presence of antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
88. While registering the child to the school Mantoux's test was made to define whether revaccination
was needed test result is negative. What does this result of the test mean?
A. Absence of antitoxic immunity to the tuberculosis
B. Presence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
C. Absence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
D. Presence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
E. Absence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
89. A 16 y.o. boy from a countryside entered an educational establishment. Scheduled Manteux test
revealed that the boy had negative reaction. What are the most reasonable actions in this case?
A. To perform BCG vaccination
B. To repeat the reaction in a month
C. To perform serodiagnostics of tuberculosis
D. To isolate the boy temporarily from his mates
E. To perform rapid Price diagnostics
90. Medical examination of the first-year pupils included Mantoux test. 15 pupils out of 35 had
negative reaction. What actions should be taken against children with negative reaction?
A. BCG vaccination
B. Antitoxin vaccination
C. Rabies vaccination
D. Repeat Mantoux test
E. Examination of blood serum
91. Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an
important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
A. BCG
B. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
C. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine
D. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine
E. –
92. For tuberculosis prevention the newborns got an injection of a vaccine. What vaccine was used?
A. BCG
B. Mantoux
C. DTaP vaccine
D. Anatoxin
E. Oral polio vaccine (Sabin vaccine)
93. In a maternity hospital a newborn should receive vaccination against tuberculosis. What vaccine
should be chosen?
A. BCG vaccine
B. STI vaccine
C. EV vaccine
D. DPT vaccine
E. Tuberculin
94. There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed
Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?
A. Tuberculine
B. BCG vaccine
C. DPT vaccine
D. Tularin test
E. DT vaccine
31
95. A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux
test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?
A. Tuberculin
B. BCG vaccine
C. DTP vaccine D. Tularinum
E. Td vaccine
96. The first grade pupils went through a medical examination aimed at selection of children needing
tuberculosis revaccination. What test was applied?
A. Mantoux test B. Schick test
C. Cutaneous tularin test
D. Burne test
E. Anthracene test
97. A virological laboratory obtained pathological material (mucous discharges from nasal meatuses)
taken from a patient with provisional diagnosis "influenza". What quick test will allow to reveal specific viral
antigen in the material under examination?
A. Direct and indirect immunofluorescence test
B. Direct and indirect fluorescence immunoassay
C. Hemagglutination inhibition assay D. Radioimmunoassay E. –
98. During the breakout of acute respiratory infection in order to diagnose influenza the expressdiagnosis, based on revealing of specific viral antigen in the examined material (nasopharyngial lavage), is
carried out. Which reaction is used for this?
A. Immunofluorescence
B. Agglutination
C. Precipitation
D. Opsonization
E. Complement binding
99. Laboratory of extremely dangerous infections received a sample taken from a patient with assumed
cholera. What express-diagnostics method can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Immunofluorescence test
B. Complement binding reaction
C. Agglutination test
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Hemagglutination reaction
100. Serological diagnostics of infectious diseases is based upon specific interaction with antigens.
Specify the serological reaction that underlies adhesion of microorganisms when they are affected by specific
antibodies in presence of an electrolyte:
A. Agglutination reaction
B. Precipitation reaction
C. Complement-binding reaction
D. Hemadsorption reaction
E. Neutralization reaction
101. A physician is planning to diagnose an infectious disease by means of agglutination test. What is
required for this reaction apart from the serum of a patient?
A. Diagnosticum B. Diagnostic serum
C. Complement
D. Hemolytic serum E. Anatoxin
102. To conduct serum diagnostics of typhoid fever a test is carried out, when diagnosticums of three
types of microorganisms are being added into different solutions of patient’s serum; then agglutinate formation
is checked. Name the author of that test.
A. Widal
B.Wassermann
C. Ouchterlony
D. Wright
E. Sachs-Witebsky
103. For serological diagnostics of the whooping cough it was made large-scale reaction with
parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella
parapertussis grain-like sediment formed. What antibodies have this reaction revealed?
A. Bacteriolysins B. Agglutinins
C. Antitoxins
D. Opsonins
E. Precipitins
104. A large-scale reaction with parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums was made in order to make
serological diagnostics of the whooping cough. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella
parapertussis a granular sediment formed. What antibodies did this reaction reveal?
A. Agglutinins B.Precipitins C.Opsonins D.Bacteriolysins E.Antitoxins
105. For the purpose of retrospective diagnostics of recent bacterial dysentery it was decided to
perform serological examination of blood serum in order to determine antibody titer towards Shiga bacilli.
What of the following reactions should be applied?
A. Passive hemagglutination
B. Bordet-Gengou test
C. Precipitation
D. Hemolysis
E. Bacteriolysis
32
106. Retrospective diagnostics of bacterial dysentery involved serological analysis of blood serum
intended for determination of Shigella antibody titer. Which of the following reactions should be applied for
this purpose?
A. Passive haemagglutination
B. Complement binding
C. Precipitation
D. Haemolysis
E. Bacteriolysis
107. In order to establish the level of antidiphtheritic immunity in a child it was decided to use a passive
hemagglutination test. This task can be completed by the sensibilization of erythrocytes by:
A. Diphtheria anatoxin
B. Diphtheria antitoxin
C. Diphtheria bacillus antigens D. Antidiphtheric serum
E. 108. At a bacteriological laboratory animal skins are analyzed by means of Ascoli precipitaion test.
What is detected if the reaction is positive?
A. Anthrax agent antigens
B. Anaerobic infection toxin
C. Brucellosis agent
D. Yersinia surface antigen
E. Plague agent
109. The person was selling "homemade pork" sausages on the market. State sanitary inspector
suspected falcification of the sausages. With help of what serological immune reaction can food substance be
identified?
A. Immunofluorescence test
B. Indirect hemagglutination test
C. Agglutination test
D. Precipitation test
E. Complement- fixation test
110. A forensic laboratory received clothes of a citizen, who a day before was reported missing. The
clothes were found in a shed, there are red stains identified as blood by an expert. What reaction should be
performed to determine whether these red stains are dried human blood?
A. Complement binding
B. Enzyme immunoassay
C. Agglutination
D. Flocculation
E. Circular precipitation
111. In order to determine toxigenicity of diphtheria bacilli a strip of filter paper impregnated with
antitoxic diphtheria serum was put on the dense nutrient medium. There were also inoculated a microbial
culture under examination and a strain that is known to be toxigenic. If the microbial culture under examination
produces exotoxin, this will result in formation of:
A. Precipitin lines
B. Haemolysis zones
C. Zones of diffuse opacification
D. Zones of lecithovitellinous activity
E. Precipitin ring
112. In order to estimate toxogenicity of diphtheria agents obtained from patients the cultures were
inoculated on Petri dish with nutrient agar on either side of a filter paper strip that was put into the center and
moistened with antidiphtheric antitoxic serum. After incubation of inoculations in agar the strip-like areas of
medium turbidity were found between separate cultures and the strip of filter paper. What immunological
reaction was conducted?
A. Precipitation gel reaction B. Coomb’s test
C. Agglutination reaction
D. Rings precipitation reaction
E. Opsonization reaction
113. A 7 year old girl was taken to an infectious diseases hospital. She had complaints of high
temperature, sore throat, general weakness. A doctor assumed diphtheria. What will be crucial proof of
diagnosis after defining pure culture of pathogenic organism?
A. Toxigenity test
B. Detection of volutine granules
C. Cystinase test
D. Hemolytic ability of pathogenic orhanism
E. Phagolysability
114. When examining a child the dentist found the deposit on both tonsils and suspected atypical form
of diphtheria. A smear was taken, and after the nutrient media inoculation the toxicity of the isolated pure
culture was determined. What reaction was used to determine the toxigenicity of the isolated strain of
diphtheria bacillus?
A. Gel precipitation reaction B. Agglutination reaction on a glass slide
33
C. Complement binding reaction
D. Hemolysis reaction
E. Ring precipitation reaction
115. A patient has pure culture of diphtheria corynebacteria. What immunological reaction should be
used in order to determine bacteria toxigenity?
A. Precipitation in agar
B. Agglutination
C. Complement binding
D. Inhibition of hemagglutination
E. Indirect hemagglutination
116. A pregnant woman applied to a doctor with complaints typical for toxoplasmosis. The doctor took
a sample of her blood. What serological tests should be performed in this case?
A. Complement binding assay
B. Precipitation test
C. Neutralization test
D. Widal’s test
E. Wassermann test
117. A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for
toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis
and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
A. RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
B. IFA - Immunofluorescence assay
C. RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
D. Immunoblot analysis
E. (R)CFT- Reiter's complement fixation test
118. Researchers of a bacteriological laboratory examine tinned meat for botulinic toxin. For this
purpose a group of mice was injected with an extract of the material under examination and antitoxic
antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types. A control group of mice was injected with the same extract but without
antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
A. Neutralization
B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Opsonocytophagic
E. Double immune diffusion
119. Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this
purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a
group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What
serological reaction was applied?
A. Neutralization B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Opsono-phagocytic
E. Double immune diffusion
120. A patient has been hospitalized with provisional diagnosis of botulism. What serological reaction
should be used to reveal botulinum toxin?
A. Neutralization reaction
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Bordet-Gengou test
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Immunofluorescence test
121. Antigens of Sonne shigella placed on the objects of outdoor environment and foodstuffs can be
revealed by means of a certain test with application of a diagnostic test system that includes a polystyrene tray
with adsorbed specific antibodies. What reaction is it?
A. Immune-enzyme assay
B. Immunofluorescence test
C. Passive inverse hemagglutination test
D. Direct hemagglutination test E. Immunoelectrophoresis test
122. In case of many infectious diseases patient’s blood may contain antigens of causative agents.
What reaction should be applied provided that the level of antigenemia is low?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B. Agglutination test
C. Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Latex agglutination test
E. Immunoelectrophoresis
123. During many infectious diseases patient’s blood may contain antigenes of pathogens. What
reaction should be applied provided that antigenemia is at a low level?
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Indirect hemagglutination
D. Latex-agglutination
E. Immunoelectrophoresis
34
124. Mass serological diagnosis of HIV infection is made by means of enzymelinked immunosorbent
assay techniques. What standard component of the reaction must be adsorbed on the solid phase of the test
system?
A. HIV antigens
B. Monoclonal HIV antibodies
C. Enzyme-marked HIV antibodies
D. Specific immunoglobulins
E. Substrates to determine enzyme
125. A patient has been hospitalized with provisional diagnosis of virus B hepatitis. Serological
reaction based on complementation of antigen with antibody chemically bound to peroxidase or alkaline
phosphatase has been used for disease diagnostics. Name this serological reaction:
A. Immune-enzyme analysis
B. Radioimmunoassay technique
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Bordet-Gengou test
E. Antigen-binding assay
126. Professional dentists belong to the risk group concerning professional infection with viral hepatitis
type B. Name an effective method for active prevention of this disease among the dentists:
A. Vaccination with recombinant vaccine
B. Secure sterilization of medical instruments
C. Working with gum gloves on
D. Introduction of specific immunoglobuline
E. Introduction of interferonogenes
127. In order to eliminate occupational risks dental workers underwent vaccination. The vaccine should
protect them from a viral infection, whose pathogen may be found in blood of dental patients who had had
this infection or who are its chronic carriers. What vaccine was used?
A. Genetically engineered HBs antigen
B. Live measles vaccine
C. Inactivated hepatitis A vaccine
D. Anti-rabies vaccine
E. Subunit influenza vaccine
128. Specific prophylaxis involved application of a vaccine containing microorganisms and exotoxin
detoxicated by formalin. It relates to the following type of vaccine:
A. Combined
B. Genetically engineered
C. Anatoxin
D. Chemical
E. Live
129. To prevent the seasonal influenza epidemics in the city hospitals, sanitary epidemic station gave
orders to immunize health care workers. Which of the following preparations should be used for
immunization?
A. Subunit vaccine B. Interferon
C. Gamma-globulin
D. Rimantadine
E. Amantadine
130. Bacterioscopic examination of a smear from the pharynx of a diphtheria suspect revealed bacilli
with volutine granules. What etiotropic drug should be chosen in this case?
A. Antidiphtheritic antitoxic serum
B. Bacteriophage
C. Diphtheritic anatoxin D. Eubiotic
E. Interferon
131. A patient with suspected diphtheria went through bacterioscopic examination. Examination of
throat swab revealed rod-shaped bacteria with volutin granules. What etiotropic preparation should be chosen
in this case?
A. Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum
B. Bacteriophage
C. Diphtheria antitoxin D. Eubiotic
E. Interferon
132. It is necessary to carry out preventive vaccination of a student group because of an occurrence of
diphtheria. Which preparation should be used for the creation of the artificial active immunity?
A. Diphtheria anatoxin B. Specific immunoglobulin
C. DTP vaccine
D. Inactivated bacteria vaccine
E. Anti-diphtheria serum
133. What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma
provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?
A. Antitetanus immunoglobulin and anatoxin
B. Anticonvulsive drugs and anatoxin
C. Antitetanus serum and antibiotics
D. Diphtheria, tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine and antibiotics
35
E. Tetanus anatoxin and antibiotics
134. A laboratory received a food product that had been taken from the focus of food poisoning and
presumably contained botulinum toxin. To identify the type of toxin, the neutralization reaction must be
performed on white mice. What biological product is used in this reaction?
A. Antitoxic serum
B. Normal serum
C. Antibacterial serum D. Diagnosticum E. Allergen
135. Vaccination is done by means of a toxin that has been neutralized by a formaldehyde (0,4%) at a
temperature 37 – 400C for four weeks. Ramond was the first to apply this preparation for diphtheria
prophylaxis. What preparation is it?
A. Anatoxin
B. Immunoglobulin
C. Antitoxic serum D. Adjuvant
E. Inactivated vaccine
136. Diphtheria exotoxin had been treated with 0,3-0,4% formalin and kept in a thermostat for 30 days
at a temperature of 40oC.What preparation was obtained as a result of these manipulations?
A. Anatoxin
B. Antitoxin
C. Diagnosticum
D. Therapeutic serum
E. Diagnostic serum
137. Biological preparations are subdivided into groups according to their purpose and production
principles. What group do the preparations for initiation of active immunity relate to?
A. Vaccines
B. Immune sera
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Monoclonal antibodies
E. Bacteriophages
138. A pharmaceutical company received from a laboratory a delivery order of diagnostic medications
used for studying antigenic properties of causative agent. Name these preparations:
A. Diagnostic sera B. Allergens
C. Diagnosticums
D. Immunoglobulins
E. Bacteriophages
139. In an inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria during the last 3 years with separate
outbursts in families. What measure can effectively influence the epidemic process of diphtheria and reduce
the morbidity rate to single cases?
A. Immunization of the population
B. Hospitalization of patients C. Detection of carriers
D. Early diagnostics
E. Disinfection in disease focus
140. An 11-year-old girl has been immunized according to her age and in compliance with the calendar
dates. What vaccinations should the children receive at this age?
A. Diphtheria and tetanus B. TB C. Polio D. Hepatitis B E. Pertussis
141. One of mass production drugs is produced by inactivation of bacterial exotoxin by formalin. What
is this drug for?
A. For active immunization
B. For serodiagnostic assay
C. For passive immunization
D. For toxinemia treatment
E. For immunocorrection
142. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin.
What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
A. IgG B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE E. IgD
143. Vaccines are the artificial or natural preparations produced from bacteria, viruses and other
microorganisms, their chemical components and waste products. They are used for the active immunization
of humans and animals for the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases. The attenuated vaccines consist
of:
A. Viable microbes B. Dead microbes
C. Anatoxin
D. Dead microbes and toxoid
E. Immunoglobulins
144. A person has been in contact with influenza patient. What drug should be administered for specific
passive influenza prophylaxis?
A. Antigrippal immunoglobulin
B. Vaccine influenza virus inactivated
C. Leukocytic interferon D. Amizon
E. Anaferon
145. A patient has been diagnosed with ARVI. Blood serum contains immunoglobulin M. What stage
of infection is it?
A. Acute
B. Prodromal
C. Incubation
36
D. Reconvalescence
E. Carriage
146. A pregnant woman was detected with IgM to rubella virus. An obstetrician-gynecologist
recommended therapeutic abortion due to the high risk of teratogenic affection of the fetus. Detection of IgM
was of great importance as it is these specific immunoglobulins that:
A. Indicate recent infection
B. Penetrate placental barrier
C. Have the largest molecular weight
D. Are associated with anaphylactic reactions
E. Are the main factor of antiviral protection
147. Protective function of saliva is based on several mechanisms, including the presence of enzyme
that has bactericidal action and causes lysis of complex capsular polysaccharides of staphylococci and
streptococci. Name this enzyme:
A. Lysozyme
B. β-glucuronidase
C. Oligo-l,6-glucosidase
D. Collagenase
E. α-amylase
148. A patient with clinical signs of a primary immunodeficiency has functionally disturbed
mechanism of antigen-presentation to the immunocompetent cells. What cells are likely to have structural
defects?
A. T-Iymphocyte
B. B-lymphocyte
C. O-lymphocytes
D. Fibroblasts
E. Macrophages, monocyte
149. Significant shortcoming of microscopy in infection diagnostics is its insufficient information
value due to morphological similarity between many species of microorganisms. What immunoassay can
significantly increase informativity of this method?
A. Fluorescence immunoassay.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Immune-enzyme assay.
D. Coomb’s test.
E. Opsonization.
150. First-year schoolchildren have received tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) at the school nurse’s
office. The purpose of this test was:
A. To detect parotitis in schoolchildren
B. To measure allergization rate toward rickettsia
C. To measure immune stress toward diphtheria
D. To determine the children that need to receive BCG vaccination
E. To preventively vaccinate against tuberculosis
160. A toxin neutralized with 0.4% formaldehyde under 37-40°C for 4 weeks is used for
vaccination. This preparation was first used by Gaston Ramon for diphtheria
prevention. Name this preparation:
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Anatoxin
C. Antitoxic serum
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Adjuvant
170. Preventive vaccination against poliomyelitis is made with inactivated vaccine introduced
parenterally. What immunoglobulins create the postvaccinal immunity in this case?
A. Serum. IgA, IgM
B. IgE, IgM
C. IgM, secretory IgA
D. IgM, IgG
E. IgG, secretory IgA
180. The patient’s saliva has been tested for antibacterial activity. What saliva component has
antibacterial properties?
A. Lysozyme
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Cholesterol
D. Parotin
E. Amylase
181. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents because of fever, cough, and fatigue.
He has been admitted to the hospital five times because of pneumonia. Attempts to induce immunity using a
pneumococcal vaccine have failed. The first hospitalization was at the age of 12 months. Laboratory findings
show marked reduction in all classes and subclasses of serum immunoglobulins. Which of the following
immune cells is most likely to be reduced in the peripheral blood of this patients?
A. T-cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophages
D. B-cells
E. NK-cells
182. A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with Bruton’s disease (X-linked agammaglobulinemia) that
manifests itself in severe clinical course of bacterial infections and absence of B lymphocytes and plasma
cells. What changes of immunoglobulin content can be observed in blood serum of the child with
immunodeficiency?
A. Decreased IgA, IgM
B. Increased IgA, IgM
37
C. Increased IgD, IgE
D. No changes
E. Decreased IgD, IgE
183. What condition may develop 15 30 minutes after re-administration of the antigen as a result of
the increased level of antibodies, mainly IgE, that are adsorbed on the surface of target cells, namely tissue
basophils (mast cells) and blood basophils?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Immune complex hyperresponsiveness
C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
D. Serum sickness
E. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
184. A 30-year old patient has dyspnea fits, mostly at night. He has been diagnosed with bronchial
asthma. What type of aller reaction according to the Gell-Coombs classification is most likely in this case?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Immune complex
C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
D. Stimulating
E. Cytotoxic
185. You work with the following specimens: 1) brucellosis topical vaccine; 2) leptospirosis vaccine;
3) BCG vaccine; 4) adsorbed diphtheria-tetanus pertusisis vaccine (DPT vaccine); 5) tetanus toxoid adsorbed.
What kind of immunity do they produce?
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Antibacterial immunity
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Non-sterilizing (infectious) immunity
E. Antitoxic immunity
186. Examination revealed that the patient has an insufficient immunoglobulin count. The likely cause
of this finding is a dysfunction of the following immune system cells?
A. Plasmablasts
B. T-killers
C. T-supressors
D. T-helpers
E. Plasma cells
Special
1. At the laboratory experiment the leukocyte culture was mixed with staphylococci. neutrophile
leukocytes engulfed and digested bacterial cells. This process is termed:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Osmosis
2. During the repeated Widal’s agglutination test it was noticed that the ratio of antibody titers and Oantigens S.typhi in the patient’s serum had increased from 1:100 to 1:400. How would you interpret these
results?
A. The patient has typhoid fever
B. The patient is an acute carrier of typhoid microbes
C. The patient is a chronic carrier of typhoid microbes
D. The patient previously had typhoid fever
E. The patient was previously vaccinated against typhoid fever
3. A patient was brought into the infectional diseases hospital on the 8th day since the disease onset.
The patient complains of headache, malaise, and weakness. A sample of blood was taken for the serological
test. Widal agglutination test results with blood sample diluted 1:200 and typhoid fever O-diagnosticum were
positive. What diagnosis can be made based on the results of this test?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
E. Cholera
4. To conduct serum diagnostics of typhoid fever a test is carried out, when diagnosticums of three
types of microorganisms are being added into different solutions of patient’s serum; then agglutinate formation
is checked. Name the author of that test.
A. Widal
38
B. Wassermann
C. Ouchterlony
D. Wright
E. Sachs-Witebsky
5. A child with diphtheria 10 days after injection of antitoxic antidiphtherial serum has developed skin
rash, accompanied by severe itch, rising temperature up to 380C and joints pain. What is the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
B. Anaphylacsis
C. Contact allergy
D. Atopia
E. Serum sickness
6. A toxin neutralized with 0.4% formaldehyde under 37-40°C for 4 weeks is used for vaccination.
This preparation was first used by Gaston Ramon for diphtheria prevention. Name this preparation:
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Anatoxin
C. Antitoxic serum
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Adjuvant
7. What diagnostic method should be used in industry to test the raw leather for presence of B.
antracis?
A. Microscopy with Burry-Gins stain
B. Microscopy with Aujeszky stain
C. Ascoli's thermo precipitation test
D. Bacteriological analysis
E. Serological test
8. There was a record of some anthrax cases among animals in a countryside. The spread of disease
can be prevented by means of immunization. What kind of vaccine should be used?
A. STI live vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Salk vaccine
D. Sabin’s vaccine
E. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
9. In a village, a case of anthrax had been registered. Medical services began epidemiologically
indicated specific prophylaxis of population against anthrax. What preparation was used for this purpose?
A. Live vaccine
B. Inactivated vaccine
C. Chemical vaccine
D. Genetically engineered vaccine
E. Anatoxin
10. An infectious diseases hospital admitted a veterinarian with assumed brucellosis. What serologic
test can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Wright’s agglutination reaction
B. Widal’s agglutination reaction
C. Ascoli’s precipitation reaction
D. Weigl’s agglutination reaction
E. Wassermann reaction of complement binding
11. A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What
immunity will be formed in the given patient?
A. Antitoxic passive immunity
B. Infection immunity
C. Antitoxic active immunity
D. Antimicrobic active immunity
E. Antimicrobic passive immunity
12. Pathological material (mucosal excretion from the nasal passages) taken obtained from a patient
provisionally diagnosed with influenza was delivered to the virological laboratory. What quick test allows
detecting specific viral antigen in the investigated material?
A. Direct and indirect immunofluorescence (IF)
B. Reverse indirect haemagglutination (RIHA)
39
C. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
D. Direct and indirect enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
E. Hemagglutination inhibition assay (HAI)
13. A drugstore received a supply of a drug that is widely used for treatment of many virus diseases
since it is not virus specific. What drug is it?
A. Interferon
B. Remantadin
C. Metisazone
D. Immunoglobulin
E. Vaccine
14. Preventive vaccination against poliomyelitis is made with inactivated vaccine introduced
parenterally. What immunoglobulins create the postvaccinal immunity in this case?
A. Serum. IgA, IgM
B. IgE, IgM
C. IgM, secretory IgA
D. IgM, IgG
E. IgG, secretory IgA
15. Dentists have high risk of contracting viral hepatitis type B in the course of their duties and
therefore are subject to mandatory vaccination. What vaccine is used in such cases?
A. Recombinant vaccine. B. Live vaccine.
C. Anatoxin.
D. Inactivated vaccine.
E. Chemical vaccine.
16. To determine the functional activity of blood corpuscles, a suspension of microorganisms was
introduced into the test tube with packed white cells. In this case, the cytoplasm of some cells will contain
phagocytized microorganisms. Which of the following cell types will show phagocytized microorganisms?
A. Neutrophils and monocytes
B. Lymphocytes and eosinophils
C. Monocytes and lymphocytes
D. Lymphocytes and basophils
E. Lymphocytes and neutrophils
17. Some unicellular organisms, i.e. amoebae, feed via phagocytosis. What cells of the human body
use this method not as a means of feeding, but as a defensive mechanism against foreign bodies
(microorganisms, dust, ect.)?
A. Leucocytes
B. Erytrocytes
C. Myocytes
D. Platelets
E. Epithelial cells
18. Dental iplants were installed in a patient. Three weeks later, implant rejection occurred. What blood
cells play the largest role in this pathological process?
A. T lymphocytes
B. Immunoglobulin E
C. B lymphocytes
D. Immunoglobulins M
E. Plasmacytes
19. A 20-year-old woman with intestinal polyposis has history of frequent fungal and viral diseases.
What part of the immune system is most likely to be deficient in this case?
A. Complement
B. B-lymphocytes
C. Natural killers
D. T-lymphocytes
E. Phagocytes
20. A 16-year-old boy from the rural area entered the technical school. During a regular Mantoux test,
it turned out that this boy had a negative reaction. What tactics should the doctor choose as the most rational
in this case?
A. Repeat the test in a month
B. Serodiagnosis of tuberculosis
C. Urgent isolation of the boy from his groupmates
D. BCG vaccination
E. Express diagnostics of tuberculosis using the Price method
40
Chemotherapy
1. A patient with streptococcal infection of gums was prescribed a drug that contained beta-lactam ring
in its structure. Which drug relates to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Erythromycin D. Streptomycin sulfate E. Chloramphenicol
2. A patient with streptococcal gingival infection was prescribed a medication that contains beta lactam
ring in its structure. What preparation belongs to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Erythromycin D. Streptomicin sulfate E. Chloramphenicol
3. A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed
generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?
A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
B. Bijochinol
C. Ciprofloxacin D. Azithromycin
E. Doxycycline
4. To treat bronchitis the patient was prescribed a beta-lactam antibiotic. Its mechanism of action is
based on inhibition of murein production, which results in death of the causative agent. Name this drug:
A. Azithromycin
B. Penicillin G Sodium Salt
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Streptomycin
E. Bijochinol (Quinine bismuth iodine)
5. A 60-year-old patient was hospitalized to the surgical department because of infection caused by
blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the
given penicillins has marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Carbenicillin disodium
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin D. Oxacillin E. Methicillin
6. A 43-year-old patient is to be administered an antibiotic from the penicillin group which would be
resistant to penicillinase. What drug can be recommended?
A. Oxacillin B.Amoxicillin C.Carbenicillin D.Azlocillin E.Ampicillin
7. A patient has been diagnosed with bacillary dysentery. What drug of those listed below should be
prescribed?
A. Amoxicillin B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (Isoniazid)
D. Itraconazole E. Acyclovir
8. A patient suffers from a severe life-threatening generalised septic infection. What group of
chemotherapeutical drugs should be prescribed in this case?
A. Cephalosporines
B. Tetracyclines C. Sulfanilamides
D. Chloramphenicol group E. Macrolides
9. From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most
advisable to be administered in this case?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Ampicillin
C. Cefazolinum
D. Azithromycin E. Chloramphenicol
10. A patient has been diagnosed with sepsis. It was decided to treat him with a drug from the
fluoroquinolone group. Specify this drug:
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cefpirome
C. Metronidazole
D. Ampicillin
E. Cephalexin
11. Gonorrhoea was revealed in the patient on bacterioscopy of the smear from urethra. Taking into
account that medecines for gonorrhoea are fluorquinolones, patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Fluorouracil
C. Cefazoline
D. Urosulfan
E. Furazolidone
12. A patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. As fluoroquinolones are the drugs of choice for
treatment of gonorrhea the patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Furazolidone
41
C. Fluorouracil
D. Sulfacarbamide (Urosulfanum)
E. Cefazolin
13. A 54-year-old patient complains of frequent painful urination, chills, fever up to 38 oC. Urine test
results: protein - 0,33 g/L, WBCs - up to 50-60 in the field of vision, RBCs - 5-8 in the field of vision, gramnegative bacilli. Which of the listed antibiotics should be preferred in this case?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Oxacillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline E. Tseporin
14. Patient with pneumonia has intolerance to antibiotics. Which of the combined sulfanilamide
medicines should be prescribed to the patient?
A. Biseptol
B. Streptocid
C. Aethazol
D. Natrium sulfacyl
E. Sulfadimethoxine
15. A 30-year-old patient with pneumonia has been administered a 3-day course of an antibiotic from
the group of azalides that has bactericidal effect, prolonged action, the ability to bind to phagocytic cells and
accumulate in the infection foci. What drug has been administered?
A. Azithromycin B. Erythromycin
C. Isoniazid
D. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
E. Ciprofloxacin
16. A 5-year-old child has been diagnosed with acute right distal pneumonia. Sputum inoculation
revealed that the causative agent is resistant to penicillin, but it is sensitive to macrolides. What drug should
be prescribed?
A. Azithromycin B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamycin
D. Streptomycin
E. Ampicillin
17. An infectious patient manifests sensibilization to penicillin. Which of the following antibiotics is
the safest to be applied in this case?
A. Erythromycin
B. Bicillin C. Ampicillin D. Amoxicillin E. Oxacillin
18. A 1,5 y.o. child fell seriously ill: chill, body temperature rise up to 40,10C, then rapid dropping to
0
36, 2 C, skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Extremities are cold,
face features are sharpened. Diagnosis: meningococcosis, fulminant form, infection-toxic shock. What
antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage?
A. Soluble Levomycetine succinate
B. Penicillin
C. Lincomycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Sulfamonometoxin
19. A 26-year-old female patient with bronchitis has been administered a broad spectrum antibiotic as
a causal treatment drug. Specify this drug:
A. Doxycycline B. Interferon
C. BCG vaccine
D. Ambroxol
E. Dexamethasone
20. A patient with mandibular osteomyelitis has been administered an antibiotic from the tetracycline
group. Specify this drug:
A. Doxycycline hydrochloride
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin D. Oxacillin
E. Amikacin
21. A stomatologists examined first-grade pupils and revealed that one of children had yellowish brown
teeth, two of them were split. Heretofore the pupil was treated with "some pills" on account of pneumonia.
What medication could have such a negative effect upon teeth?
A. Doxycycline B. Oxacillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Ampicillin
E. Biseptol
22. A stomatologists examined first-grade pupils and revealed that one of children had yellowish brown
teeth, two of them were split. Heretofore the pupil was treated with "some pills" on account of pneumonia.
What medication could have such a negative effect upon teeth?
A. Doxycycline B. Oxacillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Ampicillin
E. Biseptol
23. A patient with acne has been prescribed doxycycline hydrochloride. What recommendations should
be given to the patient, while he is taking this drug?
A. Avoid long stay in the sun
B. Take with large quantity of liquid, preferably milk
C. Take before meal
42
D. The course of treatment should not exceed 1 day
E. Do not take with vitamins
24. Administration of doxycycline hydrochloride caused an imbalance of the symbiotic intestinal
microflora. Specify the kind of imbalance caused by the antibiotic therapy:
A. Dysbacteriosis
B. Sensibilization
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Superimposed infection
E. Bacteriosis
25. The patient with pneumonia was treated with antibiotics for a long period. After treatment patient
complains of frequent and watery stool, abdominal pain. What is the reason of intestine function disorder?
A. Intestinal disbacteriosis development
B. Antibiotics toxic influence on the GIT
C. Autoimmune reaction development
D. Bacteria toxins influence
E. Hereditary enzyme defect
26. As a result of durative antibiotic therapy a 37-year old patient developed intestinal dysbacteriosis.
What type of drugs should be used in order to normalize intestinal microflora?
A. Eubiotics
B. Sulfanilamides
C. Bacteriophages
D. Autovaccines E. Vitamins
27. A patient underwent appendectomy. In the postoperative period he has been taking an antibiotic.
The patient complains about hearing impairment and vestibular disorders. What group of antibiotics has such
by-effects?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Penicillins
C. Tetracyclines D. Macrolides
E. Cephalosporins
28. Mother of a 2 year old child consulted a stomatologist. In the period of pregnancy she was
irregularly taking antibiotics for an infectious disease. Examination of the child revealed incisor destruction,
yellow enamel, brown rim around the dental cervix. What drug has apparent teratogenic effect?
A. Doxacycline B. Furosemide
C. Ampiox
D. Xantinol nicotinate
E. Octadine
29. Mother of a two year old child consulted a dentist. In the period of pregnancy she was nonsystematically taking antibiotics to treat an infectious disease. The child’s examination revealed incisor
destruction, yellow enamel, brown limbus of dental cervix. What preparation was mother taking during her
pregnancy?
A. Doxycycline B. Furosemide
C. Ampiox
D. Xanthinol nicotinate
E. Octadine
30. A 5 y.o. child’s enamel and dentin are striated with yellowish-brown stripes, the child has also
dentin exposure, multiple caries. It is known that the child’s mother had been taking antibiotics during her
pregnancy. What medication might have caused such by-effect?
A. Tetracycline B.Lincomycin C.Streptocid D.Nystatin E.Ampicillin
31. A 7 year old child is ill with bronchitis. It is necessary to administer him an antibacterial drug.
What drug of fluoroquinolone group is CONTRAINDICATED at this age?
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Ampicillin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Sulfadimethoxine
E. Ampiox
32. Patient was admitted to the infection unit with diagnosis of bacterial dysentery. On laboratory
studies it was revealed that causative element is sensitive to the many antimicrobial medicines, but patient has
anemia. What medicine is contra-indicated to the patient?
A. Enteroseptol B. Phthalazol
C. Levomycetin
D. Ampicillin
E. Furazolidone
33. A 50-year-old patient with typhoid fever was treated with Levomycetin, the next day his condition
became worse, temperature rised to 39,60С. What caused worthening?
A. Reinfection
B. Allergic reaction
C. Irresponsiveness of an agent to the levomycetin
D. The effect of endotoxin agent E. Secondary infection addition
34. Purulent endometritis developed in a woman after delivery. Treating with antibiotics inhibitors of
murein synthesis was ineffective. Wide spectrum bactericidal antibiotic was administered to her. In 6 hours
temperature rapidly increased up to 400C with shiver. Muscle pains have appeared. BP dropped down to 70/40
mmHg. Oliguria has developed. What is the main reason for the development of this condition?
43
A. Endotoxic shock
B. Toxic effect of preparation
C. Internal bleeding
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Bacteremia
35. In order to prevent wound infection associated with surgical procedures a patient was given a
synthetic antiprotozoan drug with a high activity against Helicobacter pylori. Specify this drug:
A. Metronidazole B. Doxycycline hydrochloride
C. Chingamin
D. Acyclovir
E. Isoniazid
36. A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of
intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Metronidasol B. Quiniofone
C. Tetracycline
D. Quingamine
E. Enteroseptol
37. Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs was diagnosed in a 52-year-old
patient. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Quiniofone
B. Enteroseptol
C. Metronidasol
D. Tetracycline
E. Quingamine
38. A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor established symptoms of
duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What
medication should be administered?
A. Metronidazole B. Erythromycin
C. Monomycin
D. Chingamin
E. Tetracycline
39. A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A
duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Metronidazole B.Chingamin C.Rifampicin D.Isoniazid E.Acyclovir
40. A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this
drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?
A. Metronidazole B. Reserpine
C. Clonidine
D. Diazepam
E. Aminazine
41. A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically
confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:
A. Metronidazole B. Mebendazole
C. Itrakonazole
D. Furacillin
E. Acyclovir
42. A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body
temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from
an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery.
What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
A. Metronidazole B. Furazolidonum
C. Levomycetin
D. Phthalazol
E. Emetine hydrochloride
43. A 30 year old patient consulted a doctor about having diarrhea and stomach aches for 5 days,
temperature rise up to 37,50C with chills. The day before the patient was in a forest and drank some water
from an open pond. He was diagnosed with amebic dysentery that was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the
medication for treatment of this disease:
A. Metronidazole B. Furasolidone
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Phthalazole
E. Emethine hydrochloride
44. A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be
the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?
A. Metronidazole B. Gentamicin
C. Oxacillin sodium
D. Co-trimoxazole
E. Nitroxoline
45. A patient consulted a dentist about itching and burning in the oral cavity; high temperature. The
patient was diagnosed with trichomonal gingivostomatitis. What drug should be chosen for his treatment?
A. Metronidazole B. Doxycycline hydrochloride
C. Ampicillin
D. Gentamicin sulfate E. Nystatin
46. A dentist has detected symptoms of parodontosis in a patient. What antiprotozoal drug should be
prescribed?
A. Metronidazole B. Levamisole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Mykoseptin
E. Furazolidone
44
47. A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered
for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
A. Chingamin
B. Sulfalen
C. Tetracycline
D. Metronidazole E. Biseptol
48. This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric
amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease.
What drug is it?
A. Chingamin
B. Emetine hydrochloride
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Quinine
49. UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug
should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
A. Chingamin
B. Pyrantel
C. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum)
D. Primaquine
E. Interferon (Laferon)
What drug is used for treatment of malaria, amoebic dysentery, and autoimmune diseases?
A. Intraconazole
B. Dexamethasone
C. Streptomycin sulfate
D. Co-trimoxazole (Biseptol)
E. Chingamin (Chloroquine)
50. After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which
drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?
A. Co-trimoxazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Mebendazole D. Azidothimidine E. Acyclovir
51. A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What drug should be prescribed
in the first place?
A. Isoniazid
B. Sulfalen
C. Cyclocerine
D. Ethionamide E. Ethoxide
52. A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis of visual nerve arose.
What drug has caused this by-effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Kanamycin
D. Rifampicin
E. Streptomycin
53. After 4 months of treatment for tuberculosis the patient began complaining of toes and fingers
numbness, sensation of creeps. He was diagnosed with polyneuritis. What antituberculous drug might have
caused these complications?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Sodium salt of benzylpenicillin
E. Iodine solution
54. A patient suffering form tuberculosis was treated with rifampicin, which caused drug resistance of
tuberculosis mycobacteria. In order to reduce mycobacteria resistance, rifampicin should be combined with
the following drug:
A. Isoniazid
B. Acyclovir
C. Intraconazole
D. Metronidazole E. Amoxicillin
55. Following treatment with a highly efficient anti-tuberculosis drug a 48-yearold female developed
optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, cramps. Which of these anti-TB drugs had the patient taken?
A. Isoniazid B.PASA C.Rifampicin D.Ethambutol E.Kanamycin sulfate
56. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculosis antibiotic.
Name this drug:
A. Tetracycline
B. Furasolidone
C. Rifampicin
D. Bactrim (Co-trimoxazole)
E. Streptocide
45
57. Tuberculosis can be treated by means of combined chemotherapy that includes substances with
different mechanisms of action. What antituberculous medication inhibits transcription of RNA into DNA in
mycobacteria?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethionamide E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
58. After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine.
What drug could cause such changes?
A. Rifampicin
B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C. Benzylpenicillin potassium salt D. Biseptol-480
E. Cefazolin
59. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is suffering from hearing deterioration. What drug causes
this complication?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (Isoniazid)
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethionamide
E. Kanamycin sulphate
60. A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time has developed candidosis of mucous
membranes. What drug should administered for its treatment?
A. Itraconazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nitrofungin
D. Amphotericin
E. Nitrofurantoin
61. A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a
complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the
deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for
the treatment of this complication?
A. Fluconazole
B. Biseptol
C. Tetracycline
D. Furazolidone
E. Polymyxin
62. Infectious diseases are treated with antibiotics (streptomycin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol).
They inhibit the following stage of protein synthesis:
A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Replication
D. Processing
E. Splicing
63. Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides prevent the joining of formyl-methionyl-tRNA by
bonding with 30S ribosomal subunit. This effect leads to disruption of the following process:
A. Translation initiation in eucaryotes
B. Translation initiation in procaryotes
C. Replication initiation in procaryotes
D. Transcription initiation in eucaryotes
E. Transcription initiation in procaryotes
64. A patient with bacterial pneumonia was prescribed benzylpenicillin. What is the mechanism of its
antibacterial effect?
A. Inhibition of synthesis of microorganism wall
B. Inhibition of intracellular protein synthesis
C. Abnormal permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
D. Inhibition of SH-groups of microorganism enzymes
E. Antagonism with p-amino-benzoic acid
65. A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that
includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. It blocks synthesis of peptidoglycan of microbial membrane
B. It blocks synthesis of cytoplasm proteins
C. It blocks thiol enzymes
D. It blocks RNA synthesis
E. It blocks DNA synthesis
66. A doctor prescribed a cephalosporin antibiotic to the patient after appendectomy for infection
prevention. Antimicrobial activity of this group of antibiotics is based upon the disturbance of the following
process:
A. Microbial wall formation
B. Nucleic acid synthesis
C. Ribosome protein synthesis
D. Energy metabolism
E. Choline esterase block
46
67. For infection prevention a patient who underwent appendectomy was prescribed a cephalosporin
antibiotic. Antimicrobial activity of these antibiotics is called forth by the disturbance of the following process:
A. Microbial wall formation
B. Nucleic acid synthesis
C. Ribosomal protein synthesis
D. Energy metabolism
E. Cholinesterase block
68. Certain infections caused by bacteria are treated with sulphanilamides that block the synthesis of
bacterial growth factor. What is the mechanism of these drugs action?
A. They are antivitamins of paminobenzoic acid
B. They inhibit the folic acid absorption
C. They are allosteric enzyme inhibitors
D. They are involved in redox processes E. They are allosteric enzymes
69. A patient with herpetic stomatitis was prescribed acyclovir for topical application. What is its
mechanism of action?
A. It inhibits synthesis of nucleic acids of viruses
B. It inhibits virus penetration into cells C. It inhibits virus maturation
D. It increases the resistance of macroorganism cells to the viruses
E. It inhibits virion assembly
70. A patient is ill with herpetic stomatitis provoked by immunosuppression. What preparation
introduced intravenously, internally and locally can provide antiviral and immunopotentiating effect?
A. Acyclovir
B. Remantadinum
C. Levamisole
D. Methisazonum E. Amoxicillin
71. On the 5-th day of the respiratory disease a 24 y.o. man has developed progressive headaches
systemic dizziness, feeling of seeing double, paresis of mimic muscles on the right, choking while swallowing.
Acute viral encephalitis has been diagnosed. What is the main direction of urgent therapy?
A. Zovirax
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Ceftriaxon
D. Lasix
E. Hemodesis
72. What preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection?
A. Fluconozol, Orungal, Nisoral
B. Rubomycin, Bleomycin, Mytomycin C
C. Cytosar, Cormyctin, Lomycitin
D. Captopril, Enalapril
E. Isoniazid, Ftibazid, Pyrazinamid
73. Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat
dermatomycosis:
A. Iodine solution
B. Formalin solution
C. Methylene blue
D. Brilliant green
E. Boric acid solution
74. A patient developed burning sensation in the oral cavity and white fuzzy coating on the tongue.
Oral thrush is diagnosed. What drug of those listed below should be used?
A. Tetracycline.
B. Amphotericin.
C. Griseofulvin.
D. Nystatin.
E. Gentamicin.
75. A 4-year-old child presents with numerous carious cavities and yellow-colored teeth. The mother
has a history of antibiotic treatment during her pregnancy. What antibiotic was the most likely taken by the
child’s mother?
A. Cefazolin
B. Streptomycin sulfate
C. Ampicillin
D. Erythromycin
E. Doxycycline
76. Pathogenic staphylococcus was obtained from the purulent wound of the patient. Its antibiotic
sensitivity was determined to be as follows: penicillin growth inhibition zone - 8 mm; oxacillin - 9 mm,
ampicillin - 10 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, lincomycin - 11 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen for treatment
in this case?
A. Gentamicin
B. Penicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Lincomycin
47
77. An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam
antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
A. Streptomycin
B. Fluconazole
C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
D. Ampicillin
E. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Biseptol)
78. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic.
Name this drug:
A. Furasolidone
B. Bactrim (Co-trimoxazole)
C. Streptocide
D. Rifampicin
E. Tetracycline
79. A patient with streptococcal infection of the gingiva was prescribed a drug with β-lactam ring in
its structure. What drug of those listed below belongs to this pharmacological group?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin sulfate
C. Benzylpenicillin
D. Rifampicin E. Levomycetin (Chloramphenicol)
80. After a prolonged isoniazid treatment, the patient developed polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory
disorders, and convulsions. What is the most likely mechanism of the described isoniazid side-effects?
A. Disruption of cell membrane synthesis
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Inhibition of RNA-synthesis
D. Inhibition of pyridoxal phosphate synthesis
E. Para-aminobenzoic acid antagonism
81. Mother of a 2-year-old child made an appointment with the dentist. She complains of teeth
destruction in her child. Examination shows that the milk teeth of the child are deformed, carious, and have a
brown border at their cervices. Medical history of the mother revealed that during pregnancy she had been
taking antibiotics without the doctor’s prescription. What group of antibiotics with the most marked
teratogenic effect was likely taken by the mother?
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Cephalosporins
Special
1. Pathogenic staphylococcus was obtained from the purulent wound of the patient. Its antibiotic
sensitivity was determined to be as follows: penicillin growth inhibition zone - 8 mm; oxacillin - 9 mm,
ampicillin - 10 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, lincomycin - 11 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen for treatment
in this case?
A. Gentamicin
B. Penicillin C. Ampicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Lincomycin
2. A patient with streptococcal gingival infection was prescribed a medication that contains beta lactam
ring in its structure. What preparation belongs to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin B. Rifampicin C. Erythromycin D. Streptomicin sulfate E. Chloramphenicol
3. A patient with streptococcal infection of gums was prescribed a drug that contained beta-lactam ring
in its structure. Which drug relates to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Erythromycin
D. Streptomycin sulfate
E. Chloramphenicol
4. Gonorrhoea was revealed in the patient on bacterioscopy of the smear from urethra. Taking into
account that medecines for gonorrhoea are fluorquinolones, patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Fluorouracil
C. Cefazoline D. Urosulfan
E. Furazolidone
5. A patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. As fluoroquinolones are the drugs of choice for
treatment of gonorrhea the patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Furazolidone
C. Fluorouracil
D. Sulfacarbamide (Urosulfanum)
E. Cefazolin
6. An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam
antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
A. Fluconazole
B. Streptomycin
C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
D. Ampicillin
E. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
7. A patient needs to be prescribed a wide-spectrum fluoroquinolone agent. Select one such agent from
the list:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Azlocillin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Chinoxydin
E. Amoxicillin
48
8. Broadspectrum antibiotics can cause various complications, including intestinal candidiasis. What
drug is used for treatment of this complication?
A. Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Undecyne
D. Amphotericin B
E. Gramicidin
49
Genetics
1. Ability to divide is characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cell division is
different from that of eukaryotic, but there is one molecular process that is the basis of both types of division.
Name this process.
A. DNA replication B. Transcription
C. Reparation
D. Translation
E. Gene amplification
2. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. Microorganism does
not produce exotoxin. As a result of what process can this microorganism become toxigenic?
A. Cultivation in the telluric environment
B. Chromosome mutation
C. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals
D. Phage conversion
E. Growing with antitoxic serum
3. Because of suspected intrahospital infection in the neonatal department of the maternity home the
inspection was carried out. In some children and on some general things Staphylococcus aureus was revealed.
What properties of these cultures allow to establish their origin from one source?
A. Antibioticogramma B. Antigenic structure
C. Biochemical activity D. Phagotype
E. Chromogenesis
4. From the fecal sample of a patient Shigella sonne were isolated. What additional studies are required
to identify the source of infection?
A. Phage-typing of the isolated pure culture
B. Antibiogram
C. Precipitation reaction
D. Complement-fixation reaction E. Neutralization reaction
5. In the surgical department of a dental clinic cases of hospital-acquired staphylococcal infection were
registered which was caused by strains with multiple drug resistance. Such feature can be identified by
presence of:
A. R-plasmids
B. F-plasmids
C. Exotoxins
D. Temperate bacteriophages
E. Virulent bacteriophages
6. RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse transcriptase
forced a cell to synthesize a viral DNA. This process is based upon:
A. Reverse transcription
B. Operon repression
C. Reverse translation
D. Operon depression
E. Convariant replication
7. During reproduction of some RNA-containing viruses that cause tumors in animals, genetic
information can be transmitted in the opposite direction from the RNA to the DNA via a specific enzyme. The
enzyme of reverse transcription is called:
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Primase
E. Topoisomerase
8. It was revealed that T-lymphocytes were affected by HIV. Virus enzyme - reverse transcriptase
(RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) - catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. DNA on the matrix of virus mRNA
B. Virus informational RNA on the matrix of DNA
C. DNA on virus ribosomal RNA D. Viral DNA on DNA matrix
E. mRNA on the matrix of virus protein
9. A doctor was addressed by a 30-year old man. There is a probability of the patient being HIVpositive. To clarify the diagnosis the doctor proposed to perform polymerase chain reaction. The basic process
in this kind of investigation is:
A. Gene amplification
B. Transcription
C. Genetic recombination
D. Genomic mutation
E. Chromosome mutation
10. In the course of evolution there developed molecular mechanisms for correction of damaged DNA
molecules. This process is called:
A. Reparation
B. Transcription
50
C. Translation
D. Replication
E. Processing
11. Genetic information is stored in DNA but does not participate directly in protein synthesis within
DNA cells. What process ensures transfer of genetic information into polypeptide chain?
A. Translation
B. Formation of rRNA
C. Formation of tRNA
D. Formation of iRNA
E. Replication
Special
A man is a carrier of HIV that is an RNA virus. The cells of this patient synthesize viral DNA. This
process is based on:
A. Transcription
B. Repair
C. Replication
D. Reverse transcription
E. Translation
Infection
1. A doctor made the diagnosis of gonorrhoea. It was known from the anamnesis that a patient had had
gonorrhoea before and he had been treated completely. What type of infection can this new disease be
attributed to?
A. Superinfection B. Reinfection
C. Relapse
D. Secondary infection
E. Autoinfection
2. A patient recovered from Sonne dysentery and was once more infected with the same causative
agent. What is such infection form called?
A. Reinfection
B. Recidivation
C. Superinfection
D. Persisting infection
E. Chronic infection
3. A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some
time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?
A. Reinfection
B. Recurrence
C. Secondary infection
D. Superinfection E. Complication
4. Material obtained from a patient contains several types of microorganisms (staphylococci and
streptococci) causative of the patient’s disease. Name this type of infection:
A. Mixed infection
B. Superinfection
C. Reinfection
D. Consecutive infection
E. Coinfection
5. 2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recipient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it
be?
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Malaria
C. Amebiasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Leishmaniasis
6. Two weeks after hemotransfusion a patient developed fever. What protozoal disease can be
suspected?
A. Malaria
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Amebiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
7. A pregnant woman was registered in an antenatal clinic and underwent complex examination for a
number of infections. Blood serum contained IgM to the rubella virus. What is this result indicative of?
A. Of primary infection
B. Of a chronic process
C. The woman is healthy
D. Of exacerbation of disease
E. Of recurring infection with rubella virus
51
8. A pregnant woman was detected with IgM to rubella virus. An obstetrician-gynecologist
recommended therapeutic abortion due to the high risk of teratogenic affection of the fetus. Detection of IgM
was of great importance as it is these specific immunoglobulins that:
A. Indicate recent infection
B. Penetrate placental barrier
C. Have the largest molecular weight
D. Are associated with anaphylactic reactions
E. Are the main factor of antiviral protection
9. A patient has been diagnosed with ARVI. Blood serum contains immunoglobulin M. What is the
stage of infection in this case?
A. Acute
B. Prodromal
C. Incubation
D. Reconvalescence
E. Carriage
10. As an example of specific human parasites one can name Plasmodium falciparum, human pinworm
and some others. The source of parasite invasion is always a human. Such specific human parasites cause the
diseases that are called:
A. Anthroponoses
B. Anthropozoonoses
C. Zoonoses
D. Multifactorial diseases E. Infections
11. Examples of human-specific parasites are malaria plasmodium, enterobius vermicularis and some
other. The source of invasion of such parasites is always a human. Such human-specific parasites cause
diseases that are called:
A. Anthroponotic B. Zoonotic
C. Anthropozoonotic
D. Infectious
E. Multifactorial
12. A pregnant woman complains of vaginal mucosa irritation, itching and genital tracts secretion.
Bacterioscopy of vaginal smears revealed large gram-positive oval oblong cells that form pseudomicelium.
What is the most probable channel of infection?
A. Endogenous infection
B. Sexual transmission
C. Contact infection
D. Vector-borne transmission
E. Wound infection
13. A patient developed pyoinflammatory process of periodontal tissue caused by activation of the
microorganisms inherent in the body, which are the part of oral mucosal microflora. What type of infection is
it?
A. Relapse B. Autoinfection
C. Reinfection
D. Exogenous infection
E. Superinfection
14. Typical signs of food poisoning caused by C. botulinum include diplopia, swallowing and
respiration disorders. These signs develop due to:
A. Enterotoxic shock development
B. Enterotoxin action
C. Adenylate cyclase activation
D. Adhesion of the agent to enterocyte receptors
E. Exotoxin action
15. A laboratory has been investigating virulence of a diphtheria agent. In the process of the experiment
the infection was introduced intraperitoneally into test animals. The dosage of bacteria resulting in 95%
mortality of test animals was found. What unit of virulence measurement was determined?
A. DLM
B. DCL
C. LD50
D. ID
E. LD5
16. A patient with signs of intestinal infection (vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain) has been presenting
with increasing symptoms of intoxication for three days. Papular rash appeared on the uncovered skin areas
and spread to the torso. A doctor suspected pseudotuberculosis. What laboratory test allows confirming this
diagnosis within the first week from the onset of disease?
A. Bacteriological
B. Microscopic
C. Serological
52
D. Allergic
E. Biological
17. Biological material taken from a patient contains several species of microorganisms (staphylococci
and streptococci) that are causative of the patient’s disease. Name this type of infection:
A. Mixed infection
B. Superinfection
C. Reinfection
D. Consecutive infection
E. Coinfection
18. A patient developed pyoinflammatory process of periodontal tissues caused by activation of the
microorganisms inherent in the body, which are a part of oral mucosal microflora. What type of infection is
it?
A. Exogenous infection
B. Reinfection
C. Relapse
D. Superinfection
E. Autoinfection
19. A 12-year-old boy with clinical presentation of influenza has developed respiratory
mycoplasmosis. What type of infection has developed under these conditions?
A. Mixed infection
B. Superinfection
C. Iatrogenic infection
D. Relapse
E. Autoinfection
20. A bacteriologist found in a sick child the causative agents of Flexner dysentery type 2, Sonne
dysentery type 1, and enteropathogenic colibacillus – O55/B5. Name this type of infection:
A. Mixed infection
B. Superinfection
C. Secondary infection
D. Carriage of pathogenic bacteria
E. Reinfection
21. A man has a case of epidemic typhus 5 years ago. After an acute respiratory viral disease, against
the background of weakened immune system, he developed signs of typhus again. The exacerbation occurred
because of the causative agents, remaining in his body. What type of infections is it?
A. Reinfection
B. Co-infection
C. Superinfection
D. Secondary infection E. Relapse
53
SPECIAL VIROLOGY
Influenza viruses
1. Ambulace brought to the hospital a patient with acute respiratory viral infection. The illness began
suddenly with temperature rise up to 39,90 C. He complains of headache in frontotemporal lobes, pain in
eyeballs, aching of the whole body, nose stuffiness, sore throat, dry cough. At home he had a nasal hemorrhage
twice. What type of acute respiratory viral infection is it?
A. Influenza
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Parainfluenza
D. RS-infection
E. Enterovirus infection
2. Material taken from a patient with provisional diagnosis "influenza"was referred to a laboratory. For
virological examination the hemadsorption reaction was applied. This reaction can be applied for detection of
the following viruses:
A. Viruses containing hemagglutinins
B. All the simple viruses
C. All the complex viruses
D. DNA-genomic viruses
E. Any viruses
3. During the breakout of acute respiratory infection in order to diagnose influenza the expressdiagnosis, based on revealing of specific viral antigen in the examined material (nasopharyngial lavage), is
carried out. Which reaction is used for this?
A. Immunofluorescence
B. Agglutination
C. Precipitation
D. Opsonization
E. Complement binding
4. A virological laboratory obtained pathological material (mucous discharges from nasal meatuses)
taken from a patient with provisional diagnosis "influenza". What quick test will allow to reveal specific viral
antigen in the material under examination?
A. Direct and indirect immunofluorescence test
B. Direct and indirect fluorescence immunoassay
C. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
D. Radioimmunoassay
E. –
5. Pathological material (mucosal excretion from the nasal passages) taken obtained from a patient
provisionally diagnosed with influenza was delivered to the virological laboratory. What quick test allows
detecting specific viral antigen in the investigated material?
A. Direct and indirect immunofluorescence (IF)
B. Reverse indirect haemagglutination (RIHA)
C. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
D. Direct and indirect enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
E. Hemagglutination inhibition assay (HAI)
6. Virological laboratory has received patient’s nasopharyngeal lavage. What can be used to single out
influenza virus from the patient’s lavage?
A. Chick embryo
B. Endo’s medium C. Meat infusion agar
D. Meat infusion broth
E. Lowenstein–Jensen medium
7. Inoculation of hen’s embryos is the main method of detection of influenza virus. In order to
neutralize associated bacterial flora in the material under examination (nasopharyngeal lavage) it is necessary
to add beforehand:
A. Antibiotics
B. Eubiotics
C. Fluorescent serum
D. Leukocytic interferon
E. Ant-influenza gamma globulin
8. A patient has been diagnosed with ARVI. Blood serum contains immunoglobulin M. What is the
stage of infection in this case?
A. Acute
B. Prodromal
C. Incubation
D. Reconvalescence
E. Carriage
9. A patient fell ill the day before, the disease is acute with a predominance of general toxic symptoms.
With an account for the epidemic situation in the city, the doctor diagnosed the patient with influenza A. What
emergency etiotropic treatment must be administered to this patient?
A. Rimantadine B. Oxolinic ointment C. Gentamicin
D. Inactivated influenza vaccine E. Human gamma globulin
10. Pharmacy has received viricidal drugs. Choose the one used for influenza treatment from the list
given below.
54
A. Rimantadine B. Metisazone
C. Levamisole
D. Azidothimidine
E. Acyclovir
11. Epidemic of influenza was announced in a town. Which drug can be recommended for the
nonspecific prophylaxis of influenza?
A. Leukocytic interferon
B. Anti-influenza vaccine
C. Anti-influenza immunoglobulin
D. Antibiotics
E. Anti-influenza serum
12. A drugstore received a supply of a drug that is widely used for treatment of many virus diseases
since it is not virus specific. What drug is it?
A. Interferon
B. Remantadin
C. Metisazone
D. Immunoglobulin
E. Vaccine
13. To prevent the seasonal influenza epidemics in the city hospitals, sanitary epidemic station gave
orders to immunize health care workers. Which of the following preparations should be used for
immunization?
A. Subunit vaccine
B. Interferon
C. Amantadine D. Rimantadine
E. Gamma-globulin
14. For the specific prevention of influenza, the employees of an enterprise were vaccinated with
"Influvac". What type of immunity will develop in the body of the vaccinated?
A. Artificial active
B. Innate congenital
C. Natural active D. Artificial passive E. Natural passive
15. A person has been in contact with influenza patient. What drug should be administered for specific
passive influenza prophylaxis?
A. Antigrippal immunoglobulin
B. Vaccine influenza virus inactivated C. Leukocytic interferon
D. Amizon
E. Anaferon
Poxviruses
1. The contents of vesicles that appeared on the mucous membrane of a patient with variola were sent
to a virological laboratory. Which of the listed changes were revealed during the smear microscopy?
A. Paschen bodies
B. Babes-Negri bodies
C. Guarnieri bodies
D. Babes-Ernst bodies
E. Syncytium
Picornaviruses
1. A 3-year-old child has been taken to a pediatrician. He has no recent history of any diseases.
Objective examination revealed no pathology of the internal organs. The child needs the routine immunization
against the following disease:
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Diphtheria and tetanus
C. Measles, rubella, parotitis
D. Pertussis
E. Type B hepatitis
2. A 1,5 y.o. child fell ill acutely with high temperature 380C, headache, fatigue. The temperature
declined on the fifth day, muscular pain in the right leg occured in the morning, there were no movements and
tendon reflexes, sensitivity was reserved. What is the initial diagnosis?
A. Polyomyelitis
B. Viral encephalitis C. Polyartropathy
D. Osteomyelitis
E. Hip joint arthritis
3. A child is 9 months old. The patient’s body temperature is 36,7 oC, the skin is pale, humid, there is
pain in leg muscles. There is no extremities mobility, sensitivity is present. The child has been diagnosed with
poliomyelitis. The causative agent of this disease relates to the following family:
A. Picornavirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Tohovirus
D. Adenovirus
E. Rotavirus
4. In our country, routine preventive vaccinations against poliomyelitis involve using live vaccine that
is administered orally. What immunoglobulins are responsible for the development of local post-vaccination
immunity in this case?
A. Secretory IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. Serum IgA
E. IgE
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5. An 8-year-old child was hospitalized for fever up to
inertness, moderate headache, vomiting.
Examination revealed meningeal symptoms. Lumbar puncture was performed. The obtained fluid had raised
opening pressure, it was transparent, with the cell count of 450 cells per 1 mcL (mainly lymphocytes - 90%),
glucose level of 2,6 mmol/l. What causative agent might have caused the disease in the child?
A. Enterovirus
B. Meningococcus
C. Koch’s bacillus
D. Staphylococcus
E. Pneumococcus
6. A culture of monkey cells (Vero) and a group of mouse sucklings were infected with an inoculum
taken from a child with provisional diagnosis "enterovirus infection". There was no cytopathic effect on the
cell culture but mouse sucklings died. What enteric viruses might have caused disease of this child?
A. Coxsackie A
B. Coxsackie B
C. ECHO virus
D. Polioviruses
E. Unclassified enteric viruses 68-71
7. A laboratory received a sample of water used in drug production for sanitary and virusological
analysis. What group of viruses will indicate fecal contamination of water and thus the need for its additional
purification?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Orthomyxoviridae
D. Retroviridae
E. Flaviviridae
8. A paitent, who works as a milkmaid, has made an appointment with a dentist with complaints of
aphtha-shaped rash on the mucosa of oral cavity. The doctor detected rash on her hands in the area of nail
plates. What agent causes this disease?
A. Foot-and-mouth disease virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Vesicular stomatitis D. Herpesvirus
E. Coxsackie B virus
2018
Preventive vaccination against poliomyelitis is made with inactivated vaccine introduced parenterally. What
immunoglobulins create the postvaccinal immunity in this case?
A. Serum. IgA, IgM
B. IgE, IgM
C. IgM, secretory IgA
D. IgM, IgG
E. IgG, secretory IgA
39,8oC,
Rotaviruses
1. A three-year-old child has had marked diarrhea for three days. Immune electron microscopy of his
excrements revealed bilayer pseudocovered capsid viruses that looked like small spoke wheels. What viruses
have been revealed?
A. Rotaviruses
B. Coxsackie viruses C. ECHO viruses
D. Coronaviruse E. Reoviruses
2. An outbreak of an intestinal infection occurred in a kindergarten on the eve of New Year holidays.
Bacteriological examination of patients’ feces didn’t reveal any pathogenic bacteria. Electron microscopy
revealed roundish structures with clear outer edges and a thick core resembling a wheel. Specify the most
likely causative agent of this infection:
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Coxsacki-virus
D. E. coli
E. P.vulgaris
Rabies viruses
1. A hospitalized patient bitten by a rabid animal has an abusive wound of shin. What kind of vaccine
must be given to prevent rabies?
A. Anti-rabies vaccine
B. DTaP
C. Td
D. BCG
E. TABte
2. In the area being the epicenter of the registered rabies cases among wild animals a 43-year-old man
presented to a clinic and claimed to have been bitten by a stray dog. He was given a course of anti-rabies
vaccine. This preparation relates to the following type of vaccines:
A. Attenuated
B. Inactivated
C. Molecular
D. Toxoids
E. Synthetic
3. In the area that is the epicenter of the registered rabies cases among wild animals a 43-year-old man
arrived at a clinic and claimed to have been bitten by a stray dog. He was given a course of anti-rabies vaccine.
This preparation belongs to the following type of vaccines:
A. Attenuated
56
B. Inactivated
C. Molecular
D. Toxoids
E. Synthetic
4. A female patient bitten by a stray dog came to a surgery. Wide lacerated wounds were localized on
the patient’s face. What treatment-and prevention aid should be rendered in order to prevent rabies?
A. Immunization with the antirabic vaccine
B. Combined antibiotic therapy
C. Hospitalization, injection of DTP
D. Hospitalization, medical surveillance
E. Urgent injection of normal gammaglobulin
5. A man who was bitten by the unknown dog applied to the surgeon. Wide ragged wounds were
localized on the face. What curative-prophylactic aid should be given to prevent rabies?
A. Start immunization with rabies vaccine
B. Prescribe combined antibiotic therapy
C. Immediate injection of DPT vaccine
D. Hospitalize the patient and keep under the doctor’s supervision
E. Immediately inject normal gamma globulin
6. Brain autopsy revealed an edema, hyperemia, and small hemorrhages in the medulla oblongata.
Microscopically chromatolysis, hydropia and nerve cell necrosis are observed; within the cytoplasm of
hippocampal nerve cells there are eosinophilic structures (Negri bodies) detected. What diagnosis corresponds
with the described morphological signs?
A. Rabies
B. Encephalomyelitis
C. Meningococcal meningitis
D. Brucellosis
E. Encephalitis
Vesicular stomatitis virus
1. A patient has some vesicles on the mucous membrane of the oral cavity, lips and nose. A dentist
suspected vesicular stomatitis. What analysis will allow to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Recovery of virus from the vesicular fluid B. Allergy test
C. Recovery of bacteria from the vesicular fluid
D. Contamination of animals with the vesicular fluid
E. Microscopy of the vesicular fluid
Herpesviruses
1. A patient consulted a dentist about pains, reddening and swelling of gums. The dentist assumed
herpetic gingivostomatitis. What virus might have caused this disease?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Herpes zoster
D. Cytomegalic virus E. Epstein-Barr virus
2. A 26-year-old male patient complains of a rash on the upper lip skin, which arose on a background
of influenza with high-grade fever and is accompanied by pain and burning. The rash has been present for 3
days. Objectively: the skin of the upper lip is edematic and erythematous, grouped vesicles are filled with
serous fluid and have a rough surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpetic vesicular dermatitis B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
E. Erythema multiforme
3. A 27-year-old sexually active female complains of numerous vesicles on the right sex lip, itch and
burning. Eruptions regularly turn up before menstruation and disappear 8-10 days later. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex virus B. Bartholinitis
C. Primary syphilis
D. Cytomegalovirus infection
E. Genital condylomata
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4. A 7 y.o. girl has mild form of varicella. Headache, weakness, vertigo, tremor of her limbs, ataxia,
then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of illness. Meningeal signs are negative. Cerebrospinal fluid
examination is normal. How can you explain these signs?
A. Encephalitis
B. Meningitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Myelitis
E. Neurotoxic syndrome
5. On the 21 day after appearance of vesiculous chickenpox rash a 7-year-old child developed ataxia,
nystagmus, intention tremor, muscle hypotonia. Liquor analysis shows insignificant lymphocytic pleocytosis,
slightly increased protein rate. What complication is it?
A. Encephalitis
B. Acute nephritis C. Pneumonitis
D. Purulent meningitis
E. Postherpetic neuralgia
6. A patient complained about general weakness, fever, painful rash on his trunk skin . He has been
suffering from this for 3 days. Objectively: lateral surface of trunk on the left is hyperemic and edematic, there
are some groups of vesicles with serous and haemorrhagic contents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Contact dermatitis simplex
C. Contact allergic dermatitis
D. Microbial eczema
E. Herpetiform Duhring’s dermatosis
7. A 50-year-old woman is being treated for shingles in a neurology unit. What reactivated virus causes
this disease?
A. Varicella zoster virus (chickenpox virus)
B. Herpes simplex virus type 1
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Measles virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
8. A 67-year-old male patient complains of rash, severe pain in the subscapular region on the right.
Objectively: skin in the right subscapular region is covered with linearly arranged pink-red edematous lesions
that are somewhat infiltrated, and have clear boundaries. On the lesion surface there are vesicles with
transparent exudate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Duhring dermatitis
C. Erysipelas
D. Atopic dermatitis
E. Impetigo
9. 2 days ago a patient presented with acute pain in the left half of chest, general weakness, fever and
headache. Objectively: between the 4 and 5 rib on the left the skin is erythematous, there are multiple groups
of vesicles 2-4 mm in diameter filled with transparent liquid. What diease are these symptoms typical for?
A. Herpes zoster
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes simplex
D. Streptococcal impetigo
E. Herpetiform Duhring’s dermatosis
10. A 3-year-old child has continuous fever, lymph nodes are enlarged, the amount of lymphocytes in
blood is significantly increased. Enzymelinked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) revealed antigen of EpsteinBarr virus. What diagnosis can be made based on the information given above?
A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Herpetic lymphadenopathy D. Cytomegalovirus infection
E. Generalized infection caused by herpes-zoster
11. A doctor examines a 17-year-old girl. The following is detected: pharyngitis, cervical
lymphadenopathy, fever. The preliminary diagnosis is infectious mononucleosis. What method of
investigation allows to confirm this diagnosis at the disease onset?
A. Determining antibodies IgМ to Epstein-Barr virus
B. Microscopy of blood smear according to Giemsa method
C. Determining antibodies IgG to Epstein-Barr virus
D. Sabin-Feldman dye test
E. Determining the amount of C-reactive Protein
12. An 18 year old patient was admitted to a hospital with complaints of headache, weakness, high
temperature, sore throat. Objectively: enlargement of all groups of lymph nodes was revealed. The liver is
enlarged by 3 cm, spleen - by 1 cm. In blood: leukocytosis, atypical lymphocytes - 15%. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Acute lymphoid leukosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Angina
E. Adenoviral infection
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13. Often the cause of secondary immunodeficiency is an infectious affection of an organism, when
agents reproduce directly in the cells of immune system and destroy them. Specify the diseases, during
which the described above occurs:
A. Poliomyelitis, viral hepatitis A
B. Q fever, typhus
C. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis
D. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS
E. Dysentery, cholera
14. An HIV-positive patient’s cause of death is acute pulmonary insufficiency resulting from
pneumonia. Pathohistological investigation of lungs has revealed transformed cells resemble owl’s eye. Name
the pneumonia causative agent:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Influenza virus
D. Candida fungi
E. Toxoplasma
15. What chemotherapeutic agent is a drug of choice for treatment of herpes?
A. Acyclovir
B. Rifampicin
C. Chingamin
D. Doxycycline hydrochloride
E. Metronidazole
16. A patient has herpetic rash. What medication should be administered?
A. Acyclovir
B. Gentamycin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
E. Biseptol
17. A patient is ill with herpetic stomatitis provoked by immunosuppression. What preparation
introduced intravenously, internally and locally can provide antiviral and immunopotentiating effect?
A. Acyclovir
B. Remantadinum
C. Levamisole
D. Methisazonum E. Amoxicillin
18. A patient consulted a dentist about a lesion of his oral mucosa. He was diagnosed with herpetic
stomatitis. Which of the following drugs will have an effect on etiotropic factor?
A. Acyclovir
B. Dimedrol C. Paracetamol
D. Levamisole
E. Furacilinum
19. A patient has herpetic conjunctivitis. What etiotropic drug should be administered?
A. Acyclovir
B. Ampicillin
C. Methisazonum D. Furagin
E. Tetracycline
20. A patient with herpetic stomatitis was prescribed acyclovir for topical application. What is its
mechanism of action?
A. It inhibits synthesis of nucleic acids of viruses
B. It inhibits virus penetration into cells C. It inhibits virus maturation
D. It increases the resistance of macroorganism cells to the viruses
E. It inhibits virion assembly
21. A medical student was hospitalized into the infectious diseases unit on the 2nd day after the disease
onset; the patient is suspected to have infectious mononucleosis. What results of laboratory analysis can
confirm this diagnosis immediately on the day of the hospitalization?
A. IgM antibodies to herpes simplex virus were detected
B. Herpesvirus was isolated
C. Fourfold increase in number of antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus was detected
D. IgM antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus were detected
E. Cytomegalovirus antibodies were detected
22. A patient came to a dentist complaining of fever and characteristic small vesicles on the buccal,
palatal, and lingual mucosa. The dentist suspects herpetic stomatitis. What additional test is necessary to
confirm the diagnosis?
A. Inoculation of chick chorioallantoic membrane or brain tissue of white mice
B. Precipitation reaction
C. Inoculation on Rappaport medium
D. Inoculation on medium 199 with addition of bovine serum
E. Inoculation on Eagle medium
23. A 17-year-old girl is undergoing an examination. She has signs of pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy
of the neck, and fever and was provisionally diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. What test can confirm
this diagnosis at the onset of the disease?
A. Microscopy of blood smear using Romanovsky-Giemsa method
59
B. Measuring the levels of C-reactive protein
C. Measuring of IgG to Epstein-Barr virus
D. Sabin-Feldman dye test
E. Measuring the antibodies (IgM) to Epstein-Barr virus
Arboviruses
1. A patient with clinical signs of encephalitis was delivered to the infectious diseases hospital.
Anamnesis registers a tick bite. Hemagglutination-inhibition reaction helped to reveal antibodies to the
causative agent of tick-borne encephalitis in the dilution 1:20 which is not diagnostic. What actions should
the doctor take after he had got such result?
A. To repeat the examination with serum taken 10 days later
B. To examine the same serum C. To apply more sensitive reaction
D. To repeat examination with another diagnosticum
E. To deny diagnosis of tick-borne encephalitis
2. After a thorough examination the patient who had returned from Central Asia to Ukraine was
diagnosed with spring-summer encephalitis. Its pathogen might have entered the body through the bite of the
following arthropod:
A. Dog-louse
B. Taiga tick
C. Mosquito
D. Itch mite
E. Argasid tick (ornithodorus papillipes)
3. After a thorough examination, a man, who has returned to Ukraine from the Central Asia, was
provisionally diagnosed with spring-summer encephalitis. In such cases, the causative agent is transmitted via
bites of a certain arthropod. Name this arthropod:
A. Ixodes persulcatus
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. Phlebotominae
D. Ornithodorus papillipes
E. Ixodes ricinus
Measles virus
1. A 4-year-old girl died suddenly with symptoms of asphyxia. Autopsy revealed white spots on the
buccal mucosa; large blotches of rash on the skin of face, trunk and extremities; conjunctivitis, edema with
foci of necrosis on the laryngeal mucosa; giant-cell pneumonia on microscopy. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Influenza
D. Meningococcal infection
E. Typhus
2. A child is 4 years old, has been ill for 5 days. There are complaints of cough, skin rash, to- 38,2oC,
face puffiness, photophobia, conjunctivitis. Objectively: there is bright, maculo-papulous, in some areas
confluent rash on the face, neck, upper chest. The pharynx is hyperemic. There are seropurulent discharges
from the nose. Auscultation revealed dry rales in lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Scarlet fever
D. Adenoviral infection
E. Enterovirus exanthema
3. A child, aged 4, has being ill for 5 days, suffers from cough, skin rash, t0- 38,2 °C, facial hydropy,
photosensitivity, conjunctivitis. On the face, neck, upper part of the chest there is bright maculopapular rash
with areas of merging. Hyperemic throat. Seropurulent nasal discharge. In lungs there are dry crackles. What
is the most probable preliminary diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Scarlet fever
D. Adenovirus infection
E. Enterovirus exanthema
4. Such presentations as catarrhal conjunctivitis, pharyngitis, laryngotracheo-bronchitis, white spots
on the buccal mucosa in the region of lower premolar teeth, maculopapular rash on face, body and extremities
are typical for the following disease:
A. Measles
B. Spotted fever
C. Scarlet fever
D. Meningococcal infection
E. Influenza
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5. A 7 year old child had an acute onset of disease. Pediatrician stated that mucous membrane of face
is hyperemic and covered with a lot of mucus. Mucous membrane of cheeks has whitish stains. Next day the
child’s skin of face, neck, body was covered with coarsely-papular rash.What disease may be presumed?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Diphteria
D. Meningococcemia
E. Allergic dermatitis
6. There is a 7-year-old child with complains of cough, lacrimation, rhinitis, skin rash, photophobia
and three-day-long fever as high as 38oC. Physical examination has revealed the following: conjunctivitis;
bright red maculopapular rash covering the skin of face, neck and torso; hyperemic pharynx; serous purulent
secretions from the nose; dry rales in the lungs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Rubella
D. Adenovirus infection
E. Chicken pox
7. A 5-year-old child developed an acute disease starting from body temperature rise up to 38,5 oC,
running nose, cough and conjunctivitis. On the 4th day the child presented with maculo-papular rash on face.
Body temparature rose again up to 39,2oC. Over the next few days the rash spread over the whole body and
extremities. Mucous membrane of palate was hyperemic, there was whitish deposition on cheek mucous
membrane next to molars. What is your provisional diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Acute viral respiratory infection
C. Yersinia
D. Rubella
E. Enterovirus diseases
8. A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis for 4 days. He has
been taking sulfadimethoxine. Today it has fever up to 39oC and maculopapular rash on its face. Except of
rash the child’s skin has no changes. What is your diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Allergic rash
C. Rubella
D. Scarlet fever
E. Pseudotuberculosis
9. Blood serum of a newborn contains antibodies to measles virus. What kind of immunity is this
indicative of?
A. Natural passive B. Natural active
C. Artificial passive
D. Artificial active E. Heredoimmunity
10. Examination of a child who has recently recovered from measles revealed in the soft tissues of
cheeks and perineum some inaccurate, edematic, red-and-black, slightly fluctuating areas. What complication
is it?
A. Humid gangrene
B. Dry gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. Pressure sore
E. Trophic ulcer
11. A 6 year old child was delivered to the hospital because of measles pneumonia. On the mucous
membrane of a cheek a dentist revealed an ill-defined greish area 2х2,5 cm large. Soft tissues are edematic
and foul-smelling. The most probable diagnosis of the dentist should be:
A. Noma
B. Gangrenous stomatitis
C. Pustular stomatitis
D. Phlegmonous stomatitis
E. Ulcerous stomatitis
12. A measles outbreak has occurred in a maternity clinic. What class of maternal antibodies can
provide a newborn with immunity to measles virus?
A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgA
E. IgD
13. A 1.5-year-old boy, who previously received no regular immunization, was in contact with measles
patient. For urgent specific prevention, the child was administered donor gamma globulin. What type of
immunity develops in this case?
A. Natural
B. Post-vaccination
C. Local
D. Antitoxic
E. Passive
Rubella virus
1. A 2 y.o. girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low–grade fever, severe catarrhal symptoms,
non-abundant maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital glands. What is your diagnosis?
A. Rubella
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles
D. Adenoviral infection
E. Pseudotuberculosis
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2. A pregnant woman was registered in an antenatal clinic and underwent complex examination for a
number of infections. Blood serum contained IgM to the rubella virus. What is this result indicative of?
A. Of primary infection
B. Of a chronic process
C. The woman is healthy D. Of exacerbation of a chronic disease
E. Of recurring infection with rubella virus
3. A pregnant woman was detected with IgM to rubella virus. An obstetrician-gynecologist
recommended therapeutic abortion due to the high risk of teratogenic affection of the fetus. Detection of IgM
was of great importance as it is these specific immunoglobulins that:
A. Indicate recent infection
B. Penetrate placental barrier
C. Have the largest molecular weight
D. Are associated with anaphylactic reactions
E. Are the main factor of antiviral protection
4. A 36 y.o. woman is in the 12-th week of her first pregnancy. She was treated for infertility in the
past. She contacted a child who fell ill with rubella 2 days after their meeting. Woman doesn’t know if she has
ever been infected with rubella. What is the adequate tactics?
A. Monitoring of the specific IgG, IgM with the ELISA
B. Fetus wastage
C. Immunoglobulin injection
D. Cyclovin prescription E. Interferon prescription
Hepatitis viruses
1. A 20 y.o. patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of having skin and sclera
icteritiousness, dark urine, single vomiting, appetite loss, body temperature rise up to 38 0 C for 2 days. Three
weeks ago he went in for fishing and shared his dishes with friends. Objectively: the patient is flabby, t - 36,
80 C, skin and scleras are icteritious, liver sticks from under the costal margin by 3 cm, it is sensitive; spleen
isn’t palpable. Urine is dark, stool is partly acholic. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Virus A hepatitis
B. Leptospirosis C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Hemolytic anemia E. Intestinal yersiniosis
2. A hepatitis outbreak was registered in a settlement. This episode is connected with water factor.
What hepatitis virus could have caused the infective outbreak in this settlement?
A. E
B. C
C. D
D. G
E. B
3. In a township there were registered an outbreak of hepatitis, which was attributed to water supply.
What hepatitis virus could be the cause of the outbreak in this township?
A. Hepatitis E virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis D virus
D. Hepatitis G virus
E. Hepatitis B virus
4. A patient has been admitted to the infectious diseases department for malaise, fever up to 38 oC,
jaundice. A few months ago, the patient underwent blood transfusion. The doctor suspected viral hepatitis B.
What are the principal methods of laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B?
A. Serological and gene diagnostics
B. Virus isolation in cell culture and its identification by CPE
C. Detection of virions in blood by electron microscopy
D. Isolation of the virus in laboratory animals (Nt)
E. Isolation of the virus in chicken embryos
5. The donor who for a long time didn't donate the blood was investigated with IFA method. Anti-HBs
antibodies were revealed. What does positive result of IFA in this case mean?
A. Chronic hepatitis В
B. Acute hepatitis B
C. Acute hepatitis C
D. Chronic hepatitis С E. Previous hepatitis B
6. Examination of a 27-year-old donor who had not donated blood for a long time revealed HBs
antibodies detected by ELISA method. In this case, the positive ELISA results indicate that the donor:
A. Had hepatitis B
B. Has acute hepatitis B
C. Has acute hepatitis C
D. Has chronic hepatitis B
E. Has chronic hepatitis C
7. Immune-enzyme reaction revealed in blood serum HBs-antigen. What disease is this antigene
associated with?
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A. Viral hepatitis type B
B. Viral hepatitis A
C. AIDS
D. Tuberculosis
E. Syphilis
8. Immune-enzyme assay has detected HBs antigen in blood serum. What disease is it characteristic
of?
A. Viral hepatitis type B
B. Viral hepatitis type A
C. AIDS
D. Tuberculosis
E. Syphilis
9. During surgical operation a blood transfusion was made. The blood must be checked to find antigens
of some disease. What disease is expected to be found?
A. Viral hepatitis B
B. Viral hepatitis A
C. Adenovirus
D. Enterovirus
E. Viral hepatitis E
10. Hepatitis B is diagnosed through laboratory tests that determine the presence of HBA-DNA in
blood serum of the patient. What reference method is applied for this purpose?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Hybridization method
C. Hybridization signal amplification method
D. Ligase chain reaction method E. ELISA diagnostic method
11. A patient has been hospitalized with provisional diagnosis of virus B hepatitis. Serological reaction
based on complementation of antigen with antibody chemically bound to peroxidase or alkaline phosphatase
has been used for disease diagnostics. What is the name of the applied serological reaction?
A. Immune-enzyme analysis
B. Radioimmunoassay technique
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Bordet-Gengou test
E. Antigen-binding assay
12. Professional dentists belong to the risk group concerning professional infection with viral hepatitis
type B. Name an effective method for active prevention of this disease among the dentists:
A. Vaccination with recombinant vaccine
B. Secure sterilization of medical instruments
C. Working with gum gloves on
D. Introduction of specific immunoglobuline
E. Introduction of interferonogenes
13. Dentists are at increased risk of being infected with the type B hepatitis. What preparation should
be used for reliable active prevention of this disease?
A. Recombinant vaccine of HBsAg proteins
B. Live type B hepatitis vaccine C. Specific immunoglobulin
D. Monoclonal HBsAg antibodies E. Antihepatitis serum
14. In order to eliminate occupational risks dental workers underwent vaccination. The vaccine should
protect them from a viral infection, whose pathogen may be found in blood of dental patients who had had
this infection or who are its chronic carriers. What vaccine was used?
A. Genetically engineered HBs antigen
B. Live measles vaccine
C. Inactivated hepatitis A vaccine
D. Subunit influenza vaccine
E. Anti-rabies vaccine
15. A 32 year old patient suffering from chronic viral hepatitis complains about dull pain in the right
subcostal area, nausea, dry mouth. Objectively: liver dimensions are 13-21-11 cm (according to Kurlov),
spleen is by 2 cm enlarged, aspartate aminotransferase is 3,2 micromole/l·h, alanine aminotransferase - 4,8
millimole/l·h. Serological study revealed HBeAg, high concentration of DNA HBV. What drug should be
chosen for treatment of this patient?
A. α-interferon
B. Acyclovir
C. Remantadinum
D. Arabinoside monophosphate
E. Essentiale-forte
16. It is known that infectious type B hepatitis is a systemic disease caused by the type B hepatitis
virus and characterized by a predominant liver affection. Choose from the below given list the drugs for the
etiotropic therapy of this infection:
A. Acyclovir
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulfanilamides
E. Fluoroquinolones
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17. A patient is registered for regular check-ups. Laboratory analyses foe viral hepatitis diagnostics are
made. In the blood serum only antibodies to HBsAg are detected. Such result is indicative of:
A. Viral hepatitis type A.
B. Past case of viral hepatitis type B.
C. Acute viral hepatitis type C.
D. Acute viral hepatitis type B.
E. Chronic viral hepatitis type C.
18. Dentists have high risk of contracting viral hepatitis type B in the course of their duties and
therefore are subject to mandatory vaccination. What vaccine is used in such cases?
A. Recombinant vaccine. B. Live vaccine.
C. Anatoxin.
D. Inactivated vaccine.
E. Chemical vaccine.
In a township there was registered an outbreak of hepatitis, which had supposedly spread through the water
supply. What hepatitis virus could be the cause of the outbreak in this township?
A. Hepatitis E virus
B. Hepatitis C virus C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Hepatitis G virus
E. Hepatitis D virus
19. During laboratory diagnostics of hepatitis C, it is necessary to detect the presence of antibodies to
hepatitis C virus in the patient’s blood serum. What test should be conducted in this case?
A. Enzyme-linked immuno sorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Nucleic acid hybridization with signal amplification
C. DNA probe method
D. Ligase chain reaction
E. Nucleic acid hybridization
20. To test donor blood for hepatitis B antigens, it is necessary to use highly sensitive detection
methods. What test should be used for this purpose?
A. Solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B. Indirect hemagglutination
C. Complement binding
D. Immunoelectrophoresis
E. Indirect immunofluorescence
21. Lately, the laboratory diagnostics of hepatitis B includes detecting the presence of viral DNA in
the patient’s blood. What reaction is used to determine it?
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Hemagglutination inhibition reaction
C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction
D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
E. Complement fixation reaction
22. Hepatitis В is diagnosed through laboratory tests that determine the presence of HBA-DNA in
blood serum of the patient. What reference method is applied for this purpose?
A. Polymerase chain reaction B. Hybridization signal amplification method
C. ELISA diagnostic method
D. Ligase chain reaction method
E. Hybridization method
23. It is known that hepatitis D virus belongs to defective viruses and can reproduce in the host cells
only in the presence of virus of:
A. Hepatitis G
B. Hepatitis E
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis A
E. Hepatitis B
HIV
1. RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse transcriptase
forced a cell to synthesize a viral DNA. This process is based upon:
A. Reverse transcription
B. Operon repression
C. Reverse translation
D. Operon depression
E. Convariant replication
2. During reproduction of some RNA-containing viruses that cause tumors in animals, genetic
information can be transmitted in the opposite direction from the RNA to the DNA via a specific enzyme. The
enzyme of reverse transcription is called:
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Primase
E. Topoisomerase
3. The examination of blood serum of a patient with immunodeficiency signs revealed antybodies to
gP120 and gP41 proteins. The presence of what infection of this patient does it confirm?
A. НLTV-1-infection
B. TORCH-infection
C. ЕСНО-infection D. НВV-infection
E. HIV-infection
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4. Blood analysis of a patient showed signs of HIVinfection (human immunodeficiency virus). Which
cells does HIV-virus primarily affect?
A. Cells that contain receptor T4 (T-helpers)
B. Cells that contain receptor IgM (B-lymphocytes)
C. Specialized nervous cells (neurons)
D. Mast cells
E. Proliferating cells
5. A patient consulted an immunologist about diarrhea, weight loss within several months, low-grade
fever, enlarged lymph nodes. The doctor suspected HIV infection. What immunocompetent cells must be
studied in the first place?
A. Helper T-lymphocytes
B. Suppressor T-lymphocytes
C. B-lymphocytes
D. Monocytes
E. Plasma cells
6. HIV displays the highest tropism towards the following blood cells:
A. T-helpers
B. T-suppressors
C. T-killers
D. Thrombocytes
E. Erythrocytes
7. Examination of a young man in the AIDS centre produced a positive result of immune-enzyme assay
with HIV antigens. Patient’s complaints about state of his health were absent. What can the positive result of
immune-enzyme assay be evidence of?
A. HIV infection
B. Being ill with AIDS
C. Being infected with HBV
D. Having had AIDS recently
E. HBV persistence
8. It was revealed that T-lymphocytes were affected by HIV. Virus enzyme - reverse transcriptase
(RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) - catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. DNA on the matrix of virus mRNA
B. Virus informational RNA on the matrix of DNA
C. DNA on virus ribosomal RNA
D. Viral DNA on DNA matrix
E. mRNA on the matrix of virus protein
9. T-lymphocytes are determined to be affected with HIV. In this case viral enzyme reverse
transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) catalyzes the synthesis of:
A. DNA based on the viral RNA matrix
B. Viral DNA based on DNA matrix
C. Viral RNA based on DNA matrix
D. Viral protein based on RNA matrix
E. Informational RNA based on viral protein matrix
10. Quite often the cause of secondary immunodeficiency is an infection involvement, when the
causative agents propagate directly in the cells of immune system and destroy it. The following diseases are
characterized by:
A. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS
B. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis
C. Poliomyelitis, type A hepatitis
D. Dysentery, cholera
E. Q-febris, epidemic typhus
11. Often the cause of secondary immunodeficiency is an infectious affection of an organism, when
agents reproduce directly in the cells of immune system and destroy them. Specify the diseases, during
which the described above occurs:
A. Poliomyelitis, viral hepatitis A
B. Q fever, typhus
C. Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis
D. Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS
E. Dysentery, cholera
12. The immunoblot detected gp120 protein in the blood serum. This protein is typical for the following
disease:
A. HIV-infection B. Virus B hepatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Syphilis
E. Poliomyelitis
13. HIV has gp41 and gp120 on its surface interacts with target cells of an organism. Which of the
following human lymphocyte antigens is gp120 complementary bound with?
A. CD 4 B. CD 3 C. CD 8 D. CD 19 E. CD 28
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14. A 26 year old manual worker complained of 3 weeks history of fevers and fatigue, weight loss with
no other symptoms. Physical findings: Temperature 37,6oC, Ps- 88 bpm, blood pressure 115/70mmHg,
superficial lymph nodes (occipital, submental, cervical, axillary) are enlarged, neither tender nor painful.
Rubella-like rash on the trunk and extremities. Herpes simplex lesions on the lips. Candidosis of oral cavity.
What infectious disease would you suspect?
A. HIV infection
B. Influenza
C. Rubella
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Tuberculosis
15. A 24 y.o. woman presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She’s lost weight for 7 kg
during the last 3 months. She had irregular intercourses. On examination: enlargement of all lymphaden
groups, hepatolienal syndrom. In blood: WBC – 2,2 x 109/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. HIV-infection
B. Lymphogranulomatosis C. Tuberculosis
D. Chroniosepsis
E. Infectious mononucleosis
16. A 35-year-old female patient has HIV at the AIDS stage. On the skin of the lower extremities and
palatine mucosa there appeared rusty red spots, bright red nodules of various sizes. One of the nodules was
taken for histological study. It revealed a lot of randomly distributed thin-walled vessels lined with
endothelium, the bundles of spindle cells containing hemosiderin. What kind of tumor developed in the
patient?
A. Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. Hemangioma
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Lymphangioma
E. Fibrosarcoma
17. An HIV-positive patient’s cause of death is acute pulmonary insufficiency resulting from
pneumonia. Pathohistological investigation of lungs has revealed transformed cells resemble owl’s eye. Name
the pneumonia causative agent:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Influenza virus D. Candida fungi
E. Toxoplasma
18. A doctor examined a patient with recurrent aphthous stomatitis with concominant candidosis and
decided to eliminate a possibility of HIV-infection. What examination can help to clear the situation up and
make a provisional diagnosis?
A. Immune-enzyme analysis B. Gel precipitation reaction
C. Reaction of hemagglutination inhibition
D. Phase-contrasr microscopy E. Reaction of hemagglutination
19. Medical examination of a 19-year-old worker revealed generalized lymphadenopathy mainly
affecting the posterior cervical, axillary and ulnar lymph nodes. There are multiple injection marks on the
elbow bend skin. The man denies taking drugs, the presence of injection marks ascribes to influenza treatment.
Blood count: RBCs - 3,2x1012/l, Hb- 100 g/l, WBCs - 3,1x109/l, moderate lymphopenia. What study is
required in the first place?
A. ELISA for HIV
B. Immunogram
C. Sternal puncture
D. X-ray of lungs E. Lymph node biopsy
20. The 28 y.o. woman applied to doctor because of limited loss of the hair. In the anamnesis - she had
frequent headache indisposition, arthromyalgia, fever, irregular casual sexual life, drug user. RW is negative.
What examination must be done first?
A. Examination for HIV
B. Examination for neuropathology
C. Examination for gonorrhea
D. Examination for fungi
E. Examination for trichomoniasis
21. Mass serological diagnosis of HIV infection is made by means of enzyme-linked immunosorbent
assay techniques. What standard component of the reaction must be adsorbed on the solid phase of the test
system?
A. HIV antigens
B. Monoclonal HIV antibodies
C. Specific immunoglobulins D. Enzyme-marked HIV antibodies
E. Substrates to determine enzyme activity
22. A doctor was addressed by a 30-year old man. There is a probability of the patient being HIVpositive. To clarify the diagnosis the doctor proposed to perform polymerase chain reaction. The basic process
in this kind of investigation is:
A. Gene amplification
B. Transcription
66
C. Genetic recombination
D. Genomic mutation
E. Chromosome mutation
23. A man is a carrier of HIV that is an RNA virus. The cells of this patient synthesize viral DNA. This
process is based on:
A. Transcription
B. Repair
C. Replication
D. Reverse transcription E. Translation
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SPECIAL BACTERIOLOGY
Staphylococcus
1. At the laboratory experiment the leukocyte culture was mixed with staphylococci. neutrophile
leukocytes engulfed and digested bacterial cells. This process is termed:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Osmosis
2. In the surgical department of a hospital there was an outbreak of hospital infection that showed itself
in often postoperative wound abscesses. Bacteriological examination of pus revealed aurococcus. What
examination shall be conducted to find out the source of this causative agent among the department personnel?
A. Phagotyping
B. Microscopical examination
C. Serological identification
D. Biochemical identification
E. Estimation of antibiotic susceptibility
3. Because of suspected intrahospital infection in the neonatal department of the maternity home the
inspection was carried out. In some children and on some general things Staphylococcus aureus was revealed.
What properties of these cultures allow to establish their origin from one source?
A. Antibioticogramma
B. Antigenic structure
C. Biochemical activity
D. Phagotype
E. Chromogenesis
4. In the surgical department of a dental clinic cases of hospital-acquired staphylococcal infection were
registered which was caused by strains with multiple drug resistance. Such feature can be identified by
presence of:
A. R-plasmids
B. F-plasmids
C. Exotoxins
D. Temperate bacteriophages
E. Virulent bacteriophages
5. Staphylococci grow well in ordinary media but inoculation of blood and egg-yolk salt agar should
be done to separate pure bacterial cultures from diseased tissue. What is the purpose of those media?
A. To define disease-producing factor
B. To define tinctorial properties C. To study antigenic properties
D. To define bacterial mobility
E. To define antibiotic susceptibility
6. During inspectation of dental tools for sterility in one case gram-positive cocci were detected. They
were situated in clusters and yielded positive plasma coagulation reaction; the cocci were fermenting mannitol
in anaerobic conditions and exhibiting lecithinase activity. What microorganism as detected?
A. St. saprophiticus
B. St. epidermidis
C. Corynebacterium xerosis
D. Staph. aureus
E. Str. pyogenes
7. Microbiological purity of tableted drugs had been tested at factory. Samples cultivation in mannitol
salt agar resulted in growth of golden-yellow colonies, microscopic examination of colonies detected
grampositive globular bacteria positioned in clusters; microorganisms had plasma coagulation properties.
What pure bacterial culture was obtained?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staph. saprophyticus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
8. Examination of a patient with pustular skin lesions allowed to isolate a causative agent that forms
in the blood agar roundish yellow middle-sized colonies surrounded by haemolysis zone. Smears from the
colonies contain irregularshaped clusters of gram-positive cocci. The culture is oxidase- and catalasepositive,
ferments mannitol and synthesizes plasmocoagulase. What causative agent was isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. 9. A 65-year-old man has purulent abscess on his neck. Analyses revealed a culture of gram-positive
cocci with plasmocoagulase activity. This culture relates most likely to:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Staph. saprophyticus
E. –
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10. From the purulent exudate of a patient with odontogenic phlegmon a pure culture of Gram(+)
microorganisms was segregated. This culture was lecithinously active, coagulated plasma of a rabbit,
decomposed mannitol under anaerobe conditions. What microorganism may have contributed to the origin of
suppurative complication?
A. S.aureus
B. S.epidermidis
C. S.pyogenes
D. S.viridans
E. S.mutans
11. Purulent discharges of a patient with a mandibulofacial phlegmon contain spheroid
microorganisms making S-shaped colonies with golden pigment that produce lecithinase, plasmocoagulase,
hemolysin and decompose mannitol under anaerobic conditions. Specify the kind of microorganisms that had
caused the suppuration:
A. S. aureus
B. Str. pyogenes
C. Str. mutans
D. S. epidermidis E. Str. sanguis
12. A 15-year-old patient consulted a dermatologist about a painful lump in the armpit. Objectively:
there is a walnut-sized node, lymphadenitis, infiltration of the surrounding tissues. The patient has been
diagnosed with hidradenitis. What is the most likely causative agent of this disease?
A. Staphylococci B. Streptococci
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Mixed infection
13. Microscopy of a smear obtained from a patient with acute purulent periostitis revealed grampositive bacteria arranged in clusters resembling bunch of grapes. What microorganisms is this morphology
typical for?
A. Staphylococci B.Sarcina C.Tetracocci D.Candida fungi E.Streptococci
14. Pathogenic staphylococcus was obtained from the purulent wound of the patient. Its antibiotic
sensitivity was determined to be as follows: penicillin growth inhibition zone - 8 mm; oxacillin - 9 mm,
ampicillin - 10 mm, gentamicin - 22 mm, lincomycin - 11 mm. What antibiotic should be chosen for treatment
in this case?
A. Gentamicin
B. Penicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Lincomycin
15. During an outbreak of a hospital-acquired infection, pure cultures of S. aureus were grown after
inoculation of the samples obtained from the nasopharynges of the medical personnel and from wound
drainage of the surgical patients. What tests are necessary to determine the likely sourse of infection?
A. Phage-typing of the obtained cultures
B. Sero-identification
C. Antibiotic sensitivity test
D. Repeated inoculations
E. Biochemical profiles
Streptococcus
1. Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed rather elongated grampositive diplococci with somewhat pointed opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
2. Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed slightly elongated
gram-positive diplococci with tapered opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum?
A. Stretpococcus pneumoniae
B. Neasseria gonorrhoeae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. A patient has a suspected pneumonia. In his sputum there were revealed grampositive diplococci,
prolonged with the slightly pointed opposite ands. What microorganisms are revealed in the sputum?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
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4. A 22 y.o. man complains of acute throat pain, increasing upon swallowing during 3 days. Body
temperature 38,30 C, neck lymph nodules are slightly enlarged and painful. Pharyngoscopically – tonsilar
hyperemia, enlargement and edema, tonsils are covered by round yellow fibrinous patches around crypts
openings. Beta-haemolytic streptococcus in swab analysis. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute membranous tonsilitis
B. Acute follicular tonsilitis C. Pharyngeal diphtheria
D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Pharyngeal candidosis
5. A 10-year-old girl was admitted to a hospital with carditis presentations. It is known from the
anamnesis that two weeks ago she had exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis. What is the most likely etiological
factor in this case?
A. Streptococcus B.Staphylococci C.Pneumococci D.Klebsiella E.Proteus
6. A 10-year-old child has painful swallowing, neck edema, temperature rise up to 39 oC, the whole
body is covered with bright-red petechial rash. Back of the throat and tonsils are hyperemic, the tongue is
crimsoncolored. Tonsillar surface is covered with isolated grayish-colored necrosis nidi. What disease is it?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Influenza
E. Measles
7. A child is 10 years old. The following presentations have developed: sharp pain during swallowing,
swollen neck, body temperature rise up to 39,0oC, bright-red finely papular rash all over the body. Pharynx
and tonsils are sharply hyperemic ("flaming pharynx"), "crimson tongue". On the tonsils surface there are
isolated greyish necrosis focuses. What disease it might be?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Influenza
E. Measles
8. A boy is 7 y.o. Objectively: against the background of hyperemic skin there is knobby bright-pink
rash on his forehead, neck, at the bottom of abdomen, in the popliteal spaces; nasolabial triangle is pale.
Examination of oropharyngeal surface revealed localized bright-red hyperemia; tonsils are swollen, soft,
lacunas contain pus, tongue is crimson. Cervical lymph nodes are enlarged, dense and painful. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. Whooping cough
D. Diphtheria
E. Infectious mononucleosis
9. A 9-year-old boy has acute onset of disease: sore throat, body temperature rise up to 39,5oC; on the
second day diffuse skin rash was detected all over his skin except for nasolabial triangle. On examination of
oral cavity: crimson tongue, "flaming pharynx", necrotic tonsillitis. What diagnosis is the most likely?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Measles
C. Diphtheria
D. Influenza
E. Meningococcemia
10. A 7 y.o. girl fell ill abruptly: fever, headache, severe sore throat, vomiting. Minute bright red rash
appear in her reddened skin in 3 hours. It is more intensive in axillae and groin. Mucous membrane of
oropharynx is hyperemic. Greyish patches is on the tonsills. Submaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged and
painful. What is your diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Pseudotuberculosis
E. Enteroviral infection
11. In a 2-year-old child with catarrhal presentations and skin rash a pediatrician suspected scarlet
fever. The child was given intracutaneously a small dose of serum antibody to the streptococcal erythrogenic
toxin; on the site of injection the rash disappeared. What do the reaction results mean?
A. The clinical diagnosis was confirmed
B. The child has hypersensitivity to the erythrogenic toxin
C. The disease wasn’t caused by haemolytic streptococcus
D. The whole serum dose may be injected intravenously
E. The child has very weak immune system
12. A 2 y.o. child has catarrhal effects and skin eruption. A doctor suspected scarlet fever. The child
was injected intracutaneously with some serum to the erythrogenic streptococcus toxin, on the spot of injection
the eruption disappeared. What do the reaction results mean?
A. They confirm the clinical diagnosis
B. The child has hypersensitivity to the erythrogenic toxin
C. The disease was caused by non-hemolytic streptococcus
70
D. The complete dose of serum could be introduced intravenously
E. The child’s immune system is very weakened
13. A 7 year old child often suffers from streptococcus angina. Doctor suspected development of
rheumatism and administered serological examination. The provisional diagnosis will be most probably
confirmed by presence of antibodies to the following streptococcus antigen:
A. O-streptolysin
B. C-carbohydrate C. M-protein
D. Erythrogenic toxin
E. Capsular polysaccharide
14. A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis based on her clinical symptoms and
the results of urine analysis. Anamnesis states chronic tonsillitis. What microorganisms are the most likely
cause for her kidney damage?
A. Streptococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Escherichia
D. Mycoplasma
E. Meningococci
15. A male patient has been diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. It is most
likely that the lesion of the basement membrane of renal corpuscles was caused by the following allergic
reaction:
A. Immune complex
B. Anaphylactic
C. Cytotoxic
D. Delayed
E. Stimulating
16. A patient has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis that developed after he had had
streptococcal infection. It is most likely that the affection of basal glomerular membrane is caused by an
allergic reaction of the following type:
A. Immune complex
B. Anaphylactic
C. Cytotoxic
D. Delayed
E. Stimulating
17. 10 days after having quinsy caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus a 6-year-old child exhibited
symptoms of glomerulonephritis. What mechanism of glomerular lesion is most likely in this case?
A. Immunocomplex B. Anaphylaxis
C. Cellular cytotoxicity
D. Atopy
E. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytolysis
18. Blood of a patient with presumable sepsis was inoculated into sugar broth. There appeared bottom
sediment. Repeated inoculation into blood agar caused growth of small transparent round colonies surrounded
by hemolysis zone. Examination of a smear from the sediment revealed gram-positive cocci in form of long
chains. What microorganisms are present in blood of this patient?
A. Streptococci
B. Micrococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Tetracocci
E. Sarcina
19. Microscopy of a dental plaque revealed a large number of cocci arranged in pairs and strings, as
well as Gram-positive bacilli which were likely to be the cause of cariogenesis. What microorganism
associations are involved in the development of dental caries?
A. S. mutans, streptococci and lactobacilli
B. S. salyvarius, streptococci and lactobacilli
C. S. mutans, streptococci and corynebacteria
D. S. aureus and lactobacilli E. S.salyvarius, streptococci and enterococci
20. A patient with streptococcal gingival infection was prescribed a medication that contains beta
lactam ring in its structure. What preparation belongs to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Erythromycin
D. Streptomicin sulfate
E. Chloramphenicol
21. A patient with streptococcal infection of gums was prescribed a drug that contained beta-lactam
ring in its structure. Which drug relates to this group?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Rifampicin
C. Erythromycin
D. Streptomycin sulfate
E. Chloramphenicol
22. During examination of a patient a dentist revealed a lot of "white spots zones of enamel
demineralization. What microorganisms take part in the development of this process?
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Streptococcus salivarius
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Veilonella parvula
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
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23. A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis based on her clinical symptoms and
the results of urine analysis. Anamnesis states chronic tonsillitis. What microorganisms are the most likely
cause for her kidney damage?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Staphylococci
C. Meningococci
D. Escherichia
E. Streptococci
24. Analysis of sputum taken from a patient with suspected pneumonia revealed slightly elongated
gram-positive diplococci with tapered opposite ends. What microorganisms were revealed in the sputum?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides
E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
25. A patient with streptococcal infection of the gingiva was prescribed a drug with β-lactam ring in
its structure. What drug of those listed below belongs to this pharmacological group?
A. Erythromycin
B. Streptomycin sulfate
C. Benzylpenicillin
D. Rifampicin E. Levomycetin (Chloramphenicol)
26. Microscopy of the sputum of a patient with lobar pneumonia revealed a large number of grampositive lancet-shaped encapsulated diplococci. What causative agent is it?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Chlamidia pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Escherichia coli
27. A 10-year-old child has painful swallowing, neck edema, temperature rise up to 39.0°C, the whole
body is covered with bright-red petechial rash. Back of the throat and tonsils are hyperemic, the tongue is
crimsoncolored. Tonsillar surface is covered with isolated grayish-colored necrosis nidi. What disease is it?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Measles
C. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
D. Influenza
E. Diphtheria
Gonococci
1. Bacteriological examination of purulent discharges from the urethra revealed gram-negative bacteria
looking like coffee beans. They were localized in the leukocytes and could decompose glucose and maltose
to acid. These are the causative agents of the following disease:
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Syphilis
C. Melioidosis
D. Soft chancre
E. Veneral lymphogranulomatosis
2. Gramnegative bin-shaped diplococcus inside and outside of leucocytes were detected on
bacteriological examination of the purulent exudates from the cervix of the uterus. Name the causative agent
of purulent inflammation of the cervix of the uterus.
A. Haemophilus vaginalis
B. Chlamidia trachomatis
C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
3. Bacteriological analysis of purulent discharges from urethra revealed presence of gram-negative
bacteria resembling of coffee beans, which were able to decompose glucose and maltose into acid. They were
found in the leukocytes. These bacteria are causative agents of the following disease:
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Syphilis
C. Melioidosis
D. Ulcul molle
E. Venereal lymphogranulomatosis
4. Bacteriological examination of purulent discharges from urethra revealed some bacteria that had
negative Gram’s stain, resembled of coffee corns, decomposed glucose and maltose up to acid. They were
located in leukocutes. What disease do they cause?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Pseudocholera
D. Soft chancre
E. Venereal lymphogranulomatosis
5. Microscopy of a female patient’s swabs made from vaginal secretion revealed gramnegative beanshaped diplococci. What provisional diagnosis can be made?
A. Gonorrhoea
B. Syphilis
C. Clamidiosis
D. Mycoplasmosis
E. Toxoplasmosis
6. Microscopic study of discharges from urethra of a patient suffering from acute urethritis revealed
bean-shaped microorganisms up to 1 micrometer in diameter arranged in pairs and placed inside the
leukocytes. What microorganisms are these?
72
A. Gonococci
B. Meningococci C. Tetracocci
D. Streptococci
E. Staphylococci
7. A newborn child has hyperemia, edema of mouth mucous membrane, small erosions with viscous
muco-purulent discharge. Examination of muco-pus smears reveals a great number of leukocytes containing
gram-negative diplococci. The same microorganisms can be found outside the leukocytes. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Gonococcal stomatitis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Prenatal syphilis
D. Staphylococcal stomatitis
E. Blennorrhea
8. An 18 year old woman consulted a gynecologist about the pain in the lower part of abdomen, fever
up to 37,5oC, considerable mucopurulent discharges from the genital tracts, painful urination. Vaginal and
speculum examination results: the urethra is infiltrated, cervix of the uterus is hyperemic, erosive. The uterus
is painful, ovaries are painful, thickened; fornixes are free. Bacterioscopy test revealed diplococcus. What
diagnosis is the most probable?
A. Recent acute ascending gonorrhea
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Candydomycosis D. Chronic gonorrhea E. Chlamydiosis
9. On the fifth day after a casual sexual contact a 25-year-old female patient consulted a doctor about
purulent discharges from the genital tracts and itch. Vaginal examination showed that vaginal part of uterine
cervix was hyperemic and edematic. There was an erosive area around the external orifice of uterus. There
were mucopurulent profuse discharges from the cervical canal, uterine body and appendages exhibited no
changes. Bacterioscopic examination revealed bean-shaped diplococci that became red after Gram’s staining.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute gonorrheal endocervicitis
B. Trichomonal colpitis
C. Candidal vulvovaginitis
D. Bacterial vaginism
E. Clamydial endocervicitis
10. A 28-year-old patient has been admitted to the gynecological department three days after a casual
coitus. She complains about pain in her lower abdomen and during urination, profuse purulent discharges from
the vagina, body temperature rise up to 37,8oC. The patient was diagnosed with acute bilateral adnexitis.
Supplemental examination revealed: the 4th degree of purity of the vaginal secretion, leukocytes within the
whole visual field, diplococcal bacteria located both intra- and extracellularly. What is the etiology of acute
adnexitis in this patient?
A. Gonorrheal
B. Colibacterial
C. Chlamydial
D. Trichomonadal
E. Staphylococcal
11. A patient consulted a venereologist about painful urination, reddening of the external opening of
urethra, profuse purulent discharges from the urethra. He considers himself to be ill for 3 days. He also
associates the disease with a casual sexual contact that took place for about a week ago. If provisional
diagnosis "acute gonorrheal urethritis" will be confirmed, then bacteriological study of urethral discharges
will reveal:
A. Gram-negative diplococci B. Gram-positive diplococci
C. Spirochaete
D. Proteus vulgaris E. Mycoplasma
12. A female woman has been clinically diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following studies
can be used to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of the pathological material
B. Disinfection of laboratory animals
C. Bacteriophage test
D. Hemagglutination reaction
E. Immobilization reaction
13. Clinical diagnosis of a female patient was gonorrhoea. What examination method can be applied
for confirmation of this diagnosis?
A. Microscopy of pathological material
B. Infection of laboratory animals C. Test with bacteriophage
D. Hemagglutination reaction
E. Immobilization reaction
14. A 30-year-old female patient has been delivered to the gynaecological department with complaints
of acute pain in the lower abdomen and body temperature 38,8oC. In history: sexual life out of wedlock and
two artificial abortions. Gynaecological examination reveals no changes of uterine. The appendages are
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enlarged and painful on both sides. Vaginal discharges are purulent and profuse. What study is required to
confirm a diagnosis?
A. Bacteriological and bacterioscopic analysis
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Curettage of uterine cavity
D. Colposcopy
E. Laparoscopy
15. On admission a 35-year-old female reports acute abdominal pain, fever up to 38,8oC, mucopurulent
discharges. The patient is nulliparous, has a history of 2 artificial abortions. The patient is unmarried, has
sexual contacts. Gynecological examination reveals no uterus changes. Appendages are enlarged, bilaterally
painful. There is profuse purulent vaginal discharge. What study is required to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Bacteriologic and bacteriascopic studies
B. Hysteroscopy
C. Curettage of uterine cavity
D. Vaginoscopy
E. Laparoscopy
16. A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for
toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis
and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
A. RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
B. RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
C. IFA - Immunofluorescence assay
D. Immunoblot analysis
E. (R)CFT- Reiter's complement fixation test
17. A doctor made the diagnosis of gonorrhoea. It was known from the anamnesis that a patient had
had gonorrhoea before and he had been treated completely. What type of infection can this new disease be
attributed to?
A. Superinfection
B. Reinfection
C. Secondary infection D. Relapse
E. Autoinfection
18. Gonorrhoea was revealed in the patient on bacterioscopy of the smear from urethra. Taking into
account that medecines for gonorrhoea are fluorquinolones, patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Fluorouracil
C. Cefazoline
D. Urosulfan
E. Furazolidone
19. A patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. As fluoroquinolones are the drugs of choice for
treatment of gonorrhea the patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Furazolidone
C. Fluorouracil
D. Sulfacarbamide (Urosulfanum)
E. Cefazolin
19. An ophthalmologist suspects blennorrhea (gonococcal conjunctivitis) in a child with signs of
suppurative keratocojunctivitis. What laboratory diagnostics should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Microscopy and bacteriological analysis.
B. Serum diagnostics and allergy test.
C. Biological analysis and phagodiagnostics.
D. Biological analysis and allergy test.
E. Microscopy and serum diagnostics.
20. The ophthalmologist noticed a purulent discharge from conjunctiva of a newborn. Microscopy of
the smear obtained from conjunctiva found there a large number of leukocytes, as well as gram-negative beanshaped diplococci located inside leukocytes. What is the causative agent of this disease?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Neisseria catarrhalis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Neisseria gonorrhoae
Meningococci
1. While studying blood and mucus samples from the nasopharynx, a bacteriologist took certain
measures to conserve the pathogens in the material. Bacterioscopic study revealed the presence of gramnegative cocci looking like coffee beans and arranged in pairs or tetrads. Name the pathogen that was isolated
by the bacteriologist:
A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Staphilococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Moraxella lacunata
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E. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus
2. Bacterioscopy of nasopharyngeal mucus taken from a 2,5 year old child with nasopharyngitis
revealed gram-negative diplococci looking like coffee grains. What organs of the child are most likely to be
affected if these microorganisms penetrate the blood?
A. Brain tunics
B. Cardiac valves
C. Renal glomeruli
D. Urogenital tracts
E. Lymph nodes
3. A young woman suddenly developed fever up to 39oC accompanied by a strong headache.
Examination revealed marked nuchal rigidity. Spinal puncture was performed. Gram-stained smear of
cerebrospinal fluid contained many neutrophils and Gram-negative diplococci. What bacteria could be the
cause of this disease?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Haemophilus influenza D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. A 5 y.o. child had a temperature rise up to 400C, acute headache, vomiting, anxiety, chill. 4 days
later there appeared hemorrhagic skin eruption, oliguria and adrenal insufficiency that caused death.
Bacteriological examination of smears from the child’s pharynx revealed meningococcus. What disease form
was revealed?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Meningicoccal nasopharyngitis E. –
5. A 5 year old child has the following symptoms: body temperature up to 40 oC, acute headache,
vomiting, anxiety, shiver. 4 days later there appeared hemorrhagic skin rash, oliguria and adrenal insufficiency
that caused death. Bacteriological examination of pharyngeal smears revealed meningococcus. What form of
meningococcal infection was it?
A. Meningococcemia
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis E. –
6. In winter a 3-year-old child has sharp rise of body temperature up to 40 oC. Hemorrhagic rash is
observed on the skin and mucosa. Bean-shaped gram-negative microorganisms situated in pairs are detected
in the blood. What provisional diagnosis can be made?
A. Meningococcosis B. Gonorrhea
C. Scarlet fever
D. Influenza
E. Diphtheria
7. A 4 month old child fell seriously ill: body temperature rose up to 38,5oC, the child became inert
and had a single vomiting. 10 hours later there appeared rash over the buttocks and lower limbs in form of
petechiae, spots and papules. Some haemorrhagic elements have necrosis in the center. What is the most
probable disease?
A. Meningococcemia B. Rubella
C. Influenza
D. Haemorrhagic vasculitis
E. Scarlet fever
8. The disease of a 21 y.o. patient began with raise of temperature up to 39,0 0C, headache, chill,
repeated vomiting. Rigidity of occipital muscles is determined. The analysis of liquor revealed: cytosis - 1237
in 1 ml, including: 84% of neutrophils, 16 % of lymphocytes. On bacterioscopy: gram-negative cocci are
found in liquor. What is the most probable disease?
A. Meningococcal infection: purulent meningitis
B. Meningococcal infection: serous meningitis
C. Secondary purulent meningitis
D. Serous meningitis
E. Infectious mononucleosis
9. A 1,5 y.o. child fell seriously ill: chill, body temperature rise up to 40,1 0 C, then rapid dropping to
36, 20 C, skin is covered with voluminous hemorrhagic rash and purple cyanotic spots. Extremities are cold,
face features are sharpened. Diagnosis: meningococcosis, fulminant form, infection-toxic shock. What
antibiotic must be used at the pre-admission stage?
A. Soluble Levomycetine succinate
B. Penicillin
C. Lincomycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Sulfamonometoxin
Escherichia
1. A child with suspected colienteritis was delivered to the infectious disease hospital. Colibacillus was
obtained from the child’s feces. How to determine whether this bacillus is of pathogenic variety?
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A. By means of bacteriophage typing
B. Agglutination reaction with serum O
C. Microscopy of stained smears
D. Based on the nature of its growth in Endo medium
E. Based on its biochemical properties
2. Red colonies spread in the large quantity in the Endo culture medium were revealed on
bacteriological stool examination of a 4-month-old baby with the symptoms of acute bowel infection. What
microorganism can it be?
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus E. Shigella
3. On bacteriological examination of the defecation of a 4-months-old baby with the symptoms of
acute bowel infection there were revealed red colonies spread in the large quantity in the Endo environment.
What microorganism can it be?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Shigella
D. Salmonella
E. Escherichia
4. From the defecation of a 6-year-old ill child, who has artificial feeding, the intestinal bacillus with
antigen structure 0-111 is excreted. What is the diagnosis?
A. Food poisoning B. Dysentery-like disease
C. Gastroenteritis D. Coli-enteritis
E. Cholera-like disease
5. Stool culture test of a 6-month-old bottlefed baby revealed a strain of intestinal rod-shaped bacteria
of antigen structure 0-111.What diagnosis can be made?
A. Colienteritis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Choleriform disease
D. Food poisoning
E. Dysentery-like disease
6. Among junior children of an orphanage an outbreak of intestinal infection with signs of coli-enteritis
was registered. In order to identify isolated causative agent it is necessary to:
A. Study antigenic properties of the causative agent
B. To determine sensitivity to antibiotics
C. To study sensitivity to bacteriophages
D. To study biochemical properties of the causative agent
E. To study virulence of the causative agent
7. 12 year old child has the ulcer disease of stomach. What is the etiology of this disease?
A. Intestinal bacillus
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella
D. Lambliosis
E. Influenza
8. A 12-year-old boy has been hospitalized for suspected food poisoning. The fecal samples were
inoculated on the Endo agar, which resulted in growth of a large number of colorless colonies. What
microorganism is most likely to be EXCLUDED from the list of possible causative agents of the disease?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella enteritidis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Yersinia enterocolitica
9. Feces of a child with an acute intestinal infection were inoculated onto Endo medium, which resulted
in the growth of numerous raspberry-red colonies with a metallic sheen. It indicates that the colibacillus is the
likely causative agent of the disease. What property of the causative agent was used to distinguish it from
other intestinal bacteria?
A. Antigenic structure
B. Capsule formation
C. Toxigenicity
D. Oxidase activity
E. Fermentation of lactose
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Salmonella
1. Bacteriological examination of a patient with food poisoning required inoculation of a pure culture
of bacteria with the following properties: gramnegative movable bacillus that grows in the Endo’s medium in
form of colourless colonies. A representative of which species caused this disease?
A. Salmonella B. Shigella C. Yersinia D. Esherichia E. Citrobacter
2. On bacteriological study of rinsing water of the patient with food poisoning, the pure bacterial
culture was inoculated with the following properties: gram-negative motile bacillus in the Endo environment
grows like achromic colony. Representative of what genus has caused the illness?
A. Yersinia B. Citrobacter C. Salmonella D. Shigella E. Escherichia
3. It was reported an outbreak of food poisoning connected with consumption of pastry that had been
stored at a room temperature and had duck eggs as one of the ingredients. What microorganisms might have
caused this disease?
A. Salmonella
B. Colon bacilli
C. Staphylococci
D. Legionella
E. Comma bacilli
4. A 33-year-old male patient developed a condition that had a stormy clinical course: chills, fever up
to 39oC, vomiting, epigastric pain, diarrhea with watery smelly feces. 6 hours before, he ate a raw egg, fried
potatoes with stewed meat, drank some juice. What pathogen is likely to have caused this condition?
A. Salmonella
B. Colibacillus
C. Campylobacter
D. Shigella
E. Vibrio cholerae
5. A 10 month old boy has been ill for 5 days after consumption of unboiled milk. Body temperature
is 38 − 39oC, there is vomiting, liquid stool. The child is pale and inert. His tongue is covered with white
deposition. Heart sounds are muffled. Abdomen is swollen, there is borborygmus in the region of ubbilicus,
liver is enlarged by 3 cm. Stool is liquid, dark-green, with admixtures of mucus, 5 times a day. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Staphylococcal enteric infection
C. Escherichiosis
D. Acute shigellosis E. Rotaviral infection
6. A nurse of the kindergarten was taken to the hospital with complaints of acute pain in parumbilical
region, convulsions of lower limbs, multiple bile vomiting, frequent watery foul feces of green color in huge
amounts. At the same time all the staff in the kindergarden got ill. Two days ago all of them ate cottage cheese
with sour cream. General condition of patients is of moderate severity. Temperature 38,2 oC. Heart tones:
rhythmic and muted. Heart rate 95/min, arterial pressure: 160 mm/Hg. Abdomen is slightly swollen, painful.
Liver +2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Dysentery
C. Cholera
D. Food toxic infection
E. Enterovirus infection
7. A 28 year old patient was admitted to the clinic with complaints of the temperature rise up to 39,0 oC,
headache, weakness, constipation on the 9th day of the disease. On examination: single roseolas on the skin
of the abdomen are present. The pulse rate is 78 bpm. The liver is enlarged by 2 cm. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Sepsis
E. Malaria
8. A 28 y.o. male patient was admitted to the hospital because of high temperature 390C, headache,
generalized fatigue, constipation, sleep disorder for 9 days. There are sporadic roseolas on the abdomen, pulse78 bpm, liver is enlarged for 2 cm. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Abdominal typhoid
B. Typhus
C. Sepsis
D. Brucellosis
E. Leptospirosis
9. A patient with complaints of 3-daylong fever, general weakness, loss of appetite came to visit the
infectionist. The doctor suspected enteric fever. Which method of laboratory diagnosis is the best to confirm
the diagnosis?
A. Detachment of blood culture
B. Detachment of myeloculture C. Detachment of feces culture
D. Detachment of urine culture E. Detachment of pure culture
10. A 50 year old locksmith was diagnosed with typhoid fever. The patient lives in a separate apartment
with all facilities. Apart of him there are also 2 adults in his family. What actions should be taken about persons
communicating with the patient?
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A. Bacteriological study
B. Antibiotic prophylaxis
C. Isolation
D. Dispensary observation E. Vaccination
11. During the repeated Widal’s agglutination test it was noticed that the ratio of antibody titers and
O-antigens S.typhi in the patient’s serum had increased from 1:100 to 1:400. How would you interpret these
results?
A. The patient has typhoid fever
B. The patient is an acute carrier of typhoid microbes
C. The patient is a chronic carrier of typhoid microbes
D. The patient previously had typhoid fever
E. The patient was previously vaccinated against typhoid fever
12. To conduct serum diagnostics of typhoid fever a test is carried out, when diagnosticums of three
types of microorganisms are being added into different solutions of patient’s serum; then agglutinate formation
is checked. Name the author of that test.
A. Widal
B.Wassermann
C. Ouchterlony
D. Wright
E. Sachs-Witebsky
13. A 50-year-old patient with typhoid fever was treated with Levomycetin, the next day his condition
became worse, temperature rised to 39,60С. What caused worthening?
A. Reinfection B. Irresponsiveness of an agent to the levomycetin
C. Allergic reaction D. The effect of endotoxin agent
E. Secondary infection addition
14. A patient was hospitalized into the infectious diseases unit on the 11th day since the disease onset
and provisionally diagnosed with typhoid fever. What biological material should be collected from the
patient for the analyzes at this stage?
A. Roseola secretion B. Blood serum
C. Bile
D. Feces
E. Urine
15. A patient was brought into the infectional diseases hospital on the 8th day since the disease onset.
The patient complains of headache, malaise, and weakness. A sample of blood was taken for the serological
test. Widal agglutination test results with blood sample diluted 1:200 and typhoid fever O-diagnosticum were
positive. What diagnosis can be made based on the results of this test?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
E. Cholera
16. A 43-year-old man seeks evaluation at an emergency department with complaints of fever with
chills, malaise, diffuse abdominal pain for over a week, diarrhea and loss of appetite. He says that his
symptoms ard progressively getting worse. He recalls that the fever began slowly znd climbed its way up
stepwise to the current 39.8°C. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. A physical exam reveals as coated
tongue, enlarged spleen and rose spots on the abdomen. Serologic study shows the agglutinin O titer of 1:200
by the Widal test. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for this patient’s condition?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Vibrio cholera
17. After a celebratory dinner, several people, who were eating a cake with duck eggs cream, developed
food poisoning. What genus of bacteria is the most likely cause of food poisoning in this case?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridium
C. Corynebacterium
D. Yersinia
E. Shigella
18. A man with suspected typhoid fever was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital on the 3 rd day
of illness. What microbiological method should be used for diagnostics in this case?
A. Method of isolation of bile culture
B. Method of isolation of the causative agent from CSF
C. Method of isolation of a blood culture
D. Method of isolation of a stool culture
E. Method of isolation of a urine culture
19. A man has a case of epidemic typhus 5 years ago. After an acute respiratory viral disease, against
the background of weakened immune system, he developed signs of typhus again. The exacerbation occurred
because of the causative agents, remaining in his body. What type of infections is it?
A. Reinfection
B. Co-infection
C. Superinfection
D. Secondary infection E. Relapse
20. Autopsy of the body revealed waxy degeneration of the rectus abdominis muscles. In the terminal
segment of the small intestine the are ulcers 3-5 cm in diameter. The ulcer walls are covered in a crumbling
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gray-1yellow substance. The ulcer edges are moderately raised above the mucosa. Widal test is positive. Make
the diagnosis:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Dysentery
E. Relapsing fever
Shigella
1. Autopsy of a 46-year-old man revealed multiple brown-and-green layers and hemmorhages on the
mucous membrane of rectum and sigmoid colon; slime and some blood in colon lumen; histologically fibrinous colitis. In course of bacteriological analysis of colon contents S.sonne were found. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Dysentery
B. Cholera
C. Salmonellosis
D. Yersiniosis
E. Crohn’s disease
2. A patient has been suffering from diarrhea for 5 day. On the fifth day colonoscopy revealed that
membrane of rectum was inflamed, there were greyish-green films closely adhering to the subjacent tissue.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Dysentery
B. Nonspecific ulcerous colitis
C. Typhoid fever D. Salmonellosis
E. Crohn’s disease
3. A 71-year-old man had been presenting with diarrhea for 10 days. The feces had admixtures of blood
and mucus. He was delivered to a hospital in grave condition and died 2 days later. Bacteriological analysis
revealed Shigella. What was the main disease?
A. Dysentery
B. Typhoid fever
C. Salmonellosis
D. Nonspecific ulcerous colitis
E. Yersiniosis
4. A 28 y.o. man fell seriously ill, he feels chill, has got a fever, body temperature raised up to 38,50C,
paroxysmal pain in the left iliac region, frequent defecation in form of fluid bloody and mucous mass.
Abdomen palpation reveals painfulness in its left half, sigmoid colon is spasmed. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Acute dysentery
B. Amebiasis
C. Colibacillosis
D. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Malignant tumors of large intestine
5. A 30-year-old patient complains of paroxysmal abdominal pain, frequent liquid stools up to 10 times
a day. Throughout the first 3 days he had a fever, since the 2nd day of disease there were scant liquid stools
mixed with mucus. On palpation: tenderness of all colon segments. Sigmoid colon was found spastic. What is
your provisional diagnosis?
A. Acute dysentery
B. Intestinal amebiasis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Cholera
E. Balantidiasis
6. A 6-year-old child complains of frequent liquid stool and vomiting. On the 2nd day of disease the
child presented with inertness, temperature rise up to 38,2oC, Ps- 150 bpm, scaphoid abdomen, palpatory
painful sigmoid colon, defecation 10 times a day with liquid, scarce stool with mucus and streaks of green.
What is a provisional diagnosis?
A. Shigellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Escherichiosis
D. Intestinal amebiasis
E. Yersiniosis
7. An 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: he presents with fever, weakness, headache, abdominal pain,
recurrent vomiting, then diarrhea and tenesmus. Stools occur 12 times daily, are scanty, contain a lot of mucus,
pus, streaks of blood. His sigmoid gut is tender and hardened. What is your diagnosis?
A. Dysentery
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis
E. Escherichiosis
8. A patient with suspected dysentery has been admitted to the infectious diseases hospital. Which
basic method of laboratory diagnosis must be applied in the first place?
A. Bacteriological B. Serological
C. Allergic
D. Biological
E. Microscopic
9. A patient was taken to the hospital with complaints of headache, high temperature, frequent stool,
stomach pain with tenesmus. Doctor made a clinical diagnosis dysentery and sent the material (excrements)
to the bacteriological laboratory for analysis. What diagnostic method should the laboratory doctor use to
confirm or to disprove the clinical diagnosis?
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A. Bacteriological B. Biological
C. Bacterioscopic
D. Serological
E. Allergic
10. The infectious diseases department of a hospital admitted a patient with nausea, liquid stool with
mucus and blood streaks, fever, weakness. Dysentery was suspected. What method of laboratory diagnostics
should be applied to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Bacteriological B. Serological
C. Mycological
D. Microscopic
E. Protozoological
11. A patient diagnosed with acute dysentery has been treated for 3 days in an infectious diseases
hospital. On admission there were complaints of high temperature, stomachache and fluid excrements with
mucus as often as 8-10 times a day. What sample should be taken for analysis?
A. Feces B. Urine C. Bile D. Liquor E. Blood
12. A patient recovered from Sonne dysentery and was once more infected with the same causative
agent. What is such infection form called?
A. Reinfection
B. Recidivation
C. Superinfection
D. Persisting infection
E. Chronic infection
13. From the fecal sample of a patient Shigella sonne were isolated. What additional studies are
required to identify the source of infection?
A. Phage-typing of the isolated pure culture
B. Antibiogram
C. Precipitation reaction
D. Complement-fixation reaction E. Neutralization reaction
14. For the purpose of retrospective diagnostics of recent bacterial dysentery it was decided to perform
serological examination of blood serum in order to determine antibody titer towards Shiga bacilli. What of the
following reactions should be applied?
A. Passive hemagglutination
B. Bordet-Gengou test
C. Precipitation
D. Hemolysis
E. Bacteriolysis
15. Retrospective diagnostics of bacterial dysentery involved serological analysis of blood serum
intended for determination of Shigella antibody titer. Which of the following reactions should be applied for
this purpose?
A. Passive haemagglutination
B. Complement binding
C. Precipitation
D. Haemolysis
E. Bacteriolysis
16. Retrospective diagnostics of old bacillary dysentery required serologic examination of blood serum
in order to determine blood titer to the shigella. What reaction should be applied for this purpose?
A. Reaction of passive hemagglutination
B. Bordet-Gengou test
C. Precipitation reaction
D. Hemolysis reaction
E. Bacteriolysis reaction
17. Antigens of Sonne shigella placed on the objects of outdoor environment and foodstuffs can be
revealed by means of a certain test with application of a diagnostic test system that includes a polystyrene tray
with adsorbed specific antibodies. What reaction is it?
A. Immune-enzyme assay
B. Immunofluorescence test
C. Passive inverse hemagglutination test
D. Direct hemagglutination test E. Immunoelectrophoresis test
18. A patient has been diagnosed with bacillary dysentery. What drug of those listed below should be
prescribed?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (Isoniazid)
D. Itraconazole
E. Acyclovir
19. Patient was admitted to the infection unit with diagnosis of bacterial dysentery. On laboratory
studies it was revealed that causative element is sensitive to the many antimicrobial medicines, but patient has
anemia. What medicine is contra-indicated to the patient?
A. Enteroseptol
B. Phthalazol
C. Levomycetin
D. Ampicillin
E. Furazolidone
20. A mother of 4-year-old child complains that the child developed elevated body temperature,
tenesmus, diarrhea, and abdominal pain attacks. The child attends a preschool facility. Laboratory analysis
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detected mucus and blood admixtures in the child’s feces. Name the changes that occur in the gastrointestinal
tract during dysentery:
A. Enterocolitis
B. Enteritis
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Gastritis
E. Colitis
21. A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of bloody diarrhea,
fatigue and confusion. A few days earlier, she went to a fast food restaurant for a birthday party. Her friends
are experiencing similar symptoms. Laboratory studies show anemia. Which of the following would you most
likely obtain for microbiologic testing?
A. Stool
B. Bile
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Urine
E. Blood
22. Shigella capable of producing exotoxin was obtained from a patient diagnosed with dysentery.
What Shigella species is it?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Shigella flexneri
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Shigella boydii
E. Shigella Newcastle
Cholera
1. Microscopy of a smear taken from the film that appeared on the peptone water 6 hours after seeding
and culturing of a fecal sample in a thermostat revealed mobile gram-negative bacteria curved in form of a
comma that didn’t make spores or capsules. What microorganisms were revealed?
A. Vibrios B. Spirochetes C. Clostridia D. Corynebacteria E. Spirilla
2. Vomiting matters of a patient suspected of having cholera were delivered to the bacteriological
laboratory. The material was used for preparing a "hanging drop" specimen. What type of microscopy will be
applied for identification of the causative agent by its mobility?
A. Phase-contrast microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. Immune and electron microscopy
D. Fluorescence microscopy
E. Immersion microscopy
3. Bacilli were extracted from investigated sample. The bacilli are curved, extremely mobile, gramnegative, form no spores or capsules, have anaerobic form of respiration. They form transparent smooth
colonies in alkaline agar, ferment saccharose and mannose into acid, produce exotoxin, fibrinolysin,
collagenase, and hyaluronidase. What agent was extracted?
A. Comma bacillus
B. Proteus
C. Dysentery bacillus
D. Blue pus bacillus
E. Colibacillus
4. Patient with diarrhoea was admitted to the infection unit. Gramnegative curved rod-like bacteria
were founded on bacterioscopic examination of faecal masses. What is the most likely disease in this patient?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Intestinal form of plague
C. Diphtheria
D. Cholera
E. Salmonellosis gastroenteritis
5. 6 hours after the initial inoculation of water sample into 1% peptone water, the growth of a culture
in form of a thin pellicle on the medium surface was registered. Such cultural properties are typical for the
causative agent of the following disease:
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
E. Pseudotuberculosis
6. Initial inoculation of water in 1% peptone water resulted in growth of a thin film on the medium
surface in 6 hours. Such cultural properties are characteristic of causative agent of the following disesase:
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
E. Pseudotuberculosis
7. After inoculation of feces sample into the 1% alkaline peptonic water and 8-hour incubation in the
thermostat at a temperature of 37oC a culture in form of a tender bluish film has grown. Such cultural properties
are typical for the causative agent of the following disease:
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Typhoid fever
D. Paratyphoid fever A
E. Dysentery
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8. A man is suffering from diarrhea. In summer he spent his vacation in the south at the sea coast.
Bacteria with the following properties were detected in his feces: gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous
bacilli that do not produce spores or capsules. They are undemanding to nutrient medium but require alkaline
reaction (рН 8,5-9,5). Described are the agents of the following enteric infection:
A. Cholera
B. Shigellosis
C. Typhoid fever
D. Colienteritis
E. Pseudotuberculosis
9. A patient had been suffering from profuse diarrhea and vomiting for 2 days. He died from acute
dehydration. Autopsy revealed that the intestinal wall was edematic and hyperemic, with multiple
haemorrhages in the mucous membrane. Intestine lumen contains whitish fluid resembling of rice water. What
disease caused death?
A. Cholera
B. Dysentery
C. Salmonellosis
D. Typhoid fever
E. Enterocolitis
10. A patient with marked manifestations of exsicosis died in the infectious disease hospital.
Postmortem examination results: the corpse with contracted muscles, dry skin and mucous membranes, thick
and dark blood in veins, edematous plethoric mucosa, distended bowel loops, the lumen contains about 4 liters
of rice-water fluid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cholera
B. Enteric fever
C. Dysentery
D. Anthrax, intestinal form
E. Yersiniosis
11. Autopsy of a 42-year-old man revealed a distinctly dilated lumen of small intestine filled with ricewater-like liquid. The intestine wall was edematic with lots of petechial haemorrhages on the mucosa. What
infectious disease is the described enteritis typical for?
A. Cholera
B. Dysentery
C. Salmonellosis
D. Amebiasis
E. Typhoid fever
12. The disease began acutely. The frequent watery stool developed 6 hours ago. The body’s
temperature is normal. Then the vomiting was joined. On examination: his voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply
sunken in the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There is no urine. What is the preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Cholera
B. Toxic food-borne infection
C. Salmonellosis
D. Dysentery
E. Typhoid fever
13. A man in grave condition was delivered to the admission ward of a hospital on the 2nd day of
illness. Examination revealed body temperature of 36,1oC, sharpened features of face, dry skin that makes a
fold, aphonia, convulsive twitching of some muscle groups. Acrocyanosis is present. Heart sounds are
muffled, Ps is 102 bpm, AP is 50/20mm Hg. Abdomen is soft, drawn-in, painless. Anuria is present. Stool is
liquid in form of rice water. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Cholera
B. Acute dysentery
C. Salmonellosis
D. Escherichiosis
E. Intestinal amebiasis
13. From the feces of a patient with acute gastroenteritis a pure culture of microorganisms was
obtained. The microorganisms are small mobile slightly curved gram-negative bacilli that within 6 hours grow
into a light blue film on the 1% alkaline peptone water. Such properties are characteristic of the following
microorganism:
A. Bacillus B. Clostridium
C. Spirochete D. Spirillum
E. Vibrio
14. Initial inoculation of water in 1% peptone water resulted in growth of a thin film on the medium
surface in 6 hours. Such cultural properties are characteristic of causative agent of the following disease:
A. Dysentery B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Plague
E. Cholera
Diphtheria
1. A child is presumably ill with diphtheria. A specimen of affected mucous membrane of his pharynx
was taken for analysis. The smear was stained and microscopic examination revealed yellow rods with dark
blue thickenings on their ends. What structural element of a germ cell was revealed in the detected
microorganisms?
A. Volutin granules B. Plasmids
C. Capsule
D. Spores
E. Flagella
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2. On examination of a 6-year-old child the doctor noticed greyish film on the child’s tonsils.
Microscopy of the smear stained by Neisser method detected there Corynebacterium diphtheria. What
morphologic feature was the most indicative for determining the type of the agent?
A. Fence-like position of the agent’s cells
B. Spores that exceed cells in diameter
C. Localization of the causative agent within macrophages
D. Polar placement of volutin granules
E. Presence of the capsule
3. A smear from the tonsillar coating of a patient with suspected diphtheria was found to contain blue
bacilli with a thickening at the poles. What method of smear staining was used?
A. Leffler B. Burri C. Hins
D. Gram E. Neisser
4. Microscopy of smear preparation stained with methylene blue revealed bacilli with clublike
expansions on their ends similar to C.diphtheriae. What additional method of staining should be used to verify
this assumption?
A. Neisser
B. Kozlovsky
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Zdrodovsky
E. Aujeszky
5. There are several cases of children from boarding school suffering from sore throat. Microscopy of
tonsil smears stained according to Neisser method has revealed thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on
their ends placed in the shape of Roman numeral five. What infection can be suspected in this case?
A. Diphtheria
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Listeriosis
D. Tonsillitis
E. Scarlet fever
6. A sample taken from the pharynx of a patient with angina was inoculated on the blood-tellurite agar.
This resulted in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies up to 4-5 mm in diameter.
Microscopically there can be seen gram-positive rods with club-shaped ends arranged in form of spread
fingers. What microorganisms are these?
A. Corynebacteria diphtheriae
B. Clostr. botulinum
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci
E. Streptobacilli
7. After inoculation of the material obtained from the pharynx of an angina patient onto the bloodtellurite agar, grey colonies could be observed. They were 4-5 mm in diameter, radially striated (in form of
rosettes). Microscopical examination revealed gram-positive bacilli with clavate swollen ends arranged in
form of wide-spread fingers. Identify these microorganisms:
A. Diphtheria corynebacteria
B. Clostr. botulinum
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci
E. Streptobacilli
8. Inoculum from pharynx of a patient ill with angina was inoculated into bloodtellurite agar. It resulted
in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies 4-5 mm in diameter. Grampositive bacilli
with clublike thickenings on their ends placed in form of spread wide apart fingers are visible by microscope.
What microorganisms are these?
A. Diphtheria corynebacteria
B. Botulism clostridia
C. Diphtheroids
D. Streptococci
E. Streptobacilli
9. A 4-year-old child presents with general weakness, sore throat and deglutitive problem. After his
examination a doctor suspected diphtheria and sent the material to the bacteriological laboratory. In order to
determine the diphtheria causative agent the material should be inoculated into the following differential
diagnostic medium:
A. Blood tellurite agar
B. Endo’s agar
C. Ploskyrev’s agar D. Sabouraud’s agar E. Levenshtein-Yessen agar
10. From the nasopharynx of a 5-year-old child it was excreted a microorganism which is identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae dose according to morphological and biochemical signs. Microorganism does
not produce exotoxin. As a result of what process can this microorganism become toxigenic?
A. Cultivation in the telluric media B. Chromosome mutation
C. Passing through the organism of the sensative animals
D. Phage conversion
E. Growing with antiserum
11. Autopsy of a dead 6-year-old child revealed a marked edema of the soft tissues of neck and enlarged
tonsils. Pharyngeal mucosa was covered with numerous dense whitish-yellow pellicles exposing deep ulcers
after their removal. What infectious disease caused the death of the child?
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A. Diphtheria
B. Parainfluenza
C. Scarlet fever
D. Whooping cough
E. 12. While examining a patient an otolaryngologist noticed hyperaemia and significantly edematous
tonsils with a grayish film upon them. Microscopical examination of this film revealed some gram-positive
bacilli placed at an angle with each other. What disease might be suspected?
A. Diphtheria
B. Angina
C. Scarlet fever
D. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
E. Epidemic parotitis
13. During examination of a 6-yearold child a doctor revealed greyish films on the pharyngeal tonsils.
Their removal provoked moderate haemorrhage. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-positive clublike bacteria.
What symptoms will develop in this child within the next few days if no specific treatment is provided?
A. Toxic lesions of myocard, liver and kidney
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Strong paroxysmal cough
D. Papulous skinrash
E. Intermittent fever
14. A 5 y.o. girl has high temperature and sore throat. Objectively: soft palate edema, tonsills are
covered with grey films that can be hardly removed and leave deep bleeding tissue injuries. What disease is
the most probable?
A. Pharyngeal diphtheria
B. Vincent’s angina
C. Lacunar angina
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Necrotic angina
15. A diseased child has a high fever, sore throat, swelling of submandibular lymph nodes. Objectively:
pharyngeal mucosa is edematous, moderately hyperemic, the tonsils are enlarged, covered with grayish
membrane tightly adhering to the tissues above. Attempts to remove the membrane produce the bleeding
defects. What disease are these presentations typical for?
A. Diphtheria
B. Catarrhal tonsillitis
C. Scarlet fever
D. Meningitis
E. Measles
16. A woman complains of high temperature to 380C, mild pain in the throat during 3 days. On
examination: angle lymphatic nodes of the jaw are 3 cm enlarged, palatinel tonsils are enlarged and coated
with grey plaque which spreads to the uvula and frontal palatinel arches. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Larynx diphtheria
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Vincent’s angina D. Agranulocytosis E. Oropharyngeal candidosis
17. A 4-year-old boy had untimely vaccination. He complains of painful swallowing, headache,
inertness, fever. Objectively: the child is pale, has enlarged anterior cervical lymph nodes, swollen tonsils with
cyanotic hyperemia, tonsils are covered with gray-white pellicles which cannot be easily removed. When the
pellicles are forcibly removed, the tonsils bleed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Oropharyngeal diphtheria B. Lacunar tonsillitis
C. Pseudomembranous tonsillitis
D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Follicular tonsillitis
18. A 24 year old patient complains about general weakness, dizziness, body temperature rise up to
o
37,5 C, sore throat, neck edema, enlargement of submaxillary lymph nodes. Objectively: mucous membrane
of oropharynx is edematic and cyanotic, tonsils are enlarged and covered with films that spread beyond the
tonsils and cannot be easily removed. What is the leading mechanism of this illness’ development?
A. Action of bacterial exotoxin
B. Action of bacterial endotoxin
C. Allergic
D. Accumulation of suboxidated products
E. Bacteriemia
19. From pharynx of a child with suspected diphtheria a pure culture of microorganisms was isolated.
Their morphological, tinctorial, cultural and biochemical properties appeared to be typical for diphtheria
causative agents. What study should be conducted in order to make a conclusion that this is a pathogenic
diphtheria bacillus?
A. Estimation of toxigenic properties
B. Estimation of proteolytic properties
C. Estimation of urease activity
D. Estimation of cystinase activity
E. Estimation of ability to decompose starch
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20. Pure culture of microorganisms was obtained from pharynx of a child with suspected diphtheria.
Morphologic, tinctorial, cultural, and biochemical properties of the microorganisms were studied and revealed
to be characteristic of diphtheria agents. What investigation should be additionally performed to make a
conclusion, that these microorganisms are pathogenic diphtheria bacilli?
A. Determine toxigenic properties B. Determine proteolytic properties
C. Determine urease activity
D. Determine cystinase activity
E. Determine amylolytic activity
21. In order to determine toxigenicity of diphtheria bacilli a strip of filter paper impregnated with
antitoxic diphtheria serum was put on the dense nutrient medium. There were also inoculated a microbial
culture under examination and a strain that is known to be toxigenic. If the microbial culture under examination
produces exotoxin, this will result in formation of:
A. Precipitin lines
B. Haemolysis zones
C. Zones of diffuse opacification
D. Zones of lecithovitellinous activity
E. Precipitin ring
22. In order to estimate toxogenicity of diphtheria agents obtained from patients the cultures were
inoculated on Petri dish with nutrient agar on either side of a filter paper strip that was put into the centre and
moistened with antidiphtheric antitoxic serum. After incubation of inoculations in agar the strip-like areas of
medium turbidity were found between separate cultures and the strip of filter paper. What immunological
reaction was conducted?
A. Precipitation gel reaction
B. Coomb’s test
C. Agglutination reaction
D. Rings precipitation reaction
E. Opsonization
23. When examining a child the dentist found the deposit on both tonsils and suspected atypical form
of diphtheria. A smear was taken, and after the nutrient media inoculation the toxicity of the isolated pure
culture was determined. What reaction was used to determine the toxigenicity of the isolated strain of
diphtheria bacillus?
A. Gel precipitation reaction
B. Agglutination reaction on a glass slide
C. Complement binding reaction
D. Hemolysis reaction
E. Ring precipitation reaction
24. A 7 year old girl was taken to an infectious diseases hospital. She had complaints of high
temperature, sore throat, general weakness. A doctor assumed diphtheria. What will be crucial proof of
diagnosis after defining pure culture of pathogenic organism?
A. Toxigenity test B. Detection of volutine granules
C. Hemolytic ability of pathogenic orhanism
D. Cystinase test
E. Phagolysability
25. A 7 y.o. girl was admitted to the infectious diseases hospital with fever, sore throat, common
weakness. A doctor suspected diphtheria. What would be crucial for diagnosis confirmation after pure culture
of causative agent had been singled out?
A. Toxigenity test B. Detection of volutine granules
C. Hemolytic ability of a causative agent
D. Cystinase test E. Phagolysability
26. A patient has pure culture of diphtheria corynebacteria. What immunological reaction should be
used in order to determine bacteria toxigenity?
A. Precipitation in agar
B. Agglutination
C. Complement binding
D. Inhibition of hemagglutination
E. Indirect hemagglutination
27. In order to establish the level of antidiphtheritic immunity in a child it was decided to use a passive
hemagglutination test. This task can be completed by the sensibilization of erythrocytes by:
A. Diphtheria anatoxin
B. Diphtheria antitoxin
C. Diphtheria bacillus antigens
D. Antidiphtheric serum
E. -
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28. A patient with suspected diphtheria went through bacterioscopic examination. Examination of
throat swab revealed rod-shaped bacteria with volutin granules. What etiotropic preparation should be chosen
in this case?
A. Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum
B. Bacteriophage
C. Diphtheria antitoxin D. Eubiotic
E. Interferon
29. Bacterioscopic examination of a smear from the pharynx of a diphtheria suspect revealed bacilli
with volutine granules. What etiotropic drug should be chosen in this case?
A. Antidiphtheritic antitoxic serum
B. Bacteriophage
C. Interferon
D. Eubiotic
E. Diphtheritic anatoxin
30. A child with diphtheria 10 days after injection of antitoxic antidiphtherial serum has developed
skin rash, accompanied by severe itch, rising temperature up to 380C and joints pain. What is the cause of
these symptoms?
A. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
B. Anaphylacsis
C. Contact allergy D. Atopia
E. Serum sickness
31. A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in
the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and
spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
A. Immunocomplex B. Hypersensitivity of immediate type
C. Cytoxic
D. Hypersensitivity of delayed type E. –
32. It is necessary to carry out preventive vaccination of a student group because of an occurrence of
diphtheria. Which preparation should be used for the creation of the artificial active immunity?
A. Diphtheria anatoxin
B. Specific immunoglobulin
C. DTP vaccine
D. Inactivated bacteria vaccine
E. Anti-diphtheria serum
33. Vaccination is done by means of a toxin that has been neutralized by a formaldehyde (0,4%) at a
temperature 37 – 400C for four weeks. Ramond was the first to apply this preparation for diphtheria
prophylaxis. What preparation is it?
A. Anatoxin
B. Immunoglobulin C. Antitoxic serum
D. Adjuvant
E. Inactivated vaccine
34. Diphtheria exotoxin had been treated with 0,3-0,4% formalin and kept in a thermostat for 30 days
at a temperature of 40oC.What preparation was obtained as a result of these manipulations?
A. Anatoxin
B. Antitoxin
C. Diagnosticum
D. Therapeutic serum
E. Diagnostic serum
35. In an inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria during the last 3 years with separate
outbursts in families. What measure can effectively influence the epidemic process of diphtheria and reduce
the morbidity rate to single cases?
A. Immunization of the population
B. Hospitalization of patients C. Detection of carriers
D. Early diagnostics
E. Disinfection in disease focus
36. An 11-year-old girl has been immunized according to her age and in compliance with the calendar
dates. What vaccinations should the children receive at this age?
A. Diphtheria and tetanus
B. TB
C. Polio
D. Hepatitis B
E. Pertussis
36. In a closed community it is necessary to determine community members immunity to diphtheria
and verify the need for their vaccination. What investigation is necessary in this case?
A. Check medical records for vaccination.
B. Test community members for diphtheria bacillus carriage.
C. Determine antitoxin titer by means of indirect hemagglutination assay.
D. Determine diphtheria antibody titer.
E. Determine community members immunity to diphtheria bacillus.
37. What drugs are used for specific treatment of diphtheria?
A. Placental gamma globulin.
B. Anatoxin.
C. Native plasma.
D. Antitoxic serum. E. Antibiotics.
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38. A toxin neutralized with 0.4% formaldehyde under 37-40°C for 4 weeks is used for vaccination.
This preparation was first used by Gaston Ramon for diphtheria prevention. Name this preparation:
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Anatoxin
C. Antitoxic serum
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Adjuvant
39. A 6-year-old girl with diphtheria is administrated an intravenous injection of diphtheria antitoxin.
Ten days after the initial administration of drug, she develops a pruritic rash, fever, and arthralgias. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
А. Serum sickness
B. Delayed type hypersensitivity
C. Atopy
D. Allergic contact dermatitis
E. Anaphylaxis
40. A child was hospitalized with diagnosis of diphtheria. What should be given to this child for
specific therapy?
A. Diphtheria antitoxin serum, antibiotics
B. Diphtheria bacteriophage
C. Diphtheria vaccines: DPT, DT, diphtheria vaccine
D. Codivac vaccine, sulfanilamides
E. Diphtheria anatoxin, antibiotics
41. To determine toxogenicity of diphtheria causative agents obtained from patients, the cultures were
inoculated in a Petri dish with nutrient agar, bilaterally to a strip of filter paper spotted with antidiphtheric
antitoxic serum and situated in the center of the Petri dish. After incubation of the inoculated cultures in the
agar, strip-like areas of medium turbidity formed between some of the cultures and the filter paper. What
immunological test was conducted?
A. Agar gel precipitation test
B. Opsonization test
C. Agglutination test
D. Coombs test
E. Ring precipitin test
42. A 5-year-old kindergartener has diphtheria. To find the carriers of the disease among the
kindergarten staff, samples of pharyngeal mucus were obtained from the employers. One of the employers
had gram-positive bacilli in her sample. They were situated at an angle to each other and colored unevenly,
when stained according to Loeffler. What method can confirm that this carrier is dangerous to other people?
A. Toxin production test
B. Mouse neutralization test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. Complement fixation test
E. Serum agglutination test
43. A smear prepared from material obtained from patient with suspected diphtheria contains yellow
bacilli with blue grains at their ends. What staining was used in this case?
A. Ziehl-Nielsen
B. Kozlovsky
C. Romanovsky
D. Neisser
E. Loefler
44. There are several cases of children from boarding school suffering from sore throat. Microscopy
of tonsil smears stained according Neisser method has revealed thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on
their ends placed in the shape of Roman numeral five. What infection can be suspected in this case?
A. Diphtheria
B. Scarlet fever
C. Listeriosis
D. Tonsilitis
E. Infectious mononucleosis
45. Bacteriology testing is one of the methods for laboratory diagnostics of diphtheria. To grow the
colonies of C. diphtheriae, it is necessary to know the proper conditions for causative agent cultivation. What
nutrient media are optimal for Corynebacterium diphtheriae cultivation?
A. Sugar meat pepton broth, sugar meat pepton agar
B. Salt egg yolk agar
C. Endomedium, Ploskirev medium
D. Serum agar, ascitic agar
E. Blood agar, tellurite blood agar
Tuberculosis
1. A bacteriological laboratory received sputum sample of a patient suffering from tuberculosis.
Bacterioscopic examination of smears and detection of tuberculosis bacillus can be realized by one of
enrichment methods that involves processing of sputum only with solution of caustic soda. What is this method
called?
A. Homogenization
B. Inactivation
C. Flotation
D. Filtration
E. Neutralization
2. Specimen of a patient’s sputum was stained with the following dyes and reagents: Ziehl’s solution,
methylene blue solution, 5% solutoin of sulfuric acid. What staining method was applied?
87
A. Ziehl-Neelsen B. Burri’s C. Gram’s D. Peshkov’s E. Neisser’s
3. A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum staining should
be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch’s) bacillus?
A. Method of Ziel-Neelsen
B. Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa
C. Method of Gram
D. Method of Neisser
E. Method of Burry-Gins
4. Study of bacteriological sputum specimens stained by the Ziel-Neelsen method revealed some
bright-red acid-resistant bacilli that were found in groups or singularly. When inoculated onto the nutrient
media, the signs of their growth show up on the 10-15 day. These bacteria relate to the following family:
A. Micobacterium tuberculosis B. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
C. Histoplasma dubrosii
D. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
E. Coxiella burnettii
5. Microscopy of stained (Ziehl-Neelsen staining) smears taken from the sputum of a patient with
chronic pulmonary disease revealed red bacilli. What property of tuberculous bacillus was shown up?
A. Acid resistance B. Alkali resistance
C. Alcohol resistance
D. Capsule formation
E. Sporification
6. A bacteriological laboratory has received smears from the sputum of a patient with a chronic
pulmonary disease. Microscopical examination of the smears stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen technique revealed
red bacilli. What property of the tuberculosis bacillus has shown itself?
A. Acid resistance B. Alkali resistance
C. Alcohol resistance
D. Capsule formation
E. Spore formation
7. Sputum smears of a patient with chronic pulmonary disease were stained by Ziehl-Neelsen method
and analyzed in the bacteriological laboratory. Microscopy revealed red bacillus. What property of
tuberculosis myobacteria was found?
A. Acid resistance B. Alkali resistance
C. Alcohol resistance
D. Encapsulation E. Spore-formation
8. While registering the child to the school Mantoux's test was made to define whether revaccination
was needed test result is negative. What does this result of the test mean?
A. Absence of antitoxic immunity to the tuberculosis
B. Presence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
C. Absence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
D. Presence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
E. Absence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
9. A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there
was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?
A. No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
B. Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis
C. No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
D. No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis
E. Presence of antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria
10. A 45 year old male died from disseminated tuberculosis. On autopsy the symptoms of tuberculosis
were confirmed by both microscopical and histological analyses. What kind of hypersensitivity reaction
underlies the process of granuloma development?
A. Delayed
B. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
C. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity
D. Anaphylactic
E. Immune complex
11. 48 hours after performing tuberculin test (Mantoux test) to a child a 10 mm papule appeared on the
spot of tuberculin introduction. What hypersensitivity mechanism underlies these changes?
A. Cellular cytotoxicity
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity
D. Immune complex cytotoxicity E. Granulomatosis
12. Tuberculine was injected intracutaneously to the child for tuberculin test. Marked hyperemia, tissue
infiltration developed on the place of injection in 24 hours. What mechanism caused these modifications?
A. Cells cytotoxity
B. Reagin type cytotoxity
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C. Granuloma formation
D. Immunocomplex cytotoxity E. Antibody cytotoxity
13. A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening
and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity
reaction is this test based upon?
A. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity
C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D. Immediate hypersensitivity
E. –
14. A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8
mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after
the tuberculin injection?
A. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
B. Arthus phenomenon
C. Seroreaction
D. Type II hypersensitivity reaction E. Atopic reaction
15. A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to
8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has
developed after tuberculin injection?
A. Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV
B. Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type
C. Reaction of serum sickness type
D. Atopic reaction
E. Hyperresponsiveness reaction type II
16. A child suspected for tuberculosis underwent Mantoux test. 24 hours after allergen injection there
appeared a swelling, hyperaemia and tenderness. What are the main components in the development of this
reaction?
A. Mononuclears, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
B. Granulocytes, T-lymphocytes and IgG
C. Plasmatic cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
D. B-lymphocytes, IgM E. Macrophages, B-lymphocytes and monocytes
17. A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What drug should be prescribed
in the first place?
A. Isoniazid
B. Sulfalen
C. Cyclocerine
D. Ethionamiden
E. Ethoxide
18. A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis of visual nerve arose.
What drug has caused this by-effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Kanamycin
D. Rifampicin
E. Streptomycin
19. After 4 months of treatment for tuberculosis the patient began complaining of toes and fingers
numbness, sensation of creeps. He was diagnosed with polyneuritis. What antituberculous drug might have
caused these complications?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Sodium salt of benzylpenicillin
E. Iodine solution
20. A patient suffering form tuberculosis was treated with rifampicin, which caused drug resistance of
tuberculosis mycobacteria. In order to reduce mycobacteria resistance, rifampicin should be combined with
the following drug:
A. Isoniazid B. Acyclovir C. Intraconazole D. Metronidazole E. Amoxicillin
21. Tuberculosis can be treated by means of combined chemotherapy that includes substances with
different mechanisms of action. What antituberculous medication inhibits transcription of RNA into DNA in
mycobacteria?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethionamide
E. Para-aminosalicylic acid
22. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculosis antibiotic.
Name this drug:
A. Tetracycline
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B. Furasolidone
C. Rifampicin
D. Bactrim (Co-trimoxazole)
E. Streptocide
23. The 32-year-old patient has been taking antituberculosis drugs. Later he noticed that his urine had
become redorange in color. What drug is conductive to this phenomenon?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin sulphate
24. After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine.
What drug could cause such changes?
A. Rifampicin
B. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C. Benzylpenicillin potassium salt
D. Biseptol-480
E. Cefazolin
25. Following treatment with a highly efficient anti-tuberculosis drug a 48-yearold female developed
optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, cramps. Which of these anti-TB drugs had the patient taken?
A. Isoniazid
B. PASA
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol
E. Kanamycin sulfate
26. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is suffering from hearing deterioration. What drug causes
this complication?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (Isoniazid)
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethionamide
E. Kanamycin sulphate
27. A 16 y.o. boy from a countryside entered an educational establishment. Scheduled Manteux test
revealed that the boy had negative reaction. What are the most reasonable actions in this case?
A. To perform BCG vaccination
B. To repeat the reaction in a month
C. To perform serodiagnostics of tuberculosis
D. To isolate the boy temporarily from his mates
E. To perform rapid Price diagnostics
28. Medical examination of the first-year pupils included Mantoux test. 15 pupils out of 35 had
negative reaction. What actions should be taken against children with negative reaction?
A. BCG vaccination
B. Antitoxin vaccination
C. Rabies vaccination
D. Repeat Mantoux test
E. Examination of blood serum
29. Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an
important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
A. BCG
B. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
C. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine
D. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine
E. –
30. For tuberculosis prevention the newborns got an injection of a vaccine. What vaccine was used?
A. BCG
B. Mantoux
C. DTaP vaccine
D. Anatoxin
E. Oral polio vaccine (Sabin vaccine)
31. In a maternity hospital a newborn should receive vaccination against tuberculosis. What vaccine
should be chosen?
A. BCG vaccine
B. STI vaccine
C. EV vaccine
D. DPT vaccine
E. Tuberculin
32. There is a suspicion of active tuberculosis development in patient. The doctor has appointed
Mantoux test to make a diagnosis. What immunobiological agent has to be administered?
A. Tuberculine
B. BCG vaccine
C. DPT vaccine
D. Tularin test
E. DT vaccine
33. A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux
test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?
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A. Tuberculin B. BCG vaccine C. DTP vaccine D. Tularinum E. Td vaccine
34. The first grade pupils were examined in order to sort out children for tuberculosis revaccination.
What test was applied for this purpose?
A. Mantoux test
B. Schick test
C. Anthraxine test
D. Burnet test
E. Supracutaneous tularin test
35. During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed
sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
A. Gram
B. Giemsa
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Burry
E. Gins
36. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic.
Name this drug:
A. Furasolidone
B. Bactrim (Co-trimoxazole)
C. Streptocide
D. Rifampicin
E. Tetracycline
To treat tuberculosis, an antibiotic that colors urine red is prescribed. Name the antibiotic:
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Rifampicin.
C. Nitroxoline.
D. Erythromycin.
E. Cefotaxime.
37. First-year schoolchildren have received tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) at the school nurse’s
office. The purpose of this test was:
A. To detect parotitis in schoolchildren
B. To measure allergization rate toward rickettsia
C. To measure immune stress toward diphtheria
D. To determine the children that need to receive BCG vaccination
E. To preventively vaccinate against tuberculosis
38. A 36-year-old man provisionally diagnosed with renal tuberculosis has undergone urinary sediment
analysis. Microscopy revealed acid-fast bacteria, but Pryce method detected no cord factor. Name the most
reliable method of investigation that can confirm or refute this provisional diagnosis:
A. Inoculation of laboratory animals
B. Phage typing of the obtained culture
C. Allergy skin test
D. Toxigenicity testing
E. Serological identification of the causative agent
39. A 6-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother, who complains of low-grade fever,
chronic cough and night sweats in her child. She describes the cough as productive, producing white sputum
that is sometimes streaked with blood. She also says that her son has lost some weight in the last month. His
vital signs include blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, heart rate of 110/min., respiratory rate of 18/min. and
temperature of 36,6°C. On physical examination, the patient is ill looking. Pulmonary auscultation reveals
some fine crackles in the right upper lobe. The pediatrician suspects an active infection and performs Mantoux
test. Intradermal injection of which of the following substances has been most likely used by pediatrician for
screening test in this clinical case?
A. Tuberculin
B. –
C. Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td)
D. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine
E. Diphtheria-tetanus toxoids-acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP)
40. After a prolonged isoniazid treatment, the patient developed polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory
disorders, and convulsions. What is the most likely mechanism of the described isoniazid side-effects?
A. Disruption of cell membrane synthesis
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Inhibition of RNA-synthesis
D. Inhibition of pyridoxal phosphate synthesis
E. Para-aminobenzoic acid antagonism
41. A centrifugate of urine sample obtained from patient with suspected renal tuberculosis was used to
make a slide mount for microscopy. What method should be used to stain the slide and detect the causative
agent?
A. Zielh-Neelsen stain
B. Loeffler stain
C. Gram stain
D. Aujeszky stain
E. Burri stain
42. A 16-year-old boy from the rural area entered the technical school. During a regular Mantoux test,
it turned out that this boy had a negative reaction. What tactics should the doctor choose as the most rational
in this case?
A. Repeat the test in a month
B. Serodiagnosis of tuberculosis
C. Urgent isolation of the boy from his groupmates
D. BCG vaccination
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E. Express diagnostics of tuberculosis using the Price method
43. A man is being treated for chronic pneumonia for a long time. Microscopy of sputum smears
stained using Ziehl-Nielsen method reveals red bacilli 0.25x4 microns in size, located separately or sometimes
in small clusters. What disease can be suspected?
A. Pneumococcal pneumonia
B. Pulmonary actinomycosis
C. Pulmonary candidiasis
D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
E. Influenza pneumonia
Lepra
1. Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from affected area of mucous membrane of oral cavity
revealed bacillus in form of accumulations that looked like a pack of cigarettes. Ziehl-Neelsen staining gives
them red colour. What kind of pathogenic organism was most likely revealed in tissue sampling?
A. M.leprae
B. M.tuberculosis
C. A.bovis
D. A.israilii
E. M.avium
2. Granulomas containing lymphocytes and macrophages were detected during analysis of skin biopsy
material. Among macrophages there are large cells with fat inclusions, which contain microorganisms in
spheric packages (Virchow’s cells). The following disease is based on the described type of hypersensitivity:
A. Leprosy
B. Syphilis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rhinoscleroma E. Epidemic typhus
Plague
1. During the examination of a patient, who had been to the mountain pasture and had been hospitalized
in a bad condition with fever, the doctor found out the enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes to 8 cm, which
were attached to the surrounding tissues, immovable, the skin above them was red and tender. The microscopic
examination of the node revealed acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. What disease is it typical for?
A. Brucellosis
B. Syphilis
C. Anthrax
D. Tularemia
E. Plague
2. A patient presents with fever, chill and cough. From his sputum the ovoid Gram-negative bipolarstained bacilli with a delicate capsule were secured. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Plague
B. Tuberculosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Brucellosis
E. Toxoplasmosis
3. The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On
examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful
lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the
lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Bubonic plague
B. Acute purulent lymphadenitis
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
D. Anthrax
E. Tularemia
4. A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On
examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful
lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and
glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Bubonic plague
B. Acute purulent lymphadenitis
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
D. Anthrax
E. Tularemia
5. A 45-year-old patient, a sailor, was hospitalized on the 2nd day of the disease. A week ago he
returned from India. Complains of body temperature of 41oC, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with frothy
rusty sputum. Objectively: the patient is pale, mucous membranes are cyanotic, breathing rate - 24/min,
tachycardia is present. In lungs: diminished breath sounds, moist rales over both lungs, crepitation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pneumonic plaque
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Influenza
D. Ornithosis E. Sepsis
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6. The laboratory for especially dangerous infections conducts microscopic examination of
pathological material from a patient with suspected plague. The sample was stained by Burri-Gins technique.
What property of the causative agent can be identified by this technique?
A. Capsule formation
B. Spore formation
C. Acid resistance
D. Alkali resistance
E. Presence of volutin granules
7. A puncture sample has been taken from the inguinal lymph nodes of a patient provisionally
diagnosed with plague. The sample was inoculated into a hard nutrient medium. What shape will the colonies
have, if the diagnosis is confirmed?
A. “Dewdrops”
B. “Shagreen leather”
C. “Lace handkerchief”
D. “Mercury drops”
E. “Lion’s mane”
8. Dwellers of a village noticed mass mortality of rats in some farms. It was suspected that the animals
might have died from plague. What postmortal analyses should be conduced in order to establish the causative
agent of the infection as soon as possible?
A. Ring precipitation reaction
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Passive agglutination reaction
D. Neutralization reaction
E. Complement-binding reaction
9. On the territory of a certain region the mass death of rodents was observed. It was assumed that it
may be caused by plague agent. What serological reaction should be applied for quick determination of antigen
of this epizootic agent?
A. Precipitation reaction
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Reaction of passive hemagglutination
D. Bordet-Gengou test
E. Neutralization reaction
10. On a certain territory mass death of rodents was registered. It was suspected that their death might
have been caused by plague. What serological reaction should be applied for quick identification of antigen
of the causative agent of this epizooty?
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Passive hemagglutination
D. Complement binding
E. Neutralization
2018
2 days after a hunter cut a ground squirrel’s body, he developed fever up to 390C, his lymph nodes enlarged.
Later he developed pneumonia with serohemorrhagic exudate that contained egg-shaped microorganisms
with bipolar staining. What provisional diagnosis can be made in this case?
A. Brucellosis.
B. Anthrax.
C. Tetanus.
D. Plague.
E. Pseudotuberculosis.
Tularemia
1. On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and
prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
A. Allergy diagnostics
B. Prognosis for the disease
C. Treatment
D. Treatment evaluation
E. Prevention
Antrax
1. A smear of streptobacillus preparation stained by Ozheshko method has been studied
microscopically with oil immersion. What structural feature of the bacteria has been studied?
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A. Spores
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
D. Inclusions
E. Structure of cell wall
2. The territory of an old burial ground for animal refuse that hasn’t been used for over 50 years is
meant for house building. But soil investigation showed the presence of viable spores of a causative agent
causing a very dangerous disease. What microorganism might have been preserved in soil for such a long
period of time?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Brucella abortus
D. Yersinia pestis
E. Mycobacterium bovis
3. It is planned to use the territory of an old cattle burial ground (which is not used for more than 50
years) for building houses. But ground analysis revealed presence of the pathogen of the very dangerous
illness. Which of the indicated microorgonisms is likely to remain in the ground for such a long time?
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Brucella abortus
C. Yersinia pestis D. Francisella tularensis E. Bacillus anthracis
4. A patient complained about a carbuncle on his face. Examination results: neither dense nor painful
edema of subcutaneous cellular tissue, there is black crust in the middle of the carbuncle and peripheral
vesicular rash around it. Bacteriological examination revealed presence of immobile streptobacilli able of
capsulation. What microorganisms are causative agents of this disease?
A. Bacillus antracis
B. Staptylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus anthracoides
D. Bacillus megaterium
E. Bacillus subtilis
5. A 34 year old male patient consulted a doctor about face carbuncle. Objectively: a loose, painless
edema of hypodermic tissue; black crust in the center of carbuncle, vesicular rash around it. Microbiological
examination revealed static streptobacilli capable of capsule building. What microorganisms are the causative
agents of this disease?
A. Bacillus antracis
B. Staptylococcus aureus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus anthracoides
E. Bacillus megaterium
6. A worker of a cattle farm consulted a surgeon about fever up to 40 oC, headache, weakness. Objective
examination of his back revealed hyperaemia and a dark red infiltration up to 5 cm in diameter with black
bottom in the center and some pustules. What disease are these presentations typical for?
A. Anthrax
B. Plaque
C. Tularemia
D. Furuncle
E. Abscess
7. A 43 y.o. patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints of high temperature of the body and
severe headache. On examination: carbuncle is revealed on the forearm. There are intense edema around it,
insignificant pain, regional lymphadenitis. The patient is a worker of cattle-ranch. What disease is it necessary
to think about first?
A. Anthrax
B. Carcinoma of skin
C. Erysipelas
D. Erysipeloid
E. Eczema
8. A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there
is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand
and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph
node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Bubonic plague
C. Carbuncle
D. Lymphocutaneous tularemia
E. Erysipelas
9. Quite often, the soil may contain a number of pathogenic microorganisms. The causative agents of
the following disease may exist in the soil for a long time:
A. Anthrax
B. Diphtheria
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Pertussis
E. Dysentery
10. At a bacteriological laboratory animal skins are analyzed by means of Ascoli precipitaion test.
What is detected if the reaction is positive?
A. Anthrax agent antigens
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B. Brucellosis agent
C. Anaerobic infection toxin
D. Plague agent
E. Yersinia surface antigen
11. There was a record of some anthrax cases among animals in a countryside. The spread of disease
can be prevented by means of immunization. What kind of vaccine should be used?
A. STI live vaccine
B. BCG vaccine
C. Salk vaccine
D. Sabin’s vaccine
E. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine
12. In a village, a case of anthrax had been registered. Medical services began epidemiologically
indicated specific prophylaxis of population against anthrax. What preparation was used for this purpose?
A. Live vaccine
B. Inactivated vaccine
C. Chemical vaccine
D. Genetically engineered vaccine
E. Anatoxin
13.What diagnostic method should be used in industry to test the raw leather for presence of
B. antracis?
A. Microscopy with Burry-Gins stain
B. Microscopy with Aujeszky stain
C. Ascoli's thermo precipitation test
D. Bacteriological analysis
E. Serological test
14. A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions
on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small,
painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into
erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram’s staining of the ulcer reveals
gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these
findings?
A. Anthrax
B. Chickenpox
C. Syphilis
D. Tularemia
E. Plague
15. The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be
contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection
of these spores?
A. Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum
B. Standard anthrax antigen
C. Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin
D. Enzyme-tagged immunoglobulin
E. Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent
16. A bioterrorist has mailed an envelope with a powder that is suspected to contain anthrax causative
agent. This envelope can remain dangerous for a long time, because anthrax causative agent:
A. Forms a protein capsule
B. Forms a polysaccharide capsule
C. Is a spore-former
D. Forms flagella
E. Belongs to actinomycetes
Brucella
1. An infectious diseases hospital admitted a veterinarian with assumed brucellosis. What serologic
test can confirm this diagnosis?
A. Wright’s agglutination reaction B. Widal’s agglutination reaction
C. Ascoli’s precipitation reaction
D. Weigl’s agglutination reaction
E. Wassermann reaction of complement binding
2. A veterenary attendant working at a cattle farm complains of joint pain, fever, indisposition and
sweating at nighttime that he has been experiencing for a month. Giving the regard to such presentations and
occupational history the doctor suspected brucellosis. What material taken from this patient is to be analyzed
in a common microbiological laboratory?
A. Blood serum
B. Spinal fluid
C. Vomit mass
D. Urine
E. Feces
3. A 40-year-old female farmworker has been diagnosed with brucellosis and administered causal
chemotherapy. What group of drugs will be used for this purpose?
A. Antibiotic
B. Donor immunoglobulin
C. Inactivated therapeutic vaccine
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D. Antitoxic serum
E. Polyvalent bacteriophage
4. For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What
type of breathing is typical for Brucella?
A. Capnophilic
B. Facultative anaerobic
C. Obligate anaerobic
D. Obligate aerobic
E. Any
Anaerobes
1. Microscopic examination of a microbial culture revealed fusiform spore-forming microorganisms
that get violet-blue Gram’s stain. What microorganisms were revealed?
A. Clostridia
B. Streptococci
C. Spirochaete
D. Actinomycete E. Diplococci
2. Those organisms which in the process of evolution failed to develop protection from H 2O2 can exist
only in anaerobic conditions. Which of the following enzymes can break hydrogen peroxide down?
A. Peroxidase and catalase B. Oxygenase and hydroxylase
C. Cytochrome oxidase, cytochrome B5
D. Oxygenase and catalase E. Flavin-dependent oxidase
3. Pathological material taken from a patient suffering from pulpitis was inoculated onto Kitt-Tarozzi
cultural medium. It is planned to find the following microorganisms:
A. Anaerobic
B. Acid-resistant
C. Acidophilic
D. Haemolytic
E. Aerobic
4. A patient was taken to a hospital with acute food poisoning caused by homemade canned
mushrooms. The product analysis revealed some microorganisms that develop only in the absence of oxygen.
What microorganisms caused the poisoning?
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Microaerophiles D. Obligate aerobes E. Capnophiles
5. A lot of pyoinflammatory processes in oral cavity are caused by anaerobes. What nutrient medium
can be used for control of wound textile contamination by anaerobes?
A. Kitt-Tarozzi
B. Endo C. Roux
D. Sabouraud’s
E. Ploskirev’s
E. 6. A patient has a necrotizing phlegmon of his lower extremity. A doctor suspects a gas gangrene.
Microscopy reveals grampositive bacilli. In order to confirm the diagnosis further bacteriological tests should
include inoculation of the material into the following nutrient medium:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
B. Endo agar
C. Meat-peptone agar D. Levine agar
E. Milk-salt agar
7. In 8 days after a surgery the patient develops tetatus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be
caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological
laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
A. Sabouraud agar
B. Endo agar
C. Hiss medium
D. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
E. Egg-yolk salt agar
8. A patient consulted a dentist about limited (restricted) mouth opening (trismus). He has a history of
a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection may cause these symptoms?
A. Tetanus
B. Brucellosis
C. Whooping cough
D. Wound anaerobic infection
E. Tularemia
9. A patient with convulsive contractions of facial muscles was admitted to the infectious disease ward.
From a scratch on his lower right extremity analysts isolated bacteria with terminal endospores that gave them
drumstick appearance. What bacteria are compliant with given description?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. Bacillus cereus
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10. A 47-year-old male patient consulted a dentist about difficult mouth opening (lockjaw or trismus).
The patient has a history of a stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection can be manifested by these
symptoms?
A. Tetanus
B. Brucellosis
C. Whooping cough
D. Anaerobic wound infection
E. Tularemia
11. On the 15-th day after a minor trauma of the right foot a patient felt malaise, fatigability, irritability,
headache, high body temperature, feeling of compression, tension and muscular twitching of his right crus.
What disease can it be?
A. Tetanus
B. Anaerobic gas gangrene
C. Erysipelas
D. Acute thrombophlebitis
E. Thromboembolism of popliteal artery
12. A 65 y.o. woman complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago.
Next day she ate with difficulties, there were muscles tension of back, the back of the head and abdomen. On
the third day there was tension of all muscle groups, generalized convulsions every 10-15 min. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Tetanus
B. Tetania
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Hemorrhagic stroke
E. Epilepsy
13. A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache,
painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago
when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?
A. Tetanus
B. Anthrax
C. Erysipelas
D. Gram-positive E. Gram-negative
14. A 45-year-old patient complains of fever up to 40oC, general weakness, headache and spasmodic
contraction of muscles in the region of a shin wound. The patient got injured five days ago when tilling soil
and didn’t seek medical attention. What kind of wound infection can be suspected?
A. Tetanus
B. Anthrax
C. Erysipelas
D. Gram-positive E. Gram-negative
15. A 38-year-old male complains of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles, so that he cannot open
his mouth. 12 days before, he was bitten by an unknown dog. Objectively: there is pronounced tension and
twitching of the masticatory muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Hysteria
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
E. Apyretic tetanus
16. Soil microflora often includes the representatives of pathogenic microorganisms. Specify the
diseases, whose causative agents may say viable in the soil for a long time:
A. Tetanus and gas anaerobic infection
B. Tuberculosis and mycobacterioses
C. Colibacillosis and cholera
D. Leptospirosis and plague
E. Typhoid fever and dysentery
17. What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma
provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?
A. Antitetanus immunoglobulin and anatoxin
B. Anticonvulsive drugs and anatoxin
C. Antitetanus serum and antibiotics
D. Diphtheria, tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine and antibiotics
E. Tetanus anatoxin and antibiotics
18. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin.
What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
A. IgG B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD
19. On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of
his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380С , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests
revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Cytotoxic C. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
D. Stimulating
E. Immunocomplex
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20. A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in
the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and
spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
A. Immunocomplex B. Hypersensitivity of immediate type
C. Cytoxic
D. Hypersensitivity of delayed type
E. –
21. A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection
of tetanus toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by
Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?
A. Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells
B. Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells
C. Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen
D. Stimulation of the synthesis of antigenspecific IgG
E. Binding of IgE receptors to the mast cells
22. A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus
serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization
method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?
A. Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells
B. Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators
C. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
D. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 synthesis
E. Binding of IgE receptors on mast cells.
23. A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a glass shard, when playing, and was delivered to outpatient
department to receive anti-tetanus serum. To prevent development of anaphylactic shock the serum was
introduced by Bezredka method. This method of organism hyposensitization is based on the following
mechanism:
A. Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2
B. Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance
C. Stabilization of mast cell membranes
D. Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis
E. Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE
24. Typical manifestations of food poisoning caused by C. botulinum are double vision, abnormal
functioning of the swallowing and breathing. These symptoms develop as a result of:
A. Exotoxin effects
B. Enterotoxin effects
C. Enterotoxic shock development D. Activation of adenylate cyclase
E. Pathogen adhesion to the enterocyte receptors
25. Typical signs of food poisoning caused by C. botulinum include diplopia, swallowing and
respiration disorders. These signs develop due to:
A. Enterotoxic shock development
B. Enterotoxin action
C. Adenylate cyclase activation
D. Adhesion of the agent to enterocyte receptors
E. Exotoxin action
26. After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder,
hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of pathogenicity are the clinic
presentations of this disease connected with?
A. Exotoxin
B.Hemolysin
C.Endotoxin
D.Plasmocoagulase E.Fibrinolysin
27. When examining a patient with a suspicion of food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected
symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he had eaten the day before. What is the
most probable cause of infection?
A. Homemade canned meat
B. Custard pastry from private bakery
C. Sour cream from local dairy factory
D. Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden
E. Fried eggs
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28. When examining a patient presumptively diagnosed with food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty
has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he ate the day before. What
is the most probable cause of infection?
A. Homemade canned meat
B. Custard pastry from a private bakery
C. Sour cream from a local dairy factory
D. Strawberries from a suburban vegetable garden
E. Fried eggs
29. An outbreak of food poisoning was recorded in an urban settlement. The illness was diagnosed as
botulism on the grounds of clinical presentations. What foodstuffs should be chosen for analysis in the first
place in order to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Tinned food
B. Potatoes
C. Pasteurized milk
D. Boiled meat
E. Cabbage
30. A bacteriological laboratory studied the home-made dried fish which had caused a severe food
poisoning. Microscopy of the culture grown on the Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms resembling
a tennis racket. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
E. Typhoid fever
31. A bacteriological laboratory has been investigating a sample of homemade dried fish that was the
cause of severe food poisoning. Microscopy of the culture inoculated in Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed
microorganisms resembling a tennis racket. What diagnosis can be made?
A. Botulism
B. Salmonellosis
C. Cholera
D. Dysentery
E. Typhoid fever
32. On microscopic examination of leftovers of the canned meat eaten by patient with severe food
toxicoinfection the following was detected: gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and
configuration alteration of bacilli generally resembling a tennis racket. What agent was detected?
A. C. botulinum
B. P. vulgaris
C. E. coli
D. S. aureus
E. S. enteritidis
33. Botulism agent causes severe food toxicoinfection. Point out the most characteristic morphologic
feature of botulism agent.
A. Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with subterminal spore
B. Thick gram-positive non-sporeforming bacilli
C. Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with terminal spore
D. Thin mobile spore-forming bacilli with central spore
E. Thick gram-positive non-sporeforming bacilli
34. The causative agent of botulism causes severe food poisoning. Specify the most characteristic
morphological feature of botulism causative agent:
A. Gram-positive bacillus with subterminal spore
B. Thick gram-positive non-spore-forming bacillus
C. Gram-positive bacillus with terminal spore
D. Thin mobile bacillus with central spore
E. Thick gram-positive bacillus without spores and flagella
35. The patient 25 y.o. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of double vision in
the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate homemade mushrooms. On objective examination:
paleness, widened pupils, disorder of swallowing, bradycardia, constipation are marked. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Yersiniosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Salmonellosis, gastrointestinal form
E. Lambliasis
99
36. In the morning a patient had nausea, abdominal discomfort, single vomiting, dry mouth. In the
evening, the patient presented with the increasing general weakness, double vision, difficult swallowing of
solid food. Objectively: ptosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, absence of gag and pharyngeal reflex, dry mucous
membranes. The previous evening the patient had dinner with canned food and alcohol. What is the
presumptive diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Food toxicoinfection
D. Acute ischemic stroke
E. Intoxication with unknown poison
37. A 12-year-old boy presents with nausea, frequent repeated vomiting that first occurred after eating
canned vegetables. Objectively: the patient has dry mucous membranes, muscular hypotonia, anisocoria,
mydriasis, dysphagia and dysarthria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Shigellosis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Cholera
E. Yersiniosis
38. Patient with vomiting, dizziness, sensation of dubble vision, difficult swallowing was admitted to
the hospital. Doctor suspects botulism. What diagnostic methods should be used for diagnosis approving?
A. - B. Bacteriological, mycological C. Biological test, bacteriological
D. Allergic test, serological
E. Protozoological, microscopical
39. A patient has been hospitalized with provisional diagnosis of botulism. What serological reaction
should be used to reveal botulinum toxin?
A. Neutralization reaction
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Bordet-Gengou test
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Immunofluorescence test
40. Researchers of a bacteriological laboratory examine tinned meat for botulinic toxin. For this
purpose a group of mice was injected with an extract of the material under examination and antitoxic
antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types. A control group of mice was injected with the same extract but without
antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
A. Neutralization B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Double immune diffusion
E. Opsonocytophagic
41. A laboratory received a food product that had been taken from the focus of food poisoning and
presumably contained botulinum toxin. To identify the type of toxin, the neutralization reaction must be
performed on white mice. What biological product is used in this reaction?
A. Antitoxic serum B. Normal serum
C. Antibacterial serum
D. Diagnosticum E. Allergen
42. Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this
purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a
group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What
serological reaction was applied?
A. Neutralization B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Double immune diffusion
E. Opsonophagocytic
43. A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material
and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice
received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
A. Neutralization B. Precipitation
C. Complement binding
D. Double immunodiffusion
E. Opsonophagocytic
44. A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The
day before she ate home-made stockfish, beef. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left knee,
dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils. The girl is unable to read a
simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this case?
A. Parenteral introduction of polyvalent antibotulinic serum
B. Parenteral disintoxication C. Parenteral introduction of antibiotics
D. Gastric lavage
E. Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum
45. A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What
immunity will be formed in the given patient?
A. Antitoxic passive immunity
B. Infection immunity
100
C. Antitoxic active immunity
D. Antimicrobic active immunity
E. Antimicrobic passive immunity
46. A patient has food poisoning. Laboratory analysis revealed a culture of anaerobic gram-positive
spore-forming bacteria. What is the most likely kind of the isolated causative agent?
A. C. perfringens B. Proteus vulgaris
C. P. mirabilis
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus
E. Esherichia coli
47. Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli were extracted in anoxic environment from the patient’s
wound contaminated with soil. Cultivation on a blood-glucose agar resulted in growth of the colonies
surrounded with hemolysis zone. What agent was extracted from the wound?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Esherichia coli
48. On the 5th day after a surgery for colon injury a patient complains of bursting pain in the
postoperative wound, weakness, drowsiness, headache, fever up to 40 oC. Objectively: the skin around the
wound is swollen, there is gas crepitation. The wound discharges are scarce foul-smelling, of dark-gray color.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anaerobic clostridial wound infection
B. Abscess
C. Postoperative wound infection D. Erysipelas E. Phlegmon
49. 4 days after a patient received a gunshot wound of the middle third of the thigh soft tissues his
condition suddenly began deteriorating. There are complaints of bursting pain in the wound; pain increases
during the last 12 hours. Edema of skin and hypodermic tissue quickly grows. Body temperature is 38,2oC,
heart rate is 102/min. The wound edges gape, are dull in color; the muscles, viable as of day before, now
protrude into the wound, look boiled, are dull in color, have dirty-grey coating and fall apart when being held
with forceps. What infection has developed in the wound?
A. Anaerobic
B. Aerobic gram-negative
C. Putrid
D. Aerobic gram-positive
E. Diphtheria of wound
50. A laboratory received a material from a patient’s wound. Preliminary diagnosis is gaseous
gangrene. What microbiological method should be applied to determine species of causative agent?
A. Bacteriological B. Allergic C. Bacterioscopic D. Serological E. RIA
51. The following spore-forming bacteria can be preserved in soil over a long period of time: clostridia
of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection. Name the way with which these microorganisms get into soil.
A. With feces
B. With urine
C. With water
D. With industrial waters
E. With expectoration
52. A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be
the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?
A. Metronidazole B. Gentamicin C.Oxacillin D.Co-trimoxazole E.52. In 8 days after a surgery the patient developed tetanus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be
caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological
laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?
A. Kitt-Tarozzi medium. B. Endo agar.
C. Sabouraud agar.
D. Egg-yolk salt agar. E. Hiss medium
53. A bacteriological laboratory received a sample of dried fish from an outbreak of food poisoning.
Inoculation of the sample on Kitt-Tarozzi medium revealed microorganisms resembling tennis racket. These
microorganisms are causative agents of the following disease:
A. Botulism.
B. Diphtheria.
C. Typhoid fever.
D. Salmonellosis.
E. Dysentery.
54. A 37-year-old male was admitted to a hospital complaining of abdominal pain, difficulty in
swallowing and breathing, constipation, and nausea. He developed respiratory failure and required
endotracheal intubation and ventilation. Two days before, the patient consumed dried salted fish bought from
an artisanal producer. Laboratory investigation for infectious pathogen was performed using Kitt-Tarozzi’s
101
method. Observation under a bright field microscopy revealed the presence of typical microorganisms with
“tennis racket” appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Botulism
B. Cholera
C. Nontyphoidal Salmonella infection
D. Typhoid fever
E. Shigella infection
Bordetella
1. For serological diagnostics of the whooping cough it was made large-scale reaction with
parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella
parapertussis grain-like sediment formed. What antibodies have this reaction revealed?
A. Bacteriolysins
B. Agglutinins
C. Antitoxins
D. Opsonins
E. Precipitins
2. A large-scale reaction with parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums was made in order to make
serological diagnostics of the whooping cough. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella
parapertussis a granular sediment formed. What antibodies did this reaction reveal?
A. Agglutinins
B. Precipitins
C. Opsonins
D. Bacteriolysins
E. Antitoxins
3. A patient has been suffering from elevated temperature and attacks of typical cough for 10 days.
Doctor administered inoculation of mucus from the patient’s nasopharynx on the agar. What microorganism
is presumed?
A. Pertussis bacillus B. Pfeiffer’s bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Klebsiella
E. Staphylococcus
4. A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed mercurydrop like colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized
1-3 microns. What microorganisms were isolated?
A. Bordetella
B. Corynebacteria
C. Mycobacteria
D. Meningococcus E. Brucella
5. During bacteriological examination of sputum of a child with choking cough and fever there were
revealed glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar and reminding of mercury drops.
Microscopic examination revealed short Gram-negative bacteria. What microorganism was secured from the
sputum?
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Haemophylus influenzae
C. Corynebacterium dyphtheriae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae E. Streptococcus pyogenes
6. A family has two children. The younger child is under the year. The child has developed spastic
cough attacks. Similar clinical presentation was observed in the elder preschool child one month ago. The
doctor suspects pertussis infection. What method enables retrospective diagnostics of this disease?
A. Serological
B. Biological
C. Bacteriological
D. Molecular biological E. Microscopy
Treponema
1. While studying a microslide obtained from the punctuate of a regional lymph node and stained by
Romanovsky-Giemsa method a physician revealed some light pink thin microorganisms with 12-14 regular
spiral coils and pointed ends, up to 10-13 micrometer long. This might be the causative agent of the following
disease:
A. Syphilis
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Relapsing fever E. Leishmaniasis
2. In the micropreparation made from patient's regional lymph node punctate and stained according to
Romanovsky-Giemsa method, the doctor found out thin microorganisms with 12-14 equal ringlets and palepink sharp pointes 10-13 mkm in length. The pathogen of what disease is it about?
A. Leishmaniasis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Surra
D. Syphilis
E. Relapsing fever
102
3. In a microslide of the patient’s regional lymph node stained with Giemsa method a doctor detected
thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils with pointed tips, 10-13 micrometers in length, pale pink
in color. In this case they can be identified as infectious agents of the following disease:
A. Syphilis
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Relapsing fever
E. Leishmaniasis
4. Bacterioscopic examination of chancre material revealed some mobile, long, convoluted
microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. These features are typical for:
A. Treponema B. Borrellia C. Leptospira D. Vibrios E. Campylobacter
5. An 18-year-old patient has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, they are painless, thickened on palpation.
In the area of genital mucous membrane there is a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and "laquer"bottom
of greyish colour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Syphilis B. Tuberculosis C. Lepra D. Trophic ulcer E. Gonorrhea
6. A 14-year-old patient was diagnosed with Hutchinson’s triad: barrel-shaped incisors,
parenchymatous keratitis and deafness. The revealed presentations are consistent with the following disease:
A. Syphilis B. Toxoplasmosis C. Lepra D. Tuberculosis E. 7. A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate,
natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting
edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?
A. Late congenital syphilis
B. Early congenital syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis D. Fluorosis
E. Rickettsiosis
8. During examination of the patient’s oral cavity a dentist noticed deformation of the teeth and a
crescent indentation of the upper right incisor. The teeth are undersized, barrel-shaped – tooth cervix is
wider than its edge. The patient uses a hearing aid, suffers from visual impairment. What type of syphilis
affects teeth in such way?
A. Primary
B. Early congenital
C. Neurosyphilis
D. Secondary
E. Late congenital
9. A 32 y.o. man is divorced, has an irregular sexual life. He complains of falling out of hair in the
region of eyelashes, eyebrows, scalp. Objectively: diffuse alopecia is observed, eyebrow margin is absent,
eyelashes are stair-like (Pinkus’ sign). What examination should be carried out first of all?
A. Wasserman test, IFT
B. T.pallidum Immobilization Test (TPI)
C. Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae
D. Consultation of neuropathist
E. CBC
10. A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some
time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?
A. Reinfection
B. Recurrence
C. Superinfection
D. Secondary infection E. Complication
11. A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood
serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas
and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?
A. Immobilization
B. Complement binding
C. Agglutination
D. Precipitation
E. Neutralization
12. A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions
resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the
purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as
diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
A. Immobilization
B. Passive hemagglutination
C. Precipitation
D. Complement binding E. Neutralization
103
13. A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed
generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?
A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
B. Bijochinol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Azithromycin E. Doxycycline
14. A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that
includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. It blocks synthesis of peptidoglycan of microbial membrane
B. It blocks synthesis of cytoplasm proteins C. It blocks thiol enzymes
D. It blocks RNA synthesis
E. It blocks DNA synthesis
15. A 23-year-old man developed a perforation in his hard palate, a dense formation with clear margins
was detected in this area. After a surgery, microscopy of excised formation shows there a large focus of
caseous necrosis surrounded with a granulation tissue with endovasculitis and a cellular infiltration consisting
of lymphocytes and epithelioid cells with predominance of plasma cells. What is the most likely disease in
this case?
A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Leprosy
D. Scleroma
E. Sarcoma
16. The Wasserman reaction is markedly positive (++++) in a 30-year-old man. What infectious
disease is diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction?
A. Brucellosis
B. Syphilis
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Influenza
E. Tuberculosis
17. A 14-year-old boy was diagnosed with Hutchinson’s triad: barrel-shaped teeth, parenchymatous
keratitis, and deafness. These signs are characteristic of:
A. Syphilis
B. Opisthorchiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Leprosy
Leptospira
1. A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice,
muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield
microscopy of the patient’s blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Borrelia dutlonii
C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Bartonella bacilloformis
E. Rickettsia mooseri
2. A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with complaints of high
temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. Dermal integuments and scleras are
icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Yersiniosis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Brucellosis
E. Trichinellosis
3. A 33 year old patient was delivered to the infectious diseases department on the 7-th day of disease.
He complained about great weakness, high temperature, pain in the lumbar area and leg muscles,
icteritiousness, dark color of urine, headache. The acute disease started with chill, body temperature rise up to
40oC, headache, pain in the lumbar area and sural muscles. Icterus turned up on the 4th day, nasal and scleral
haemorrhages came on the 5th day. Fever has lasted for 6 days. Diuresis - 200 ml. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Virus A hepatitis
D. Sepsis
E. Yersiniosis
4. A 25-year-old patient was delivered to an infectious diseases unit on the 3rd day of illness with
complaints of headache, pain in lumbar spine and gastrocnemius muscles, high fever, chill. Objectively:
condition of moderate severity. Scleras are icteric. Pharynx is hyperemic. Tongue is dry with dry brown
coating. Abdomen is distended. Liver is enlarged by 2 cm. Spleen is not enlarged. Palpation of muscles,
especially gastrocnemius muscles, is painful. Urine is dark in color. Stool is normal in color. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Leptospirosis B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Malaria
D. Viral hepatitis A
E. Yersiniosis
104
5. A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash on
the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of renal
tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C and S
letters. What bacteria were revealed?
A. Leptospira
B. Treponema
C. Spirilla
D. Borrelia
E. Campilobacteria
Protozoa
1. Etiological factors for the infectious diseases are often microorganisms with various ultrastructure.
Which of the following microorganism groups relates to the eukaryotes?
A. Protozoa B. Viruses C. Viroids D. Prions E. Scotobacteria
2. In order to prevent wound infection associated with surgical procedures a patient was given a
synthetic antiprotozoan drug with a high activity against Helicobacter pylori. Specify this drug:
A. Metronidazole
B. Doxycycline hydrochloride
C. Chingamin
D. Acyclovir
E. Isoniazid
3. A dentist has detected symptoms of parodontosis in a patient. What antiprotozoal drug should be
prescribed?
A. Metronidazole
B. Levamisole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Mykoseptin
E. Furazolidone
Entamoeba
4. Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines, disorder of
GIT. Examination of the feces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts should be hospitalized
immediately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?
A. Lamblia
B. Dysenteric amoeba C. Balantidium
D. Trichomonas E. Intestinal amoeba
5. A patient complains of frequent bowel movements and stool with blood admixtures ("raspberry
jelly" stool). Microscopic examination revealed large mononuclear cells with absorbed red blood cells. What
protozoon is this morphological structure typical for?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Balantidium coli
6. A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and blood.
Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short pseudopodia,
containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient have?
A. Amebiasis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Giardiasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
7. A patient with suspected liver abscess was admitted to the surgical department. The patient had been
staying for a long time on business in one of African countries and fell repeatedly ill with acute gastrointestinal
disorders. What protozoal disease may the patient be now ill with?
A. Amebiasis
B. Trypanosomosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Malaria
E. Toxoplasmosis
8. Among public catering workers examined by doctors of sanitary and epidemiologic station often
occur asymptomatic parasite carriers. This means that a healthy person carries cysts that infect other people.
Such parasitizing is possible for the following causative agent:
A. Dysenteric amoeba
B. Malarial plasmodium
C. Intestinal trichomonad
D. Dermatotropic leishmania
E. Viscerotropic leishmania
105
9. When doctors of a sanitary and epidemiologic institution examine employees of public catering
establishments they often reveal asymptomatic parasitosis, that is when a healthy person is a carrier of cysts
that infect other people. What causative agent can parasitize in such a way?
A. Dysenteric amoeba
B. Malarial plasmodium
C. Enteral trichomonad
D. Dermatotropic leishmania
E. Viscerotropic leishmania
10. Microscopy of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms. Their cytoplasm had two distinct
layers, barely visible core, wide pseudopodia. The patient is most likely to have:
A. Entamoeba gingivalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Lamblia
D. Trichomonas tenax E. Entamoeba coli
11. Carious cavities of a 29-year-old patient contain the parasitic protozoa. It is established that they
relate to the Sarcodina class. Specify these single-celled organisms:
A. Entamoeba gingivalis
B. Entamoeba histolutica
C. Entamoeba coli D. Amoeba proteus
E. Lamblia intestinalis
12. A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of
intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Metronidazole
B. Quiniofone
C. Tetracycline
D. Quingamine
E. Enteroseptol
13. Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs was diagnosed in a 52-year-old
patient. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Quiniofone
B. Enteroseptol
C. Metronidazole
D. Tetracycline
E. Quingamine
14. A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this
drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?
A. Metronidazole B. Reserpine
C. Clonidine
D. Diazepam
E. Aminazine
15. A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body
temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from
an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery.
What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
A. Metronidazole B. Furazolidonum
C. Levomycetin
D. Phthalazol
E. Emetine hydrochloride
16. A 30 year old patient consulted a doctor about having diarrhea and stomach aches for 5 days,
temperature rise up to 37,50C with chills. The day before the patient was in a forest and drank some water
from an open pond. He was diagnosed with amebic dysentery that was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the
medication for treatment of this disease:
A. Metronidazole B. Furasolidone
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Phthalazole
E. Emethine hydrochloride
17. A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically
confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:
A. Metronidazole B. Mebendazole
C. Itrakonazole
D. Furacillin
E. Acyclovir
18. What drug is more advisable for the patient with amebic dysentery?
A. Metronidazole B. Pyrantel C. Levamisole D. Bicillin-5
E. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt (Penicillin G sodium salt)
Gardia
19. Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs
of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side.
What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
A. Lamblia
B. Toxoplasma
C. Leishmania
D. Intestinal trichomonad
E. Trypanosome
20. Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and
four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc.
What protozoan representative was found in the patient?
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A. Lamblia
B. Toxoplasma
C. Leishmania
D. Intestinal trichomonad
E. Trypanosome
21. A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large. They
have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body.
What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
A. Lamblia
B. Dysentery ameba
C. Trichomonas
D. Intestinal ameba
E. Balantidium
22. A 13 year old child complains about poor appetite, pain in the right subcostal area. Microscopical
examination of duodenal contents revealed big pyriform cells with two nuclei. What microorganism was
revealed?
A. Lamblia B.Trichomonas C.Amoeba D. Trypanosoma E.Toxoplasma
23. A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A
duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Metronidazole B.Chingamin C.Rifampicin D.Isoniazid E.Acyclovir
24. A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor established symptoms of
duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What
medication should be administered?
A. Metronidazole
B. Erythromycin
C. Monomycin
D. Chingamin
E. Tetracycline
Balantidium
25. A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with
admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large intestine revealed ulcers
from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms with cilia. What disease should
be suspected?
A. Balantidiasis B. Amebiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Trichomoniasis
26. Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man’s feces. The body
is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round shaped back
end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For
whom are the described attributes typical?
A. Balantidium B. Lamblia
C. Dysenteric amoeba
D. Trichomonas E. Intestinal amoeba
Leishmania
27. Parents with ill child came to the infectionist. They worked in one of the Asian countries for a long
time. Child has eathy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen, peripheral glands. What
protozoan illness can this child have?
A. Amebiasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Visceral leishmaniasis
D. Lambliasis
E. Toxoplasmosis
28. A patient has roundish ulcers on his face, inflammation and enlargement of lymph nodes. These
symptoms turned up as a result of mosquito bites. Laboratory examination of discharge from the ulcers
revealed unicellular aflagellar organisms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Dermatotropic leishmaniasis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Scabies
D. Trypanosomiasis
E. Myasis
29. A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During
examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most
likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?
A. Leishmania tropica major
B. Balantidium coli
C. P. falciparum D. T. cruzi
E. Toxoplasma gondii
Trypanosoma
30. While examining a blood smear taken form a patient and stained by Romanovsky’s method a doctor
revealed some protozoa and diagnozed the patient with Chagas disease. What protozoan is the causative agent
of this disease?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Leishmania donovani
D. Leishmania tropica
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E. Trypanosoma brucei
31. In the South and Central America there can be found a species of trypanosomes that is the causative
agent of Chagas disease. What animal is the infection carrier specific to this disease?
A. Gnat
B. Mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Cockroach
E. Triatomine bug
32. A businessman came to India from South America. On examination the physician found that the
patient was suffering from sleeping-sickness. What was the way of invasion?
A. As a result of bug’s bites
B. As a result of mosquito’s bites
C. With contaminated fruits and vegetables
D. Through dirty hands
E. After contact with a sick dogs
Trichomonas
33. A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear
revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big
nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Trichomonas hominis
C. Trichomonas buccalis
D. Trypanosoma gambiense
E. Lamblia intestinalis
34. A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A
smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating
membrane. What disease can be suspected?
A. Urogenital trichomoniasis
B. Lambliasis
C. Intestinal trichomoniasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Balantidiasis
35. A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal
mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their
bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Trichomonas hominis
C. Trichomonas buccalis
D. Trypanosoma gambiense
E. Lamblia intestinalis
36. Microscopical examination of discharges from the gums of a patient ill with paradontosis revealed
some protozoan pear-shaped organisms 6-13 micrometer long. The parasite has one nucleus and undulating
membrane, there are four flagella at the front of its body. What protozoan were found?
A. Trichomonads B. Leishmania
C. Amoebae
D. Balantidia
E. Lamblia
37. A smear from frothy and purulent vaginal discharges of a 42 y.o. woman was stained by
Romanovsky-Giemsa method. Its analysis revealed some microorganisms of flagellates class. What
microorganism were the most probably revealed?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Leishmania donovani
C. Trypanosoma gambiense
D. Trihomonas hominis
E. Lamblia intestinalis
38. A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by RomanovskyGiemsa’s method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that
has been found by the doctor?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Leishmania donovani
C. Trypanosoma gambiense
D. Trihomonas hominis
E. Lamblia intestinalis
39. A patient consulted a dentist about itching and burning in the oral cavity; high temperature. The
patient was diagnosed with trichomonal gingivostomatitis. What drug should be chosen for his treatment?
A. Metronidazole B. Ampicillin
C. Gentamicin sulfate
D. Nystatin
E. Doxycycline hydrochloride
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Plasmodium
40. As an example of specific human parasites one can name Plasmodium falciparum, human pinworm
and some others. The source of parasite invasion is always a human. Such specific human parasites cause the
diseases that are called:
A. Anthroponoses B. Zoonoses
C. Anthropozoonoses
D. Infections
E. Multifactorial diseases
41. A patient who has recently come from an endemic area presents with elevated body temperature,
headache, chills, malaise, that is with the symptoms which are typical for a common cold. What laboratory
tests are necessary to confirm or to refute the diagnosis of malaria?
A. Microscopy of blood smears
B. Study of lymph node punctate
C. Urinalysis
D. Study of cerebrospinal fluid
E. Microscopy of bone marrow punctuate
42. According to the data of WHO, for about 250 mln of Earth population fall ill with malaria. This
disease is mostly spread in tropical and subtropical regions. Range of its spread falls into the area of the
following mosquitoes:
A. Anopheles B. Culex C. Aedes D. Mansonia E. Culiseta
43. A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature
up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically
in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method
of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?
A. Blood examination
B. Immunological tests
C. Stool examination
D. Urine examination
E. 44. A journalist’s body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission
in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased.
The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of
Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
A. Gametocytes
B.Shizontes
C.Merozoites
D.Microgamete
E.Sporozoites
45. A 47-year-old patient came to see a doctor on the 7th day of disease. The disease developed very
fast: after the chill body temperature rose to 40oC and lasted up to 7 hours, then dropped abruptly, which
caused profuse sweat. There were three such attacks occur in once in two days. Two days ago the patient
arrived from Africa. Objectively: pale skin, subicteric sclera, significantly enlarged liver and spleen. What is
the cause of fever attacks in this disease?
A. Erythrocytic schizogony
B. Tissue schizogony
C. Exotoxin of a causative agent
D. Gametocytes
E. Endotoxin of a causative agent
46. A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs
every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results:
RBC- 3x1012/l, Нb- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
A. Malaria
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Sepsis
D. Typhoid fever
E. Leptospirosis
47. A 23 year old female patient complains about periodical chill and body temperature rise up to 40 oC,
sense of heat taking turns with profuse sweating. The patient has had already 3 attacks that came once in two
days and lasted 12 hours. She has lived in Africa for the last 2 months. Liver and spleen are enlarged. In blood:
erythrocytes - 2,5x1012/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Malaria
B. Spotted fever
C. Sepsis
D. Haemolytic anaemia
E. Leptospirosis
48. 2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it
be?
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Malaria
C. Amebiasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Leishmaniasis
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49. Two weeks after hemotransfusion a patient developed fever. What protozoal disease can be
suspected?
A. Malaria
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Amebiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
50. A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered
for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
A. Chingamin
B. Sulfalen
C. Tetracycline
D. Metronidazole E. Biseptol
51. This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric
amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease.
What drug is it?
A. Chingamin
B. Emetine hydrochloride
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Quinine
52. What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?
A. Chingamin
B. Rifampicin
C. Ampicillin
D. Gentamicin
E. Biseptol (Co-Trimoxazolel)
53. UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug
should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
A. Chingamin
B. Pyrantel
C. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum)
D. Primaquine
E. Interferon (Laferon)
54. In preparation for business trip abroad the doctor was prescribed a histoschizontocidal antimalarial
drug as a personal means of disease prevention. What drug was given to the doctor?
A. Chingamin
B. Mefloquine
C. Biseptol (Co-Trimoxazole)
D. Quinine
E. Doxycycline
Toxoplasma
55. A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination
of the stained specimen (Romanovsky’s stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm
and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
A. Toxoplasmas
B. Malarial plasmodiums
C. Dermotropic leishmania D. Viscerotropic leishmania
E. Trypanosomes
56. A puncture sample taken from the lymph node of a patient with preliminary diagnosis of
protozoan disease has been investigated. The preparation was processed with Giemsa stain and the following
was detected: crescent-shaped bodies with pointed tips, blue cytoplasm and red nuclei. What protozoa have
been detected in the preparation?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Dermatotropic Leishmania
D. Viscerotropic Leishmania
E. Trypanosoma
57. Examination of a man revealed a protozoan disease that affected brain and caused vision loss.
Blood analysis revealed unicellular half-moon-shaped organisms with pointed end. The causative agent of this
disease is:
A. Toxoplasma B.Leishmania C.Lamblia D.Amoeba E.Trichmonad
58. A man is ill with a protozoan disease characterized by cerebral affection and loss of sight. Blood
analysis revealed halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends. This disease is caused by:
A. Toxoplasma B.Leishmania C.Lamblia D.Amoeba E.Trichomonad
59. A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy has a child with multiple
congenital defects. This is a result of:
A. Teratogenesis B. Cancerogenesis
C. Recombination
D. Chemical mutogenesis
E. Biological mutogenesis
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60. A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental defects. What protozoan disease
might have caused the intrauterine death?
A. Toxoplasmosis B. Leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
D. Amebiasis
E. Lambliasis
61. A woman gave birth to a stillborn baby with numerous malformations. What protozoan disease
could cause intrauterine death?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
D. Amebiasis
E. Lambliasis
62. A married couple applied to the genetic consultation in order to consult about their child with
multiple abnormalities (microcephaly, idiocy etc). The woman has had an illnesses during her pregnancy but
she didn’t take any teratogens or mutagens. The parents’ and the child’s karyotype is normal. Anamnesis study
revealed that the family kept a cat. What gravidic disease caused the child’s abnormalities?
A. Toxoplasmosis B. Leishmaniasis
C. Dysentery
D. Balantidiasis
E. Trichomoniasis
63. A patient’s preliminary diagnosis is toxoplasmosis. What material was used for diagnostics of this
disease?
A. Blood
B. Feces
C. Urine
D. Duodenal contents
E. Sputum
64. A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for
toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis
and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
A. RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
B. RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
C. IFA - Immunofluorescence assay
D. Immunoblot analysis
E. (R)CFT- Reiter's complement fixation test
65. A pregnant woman applied to a doctor with complaints typical for toxoplasmosis. The doctor took
a sample of her blood. What serological tests should be performed in this case?
A. Complement binding assay
B. Precipitation test
C. Neutralization test D. Widal’s test
E. Wassermann test
66. After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which
drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?
A. Co-trimoxazole B. Itraconazole
C. Mebendazole
D. Azidothimidine E. Acyclovir
67. Sanitary assessment of a pond, where the children from a recreation summer camp take their swims,
detected there oval cysts 50-60 micron in diameter, with 2 nuclei visible in their cytoplasm (macronucleus and
micronucleus). What protozoa do these cysts belong to?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Amoeba
C. Balantidium
D. Lamblia
E. Euglena
68. Several patients with similar complaints came to the doctor. They all present with weakness, pain
in the intestines, indigestion. Feces analysis revealed the need for urgent hospitalization of the patient, who
had microbial cysts with four nuclei detected in his samples. Such cysts are characteristic of the following
protozoon:
A. Entamoeba histolytica. B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Balantidium.
D. Trichomonad.
E. Lamblia.
69. A patient complains of acute spastic abdominal pain, frequent urge to defecate, liquid bloody feces
with mucus. Laboratory analysis of fecal smear revealed inconstant in shape organisms with erythrocyte. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Amebiasis.
B. Lambliasis.
C. Schistosomiasis.
D. Intestinal trichomoniasis. E. Balantidiasis.
70. A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long
time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance.
What protozoan disease can it be?
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A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
D. Amebiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
Rickettsia
1. A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to the hospital. Some arachnids and
insects have been found in his flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of epidemic typhus?
A. Lice B. Spiders C. Bed-bugs D. Cockroaches E. Houseflies
2. A sick man with high temperature and a lot of tiny wounds on the body has been admitted to the
hospital. Lice have been found in the folds of his clothing. What disease can be suspected in the patient?
A. Epidemic typhus
B. Tularemia
C. Scabies
D. Malaria
E. Plague
3. A 28 y.o. homeless male was admitted to the hospital because of initial diagnosis "influenza".
Roseolo-petechiae rash has appeared on the trunk and internal surfaces of the limbs on the fifth day.
Temperature is 410C, euphoria, face and sclera’s hyperemia, tongue tremor, tachycardia, splenomegaly,
excitement. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Typhus
B. Alcogolic delirium
C. Leptospirosis
D. Abdominal typhoid E. Measles
4. A 28 y.o. patient without permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with the preliminary
diagnosis influenza. On the fith day of illness he got a maculopapular petechial rash on his body and internal
surfaces of extremities. Body temperature is 410 C, euphoria, face hyperemia, sclera reddening, tongue tremor,
tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitement. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus B. Delirium alcoholicum
C. Leptospirosis
D. Measles
E. Typhoid fever
5. A 28-year-old patient was hospitalized with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Roseolous-petechial
rash appeared on the 5th day of disease on the trunk. The temperature is 41 oC. Hyperemia of face, reddening
of scleras, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus B. Measles
C. Alcohol delirium
D. Leptospirosis
E. Typhoid fever
6. A 55-year-old patient with a characteristic rash, fever, dizziness has been admitted to a hospital. He
has been provisionally diagnosed with typhus. No similar cases have been reported. In his youth (15 years
old) the patient suffered typhus in a boarding school. What disease is it?
A. Brill’s disease B. Typhoid fever C. Measles D. Rubella E. Cholera
7. 5 days before, a 26-year-old female patient developed an acute condition. Objectively: marked
headache, vomiting, weakness, poor appetite, temperature up to 39oC. Objectively: the patient is in a
moderately grave condition, excited. The face is hyperemic, sclerae are injected. The tongue is coated with
brown fur. The trunk and limbs are covered with plentiful roseolous and petechial rash. Hepatosplenomegaly
is present. Complement binding reaction with Rickettsia prowazekii is positive with the titer of 1:640. What
drug should be administered?
A. Doxycycline
B. Chloramphenicol C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin
E. Metronidazole
Chlamydia
1. A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee
joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38 oC. Objectively:
the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h,
CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings
reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Reiter’s syndrome
B. Rheumatic arthritis
C. Gout
D. Bechterew’s disease E. Rheumatoid arthritis
Mycoplasma
1. On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects
of beta-lactam antibiotics. The patient’s sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which
112
resulted in growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried
eggs). What microorganism caused the disease?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Str. pneumoniae D. L. pneumophila
E. Chlamidia pneumoniae
2. From a medicinal herb a certain phytopathogenic microorganism was secured. In the nutrient
medium it forms "fried egg"colonies. What is the most likely agent?
A. Mycoplasma B.Yeasts C.Actinomycetes D.Nocardia E.Pseudomonas
Legionella
1. A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was
taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia,
arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the
inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
A. Legionella
B. Mycoplasma
C. Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus
E. Pneumococcus
Gardnerella
1. A 21-year-old female patient consulted a gynecologist about itching, burning, watery vaginal
discharges with a fish-like smell. Speculum examination revealed that the cervical and vaginal mucosa was of
a normal pink color. Vaginal examination revealed no alterations of the uterus and appendages. Gram-stained
smears included clue cells. What is the most likely pathology?
A. Bacterial vaginosis (gardnerellosis)
B. Chlamydiosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Trichomoniasis
E. Candidiasis
Pseudomonas
1. Bacteriological examination of the urine of the patient with pyelonephritis revealed microorganisms
that produced yellow-green pigment and a characteristic odor in meat-peptone agar. What are they called?
A. Pseudomonas B.Escherichia C.Proteus D.Klebsiella E.Azotobacter
2. A 60-year-old patient was hospitalized to the surgical department because of infection caused by
blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is sensative to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the
given penicillins has marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Carbenicillin disodium
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Methicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Methylpenicillin
3. Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative
bacilli. Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What
microorganism is the most probable cause of the disease?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Escherihia coli
D. Salmonella enteritidis
E. Proteus mirabilis
4. A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part
of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative
oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent
can it be?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Proteus mirabilis
C. E.coli
D. Str.pyogenes
E. Mycoplasma pneumonie
5. A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gramnegative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent
appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen
was isolated from the patient’s wound?
A. P. aeruginosa
B. P. vulgaris
C. S. aureus
D. S. pyogenes
E. S. faecalis
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6. A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis
of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed
microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
7. A patient in the oral surgery department has got purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of
the wound material found a culture that produces cyan pigment. What microorganism is the most probable
causative agent?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
8. A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluishgreen color that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this
causative agent?
A. Gram-negative stain
B. Presense of spores
C. Coccal form
D. Cell pairing
E. Mycelium formation
9. Bacteriological inspection of disinfection quality at a pharmacy revealed a microorganism in an
utility room (in the sink). The microorganism has the following properties: mobile nonspore-forming gramnegative bacteria that form capsular substance, grow well on ordinary nutrient media, secrete the blue-green
pigment. This microorganism is most likely to be of the following genus:
A. Pseudomonas
B. Proteus
C. Clostridium
D. Shigella
E. Vibrio
10. A sample of a finished dosage form was found to be contaminated with some microorganisms
exhibiting the following properties: greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli
that grew on the medium for the detection of pyocyanin. The bacilli release the bluegreen pigment into the
medium. What microorganisms contaminated the finished dosage form?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
11. During bacteriological examination of the purulent discharge obtained from a postoperative wound
an inoculation on meat infusion agar has been performed. The inoculation has resulted in large colorless
mucous colonies that in 24 hours with exposure to sunlight developed green-blue pigmentation and smell of
honey or jasmine. Bacterioscopy revealed gram-negative lophotrichea. What bacterial culture is contained in
purulent discharge?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Klebsiella osaenae
D. Streptomyces griseus
E. Brucella abortus
12. Many diseases of medicinal plants are caused by bacteria of the Pseudomonas genus. Select the
bacteria relating to this genus:
A. Blue pus bacillus
B. Colon bacillus
C. Proteus
D. Mycoplasma
E. Micrococci
13. A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following
antibiotics should be administered in this case?
A. Amicacin sulfate
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Cephazolin
D. Erythromycin
E. Doxycycline
14. From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most
advisable to be administered in this case?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Ampicillin
C. Cefazolinum
D. Azithromycin
E. Chloramphenicol
114
15. Urinalysis of a patient with acute cystitis shows leukocytes and a large number of gram-negative
bacilli. Inoculation has resulted in the growth of mucous colonies that produce a green soluble pigment. What
microorganism is the most likely cause of the patient’s disorder?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Salmonella enteritidis
16. A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in
the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidasepositive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
C. Str.pyogenes
D. E.coli
E. Proteus mirabilis
Helicobacter
1. Impression smear of mucosa biopsy material has been obtained from a patient with peptic ulcer
disease of the stomach. Gram-negative arcuate bent microorganisms were detected, urease activity test was
positive. What microorganisms were detected in the patient?
A. Helicobacter
B. Spirochete
C. Spirilla
D. Leptospira
E. Treponema
2. A male patient has been diagnosed with gastric ulcer. Bacteriological examination of biopsy material
from the affected part of stomach revealed small colonies of gram-negative, oxide reductase-positive
flexibacteria that grew on the chocolate agar on the fifth day. Which of the following microorganisms is the
most likely causative agent?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Campilobacter jejuni
C. Campilobacter fetus
D. Mycoplasma hominis
E. Chlamydia trachomatis
3. A patient underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Analysis of the biopsy material enabled doctors
to diagnose him with helicobacteriosis. What property of the bacteria found in this patient had to be obligatory
taken into account during their cultivation?
A. Microaerophilic ability
B. Presence of urease
C. Absence of spores and capsules
D. Colonisation of gastral cells E. Presence of six polar flagella
4. A 42-year-old patient with gastric ulcer has a disbalance between the aggressive and defensive
factors. Which of the following factors contributes to the development of gastric ulcer?
A. Helicobacter pylori B. Mucin
C. Hydrocarbonate
D. Prostaglandin
E. Prostacyclin
5. During fibergastroscopy a patient with ulcer disease of the stomach, the mucosal biopsy is taken
from the area of an ulcer. Impression smear is prepared from biopsy material and stained by Gram method;
the rest of biopsy material is tested for urease activity. Microscopy of the impression smear revealed gramnegative spiral-shaped microorganisms, urease activity test is positive. What bacteria were detected?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Campilobacter jejuni
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Spirilla minor
E. Shigella flexneri
6. A 32 year old patient complains about heartburn and dull pain in the epigastrium that appear 2-3
hours after meal. Exacerbations happen in spring and in autumn. The patient has food intolerance of eggs and
fish. Objectively: stomach palpation reveals painfulness in the gastroduodenal area.
Electrophasoduodenoscopy revealed a 5 mm ulcer on the anterior wall of duodenum. Urease test is positive.
What is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development?
A. Helicobacterial infection
B. Dietary allergy
C. Autoantibody production
115
D. Reduced prostaglandin synthesis
E. Disorder of gastric motor activity
7. In order to prevent wound infection associated with surgical procedures a patient was given a
synthetic antiprotozoan drug with a high activity against Helicobacter pylori. Specify this drug:
A. Metronidazole
B. Doxycycline hydrochloride
C. Chingamin
D. Acyclovir
E. Isoniazid
8. A 6-year-old child has duodenal ulcer. What antibacterial drug should be co-administered together
with metronidazole and De-Nol in order to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Oleandomycin
D. Biseptol
E. Sulfadimethoxinum
9. In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result
was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?
A. Bacterial DNA
B. Bacterial toxin
C. H. pylori bacterium itself
D. Bacterial enzymes – urease and catalase
E. Bacterial antigen
10. Before a surgery the patient was prescribed a synthetic antiprotozoal drug for prevention of wound
infection. The prescribed drug is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori. Name this drug:
A. Metronidazole
B. Chingamin (Chloroquine)
C. Doxycycline hydrochloride
D. Aciclovir
E. Isoniazid
Actinomycetes
1. A 40 year old man noticed a reddening and an edema of skin in the area of his neck that later
developed into a small abscess. The incised focus is dense, yellowish-green. The pus contains white granules.
Histological examination revealed drusen of a fungus, plasmatic and xanthome cells, macrophages. What type
of mycosis is the most probable?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Aspergillosis
C. Candidosis
D. Sporotrichosis
E. Coccidioidomycosis
2. A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a
small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there
are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages
detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Furuncle
C. Carbuncle
D. Syphilis
E. Leprosy
3. Microscopical examination of an infiltrate removed from the submandibular skin area of a 30 y.o.
man revealed foci of purulent fluxing surrounded by maturing granulations and mature connective tissue, the
pus contains druses consisting of multiple short rod-like elements with one end attached to the homogenous
centre. What disease is it?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. Candidosis
E. –
4. A 32-year-old patient who lives in the countryside consulted a doctor about a painful swelling and
a fistula in the submandibular region. Examination revealed an infiltration with a fistula discharging thick pus
and containing white granules. On dissection the infiltration tissues turned out to be dense, yellow-green and
had honeycomb structure because of multiple abscesses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Actinomycosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Lepra
D. Syphilis
E. Submandibular abscess
5. Microscopic examination of pus sample taken from mandibular fistula canal and stained by
Gram’s method has revealed druses with gram-positive coloring in the center and cone-shaped structures
with gram-negative coloring. Such morphology is characteristic of the agent of:
A. Fusobacteriosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis
D. Anaerobic infection
E. Candidiasis
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6. A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small
abscess appeared. On section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored, in the purulent masses there are
white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthoma cells, and macrophages
detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process:
A. Syphilis B. Carbuncle C. Actinomycosis
D. Leprosy
E. Furuncle
Candida
1. A 3 month old infant has got a white deposition on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and
lips. The doctor suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be used for inoculation of the material
under examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Sabouraud
B. Endo
C. Loewenstein-Jensen D. Roux
E. Clauberg
2. A 3 m.o. baby has white film on the mucous membrane of his mouth, tongue and lips. A doctor
suspected candidosis. What nutrient medium should be applied for inoculation of the material under
examination in order to confirm this diagnosis?
A. Sabouraud’s
B. Endo
C. Jensen’s
D. Roux
E. Clauberg’s
3. Examination of a child revealed some whitish spots looking like coagulated milk on the mucous
membrane of his cheeks and tongue. Analysis of smears revealed gram-positive oval yeast-like cells. What
causative agents are they?
A. Candida
B. Staphylococci C. Diphtheria bacillus
D. Actinomycetes
E. Fusobacteria
4. During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby’s oral mucosa and
tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist
revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most
often in children of this age, namely:
A. Candidiasis
B. Favus
C. Epidermophytosis
D. Actinomycosis
E. Trichophytia
5. Microscopic examination of a Gramstained scrape from patient’s tongue revealed oval, round,
elongated chains of dark-violet gemmating cells. What disease can be caused by this causative agent?
A. Candidosis
B. Actinomycosis C. Diphtheria
D. Staphylococcic infection E. Streptococcic infection
6. A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There
appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous
membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving
hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Candidous cheilitis
B. Exfoliative cheilitis
C. Leukoplakia
D. Contactant allergic cheilitis
E. Manganotti’s cheilitis
7. After continuous treatment with antibiotics a patient got symptoms of stomatitis. Examination of
specimens of oral mucous membrane revealed some oval polymorphous Gram-positive microorganisms
arranged in clusters. What microorganism may be the cause of such manifestations?
A. С.albicans
B. C.perfringens
C. S.aureus
D. S.pyogenes
E. H.pylori
8. After long-term antibiotic treatment a patient has developed whitish spots on the oral mucosa. Grampositive oval budding cells were detected in the smear preparations. What causative agents were detected?
A. Candida fungi
B. Staphylococci
C. Sarcinae
D. Actinomycete
E. Tetracocci
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9. A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an
evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What
microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?
A. Candida fungi
B. Streptococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Neisseria
E. Corynebacteria
10. An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam
antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
A. Fluconazole
B. Streptomycin
C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
D. Ampicillin
E. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
11. A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time has developed candidosis of mucous
membranes. What drug shoul administered for its treatment?
A. Itraconazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nitrofungin
D. Amphotericin
E. Nitrofurantoin
12. A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a
complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the
deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for
the treatment of this complication?
A. Fluconazole
B. Biseptol
C. Tetracycline
D. Furazolidone
E. Polymyxin
13. A pregnant woman complains of vaginal mucosa irritation, itching and genital tracts secretion.
Bacterioscopy of vaginal smears revealed large gram-positive oval oblong cells that form pseudomicelium.
What is the most probable channel of infection?
A. Endogenous infection B. Sexual transmission C. Contact infection
D. Vector-borne transmission
E. Wound infection
A 58-year-old male patient visited his dentist with the chief complaint of itching and burning sensation
in his mouth. On intraoral examination, diffuse white patches were seen on his tongue, right and left buccal
mucosa, as well as on his hard palate and soft palatal region. The potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation of
the specimen revealed non-pigmented septate hyphae. Administration of which of the following is the most
appropriate initial step in treatment of this patient?
A. Nystatin
B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamicin
D. –
E. Penicillin
13. An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with βlactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
A. Streptomycin
B. Fluconazole
C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
D. Ampicillin
E. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Biseptol)
14. A man uses dentures. The dentist has noticed mucosal lecions with a white coating in his oral
cavity. Microscopy of the coating detected large oval Gram-positive cells. What microorganisms have caused
stomatitis in the patient?
A. Yeast-like fungi of Candida genus
B. Actinomycetes
C. Streptococci
D. Oral spirochetes
E. Oral trichomonas
15. Broadspectrum antibiotics can cause various complications, including intestinal candidiasis. What
drug is used for treatment of this complication?
A. Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Undecyne
D. Amphotericin B
E. Gramicidin
Fungi
1. A patient with skin mycosis has disorder of cellular immunity. The most typical characteristic of it
is reduction of the following index:
A. T-lymphocytes B. Immunoglobulin G C. Immunoglobulin E
D. B-lymphocytes E. Plasmocytes
2. In order to establish the possible contamination of a medication with fungi, a nutrient medium was
inoculated, which resulted in growth of large cream-like colonies. What nutrient medium was used in this
case?
A. Sabouraud
B. Lowenstein-Jensen
118
C. Roux
D. Loeffler
E. Finn-2
3. Crude herbal drugs must be examined for yeast-like fungi. What agar can ensure development of
these microorganisms so that associating microflora will grow very slowly or won’t grow at all?
A. Sabouraud’s peptone agar
B. Endo agar
C. Milk-salt agar
D. Meat infusion agar E. Blood agar
4. What preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection?
A. Fluconozol, Orungal, Nisoral
B. Rubomycin, Bleomycin, Mytomycin C
C. Cytosar, Cormyctin, Lomycitin
D. Captopril, Enalapril
E. Isoniazid, Ftibazid, Pyrazinamid
5. Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat
dermatomycosis:
A. Iodine solution
B. Formalin solution
C. Methylene blue
D. Brilliant green
E. Boric acid solution
Sanitary microbiology
1. During the regular sanitary epidemiological inspection of a pharmacy, the bacteriological analysis
of air was performed. The air was found to have bacilli, yeast fungi, hemolytic streptococci, micrococci.
Which of the detected microorganisms indicate the direct epidemic danger?
A. Haemolytic streptococci
B. Micrococci
C. Bacilli
D. Yeast fungi
E. –
2. Presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the air can be detected by presence of sanitary
representative bacteria. Choose bacteria that are indicators of direct epidemiological danger:
A. Hemolytic streptococci B.Sarcina C.Molds D.Yeast E.Micrococci
3. Sanitary microbiological analysis of the indoor air of a pharmacy carried out in summer revealed
presence of Streptococcus haemolyticus and Streptococcus viridians at the rate of 40 microorganisms per 1
m3. Specify the microbiological characteristic of the air:
A. Contaminated
B. Within the permissible limits
C. Almost pure
D. Pure
E. These microorganisms are not the determinants of the air quality
4. Sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in drug-store premises revealed increased content of
sanitary representative microorganisms. What microorganisms are these?
A. Golden staphylococcus and hemolytic streptococcus
B. Diphtheria and tuberculosis bacilli
C. Colon and blue pus bacilli
D. Epidermal staphylococcus and sarcina E. Enterococci and citrobacter
5. During sanitary and bacteriological examination of air in a drugstore it was revealed that the air had
high concentration of sanitary meaningful microorganisms. What microorganisms are these?
A. Staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic streptococcus
B. Diphtheritic and tuberculous bacilli C. Colibacilli and blue pus bacilli
D. Epidermal staphylococcus and Sarcina E. Enterococci and Citrobacter
6. Sanitary-biologic examination of air in a drugstore revealed a sanitary-indicative microorganism.
Name it:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Colon bacillus C. Fecal enterococcus
D. α-haemolytic streptococcus
E. Citrobacter
7. Routine investigation of microbiological sanitary condition of air in a hospital is performed once in
3 months. What microorganism is the sanitary indicator of air condition in an enclosed space?
A. S.aureus
B. E.coli
C. E.faecalis
D. P.aeruginosa
E. C.perfringens
119
8. Sanitary bacteriological research on water by the membrane filter method revealed two red colonies
on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of analyzed water were passed. Calculate the coli
index and coli titer of the analyzed water:
A. 4 and 250
B. 2 and 500
C. 250 and 4
D. 500 and 2
E. 250 and 2
9. During sanitary and bacteriological testing of water with the membrane filter technique there were
revealed two red colonies on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of water was filtred.
Calculate the coli index and coli titer of the analyzed water:
A. 4 and 250
B. 2 and 500
C. 250 and 4
D. 500 and 2
E. 250 and 2
10. After the sanitary and bacteriological study of tap water the following results were obtained: the
total number of bacteria in 1,0 ml was 80, coli index was 3. How would you interpret the study results?
A. Water is safe to be consumed
B. Water is of doubtful quality
C. Water is of highly doubtful quality
D. Water is contaminated
E. Water is highly contaminated
11. Bacteriological analysis of tap water has resulted in the following: total bacterial count in 1,0 ml
of water is 80, coli index is 3. What would be the conclusion?
A. The water is safe for consumption
B. The water quality is doubtful
C. The water quality is extremely doubtful
D. The water is polluted
E. The water is extremely polluted
12. A laboratory received a sample of water used in drug production for sanitary and viral analysis.
What group of viruses will indicate fecal contamination of water and thus the need for its additional
purification?
A. Picornaviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Retroviridae
E. Orthomyxoviridae
13. In an urban settlement situated on the riverbank, an outbreak of hepatitis A was registered. The
disease might have water origin. This assumption can be confirmed by growth of the following values of water
quality:
A. Number of coli-phages
B. Escherichia coli index
C. Oxidability
D. Index of fecal coli-forms
E. Presence of benign leptospirosis pathogen
14. Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil
was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according to the
coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens). This is indicative of:
A. Fresh fecal contamination B. Old fecal contamination
C. Insufficient intensity of soil humification
D. Constant entry of organic protein contaminations
E. Insufficient insolation and aeration of soil
15. After the water supply system had been put into operation in a new residential area, the medical
officers of sanitary and epidemiological station measured total microbial number in the water. Name the
maximum permissible value of this indicator for potable water:
A. 1000.
B. 500.C. 400. D. 100.
E. 10.
16. A bacteriological laboratory conducts the analysis of potable water quality. Microbial number of
the water sample is approximately 100. What microorganisms were accounted for in this case?
E. All bacteria that have grown on a nutrient medium
B. Opportunistic pathogenic bacteria
C. Enteropathogenic bacteria and viruses
D. Colibacilli
E. Human and animal pathogenic bacteria
Bank of Krok testing to module N1
Morphology of bacteria
7.
Immunofluorescence reaction is widely used for express-diagnostics of many bacterial and viral
infections. Choose the type of the microscope needed for this reaction.
A.Light microscope.
D.Phase-contrast microscope.
B.
Electron microscope.
C.
Fluorescence microscope.
E.
Dark-field microscope.
10.
The essential drawback of the microscopy method of infection diagnostics is insufficient
informativeness caused by morphologic similarity of many mi-croorganisms. Which of the
following
can increase the informativeness?
A. Radioimmunoassay.
B.
Coombs' test.
C.
ELISA.
D.Opsonization reaction.
E.
Immunofluorescence testing.
*Immunofluorescence test belongs to widely used rapid (express) methods of infectious diseases
diagnostics. Which properties of bacteria are estimated for their identification at this type of
testing?
Morphological and tinctorial
Morphological and antigenic
Antigenic and immunogenic
Cultural and biochemical
*During microbiology lesson students have acquainted with microscopy method of laboratory
diagnostics. Which property of bacteria may be studied with this method?
Morphological, tinctorial
Cultural
Antigenic
Toxigenic
Biochemical
20.
Furuncle pus smear showed spherical microbes arranged in grape-like clusters. Name
these microorganisms.
A.Staphilococci.
B.
Diplococci.
C.
Micrococci.
D.Streptococci.
E.
Tetracocci.
*At microscopy of the wound discharge gram-positive spherical cells arranged in “grape-like clusters “
have been revealed. Which group can seen microorganisms be belong to?
Staphylococcus
Clostridia
Streptococcus
Mycoplasma
Gonococcus
70. Students have been proposed to stain a mixture of bacteria by Gram's method and explain the
mechanism of staining at a microbiology practical class. Name the morphological structures of
bacteria that cause Gram-negative or Gram-positive staining of bacteria.
A.CPM (cytoplasm membrane).
B.
Cell wall.
C.
Capsule.
D. .Flagella.
E. Cytoplasm.
*At laboratory diagnostics of many infectious diseases Gram staining technique is used. Which structure
of microbial cell is responsible for ability of taking a dye?
Cytoplasmic membrane
Cell wall
Mesosomes
Capsule
Plasmids
*04* 2013* At staining of the smear from sputum collected from the patient with suspicious lobar
pneumonia such dyes and reagents have been used as crystal violet and Lugol’s iodine solutions,
960 alcohol, and fuchsine solution. Which method of staining has been used in this case?
Loeffler’s
Neisser’s
*Gram’s
Ziehl-Neelsen’s
Romanovsky-Giemsa’s
* Microorganisms surrounded with capsule have been revealed in the smear prepared from the sputum of
the patient with croupous pneumonia. Which chemical compound of revealed cellular organella is?
RNA
Polysaccharides
Peptidoglycane
Lipids
DNA
*2013* *Microscopic investigation of pathological samples stained with Burri-Hins´ technique from the
patient with suspicious plague is made into the laboratory of life-threatining diseases. Which
property of causative agent does this method allow to study?
Capsule formation
Spore formation
Acid-fast property (acid resistance)
Alkaline resistance
Volutine granules presence
*b-12 At microscopy of bacterial culture fusiform spore-forming blue- violet after staining by Gram
microorganisms have been revealed. Which kind of microorganisms has been revealed?
Streptococci
Spirochetes
Clostridia
Actinomyces
Diplococci
*b-12 Rod-shaped blue microorganisms with terminal spherical red components are seen in the smear
stained by Aujesky´s method. Which name of these components is ?
Spores
Flagella
Pili (fimbria)
Capsules
Mesosomes
*08* A specimen stained by Ozheshko (Aujesky) method contains rod-like microorganisms stained blue
with round terminal components stained red. What are these components called?
Cilia
Capsules
Flagella
Spores
Mesosomes
*At staining of the sputum smear the such dyes and reagents have been used as: Ziehl´s fuchsine and
methylene blue solutions, 5% sulpharic acid solution. Which method of staining has been used?
Ziehl-Neelsen´s
Hins-Burri´s
Gram´s
Peshkov´s
Neisser´s
*The pure culture of Corynebacterium diphteria has been isolated from the patient. After smear
preparation and staining by Neisser´s the next inclusion bodies have been revealed:
Starch
Glycogen
Sulfur
Volutin (polyphosphates)
The drops of neutral lipids
Physiology
Bacteriological method (pure culture isolation) is used for laboratory diagnostics of many infectious
diseases. Which purpose of the first stage of investigation?
Seeding of the collected samples
Obtaining of the separated colonies
Microscopy of the investigated samples
Isolation and accumulation of the pure culture
Identification of the isolated culture
*DNA-polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is important reagent of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
This microorganism is capable of growing at 100 0C and higher and it is:
Thermophilic
Mesophilic
Psychrophilic
Halophilic
Chemolytotrophs
Genetics
The event, at which prophage may replicate with bacterial chromosome in the same time, is known as:
Transfection
Lysogeny
Transformation
Modification
Transduction
*It is known bacterial cells include additional genetic structures, which either exists as independent
element autonomically from chromosome or integrates with it, and supplements such cell additional
property. What is the name of this additional elements?
Prophages
Nucleotides
Is-sequences
Plasmids
Migrating genes
*The procedure of human gene incorporation into bacterial genome with bacteriophage is used in
biotechnological processes for production of therapeutic and prophylactic medicines. What is the
name of such process?
Transduction
Transformation
Translation
Conjugation
Deletion
Infection
Bacteriological examination of the feces of a 38-year-old woman, who had been ill with typhoid
fever 1.5 year ago, revealed Salmonella typhi. Name the form of the infectious process.
A.Bacteria carrying.
B.
Secondary infection.
24.
C.
Reinfection.
D.Superinfection.
E.
Recidivation.
*00*, *01* 38. A child, who is recovering after measles, has developed pneumonia caused by
opportunists. What is the most probable form of this infection?
A. Reinfection.
B.
Secondary infection.
C.
Superinfection.
D. Persistence infection.
E.
Mixed infection.
*08* 62.
A patient recovered after Sonne shigellosis and was once more (repeatedly) infected with
the same causative agent. What is such infection form called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Superinfection.
Recidivation (recurrence).
Reinfection.
Persistent infection.
Chronic infection.
*04*05*06* 73.
A patient has acute gonorrhea diagnosed. It is known, that the patient was ill with
gonorrhea before, but was cured completely. Name the form of this infection.
a. Secondary infection.
b. Superinfection.
c. Recidivation.
d. Reinfection.
e. Autoinfection.
130. A 2-year-old boy was not given APDT vaccine according to schedule. On his pharyngeal tonsils
there were revealed microorganisms, which by morphological and biochemical properties are
identical to Corynebacterium diphtheriae. But precipitation test in gel with antitoxic serum has been
negative. What form of infectious process can this agent cause without urgent treatment?
A. Asymptomatic bacteria carrying.
B. Easy nontoxic form of disease.
C. Toxic complicated form of disease.
D. Chronic disease with the damage of internal organs.
E. Persistent infection.
It is known three links take part in development of infectious and epidemic process. The first link of
infectious process is pathogenic microorganism. But what is the first link of epidemic process?
A. Source of infection
B. Dose of microorganism
C. Way of penetration (invasion)
D. Proper condition of environment
E. Host reactivity
Virulent (patogenecity) factors
*00,01,03,05* The patient, 50 years old, had been treated with levomycetin (chloramphenicol) due to
enteric fever infection, but day after his state was getting worse and fever lifted up to 39,6 С. How
can you explain patient state?
A. Absence of agent sensitivity to chloramphenicol
B. Secondary infection arising
C. Reinfection
D. Action of causative agent endotoxin
E. Allergy
*Virulent factors are accounted at indication of etiological significance of microorganisms. Which
virulent factor of streptococci can be estimated in clinical sample at light microscopy?
A. Fimbria
B. Capsule
C. Protein A
D. Protein M
E. Inclusion bodies
*Which from given virulent factors that typical for the most gram-negative bacteria acts the significant
part in pathogenesis of disease, caused by these microorganisms?
A. Exotoxin
B. Endotoxin
C. Invasive factor
D. Capsule
E. Hemorrhagic factor
Feces of child with enteritis is emulsified into isotonic solution and the drop of emulsion is seeded onto
selective medium (10% yolk-salt agar). Which virulent enzyme possessing aggressive property is
revealed at this medium?
A. Colicins
B. Lecitinase
C. Streptokinase
D. Hemolysines
E. Hyaluronidase
*Biological method of laboratory diagnostics is used into laboratory of life-threatening infections. Which
property of causative agents is not studied at this method?
A. Phage typing
B. Biological
C. Morphological
D. Tinctorial
E. Antigenic
Asepsis and antisepsis. Sterilization and disinfection.
15.
With the purpose of acceleration sugar-containing media were sterilized by live, non--pressurized
steam in one day: during 30 minutes in the morning, in the evening, and in the afternoon. In what
way should the media have been sterilized?
A. During 1 hour.
B.
During 15 min., three days in succession.
C.
During 30 min., two days in succession.
D. During 30 min., three days in succession.
E. During 15 sec. twice a day.
17.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
19.
After practical activity in a laboratory students must put in order and disinfect their working place.
Choose the chemical agent, which should be used.
Ether.
Chloric acid.
Formalin.
Chloroform.
Chloramine
In a laboratory, researches on tetanus diagnostics were carried out. What method of sterilization
should be used to destroy the isolated cultures of tetanus pathogens?
a. Autoclaving (steam under pressure).
b.
c.
d.
e.
Boiling.
Tyndallization.
Dry heat.
Pasteurization
74.
Control of instrument sterilization in autoclave was carried out with the help of a biologic method.
What bacteria are the most rational to use as test-microorganisms?
A. Spore forming.
B. Capsule forming.
C. Acid-fast.
D. Pathogenic
E. Thermophilic.
*2013* in the surgical ward the dressing material was underwent sterilization in an autoclave. Through an
oversight of a nurse the mode of sterilization was changed and the temperature in the autoclave reached
only1000C instead of the due 1200C. What microorganisms can stay viable under these conditions?
A. Molds and yeast fungi
B. Staphylococci and streptococci
C. *Bacilli and clostridia
D. Salmonella and klebsiella
E. Corynebacteria and mycobacteria
*To decontaminate air into the aseptic cabinet some measures have been carried out, that belong to usual
sterilization methods. Which method is the most appropriate for air decontamination after work?
A. Ultraviolet radiation
B. Burning
C. With benzoic acid vapor
D. With alcohol vapor
E. Magnetic field
Antisepsis
*00* For carrying out of bacteriological researches into laboratory, have planned at next day, it is
necessary to prepare sterile Petri dishes, and pipettes. Which method of sterilization should be used
at this case?
*Dry heat
Fluid heat
Tyndalization
Pausterization
Boiling
33.
Antibiotics
The staphylococcus, isolated from the nasopharynx of a nurse during hospital infection, differs
from the strain, isolated from patients, by containing R-plasmid. What feature can the hospital
strain acquire due to the conjugation with the strain isolated from the nurse?
A. Antibiotics resistance.
B. Production of enterotoxin.
C. Production of epidermolitic toxin.
D. Coagulase production.
E. Rough colonies formation.
*Resistance of bacteria to antibiotics is due to presence into the cell of autonomic genetic structure,
transmission of which is possible by conjugation. What is the name of this structure?
A. Ent-plasmids
B. Col-plasmids
C. R-plasmids
D. Transposons
E. Prions
*02* Pathogenic staphylococcus has been isolated from purulent wound of patient. Its sensitivity to
antibiotics has been detected: penicillin – the zone of growth inhibition 8 mm, oxacillin – 9 mm,
ampicillin – 10 mm, gentamycin – 22 mm, lincomycin – 11mm. Which antibiotic should be chosen
for treatment?
A. *Gentamycin
B. Oxacillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Lincomycin
E. Penicillin
*08* A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the
most effective if it suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?
A. Metronidazole
B. Gentamicin
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Nitroxaline
E. Oxacillin sodium
*08* A patient with bacterial pneumonia was prescribed benzipenicillin. What is the mechanism of its
antibacterial effect?
A. Abnormal permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
B. Antagonism with p-amino-benzoic acid
C. Inhibition of synthesis of microorganism wall
D. Inhibition of SH-groups of microorganism enzymes
E. Inhibition of intracellular protein synthesis
Immunity
b-12 In order to speed up healing of a wound of oral mucosa a patient was prescribed a drug
that is a thermostable protein occuring in tears, saliva, mother's milk as well as in a new-laid
hen's egg. It is known that this protein is a factor of natural resistance of an organism. What is
it called?
A Lysozyme
B Complement
C Interferon
D Interleukin
E Imanine
9.
A 1.5-year-old boy who hasn't been inoculated according to the schedule contacted with a patient
with measles. For emergency specific prevention the child was given donor γ-globulin. What kind
of immunity developed in this case?
a. Natural.
b. Passive.
c. Antitoxic.
d. Postvaccinal immunity.
e. Local.
13.
Production of antibodies is one of the most important parts of immune response of an organism.
Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies?
A. T-lymphocytes.
B. Macrophages.
C. Plasma cells.
D. Microphages.
E. T-helpers.
*Humoral immune response takes significant part at many infectious diseases. Which action is not typical
for antibody?
A. Phagocytic
B. Opsonizing
C. Complement activation
D. Neutralizing
E. Activation of cellular cytotoxicity
25.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
32.
After BCG vaccination of infants immunity to tuberculosis is preserved until there are live bacteria
of vaccine strain in the body. Name this kind of immunity.
Type specific.
Humoral
Non-sterile (infectious).
Innate.
Crossed.
Scheduled vaccination against measles has been carried out in a kindergarten. What method can be
used to check up the development of postvaccinal immunity?
A. Bacteriological.
B. Virologic.
C. Serologic.
D. Bacterioscopic.
E. Allergic.
*First 3 months of life children rare fall ill with infectious diseases, that is connected with
transmission of maternal antibody to baby through placenta and with milk. Which type of
acquired immunity does child have at this age?
A. Natural passive
B. Natural active
C. Artificial passive
D. Artificial passive
E. Constitutional
There is outbreak of measles into maternal hospital. Which class of maternal antibody can provide
newborn’s insensibility (immunity) to measles virus?
A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Ig A
D. Ig D
E. Ig E
b-12 A pregnant woman was registered in an antenatal clinic and underwent complex
examination for a number of infections. Blood serum contained IgM to the rubella virus. What is
this result indicative of?
A Of primary infection
B Of a chronic process
C The woman is healthy
D Of exacerbation of a chronic disease
E Of recurring infection with rubella virus
*For prevention of infectious diseases immunization of population is made, and it accompanies with
immunity formation. Cooperation of which immune competent cells is it necessary for effective
formation of primary humoral immune response?
A. Macrophages, T-cells, B-cells
B. T-cells, plasma cells, B-cells
C. Macrophages, plasma cells
D. Mast and plasma cells
E. B-cells and T-cells
*For prevention of infectious diseases immunization of population is made, and it accompanies with
immunity formation. Cooperation of which immune competent cells is it necessary for effective
formation of primary cellular immune response?
A. Macrophages and T-cells
B. T-cells and plasma cells
C. Macrophages and plasma cells
D. Mast and plasma cells
E. B-cells and T-cells
* Which type of interleukin is secreted by macrophages after phagocytosis for triggering of immune
response to bacterial antigen?
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-3
D. IL-5
E. IL-6
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
After penetration into an organism bacteria are ingested by macrophages. What is the function of
macrophages in immunocompetent cells cooperation at the first stage of immune response?
Activation of NK-cells.
T-killers activation.
Processing and presentation of antigen to T-helpers.
Antibodies production.
Processing and presentation of antigen to T-killers.
*Immunogram of HIV patient has been made, and abnormality of T-helper and T-supressor ratio has
been revealed. Which major surface molecules CD (cluster differentiation ) do T-helpers have?
A. CD2, CD3, CD4
B. CD2, CD3, CD8
C. CD19, CD21, CD22
D. CD23, CD24, CD37
E. CD16, CD56
Immunopathology and immunodeficiency
*01*,*02,*06* Donor skin has been transplanted to a patient with extensive burn. In 4-5 days the skin
transplant adapted, but it became swollen and changed color on the eighth day. Ten days later it
started to reject. Which cells take part in this process?
A. T-lymphocytes.
B.
Erythrocytes.
C.
Basophiles.
D. Eosinophils.
E.
B-lymphocytes.
*00* Patient after transplantation of kidney graft has rejection. Which major effector cells take part in
this immunological reaction?
A. *Cytotoxic T-cells
B. B-cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Suppressor T -cells
E. Helper T-cells
*After 1.5 months of liver transplantation the patient state was getting worse due to onset of graft
rejection. Which factor of immune system acts the predominant part in this reaction?
A. T-killers
B. Interleukin-I
C. Natural killers
D. B-cells
E. T-helpers
*The boy, 11 years old, has ekzematous rash onto the trunk and legs. History revealed otitis, pneumonia,
furunculosis. Laboratory assay shows thrombocytopenia, low activity of T-helpers and Tsuppressors, decreasing of IgM level at normal data for Iga and IgG. Which type of
immunodeficiency is at this case?
A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B. Louis-Barr syndrome
C. DeGeorgy syndrome
D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
E. Swiss syndrome
The child, 2 years old, suffering from severe form of chicken pox, has face defects, mongoloid slant.
History revealed spasms, oral cavity mycosis . There is lymphocytopenia at normal level of B-cells
and immunoglobulins into the blood assay. Which immunodeficiency syndrome does child have?
A. DiGeorgy syndrome
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Louis-Barr syndrome
D. Kleinefelter’s syndrome
E. Shereshevsky- Turner’s syndrome
*07* 64. B-12 Immunological tests of a patient with clinical symptoms of immunodeficiency have been
carried out. Significant decrease of cells, forming rosettes with sheep erythrocytes, has been
revealed. What conclusion should be made on the basis of analysis data?
A. Decrease of complement system level.
B. Decrease of B-cells level.
C. Decrease of natural killers (NK-cells) level.
D. Decrease of T-cells level.
E. Decrease of thrombocytes (platelets) quantity
*03* 41. B-12 A patient with clinical symptoms of immunodeficiency with invariable quantity and
functional activity of T-and B-cells is found to have a molecular level defect. This defect is
accompanied by the disorder of antigen-presenting function of immunocompetent cells. Name these
cells.
A. NK-cells.
B. T- and B-lymphocytes.
C. Macrophages and monocytes.
D. Fibroblasts, T- and B-lymphocytes.
E. B-lymphocytes.
*05* A patient with clinical symptoms of primary immunodeficiency is found to have a defect of antigenpresenting function of immunocompetent cells. The structure defect of what cells is possible?
A. NK-cells
B. В- cells
C. Т- cells
D. Plasma cells
E. *Macrophages, monocytes
42.
Acquired defect of immune system of a patient is diagnosed - a disorder of complement system
activation by the classical pathway against the background of the sufficient content of system
components. Defect of antibody production is suspected. Decrease in number of what antibodies
can be expected first of all?
A. IgM, IgA.
B.IgA, IgG.
C.IgD, IgG.
D.IgE, IgG.
E. IgM, IgG.
53.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 37-year-old woman periodically had infectious diseases of bacterial genesis during a year. Their
clinical course was extremely prolonged, remissions were short-term. Hypogamma- globulinemia
was revealed by examination. The functional defect of what cells might be the direct cause of the
disease?
Neutrophiles.
Eosinophils.
B-cells.
Macrophages.
Basophiles.
*Young woman with blood group A had suffered in road accident , and she was transfused with donor
blood of group B by mistake. Posttransfusion reaction set up, leading mechanism of which is
immunopathological reaction. Which type does it belong to?
A. Cytotoxic
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Immune complex
D. Cellular
E. Stimulating
51.
A 54-year-old woman referred to a doctor with complaints of hen's eggs intolerance, which
appeared recently. Antihistamines prescribed by the doctor slightly improved the status of the
patient. What antibodies could provide the development of this reaction?
A. IgA.
B. IgE.
C. IgD
D. IgG.
E. IgM.
For detection of sensitivity to antibiotic patient is injected with 0.2 ml of penicillin solution
intracutaneously. After 10 min hyperemia and edema appear in the site of injection. Which type
according Cumbs-Jelly’s classification has this reaction belong to?
A. Anaphylaxis (phenomenon Auveri)
B. Cytotoxic
C. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
D. Reaction is like Artus phenomenon
E. Tuberculin type reaction
At flat repair woman suddenly has had bout of breathless with sensation of lack of air, difficulties with
breathing out, dry cough and anxiety. Bronchial asthma has been diagnosed. Which allergy
mediator causes such effects?
A. Histamine
B. Serotonin
C. Prostaglandin E
D. Interleukin I
E. Interleukin 6
*The woman, 40 years old, visited doctor with complains onto itching, reddening, burning sensation of
the checks. Vanishing crème had been used 1 hour ago. Which type of allergy reaction of I group
due to Combs and Jelly does patient have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Quincke’s edema
Bronchial asthma
Anaphylactic shock
Urticaria
Pollen allergy
The worker of factory with 20 years record of work has had contact dermatitis of hands. Which type of
immunological disorder does such illness belong to?
A. Delayed type of allergy
B. Primary immunodeficiency
C. Immediate type of allergy
D. B-cell immunodeficiency
E. T-cell immunodeficiency
*01* After some minutes of injection made for patient with tetanus breathless and frequent pulse
appeared, blood pressure decreased. Which drug was the most probable reason of complication?
A. Sulfonamide
B. Donor gamma-globulin
C. Anatoxin (Toxoid)
D. Antibiotic
E. *Antitoxic serum
*04*,*06* After 8 days of antitetanus serum injection patient with contaminated wound of the foot has
fever (38 С), joint pain, rash and itching. Blood assay demonstrated leucopenia and
thrombocytopenia. Which type of allergy reaction arises in this case?
A. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic
C. Anaphylaxis
D. *Immune complex
E. Stimulating
*07* The patient, female, 27 years old, had taken eyes drops, including penicillin. After some minutes she
had itching and burning of body, edema of lips and eyelids, whistle cough; blood pressure started to
decrease. Which kind of Ig takes part in such allergic reaction?
A. IgG and IgD
B. IgA and IgM
C. *IgE and IgG
D. IgM and IgG
E. IgM and IgD
*Woman had being suffered from pollen allergy for 25 years. The treatment had been made with
desensitization method (periodic injection with small doses of allergens) and allowed to heal. What
type of mechanism for inhibition of allergy was the most probable?
A. Accumulation of T-suppressors and IgG
B. Basophiles inactivation
C. Blockage of cellular histamine and heparin receptors
D. Formation of immune complex
E. Decreasing of complement concentration into serum
34.
Vaccines
Numerous vaccine preparations have been used to induce human active immunity. Which
preparation is presented by live attenuated bacteria?
A. APDT (DPT) vaccine.
B. BCG vaccine.
C. Salk's vaccine.
D. TABTe vaccine.
E. Hepatitis B vaccine.
*The process of killed vaccine creation consists from several steps. The choice of vaccine strain has
crucial significance at this event . Choose the most important criterion for sampling:
A. To take strains with maximal virulence
B. To use bacteria with prominent biochemical activity
C. To select the strains with low pathogenecity
D. To use strains with low antigenecity and immunogenecity
E. To take resistant strains to antibiotics
*During outbreak of diphtheria DT vaccine was used for adult immunization. Which type of immunity is
created by this preparation?
A. Natural
B. Antitoxic
C. Cellular
D. Passive
E. Post infectious
In region , where epicenter of rabies among wild animals has been registered, the bitten with wild dog
man visited policlinics. For rabies prevention he was injected with antirabies vaccine. Which type
of vaccine does this medicine belong to?
A. Attenuated
B. Inactivated
C. Molecular
D. Anatoxin (toxoid)
E. Synthetic
*Schedule vaccination against measles has been made in child community. Which method can be used to
check efficacy of immunization?
A. Virological
B. Allergic test (allergic probe)
C. Immunological
D. Biological
E. Viroscopic (microscopy)
It is necessary to provide vaccines for schedule immunization into kindergarten. Which property should
vaccine have?
A. Immunogenecity, areactivity
B. Immunogenecity, areactivity, avirulence
C. Avirulence, easy technology of production
D. Areactivity, easy usage
E. Immunogenecity
Bacterial preparation institute creates vaccines for schedule immunization. What is the name of vaccine
composed from microbial cells and toxoid of another causative agent?
A. Chemical
B. Gene engineered
C. Associated
D. Autovaccine
E. Combined
*05* Immunization against whooping cough is planned in kindergarten. Which medicine should be used
for this purpose?
A. Type specific serum
B. BCG vaccine
C. Normal gamma-globulin
D. DTT
E. *DPT vaccine (ADPT)
Immune sera
14.
When using treatment antitoxic serums a patient is always given precisely defined doses. In what
units is the activity of antitoxic antidiphtheric serum measured?
A. International.
B.
Flocculation.
C.
Antigenic.
D. Agglutination.
E.
Neutralization.
*The sole medicine, that allow to treat successfully such toxic infection as diphtheria, tetanus, and
botulism, is antitoxic sera (antitoxins). Choose the way which is used to obtain such sera:
A. Hyper immunization of horses with medicine obtained from toxin
B. Enzymatic dialysis (Diaferm)
C. Immunization of horses with toxigenic bacteria
D. Hyper immunization of rabbits with corresponding toxins with following purification
E. Usage of recombinant techniques
* In traumatologic department patient is made primary surgery of wound and the next drug is given for
passive immunity creation:
A. Vaccines
B. Immune sera
C. Toxoids
D. Antibiotics
E. Vitamins
*2013* a child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the
injection of tetanus antitoxin. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was
administered by Bezredka’s method. What mechanism underlies this method for desentization of the
body?
A. Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cell
B. Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific IgG
C. Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cell
D. Stimulation of the immune tolerance to the antigen
E. Binding of IgE receptors to the mast cell
Serological reactions (tests)
5.
A patient referred to a doctor on the second week of illness, which resembled of typhoidparatyphoid disease by clinicoepidemiologic findings. The doctor decided to confirm the diagnosis
by detecting specific antibodies. What preparation should be used for this purpose?
A. Adsorbed monoreceptor serums.
B. Diagnostic serums.
C. Labeled serums.
D. Monoclonal antibodies.
E. Diagnosticums.
47.b-12
Serologic diagnostics of infectious diseases is based on specific antigen-antibody
interaction. Name the serological reaction, which consists in microorganisms clumping under the
influence of specific antibodies in the presence of electrolyte.
A. Hemadsorption.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. Agglutination.
E. Neutralization.
*Pure culture isolated from the blood at suspicious enteric fever is investigated in bacteriological
laboratory. Which serological test should be made to study its antigenic structure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Precipitation
Agglutination
CFT
ELISA (IFA)
Flocculation
*For serodiagnostics of enteric fever test is made by next way: diagnosticums of three types are added to
different dilution of patient serum. Test result is registered by deposit appearance, consisting from
clumped bacteria. Which mechanism of interaction between antigen and antibody takes place at this
test?
A. Agglutination
B. Precipitation
C. Lysis
D. Bacteriolysis
E. Hemolysis
*At negative result of bacteriological method patient diagnosis is made with serology. Thereafter
clumping of bacteria under the influence of antibody is named:
A. Complement fixation test
B. Precipitation
C. Agglutination
D. Lysis
E. Immobilization
48.
Serologic diagnostics of infectious diseases is based on specific antigen-antibody interaction. Name
the serological reaction, during which highly refined antigens are adsorbed on erythrocytes.
A. Neutralization.
B. Precipitation.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. Hemadsorption.
E. Indirect hemagglutination.
67.
Effective diagnostics of enteric bacteria carrying is based on detecting antibodies to certain bacteria
antigens during indirect hemagglutination test. Name the standard preparation which should be
used.
Sheep erythrocytes and hemolytic serum.
Antibodies against immunoglobulins of basic classes.
Monoclonal antibodies.
Monoreceptor diagnostic serum.
Erythrocytic diagnosticum (erythrocyte adsorbed by bacteria antigens).
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
49.
Serologic diagnostics of infectious diseases is based on specific antigen-antibody interaction. How
is the antigen sedimentation from solution reaction under the influence of immune serum in the
presence of electrolyte called?
A. Neutralization.
B. Agglutination.
C. Complement fixation.
D. Hemadsorption.
E. Precipitation.
54.
Bloodstains are revealed on the clothes of a person accused of a murder. What test can prove that
the blood is human?
A. Neutralization.
B. Immunofluorescence test.
C. Complement fixation test.
D. Agglutination.
E. Precipitation.
b-12 The person was selling "homemade pork" sausages on the market. State sanitary inspector
suspected falcification of the sausages.With help of what serological immune reaction can food
substance be identified?
A Precipitation test
B Indirect hemagglutination test
C Agglutination test
D Immunofluorescence test
E Complement- fixation test
50.
Indirect immunofluorescence test has been used to detect toxoplasmas antibodies in the blood
serum of a pregnant woman. At first, the fixed smear of toxoplasmas was processed with the
investigated serum. With what should the specimen be processed at the following stage?
A. Luminescent serum against human immunoglobulins.
B. Fluorescent solution.
C. Human normal immunoglobulin.
D. Diagnostic serum containing toxoplasmas antibodies.
E. Serum containing fluorescent-labeled toxoplasmas antibodies.
*04* During outbreak of acute respiratory infection to diagnose influenza rapid (express) diagnostics is
made that is based onto revealing of specific virus antigen in clinical samples. Which test is used
for this purpose?
A. Complement fixation test
B. *Immunofluorescence
C. Precipitation
D. Opsonization
E. Agglutination
*The outbreak of infection probably of virus etiology was registered in kindergarten. It is necessary to
plan antiepidemic measures . Which reactions (tests) or laboratory diagnostics methods should be
used first for rapid (fast) and timely decryption this outbreak?
A. Immunofluorescence microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. Virological method
D. Serological method
E. Light microscopy of native material
56.
A patient is hospitalized with the previous diagnosis of hepatitis B. To diagnose the disease a
serological reaction based on interaction of antigen and antibody, chemically linked to peroxidase
or alkaline phosphatase, was carried out. Name this reaction.
A. Complement fixation test.
B. Radioimmunoassay.
C. Immunofluorescence test.
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E. Immobilization.
66.
Causative agent antigens can be revealed in blood of patients with different infectious diseases.
What reaction should be used, taking into account that antigenemia level is low?
ELISA.
Agglutination test.
Indirect hemagglutination test.
Latex agglutination method.
Immunoelectrophoresis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
57.
A causative agent has been isolated from a patient with acute gastroenteritis. It should be identified
by antigen structure. Which serological reaction should be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Precipitation.
Complement fixation test.
Neutralization.
Agglutination.
Opsonization
58.
A patient with a suspicion of the chronic form of gonorrhea was admitted to a hospital. Choose a
two-system serological reaction for detecting specific antibodies in the serum.
A. Complement fixation test.
B.
Neutralization.
C.
Agglutination.
D. Radioimmunoassay.
E.
Enzyme immunoassay.
68.
Hemolytic serum against sheep erythrocytes is necessary for work in the laboratory, where
serologic diagnostics of infectious diseases is carried out. Name the test, during which the serum is
used.
A. Viral hemagglutination test.
B. Indirect hemagglutination test.
C. Test for the diagnostics of new- borns' diseases.
D. Passive hemagglutination.
E. Complement fixation test.
Bank of Krok testing to module N2
Staphylococci
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Furuncle pus smear showed spherical microbes arranged in grape-like clusters. Name these
microorganisms.
*Staphilococci.
Diplococci.
Micrococci.
Streptococci.
Tetracocci.
18.
A child with the diagnosis of staphylococcal sepsis was admitted to a hospital. What nutrient
medium should be used for patient's blood inoculation to isolate the causative agent of this disease?
Ploskirev's medium.
Meat peptone broth.
* Glucose peptone broth.
D. Buchin's medium.
E. Yolk-salt agar.
A 55-year-old patient is hospitalized to a surgical department with suspicion of sepsis. Choose
the specimen which should be obtained for examination.
A. Liquor.
B.
*Blood.
C.
Urine.
D.Pus.
E. Lymph node punctate.
112. Feces of a child with enteritis are resuspended in isotonic solution of sodium chloride, and a
suspension drops applied onto selective medium: 10 % milk-salt or yolk-salt agar. What
microorganisms are supposed to be isolated?
E. coli.
Klebsiella
*Staphylococci.
Streptococci.
Enterococci.
* Staphylococcal etiology of infection was confirmed with bacteriological examination at patient with
furunculosis. What basic method of microbiological diagnostics was used in this case?
Allergic
*Bacteriological
Serological
Microscopic
Biological
*05* *08* b-12 Examination of a patient with pustular skin lesions allowed to isolate a causative agent
that formon the blood agar roundish yellow middle-sized colonies surrouded by hemolysis zone.
Smears from colonies contain irregular-shaped clusters of gram-positive cocci. The culture is
oxydase- and catalase-positive, ferments mannitol and synthesizes plasmocoagulase. What
causative agent was isolated?
Streptococcus agalactiae
*Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pyogenes
*Post –operative purulent complications into surgery wound took place in a surgical department.
Microscopy of wound discharge revealed gram-positive spherical bacteria arranged in grape-like
clusters. For differentiation of what microorganisms was coagulase test used in laboratory?
*Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
Neisseria meningitidis from Streptococcus pneumonia
*b-12 A man, 65 years old, has suffered from purulent abscess on his neck. A culture of gram-positive
cocci was isolated that possessed plasmocoagulase activity.
*Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Streptococcus pyogenes
“04” 8. Microbiology examinations are carried out in the neonatal department of a maternity hospital
because of the suspicion of a hospital infection. S. aureus from several children and some things
was isolated. What properties of isolated cultures should be examined to determine the source of
infection?
Biochemical activity.
Chrornogenesis.
Antigenic structure.
*Phage type.
Antibiotic sensitivity.
“06” 23.
Cases of suppurative postoperative complications caused by staphylococcus have
increased in a surgical unit. Which test should be used to determine the source of infection?
A. Drugs susceptibility test.
B.
Serotyping test.
C.
Aggression enzymes determination.
D.Toxin production.
E. *Phage typing.
b-12 In the surgical department of a hospital there was an outbreak of hospital infection that
showed itself in often postoperative wound abscesses. Bacteriological examination of pus
revealed aurococcus. What examination shall be conducted to find out the source of this
causative agent among the department personnel?
A Phagotyping
B Microscopical examination
C Serological identification
D Estimation of antibiotic susceptibility
E Biochemical identification
*07* At outbreak of hospital infection staphylococcal pure culture were isolated from patient, medical
staff and some objects (items) from environment. What research should be carried out to establish
identity of isolated staphylococci and know a source of hospital infection?
*Phage typing
Biovar typing
Pathogenecity revealing
Serotyping
Animal infection
*To reveal a source of infection with pathogenic staphylococcus at surgery department a research was
made with usage of standard staphylococcal bacteriophages. What type of pure culture
investigation isolated from different places was made?
*Phage typing
Phage diagnostics
Phage indication
Phage therapy
Phage identification
Streptococci
*111. Cholecystic infection was caused by microorganisms of spherical oblong form situated in pairs or
short chains. On the basis of biological properties the bacteria were referred to group D
streptococci. What is their name?
A. β-hemolytic streptococci.
B.
α-hemolytic streptococci.
C.
Pyogenic streptococci.
D. * Enterococci.
E. Pneumococci.
*04* *2012* 115.b-12 Gram-positive diplococci with some pointed ends were revealed during the
examination of a patient's sputum due to suspicious pneumonia. Which microorganism is the most
likely to cause the disease?
Staphylocccocus aureus
Neisseria meningitidis.
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae.
85.
C.
Microscopy of the sputum of a patient with croupous pneumonia revealed numerous Gram-positive
lanceolate diplococci surrounded by a capsule. Name the most likely causative agent.
Chlamidia pneumoniae.
Klebsiella pneumoniae.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli.
*08* b-12 Blood of a patient with presumable sepsis was inoculated into sugar broth. There appeared
bottom sediment. Repeated inoculation into blood agar caused growth of small transparent round
colonies surrounded by hemolysis zone. Examination of a smear from the sediment revealed
gram-positive cocci in form of long chains. What microorganisms are present in blood of this
patient?
A. Sarcina
B. Staphylococci
C. Tetracocci
D. Micrococci
E. *Streptococci
A 12-year-old boy after angina has rheumatic damage of heart. Every successive streptococcal infection
worsens the condition of the patient. What preparation is expedient to use for the prevention of
complications?
A. Streptococcic toxoid.
B.
*Benzylpenicillin sodium salt.
C.
Streptococcic bacteriophage.
D. Donor γ-globulin.
E.
Autovaccine.
b-12 A 7 year old child often suffers from streprococcic angina. Doctor suspected development
of
rheumatism and administered serological examination. The provisional diagnosis will be
most probably confirmed by presence of antibodies to the following streptococcic antigen:
A O-streptolysin
B C-carbohydrate
C M-protein
D Erythrogenic toxin
E Capsular polysaccharide
132. A doctor has suspected scarlet fever of a 2-year-old child with catarrh and skin rash. A small
quantity of serum against streptococci erythrogenic toxin has been injected intracutaneously. In the
place of injection the rash disappeared. What do reaction results indicate?
A. The whole doze of serum can be injected intravenously.
B.
The child is hypersensitive to erythrogenic toxin.
The disease has been caused by a nonhemolytic streptococcus.
*The clinical diagnosis has proved to be true.
E. Immune system of the child is considerably impaired.
*A woman, 48 years old, complains to breathless, eyelid edema, pain in the small of her back. There are
protein, erythrocytes and hyalinic cylindres in the urine. Diagnosis is made “acute pyelonephritis”.
History revealed she has being suffered from chronic tonsillitis for many years. What
microorganism is the most probable reason of disease?
*Streptococci
Staphylococci
Ureaplasma
Chlamidia
Proteus
*12* b-12 During examination of a patient a dentist revealed a lot of “white-spot zones of
enamel dimeneralization” What microorganisms take part in the development of this
process?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Veilonella parvula
D. Streptococcus salivarius
Streptococcus pyogenes
Gonococcus
77.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pure culture of cocci-like microorganisms of urethral discharge was isolated from a patient with
chronic urethritis. The culture fermented only glucose to acid in the standard Hiss' medium. Name
the species of these microorganisms.
*Neisseria gonorrheae.
Neisseria meningitidis.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Enterococcus faecalis.
*04**2013* b-12 96. Bacteriological examination of pus urethral discharge revealed Gram-negative
bacteria of coffee beans shape, which fermented glucose to acid and were found in leukocytes. To
what disease causative agents can they be referred?
A. Syphilis.
B.
*Gonorrhea.
C.Venereal lymphogranulomatosis.
D.Soft chancre.
E. Leptospirosis.
*06* 105.
Pus from urethra was inoculated onto special nutrient medium. Tender bluish colonies
grew. Microscopical examination revealed Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci. What disease do
they cause?
A. Syphilis.
B.
Chlamidiosis.
C.
*Gonorrhea.
D. Tularemia.
E.
Myeloidosis.
167. Urethral purulent discharge is inoculated onto special nutrient medium. There have grown tender
bluish colonies. Microscopy has shown Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci. What disease do
they cause?
Chlamidiosis.
Tularemia
*Gonorrhea.
Syphilis.
Toxoplasmosis.
Pathological sample – purulent discharge from genital tracts of patient with acute urethritis has been sent
to bacteriological laboratory. To isolate causative agent a nutrient medium – serum agar with
vancomycin and nistatin has been prepared. Which microorganism is suggested to isolate?
*Gonococcus
Pale spirochetes
Fungi from Candida genus
Chlamidia
Golden staphylococci
* A lots of Gram-negative cocci have been revealed into the smear from sputum. Choose the nutrient
medium for bacteriological research
*Blood agar
MPA
Endo medium
Bile broth
Ploskirev’s medium
133. An ophthalmologist has suspected blennorrhea (gonococcal conjunctivitis) of a sick child with
purulent keratoconjunctivitis. What methods of laboratory diagnostics should be used for the
confirmation of the diagnosis?
A. Microscopic and serologic.
D. Biological and allergic.
B.
Serologic and allergic.
C.
Biological and phage typing.
E.
*Microscopic and bacteriological.
*05* Newborn has been revealed purulent discharge from conjunctiva. At microscopy there are a lots of
leukocytes and Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci into them. Which causative agent is a reason
of this case?
Neisseria catarrhalis
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
*01*03* 137. B-12 During bacterioscopic examination of the purulent discharge from the uterus there
were revealed Gram-negative bean-like diplococci situated in leukocytes and out of them. Which
microorganism is the causative agent of the purulent inflammation of the uterus?
Chlamidia trachomatis.
Trichomonas vaginalis.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Haemophilus vaginalis.
Calymmatobacterium granulo-matis
161. b-12 A sick woman has gonorrhea diagnosed on the basis of clinical symptoms. Which method is
the most rational for confirmation of the diagnosis?
A. Precipitation test.
B.
Infection of laboratory animals
C.
Test with bacteriophage.
D. Hemagglutination test.
E.
*Microscopy of pathological material.
B-12 A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests
for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent
toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea of the patient?
A CFT- complement fixation test
B IFA - Immunofluorescence assay
C Immunoblot analysis
D RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
E RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
Meningococci
125. b-12 A bacteriologist using a bacterioscopic test of nasopharynx mucus has revealed Gram-negative
cocci that resemble coffee beans and are located in pairs or tetrads. Which microorganism was
isolated by the bacteriologist?
A. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus.
B.
Hemophilus ifluenzae.
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D.Moraxella lacunata.
E. *Neisseria meningitidis.
134. A doctor has diagnosed meningococcal nasopharyngitis of a child with nasopharyngitis. What
method of laboratory diagnostics is the most rational for diagnosis confirmation?
A. Serologic.
B.
Biological.
C.
*Bacteriological.
D. Microscopic.
E.
Allergic.
135. From a child with cerebrospinal meningitis there was obtained muddy spinal fluid with numerous
leukocytes. Which test should be used for express-diagnostics of the disease?
A. Complement fixation test.
B.
Agglutination.
C.
*Immunofluorescence test.
D. Hemagglutination.
E.
Neutralization.
* Suddenly young woman has started suffering from high temperature (39 C) and severe headache. At
examination rigidity (stiffness) of neck muscles has been revealed. Spinal puncture has been made.
There were a lot of neutrophils and Gram-negative diplococci into the smear from cerebrospinal
fluid stained by Gram. Which from given bacteria might be cause of this disease?
*Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
* A culture of meningococcus was isolated from the deposit of cerebrospinal fluid. Which serological test
should be used for serogroup detection?
RA (agglutination test)
*RP (precipitation test)
RPHA (passive hemagglutination test)
RCF (complement fixation test)
Immune lysis test
116. In a kindergarten children and personnel were examined with the purpose of detecting
meningococcal carriers. What method of microbiological research should be used?
A. Allergic.
B.
*Bacteriological.
C.
Bacterioscopic.
D. Biological.
E.
Serologic.
* In kindergarten a child has been diagnosed meningococcal nasopharyngitis. Which vaccine may be used
for current specific prophylaxis of meningococcal infection among children?
Alive attenuated
*Chemical
From killed microorganisms
Toxoid (anatoxin)
Combined
b-12 *2012* Bacterioscopy of nasopharyngeal mucus taken from a 2,5 year old child with
nasopharyngitis
revealed gram-positive diplococci looking like coffee grains. What organs of the child are most
likely to be affected if these microorganisms penetrate the blood?
A *Brain tunics
B Cardiac valves
C Renal glomeruli
D Urogenital tracts
E Lymph nodes
Escherichia coli
151. A 7-year-old boy has been diagnosed a cholera-like disease (vomiting, profuse diarrhea). The feces
of the patient were inoculated onto Endo medium, and homotypic crimson colonies with metallic
sheen have grown. Which microorganism is the most likely to be the causative agent of the disease?
A. Shigella sonnei.
B.
Salmonella enteritidis.
C.
Yersinia enterocolitica.
D. *Escherichia coli, enterotoxigenic type.
E. Vibrio holera.
*An acute enteric infection has developed in a child, 6 months old. Feces has been inoculated of Endo
medium to make bacteriological diagnosis. Based onto typical growth of causative agent a doctor
made a presumptive conclusion that cause of infection was Escherichia coli. Which type of colonies
was revealed onto Endo agar?
*Crimson (magenta) with metallic sheen
Large mucous
Small colorless
Pale pink with white edge
“ Creeping” growth
*2013* A 12-year-old boy has been hospitalized for suspected food poisoning. The fecal
samples were inoculated on the Endo agar, which resulted in growth of a large number of
colorless colonies. What microorganism is most likely to be EXCLUDED from the list of
possible causative agents of the disease?
A *Escherichia coli
B Salmonella enteritidis
C Proteus vulgaris
D Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E Yersinia enterocolitica
*01*03*04* b-12 At bacteriological investigation of feces taken from 4 months’ child with acute enteric
infection a lots of red colonies have been grown onto Endo medium. What microorganisms are
these?
*Escherichia
Salmonella
Staphylococci
Streptococci
Shigella
*01*02*03* A culture of E.coli with antigen structure O-111 has been isolated from feces of bottlefeeding newborn. Which diagnosis may be made?
*Coli-enteritis
Gastroenteritis
Cholera-like disease
Food-poisoning infection
Dysentery-like disease
*06* Signs of dehydration and bloody diarrhea have been developed fast in a child with acute enteric
infection. Pediatrician has suspected coli-enteritis. Which method should be used to diagnose
enteric escherichiosis?
*Bacteriological
Biological
Serological
Allergic
Microscopic
b-12 Among junior children of an orphanage an outbreak of intestinal infection with signs of
colienteritis was registered. In order to identify isolated causative agent it is necessary to:
A Study antigenic properties of the causative agent
B To determine sensitivity to antibiotics
C To study sensitivity to bacteriophages
D To study biochemical properties of the causative agent
E To study virulence of the causative agent
*A child with complaints onto general weakness, bloody diarrhea and pain in kidney region has been
hospitalized. Body temperature is normal. There are no leucocytes at coproscopy. Indicate, which
microorganism could cause such symptoms of disease?
*Enteroinvasive E.coli
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
Enterotoxic E.coli
Enteropathogenic E.coli
Enteroadhesive E.coli
*A pure culture of E.coli has been isolated from feces of ill person. What is from given later does not
correspond to characteristics of this species? E.coli is:
*Toxigenic in case of lysogenization
Representative of large intestine microbiota
Causative agent of purulent infection
Causative agent of cholera-like disoders
Active component of eubiotics
Salmonella typhi
28.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
After inoculation of feces specimen from a patient with typhoid fever onto Endo medium colonies
of different size and color — big red and medium colorless - have grown. Name the functional type
of this medium.
Selective.
Enriched.
Special.
*Differential-diagnostic.
Universal (general purpose).
104. From the blood of a patient there was obtained the culture of typhoid fever pathogen. What cultural
properties are characteristic of this pathogen?
A. Hemolysis on blood agar.
B.
Formation of red colonies with metallic luster on Endo medium.
C.
Formation of colorless colonies on bismuth-sulfite agar medium.
D. *Formation of colorless colonies on Endo medium.
E.
Formation of a gentle pellicle on alkaline peptone water.
166. Feces of a restaurant cook without any clinical symptoms of disease are examined with the help of
bacteriological methods. On bismuth-sulfite agar little black colonies with metallic sheen have
grown. What microorganisms can it be?
A. *Salmonellae.
B.
Shigellae.
C.
Escherichiae.
D. Staphylococci.
E.
Streptococci.
40.
A.
C.
A diagnosticum (processed with tannin sheep erythrocytes adsorbed by Vi-antigen of Salmonella
typhi) has been used for serologic diagnostics of typhoid carrying. Choose the reaction, in which
this diagnosticum will be used.
Precipitation.
Hemagglutination
*Indirect (passive) hemagglutination
Complement fixation test.
Hemagglutination inhibition reaction.
*07* b-12 In passive hemagglutination test made with erythrocyte thyphoid Vi-diagnosticum antibody
in serum dilution 1:80 has been revealed that is higher of diagnostic titer. Such result indicates next:
A. *possible carrying of enteric fever pathogen
B. Patient recovery after enteric fever
C. Recurrence of enteric fever
D. Acute infection of enteric fever
E. Incubation period of enteric fever
*05* 174.
Inspection of school dining-room staff for typhoid carrying has been carried out. There
were revealed antibodies to Vi-antigen in the blood serum of the cook. Which test has been used?
A. Complement fixation test.
B.
Widal's test.
C.
*Indirect hemagglutination test
D. Enzyme immunoassay.
E.
Immunofluorescence test.
*02* 82.
A patient with typhoid fever suspected was administered blood culture. It is rational
because during the first week of enteric fever the following phenomenon is observed:
A. Toxinemia.
B.
*Bacteremia.
C.
Septicemia.
D. Septicopyemia.
E.
Viremia.
* A patient with previous diagnosis “enteric fever” was hospitalized in a hospital. Which nutrient medium
from given later may be used for blood culture isolation?
MPB
*Bile broth
Yolk-salt agar
Blood agar
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
121. b-12 A patient (has been feeling ill for 3 days) was hospitalized to an infectious clinic with typhoid
fever preliminary diagnosed. What method should be used to confirm the diagnosis?
*Hemoculture. (blood culture)
Biliculture.
Coproculture.
Urine culture.
Roseola culture.
*00*01* 150. A patient with complaints of a three days' fever, general weakness, insomnia,
deterioration of appetite referred to a doctor. The doctor has suspected typhoid fever. What method
of laboratory diagnostics is the most rational for confirmation of the diagnosis?
A. Myeloculture.
B.
Coproculture.
C.
Urine culture.
D.Spinal fluid culture.
E. *Hemoculture (blood culture).
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pure culture was isolated from a patient with typhoid fever suspected. The culture was identified as
S. typhi by morphologic, cultural, and biochemical characteristics. What investigation should be
used for final identification of the causative agent?
Serodiagnosis.
*Seroidentification.
Allergic diagnostics.
Antibiotic-sensitivity test.
Phage typing.
101. Widal's test is used for the serologic diagnostics of typhoid fever. What mechanism of antigens and
antibodies interaction underlies it?
A. Hemolysis.
B.
Precipitation.
C.
Bacteriolysis.
D. *Agglutination.
E.
Bacteria immobilization.
142. Blood of a patient with typhoid fever has been sent to a laboratory for detecting antibodies. Which
serological reaction should be used?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition.
B.
Precipitation.
C.
Complement binding.
D. Passive hemagglutination.
E.
*Agglutination.
*A serum of patient with suspicious enteric fever has been sent to laboratory. To make serodiagnosis of
typhoid fever with Widal test next antigen should be used:
Immune diagnostic serum for causative agent of typhoid fever
*Enteric fever diagnosticum
Alive pure culture of Salmonella
Erythrocytic salmonella diagnosticum
Serum of patient
88.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A patient was hospitalized to an infectious department on the 8th day of the disease complaining of
headache, general weakness. Blood was taken for serological examination. Widal's reaction of
agglutination appeared to be positive in dilution 1:200 with O-diagnosticum Salmonella typhi.
What diagnosis can be made?
Cholera.
Shigellosis.
*Typhoid fever.
Leptospirosis.
Tuberculosis.
*A blood of patient with primary diagnosis “enteric fever” is examined in serological laboratory. After
what time from onset of the most diseases serological method of diagnostics may be effective?
*After a week
After 3 days
After 12 hours
After a month
From onset of disease
*At serology (Widal test) of patient with enteric fever O- and H-agglutinins have been revealed in titers
1:800 and 1:200 respectively. It indicates about:
Recovery period
Having an illness before
State after immunization
*The onset of disease
Impossibility of diagnosis confirmation
b-12 During the repeated Widal's agglutination test it was noticed that the ratio of antibody titers
and
O-antigens S.typhi in the patient's serum had increased from 1:100 to 1:400. How would
you interpret these results?
A The patient has typhoid fever
B The patient is an acute carrier of typhoid microbes
C The patient is a chronic carrier of typhoid microbs
D The patient previously had typhoid fever
E The patient was previously vaccinated against typhoid fever
Salmonella causing food poisoning infections
92.
A 12-year-old boy with food poisoning suspected was hospitalized. Feces culture on Endo medium
revealed numerous colorless colonies. Name the microorganism, which can be excluded from the
number of possible causative agents of this disease.
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B.
*Salmonella enteritidis.
C.
Proteus vulgaris.
D.Escherichia coli.
E. Yersinia enterocolitica.
*03, 07* 153. B-12 During the bacteriological examination of gastric washings of a patient with food
poisoning pure culture of bacteria with such properties was isolated: Gram-negative motile rods
which form colorless colonies on Endo medium. Which microorganism species is the most likely to
be the cause of the disease?
A. *Salmonella.
B.
Shigella.
C.
Yersinia.
D. Escherichia.
E.
Citrobacter.
*107. There is registered an outbreak of food poisoning connected with eating confectionery products,
which were kept at room temperature and for preparation of which duck's eggs were used. What
microorganisms could have caused this disease?
A. Vibrio cholerae.
B.
E.coli.
C.
Staphylococci.
D. Legionella.
E.
*Salmonella.
*A food poisoning infection appeared in some persons which had anniversary celebration. A cream for
cake have been prepared from duck’s eggs. Which the most probable genus do bacteria causing
infection belong to?
Clostridium
Shigella
*Salmonella
Yersinia
Corynebacterium
170. Identification of food toxical infection causative agent has shown that according to biochemical
properties it belongs to Salmonella genus. What property of the causative agent testifies its specific
belonging?
A. Pathogenicity for laboratory animals.
B.
Phagotype.
C.
Culture properties.
D. *Antigenic structure.
E.
Morphologic and staining properties.
*An outbreak of enteric infection arose in hospital department that was not connected with quality of
provided food. Infection was resistant to antibiotic therapy. Which causative agent of hospital
infection is the most probable?
A. *Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Blue-pus rod (Pseudomonas)
E. Proteus
Shigella spp.
86.*2013*
A patient complained of nausea, liquid blood-streaked stool with mucus, fever, general
weakness. He was hospitalized to the infectious department of a hospital. A doctor suspected
shigellosis. What method of laboratory diagnostics should be administered to confirm this
diagnosis?
A. *Bacteriological.
B.
Serological.
C.
allergic.
D. Microscopic.
E.
biological
*A patient with diarrhea and subfebrile temperature was previously diagnosed as suffering from
dysentery. Isolated culture fermented glucose and mannitol to acid and gas, slowly broke down
lactose and protein with indole production. Which from causative agent of dysentery is
characterized with these properties?
S.flexneri
S.dysenteriae
S.boydii
*S.sonnei
P.shigelloides
89.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
16.
A.
B.
Pure culture of bacteria isolated from a patient with symptoms of colitis was identified as Shigella
genus according to morphological, cultural, and biochemical properties. Which test should be used
for serological identification of this culture?
Inhibition of hemagglutination.
Complement fixation test.
Indirect hemagglutination.
Precipitation.
*Agglutination with diagnostic serums.
Stool culture revealed S. zonnei. What additional researches should be carried out to determine the
source of infection?
Drugs susceptibility test.
*Phage typing test.
C.
D.
E.
Precipitation reaction.
Complement-fixing reaction.
Neutralization reaction.
30.
Feces culture of a patient with typical clinical picture of shigellosis did not reveal shigella due to
early treatment with antibiotics. But antishigella antibodies titer in PHAT in pair serums increased
by four times. What does it mean?
A. Vaccinal reaction.
B.
Excludes shigellosis diagnosis.
C.
The patient was ill with shigellosis before.
D.Nonspecific reaction.
E. *Confirms shigellosis diagnosis.
69.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Feces bacteriological examination of a patient with enteric infection revealed Shigella sonnei.
Choose the serological reaction, which was used for the identification of the obtained pure culture.
Complement fixation test.
Precipitation.
*Agglutination.
Neutralization.
Lysis test.
*07* b-12 For retrospective diagnosis of past bacterial dysentery a serology of blood serum was
administered to reveal antibody titer to Shigella. Which from listed tests should be used for this
purpose?
*Passive hemagglutination
Precipitation
Complement fixation test
Hemolysis
Bacteriolysis
* During studying of isolated from a patient Shigella culture presence of exotoxin has been indicated.
Which species of Shigella is this sign typical for?
S.flexneri
*S.dysenteriae
S.boydii
S.sonnei
*An outbreak of dysentery was registered into kindergarten in the town M.. Which drug should be used
for specific prevention in children?
Antibiotics
*Bacteriophage
Vaccines
Probiotics
Vitamins
b-12 A patient recovered from Sonne dysentery and was once more infected with the same
causative agent. What is such infection form called?
A Reinfection
B Recidivation
C Superinfection
D Persisting infection
E Chronic infection
Pseudomonas
“08” b-12 A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the
lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine
revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with
specific smell. What causative agent can it be?
Proteus mirabilis
Str.pyogenes
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E.coli
* A burned patient has had purulent complication. A purulent discharge has blue-greenish tinge that
indicates infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which morphological feature is typical for
this causative agent?
Spore formation
*Negative staining with Gram technique
Coccoid shape
Cell arrangement in pairs
Mycelium formation
*05, 07* b-12 There were revealed leucocytes and many gram-negative rods into urine sample of patient
with acute cystitis. After inoculation mucous forming green soluble pigment colonies grew. Which
microorganism is the most probable reason of infection?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Salmonella enteritidis
Escherichia coli
*Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Proteus mirabilis
Vibrio cholera
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gram-negative comma-shaped bacteria are revealed in the feces of a patient with diarrhea. What
properties should be studied with a microscope first of all to receive additional information about
the revealed microbes?
Presence of spores.
Presence of a capsule.
*Motility.
Presence of volutin inclusions.
Presence of glycogen inclusions.
*2012* b-12 A vomiting mass of patient with suspected cholera was sent to the bacteriological
laboratory. A smear “hanging drop” was prepared from the sample. Which method of microscopy
will be used to reveal causative agent due to its motility?
*Phase-contrast
Electron microscopy
Immune electron
Luminescent
Immerse type
*A vomiting mass of patient with suspected cholera was sent to the bacteriological laboratory. A smear
“hanging drop” was prepared from the sample to microscopy it with dark field technique and
indicate motility of causative agent that is established as important diagnostic criterion. Which
reagent should the smear be treated before microscopy with?
Luminescent serum
desinfection solution
Methylene blue solution
Alkaline peptone water
*No one
* A pure culture of vibrio was isolated from feces of patient with enteric infection. Which morphological
group do these microorganisms belong to?
Cocci
Clostridia
*Spiral
Bacteria
Bacilli
b-12 Patient with diarrhoea was admitted to the infection unit. Gram-negative curved rod-like
bacteria
were founded on bacterioscopic examination of faecal masses. What is the most likely disease
in this patient?
A Cholera
B Typhoid fever
C Salmonellosis gastroenteritis
D Diphtheria
E Intestinal form of plague
83.
In the feces of a patient with acute gastroenteritis there were revealed motile, slightly curved Gramnegative rods, which grow onto alkaline 1% peptone water in the form of tender bluish pellicle.
What microorganisms have such properties?
A. Spirilla.
B.Spirochetes.
C.Clostridia.
D.Bacilli.
E.*Vibrios.
95.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
As a result of feces inoculation onto 1% alkaline peptone water after 8 hours' incubation with 37° C
temperature a growth in the form of tender bluish pellicle was revealed. Microscopy revealed
Gram-negative curved rods. What disease could these microorganisms cause?
Shigellosis.
Plague.
Typhoid fever.
Paratyphoid fever.
*Cholera.
100. A patient is hospitalized to an infectious department with cholera suspected. What basic method of
research is necessary to use for the confirmation of the diagnosis?
A. Immunological.
B.
*Bacteriological.
C.
Biological.
D. Serologic.
E.
Allergic.
118. Feces of a patient with cholera were delivered to a laboratory of extremely dangerous infections.
What method of microbiological diagnostics is to be used to confirm or deny the diagnosis?
A. Virological.
B.
Allergic.
C.
Bacterioscopic.
D. Biological.
E.
*Bacteriological.
127. From the vomit mass of a patient there were isolated very motile, slightly curved, Gram-negative
rods which react positively with Inaba's diagnostic serum. What symptoms, most probably, will
appear with the treatment absent?
A. Endotoxic shock.
B.
Bacteremia.
C.
*Fluid loss. (Dehydration)
D.Skin rash.
E. Ulcerous damages of intestine.
* A girl, 18 years old, from rural area of India has profuse diarrhea with fluid loss up to 8 liters a day.
Which from given later microorganism may be reason of this infection?
*Vibrio cholera
Campylobacter jejuni
Enteropathogenic E.coli
Salmonella typhi
Shigella dysentheriae
“01”138.
A patient with complaints of repeated diarrhea and vomiting, pain in muscles of legs,
general weakness, and vertigo is hospitalized to an infectious department. After examination a
doctor
has previously diagnosed cholera. Which method of investigation of the specimen from the patient
should be used for express-diagnostics ?
A. *Immunofluorescence test.
B.
Agglutination test
C.
Bacteriological.
D. Allergic.
E.
Biological.
*03* A patient with diarrhea was hospitalized into infectious disease department. Microscopy of feces
revealed Gram-negative curved rods. Which disease may be suspected?
*Cholera
Salmonella gastroenteritis
Diphtheria
Enteric type of plague
Enteric fever
* A detection of serological variant of V.cholera allows to identify isolated strain and make a control of
epidemic situation. Which way is it made by?
*Agglutination test with O-specific and type-specific sera
By Mukerje’s
By Heiberg’s
With detection of polymixin sensitivity
With agglutination of fowl erythrocytes
* Motile, slightly curved Gram-negative rods were isolated from patient’s vomiting mass and they were
identified as cholera vibrio. Which test helps to differentiate classical variant of V.cholera from ElTor biovar?
Agglutination with O-1 serum
Lactose fermentation
Growth onto 1% alkaline agar
*Growth onto agar with polymixin
“fish in steam” appearance at microscopy
Yersinia pestis
148. Microscopical examination of the sputum of a patient with acute pneumonia preliminary diagnosed
has shown chaotically located microorganisms of ovoid form up to 2 microns long, more
intensively stained on the poles. What the most probable diagnosis can be made on the basis of this
data?
A. *Pneumonic plague.
B.
Streptococcal pneumonia.
C.
Staphylococcal pneumonia.
D. Klebsiella pneumonia.
E. Diphtheria.
*05* 171.
In a mountain settlement mass death of rodents was observed. Simultaneously the
inhabitants of this area were ill. The illness was accompanied by the fast rise of body temperature
up to 40° C, apparent intoxication, increase of inguinal lymph nodes. In the touch smears of
cadaveric material Gram-negative bipolarly stained ovoid rods were revealed. What
microorganisms are the causative agents of this infectious disease?
Staphylococci.
Causative agents of anthrax.
*Causative agents of plague.
Causative agents of tularemia.
Clostridia.
* From dead rodent ovoid, Gram-negative, and bipolar stained bacteria have been isolated. What
microorganism may it be?
*Causative agent of plague
Tubercle bacilli
Causative agent of syphilis
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
* A geologist which has returned from expedition visited doctor and had typical for plague complaints.
During examination doctor revealed symptoms of pneumonia. Which method of microscopy allows
to reveal typical for causative agent of plague irregularity of staining?
With Pfeiffer’s fuchsine
*With methylene blue (by Loeffler)
With carbolic fuchsine (Ziehl’s fuchsine)
By Romanowsky-Giemsa
By Gram
*02* From the sputum of patient with headache, shivering, and cough Gram-negative, ovoid rods with
bipolar staining have been isolated. They were located in chains into the smear from broth culture,
and they formed R-forms of colonies onto agar. What disease is it typical for?
*Plague
Meningococcal nasopharingitis
Tuberculosis
Diphtheria
Streptococcal angina
Tularemia
*01* A man, 44 years old, muskrat hunter, has had heightening temperature up to 380С, headache, lid
eyes edema, conjunctiva hyperemia, and surface ulcer onto the skin of neck. іIndicate the probable
causative agent of disease:
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
Brucella suis
Leptospira interrogans
Bacillus anthracis
*Francisella tularensis
*00* A doctor had suspected bubonic form of tularemia and sent clinical samples to laboratory for
bacteriological method. Which feature of this method is at this definite case?
*Pure culture is isolated from infected laboratory animals
Pure culture is isolated on solid media
Pure culture is isolated on enriched media
Pure culture is isolated into liquid media
Isolated culture is identified due to antigenic structure
Brucella
114. During the swing of flu epidemic a milkmaid referred to a doctor with complaints of high body
temperature, general weakness, absence of appetite, pain in joints. During 10 days she has been
having self-treatment for flu. The infectiologist suspected brucellosis. Using what reaction is it
possible to diagnose brucellosis?
A. *Wright's.
B.Wassermann test.
C.Coombs test.
D.Widal'stest.
E. Ouchterlony test.
*06* A veterinarian, working at cattle farm, visited doctor and complained of pain in joints, fever,
weakness, night sweats. He has been ill for a month. According to complaints and patient
profession doctor suspected brucellosis. Which material collected from this patient should be
exameneed in ordinary bacteriological laboratory?
*blood serum
Cerebrospinal fluid
Vomiting mass
Urine
Feces
*00* From a patient, 40 years old, with acute feverish disease of unknown etiology blood was collected
for serology at the 8th day of illness. After agglutination test with different diagnosticums it has
been estimated that Widal test was positive at serum dilution 1:100, and Wright test - at serum
dilution 1:400. Which diagnosis may be made according to serology results?
*Brucellosis
Enteric fever
Paratyphoid fever A
Paratyphoid fever B
Leptospirosis
84.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
During a scheduled examination milkmaids had a Burnet's intracutaneus allergy test. This test is
used to detect hypersensitivity to:
*Brucellin.
Tuberculin.
Old tuberculin.
Tularin.
Antraxin.
126. A patient with an infectious disease has positive skin allergic Burnet's test. What diagnosis was
confirmed by this test?
A. Q fever.
D. Salmonellosis.
B.
Tularemia.
C.
Typhoid fever.
E.
*Brucellosis.
11.
A patient with brucellosis has a positive Burnet's intracutaneous allergy test. Which immune system
factor can induce inflammatory reaction in the site of brucellin introduction?
A. IgA.
B.
*Sensitized T-lymphocytes.
C.IgE.
D.IgG.
E.IgD.
144. A child has brucellosis diagnosed. The child didn't have any contacts with sick animals. How could
the infection get into the organism?
A.
Via dirty hands.
B.
Via dirty vegetables and fruit.
C.
Via water.
D. *Via unpasteurized milk.
E. During injections.
Bacillus anthracis
119. During a biological test in touch smears from the organs of an animal streptobacteria surrounded
with a capsule were revealed. It gives the basis to diagnose:
A. Tularemia.
B.*Anthrax.
C.Plague.
D. Brucellosis.
E.Croupous pneumonia.
* From horse carcass Gram-positive, capsulated, in size 8x1.5 µm, arranged in chains bacteria have been
isolated. Which microorganism is it?
*Causative agent of anthrax
Causative agent of foot-and-mouth disease.
Streptococcus
Causative agent of hepatitis A.
Causative agent of tetanus.
*00* 98.
A 34-year-old patient complained of carbuncle on his face. Examination revealed a
painless thin edema of subcutaneous fatty tissue with a black eschar in the center, and vesicular
eruption on the periphery. Microbiologic examination revealed nonmotile capsule-forming
streptobacilli. What microorganisms are the causative agents of this disease?
A. *Bacillus anthracis.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Bacillus anthracoides.
Bacillus subtilis.
Bacillus megaterium.
* During microscopy of cattle-breeder’s eschar (scab) with suspicious anthrax typical Gram-positive rods
surrounded with capsule have been revealed, that at cultivation onto nutrient media have formed
colonies with “lion mane” appearance. Which drug should be used for prevention of anthrax in
contact persons?
*Vaccine STI
Vaccine STI-1
Antitetanus serum
Sixanatoxin (Sixtoxoid)
Anti-anthrax gamma-globulin
*12* b-12 There was a record of some anthrax cases among animals in countryside. The spread
of disease can be prevented by means of immunization. What kind of vaccine should be
used?
A. DPT vaccine
B. Salk vaccine
C. BCG vaccine
D. Sabin`s vaccine
E. STI live vaccine
*03*05*08* b-12 39.The territory of the old burial ground of cattle (for animal refuse), that has not been
used for over 50 years, is planned for house building. But soil investigation has shown the presence
of viable spores of an especially dangerous disease causative agent. Name the microorganism
which could have been preserved in soil for such a long time.
A. Yersinia pestis.
B.Francisella tularensis.
C.Brucella abortus.
D. *Bacillus anthracis.
E.Mycobacterium bovis.
65.
A.
B.
E.
A man referred to the reception ward of an infectious disease hospital, having received by mail an
envelope with suspicious powder. The man was isolated, and the powder was sent to the laboratory
for detecting the presence of anthrax causative agent's spores. Which is the fastest method of
detecting these microorganisms?
Isolation of pure culture.
Complement fixation test.
Precipitation in gel.
*Immunofluorescence test.
Neutralization test.
*00* 90.
An extract of cattle-breading raw material was delivered to a laboratory from the area,
where cases of anthrax among animals were noted. What serological reaction should be used for
detecting anthrax causative agent antigens in the investigated specimen?
A. *Termoprecipitation.
B.
Complement fixation test.
C.
Indirect hemagglutination.
D. Radioimmunoassay.
E.
Precipitation in agar.
106. In a laboratory for the examination of animal skins the precipitation test is used (Askoly test). The
resultis: in some minutes after adding of the immune serum with skin extract an albescent ring
formed. What does this result indicate?
A. *Presence of bacillus anthracis antigens.
B.
Presence of Clostridium perfringens toxin.
C.
Presence of brucellosis causative agent.
D. Presence of escherichia surface antigen.
E. Presence of salmonella Vi-antigen.
156. To check cattle-breeding raw material (leather, wool) for the presence of anthrax agent soluble
thermostable antigen in water-salt extract from raw material is prepared. What reaction may be used
for this purpose?
A. Neutralization.
B.
Precipitation in agar.
C.
Agglutination.
D. Indirect hemagglutination.
E.
*Ring-precipitation.
Clostridium tetani
146. The causative agent of tetanus produces exotoxin with different biological action effects. What
clinical symptoms can this toxin cause?
A. Disorders of vision.
B.* Lackjaw.
C. Diarrhea.
D. Skin rash.
E. Nausea.
*2013* A patient was consulted by a dentist due to limited mouth opening (trismus). He has a history of a
stab wound of the lower extremity. What infection may cause these symptoms?
A. Tularemia
B. *Tetanus
C. Whooping cough
D. Brucellosis
E. Wound anaerobic infection
* During earthwork one from the workers had been seriously injured. A surgery of his wound and
penicillin injection had been made in a hospital. After 2 weeks he had spasms. Which drug could
have been injected to patient besides given before?
Donor gamma-globulin
Interferone
*Antitoxin
Aminoglycosyde antibiotic
Tetracycline antibiotic
* After 48 hrs’ incubation into termostat of necrotic tissue homogenizate rough large flat colonies have
grown onto the Zeissler blood agar. Colonies had tendency to “creeping” growth. Which properties
of isolated microorganisms are noted in task description?
Morphological
*Cultural
Tinctorial
Proteolytic
Hemolytic
Clostridium botulinum
*06* 169.
Jerked fish, being the cause of food poisoning, has been delivered to a bacteriological
laboratory. The sample was cultured under anaerobic condition. After inoculation into Kitt-Tarozzi
medium a bacteriologist has revealed microorganisms akin to a tennis-racket. What disease do they
cause?
A. Typhoid fever.
B.
Salmonellosis.
Dysentery.
Staphylococcal toxic infection.
E.*Botulism.
*05*06*07* b-12 163.A bacteriological laboratory conducts a research of canned meat for the presence of
botulotoxin. An extract from the researched material with antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E
types was injected to the experimental group of mice. An extract without antitoxic serum was
injected to the control group.
What serologic test has been used?
A. Complement fixation.
B.
Precipitation.
C.
*Neutralization.
D.Opsonophagocytic.
E.Double immune diffusion.
59.
A patient with the previous diagnosis of botulism has been hospitalized. What serological reaction
should be used to determine botulinum toxin in test specimens?
A. Complement fixation test.
B.
Agglutination.
C.
*Neutralization.
D.Precipitation.
E.Immunofluorescence test.
94.
A.
B.
After eating canned mushrooms a patient has bulbar paralysis symptoms: ptosis, diplopia, aphonia,
and dysphagia. Botulism was previously diagnosed. What test should be used to determine the toxin
type?
*Neutralization.
Agglutination.
Precipitation.
E.
Complement fixation test.
Immunofluorescence test.
164.*2012* 2010* A student, having eaten meat, tinned in domestic conditions, has symptoms of food
poisoning, caused by Clostridium botulinum: diplopia, dysphrasia, respiratory paralysis. What
caused such symptoms of botulism?
A. Enterotoxin secretion.
B.
C. botulinum invasion into intestinal epithelium.
C.
*Neurotoxin action.
D.Endotoxic shock.
E.Activation of adenylate cyclase.
* A dried home-made fish was sent to laboratory as suspicious cause of severe food poisoning; symptoms
of disease indicated action of severe exotoxin, that damaged nuclei of medulla oblongata. Which
diagnosis was given in appointment card to laboratory assay?
Salmonellosis
Cholera
Dysentery
*Botulism
Enteric fever
*02*03*04* b-12 A patient N. admitted to hospital with complaints of vomiting, giddiness, diplopia,
difficulty of swallowing. A doctor suspected botulism. Which methods of laboratory diagnostics
should be used to confirm diagnosis?
A. *Biological probe, bacteriological
B. Allergic test, serology
C. bacteriological, mycological
D. protozoological, microscopy
E. –
* A patient with suspicious food poisoning has been made a diagnosis “botulism”. Which tactics of doctor
will be? Which drugs should be administered for treatment of patient?
*Gastric lavage, antibotulism sera, antibiotics
Antibiotics, vaccine
Gastric lavage, vaccine, antibiotics
Antibotulism sera, vaccine
Gastric lavage, vaccine, antibiotics
Gas gangrene infection
*From wound discharge of patient with suspected gas anaerobic infection next bacterium was isolated:
Gram-positive rod, 6x1.5 µm in size, with subterminal spore, and it can form capsule into the host
organism. What microbe is it?
*Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium hystoliticum
Bacillus anthracis
* A patient with suspicious gas gangrene infection was admitted to hospital. Which medium should
patient sample be inoculated?
*Kitt-Tarozzi
Levin’s
Endo
Muller’s
Rassel’s
* Filtrates prepared from broth cultures of gas gangrene causative agents have poured into test tubes, then
added species antitoxic sera and have being remained at room temperature for 40 minutes. For
detection of anaerobic species it is necessary now:
*Inoculate the test tube contents into animal
Add agglutinating diagnostic serum into test tubes
Inoculate content of test tubes onto solid nutrient media
Add precipitating diagnostic serum into test tubes
Add erythrocytic diagnosticum into test tubes
21.
A patient injured in an accident has been suspected of probable development of anaerobic wound
infection (gas gangrene). What is the most appropriate treatment before making a specific
laboratory diagnosis?
A. Native plasma.
B.Toxoid.
C. Type specific immune serum.
D. *Polyvalent specific serum.
E.Placental γ-globulin.
*07* A sample from patient’s wound has admitted to laboratory. Which microbiological method may
indicate species belonging of causative agent?
*Bacteriological
RIA
Serological
Allergic
Bacterioscopy
b-12 A laboratory received a material from a patient's wound. Preliminary diagnosis is gaseous
gangrene. What microbiological method should be applied to determine species of causative
agent?
A Bacteriological
B Allergic
C Bacterioscopic
D Serological
E RIA
* At food poisoning a culture of anaerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming rods was isolated. Which
species, most probably, does isolated agent belong to?
*C.perfringens
Proteus vulgaris
P.mirabilis
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Escherichia coli
Corynebacterium diphtheria
87.
A patient was admitted to a clinic in grave condition, fever, heavy breathing. Preliminary diagnosis
of diphtheria croup was made by the microscopy of throat specimen. What method of staining was
used?
A. Peshkov's.
B.
Ziehl-Neelsen's.
C.Burri-Gins'.
D.*Neisser's.
E. Ozheshko's.
158. In the smear from the tonsils of a patient with diphtheria suspected there have been revealed blue
rods with thick-enings on the ends. What method of staining has been used?
A. *Loeffler's.
B.Burri's.
C.Gins'.
D.Gram's.
E.Neisser's.
* 108. Among the children of a boarding school there are cases of angina. Microscopy of tonsil smears
stained by Neisser method revealed yellow rods with dark-brown terminal granules arranged in the
form of V, W, and X letters (Rome number 5). What infection can be suspected in this case?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. Tonsillitis.
B.
*Diphtheria.
C.
Listeriosis.
E.
Scarlet fever.
* A pure culture of Corynebacterium diphtheria had been isolated from a patient. After smear preparation
and staining with Neisser’s technique next inclusion bodies were revealed:
Starch
Glycogen
*Volutin (polyphosphate)
Sulfur
Drops of neutral lipids
*After examination of 6-year-old girl with angina a doctor suspected diphtheria. He collected a sample
from tonsils. Which microscopy appearance is typical for causative agent of this disease?
*Gram-positive rods arranged at angle
Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains
Gram-negative cocci arranged in pairs
Chaotically located Gram-negative rods
Paired Gram-negative cocci
OB-12 While examining a patient an otolaryngologist noticed hyperaemia and significantly
edematous tonsils with a grayish film upon them. Microscopical examination of this film
revealed some gram-positive bacilli placed at an angle with each other. What disease might be
suspected?
A Diphtheria
B Angina
C Scarlet fever
D Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
E Epidemic parotitis
* A pure culture was isolated from material (membrane from tonsils) of patient with suspected case of
diphtheria. Morfologically these microorganisms are:
*Rods with clublike bulges on ends
Spherical shape
Rod-shaped
Spiral form
Rods with pointed ends
* From patient with suspected faucial diphtheria a bacterium with next morphological properties was
isolated: Gram-positive rod with bulges onto ends, 3x0.6 µm, arranged as fence in smear. Which
microorganism is it?
*Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Corynebacterium pseudodiphthericum
Streptococcus
Actynomyces
Bordetella pertussis
* During identification of Corynebacterium diphtheria culture cultural properties, starch fermentation and
hemolytic activity are studied for:
*Indication of biovars
Indication of serovars
Detection of toxigenecity
Phage typing
Bacteriocin detection
b-12 A 4-year-old child presents with general weakness, sore throat and deglutitive problem.
After his examination a doctor suspected diphtheria and sent the material to the bacteriological
laboratory. In order to determine the diphtheria causative agent the material should be
inoculated into the following differential diagnostic medium:
A Blood tellurite agar
B Endo's agar
C Ploskyrev's agar
D Sabouraud's agar
E Levenshtein-Yessen agar
*08* b-12 Inoculum from pharynx of a patient ill with angina was inoculated onto blood-tellurite agar. It
resulted in growth of grey, radially striated (in form of rosettes) colonies 4-5 mm in diameter.
Gram-positive bacilli with clublike thickenings on their ends placed in form of spread wide apart
fingers are visible by microscope. What microorganisms are these?
*Diphtheria corynebacteria
Streptobacilli
Botulism clostridia
Streptococci
Diphtheroids
6.
Prophylactic vaccination of a student's group was necessary because of a case of diphtheria. What
preparation should be used to develop artificial active immunity?
A. *Diphtheria toxoid.
B.
Antidiphtheritic serum.
C.
Specific immunoglobulin.
D.Vaccine DPT (triple vaccine).
E.
Inactivated vaccine.
*07*08* b-12 45.
To determine the toxigenicity of diphtheria causative agents isolated from
patients, cultures are inoculated onto a Petri dish with nutrient agar on both sides of the centrally
located filter paper strip sodden with antidiphtheric antitoxic serum. After cultures incubation in the
agar between separate cultures and filter paper strip the sites of medium opacity are revealed.
Which serological reaction has been carried out?
A. Precipitation in gel.
B.
Coombs reaction.
C.
Agglutination.
D. *Ring-precipitation.
E.
Opsonization.
*05* During investigation of preschool institute staff for carriage state C.diphtheriae was isolated from
one of kindergarten teachers. Toxigenecity examination has been made and it nas been revealed that
this strain did not produce exotoxine. Which reaction was made to detect toxigenecity of diphtheria
bacteria?
Complement fixation test
Immunofluorescence test
Agglutination test
*Precipitation in agarose gel
Ring precipitation test
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pure culture of diphtheria corynebacteria is isolated from a patient. What serologic test should be
used for detecting toxigenicity of the culture?
Agglutination.
*Precipitation in agar.
Complement fixation test.
Hemagglutination inhibition.
Passive hemagglutination.
102. Corynebacterium diphtheria was obtained from a sick child with diphtheria suspected. What
research is necessary to be carried out to be convinced that this microbe causes diphtheria?
A. Agglutination test.
B.Staining by Burri-Giens' method.
C.
Inoculation on blood agar.
D.Infecting a rabbit.
E.*Determining of toxigenicity
*07* 154.
A girl of 7 with high temperature, complaints of pain in throat and general weakness has
been hospitalized to the infectious department. The doctor has suspected diphtheria and has given
the instruction to take material from the fauces for isolation of the pure culture of the pathogen.
Which point is the most important for confirmation of the diagnosis «diphtheria»?
A. Detecting volutin granules in the causative agent.
B.
*Toxigenicity test.
C.Cystinase test.
D. Hemolytic activity of the causative agent.
E.Phage typing.
b-12 From pharynx of a child with suspected diphtheria a pure culture of microorganisms was
isolated. Their morphological, tinctorial, cultural and biochemical properties appeared to be
typical for diphtheria causative agents. What study should be conducted in order to drow a
conclusion that this is a pathogenic diphtheria bacillus?
A Estimation of toxigenic properties
B Estimation of proteolytic properties
C Estimation of urease activity
D Estimation of cystinous activity
E Estimation of ability to decompose starch
*03* 75.b-12 A microorganism, isolated from a 5-year-old child's nasopharynx, is identical to
Corynebacterium diphtheriae by morphological and biochemical properties, but doesn't form
exotoxin. What process can make this microorganism toxigenetic?
Chromosome mutation.
*Phage conversion.
Cultivation on telurite medium.
Passage through the organism of sensitive animals.
Cultivation in the presence of antitoxic serum.
* A child, 5 years old, has admitted to hospital with painful throat and fever. Diagnosis “diphtheria” was
made. It is known causative agent of diphtheria secretes toxin which damages translocation. Which
way does it make?
*By translocase inhibition
By modification of protein translocation factor
With translation mistakes
By elongation of inhibition
By aminoacyl-m-RNA linkage damage
129. Examining a 6-year-olf child a doctor has noticed on pharyngeal tonsils a grayish
"pseudomembrane". Attempt to remove it causes moderate bleeding. Bacterioscopy of tonsils
swabs has shown Gram-positive club-shaped bacteria. What symptoms can appear within the next
few days without specific treatment?
A. Very strong attack-like cough.
B.
Lungs edema
C.
*Toxic affection of the cardiac muscle, liver, kidneys.
D.Papular rash on skin.
E.Intermittent fever.
128. Antitoxic sera are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of:
A. Gonorrhea.
B.
Whooping cough.
C.
Shigellosis.
D. *Diphtheria.
E.Tuberculosis.
157. In the pediatric department of an infectious clinic a boy had diphtheria diagnosed. Which
preparation should be injected first of all?
A. *Diphtheritic antitoxin.
B. Diphtheritic anatoxin.
C.
APDT.
D.ADT.
E. TABTe
*06*08* In a patient with suspicious diphtheria microscopy of throat sample smear has revealed rodshaped bacteria with volutin granules. Which etiotropic drug is agent of choice in this case?
Eubiotic
*Antidiphtheric antitoxic serum
Interferone
Diphtheria toxoid
Bacteriophage
168. It is necessary to carry out specific active prophylaxis of diphtheria of children in a kindergarten.
What preparation should be used for this purpose?
A. *Toxoid.
B. Antibiotics.
C. Probiotics.
D. Corpuscular vaccine.
E.Immune serum.
Bordetella
b-12 A patient has been suffering from elevated temperature and attacks of typical cough for 10
days. Doctor administered inoculation of mucus from the patient's nasopharynx on the agar.
What microorganism is presumed?
A Pertussis bacillus
B Pfeiffer's bacillus
C Listeria
D Klebsiella
E
Staphylococcus
*05* 172.
In a kindergarten vaccination against pertussis is planned. Which preparation is used for
the immunization?
A. Type specific serum.
B.BCG vaccine.
C.*APDT vaccine (DPT).
D.Normal γ-globulin.
E. ADT vaccine.
*01*03*04* b-12 For serological diagnosis of whooping cough test tube reactions with pertussis and
parapertussis diagnosticums were made. Granular deposit was formed onto the test tube bottom in
which diagnosticum from Bordetella parapertussis had been inoculated. Which type of antibody
has this reaction revealed?
Antitoxins
Bacteriolysins
*agglutinins
precipitins
Opsonins
*2013* A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed
mercury-drop-like colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small ovoid gram-positive
bacilli sized 1-3 μm. What microorganisms were isolated?
A. Brucella
B. Corynebacteria
C. Meningococcus
D. Mycobacteria
E. *Bordetella
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
*01* 72.
Microscopy of the sputum of a patient with an acute form of pulmonary tuberculosis is
carried out to detect the causative agent of this disease. What method of staining is the most rational
in this case?
A. Gram's.
B.
*Ziehl —Neelsen's.
C. Burri —Gins'.
D. Romanowsky — Giemsa.
E. Neisser.
81.
Sputum of a patient with tuberculosis was delivered to a laboratory. What method of staining
should be used for detecting causative agents of tuberculosis?
A. Gram's.
B.* Ziehl — Neelsen's.
C. Burri —Gins'.
D. Romanowsky-Giemsa.
E.Neisser.
OB-12 A consumptive patient has an open pulmonary form of disease. Choose what sputum
staining should be selected for finding out the tubercle (Koch's) bacillus?
A Method of Ziel-Neelsen
B Method of Romanowsky-Giemsa
C Method of Gram
D Method of Neisser
E
Method of Burry-Gins
117. Centrifuge urine of a patient with renal tuberculosis suspected was used to prepare a smear. What
method of staining should be used for pathogen detecting?
A. Loeffler's.
B. Burri.
C. Gram's.
D. *Ziehl-Neelsen's.
E. Romanovsky-Giemsa.
*02* 05* 109. The sputum of a patient with tuberculosis was delivered to a bacteriological laboratory.
What staining method should be used for microscopic examination of the smears for revealing
tuberculosis mycobacteria?
A. Zdrodovsky's.
B.Bum's.
C.*Ziehl-Neelsen's.
D. Gram's.
E.Romanovsky-Giemsa.
*08* b-12 Microscopy of stained (Ziehl-Neelsen staining) smears taken from the sputum of a patient with
chronic pulmonary disease revealed red bacilli. What property of tuberculosis bacillus was shown
up?
Alcohol resistance
Capsule formation
Alkali resistance
*Acid resistance
Sporification
* A smear was prepared from the sputum of a patient with suspected tuberculosis, and it is stained by
Ziehl-Neelsen. Which properties of causative agent will be indicated for its identification?
*Morphological and tinctorial
Cultural and biochemical
Patogenecity and virulence
Biological and antigenic
Toxigenecity and immunogenecity
* As usually, soil is unfavorable environment for the most pathogenic species of bacteria, viruses, fungi
and protozoan. But, as factor of some causative agents transmission, it plays an important role.
Which from listed microorganisms may be kept (survive) in soil for the longest period?
Causative agent of plague
*Mycobacteria tuberculosis
Vibrio cholerae
Causative agent of tularemia
Shigella
* A sputum of patient with tuberculosis was sent to bacteriological laboratory. One from several
enrichment method , that is based onto treatment of sputum with alkali solution, should be used for
microscopy investigation of smears and tubercle bacilli revealing. What is the name of this method?
Inactivation
*Homogenization
Flotation
Filtration
Destruction
123. b-12 In the sputum smear stained by Ziehl-Neelsen's method are revealed single or grouping red
acid-fast rods. On nutrient, media first growth signs appear in 14 days. What species do the
microorganisms belong to?
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
B.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C.
Histoplasma dubrosii.
D.Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis.
E.Coxiella burnettii.
63. Sputum examination by Price method revealed rod-shaped bacteria arranged in twisted ropes.
Which substance leads to sticking of these bacteria and their above-mentioned growth?
A. Tuberculin.
B.
*Cord-factor.
Phosphatid
Tuberculostearic acid.
E. PPD.
93.
A 6-year-old child with active tubercular process suspected had a diagnostic Mantoux test carried
out. What immunobiological preparation was injected?
A. APDT vaccine.
B.BCG vaccine.
C.*Tuberculin.
D. Tularin.
E.ADT vaccine
99. Children had Mantoux test done in a kindergarten. What preparation was used?
A. *Tuberculin.
B.Brucellin.
C.Tularin.
D.Antraxin.
E. Toxoplasmin
* Schedule newborns (5-7 days old) vaccination against tuberculosis plays an important role in prevention
of this disease. For control of its efficacy next probe (test) is used:
Schick test
*Tuberculin Mantoux test
Zax test
Allergic
Dick test
*07* 145. B-12 A 16-year-old patient from the countryside has a negative Mantoux test. What should the
doctor do?
A. *To give BCG injection.
B. To repeat the reaction in a month.
C.
To carry out tuberculosis serodiagnosis.
D. To quarantine the young man from the collective urgently.
E. To conduct the accelerated tuberculosis diagnostics by Price method.
*07* 160.b-12 At school medical inspection of pupils has been carried out. The purpose was to select
children for revaccination against tuberculosis. Which test has been used?
A. Burnet's.
B.Schick's.
C. Skin test with tularin.
D. *Mantoux test.
E. Anthraxin skin test.
*07*08* *2012* 48 hrs after tuberculine test (Mantoux test) a 10-years-old child had a papule 8
mm in diameter on the spot of tuberculine injection. What hypersensitivity mechanism
underlies these changes?
A. Hypersensitivity reaction II type
B. *Hypersensitivity reaction IV type
C. Reaction like serum illness
D. Atopic reaction
E. Reaction like Arthus phenomenon
*2013* a child with suspected tuberculosis was given Mantoux test. After 24 hrs the site of
allergen injection got swollen, hyperemic and painful/ What are the main components that
determine such response of the body?
A. Plasma cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
B. B-lymphocytes, IgM
C. Macrophages, B-lymphocytes and monocytes
D. Granulocytes, T-lymphocytes and IgG
E. Mononuclear cells, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines
159.b-12
At a maternity hospital immunization of all newborn 5-7 days-old children against
tuberculosis has been carried out. What vaccine has been used?
A. Tetanus toxoid.
B. Diphtheritic toxoid.
C.
*BCG.
D. TABTe.
E.
APDT.
*2011*2013* b-12 While registering the child to the school Mantu's test was made to define
whether revaccination
was needed. Test result was negative. What does this result of the
test mean?
A *Absence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
B Presence of cell immunity to the tuberculosis
C Absence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
D Absence of antitoxic immunity to the tuberculosis
E Presence of antibodies for tubercle bacillus
*08* Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberculosis plays an
important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:
Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine
Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (DPT)
*BCG
Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids (DTT)
Mycobacterium leprae
97.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
After complex examination of a patient leprosy was diagnosed. Name the skin allergic test, which
should be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Dick's.
Mantoux.
*Mitsuda's.
Coombs'.
Schick’s.
*03*a child had been examined with Mantoux test to decide about necessity of revaccination. Test
appeared as negative. What does such result indicate?
Absence of antitoxic immunity to tubercle bacilli
Presence of antibody to tubercle bacilli
*absence of cellular immunity to tuberculosis
Presence of cellular immunity to tuberculosis
Absence of antibody to tubercle bacilli
Treponema pallidum
141. A patient with syphilis suspected has arrived to a hospital. What method should be used for
detecting the causative agent in hard chancre?
A. Microscopy of material stained by Gram's method.
Isolation of pure culture.
*Using dark-field microscopy.
Wassermann test.
E. Agglutination test.
*06* A patient, 18 years old, has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, painless, indurated at palpation. On
genital mucous membrane there is small ulcer with indurated edges and “varnished” grayish
bottom. What diagnosis is the most probable?
Gonorrhea
Tuberculosis
Leprosy
Trophic ulcer
*Syphilis
*04* 80.b-12 Microscopy of the specimen of a regional lymph node punctate stained by RomanowskyGiemsa showed thin microorganisms with 12-14 regular curls and pointed ends of light rose color
10-13 micrometers long. What disease could this agent cause?
A. Relapsing fever.
B.Toxoplasmosis.
C.Leptospirosis.
D. *Syphilis.
E.Leishmaniasis.
162. A laboratory assistant has taken blood serum from a patient with preliminary diagnosed syphilis for
the immune reaction based on detecting antibodies, which inhibit the motility of treponemes and
lead to their death. What test has been used for diagnostics?
A. Complement fixation.
B. *Immobilization.
C. Agglutination.
D. Precipitation.
E.Neutralization.
*Treponema immobilization test is used for confirmation of diagnosis “secondary syphilis”. Which
reagents are necessary for this test?
*Patient serum, complement, alive treponema suspension
Inactivated patient serum, complement, alive treponema suspension
Patient blood, complement, alive treponema suspension
Patient serum, complement, cardiolipin antigen, alive treponema suspension
Patient blood, complement, cardiolipin antigen, alive treponema suspension
*06* 71.
To conduct syphilis serum diagnostics using the Wassermann test a laboratory doctor has
prepared the following reagents: cardiolipidic antigen (ethanolic extract of lipids from a bull's
cardiac muscle with cholesterol), hemolytic system, test serums, isotonic sodium chloride solution,
and antigen of treponema destroyed by ultrasound. What another ingredient should be used for this
test?
A. *Complement.
B.Live treponema.
C.Sheep erythrocytes.
D.Diagnostic precipitating serum.
E. Diagnostic antiglobulin serum
155. A 30-year-old patient's Wassermann test is positive (++++). What infectious disease diagnostics is
this test used for?
A. Brucellosis.
B.* Syphilis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Poliomyelitis.
E. Influenza.
*00* During patient with pulmonary tumor examination Wassermann test has been made and it was
positive (+++). Which next doctor tactics will be?
To assign Wassermann test secondary with microprecipitation test
*To make a diagnosis: syphilis
To assign Wassermann test secondary
To assign microprecipitation tests
To assign biopsy formpulmonary tumor
*A month after discharge of young man from the dermatovenereological hospital, where he had been
treated from syphilis, he visited a doctor again with complaints of indurated painless ulcer. A
doctor made diagnosis “primary syphilis”. What results of previous treatment? What is the name of
form of infectious disease revealed by doctor?
*Total recovery, reinfection
Total recovery, superinfection
Partial recovery, reccurence
Partial recovery, carrier state
Total recovery., secondary infection
Borrelia spp.
*00* 79.
Microscopy of the blood smear stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa showed thin, bluishviolet filaments with 5-7 large curls 10-30 micrometers and more long. What disease can be
characterized by such microscopic picture?
A. Leishmaniasis.
B. Syphilis.
C. Leptospirosis.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. *Relapsing fever.
120. To an infectious clinic a patient with preliminary diagnosed epidemic relapsing fever is
hospitalized. What material, taken from the patient, is it necessary to examine first of all?
A. *Blood.
B. Urine.
C. Spinal fluid.
D. Feces.
E. Nasopharynx swab.
*01* 139.
A patient with a periodically repeating fever is hospitalized to an infectious department.
In blood specimen (a thick drop), stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method, spiral microorganisms
with sharp ends of blue-violet color are revealed. Which disease is caused by this agent?
A. *Relapsing fever.
B.Typhoid fever.
C.Malaria.
D. Epidemic typhus.
E.Leptospirosis.
*From patient with suspicious relapsing fever blood was taken during fever. A smear “thick drop” was
prepared for bacterioscopy. Which method of staining should be used for causative agent revealing?
By Ziehl-Neelsen
*By Romanowsky-Giemsa
By Burri-Hins
By Neisser
By Aujesky
*What sanitary-epidemiological measure allows to decrease suddenly morbidity rate for epidemic
relapsing fever?
*Fight with pediculosis (lice)
Extermination of wild rodents
Disinfestations (extermination of animals)
Insecticide usage
Acaricide usage (fight with ticks)
*02* After patient examination a diagnosis – tick-born relapsing fever (borreliosis). Which way might
patient be infected?
Through bite of malarial mosquito
*through bite of country tick
Through bite of dog tick
Through bite of taiga tick
Through bite of mosquito
* Lyme borreliosis (Lyme disease) was revealed in endemic regions of the USA first, but now it is
registered in Europe, Asia and Australia. Which way is Lyme borreliosis transmitted?
Via hemotransfusion
*Via tick bite
After contact with rodent’s urine
At eating of waterfowl meat
Via louse bite
Leptospira interrogans
*06, 07* 165. B-12 A patient was hospitalized on the 5th day of illness with jaundice signs, pain in
muscles, rigor, nose bleeding. A bacteriologist used dark-field microscopy. In the patient's blood
there have been revealed motile spiral microorganisms. Name the causative agent.
A. Bartonella bacilloformis.
B.
Borrelia duttoni.
C.
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis.
D.*Leptospira interrogans
E. Rickettsia mooseri.
173. In the endemic region of leptospirosis the population is ill with this dangerous illness. What source
of the infection is the most dangerous?
A. *Rodents.
B.Dairy products.
C.Cattle.
D.Meat products.
E. Ticks.
* There have been motile microorganisms with many small coils stained pink by Romanowsky-Giemsa
in urine of patient with signs of intoxication and renal failure. History revealed that patient swam in
water reservoir some days ago. Which disease may be suspected?
*Leptospirosis
Syphilis
Influenza
Brucellosis
Pseudotuberculosis
b-12
A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic
rash on the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological
examination of renal tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some
convoluted bacteria looking like C und S letters. What bacteria were revealed?
A Leptospira
B Treponema
C Spirilla
D Borrelia
E Campilobacteria
Campylobacter/Helicobacter
149. During fibrogastroscopy there was taken mucosa biopsy material in the site of the ulcer of a patient
with stomach ulcer. In the Gram-stained touch smear there were revealed Gram-negative curved
microorganisms. With the rest biopsy material urease test had been made. This test was positive.
What bacteria have been revealed?
A. *Campylobacter jejuni.
B. Spirilla minor.
C. Shigella flexneri.
D. Treponema pallidum.
E. Helicobacter pylori.
143. A doctor has suggested a patient to make bacteriological analysis to detect the causative agent of
gastric ulcer. What microorganisms can be isolated?
A.
Salmonellae.
B. Listeria.
C. Leptospires.
D. *Helicobacter pylori.
E. Shigellae.
122. A 28-year-old patient with moderate intoxication and bloody diarrhea
is hospitalized. Stool
culture revealed curved Gram-negative bacteria — microaerophils, catalase-positive, ureasepositive, without spores and capsules, motile.
Which bacteria are characterized by
these
properties?
A. Proteus mirabilis.
B.
Escherichia coli.
C.
Haemophilus influenzae.
D.*Helicobacter pylori.
E.Salmonella typhi.
* A man, 45 years old, has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease after X-ray examination. Which
nutrient medium is biopsy sample inoculated for bacteriological confirmation of diagnosis?
Blood agar
*Nutrient medium for urease revealing
Endo medium
Ploskirev medium
Meat-peptone agar
“2012” b-12 A patient underwent esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Analysis of the biopsy material enabled
doctors to diagnose him with helicobacteriosis. What property of the bacteria found in this
patient
had to be obligatory taken into account during their cultivation?
A Microaerophilic ability
B Presence of urease
C Colonisation of gastral cells
D Absence of spores and capsules
E Presence of six polar flagella
Chlamidia
* Chlamidia trachomatis has been isolated from genital tract of 35years old man, suffering from chronic
urethritis. What organs may this causative agent damage else?
Kidney
Joints
*Eyes
Central nervous system
Gastro-intestinal tract
* Which method of investigation is the most informable to control recovery after chlamydial infection?
*Direct immunofluorescence
Antibody titer detection with ELISA
Polymerase chain reaction
Western-blot
Smear microscopy
Rickettsia
* A patient, 55 years old, with typical rash, fever, and giddiness was admitted to hospital. A previous
diagnosis “epidemic typhus” was made. No more same cases were registered. In youth (15 years)
he had typhus in board school. Which disease may be told about?
Enteric fever
Measles
Rubella
Cholera
*Brill’s disease
Pathogenic fungi : Candida
*07* 147.b-12 On the mucous membrane of cheeks and tongue of a child some whitish spots looking
like coagulated milk were revealed. In the prepared smears Gram-positive oval yeast-like cells are
found. What causative agent is this?
A. Corinebacterium diphtheriae.
B. Staphylococci.
C.
*Fungi of Candida genus,
D. Actinomycetes.
E.
Fusobacteria.
*08* b-12 Microscopic examination of a Gram-stained scrape from patient’s tongue revealed oval, round
elongated chains of dark-violet gemmating cells. What disease can be caused by this causative
agent?
Diphtheria
*Candidosis
Staphylococcal infection
Actinomycosis
Streptococcal infection
124. The scraping of albescent fur from oral cavity mucous membranes was sent to a laboratory. The
material was inoculated onto Sabouraud's medium. Sour cream-like colonies' growth was revealed.
Bacterioscopic method has shown short budding strings. What group of infections can we refer this
disease to?
A. *Mycosis.
B.Spirochetosis.
C.Rickettsiosis.
D. Mycoplasmosis.
E.Chlamidiosis.
*113. A pediatrician examining a 3-month-old child has noticed that the mucous membrane of the oral
cavity and the tongue are covered with dense whitish fur. In the material taken from the site of
affection a bacteriologist has revealed yeast. What mycosis will he suspect in this case?
A. Actinomycosis.
B. Favus.
C. Epidermophytia.
D. *Candidiasis.
E.Trichophytosis
A child was hospitalized to a clinic. On the mucous membrane of cheeks, palate, and tongue there was
revealed white and yellowish fur typical of candidiasis. What material should be taken for examination?
A. *White exudates (plaques) from different sites of oral cavity.
B.
Hair and nails.
C. Blood.
D. Mucus from nasopharynx.
E.Urine.
35.
Candidosis of the oral cavity of a child is diagnosed. What preparation should be used for
treatment?
A. Cifran.
B. Gentamycin.
C.Penicillin sodium salt.
D.Tetracycline hydrochloride.
E. *Nystatin.
78.
Microscopy of the smear of vaginal discharges of a woman with chronic colpovaginitis revealed
round and oval budding cells 3-6 micrometers in size. Name the fungal disease, which can be
caused by these microorganisms.
A. Epidermophytium.
B.Coccidiosis.
C.*Candidosis.
D. Microsporia.
E.Cryptococcosis.
26.
A pregnant woman complained of itching and genital tracts discharges. Bacterioscopy of vaginal
discharges smear showed big Gram-positive oval oblong cells which form pseudomycelium. What
is the most plausible causative agent of the disease?
A. Staphylococci.
B.*Fungi of Candida genus.
C.
Streptococci.
D.Diplococci.
E. Sarcina.
*05*Gram-positive big oval cells with budding chaotically located and elongated cells arranged in chains
have been isolated from mucous membrane of a patient, which has been treated with
immunosuppressive drugs for a long time. Which causative agent was isolated?
Streptobacteria
Streptococci
Actynomyces
Yersinia
*Candida
* After long-lasting treatment with antibiotics signs of stomatitis have developed in a patient. There were
oval pleomorphic Gram-positive cells that arranged in clusters in smears prepared from mucous
membrane of oral cavity. Which from listed later microorganisms might be reason of such
appearance?
*C.albicans
C.perfringens
S.aureus
S.pyogenes
C.pylori
*03* b-12 At microscopy of patient’s hair taken from damaged places there were mycelium fragments,
spores, air bubbles and lipid droplets. What fungal disease is such microscopy appearance is typical
for?
*Favus (crusted ringworm)
Trichophytosis
Epidermophytosis
Microsporia
Sporotrychosis
Protozoa
136. A woman with complaints characteristic of inflammatory process in vagina has referred to a
gynecologist. Which protozoa can it be caused by?
A. *Trichomonas vaginalis.
B.Toxoplasma gondii.
C.Plasmodium malariae.
D. Entamoeba coli.
E.Lamblia intestinalis.
*06*07* a patient has symptoms of inflammatory process of genito-urinary tract. There are large
unicellular pear-shaped organisms with pointed spike on the back side of body, large nucleus and
undulate membrane. Which protozoan has been found in a smear?
*Trichomonas vaginalis
Lamblia intestinalis
Trichomonas buccalis
Trichomonas hominis
Trypanosoma gambiense
*08* A gynecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract infection. A smear
from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with spine, flagella at their front; there is also an
undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?
*Urogenital trichomoniasis
Balantidiasis
Toxoplasmosis
Intestinal trichomoniasis
Lambliasis (giardiasis)
*2012* a patient consulted with dentist about itching and burning in the oral cavity; high
temperature. The patient was diagnosed with trichiomonal gingivostomatitis. What drug should
be chosen for his treatment?
A. Doxycycline hydrochloride
B. Ampicillin
C. Gentamycin sulfate
D. Nystatin
E. metronidazole
*02* a woman, 32 year old, with asymptomatic infection has delivered dead child with apparent
microcephaly at second time. What disease should doctor think about at first turn?
Histoplasmosis
Brucellosis
Listeriosis
Syphilis
*Toxoplasmosis
*07* A patient is suspected ill with one from protozoan infections. His lymph node punctate has been
investigated. There were half-moon shaped (semilunar) bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm
and red nuclei in the smear stained with Romanowsky-Giemsa. Which protozoan was revealed in
smears?
*Toxoplasma
Trypanosome
Malarial plasmodia
Viscera-tropic leishmania
Dermatotropic leishmania
*02*,*03*,*04* *2012* Doctor was visited with patients suffering from the similar complains: weakness,
intestinal pain and disorders of GIT. After feecs investigation it has been revealed that current
hospitalization was necessary for one of patients, at which cysts with four nuclei have been
revealed. What protozoan is such cyst typical for?
Trichomonas
Balantidium
*Dysentery amoeba
Lamblia (Giardia)
Intestinal amoeba
*05,06* A patient with biliary tract inflammation was admitted to gastro-intestinal department. There
were motile pear-shaped protozoa, double-nucleated with bearing stem – axostyle. Which
protozoan infection is diagnosed at this patient?
*Giardiasis
Enteric amoebiasis
Enteric balantidiasis
Trichomoniasis
Amoebial dysentery
*2013* b-12 examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with
two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms has also two axostyles between the nuclei
and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representive was found in the patient?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Lamblia
C. Trypanosome
D. Leishmania
E. Intestinal trichomonas
*03* Parents, that have been worked in Asian country, visited a doctor with ill child. A child has sallow
complexion, lack of appetite, sluggishness, enlarged liver, spleen, and regional lymph nodes.
Which protozoan infection may be suspected?
Toxoplasmosis
Amoebiasis
Balantidiasis
Lambliosis (giardiasis)
*Visceral leishmaniosis
*04* two weeks after blood transfusion recipient has fever. What protozoan disease may be thought
about?
Trypanosomiasis
Amoebiasis
Toxoplasmosis
*Malaria
Leishmaniasis
*2013* a patient who has recently come from an epidemic area presents with elevated body temperature,
headache, chills, malaise, that is with are typical for a common cold. What laboratory test are nessesary
either to confirm orto refuse the diagnosis of malaria?
A. Microscopy of the bone marrow punctuate
B. Study of the lymph node punctuate
C. *Microscopy of the blood smears
D. Study of cerebrospinal fluid
E. Urine assay
*06* a person, which lived in endemic region, has had tertian malaria. 1.5 years after leaving for another
region he fell ill with malaria again. What is the most probable form of this disease?
Reinfection
Superinfection
*residivation (recurrence)
Secondary infection
Persistent infection
Sanitary microbiology
3.
E.
During a sanitary-bacteriological tap water investigation the following results were obtained: the
total amount of bacteria in 1.0 ml is 80, coli index is 3. How should the results of the investigation
be evaluated?
Quality of water is doubtful.
*Water is eligible for drinking
Quality of water is very doubtful
Water is polluted.
Water is considerably polluted.
b-12 Sanitary-bacteriological investigation of water by the method of membranous filters detects
two red colonies on a membranous filter (Endo medium), through which 500 ml of the explored
water has been passed. What are the coli index and coli titer of the explored water?
A. *4 and 250.
B.
2 and 500.
C.
250 and 4.
D. 500 and 2.
E. 250 and 2.
Coli-index is an amount of E.coli per 1000 ml of investigated water
Coli-titer is a volume of water (ml) including 1 cell of E.coli
36.
B.
Sanitary-bacteriological water research is carried out to assess drinking water eligibility. What
numerical symbol characterizes the amount of E.coli per one liter?
Perfringens titer.
Coli titer.
Coli phage titer.
*Coli index
Total microbial amount.
60.
Sanitary-microbiologic drinking water research is being carried out in a bacteriological laboratory.
Total microbial amount appeared to be nearly 100. What microorganisms were taken into account?
A.Enteropathogenic bacteria and viruses.
B.
Coliform bacteria.
C.
Pathogenic for people and animals bacteria.
D.Opportunistic microorganisms.
E.
*All bacteria, which have grown on nutrient medium.
Microbial amount of air in a hospital room appeared to be 1500 cells/m3. What groups of
microorganisms were taken into consideration?
A. Bacteria and viruses — causative agents of respiratory infections.
B.
* All bacteria, which have grown in nutrient medium.
C.
Staphylococci and streptococci.
D. Hospital infection causative agents.
E. All pathogenic and opportunistic bacteria.
61.
*b-12 At usual control of the sanitary- bacteriological state of the chemist department (pharmacia)
bacteriological investigation of air has been made. There were bacilli, yeast-like fungi, hemolytic
streptococci, and micrococci in it. Which kind of revealed microorganisms indicates the direct
epidemic hazard?
Micrococci
*Streptococci
bacilli
Yeast-like fungi
*For sanitary state assessment of maternity hospital the investigation of air into delivery room, new born
department, and other rooms has been made with Krotov’s apparatus (aspiration technique). Which
microorganism indicates hazard epidemic situation in maternity hospital?
Micrococci
Escherichia coli
*Pathogenic staphylococci
Lactic acid bacteria
Bifidumbacteria
During air control of operative theatre before surgery next results have been obtained: 356 colonies have
grown onto the MPA, and 6 golden colonies with clear zone of hemolysis onto the blood agar. Are
these normal data for air or not?
Corresponds to normal data
Corresponds to temperate contamination
*Contaminated with golden Staphylococcus (S.aureus)
It is difficult to estimate result
Contaminated with fungi
*At sanitary-bacteriological investigation of the meat products (boiled sausage, after customer request) a
seeding onto special nutrient media has been made (Endo agar, MPA, Wilson-Bluer agar). After 2
days more then 250 colonies were revealed onto MPA, 45 ones – onto Endo, and 3 ones onto WB
agar. How can you estimate freshness and quality of this product ?
*High contaminated, ineligible for usage
Pure, normal
Temperate contaminated, normal
Contaminated with E.coli, normal
Contaminated with clostridia, ineligible for usage
Normal microbiota
Vaginal dysbacteriosis of a pregnant woman is diagnosed. What preparation should be prescribed in
this case?
A.Bacteriophage.
B.
Antibiotic.
Interferon.
*Eubiotic
Polyvitamin
31.
A patient, who has been taking antibiotics for a long time, has developed intestinal
dysbacteriosis. What drugs should be prescribed for restoration of normal microflora?
A.Sulfonamide.
B.
*Eubiotics.
C.
Interferon.
D.Antimycotic.
E. Nitrofurans.
*2012* b-12 As a result of durative antibiotic therapy a 37-year old patient developed intestinal
dysbacteriosis. What type of drugs should be used in order to normalize intestinal microflora?
A *Eubiotics
B Sulfanilamides
C Bacteriophages
D Autovaccines
E Vitamins
* At disbiosis arising with qualitative and quantitative changes of human microbiota its correction with
drugs consisting from normal flora is significant . What is their name?
Xenobiotic
Antibiotic
Vaccine
Immune modulator
*Eubiotic
Patient with chronic pneumonia after antibiotic therapy course has dyspepsia, meteorism (flatulency) and
diarrhea. Bacteriological investigation of the feces has demonstrated absence of E.coli, less amount
of lacto- and bifidobacteria. Which drug should be administered to patient?
Antibiotics and vitamins
Sulfanilamides and eubiotics
*Eubiotics and vitamins
Eubiotics and antibiotics
Sulfanilamides and vitamines
*01* , *02* At disbiosis, which is accompanied with putrefaction process (Proteus, Pseudomonas) and
increasing (growing) of feces рН, it is necessary to administrate biological drug, which acidates
environment and demonstrates antagonistic effect. Which kind of microorganism is capable of this
action?
Enterobacter
Klebsiella spp.
Serratia spp.
Azotobacter
*Bifidumbacter
*For prevention of fungal disbiosis that can arise after intensive antibiotic therapy it is appropriate to
prescribe together with antibiotics the special drug, including alive and resistant to antibiotics
microorganisms. What microorganism is it talking about?
Lactobacteria
*Saccharomyces
Bifidobacteria
Colibacilli
Lactic acid streptococci
*Some members of normal microbiota belong to etiological factors of opportunistic infections at
immunodeficiency states. Choose the most probable member of microbiota often causing such
infections.
*Candida albicans
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridia perfringens
Streptococcus pyogenes
Escherichia coli
*At bacteriological investigation of urine E.coli has been revealed, its microbial amount was 106 CFU per
1 ml. What does such amount of E.coli testify to?
*Ascending infection of the urinary tract (pyelonephritis)
Glomerulonephritis with autoimmune component
Urea contamination with urethra microbiota
Urea contamination with air microbiota
Septicemia attending of causative agent shedding with urea
Bank of Krok testing to module N3
Virology : general points
* For virus indication into cell culture a method is used that based onto changes of pH of culture
medium during cultivation viruses in vitro. What is the name of this virus indication method?
*Color test
Cytopathic effect
Hemagglutination test
Hemadsorption
Plaque formation
*For vaccine preparation microbial cultures are propagated onto artificial nutrient media. Which
microorganisms do not grow into artificial nutrient media?
*Viruses
Fungi
Actynomyces
Protozoa
Micoplasma
*A sample from patient with diagnosis “Influenza” was sent to laboratory. During virological
investigation hemadsorption test has been used. Which viruses can be revealed with this test?
All of naked viruses
All of enveloped viruses
*Viruses possessing hemagglutinins on their surface
DNA-including viruses
Any virus
* During virological investigation of a sample, collected from patient A., 15 year old, with
suspicious infectious mononucleosis, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) was revealed. Which order of
DNA-including viruses replication into the host cell is correct?
*Deproteinization, transcription, protein synthesis, virus DNA synthesis
Deproteinization, protein synthesis, transcription, virus DNA synthesis
Transcription, protein synthesis, deproteinization, virus DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis, deproteinization, transcription,, virus DNA synthesis
No one
* Papilloma virus, the 16th type, was revealed with PCR in a patient with cervical malignancy. It is
known, this virus integrates own DNA with host genome. What is the name of virus integrated with
cell genome?
*Provirus
Viroid
Virusoid
Virion
Prion
* A sample from patient with diagnosis “ARVI” was sent to laboratory for virological
investigation. What is purpose of virus typing isolated from patient’s sample?
*Etiological diagnostics of virus infection
To study biological properties of viruses
To study physico-chemical properties of viruses
Development of non-specific prevention measures
To study virus resistance to environmental factors action
*A child, 1.5 year-old, had been suspected with adenovirus infection by physician. With CFT
antibody titer to adenovirus in patient serum was revealed as 1:20. During recovery (after 2 weeks)
serology was repeated. Which result confirms previous diagnosis?
Decreasing of antibody titer
*Increasing of antibody titer
The same titer of antibody
Negative result of CFT
Uncomplete antibody revealing
*To confirm diagnosis of acute respiratory virus infection with laboratory methods a doctor decided
to use serological method of diagnostics. Which way should material be collected for this
investigation?
*At onset of disease (as early as possible) and after 2-3 weeks
At onset of disease (as early as possible)
At the end of disease, in period of symptoms fading
At peak of disease, when all clinical symptoms are bright
At maximal data of body temperature
* A district doctor recommended interferone usage to prevent influenza. What is mechanism of
action of this preparation?
Damage maturation of a virus
Inhibition of virus releasing from cell
*Blockage of translation initiation and destruction virus-specific m-RNA
Blockage of virus deproteinization
Inhibition of virus adsorption onto cell receptors
Phages
* For prevention of post-surgery complication abdominal cavity of patient was inoculated with 50
ml of liquid polyvalent staphylococcal phage. What is mechanism of this drug action?
*Lyses of microbial cells
Neutralization of staphylococcal toxins
Immunity activation
Inhibition of causative agent growth
Disorder of virulent enzymes biosynthesis
A child, 8 month old, has intestinal disorders. Qualitative and quantitative assay of intestinal
microbiota revealed disbiosis. Coli-proteus bacteriophage is administered for treatment. What is
mechanism of this drug action?
*Cause lyses of opportunistic enterobacteria
Promotion multiplication of Bifidibacteria
Enhance antagonistic effect of Lactobacilli
Stimulate synthesis of secretory IgA
Intencify barrier properties of intestinal mucous membrane
* For gene-ingeneering insulin production a strain of E.coli was created, that includes gene
determining synthesis of this hormone. It is the most reasonable in strain-producer creation to use
vector which causes destruction of E.coli cell after task is made. Which kind of genetic structure is
this?
Plasmids
*Bacteriophage
Isolated DNA-fragment
Isolated RNA-fragment
Transposon
Special virology: HIV
182.
It is known that human immunodeficiency virus belongs to Retroviridae family. What
basic feature characterizes this family?
A.
Simple viruses, which affect only human beings.
B.
Contain RNA of negative polarity.
C.
*Presence of reverse transcriptase enzyme.
D.Nucleic acid does not integrate into the genome of the host.
E. DNA-containing viruses which cause chronic infections.
*08* It was revealed that T-lymphocytes were affected by HIV. Virus enzyme – reverse
transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase) – catalyze the synthesis of:
A. Viral DNA on DNA matrix
B. DNA on virus ribosomal RNA
C. Virus informational RNA (m-RNA) on the matrix of DNA
D. mRNA on the matrix of virus protein
E. *DNA on the matrix of virus mRNA
Rather often the cause of acquired immunodeficiency is the infectious damage of organism which is
characterized by causative agents' reproduction directly in immune system cells and destruction of these
cells. Choose such disease among given below.
A.
*AIDS.
B.Diphtheria.
C.Poliomyelitis.
D.
Cholera.
E.Epidemic typhus
OB-12 Quite often the cause of secondary immunodeficiency is an infection involvement, when
the
causative agents propagate directly in the cells of immune system and destroy it. The
following diseases are characterized by:
A Infectious mononucleosis, AIDS
B Tuberculosis, mycobacteriosis
C Poliomyelitis, type A hepatitis
D Dysentery, cholera
E Q-fever, epidemic typhus
*02* During autopsy there were dark-red spots, plaques and nodes (Kaposi’s sarcoma) on the skin
of distal part of low extremities. Acute pneumonia was also revealed, caused with Pneumocysts.
What disease are these changes typical for?
A. *AIDS
B. Anthrax
C. Diphtheria
D. Influenza
E. Measles
* The most often causative agent of opportunistic pneumonia at HIV/AIDS infection is:
A. *Pneumocysts
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Cytomegoloviruses
E. klebsiella
*A patient, homosexual man, was admitted to hospital with complaints of general weakness, dry
cough, and fever. Bilateral root infiltrates were indicated with X-ray examination. What is the most
probable reason of such pneumonia?
A. *Pneumocysts
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Mycoplasma
E. Klebsiella
*06* 37. S. aureus associated with S. epidermidis is isolated from numerous skin pustules of a 25year-old patient. Sputum analysis detects Pneumocysts carinii; feces analysis detects
Cryptosporidia, Proteus vulgaris, and fungi of Candida genus. What disease is characterized by
such multiple infection caused by opportunistic microorganisms?
A.
*AIDS.
B.Diabetes mellitus.
C.Sepsis
D.Dysbacteriosis.
E.
Drug agranulocytosis.
179.
A 20-year-old patient has AIDS diagnosed. What cells populations are the most sensitive
to the human immunodeficiency virus?
A.
B-lymphocytes.
B.Hepatocytes.
C.Endotheliocytes.
D.
Epitheliocytes.
E.*T-helpers.
199. “12” b-12 Human immunodeficiency virus, having on its surface antigens gp41 and gpl20,
interacts with the target cells of an organism. Which human lymphocytes marker can be
complementary connected with gpl20 of the virus?
A.*CD 4.
B.CD 3.
C.CD 8.
D.CD 19.
E. CD 28.
*One from perspective area of drug elaboration for treatment of HIV is creation of medicines that
competitively block receptors onto lymphocytes and miss adsorption viruses onto them. What
structure is talking about?
A. *CD 4
B. GP120
C. GP41
D. CD 28
E. CD 29
* A donor, clinically healthy 25-year-old man, should be examined for carriage of human
immunodeficiency virus. What exactly will be revealed at donor blood assay, if he is really
infected?
A. Virus RNA
B. Antibody to viral glycoproteins
C. *Revertase enzyme
D. Provirus
E. Decreasing of T-cells number
*A child, 3 –year-old, has been transfused with HIV-positive blood. Next 6 months infection has
not being developed, but carrier state was formed, that was connected with transformation of
causative agent into provirus form. What is provirus?
A. *Double-stranded DNA
B. Single-stranded RNA
C. Virus enzyme complex
D. Nucleocapsid of virus without surface envelope
E. Glycoprotein component of supercapsid
*A patient was informed that serology for detection of HIV-infection consists from 2 steps. Which
test is used for serum investigation to detect antiviral antibody at first stage?
A. *ELISA
B. Immunoblotting
C. RIA
D. IFA
E. PHA-test
*07* b-12 At examination of young man in AIDS center ELISA test with HIV antigens was
positive. He has no complaints of healthy state. What does ELISA result indicate?
A. *HIV-infection
B. Persistence of HBI
C. State after AIDS
D. AIDS
E. HBV infection
186.
During checking the donors' blood at a hemotransfusion station antibodies to human
immunodeficiency virus have been revealed in the serum. What method is recommended for the
confirmation of HIV-infection diagnosis?
A.
Complement fixation test.
B.
Electron microscopy.
C.
*Western blotting (immunoblotting).
D.
Immunofluorescence test.
E.
Radioimmunoassay
197.*2012*
b-12During immunoblot analysis protein gp120 has been revealed in blood
serum. What infection can be diagnosed by this antigen detecting?
A.
Virus hepatitis B.
B.*HIV-infection.
C.Tuberculosis.
D.
Syphilis.
E.Poliomyelitis.
*What method of laboratory diagnostics is the most informative during seronegative period of HIVinfection?
A. *PCR
B. ELISA for antibody detection
C. Western-blot for antibody detection
D. Hemagglutination reaction
E. ELISA for antigen detection
*04*05* 200.b-12
Blood serum examination of a patient with signs of immunodeficiency
has shown antibodies to proteins gpl20 and gp41. Which disease is confirmed by this result?
A.
TORCH-infection
B.
HLTV-1-infection.
C.
*HIV-infection.
D.HBV-infection.
E. ECHO-virus infection.
189.
In a specialized clinic a patient has been prescribed a combination of preparations, which
inhibit HIV reproduction. To what group do the preparations, which are obligatory used in complex
antiviral treatment, belong?
A.
Interleukin.
B.
Broad spectrum antibiotics.
C.
*Nucleosides analogs.
D.
Nystatin.
E.
Biseptol.
Influenza virus
177.
During the outbreak of acute respiratory infection express-diagnostics method is used for
diagnosing the flu. The method is based on detecting a specific virus antigen in the researched
material (nasopharynx swab). Which serological reaction is used for this purpose?
A.
*IFA.
B.
Complement fixation.
C.
Agglutinations.
D.
Precipitation.
E.
Opsonization.
A virological laboratory obtained pathological material (mucous discharges from nasal
meatuses) taken from a patient with provisional diagnosis "influenza". What quick test will allow
to reveal specific viral antigen in the material under examination?
A Direct and indirect immunofluorescence test
B Direct and indirect fluorescence immunoassay
C Hemagglutination inhibition assay
D Radioimmunoassay
E -
b-12 Material taken from a patient with provisional diagnosis "influenza" was referred to a
laboratory. For virological examination the hemadsorption reaction was applied. This reaction
can be applied for detection of the following viruses:
A Viruses containing hemagglutinins
B All the simple viruses
C All the complex viruses
D DNA-genomic viruses
E Any viruses
178.
Influenza virus contains internal antigens — nucleoprotein (NP), polymerase (PI, P2, P3),
matrix protein (M), and surface antigens — hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). Which of
them play the basic role in the creation of the immunity to influenza infection?
A.*Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
B.Nucleoprotein antigens.
C.Matrix protein.
D.Polymerase proteins.
E.Neuraminidase and nucleoprotein.
183.
A human corpse is sent to a department of morbid anatomy from an infectious hospital.
The preliminary diagnosis is influenza. What researches are the most rational for confirmation of
this diagnosis?
A.Antibodies detecting during complement fixation test.
B.Electron microscopic detecting of viruses.
C.Detecting intracellular inclusions using light microscopy.
D.Detecting high antibody titers during hemagglutination inhibition test.
E. *Isolation and serologic identification of virus.
184.
Infecting of chicken embryos is the basic method of influenza virus isolation. Before
introducing the researched material (nasopharyngial swab) into a chicken embryo a sample should
be preliminary decontaminated with:
A.Formalin.
B.Alcohol.
C.Eagle's solution.
D.*Streptomycin and penicillin.
E.Ether.
*05*06* 43.
There is a flu epidemic in a city. Which preparation could be recommended for
the nonspecific prevention of the disease?
A.*Remantadin.
B. Influenza vaccine.
C.Benzylpenicillin sodium salt.
D. Antigrippal immunoglobulin.
E. Antigrippal serum.
194.
At a neonatal unit the children's morbidity with respiratory virus infections caused by
different groups of viruses has sharply increased. To prevent the spread of infection it was
recommended to prescribe human leukocytic interferon. How should it be introduced?
A.Via inhalation.
B.Subcutaneously.
C.*Through nasal meatuses.
D.Orally.
E.Intramuscularly.
27.
A doctor in charge of immunization program makes the list of preparations to prevent a
season influenza epidemic. Which one of the following is the least allergenic and the most likely to
develop active specific immunity?
A.*Subunit vaccine.
B. Live vaccine.
C. Killed vaccine.
D.Donor γ-globulin.
E.α-interferon.
29.
For prevention of the seasonal high rate of influenza in educational institutions doctors
decided to carry out immunization of children and teenagers. Which preparation should be used for
this purpose?
A.
Interferon.
D.Oxolin.
B.
Normal human immunoglobulin.
C.
Remantadin.
E. Vaccine
*A chicken flu virus may cause mass infections among people in all countries of world. In this case
it is talking about:
Epidemic
*Pandemic
Epizootic
Superinfection
Reinfection
Parainfluenza virus
* A child complaints of sudden dry (“barking”) cough, rhinitis and increased temperature. A doctor,
which has been called to patient, suspects parainfluenza infection. Which result of laboratory assay
may confirm diagnosis of this patient?
Hemadsorbing agent revealing in cell culture inoculated with nasopharyngeal washing
*Antibody to parainfluenza virus detection in serum
Mouse death after infection with nasopharyngeal washing
Revealing of specific virions at electron microscopy
Formation of plaques under agar covering after infection of cell culture with nasopharyngeal
washing
Measles
* There were some cases of infection among children 2 weeks ago. Based onto clinical appearance
and epidemiological history a doctor suspected outbreak of measles. Which variant of laboratory
assay can confirm such suspicion?
*Rhinocytoscopy
Immunofluorescence test
Serology test
Chicken embryo infection
Allergy test
Mumps virus
180.
A 6-year-old boy has moderate rise of the body temperature and enlarged parotid glands.
From the patient's saliva a virus was isolated. This virus can replicate in chicken embryos and tissue
cultures, has hemagglutination properties, and causes symplasts formation in cells culture. Which
organ is the most likely to be affected with the infection caused by this virus?
A.*Sexual glands.
B.Liver.
C.Lungs.
D.Pharyngeal tonsils.
E.Brain.
Respiratory-syncitial virus
193.
During the microscopy of the cellular monolayer infected by the virus-containing material
from a patient a laboratory doctor has diagnosed a respiratory syncytial virus infection. What
changes are caused by this virus in cell culture?
A.*Symplasts formation.
D.Appearance of Negri bodies.
B.Cluster-shaped destruction of mo-nolayer.
C.Complete destruction of cellular monolayer.
E.Cells proliferation
*After examination of a child at second day of illness a doctor suspected respiratory-syncitial
infection. Which variant of laboratory assay may confirm diagnosis during first days of
hospitalization?
*Detection of RS-antigens in nasopharyngeal samples
Serology (4-fold rising of antibody titer)
Ig A detection in nasopharyngeal samples
Ig M detection in nasopharyngeal samples
High antibody titers to RS-antigens in patient serum
Rubella virus
* b-12 A pregnant woman was examined for some infections during registration in maternity
hospital. IgM antibody to rubella virus was detected into the serum. What does it indicate?
*Primary infection
Chronic process
A woman is healthy
Exacerbation of chronic process
Repeated infection with rubella virus
*A pregnant woman (first trimester of pregnancy), which had contact with rubella case, visited a
doctor. Which recommendation may be given by doctor?
Vitamines A,E
Immunoglobulins
Antibiotics
Vitamines
*Induced abortion
Other respiratory viruses
* A patient has headache, general weakness, cough, and fever. Clinical diagnosis ARVI is made.
Which from listed viruses can be cause of this infection?
The flu virus
Adenovirus
Respiratory-syncitial virus
Coronavirus
*Any of them
Hepatitis B virus
175.
High-sensitivity methods are used for checking the presence of virus hepatitis B antigens
in donors' blood. Which test should be used?
A.
*Solid-phase enzyme immunoassay. (ELISA)
D.
Complement fixation.
B.
Immunoelectrophoresis.
C.
Indirect hemagglutination.
E.
Indirect immunofluorescence.
196.
HBs-antigen has been revealed during enzyme immunoassay in serum. What infection
can be diagnosed by this antigen detecting?
A.
Syphilis.
B.Virus hepatitis A.
C.AIDS.
D.
Tuberculosis.
E.*Virus hepatitis B.
*At donor blood assay one from the markers of hepatitis B infection was revealed. What marker
detection does not allow to use this blood for hemotransfusion?
*HBs-antigen
HBc-antigen
HAV
Hbe-antibody
Hbe-antigen
b-12 The donor who for a long time didn't donate the blood was investigated with IFA method.
Anti-HBs antibodies were revealed. What does positive result of IFA in this case mean?
A Previous hepatitis B
B Acute hepatitis B
C Acute hepatitis C
D Chronic hepatitis В
E Chronic hepatitis С
*A man, 25-year-old, has fever and jaundice. There were not neither HBsAg nor antibody to HBsantigen in the blood assay asked by doctor. Which from additional test, most probably, may
confirm presence of hepatitis B infection?
*HBeAG
Antibody to HBeAg
Antibody to HBcAg
HBxAg
Delta-antigen
*2013* A patient M. complaining of fever, general weakness, and jaundice, was admitted to
infectious department. A doctor suspected hepatitis B infection based onto event, that patient had
hemotransfusion some months ago. What basic methods of laboratory diagnostics in case of
hepatitis B are?
A. *Serology and gene diagnostics
B. Isolation of a virus into cell culture and identification due to CPE
C. Virion detection in the blood at electron microscopy
D. Isolation of a virus into chicken embryo
E. Isolation of the virus in laboratory animals (neutralization test)
*06* 185.
The causative agent of hepatitis D (delta-agent) is a defective virus. It can
replicate only in cells already infected with one of the viruses. Which one is possible with?
A.
Human immunodeficiency.
B.Hepatitis A.
C.Hepatitis E.
D.Epstein-Barr.
E. *Hepatitis B.
191.
A patient with a very grave course of hepatitis B has been administered the examination
for detecting the possible concomitant agent, which complicates the course of the basic disease.
What agent is this?
A.*Delta-virus.
B.Hepatitis C virus.
C.Hepatitis G virus.
D.Hepatitis E virus.
E.HBs-antigen.
b-12 *01*, *02* 192.
During an operative intervention (surgery) a patient had blood
transfusion. In this blood the presence of the following causative agent should be checked:
A.*Hepatitis B virus.
B.Hepatitis A virus.
C.Hepatitis E virus.
D.Enteroviruses.
E.Adenoviruses.
*02* A patient with jandice has next result of laboratory assay: HBsAg -, HBeAg -, antiHBsG +,
anti HBsМ-, HСAg+. Which diagnosis is confirmed on the base of these data?
Hepatitis C
Chronic hepatitis B with low replicative activity
Repeated infection with hepatitis B
*Hepatitis C, last hepatitis B
Recurrence of hepatitis B
*03* During examination of a donor, which has not being given blood for a long time, antiHBsantibody was revealed with ELISA. What does positive result indicate in this case?
About chronic hepatitis C
About acute hepatitis C
About chronic hepatitis B
*about recovery after hepatitis B
About acute hepatitis B
Hepatitis A virus
76.
A patient with viral hepatitis A was admitted to an infectious hospital. What antibodies
will be synthesized first in response to this virus reproduc-tion?
A.
IgA.
B.IgG.
C.*IgM.
D. IgD.
E. IgE.
188.
In a settlement there is registered an outbreak of hepatitis associated with water factor.
What virus could induce this outbreak?
A.Hepatitis G.
B.Hepatitis C.
C.Hepatitis D.
D.*Hepatitis A.
E.Hepatitis B.
* A month after returning from summer camp a child was hospitalized into infectious department.
A doctor suspected hepatitis A infection based onto complaints. What is the most probable way of
hepatitis A infection in this case?
*Fecal-oral
Via contact
By inhalation of dust
transmissive (via vector)
Parenteral
*07* A outbreak of hepatitis has been registered in region, that is connected with water factor.
Which virus could cause this outbreak?
Hepatitis G virus
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis D virus
*Hepatitis A (E!) virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis E virus
*A person with general weakness, subfebrility, icteritious sclera and skin visited a hospital. It is
known from history, that he was at seaside and ate seafood without cooking 2 weeks ago. Which
markers detection allows confirming diagnosis “acute hepatitis E”?
*IgM anti-HEV
IgM anti-HAV
IgG anti-HEV
IgG anti-HAV
Poliovirus/enteroviruses
176.
From a patient with acute intestinal infection enterovirus was obtained. To detect the
serotype of the virus diagnostic sera were used. Which antibodies must the serums contain?
A.To proteins of supercapsid.
B.* To proteins of capsid.
C.To non-structural virus proteins.
D.To virus enzymes.
E. To virus hemagglutinin.
198.
For poliomyelitis serologic diagnostics paired serum samples of a patient are being
examined. What should be used as antigen during virus neutralization test?
A.
Antigens of virus capsid proteins.
B.
Viral complement-fixing antigens.
C.
Antigens inactivated by formalin.
D.
Antigens-hemagglutinins.
E.
*Live viruses.
* A patient M., after returning from India, was suspected as ill with poliomyelitis. What
investigations should be done for confirmation of diagnosis?
*Virus isolation from feces and its identification; serology of paired patient’s sera
Indication of virus in feces with electron microscopy
Blood microscopy with wet mount and hanging drop smears
Investigation of lavage water of stomach with fluorescent antibody
Inoculation of feces into enriched media
181.
The first vaccination against poliomyelitis should be done at 3 month's age with the use
of Sabin vaccine. What class of immunoglobulins does not take part in postvaccinal immunity
formation in this case?
A. IgG.
B.*IgE.
C. IgA secretory.
D.IgM.
E. IgA serum.
For confirmation of diagnosis “Coxsackie B virus infection” a sample from patient H., 16-yearsold, was sent to laboratory. What should be used for virus isolation?
Endo medium
Blood agar
Chicken embrion
Meat-peptone broth
*Continuous cell lines (Hep-2, HeLa)
*08* b-12 A culture of monkey cells (Vero) and a group of sucklings mouse were infected with an
inoculum taken from a child with provisional diagnosis “enterovirus infection”. There was no
cytopathic effect on the cell culture, but suckling mouse died. What enteric viruses might have
caused disease of this child?
Coxsackie B
ECHO virus
*Coxsackie A
Unclassified enteric viruses 68-71
Polioviruses
*A 3-year-old child with severe diarrhea has been ill for 3 days. Viruses with two-layered capsid
and pseudo-envelope resemble to wheel with spikes have been revealed into feces with electron
microscopy. What type of viruses may it be?
*Rotavirus
Coxsackie virus
ECHO virus
Coronavirus
Reovirus
*2013* in our country, routine preventive vaccination against poliomyelitis involve using live
vaccine that is administered orally. What immunoglobulins are responsible for development of
local post-vaccination immunity in this case?
A. Ig E
B. Serum IgA
C. Secretory IgA
D. IgG
E. IgM
Rabies virus
187.
A patient has been bitten by a dog. The dog was caught, and it was established that the
animal is ill with rabies. What vaccine is to be used for specific prevention of rabies of this patient?
A.*Live.
B.Toxoid.
C.Chemical.
D.
Recombinant.
E.Synthetic.
152.
A patient with an avulsed wound of shin caused by a rabid animal bite was delivered to a
hospital. What vaccine is necessary to introduce for prevention of rabies development?
A.ADT vaccine.
B.APDT vaccine.
C. *Antirabic vaccine.
D.BCG.
E. TABTe.
195.
A hunter has referred for medical aid concerning the bites of hands by a wounded fox.
What basic aid should be given to him for the specific prevention of rabies?
A.Washing of the wound with soap solution.
B.Surgical treatment of the wound.
C.Introduction of antibiotics.
D.*Introduction of rabies vaccine.
E.Treatment of the wound with al-coholic iodine solution.
*02*,*03* b-12 A person bitten with wild dog reffered to surgical department. There are wide
avulsed wounds onto his face. Which therapeutic and prophylactic aid should be given to prevent
rabies?
A. Patient hospitalization and medical supervision
B. Injection of DPT vaccine immediately
C. Combined antibioticotherapy
D. Injection of human normal immunoglobulin
E. *to start immunization with antirabies vaccine
Infectious mononucleosis virus
190.
A student was hospitalized to an infectious department at the beginning of the disease.
Infectious mononucleosis was suspected. Which result confirmed the diagnosis of this student on
the day of hospitalization?
A.Detecting antibodies to cytomegalovirus.
B. Detecting IgM-antibodies to herpes simplex virus.
C.Detecting 4-time quantity increase of antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus.
D.Detecting of herpes simplex virus.
E.*Detecting IgM antibodies to Epstein-Barr virus.
Tick-born encephalitis
*04*08* b-12 A patient with clinical signs of encephalitis was delivered to the infectious disease
hospital. Anamnesis registers a tick bite. Hemagglutination-inhibition reaction helped to reveal
antibodies to causative agent of tick-borne encephalitis in the dilution 1:20 which is not diagnostic.
What actions should the doctor take after he had got such result?
To examine the same serum
To apply more sensitive reaction
To deny diagnosis of tick-borne encephalitis
*To repeat the examination with serum taken 10 days later
To repeat examination with another diagnosticum
*A doctor revealed symptoms of encephalitis in a child, 8-year-old. What is possible way of child
infection besides of tick bite?
*With milk taken from infected goats
Via direct contact with ill person
Alimentary way
By inhalation via dust
By inhalation via droplets
A patient with fever, sleepiness turned with insomnia, and meningeal signs was hospitalized to
clinic. From anamnesis it is known he drank unboiled goat milk 2 weeks ago. A primary diagnosis
“tick-borne encephalitis” was made. Blood was taken for investigation and was injected into
suckling mouse. After 5 days animals have hind limb paralysis, respiratory failure and death. What
examination allows to make final diagnosis?
Virus isolation onto chicken embryo
*Neutralization test
Color test
Paired sera investigation with HA test
Bioprobe is enough for diagnosis
* A woman with clinical symptoms of encephalitis was consulted by infectious disease specialist. It
is known from anamnesis she extracted tick from a leg a week ago. What methods should be used
for isolation and identification of this virus?
*Infection of suckling mice, neutralization test, CFT, IHA test with chicken erythrocytes
Infection of guinea pigs, agglutination test with encephalitis diagnosticum, PHA test
Infection of chicken embryo, CFT, precipitation test, RIA
Infection of cell culture, CFT, neutralization test, HA test
PCR, CFT, precipitation test with antiviral antibody
Smallpox virus
b-12
The contents of vesicles that appeared on the mucous membrane of a patient with variola was
sent to a virological laboratory. Which of the listed changes were revealed during the smear
microscopy?
A Paschen bodies
B Babes-Negri bodies
C Guarnieri bodies
D Babes-Ernst bodies
E Syncytium
Prions
*A man, 65-year-old, is developed with progressive dementia with ataxy and sonmia, that allows to
suspect Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease. Which infectious agent causes this disease?
Bacteria
Viruses
Viroid
Plasmids
*Prion