Chapter 1
Which of the following groups would be
best served by the development of a
scientific base for nursing practice?
Nursing administrators
Practicing nurses
Nurses' clients
Health care policymakers
A)
B)
C)
D)
2.
.c
A)
An especially important goal for the
nursing profession is to:
Conduct research to better understand the
context of nursing practice
Establish a base of evidence for practice
through disciplined research
Document the role nursing serves in
society
Establish research priorities
om
1.
ep
B)
pr
C)
st
D)
ng
te
Which of the following would not be a
3. current priority for clinical nursing
research?
Pain management
Health promotion
Nurses' personalities
Prevention of illness
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4.
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A)
B)
C)
D)
.m
yn
ur
si
A)
B)
C)
D)
5.
A)
B)
C)
Most nursing studies before 1950 focused
on:
Client satisfaction
Clinical interventions
Health promotion
Nursing education
To those espousing a naturalistic
paradigm, a fundamental belief is that:
A fixed reality exists in nature for humans
to understand
The nature of reality has changed over
time
Reality is multiply constructed and
Chapter 1
multiply interpreted by humans
Reality cannot be studied empirically
D)
6.
A)
om
B)
To those espousing a positivist paradigm,
a fundamental belief is that:
The researcher is objective and
independent of those being studied.
The researcher cannot interact with those
being studied.
The researcher instructs those being
studied to be objective in providing
information.
The distance between the researcher and
those being researched is minimized to
enhance the interactive process.
.c
C)
pr
ep
D)
te
st
The traditional scientific method is not
7. characterized by which of the following
attributes?
Control over external factors
Systematic measurement and observation
of natural phenomena
Testing of hunches deduced from theory
or prior research
Emphasis on a holistic view of a
phenomenon, studied in a rich context
ng
A)
si
B)
ur
C)
C)
D)
.m
w
w
B)
w
A)
yn
D)
8. Empiricism refers to:
Making generalizations from specific
observations
Deducing specific predictions from
generalizations
Gathering evidence about real-world
phenomena through the senses
Verifying the assumptions on which the
study was based
9.
A)
A hallmark of the scientific method is that
it is:
Rigorous
Chapter 1
B)
C)
D)
Holistic
Systematic
Flexible
Which of the following limits the power
10. of the scientific method to answer
questions about human life?
The necessity of departing from
traditional beliefs
The difficulty of accurately measuring
complex human traits
The difficulty of gaining the cooperation
of humans as study participants
The shortage of theories about human
behavior
om
A)
B)
.c
C)
A)
B)
C)
D)
.m
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w
w
A)
B)
C)
D)
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ur
si
ng
te
A)
B)
C)
D)
The classic scientific method has its
intellectual roots in:
Positivism
Determinism
Constructivism
Empiricism
st
11.
pr
ep
D)
12.
One of the criticisms of the scientific
method is that it is overly:
Logical
Deterministic
Empirical
Reductionist
13. Naturalistic qualitative research typically:
Involves deductive processes
Attempts to control the research context to
better understand the phenomenon being
studied
Involves gathering narrative, subjective
materials
Focuses on the idiosyncrasies of those
being studied
Chapter 1
B)
C)
D)
15.
A descriptive question that a qualitative
researcher might ask is:
What are the dimensions of this
phenomenon?
What is the average intensity of this
phenomenon?
How frequently does this phenomenon
occur?
What is the average duration of this
phenomenon?
ep
A)
om
A)
Quantitative and qualitative research do
not share which of the following features?
A desire to understand the true state of
human affairs
Roots in the 19th century thought of such
philosophers as Newton and Locke
A reliance on external evidence collected
through the senses
Utility to the nursing profession
.c
14.
pr
B)
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st
C)
ng
D)
ur
si
A researcher wants to investigate the
16. effect of patients' body position on blood
pressure. The study would most likely be:
Qualitative
Quantitative
Either quantitative or qualitative
(researcher preference)
Insufficient information to determine
yn
A)
B)
w
w
w
D)
.m
C)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A researcher wants to study the process by
which people make decisions about
17. seeking treatment for infertility. The
researcher's paradigmatic orientation most
likely is:
Positivism
Determinism
Empiricism
Naturalism
Chapter 1
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following EBP-related
19. purposes would not be addressed through
cause-probing research?
Intervention/treatment
Prognosis
Harm and etiology
Diagnosis and assessment
A)
B)
C)
D)
Over a 20-year period, Wallace and
colleagues conducted a series of studies
20.
on children's pain and nurses' pain
management. This is an example of:
A research program
The scientific method
Positivist research
Basic research
w
w
A)
B)
w
.m
yn
ur
si
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
om
A)
B)
C)
D)
A researcher is studying the effect of
massage on the alleviation of pain in
18.
cancer patients. The study would be
described as:
Descriptive
Exploratory
Applied
Basic
Nurses have fully achieved an
evidence-based practice, in that decisions
21.
are almost always based on solid research
findings.
True
False
22.
A)
B)
Journal clubs involve meetings to discuss
and critically evaluate research studies.
True
False
23. Nursing research did not begin to achieve
Chapter 1
important breakthroughs until the 1990s.
True
False
A)
B)
25.
ng
te
A)
B)
The journal Nursing Research began
publication during the 1950s.
True
False
st
26.
pr
ep
A)
B)
Most people would agree that nursing
research began with Florence Nightingale.
True
False
.c
A)
B)
om
Throughout the history of nursing
24. research, most studies have focused on
clinical problems.
True
False
yn
ur
si
The federal agency in the United States
that currently offers support for nursing
27.
research is the National Center for
Nursing Research.
True
False
A)
B)
w
w
w
.m
A)
B)
The movement for evidence-based
28. medicine originated in a Canadian
university.
True
False
29.
A)
B)
There are currently five or six journals
that publish the results of nursing studies.
True
False
Chapter 1
Nurse researchers work almost
30. exclusively in universities and schools of
nursing.
True
False
A)
B)
31.
.c
om
A)
B)
The annual NINR budget currently
exceeds $100 million.
True
False
ep
The trial-and-error approach to
32. developing knowledge is an empirical
one.
True
False
yn
ur
si
A)
B)
34.
w
w
w
.m
A)
B)
A)
B)
A paradigm is a general perspective on the
nature of the real world.
True
False
According to the positivist paradigm,
35. there is an objective reality that can be
understood by researchers.
True
False
36.
A)
B)
Benchmarking data is at the pinnacle of
the evidence hierarchy.
True
False
ng
33.
te
st
pr
A)
B)
The naturalistic paradigm is associated
with structured, quantitative research.
True
False
Chapter 1
A)
B)
Nursing leaders currently are suggesting
that in-depth, process-oriented studies are
38.
more important than controlled
quantitative studies for nursing practice.
True
False
A)
B)
Empirical evidence is information derived
39. from introspective analysis of real-world
phenomena.
True
False
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
om
A)
B)
Naturalistic researchers attempt to
37. understand rather than control the context
of the phenomena being studied.
True
False
The scientific method assumes that all
phenomena have antecedent causes.
True
False
si
ur
40.
A)
B)
w
A)
B)
w
w
.m
yn
A)
B)
Quantitative researchers are more likely
than qualitative researchers to pursue
41.
research with prediction and control as a
purpose.
True
False
Quantitative researchers tend to
42. emphasize the dynamic and holistic
aspects of human experience.
True
False
Chapter 1
A)
B)
Applied research is designed to solve
immediate problems.
True
False
A)
B)
The question, “How prevalent is this
44. phenomenon?” would be asked in a
quantitative descriptive study.
True
False
A)
B)
The question “What is the meaning of this
45. phenomenon?” would be asked by
qualitative researchers.
True
False
w
w
w
.m
yn
ur
si
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
om
43.
Chapter 1
.c
ep
pr
st
te
C
B
C
D
C
A
D
C
C
B
A
D
C
B
A
B
D
C
D
A
B
A
B
B
A
A
B
A
B
B
A
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
B
A
A
w
w
w
.m
yn
ur
si
ng
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
om
Answer Key
Chapter 1
B
A
A
A
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w
w
.m
yn
ur
si
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
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42.
43.
44.
45.
Chapter 2
1. Research utilization is a process that begins with which of the following?
A) A clinical problem that needs to be solved
B) A problem-focused trigger
C) A knowledge-focused trigger or research finding
D) A well-worded clinical question
.c
om
2. Which of the following is an example of a systematic review?
A) An RCT study published in the journal Nursing Research
B) A meta-analysis from the Cochrane database
C) A synopsis published in Evidence-Based Nursing
D) A clinical practice guideline from the National Guideline Clearinghouse
st
pr
ep
3. Most evidence hierarchies put which of the following at the pinnacle?
A) Randomized clinical trials (RCTs)
B) Systematic reviews of multiple studies
C) Quality improvement projects
D) It depends on the research question
ur
si
ng
te
4. Which of the following can be used to critically appraise clinical practice guidelines?
A) A systematic review from the Cochrane Collaboration
B) The Iowa model
C) The AGREE instrument
D) An evidence hierarchy
w
w
.m
yn
5. Which of the following models was explicitly developed with the idea that individual
nurses could engage in RU-type activities?
A) Iowa Model
B) Johns Hopkins Model
C) Cochrane Model
D) Stetler Model
w
6. In the following clinical question, what is the Outcome (O component): What is the
effect of relaxation therapy versus biofeedback on the functional ability of patients with
rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Functional ability
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Biofeedback
D) Relaxation therapy
Page 1
7. In the following clinical question, what is the Intervention/influence/exposure (I
component): Does taking antidepressants affect the risk of suicide in cognitively
impaired adolescents?
A) Adolescence
B) Suicide
C) Antidepressant use
D) Cognitive impairment
pr
ep
.c
om
8. In the following clinical question, what is the Population (P component): Do stress and
depression affect dyspnea in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)?
A) Patients who are stressed
B) Patients who are depressed
C) Patients who experience dyspnea
D) Patients with COPD
si
ng
te
st
9. In the following clinical question, what is the Comparison (C component): Does
chronic stress affect inflammatory responses in older men with atherosclerotic disease?
A) Chronic stress
B) Inflammatory response
C) Atherosclerotic disease
D) There is no “C” component
w
w
.m
yn
ur
10. In which of the following clinical questions is fatigue the “I” component?
A) Does fatigue affect agitation in cognitively impaired elders?
B) Does a physical activity intervention affect fatigue in patients undergoing cardiac
rehabilitation?
C) What is the meaning of fatigue among patients with sleep apnea?
D) Does the level of depression of patients suffering from chronic fatigue improve by
participating in an exercise intervention?
w
11. Which of the following is a question that would be asked as part of the process of
appraising research evidence?
A) What are the P, I, and O components?
B) How rigorous and reliable is the evidence?
C) What type of trigger should I use?
D) Is a relevant systematic review available?
Page 2
12. Which of the following activities is part of an organizational—but not an
individual—EBP endeavor?
A) Asking a good question/identifying a problem
B) Searching for evidence
C) Assessing implementation potential
D) Synthesizing and appraising evidence
ep
.c
om
13. Asking a clinical question is the first step in evidence-based practice. What are the four
components of a PICO clinical question?
A) Population, implication, comparison, outcome
B) Population, intervention, clinical, outcome
C) Population, intervention, comparison, outcome
D) Population, implication, clinical, outcome
ng
te
st
pr
14. Which following level of evidence includes systematic reviews of multiple studies?
A) Level IV
B) Level III
C) Level II
D) Level I
.m
yn
ur
si
15. A nurse in the United States is scheduled to care for a child with an ostomy. Which of
the following resource would best assist the nurse with specific guidelines for
evidence-based decision making for this patient?
A) MEDLINE
B) TRIP
C) www.guidelines.gov
D) www.rnao.org/bestpractices
w
w
w
16. Which of following study types is a systematic review used for integration of statistical
quantitative research findings?
A) Meta-synthesis
B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
D) Quasi-experiment
Page 3
17. The best-known early research utilization (RU) project sought to bridge the gap between
research and practice. Which following is the name of that well-known project?
A) Cochrane Collaboration
B) Stetler Model of Research Utilization
C) Conduct and Utilization of Research in Nursing (CURN) Project
D) Promoting Action on Research Implementation in Health Services
ep
.c
om
18. The Iowa Model identifies problem-focused triggers for implementing an EBP project.
Which of the following is a problem-focused trigger in the Iowa Model?
A) A finding published recently in a nursing journal
B) A new clinical guideline issued by a federal agency
C) An increase in latex allergy among emergency room nurses
D) Questions from hospital committee
ur
si
ng
te
st
pr
19. As a nurse, you must understand the difference between research utilization and
evidence-based nursing practice. Which of the following best defines evidence-based
practice?
A) Begins with research itself, clinical expertise, and patient preference
B) Uses new evidence and translates research findings into real-world applications
C) Uses findings from disciplined research in practical application unrelated to
original research
D) Integrates best research evidence, with clinical expertise, patient preference, and a
particular clinical situation
w
w
w
.m
yn
20. Some EBP models recommend a formal assessment of organizational “fit,” known as
implementation potential, when an organization is considering undertaking an EBP
project. Which following issue is of particular importance to address to determine the
implementation potential of the EBP project for the organization?
A) Effectiveness of the innovation
B) Nurses' attitude toward the innovation
C) Patient benefit of the innovation
D) Transferability of the innovation
21. A nurse is observing how the time of feeding impacts an inpatient's gastric reflux. In
which of the following steps of the EBP process would the nurse determine whether a
specific feeding time alleviated the patient's gastric reflux symptoms?
A) Searching for and collecting evidence that addresses the question
B) Appraising and synthesizing the evidence
C) Integrating the evidence with own clinical expertise, patient preferences, and local
context
D) Assessing the effectiveness of the decision, intervention, or advice
Page 4
22. After an institutional project has been developed, the next step is to conduct a pilot
study (a trial study). Based on the Iowa Model, which step would identify the success or
failure of a pilot study?
A) Developing an evaluation plan
B) Measuring client outcomes prior to implementation
C) Training relevant staff in the use of the new guideline
D) Evaluating the project in terms of both the process and the outcomes
pr
ep
.c
om
23. A narrative integrated review of qualitative studies focuses on interpretation of the
studies. Which of the following study types would be considered an systematic
integrated review of qualitative studies?
A) Meta-synthesis
B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
D) Quasi-experiment
yn
ur
si
ng
te
st
24. The Iowa Model identifies several knowledge-focused triggers for implementing an
EBP project. Which following statement is considered a knowledge-focused trigger in
the Iowa Model?
A) A report in the New England Journal of Medicine regarding a potential flu
epidemic
B) Readmission rate of heart failure patients
C) Poor patient survey results
D) Increase in pediatric falls
w
w
w
.m
25. Which of the following is the best resource to use when beginning the search for
evidence necessary for an individual EBP project?
A) Hayat, M. (2010). Understanding statistical significance. Nursing Research, 59(3),
219-223.
B) Durbin, C. R., Fish, A. F., Bachman, J. A., & Smith, K. V. (2010). Systematic
review of education intervention for improving advanced directive completion.
Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 42, 234-241.
C) Polit, D. R., & Beck, C. T. (2014). Essentials of Nursing Research: Appraising
Evidence for Nursing Practice (8th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer| Lippincott
Williams & Wilkins.
D) Aggarwal, B., Liao, M., & Mosca, L. (2010). Predictors of physical activity at 1
year in a randomized controlled trial of family members of patients with
cardiovascular disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing, 29(6), 444-449.
Page 5
Answer Key
ur
si
ng
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pr
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.c
om
C
B
B
C
D
A
C
D
D
A
B
C
C
D
C
B
C
C
D
D
D
D
A
A
B
w
w
w
.m
yn
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Page 6
Chapter 3
1. Which of the following terms would likely be used only by qualitative researchers, as
opposed to quantitative researchers, to refer to people who participate in a study?
A) Informants
B) Study participants
C) Subjects
D) Investigators
ep
.c
om
2. Which of the following terms is used by both qualitative and quantitative researchers to
refer to the abstractions under study?
A) Concept
B) Theory
C) Phenomenon
D) Variable
ng
te
st
pr
3. Which of the following would be most likely called a construct?
A) Gender
B) Body temperature
C) Self-care
D) Blood type
yn
ur
si
4. "Male" is which of the following?
A) Not a variable
B) An independent variable
C) A dependent variable
D) An outcome variable
w
w
w
.m
5. The dependent (outcome) variable in the research question, "Is the quality of life of
nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which
of the following?
A) Quality of life
B) Functional ability
C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
Page 1
6. The independent variable in the research question, "What is the effect of noise levels on
postoperative pain and blood pressure fluctuations in ICU patients?" is which of the
following?
A) Blood pressure
B) ICU patients
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
pr
ep
.c
om
7. In the question, "Do Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses practice more rehabilitative
nursing procedures on a client in an ICU than associate degree–prepared nurses?" the
independent variable is which of the following?
A) Associate degree–prepared nurses
B) Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses
C) Rehabilitative nursing measures
D) Type of educational background of nurse
si
ng
te
st
8. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
D) Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the variable
w
.m
yn
ur
9. Which of the following is a datum from a quantitative study of the labor and delivery
experiences of women over age 40?
A) Length of time in labor
B) 107 oz
C) “I practically slept through the whole thing!”
D) Vaginal versus cesarean delivery
w
w
10. Which of the following is a datum from a qualitative research study on the labor and
delivery experiences of women over age 40?
A) 14.6 hours in labor
B) 60-minute interviews one day after delivery
C) "It was a nightmare—much more painful than I ever imagined."
D) 15 women with a vaginal delivery
Page 2
11. In quantitative studies, the most basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
.c
om
12. Which of the following is the least likely research tradition to be used by qualitative
nurse researchers?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
ng
te
st
pr
ep
13. The research tradition that focuses on understanding phenomena within a cultural
context is which of the following?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
.m
yn
ur
si
14. The research tradition that is an approach to understanding people's experiences as they
are lived is which of the following?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
w
w
w
15. A researcher's expectations about the relationships between variables in a quantitative
study are generally formulated as which of the following?
A) Hypotheses
B) Frameworks
C) Research questions
D) Conceptual definitions
16. The overall plan for answering a research question—the architectural backbone of a
study—is called which of the following?
A) Sampling plan
B) Proposal
C) Hypothesis
D) Research design
Page 3
17. The aggregate of those to whom a researcher wishes to generalize study results is which
of the following?
A) Gatekeepers
B) Population
C) Sample
D) Sampling plan
ep
.c
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18. Gaining entrée in a qualitative project usually requires negotiation with one or more of
which of the following?
A) Gatekeeper
B) Researcher
C) Informant
D) Consultant
ng
te
st
pr
19. Research design in qualitative studies is often described as:
A) Experimental
B) Narrative
C) Interpretive
D) Emergent
.m
yn
ur
si
20. At what point does a qualitative researcher typically make a lot of decisions about data
collection and sampling?
A) While reviewing the literature
B) During the development of a research report
C) While the study is in progress in the field
D) After developing an intervention protocol
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w
w
21. In a qualitative study, the people cooperating in the study are called which of the
following?
A) Subjects
B) Investigators
C) Researchers
D) Informants
22. In qualitative research, theory is which of the following?
A) A method to test hypotheses
B) A tool to direct the research project
C) A product of the research
D) A way to test relationships between two different groups
Page 4
23. The dependent variable in the research question, “Is the quality of life of nursing home
residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which of the
following?
A) Quality of life
B) Functional ability
C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
pr
ep
.c
om
24. The independent variable in the research question, “What is the effect of noise levels on
postoperative pain in ICU patients?” is which of the following?
A) Surgery
B) ICU patients
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
si
ng
te
st
25. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
D) Designate the conceptual underpinnings of a variable
w
.m
yn
ur
26. A researcher conceptualizes pain as “the subject's statement of intensity of pain.” What
operational definition is consistent with this conceptualization?
A) Measurement of subject's pulse and blood pressure
B) Nurse's observation of subject's pain behavior
C) Subject's score on self-reported pain rating scale
D) Frequency of subject's use of pain medication
w
w
27. For which of the following pairs of variables is there most likely to be a relationship
that could be described as causal?
A) Degree of physical activity and heart rate
B) Stress and coping style
C) Age and health beliefs
D) Gender and depression
Page 5
28. In quantitative studies a basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
.c
om
29. Which of the following is true of an experimental study? Select all that apply.
A) It includes an intervention or treatment.
B) It is a type of qualitative research.
C) It can be called a clinical trial.
D) It tests causal relationships.
st
pr
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30. The conceptual phase of the research process involves which of the following activities?
A) Formulating the problem and reviewing the related literature
B) Selecting an appropriate research design for the study
C) Finalizing and reviewing the research plan
D) Interpreting the results of data analysis of key variables
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si
ng
te
31. The purpose of ethnographic research is to do which of the following?
A) Study situations to aid in theory development
B) Describe experiences as they are lived
C) Observe and document interactions within a culture
D) Examine events of the past
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.m
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32. In qualitative research, saturation indicates which of the following?
A) There are too many subjects
B) Themes in the data are repeating
C) Too many variables are included in a study
D) The quality of the data is excellent
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33. Putting evidence into practice is in which phase of the quantitative research process?
A) Dissemination
B) Analytic
C) Empirical
D) Conceptual
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w
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A
A
C
A
A
C
D
B
B
C
C
A
C
B
A
D
B
A
D
C
D
C
A
C
B
C
A
C
A, C, D
A
C
B
A
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
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Answer Key
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Chapter 4
A)
B)
C)
D)
Poster sessions
Journal articles
Textbooks
Dissertations
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2. When a research report undergoes a “blind” review for a journal, it means which of the
following?
A) The journal editors do not know who submitted the report.
B) The authors of the report do not know who the editor of the journal is.
C) The report is published without indicating the authors' names.
D) The reviewers making recommendations about publication are not told who the
authors are.
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3. In a quantitative research article, a review of prior research on the problem under study
is most likely to be found in which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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4. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The study sample
consisted of 135 mother-infant dyads from an inner-city neighborhood”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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5. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The results may
have been influenced by the patients' desire to please the researchers and the hospital
staff”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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1.
Nurses are most likely to encounter research results in which of the following? Select all
that apply.
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6. When a finding is statistically reliable, it means which of the following?
A) The finding is very important
B) The same results are likely to occur with a new sample of subjects
C) The researcher's hypothesis is correct
D) Changes in nursing procedures are needed
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7. In which section of a research report would the following sentence most likely appear:
“Patients who coughed were significantly more likely to have spontaneous dislodgement
of small-bore nasogastric tubes than patients who did not”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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8. In a qualitative research article, the thematic analysis of the data would be presented in
which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion section
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9. In a research report, limitations of the study are normally discussed in which section?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion section
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10. The criterion used by quantitative researchers involving the soundness of the evidence is
which of the following?
A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Credibility
D) Generalizability
11. Which of the following is an aspect of trustworthiness used in evaluating the strength of
evidence in a qualitative study?
A) Triangulation
B) Reflexivity
C) Reliability
D) Credibility
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12. A nurse researcher compared men's and women's level of stress following cardiac
surgery and made sure that both groups were comparable with regard to length of stay in
hospital. Length of stay in hospital is which of the following?
A) Independent variable
B) Dependent variable
C) Mediating variable
D) Confounding variable
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13. In which section of the research report might the research problem be stated?
A) Abstract
B) Introduction
C) Methods section
D) Results section
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14. Key variables and the population of the study are most likely to be communicated in
which of the following?
A) Title
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Methods
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15. Questions such as “What were the research questions?” and “What were the findings?”
and “What methods were used to address those questions?” can all be answered in
which of the following sections?
A) Discussion
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Results
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16. The discussion of the central phenomena or variables of a study, along with the
theoretical or conceptual framework of the study, is found in which section of the study?
A) Discussion
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Results
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17. The statement “the results of this study are statistically significant” means which of the
following regarding the findings?
A) Passed a Chi test
B) Are clinically important
C) Are the strength of the study
D) Are probably true and replicable
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18. The level of significance of the findings in a research study can be found in which
section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
C) Methods
D) Results
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19. An objective assessment of a research study's strengths and limitations is called which
of the following?
A) Evidenced-based practice
B) Peer review process
C) Research critique
D) Literature review
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20. A conclusion drawn from evidence presented in a study is called which of the
following?
A) Statistically significant
B) Valid
C) Inference
D) Credible
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21. Research findings that are organized by categories or labels can be found in which type
of study?
A) Clinical trial
B) Qualitative
C) Quantitative
D) Quasi-Experimental
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22. The presentation of the study's conclusions and implications for further study are found
in which section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
C) Methods
D) Results
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23. The accuracy and consistency of information that is obtained from a study is which of
the following?
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
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24. The soundness of the evidence collected and the relationship between the variables is
known as which of the following?
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
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25. The use of multiple data collection methods to draw conclusions about the area being
studied is called which of the following?
A) Bias
B) Statistical test
C) Research control
D) Triangulation
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Answer Key
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A, B
D
A
B
D
B
C
C
D
B
D
D
B
A
B
C
D
D
C
C
B
A
B
C
D
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
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Chapter 5
1. Based on what we know from this chapter, the Tuskegee Syphilis Study violated which
of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Freedom from harm
B) Right to self-determination
C) Right to fair treatment
D) Privacy rule
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2. The regulations affecting the ethical conduct of research sponsored by the U.S. federal
government were based on which of the following?
A) Nuremberg Code
B) Declaration of Helsinki
C) Belmont Report
D) Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association
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3. Debriefing sessions are which of the following?
A) Discussions with prospective participants to obtain informed consent
B) Discussions with participants after a study to explain various aspects of the study
and provide a forum for questioning
C) Discussions with a human subjects committee before a study to obtain permission
to proceed
D) Recruitment discussions with prospective participants
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4. Which of the following are potential benefits from participating in a study? Select all
that apply.
A) Monetary gains
B) Access to a new and potentially beneficial treatment
C) Opportunity to discuss personal feelings and experiences with an objective listener
D) Opportunity to help determine the research question that the study is based on
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5. Which of the following comprise the three primary ethical principles articulated by the
Belmont Report? Select all that apply.
A) Beneficence
B) Respect for human dignity
C) Anonymity
D) Justice
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6. If a researcher unobtrusively studies interactions among patients in a psychiatric
hospital, what might this be called?
A) Research misconduct
B) Breach of confidentiality
C) Covert data collection
D) Deception
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7. The safeguard mechanism by which even the researcher cannot link the participant with
the information provided is called which of the following?
A) Confidentiality
B) Anonymity
C) Informed consent
D) Right to privacy
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8. Confidentiality of study participants can be most effectively protected by which of the
following?
A) Avoiding the collection of any identifying information
B) Performing a risk/benefit assessment
C) Placing all identifying information on computer files rather than manual files
D) Obtaining informed consent from participants before the study
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9. Vulnerable study participants would include which of the following?
A) Women hospitalized for a mastectomy
B) Members of a senior citizens group
C) People who do not speak English
D) Pediatric patients
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10. In what situation is informed consent not needed?
A) The researcher pays the participants a stipend
B) The risk/benefit ratio is low
C) A Certificate of Confidentiality has been obtained
D) Informed consent is always needed
11. In a qualitative study that involves multiple contacts between the researcher and study
participants, the researcher may negotiate which of the following?
A) Implied consent
B) Stipend
C) Process consent
D) Risk/benefit ratio
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12. Which of the following is an example of research misconduct?
A) Fabrication of data
B) Concealed observation
C) IRB rejection
D) A high monetary incentive to study participants
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13. Who may sign the informed consent for a child to participate in a study? Select all that
apply.
A) Grandmother with legal guardianship
B) Parent
C) Sibling over 18 years of age
D) Child over 7 years old
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14. Vulnerable groups include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Prisoners
B) Pregnant women
C) Young adults between 19 and 24 years of age
D) Infants and toddlers
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15. In a qualitative study, process consent is used for which of the following reasons?
A) The researcher may need to renegotiate consent to gather more data.
B) The researcher needs consent for each of the surveys to be answered.
C) The participant may divulge private information and then regret it.
D) The participant may forget the risks involved in a study after being initially
informed.
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16. Which of the following best describes an assent form?
A) The assent form allows a child to agree to be part of a research study.
B) The assent form is read by the researcher for those who do not speak or read
English.
C) The assent form protects study participants from discrimination due to cultural
diversity.
D) The assent form allows the child over 7 years of age to give informed consent to
participate in a study.
Page 3
17. The nurse researcher protects study participants by which of the following?
A) Performing a risk/benefit assessment to evaluate the cost compared with the benefit
of participation.
B) Keeping painful procedure information from the study participant until the study is
completed.
C) Preventing psychological discomfort during and after the study.
D) Proposing a study that ultimately benefits society despite the risk to the
participants.
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18. Which of the following statements is true of confidentiality and anonymity?
A) Confidentiality is implemented when a researcher cannot guarantee anonymity.
B) Confidentiality of participant information may occur during a research study
whereas anonymity is required.
C) Confidentiality is a sign of respect for the participant by the researcher but
anonymity is a legal issue.
D) Confidentiality procedures require a researcher to disclose illegal behavior whereas
anonymity protects the researcher from disclosing a participant's illegal behavior.
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19. In a legal case, a participant is protected if a Certificate of Confidentiality was issued by
which of the following?
A) The National Institutes of Health to prevent forced disclosure
B) The Internal Review Board of the institution to protect the participant
C) The principle researcher to avoid a breach of confidentiality
D) The court to protect a member of a vulnerable group
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20. In both qualitative and quantitative studies, researchers use debriefing to do which of the
following?
A) Allow participants to ask questions and give feedback to the researcher
B) Allow the researcher to assess the participant before they leave the study site
C) Explain to the participant what information they can tell others
D) Describe the purpose of the study and the consent form
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21. Which of the following is an ethical principle cited by the Belmont Report as a standard
for research?
A) Beneficence
B) Philanthropy
C) Duty
D) Morality
Page 4
22. Offering prisoners a $50.00 payment for participation in a clinical trial for toothpaste
violates which of the following?
A) The right to self-determination
B) The right to full disclosure
C) The right to protection from exploitation
D) The right to privacy
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23. To protect the right to fair treatment, the researcher who seeks federal grant funding for
research is required to do which of the following?
A) Include minority populations in their research study
B) Disclose the benefits of the research to participants
C) Offer participants a stipend for participation in the study
D) Obtain informed consent from participants
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Answer Key
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A, B, C
C
B
A, B, C
A, B, D
C
B
A
D
D
C
A
A, B
A, B, D
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
A
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
Page 6
Chapter 6
1. The research question, “What is the decision-making process among intensive care unit
nurses who decide to discuss spiritual issues with patients?” is which of the following?
A) Most likely to be addressed using a quantitative approach
B) Most likely to be addressed using a qualitative approach
C) Not researchable
D) Not appropriately worded
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2. Which of the following is a major source of ideas for research problems? Select all that
apply.
A) Theories or conceptual frameworks
B) Personal nursing experience
C) Nursing code of ethics
D) Nursing literature
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3. "Does maternal stress during the first trimester of a pregnancy affect the infant's birth
weight?" is which of the following?
A) A research question
B) A portion of a problem statement
C) A statement of purpose
D) A hypothesis
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4. "This study aimed to explore the meaning of the experience of living with a colostomy”
is which of the following?
A) A research question
B) A portion of a problem statement
C) A statement of purpose
D) A hypothesis
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5. In a research report, the statement of purpose is normally found where?
A) In the abstract
B) In the first paragraph of the report
C) At the end of the introduction
D) At the beginning of the method section
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6. In a statement of purpose, the researcher often communicates information beyond the
substantive content through which of the following?
A) The specification of the population to be studied
B) The operational definition of the research variables
C) The prediction of anticipated relationships among variables
D) The choice of verbs that suggest the state of knowledge on the topic or the
approach to be used
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7. A research hypothesis indicates the expected relationship between which of the
following?
A) The functional and causal nature of the variables
B) The statement of purpose and the research questions
C) The independent variable and the dependent variable
D) Statistical testing and the null hypothesis
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8. The hypothesis, "Women who jog regularly are more likely than those who do not to
have amenorrhea" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
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9. The hypothesis, "A person's emotional status is not affected by a relocation to a nursing
home" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
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10. The hypothesis, "Women who live in rural areas are unlikely to practice breast
self-examination" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
Page 2
11. A researcher includes a statement of purpose that indicates that the goal of the study is
to understand the lived experiences of family members caring for a terminally ill child
with cancer. What type of research design would most likely be used?
A) Ethnography
B) Grounded theory
C) Phenomenology
D) Quasi-experimental
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12. A researcher wants to explore the ways in which gender issues are evident in the
day-to-day interactions between male and female nurses and their patients in an
acute-care inpatient unit. The purpose statement of her research study indicates that she
wants to study whether and how gender issues influence the culture and behaviors of
nurses as they interact with patients. Of the following, which type of study design would
be most appropriate to use?
A) Qualitative ethnography
B) Qualitative phenomenology
C) Quantitative descriptive
D) Quantitative Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
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13. Select the best description for the following: “Is there a relationship between elective
labor induction and an unintended cesarean delivery?”
A) It is a directional hypothesis
B) It is a directional research question
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
D) It is a non-directional research question
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14. Select the best description for the following: “Children who watch an average of 2 or
more hours of television per day will have higher BMIs than children who watch less
than 2 hours of TV per day.”
A) It is a directional hypothesis
B) It is a directional research question
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
D) It is a non-directional research question
15. Which of the following statements, if used in a hypothesis, is not readily testable by
empirical means?
A) Less than
B) Meaning of
C) More than
D) Related to
Page 3
16. A hypothesis that states there is no relationship between the independent variable(s) and
the dependent variable(s) is called which of the following?
A) Non-directional hypothesis
B) Null hypothesis
C) Research hypothesis
D) Simple hypothesis
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17. Which of the following statements made by a new nurse researcher indicate that he
correctly understands the purpose of using statistical analysis in quantitative research?
Select all that apply.
A) “Statistical analysis allows the formal testing of hypotheses.”
B) “Statistical analysis might lead a researcher to reject a hypothesis.”
C) “Statistical analysis provides proof of the relationships between variables.”
D) “Statistical analysis supports inferences that a hypothesis is most likely correct (or
most likely not correct).”
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18. Which of the following components are usually included in a well-structured problem
statement for nursing research? Select all that apply.
A) Knowledge gap (what information do we currently know and what is lacking?)
B) Problem identification (what is the overall problem? What is not working in the
current situation?)
C) Proposed solution (how will information gained from the proposed study contribute
to the solution of this problem?)
D) Sustainability (how long will we be able to sustain any changes made to the current
status quo?)
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19. Identify the independent variable(s) from the following research question: “What is the
effect of acetaminophen and ibuprofen on liver function in female adolescents with
hepatitis?” Select all that apply.
A) acetaminophen
B) female adolescents with hepatitis
C) ibuprofen
D) liver function
20. Which of the following is the dependent variable (DV) in the research question, “Are
serial 12-lead ECGs more accurate in diagnosing acute myocardial infarctions (MI) than
a single initial 12-lead ECG?”
A) Accuracy in diagnosing an MI
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Serial 12-lead ECGs
D) Single initial 12-lead ECG
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21. Which of the following statements of purpose is most likely to be from a qualitative
study?
A) Explore lived experiences of refugee women and children from Afghanistan living
in the United States
B) Investigate the effectiveness of music therapy for decreasing pain in post-operative
adolescents
C) Compare the effectiveness of effleurage to therapeutic touch in decreasing maternal
anxiety during an un-medicated vaginal birth
D) Evaluate the relationship between insurance status and number of emergency
department (ED) visits
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22. If the problem statement from a proposed research study indicates the need to generate a
theory relating to social processes (e.g., how persons within a social group interact with
one another), the study design will most likely be which of the following?
A) Quantitative study
B) Ethnography
C) Grounded theory
D) Phenomenology
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23. Which of the following statements of purpose is least likely to demonstrate a bias on the
part of the researcher?
A) Demonstrate
B) Compare
C) Prove
D) Show
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24. Which of the following are true statements regarding the function of hypotheses in
quantitative research? Select all that apply.
A) They emerge from a theory.
B) They offer direction and suggest explanations for relationships.
C) They prove relationships between variables.
D) They facilitate the interpretation of data.
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Answer Key
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B
A, B, D
A
C
C
D
C
C
A
B
C
A
D
A
B
B
A, B, D
A, B, C
A, C
A
A
C
B
A, B, D
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Page 6
Chapter 7
1. Which of the following would be a primary source for a research literature review?
A) A meta-analysis appearing in the Cochrane Reviews
B) A metasynthesis published in the journal Qualitative Health Research
C) An experimental study published in the journal Research in Nursing & Health
D) A systematic review published in the journal Nursing Research
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2. Which of the following is an important characteristic of a high-quality literature review?
A) Restricted to articles written in nursing journals
B) Restricted to recent studies
C) Full of opinions
D) Reproducible, with justifiable decision rules
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3. In conducting a subject search in an electronic database, you would most likely initiate
the search by typing in which of the following?
A) An author's name
B) Restrictions to the search
C) A topic or keyword
D) An ancestor or descendant
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4. In an electronic literature search, the searcher does not necessarily have to know the
database's subject headings for retrieving information on a topic because of the
capability known as which of the following?
A) Searching
B) Mapping
C) Restricting focus
D) Copying
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5. The electronic database that focuses on the nursing and allied health literature is:
A) CINAHL
B) EMBASE
C) Web of Knowledge
D) MEDLINE
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6. When doing a computerized search for quantitative studies on a topic, which of the
following statements is most accurate?
A) The best place to begin is to use a search engine such as Yahoo or Google
B) The primary keyword to use in the search typically would be the population
C) The keywords to start the search typically would be the independent and dependent
variables
D) The specific subject headings used in each bibliographic database would have to be
learned
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7. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The CINAHL database includes only journals
B) The CINAHL database includes about 15 million records
C) The CINAHL database uses the controlled vocabulary called MeSH to index
entries
D) Subject headings in CINAHL include substantive and methodologic topics
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8. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The MEDLINE database can only be accessed through subscriptions with a
commercial vendor
B) PubMed provides access to MEDLINE free of charge
C) PubMed does not allow users to find “related citations” for a previously identified
record in MEDLINE
D) A search in MEDLINE and CINAHL for a given keyword would yield identical
results
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9. In the following CINAHL citation, to what does the “6” refer?
Nursing Research 2012 Nov/Dec; 61(6): 405-411.
A) Journal volume
B) Journal issue in a given year
C) Month of issue
D) A page number
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10. Which of the following is an appropriately worded sentence for a research review?
A) Five recent studies have proved that men are less well able to cope with the loss of
a spouse than women.
B) The HIV-epidemic has been the cause of considerable anxiety in the gay
community.
C) Nurses and physicians struggle with the decision about whether to work in
environments where abortion services are offered.
D) Research has consistently found that infant's sleeping position is related to the risk
of sudden infant death syndrome.
Page 2
11. What is the primary purpose of the review of literature in a research report?
A) Reporting on the state of the current evidence about the problem under study
B) Demonstrating the research capabilities of the authors
C) Focusing on the gaps in research related to the problem under study
D) Making recommendations about future study designs
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12. At what point in the research process do grounded theory qualitative researchers
conduct a literature review?
A) Prior to data collection
B) After beginning to collect data
C) At the conclusion of the study
D) Prior to sample selection
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13. What is the most important type of information that should be included in a literature
review?
A) Clinical anecdotes
B) Opinion articles
C) Case reports from applicable clinical settings
D) Findings from prior studies
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14. What term is used to describe accounts of research in the literature prepared by someone
other than the researchers who conducted the study?
A) Primary sources
B) Secondary sources
C) Ghost writer studies
D) Literature reviews
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15. What is the first step in writing a review of literature?
A) Determine the question to be addressed
B) Select the bibliographic database to use
C) Specify the medical subject headings to use
D) Conduct an Internet search engine search
16. Which search strategy selects an important early study and locates subsequent citations
in the literature?
A) Ancestry approach
B) Database search
C) Descendancy approach
D) Footnote chasing
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17. Which electronic database would you first use to access nursing and allied health
literature?
A) CINAHL
B) MeSH
C) Google
D) MEDLINE
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18. What term is given to unique symbols that expand search results and allow for a
simultaneous search of numerous words of the same root within an electronic database?
A) Textword search
B) Keywords
C) Wildcard characters
D) Expanders
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19. What mechanism does the MEDLINE database use to provide consistency in
information retrieval?
A) Textwords
B) MeSH terminology
C) Boolean operators
D) Scopus reviews
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20. You have identified 66 potential references through electronic database searches for
your review of literature. Which action in the screening process would be the most
appropriate next step in identifying the most useful articles?
A) Comparing databases for duplicate-referenced reports
B) Evaluating the heading terms
C) Reading each article in detail
D) Reviewing the abstracts
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21. What is the primary purpose in documenting the literature retrieval process?
A) Ensuring approval by the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
B) Preventing duplication of located references
C) Providing a history of useful search words
D) Simplifying preparation of the reference list
Page 4
22. What is the primary question that should be addressed when evaluating published
research reports in a literature review?
A) To what extent do the findings reflect the truth (the true state of affairs)?
B) Have the authors conducted an adequate literature review in their research report?
C) Did the authors cite appropriately from the previously published literature related
to the problem under study?
D) Was the research question appropriate considering the available evidence at the
time of the study?
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23. Identifying patterns, regularities, and irregularities in the published literature about the
problem under study when constructing a literature review is a process called which of
the following?
A) Structuring
B) Sorting
C) Content organizing
D) Thematic analysis
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24. Which statement accurately reflects a characteristic of a well-written literature review?
A) Only a few key reports by the same author should be included if that author has
published extensively on the topic under study.
B) The review should primarily contain reports supportive of your general hypothesis
about the problem under study.
C) The review should include reports that both support and contradict your own ideas.
D) The review should clearly identify points that have been proven by previous
research.
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25. Which verbiage is most likely found in a well-written research review?
A) “The hypothesis in this study was supported by the research findings.”
B) “Results from this study proved that nursing actions were instrumental to improved
patient outcomes.”
C) “All of these studies verify that levels of understanding cannot be changed easily.”
D) “It is clear that the presence of nurses improves the health status of patients in the
clinical setting.”
Page 5
Answer Key
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C
D
C
B
A
C
D
B
B
D
A
B
D
B
A
C
A
C
B
D
B
A
D
C
A
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
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Chapter 8
1. A set of logically interrelated propositions is associated with which of the following?
A) Schematic model
B) Conceptual model
C) Classical theory
D) Descriptive theory
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3. The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
A) Frameworks
B) Relationships
C) Concepts
D) Hypotheses
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2. The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the following?
A) Explain large segments of human experience
B) Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena and, thereby,
eliminate semantic problems
C) Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenomena studied
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
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4. Every study has which of the following?
A) Theory
B) Schematic model
C) Framework
D) Conceptual model
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5. Which of the following is true of both theories and conceptual models?
A) They are invented or created, not discovered.
B) They need to be borrowed from other disciplines for nursing studies.
C) They contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
D) They are different words for exactly the same thing.
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6. The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
B) Borrowed theory
C) Grounded theory
D) Middle-range theory
Page 1
7. Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models of nursing? Select all
that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Social support
C) Health
D) Environment
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8. The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Model
B) Health Promotion Model
C) Adaptation Model
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
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9. The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following?
A) Adaptation Model
B) Social Cognitive Theory
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
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10. The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Theory
B) Health Promotion Model
C) Adaptation Model
D) Transtheoretical Model
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11. The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the following?
A) A nursing model
B) A grand theory
C) A borrowed theory
D) A grounded theory
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12. Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally developed within which of
the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Health Promotion Model
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Page 2
13. Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Transtheoretical Model
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
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14. A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which of the following?
A) An ideational theory
B) Symbolic interactionism
C) Phenomenology
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
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15. The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder will learn
appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforcement of acceptable behavior
patterns can generate a research hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship
between phenomena is known as which of the following?
A) Null Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Framework
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16. The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured approach not directly linking
them in a logically deductive manner is which of the following?
A) Middle range theory
B) Theoretical framework
C) Conceptual model
D) Research question
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17. Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowledge the conceptual
underpinnings or framework of the study since it is not necessarily part of the research
tradition.
A) Quantitative research
B) Qualitative research
C) Pilot study
D) Mixed method research
Page 3
18. Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Environment
C) Health
D) Nutrition
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19. Research on the recovery process of young adults following post-traumatic amputation
of a lower extremity would best be furthered by using which of the following conceptual
models of nursing?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model
C) Becker's Health Belief Model
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
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20. Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model frequently used in nursing
research and can be considered a shared theory?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
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21. Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories in research? Select
all that apply.
A) To provide a mechanism for deducing hypotheses
B) To stimulate new research
C) To explain relationships among phenomena
D) To determine the research design and methods of data collection
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22. Conceptual models of nursing are used by nurse researchers as an inspiration in
formulating research questions and directing research hypotheses. Some of the concepts
that form these models include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Health promotion
B) Unified whole
C) Adaptation
D) Self-efficacy
Page 4
23. Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discovered. Theories are built
inductively from which of the following?
A) Observations
B) Correlations
C) Research questions
D) Research problems
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24. Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena used in both quantitative
and qualitative research is known as which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Conceptual map
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25. The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A) Precontemplation
B) Action
C) Evaluation
D) Maintenance
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26. Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnographers in the conduction
of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Ideational theories
B) Materialistic theories
C) Substantive theories
D) Preexisting theories
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27. Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been used in nursing research
to correlate the relationship between stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients
with dementia. This is an example of which of the following?
A) Conceptual model
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Grounded theory
Page 5
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28. Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and set out to explain a
smaller focus of the human experience are known as which of the following?
A) Grand theories
B) Middle-range theories
C) Classical theories
D) Propositions
Page 6
Answer Key
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C
D
C
C
A
D
A, C, D
C
D
A
C
C
B
B
B
C
A
A, B, C
D
A
A, B, C
A, B, C
A
D
A, B, D
A, B
C
B
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
Page 7
Chapter 9
1. The research design for a quantitative study involves decisions with regard to which of
the following? Select all that apply.
A) Which conceptual framework to use
B) Whether there will be an intervention
C) What types of comparisons will be made
D) How many times data will be collected
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2. Which of the following are key criteria for making causal inferences about the
relationship between two variables? Select all that apply.
A) Lack of temporal ambiguity about which variable occurred first
B) Statistical confirmation that a relationship between the two exists
C) The ability to randomly assign study participants to groups
D) The ability to rule out other factors as potential causes of the outcome
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3. An important function of a rigorous research design in a quantitative study is to have
control over which of the following?
A) Outcome variables
B) Mediating variables
C) Carryover variables
D) Confounding variables
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4. A true experiment requires which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Control
B) Intervention
C) Blinding
D) Randomization
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5. The use of a random numbers table for assigning subjects to groups eliminates which of
the following?
A) Selection threat
B) Intervention fidelity
C) Attrition
D) Carryover effects
6. Which of the following is invariably present in quasi-experimental research?
A) A control group
B) An intervention
C) Matching of subjects
D) Randomization
Page 1
7. A one-group pretest-posttest design is an example of which of the following?
A) A crossover design
B) A true experimental design
C) A quasi-experimental design
D) A retrospective design
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8. A pretest is to a posttest as which of the following?
A) The placebo effect is to the Hawthorne effect
B) A baseline measure is to a final outcome measure
C) Blinding is to matching
D) Attrition is to a mortality threat
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9. One weakness associated with cause-probing correlational research is which of the
following?
A) Artificiality of the settings in which it occurs
B) Difficulty in linking the research to a theoretical framework
C) Problem of self-selection into groups
D) Inability to generalize the findings beyond the sample
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10. Which of the following research designs is weakest in terms of the researcher's ability to
establish causality?
A) Experimental
B) Retrospective case-control
C) Prospective cohort
D) Quasi-experimental
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11. If a researcher wanted to describe the relationship between women's age and frequency
of performing breast self-examination, the study would be classified as which of the
following?
A) Descriptive correlational
B) Quasi-experimental
C) Longitudinal
D) Experimental
12. Studies that collect data at one point in time are called which of the following?
A) Time series
B) Cross-sectional studies
C) Longitudinal studies
D) Crossover studies
Page 2
13. A study that followed, over a 20-year period, 500 users and 500 non-users of oral
contraceptives to determine if there were any long-term side effects would be which of
the following?
A) Time series
B) Retrospective study
C) Prospective study
D) Crossover study
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14. Constancy of conditions is often enhanced through which of the following?
A) Collect data at the same time every day
B) Using a crossover design
C) Maximizing the external validity of the study
D) Avoiding carryover effects
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15. Using homogeneity as a strategy for controlling confounding variables can reduce
which of the following?
A) Construct validity
B) External validity
C) Intervention fidelity
D) Internal validity
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16. Which of the following is the most effective method for controlling participant factors?
A) Using a homogeneous sample
B) Statistical control
C) Matching subjects
D) Randomization
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17. In a case-control design, a frequently used method of controlling confounding variables
is which of the following?
A) Using participants as their own controls
B) Matching of cases and controls on confounding variables
C) Randomization to groups
D) Homogeneity of the sample
18. The researcher does not have to know in advance which confounding variables have to
be controlled for which of the following procedures?
A) Matching
B) Randomization
C) Statistical control
D) Homogeneity
Page 3
19. The threat to internal validity that occurs when external co-occurring events or
conditions affect outcomes is the threat known as which of the following?
A) Maturation
B) Selection
C) Testing
D) History
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20. In a nonequivalent control group design, the most serious threat to internal validity is
which of the following?
A) Testing
B) Selection
C) Maturation
D) History
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21. In an RCT, the most serious threat to internal validity typically is which of the
following?
A) Mortality
B) Selection
C) Maturation
D) History
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22. A study is internally valid to the extent that which of the following has taken place?
A) All alternative explanations to the independent variable as the cause of outcomes
can be ruled out
B) A true experimental design was used
C) Intervention fidelity was maintained
D) A strong counterfactual was established
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23. The use of a diverse sample of study participants in multiple sites might affect which of
the following?
A) Replicability of the study
B) The ability to use randomization
C) The ability to use blinding as a strategy
D) The study's external validity
Page 4
24. When participants' behaviors are affected not by the treatment per se but by their
knowledge of participating in a study, interpretation of the findings is complicated by
the influence of which of the following?
A) Treatment effect
B) History threat
C) Hawthorne effect
D) Selection threat
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25. Which of the following can reduce the statistical conclusion validity of a study?
A) Low attrition
B) Low power
C) Low generalizability
D) Low maturation
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26. The nurse is designing a research study to assess the effectiveness of two wound healing
dressings. What key design feature will be most important to address in this type of
study?
A) Intervention
B) Comparisons
C) Blinding
D) Location
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27. When addressing control of confounding variables, which of the following best
describes the question to be answered by the researcher?
A) Who needs to know sensitive information about the research details?
B) When will the data on the variables be collected?
C) What other variables may influence the results?
D) Where will data collection occur?
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28. Which of the following statements best illustrates causality?
A) Individuals who have suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) are at higher risk for a
second MI within the next 5 years.
B) Prolonged sun exposure is associated with higher rates of skin cancer.
C) Hiatal hernias are diagnosed more frequently in elderly individuals.
D) Taking time away from work leads to fewer stress-related illnesses.
Page 5
29. Which of the statements below best illustrates the temporal criterion needed for a causal
relationship?
A) Skin cancer occurs because of genetic predisposition.
B) Kidney disease develops as a result of pesticide exposure.
C) Hepatitis C occurs in populations with substance abuse histories.
D) Following vaccination for varicella, rates of varicella infection are lower.
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30. Which of the following are distinctive characteristics of a true experimental design?
Select all that apply.
A) Intervention
B) Control
C) Randomization
D) Correlation
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31. Applying your knowledge of random assignment, which statement is correct?
A) Random assignment is accomplished with random sampling.
B) Grouping participants with similar features together is the best way to achieve
random assignment.
C) Random assignment ensures that the study is a true experiment.
D) Recruiting participants from significantly different neighborhoods results in
random assignment.
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32. Which of the graphic representations illustrates a randomized experimental
interventional design with pre- and posttest?
A) R X O X
B) R O R X
C) R X O O
D) R O X O
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33. Which statement infers the advantage to using cross-over designs for quantitative
research?
A) Enhances equivalence among participants exposed to different interventions.
B) Different levels of the intervention are easily compared.
C) Delaying the intervention highlights the effects of persuasion.
D) Allows all participants to choose the intervention they will receive.
Page 6
34. Quasi-experimental research designs lack what feature found in true experimental
research?
A) Control groups
B) Pretests
C) Randomization
D) Placebos
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35. Use of nonexperimental designs in research fulfills what purpose?
A) Describing
B) Predicting
C) Controlling
D) Blinding
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36. The nurse plans a study comparing the occurrence of anxiety disorders in military
personnel deployed overseas with those who served strictly within the borders of the
United States. What research design should be selected for this study?
A) Experimental
B) Quasi-Experimental
C) Cohort
D) Nonexperimental
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37. Cross-sectional designs work best under what research conditions?
A) Data collection over an extended period
B) Multiple points of data collection
C) Describing phenomena at a fixed point
D) For follow-up studies
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38. The nurse wishes to study the opinions of high school students concerning the
availability of health care services at XYZ High School during the past school year.
What research design best fits with the study objective?
A) Trend study
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Longitudinal study
D) Follow-up study
Page 7
39. Which of the following situations illustrates control over an external confounding
variable?
A) Using a script to relay information about the study.
B) Randomizing assignment to control treatment groups.
C) Allowing for maximum flexibility over where data is collected.
D) Choosing a heterogeneous sample of subjects.
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40. What is the strongest method of controlling for intrinsic (subject) factors?
A) Statistical control
B) Randomization
C) Matching
D) Homogeneity
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41. What study design flaw may lead to a failure to achieve statistical significance?
A) Variables precisely defined
B) Adequate exposure to the intervention
C) Small sample size
D) Cross-sectional data collection
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42. Using your knowledge of threats to internal validity, which research design will be most
susceptible?
A) Pretest-Posttest
B) Cross-over
C) Correlational
D) Factorial
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43. Which situation best reflects “attrition” in quantitative research?
A) Control and intervention groups are very different in age ranges.
B) Subjects receive promotional materials about the benefits of the intervention.
C) Adolescent subjects improve in body hygiene practices over 4 years.
D) Control group subjects drop out of the study when their disease process does not
improve.
44. Which quantitative research design will most strongly support evidence-based practice?
A) Factorial Design
B) Randomized Control Trial Design
C) Correlational Design
D) Time-Series Design
Page 8
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45. A review of research reveals two articles that have conflicting results. A national
randomized controlled trial found that annual brain scans will allow early detection and
treatment of brain cancers, reducing mortality by 65%. An international
quasi-experimental trial reported no significant reduction in mortality with annual scans.
Based on your review, propose the best recommendation.
A) Recommendations from the national study should be followed.
B) Recommendations from the international study should be followed.
C) There is no rigorous research that can support a recommendation.
D) Recommendations should be stratified according to where the research was
conducted.
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46. A research proposal states that the objective is to, “explore the incidence of
homeopathic health practices on Iowa Native Reserves in Oklahoma.” In describing the
design to be used for conducting the study, the researchers plan to use a
nonexperimental design. What can you conclude from this proposal?
A) The choice of a nonexperimental design is appropriate for the research objective.
B) Researchers should consider using a quasi-experimental design to meet their
objective.
C) This research may not be answered completely if a quantitative design is used.
D) The population to be studied needs to be expanded to include all Native Americans
in Oklahoma to avoid a small sample size.
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47. To study the effects of Healing Touch; what is the best choice to minimize confounding
variables?
A) Offer a small payment for participants' time.
B) Offer all participants a Healing Touch session when data collection is completed.
C) Offer to enroll only individuals who do not have any medical conditions.
D) Offer another activity that gives similar time and attention to control group
participants.
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B, C, D
A, B, D
D
A, B, D
A
B
C
B
C
B
A
B
C
A
B
D
B
B
D
B
A
A
D
C
B
B
C
B
D
A, B, C
C
D
A
C
A
D
C
B
A
B
C
C
D
B
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
om
Answer Key
Page 10
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45. A
46. C
47. D
Page 11
Chapter 10
1. Sampling may be defined as which of the following?
A) Selection of an accessible population for a study
B) Selection of a subset of a population to represent the entire population
C) Assignment of study participants to treatment groups
D) Technique for ensuring that every element in the population has an equal chance of
being included in the study
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2. Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the following?
A) Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of interest
B) Sample selection using nonprobability-type sampling methods
C) The margin of error in the data obtained from samples
D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute vis-a-vis the population
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3. Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following sampling approaches?
A) Systematic
B) Purposive
C) Quota
D) Consecutive
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4. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Systematic sampling
C) Consecutive sampling
D) Quota sampling
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5. The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a representative sample is
which of the following?
A) Consecutive
B) Convenience
C) Purposive
D) Quota
6. Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the weakest for quantitative
studies?
A) Convenience
B) Quota
C) Purposive
D) Systematic
Page 1
7. A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size was 200. The sampling
interval was 250. The first element drawn was 196. The second element would be:
A) 396
B) 45
C) 446
D) 646
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8. Which of the following is the most widely used data collection method by nurse
researchers?
A) Records
B) Self-reports
C) Observation
D) Biophysiologic measures
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9. A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do which of the following?
A) Are easy to construct
B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
C) Encourage in-depth responses
D) Are not subject to response biases
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10. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of which of the following?
A) They are less expensive
B) They yield data that are easier to analyze
C) The quality of the data tends to be higher
D) They require less training of research personnel
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11. Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following?
A) Offering the possibility of anonymity
B) Having high response rates
C) Reducing the possibility of response set biases
D) Being suitable for all types of study participants
12. On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a statement would be
scored as which of the following?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) Cannot be determined
Page 2
13. On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range of possible scores is
which of the following?
A) 0 to 100
B) 20 to 80
C) 20 to 100
D) 0 to 50
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14. A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue is
which of the following?
A) Observation
B) In vivo measurements
C) Visual analog scales
D) Likert scales
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15. The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a problem on scales
incorporated into which of the following?
A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires
B) Face-to-face interviews
C) Telephone interviews
D) All options are equally susceptible
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16. A person who marked “strongly agree” to all or most items on a Likert scale would best
be described as which of the following?
A) Socially desirable respondent
B) Biased participant
C) Nay-sayer
D) Yea-sayer
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17. When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased because of which of the
following?
A) Reactivity
B) Ethical problems
C) Lack of mobility
D) Acquiescence response set bias
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18. Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic measures in nursing
studies? Select all that apply.
A) They are relatively accurate and precise
B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue
C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference
D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for clinical purposes
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19. Which of the following statements describes a population?
A) All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care unit during
January 2012
B) Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of American Nurses'
Association (ANA) members
C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery
D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently smoke
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20. Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small?
A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two groups
B) Lack of control over extraneous variables
C) Limits to random sampling
D) A weak questionnaire survey tool
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21. Which procedure describes a probability sampling method?
A) Identification of community organizations and churches in an urban setting and
recruiting participants
B) Identification of individuals demonstrating the variable(s) of interest to the
researcher and recruiting participants
C) Identification of the accessible population and selecting study participants based
upon the researcher's belief that the participant is representative of the accessible
population
D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, writing element
names on paper, placing the written names in a bowl, and drawing a select number
of names from the bowl
22. Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is accurate?
A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data obtained from a
simple random sample and the data that would be obtained if an entire population
were measured.
B) Sampling bias occurs by chance.
C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous.
D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the most careful
random sampling procedure has been used to obtain the sample.
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23. Which group represents a convenience sample?
A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in
February
B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study subjects who are
currently in leadership roles
C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of the accessible
population
D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for a study on gender
differences
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24. Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the most reliable data to
study the medication errors by registered nurses who work in city, county, and federal
prisons?
A) Purposive sampling
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Quota sampling
D) Simple random sampling
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25. If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the researcher seeks a systematic
random sample of 50, the sampling interval would be which of the following?
A) 116
B) 600
C) 212
D) 53
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26. When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study?
A) Many uncontrolled variables are present.
B) The population is very homogenous.
C) Large differences are expected in members of the population on the variable of
interest.
D) The population must be divided into subgroups.
27. A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following statement: “The overall
hospital experience that I received during my hospital stay considered my needs as an
individual.” They were asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they
agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of which scale?
A) Social scale
B) Likert scale
C) Visual analog scale
D) Differential scale
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28. The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention
for the treatment of pain. Which data collection instrument would provide the most
sensitive measurement of pain?
A) Differential scale
B) Physiologic measures
C) Likert scale
D) Visual analog scale
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29. Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method of data collection in
a study?
A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed.
B) Respondents can remain anonymous.
C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire.
D) It directly captures an event and behaviors.
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30. Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic measures?
A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate.
B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective measures.
C) Biophysiologic measurements are self-reported.
D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels.
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B
D
C
B
A
A
C
B
B
C
A
D
C
C
A
D
A
A, C, D
A
A
D
D
A
B
C
C
B
D
D
B
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
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Answer Key
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Chapter 11
1. The term emergent design in qualitative inquiry refers to a research design that emerges
at which of the following times?
A) During the conduct of a literature review
B) While the researcher develops a conceptual framework
C) Before the study is begun
D) While the researcher is in the field collecting data
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2. Which of the following is an issue that a qualitative researcher attends to in planning a
study? Select all that apply.
A) Selecting a site
B) Identifying needed equipment for field work
C) Selecting research instruments
D) Determining the maximum amount of time available for field work
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3. Which of the following design features can apply to both a qualitative and quantitative
study?
A) Manipulation of the independent variable
B) Cross-sectional versus longitudinal data collection
C) Control over confounding variables
D) Random assignment of study participants
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4. Hermeneutics is closely allied with which research tradition?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded theory
D) Symbolic Interaction
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5. Ethnographers strive to do which of the following?
A) Understand human cultures
B) Develop an etic perspective
C) Link the etic and emic perspectives into a unified whole
D) Understand the essence of a phenomenon
6. An ethnographic study of a clinic that specialized in abortion services by someone from
outside that culture would most likely be an example of which of the following?
A) An auto-ethnography
B) A critical ethnography
C) A microethnography
D) A macroethnography
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7. Which of the following is a step in descriptive phenomenology? Select all that apply.
A) Bracketing
B) Inferring
C) Analyzing
D) Describing
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8. A study that focused on the meaning of sacrifice among wounded military personnel
during war time would likely use which of the following?
A) A descriptive phenomenological approach
B) A grounded theory approach
C) An ethnography
D) A hermeneutic approach
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9. Participant observation is a data collection strategy used in almost all of which of the
following?
A) Ethnographic studies
B) Case studies
C) Phenomenological studies
D) Descriptive qualitative studies
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10. Which of the following approaches involves the use of a procedure known as constant
comparison?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Historical
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11. The question, “What is the essence of men's experiences of chemotherapy treatment for
prostate cancer?” is an example of a research question within which of the following
traditions?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Qualitative description
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12. The question, “What are the basic social processes women use to maintain balance
through their menopausal transition?” is an example of a research question within which
of the following traditions?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Qualitative description
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13. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
A) Reflexive journals can be used in the bracketing process.
B) Hermeneutics focuses on interpreting the meaning of experiences.
C) Descriptive phenomenology aims at understanding tacit knowledge.
D) Interpretive phenomenologists often supplement in-depth interviews with an
analysis of texts (e.g., novels, poetry).
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14. Which of the following names does not belong with the others?
A) Heidegger
B) Corbin
C) Strauss
D) Glaser
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15. Which of the following is most likely to be at “center stage” in a case study?
A) A phenomenon such as attempted suicide
B) The culture within an organization such as a diabetic clinic
C) A person, such as a person who repeatedly self-harms
D) A story, such as the life story about chronic health problems of political refugees
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16. A researcher who used Burke's pentadic dramatism approach would be undertaking
which of the following?
A) Historical research
B) Qualitative description
C) A case study
D) A narrative analysis
17. Which of the following is a type of research with an ideological perspective? Select all
that apply.
A) Critical ethnography
B) Symbolic interaction
C) Participatory action research
D) Feminist research
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18. Critical research differs from traditional qualitative research in which of the following?
A) Its goal to be transformative
B) Its use of interviews as a data source
C) Its use of reflexivity
D) Its desire to gain an in-depth understanding of phenomena
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19. Emergent design is used in qualitative research and is described as a research design that
does which of the following?
A) Is specified before data is collected
B) Tends to be reductionistic
C) Evolves during the study
D) Involves a short period of time to collect data
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20. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
A) It is capable of adjusting to what is being learned during data collection.
B) It depends on the robust nature of statistical analysis.
C) It does not have to obtain Institutional Review Board approval before conducting
the study.
D) It involves survey research design.
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21. When considering the evidence that men in nursing had an important role in the
evolution of nursing as a profession, what qualitative research design is appropriate to
study this phenomenon of interest?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded theory
C) Ethnography
D) Historical
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22. Which of the following characteristics refers to qualitative nursing research design?
Select all that apply.
A) The focus is to develop a rich understanding of a phenomenon.
B) Researchers strive to eliminate extraneous variables.
C) It is critical to maintain constancy of conditions.
D) Most studies are retrospective.
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23. Which characteristic of qualitative research design is similar to quantitative research
design?
A) Use of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs to observe the evolution of a
phenomenon
B) Generalizing the finding of a study
C) Use of power analysis for determining sample size
D) Avoidance of using field notes during the data collection process, to prevent bias
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24. Ethnographers seek to learn from members of a cultural group to understand their world
view. Ethnographic researchers refer to which of the following two perspectives?
A) Ying and yang
B) Emic and etic
C) Data saturation and generalization
D) Significant and nonsignificant
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25. The qualitative method that uses an inductive approach using a systematic set of
procedures to create a theory about social processes is known which of the following?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded Theory
C) Ethnography
D) Historical Method
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26. In a qualitative study, the researcher becomes involved with the research process and
must ensure that his or her own preconceived beliefs and opinions do not influence the
data that is emerging from the study. The way the researcher does this is by which of the
following?
A) Bracketing
B) Hermeneutics
C) Narrative analysis
D) Pentadic dramatism
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27. Ethnographers use a very specific strategy for making observations of the culture under
study while being involved in activities. This is referred to as which of the following?
A) Surveys
B) Participant observation
C) Hermeneutics
D) Bracketing
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28. Grounded theory tries to account for people's actions from the perspective of those
involved. It seeks to discover this main concern or problem and the behavior that is
designed to resolve it. The manner in which people resolve this main concern is known
as which of the following?
A) Participatory action research
B) Constant comparison
C) The core variable
D) A single entity
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29. The focus of case study design is which of the following?
A) Understanding why an individual thinks or behaves in a particular manner
B) Focusing on a story as the object of inquiry
C) Emergence of content analysis
D) Presentation of pentadic dramatism
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30. A critical researcher is concerned with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) A critique of society and envisioning new possibilities
B) An aim to make people aware of contradictions and disparities in beliefs and social
practices
C) Understanding how individuals construct and narrate stories to make sense of their
world
D) Fostering enlightened self-knowledge
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31. Participatory action research aims to produce which of the following? Select all that
apply.
A) Knowledge
B) Action
C) Empowerment
D) Stability
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D
A, B, D
B
B
A
C
A, C, D
D
A
A
C
A
A, B, D
A
C
D
A, C, D
A
C
A
D
A, D
A
B
B
A
B
C
A
A, B, D
A, B, C
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
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Answer Key
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Chapter 12
1. A critical concern for qualitative researchers in their sampling decisions is which of the
following?
A) Obtaining a sample that is representative of the population under study
B) Accessing information-rich sources of data
C) Recruiting a sample that can facilitate saturation quickly and efficiently
D) Obtaining a sample with high potential for generalizability
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2. Which of the following statements about sampling in qualitative research is true?
A) Convenience sampling is considered the most appropriate method of selecting
sample members.
B) Larger samples are considered more rigorous than smaller samples.
C) Using randomness in the sampling process is desirable.
D) The type of sampling approach can change and evolve over the course of data
collection.
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3. Theoretical sampling is most likely to be used by which of the following?
A) Ethnographers
B) Grounded theory researchers
C) Phenomenologists
D) Qualitative descriptive researchers
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4. Which of the following is a type of purposive sampling? Select all that apply.
A) Extreme case sampling
B) Maximum variation sampling
C) Snowball sampling
D) Typical case sampling
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5. Near the end of data collection, qualitative researchers may employ the technique of
sampling which of the following?
A) Criterion cases
B) Deviant cases
C) Typical cases
D) Disconfirming cases
6. Which of the following statements about sampling is true?
A) Convenience sampling is used by both qualitative and quantitative researchers.
B) Quantitative researchers establish eligibility criteria, but qualitative researchers do
not.
C) Extreme case sampling is a type of theoretical sampling.
D) Focus groups would not be used in qualitative descriptive studies.
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7. Samples of ten or fewer study participants would be most likely to be found in which of
the following?
A) Phenomenological study
B) Grounded theory study
C) Ethnography
D) Participatory action study
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8. In which of the following types of studies would the principle of data saturation be
used? Select all that apply.
A) Grounded theory study
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenological study
D) Clinical trial
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9. Which of the following data collection approaches is conducted with a group of 5 to 10
people simultaneously?
A) Photo elicitation interview
B) Focused interview
C) Critical incidents interview
D) Focus group interview
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10. Which of the following data collection approaches is most likely to use a topic guide?
A) A completely unstructured interview
B) A focus group interview
C) A critical incidents interview
D) Participant observation
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11. A grand tour question is most likely to be used at which time?
A) At the beginning of a focus group session
B) At the end of a critical incident interview
C) At the beginning of an unstructured interview
D) At the end of a photo elicitation study
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12. Which of the following statements about data collection in qualitative research is true?
Select all that apply.
A) When interviewing participants, qualitative researchers do not tend to ask their
questions in any predetermined order.
B) Unstructured observational data are often gathered in field settings through
participant observation.
C) Ethnographers usually gather their data using both observation and self-reports.
D) The data for an unstructured interview are most likely to be in the form of field
notes that the researcher records immediately after the interview has been
completed.
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13. Which of the following statements about participant observation is true?
A) Participant observers must maintain the same level of participation throughout the
study.
B) In a participant observation study, participants are observed but not questioned.
C) Participant observers may use single, multiple, or mobile positioning.
D) Participant observers most commonly record their observations by videotaping all
events and transactions that they observe.
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14. Which of the following are types of notes maintained by a participant observer? Select
all that apply.
A) Descriptive notes
B) Participatory action notes
C) Reflective notes
D) Methodologic notes
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15. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Uncovering multiple realities
B) Finding meaning in an experience
C) Generalizing results to a target population
D) Using non-random sampling
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16. Which of the following is true regarding qualitative and quantitative research?
A) Quantitative research and qualitative research both develop eligibility criteria
before consenting study participants.
B) Quantitative research and qualitative research both use random samples whenever
possible, to enhance the ability to predict within a wider population.
C) Quantitative research and qualitative research both determine sample size in the
same manner.
D) Quantitative research and qualitative research both prefer a large sample to a small
one, because it produces stronger statistical results.
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17. A difficulty identified with convenience sampling is which of the following?
A) The participants do not meet the conceptual needs of the study
B) It is not economical
C) It is not efficient
D) The participants may not produce the depth of information needed
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18. Qualitative researchers often count on recruiting by referral, which is called which of
the following?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Snowball sampling
C) Volunteer sampling
D) Purposive sampling
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19. A qualitative researcher who is attempting to provide findings from multiple diverse
viewpoints on a phenomenon would most likely subscribe to which of the following?
A) Deviant case sampling
B) Typical case sampling
C) Criterion case sampling
D) Confirming case sampling
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20. A qualitative researcher identifies trends in the phenomenon being studied, yet several
new cases received through a snowball sampling effort have divergent views of the
phenomenon. These new cases are referred to as which of the following?
A) Confirming cases
B) Disconfirming cases
C) Purposive cases
D) Typical cases
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21. When developing a theory, a nurse researcher uses theoretical sampling to do which of
the following?
A) To find cases that meet a predetermined criterion of importance
B) To learn from the most unusual and extreme informants
C) To gain new informants via referrals from other informants
D) To choose sampling groups that will further the emerging conceptualization
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22. Data saturation occurs when which of the following happens?
A) Researchers can find no new participants that fit the criteria
B) All the research questions are answered
C) No new information is obtained and redundancy is achieved
D) Participants are describing new concepts
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23. What is the purpose of choosing key informants in ethnographic research studies? Select
all that apply.
A) To facilitate recruiting more participants to the study
B) To guide the researcher culturally
C) To identify important events
D) To provide a knowledgeable link to the culture
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24. Which of the following are key principles that guide the selection of a sample for a
phenomenological study? Select all that apply.
A) The participant must be able to articulate what it was like to have lived the
experience.
B) The participant must have considerable knowledge of the phenomenon being
studied.
C) The participant must be someone who is closely associated with someone who has
experienced the phenomenon.
D) The participant must have experienced the phenomenon being studied.
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25. Which of the following would be the most appropriate reason to adjust the sampling
method in a grounded theory study as it unfolds?
A) To better evaluate emerging conceptualizations
B) To support past descriptions of the phenomenon
C) To increase the availability of participants
D) To postpone data saturation
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26. When collecting data through interviews, qualitative researchers rely primarily on which
of the following?
A) A priori ideas
B) Structured questions
C) Supplemental physiological data
D) Self-report
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27. A phenomenological researcher is interviewing a participant who has lived through a
hurricane. Which of the following is the best example of a grand tour question
appropriate to ask this participant?
A) Why did you not evacuate the area when instructed to do so?
B) What kind of damage did your home sustain?
C) What was it like to live through a hurricane?
D) How many fatalities occurred in your state due to the hurricane?
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Answer Key
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B
D
B
A, B, D
D
A
A
A, B, C
D
B
C
A, C, D
C
A, C, D
A, B, D
A
D
B
A
B
D
C
B, C, D
A, D
A
D
C
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
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Chapter 13
1. The use of both of qualitative and quantitative data in a study or cluster of studies serves
the important purpose of which of the following?
A) Providing researchers with different skills an opportunity to collaborate
B) Enhancing the study's validity
C) Allowing participants to select an unstructured or structured method of responding
D) Enhancing the likelihood that the study will be published
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2. The integration of qualitative and quantitative approaches in a single study constitutes a
form of which of the following?
A) Hypothesis testing
B) Theory generation
C) Triangulation
D) Methodologic research
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3. Which of the following is true about the notation QUAL → quan?
A) The qualitative component is dominant
B) The quantitative component is dominant
C) The data would be collected in a single phase
D) The design is an embedded design
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4. Which of the following is true about the notation QUAL + QUAN?
A) The qualitative component is dominant
B) The quantitative component is dominant
C) The data would be collected in a single phase
D) The design is an embedded design
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5. The phase of a clinical trial that typically uses a full experimental design is which of the
following?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
6. An effectiveness study is associated with which phase of a clinical trial?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
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7. If a researcher wanted to assess how well an evidence-based protocol for encouraging
adolescent mothers to breastfeed was meeting its objectives, the research would be
which of the following?
A) Survey
B) Evaluation
C) Methodologic research
D) Secondary analysis
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8. A phase III clinical trial most closely resembles which of the following in terms of
objectives and design?
A) An impact analysis
B) An economic analysis
C) A process analysis
D) A secondary analysis
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9. What type of study would address the following question: What barriers did the nursing
staff face in implementing the fall prevention program?
A) Impact analysis
B) Outcomes study
C) Process analysis
D) Economic analysis
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10. An issue that is distinctive in nursing intervention research is which of the following?
A) The development of an intervention theory
B) The generation of data amenable for use in secondary analyses
C) The inclusion of a methodological research component
D) The use of a structure/process/outcomes framework
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11. The type of research designed to document the effectiveness of health care and nursing
services in a broad sense is called which of the following?
A) A process analysis
B) Outcomes research
C) An impact analysis
D) Methodological research
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12. Suppose a nurse researcher were interested in learning whether a self-administered
health history questionnaire yielded data of comparable quality to a personal interview
health history. The researcher would be doing which of the following?
A) Secondary analysis
B) Clinical trial
C) Methodologic study
D) Survey
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13. A nurse researcher gathered data from a national sample of nurses regarding fatigue and
burnout by means of an Internet questionnaire. This is an example of which of the
following?
A) A survey
B) An evaluation
C) A case study
D) A secondary analysis
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14. If a researcher used U.S. census data to examine the relationship between women's
employment and childbearing, this would be an example of which of the following?
A) A survey
B) An outcomes study
C) A secondary analysis
D) A methodological study
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15. Which of the following could involve either qualitative or quantitative data? Select all
that apply.
A) A secondary analysis
B) An evaluation
C) A methodologic study
D) An ethnographic study
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16. The use of mixed methods research is best characterized by which of the following?
A) Decreasing
B) Increasing
C) Confusing
D) Being called into question
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17. Which of the following is the key factor for determining the design and method a
researcher will use?
A) The researchers' preference
B) The financial resources available
C) The research question
D) Sample size
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18. Which of the following is most likely the strongest argument for mixed method
research?
A) Pragmatism
B) Incrementality
C) Enhanced validity
D) Complementarity
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19. Sequencing and prioritization are important when reporting research. Which of the
following is the correct notation for a convergent parallel design study?.
A) QUAL + QUAN
B) QUAL → QUAN
C) QUAL(quan)
D) QUAN → qual
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20. Nested sampling is a preferred sampling technique used by many researchers for which
of the following reasons?
A) It reduces costs related to recruiting participants.
B) It decreases the risk for bias.
C) Using overlapping samples can be advantageous.
D) Only one group of people has to be recruited for both qualitative and quantitative
strands.
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21. Evaluation research looks at the effectiveness of a program, policy, or procedure to
impact decision-making. Which of the following lists the three analysis components of
an evaluation?
A) Process, Impact, and Outcome analyses
B) Structure, Impact, and Outcome analyses
C) Impact, Process, and Economic analyses
D) Process, Efficacy, and Economic analyses
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22. Which of the following most accurately describes the triangulation design in mixed
methods research?
A) A design that uses multiple approaches in a research study to offset limitations with
strengths
B) A design that features a dominant component and a supportive component with
concurrent data collection
C) A sequential design in which quantitative data are collected in the first phase and
qualitative in the second phase
D) A sequential design in which qualitative data are collected in the first phase and
quantitative in the second phase
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23. Process analysis is the best choice for research when the researcher would like to do
which of the following?
A) Assess a clinical intervention
B) Describe program implementation
C) Identify a net impact
D) Weigh a program's benefits against its monetary costs
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24. Which of the following statements most accurately describes methodologic research?
A) A distinctive process of planning, developing, testing, and disseminating
interventions.
B) Systematic analysis of data from a previous study to gain new knowledge of a
given phenomena
C) Investigation of new instrument development necessitated by the need for reliable
outcome measures
D) Research that obtains quantitative information about the prevalence, distribution,
and interrelations of variables within a population
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25. Nursing intervention research involves phases for complex interventions. Which of the
following indicates the correct order of these phases?
A) Effectiveness research, basic developmental research, pilot research, efficacy
research
B) Basic developmental research, effectiveness research, pilot research, efficacy
research
C) Pilot research, effectiveness research, basic developmental research, efficacy
research
D) Basic developmental research, pilot research, efficacy research, effectiveness
research
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26. Which of the following are characteristic of methodologic research? Select all that
apply.
A) Methodologic research addresses the development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods.
B) Methodologic research focuses on development of new instruments.
C) Methodologic research has piqued the interest of nurse researchers.
D) Methodologic research obtains quantitative information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables within a population.
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27. Which of the following are true of the mixed methods research design? Select all that
apply.
A) Qualitative and quantitative methods are complementary and avoid limitations of a
single approach to research.
B) A mix of qualitative and quantitative research should be used in all research
studies.
C) Complexity of the subject may require the use of both paradigms to ensure rigorous
research.
D) Triangulation allows the researcher to the alternative interpretations of the data
which help shape the result.
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Answer Key
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B
C
A
C
C
D
B
A
C
A
B
C
A
C
A, B, C
B
C
A
A
C
C
A
B
C
D
A, B, C
A, C, D
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
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Chapter 14
1. A parameter is a characteristic of which of the following?
A) Population
B) Frequency distribution
C) Sample
D) Normal curve
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2. If the bulk of scores on a test occurred at the upper end of the distribution, the
distribution could be described as which of the following?
A) Normal
B) Bimodal
C) Positively skewed
D) Negatively skewed
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3. The mean is usually the statistic reported for which type or types of measure? Select all
that apply.
A) Nominal measures
B) Ordinal measures
C) Interval measures
D) Ratio measures
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4. The mode is an index of which of the following?
A) Bivariate relationships
B) Central tendency
C) Risk
D) Variability
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5. The measure of central tendency that is most stable is which of the following?
A) Mode
B) Median
C) Mean
D) They are all equivalent
6. The measure of variability that takes into account all score values is which of the
following?
A) Range
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Standard deviation
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7. A group of 100 students took a test. The mean was 85, the standard deviation was 5, and
the scores were normally distributed. About how many of the 100 scores fell between 80
and 90?
A) 34
B) 68
C) 95
D) Impossible to determine
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8. One of the characteristics of a normal distribution is which of the following?
A) It is bimodal
B) 95% of the values are within two standard deviations above and below the mean
C) The values are positively skewed
D) The mean is 100
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9. Which of the following signifies the strongest relationship?
A) r = -.64
B) M = .99
C) t = 1.44
D) r = .57
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10. The symbol X represents which of the following?
A) An effect size
B) A mean
C) Total sample size
D) An individual score
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11. A widely used index of risk used among practitioners of evidence-based practice is
which of the following?
A) The t statistic
B) The F ratio
C) The odds ratio
D) Pearson's r
12. The use of inferential statistics permits a researcher to do which of the following?
A) Draw conclusions about a population based on information gathered from a sample
B) Describe information obtained from empirical observation
C) Interpret descriptive statistics
D) Estimate risk and relative risk
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13. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is called which of the following?
A) Sampling error
B) Standard error of the mean
C) Variance
D) Parameter
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14. The SEM gets smaller as which of the following occurs?
A) The mean gets smaller
B) The sample size gets smaller
C) The mean gets larger
D) The sample size gets larger
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15. In the following statement, what would the number 50 be called: 95% CI for the mean
of 60 = 50 to 70?
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
C) The lower confidence limit
D) The effect size
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16. In the following statement, what would the number 60 be called: 95% CI for the mean
of 60 = 50 to 70?
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
C) The lower confidence limit
D) The effect size
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17. A 95% CI, in parameter estimation, corresponds, in a hypothesis testing framework, to
which of the following?
A) An alpha of .95
B) An alpha of .05
C) A beta of .95
D) A beta of .05
18. The steps involved in using test statistics include which of the following? Select all that
apply.
A) Determining the appropriate statistic to be used
B) Selecting a level of significance
C) Calculating the degrees of freedom
D) Calculating the theoretical distribution for the test statistic
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19. For which of the following levels of significance is the risk of making a Type I error
lowest?
A) .10
B) .05
C) .01
D) .001
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20. If the power for an analysis was .50, which of the following would be true?
A) There would be a 50% risk of a Type II error
B) The odds ratio would be equal to .50
C) The 95% CI would have a range of 50 points
D) There would be a 50% risk of a Type I error
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21. If a researcher calculated a t-statistic to be –2.5 and the theoretical t value (for df = 60
and alpha = .05) is 2.0, the researcher would do which of the following?
A) Conclude that a Type II error had been made
B) Accept the null hypothesis
C) Reject the null hypothesis
D) Use a different level of significance
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22. A researcher compared the mean anxiety levels of patients in a soothing music group, a
massage group, or a control group. The statistical procedure that was likely used to test
group differences is which of the following?
A) t-test
B) ANOVA
C) MANOVA
D) Chi-squared test
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23. If a researcher wanted to assess whether an experimental group differed significantly
from a control group in terms of proportion with a post-discharge readmission, the test
statistic would be which of the following?
A) t
B) r
C) F
D) χ2
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24. When both the independent and outcome variables are measured on a ratio scale, the
appropriate bivariate test statistic is which of the following?
A) t
B) r
C) F
D) χ2
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25. Which of the following is an effect size index? Select all that apply.
A) t
B) r
C) d
D) OR
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26. A researcher wanted to predict whether nursing home residents would or would not
experience a fall based on 10 characteristics (e.g., age, presence of absence of dementia,
etc.). The analysis would involve which of the following?
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
C) Logistic regression
D) MANOVA
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27. A researcher wanted to compare male and female oncology patients in terms of
satisfaction with nursing care, controlling for age and severity of illness. The analysis
would involve which of the following?
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
C) Logistic regression
D) MANCOVA
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28. Suppose a researcher found a multiple correlation of .40 (R = .40) between candy intake,
age, income on the one hand and dental caries on the other. The amount of variability
that could be accounted for in dental caries by candy intake, age, and income is which of
the following?
A) 4%
B) 16%
C) 40%
D) Cannot be determined
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29. In analysis of covariance, a covariate is generally which of the following?
A) An independent variable
B) The outcome variable
C) Either an independent or dependent variable
D) A confounding variable
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31. Which measure of central tendency is the most stable?
A) Mode
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Average
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30. In reporting the results of a statistical test in a research article, which of the following
would be reported? Select all that apply.
A) The computed value of the test statistic
B) The theoretical value of the test statistic
C) Degrees of freedom
D) The probability (p) value
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32. The alpha level of significance refers to the probability of which of the following?
A) A Type I error
B) A Type II error
C) A null hypothesis
D) Multiple regression
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33. Statistically significant means which of the following?
A) The study findings are important.
B) The study results are meaningful.
C) It is unlikelihood that the results are due to chance.
D) The hypothesis has been proven.
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34. A frequency distribution for height would most likely be represented by which of the
following?
A) A symmetric distribution
B) A positive skew
C) A negative skew
D) A normal distribution
Page 6
35. The d statistic approximates effect size by measuring the difference between the
experimental group mean and the control group mean, normed to the standard deviation.
If the effect size is moderate, which of the following values of d would one expect to
calculate?
A) d = 0
B) d = .20
C) d = .50
D) d = .80
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36. When testing multiple independent variables, the proportion of variability in the
outcome variable that is explained by the predictors is measured as which of the
following?
A) Paired t-test
B) The product-moment correlation coefficient
C) R
D) R2
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37. The shape of a distribution with three values of high frequency is which of the
following?
A) Unimodal
B) Bimodal
C) Multimodal
D) A bell-shaped curve
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38. In a normal distribution, 95% of scores fall within approximately how many standard
deviations (SDs) from the mean?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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39. To test mean differences among related groups over time with at least three different
points of data collection, you would use which of the following?
A) Paired t-test
B) Chi-squared test
C) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
D) Repeated measures ANOVA
Page 7
40. Which correlation coefficient shows the strongest relationship between two variables?
A) –0.821
B) –0.653
C) 0
D) 0.759
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41. Testing the significance of difference in two group means is done with which of the
following?
A) Independent groups t-test
B) Paired t-test
C) Dependent groups t-test
D) Chi-squared test
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42. To test the significance of differences between the means of two or more groups on two
or more outcome variables simultaneously, without controlling for covariates, one
would use which of the following?
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
C) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
D) Multivariate analysis of covariance (MANCOVA)
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43. A researcher would like to test the significance of differences in the means of three age
groups of baseball pitchers for the outcome variables of speed and accuracy. She
realizes that she will need to control for the potential confounding variable of base skill
of the individual subjects in all three groups. Which type of analysis should she use?
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
C) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
D) Multivariate analysis of covariance (MANCOVA)
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44. In an experiment testing a smoking cessation technique with two groups of smokers, one
control and one experimental, what index would measure the proportion of individuals
in the control group who may have avoided the undesirable outcome of continued
smoking had they been chosen for the experimental group?
A) Absolute risk
B) Absolute risk reduction
C) Odds ratio
D) Risk ratio
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45. In an analysis of variance (ANOVA), which of the following contrasts variation
between groups with variation within groups?
A) F ratio
B) Post hoc tests
C) Chi-squared statistic
D) Pearson's r
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w
A
D
C, D
B
C
D
D
B
A
B
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
A, B, C
D
A
C
B
D
B
B, C, D
C
B
B
D
A, C, D
C
A
C
D
C
D
C
B
D
A
A
B
D
B
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
om
Answer Key
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45. A
Page 11
Chapter 15
1. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The results of statistical testing have direct meaning.
B) Evaluating the credibility of a study typically involves a careful assessment of
methodologic decisions.
C) Support of a researcher's hypothesis through statistical testing offers proof of its
veracity.
D) A correlation between two variables indicates that the independent variable caused
the dependent variable.
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2. Information about the precision of results typically is communication in the form of
which of the following?
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
C) Correlation coefficients
D) Confidence intervals
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3. Information about the magnitude or importance of results typically takes the form of
which of the following?
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
C) Correlation coefficients
D) Confidence intervals
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4. Which of the following is an aspect or dimension of the interpretive task? Select all that
apply.
A) The accuracy or credibility of the results
B) The meaning of the results
C) The vigor of the results
D) The implications of the results
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5. When a researcher makes a Type II error (concludes that no relationship between the
independent and dependent variable exists when in fact it does), this could occur
because of which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) An anomalous sample
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) Problems with adequately implementing the intervention
D) A large sample size
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6. When a researcher obtains significant results that are opposite to what was originally
hypothesized, it is likely that this occurred because of which of the following?
A) Inadequate sample size
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) A flawed statistical analysis
D) Faulty reasoning
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7. The Results section of a research article summarizes results of which of the following?
A) Study conclusions
B) Statistical analyses
C) Inferences
D) Interpretation of study findings
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8. It is important that researchers design rigorous study methods to prevent which of the
following?
A) Making inferences
B) Biases
C) Rejection of null hypothesis
D) Internal audit
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9. A study is investigating the rate of immunization at a community-based clinic. Selection
bias is most likely to be present in which of the following samples?
A) Random sample of clients accessing an urgent care clinic
B) Random sample of records of school clinic vaccination rates
C) Convenience sample of mothers who bring children to clinic for vaccinations
D) Convenience sample of high school students who have received required
vaccinations
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10. A main purpose of the Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials (CONSORT) flow
diagram is which of the following?
A) Track the progress of study participants
B) Present accurate statistical analyses
C) Compare and contrast current study findings
D) Summarize previous study findings
Page 2
11. The purpose of evaluating the evidence that emanates from research articles is to do
which of the following?
A) Maintain licensure as a professional nurse
B) Implement protocols already established in one's clinical area
C) Improve one's clinical assessment skills
D) Decide whether recommendations might be implemented
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12. A researcher must select a sample that is representative of the population. Which of the
following venues would be most practical for recruitment of patients with primary
hypertension?
A) Prenatal clinic
B) High school clinic
C) Primary care clinic
D) Acute care hospital
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13. A researcher plans to use a proxy variable to measure the concept of patient outcome.
Which of the following would be an appropriate variable to use?
A) Length of stay in hospital
B) Medicare eligibility
C) Falls risk
D) Staffing ratios
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14. Researchers conducting an exercise intervention study with overweight adults recruited
a sample of 250 adults from a primary care clinic. Of the 250 adults, 82 participants
completed the study. The 82 participants represent what type of sample?
A) Target population
B) Accessible population
C) Recruited sample
D) Actual sample
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15. The term validity refers to which of the following?
A) Truth of an inference
B) Honesty of the report
C) Accuracy of the measurement
D) Preparation of the researcher
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16. A study reports a 60% rate of attrition among the participants. This finding suggests
which of the following?
A) A threat to internal validity
B) Lack of recruitment
C) Appropriate compensation/incentives
D) Invalid measurements
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17. A p-value is a measure of the likelihood that the statistical results were obtained in error.
A confidence interval, on the other hand, provides which of the following?
A) The range of the measured values in the sample reported in the research report
B) The probability that similar results will be obtained in error, in the future
C) The range of probable values of the variable in the population
D) The likelihood that the results will be useful in practice
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18. The fact that research study findings are statistically significant indicates which of the
following?
A) Intervention was effective
B) Methods were valid
C) Results were unlikely due to chance
D) Sample size was adequate
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Answer Key
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B
D
B
A, B, D
A, B, C
D
B
B
C
A
D
C
A
D
A
A
C
C
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2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
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Chapter 16
1. The first major step that a researcher must undertake in a qualitative analysis is which of
the following?
A) A search for major themes
B) A search for appropriate metaphors
C) The use of quasi-statistics
D) Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data
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2. Before the advent of computer software for qualitative analysis, the main procedure for
managing qualitative data was the development of which of the following?
A) Conceptual files
B) Core categories
C) Memos
D) Themes
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3. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Narrative materials tend to be linear, which simplifies the coding process.
B) Qualitative researchers typically develop a category scheme before they collect
their data.
C) CAQDAS is available for coding, organizing, and retrieving qualitative data.
D) Content analysis is the analytic method used in phenomenologic studies.
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4. Steps generally employed in the management and analysis of qualitative data include
which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Testing hypotheses
B) Searching for recurrent themes and patterns
C) Validating themes and patterns
D) Developing a category scheme
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5. Quasi-statistics are essentially a method of which of the following?
A) Statistical analysis
B) Validation
C) Thematic generation
D) Constant comparison
6. Spradley's method includes which type of data analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Domain analysis
B) Taxonomic analysis
C) Componential analysis
D) Statistical analysis
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7. Validation of themes by conferring with study participants was specifically considered
inappropriate by whom?
A) Colaizzi
B) Giorgi
C) Glaser
D) Strauss
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8. An alternative to Spradley's approach to produce and analyze ethnographic data was
developed by whom?
A) Leininger
B) Van Manen
C) Colaizzi
D) Giorgi
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9. Diekelmann and colleagues proposed a 7-stage process of hermeneutic analysis that
includes the identification of which of the following?
A) An appropriate metaphor
B) A constitutive pattern
C) A hermeneutic circle
D) An exemplar
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10. The process referred to as constant comparison involves which of the following?
A) Comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data
B) Comparing the researchers' interpretation of the data against study participants'
interpretation
C) Comparing elements present in one data source with those in another
D) Comparing data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies
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11. In the Strauss and Corbin approach to grounded theory, the initial process of breaking
down, categorizing, and coding the data is often referred to as which of the following?
A) Axial coding
B) Core coding
C) Open coding
D) Selective coding
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12. Level III codes, in the Glaser and Strauss approach to grounded theory, are which of the
following?
A) Axial codes
B) In vivo codes
C) Open codes
D) Theoretical constructs
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13. Selective coding in Glaserian approach to grounded theory studies begins when which
of the following occurs?
A) Constant comparison has ended
B) Data saturation has occurred
C) Memos have been prepared
D) A core category has been identified
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14. Constructivist grounded theory is an approach developed by whom?
A) Charmaz
B) Glaser
C) Strauss
D) Corbin
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15. Which of the following is a significant challenge in qualitative analysis?
A) Mastering the standard procedures for analyzing qualitative data
B) Lack of narrative materials to analyze
C) Reducing data for reporting purposes
D) Deducing particulars from a universal
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16. Which of the following best describes the purpose of constant comparison?
A) To identify commonalities among elements present in one data source with those in
another
B) To describe the essential nature of an experience
C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants
D) To fit concepts with the incidents they are representing
17. In qualitative data analysis, which element can be used as an analytic strategy?
A) Management
B) Metaphors
C) Conceptualization
D) Constructivism
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18. Which of the following is an activity involved in qualitative content analysis? Select all
that apply.
A) Breaking down data into smaller units
B) Coding and naming units according to the content they represent
C) Collecting information on participants
D) Grouping coded material based on shared concepts
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19. Phenomenology most fundamentally involves a search for which of the following?
A) A core category from open coding
B) Intersubjective agreement among judges
C) Thematic descriptions from artistic sources
D) Common patterns shared by particular instances
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20. The Duquesne School of Phenomenology is based on the philosophy of which of the
following?
A) Colaizzi
B) Van Kaam
C) Husserl
D) Giorgi
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21. Which of the following is the first stage of Diekelmann, Allen, and Tanner's (1989)
process of data analysis in hermeneutics?
A) Interpretive summaries of each interview are written.
B) A team of researchers analyzes selected transcribed interviews or texts.
C) All the interviews or texts are read for an overall understanding.
D) Common meanings and shared practices are identified by comparing and
contrasting the text.
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22. What is the primary outcome of Strauss and Corbin's (2008) approach to grounded
theory?
A) A theory of how a social problem is processed
B) A full conceptual description
C) A central category
D) A core category
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23. Which of the following accurately describes a task that computer-assisted qualitative
data analysis software can accomplish? Select all that apply.
A) Code interview portions and observational records
B) Facilitate examination of relationships between codes
C) Inform the researcher of how best to analyze the data
D) Allow retrieval of portions of text corresponding to specified codes for analysis
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24. The primary goal of ethnography is which of the following?
A) To identify and categorize descriptors
B) To abstract major themes
C) To find patterns in the behavior and thoughts of participants
D) To collect, describe, and record data
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25. Which of the following is the final phase of Leininger and McFarland's (2006)
ethnonursing data analysis guide?
A) Abstract major themes and present findings
B) Identify and categorize descriptors
C) Analyze data to discover repetitive patterns in their context
D) Collect, describe, and record data
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26. Which of the following is the correct order of tasks in organizing and managing
narrative data for qualitative analysis?
A) 1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4.
check the accuracy of transcribed data
B) 1. Develop a category scheme; 2. check the accuracy of transcribed data; 3. read
and code the data; 4. organize the data
C) 1. Check the accuracy of transcribed data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read
and code the data; 4. organize the data
D) 1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. check the accuracy of
transcribed data; 4. organize the data
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27. Which of the following can best facilitate researchers' search for themes?
A) Charting devices
B) Detailed coding
C) Quasi-statistics
D) Computer software
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28. Why does a researcher introduce quasi-statistics?
A) As an analytic strategy
B) To validate and refine themes
C) As a taxonomic analysis
D) To provide an overall structure
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Answer Key
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D
A
C
B, C, D
B
A, B, C
B
A
B
C
C
D
D
A
C
A
B
A, B, D
D
C
C
B
B, D
C
A
C
A
B
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
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Chapter 17
1. Which of the following terms is especially controversial among qualitative researchers?
A) Dependability
B) Validity
C) Transferability
D) Credibility
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2. Which of the following are terms that are considered aspects of trustworthiness within
the Lincoln and Guba framework? Select all that apply.
A) Transferability
B) Confirmability
C) Stability
D) Dependability
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3. Dependability in qualitative research is considered the analog of which criterion in
quantitative research?
A) Internal validity
B) Construct validity
C) Reliability
D) Specificity
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4. The criterion that refers to neutrality or objectivity in qualitative inquiry is which of the
following?
A) Credibility
B) Transferability
C) Authenticity
D) Confirmability
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5. Which criterion is considered analogous to internal validity in the Lincoln & Guba
framework?
A) Credibility
B) Transferability
C) Dependability
D) Confirmability
6. If both in-depth interviews and participant observations were used to collect data on a
phenomenon in a study, this would be referred to as which of the following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
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7. If a researcher studying family response to adolescent suicide interviewed parents and
siblings independently, the triangulation approach method would be called which of the
following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
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8. A member check involves the researcher reviewing data with which of the following?
A) An external auditor
B) A peer of the researcher
C) A study participant
D) A second member of the research team
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9. The maintenance of good, thorough documentation and a decision trail is especially
critical in which of the following?
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
C) Negative case analysis
D) Inquiry audits
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10. A quality-enhancement strategy about which there is considerable controversy is which
of the following?
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
C) Negative case analysis
D) Inquiry audits
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11. The term trustworthiness in qualitative research parallels which of the following terms
used in quantitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Generalizability
B) Validity
C) Reliability
D) Correlation
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12. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) It is consistent with the constructivist paradigm of inquiry.
B) It generates causal hypotheses.
C) It tests hypotheses.
D) It involves an iterative process of interpretation and analysis.
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13. Credibility in qualitative research refers to which of the following?
A) The reliability of data over time
B) Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
C) Applicability of the data to other groups
D) Confidence in the truth value of the data
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14. Confirmability in qualitative research refers to which of the following?
A) The reliability of data over time
B) Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
C) Applicability of the data to other groups
D) Confidence in the truth value of the data
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15. The term transferability in qualitative research is similar to which term used in
quantitative research?
A) Authenticity
B) Reliability
C) Generalizability
D) Correlation
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16. Which of the following statements about qualitative research methods is true?
A) Peer debriefings in qualitative research provide proof that interpretations are
correct.
B) Qualitative research attempts to test hypotheses generated from quantitative
research.
C) Interpretation and analysis of qualitative data typically occur simultaneously.
D) Qualitative research methods are best suited to study well-known phenomenon.
17. Which of the following statements about controversies in qualitative research is true?
A) Unlike quantitative research methods, qualitative research methods do not require
rigorous study designs.
B) There is lack of consensus regarding the quality criteria for qualitative inquiry.
C) There is no “gold standard” in qualitative research criteria.
D) There is no comparable criterion in qualitative research for the positivists' criterion
of internal validity.
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18. Which of the following is a barrier that qualitative researchers face in demonstrating the
trustworthiness of their studies to readers?
A) Page limitations imposed by journals
B) Reflexivity
C) Lack of generalizability
D) Small sample sizes
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19. A nurse-midwife conducted a phenomenology study of the lived experience of women
in Haiti who gave birth following the 2010 Haitian earthquake. She collected data from
15 women over a 12-month period of time. Which quality-enhancement strategy is
described in this example?
A) Persistent observation
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
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20. A nurse working in an adolescent health clinic conducted a grounded theory study
related to contraceptive decision-making in Latina youth. She collected data from
individual interviews and focus groups. Which of the following quality-enhancement
strategies is described in this example?
A) Persistent observation
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
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21. A nurse working in an inner-city clinic conducted an ethnographic study of sex workers
to gain understanding of factors related to HIV risk for these women. After she
completed her data collection, she gave three participants feedback about her findings
for their review and commentary. Which of the following quality-enhancement
strategies is described in this example?
A) Audit trail
B) Data triangulation
C) Reflexivity
D) Member checking
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22. Which of the following quality-enhancement strategies has the greatest potential for
leading to erroneous conclusions about the data?
A) Member checking
B) Audit trail
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
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23. In qualitative research, investigator triangulation is comparable to which quantitative
research concept?
A) Content validity
B) Construct validity
C) Inter-rater reliability
D) Internal consistency
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24. The proper rationale for searching for and including disconfirming evidence is which of
the following?
A) To eliminate confounding cases from data analysis
B) To refine a hypothesis or theory
C) To confirm saturation of the data
D) To formulate a conclusion based on existing data
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25. Which of the following is true of thick description in qualitative research?
A) It should not include verbatim quotes from participants.
B) It should not include information that can be interpreted as controversial.
C) It should be implicit in the description of the research context.
D) It should avoid emotional impact.
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Answer Key
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B
A, B, D
C
D
A
D
A
C
D
A
B, C
A, B, D
D
B
C
C
B
A
B
D
D
A
C
B
C
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
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Chapter 18
1. Systematic reviews are the cornerstone of which of the following?
A) Evidence-based practice
B) Evidence hierarchies
C) Meta-analyses
D) Primary studies
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2. The unit of analysis in a meta-analysis is which of the following?
A) Individual study participants
B) A primary qualitative study
C) A primary quantitative study
D) Prior systematic reviews
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3. The “fruit” problem in meta-analysis refers to which of the following?
A) Including studies in the analysis from multiple disciplines
B) Including both unpublished and published reports in the analysis
C) Including both qualitative and quantitative findings in the analysis
D) Including studies that have addressed different research questions
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4. Which of the following activities are normally undertaken as part of doing a
meta-analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Obtaining the original data set from primary study researchers
B) Selecting a sample of studies
C) Systematically extracting and recording data
D) Evaluating the quality of studies
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5. Searching for studies in the grey literature represents a reviewer's effort to do which of
the following? Select all that apply.
A) Counteract the effect of biases against the null hypothesis
B) Increase sample size and therefore have a more comprehensive evidence base
C) Minimize the risk of publication bias
D) Include only published, peer-reviewed studies
6. A viable approach to addressing the quality of primary studies included in a
meta-analysis is which of the following?
A) Ignoring the problem of quality by using all studies regardless of rigor
B) Doing sensitivity analyses to assess if the effects change when low-quality studies
are included.
C) Using a random effects model rather than a fixed effects model.
D) Using a forest plot to assess the degree to which study quality is related to effect
size.
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7. When heterogeneity of effects is high (statistically significant), the preferred
meta-analytic approach is which of the following?
A) Abandon efforts to undertake a meta-analysis
B) Use a fixed effects analytic model
C) Use a random effects analytic model
D) Use a forest plot to display the extensiveness of heterogeneity to readers of the
report
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8. An effect size index that can be used in meta-analyses includes which of the following?
Select all that apply.
A) Standardized mean difference or d
B) Intensity effect size
C) Pearson's correlation coefficient (r)
D) The odds ratio (OR)
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9. A forest plot portrays information about which of the following for each study in the
meta-analysis?
A) 95% CIs around an effect size
B) Number of study participants
C) Quality assessment scores
D) Sample size and standard errors
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10. Which of the following best defines metasyntheses?
A) Involve interpretation as well as integration
B) Involve meta-summaries
C) Exclude studies judged to be low on trustworthiness
D) Rely primarily on phenomenological primary studies
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11. A widely-used approach to metasynthesis was developed by whom?
A) Polit and Beck
B) Noblit and Hare
C) Glaser and Strauss
D) Sackett and Cochrane
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12. Paterson and colleagues developed an approach to metasynthesis that includes which of
the following components? Select all that apply.
A) Meta-data analysis
B) Meta-method
C) Meta-ethnography
D) Meta-theory
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13. The unit of analysis in computing a frequency effect size, using the
Sandelowski-Barroso approach, is which of the following?
A) An individual study
B) A study participant
C) A mean value
D) A theme or qualitative finding
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14. Which of the following is a cornerstone of evidence-based practice?
A) Systematic reviews
B) Secondary study reports
C) Meta-analysis of qualitative studies
D) Narrative integration
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15. Meta-analysis differs from meta-synthesis in that meta-analysis studies use which of the
following? Select all that apply.
A) Objectivity in drawing conclusions regarding a body of evidence
B) Combining phenomena into a transformed whole
C) Subjective decisions about how much weight to give findings from different
studies
D) A measure of the probability of detecting a true relationship between variables
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16. Which of the following not only yields information about the existence of a relationship
between variables in many studies but also an estimate of its magnitude?
A) Effect size
B) Problem formulation
C) Grey literature
D) Subgroup analysis
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17. It is appropriate to use statistical integration when which of the following components
are nearly identical across studies?
A) Independent variable, dependent variable, and study populations
B) Statistical methods, population sample, hypotheses
C) Dependent variable, research design, theory explication
D) Available evidence, novel interpretation of findings, population sample
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18. Which of the following is a condition under which meta-analysis would be inappropriate
to conduct?
A) Highly conflicting results among studies
B) Research questions across studies being nearly identical
C) A large number of studies to draw from
D) Independent variables are similar across studies
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19. Which of the following is most accurate regarding researchers conducting
metasyntheses?
A) They often conduct original studies on the same topic as the metasynthesis they are
conducting.
B) They perform little advance planning, as it is not needed in qualitative research.
C) They make sampling decisions at the end of the study.
D) They use only peer-reviewed journals in the analysis.
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20. Integrating and analyzing qualitative findings from multiple research studies is called
which of the following?
A) Systematic review
B) Grey literature
C) Meta-analysis
D) Metasynthesis
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21. Analysis of grey literature includes which forms of research?
A) Dissertations, unpublished reports
B) Peer-reviewed journals, funded research
C) Systematic reviews, original research
D) Research reports from electronic databases only
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22. Meta-analysts depend on the calculation of an index that encapsulates in a single
number the relationship between the independent and dependent variables in each study.
An example of this calculation is which of the following?
A) Inclusion criteria
B) Forest plot
C) Cohen's d
D) Moderator analyses
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23. Analyzing heterogeneity in meta-analysis can be visually attained with which of the
following?
A) Cohen's d
B) A forest plot
C) Inclusion criteria
D) Moderator analyses
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24. In this research question for a systematic review, the researchers use which approach to
determining the answer to the question: Are clinical outcomes of nurse-led care for
patients with rheumatoid arthritis similar to those produced by usual care?
A) Randomized control trial
B) Metasynthesis
C) Meta-analysis
D) Not a researchable question
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25. Meta-analysts perform subgroup analyses to accomplish which of the following?
A) Utilize a fixed effects model to ascertain heterogeneity
B) Address publication bias and compute a fail-safe number
C) Determine if exclusion criteria changes the results in a study
D) Split the effect size information from studies into distinct categorical groups
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26. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. A meta-data analysis
involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data”
B) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
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27. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-method involves
which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
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28. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-theory analysis
involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
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Answer Key
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A
C
D
B, C, D
A, B, C
B
C
A, C, D
A
A
B
A, B, D
D
A
A, D
A
A
A
A
D
A
C
B
A
D
A
D
C
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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
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