01 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 125
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. wither
B. thesis
C. thoughtful
D. breath
Question 2.
A. traffic
B. configuration
C. cinema
D. camouflage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. report
B. conclude
C. deter
D. sanction
Question 4.
A. advertise
B. definite
C. composite
D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. Tim and his friends have founded___________voluntary organisation which helps disabled people with
their transport needs.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. ∅
Question 6. Dana finally admitted___________by what her father had said the day before.
A. hurt
B. hurting
C. being hurt
D. hurted
Question 7. The man was very brave. He___________, but he chose to stay and fight.
A. must have escaped
B. escaped
C. had escaped
D. could have escaped
Question 8. Air pollution is getting___________serious in big cities such as Hanoi and Beijing.
A. the more and the more
B. more and more
C. most and most
D. the most and the most
Question 9. The company has made an announcement that any application___________ in after 30th April shall not be
considered.
A. sends
B. is sent
C. being sent
D. sent
Question 10. Only after the teacher had explained the procedure clearly___________to go ahead with the experiment.
A. the students were allowed
B. were the students allowed
C. the students allowed
D. did the students allow
Question 11. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, ___________ ?
A. do they
B. don’t they
C. does she
D. doesn’t she
Question 12. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________
rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful
B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European
D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 13. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy
B. tragic
C. tragically
D. tragedies
Question 14. After years of training hard, the athlete finally could___________
her ambition of winning an
Olympic gold medal.
A. reject
B. exacerbate
C. recognise
D. realise
Question 15. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program.
A. advantage
B. use
C. benefit
D. dominance
Question 16. The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important___________of entertainment.
A. status
B. source
C. origin
D. prospect
Question 17. After years of derision from the world, the Hindi film industry is achieving its ___________ in the Sun.
A. position
B. image
C. shade
D. place
Question 18. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I______this photograph of my parents’ wedding.
A. took after
B. made up
C. turned down
D. came across
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. Of more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A. only
B. classify
C. volcanoes
D. active
Question 20. In spite of the Indian lacked animals, they had the ability to cultivate plants suitable for daily use.
A. suitable
B. lacked animals
C. in spite of
D. had the ability
Question 21. A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory of the relationship
between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises
B. relationship
C. historical
D. economy
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 22. John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot.
B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot.
D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 23. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 24. People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases will inevitably lead
to global warming.
A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is thought to be responsible for global warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is attributed to global warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework
C. Tired though he was, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Question 26. Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday. She didn’t want to answer his phone call this morning.
A. Mary’s refusal to answer the phone leads to her argument with her boyfriend yesterday.
B. Much as Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call this morning.
C. Having quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, Mary refused to answer his phone call this morning.
D. Before Mary quarrelled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 27. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work.
- “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?”
- “___________”
A. Not at all. Go ahead.
B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
C. That would be nice.
D. Not so bad. And you?
Question 28. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly.
B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so.
D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to alert nearby ships of
the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing
B. strange
C. bold
D. help
Question 30. I’m all in favour of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s 25, he’s simply
crying for the moon.
A. longing for what is beyond the reach
B. asking for what is attainable
C. doing something with vigor or intensity
D. crying a lot and for a long time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. I prefer secure j obs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.
A. challenging
B. demanding
C. stable
D. safe
Question 32. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.
A. extremely happy
B. extremely light
C. feeling extremely unhappy
D. feeling extremely airy
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have identified exactly
when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood amnesia has found that it tends to take
(33)___________around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change in the way
memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (34) ___________form of recall with no sense of time and place
in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events tend to be more adult like in their content and
the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting in children and higher turnover of memories means early memories are
less likely to survive. (35) ___________, memories of younger children tend to lack autobiographical narrative leading to
a process known as “retrieval induced forgetting” (36) ___________the action of remembering causes other information
to be forgotten. Consequently, if childhood memories can survive into the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a
chance of (37) ___________it into adulthood.
Question 33. A. affect
B. effective
C. effect
D. effectively
Question 34. A. unbalanced
B. immature
C. insufficient
D. irrational
Question 35. A. Besides
B. However
C. Therefore
D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. whom
B. which
C. when
D. where
Question 37. A. turning
B. making
C. transferring
D. getting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to express your
own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because of a certain individual.
Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was high-ranking and self-important:
nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness?
There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as people who
like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait are acting out an inner
agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel
waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes.
But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is delayed or
you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology involved. Or is there?
Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting, while others might secretly enjoy
the power of their absence.
The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time agreed
with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s time as less valuable
than our own, we treat them as inferior.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals.
B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness.
C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology.
D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late.
Question 39. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to?
A. tells a lot
B. makes sounds
C. holds power
D. talks loudly
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave.
B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness.
C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.
D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control.
Question 41. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________.
A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance.
B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges.
C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness.
D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control.
Question 42. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fact
B. lateness
C. convention
D. psychology
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions front 43 to 50.
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Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over the
world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the “treatment” is that
“like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to remove those symptoms. Medicines
used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid
vigorously. They can then be made into tablets and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this
way, the greater its power to treat symptoms.
However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and Medical
Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as placebos at treating illness.
Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy interest groups and the public, concluded
that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works. Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that
homeopathic remedies had failed to treat, including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis.
As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of anecdotal
evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to tell whether a health
treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or the beliefs of a health practitioner”
says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on
its own without taking the medicine. Apparently, many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to
people believing that it is the homeopathy that cures them.
A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As an
immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV, tuberculosis, and
malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the concept that homeopathic
vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those who believe it are failing to protect
themselves and their children.
Question 43. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists
B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists
C. Homeopathy worth trying once
D. Unknown effects of homeopathy
Question 44. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________
.
A. prepared similarly for different diseases
B. made up of a variety of ingredients
C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms
D. available only in the liquid form
Question 45. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. committee
B. NHMRC
C. medicines
D. placebos
Question 46. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________.
A. increasingly popular with the public
B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections
C. ineffective in treating many diseases
D. of great interest to a certain group of people
Question 47. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. apprehensive
B. reluctant
C. cautious
D. observant
Question 48. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________.
A. advertisements displayed in health center
B. positive feedback from a small number of people
C. reliable proof from recent medical reports
D. results of research into some alternatives therapies
Question 49. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. legend
B. falsehood
C. imagination
D. hallucination
Question 50. In Professor John Dwyer’s view, homeopathic vaccinations__________.
A. may bring about bad consequences
B. do harm to people’s health
C. might be ridiculously expensive
D. are better than nothing at all
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02 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 126
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. general
B. generous
C. generation
D. guillotine
Question 2.
A. changes
B. increases
C. suffocates
D. compromises
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. deploy
B. maintain
C. border
D. attain
Question 4.
A. referee
B. kangaroo
C. cigarette
D. technique
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. After so___________consideration, we have finally arrived at a decision.
A. a lot of
B. lots of
C. many
D. much
Question 6. The author did not intend anybody___________his paintings until they were finished.
A. seeing
B. to seeing
C. to see
D. to be seen
Question 7. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he
___________to school by his
father.
A. was taken
B. is being taken
C. is taking
D. took
Question 8. Linda, along with hundreds of others, ___________unemployed when the factory closes next month.
A. becomes
B. become
C. is becoming
D. are becoming
Question 9. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to show___________.
A. what was he carrying in his bag.
B. what he was carrying in his bag
C. what he carries in his bag
D. what does he carry in his bag
Question 10. It was an English student, not a French one, ___________was the captain of our school team.
A. which
B. what
C. whom
D. who
Question 11. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural talent___________leadership.
A. for
B. at
C. in
D. of
Question 12. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round
B. round small green
C. green small round
D. small round green
Question 13. The drug under examination has shown some______results when given to volunteers in some countries.
A. impressed
B. impresses
C. impressive
D. impression
Question 14. During rush hours, the traffic is usually___________and cars are closing up behind each other.
A. light
B. heavy
C. substantial
D. enormous
Question 15. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to
his resignation to the commander.
A. give
B. apply
C. propose
D. offer
Question 16. Her father was really a___________of strength to her when her marriage broke up.
A. source
B. sculpture
C. figure
D. tower
Question 17. When travelling in Europe, we tried to_________at least an hour in a medieval town to explore it.
A. stop off
B. stop out
C. stop up
D. stop in
Question 18. Last week, an earthquake which___________6.1 on the Richter scale struck southern California.
A. read
B. measured
C. calculated
D. estimated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. Just pulling out of the station the train was that we were supposed to catch.
A. the
B. the train was
C. were supposed
D. pulling out
Question 20. Alice Thornton’s autobiography provides a fascinate account of family life in seventeenth-century England.
A. a fascinate account
B. life
C. seventeenth-century
D. autobiography
Question 21. The meeting would have finished earlier if there had not been for their interruptions.
A. interruptions
B. would have finished
C. had not been for
D. earlier
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 22. ‘T have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.
A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.
B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
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C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.
D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
Question 23. People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.
B. Jane was believed to retire because of her poor health.
C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.
Question 24. Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.
A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.
B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper
C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.
D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take action soon.
A. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.
B. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.
C. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.
D. The government knows the extent of the problem, or else it needs to take action soon.
Question 26. The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 27. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”
Michelle: “___________”
A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it
B. Not at all
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it
D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 28. Ben: “___________.”
Jane: “Never mind.”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their political views
were very different from mine.
A. was talking nervously B. had a lot of pressure
C. was given many eggs
D. had to be very cautious
Question 30. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. acclaimed
B. dictated
C. described
D. ordained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further evidence was found.
A. found guilty
B. declared innocent
C. charged of being faulty
D. advised of appealing
Question 32. Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure, in such situations, industries preferred to
export their wastes to other countries.
A. minimum
B. considerable
C. plentiful
D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
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The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), originally known (33) ___________the United Nations’
International Children's Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11 December 1946, to
provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had been devastated by World War II.
The Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman is widely regarded as the (34) ___________of UNICEF and served as its first
chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the United States in the wake of McCarthyism. Rajchman is to this day
the only person that served as UNICEF's Chairman for longer than 2 years. On Rajchman's suggestion, the American
Maurice Pate was appointed its first executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950, UNICEF's
mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere. In
1953 it (35) ___________a permanent part of the United Nations System, and the words "international" and "emergency"
were dropped from the organization's name, though it retained the original acronym, "UNICEF".
UNICEF (36) ___________on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF's total income for
2015 was US$5,009,557,471. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization's resources. Private groups and
individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated that 92 per cent of UNICEF revenue is
distributed to program services. UNICEF's programs emphasize developing community-level services to (37)__________
the health and well-being of children. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias
Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 33. A. for
B. as
C. such as
D. like
Question 34. A. ancestor
B. descendant
C. pioneer
D. founder
Question 35. A. became
B. becomes
C. becoming
D. had become
Question 36. A. focuses
B. stands
C. concentrates
D. relies
Question 37. A. promote
B. provide
C. widen
D. increase
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but
adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles
To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings is forced
to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift, which pushes the bird up.
Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight requires long wings and an ability to soar.
Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and sparrows have short, broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have
built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence while flying. This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling.
Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by spreading out
their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in essential skill, since most birds
need to land on individual branches or on prey.
Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave the ground.
Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide the necessary oxygen to the
muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On pigeons, it accounts for a third of their
total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage, they have hollow feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to
maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to find a prey, escape predators, and attract mates-in other
words, to survive.
Question 38. what is the main idea of the passage?
A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds.
B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight.
C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival.
D. Birds fly for many reasons.
Question 39. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
A. Long wings with hollow feathers
B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings
C. Spreading out their tails
D. Superior muscle strength
Question 40. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________.
A. wings
B. maneuvers
C. ways of flying
D. birds
Question 41. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers?
A. an ability to fly faster
B. a steeper angle of diving for prey
C. prolonged flight
D. superior maneuverability when climbing
Question 42. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings?
A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little.
B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight.
C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight.
D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights protection to
persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public accommodations, transportation,
and telecommunications. A person with disability is defined as someone with a mental or physical impairment that
substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a
disability may also be someone with a past record of such an impairment, for example, someone who no longer has heart
disease but discriminated against because of that history.
The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a person because
of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make reasonable accommodations
that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the job. All new vehicles purchased by public
transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities. All rail stations must be made accessible, and at least one
car per train in existing rail systems must be made accessible.
It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public accommodations are
businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All new buildings must be made accessible,
and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be accomplished without much difficulty or expense.
The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay services to
individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day, seven days a week.
Question 43. what is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities.
B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities.
D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf.
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the followings are affected by the Americans with Disabilities Act
EXCEPT___________.
A. someone who has difficulty walking
B. a public transit authority
C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees
D. a person with a past record of an impairment
Question 45. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. disability
B. violation
C. aptitude
D. danger
Question 46. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.
A. public transit
B. barriers
C. private sector employment
D. public accommodation
Question 47. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________
.
A. barriers
B. buildings
C. rail stations
D. disabilities
Question 48. The author implies all of the followings EXCEPT___________.
A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations
B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people
C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities
D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments
Question 49. The word “stipulates” in bold in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. supposes
B. admits
C. states
D. requests
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ .
A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities
B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities
C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers
D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities
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03 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 127
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. detachable
B. denounce
C. education
D. admittance
Question 2.
A. enunciate
B. pronounce
C. uncle
D. nocturnal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. preserve
B. bubble
C. safeguard
D. tabloid
Question 4.
A. uneducated
B. insignificant
C. irrelevance
D. unquestionable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 5. Before the man could say anything more, Peter___________off towards the station.
A. rushed
B. was rushing
C. had rushed
D. had been rushing
Question 6. For the engine to work properly, the green lever___________be in the up position.
A. can
B. may
C. will
D. must
Question 7. ___________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received
B. Having received
C. Being received
D. Receive
Question 8. The divorce rate in Vietnam is now higher___________half a century ago.
A. than it is
B. than it does
C. than it was
D. than it did
Question 9. Would that the council___________in detail the issue of mercury pollution in the city during the conference
last week.
A. discussed
B. were discussing
C. had discussed
D. was discussing
Question 10. The waiter enquired whether___________near the window.
A. we would like to sit
B. we like to sit
C. do we like to sit
D. would we like to sit
Question 11. ___________, those students really prefer cold weather.
A. Strange though does it seem
B. Strange though it may seem
C. Strange though may it seem
D. Strange though it seem
Question 12. Brain’s attitude___________his work has always been very positive.
A. with
B. into
C. at
D. towards
Question 13. There might be a___________to cheat if students sit too close together in exam rooms.
A. tempting
B. temptation
C. tempted
D. tempt
Question 14. If something
electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to_________travel along and through it.
A. carries
B. transfers
C. conducts
D. exchanges
Question 15. We really regret to___________you that the course you are interested in is now full.
A. advise
B. consult
C. pledge
D. explain
Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder has___________a lot of
attention from the public.
A. paid
B. confined
C. drawn
D. attracted
Question 17. Last year, the company went___________up after the one of its senior executives offered his resignation.
A. straight
B. belly
C. stomach
D. cloud
Question 18. Our mother was not happy with our work and made us___________.
A. start back
B. start over
C. start on
D. start on at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. She grew more and more fascinated by the subject as times went by.
A. fascinated
B. grew
C. times
D. the subject
Question 20. I pretended not seeing her and carried on walking down the main street leading to the downtown.
A. not seeing
B. the main street
C. carried on walking
D. downtown
Question 21. Like many rich kids, Georgie was raised by a successor of underpaid nannies.
A. raised
B. like
C. underpaid nannies
D. a successor
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 22. A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
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C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
Question 23. Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility caused by the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the river.
B. Since todays fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during the day.
Question 24. Wouldn’t it better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. If you don t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
C. Youd better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.
Question 26. My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of everyone.
A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.
B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.
C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.
D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 27. “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t
B. oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome
D. That’s a good idea
Question 28. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “____________. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so
B. Don’t mention it
C. Don’t worry
D. Thank you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.
A. difficulty
B. holiness
C. stain
D. trial
Question 30. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short rehearsal.
A. when
B. before
C. after
D. while
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Earthworms help to aerate the soil.
A. suffocate
B. destroy
C. argue
D. adjust
Question 32. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. disowned
B. declared
C. betrayed
D. concealed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone in the eye is
not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (33) ____________to look directly at people when speaking to them. It
shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a (34) ____________of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and
Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation.
The Lebanese, (35) ____________, stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows
sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most
common expressions, people (36) ____________ travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body
language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (37) ____________to consider
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your own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends,
clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
Question 33. A. encouraged
B. assisted
C. forbidden
D. opposed
Question 34. A. sense
B. taste
C. sound
D. touch
Question 35. A. therefore
B. in addition
C. in contrast
D. moreover
Question 36. A. who
B. where
C. which
D. whose
Question 37. A. usefulness
B. useful
C. useless
D. used
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the United States
before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American homes had improved very little
over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind
used in ancient Rome - a dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some
people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided
superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to
be an excellent illuminant. But while camphene gave a bright light it too remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and
also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was the wider
use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for producing illuminating gas
from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that until the mid-nineteenth century gas
lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor,
Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that
produced illuminating gas and an oil that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because
it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his
fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of North
American mines.
Question 38. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become necessary by the midnineteenth century?
A. increases in the number of new factories
B. growth of cities
C. development of railroads
D. demand for better medical facilities
Question 39. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. oil
B. charcoal
C. lard
D. wick
Question 40. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?
A. It had an unpleasant smell.
B. It was not allowed in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid-nineteenth century.
D. It was first developed in the United States.
Question 41. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cost the same as
B. was made from
C. sounded like
D. was similar to
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two years
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Dark matter in the universe is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily observable because it
does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced because of the effect that it has on surrounding
matter. In fact, some members of the scientific community have argued that dark matter does not actually exist. Others,
however, believe in its existence, in part because the scientific community does not have a complete understanding of
gravity science. On the other hand, some would argue that it is the understanding of gravitational science that leads most
scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are many cosmological phenomena
that are difficult to explain.
For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy. Some scientists
believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby galaxies is causing the Milky Way galaxy to
take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that not only does dark matter exist, it may also be responsible for the Milky
Way’s unusual shape. The interaction referenced involves two smaller galaxies near the Milky Way, called Magellanic
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clouds, moving through an enormous amount of dark matter, which, in effect, enhances the gravitational pull that the two
Magellanic clouds could have on the Milky Way and other surrounding bodies. Without the existence of the dark matter,
the Magellanic clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the hypothesis that anything
with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other galaxies with peculiar warped shapes are being
molded by a gravitational force. However, there is nothing readily observable with sufficient mass that could cause such a
high level of distortion via gravitational pull in the vicinity of the Milky Way. Therefore, something that is not easily
observed must be exerting the necessary force to create the warped shape of the galaxy.
Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might have on galaxies.
They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very little dark matter as evidence that dark matter
is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies. While they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to
conclude that dark matter does not exist, they apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the
conventional theories of galaxy formation and manipulation.
Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley, however, point to the idea
that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape of the Milky Way and other galaxies. Using
computer models, they have mapped the likely interactions between certain galaxies and the surrounding dark matter, and
those models have shown not only the possibility that dark matter is responsible for the warped shape of the Milky Way,
but that the relationship between the dark matter and the Magellanic clouds is dynamic; the movement of the clouds
through the dark matter seems to create a wake that enhances their gravitational influence on the Milky Way.
Question 43. The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to believe in the existence
of dark matter because___________.
A. no one understands how to apply gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.
C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.
D. there is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.
Question 44. As it is used in paragraph 1, the term “phenomena” most nearly means___________.
A. surprises
B. problems
C. occurrences
D. attitudes
Question 45. What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.
B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.
C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.
D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.
Question 46. According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark matter?
A. Dark matter has no effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.
B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.
C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.
D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.
Question 47. The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage that___________.
A. computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena
C. the effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.
D. the shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it
Question 48. The word “conventional” in paragraph 4 most nearly means___________.
A. formally disputed
B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood
D. generally accepted
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. models
B. researchers
C. interactions
D. galaxies
Question 50. The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?
A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply gravitational science.
B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.
C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies composed of
ordinary matter.
D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.
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04 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 128
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1.
A. divisible
B. design
C. disease
D. excursion
Question 2.
A. borrowed
B. conserved
C. approached
D. complained
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of
the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3.
A. garbage
B. dissolve
C. bottle
D. fishing
Question 4.
A. beautiful
B. happiness
C. unhealthy
D. neigh
borhood
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. She looked active in___________.
A. a jean
B. a jeans
C. jean
D. jeans
Question 6. We___________by a loud noise during the night.
A. woke up
B. are woken up
C. were woken up
D. were waking up
Question 7. why___________she___________to be studying abroad?
A. does/ consider
B. is/ considered
C. is/ considering
D. has/ considered
Question 8. Tom has the___________stamps in the collectors club.
A. most
B. less
C. more
D. least
Question 9. Our boss would rather___________during the working hours.
A. us not chatting
B. we didn’t chat
C. us not chat
D. we don’t chat
Question 10. ___________my car broke down, I came home late yesterday.
A. Since
B. while
C. For
D. With
Question 11. ___________I first met my girlfriend.
A. It was in London that B. It was in London where C. It was London that
D. It was London which
Question 12. Last weekend, my family went to the cinema together. We chose a(an) ___________to see.
A. new interesting film
B. film interesting new
C. interesting film new
D. interesting new film
Question 13. He has been very interested in doing research on___________since he was at high school.
A. biology
B. biological
C. biologist
D. biologically
Question 14. The match will be televised___________ on VTV 3 tonight.
A. live
B. lived
C. lively
D. living
Question 15. The students are conducting a major___________.
A. exam
B. experiment
C. test
D. experience
Question 16. “The suitcase isn’t too heavy, is it?” “No, it’s as light as___________.”
A. dust
B. lightning
C. a feather
D. a fish
Question 17. “Have you heard about the Welshman, the Irishman and a pig?” “Yes, we have. That joke’s as old as
___________.”
A. Solomon
B. the hills
C. a dinosaur
D. Jupiter
Question 18. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away
B. got over
C. turned down
D. turned off
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops
B. while
C. take
D. him
Question 20. The fire began in the tenth floor of the block of flat, but it soon spread to other floors.
A. in
B. tenth
C. of
D. soon spread
Question 21. The strong progress in poverty reduction and sharing prosperity that took place over the first decade of the
2000s is at risk because of the global slowdown in growth.
A. reduction
B. sharing
C. the first
D. at risk
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 22. “Shall I make you a cup of milk?” the mother said to the son.
A. The mother wanted to make a cup of milk for the son.
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B. The mother was asked to make a cup of milk for the son.
C. The mother promised to make a cup of milk for the son.
D. The mother offered to make a cup of milk for the son.
Question 23. The only student who failed the exam was Finet.
A. Together with other students, Finet failed the exam.
B. Everyone passed the exam.
C. Everyone, apart from Finet, failed the exam.
D. With the exception of Finet, everyone passed the exam.
Question 24. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
B. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back.
D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Her explanation was clear. I didn’t understand it.
A. Despite of her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
B. Despite her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
C. Despite the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear.
D. In spite of the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear
Question 26. Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is because his Vietnamese wife
helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction videos for Vietnamese
people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 27. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
Student 2. “___________”
A. Yes, let’s
B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish
D. That’s what I was thinking
Question 28. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
Eden. “Shall we eat out tonight?”
Edward. ___________!”
A. That’s all right
B. That’s a great idea
C. It is very kind of you.
D. You are very welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. People are not aware of the problem of overpopulation.
A. incident
B. issue
C. trouble
D. case
Question 30. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me
B. cheers me
C. irritates me
D. surprises me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In this world, emotion has become suspect- the accepted style is smooth, antiseptic and passionless.
A. soft
B. agitated
C. silky
D. easy
Question 32. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with
B. free from
C. relaxed about
D. interested in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Is it worth reading books, (33) ___________ nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment? Some
people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a library. They might add
that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their favourite (34) ___________. All that may
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be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the reader to use his or her imagination for a start. You can read
a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and then stop. Of course, it may be so (35) ___________that you can't stop!
There are many different kinds of books, so you can choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (36)
___________gives you interesting information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for
ideas. Personally, I can't do without books, but I can (37) ___________up television easily enough. You can't watch
television at bus stops!
Question 33. A. in
B. or
C. why
D. since
Question 34. A. ones
B. programmes
C. episodes
D. cereals
Question 35. A. current
B. imagined
C. interest
D. gripping
Question 36. A. whose
B. which
C. what
D. when
Question 37. A. pick
B. look
C. give
D. turn
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the worlds universities, came from very
inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth.
Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of
England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New World were
determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this
support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds
for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in
an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day
university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestown, died from
tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half
of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had
done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today's standard, but it was more than the
General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to
serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff
did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or
four tutors.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 39. The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to___________
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities
B. university graduates
C. the Puritan sons
D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by___________
A. to and fro
B. back and forth
C. side by side
D. more or less
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of
B. where he came from
C. Where he was buried
D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that___________
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early years
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory structures that
clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory. Each
structure varies as to how much information it can hold and for how long.
A description of how human process information typically begins with environmental stimuli. Our sense receptors are
constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory stimuli. These experiences are initially recorded
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in the sensory register, so named because information is thought to be encoded there in the same form in which it was
perceived. The purpose of the sensory register is to hold information one to three seconds. Information not recognized or
otherwise selected by us disappears from the system. The sensory register can hold about twelve items of information at a
time. Typists make extensive use of the sensory register in order to remember words just long enough to get them typed.
If no further processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later is minimal. Similarly, most of us have
had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to discover when we got to the bottom of the page, we couldn’t
say anything about it except that we had indeed “read” every word.
Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term memory. In this case, short-term is
approximately 20 seconds, while this may seem surprising, it can be easily demonstrated. If you were asked to dial an
unfamiliar phone number, received a busy signal, and were then distracted by something or someone else for 15 to 20
seconds, chances are you would have forgotten the number at that point. Short-term memory is often referred to as
“working” memory.
Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited and contains a
permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced. Information is encoded there to enhance its
meaningfulness and organization so that it can be easily retrieved when necessary.
Question 43. what is the purpose of the passage?
A. to explain how our memory processes information.
B. to describe the sensory register.
C. to explain why we sometimes forget information.
D. to compare short-term and long-term memory.
Question 44. The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. psychologists
B. information
C. memory structures
D. environmental stimuli
Question 45. The word “stimuli” in lines 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. objects or events that activate our memory
B. objects we consider attractive
C. things that help us to later recall what happened
D. situations in which we experience emotions
Question 46. According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type if___________.
A. they are tired
B. they are distracted by something or someone
C. they have too much work to be able to process it all
D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember
Question 47. The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to___________.
A. very big
B. very good
C. very pretty
D. very small
Question 48. According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?
A. Information we need for three seconds or less.
B. Information that surprises us.
C. Information that is relevant to us.
D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.
Question 49. It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory because___________.
A. we use it extensively when we are working
B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment
C. it is very difficult to use effectively
D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.
Question 50. which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?
A. A wrong telephone number we dialed.
B. The face of a stranger on the street.
C. The birth date of our children
D. Voices from the television in the background
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05 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 129
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grows
B. tends
C. roars
D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed
B. finished
C. interviewed
D. delivered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. justice
B. struggle
C. neglect
D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate
B. unexpected
C. accompany
D. commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. We___________in silence when he suddenly___________me to help him.
A. walked - was asking
B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking
D. walked - asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses___________me in person.
A. to meet
B. meeting
C. met
D. to meeting
Question 7. It___________Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been
B. must have been
C. can’t have been
D. needn’t have been
Question 8. At one time the entire world___________by dinosaurs.
A. has ruled
B. was ruled
C. will be ruled
D. was ruling
Question 9. I asked Martha___________to enter law school.
A. are you planning
B. is she planning
C. was she planning
D. if she was planning
Question 10. Extinction means a situation___________a plan, an animal or a way of life etc ...stops existing.
A. to which
B. in which
C. on which
D. for which
Question 11. ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had
B. No sooner had
C. No longer has
D. Not until had
Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?
A. shall we
B. will we
C. don’t we
D. won’t we
Question 13. The more___________and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence
B. confident
C. confide
D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a___________writer; he has written quite a few books this year.
A. prolific
B. fruitful
C. fertile
D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little___________because so many students get lost,
change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled
B. arranged
C. chaotic
D. notorious
Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the
calculations from___________.
A. onset
B. source
C. original
D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests___________no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did
B. made
C. caused
D. created
Question 18. Although he
is my friend, I___________find it hard to his selfishness.
A. put up with
B. catch up with
C. keep up with
D. come down with
Mark A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed marsh and dune
grasses.
A. A
B. is
C. resulting
D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their reservations
and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching
B. are
C. changing
D. proceed
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Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you to give blood
if you have just had cold.
A. accepts
B. let
C. to give
D. have just had cold.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.
Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the
meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one
another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that
B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely
D. That’s not true
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaaningto the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day
B. day after day
C. all day long
D. the long day
Question 30.1 just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
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A. relax
B. sit down
C. sleep
D. eat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is obliged to
tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged
B. free
C. required
D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he
just made light of it.
A. completely ignored
B. treated as important
C. disagreed with
D. discovered by chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round in
our pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded in (33)
___________tiny bits of technology directly into our clothing.
In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the shops
and stores. This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also manufactured from fabric, which is
connected to a tiny device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to
operate the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a smart
shirt which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (36) ___________, the most
romantic piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make the
brooch glow in time to the beating of its wearers heart. If you meet someone (37) ___________, your heart will
beat faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing
B. associate
C. combining
D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored
B. examined
C. controlled
D. managed
Question 35. A. that
B. what
C. who
D. when
Question 36. A. Although
B. However
C. Moreover
D. While
Question 37. A. gorge
B. gorgeously
C. gorgeousness
D. gorgeous
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Everyday, the
streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the middle of all
of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the ten-inch smiling robot,
called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some people, while others would
ignore it completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such robots in her
experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer s idea was to make a robot
that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on the
kindnessof warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the wheels, the
Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids.
Kinzer thought her little robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection a
Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays
instructions for the robot’s destination. The only way these robots will reach their final point is if someone
lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show
how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the Tweenbots,
through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines. The people who
noticed the helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home.
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Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in
the wrong direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no
Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In fact, most people treated
the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were a small living being. Even if you were
in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. what is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots
B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment
D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. what is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City
B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian
D. A terrorist device
Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________
A. flocked
B. secluded
C. stuffed
D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
Question 42. which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the
very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about
those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and
are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it
mean giving free rein to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have
popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has
value and significance. As Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut
off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an
appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts,
or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that
individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage
them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them - to
know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals
who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings
predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one
who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger. Selfmotivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy
goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive
behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to
persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying to
build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether this trait can
predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant
gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be "far superior as students" when they graduate
from high school than will 4-year-old who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.
Question 43. which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
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D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.
Question 44. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains
B. includes
C. entertains
D. divides
Question 45. The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce
B. weaken
C. worsen
D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT___________.
A. every feeling is important
B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life
D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists
B. individuals
C. individual differences
D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions
by___________.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses
because they can
___________.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted
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06 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 130
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. heritage
B. package
C. passage
D. teenage
Question 2. A. clothes
B. bosses
C. boxes
D. couches
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. desert
B. dessert
C. centre
D. circle
Question 4. A. medieval
B. managerial
C. mediocre
D. magnificent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Due to the economic unrest, people___________happy lately.
A. hadn’t been
B. aren’t
C. weren’t
D. haven’t been
Question 6. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information___________an
effective way.
A. over
B. with
C. in
D. on
Question 7. ___________how confident you are, it is almost impossible not to be a little nervous
before an important exam.
A. No matter
B. Eventhough
C. Not only
D. whereas
Question 8. The Principal usually has his pupils___________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect
B. having collected
C. collected
D. to collect
Question 9. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ___________?
A. didn’t they
B. does they
C. did they
D. doesn’t they
Question 10. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with .
A. another
B. the other
C. other
D. others
Question 11. ___________that Columbus discovered America.
A. It was in 1492
B. There was in 1492
C. In 1492
D. That was in 1492
Question 12. ___________be needed, the river basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should
B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power
D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of___________than comfort.
A. afford
B. affording
C. afforded
D. affordability
Question 14. Although our opinions on many things___________, we still maintain a good relationship
with each other.
A. differ
B. receive
C. maintain
D. separate
Question 15. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously___________.
A. injured
B. wounded
C. spoilt
D. damaged
Question 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted the second___________when it was offered.
A. sharing
B. helping
C. pile
D. load
Question 17. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are___________.
A. clearing up
B. making up
C. looking up
D. turning up
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes
B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle
D. face the music
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom
themselves to move quite regularly.
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A. Mobility
B. characteristics
C. of
D. to move
Question 20. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on American
streets and highways is increasing every year.
A. in the United States
B. traffic
C. amount
D. on American streets
Question 21. Parents’ choices for their children’s names is based on names of their relatives or ancestors.
A. choice
B. their
C. is based
D. relatives
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 23. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand
Question 24. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 26. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn't win the race.
A. If she didn't fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn't win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes
D. She could have won the race if she hadn't fallen over in the last minutes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following questions.
Question 27. Jenny: “Wow! what a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that.
D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 28. Stranger. “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man. “___________”
A. Continue.
B. It’s easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea.
D. Am I going right?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as little
as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious
B. economical
C. sensible
D. miserable
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Question 30. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition - he made up that part of the story.
A. invented
B. narrated
C. unfolded
D. recounted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones
B. with ribs
C. without ribs
D. without backbones
Question 32. If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds you.
A. be unfriendly
B. be ungrateful
C. be thankful
D. be devoted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
(33) ___________in technology have made a lot of changes to our everyday lifestyles, but one of the
biggest has got to be how we read books. Since the invention of the e-book, there has been a significant change
to our reading habits. Given the choice between taking a couple of heavy paperbacks on holiday or an e-book
device like a Kindle, most of us, including our parents and grandparents, would unsurprisingly opt (34)
___________the Kindle.
But what would our lives be like with no books at all? It’s a (35) ___________question. Some educational
specialists are making predictions that in the future we wont even see books in classrooms - everything will be
done online! (36) ___________of the idea of getting rid of books say that there will always be a need for paperbased versions of materials. However, to be realistic, we have to accept that there is a (37) ___________chance
that in a decade’s time schools and classrooms will be book-free! what do you think of that?
Question 33. A. Progression
B. Successes
C. Increases
D. Advances
Question 34. A. of
B. on
C. for
D. at
Question 35. A. special
B. naughty
C. funny
D. tricky
Question 36. A. Alternatives
B. Contestants
C. Opponents
D. Enemies
Question 37. A. remote
B. far
C. long
D. distant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not exist in the
actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services from real companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In fact, no one is
sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are designed to serve as an
alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be used to pay for things instead of cash
or credit cards, when bitcoins are transferred from a buyer to a seller, the transaction is recorded in a public
database.
Governments are concerned that bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them that they
might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased without the government’s
knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to accept bitcoins, the percentage of purchases
made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to other online payment methods, such as credit cards. Instead,
many bitcoin owners simply keep them as an investment since more valuable in the future. This may or may not
be a wise approach. Currently, the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly, especially when compared to highly
stable national currencies, Bitcoin Investors are gambling on the hope that as this high-tech money becomes
more widely accepted, its value will soar.
(Adaptedfrom, https.//www.digitalcommerce360.com/)
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to___________
A. dollars
B. euros
C. things
D. bitcoins
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Question 40. The word “minuscule” is closest in meaning to___________
A. considerable
B. small
C. minimal
D. increasing
Question 41. why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
Question 42. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins
B. Transactions
C. Credit cards
D. Public Database
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
WHY DON’T YOU GET A PROPER JOB?
She wants to be a singer; you think she should go for a long-term career with job security and eventually
retire with a good pension. But a new report suggests that in fact she’s the practical one. Why do parents make
terrible careers advisers?
Today’s 14 and 15-year-olds are ambitious. They are optimistic about their prospects, but their career
ideas are rather vague. Although 80% of them have no intention of following in their parents’ footsteps, 69%
still turn to their parents for advice. They look at their working future in a different way to their parents.
A job for life is not in their vocabulary; neither is a dead-end but secure job that is boring but pays the bills.
Almost half the boys surveyed expected that their hobbies would lead them into the right sort of job, while most
girls seemed determined to avoid traditionally female careers such as nursing.
In the past, this might have counted as bad news. Certainly when I was 15, my guidance counsellors were
horrified at my plans to become a writer. I’m glad I didn’t change my plans to suit them. Even so, their faith in
rigid career paths was well-founded. In those days, that was the way to get ahead.
But the world has changed. The global economy is not kind to yesterday’s diligent and dependable worker. The
future belongs to quick-thinking people who are resourceful, ambitious and can take the initiative. This means
that a 14-year-old who sees her working future as a kind of adventure, to be made up as she goes along is not
necessarily being unrealistic.
However, she has to have the training and guidance to help her develop the right skills for today’s market;
not the rigid preparation for a workplace that disappeared twenty years ago.
Many young people are very aware of the pitfalls of the flexible workplace; they understand that redundancy,
downsizing and freelancing are all part of modern working life, but no one is telling them how they might be
able to turn the new rules of the employment game to their advantage. This is what they need to know if they
are to make a life for themselves.
So what is to be done? A good first step would be to change the way in which schools prepare young
people for adult life. The education system is becoming less flexible and more obsessed with traditional skills at
just the time that the employment market is going in the opposite direction.
Accurate, up-to-date information on new jobs and qualifications can help guidance counsellors to help their
students. Young people need solid information on the sort of training they need to pursue the career of their
dreams. Also, a little bit of encouragement can go a long way. If nothing else, a bit of optimism from an adult
can serve as an antidote to the constant criticism of teenagers in the press.
What, then, can we as parents do to help them? The best thing is to forget all the advice that your parents
gave you, and step into your teenagers shoes. Once you’ve done that, it’s easier to see how important it is that
they learn how to be independent, resourceful and resilient. Give them the courage to follow their dreams however odd they might sound right now. In a world that offers economic security to almost no one,
imagination is a terrible thing to waste.
Question 43. What is the writer’s attitude to the changing job market?
A. It is a challenge that must be faced.
B. It had made too many people unemployed.
C. It is something that young people are afraid of.
D. It has had a negative effect on education.
Question 44. How does the writer think the global economy has affected the employment market?
A. Workers have to be willing to change jobs.
B. Workers are unlikely to receive a pension.
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C. It has made workers less dependable.
D. It has made work more adventurous.
Question 45. The writer uses the phrase “aware of the pitfalls” to show that young people___________
A. feel that modern jobs are too flexible
B. know about the problems of modern jobs
C. don’t think they get enough training
D. accept that they will be made redundant
Question 46. What kind of employment would teenagers like to have?
A. A job similar to their parents.
B. A job that gives them fulfillment.
C. A job that can also be a hobby.
D. A job with economic security.
Question 47. The writer feels that most parents___________
A. give their children good career advice
B. do not tend to be particularly ambitious
C. have very traditional views about work
D. have realistic goals for their children
Question 48. How can parents help their children?
A. By trying to think the way they do
B. By learning to be courageous
C. By ignoring advice given by others
D. By becoming more independent
Question 49. what does the writer believe about her guidance counsellors?
A. That they should have treated her better.
B. That the advice they gave was wrong
C. That they were in some ways right.
D. That they had tried to ruin her career.
Question 50. What does the writer feel will happen if the education system does not change?
A. Young people will be discouraged from working.
B. Young people will receive mover criticism in the press,
C. Young people will be unable to fulfill their potential.
D. Young people will not be optimistic about their future.
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07 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 131
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. scholarship
B. architect
C. cherish
D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest
B. honor
C. vehicle
D. height
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position
of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. private
B. protect
C. reform
D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman
B. eyewitness
C. copyright
D. dressmaker
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than____________
of our competitor.
A. this
B. those
C. that
D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____________.
A. was breaking
B. would break
C. had broken
D. broke
Question 7. It____________that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the crash
A. was announced
B. is announcing
C. is announced
D. was announcing
Question 8. After____________goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said
B. being said
C. having said
D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we____________these mice.
A. are getting rid of
B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of
D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady____________design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive the award.
A. whom
B. whose
C. that
D. which
Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.
A. as soon as his students understood it clearly B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away____________someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that
B. unless
C. in case
D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were____________of teachers.
A. support
B. supportive
C. supporter
D. supporting
Question 14. Some____________animals become tame if they get used to people.
A. wild
B. domestic
C. endangered
D. rare
Question 15. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss
B. complaint
C. interest
D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police____________of the robbers and arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace
B. took notice
C. made use
D. kept track
Question 17. After a good nights sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as____________and eager to
start work again.
A. fruit
B. a daisy
C. a kitten
D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get____________ his boss.
A. up to
B. on for
C. on well with
D. in with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t
B. wearing
C. I’d
D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The
B. I must
C. that form
D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some
challenges.
A. about
B. training not only
C. giving
D. some changes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
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Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t
B. Not just now
C. No, I’ll think it over
D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again
B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you!
D. I totally agree with you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block your fears, and
score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have
B. take
C. gain
D. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo about it at the
restaurant.
A. made a fuss
B. appeased
C. applauded
D. complained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of
prizes.
A. advantage
B. obstacle
C. barrier
D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything
B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care
D. refused to listen
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were (33)
____________as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was banned in Europe by the early
Christians, (34) thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not (35) ____________
the late 18th century,
when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to change.
Sailors came back from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing gained
(36) ____________popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the 387 men
questioned there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because
tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) ____________about catching a blood disease from
unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but the
final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed
B. realised
C. held
D. regarded
Question 34. A. who
B. that
C. they
D. whose
Question 35. A. by far
B. since
C. because
D. until
Question 36. A. at
B. on
C. in
D. of
Question 37. A. danger
B. trouble
C. concern
D. threat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from
Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10-hour rotation period
gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true
seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less
than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and
color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be
40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the
latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift
has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the
Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager
results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity
may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be
permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth
B. Jupiter
C. Venus
D. Mars
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter
B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity
D. color
Question 40. The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
A. extreme
B. sustainable
C. temporary
D. infrequent
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great
Red Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from____________
A. an art journal
B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook
D. an archaeology book
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees
in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968,
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baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope,
prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and left-handed.
He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful
athlete, but this alone cannot explain Americas fascination with him. Perhaps it was because he was a
handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of
the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was
because America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to
come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played without
complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his
father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and accelerated
the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young
people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant
operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at
the age of 63.
Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
B. do something in the way that you have been told
C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?
A. His way of life
B. His loneliness
C. His own dream
D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 5 probably means____________
A. a danger
B. an operation
C. the destruction
D. a serious disease
Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of his life
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.
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08 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 132
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. whispered
B. wandered
C. sympathized
D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile
B. facile
C. facsimile
D. textile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carpet
B. country
C. idea
D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar
B. uncertainty
C. impatient
D. arrogantly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find out.
A. got broken
B. was breaking
C. has broken
D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident
B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become
D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed_____________rich and gave the money to poor.
A. a/ a
B. a/ the
C. the/ the
D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only_____________among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among the
most intelligent.
A. some whales
B. they are whales
C. whales
D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy
B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent
D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You_____________the report by last Monday.
A. should have finished
B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished
D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore
B. Otherwise
C. Only if
D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest,
_____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has
B. which has
C. each having
D. having
Question 13. John is feeling_____________because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate
B. irritation
C. irritably
D. irritable
Question 14. Jenny has an_____________command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive
B. utter
C. impressive
D. extreme
Question 15. why are you always so jealous_____________other people?
A. in
B. of
C. below
D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my_____________and look
after him.
A. sleeves
B. arm
C. wing
D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on
B. caught up
C. caught on
D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be_____________and it seems like only yesterday you
were a baby.
A. in your teens
B. in your teenage
C. teenager
D. at your teens
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
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Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their grandparents were born
in.
A. about
B. were
C. where
D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same imaginative
disease.
A. was shocked
B. entire class
C. come down with
D. imaginative disease
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating policies
implemented by the government.
A. Transgender
B. are denied
C. armed forces
D. discriminating
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of finding a
job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league.
B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now.
D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer
B. claim
C. attempt
D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. migrants
B. tourists
C. members
D. locals
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. a formal party
B. a formal conference
C. an informal party
D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known
prematurely.
A. dangerously
B. safely
C. privately
D. publicly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _____________up about 10 percent of the population
- but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets,
awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand, what (34)
_____________someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex
(35) _____________between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do
have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs.
lefties. But no matter (36) _____________it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also
uncovered a particular set of personality traits that lefthanded people tend to have. So for all of you lefties,
leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge
and help (37) _____________an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist
B. account
C. hold
D. make
Question 34. A. causes
B. makes
C. gets
D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate
B. collaboration
C. collaborating
D. collaborated
Question 36. A. which
B. who
C. what
D. that
Question 37. A. put
B. bring
C. make
D. take
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other products,
they give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services is the most
important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them down in large numbers, only to
find that without them he has lost the best friends he had.
Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships, with which to
gain itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became hard and poor. When the empire
fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult for it to
persuade the villager to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food with, and he can earn money by
making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is usually too lazy or too careless to plant and look after
trees. So unless the government has a good system of control, or can educate the people, the forests will slowly
disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For where there
are trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind the soil, thus preventing it being
washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor. The rain falls on hard ground
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and flows away on the surface, causing floods and carrying away with it the rich topsoil, in which crops grow
so well, when all the topsoil is gone, nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer's opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn't draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind ” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet
B. to wash away
C. to make stay together D. to improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear that____________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B. where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places____________
A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realised the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which is that they can
____________
A. keep him from the hot sunshine
B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships
D. protecthim from drought and floods
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart from the more
obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important considerations are less obvious. For
example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such as horse riding? Your animal or hobby may be
perceived in a completely different light in another culture so it’s important to consider the significance given
to specific animals in different parts of the world and general perceptions towards them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures,
like the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the family. In other
cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be perceived as dirty or dangerous.
Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst Islamic scholars, while these animals are widely
considered by many Western cultures to be “mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as “unhygienic”.
Muslims will therefore avoid touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately afterwards, and they
will almost never keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even demanded
their arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country,
you should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to your house in case you have a dog as a pet. This
is just one example of how Islam and other cultural beliefs can impact on aspects of everyday life that someone
else may not even question. A Middle Eastern man might be very surprised when going to Japan, for instance,
and seeing dogs being dressed and pampered like humans and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to another. In India, for
example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect. Conversely in Argentina, beef is a symbol of
national pride because of its tradition and the high quality of its cuts. An Indian working in Argentina who has
not done his research or participated in a cross cultural training programme such as Doing Business in
Argentina may be surprised at his first welcome dinner with his Argentinean counterparts where a main dish of
beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in different cultures
to avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living and working in another culture.
Learning how people value animals and other symbols around the world is one of the numerous cultural
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examples discussed in Communicaid’s intercultural training courses. Understanding how your international
colleagues may perceive certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t insensitive and it may even provide
you with a good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going there.
D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in another nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.
D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to____________
A. unhealthy
B. undependable
C. unreliable
D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned cows in paragraph 4 as an example of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by____________
A. indulged
B. taken care of
C. made up
D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as food
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad
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09 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 133
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chemistry
B. Christmas
C. machine
D. headache
Question 2. A. honest
B. honey
C. hour
D. heir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. digest
B. cactus
C. camel
D. human
Question 4. A. compliment
B. heartbroken
C. labour-saving
D. short-sighted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. I have bought a present for my brother, and now I need some____________.
A. paper wrapper
B. wrap paper
C. wrapped paper
D. wrapping paper
Question 6. You____________by my secretary next week.
A. will notify
B. would notify
C. will be notified
D. is going to be notified
Question 7. Her boy friend is said____________in the army two years ago.
A. to have served
B. to serve
C. serving
D. have served
Question 8. Nothing is____________easy as it looks.
A. so
B. such
C. as
D. that
Question 9. The local council recommended that John____________to the head of the apartment.
A. is appointed
B. was appointed
C. be appointed
D. could be appointed.
Question 10. ____________they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do.
A. Seeing that
B. On grounds that
C. Assuming that
D. For reason that
Question 11. It was under the tree____________he found the wallet he had lost before.
A. that
B. whom
C. who
D. where
Question 12. Can I help you, sir?” - “I’m looking for a____________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable
B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round
D. fashionable round wooden
Question 13. The architects have made____________use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative
B. imagine
C. imagination
D. imaginatively
Question 14. I only tell my secrets to my____________ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.
A. creative
B. enthusiastic
C. trustworthy
D. unrealizable
Question 15. Paul is a very____________character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious
B. self-satisfied
C. self-directed
D. self-confident
Question 16. I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m
____________with recent developments.
A. out of reach
B. out of condition
C. out of touch
D. out of the question
Question 17. He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very____________.
A. easy- going
B. down to earth
C. out of shape
D. down at heel
Question 18. Attempts must be made to___the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the two communities.
A. break down
B. set up
C. get off
D. pass over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate
B. it
C. because
D. the
Question 20. For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in promoting
and developing ASEAN Tourism services.
A. Tourism Association
B. played
C. in promoting and developing
D. For its
Question 21. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. juice
B. best ways
C. Sleeping
D. to drink
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
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Question 22. “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 23. A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre.
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket.
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre.
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre.
Question 24. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house.
B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house.
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 26. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t win the trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the trophy
excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn’t have won the
trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn’t win the trophy.
D. Because they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was however excellent.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following questions.
Question 27. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.” Anne: “
Well,_____________.”
A. I am
B. help yourself
C. neither do I
D. that’s life
Question 28. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
Tim: “ We should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
Laura: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary.
B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now.
D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential
B. informative
C. invented
D. exciting
Question 30. Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.
A. cheers me up
B. wakes me up
C. annoys me
D. amuses me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. One is supposed to expend far more energy in marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust
B. spend
C. consume
D. reserve
Question 32. The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend to use it for
publication.
A. private
B. official
C. confidential
D. important
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amy Tan was born on February 19th , 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California,
(33)____________when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with her
mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She returned
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to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant and as a
corporate freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the Game" for a writing workshop, which laid
the early (34) ____________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in 1989, the book explored the
(35) ____________between Chinese women and their Chinese-American daughters, and became the longestrunning New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club received numerous awards, including the
Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into 25 languages, including Chinese, and was made
into a major motion picture for (36) ____________Tan co-wrote the screenplay. Tan's other works have also
been (37) ____________into several different forms of media.
Question 33. A. however
B. moreover
C. so
D. but
Question 34. A. preparation
B. base
C. source
D. foundation
Question 35. A. relate
B. relative
C. relationship
D. relatively
Question 36. A. whom
B. that
C. what
D. which
Question 37. A. adjoined
B. adapted
C. adjusted
D. adopted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders of out-ofdate passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If you don't know the
language, you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local people. Buying a pocket dictionary can
make a difference. You'll be able to order food, buy things in shops and ask for directions. It's worth getting
one. Also there's nothing worse than arriving at your destination to find there are no hotels available. The
obvious way to avoid this is to book in advance. This can save you money too. Another frustrating thing that
can happen is to go somewhere and not know about important sightseeing places. Get a guide book before you
leave and make the most of your trip. It's a must.
Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes, make sure they are the right kind. It's no good packing
sweaters and coats for a hot country or T-shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local climate before you
leave.
Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It's easy to take too many clothes and then not have enough
space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials, what about money? Well, it's a good idea to take some
local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently located cash machines (ATMs) in most big
cities, and it's usually cheaper to use them than change your cash in banks. Then you'll have more money to
spend. When you are at your destination, other travellers often have great information they are happy to share.
Find out what they have to say. It could enhance your travelling experience.
(Adapted from Pearson Test of English General Skills)
Question 38. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to avoid when you go abroad
B. Tips for Travellers Overseas
C. The benefits of travelling
D. How to find ATMs in big cities
Question 39. According to the passage, you should do all of the following before leaving
EXCEPT____________.
A. taking money from an ATM
B. making sure of the validity of your passport
C. preparing suitable clothes
D. getting a guide book
Question 40. The word "This" in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. finding are no hotels to stay at
B. saving money
C. booking in advance
D. asking for directions
Question 41. According to the passage, holders of out-of-date passports____________.
A. have to show an ID instead when they travel B. cannot travel to other countries
C. should ask for help from local people
D. may have their passports renewed in any country.
Question 42. The word “essentials” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________.
A. everything
B. valuables
C. necessities
D. food
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43-50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and
effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding
career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually
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every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to
consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work
with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?” There are no right or wrong answers;
only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would
prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job
is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity
occupations - building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent - that involve a great deal of time away from the
office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain
regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as
hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to
you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low
starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training,
promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less
obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly
paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new
interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your
final one.
Question 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to____________
A. emphasize that each persons answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions
B. answers
C. features
D. jobs
Question 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. discovering
B. considering
C. measuring
D. disposing
Question 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does
not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing
B. law
C. retail sales
D. advertising
Question 47. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT____________
A.Your likes and your dislikes
B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location
D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 49. The word “grueling” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by____________.
A. tiring and hard
B. relaxing
C. painful
D. enjoyable
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
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10 PRACTICE TEST FOR NATIONAL EXAMINATION 134
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wisdom
B. minor
C. lively
D. wildness
Question 2. A. hatred
B. naked
C. knocked
D. sacred
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. ignite
B. igloo
C. dogsled
D. asset
Question 4. A. domestic
B. dormitory
C. dogmatic
D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. “When is your math exam?” “Well, this time tomorrow I___________for it”.
A. will be sitting
B. will sit
C. will have been sitting D. sit
Question 6. The President mentioned pension reform and went on___________that he would reduce
unemployment figures.
A. adding
B. add
C. to be adding
D. to add
Question 7. ___________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Provided that
B. Should
C. Were
D. Had
Question 8. I agree___________one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in
B. of
C. on
D. for
Question 9. Up___________when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog
B. did the dog jump
C. the dog jump
D. does the dog jump
Question 10. ___________will be carried in the next space payload has not yet been announced to
the public.
A. It
B. What
C. When
D. That
Question 11. ___________extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering
our skiing trip.
A. Due to
B. Because
C. Since
D. Due to the fact that
Question 12. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the International
Convention, ___________.
A. the members applauded him
B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him
D. he gave a short acceptance speech
Question 13. The authorities have shown no signs of ___________to the kidnappers’ demands.
A. standing up
B. bringing about
C. getting down
D. giving in
Question 14. My main___________to the new motorway is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. objection
B. object
C. objective
D. objecting
Question 15. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her___________
overeating.
A. compulsive
B. disastrous
C. exhaustive
D. unbearable
Question 16. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to___________.
A. break the bank
B. tie the knot
C. turn the page
D. make ends meet
Question 17. Most of the
in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. tooth and nail
B. rank and file
C. eager beavers
D. old hand
Question 18. A penalty shot is___________when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented
B. awarded
C. committed
D. ranged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The train to Ho chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi capital
left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly
B. as usually
C. which
D. precisely
Question 20. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
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A. it
B. concentrate
C. work
D. because
Question 21. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a
profusion of vivid colors.
A. fan out
B. its
C. most exotic
D. among
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 23. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”, Lee said to me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
Question 24. The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.
B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
Question 26. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following questions.
Question 27. - “Excuse me. where's the parking lot?” - “___________”
A. You missed the turn. It's back that way.
B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It's not here
D. Why do you ask me? I don't know.
Question 28. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
Hoa: "Why aren't you taking part in our activities?” “__________”
Hai: "Yes, I can. Certainly!"
A. Shall I take your hat off?
B. Can you help me with this decoration?
C. Can I help you?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him in the
picture.
A. show him
B. take his photo
C. explain to him
D. inform him
Question 30. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
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A. was used to
B. got angry with
C. got bored with
D. was aware of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house C. relied on others
D. started doing well
Question 32. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection
B. in completion
C. in chaos
D. in ruins
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MODERN SCIENCE
It seems entirely natural to US that there are teams of scientists in universities and (33)
___________institutions around the world, attempting to discover the way the world works. (34) ___________,
it hasn’t always been that way. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred years old, the
ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could (35) ___________the cause of natural events just by the
power of thought.
During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could test their scientific ideas
by designing a relevant experiment and seeing what happened. A lot of (36) ___________was made in this way
by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out research into many different
areas of science, and they often received very little (37) ___________for their hard work. At the start of the
20th century, though, it became clear that science was becoming more complicated and more expensive. The
individual scientists disappeared, to be replaced by highly qualified teams of experts. Modern science was born.
Question 33. A. every
B. whole
C. other
D. another
Question 34. A. However
B. Accordingly
C. Thus
D. Besides
Question 35. A. solve out
B. work out
C. come out
D. give out
Question 36. A. evolution
B. progress
C. movement
D. development
Question 37. A. reward
B. present
C. gift
D. prize
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two times likely
to die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is four times that for
Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at more
than twice the rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than
three times as likely as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty- one times more likely than
New Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, Kern County,
California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical care, are
more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with fewer safety
features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents than city or suburban
dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a factory or office and because emergency medical
services are less readily available. These two factors - low income and rural residence - may explain why the
south has a higher accident rate than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 38. which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.
Question 39. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. modern
B. low-quality
C. well-equipped
D. unsafe
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face the highest
risk of having an accident?
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A. Native Americans
B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans
D. African-Americans
Question 41. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to___________?
A. males
B. native Americans
C. the risk
D. African-Americans
Question 42. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate among the poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety.
B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in twenty firstcentury U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from non- toxic household cleaning
products to motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of energy. However, one way of being “green” that
is perhaps not as apparent to the viewer but of equal importance in being environmentally conscious, is the
construction of buildings that are considered “sustainable”. Sustainable buildings are those that do not impose
on the environment or rely on the over-utilization of energy or natural resources. There are four main principles
of sustainability, which includes consideration of the health and stability of all living things and their
environmental diversity, as well as the economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past, the
demolition of an old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in a landfill or a
waste disposal site. Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses recycled materials, such as wood,
concrete, stone, or metal. These materials are salvaged from the demolition of an older building and can be
appropriately incorporated into a new construction. Architects and construction supervisors may also choose to
recycle more organic parts of demolished buildings, such as wooden doors, windows and other glass, ceramics,
paper, and textiles.
A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is demolition or construction
crew determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable. Architects and environmental scientists have
to decide whether or not a material is appropriate for use in new construction and how it will impact the
environment. They must evaluate the materials from the demolition and determine what those materials contain,
and if they meet the standards set by the U.S, government’s Environmental Protection Agency (the EPA). If the
debris from the demolition contains hazardous materials that are harmful to the environment or to the
consumer, such as asbestos, then the material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for insulation and as a
form of fire retardation in buildings and fabrics was common in the nineteenth century. Asbestos was once used
in shingles on the sides of buildings, as well as in the insulation in the interior walls of homes or other
construction. In new “green” construction, insulation that once asbestos- based can be replaced with recycled
denim or constructed with cellulose-a fibrous material found in paper products. The same-assessment applies to
wood or wallboard painted with toxic lead-based paints. In addition, gas-flow regulators and meters on both
water and gas heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be carefully evaluated to determine that they do
not contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be harmful to humans and the environment if it
is spilled during the removal of these devices.
Question 43. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. rare
B. unusual
C. widespread
D. valuable
Question 44. In paragraph 1, the author implies that___________.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer
D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
C. Todays cleaning products and appliances harm the environment.
D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46. In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to___________.
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A. lost
B. destroyed
C. buried
D. saved
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design incorporates___________.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials
B. new wood, stone, or concrete
C. debris from a demolished building
D. materials from a landfill
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order
to___________
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. the EPA
B. the site crew
C. architects and environmental scientists
D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found in a debris
from a demolition site EXCEPT___________.
A. cellulose
B. mercury
C. asbestos
D. lead
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