GRADE 8 PHYSICS QUESTION BANK
I. Choose the correct answer and write the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
1.
2.
Which one of the following sets of units contains only the units of fundamental physical quantities?
A. foot, Kelvin, mole and year
C. cubit, quintal, volt and ohm
B. foot, Pascal, Newton and liter
D. inch, watt, joule and coulomb
One milliliter is equal to one centimeter cubed (1ml = 1cm3). Then 3m3 is equal to
A. 3000 liter
3.
B. 3000 ml
C. 0.03 liter
D. None
Of the following, which one is true about mass, density and volume of a substance with change of
temperature?
A. As temperature rises, density, mass and volume increases
B. As temperature falls, mass increases while density and volume decrease
C. As temperature rises density decreases, volume increases and mass remains the same
D. Temperature change has no effect on mass, density and volume
4.
If an object is moving at a constant speed in a straight line in one direction,
A. the acceleration will be zero
B. different distances will be covered in equal intervals of time
C. the acceleration will vary with time
D. a non-zero total force acts on the object.
According to the table, answer the following two questions.
5.
Velocity (m/s)
2
8
14
Time (sec)
0
3
6
B. 5m/s2
12
15
C. 3m/s2
D. zero
How much will be the velocity at the 20th second?
A. 42m/s
7.
32
What is the acceleration of the moving object?
A. 2m/s2
6.
9
26
B. 440m/s
C. 40m/s
D. 22m/s
Acceleration due to gravity is 9.78 m/s2 on earth, 3.72m/s2 on mars and 22.9m/s2 on Jupiter. Then which of
the following is true?
A. Mass of an object on earth is much less than its mass on Jupiter.
B. Mass is the same on the three planets for a given object
C. Weight of an object is the same on the three planets
D. Weight of an object on Jupiter is much smaller than its weight on Mars
8.
Eyerusalem walked a distance of 2km for half an hour and she run the next part of the journey 9km in 1.5
hour. What will be her average speed?
A. 6km/hr
9.
B. 5km/hr
C. 3.5km/hr
D. 5.5km/hr
Electrons travel readily in
A. metals
B. moist soil
C. flesh
D. All
10. At north magnetic pole, the needle of a compass will
A. Stand vertically
C. make an acute angle with the earth
B. be horizontal
D. spin radially
11. By moving two north poles of magnets toward each other, one may
A. Increase the force of attraction
C. destroy the magnetic property of the magnets
B. Decrease the force attraction
D. B and C
12. Which of the following is true about electrostatic force between charges?
A. Attractive force tends to bring unlike changes as closely together as possible
B. Repulsion force tends to drive like charges as far apart as possible
C. Attractive force tends to bring like charges as close together as possible
D. A and B
13. An electroscope has a negative charge and when a charged body is brought near by the leaves diverge more.
The sign of the charged body is
A. neutral
B. negative
C. positive
D. unknown
14. Electrons will flow from
A. negative to positive
C. negative to less negative
B. positive to more positive
D. All
15. Which force is responsible to hold atoms together?
A. Attractive force between protons and electrons
B. Repulsive force between protons
C. Attractive force between neutrons and protons
D. All the three forces mentioned are responsible
16. In a positively charged atom,
A. there are as many number of electrons as protons
B. there are more number of protons than the electrons
C. the number of electrons is greater than that of the protons
D. the positives exactly balance the negatives
17. Which of the following is generally true for metals?
A. They are good conductors of heat and electricity
B. The electrons on their outer shell are loosely attracted to the nucleus
C. The valence shell electrons are strongly attached to the nucleus
D. A and B
18. One of the following is a possible way of making a magnet?
A. By stroking with a permanent magnet.
B. By passing electric current through an iron bar
C. By induction from the earth’s magnetism
D. All
19. When a positively charged object is connected to the earth,
A. electrons flow from the earth to the object
B. electrons flow from the object to the earth
C. there will not be any flow of charges
D. the object becomes more positive
20. Electric current has _________
A. chemical effect
B. light effect
C. magnetic effect
D. All
21. Among the following statements which one is wrong?
A. a circuit is an unbroken conducting path for electrons
B. In an open circuit, the path is broken at some point
C. In a closed circuit, electrons flow from one part to another
D. In short circuit, no current flows
22. An incandescent lamp has a resistance 2200 hms when it is hot. What current flows in the lamp if it is
operated on a 110 volt line?
A. 2 Ampere
B. 0.5 Ampere
C. 330 Ampere
D. 110 Ampere
23. What electromotive force (voltage) is necessary to produce a current of 0.02 amperes through a resistance of
5000 ohms?
A. 100v
B. 10v
C. 2500v
D. 25 v
24. If the resistance of a constant voltage circuit becomes one-fourth as great, the current in the circuit becomes
A. one fourth as large
C. twice as large
B. one-half as large
D. four times as large
25. The circular wire that offers the most electrical resistance is
A. short and thin
B. long and thick
C. long and thin
D. short and thick
26. What is the resistance of 40Ω, 60Ω and 120Ω resistors connected in parallel?
A. 220Ω
B. 20Ω
C. 30Ω
D. 80Ω
27. Which one of the following is true about magnets?
A. Temporary magnets are easily magnetized and easily demagnetize
B. Artificial magnets are either temporary or permanent
C. Permanent magnets retain their magnetism to the great extent
D. All are true
28. You find that object W repels object X. W attracts Y, and Y repels Z if you know that Z is positively
charged, what can you say about the charges the others carry?
A. W and X are both negatively charged while Y is positively charged
B. W,X, and Y are all positively charged
C. W,X and Y are all negatively charged
D. Nothing can be said about their charges
29. Which one of the following is true about voltmeters?
A. Voltmeter is used to measure resistance of a conductor
B. Voltmeter has two terminals (negative and positive)
C. Its positive terminal must be connected to the negative terminal of the battery and its negative terminal to
the positive terminal of the battery
D. In a circuit, it is always connected in series
30. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Static electricity is electricity at rest
B. Static electricity means electricity in motion
C. Conventional current flows from the negative to positive terminal of a battery in the circuit.
D. Electron current is current due to the flow of protons in a conductor
31. Resistance of a conducting wire at a constant temperature is directly proportional to
A. Cross-sectional area of the wire
C. length of the conducting wire
B. Mass of the conducting wire
D. volume of the wire
1. Which set of physical quantities consists of only vector quantities?
A. Time, mass and Luminous intensity
C. Force, Electric field and Acceleration
B. Temperature, volume and current
D. Force, power and potential difference
2. What is the SI unit of space occupied by an object?
A. Liter
B. Cubic meter
C. Square meter
D. kg/m3
3. Which one of the following is a dimensional representation of power?
A. [M] [L]2[T]-3
B. [M]2[L]3[T]4
C. [A] [L]3[T]-3
D. [L] [T]-2
4. 0.05 km + 110m + 390 dm + 90cm + 100mm = _____
A. 200cm
B. 200m
C. 690.05cm
D. 690.05mm
5. Which one of the following is false about displacement?
A. It is independent of the path followed
C. It is a vector physical quantity
B. It is the shortest path length between two points
D. Its SI unit is meter per square
meter
6. The area under the slope of the velocity time graph is
A. Displacement
B. Acceleration
C. Speed
D. Force
7. A ball is thrown up in the air. Then which of the following is true?
A. The speed of the ball will be zero at the highest point.
B. As it ascends, the KE and PE increase.
C. If air resistance is ignored, PE of the ball will be constant.
D. When it ascends, the gravitational acceleration increases.
8. The speed of a car uniformly increased from 5m/s to 40 m/s in 8 seconds. How far did it go in this time?
A. 180meters
B. 140meters
C. 160meters
D. 360 meters
9. Which one of the following is as non – contact force?
A. Frictional Force
C. Tension and compression Forces
B. Force in springs
D. Gravitational Force
10. Among the following which one is not the effect of forces?
A. A stationary body is made to move
C. A moving body changes its direction of motion
B. A moving body decrease its speed
D. The mass of a body changes
11. Passengers in a moving car tend to move forward when the car suddenly stops. This is best explained
by
A. Newton’s first law
B. Newton’s second law
C. Newton’s third law
D. Newton’s Law of gravitation
12.
What resultant force will give a body of mass 30kg an acceleration of 0.6 m/s2
A. 60 N
B. 30.6N
C. 18N
D. 50 N
13. The weight of a body is 1960N on the surface of a celestial body where gravitational acceleration is
39.2m/s2. Take g Earth 9.8 m/s2. Then which of the following is true?
A. The weight of the body on Earth is also 1960N.
B. The mass of the body an Earth is four times that on that celestial body
C. The weight of the body on Earth is 490N
D. The weight of the body is not affected by gravitational acceleration
14.
Which one of the following is the SI unit of work done?
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pound
D. erg
15. How much work is done against gravity in lifting a 100 kg object through a distance of 2m?
Take g = 10 m/s2
A. 200 Joule
B. 2 k Joule
C. 0.2 k Joule
D. 0.2 Joule
16. A force of 400 N is acting in a body for a time interval of 10 seconds and moved it through a
distance of 50 m. Then find the power delivered?
A. 2000 watt
17.
B. 460 watt
C. 200 watt
The ratio of work out put by a machine to the work in put to the machine is termed as.
A. Velocity ratio
C. Efficiency
B. Atual mechanical advantage
D. Effort
18.
D. None
If MA = 0.6 VR, then which of the following is not correct?
A. If Win- put = 1000 Joule then Wout- put = 600 Joule
B. 40% of the in put energy is wasted dueto friction
C. The efficiency of the machine is 60%
D. If MA = 6 then VR = 20
19.
A temperature of 250c is equal to
A. 770 F
B. 860F
C. 350 K
D. A and C
20. Around a store the air gets hotter and hotter when the stove is switched on. The air get
hotter mainly by the technique of heat transfer known as _________
A. Convection
21.
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None
Which one of the following is true about sound?
A. It is a form of wave and carries energy from one place to another
B. It carries matter from one place to another
C. Sound is transmitted faster in liquids than in solids
D. Speed of sound is faster than speed of light
22. One of the following is false about a stone thrown vertically up ward? Which one is it?
A. The potential energy of the stone decreases on its way up
B. The kinetic energy of the stone decreases on its way up
C. The potential energy decrease on its way down.
D. The potential energy increases on its way up
23. A car of mass 900 Kg is moving at a constant speed of 8m/sec. Calculate the energy it
possesses?
A. 28,800J
B. 288kJ
C. 28.8mJ
D. A and C
24. A stone is thrown vertically up ward. What will be its k.E at the maximum height?
A. Zero
C. the same as it was at the lowest height
B. very large
D. None
25. Which one of the following is different from the others?
A. Mass
B. Newton
C. Second
D. Ampere
26. The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called _________
energy.
A. Thermal
B. Kinetic
C. Potential
D. Sound
27. Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed is a statement of the
A. LAW of conservation of Electric charges
C. LAW of conservation of Energy
B. LAW of conservation of matter
D. LAW of conservation of mass
28. The same unit can be used to measure work and __________________.
A. Power
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Weight
29. Which one of the following mathematical relation is not true?
A. W = F x S
B. PE = mgh
C. KE = ½ mv2
D. W= F x V
30. A carton is pulled along the ground for a distance of 3m. If the average frictional force is
61N, then the work done by the frictional force is _______________.
A. 3J
B. 61J
C. 549J
D. 183J
31. A 80N force is applied to a box resting on a horizontal friction less surface. What is the
work done if the box displaces by 4m?
A. 20J
B. 320J
C. 40J
D. 160J
32. Which one of the following is different from others?
A.
Nm
B. J
D. Kg m2/s3
C. Watt x sec
33. One of the following is not necessary to say work is done on a body.
A. Force must be exerted on the body
B. The object must move
C. The displacement must have a component parallel to the force
D. The displacement must have a component perpendicular to the force
34.
If an object covers equal distance in equal time interval then it is moving at
constant__________.
A. Speed
35.
C. Acceleration
D. displacement
How fast should a 4kg mass move to gain a K.E of 800J
A. 400 m/s
36.
B. Velocity
B. 20 m/s
C. 200m/s
D. 10m/s
A 2kg body released from a height of 200 cm above the ground. Calculate the mechanical
Energy of the body when it strikes the ground. Take g = 9.8 m/s2
A. 3.92J
37.
B. 39.2J
C. 0.392J
D. 4.39J
A 200g ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20m/s. Calculate the kinetic
energy of the ball after 1 sec. Take g = 10 m/s2
A. 5000J
B. 50J
C. 500J
D. 10J
38. Mercury is selected for constructing a barometer because
39.
A. it is easy to see
C. very little is lost by evaporation
B. it doesn’t freeze in very cold water
D. All
Which one of the following is equal to 1pa?
A 76 cmHg
40.
B. 1 N/m2
C. 760 mmHg
D. l atm
If the area on which a force acting is doubled. What will be the new pressure?
A. Half of the previous
C. Quadrupled
B. Double
D. one fourth
1. Which of the following is true during mechanical work done?
A. An object is displaced
C. Energy is transferred
B. Force is exerted
D. All of the above
2. An 8.4kJ of work is done in moving an object 12m. What amount of force is required?
A. 700N
B. 100.8N
C. 5N
D. 20.4N
3. A 2kg mass is released from a height of 1m above the ground. Which of the following is correct about
energy of this mass? Take gravitation acceleration, g = 10 m/s2 and neglect friction.
A. Its PE at the point of release is 20J
C. Its KE with which it strike the round is 20J
B. Its ME at any position is 20J
D. All of the above
4. How fast should 0.2 kg mass move to gain 160J of kinetic energy?
A. 0.05 m/s
B. 40 m/s
C. 20 m/s
D. 400 m/s
C. Joule
D. Newton
5. Which of the following is the unit of force?
A. Kelvin
B. Watt
6. If empty chalk box has a length 2cm, a breadth of 3cm and a height of 4cm how many unit chalks are
needed to fill it with 2cm3 small chalk?
A. 12 unit chalk
B. 6 unit chalk
C. 120 unit chalk
D. none
7. If the kinetic energy of a moving particle remains constant the net force acting on the particle is
A. Zero
B. constant
C. Either A or B
D. neither A nor B
8. One of the following is false about a stone thrown vertically up ward? Which one is it?
E. The potential energy of the stone decreases on its way up
F. The kinetic energy of the stone decreases on its way up
G. The potential energy decrease on its way down.
H. The potential energy increases on its way up
9. A car of mass 900 Kg is moving at a constant speed of 8m/sec. Calculate the energy it possesses?
B. 28,800J
B. 288kJ
C. 28.8mJ
D. A and C
10. Which one of the following is false?
A. Force and displacement are both vector physical quantities.
B. Joule, Nm, Kg m2/s2 are the SI units of work.
C. Energy is something that is done on objects
D. None
11. A stone is thrown vertically up ward. What will be its k.E at the maximum height?
B. Zero
B. very large
C. the same as it was at the lowest height
D. None
12. Which one of the following is different from the others?
B. Mass
B. Newton
C. Second
D. Ampere
13. The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called _________ energy.
B. Thermal
B. Kinetic
C. Potential
D. Sound
14. Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed is a statement of the
C. LAW of conservation of Electric charges
C. LAW of conservation Energy
D. LAW of conservation of matter
D. LAW of conservation of mass
15. The same unit can be used to measure work and __________________.
B. Power
B. Force
C. Energy
D. Weight
16. Which one of the following mathematical relation is not true?
B. W = F x S
B. PE = mgh
C. KE = ½ mv2
D. W= F x V
17. A carton is pulled along the ground for a distance of 3m. If the average frictional force is 61N, then the
work done by the frictional force is _______________.
B. 3J
B. 61J
C. 549J
D. 183J
18. A 80N force is applied to a box resting on a horizontal friction less surface. What is the work done if the
box displaces by 4m?
B. 20J
B. 320J
C. 40J
D. 160J
19. Which one of the following is different from others?
B. Nm
20.
B. J
C. Watt x sec
D. Kg m2/s2
One of the following is not necessary to say work is done on a body.
E. Force must be exerted on the body
F. The object must move
G. The displacement must have a component parallel to the force
H. The displacement must have a component perpendicular to the force
21. If an object covers equal distance in equal time interval then it is moving at constant__________.
B. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. displacement
22.
How fast should a 4kg mass move to gain a K.E of 800J
B. 400 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 200m/s
D. 10m/s
23. A 2kg body released from a height of 200 cm above the ground. Calculate the mechanical Energy of the
body when it strikes the ground. Take g = 9.8 m/s2
B. 3.92J
B. 39.2J
C. 0.392J
D. 4.39J
24. A 200g ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the
ball after 1 sec. Take g = 10 m/s2
B. 5000J
B. 50J
C. 500J
D. 10J
25. Mercury is selected for constructing a barometer because
C. it is easy to see
C. very little is lost by evaporation
D. it doesn’t freeze in very cold water
D. All
26. Which one of the following is equal to 1pa?
A 76 cmHg
B. 1 N/m2
C. 760 mmHg
D. l atm
27. If the area on which a force acting is doubled. What will be the new pressure?
B. Half of the previous
C. Quadrupled
B. Double
D. one fourth
28. Which one of the following state of matter expands more rapidly when heated?
A. Liquid
B. Gas
C. Solid
D. Can’t be determine
29. The measure of average kinetic energy of molecule is called
A. Heat
B. Temperature
C. Energy
D. All
30. Which one of the following is the smallest temperature?
A. 237k
B. 340F
C. 200c
D. 100c
31. A power rating of 1 joule per second is known as
A. Watt
B. Newton
C. Joule
D. Horse power
C. radiation
D. Deflection
32. Heat is transferred along a metal spoon by
A. Convection
B. Conduction
33. The degree of hotness or coldness of a body is called ____________.
A. heat capacity
C. internal energy
B. Temperature
D. melting point
34. Sharper knives are more effective in cutting. This is due to ______________.
A. Higher pressure for a given force
C. more pressure over a wider area
B. More force over a wider area
D. less force per unit area
35. The SI unit of pressure is ______________.
A. Newton per square meter
B.
N/m2
C. Pascal
D. all are correct
36. Pressure is defined as
A. Mass x acceleration
C. force x distance
B.
D.
37. One of the following is not equivalent to the SI unit of pressure?
A. Pa
B.
⁄
2
C. kg m-1/s2
D. Kg m-2/s2
38. One of the following statements is true for the concept of temperature?
A. It is identical to the concept of heat
B. It determines the direction of heat flow
C. It is an indication of molecular kinetic energy
D. B and C
39. When a substance changes from gaseous state to liquid state, which one of the following occurs?
A. Heat is absorbed by the substances
B. Heat is given off by the substances
C. The temperature of the substance increases
D. The temperature of the substance decreases
40. At what temperature does the Celsius scale read of the Fahrenheit scale?
A. 14.540c
B. 28.540c
C. 3.60c
D. 320c
41. Which one is the basic unit of temperature in the SI system?
A. Degree Celsius
B. Degree Fahrenheit
C. Kelvin
D. Atmosphere
42. Which one of the following is true?
A. Boiling - point of water is 1000c
C. Boiling - point of water is 373 k
B. Boiling - point of water is 2120F
D. All are correct
43. The average temperature of the human body in good health is about _______
A. 370c
B. 98.60F
C. 310k
D. All are correct
0
44. What will be the final temperature if 50 g of water at 0 c is added to 250 gm of water at 900c ( C = 1
cal/gm0c)
A.
850c
B. 250c
C. 750c
D. none
45. How much water at 00c is needed to cool 500gm of water at 800c down to 200c?
A. 1050gm
B. 1500gm
C. 1005gm
D. none
2
1. A car moving at 19 m/s started accelerating at 2m/s . How far does it travel after 6 sec?
A. 31m
B. 150m
C. 131m
D. none
2. A bus moving at 18km/h started accelerating at 3m/s2. How long will it take the bus to move at 72
km/h?
A. 3sec
B. 5sec
C. 18sec
D. none
3. A train is moving with a speed of 50 m/s along a straight line for 12seconds. What is its acceleration?
A. 4.1 m/s2
B. zero
C. 0.41m/s2
D. none
4. Which one of the following is true when a ball thrown vertically up ward?
A. Its speed decreases in time
B. It reaches the highest point where its speed is zero
C. its speed increases in time
D. A and B
5. A ball is release from some height. How far does it fall in 3sec?
A. 29.4m
B. 44.1m
C. 30m
D. none
6. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Velocity is constant in a uniform velocity motion.
B. Direction of motion changes in a uniform velocity motion.
C. Velocity is constant in a uniformly accelerated motion.
D. none
7. A car covers 3km in 3min. Its average speed is:
A. 1km/min
8.
B. 16.67m/s
C. 60km/h
D. all of the above
Which of the following is correct about a body moving with constant velocity?
A. Has constant speed
C. has zero acceleration
B. No change in direction
D. all of the above
9. How long will an eagle take to fly 128 km at a speed of 3km/h?
A. 400h
B. 41 min
C. 0.25h
D. none
10. Which of the following is correct?
A. A body accelerates if it moves.
B. A body accelerates if its velocity changes.
C. A body accelerates when its velocity is constant.
D. A body accelerates when it is at rest.
11. A car is moving uniformly at 10m/s. Which of the following changes uniformly?
A. Velocity
B. acceleration
C. speed
D. distance
12. Which of the following is not true?
A. If the acceleration of a body is zero, then the body moves with constant velocity.
B. If the speed of a moving body is constant, then the velocity is always constant.
C. The velocity is constant if and only if its magnitude and direction is not changed.
D. “Total displacement equals the product of average velocity and time taken” is true for a motion in
which the acceleration is constant.
13. Which of the following physical quantities needs both magnitude and direction to be described
completely?
A. Distance
B. farce
C. speed
D. time
14. A bus takes 3 hours and 20 minutes to travel from on town to another. How much is this time in
seconds?
A. 200
B. 600
C. 12000
D. 18000
15. What do you say about the weight of the same body measured at the poles and the equator?
A. It is less in the equator than the poles
C. It is the same (equal) at the two poles
B. It is greater in the equator than the poles
D. It is difficult to know
16.
a1
20N
M1
a2
F2 = 40N
M2
compare a1 and a2
M1 = M2
A. a1 < a2
B. a1 >a2
C. a1 = a2
D. None
17. What net force is required to accelerate a 5kg mass at 2m/s2?
A. 5 N
B. 2-5 N
C. 10 N
D. none
18. A force F accelerates mass m at 2m/s2. What acceleration does it produce when the mass is doubled?
A. 4m/s2
B. 1m/s2
C. 2m/s2
D. none
19. How much force is required to accelerate a 25kg mass from rest to 30m/s in 6 seconds?
A. 5 N
B. 25 N
C. 125 N
D. none
20. An 800kg car is acted by a 2400 N force starting from rest. How fast does it travel after 12 seconds?
A. 4m/s
B. 3m/s
C. 0.25m/s
D. 36 m/s
21. Which of the following is false?
A. Friction enable us to walk properly
C. people slide easily on ice because friction is large
B. Lubricating reduces friction
D. roughness of surfaces in contact is the cause of
friction
22. Two forces F1 and F2 are acting on a block as shown in the figure below. Which of the following is
correct about the motion of the block? (neglect frictional effects)
F1 = 20N
F1= 20N
F2 = 30N
F2= 30N
A. It is at rest
C. It accelerates in the direction of F1
B. It moves with constant velocity
D. It accelerates in the direction F2
23. Which of the following Newton’s laws explains that forces always exist in pairs?
A. The law of gravitation
C. the second law
B. The first law
D. the third law
24. Which one of the following is true for objects in free fall?
A. Lighter objects accelerate more than the heavier ones.
B. Heavier objects accelerate more than the lighter ones.
C. The force of gravity is not the only force acting on them.
D. Both light and heavy objects accelerated by the same amount.
25. What is the name given to the force of attraction of the earth on objects?
A. Frictional force
B. Electrostatic force
C. weight
D. mass
26. A block of mass 20kg starts from rest and its velocity becomes 10m/s at the end of 2sec. Find the
magnitude of the applied force.
A. 10 N
B. 100N
C. 20N
D. none
27. Which of the following is not true?
A. The rolling friction is much less than sliding friction.
B. Once the body is set in motion, the force needed to keep the body in motion is less than the
starting force.
C. The static friction depends on the area of the surface in contact.
D. None of the above
28. What is the mass of an object that is accelerated at the rate of 8m/s2 by a constant force of 100N?
A. 800kg
B. 12.5kg
C. 125kg
D. 50kg
29. A 250 N force displaces a body to the length of 5m. What is the work done?
A. 1250 J
B. 50J
C. 245J
D. 0.02J
30. What is the kinetic energy of 6kg mass moving at 30m/s?
A. 5J
B. 2700J
C. 180J
D. 1764J
31. How fast should a 4kg mass move to gain 800J of energy?
A. 0.05m/s
B. 200m/s
C. 20m/s
D. 400m/s
32. Which of the following is correct?
A. Energy can be transferred from place to place.
B. Energy can be transferred from one form to the other.
C. Energy can be transferred from one body to another.
D. all of the above
33. An electric motor lifts an elevator that weighs 8100N to a distance of 20m in 30seconds. What is the
power of the motor? g=10 m/s2.
A. 12.15kw
B. 5.4kw
C. 0.074kw
D. 13.5kw
34. A stone of mass 1kg is thrown vertically upward at a speed of 20m/sec from the ground. How high
will it rise? Take g= 10 m/sec2
A. 20m
B. 10m
C. 200m
D. 2m
35. Which one of the following does not describe work done on a body?
A. Lifting a body vertically upward
C. pushing a box on the ground and move it
B. Carrying a bag and standing still
D. carrying a school bag and moving up stairs
36. Which one of the following is equal to one watt?
A. kg m2/s3
B. kg m2/s2
C. kg m2/s
D. kg m/s2
37. How fast must a body of 10kg move in order to have a kinetic energy of 500 joules?
A. 10 m/s
B. 100 m/s
C. 50 m/s
D. 25 m/s
38. A crane lifts a 400 kg concrete to the top of 60m tall building in 6 seconds. What is the power
developed by the crane? (use g=10 m/s2)
A. 4000 watts
B. 240,000 watts
C. 24,000 watts
D. 40,000 watts
39. Which one of the following units can not be used to measure work (energy)?
A. Joule
C. kg m2/s2
B. N. m
D. watt
40. Consider a swinging pendulum as shown in the figure below. In which point is the kinetic energy
maximum?
A. D
B. C
C. B
D
A
D. A
B
C
41. According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can
A. Be created but not destroyed
C. be destroyed but not created
B. Be created and destroyed
D. neither be created nor destroyed
42. Which one of the following is the unit of power?
A. Joule
B. joule x second
C.
Joule
Second
D. Newton x second
43. How high does a stone rise if it is initially thrown at a rate of 15m/sec? (take g=10m/s2)
A. 11.25m
B. 22.5m
C. 1.5m
D. none
44. Which of the following is true during mechanical work done?
A. An object is displaced
C. energy is transferred
B. Force is exerted
D. all of the above
1. Which one of the following is not the SI-unit of physical quantities?
A. Kilogram
B. liter
C. Kelvin
D. watt
2. Which option contains only fundamental physical quantities?
A. Mass, length and temperature
C. force, electric resistance, power
B. Volume, area, amount of substance
D. time, density, and pressure
3. Physical quantities which need magnitude and direction to express them are called
A. Derived physical quantities
C. fundamental physical quantities
B. Vector physical quantities
D. scalar physical quantities
4. One of the following is not a unit of scalar physical quantity.
A. Newton
B. Joule
C. Torr
D. Mole
5. Beam balance is the instrument used to measure
A. Temperature
B. Heat energy
C. Time
D. mass
6. Which one of the following is a traditional unit of length?
A. Meter
B. kilometer
C. span
D. millimeter
7. When the minute hand of a watch completes one cycle,
A. The hour hand moves one unit
C. the second hand also completes one cycle
B. The hour hand moves 60 units
D. it becomes half a day
8. The area of a rectangular field is 2000 m2. If the width is 40m, what will be its length?
A. 40m
B. 60m
C140m
D. 50m
9. One hectare is equal to
A. 10,000 square meter
B. 10,000 cm2
C. 1000,000 m2
D. 1000,000km2
10. A 0.8kg stone is inserted in a gradated cylinder containing liquid. The level of the liquid
raised from 1500cm3 to 1700cm2. What is the volume of the stone?
A. 200cm3
B. 320cm3
C. 2 liter
D. A and B
11. In question number 10, what will be the density of the stone?
A. 4 g/cm3
B. 4
kg
m3
C. 160
kg
m3
D. 160 g/cm2
12. 6000 kg/m3 is not equal to
A. 6 g/cm3
B. 6000
gram
litre
C. 6000
kg
litre
D. 6
ton
m3
13. Three liquids having the following densities and volumes were mixed.
Liquid
volume
density
Kerosene ………….. 500 cm3 …………… 0.8 g/cm3
Unknown …………. 300 cm3 ……………. 0.9 g/cm3
Petrol ……………. 200 cm3 ……………. 0.7 g/cm3
What is the density of the mixture?
A. 0.8g/cm3
B. 0.73g/cm3
C. 2.4g/cm3
D. 0.81 g/cm3
14. In question number 13, what will be the total mass of the mixture?
A. 800g
B. 730g
C. 240g
D. 810g
15. Which one of the following is true about density?
A. Any two metals have equal densities.
B. Density of gases is generally larger than densities of liquids.
C. Indicates closeness of particles of an object to each other.
D. Density is equal to the product of mass and volume of an object.
16. A small swimming pool is 500 cm long, 400cm wide and 300cm deep. What is the volume
of the water contained in the pool in m3?
A. 60m3
B. 6m3
C. 0.6m3
D. 600m3
17. 1cm3 = 1ml. Then which the following is a wrong relation?
A. 1 liter = 1000cm3
C. 1m3 = 1000 liter
B. l liter = 1 dm3
D. 1m3 = 1 liter
18. [L3], [ML-3] and [ML2T-3] respectively are dimensional expressions of
A. Velocity , frequency and power
C. volume, density and power
B. Charge, energy and momentum
D. area, length and force
19. Why do we use dimensions of physical quantities?
A. To convert units
B. to check equations
C. for dimensional analysis
D. all are
possible
20. The power generation by the Ethiopian Renaissance dam, after construction is expected to
be about 6000 mega watt (MW). This value is equal to
A. 6 Giga Watt (GW)
21. 8.4x103 Joule
A. 4x105 watt
C. 6x106 watt (W)
B. 6 Tera Watt (TW)
D. 6 micro watt (μW)
2.1x10-2 seconds, in scientific notation, is equal to
C. 0.4x106 watt
B. 4 Mega watt
D. All
22. Which one of the following choices consists of only non-contact forces?
A. Elastic force, friction force and magnetic force
B. Electric force, magnetic force and gravitational force
C. Buoyant force, centripetal force, and force from collisions
D. Centripetal force, elastic force and friction force
23. An object is performing a uniform motion. Then which of the following is not correct
about the motion?
A. Both the speed and direction change continuously
B. Both the speed and direction will not change
C. The acceleration of the moving object is non-zero
D. A balanced (zero total external force) acts on the object
24. The speed of a bus uniformly increased from 10 m/s to 19 m/s is 3 seconds. What is the
acceleration of the bus?
A. 9 m/s2
B.
29
m s2
3
C.
 29
m s2
3
D. 3 m s 2
25. Which statement describes a scalar quantity?
A. A girl running 400m, due south
B.
A car moving at 40 km/hr, due East
C. An airplane covering a circular path of 1000km.
D. A bus accelerating at a rate of -3m/s2 when brakes are
applied.
26. A net force F accelerates a 50kg mass by 1m/s2. By how much can this force accelerate a 10kg
mass?
A. 5 m/s2
B. 0.2 m/s2
C. 10 m/s2
D. 0.4 m/s2
27. A stone and a feather are released from the same height in vacuum.
A. The stone moves faster than the feather.
B. The stone strikes the ground before the feather.
C. The initial speed of both the stone and the feather is 0.
D. The acceleration due to gravity is large for the feather than for the stone.
28. While sitting in a car we fall or tend to fall backward when the driver suddenly starts the car. Which
of the following property describes the situation?
A. Action-reaction
B. inertia
C. gravitation
D. buoyancy
29. A man went along a straight path a distance of 4km, to the west. Then he covered a distance of 1km
towards the East on the same route, in a time interval of 2 hours. The displacement and velocity of
the man, respectively, are
A. 5 km, west and 2.5 km/hr, west
C. 3 km, west and 1.5 km, west
B. 5 km, east and 2.5 km/hr, west
D. 8 km, east and 4 km/hr, east
30. A car covered a distance of 100 km in 3hours, 500 km in 8hours, stopped for 3hours and covered the
remaining part of the path, 300 km in 6 hours. What is the average speed of the car?
A. 90km/hr
B. 45km/hr
C. 39km/hr
D. 146
km
hr
31. According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces
A. act on two different bodies.
C. are not equal in magnitude and act in opposite direction.
B. are equal in magnitude and act in the same direction
D. all are correct.
32. Which one of the following is not a graph of a uniformly accelerated motion on a rectilinear path?
A. s
B.
V
t
C.
D.
t
33. The area under speed - time graph is
A. distance moved
B. acceleration
C. the force applied on it
D. velocity of the moving
object
34. Which of the choices consists of units of speed placed in increasing order?
km m
km
A.
,
,
hr sec min ute
km m
m
,
,
B. hr sec min ute
km m
km
,
,
C. hr sec sec ond
km
m
cm
,
,
D. sec ond min ute sec ond
35. Which one of the following is not an effect of a force applied on an object?
A. It accelerates the object
C. It may deform objects
B. It slows down moving object
D. It increases the density and mass of the object
36. An object of mass 100kg is lying on a horizontal rough surface. If the coefficient of friction between
the object and surface is 0.8, which of the following is false? Take g = 10 m/s2
A. A normal force of 1000N acts b/n the surfaces.
B. The frictional force opposing the motion is 800N.
C. A 500N force applied on the object can accelerated it.
D. If a 900N force is exerted on the object, it can accelerate the object.
37. Which one of the following is not an advantage of friction?
A. It enables us to walk
C. It wears out parts of a machine
B. It enables you to grab objects with your hand
D. All are true
38. The ratio of a force applied on an object to a unit area is known as
A. pressure
B. power
C. energy
D. electric resistance
39. A liquid pressure is dependent upon
A. The density of the liquid
C. the gravitational acceleration of the earth
B. The depth of the liquid
D. all are true
40. The soles of shoes of a heavy man have a total area of 40cm2. What pressure does he exert on the
surface he is standing, if he has a mass of 120kg? Take g = 10m/s2
A. 30 pa
B. 30,000 pa
D. 3x105 pa
C. 8400pa
41. The atmospheric pressure of a region is 0.8 atmospheres. This is not equal to a pressure of
(take 1 atm = 101 kpa and 1atm = 760 mmHg)
A. 80.8 kpa
42.
V(m/s)
B. 608 mmHg
C. 608torr
D. 608 Pascal
The acceleration of the moving object in part 1 is
A. 0
B. 3 m/s2
C.
1
m s2
3
D. 1.5 m/s2
t(sec)
43. How far does the object travel in the given total duration of 20 sec?
A. 150meter
B. 300metre
C. 450meter
D. 30metre
44. The v-t graph of a uniform motion is
A. parallel to the time axis
C. inclined to the t-axis
B. perpendicular to the time axis
D. parabola in shape
45. A ball is dropped from a tall building. Then which of the following is correct?
A. The speed remains constant
B. Its acceleration increases with time
C. Its speed before it just reaches the earth becomes zero
D. Its speed before it just reaches the ground is maximum
1. Which one of the following is false about temperature?
A. It is a measure of hotness or coldness of a body
B. It indicates the direction of heat flow
C. Its SI unit is degree Celsius
D. It is the measure of the average molecular kinetic energy
2. Heat transfer occurs between two objects when there is
A. Pressure difference between the objects
C. difference in temperature
B. Difference in heat energy content
D. All
3. The technique of heat transfer in which successive collisions between neighboring particles takes place
is
A. Conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. none
C. iron rod
D. all
4. Which one of this material is heat insulation?
A. Wood
B. Copper rod
5. One of the following is incorrect concerning convection?
A. Takes place only in vacuum
C. Occurs in fluids (liquids and gases)
B. Actual movement of particles takes place
D. Balloon uses convection to rise in air
6. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg to a substance of 10C is called
A. Specific heat capacity
C. molar heat capacity
B. Gravitational constant
D. heat capacity
7. How much heat is needed to increase the temperature of 200g of lead from 300C to 1300C?
A. 2600Joule
B. 780 Joule
C. 3380 Joule
D. 260000 Joule
8. Which one of the following is true about baling?
A. It takes place at the surface of a liquid.
C. It is takes place throughout the volume of the
liquid
B. It takes place at any temperature
D. It is affected by humidity of the surrounding
medium
9. Which one of the following is correct about the resistance of a conductor?
A. It increases with increase in temperature
B. It is directly proportional to its cross sectional area
C. It decreases with increase in length
D. It does not depend on the material the wire is made of
10. Which one of the following is not correct about effects of removal of heat if we cool the body?
A. The temperature of the body falls
C. the body may change its state
B. The body may contract
D. the temperature of the body rises
11. An electric circuit is said to be open if
A. There is not break / opening along the line
C. If the circuit is switched on
B. There is opining / break along the line
D. It is short – circuited
12. What constant current is transferred when a charge of 180 coulomb passes through conductor in 2
minutes?
A. 0.667A
B. 90A
C. 1.5 A
D. none
13. One of the following is not true about voltage or electromotive force.
A. It is the ability to do work
C. its SI unit is volt
B. May be supplied by battery or generator
D. it is the rate of flow of charge
14. One Ampere (A) is equal to
A.
B.
C.
D.
15. Which one of the following items is not matched correctly with its symbol?
A. Resistance
C. Bulb
B. Battery
D. Ammeter
16. What is the resistance of electric appliance that draws 1.2 A current when connected to a 180V voltage
source?
A. 150 Ohm
B. 67 Ohm
C. 2160 Ohm
D. 216 Ohm
17. The specific heat capacities of two substances p and Q are CA = 450 ⁄
and
CB = 600
⁄
A. Substance a requires more heat energy than substance B
B. Substance B requires more heat energy than substance A
C. They require equal amount of heat energy
D. We can not determine which requires more heat energy
18. Three resistors R1 – 2, R2 = 6 and R3 = 1 the connected in parallel with each other. What is the
effective (total) resistance of the combination?
A. 0.75
B. 1.33
C. 20
D. 144
19. Each of the cells in the figures below have a potential difference of 3V. What is the total current in the
ammeter if the battery is connected to the external resistors shown?
A. 0.67 A
B. 1.5A
C. 8 A
D. 4.5 A
20. One of he following is not a correct relationship between Resistance, current and potential difference
according to Ohm’s law?
A. R =
B. V = R x I
C. R = V x I
D. I =
21. The kelving scale thermometer reads four times the reading on the Celsius scale thermometer. The
temperature of the substance is therefore
A. 910C
C. 3640C
B. 273 Kelvin
D. A and B
22. What do we call those cells that can not be recharged and re – used?
A. Primary cells
B. secondary cells
C. car Batteries
D. A and B
23. In color coding of resistors, which color band glues the tolerance of the resistor?
A. Fourth Band
B. third band
C. second band
D. first Band
24. Which one of the following circuit diagrams showed a correct connection of ammeters and
voltmeters?
25. In which of the following materials electrons don’t flow through them?
A. Human flesh
B. Moist soil
C. silver
D. dry wood
26. Which one of the following is not the purpose of machines?
A. Transferring energy
C. magnifying distance is speed
B. Changing the direction of a force
D. none of these
27. For machine shown what will be its velocity ratio?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28. The total kinetic energy possessed by the molecules of a substance is
A. Temperature
C. heat energy
B. Specific heat capacity
D. none of these
29. What volume of water is formed when 1gram of ice melts?
A. One cubic centimeter
C. less than 1 cubic centimeter
B. More than 1 cubic centimeter
D. we can not determine the
30. A 4kg block of lead (c = 0.03
) is heated and then dropped into 600 grams of water at 150C raising
the temperature to 250C. What is the original temperature of the lead?
A. 300C
B. 750C
C. 500C
D. 1000C
31. Machines are used to
A. Create energy
C. Multiply force
B. Do work with less expenditure of energy
D. Multiply force and speed at the same time
32. For a machine if there were no friction,
A. The in put energy would be less than the out put energy
B. The out put power would be less than the input power
C. The out put would be equal to the in put energy
D. All are possible
33. A single movable pulley has
A. A mechanical advantage of 1
C. a velocity ratio of 3
B. A mechanical advantage of 2
D. has no practical applications
34. A machine that is 80% efficient does a 7000 Joules of work. The work out put becomes
A. 7800 J
B. 9800J
C. 1000J
D. 5600J
35. What force is needed to lift a 500N weight by means of an inclined plane 10 m long and 2.5 m high?
Take
= 100%
A. 2000N
B. 125 N
C. 100 N
D. 200 N
36. Which one of the following is not a correct relationship?
A. Load, L=mg
C. Efficiency, =
B. Effort , E = MA x L
D. Work out put > Work in put
37. A machine is said to be force multiplier if
A. Load > effect
C. land < effort
B. SL > SE
D. Workout put > work in put
38. A load of 500N is lifted by applying a force of 125N on the lever. If the load is 40cm from the fulcrum
and the effort is 2m from the fulcrum. Then which of the following is not true?
A. The velocity Ratio, V – R
C. The efficiency,
B. The mechanical advantage MA =
D. the AMA =
=
39. Which one of the following simple machines is a second order lever?
40. What is the purpose of a single in movable pulley?
A. Multiplying force
C. Multiplying energy
B. Multiplying force
D. Changing direction of the force
41. Which one of the following is not a gear?
A. Table knife
B. Dagger
C. Carving knife
D. scissors
42. One of the options is not correct about the pulley system. Which one is it?
A. Its VR is equal to the no of pulleys which support the mouable pulleys.
B. Its IMA is equal to he no of pulleys which support the immovable
pulleys
C. Its VR = 4 and MA = 4 if the pulleys are friction less
D. E = 500N and L = 125 N
43. The driving gear having 60 teeth is interlocked with a driven gear having 15 teeth. Then which of the
following is true?
A. Its VR =
C. Its MA = 4 if the gears are frictionless
B. Its VR = 4
D. its = 120% if the gears are perfect
44. The temperature difference (interval) between the steam point absolute zero is
A. 373 degrees on the Celsius scale thermometer
B. 672 degrees on the Fahrenheit scale thermometer
C. 373 degrees on the Kelvin scale thermometer
D. 180 degrees on the Celsius scale thermometer
45. Tsinat lifts a stone weighing 150N by applying a 75N force on a machine. The efficiency of the
machine in 90%. Then which of the following is false?
A. Its MA = 2
C. Its MA = ⁄
B. Its VR = 1.8
D. the wasted energy is 10% of he in put
1. Which one of the following is true?
A. The term force in physics is different from the term force in political and social
B. The term force in physics is the same from the term force in political and social
C. The SI unit of force is joule
D. A and C
2. Which one of the following is the main effect of force?
A. When a force is exerted on a body, stationary body starts to move
B. When a force is exerted on a body, a moving body increases its speed
C. When a force is exerted on a body, a moving body changes it direction
D. All
3. Which one matches with a body in motion will continue its motion in a straight line with uniform
motion?
A. Low of inertia
C. Newton’s 2nd law of motion
B. Newton’s 1st law of motion
D. A and B
4. How large force is required to set a 10kg toy car in motion with an acceleration of 2m/s2?
A. 5N
B. 20N
C. 8N
D. 12N
5. A force of 30N is applied on a box of unknown mass to set it with an acceleration of 5m/s2. What
is the mass of the box?
A. 6kg
B. 25kg
6. Which one of the following is correct?
C. 35kg
D. 150kg
A. Mass is different from place to place
C. mass is the same every where
B. Weight is the same every where
D. B and C
7. The mass of one quintal of “teff” is 100kg. What is its weight of the teff? Take g=10m/s2
A. 1000N
B. 10N
C. 90N
D. none
8. How much does a 100kg body weight on the surface of the moon whose acceleration due to
gravity is equal to 1.63m/s2?
A. 163N
B. 100N
C. 10N
D. none
9. Which one of the following is true?
A. Action and reaction forces always act on two different bodies.
B. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
C. Action and reaction forces have the same direction.
D. A and B
10. Frictional force depend on:
A. The roughness of the surface
C. shape of the object
B. Area of the surface
D. A and B
11. Which one of the following has maximum frictional force?
A. Static frictional
B. kinetic frictional
C. normal
D. A and B
12. A 200g block is acted by a 0.1N force. What is the acceleration of the block?
A. 0.0005m/s2
B. 20m/s2
C. 199.9m/s2
D. 0.5m/s2
13. A 10kg mass accelerates at 2m/s2. The force acting on the mass is:A. 20N
B. 5N
C. 0.2N
D. 8N
14. A 15N force accelerates an object at 3m/s2. The mass of the object is:
A. 0.2kg
B. 5kg
C. 45kg
D. 13kg
15. An 800kg car is acted by a 2400N force starting from rest. How fast does it travel after 12
seconds?
A. 4m/s
B. 3m/s
C. 0.25m/s
D. 36m/s
16. What is the weight of a 30kg girl on the moon where the acceleration due to gravity of the moon is
about 1.63m/s2?
A. 48.9N
B. 18.4N
C. 0.05N
D. 31.63N
C. watt
D. kg m/s
17. The SI unit of force is:
A. Newton
B. joule
18. Which of the following is false?
A. Friction enable us to walk properly
C. people slide easily on ice because friction is large
B. Lubricants used to reduces friction
D. roughness of surfaces in contact is the cause of
friction
19. Which of the following is true during mechanical work done?
A. An object is displaced
C. Energy is transferred
B. Farce is exerted
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following is the unit of work?
A. Kelvin
B. Watt
C. Joule
D. Newton
21. A 250N force displaces a body by 5m. What is the work done?
A. 1250J
B. 50J
C. 245J
D. 0.05J
22. A 1400N force does a 70J in moving an object. The distance moved is:
A. 20m
B 5cm
C. 1330m
D. none
23. An 8.4kJ work is done in moving an object 12m. The force acting on the object is:
A. 700N
B. 100.8N
C. 5N
D. 20.4N
24. Which of the following is correct?
A. Energy can be transferred from place to place
B. Energy can be transferred from one form to the other
C. energy can be transferred from one body to another
D. all of the above
25. How fast should a 4kg mass move to gain 800J of energy?
A. 0.05m/s
B. 200m/s
C. 20m/s
D. 400m/s
26. The force of friction between a 9.57 kg block and a horizontal surface is 18.72N. What is the
coefficient of friction between the surfaces?
A. 0.2
B. 5
C. 0.7
D. none
C. joule
D. N.m
27. The SI UNIT of power is:A. Newton
B. watt
28. _____________ is the measure of inertial of an object.
A. Mass
B. weight
C. work
D. energy
29. The force that opposes the relative motion of surfaces in contact is called______________.
A. Gravitational force
C. magnetic force
B. Frictional force
D. electric force
30. _______________ law states that the state of motion of an object will not change unless force acts
on it.
A. Newton first
B. new ton 2nd
C. new ton 3rd
D. action force
31. _____________ is the rate at which energy is transferred.
A. Power
B. energy
C. work
D. B and C
32. A dam stores water thereby stores ______________ energy.
A. Potential
B. kinetic
C. mechanical
D. electrical
33. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of an object is defined as _________________.
A. Mechanical
B. electrical
C. potential
D. none
34. Which of the following is false?
A. Work is means of transferring energy
C. energy can not be created
B. A body that posses energy is a body that is doing work
D. B and C
35. An instrument used to measure temperature is
A. Thermometer
B. barometer
C. anemometer
D. ammeter
36. Which of the following is said to be absolute zero temperature?
B. -2730c
A. Ok
C. -4600F
D. all
37. Which of the following is equivalent to 800C?
B. 3530F
A. 353K
C. 72.50F
D. A and C
38. Which of the following is not equivalent to the others?
A. 2030F
B. 950C
C. 950F
D. A and B
39. Which of the following is the source of heat?
A. Mechanical energy
C. radiant (sun) energy
B. chemical energy
D. all of the above
40. The effect of heat used to measure the temperature is
A. Expansion
B. change of state
C. vaporization
D. condensation
41. ___________ is the temperature at which all heat energy is removed from a body.
A. 00c
B. absolute zero
C. -2730c
D. A and B
0
0
42. The temperature of a body of mass 0.5kg is raised from 15 c to 20 c. What is the heat taken by the
body if its specific heat capacity is 400 J/kg0c?
A. 1000J
B. 3000J
C. 1500J
D. none
43. How much heat energy must be supplied to raise the temperature of 4kg of water by 100C?
(C of water =
A. 16800J
4200 J
)
kg 0 c
B. 16.8kJ
C. 168KJ
D. A and B
44. If 2700J of energy is supplied to 2kg of aluminum, by how much will the temperature rise?
(C of aluminum is 900 J/kg0c)
A. 1.50C
B. 2.50C
C. 0.50C
D. none
45. ____________ is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg mass of a substance by (10C).
A. Temperature
C. heat
B. specific heat capacity
D. none
1. Which of the following is the SI unit of current?
A. Ohm
B. Ampere
C. volt
D. coulomb
2. What is the current in the circuit if 2.5 x 1019 electrons pass a given cross section in 5 seconds?
A. 0.8A
B. 0.5A
C, 2A
D. 1.25A
3. A 0.2A current flows when a bulb is connected to a 3v battery. The resistance of the bulb is
A. 0.07 Ω
B. 2.8 Ω
C. 0.6Ω
D. 15.Ω
4. Which of the following is correct, all other factors being constant, the resistance of a metal (wire)
A. Increases with increasing its temperature
C. decreases as its cross-section increases
B. Increases as its length decreases
D. A and C
5. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Current is the same through each resistor that are connected in series.
B. In parallel connection of resistors, the potential difference across each is the same.
C. For parallel connection of resistors, the total current of the circuit equals the sum of currents
through each resistor.
D. In parallel connection of resistors the equivalent resistance of the circuit equals the sum of the
resistance of each resistor.
6. A 90Ω and 45Ω resistors are connected in parallel to each other. The combination is connected to a
9v potential source. The total current in the circuit is
A. 0.07A
B. 4.5A
C. 0.3A
D. none
7. The value of R2 and V in the circuit shown respectively are
A. 30Ω, 6v
C. 9Ω, 9v
B. 15Ω, 15v
D. 6Ω, 9v
8. What is the value of the resistance of a resistor of color code, Green, blue, red, gold?
A. 5600  5% Ω
B. 7500  10% Ω
C. 6500  20% Ω
9. What is the color code of a resistor of resistance 90k  2%Ω?
A. Black, orange, white orange
C. orange, white, black, silver
B. Black, white, orange
D. white, black, orange
D. 7500  5% Ω
10. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Magnetic field lines form close 1oops.
B. Magnetic field strength is strong where the field lines are closer.
C. Magnetic field strength is weak where combined field lines help.
D. Magnetic field lines are directed from North Pole to South Pole outside a magnet.
11. Which of the following is correct about magnetic field strength at given point produced by current
carrying straight wire?
A. Increase as the current in the wire increases
B. Depends on the material in which the wire is placed.
C. Decrease as the distance from the wire increases.
D. all of the above
12. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Increasing current increase the strength of an electromagnet or a solenoid.
B. Decreasing number of turns of a solenoid increase the field strength in a solenoid.
C. Placing a soft iron in a coil increase the magnetic field strength inside the coil.
D. An electromagnet loses its magnetic property when current in the coil is off.
13. Part of a motor or generator consisting of coil and iron core mounted on a shaft is
A. Armature
B. commentator
C. slip-ring
D. brush
14. Which of the following is correct?
A. Armature that consists slip rings produces AC
B. Armature that consists split-rings produces DC
C. Commutator (split-rings) enables the armature of motor rotes in one direction.
D. All of the above
15. A transformer has 6600V input and 180V out put. What is the out put current if the input is 33A?
A. 600 A
B. 0.9 A
C. 3600 A
D, 1210 A
16. Which of the following is correct?
A. A motor converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
B. A generator converts electrical energy to mechanical energy.
C. A step-up transformer reduces the output current
D. X – ray machine use step down transformer
17. A transformer that operates on 220V main has 2200 turns on its primary. What is the number of the
secondary coil for the output to be 50V?
A. 9680 turns
B. 500 turns
C. 5 turns
D. 220 turns
18. The secondary coil of a transformer has 200 turns as many turns as the primary. It is used on a 320V
line. The out put voltage is
A. 64 KV
B. 1.6V
C, 120V
D, 0.625 V
19. Which one of the following is a luminous body?
A. Sun
B. tree
C. moon
D. A and C
20. Which of the following studies the properties and nature of light?
A. Optics
B. wave
C. electromagnet
D. A and B
21. Which one of the following is translucent?
A. Water
B. air
C. ordinary window glass
D. B and C
22. When do we get clear picture in the pin-hole camera?
A. When the hole is very small
C. when the observation is done in a darkened room
B. When the hole is big
D. A and C
23. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Bodies resist the change in their state of rest or uniformities in a straight line.
B. Action and reaction forces act on two different bodies.
C. Net force acting on a body and the acceleration produced are opposite in direction.
D. A body under balanced forces can be in motion.
24. A 600 kg mass is accelerated at 3m/s2. The net force acting on the mass is
A. 0.003N
B. 1800N
C. 300N
D. none
25. A 625N force acts on a 50kg mass. The acceleration of the mass is
A. 575 m/s2
B. 0.08m/s2
C. 0.32m/s2
D. 12.5m/s2
26. A 150N force increases the velocity of mass m from 7m/s to 19m/s in 6sec. The mass of m acted by
the 150N force is
A. 75kg
B. 2.08kg
C. 1.04kg
D. 300kg
27. A 25 kg mass is acted by a 100N force starting from rest. Its velocity after 12sec is
A. 208.3m/s
B. 48m/s
C. 4m/s
D. 3m/s
28. A 900 kg mass moving at 25m/s is acted by a 450N force in opposite direction of the motion. How
long does it take to stop?
A. 18sec
B. 12.5sec
C. 50 sec
29. Which of the following is correct?
A. Mass is the amount of matter in a substance.
B. Mass is the measure of inertia of a body.
C. Weight is the gravitational force (pull) acting on a body.
D. all of the above
D. 36sec
30. What is the weight of a body on earth if its weight at a position where acceleration due to gravity
twice that of the earth is 980N?
A. 480N
B. 960N
C. 100N
D. none
31. A car covered 3km with average velocity of 5m/s. The time is takes to cover this distance is
A. 600 sec
B. 10min
C. A and B
D. 0.6sec
32. Which of the following is not correct?
A. A body in motion is a body that accelerates.
B. A body accelerates if its speed changes.
C. A body accelerates if its direction changes.
D. A body accelerates if both its speed and direction changes at the same time.
33. An athlete completes 200m race in 25 seconds. The average speed of the athlete is
A. 175m/s
B. 500m/s
C. 8m/s
D. 125m/s
34. A car accelerates from 15m/s to 25m/s in 10 sec. The acceleration of the car is:A. 4m/s2
B. 2m/s2
C. 20m/s2
D. 1m/s2
35. A car starts from rest and increased its velocity to 32m/s in 16sec. The distance it covers during this
time is
A. 512m
B. 256m
C. 20m
D. none
36. A motor bicycle moving at 12m/s started accelerating at 2m/s2. How fast is it moving after 14sec?
A. 40m/s
B. 28m/s
C. 144km/h
D. A and C
37. A ball is released from a certain height g = 9.8m/s. Its velocity after 5 seconds is
A. 24.5m/s
B. 1.98m/s
C. 49m/s
D. 0.51m/s
38. Which of the following affect the atmospheric pressure?
A. Density of air
C. acceleration due to gravity
B. air temperature
D. all of the above
39. Which of the following is correct?
A. Pressure due to liquid at rest at a point acts equally in all direction.
B. Pressure due to liquid at rest acts independent of the base area of its container.
C. Pressure due to liquid at rest increases with the depth of the liquid.
D. All of the above
40. A liquid of density 0.8g/cm3 exerts equal pressure with water (  = 1g/cm3) of depth 16m. The depth
of the liquid is __________. (g=10m/s2)
A. 8m
B. 20m
C. 48m
D. 120m
41. A hydraulic press is designed to lift 3600N of load as a result of application of 900N. What is the area
of the large piston if the area of the small piston is 12cm2?
A. 48cm2
B. 16cm2
C. 3cm2
D. 144cm2
42. Which of the following device transfers a liquid from one position to the other with out plunger
(piston)?
A. Syringe
B. lift pump
C. siphon
D. force pump
43. What is the pressure due to mercury (  m=13.6g/cm ) at a depth of 2m? (g=10m/s2)
3
A. 272kpa
B. 630kpa
C. 136kpa
D. none
44. Which of the following should be aware of the change in atmospheric pressure?
1.
2.
A. Mountain climbers
C. pilots
B. farmers
D. all of the above
Mass of a body is:A. Space occupied by the body.
C. duration of a process
B. Amount of matter the body has
D. a region bounded by a curve
A ruler is 30cm long this is equal to:A. 0.3m
3.
C. 3 m
D. 3dm
B. 12cm
C. 75cm
D. 1.33cm
B.6.5cm3
C. 18.5cm3
D. 24.05cm3
What is the area of a sheet of plastic of sides 80cm x 120 cm?
A. 9.6 x 103cm2
7.
B. 3mm
A safety match box has sides 3.7cm x 5cm x 1.3cm. The volume of the box is
A. 4.81cm3
6.
D. All of the above
A man bought a mirror of area 0.3m2 whose width is 40cm. the length of the mirror is:A. 133.3cm
5.
C. 3 x 10-4km
Which of the following is equal to 3 x 10-6m?
A. 3km
4.
B. 3dm
B. 9.6mm2
C. 9.6 x 10-3m2
D9.6 x 105dm2
A 95g measuring cylinder has a total mass of 140g when a 50cm3 liquid is poured into it. The density
of the liquid is:A. 2.8g/cm3
8.
D. 111.1kg/m3
B. Ampere
C. Kelvin
D. All of the above
C. Time
D. temperature
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A. Force
10.
C. 1.7g/cm3
Which of the following is the unit of the fundamental quantity?
A. Second
9.
B. 900kg/m3
B. mass
If you learn 6 periods daily and each period is 40 minute, you are learning daily for
A. 240h
B. 1.44 x 104sec
C. 4h
D. B and C
11.
Which of the following is scalar physical quantity?
A. Displacement
12.
B. velocity
C. speed
D. Acceleration
Which of the following is correct?
A. Velocity is constant in a uniform velocity motion
B. Direction of motion changes in a uniform velocity motion
C. Velocity is constant in a uniformly accelerated motion
D. Speed changes in uniform motion
13.
Which one of the following is the SI unit of velocity?
A. m/hg
14.
16.
D. 129.6km
B. No change in direction
D. all of the above
How long will it take an eagle to fly 128km at a speed of 3 km/h?
B. 41min
C. 0.25h
D. none
A car increases its velocity from 20m/s to 100m/s in 4 second. It’s acceleration is
B. 320m/s2
C. 20m/s2
D. 480m/s2
A car accelerated at 2m/s2. How long will it to increase its velocity from 25.2 km/h to 75.6 km/h?
B. 56sec
C. 28sec
D. 7sec
A car accelerates uniformly at 3m/s2. Starting from rest its velocity after 12 seconds is:A. 4m/s
20.
C. 12m
C. Has zero acceleration
A. 14sec
19.
B. 388.8km
A. Has constant speed
A. 60m/s2
18.
D. all
Which of the following is correct about a body moving with constant velocity?
A. 4 hour
17.
C. m/sec
A car traveled at a constant speed of 36m/s for 3h. The distance covered is
A. 108m
15.
B. m/min
B. 0.25m/s
C. 36m/s
D. 15m/s
A motor bike accelerates at 3m/s2. It increased its velocity to 40m/s in 9 second. What is the initial
velocity of the bike?
A. 4.33m/s
21.
22.
C. 27m/s
D. none
Which of the following is correct about acceleration due to gravity of the earth?
A. It changes with altitude
C. Decrease with increasing latitude
B. Increase with increasing altitude
D. The same every where
The SI unit of pressure is:A. Pascal (pa)
23.
B. 13m/s
B. N/m2
C. Kg/m.s2
D. none
A 200g block is acted by a 0.1N force. What is the acceleration of the block?
A. 0.0005m/s2
B. 20m/s2
C. 199.9m/s2
D. 0.5m/s2
24.
A 10 kg mass accelerates at 2m/s2. The force acting on the mass is
A. 20N
25.
B. 5N
B. 5kg
C. 45kg
D. 13kg
An 800kg car is acted by a 2400N force starting from rest, how fast it travels after 12second?
A. 4m/s
27.
D. 8N
A 15N force accelerates an object at 3m/s2. The mass is
A. 0.2kg
26.
C. 0.2N
B. 3m/s
C. 0.25m/s
D. 36
A 30kg block of 5cm x 3cm x 10cm rests on a horizontal surface. What is the minimum pressure it
exerts on the surface? g=10m/s2
A. 60kpa
28.
B. 100kpa
D. 15kpa
Which one of the following is not equal to the others?
A. 16kpa
29.
C. 200kpa
B. 16cm Hg
C. 0.16 bar
D. 160 milli bar
A barometer measure atmospheric pressure at a certain position to be 50cmHg.
m
= 13.6g/cm3,
g=10m/s2. This pressure in kpa is
A. 68kpa
30.
B. 6800kpa
B. Newton (N)
B. 0.04cm2
D. lift pump
C. Pascal (Pa)
D. Joule
C. 0.0004cm2
D. A and C
Find the area of a glass, if its base is circular with a diameter of 4cm (take = 3.14).
A. 6.28cm2
34.
C. Force pump
What is the area of a square surface if its sides are 2m?
A. 4m2
33.
B. Hydraulic press
Which of the following is the SI unit of force?
A. m/sec
32.
D. 27.2kpa
Which f the following does not need on atmospheric pressure for its operation
A. Syringe
31.
C. 17.2kpa
B. 12.56cm2
C. 0.628m2
D. A and C
A chalk box has a length of 4cm, a width of 5cm and height of 6cm. what is the volume of the chalk
box?
A. 60cm3
35.
B. 120cm3
B. Velocity ratio
C. acceleration
D. Area
C. [
D. [
Dimensional expression of speed is
A. [
37.
D. B and C
Which of he following quantity is dimensionless?
A. Force
36.
C. 0.00012m3
]
B. [
]
]
Which of the following is use of dimensions?
A. Conversion of units
C. Dimensional analysis
B. To check equations
D. all
]
38.
Compute the following operation in scientific notation 7.2 x 102N
A. 2.0 x 106pa
39.
B. 2.0 x 10-2pa
B. 15 x 106
D. A and C
C. 1.5 x 107
D. 1.5 x 106
Which of the following force is a contact force?
A. Magnetic force
41.
C. 2.0 x 106N/m2
Which of the following is the scientific notation of 15,000,000kg?
A. 15 x 107
40.
3.6 x 10-4m2.
B. electric force
C. gravitational force
D. friction force
A car starts from rest and reaches a speed of 10m/s in 2seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?
A. 4m/s2
B. 5m/s2
C. 20m/s2
D. 8m/s2
F = 30N
4cm
42.
Which of the following is the minimum pressure of the box?
3cm
2cm
A. 6.0 x 104pa
43.
C. 6 x 10-4pa
D. 5 x 10-4pa
What is the force is required to produce a pressure of 20,000N/m2 when the surface area is 2m2?
A. 40,000N
44.
B. 5 x 104pa
C. 40,000kgm/s2
B. 10,000N
D. A and C
Which of the following is correct?
A. Liquid pressure depend on the shape of container
B. The pressure is the same at any point of liquid
C. Pressure exist at every point with in the liquid
D. A and C
45.
Water is poured in to a vessel up to a height of 2m. Calculate the pressure of water on the base of the
vessel. (Take g= 10m/s2, density of water
A. 2 x 104pa
B. 2 x 10-4pa
w
= 1000kg/m3)
C. 0.2 x 10-5pa
D. B and C