1- Teaching for mild traumatic brain injury sustained in a motor vehicle accident.
A 22-year-old woman is being discharged home after suffering a mild traumatic brain injury
sustained
in a motor vehicle accident. What information will be given to her family?
A) Give her ibuprofen every 6 hours for headache.
B) She should be observed for 4 hours, and then she can go back to her own apartment.
C) She should not drink any cold liquids.
D) She should recover without any long-term consequences.
Ans: D
2- Know cerebral injury
-intracerebral hemorrhage.
-subdural hematoma.
-epidural hematoma.
-subarachnoid hemorrhage.
A 25-year-old was playing baseball and was hit in the head by a bat. At first he lost
consciousness for
a short period and then was alert, so he decided to just go home and put ice on his head. While at
home,
he started having a headache, became confused, and started to vomit. The most likely type of
cerebral
injury is a(n):
A) intracerebral hemorrhage.
B) subdural hematoma.
C) epidural hematoma.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Ans: C
3- What is the purpose of folate?
A 27-year-old woman is coming in to discuss preconception counseling. She is told to take
folate.
What is the purpose of this supplementation?
A) It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
B) It reduces the risk of anemia.
C) It helps with fertility and implantation.
D) It prevents down syndrome.
Ans: A
4- Which receptors are mainly altered by (Marijuana) PCP?
A 30-year-old male patient is in the emergency room because he was belligerent, confused, and
delirious. His girlfriend called the police because of this behavior, and she said it started after
smoking
marijuana. Suspicions are that the marijuana was altered with phencyclidine (PCP). Which
receptors are
mainly altered by PCP?
A) N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)
B) Serotonin receptors
C) Monoamine receptors
D) Dopamine receptors
Ans: A
5- The most likely cause of cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
A 60-year-old woman has just had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The most likely cause of
her
stroke is:
A) intracerebral hemorrhage.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) cerebral aneurysm.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Ans: B
6- Know types of paralysis
-Ipsilateral hypotonic muscles and flaccid paralysis
-Contralateral hypotonic muscles and flaccid paralysis
-Ipsilateral contractures and spastic paralysis
-Contralateral contractures and spastic paralysis
A 75-year-old man had a cerebrovascular accident. What type of paralysis will be most likely?
A) Ipsilateral hypotonic muscles and flaccid paralysis
B) Contralateral hypotonic muscles and flaccid paralysis
C) Ipsilateral contractures and spastic paralysis
D) Contralateral contractures and spastic paralysis
Ans: D
7- Know patient presentation of:
-meningocele.
-spina bifida occulta.
-myelomeningocele.
-split cord malformation.
A child is being examined, and a tuft of hair over a birthmark in the sacrococcygeal area is noted
with
no other abnormalities. This could represent:
A) meningocele.
B) spina bifida occulta.
C) myelomeningocele.
D) split cord malformation.
Ans: B
8- Alterations in what chromosomes have been associated with the development of mental health
disorders such as depression, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia.
Neuroanatomic and neurotransmitter alterations in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia
include which
of the following?
A) Loss of cortical tissue
B) Alteration in dopamine pathways
C) Shrinkage of the ventricles
D) All of these are correct.
E) Loss of cortical tissue and alteration in dopamine pathways
Ans: E
Alterations in __________ have been associated with the development of mental health disorders
such as depression, bipolar disorder, and schizophrenia.
A) chromosomes 8 and 15
B) chromosomes 5 and 6
C) chromosomes 1 and 2
D) chromosomes 3 and 10
Ans: D
chromosomes 18 and 22 have been linked to bipolar disorder and
schizophrenia
bipolar disorder, who may exhibit psychotic behavior,
have deficits in reelin expression linked to genetic loci located on chromosome 22,
9- Know different types of headaches and patient presentation
-migraine headache without aura.
-cluster headaches.
-tension headaches.
-headache due to an aneurysm.
A man is complaining of a unilateral throbbing headache that is severe. He also gets a runny
nose,
and his eye gets teary. These headaches make him feel restless. He says they come and go, but he
can
get several in a day. These findings are consistent with:
A) migraine headache without aura.
B) cluster headaches.
C) tension headaches.
D) headache due to an aneurysm.
Ans: B
10- Patient presentation of:
-experiencing acute anxiety.
-developing spinal shock.
-developing autonomic hyperreflexia.
-experiencing parasympathetic areflexia.
A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe
hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most
likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is:
a. Experiencing acute anxiety
b. Developing spinal shock
c. Developing autonomic hyperreflexia
d. Experiencing parasympathetic areflexia
ANS: C
Autonomic hyperreflexia is the only option that is characterized by paroxysmal
hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic), a pounding headache, blurred vision, sweating
above the level of the lesion with flushing of the skin, nasal congestion, nausea,
piloerection caused by pilomotor spasm, and bradycardia (30 to 40 beats per minute
11-A migraine occurs as a result of?
A migraine occurs as a result of:
A) trigeminal nerve inhibition.
B) cerebral vasoconstriction.
C) inhibition of serotonin receptors.
D) neurogenic inflammation leading to neuronal sensitization.
Ans: D
12- know difference between an obsession, a compulsion, paranoia and delusions.
An 18-year-old patient describes that he needs to wash his hands multiple times a day because he
is
concerned about germs. He said this started when he was about 12 years old. This behavior is a
description of:
A) an obsession.
B) a compulsion.
C) paranoia.
D) delusions.
Ans: B
13- Know patient presentation for a manic episode, a panic attack, compulsive behavior.
An 18-year-old was brought into the emergency room because she was found on the streets at
2:00
a.m. stating she was campaigning for the next president and was writing his speeches. Police
reported
she was alone and yelling at oncoming cars and insisting they join her campaign to elect the next
president. Concerns for her safety is what led the police to bring her to the emergency room. This
woman
may be experiencing:
A) a manic episode.
B) a panic attack.
C) agoraphobia.
D) compulsive behavior.
Ans: A
14- Which microorganisms has been linked to meningitis?
A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following
microorganisms has
been linked to meningitis?
A) E. coli
B) S. pneumonia
C) H. influenza
D) Cl. difficile
E) N. meningitis
F) S. pneumonia, H. influenza, and N. meningitis
Ans: F
15- patient presentation and symptoms of
-avolition.
-alogia.
-anhedonia.
-delusions.
A notable complication of panic disorder is:
a. Avolition c. Alogia
b. Anhedonia d. Agoraphobia
ANS: D
Of the available options, the only notable complication of panic disorder is the
development of agoraphobia or phobic avoidance of places or situations where escape or
help is not readily available
A patient reports that he senses that he is detached from society. His family reports he doesn’t
seem to
enjoy many experiences. These symptoms are a description of:
A) avolition.
B) alogia.
C) anhedonia.
D) delusions.
Ans: C
16- Signs of increased intracranial pressure after head injury from a motorcycle accident.
A patient with increased intracranial pressure will have:
A) dilated scalp veins.
B) a rapid increase in head size.
C) visual changes.
D) prominence of forehead.
Ans: C
17- Teaching for refractory depression patient that will receive electroconvulsive therapy.
A patient with refractory depression will receive electroconvulsive therapy. She would like more
information about this therapy. What information should be provided to her?
A) You will need to be on bedrest for 2 days after the procedure.
B) The procedure produces a brief brain seizure that activates various brain areas.
C) The procedure is painless, so usually no anesthesia is necessary.
D) You will have to reduce your intake of food after, due to the risk of vomiting.
Ans: B
18- A patient with schizophrenia has hallucinations and delusions. These thoughts and behaviors
are termed?
What is a key difference between dementia and delirium?
A) Delirium onset is usually slow and insidious.
B) Hallucinations and delusions may be present with delirium.
C) Behavior is usually agitated early on in dementia.
D) The sleep wake cycle is usually disrupted in delirium.
Ans: B
A patient with schizophrenia has hallucinations and delusions. These thoughts and behaviors are
termed:
A) positive symptoms.
B) negative symptoms.
C) affective symptoms.
D) cognitive symptoms.
Ans: A
19- Location of trigeminal neuralgia?
A woman is diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia. Where would her pain be located?
A) Trapezius
B) Cheek and mandibular area
C) Occiput
D) Neck
Ans: B
20- Benign febrile seizures are characterized by or associated with?
Benign febrile seizures are characterized by:
a. A temperature lower than 39° C
b. Respiratory or ear infections
c. Onset after the fifth year of life
d. Episodes lasting 30 minutes or longer
ANS: B
21- Children in comparison to adults with major depressive disorders are more likely to exhibit?
Children in comparison to adults with major depressive disorders are more likely to exhibit:
A) weight changes.
B) low self-esteem.
C) insomnia.
D) somatic complaints such as stomachache.
Ans: D
22- In a generalized anxiety disorder, anticipatory anxiety and attentional bias to threats are
thought caused by?
In a generalized anxiety disorder, anticipatory anxiety and attentional bias to threats are thought
be
caused by:
A) serotonin and GABA surges.
B) cingulate cortex and amygdala abnormalities.
C) cholecystokinin receptor gene on chromosome 11p.
D) hypothalamic-pituitary thyroid system dysregulation.
Ans: B
23- In an ischemic stroke, high blood pressure management should be?
In an ischemic stroke, high blood pressure management should:
A) occur slowly (e.g., no more than 15% in first 24 hours).
B) occur quickly until the patient is normotensive.
C) not be attempted until after 24 hours.
D) occur quickly until the symptoms stabilize.
Ans: A
24- Neuroanatomic and neurotransmitter alterations in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia?
Neuroanatomic and neurotransmitter alterations in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia
include which
of the following?
A) Loss of cortical tissue
B) Alteration in dopamine pathways
C) Shrinkage of the ventricles
D) All of these are correct.
E) Loss of cortical tissue and alteration in dopamine pathways
Ans: E
25- Loss of cortical tissue and alteration in dopamine pathways
26- Second-generation antipsychotics have which effects on neurotransmitters?
Second-generation antipsychotics have which of the following effects on neurotransmitters?
A) Dopamine and serotonin
B) Dopamine only
C) Serotonin only
D) Dopamine and glutamate
Ans: A
27-The ability of the brain synapse numbers and strength to change is termed?
The ability of the brain synapse numbers and strength to change is termed:
A) neuroplasticity.
B) neural adaptation.
C) neural transmission.
D) neural gaining.
Ans: A
28- What is a key difference between dementia and delirium?
What is a key difference between dementia and delirium?
A) Delirium onset is usually slow and insidious.
B) Hallucinations and delusions may be present with delirium.
C) Behavior is usually agitated early on in dementia.
D) The sleep wake cycle is usually disrupted in delirium.
Ans: B
29- What is the relationship between the hypothalamic pituitary axis and depression?
What is the relationship between the hypothalamic pituitary axis and depression?
A) Reduction in cortisol
B) Reduced production of corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) Increased production of corticotropin-releasing hormone
D) Low levels of gamma aminobutyric acid
Ans: C
30- What symptoms must be present for a patient to be diagnosed with major depressive
disorder?
What symptoms must be present for a patient to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder?
A) Indecisiveness
B) Feeling of sadness
C) Fatigue
D) Insomnia
Ans: B
31- Essential amino acid that is a precursor to serotonin?
Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize:
a. Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
b. Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
c. Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
d. Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine
ANS: A
Which of the following essential amino acids is a precursor to serotonin?
A) Tryptophan
B) Glutamate
C) Choline
D) Dopamine
Ans: A
32- Which is a characteristic of brainstem death?
Which of the following is a characteristic of brainstem death?
A) Apnea
B) Comatose
C) Vegetative state
D) Lack of movement
Ans: A
33- Which neurologic disorders is characterized by cortical nerve cell processes that have
become twisted and dilated?
Which of the following neurologic disorders is characterized by cortical nerve cell processes
that have
become twisted and dilated?
A) Delirium
B) Parkinson disease
C) Alzheimer disease
D) Multiple sclerosis
Ans: C
34-Which neurotransmitters are generally considered excitatory?
Which of the following neurotransmitters are generally considered excitatory?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Gamma aminobutyric acid
D) Glutamate
E) Dopamine and glutamate
Ans: E
35- Which neurotransmitter is widely reduced in depression?
Which of the following neurotransmitters is widely reduced in depression?
A) Serotonin
B) Monoamine
C) Glutamine
D) Epinephrine
Ans: A
36- Which type of nerve cells produce myelin?
Which of the following types of nerve cells produce myelin?
A) Astrocytes
B) Neurocytes
C) Microglia
D) Schwann
Ans: D
37- types of fractures and patient presentation
What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a
force that would not normally cause a fracture?
a. Idiopathic c. Pathologic
b. Incomplete d. Greenstick
ANS: C
Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that
is strenuous and repetitive?
a. Stress c. Insufficiency
b. Greenstick d. Pathologic
ANS: A
38- diagnosis of osteomyelitis.
Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is due to what?
a. Formation of immune complexes at the site of infection
b. Localized ischemia
c. Tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-a) and interleukin 1 (IL-1)
d. Impaired nerve innervation at the site of infection
ANS: B
When considering osteomyelitis, sequestrum is identified as what?
a. An area of devascularized and devitalized bone
b. An enzyme that phagocytizes necrotic bone
c. A subperiosteal abscess
d. A layer of new bone surrounding the infected bone
ANS: A
In osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis, which is
considered the path of least resistance. What factor makes this route for bacteria the path
of least resistance?
a. Cortex of the bone in this area is porous or mazelike.
b. Blood supply to the metaphysis is easily compromised.
c. Macrophages and lymphocytes have limited access to the subperiosteal space.
d. Bacteria usually spread down the medullary cavity of the bone.
ANS: A
Which organism is the primary cause of osteomyelitis in a newborn?
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Group B streptococcus
b. Escherichia coli d. Bacillus anthracis
ANS: A
In which type of fracture sustained by a child is osteomyelitis more likely?
A) A 12-year old with a tibial stress fracture
B) A 8-year old with a rib fracture
C) A 6-year old with a greenstick forearm fracture
D) A 7-year old with an ulnar fracture through his growth plate.
Ans: D
39- know the difference between
-lumbar strain.
-spinal stenosis.
-osteoporosis.
-ankylosing spondylitis.
A 70-year-old man is complaining of calf pain that gets better when he leans forward or sits. He
has a
history of low back pain for several years and was told it was due to arthritis of his spine, but he
never
had this calf pain. He feels like his legs are a bit weaker. This pain pattern is characteristic of:
A) lumbar strain.
B) spinal stenosis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) ankylosing spondylitis.
Ans: B
40- know the characteristics of:
-osteoporosis.
-osteomalacia.
-rickets.
-Paget disease.
A bone marrow that is infiltrated by excessive fibrous connective tissue and blood vessels is
characteristic of:
A) osteoporosis.
B) osteomalacia.
C) rickets.
D) Paget disease.
Ans: D
41- A characteristic of inflammatory joint disease is?
A characteristic of inflammatory joint disease is:
A) unilateral joint involvement.
B) normal joint synovial fluid.
C) absence of synovial membrane inflammation.
D) systemic symptoms of inflammation.
Ans: D
Inflammatory joint disease is characterized by systemic signs of inflammation (fever,
leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, hyperfibrinogenemia) and inflammatory damage or
destruction in the synovial membrane or articular cartilage. This selection is the only
option that accurately describes a characteristic of inflammatory joint disease.
Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement and joint pain of
weight-bearing joints that is usually relieved by rest?
a. Gouty arthritis c. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Suppurative arthritis
ANS: C
42-A key pathologic change in the articular cartilage in osteoarthritis is:
A key pathologic change in the articular cartilage in osteoarthritis is:
A) the loss of proteoglycans, which is a substance that makes up cartilage.
B) increased osteoclastic activity leading to cartilage destruction.
C) autoimmune-mediated destruction.
D) chronic synovial membrane inflammation.
Ans: A
43- Teaching for hip dysplasia. Important points to teach are that swaddling should be in a
position that?
A mother and father are being taught how to properly swaddle their newborn girl to avoid
developmental hip dysplasia. Important points to teach are that swaddling should be in a position
that:
D) allows for hip flexion and abduction
44- A patient develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. How does
compartment syndrome develop?
A patient develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. How does
compartment
syndrome develop?
A) A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area.
B) An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment.
C) Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand.
D) The tissue and fascia swell with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles.
Ans: D
45- Which manifestations would be consistent with epicondylitis?
A patient is complaining of elbow pain. Which manifestations would be consistent with
epicondylitis?
FOCAL TENDERNESS
46- Bone matrix hydroxyapatite crystals are composed of calcium and?
Bone matrix hydroxyapatite crystals are composed of calcium and:
A) potassium and sodium.
B) phosphate and water.
C) magnesium and water.
D) sodium and water.
Ans: B
47- Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of?
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of:
A) median nerve compression.
B) carpal ligament tear.
C) radial head wrist tendinitis.
D) thickening of the fascia.
Ans: A
48- what are some changes that occur in the cartilage as a result of aging?
Changes that occur in the cartilage as a result of aging includes:
A) increased hyaluronic acid.
B) decreased water content.
C) increased glycosaminoglycans.
D) decreased nerve supply.
Ans: B
49-Know why developmental hip dysplasia occurs
Which of the following are manifestations of developmental hip dysplasia in a 2-month-old
infant?
A) The hips can be easily subluxed with physical maneuvers.
B) Gluteal creases are symmetric.
C) Femur height is equal.
D) Hip adduction is limited.
Ans: A
50-Know risk factor for the development of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in children.
__________ is a risk factor for the development of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in
children.
A) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Obesity
D) Playing sports
Ans: C
51-Prevention of osteoporosis focuses on?
Prevention of osteoporosis focuses on:
A) increasing phosphorus intake.
B) increasing weight-bearing exercise.
C) limiting soy intake.
D) limiting vitamin D intake.
Ans: B
52-Know common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis
The most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is:
A) bone pain.
B) muscle strain.
C) usually asymptomatic.
D) pathologic fracture.
Ans: C
53-Know joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis
bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints.
54-Know patient presentation for developmental hip dysplasia
Which of the following are manifestations of developmental hip dysplasia in a 2-month-old
infant?
A) The hips can be easily subluxed with physical maneuvers.
Developmental hip dysplasia occurs as a result of:
A) lack of femoral head cartilage development.
B) femoral head and acetabulum compressing together.
C) lack of normal contact between the femoral head and acetabulum.
D) lack of normal physiologic laxity during the newborn period.
Ans: C
55-Know DEXA scan scores and osteoporosis
Which of the following dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan finding is consistent
with
osteoporosis?
A) A T score of 2.9 in a 50-year-old woman who is not menopausal
B) A T score of 2.0 in a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman
C) A T score of 1.0 in a 60-year-old woman
D) A T score of 0.5 in a 70-year-old man
Ans: A
56-Know findings consistent with structural scoliosis
E) Asymmetrical shoulder height and rib prominence
What is the cause of structural scoliosis?
a. Poor posture c. Poor calcium absorption
b. Vertebral rotation d. Intrauterine trauma
ANS: B
57-Family/ caregiver teaching for caring with someone with osteoporosis
•
•
•
•
•
Diet. Identify calcium and vitamin D rich foods and discuss calcium supplements.
Exercise. Engage in weight-bearing exercise daily.
Lifestyle. Modify lifestyle choices: avoid smoking, alcohol, caffeine, and carbonated
beverages.
Posture. ...
Early detection.
58-Know the differences between cartilage and bone
Which of the following is the differences between cartilage and bone?
C) Bone is calcified, whereas cartilage is not.
59-Know osteoprotegerin (OPG)
Which of the following statements describes osteoprotegerin (OPG)?
A) It acts as a RANKL receptor decoy.
B) When bound to an osteoclast, it promotes resorption.
C) OPG stimulates RANKL.
D) Women have a higher level of OPG in comparison to men.
Ans: A
60-Types of medication that should be avoided in someone with gout?
A) Thiazide diuretics
61-Know symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder
An 18-year-old was brought into the emergency room because she was found on the streets at
2:00
a.m. stating she was campaigning for the next president and was writing his speeches. Police
reported
she was alone and yelling at oncoming cars and insisting they join her campaign to elect the next
president. Concerns for her safety is what led the police to bring her to the emergency room. This
woman
may be experiencing:
A) a manic episode.
B) a panic attack.
C) agoraphobia.
D) compulsive behavior.
Ans: A
•
•
•
•
•
Fear of contamination or dirt.
Doubting and having difficulty tolerating uncertainty.
Needing things orderly and symmetrical.
Aggressive or horrific thoughts about losing control and harming yourself or others.
Unwanted thoughts, including aggression, or sexual or religious subjects.
62-Know the signs and symptoms of depression
A patient with refractory depression will receive electroconvulsive therapy. She would like more
information about this therapy. What information should be provided to her?
A) You will need to be on bedrest for 2 days after the procedure.
B) The procedure produces a brief brain seizure that activates various brain areas.
C) The procedure is painless, so usually no anesthesia is necessary.
D) You will have to reduce your intake of food after, due to the risk of vomiting.
Ans: B
63-Cerebral small-vessel disease (a cause of lacunar stroke) that occurs as a result of
arteriolosclerosis or beta-amyloid deposition in small arteries is consistent with
Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type
of stroke?
a. Embolic c. Lacunar
b. Hemorrhagic d. Thrombotic
ANS: C
A lacunar stroke (lacunar infarct) is a microinfarct smaller than 1 cm in diameter. Because
of the subcortical location and small area of infarction, these strokes may have pure motor
and sensory deficits. The other options would not result in the complications described
64-Know clinical signs seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease
Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s
neurotransmitters?
a. Gamma-aminobutyric acid c. Norepinephrine
b. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine
ANS: B
Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain?
a. Thalamus c. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata d. Basal ganglia
ANS: D
Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
a. Hypothalamus c. Frontal lobe
b. Anterior pituitary d. Basal ganglia
ANS: D
Parkinso
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include: (Select all that apply.)
a. Fragmented sleep
b. Drooping eyelids
c. Depression
d. Muscle stiffness
e. Bradykinesia
ANS: A, C, D, E
65-Know patient presentation and difference between a partial seizure, an absence seizure (petit
mal seizure), a grand mal seizure and an atonic seizure (drop attack)
A complex partial seizure is described as:
a. Alternating of tonic and clonic movements
b. Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli
c. Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness
d. One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute
ANS: B
What type of seizure starts in the fingers and progressively spreads up the arm and extends
to the leg?
a. Complex-psychomotor seizure c. Generalized seizures
b. Focal (partial) Jacksonian seizure d. Atonic-drop seizure
ANS: B
Focal (partial) Jacksonian seizures most often begin in the face and fingers and then
progressively spread to other body parts. The other options do not begin and spread in the
fashion described.
66-Know the difference between
Migraine headache with aura: Migraine with aura (also called classic migraine) is a recurring
headache that strikes after or at the same time as sensory disturbances called aura. These
disturbances can include flashes of light, blind spots, and other vision changes or tingling in your
hand or face.
Cluster headache: occur in cyclical patterns or cluster periods, are one of the most painful types
of headache. A cluster headache commonly awakens you in the middle of the night with intense
pain in or around one eye on one side of your head.
Tic douloureux: A chronic pain condition affecting the trigeminal nerve in the face.
The trigeminal nerve carries sensation from the face to the brain. It's most common in women
over age 50.
Symptoms range from mild to severe facial pain, often triggered by chewing, speaking, or
brushing the teeth.
Treatment includes medications, injections, and surgery.
Cranial neuralgia: refer to pain associated with abnormalities of the cranial nerves and the
face. The pain associated with a cranial neuralgia is lancinating (i.e., piercing or stabbing) in
character and occurs intermittently with paroxysms (i.e., sudden attacks).
A woman is diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia. Where would her pain be located?
A) Trapezius
B) Cheek and mandibular area
C) Occiput
D) Neck
Ans: B
67-Know the prophylactic treatment of migraine headache?
First-line therapies for migraine prophylaxis in adults include propranolol (Inderal), timolol
(Blocadren), amitriptyline, divalproex (Depakote), sodium valproate, and topiramate
(Topamax)
68-Know reflex, seizure, epilepsy and convulsion
Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing,
swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a. Pons c. Cerebellum
b. Midbrain d. Medulla oblongata
ANS: D
The convulsion
occurs with a rise in temperature higher than 39° C (102.2 °F). The convulsion is short (15
minutes or less).
A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
a. Reflex c. Epilepsy
b. Seizure d. Convulsion
ANS: B
A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons describes a seizure. This
description is not accurate for the other options.
69-Know how to correctly diagnose seizure disorder
The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its
cause is:
a. Computed tomographic (CT) scan c. Skull x-ray studies
b. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis d. Health history
ANS: D
Although the history may be supplemented with the remaining options, it remains the
pivotal tool for establishing the cause of a seizure disorder.
70-Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
a. Dementia syndrome c. Alzheimer disease
b. Delirium d. Parkinson disease
ANS: C
71-Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include: (Select all that apply.)
a. Fragmented sleep
b. Drooping eyelids
c. Depression
d. Muscle stiffness
e. Bradykinesia
ANS: A, C, D, E
72-Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through
vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?
Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins
through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?
a. Cavernous angioma c. Arteriovenous angioma
b. Capillary telangiectasia d. Arteriovenous malformation
ANS: D
73-Know multiple sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an):
a. Central nervous system demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b. Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an
autoimmune disorder
c. Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus
d. Degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune
factors
ANS: A
74-Disorder in which acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG antibodies) are produced against
acetylcholine receptors?
In which disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG antibodies) produced against
acetylcholine receptors?
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome c. Myasthenia gravis
b. Multiple sclerosis d. Parkinson disease
ANS: C
75-Patient presentation with hydrocephalus
The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is:
b. Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
76-Know Glasgow Coma Scale
77-Know carpal tunnel syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of:
A) median nerve compression.
78-What is a radiculopathy?
A disease of the root of a nerve, such as from a pinched nerve or a tumor.
79-Kyphosis is a late sign of
Osteoporosis
80-Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
Tendon
81
The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
a. Fracture c. Disunion
b. Strain d. Sprain
ANS: D
Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are associated
with this damage.
82-Know characteristic of osteosarcoma?
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma?
a. Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow and infiltrates the trabeculae
b. Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia
c. Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones
d. Tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding
tissue by seeding
ANS: C
An osteosarcoma is a malignant bone-forming tumor. It is aggressive and most often found
in bone marrow; it has a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction. This selection is the only
option that accurately describes a characteristic of osteosa
What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?
a. Chondrosarcoma c. Ewing Sarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma d. Osteosarcoma
ANS: D
Osteosarcoma usually metastasizes to the:
a. Pancreas c. Lungs
b. Liver d. Brain
ANS: C
83-What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty
arthritis?
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty
arthritis?
a. Reduced excretion of purines
b. Overproduction of uric acid
c. Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
d. Overproduction of proteoglycans
ANS: B
84-What event is associated with the beginning of bone loss in women?
Menopause
85-Know:
Rickets
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteochondrosis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes
which disorder?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Osteochondrosis
b. Rickets d. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
ANS: B
86-In which type of muscle can Rhabdomyosarcoma develop?
Rhabdomyosarcoma can develop in which type of muscle?
a. Cardiac c. Involuntary
b. Smooth d. Striated
ANS: D
87-Know:
-Muscular dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is usually identified in children at approximately 3 years of
age, when the parents first notice slow motor development with progressive weakness and muscle
wasting. A moderate degree of mental retardation causes these children to have a mean intelligence
quotient (IQ) of approximately 85.
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy exhibits a face that is expressionless, and pouting
of the lips makes whistling impossible.
Becker muscular dystrophy shares the X-linked inheritance pattern but produces milder
clinical features.
Myotonic dystrophy is a result of an autosomal dominant gene exhibiting a slow rate of
progression and frequently mental retardation.
-Ankylosinh spondylitits
Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disease that, over time, can cause some of the
bones in the spine (vertebrae) to fuse. This fusing makes the spine less flexible and can result
in a hunched posture. If ribs are affected, it can be difficult to breathe deeply.
-Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
the most common type of arthritis in children under the age of 16. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
can cause persistent joint pain, swelling and stiffness. Some children may experience symptoms
for only a few months, while others have symptoms for many years.
-Osteomalacia
softening of the bones, typically through a deficiency of vitamin D or calcium
88-Know
adhesive capsulitis: Inflammation of the capsule with fibrosis. Frozen shoulder, also known as
adhesive capsulitis, is a condition characterized by stiffness and pain in your shoulder joint.
Signs and symptoms typically begin gradually, worsen over time and then resolve, usually within
one to three years.
Bursitis: is inflammation of a bursa. A bursa is a closed, fluid-filled sac that works as a cushion
and gliding surface to reduce friction between tissues of the body. The major bursae (this is the
plural of bursa) are located next to the tendons near the large joints, such as in the shoulders,
elbows, hips, and knees.
epicondylitis : refers to inflammation of the tendons surrounding the elbow, typically due to
overuse and repetitive motions of the forearm. This leads to symptoms of tennis elbow and
golfer's elbow, which include pain, weakened grip strength, and possible numbness and tingling.
and trigger finger
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