Problem Sets
 EXERCISE NO. 1: Chemistry
 EXERCISE NO. 2: Engineering Physics
 EXERCISE NO. 3: Engineering Mechanics –
Statics
 EXERCISE NO. 4: Engineering Mechanics –
Dynamics
 EXERCISE NO. 5: Strength of Materials
 EXERCISE NO. 6: Engineering Materials
 EXERCISE NO. 7: Thermodynamics
 EXERCISE NO. 8: Fluid Mechanics
 EXERCISE NO. 9: Engineering Economy
 EXERCISE NO. 10: Computer System
 EXERCISE NO. 11: Engineering Management,
EE Laws, Ethics, Contracts
and Specifications
 EXERCISE NO. 12: Philippine Electrical Code
 Most Valuable Assessment (MVA) Test
Engineering Sciences and Allied Subjects – 1
 Most Valuable Assessment (MVA) Test
Engineering Sciences and Allied Subjects – 2
EXERCISE NO. 1
Chemistry
1. 1 amu is approximately equal to
A. 6.23 x 10 ^ -27 kg
B. 2.36 x 10 ^ -27 kg
C. 3.62 x 10 ^ -27 kg
D. 1.66 x 10 ^ -27 kg
2. Calculate the mass of the product of reaction of 6.54 g of
zinc with 3.21 g of sulfur.
A. 21 g
C. 9.75 g
B. 3.33 g
D. 10.15 g
3. Calculate the atomic mass of an element if 60.4% of the
atoms have a mass of 68.9257 amu and the rest have a
mass of 70.9249 amu.
A. 67.9 amu
C. 79.6 amu
B. 69.7 amu
D. 97.6 amu
4. Silicon chip used in an integrated circuit of a
microcomputer has a mass of 5.68mg. How many silicon
(Si) atoms are present in this chip?
A. 1.6 x 10-3 atoms
B. 2.92 x 1010atoms
C. 1.22 x 1020atoms
D. 3.54 x 1020atoms
5. Calculate the formula mass of (NH4)2HPO4 (one type of
fertilizer).
A. 125 amu
C. 110 amu
B. 132 amu
D. 148 amu
6. Consider
H3AsO3,
Arsenic
acid
(H=1.01,
As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole is 1kg of H3AsO3?
A. 7.94 moles
C. 5.36 moles
B. 8.43 moles
D. 6.44 moles
7. If a compound is 47.3% C (carbon), 10.6% H (hydrogen)
and 42.0% S (sulfur), what is its empirical formula?
A. C2H3S
C. C3H7S
B. C3H8S
D. CHS
B. 4.58 M
D. 2.60 M
12. Calculate the molarity of a solution after 1.70 L of 2.06 M
solution is diluted to 2.50 L.
A. 1.20 M
C. 1.50 M
B. 2.10 M
D. 1.40 M
13. Calculate the mole fraction of a solution of 0.015 mol of
NaCl in 50.0 g of water if the solution has a density of
1.02 g/mL.
A. 0.00536
C. 0.536
B. 0.0536
D. 0.000536
14. If the freezing point of the salt water put on roads is –
5.2° C, what is the molality of the solution? (The kf for
water is 1.86 °C/m.)
A. 3.2 mol/kg
C. 1.6 mol/kg
B. 2.8 mol/kg
D. 0.5 mol/kg
15. The pH concentration of a solution that has a hydroxide
ion concentration of 1 x 10-4 mol/L is
A. 4
B. -4
C. 10
D. -10
16. Is the study of the composition of matter and the changes
that matter undergoes?
A. organic chemistry
B. chemistry
C. inorganic chemistry
D. applied chemistry
17. Who is said to be the father of modern chemistry?
A. Alexander Fleming
B. Joseph Priestly
C. Galileo Galilei
D. Antoine Lavoisier
18. Defined as anything that has mass and takes up space.
A. atom
C. molecule
B. matter
D. compound
19. Gaseous state of a substance that is generally liquid or
solid at room temperature.
A. plasma
C. vapor
B. gas
D. fumes
8. Calculate the molecular formula of a compound with
molar mass 104 g/mol composed of 92.3% carbon and
7.7% hydrogen.
A. C8H8
C. C2H3
B. C7H14
D. C7H8
20. A form of matter that flows, has a fixed volume, and takes
the shape of a container.
A. gas
C. vapor
B. liquid
D. solid
9. Calculate the molarity of a 250-mL solution containing
80.0 mol of solute.
A. 0.567 M
C. 0.118 M
B. 0.320 M
D. 0.235 M
21. It is a property of matter which can be measured by
changing the identity and composition of a substance.
A. Chemical
C. physical
B. Extensive
D. extrinsic
10. Calculate the number of moles of solute required to make
50.00 mL of 1.500 M solution
A. 0.025 mol
C. 0.075 mol
B. 0.75 mol
D. 0.25 mol
22. Which of the following is not an extensive property?
A. Energy
C. Boiling point
B. Weight
D. Length
11. Calculate the molar concentration of a solution that
contains 15g of potassium hydroxide in 225ml of solution.
A. 1.2 M
C. 3.52 M
23. The atomic number of boron is
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10.8
D. 12.2
24. What is the most abundant element in the universe?
A. Nitrogen
C. oxygen
B. hydrogen
D. helium
25. What is the most abundant element in the Earth’s
atmosphere?
A. Nitrogen
C. oxygen
B. Hydrogen
D. helium
26. It is the physical blend of two or more substances.
A. compound
C. atom
B. molecule
D. mixture
27. English Physicist that confirmed the existence of
neutrons.
A. James Chadwick
B. James Maxwell
C. John Dalton
D. Ernest Rutherford
28. Negatively charged subatomic particles.
A. proton
C. electron
B. neutron
D. nucleus
29. The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is
called
A. atomic mass
B. mass number
C. atomic number
D. atomic mass unit
30. The no. of protons in the nucleus on an atom
A. Atomic number
B. Mass number
C. Atomic mass
D. Atomic mass unit
31. The group of elements that do not normally combine with
other elements to form compounds
A. Alkali Metals
B. Chalcogens
C. Inert gases or noble gases
D. Halogens
32. What do you call the electrons in the outermost orbitals?
A. valence electrons
B. super electrons
C. holes
D. active electrons
33. These are substances that can be separated into simpler
substances only by chemical means.
A. mixture
C. elements
B. compounds
D. atoms
34. What do you call chemically identical atoms of the same
element but with different numbers of neutrons and
different mass numbers?
A. Isotones
C. Isotopes
B. Isobars
D. Homogenous
35. Tritium has
A. 1 electron and 1 proton
B. 1 proton and 1 neutron
C. 1 proton and 2 neutron
D. 2 proton and 1 neutron
36. Which one of the following is standard temperature and
pressure (STP)?
A. 0K and one atmosphere pressure
B. 0OF and zero pressure
C. 32OF and zero pressure
D. 0OC and one atmosphere pressure
37. The reaction Na2O + H2O  2NaOH illustrates a
A. Synthesis Reaction
B. Metathesis Reaction
C. Single Replacement Reaction
D. Decomposition Reaction
38. The reaction Ba(OH)2 + 2CuCNS  Ba(CNS)2 + 2CuOH
is an example of
A. Synthesis Reaction
B. Metathesis Reaction
C. Single Replacement Reaction
D. Decomposition Reaction
39. The decomposition of a given compound can be carried
out
A. by heating the compound
B. by passing the electric current while heating
C. by passing the electric current
D. either by passing electric current or heating
40. Rust is the material that is formed when
A. copper is exposed to air and moisture
B. iron is exposed to oil
C. titanium is exposed to oil
D. iron is exposed to air and moisture
41. Seawater is an example of a
A. homogeneous solution
B. isotonic solution
C. heterogeneous solution
D. pasteurized solution
42. A Bunsen burner is
A. a type of chili
B. a kind of sweet roll
C. a heat source in the laboratory
D. is invented by Sir Alexander Bunsen
43. Battery acid is the common name for
A. formic acid
C. nitric acid
B. hydrochloric acid
D. sulfuric acid
44. According to the Bronsted Theory, an acid is
A. a proton donor
B. a proton acceptor
C. an electron donor
D. an electron acceptor
45. The pH of an acid solution is
A. 3
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
EXERCISE NO. 2
Engineering Physics
1. Determine the frequency of sound heard by a stationary
listener when a moving siren emits 550Hz and travels
away at 50m/s from the listener assuming the air
temperature is 20 degree Celsius.
A. 480Hz
C. 450Hz
B. 630Hz
D. 430Hz
2. Suppose 10 sources emit sound waves in a closed room
with an intensity of 70dB each. If we remove 2 sources
and maintain the remaining 8 emitting the same intensity,
what will be the total intensity of the sound waves heard
in the closed room?
A. 87.5dB
C. 72.08 dB
B. 79.03dB
D. none of these
3. A spaceship is traveling in a straight line from earth to the
moon. If the distance of the Earth and Moon is 3.845 x
10e8m, at what distance from the earth will the spaceship
experience zero force due to the pull of the earth and the
moon? Use M(earth) = 5.97 x 10e24kg and M(moon) =
7.35 x 10e22kg.
A. 3.46 x 10e8m
C. 3.08 x 10e8m
B. 2.56 x 10e8m
D. 3.59 x 10e8m
4. Suppose a certain matter and its antimatter each have
985.19MeV/c2, traveling at 0.95c collides in pair
annihilation and produces two photons. Determine the
frequency of each photon.
A. 215 x 10e21 Hz
B. 238.22 x 10e21 Hz
C. 203 x 10e22 Hz
D. none of the above
5. A homogeneous solid sphere is rolling down an incline
plane. Determine the velocity of the sphere as soon as it
reaches the bottom of the incline plane.
A. 10.85m/s
C. 11.84m/s
B. 11.44m/s
D. 14.01m/s
6. Two lenses, one is converging and the other is diverging,
having radii of 25cm and 45cm, respectively are to be
used to magnify an object. If the index of refraction of the
lenses is 1.85 each, what would be the focal length of the
combination?
A. 18.91 cm
C. 66.18 cm
B. 8.69 cm
D. 30.41 cm
7. Radiant energy from the sun reaches earth at a rate of
1.7 x 10e17W. An average of about 30% is reflected and
the rest is absorbed. Energy is also radiated by the
atmosphere. Assuming that the atmosphere emits as a
blackbody in the infrared, calculate the temperature of
the atmosphere.
A. 273 K
C. 283 K
B. 303 K
D. 253 K
8. A 100cm long string weighs 7N. If it is stretched by a
force of 800N, what is the speed of the wave when the
hammer strikes the string?
A. 10.59 m/s
C. 9.47 m/s
B. 33.48 m/s
D. 12.86 m/s
9. A cable weighs 20lb and 80ft long is stretched between
two poles under tension of 600lb. If the cable is struck at
one end, how long will it take for the wave to traverse the
cable back and forth?
A. 0.63 s
C. 0.29 s
B. 0.58 s
D. 0.31 s
10. A ray of light strikes a plane glass at an angle of 45°. If
the index of refraction of the glass is 1.52, through what
angle is the light deviated at the air – glass interface?
A. 27.7 deg
C. 10.42 deg
B. 17.3 deg
D. none of these
11. A sound wave with an intensity of 80dB I incident on an
eardrum of area 0.6 x 10e-4 m2. How much energy is
absorbed by the eardrum for 3 minutes?
A. 1.8 micro-J
C. 3.16 micro-J
B. 2.96 micro-J
D. 1.08 micro-J
12. A 7.30kg steel ball at 15.2 deg C is dropped from a
height of 10m into an insulated container with 4.50L of
water at 10.1deg C. If no water spills, what is the final
temperature of water and the ball?
A. no change
C. 10.8 deg C
B. 10.23 deg C
D. 15.23 deg C
13. Determine the angle through which the laser beam will be
totally internally reflected inside a substance if initially the
angle of reflection and angle of refraction of the beam
through the medium are 34 and 42 degrees respectively.
A. 45.56 deg
C. 34.45 deg
B. 56.67 deg
D. 12.23 deg
14. An astronaut in space is traveling at a speed of 1.8 x
10e8 in a spaceship. If the mission control in Houston
measured that the trip lasts about 10 hours. How long the
astronaut will measure his trip?
A. 12 hrs
C. 9 hrs
B. 10 hrs
D. 8 hrs
15. Suppose a certain solid has a density of 24500kg/m3 and
a Bulk’s Modulus of Elasticity of 83GPa, what is the
velocity of sound through the solid?
A. 1840 m/s
C. 2140 m/s
B. 1640 m/s
D. 1540 m/s
16. In order to determine the depth of a certain well, Rurichan dropped a coin into it. If it takes 5.4s for the coin to
drop to the bottom of the well and for the sound to reach
Ruri-chan’s ears, how deep is the well if the air
temperature in the well is 23deg C.
A. 108.54 m
C. 124.54 m
B. 118.54 m
D. 134.54 m
17. A person drops a cylindrical steel bar (Y = 2.0 x 10e11Pa)
from a height of 1m. The bar of length 50 cm, radius of
0.75 cm and mass of 700 g, hits the floor and bounces
up., maintaining its vertical orientation. Assuming the
collision is elastic and no rotation occurs, what is the
maximum compression of the bar?
A. 0.11 mm
C. 0.33 mm
B. 0.22 mm
D. 0.44 mm
18. Gray is climbing a sailboat mast and is 5m above the
surface of the ocean, while his comrade Juvia is scuba
diving below the boat. Gray shouts to someone on
another boat and Juvia hears him shout 0.0210s later. If
the air temperature is 20deg C and sound travels the
ocean at 1533m/s at 25deg C, how deep is Juvia below
the boat?
A. 9.25 m
C. 9.65 m
B. 9.55 m
D. 9.85 m
19. Light of wavelength 692nm in air passes into a window
glass with an index of refraction of 1.52. What is the
wavelength of the light inside the glass?
A. 692 nm
C. 455 nm
B. 500 nm
D. 705 nm
20. You are standing 1.2m from a 1.5kW heat lamp. Assume
that the energy of the heat if the lamp is radiated
uniformly in a spherical pattern, what is the intensity of
the light in your face?
A. 82.9 W/m2
B. 1042 W/m2
C. 331.57 W/m2
D. none of the above
21. In problem 22, if you stand in front of the heat lamp for
2mins, how much energy is incident in your face if it has
an area of 2.8 x 10e-2 m2?
A. 278.54 J
C. 164.91 J
B. 318.76 J
D. 265.49 J
22. A planet has a radius of 7.77 x 10e7m and a gravitational
field of 32N/kg. Determine the escape velocity from the
planet?
A. 60.5 km/s
C. 70.5 km/s
B. 65.5 km/s
D. 75.5 km/s
23. Ever wonder why neutrons are attached to a proton in the
nucleus of an atom? Neutrons have no charge but
electron does. Which of the following is the reason for
this?
A. hadron
C. gluon
B. muon
D. graviton
24. Like sound and water, is a disturbance that travels
through a medium where energy is transferred. Which of
the following is being described in this statement?
A. longitudinal wave
B. rarefaction wave
C. transverse wave
D. mechanical wave
25. This is produced when there is a strong continuous force
striking a length of string.
A. wave pulse
C. resonance
B. wave train
D. interference
26. A special kind of energy that transfers from one object to
another.
A. Internal
C. Heat
B. Chemical
D. Nuclear
27. Which fundamental force of the universe is weak but has
an unlimited range?
A. Gravitation
B. Electromagnetism
C. Weak nuclear
D. Strong nuclear
EXERCISE NO. 3
Engineering Mechanics – Statics
1. For the concurrent forces that acts through the origin,
86.6 N at 30° with the horizontal in Quadrant I, 70.7 N at
45° with the horizontal in Quadrant II, and 68.6 N acting
vertically downward. Find the magnitude of the horizontal
component of the resultant.
A. 25.0 N
C. 24.7 N
B. 35.1 N
D. 34.7 N
2. A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of
100 N on the top of the post. If the angle between the
wire and the post is 60°, what is the horizontal
component of the force supporting the pole?
A. 86.6 N
C. 76.6 N
B. 50.0 N
D. 98.5 N
3. Determine the position of the resultant force of the force
system acting on a 8’ bar AB, given the forces and its
positions: 20 lb acting downward at A, 10 lb acting
downward 2 ft right of A, 30 lb acting upward 3 ft left of B,
and 40 lb acting downward at B
A. 4.75 ft left of B
B. 3.25 ft left of A
C. 4.75 ft right of A
D. 3.25 ft right of B
4. A 400 N man climbs at the middle of a 150 N ladder
leaned against the wall. The top portion of the ladder is 4
m from the ground and its bottom is 2 m from the wall.
Assuming smooth wall and a stopper at the bottom of the
ladder to prevent slipping, find the reaction at the wall.
A. 137.5 N
C. 245.6 N
B. 145.7 N
D. 143.5 N
5. What is the weight of the block if it is pulled to the right at
constant velocity by a 10–N force acting 30° above the
horizontal? The coefficient of sliding friction between the
block and the surface is 0.5.
A. 18.2 N
C. 22.3 N
B. 19.8 N
D. 24.1 N
6. A 200 – lb block is in contact with the plane inclined at
30° to the horizontal. A force P, parallel to and acting up
the plane, is applied to the body. If the coefficient of static
friction is 0.20, find the value of P to just cause motion to
impend up the plane.
A. 200 lb
C. 65.36 lb
B. 134.64 lb
D. 20 lb
7. A 10 feet beam simply supported at the ends, carries a
concentrated load of 300 lb and a uniformly distributed
load weighing 100 lb per linear foot, as shown. Determine
the reaction at the left end of beam.
A. 420 lb
C. 300 lb
B. 480 lb
D. 600 lb
8. Determine the reaction R2 of
concentrated load and a load
intensity of 400 lb per feet.
A. 1900 lb
C.
B. 1580 lb
D.
the beam loaded with a
varying from zero to an
2100 lb
520 lb
9. A 200 – lb force passes through point A (6,0,4) to B
(2,3,0). Compute the moment of force about x – axis.
A. 374.8 lb – ft
C. 250 lb – ft
B. 562.2 lb – ft
D. 653 lb – ft
10. A cable having a span of 400 ft. and a sag of 50 ft.
carries a uniformly distributed load of 1000 lb. per
horizontal foot. Solve for the length of the cable.
A. 560 ft
C. 300 ft
B. 416 ft
D. 448 ft
11. The cable supports a horizontal load of 12.4 kN/m with a
horizontal distance of 30 meters between two supports. If
supports A and B are 12 meters and 6 meters
respectively above the lowest point C, determine the
tension in the cable at A.
A. 159.56 kN
C. 187.90 kN
B. 221.82 kN
D. 270.09 kN
12. A rope wrapped twice around the post will support a
weight of 4000 lb when the coefficient of friction is 0.349.
Determine the force exerted at the other end.
A. 40 lb B. 60 lb
C. 50 lb
D. 70 lb
13. A T – section of a cast – iron beam has a base of 6
inches with a width of 1 inch and height of 9 inches. How
far is the centroid of the area above the base?
A. 4.5 inches
C. 3.1 inches
B. 5.0 inches
D. 2.8 inches
14. Locate the centroid of the composite area
A. 60.6, 308.44
B. 0, 500
C. – 56.7, 408.69
D. 156.89, 356.78
B. The centroid of the area of the loading curve
C. The 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the
loading curve
D. The 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the
loading curve
15. Determine the moment of inertia for a rectangle of base 6
m and depth 5 m with respect to a centroidal axis parallel
to the base
A. 250
B. 360
C. 62.5
D. 90
16. Determine the mass moment of inertia (in ft – lb – sec2)
of a right circular cylinder 12 inches long and 6 inches in
diameter weighing 48.1 lbs.
A. 0.0196
C. 0.0497
B. 0.0467
D. 0.0107
17. The coefficient of friction is equal to
A. The angle between the normal reaction and the
resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B. The tangent of the angle between the normal
reaction and the resultant of the normal friction and
the limiting friction
C. The tangent of the angle of the net resultant force
with the direction of motion
D. The tangent of the angle between the normal
reaction and the direction of limiting friction
18. Ice is slippery when a man walks on it because
A. It has a smooth surface
B. It has no friction
C. It is very chilly
D. Increase of pressure causes it to melt
19. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body
together?
A. Natural force
B. Concentrated force
C. Internal force
D. External force
20. What is the concurrent force system?
A. All forces act at the same point
B. All forces have the same line of action
C. All forces are parallel with one another
D. All forces are in the same plane
23. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal
to
A. Twice the area under the loading curve
B. Half the area under the loading curve
C. The area under the loading curve
D. 1/4 of the area under the loading curve
24. What is the “simple beam”?
A. A beam supported only at its end
B. A beam supported with a fixed support at one end
and not on the other end
C. A beam with more than two supports
D. A beam with only one support at the midspan
25. The condition of equilibrium of motion of a rigid body
remains unchanged if force acting at a given point of the
rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and
direction, but acting at a different point provided that the
two forces have the same line of action. This statement is
known as
A. Pappus proposition
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Varignon’s theorem
D. Newton’s method
26. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point
at which the entire _______ acts regardless of the
orientation of the body.
A. Mass
C. Mass or Weight
B. Weight
D. Volume
27. It is the force that always acts in opposite direction to the
applied force
A. Frictional force
B. Concurrent force
C. Coplanar force
D. Belt friction force
28. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal
force and the resultant force ______ the angle of friction.
A. is greater than
C. maybe A or B
B. is less than
D. equal to
21. A build–in, fixed support has how many reactions and
moment?
A. 1 reaction and 1 moment
B. 2 reactions and 1 moment
C. 1 reaction and 2 moments
D. 2 reactions and no moment
29. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the
sum of the moment of an inertia about an axis passing
through the centroid parallel to the given axis and ______.
A. Area and square of the distance between the parallel
axes
B. Area and distance between two parallel axes
C. Square of the area and distance between two parallel
axes
D. Square of the area and square of the distance
between two parallel axes
22. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting
at
A. The center of the beam subjected to the distributed
load
30. It is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest
when it is at rest or in motion.
A. Inertia
C. Gravity
B. Moment
D. Torque
EXERCISE NO. 4
Engineering Mechanics – Dynamics
1. Suppose that the first half of the distance between two
points is covered at a speed of 10 kph and that during the
second half, the speed increases to 40 kph. What is the
average speed for the entire trip?
A. 16 kph
C. 20 kph
B. 18 kph
D. 24 kph
2. What is the acceleration of the body moving with
constant acceleration covers the distance between two
points 60 m apart in 6 seconds? Its velocity as it passes
the second point is 15 m/sec.
A. 0.97 m/s2
C. 1.43 m/s2
2
B. 1.12 m/s
D. 1.67 m/s2
3. A truck is travelling at a constant velocity of 20 m/s
passes the gasoline station. After 0.3 second, an
automobile, initially at rest, leaves the gasoline station
and having a constant acceleration of 5 m/s2. How far
does the automobile travelled from gasoline station to
overtake the truck?
A. 162 m.
C. 182 m.
B. 172 m.
D. 192 m.
4. A ball is released from rest at a certain height. Its velocity
after falling 256 ft. is
A. 128.4 ft/s
C. 108.5 ft/s
B. 168.5 ft/s
D. 142.6 ft/s
5. A stone is dropped from a balloon at an elevation for 300
m. Two seconds later, another stone is projected
vertically upward from the ground with a velocity of 75
m/s. How far from the ground will the stones pass each
other?
A. 120.8 m
C. 181.5 m
B. 179.2 m
D. 183.7 m
6. A man standing at a window 5 m tall watches a falling
ball pass by the window in 0.3 second. How long does it
take for the ball to release before it passed the window?
A. 1.55 seconds
C. 3.55 seconds
B. 2.55 seconds
D. 4.55 seconds
7. What is the maximum height to which the ball rises if a
spring gun projects a golf ball at an angle of 45 degrees
above the horizontal? The horizontal range is 10 m.
A. 4.125 m
C. 2.967 m
B. 3.215 m
D. 2.495 m
8. What was the initial velocity of the ball if a battered
baseball leaves the bat at an angle of 30 degrees above
the horizontal and is caught by an outfielder 400 ft from
the plate?
A. 119.12 ft/sec
C. 125.25 ft/sec
B. 121.75 ft/sec
D. 127.68 ft/sec
9. A projectile is fired at 45 degrees from the horizontal
ground with an initial velocity of 270 ft/s. If the projectile
hits the top of the building 500 ft above the ground,
determine the horizontal range of the projectile neglecting
air friction.
A. 2,248 ft
C. 1,519 ft
B. 2,649 ft
D. 1,989 ft
10. A stone is thrown from the top of 200 m building with an
initial velocity of 150 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees with
the horizontal. Neglecting the air resistance, how long
does it take for the stone to reach the ground?
A. 12.47 sec
C. 17.62 sec
B. 14.35 sec
D. 19.23 sec
11. What force (P) acts on a 10 pound body initially at rest, a
speed of 12 ft/s is attained in 36 ft. What is the force (P) if
the coefficient of friction is 0.25 and the acceleration is
constant?
A. 2.84 lb
C. 2.73 lb
B. 3.12 lb
D. 4.04 lb
12. A 4 kg block is accelerated upward by a cord whose
breaking strength is 60 N. What is the maximum
acceleration which can be given the block without
breaking the cord?
A. 10.6 m/s2
C. 6.4 m/s2
B. 8.2 m/s2
D. 5.2 m/s2
13. How much work is done in a distance of 1 km if the
locomotive of freight train exerts a constant force of
60,000 N on the train while drawing it at 50 kph on a level
track?
A. 6 x 105 J
C. 6 x 107 J
5
B. 3 x 10 J
D. 3 x 107 J
14. What is the power done when a balloon carries a 5.2 kg
load to 12,000 m. height in 30 minutes?
A. 160 W
C. 340 W
B. 250 W
D. 430 W
15. What angular acceleration
electric motor’s speed from
seconds?
A. 18.85 rad/s2
B. 19.95 rad/s2
is required to increase an
1200 rpm to 3000 rpm in 10
C. 17.86 rad/s2
D. 20.25 rad/s2
16. What is the linear speed of a point on the edge of a 14 m
diameter disc turning at 40 rpm?
A. 30.3 m/s
C. 29.3 m/s
B. 31.7 m/s
D. 28.7 m/s
17. A train whose speed is 75 mi/hr rounds a curve whose
radius of curvature is 550 ft. Its acceleration is
A. 16 ft/s2
C. 20 ft/s2
2
B. 22 ft/s
D. 33 ft/s2
18. A 100 – gram stone is whirled in a horizontal circle at the
end of the cord 75 cm long. If the tension in the cord is
2.5 N, the linear speed of the stone is
A. 4.3 m/s
C. 3 m/s
B. 5 m/s
D. 8.7 m/s
19. Calculate the super elevation necessary on the curve
with a 6000 ft radius so that 60 mph cars will not have to
rely on friction to stay on the roadway.
A. 45.85 deg
C. 63.89 deg
B. 71.74 deg
D. 2.29 deg
20. Sand drops at the rate of 560 lb/min onto conveyor belt
moving with a velocity of 3.2 ft/s. What force is required
to keep the belt moving?
A. 0.928 lb
C. 2.456 lb
B. 2.655 lb
D. 3.299 lb
21. The work required to raise a 100 – g block to a height of
300 cm and simultaneously give it a velocity of 400
cm/sec is
A. 2.45 J
C. 3.74 J
B. 4.15 J
D. 3.08 J
22. A 60 gram bullet with a speed of 700 m/s embeds itself in
a 4.5 kg wood block. What will be the block’s final
velocity?
A. 8.73 m/s
C. 9.21 m/s
B. 10.3 m/s
D. 7.73 m/s
23. Two identical balls hit head on in a perfectly elastic
collision. Given that the initial velocity of one ball is 0.85
m/s and the initial velocity of the other is 0.53 m/s. What
is the relative velocity of each ball after the collision?
A. 0.85 m/s and – 0.53 m/s
B. 1.2 m/s and – 0.72 m/s
C. 1.2 m/s and – 5.1 m/s
D. 1.8 m/s and – 0.98 m/s
30. Two freight cars weighing 5 tons each roll toward each
other and couple. The left car has a velocity of 5 ft/s and
the right car has a velocity of 4 ft/s prior to the impact.
What is the velocity (in ft/s) of the two cars coupled
together after the impact?
A. 1.6
B. 2.3
C. 0.5
D. 3.4
31. Principle expresses the relation between the external
force applied to a system of particles and the effective
force of each particle of the system called
A. Principle of transmissibility
B. Principle of moments
C. D’Alembert’s principle
D. Varignon’s theorem
32. An object is suspended from a string and accelerates
upward. It follows that the tension in the string is
A. Equal to the weight of the object
B. Greater than the weight of the object
C. Less than the weight of the object
D. Zero
33. An object is subjected to a nonzero constant net force.
Which of the following properties of the object will be
constant?
A. Position
C. Velocity
B. Speed
D. Acceleration
24. A 5 gram bullet is fired horizontally with a speed of 320
m/s into a 1 kg wooden block at rest on a table. If the
coefficient of friction between block and table is 0.25,
how far will the block slide?
A. 0.515 m
C. 0.620 m
B. 0.418 m
D. 0.357 m
34. When a freely falling object’s acceleration becomes zero,
it has reached as
A. Terminal velocity
B. Maximum attainable velocity
C. Gravitational velocity
D. Air resistance velocity
25. A solid sphere rolls without slipping down a 30 degree
incline, starting from rest. What is its speed after two
seconds?
A. 23 ft/sec
C. 32 ft/sec
B. 43 ft/sec
D. 12 ft/sec
35. Energy associated with the position of system
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Elastic energy
D. Internal energy
26. A cycle and a rider together weigh 200 lb. When moving
at 10 mph on a level load, the rider ceases to pedal and
observes that he comes to a stop after travelling 200 yard.
The average frictional force resisting his motion is
A. 2 lbs
C. 0.81 lb
B. 1.8 lbs
D. 1.12 lbs
36. A satellite is in circular orbit around the Earth. What is the
source of the centripetal force?
A. Momentum
B. Gravity
C. Kinetic energy
D. No centripetal force
27. A jet plane acquires a speed of 180 mph in 60 seconds.
What is its acceleration?
A. 4.4 ft/s2
C. 5.3 ft/s2
2
B. 3.5 ft/s
D. 3.2 ft/s2
37. It is concerned with motion and the forces causing motion,
including the application of Newton’s laws.
A. Dynamics
C. Kinetics
B. Statics
D. Kinematics
28. What is the acceleration experienced by a 7.8 kg mass
acted upon by a 12 N force?
A. 2.53 m/s2
C. 1.54 m/s2
B. 2.24 m/s2
D. 0.64 m/s2
38. There is an equal and opposite reacting force for every
acting force.
A. Newton’s First law of Motion
B. Newton’s law of Motion
C. Newton’s Third law of Motion
D. Newton’s Zeroth law of Motion
29. What is the impulse imparted to a 0.4 pound baseball
that approaches the batter at 90 ft/s and leaves at 130
ft/s?
A. 3.74 lb/sec
C. 2.64 lb/sec
B. 0.74 lb/sec
D. 3.34 lb/sec
39. Occurs when the force of impact of colliding bodies is
along the line of connecting centroids.
A. Direct impact
B. Centroidal impact
C. Central impact
D. General impact
40. It can be used to describe the movement of satellites
A. Law of Universal Motion
B. Law of Planetary Motion
C. Law of Inertia
D. Law of Acceleration
EXERCISE NO. 5
Strength of Materials
1. A hollow steel tube with an inside diameter of 100 mm
must carry tensile load of 400 kN. Determine the outside
diameter of the tube if the stress is limited to 120 MPa.
A. 104.6 mm
C. 132.7 mm
B. 119.4 mm
D. 143.6 mm
2. A 12 – inches square steel bearing plate lies between an
8 – inches diameter wooden post and a concrete footing.
Determine the maximum value of the load if the stress in
wood is limited to 1800 psi and that in concrete to 650
psi.
A. 90,478 lbs
C. 92,622 lbs
B. 93,600 lbs
D. 95,218 lbs
3. Find the smallest diameter bolt that can be used to lap
three joint three steel bars together if the tensile force is
400 kN. The shearing strength of the bolt is 300 MPa.
A. 17.46 mm
C. 32.77 mm
B. 29.13 mm
D. 49.16 mm
4. What force is required to punch a 20 mm – diameter hole
in a plate that is 25 mm thick? The shear strength is 350
MPa.
A. 256 kN
C. 550 kN
B. 358 kN
D. 781 kN
5. The two steel bars lap joint whose thickness is 7/8” is
fastened by four ¾ - in. – diameter rivets. Calculate the
maximum safe load that can be applied if the shearing
stress in the rivets is limited to 14 ksi and the bearing
stress in the plates is limited to 18 ksi. Assume the
applied load is uniformly distributed among the four rivets.
A. 53.76 kips
C. 37.58 kips
B. 47.25 kips
D. 24.74 kips
6. A cylindrical pressure vessel is fabricated from steel
plating that has thickness of 20 mm. The diameter of the
pressure vessel is 450 mm and its length is 2 m.
Determine the maximum internal pressure that can be
applied if the longitudinal stress is limited to 140 MPa and
the circumferential stress is limited to 60 MPa.
A. 5.33 MPa
C. 15.25 MPa
B. 8.72 MPa
D. 24.89 MPa
7. The wall thickness of a 4 – ft diameter spherical tank is
5/16 in. Calculate the allowable internal pressure if the
stress is limited to 8000 psi.
A. 45 psi
C. 137 psi
B. 78 psi
D. 208 psi
8. A water tank,22 ft in diameter, is made from steel plates
that are ½ in. thick. Find the maximum height to which
tank may be filled if the circumferential stress is limited to
6000 psi. The specific weight of the water is 62.4 lb/ft3.
A. 13.73 ft
C. 36.84 ft
B. 24.54 ft
D. 52.45 ft
9. A steel rod having a cross sectional area of 300 sq. mm.
and a length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one
end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end.
If the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/cu. m. and E = 200
GPa, find the total elongation due to applied load and to
rod’s weight.
A. 50 mm
C. 58 mm
B. 54 mm
D. 62 mm
10. A steel wire 30 ft long, hanging vertically supports a load
of 500 lb. Neglecting the weight of the wire, determine
the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 20 ksi
and the total elongation is not to exceed 0.20 in. Assume
E = 29 x 106 psi.
A. 0.1988 in.
C. 0.5333 in.
B. 0.3352 in.
D. 0.7544 in.
11. The stress of a 500 sq. mm aluminum rod (E = 70 GPa),
when applied by a compression, is 42 MPa when the unit
deformation is
A. 0.0002
C. 0.0004
B. 0.0003
D. 0.0006
12. A solid cylinder of diameter 12.015 cm carries an axial
load 1500 kN. Determine the change in diameter due to
the load. Use E = 70 x 106 kPa and v = 0.33
A. 0.00125 cm
C. 0.0075 cm
B. 0.0025 cm
D. 0.0125 cm
13. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is
surrounded by a shell of a cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute
the load that will compress the combined bar a total of
0.8 mm in the length of 2 m. For steel, E = 200 GPa, and
for cast iron, E = 100 GPa.
A. 85.71 kN
C. 158.48 kN
B. 139.89 kN
D. 191.64 kN
14. Steel railroad reels 10 m long are laid with a clearance of
3 mm a temperature of 15°C. At what temperature will
the rails just touch? Assume α = 11.7 μm/m °C and E =
200 GPa.
A. 30.78°C
C. 50.34°C
B. 40.64°C
D. 60.67°C
15. A steel rod with a cross – sectional area of 0.25 sq. in. is
stretched between two fixed points. The tensile load at
70°F is 1200 lb. What will be the stress at 0°F? Assume
α = 6.5 x 10 – 6 in/in °F and E = 29 x 106 psi.
A. 12,995 psi
C. 15,995 psi
B. 14,995 psi
D. 17,995 psi
16. A steel shaft 3 ft. long that has diameter of 4 in. is
subjected to a torque of 15,000 lb – ft. Determine the
maximum shearing stress. Use G = 12 x 106 psi.
A. 12,300 psi
C. 14,300 psi
B. 13,300 psi
D. 15,300 psi
17. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that
will not twist through more than 3° in a 6 – m length when
subjected to a torque of 12 kN – m? Use G = 83 GPa.
A. 113.98 mm
C. 135.67 mm
B. 128.43 mm
D. 141.28 mm
24. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously
stand is called
A. Bearing strength
B. Yield strength
C. Ultimate strength
D. Fatigue strength
18. A steel marine propeller shaft 14” diameter and 18 ft long
is used to transmit 5000 hp at 189 rpm. If G = 12 x 106
psi, determine the maximum shearing stress.
A. 1,138 psi
C. 5,190 psi
B. 3,095 psi
D. 7,178 psi
25. The ratio of the tensile stress to tensile strain
A. Shear modulus
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Hooke’s law
19. Determine the number of 20 – mm diameter steel bolts
that must be used on the 400 – mm bolt circle of the
flanged coupling to develop a torque of 25 kN – m. The
allowable shearing stress in the bolts is 40 MPa.
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
26. _____ of the material is the change in geometry when
stress is applied (in the form of force loading,
gravitational field, acceleration, thermal expansion, etc.)
A. Deformation
C. Deflection
B. Strain
D. Elasticity
20. Two steel springs are arranged in series supports a load
P. The upper spring has 12 turns of 25 – mm diameter
wire on a mean radius of 100 mm. The lower spring
consists of 10 turns of 20 – mm diameter wire on a mean
radius of 75 mm. If the maximum shearing stress in either
spring must not exceed 200 MPa, compute the total
elongation of the assembly. Use G = 83 GPa.
A. 134 mm
C. 174 mm
B. 154 mm
D. 194 mm
27. Also called reduced deformation
A. Strain
C. Deflection
B. Strength
D. Deformation
21. A simply supported beam shown in the figure has a
distributed load of 60 lb/ft over a span of 18 ft. Determine
the maximum moment.
A. 2,100 lb – ft
B. 2,200 lb – ft
C. 2,300 lb – ft
D. 2,400 lb – ft
22. Refer to the given diagram, where does the maximum
moment of the beam occur due to the load?
A. 6.74 m
B. 5.77 m
C. 9.86 m
D. 8.75 m
23. A simply supported beam, 2 in. wide by 4 in. high and 12
ft long is subjected to a concentrated load of 2000 lb at a
point 3 ft from one of the supports. Determine the
maximum fiber stress.
A. 5,063 psi
C. 10,125 psi
B. 7,595 psi
D. 12,656 psi
28. It is the value of stress on the stress – strain curve at
which the material has deformed plastically; that is it will
no longer return to its original size and shape after
removing the load.
A. Proportional limit
C. Yield point
B. Elastic limit
D. Tensile point
29. A kind of stress that is caused by the force acting along
or parallel to the area resisting the force.
A. Tensile stress
B. Bearing stress
C. Shearing stress
D. Compressive stress
30. The stress beyond which the material will not return to its
original shape when unloaded but will retain a permanent
deformation.
A. Proportional limit
B. Elastic limit
C. Yield point
D. Yield strength
31. A scientific area of applied mechanics for the study of the
strength of engineering materials and their mechanical
behavior in general.
A. Engineering mechanics
B. Strength of materials
C. Engineering materials
D. Hydraulics
32. The value of stress on the stress – strain curve at which
there is a significant increase in strain with little or no
increase in stress.
A. Proportional limit
C. Yield point
B. Elastic limit
D. Tensile point
33. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stress –
strain curve.
A. Proportional limit
C. Yield point
B. Elastic limit
D. Tensile point
34. The amount of lateral strain in a tension member can be
calculated using
A. Hooke’s Law
B. Bulk Modulus
C. Poisson’s Ratio
D. Maximum Stress
2. What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms known
as?
A. The ionic bond
B. The metallic bond
C. Ionic & metallic bond
D. The covalent bond
35. Brass cannot be used to reinforce concrete because
A. Its capacity is too large
B. It is too expensive
C. Its density is too low
D. Its coefficient of linear expansion is not right
3. What are Van der Waals forces?
A. Weak secondary bonds between atoms
B. Primary bonds between atoms
C. Forces between electrons and protons
D. Forces not present in liquids
36. When a part is constrained to moved when heated, it
develops
A. Principal stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Compressive stress
D. Shear stress
4. Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions
Fe2+ and Fe3+. Which has the smallest atomic radius?
(Assume all are at the same temperature.)
A. Fe
C. Fe3+
B. Fe2+
D. They have the same radii
37. It is the strain energy stored in a specimen when strained
within the elastic limit.
A. Stiffness
B. Resilience
C. Ductility
D. Surface tension
38. Work done on a unit volume of material as the force is
gradually increased from the origin to the proportional
limit of the stress – strain diagram.
A. Young’s modulus
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of resilience
D. Modulus of toughness
39. Work done on a unit volume of material as the force is
gradually increased from the origin to the rupture strength
of the stress – strain diagram.
A. Young’s modulus
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of resilience
D. Modulus of toughness
40. When the reactive forces or the internal resisting forces
over a cross section exceed the number of independent
equations of equilibrium, the structure is
A. Statically determinate
B. Statically indeterminate
C. Axial deformation
D. Shearing deformation
EXERCISE NO. 6
Engineering Materials
1. Which of the following affects most of the electrical and
thermal properties of materials?
A. The atomic weight expressed in grams per gramatom
B. The electrons, particularly the outermost ones
C. The magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
D. The weight of the atoms
5. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are
processed or used at high temperatures
B. Metals are chemical elements that form substances
that are opaque, lustrous, and good conductors of
heat and electricity
C. Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be
within the class of materials known as glasses.
D. Most metals are strong, ductile, and malleable. In
general, they are heavier than most other substances.
6. Which of the following materials is not a viscoelastic
material?
A. Plastic
C. Rubber
B. Metal
D. Glass
7. In molecules of the same composition, what are
variations of atomic arrangements known as?
A. Polymers
C. Crystal systems
B. Monomers
D. Isomers
8. What is the atomic packing factor for a simple cubic
crystal?
A. 0.48 B. 0.52
C. 1.00
D. 1.05
9. How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered
cubic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
10. How many atoms are there per unit cell for a facecentered cubic structure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
11. What is the first coordination number of a body-centered
cubic structure?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
12. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Both copper and aluminum have a face-entered
cubic crystal structure
B. Both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal closepacked crystal structure
C. Iron can have either a face-centered or a bodycentered cubic crystal structure
D. Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal closepacked crystal structure
13. Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of
close-packed planes and close-packed directions?
A. Simple cubic
B. Body-centered cubic
C. Face-centered cubic
D. Close-packed hexagonal
14. Calculate the theoretical density of copper given that the
unit cell is face-centered cubic and the lattice parameter
is 3.61 Å. The atomic weight of copper is 63.5 g/mole.
A. 4.49 g/cm3
C. 8.78 g/cm3
3
B. 7.86 g/cm
D. 8.97 g/cm3
21. The ease with which dislocations are able to move
through a crystal under stress accounts for which of the
following?
I.
Ductility
III. Hardness
II.
Lower yield strength
A. I only
C. III only
B. II only
D. I and II
22. As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation
becomes more difficult and decreases until the plastic
flow finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger
stress is applied. What is this phenomenon known as?
A. Cooling
C. Strain hardening
B. Crowding
D. Twinning
15. Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal
structure?
A. Tilt boundary
B. Screw dislocation
C. Vacancy
D. Schottky imperfection
23. “Plastic deformation of a single crystal occurs either by
_______ or by _____, but ______ is the more common
method.”
A. High pressure; high temperature; high pressure
B. High temperature; high pressure; high temperature
C. Slip; twinning; slip
D. Twinning; slip; twinning
16. Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal
structure?
A. It is not possible
B. It occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals
C. It often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism
D. It occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work
24. Which one of these statements is true for twinning?
A. It occurs at a lower shear stress than slip
B. It is the most significant form of plastic deformation
C. It cannot be caused by impact or thermal treatment
D. It frequently occurs in hexagonal close-packed
structures
17. Which of the following statement is false?
A. The surface energy of a liquid tends toward a
minimum
B. The surface energy is the work required to create a
unit area of additional space
C. The energy of an interior atom is greater than the
energy of an atom on the surface of the liquid
D. Total surface energy is directly proportional to the
surface area
25. Which of the following does not produce vacancies,
interstitial defects, or impurity defects in a material?
A. Plastic deformation
B. Slow equilibrium cooling
C. Quenching
D. Irradiation with high energy particles
18. Which of the following are true regarding creep?
I.
It is caused by the diffusion of vacancies to edge
dislocations, permitting dislocation climb
II.
It involves the plastic deformation of materials at
loads below the yield stress
III.
It may involve whole grain sliding
A. I only
C. I & III
B. II only
D. I, II & III
19. Under very slow deformation and at high temperature, it
is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a
shear stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is
this phenomenon called?
A. Slip
C. Creep
B. Twinning
D. Shear
20. To which of the following can the large discrepancy
between the actual and theoretical strengths of metals
mainly be attributed?
A. Heat
C. Low density
B. Dislocations
D. Stress direction
26. Which of the following are true statements about the
modulus of elasticity, E?
A. It is the same as the rupture modulus
B. It is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the
linearly elastic region
C. It is the ration of stress to volumetric strain
D. It is dimensionless
27. In general, what are the effects of cold-working a metal?
A. Increased strength and ductility
B. Increased strength, decreased ductility
C. Decreased strength and ductility
D. Decreased strength, increased ductility
28. Which of the following does cold-working cause?
A. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, an increase
in dislocation density, and an overall increase in
energy of the metal
B. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease
in dislocation density, and an overall decrease in
energy of the metal
C. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease
in dislocation density, and an overall increase in
energy of the metal
D. Shortening of grains in the flow direction, a decrease
in dislocation density, and an overall decrease in the
energy of the metal
29. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The amount or percentage of cold work cannot be
obtained from information about change in the area
or thickness of a metal
B. The process of applying force to a metal at
temperatures below the temperature of crystallization
in order to plastically deform the metal is called coldworking
C. Annealing eliminates most of the defects caused by
the cold-working of a metal
D. Annealing reduces the hardness of the metal
30. Which of the following statements is false?
A. There is a considerable increase in the hardness and
the strength of a cold-worked metal
B. Cold-working a metal significantly reduces its ductility
C. Cold-working causes a slight decrease in the density
and electrical conductivity of a metal
D. Cold work decreases the yield point of the metal
31. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Hot-working can be regarded as the simultaneous
combination of cold-working and annealing
B. Hot-working increases the density of the metal
C. One of the primary goals of hot-working is to produce
a fine-grained product
D. Hot-working causes much strain hardening of the
metal
32. Which of the following is false?
A. Grain size is of minor importance in considering the
properties of poly-crystalline materials
B. Fine-grained materials usually exhibit greater yield
stresses than coarse-grained materials at low
temperature
C. At high temperatures, grain boundaries become
weak and sliding occurs
D. Grain sliding can cause the formation of voids along
the boundary
33. Which of the following correctly describes atoms located
at grain boundaries?
A. They are subjected to the same type of interatomic
forces that are present in the interior atoms of the
crystal
B. They are located primarily in highly strained and
distorted positions
C. They are oriented so as to attain a minimum energy
state
D. All of the above
34. What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack
when subjected to prolonged direct sunlight?
A. The volatilization (evaporation) of plasticizers
B. Repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic
C. Oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and oxygen
D. All of the above
35. Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive
elongation (over 100%) prior to rupture, while polystyrene
undergoes only 1 to 2% elongation. What is the main
reason for this difference?
A. The polyethylene is less dense
B. The large styrene groups in the polystyrene prevent
slippage
C. More cross linking occurs in the polystyrene
D. None of the above
36. Which of the following describe the modulus of elasticity
of an elastomer?
I.
It is directly proportional to the number of cross links
in the elastomer
II.
Its value increases with temperature
III.
It is directly proportional to the number of double
bonds in the chemical structure
A. I only
C. III only
B. II only
D. I and II
37. Which of these statements describe the glass transition
temperature?
I.
It is the temperature at which the rate of volume
contraction increases abruptly
II.
It is the temperature at which residual stresses in the
glass can be relieved
III.
It is the point where the material behaves more like a
solid than a viscous liquid
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III
38. Of the following inorganic glasses, which
tetrahedral lattice structures?
SiO2, B2O3, BeF2, GeO2
A. SiO2 and B2O3 C. SiO2, B2O 3 & BeF2
B. SiO2 and BeF2 D. SiO2 BeF2 & GeO2
have
39. Which of the following is not an important criterion for
forming a complete binary solid solution?
A. The difference in radii should be less than 15%
B. The constituent elements must have the same crystal
structure
C. The atoms should be close to one another in the
periodic table
D. The difference in atomic numbers should be small
40. How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished from
a compound?
A. In an ordered solid solution, the solute atoms occupy
interstitial positions within the lattice
B. The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution
substitute for atoms in the parent lattice
C. The atoms in an ordered solid solution form layers in
the lattice structure
D. When heated, an ordered solid solution becomes
disordered before melting
41. What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction?
A. One solid is transformed into two solids of different
composition
B. A solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic temperature
C. A liquid becomes a solid at the solidus temperature
D. A solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus temperature
42. Two pieces of copper are brazed together using a
eutectic alloy of copper and silver. The braze material
melts at 780°C. If a second braze is attempted in order to
attach another piece of copper, which of the following is
true?
A. The first braze will melt if the braze temperature is
again 780°C
B. The braze temperature must be lowered below
780°C
C. The first braze will partially melt, causing the parts to
slide
D. The first braze will not melt at 780°C, but the second
braze will
43. On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus
temperature?
A. The point at which all solids completely reach the
liquid stage
B. The temperature of the solid phase at which the first
liquid forms for a given overall composition
C. The temperature at which the solid is at equilibrium
D. The temperature at which the components of the
alloy separate
49. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what
minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is required?
A. 1.1% B. 3.2% C. 8.3% D. 11%
50. Which of the following would most likely require a steel
containing 0.6% carbon that has been spheroidized, colddrawn, and slightly tempered?
A. A bridge beam
C. A cutting tool
B. A water pipe
D. A car fender
EXERCISE NO. 7
Thermodynamics
1. The temperature of a solution is 31 °C. What is the
temperature in °R?
A. 547.8 °R
C. 475.8°R
B. 475.9 °R
D. 524.9°R
44. Which of the following is not a structural class of steels?
A. Carbon
B. High-strength, low-alloy
C. Low-alloy
D. Tool and die
2. Two thermometers, one Celsius and the other Fahrenheit,
are both at the same temperature, but the reading on the
Fahrenheit thermometer is exactly twice that on the
Celsius thermometer, what is the temperature?
A. 160 °C
C. 170. °C
B. 150°C
D. 180°C
45. Which of the following phases of steel has a facecentered cubic structure?
A. Ferrite
C. Pearlite
B. Cementite
D. Austenite
3. A tank contains water. What is the intensity of pressure at
a depth of 6 m?
A. 59.63 kPa
C. 58.86 kPa
B. 57.58 kPa
D. 60.15 kPa
46. Low-carbon steels are generally used in the “as rolled” or
“as fabricated” state. What is the reason for this?
A. They come in many different shapes and thickness
B. Their strength generally cannot be increased by heat
treatment
C. They degrade severely under heat treatment
D. Their chromium content is so low
4. Convert a vacuum pressure of 110 mm of mercury into
absolute pressure. Atmospheric pressure is 10.5 m of
H2O.
A. 88.34 kPa
C. 95.32kPa
B. 57.26 kPa
D. 56.32
47. The equilibrium cooling of a steel containing 0.8% carbon
results in a product with little use because it is extremely
brittle. Which of the following is the primary reason for
this poor characteristic?
A. The material has not been cold-worked
B. The austenite grains are too small, and the carbide
grains are large too large
C. Thick layers of iron carbide surround the coarse
ferrite grains
D. The carbide forms thin plates that are brittle
48. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contain 4%
carbon. Ductile cast iron, however, has a higher tensile
strength and is considerably more ductile. Which of the
following is the major difference that accounts for the
superior properties of the ductile iron?
A. The gray cast iron contains iron carbide, whereas the
ductile iron contains graphite
B. The gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite,
whereas the ductile iron contains spheroids of
graphite
C. The ductile iron is tempered to give better properties
D. The ferrite grains in the gray cast iron are
excessively large
5. Calculate the quantity of heat to be transferred to 2.25 kg
of iron to raise its temperature from 20 ℃ to 240 ℃ taking
the specific heat of the iron as 0.46 kJ/kg-K.
A. 230.31
C. 235.3
B. 227.7
D. 365.3
6. What is the temperature in deg. C of 2 liters of water at
30 deg. C after 500 calories of heat have been added?
A. 30.25 °C
C. 35.26°C
B. 27.25 °C
D. 35.26
7. Determine the average CP value in kJ/kg-K of a gas if
522 kJ of heat is necessary to raise the temperature from
300 K to 800 K making the pressure constant.
A. 1.044 kJ/kg.K
C. 3.044 kJ/kg.K
B. 2.044 kJ/kg.K
D. 4.044 kJ/kg.K
8. A 2 lb of 200 deg. F iron (CP = 0.10 Btu/lb-F) are dropped
into a gallon of 40 deg. F water. What is the final
temperature of the mixture?
A. 45.85 °F
C. 57.35°F
B. 43.74 °F
D. 59.23°F
9. An ethyl alcohol weighing 0.25 kg vaporizes at its boiling
point of 78 deg. C with a latent heat of vaporization
100kJ/kg. Determine the change in entropy.
A. 65 J
C. 71 J
B. 55 J
D. 85 J
10. Find the change in internal energy of a system that
absorbs 500 kJ of heat and at the same time does 400 kJ
of work.
A. 100 kJ
C. 300kJ
B. 200 kJ
D. 400kJ
11. An electric heater warms a large block of ice at a rate of
200 Joules per second. Calculate how much the mass of
ice that is melt in 10 minutes is.
A. 0.36 kg
C. 0.56 kg
B. 0.46 kg
D. 0.76 kg
12. What mass of nitrogen is contained in a 57 m3 tank if the
pressure and temperature are 1 atm and 21 ℃
respectively?
A. 56.12 kg
C. 66.16 kg
B. 76.12 kg
D. 86.16
13. A 0.71 m3 tank contains 4.5 kg of an ideal gas. The gas
has a molecular weight of 44 and is at 21 ℃. What is the
pressure of the gas?
A. 253.22 kPa
C. 352.11 kPa
B. 532.33 kPa
D. 752.44 kPa
14. A volume of 450 cm3 of air is measured at a pressure of
740 mmHg absolute and a temperature of 20 ℃. What is
the volume in cm3 at 760 mmHg absolute and 0 ℃?
A. 508.25 cm3
C. 608.25 cm3
3
B. 408.25 cm
D. 708.25 cm3
15. A closed vessel contains air at a pressure of 160 kN/m2
gauge and temperature of 30 ℃ . The air is heated at a
constant volume to 60 ℃ with the atmospheric pressure
of 759 mmHg. What is the final gauge pressure?
A. 195.76 kPa
C. 180.32 kPa
B. 205.45 kPa
D. 185.86 kPa
16. At STP, the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/m3. What is the
weight of this gas if contained in a flask of 100 cubic
centimetres at 24 deg. C and 100 kPa?
A. 0.29 gram
0.48 gram
B. 0.39 gram
0.58 gram
17. Determine the amount of air in a room whose dimensions
are 4m x 5m x 6m at 100 kPa and 25 deg.
A. 140.31 kg
C. 154.23 kg
B. 145.31 kg
D. 165.32 kg
18. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as
the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a
volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of
200 kPa. Calculate the work done by the system.
A. 9 kJ
B. 12 kJ
C. 10 kJ D. 11 kJ
19. A rigid tank contains air at 500 kPa and 150 degree C. As
a result of heat transfer to the surroundings, the
temperature and pressure inside the tank drop to 65
degree C and 400 kPa respectively. Determine the
boundary work done during the process.
A. 0
B. 1 kJ
C. 2 kJ
D. 3 kJ
20. How much heat is removed from a cubic meter of helium
at STP when cooled at constant pressure to a final
volume of 0.75 m3? (Note: MWhelium = 4 kg/kmol and Cv =
3.10 kJ/kg.K)
A. -63.11 kJ
C. -53.11 kJ
B. 63.11 kJ
D. 53.11 kJ
21. A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.4 m3 of air at
100 kPa and 80 deg C. The air is now compressed to 0.1
m3 in such a way that the temperature inside the cylinder
remains constant. Determine the work done during the
process.
A. 55.45 kJ
C. -45.45 kJ
B. -55.45 kJ
D. 45.45 kJ
22. Air flows steadily through an engine at constant
temperature of 400 K. Find the work per kg if the exit
pressure is one – third of the inlet pressure and the inlet
pressure is 207 kPa.
A. 135.13 kJ
C.126.12 kJ
B. 146.15 kJ
D. 155.13 kJ
23. What horsepower is required to isothermally compressed
800 ft3 of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
A. 108.39 hp
C. 135.13 hp
B. -110.39 hp
D. -107.75 hp
24. A large mining company was provided with a 3000 cm3 of
compressed air tank. Air pressure in the tank drops from
700 kPa to 180 kPa while the temperature remains
unchanged at 28 deg. C. What percentage has the mass
of air in the tank been reduced?
A. 85.33%
C. 95.32%
B. 74.29%
D. 55.16 %
25. Air having an initial pressure of 6,516 kPa and an initial
volume of 0.113 m3 is compressed adiabatically to a final
volume of 0.057 m3. Calculate the pressure at the end of
compression.
A. 16,985.02 kPa
C. 20,985.02 kPa
B. 15,985.02 kPa
D. 19,985.02 kPa
26. How much work is necessary to compress air in an
insulated cylinder from 0.20 m3 to 0.01 m3. Use t1 = 20 ℃
and P1 = 100 kPa.
A. -115.72 kJ
C. -118.72 kJ
B. -114.72 kJ
D. -119.72 kJ
27. Compute the pressure ratio (P1/P2) of nitrogen that is
expanded isentropically from 620 deg. F to 60 deg. F.
A. 12.91
C. 14.91
B. 13.91
D. 15.91
28. During the polytropic process of an ideal gas, the state
changes from 138 kPa and 5 ℃ to 827 kPa and 171 ℃.
Find the value of n.
A. 1.354
C. 1.623
B. 1.963
D. 1.765
29. A gas at 1 atm pressure originally occupies a volume of
20 ft3. The gas is polytropically compressed with n = 1.15
until the pressure is 48.51 psia. What is the final volume?
A. 10.08 ft3
C. 8.08 ft3
3
B. 9.08 ft
D. 7.08 ft3
30. Carnot cycle operates between 30 deg C and 350 deg C.
Find the cycle efficiency.
A. 61.36%
C. 41.36%
B. 51.36%
D. 31.36%
31. A Carnot cycle has a sink temperature of 100 deg F and
cycle efficiency of 70%. Find the temperature of the heat
source.
A. 1506.67 °F
C. 1406.67 °F
B. 1206.67 °F
D. 1706.67 °F
32. What must be the temperature in ℉ at which heat is
supplied to a Carnot engine if twice as much energy is
delivered as work as rejected to the sink at 40 ℉.
A. 1110 °F
C. 1440 °F
B. 1040 °F
D. 1540 °F
33. A Carnot engine takes energy from a reservoir at 1200 K
and rejects energy at 300 K. What is its thermodynamic
efficiency?
A. 75%
B. 95%
C. 85%
D. 65%
34. A Carnot engine requires 35 kJ/s from the hot source.
The engine produces 15 kW of power and the
temperature of the sink is 26 ℃. What is the temperature
of the hot source in ℃?
A. 250.25 °C
C. 450.32 °C
B. 350.23 °C
D. 550.56°C
35. An inventor claims of having invented a heat engine
which produces 10 kW of power for a 15 kW input while
operating between energy reservoirs of 27 deg C and
427 deg C. Is the claim valid?
A. Yes
C. Maybe
B. No
D. I don’t know
36. How many independent properties are required to
completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous
compound?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
37. What is the value of the work done for a closed,
reversible isometric system?
A. Zero
C. Negative
B. Positive
D. Positive or negative
38. Which of the following cycle is used in vapour cycle
power plant?
A. Brayton Cycle
B. Diesel Cycle
C. Ericson Cycle
D. Rankine Cycle
39. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic property?
A. Pressure
C. Volume
B. Temperature
D. Phase
40. Which of the following compressibility factor of ideal gas?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.5
D. 0
41. The energy which includes all of the potential and kinetic
energies of the atoms or molecules in a substance is
known as
A. Internal energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
D. Total energy
42. What is known as the total heat and heat content at
various times in the history? It also represents the useful
energy of a substance.
A. Enthalpy
C. Internal Energy
B. Entropy
D. Latent heat
43. What is the temperature when water and vapour are in
equilibrium with the atmospheric pressure?
A. Ice point
C. Critical point
B. Steam point
D. Freezing point
44. What is the unique state at which solid, liquid and
gaseous phases can co-exist in equilibrium?
A. Triple point
C. Boiling point
B. Critical point
D. Pour point
45. What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous
phases are indistinguishable?
A. Triple point
C. Boiling point
B. Critical point
D. Pour point
46. What refers to the heat needed to change the
temperature of the substance without changing its phase?
A. Latent heat
C. Specific heat
B. Sensible heat
D. Entropy
47. The mechanical equivalent of heat is
A. Joule
C. Btu
B. Calorie
D. Specific heat
48. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature
of absolute zero?
A. Unity
C. Infinity
B. Zero
D. Undefined
49. What is the area under the curve on a temperature –
entropy diagram?
A. Heat
C. Entropy
B. Work
D. Volume
50. Which of the following is the work done for a closed,
reversible, isometric system?
A. Negative
C. Zero
B. Positive
D. Undefined
EXERCISE NO. 8
Fluid Mechanics
1. One kilogram of hydrogen is confined in a volume of 200
L at – 45 deg. C. What is the pressure if R is 4.115 kJ/kg
– K?
A. 4.69 MPa
C. 6.05 MPa
B. 5.29 MPa
D. 7.91 MPa
2. A reservoir of glycerin has a mass of 1,200 kg and a
volume of 0.952 cu. m. Find the glycerin’s specific gravity.
A. 1.18
B. 1.26
C. 1.36
D. 2.61
3. One cubic foot of glycerin has a mass of 2.44 slugs. Find
its specific weight.
A. 4.45 kN/cu.m.
B. 7.86 kN/cu.m.
C. 12.35 kN/cu.m.
D. 17.20 kN/cu.m.
4. If the specific volume of a gas is 360 cu. ft/slug, what is
its specific weight?
A. 0.0278 lb/cu. ft.
B. 0.0629 lb/cu. ft.
C. 0.0435 lb/cu. ft.
D. 0.0895 lb/cu. ft.
5. The volume of a rock is found to be 0.00015 cu. m. If the
rock’s specific gravity is 2.60, what is its weight?
A. 1.44 N
C. 2.55 N
B. 3.82 N
D. 4.96 N
6. SAE 30 oil at 20 deg. C with an absolute viscosity of 9.20
x 10 – 3 lb – sec/ft2 is sheared between two parallel plates
0.005 in. apart with the lower plate fixed and the upper
plate moving at 13 ft/s. Compute the shear stress in the
oil.
A. 287 lb/ sq. ft.
C. 562 lb/ sq. ft.
B. 319 lb/ sq. ft.
D. 814 lb/ sq. ft.
7. If the viscosity of water at 68 deg. F is 0.01008 poise and
the specific gravity is 0.998, compute its kinematic
viscosity in square feet per second.
A. 4.79 x 10 – 6
C. 1.09 x 10 – 5
B. 9.71 x 10 – 6
D. 2.11 x 10 – 5
8. The surface tension of water at 60 deg. C is 0.0662 N/m.
What capillary – height changes will occur when water is
in contact with air in a glass tube of radius 0.30 mm? Use
θ = 0° and γ = 9.81 kN/cu. m. for water.
A. 15.2 mm
C. 34.6 mm
B. 27.9 mm
D. 44.9 mm
9. A 1 – in diameter soap bubble has an internal pressure
0.0045 lb/sq. in greater than that of the outside
atmosphere. Compute the surface tension of the soap –
air interface.
A. 0.00146 lb/ft
C. 0.00675 lb/ft
B. 0.00247 lb/ft
D. 0.00712 lb/ft
10. Find the change in volume of 1 cu. ft. of water at 80 deg.
F when subjected to a pressure increase of 300 psi.
Water’s bulk modulus of elasticity at this temperature is
325,000 psi.
A. 0.00067 cu. ft.
B. 0.00092 cu. ft.
C. 0.00132 cu. ft.
D. 0.00325 cu. ft.
11. If the atmospheric pressure is 13.99 psia and a gage
attached to a tank reads 7.4 in Hg vacuum, find the
absolute pressure within the tank.
A. 17.62 psia
C. 10.36 psia
B. 13.99 psia
D. 23.63 psia
12. An open tank contains 9.4 ft. of water beneath 1.8 ft of oil
(s.g. = 0.85). Find the pressure at the bottom of the tank.
A. 2.24 psi
C. 4.74 psi
B. 6.63 psi
D. 7.82 psi
13. A stone weighs 105 lb in air. When submerged in water,
it weighs 67 lb. Find the specific gravity of the stone.
A. 2.76 B. 3.80 C. 6.89 D. 9.79
14. Determine the submerged depth of a cube of timber 1.25
m on each side floating in mercury. The specific gravities
of timber and mercury are 0.60 and 13.6.
A. 0.055 m
C. 0.172 m
B. 0.084 m
D. 0.235 m
15. What fraction of the volume of a solid piece of metal of
specific gravity 7.25 floats above the surface of a
container of mercury?
A. 0.135
C. 0.467
B. 0.533
D. 0.659
16. Oil (s.g. = 0.86) flows through a 30 – in diameter pipeline
at 8000 gpm. Compute the average velocity.
A. 1.78 ft/s
C. 3.63 ft/s
B. 2.97 ft/s
D. 4.47 ft/s
17. Benzene (s.g. = 0.879) flows through a 100 – mm
diameter pipe at mean velocity of 3 m/s. Find the mass
flow rate.
A. 14.2 kg/s
C. 37.3 kg/s
B. 20.7 kg/s
D. 56.8 kg/s
18. Assume the conduit has (inside) diameters of 12 in. and
18 in. at sections 1 and 2, respectively. If water is flowing
in the conduit at a velocity of 16.6 ft/s at section 2, find
the velocity at section 1.
A. 14.2 ft/s
C. 37.3 ft/s
B. 20.7 ft/s
D. 56.8 ft/s
19. Water flow through a long, horizontal, conical diffuser at
the rate of 4 cu. m/s. The diameter of the diffuser varies
from 1 m to 2 m; the pressure at the smaller end is 8 kPa.
Find the pressure at the downstream of the diffuser,
assuming frictionless flow and no separation from the
walls.
A. 12.73 kPa
C. 46.58 kPa
B. 20.13 kPa
D. 69.60 kPa
20. Gasoline (v = 2.92 x 10 – 4 Pa – sec)at a temperature of
20 deg. C flows through a pipe of inside diameter 60 mm
at 0.707 m/s. Find the Reynolds number. The density of
gasoline is 719 kg/m3
A. 104,452
C. 350,093
B. 219,749
D. 411,650
21. Water flows at 10 cu.m./s in a 150 – cm diameter pipe;
the head loss in a 1000 – m length of this pipe is 20 m.
Find the rate of energy loss due to pipe friction.
A. 1,960 kW
C. 3,320 kW
B. 2,830 kW
D. 5,400 kW
22. Water at 70 deg. F flows through a new cast iron pipe at
a velocity of 9.7 ft/s. The pipe is 1200 ft. long and has a
diameter of 6 in. Find the head loss due to friction. Use
0.023 as the friction factor.
A. 20.5 ft
C. 61.9 ft
B. 45.8 ft
D. 80.6 ft
23. A worker in a children’s playground is cleaning a slide
with a hose. She observes that horizontal stream directed
into the low end climbs to a point 12 ft. above the nozzle.
What is the nozzle velocity of the stream?
A. 13.3 ft/s
C. 34.6 ft/s
B. 27.8 ft/s
D. 44.2 ft/s
24. The fluid property, due to which, mercury does not wet
the glass is
A. Viscosity
B. Cohesion
C. Surface Tension
D. Adhesion
25. The fluid in which the shearing stress within it is
proportional to the velocity gradient across the sheared
section.
A. Real fluid
B. Perfect fluid
C. Newtonian fluid
D. Ideal fluid
26. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with the pressure and
temperature and is defined as a function of
A. Density and angular deformation rate
B. Density and shear stress
C. Shear stress and angular deformation rate
D. Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate
27. Total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid
flowing across any section in a pipeline is a function of
A. Pressure and velocity
B. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and
internal energy
C. Pressure, density and velocity
D. Pressure, velocity and kinetic energy
EXERCISE NO. 9
Engineering Economy
1. The exact simple interest of P 5,000 invested from June
21, 2015 to December 25, 2015 is P 100. What is the
rate of interest?
A. 3.90%
C. 3.95%
B. 3.92%
D. 3.98%
2. A loan of P 5,000 is made for a period of 15 months at a
simple interest rate of 15%. What future amount is due at
the end of the loan period?
A. P 5,937.50
C. P 5,712.40
B. P 5,873.20
D. P 5,690.12
3. A loan for P 50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount
of P 65,000. What is the effective rate of money?
A. 9.01%
C. 9.31%
B. 9.14%
D. 9.41%
4. An amount of P 1,000 becomes P 1,608.44 after 4 years
compounded bimonthly. Find the nominal interest.
A. 11.89%
C. 12.08%
B. 12.00%
D. 12.32%
5. By the condition of a will, the sum of P 20,000 is left to a
girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it
amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the
money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded
quarterly?
A. 11.23 years
C. 11.57 years
B. 11.46 years
D. 11.87 years
6. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same
as the rate of interest of 18% compounded daily? Take 1
year is equal to 360 days.
A. 19.61%
C. 19.31%
B. 19.44%
D. 19.72%
28. A hydrometer scale for measuring the relative density
(specific gravity) of liquids.
A. Beckman scale
B. Baume scale
C. Beaufort scale
D. Buckley scale
7. Mr. Evilla borrowed money from a bank. He receives
from the bank P 1,340.00 and promised to pay P
1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the
corresponding discount rate or often referred to as the
“banker’s discount” using simple interest.
A. 13.15%
C. 13.46%
B. 13.32%
D. 13.73%
29. An instrument which is used to determine the specific
gravity of a substance.
A. Hydrometer
B. Calorimeter
C. Odometer
D. None of these
8. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for
5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is
6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account of maturity?
A. P 15,030.03
C. P 18,289.05
B. P 20,113.57
D. P 16,892.34
30. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Steady flow do not change with time at any point
B. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same
streamline
C. Reynolds number is the ratio of the viscous force to
the inertial force
D. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all
directions
9. A firm borrows P 2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6
years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P 2,000
more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A. P 3,260.34
C. P 3,270.34
B. P 3,280.34
D. P 3,250.34
10. A student plans to deposit P 1,500 in the bank now and
another P 3,000 for the next 2 years. If he plans to
withdraw P 5,000 three year from after his last deposit for
the purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of
money left in the bank after one year of his withdrawal?
Effective annual interest rate is 10%.
A. P 1,549.64
C. P 1,345.98
B. P 1,459.64
D. P 1,945.64
11. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P
10,000.00 and agreed to pay he dealer uniform sum at
the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest
compounded annually, that the final payment will cancel
the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual
payment?
A. P 2,500.57
C. P 2,540.56
B. P 2,544.45
D. P 2,504.57
12. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a
future amount of P 20,000. Assume i = 6% annually.
A. P 1,290.34
C. P 1,107.34
B. P 1,185.54
D. P 1,205.74
13. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 down payment
and 10 deferred semi–annual payments of P 8,000 each,
starting 3 years from now. What is the present value of
the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded
semi – annually?
A. P 142,999.08
C. P 142,189.67
B. P 143,104.89
D. P 143,999.08
14. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and
paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4 years. What does
he have to pay at the end of the 5th year in order to pay
off his loan?
A. P 6,999.39
C. P 6,222.39
B. P 6,292.93
D. P 6,922.93
15. Mr. Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at
the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year, and 4th year, respectively
in a savings account which he earned 10% per annum.
How much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?
A. P 4,880.00
C. P 4,860.00
B. P 4,820.00
D. P 4,840.00
16. A machine costs P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10
years with a salvage value of P 500. What is its book
value after 8 years using straight line method?
A. P 2,000.00
C. P 2,200.00
B. P 2,100.00
D. P 2,300.00
17. An asset is purchased for P 9,000. Its estimated
economic life is 10 years after which it will be sold for P
1,000. Find the depreciation in the first four years using
sum of years’ digit method.
A. P 4,459.45
C. P 4,549.45
B. P 4,945.45
D. P 4,954.54
18. A book has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is
expected to decline at 10% per year due to depreciation,
what will be its selling price after 6 years?
A. P 222.67
C. P 236.20
B. P 212.58
D. P 231.56
19. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron
James signature shoes at a labor cost of P 900.00 a pair
and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges
on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the
variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty to Lebron
James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell
at P 5,000 a pair, how many must be produced each
month for the manufacturer to break even?
A. 2,590
C. 2,712
B. 2,632
D. 2,890
20. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If
he sells the eggs at the same price after the cost of the
eggs rises by 12.5%. How much will be his new gain in
percent?
A. 6.89%
C. 6.58%
B. 6.65%
D. 6.12%
21. The sum of structure’s first cost and the present worth of
all costs for replacement, operation, and maintenance for
a long time or forever.
A. Fixed Cost
B. Capitalized Cost
C. Variable Cost
D. Long term Cost
22. A financial security note issued by businesses or
corporation and by the government as a means of
borrowing long term fund. It may also be defined as a
long term note issued by the lender by the borrower
stipulating the terms of repayment and other conditions.
A. Journal
C. Bond
B. Income Statement
D. Stock
23. What is defined as the analysis and evaluation of the
monetary consequences by using the theories and
principles of economics to engineering applications,
designs and projects?
A. Economic analysis
B. Engineering cost analysis
C. Engineering economy
D. Design cost analysis
24. What refers to the market situation in which any given
product is supplied by a very large number of vendors
and there is no restriction against additional vendors from
entering the market?
A. Perfect competition
C. Oligopsony
B. Oligopoly
D. Monopoly
25. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market
situation is
A. Monopsony
C. Oligopsony
B. Oligopoly
D. Monopoly
26. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market
situation is
A. Monopsony
C. Oligopsony
B. Oligopoly
D. Monopoly
27. What market situation exists where there are few sellers
and few buyers?
A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral oligopsony
28. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that
is based only on the original amount of the loan or
principal?
A. Effective rate of interest
B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest
38. It represents money which have been spent or capital
which has been invested and cannot be recovered due to
certain reasons.
A. Depreciation Cost
C. Sunk Cost
B. Marginal Cost
D. Scrap Cost
39. It is a measure of the effectiveness of an investment of
capital.
A. Rate of return
C. Acid test ratio
B. Rate of investment
D. Current ratio
29. What refers to the money value of an event based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should
or will earn?
A. Present worth factor
C. Interest rate
B. Time value of money
D. Yield
40. It is a distinct legal entity, separate from individuals who
own it, and which can engage in almost type of business
transaction.
A. Sole proprietorship
C. Corporation
B. Partnership
D. Cooperative
30. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary
annuity?
A. The amounts of all payments are equal
B. The payments are made at equal interval of time
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first
period
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the
annuity
EXERCISE NO. 10
Computer System
31. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of
borrowed capital?
A. Simple Interest
C. Interest
B. Rate of interest
D. Principal
32. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting
records of an enterprise
A. fair value
C. market value
B. par value
D. book value
33. It is where the original record of a business transaction is
recorded.
A. ledger
C. journal
B. spreadsheet
D. logbook
34. The process of determining the value of a certain
property for specific reasons.
A. bond
C. annuity
B. demand
D. appraisal
35. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property
as a second hand.
A. depletion
C. salvage value
B. appraisal
D. amortization
36. It is a quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a
certain place and time.
A. Necessity
C. Demand
B. Luxury
D. Supply
37. Cost that arise as a result of a change in operations or
policy.
A. Fixed Cost
B. Increment Cost
C. Variable Cost
D. Marginal Cost
1. Convert 1210 to Hexadecimal, Binary and Octal.
In Hexadecimal, ________16.
In Binary, ______________2.
In Octal, _______________8.
2. Convert 1210 to a number system using 5 symbols.
__________5
3. Convert 0.62510 to binary.
In binary, _____________2.
4. Convert 29.3010 to Octal.
_____________8
5. Convert 3F16 to decimal.
In Decimal, _________10.
6. Convert 326 to Decimal number system.
In decimal, _________10.
7. Convert 101.01012 to Decimal number system.
In decimal, ___________10.
8. Convert 11.101112 to decimal.
_______________10
9. Convert 32.45 to base 8.
________________8
10. Convert 11011010102 to Octal number system.
In Octal, ___________8.
11. Convert 110.010100011102 to octal.
In Octal, ____________8.
12. Convert 124.3448 to binary.
In binary, _______________2.
13. Convert to 101.111010012 to hexadecimal.
________16
14. Convert 5A.BB316 to binary.
_______________2
15. What is the sum of 100112 and 10102?
_____________2
16. Find the sum of 111100101101101102 and 101011012.
______________2
17. Subtract 1112 from 10012.
________2
18. 1102 times 112 is equal to ___________2
19. 101012 divided by 112
___________2
20. 100010011011100102 – 10101100101100
012 is equal to
A. 1100110010000012
B. 2630510
C. 1100010110000012
D. 603018
21. 11101110111011101112 multiplied by 102 is equal to
A. 98767010
B. 36573568
C. EEEEE16
D. 111001101110111011102
22. If 1010100102 is divided by 112, what is the remainder?
A. 112
B. 28
C. 310
D. A16
23. 1628 + 5378 =
A. 1110100002
B. 45610
C. 1E116
D. 7218
24. 25.278 + 13.28 =
A. 40.4710
B. 38.478
C. 38.4710
D. 40.478
25. 67.58 + 45.68 =
A. 135.38
B. 113.18
C. 10010.11012
D. A1916
26. 4568 – 1738 =
A. 3238
B. 2368
C. 17910
D. 1010012
27. 68 × 238 =
A. 1528
B. 10410
C. 7216
D. 11010102
28. 1548 × 7728 =
A. 11010101011110002
B. 11100101011110002
C. 10110101011110002
D. 11000101011110002
29. What is the remainder when 13778 is divided by 128?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
30. The difference of 01112 subtracted from 10012
A. 10 base 10
C. 5 base 8
B. 2 base 10
D. A base 16
31. 1000101110110010110102 is equal to __.
A. 4723132 base8
B. 4273132 base8
C. 81765A base16
D. Math ERROR
32. 6 base8 added to 8 base 16
A. 14 base 8
C. 1110 base 10
B. 1110 base 2
D. 14 base 2
33. Simplify the expression F = ABD + CD + ACD + ABC +
ABCD
A. CD+AD
C. BC+AB
B. ABD+ABC+CD
D. AC+AB
34. Simplify the function f = w’xy’z’ + w’xyz’ + wxy’z’ + wxyz’
A. f = xz
C. f = xz’
B. f = xy’z’
D. f = x’y’z
35. A solid-state device which only gives a “1” output if all its
inputs are also “1” is called
A. an AND gate
C. a NOR gate
B. a NAND gate
D. an OR gate
36. What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs and
have a high output if any or all inputs are high; with low
input only when all inputs are low?
A. AND gate
C. NOR gate
B. OR gate
D. NAND gate
37. A solid-state logical device which only gives “1” output if
all inputs are “0” is _______ gate.
A. NOT
B. NOR C. NAND
D. OR
38. What level is used to represent logic-1 in a negative logic
circuit?
A. Negative Transition level
B. Low level
C. Positive Transition level
D. High level
39. If logic 1 = + 5 vdc and logic 0 = + 10 vdc, what logic
polarity is being used?
A. Negative
C. High
B. Positive
D. Low
40. How many outputs does a full adder have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
41. What term describes a single object in a modern number
system?
A. Unit
C. Digit
B. Base
D. Number
EXERCISE NO. 11
Engineering Management, EE Laws, Ethics, Contracts
and Specifications
1. Engineers can become good managers only through
A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. trainings
2. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager,
what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above
3. When engineer enters management, what is the most
likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of
others
D. All of the above
4. What management function refers to the process of
anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their
likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the
desired outcomes and goals?
A. Planning
C. Controlling
B. Leading
D. Organizing
5. What management function involves selecting candidates
and training personnel?
A. Organizing
C. Motivating
B. Staffing
D. Controlling
6. What management function involves orienting personnel
in the most effective way and channeling resources?
A. Directing
C. Organizing
B. Planning
D. Leading
7. What refers to a management function which is to
encourage others to follow the example set for them, with
great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
C. Controlling
B. Motivating
D. Leading
8. What refers to a principal function of lower management
which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and
enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
C. Staffing
B. Motivating
D. Controlling
9. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge
10. In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce
11. In project management, O & M stands for:
A. Operation and Manpower
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
D. Operation and Mission
12. A project manager must be very good in which of the
following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above
13. What is defined as an organized method of proving past,
present, and projected information on internal operations
and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A. Electronic Data Processing System
B. Management Information System
C. Central Processing System
D. Data Management System
14. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management
level?
A. Lower management level
B. Middle management level
C. Top management level
D. Lowest management level
15. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task
is most likely to.
A. Set a goals.
B. Determine the resources needed.
C. Set a standard.
D. Develop strategies and tactics.
16. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there
is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden
agenda?
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Managerial procedure conflict
17. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits
to improve efficiency is known as
A. Division of labor
B. Segmentation
C. Departmentalization
D. Territorialization
18. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job
training and experiences with classroom instruction in
particular subject?
A. On-the-job training
B. Vestibule school
C. Apprenticeship program
D. In-basket
19. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager
must be concerned with the determining the scope of
work and how it is combined in a job. This refers to:
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control
20. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to
improve performance on the present job?
A. Training
B. Development
C. Vestibule
D. Specialized courses
21. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is
completed successfully as measured by time, cost,
performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor
22. Who is responsible for running a department so that all
his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager
23. What network model enables engineer managers to
schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by using only one time factor per activity
A. Forecasting
B. Critical Path Method
C. Program Evaluation Review Technique
D. Simulation
24. What network model enables engineer managers to
schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by employing three time estimate for each
activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical Path Method
C. Program Evaluation Review technique
D. Simulation
25. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as
integral component of project management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning,
scheduling, monitoring and controlling project.
B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all task
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project
completion dates as well as the probability that the
project will be completed by a specific date
D. All of the above
26. Risk management is:
A. Risk avoidance
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities
D. All of the above
27. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the
probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
A. Reliability management
B. Risk management
C. Quality assurance management
D. Project assurance management
28. What is measured by the amount of resources that a
manager can allocate without the need to get an approval
from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
C. Authority
B. Leadership
D. Tradeoff skill
29. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring
that the organization will achieve its objectives?
A. Goal
C. Program
B. Strategy
D. Plan
30. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the
SMEAC, what does the acronym SMEAC stands for?
A. Situation,
Mission,
Execution,
Administration,
Coordination
B. Situation,
Mission,
Execution,
Application,
Communication
C. Situation,
Mission,
Execution,
Administration,
Communication
D. Strategy,
Mission,
Execution,
Administration,
Communication
31. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief
engineer is under the
A. Finance manager
B. Manufacturing manager
C. General manager
D. Marketing manager
32. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions
and formal lines of authority called?
A. Organizational chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. control chart
33. What is defined as the process of identifying and
choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A. Sampling Theory
B. Alternative-analysis
C. Problem-solving
D. Decision-making
34. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical
know how with the ability to organize and coordinate
workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources
including money?
A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Technology
C. Technical Management
D. General Management
35. What is Rule 7 of the Republic Act No. 7920?
A. Enforcement and execution
B. Assignment of Duties
C. Official business with commission
D. Promulgation of decisions
36. Rule 2 (f) of R.A. No. 7920 defines which of the following?
A. Commission
B. R.A. No. 184 which is the old Electrical Engineering
Law
C. Commissioner
D. CPE
37. Section 4 Article II states the powers and duties of the
Board. What does it mean by quasi-legislative power?
A. Evaluation
C. Supervisory
B. Control
D. Rule-making
38. Section 18 (3) of Article III – Examination and
Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for Registered
Master Electricians states that:
A. He has graduated from a 2 – year electrician course
of instruction from a vocational or trade school
recognized by the Philippine government, and in
addition, has at least 2 years of electrical practice.
B. He has completed at least 3 – years of a 5 – year
BSEE program or 3 – year course in electrical
engineering school and has 1 year of practice in
electrical wiring and installation and maintenance of
utilization devices and equipment.
C. He has completed a four year high school education
or its equivalent and in addition, has a subsequent
record of at least five (5) years of electric practice.
D. He has completed a 1 year electrician course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by
the Philippine government and in addition has at
least 3 years of electrical practice.
39. Section 16 (d) of Article III Examination and Registration
Qualifications of Applicant for Registered as Professional
Electrical Engineer states that:
A. He is of good reputation with high moral values
B. He has not been finally convicted by the court of an
offense involving moral turpitudes
C. He is citizen of the Philippines
D. He is a holder of the degree of BSEE from a
university, school, college, etc. recognized and
accredited by the Philippine government.
40. Section 33 of Article IV: Sundry Provision Relative to the
Practice of Electrical Engineering states that:
A. Practice not allowed for firms and corporations
B. Personnel required
C. Preparation of plans, supervision of installation,
application of PEC code
D. Prohibitions in the Practical Electrical Engineering
41. Section 23 of Article III – Issuance of Certificates of
Registration. The professional is required to renew
license every _____ years upon payment of registration
fee.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 6
42. Section 29 of Article III: Revocation of Certificates of
Registration and Suspension from the Practice of the
Profession. The Board shall have the power, upon notice
of hearing; revoke any certification of registration or any
registrant, to suspend him from the practice of his
profession, for fraud, deceit, gross negligence or
incompetence. Which will satisfy the above policy?
A. Act of government
B. Order of court
C. PRC ruling
D. Rules and regulation, policies and code of
professional ethics of this Act
43. Who is considered as the executive officer of the Board
of Electrical Engineering?
A. President of the Philippines
B. Secretary of DOTC
C. PRC Commissioner
D. Chairman of the Board (BEE)
44. Members of the Board of Electrical Engineering are
appointed by:
I.
The President of the Philippines
II.
The Professional Regulations Commission
III.
The Institute of Integrated Electrical Engineers of the
Philippines
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. I and II
45. Qualifications of applicants for registration as PEE who
were Assistant/Associate EE under R.A. No. 184 is Rule
______ of R.A. No. 7920.
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 12
46. Section 4 (p) of Article II – Powers and Duties of the
Board of Electrical Engineering is to:
A. Adopt an official seal
B. Prosecute or institute criminal action against any
violator of the Act and or the rules and regulation of
the Board
C. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
engineering in the Philippines
D. Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum to secure
the attendance of respondents or witnesses relative
to the investigation conducted by the Board
47. What refers to the installed capacity of an alternating
current electric plant or supply equipment, or the
connected load of industrial plants/commercial building
per Section 2 (h) of Article I of the R.A. No. 7920?
A. Computed load
B. Total connected load
C. Electric plant
D. Kilovolt Ampere
48. Section 1 of Article II states: An electrical engineer shall
be fair, impartial and reasonable in rendering
professional service to his clients. This statement is:
A. Partly false
C. Partly true
B. True
D. False
49. Section 2 of Article II states that an electrical engineer
shall before undertaking any engagement or entering into
any contract which calls for his professional service that
will require or need the use of apparatus…. In which he
has financial interest have such situation clarified in the
contract or agreement to avoid ________.
A. City interest
B. Conflict of interest
C. Owners interest
D. Lawyers interest
50. Which of the following refers to the Old Electrical
Engineering Law?
A. R.A. No. 5734
C. R.A. No 134
B. R.A. No. 184
D. R. A. No 7919
51. When was the R.A. No. 7920 passed in the House of
Representatives and the Senate?
A. February 14, 1995
B. February 12, 1995
C. February 25, 1995
D. February 21, 1995
52. Which of the following is authorized to nominate an
individual to the Board of Electrical Engineering?
A. Senators
B. Congressmen
C. Accredited association of Electrical Engineers
D. Commissioner of PRC
53. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of
_____ years from the date of appointment or until their
successors shall have appointed and qualified.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
54. What is Section 38 of Article IV of R.A. 7920 is about?
A. Posting of Certificates
B. Certificate of Specialty
C. Foreign reciprocity
D. Penalty clause
55. Section 14 of R.A. 7920 states that no registration with
the Board shall be required to persons in charge of
supervising the operation, tending and maintenance of an
electric generating set for private use employing voltages
not exceeding ______ V and capacity not exceeding
______ kVA.
A. 200, 20
C. 250, 50
B. 250, 25
D. 250,100
56. In the Registered Electrical Engineering Licensure
Examination, what is the weight of Electrical Engineering
Subject?
A. 25% B. 30%
C. 45%
D. 40%
57. A registered master electrician shall work under the
supervision of a professional electrical engineer or
registered electrical engineer if the machinery is rated in
excess of ______ kVA.
A. 500 B. 600
C. 750
D. 1000
58. How many sections are there in the Republic Act 7920?
A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 45
59. What is Section 9 of Article II of the R.A. 7920 about?
A. Executive Officer of the Board
B. Removal of Board Members
C. Compensation of the Chairman and the Board
Members
D. Term of Office
60. The applicant of Professional Electrical Engineer must
submit how many certifications from different
Professional Electrical Engineers to affect that the
experience record of the applicant is factual and the
technical paper submitted was actually prepared by the
applicant?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
61. The professional electrical engineer, registered electrical
engineer or registered master electrician shall be
required to indicate ______ in the documents he signs,
uses or issues in connection with the practice of his
profession.
A. Registration license number
B. Date registered
C. Date of expiry
D. All of the choices
62. Who appoints the members of the Board of Electrical
Engineering?
A. Commissioner of PRC
B. IIEE Directors
C. President of the Philippines
D. Committee on Commission on Appointments
63. Composition of the Board of Electrical Engineering is
provided in R.A. 7920 under what particular section of
Article II?
A. Section 3
C. Section 5
B. Section 4
D. Section 6
64. The program of examination is provided in what particular
rule of the implementing rules and regulations of R.A.
7920.
A. Rule 10
C. Rule 11
B. Rule 12
D. Rule 9
65. A section in Article II of R.A. 7920 states that the Board
shall exercise executive/administrative or quasi-judicial
powers in carrying out the provision of R.A. 7920. What
does “quasi-judicial” means?
A. Rule-making
C. Control
B. Evaluate
D. Investigate
66. “Adopt an official seal” is one of the duties of the Board of
Electrical Engineering. This is provided in what particular
section of Article II of R.A. 7920?
A. Section 4 (c)
C. Section 4 (g)
B. Section 4 (r)
D. Section 4 (q)
67. Section 30 of R.A. 7920 states that “Subject to the
approval of the Commission, the Board may, after the
expiration of ________ from the date of revocation of a
certificate, for reasons it may be deem sufficient,
entertain an application for a new certificate in the same
manner as applications for an original one.
A. 1 year
C. 3 years
B. 2 years
D. 6 months
68. Section 2 (j), Article I of RA 7920 defines the:
A. kW
B. Utilization equipment
C. Substation
D. Power plant design
69. A member of the Board, at the
time of his/her
appointment, must not be an official member nor a
member of a faculty of, nor have a pecuniary interest in,
any university, college, school or institution conferring a
bachelor’s degree in electrical engineering for at least
_____ years.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
70. An applicant for registration as Professional Electrical
Engineer must have at least ______ years of active
practice reckoned from the date of his registration as
registered electrical engineer.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
71. In section 20 of R.A. 7920, the board of electrical
engineering shall within ________ days after the
completion of the examinations report the ratings
obtained by each candidate to the Commission.
A. 100 days
C. 60 days
B. 150 days
D. 30 days
72. Section 15 of R.A. 7920 states that to qualified applicants
for examination, notice of admission shall be issued not
later than ______ days prior to the first day of the
examination.
A. 5
B. 20
C. 15
D. 10
73. Section 5 (f) of Article II of R.A. 7920 states each
member of the board must have practiced the electrical
engineering profession for a period not less than ______
years prior to his appointment.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12
74. What section in R.A. 7920, defined the Powers and
Duties of the Board?
A. Section 3
C. Section 4
B. Section 5
D. Section 6
75. The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of the
Republic Act. No. 7920 is what Board of Electrical
Engineering resolution number, series of 2005?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 16
D. 19
76. When is the IRR of the R.A. 7920 done?
A. April 22, 1995
B. June 21, 1995
C. August 31, 1995
D. December 12, 1992
77. How many rules are there in the Implementing Rules and
Regulations of the R.A. 7920?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
78. The program of licensure examination should be issued
by the Board of Electrical Engineering not later than ____
days prior to the first day of the examination?
A. 25
B. 20
C. 15
D. 30
79. What law created
Commission?
A. P.D. 223
B. P.D. 233
the
Professional
Regulations
C. P.D. 322
D. P.D. 332
80. In what year is the Professional Regulations Commission
created?
A. 1972 B. 1971
C. 1973
D. 1974
81. What is otherwise known as “PRC Modernization Law”?
A. R.A. No. 8189
C. R.A. No. 8891
B. R.A. No. 8918
D. R.A. No. 8981
82. In 2006, the Professional Regulations Commission was
placed under what government agency?
A. Department of Education
B. Commission on Higher Education
C. Department of Labor and Employment
D. Department of Justice
83. The Code of Ethics for Electrical Engineers was adopted
pursuant to what section of the R.A. 184?
A. Sec 6 B. Sec 7 C. Sec 8 D. Sec 9
84. What refers to a set of moral principles or values to
govern the conduct of an individual belonging to a group
or profession on the basis of honesty, fairness and justice?
A. Obligation
C. Ethics
B. Canon
D. Professionalism
85. What is the keystone of professional conduct?
A. Honesty
C. Integrity
B. Justice
D. Courtesy
86. Article I of the Code of Ethics for Electrical Engineer is
about ________.
A. Relation with Client and Employer
B. Professional life B
C. Relation with Fellow Engineers
D. Penal Provision
87. The Code of Ethics for Electrical Engineers was adopted
on:
A. May 9, 1988
B. May 24, 1988
C. October 10, 1988
D. December 21, 1988
88. What is defined as the legally binding agreement or
promise to exchange goods or services?
A. Consideration
C. Contract
B. Partnership
D. Obligation
89. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values
that are morally desirable in engineering practice and
research?
A. Engineering ethics
B. Engineering management
C. Engineering system
D. Engineering integrity
90. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as
seen by the profession and as represented by a
professional society?
A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
91. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational
orientation, concerning the value of work?
A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
92. Ethics is synonymous to ______.
A. Morality
C. Standards
B. Money
D. Conduct
93. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors
is known as _______ contractor.
A. Real
C. Prime
B. Original
D. Legitimate
94. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to
be binding?
A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer
B. There must be some form of conditional future
consideration
C. There must be an acceptance of the offer
D. All of the above
95. What contract document is part of the construction
contracts?
A. Agreement form
B. General condition
C. Drawings and specifications
D. All of the above
96. What refer to a fundamental obligation under the contract
which goes to the root of the contract?
A. Warranty
B. Condition
C. Injuction
D. Innominate terms
97. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing
damage to another person of his property, emotional
well-being, or reputation?
A. Consequential damage
B. Fraud
C. Punitive damage
D. Tort
98. The tort law is concerned with _____ .
A. Imprisonment
B. Fine
C. Compensation for the injury
D. Punishment
99. A rule is defined as:
A. A fundamental belief that usually encompasses
several rules.
B. A system of non-statutory, non-mandatory rules on
personal conduct.
C. An oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. A guide for conduct and action in certain situation.
100.
A code is defined as:
A. A fundamental belief that usually encompasses
several rules.
B. A system of non-statutory, non-mandatory rules on
personal conduct.
C. An oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
D. A guide for conduct and action in certain situation.
EXERCISE NO. 12
Philippine Electrical Code
1. If an individual 30 amp branch circuit feeds a single
non-motorized equipment receptacle, then the
receptacle amperage must be which of the following:
A. 20
C. 40
B. 30
D. none of these
2. Conductors run in parallel raceways must have
equipment grounding conductors which are
A. Run in individual raceways
B. Supported every 6 inches
C. Run in parallel in each raceway
D. Protected from excessive temperature
3. A surge arrester of less than 1000 volts nominal shall
have a ground connecting conductor which is no
smaller than which of the following sizes:
A. 8.0 sq. mm
C. 3.5 sq. mm
B. 5.5 sq. mm.
D. 2.0 sq. mm.
4. When there is more than one nominal voltage system
in the building, ungrounded feeder conductors must
be which of the following:
A. Connected through a transfer switch
B. Separately identified
C. Run in individual conduits
D. Identified using the same color
5. Single-point grounding is allowed at the source of
a separately derived system when which of the
following conditions exists:
A. A separate equipment grounding conductor is
provided at each building and enclosure
B. The neutral is insulated and isolated from earth,
except at one location
C. An equipment grounding conductor is run with
the phase conductors
D. All of the above
6. The permitted identification of a size 14.0 sq mm or
smaller insulated grounded conductor is which of the
following:
A. A continuous white outer finish
B. Three yellow stripes down the length of a green
insulated conductor
C. One blue stripe on a gray insulated conductor
D. All of the above
7. Branch circuits shall not be derived from
autotransformers unless which of the following
exist:
A. The grounded conductor is protected from
access by unauthorized personnel.
B. The autotransformer operates at less than 600
volts nominal.
C. The circuit supplied has a grounded
conductor that is electrically connected to a
grounded conductor from the system that
supplies the autotransformer.
D. All of the above
8. A two-wire AC circuit with two ungrounded
conductors is permitted to be tapped from
ungrounded conductors of circuits that have which of
the following:
A. Two switching devices
B. An automatic multi-pole switch
C. A grounded neutral conductor
D. None of the above
9. The minimum size of an equipment grounding
conductor used to ground equipment with an
automatic over current device rated at 20 amps in the
circuit ahead of the piece of equipment is which of
the following
A. 2.0 sq. mm. copper
B. 3.5 sq. mm. copper
C. 5.5 sq. mm. copper
D. 8.0 sq. mm. copper
10. Electrical systems that are grounded must meet
which of the following requirements:
A. Be connected to the earth in a way that limits the
voltage caused by line surges
B. Be connected to the earth in a manner that will
stabilize the voltage to the earth during normal
operation
C. Both of these
D. Either of these
11. An electric 9 kW range shall have a minimum branch
circuit size of which of the following
A. 15 amps
C. 30 amps
B. 20 amps
D. 40 amps
12. In a separately derived system, the TVSS shall be
connected in which of the following manners:
A. To each ungrounded connector
B. Outdoors, in an easily accessible location
C. To the corner grounded delta
D. To the load side of the first overcurrent device
13. A TVSS device shall not be installed under which of
the following conditions:
A. On an impedance grounded system
B. If the TVSS is less than the maximum continuous
phase-to-phase power frequency that exists at
the point of application
C. On circuits in excess of 600 volts
D. All of the above
14. A 125 volt single-phase kitchen counter receptacle
must meet which of the following requirements:
A. Have ground-fault interruption protection
B. Be a maximum of 20 amps
C. Be a minimum of 15 amps
D. All of the above
15. A surge arrestor may be installed under which of the
following conditions:
A. On an impedance grounded system
B. On a service less than 1000 volts with a
grounding electrode for the service
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
16. An impedance grounded neutral system is permitted
to be installed if which of the following conditions is
met:
A. If installed to serve a line-to-neutral
B. If installed outside in an easily accessible
location
C. Ground detectors are installed on the system
D. None of the above
17. Multi-wire branch circuits are permitted to supply
which of the following:
A. Only line-to-line neutral loads
B. Only one piece of utilization equipment
C. Both of these
D. None of these
18. The minimum size of an equipment grounding
conductor used to ground equipment with an
automatic overcurrent device rated at 40 amps in the
circuit ahead of the piece of equipment is which of
the following
A. 8.0 sq. mm. copper
B. 8.0 sq. mm. aluminum
C. 5.5 sq. mm. aluminum
D. 5.5 sq. mm. copper
19. The size of the sole connection of a grounding
electrode conductor connected to concrete-encased
electrode shall not be required to be which of the
following:
A. Larger than 2.0 sq mm copper
B. Connected to an electrode encased by at least
50 mm of concrete
C. Both of these
D. None of these
20. For a 30 amp receptacle connected to a 30 amp
branch circuit supplying two or more outlets, the
total cord-and-plug load may not exceed which of
the following sizes:
A. 24 amps
C. 15 amps
B. 16 amps
D. 12 amps
21. An equipment grounding conductor that is run with
circuit conductors is permitted to be which of the
following:
A. A solid copper busbar
B. Any flexible metal conduit
C. Any liquid tight conduit
D. All of the above
22. Circuits over 120 volts but not exceeding 277 volts
between conductors shall be permitted to supply
power to which of the following:
A. The auxiliary equipment of electric-discharge
lamps mounted in permanently installed fixtures
B. Luminaries equipped with mogul-base screw
shell lamp holders
C. Screw shell type lamp holders
D. None of the above
23. The minimum size copper circuit wire for a 20 amp
branch circuit conductor is
A. 8.0 sq. mm
C. 3.5 sq. mm
B. 5.5 sq. mm
D. 2.0 sq. mm
24. Restricted-access, adjustable-trip circuit breakers
must meet which of the following requirements:
A. Have a removable and sealable cover over the
adjusting means
B. Be located behind bolted equipment covers
C. Be accessible only to a qualified person by means
of a locked door
D. All of the above
25. The laundry area in a single-family dwelling unit must
have which of the following:
A. A minimum of one 20 amp and one 220 amp
receptacle
B. At least one receptacle
C. At least one receptacle installed within 3 feet of
the washing machine location
D. A minimum of two GFCI receptacles
26. If a feeder conductor carries the total load supplied
by the service conductors with an ampacity of 50
amps, then which of the following standards must be
met:
A. The feeder ampacity must be greater than the
service conductor ampacity
B. The feeder ampacity must be less than the service
conductor ampacity
C. The feeder ampacity must be 30 amps
D. None of the above
27. Where more than one building exists on the same
property under single management, additional
feeders or branch circuits are permitted to supply
which of the following:
A. Optional standby systems
B. Fire pumps
C. Parallel power production systems
D. All of the above
28. The use of 5-wire feeders is which of the following:
A. Prohibited
B. Restricted to installations over 600 volts nominal
C. Requires that the overcurrent device protection be
100% of the continuous load
D. Permitted to use a common neutral
29. DC power systems located on the premises must
include which of the following:
A. A grounding connection at the power source
B. A grounding electrode conductor which is at least
#10 AWG
C. A grounding ring
D. All of the above
30. The non – current-carrying metal parts of equipment
shall be considered effectively grounded by use of
which of the following methods:
A. If it is secured to the structural metal frame of a
building
B. By use of a separate grounded circuit conductor,
running in a separate raceway
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
31. An electrode that is permitted as a grounding means
is which of the following:
A. A metal underground water pipe
B. A plate electrode
C. A grounding ring
D. All of the above
32. The grounded conductor for a single-phase 3-wire
AC premises wiring system shall be which of the
following:
A. A grounding electrode
B. The neutral conductor
C. The common conductor
D. Either A or B
33. The circuit breakers used for overcurrent protection
of 3-phase circuits must have minimum of three
overcurrent relay elements that meet which of the
following requirements:
A. Are operated from three current transformers
B. Have a neutral which is regrounded on the load
side of the circuit
C. Have a series rating of 125% of the total circuit
load
D. None of the above
34. A fuse must be connected in a manner that meets
which of the following requirements:
A. On an overcurrent relay element
B. In series with each ungrounded conductor
C. On the secondary side of a transformer
D. Either B or C
35. Each set of conductors that feeds separate loads of
a transformer secondary shall be connected in which
of the following methods:
A. With an overcurrent device on the multioutlet line
of the branch circuit
B. In series
C. Without overcurrent protection at the secondary
D. None of the above
36. A single-point grounded neutral system may include
which of the following:
A. A grounding electrode
B. A bonding jumper that connects the equipment
grounding conductor to a grounding electrode
conductor
C. A grounding electrode conductor that connects the
grounding electrode to the system neutral
D. All of the above
37. Service equipment electrical continuity shall be
ensured by which of the following:
A. Bonding equipment to the neutral conductor
B. Use of bonding type bushings
C. Both of the above
D. Either of the above
38. If the use of multiple grounding connections results in
objectionable current, which of the following
alterations is permitted:
A. Change the location of the grounding connections
B. Discontinue one or more, but not all, of the
grounding connections
C. Either of the above
D. Both of the above
39. A feeder overcurrent device that is not readily
available shall be installed in which of the following
manners:
A. Branch circuit overcurrent devices must be
installed on the load side
B. Branch circuit overcurrent devices shall have a
lower ampacity rating than the feeder overcurrent
device
C. Branch circuit overcurrent devices must be
installed in a readily accessible location
D. All of the above
40. Open conductors that are not service entrance
cables shall not be installed less than which of the
following:
A. 3,100 mm from grade level
B. 2,900 mm below grade level
C. 2,500 mm below grade level
D. 1,300 mm from grade level
41. Ground-loop currents flow if the neutral-to-ground
connections are made in which of the following ways:
A. On the feed side of separately derived systems
B. On the load side of service equipment or
separately derived systems
C. In front of the overcurrent protection device
D. All of the above
42. The metal disconnecting means at a remote
building, supplied by a feeder with an equipment
grounding conductor, is required to be which of the
following:
A. Connected on the service load side of the feeder
B. Buried not less than 3 feet under the ground
C. Grounded to a grounding electrode
D. None of the above
43. Circuit conductors that supply power conversion
equipment included as part of an adjustable-speed
drive system must have an ampacity of which of the
following:
A. At least 125 percent of the motor’s full-load current
B. Not less than 125 percent of the rated input to the
power conversion equipment
C. Not less than 50 percent of the maximum
ampacity listed on the equipment nameplate
D. All of the above
44. The disconnection means for a 400 volt motor circuit
must have an ampere rating of which of the following:
A. At least 125 percent of the motor’s full-load current
B. Not less than 115 percent of the full-load current
rating of the motor
C. 120 amps
D. Equal to or greater than that the ampacity listed
on the motor equipment
45. A 15 amp receptacle that is installed in a wet location
must meet which of the following installation
requirements:
A. Be protected from rain or water runoff
B. Have an attachment plug cap inserted
C. Have an enclosure that is weatherproof
D. All of the above
46. Receptacles are considered grounded by which of
the following methods:
A. When the grounding contacts are connected to
the equipment grounding conductor of the circuit
that supplies the receptacle
B. If the receptacle ground wire is terminated under
a metal screw
C. When wired to a cord connector
D. When the grounding contacts have been
effectively grounded
47. Installations for the electrical heating of a pipeline
must:
A. Be protected from physical damage
B. Include caution signs posted at frequent intervals
along the pipeline
C. Be identified as being suitable for the chemical,
thermal and physical environment of the
installation
D. All of the above
48. An industrial control panel supply conductor shall
have an ampacity of which of the following:
A. No less than 125% of the full-load current rating
of all resistance heating loads and no more than
125% of all combined continuous loads
B. No less than 125% of the full-load current rating
of all resistance heating loads plus 125% of the
full-load current rating of all other connected
motors based on their duty cycle if they are all in
operation at the same time
C. No less than 125% of the full-load of two or more
components of a systematic assembly
D. Not to exceed the ampacity listed for all
resistance heating equipment and connected
motor nameplates
49. In order to guard exposed live motor parts and
controllers operating at 50 volts or higher from
accidental contact, which of the following methods
must be used:
A. Equipment is installed in a room that is only
accessible by a qualified person
B. Equipment is installed on a balcony that is
elevated enough to prohibit access by unqualified
people
C. Equipment is installed or mounted at least 8 feet
above floor level
D. All of the above
50. When a transformer is used to create a three-phase,
four-wire distribution system from a three phase,
three-wire ungrounded system, the transformer must
meet which of the following installation requirements:
A. The transformer must not be switched
B. The transformer must be directly connected to the
ungrounded phase conductors
C. The transformer shall not be provided with
overcurrent protection that is independent from the
main switch and common-trip overcurrent
protection for a three-phase, four-wire system
D. All of the above
51. A reliable conductor used to ensure the required
conductivity between metal parts which are to be
electrically connected is called which of the following
A. Connector
B. Bonding jumper
C. Insulated conductor
D. Branch connector
52. The current measured in amperes which a conductor
can carry continuously under standard conditions
without exceeding the conductor's maximum
temperature rating is called
A. Maximum current
B. Conductor current
C. Ampacity
D. Convection amps
53. Limiting the total quantity of circuits in any given
enclosure does which of the following:
A. Minimizes the effects of a short circuit in one
circuit
B. Eliminates over-expansion in the future
C. Provides easy access to qualified workers
D. Provides a standard for the Authority Having
Jurisdiction
54. Items in the Code that identify actions that are
specifically required or prohibited are considered:
A. Permissive rules
B. Mandatory rules
C. Guidelines for examination of installation
D. Permitted use
55. Two or more ungrounded conductors with equal
voltage running between them and a grounded
conductor is considered which of the following:
A. control circuit
C. branch circuit
B. feeder
D. loop feed
56. A device that de-energizes a circuit or a portion of a
circuit within an established time frame when a
current to ground exceeds the values determined
for a Class A device is which of the following
A. Circuit breaker
B. Fuse
C. Ground fault interrupter
D. Voltage regulator switch
57. A device that protects a motor against overheating
and is an integral part of that motor is considered
which of the following
A. Integral fuse
B. Ground fault protector
C. Thermal protector
D. Shunt trip switch
58. An assembly of two or more single pole fuses is
A. Multiple fuse
B. Multi – tap connector
C. Switching device
D. Panelboard
59. A branch circuit where two or more ungrounded
conductors, with a potential difference between
them, and a grounded conductor with equal
potential difference between it and each
ungrounded conductor is referred to as
A. Continuous loop feed system
B. Multi-wire
C. General purpose circuit
D. Regulated branch circuit
60. A continuous load is one in which one of the
following types of current is expected to run nonstop for three hours or more:
A. Continuous
C. Maximum
B. Normal
D. Limited
61. The purpose of the Philippine Electrical Code is to
provide which of the following:
A. A standard by which professionals may design
installations
B. Efficient electrical installations
C. Cost-effective installations
D. Safe electrical installations
62. Circuit voltage is best defined as
A. Average potential between two conductors
B. Maximum potential difference between two
conductors
C. Effective difference of potential between two
conductors
D. Total amperes produced between two conductors
63. The connection device installed at an outlet to allow
for two or more contact devices at the same yoke is:
A. Duplex outlet
B. Multiple receptacle
C. Slice connector
D. None of the above
64. A large single panel assembly of panels containing
mounted switches, overcurrent and protection
devices and buses is considered
A. Panelboard
B. Switchboard
C. Automatic transfer switch
D. Service panel
65. A switching device utilized to isolate a circuit or
equipment from an established power source is
determined to be which of the following:
A. Interrupter switch
B. Circuit breaker
C. Cutout
D. Disconnecting switch
66. A compartment to which one or more air ducts are
connected to form part of an air distribution system
is called which of the following:
A. Plenum chamber
B. Ventilation duct
C. Air-flow box
D. Circulation cavity
67. Which of the following installations are covered by
the Electrical Code:
A. Power wiring for a large industrial machine
B. Computer wiring in an office building
C. Telephone cable in a flexible duct
D. All the above
68. The clear work space on one side of equipment with
exposed live parts, which operates at 600 volts
nominal or less to ground, and which will require
examination, adjustment or maintenance shall be at
least which of the following:
A. 600 mm wide
B. 760 mm wide
C. 1000 mm wide
D. 2 times the width of the panel
69. Chose the answer below that is not an approved
means of mounting electrical equipment to a
masonry wall:
A. Using screws that are driven into wooden plugs in
the wall
B. Using bolts that are supported by metal plates on
the back side
C. Using molly bolts through holes drilled completely
through the wall
D. Using lag bolts screwed into lead masonry
anchors
70. The floor of a vault for electrical equipment with
either a vacant space or additional floors below it
shall have a minimum fire resistance of
A. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
B. 3 hours
D. 12 hours
71. Circuits with 100 amperes or less, or with 2.0 sq
mm to 50 sq mm conductors, can only be used for
conductors rated at which of the following
A. 55 deg. C
C. 75 deg. C
B. 60 deg. C
D. 80 deg. C
72. Voltage to ground of 0-150 V, with exposed live parts
on one side of the work space and no live or
grounded parts on the other side, must have a
minimum clear distance of which of the following:
A. 900 mm
C. 1500 mm
B. 1000 mm
D. 1900 mm
73. The work space for equipment must allow _______
opening of any equipment doors or hinged panels.
A. 90-degree
C. 60-degree
B. 180-degree
D. 45-degree
74. The minimum clear headroom for work space around
service equipment, switchboards, panelboards, or
motor control centers must be which of the following
A. 2900 mm
C. 2500 mm
B. 2000 mm
D. 1900 mm
75. High-voltage conductor tunnel installations require
metal conduit or metal raceways and
A. Type MC cable
B. Aluminum conductors
C. Copper-clad aluminum conductors
D. EMT cable
76. Unused raceway or cable openings in boxes and
conduits must be closed so that the protection
provided is
A. At least equal to the protection provided by the
wall of the box or conduit
B. Equal to the depth of the wall framing
C. Greater than the protection provided by the box or
conduit alone
D. Adequate to act as a fire stop
77. The fire rating for walls, floors and doors containing
equipment over 600 volts nominal shall be a
minimum of
A. 1 hour
C. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
D. 6 hours
78. Often, equipment and terminations are labeled with
A. The initials of the installer
B. Service tag
C. Tightening torque
D. Wiring designations
79. In order to be electrically secure prior to soldering,
splices must be
A. Sanded
B. Joined mechanically
C. Free of rough edges
D. Coated with flux
80. Unless otherwise specified, live parts for electrical
equipment operating at______ volts or more shall be
guarded.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
81. Voltage to ground of 150-600 with exposed live parts
on both sides of the working space must have a clear
distance not less than which of the following:
A. 2,900 mm
C. 2,000 mm
B. 2,500 mm
D. 2,800 mm
82. Ventilation system electrical controls shall be
installed in manner in which the airflow can be
managed in what way?
A. Vented to the outside
B. Reversed
C. Limited upon demand
D. Prevented
83. Concrete and brick walls are considered
A. Dry locations
C. Wet locations
B. Insulators
D. Grounded
84. If a conductor material is not specified in a particular
article or section, the material shall be assumed to be
A. Copper
B. Aluminum
C. Copper clad aluminum
D. No assumptions shall be made
85. A high – leg conductor in a 3 – phase, 4 – wire delta
secondary shall be color
A. White
C. Green
B. Orange
D. Black
86. Conductor sizes are listed in
A. Circular mils
B. Diameter or thickness
C. AWG or millimeters
D. AWG or circular mils
87. A single-family dwelling has 3 bath rooms each
with the following: a lighting fixture, a fan, and one
receptacle outlet. In one of the bathrooms, the
lighting fixture, fan, and receptacle outlet are
installed on a dedicated 20 ampere circuit. For this
dwelling, the minimum number of 20 A circuits
required to serve the bathrooms is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
88. One building is supplied power from another building
on a non-industrial property with a single owner. The
underground feeder is protected by a 100 ampere
circuit breaker in the first building. Qualified persons
are not always available to service the installation;
therefore, the disconnecting means for the second
building must be
A. Located inside the second building, and is not
required to be located near the point where the
conductors enter the building
B. At the closest practical point where the
conductors enter the building, and may be
located either inside or outside of the building
C. The circuit breaker in the first building
D. Located on the outside of the building, near the
point where the conductors enter the building
89. In a single-phase, 3-wire electrical system, the
middle conductor must be:
A. Hot
B. Ungrounded
C. Grounded
D. Out-of-phase
90. In a 3-wire, single phase electrical system, the
nominal voltage must be 120 volts between the
ungrounded conductor and the neutral, and the volts
between the two ungrounded conductors must be:
A. 120 volts
C. 240 volts
B. 288 volts
D. 600 volts
91. In a single-phase, 3-wire electrical system, the hot
conductors are referred to as which of the following:
A. Neutral conductors
B. Grounded conductors
C. Nominal conductors
D. Ungrounded conductors
92. The current flowing through the neutral of a 120/240
volt 3-wire, single-phase electrical system is
calculated as which of the following?
A. The difference between the current of the two
ungrounded conductors
B. The sum of the current flowing on the two
ungrounded conductors
C. The current of the first ungrounded conductor
divided by the current of the second ungrounded
conductor
D. 240 volts divided by 120 volts
93. The exposed non-current carrying metal parts of a
hand-held cord-and-plug drill must be grounded in
A. The power source is greater than 150 volts to
ground
B. The drill is for residential use
C. The drill is being used in a hazardous location
D. All of the above
94. If a rod electrode is required for grounding purposes
and a layer of rock restricts the rod from being driven
into the ground, which of the following alternate
methods of installation shall be used:
A. Connect to the nearest steel section of the building
B. Connect to the metal water main
C. Bury the rod in a trench which is a minimum of
1500 mm deep
D. Bury the rod in steel conduit with a minimum of
150 mm of cover
95. Terminals connected to a grounded conductor shall
be identified in which of the following ways:
A. Identification shall be substantially white in color
B. Connection must use a terminal screw that is not
readily removable and is green in color
C. Identification must include an engraved metal tag
D. None of the above
96. The receptacle example listed below which may be
connected to a small appliance branch circuit is
which of the following:
A. Garage ceiling receptacle for an automatic garage
door opener
B. Any receptacle which is within 3600 mm of the
kitchen
C. An electric clock plugged in at the dining room
D. An electric hair dryer
97. The service disconnecting means in a building shall
not have more than how many switches or circuit
breakers
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 20
98. The total number of underground conductors for an
outside lighting circuit on a single common neutral
conductor is which of the following:
A. 6
B. 8
C. There is no limit specified
D. Underground conductors specified in this example
are prohibited
99. When protected solely by enamel, which of the
following shall not be installed in outdoor or wet
locations
A. Ferrous raceways
B. Boxes
C. Fittings
D. All of these
100. The Code does not cover ____.
A. ships, watercraft and floating buildings
B. railway rolling stock
C. aircraft or automotive vehicles
D. all of the above
Most Valuable Assessment (MVA) Test In Engineering
Sciences and Allied Subjects – 1
1. A person who violates any of the provisions of R.A. 7920
shall be guilty of misdemeanor and shall, upon convicted,
be sentenced to an imprisonment for a period of not less
than 6 months but not more than ___ year(s).
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2. A box is pushed along the floor with a force of 40 lbs with
an angle of 30 degrees along the horizontal. Using a
scale of 1 in = 10 lbs, find the horizontal and vertical
components of the force by graphical method.
A. FX = 34.6 lbs. and FY = 20 lbs.
B. FX = 34.6 lbs. and FY = 37.6 lbs.
C. FX = 36 lbs. and FY = 36 lbs.
D. FX = 32.6 lbs. and FY = 34.6 lbs.
3. A with a length of 10 units makes an angle of 30 degrees
with B with the length of 6 units. Find the value of
difference A – B by parallelogram method.
A. 4 units
C. 6.25 units
B. 4.34 units
D. 5.66 units
4. A ball is dropped from a height of 60 m. above the
ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
A. 2.1 s B. 3.5 s C. 5.5 s
D. 1.3 s
5. What is the chemical formula of sulfuric acid?
A. H2SO4
C. H4SO2
B. H2SO3
D. H2SO2
6. The condition called standard temperature and pressure
(STP) for a gas is defined to be a temperature of 0 deg.
C and a pressure of 1 atm. How big is the container
needed to keep a mole of an ideal gas as STP?
A. 34.5 liters
C. 22.4 liters
B. 45.7 liters
D. 27.5 liters
7. If the atomic masses of Al and O are 26.98 amu and 16.0
amu, respectively. How many grams of Al are there in
431 g. of Al2O3?
A. 228 g.
C. 237 g
B. 215 g
D. 114 g
8. The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are
12.01 g, 1.008 g. and 16 g, respectively. Calculate the
molarity of 90 ml ethanol (C2H5OH) solution which
contains 2.15 g. of ethanol.
A. 0.52 M
C. 0.61 M
B. 0.25 M
D. 0.44 M
9. How many grams are there in 4.57 x 1021 amu?
A. 0.00695 g.
C. 0.00596 g.
B. 0.00545 g.
D. 0.00759 g
10. A horizontal pipe has a diameter of 2 mm water flows at 2
m/sec and at the constriction of 4 m/sec. What is the
diameter of the constriction?
A. 1 mm
C. 1.5 mm
B. 0.5 mm
D. 1.41 mm
11. What is the mass density of a liquid whose specific
weight is 9000 N/cu. m.?
A. 976.7 kg/cu. m.
C. 917.4 kg/cu. m.
B. 876.5 kg/cu. m.
D. 768.7 kg/cu. m.
12. During an isentropic process, which one of the following
is true
A. Temperature increases as the pressure decreases
B. Temperature increases as the volume increases
C. The heat transfer equals the enthalpy change
D. The heat transfer is zero
13. A Carnot engine operates between 800 deg. R and 1,000
deg. R. What is its thermal efficiency?
A. 20%
B. 40% C. 50%
D. 80%
14. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75% of
its speed in vacuum. What is the index of refraction of
water?
A. 1.46
B. 1.33
C. 1.26
D. 1.67
15. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency is
5 x 1014 Hz?
A. 800 nm
C. 600 nm
B. 200 nm
D. 700 nm
16. What is a coal that has been previously burned in oxygen
– poor environment?
A. Tuyere
C. Diamond
B. Coke
D. Hematite
17. The pressure of nitrogen has a thermometer is 78 cm at
0°C. What is the temperature of a liquid in which the bulb
of the thermometer is immersed when the pressure is
seen to be 87.7 cm?
A. 34°C B. 45°C C. 45°C D. 50°C
18. How many moles are there in one atom?
A. 1.66 x 10 – 24 moles
B. 2.02 x 10 – 23 moles
C. 2.50 x 10 – 24 moles
D. 3.60 x 10 – 23 moles
19. Which of the following is the reason why metals are good
conductors of heat?
A. Metals have reflecting surface
B. Metals contain free electrons
C. Metals have atoms frequently collides one another
D. Atoms in metals are too far from another
20. When was the RA 7920 approved by President Fidel V.
Ramos?
A. February 14, 1995
B. February 12, 1995
C. February 25, 1995
D. February 21, 1995
21. Function where the engineer is engage in the process of
learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into
usable theories.
A. Research
C. Construction
B. Management
D. Sales
22. A double convex lens has faces of radii 21 and 23 cm.
When an object is 25 cm from the lens, a real image is
formed 40 cm from the lens. What is the refractive index
of the lens material?
A. 1.61
B. 1.71
C. 1.81
D. 1.51
23. What is the description of “P” in prefix used in tool steels?
A. Hot – work
B. Special Purpose
C. Mold
D. Shock – resisting
24. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for
standard methods for steel products?
A. E345
B. E8 C. A370
D. A256
25. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any
alloy primarily
A. Aluminum and iron
B. Zinc and nickel
C. Copper and zinc
D. Copper and iron
26. Yellow brass contains approximately how many % of zinc?
A. 15%
B. 20% C. 40%
D. 30%
27. Divide (15) base 16 by (011) base 2. Express the answer
in base 10.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
28. What do you call a method of identifying the location of
given data record by its name?
A. Handshaking
C. Hashing
B. Access
D. Debugging
29. What is the true complement of (25) base 8?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 54
D. 55
30. What is the decimal equivalent of the octal number
45.174?
A. 37.24428
C. 37.24218
B. 37.23831
D. 37.25328
31. It is a type of annuity where the first payment does not
begin until some later date in the cash flow.
A. Ordinary annuity
B. Annuity due
C. Deferred annuity
D. Perpetuity
32. What is the present worth of a 3 – year annuity paying P
3,000 at the end of each year, with interest at 8%
compounded annually?
A. P 7,654.04
C. P 7,420.89
B. P 7,731.29
D. P 7,590.12
33. Section 4 Article II of R.A. 7920 states that the board
shall exercise quasi – judicial which means?
A. Control
C. Investigate
B. Rule – making
D. Supervise
34. What is Article III, Section 17 (b) of R.A. 7920?
A. He is a citizen of the Philippines
B. He is at least twenty – one (21) years of age
C. He has not been finally convicted by the court of an
offense involving moral turpitude
D. He is of good reputation with high moral values
35. In Sec. 29 of Art III of R.A. 7920: Revocation of
certificates of registration and suspension from the
practice of the profession. The Board shall have the
power, upon notice of hearing revoke any certificate of
registration of any registrant to suspend him/her from the
practice of his/her profession for fraud, deceit, gross
negligence or incompetence which will satisfy the above
policy?
A. Act of government
B. Order of court
C. P.R.C. ruling
D. Rules and regulation, policies,
professional ethics of this Act
and
code
of
36. What is Article I, Section I of Code of Ethics?
A. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and
shall at all times impartial to all
B. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession
C. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work in
simple manner and avoid any practice that will
discredit or do injury to the dignity of his profession
D. An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all
times for safety of the life and health of his employers,
other workers, as well as general public
37. What is Article I, Section 2 of Code of Ethics?
A. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and
shall at all times impartial to all
B. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession
C. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work in
simple manner and avoid any practice that will
discredit or do injury to the dignity of his profession
D. An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all
times for safety of the life and health of his employers,
other workers, as well as general public
38. What is Article II, Section 7 of Code of Ethics?
A. An Electrical Engineer shall not accept compensation
from more than one interested party for the same
professional service pertaining to the same work,
without the consent of all affected parties
B. An Electrical Engineer shall not divulge confidential
matters or information which has come to his
knowledge concerning affairs of his clients or
employers, without their consent
C. An Electrical Engineer who has been engage to
prepare the specifications of machineries, equipment
or things needed in a project, shall not make the
specification to fit the machineries, equipment or
things of a prospective bidder for which he has been
or expects to be employed as an engineer, unless he
has consent of his client or employer
D. An Electrical Engineer shall promptly disclose to his
client or employer an interest which he may have in a
business that may conflict with or affect his decision
regarding engineering work for which he is employed
or which he may be called upon to perform
39. What Rule is the opinion on and interpretation of R.A.
7920 and the board’s rules and regulations?
A. Rule 8
C. Rule 9
B. Rule 10
D. Rule 7
40. What is Rule 13 of R.A. 7920?
A. Action on Communication
B. Places and Dates of Examination
C. Program of Examination
D. Publication of Examination
41. In Article I, Section 3 of Code of Ethics, states that an
Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skills and
knowledge in Electrical Engineering in order to give the
best possible _______ to the public.
A. Workers
C. Engineers
B. Service
D. Interest
42. A suspension bridge was constructed for P 32M. The
annual maintenance cost is P 400 000.00. If the rate of
interest is 5%, compute the capitalized cost of the bridge
including maintenance.
A. P 36,000,000
C. P 40,000,000
B. P 38,000,000
D. P 42,000,000
43. What refers to the value of an intangible item which
arises from the exclusive right of a company to provide a
specified product and service in a certain region of the
country?
A. Par value
C. Goodwill value
B. Going value
D. Franchise value
44. What is the factor name of the formula (1 + i)n?
A. Single payment compound amount factor
B. Single payment present worth factor
C. Uniform gradient future worth factor
D. Capital recovery factor
45. The official seal of a Professional Electrical Engineer as
provided in section 4 (q) of R.A. 7920 must have an outer
circle diameter of
A. 52 mm
C. 50 mm
B. 45 mm
D. 48 mm
46. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to
solidify in a mold?
A. Casting
C. Molding
B. Forming
D. All of these
47. What are considered
engineering materials?
A. Atoms
B. Elements
as the building
blocks for
C. Matters
D. Compounds
48. Who is considered as the executive officer of the Board
of Electrical Engineering?
A. President of the Philippines
B. Secretary of DOTC
C. PRC Commissioner
D. Chairman of the board (BEE)
49. What is the system program used to translate directly an
assembly language to machine language called?
A. Assembler
C. Interpreter
B. Compiler
D. Debugger
50. An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all times
for the _____ of the life and health of his employees.
A. Protection
C. Safety
B. Property
D. Fairness
Most Valuable Assessment Test (MVA) In Engineering
Sciences and Allied Subjects – 2
1. How long must a P 40 000.00 note bearing 4% simple
interest run to amount to P 41 350.00?
A. 403 days
B. 304 days
2. How much money must be
in order to accumulate P
Money is worth 6%.
A. P 1494.52
B. P 1538.46
C. 430 days
D. 340 days
invested on January 1, 1998
2000 on January 1, 2003?
C. P 1385.00
D. P 1585.00
3. A company invest P 10 000.00 today to be repaid in 5
years in one lump sum at 12% compounded annually.
How much profit in present day pesos is realized in 5
years?
A. P 5626
C. P 3202
B. P 7623
D. P 5200
4. A nominal interest at 3% compounded continuously is
given on the account. What is the accumulated amount of
P 10 000.00 after 10 years?
A. P 13 620.10
C. P 13 498.60
B. P 13 500.10
D. P 13 439.16
5. A bank is advertising 9.5% accounts that yield 9.84%
annually. How often is the interest compounded?
A. Monthly
C. Quarterly
B. Bi – monthly
D. Daily
6. In year zero, you invest P 10 000.00 in a 15% security for
5 years. During that time, the average annual inflation is
6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos, will be in the
account at the maturity?
A. P 15 386.00
C. P 13 382.00
B. P 15 030.00
D. P 6653.00
7. A firm borrows P 2000.00 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of
6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P
2000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump due?
A. P 5173.75
C. P 6034.66
B. P 3173.25
D. P 6035.76
8. How much must be deposited ay 6% each year starting
on January 1 year 1, in order to accumulate P 5000.00
on the date of the last deposit, January 1, years 6?
A. P 751.00
C. P 717.00
B. P 715.00
D. P 725.00
9. Given that the interest rate is 11.5%, what will be the
equivalent uniform cash flow of the following stream of
cash flows?
Year
Cash Flows
0
P 100 000.00
1
P 200 000.00
2
P 300 000.00
3
P 135 000.00
A. P 525 421.20
C. P 255 124.24
B. P 230 437.00
D. P 250 005.25
10. A piece of machinery can be bought for P 10 000.00 cash
or for P 2000 down and payments of P 750.00 per year
for 15 years. What is the annual interest rate of the time
payments?
A. 4.60%
C. 3.81%
B. 5.71%
D. 11.00%
11. The initial cost of a paint sand mill, including its
installation is P 800 000.00. The BIR approved life of this
machine is 10 years for depreciation. The estimated
salvage value of the mill is P 50 000. The dismantling
cost is P 15000. What is the book value of the machine at
the end of 6 years if the depreciation method to be used
is straight line?
A. P 341 000.00
C. P 400 000.00
B. P 354 000.00
D. P 543 000.00
12. A product has a current selling price of P 325.00. If the
selling price is expected to decline at the rate of 10% per
annum because of obsolence, what will be its selling
price four years hence?
A. P 213.23
C. P 302.75
B. P 202.75
D. P 156.00
13. An asset is purchased for P 9000.00. Its estimated life is
10 years, after which it will be sold for P 1000.00. Find
the book value during the 3rd year if the sum of the year’s
digit (SOYD) depreciation is used?
A. P 6100.00
C. P 5072.00
B. P 4500.00
D. P 4800.00
20. A cylinder weights 150lbf. Its cross sectional area is 40
square inches. When the cylinder stands vertically on
one end, what pressure does the cylinder exert on the
floor?
A. 14.1 kPa
C. 63.2 Kpa
B. 25.8 kPa
D. 89.7 kPa
21. What is the volume of the container if air is 3.0 lbm at 25
psia and 100 F?
A. 11.7 ft3
C. 15.7 ft3
3
B. 13.7 ft
D. 24.9 ft3
22. One kilogram of water (Cv = 4.2 kJ/kg – k) is heated by
300 BTU of energy. What is the change in temperature in
K?
A. 17.9 K
C. 73.8 K
B. 71.4 K
D. 75.4 K
23. In an adiabatic, isentropic process, P1 = 200 psi, P2 = 300
psi and T1 = 700 R. Find T2, using k = 1.4.
A. 576 R
C. 680 R
B. 590 R
D. 786 R
14. An item is purchased for P 100 000.00. Annual costs are
P 18 000.00. Using 8%, what is the capitalized cost of
perpetual service?
A. P 350 000.00
C. P 320 000.00
B. P 335 000.00
D. P 325 000.00
24. In a constant temperature, closed system process, 100
BTU of heat is transferred to the working fluid at 100F.
What is the change in entropy of the working fluid?
A. 0.18 kJ/K
C. 0.34 kJ/K
B. 0.25 kJ/K
D. 0.57 kJ/K
15. A company issued 50 bonds of P 1000.00 face value
each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years to
accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm
established a sinking fund consisting of annual deposits,
the interest rate of the fund being 4%. What was the
principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?
A. P 35 983.00
C. P 38 378.00
B. P 41 453.00
D. P 37 519.00
25. Nitrogen is expanded isentropically. Its temperature
changes from 620F to 60F. The volumetric ratio is V2/V1
= 6.22, and the value of R for nitrogen is 0.0787 BTU/lbm
– R. What is the work done by the gas?
A. – 110.46 BTU/lbm
B. – 99.22 BTU/lbm
C. 110.46 BTU/lbm
D. 99.22 BTU/lbm
16. A fixture that cost P 700.00 will save P 0.06 per item
produce. Maintenance will be P 40.00 annually, 3500
units are produced annually. What is the payback period
at 10%?
A. 4.12 years
C. 5.57 years
B. 4.65 years
D. 4.85 years
26. A device produces 37.5 joules per cycle. There is one
power stroke per cycle. Calculate the power output if the
device is run at 45 rpm.
A. 4.69 W
C. 28.125 W
B. 14.063 W
D. 275.265 W
17. A company which manufactures electric motors has a
production capacity of 200 motors a month. The variable
costs are P 150.00 per month. The average selling price
of the motors is P 275.00. Fixed costs of the company
amount to P 20 000.00 per month which include taxes.
The number of motors that must be sold each month to
break even is
A. 40
B. 150
C. 160
D. 120
27. The expressions relate to a particular gaseous mass: PV
= 95T, h = 120 + 0.60T where these units obtain in psf, V
in ft3/lb, T in °R & h in Btu/lb. If the specific heat are
temperature dependent only, find Cp and Cv?
A. 0.6 Btu/lbm – R, 0.48 Btu/lbm – R
B. 0.6 Btu/lbm – R, 0.70 Btu/lbm – R
C. 0.5 Btu/lbm – R, 0.50 Btu/lbm – R
D. 0.5 Btu/lbm – R, 0.48 Btu/lbm – R
18. An iron block weighs 5 N and has a volume of 200 cm3.
What is the density of the block?
A. 800 kg/m3
C. 1255 kg/m3
3
B. 988 kg/m
D. 2548 kg/m3
28. Helium (R = 0.4968 Btu/lbm – R) is compressed
isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68F. The compression
ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas.
A. – 364 Btu/lbm
C. – 187 Btu/lbm
B. – 145 Btu/lbm
D. – 46.7 Btu/lbm
19. If the density of the gas is 0.003 slugs per ft3, what is the
specific weight of the gas?
A. 9.04 N/m3
C. 76.3 N/m3
3
B. 15.2 N/m
D. 98.2 N/m3
29. Twenty grams of Oxygen (O2) are compressed at a
constant temperature of 30C to 5% of their original
volume. What is the work done on the system in cal?
A. 824 cal
C. 944 cal
B. 924 cal
D. 1127 cal
30. After series of state changes, the pressure and volume of
2.268 kg of Nitrogen are each doubled. What is ΔS?
A. 2.807 kJ/kg-K
C. 2.987 kJ/kg-K
B. 2.268 kJ/kg-K
D. 3.407 kJ/kg-K
31. What is the terminal velocity of a 2” diameter aluminum
sphere falling in air? Assume that the sphere has a
coefficient of drag of 0.5, the density of aluminum is 5.12
slug/ft3, and the density of air is 0.00234 slug/ft3.
A. 100 ft/s
C. 350 ft/s
B. 177 ft/s
D. 1000 ft/s
32. The flow energy of 124 liters per minute of a fluid passing
a boundary to system is 108.5 kJ/min. Determine the
pressure at this point?
A. 875 kPa
C. 975 kPa
B. 675 kPa
D. 575 kPa
33. A Carnot engine operates between 800 R and 1000 R.
What is the thermal efficiency?
A. 0.20
B. 0.30 C. 0.40 D. 0.50
34. What is the final temperature after compression of a
Diesel cycle? If the initial temperature is 32C and the
clearance is 8%?
A. 863.84 K
C. 963.84 K
B. 763.84 K
D. 663.84 K
35. An engine has an efficiency of 26%. It uses 2 gallons of
gasoline per hour. Gasoline has a heating value of 20500
BTU/lbm and a specific gravity of 0.8. What is the power
output of the engine?
A. 0.33 kW
C. 26.0 kW
B. 20.8 kW
D. 41.7 kW
36. What horsepower is required to isothermally compress
800 ft3 of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
A. 28 hp
C. 256 hp
B. 108 hp
D. 13 900 hp
41. To what height will a barometer column rise if the
atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68F and
barometer fluid ethyl alcohol? Note @ 68F; Pv = 122.4
lbf/ft2 and specific gravity of 0.79 for ethyl alcohol.
A. 457.45 in
C. 435.6 in
B. 422.25 in
D. 132.45 in
42. To what height will 68F ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 inch
internal diameter glass capillary tube? The density of the
alcohol is 49 lbm/ft3. Where β=0° (contact angle) and
surface tension is 0.00156 lbf/ft @ 68F.
A. 0.3056 ft
C. 0.4312 ft
B. 0.2504 ft
D. 0.2432 ft
43. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60F at sea level, what
is the pressure at 12000 ft altitude if air is incompressible?
Note @ 60F; the density of air is 0.0763 lbm/ft3; P1 = 14.7
psia.
A. 5.467 psia
C. 8.342 psia
B. 9.53 psia
D. 2.346 psia
44. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60F at sea level, what
is the pressure at 12000 ft altitude if air is compressible?
Note @ 60F; the density of air is 0.0763 lbm/ft3; P1 = 14.7
psia.
A. 5.467 psia
C. 8.342 psia
B. 9.53 psia
D. 2.346 psia
45. A cylindrical 1 ft diameter, 4 ft
water. What rotational speed is
of the top?
A. 22.7 rad/s
C.
B. 32.5 rad/s
D.
high tank contains 3 ft of
required to spin water out
27.2 rad/s
34.5 rad/s
46. Water (ρ = 62.4 lbm/ft3) is flowing through a pipe. A pitot
static gage registers 3.0 inches of mercury. What is the
velocity of the water in the pipe? Note ρHg = 848.6 lbm/ft3
A. 14.25 ft/s
C. 8.24 ft/s
B. 11.24 ft/s
D. 7.45 ft/s
37. Determine the heat extracted from 2000 kg of water from
25C to ice at – 10C.
A. 621 150 kJ
C. 821 150 kJ
B. 721 150 kJ
D. 921 150 kJ
47. What is the velocity of sound in 150F (66C) air at a
standard pressure? Note: density of air @ 150F is 0.064
lbm/ft3
A. 1295 ft/s
C. 2345 ft/s
B. 3245 ft/s
D. 1096 ft/s
38. Calculate the heat transfer per hour through a solid brick
wall 6 m long, 2.9 m high and 225 mm thick, when the
outer surface is at 5C and the inner surface 17C, the
coefficient of thermal conductivity of the brick being 0.6
W/m-k.
A. 2004.8 kJ
C. 3004.8 kJ
B. 2400.8 kJ
D. 3400.8 kJ
48. Steam with an enthalpy of 800 kCal/kg enters a nozzle at
a velocity of 80 m/s. Find the velocity of the steam at the
exit of the nozzle if its enthalpy is reduced to 750 kCal/kg,
assuming the nozzle is horizontal and disregarding heat
loss.
A. 452.32 m/s
C. 651.92 m/s
B. 254.45 m/s
D. 427.54 m/s
39. How many kW will be radiated from a spherical black
body 15 cm in diameter at a temperature of 800C?
A. 5.34
B. 4.43
C. 6.34
D. 7.34
49. Two forces of 20 units and 30 units act at right angles.
What is the magnitude of the resultant force?
A. 44
B. 42
C. 24
D. 36
40. A counter heat exchanger is designed to heat fuel oil
from 45C to 100C while the heating fluid enters at 150C
and 115C. Calculate the arithmetic mean temperature
difference
A. 40 C
B. 50 C C. 60 C
D. 70 C
50. Assume the three vectors intersect at a single point, F1 =
i + 3j + 4k, F2 = 2i + 7j – k, F3 = - i + 4j + 2k. Find the
resultant?
A. 15
B. 13.23 C. 14.73 D. 16.16
51. Simplify the expression (A x B) ▪ C, given:
A = 3i + 2j, B = 2i + 3j + k and C = 5i + 2k
A. 0
C. 60i + 24k
B. 20
D. 5i + 2k
52. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28
degree with respect to horizontal. The block is pushed 2
feet horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
A. 320 J
C. 480 J
B. 540 J
D. 353 J
53. What is the resultant velocity of a point of x component vx
= t3 – 1 and y component vy = t2 – t at t = 4.
A. 63.1326
C. 64.1327
B. 62.1326
D. 74.1326
54. A plane is flying horizontally 350 kph at an altitude of 420
m at an instant a bomb is released. How far horizontally
from this point will the bomb hit the ground?
A. 765 m
C. 850 m
B. 587 m
D. 900 m
55. A shot is fired at an angle of 45 degrees with a horizontal
and a velocity of 300 ft/s. Find the height and the range
of the projectile.
A. 600 ft and 2500 ft
B. 699 ft and 2795 ft
C. 1000 ft and 4800 ft
D. 750 ft and 3000 ft
56. A car travel at 65 mi/hr around a banked highway curve
with radius of 3000 ft. What banking angle is necessary
such that friction will not be required to resist the
centrifugal force?
A. 5.4° B. 18°
C. 3.2°
D. 2.5°
57. A 10 – lbm object is acted upon by a 4 – lb force. What is
the acceleration in ft/min2?
A. 8.0 x 104
C. 7.8 x 104
4
B. 9.2 x 10
D. 4.637 x 104
58. A picked up truck is travelling forward at 25 m/s. The
truck bed is loaded with boxes, whose coefficient of
friction with the bed is 0.4. What is the shortest time the
truck can be brought to stop such that the boxes does not
shift?
A. 4.75 s
C. 5.45 s
B. 2.35 s
D. 6.37 s
59. A flywheel is brought from rest up to a speed of 1500 rpm
in 1 minute. What is the average angular acceleration?
A. 2.617 rad/s2
C. 157 rad/s2
2
B. 333 rad/s
C. 5.23 rad/s2
60. What momentum does a 40 lbm projectile possess if the
projectile is moving at 420 mph?
A. 765 lbf – s
C. 523.6 lbf – s
B. 16 860 lbf – s
D. 24 640 lbf – s
61. In a lifting machine a load of 50 kN is moved by a
distance of 10 cm using an effort of 10 kN which moves
through a distance of 1 m, the efficiency of the machine
is.
A. 20 % B. 40% C. 10 %
D. 50 %
62. A box slides down an incline uniform acceleration. It
starts from rest and attains a speed of 2.7 m/s in 3
seconds. Find the distance moved in the first 6 seconds.
A. 17.2 m
C. 16.2 m
B. 16.7 m
D. 13.2 m
63. Cebu pacific DC – 9 air plane has a takeoff speed of 80
m/s, which it reaches 35 seconds after starting from rest.
How much time does it takes in going from 0 to 20 m/s?
A. 8.8 s
C. 6.6 s
B. 7.7 s
D. 5.5 s
64. A cable whose maximum permissible tension is 5000 lb
suspends an elevator when weighing 2000 lb fully loaded.
What is the greatest upward acceleration possible for the
elevator under these circumstances?
A. 46 ft/s2
C. 48 ft/s2
2
B. 50 ft/s
D. 52 ft/s2
65. An elevator weighing 3200 lb rises with an acceleration of
4 ft/s2. What is the tension of the supporting cable?
A. 3500 lbs
C. 3800 lbs
B. 3100 lbs
D. 3600 lbs
66. A projectile is fired at an angle of 20° with the horizontal
at the top of a 30 m high building. The muzzle velocity is
300 m/s. What is the total time of flight?
A. 32.6 s
C. 25.7 s
B. 21.2 s
D. 18.5 s
67. A stone is dropped into a well and 4 seconds later the
sound of the splash is heard. If sound travels at a speed
of 340 m/s, how deep is the well?
A. 70.48 m
C. 68.32 m
B. 64.24 m
D. 72.26 m
68. A missile is fired with a speed of 100 fps in a direction
30° above the horizontal. Determine the maximum height
to which it rises
A. 59 feet
C. 39 feet
B. 29 feet
D. 49 feet
69. Starting from rest an elevator weighing 9000 N attains an
upward velocity of 5 m/s in 4 seconds with a uniform
acceleration. Find the apparent weight of a 600 N man
standing inside the elevator during the ascent.
A. 634.5 N
C. 643.5 N
B. 676.5 N
D. 667.5 N
70. A horizontal cable pulls a 200 kg cart along a horizontal
track. The tension in the cable is 500 N. starting from rest
how long will it take the cart to reach a speed of 8 m/s?
A. 3.2 s B. 1.3 s C. 2.3 s D. 4.4 s
71. The actual amount passing into and out of the treasury of
financial venture.
A. Cash flow
C. Book value
B. Capital
D. Salvage value
72. Things that have value
A. Property
B. Assets
C. Investment
D. Real state
73. A term used to describe payment of an employee
wherein an employee is called back to work after his
regular days work.
A. Call back pay
B. Portal to portal pay
C. Call in pay
D. Back wages
74. Manner of liquidating a debt installment usually at equal
intervals of time
A. Investment
C. Amortization
B. Depreciation
D. Bonding
75. Funds that are required to make the enterprise or project
a going in concern
A. Banking
B. Accumulated amount
C. Working capital
D. Principal
76. The reduction value and marketability due to competition
from newest products.
A. Obsolescence
B. Fixed cost
C. Depreciated cost
D. Indirect cost
77. An index of short term paying ability
A. Profit margin ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turn over
78. Ratio of annual revenues to annual expenses.
A. Benefit ratio
C. Rate of return
B. Benefit cost ratio
D. Income ratio
79. Additional cost of producing one more unit
A. First cost
C. Marginal cost
B. Fixed cost
D. Sunk cost
80. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount.
A. Process factor
B. Law of supply and demand
C. Law of diminishing return
D. Inflation
81. Intangible assets of company or a corporation
A. Patents
C. Equity
B. Investment
D. Capital
82. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place
without a transfer of heat or from the gas, the process is
called
A. Isometric process
B. Isobaric process
C. Isothermal process
D. Adiabatic process
83. Which of the following is the measure of the randomness
of the molecules of a substance
A. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
B. Internal energy
D. Heat
84. What is the true about polytropic exponent n, for a perfect
gas undergoing an isobaric process?
A. n = 1
c. n = 1.4
B. n = 0
d. n = infinity
85. A system in which there is no exchange of matter with
the surrounding or mass does not across its boundaries.
A. Open system
B. Isolated system
C. Closed system
D. Non flow system
86. A chemical reaction in which heat is given off.
A. Heat reaction
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Combustion reaction
87. The internal combustion engines never work on, what
cycle?
A. Diesel cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Dual combustion cycle
88. What is the term used to describe the melting of ice?
A. Fusion
C. Sublimation
B. Vaporization
D. Condensation
89. Power may be expressed in units of
A. Joules
C. Dynes
B. Watts
D. Newton
90. In an Otto engine, the heat addition is during ______
process
A. Isothermal
C. Isometric
B. Isobaric
D. Isentropic
91. The smallest subdivision of an element that can take
place in a chemical reaction
A. Atom
C. Molecule
B. Electron
D. Proton
92. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero
emit?
A. Energy
B. Thermal radiation
C. Heat of convection
D. Heat of compression
93. In the absence of any irreversibility’s, a thermoelectric
generator, a device that incorporates both thermal and
electric effects, will have the efficiency of a
A. Carnot cycle
C. Diesel cycle
B. Otto cycle
D. Rankine cycle
94. Work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary usually
in or out of a system?
A. Flow energy
B. Frictional energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Potential energy
95. Rare gases such as helium, argon, krypton, xenon and
radon that are non-reactive are
A. Non reactants
B. Inert gases
C. Stop gases
D. Residual gases
96. Newton said that a projectile if given enough amount of
horizontal velocity will not fall to the earth. Instead, it
moves along a path around the earth. The 1st artificial
satellite that verified Newton’s statement is
A. Apollo 1
C. Sputnik 1
B. Houston 1
D. None of these
97. Which of the following is termed as the true mean
temperature difference in heat transfer?
A. AMTD
C. MTD
B. LMTD
D. ASME
98. Heat transfer include a change in phase of a fluid
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Thermal radiation
99. Which oil is more viscous
A. SAE 30
B. SAE 80
C. SAE 40
D. SAE 50
100.
The smallest subdivision of a compound that can
exist in a natural state is a/an
A. Atom
C. Electron
B. Molecule
D. Proton