Session 6
1. The most common form of consequence-oriented reasoning is known as?
A. Divine command theory
B. Deontological theory
C. Utilitarianism
D. Virtue ethics
ANSWER: C
Utilitarianism is the most common form of consequence-oriented reasoning, to a utilitarian good resides
in the promotion of happiness or the greatest net increase of pleasure over pain.
2. ___________ held that morality Is derived from rationality, not from experience, and obligation is
grounded in pure reason.
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Immanuel Kant
C. John Stuart Mill
D. Aristotle
ANSWER: B
Kant based his moral philosophy on the crucial fact that we are rational beings, and a central feature of
this rationality was that principles derived from reason are universal.
3. Utilitarianism is a form of what type of reasoning?
A. Consequence-oriented
B. Duty oriented
C. Virtue ethics
D. Divine mandate
ANSWER: A
Utilitarianism is the most common form of consequence-oriented reasoning, to a utilitarian good resides
in the promotion of happiness or the greatest net increase of pleasure over pain.
4. For the ________ ethicist, the basic wrongness of an act depends on the intrinsic nature of the act
itself?
A. Consequence-oriented
B. Duty oriented
C. Virtue ethics
D. Divine mandate
ANSWER: B
Duty oriented ethicists feel the basic rightness and wrongness of act depends on its intrinsic nature
rather than on the situation or the consequences. This position is often called deontological theory,
taken the Greek word for duty.
5. _________________________ is a form of utilitarianism that holds that an action can be deemed to
be right if it
conforms to a rule that has been validated by the principle of utility.
A. Act of utilitarianism
B. Rule of utilitarianism
C. Kantian ethics
D. Ethics of care
ANSWER: B
Rule utilitarianism seeks to avoid the hedonic calculus of act of utilitarianism in which each option must
by measured by the principle of utility. Rule utilitarianism holds that action can be right if it conforms to
a rule that has been previously validated by the principle of utility.
6. The “categorical imperative is part of _________ ethics.
A. Duty oriented
B. Virtue
C. Kantian
D. Consequence oriented
ANSWER: A
Categorical imperative is an action could be known to be right when ii was in accordance with rule that
satisfied a principle and this is a part of duty oriented reasoning.
7. “Groundwork of the Metaphysic of Morals “is the classic work of?
A. Immanuel Kant
B. John Rawls
C. Lawrence Kohlberg
D. Aristotle
ANSWER: A
In the classic work of Kant “Groundwork of the Metaphysic of Morals” he held that consequences of
action were essentially irrelevant.
8. In the principle of categorical imperative, the imperatives seem to have three elements, which of the
following is NOT part of the elements?
A. Demanding action
B. Unconditionality
C. Golden Rule
D. Universal application
ANSWER: C
Golden rule is not a part of categorical imperative; this is the famous rule that states “Don’t do unto
others what others don’t want to do unto you.”
9. A Scottish author that quoted “Never ascribe to an opponent motives meaner than your own.”
A. Immanuel Kant
B. J.M Barrie
C. John Rawls
D. Morris Massey
ANSWER: B
The above mention was the admonition of J.M Barrie and it is wise to follow this admonition when you
are trying to come to mutual understanding regarding value agreements.
10. Who are considered the Fathers of Utilitarianism?
A. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill
B. J.M Barrie and John Rawls
C. Morris Massey and J.M Barrie
D. Mahatma Gandhi and Aristotle
ANSWER: A
Bentham and Mill are considered the fathers of utilitarianism, which is the most common form of
consequence oriented reasoning.
Session 7
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for (ten) 10 minutes.
1. The question, “How should I carry out my life if I am to live well,” is representative of which of the
following theoretical
positions?
A. Duty-oriented
B. Consequence- oriented
C. Virtue ethics reasoning
D. Utilitarianism
ANSWER: C
Virtue ethics is primarily about personal character and moral habit development rather than a particular
action.
2. All of the following are elements of a torte, EXCEPT:
A. The existence of a legal duty owing from plaintiff to defendant
B. A breach of duty owing from defendant to plaintiff
C. The existence of a legal duty owing from defendant to plaintiff
D. Damages as a result of a breach of duty
ANSWER: A
One of the elements of a torte is the existence of a legal duty owing from defendant to plaintiff not from
plaintiff
to defendant
3. To sustain a claim of negligence, all of the following must be in place EXCEPT:
A. Duty
B. Dereliction of duty
C. Direct cause
D. Due process
ANSWER: D
4. A written violation of a patient’s right to privacy that may result in a charge of defamation of character
being filed
against a health care provider is termed _________________.
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Assault
D. Nonfeasance
ANSWER: A
Libel is known as written defamation, Harming others reputation
5. This means “let the master answer”.
A. Res ipsa loquitor
B. Respondeat superior
C. Parens patriae
D. Stare decisis
ANSWER: B
Respondeat superior means let the master answer. Liability assessment against employer for negligent
act
committed by their employees during the course of their work.
6. Which of the following is a form of intentional torts that have an implication to heath care setting?
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Invasion of privacy
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention are forms of intentional torts that have implication to health care setting, Libel
and slander are part
of the defamation of character, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, assault and battery.
7. This the unintentional commission or omission of an act that a reasonably prudent person would or
would not do
under the same or similar circumstances.
A. Battery
B. Libel
C. Negligence
D. Slander
ANSWER: C
Negligence is charge when something just happens, when there is no intent, when the outcome is
unexpected, but injury
occurs.
8. It is the execution of an unlawful or improper act?
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Nonfeasance
D. Slander
ANSWER: A
One of the forms of negligence is malfeasance it’s the execution of an unlawful or improper act. E.g. In
healthcare,
malfeasance occurs when people are injured or die because of poor treatment or negligent care. Also
known as medical
malpractice.
9. The fourth type of theory usually used in ethical debate. This theory believes that a divine being who
has set down
a finite series rules that adherents claim can provide guidance to most?
A. Duty oriented
B. Consequence oriented
C. Divine theory
D. Virtue ethics
ANSWER: C
In divine theory a divine being sets down finite rule, example is the rules known as the Ten
Commandments taken from
Judeo- Christian traditions. It includes key moral prohibitions common to most culture, as well as some
specific rules set
down to exact adherence of a particular religion.
10. Aristotle’s traits of virtuous character include which of the following?
A. Choice must proceed from a firm character
B. Virtue is a disposition to choose the mean
C. Virtuous acts must be chosen for their own sakes.
D. All of these
ANSWER: D
All of the traits mention above includes in Aristotle’s traits of virtuous character
Session 8
LESSON REVIEW/PREVIEW (10-15 minutes)
The instructor will ask the students the following questions for them to recall the topic last session. We
can call volunteer
students to share their answers.
1. A competent elderly tells you,” I want to go home.” You respond with, “We won’t let you go home;
you’re not capable
of taking care of yourself.” You may have just created the elements for what tort?
ANSWER: False imprisonment, you are illegally confining a competent individual against his or her will in
a manner
that violates the confined individual’s right to go home or to be free.
2. The patient tells you, “I don’t want the treatment.” You respond with, “Your doctor ordered the
treatment and told
me to make sure you take it, even If I have to hold you down.” You may have just created the elements of
what
tort?
ANSWER: forcing a patient to give treatment by holding him or his down is unlawful and this is an
example of
Battery.
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for (ten) 10 minutes.
1. Rights in moral philosophy and legal theory are thought as ____________ claims.
A. Ethical
B. Justified
C. Benevolent
D. Maleficent
ANSWER: B
Rights in moral philosophy and political theory are thought as justified claim. In this sense, If you have a
moral or legal right
to person property, then others have an obligation to respect your claim to that property.
2. The basic principle that is most closely associated with the concept of self-determination is ________.
A. Autonomy
B. Veracity
C. Justice
D. Role fidelity
ANSWER: A
Self-determination is a process by which a person controls their own life and this is closely associated
with autonomy where
you have your personal liberty and you have the ability to decide on your own.
3. The principle that is most closely associated with the practice of informed consent is ____________.
A. Veracity
B. Confidentiality
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Autonomy
ANSWER: D
Informed consent is derived from the principle of autonomy, which generally contain the elements of
disclosure,
understanding, voluntariness, competence, and permission giving.
A. Veracity
B. Autonomy
C. Justice
D. Confidentiality
ANSWER: B
Paternalism is the intentional limitation of the autonomy of one person by another, in which the person
who limits autonomy
appeals exclusively to grounds of benefit to the other.
5. The principle that is most closely associated with concepts of fairness is ______.
A. Veracity
B. Beneficence
C. Role fidelity
D. Justice
ANSWER: D
Justice deals with concept of fairness, just deserts, and entitlement.
6. ________ is the principle that deals with the need to tell the truth.
A. Beneficence
B. Veracity
C. Confidentiality
D. Role fidelity
ANSWER: B
Veracity is being truthful. This binds health practitioner and the patient. The patient must tell the truth
so that appropriate
care can be provided. The practitioner needs to disclose information so that the patient can exercise
personal autonomy.
7. The legal principle of a right to privacy is matched to the ethical principle of _________.
A. Confidentiality
B. Justice
C. Veracity
D. Nonmaleficence
ANSWER: A
All patient has their right to privacy, we cannot disclose their information to the public as part of ethical
principle of
confidentiality. With this important aspect the patient places his or her trust to the health care
professional.
8. The use of placebos is most problematic when you are considering the principle of ________.
A. Veracity
B. Beneficence
C. Role fidelity
D. Maleficence
ANSWER: A
We you make use of a placebo you are engaging yourself in a nondisclosure and deception for your
practice of work even
if it is for therapeutic purposes, you are still deceiving the patient or lying to the patient which makes it a
conflict with one of
the universal principle which is veracity.
9. The famous admonition “If you can’t do the patient good, at least avoid harm,” speaks of the two
important principles
of beneficence and __________.
A. Confidentiality
B. Justice
C. Veracity
D. Non maleficence
ANSWER: D
Non maleficence means ought not to inflict evil or harm to one person
Session 9
LESSON REVIEW/PREVIEW (10-15 minutes)
The instructor will ask questions about the previous topic and the students will answer the following
questions in chorus.
1. What are the seven basic principle of health care ethics?
ANSWER: autonomy, veracity, beneficence, justice, confidentiality, role fidelity, nonmaleficence
2. This is entitlements, interests, powers, claims, needs?
ANSWER: Rights
3. Give one example of Principles of Double Effect (Guiding Elements).
ANSWER:
– Course chosen must be good or at least morally neutral
– Good must not follow as a consequence of secondary harmful effects
– Harm must never be intended but merely tolerated as casually connected with good intended
– Good must outweigh harm
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for (ten) 10 minutes.
1. When one person has a right, others have obligations to either refrain from hindrance or provide the
required goods and
services associated with the right. What type of obligation is this?
A. Imperfect obligation
B. Perfect obligation
C. Correlative obligation
D. Personal obligation
ANSWER: C
It is commonly held view that rights imply correlative obligations. That is, if someone has a right to x,
then someone else
(some person, group of people, institutions, etc.) bears some obligation, or duty with respect to that
right. Sorting out the
nature of obligations implied by rights, however, turns out to be a contentious matter.
2. Perhaps the most famous moralized contractarian theory of rights that includes the concept of an
original position comes
from the work of ____________________.
A. John Locke
B. John Stuart Mill
C. John Rawls
D. Thomas Aquinas
ANSWER: C
Perhaps a more useful contractarian model for the development of justified claims for individual rights is
the moralized initial
situation as described by John Rawls. Rawls offers a kinder and gentler arrangements the context for the
social contract
and envisions an initial situation known as the original position.
3. What rights are generally equated to the law of God?
A. Artificial Rights
B. Natural Rights
C. Legal Rights
D. Moral Rights
ANSWER: B
Natural rights were generally equated to the law of God and found their most succinct expressions in
forms such as the
Golden Rule.
4. We have different Golden rule across religions, what religion has its golden rule which says “Hurt not
others which you
would find hurtful?”
A. Buddhism
B. Brahmanism
C. Islam
D. Taoism
Answer: A
Golden Rule across Religion
Islam-No one of you is a believer until he desires for his brother that which he desires for himself.
Judaism- What is hateful to you, do not to your fellow man.
Buddhism- Hurt not others which you would find hurtful.
Brahmanism- Do naught unto others which would cause you pain if done to you.
Confucianism- Do not unto others that which you would not have them unto you.
Taoism- Regard your neighbor’s gain as your gain, and your neighbor’s loss as your own loss.
Christianity- All things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even to them.
5. He is an English philosopher where in his model he assumes that the state of nature was a state of
social chaos, and
that the origins of law, which are simultaneous with those of morality, are in social contract.
A. John Rawls
B. John Locke
C. Thomas Aquinas
D. Thomas Hobbes
ANSWER: D
Thomas Hobbes is known for his Hobbesian model, For Hobbes, nature did not teach lessons to innate
human rights, but
rather that human nature itself created the need for something with sufficient power to crush individual
will and bring about
acceptable behavior of chaos.
6. A claim that justifies and creates correlative obligations.
A. Legal right
B. Imperfect obligation
C. Perfect obligation
D. Correlative obligation
ANSWER: C
Perfect obligation which have inherent within them assigned correlative rights. The basis of perfect
obligations was the
realm of required duty.
7. In this theory the driving force or mechanism for the selection of correct principles is the agreement
or bargain reached
by the initial agents.
A. Contractarian Theory
B. Hobbesian Model
C. Fair Opportunity Rule
D. Golden Rule
ANSWER: A
In Contractarian Theory, the driving force or mechanism for the selection of correct principles is the
agreement or bargain
reached by initial agents, within the tradition, moral agents come to the situation and the bargain to a
choice.
8. Which religion has a golden rule of “What is hateful to you do nit to your fellow man?”
A. Islam
B. Confucianism
C. Judaism
D. Taoism
ANSWER: C
Please refer to number 4
9. Mill subdivided duties into two sets, one does not give birth to any right and that is?
A. Perfect obligation
B. Imperfect obligation
C. Positive obligation
D. Negative obligation
ANSWER: B
Mill subdivided duties into two sets one of it is imperfect obligation which do not give birth to any right.
The basis of imperfect
obligation was those in which act was obligatory but the particular the particular occasions of
performing them are left to our
choice.
10. Rawls offers kinder and gentler arrangement as the context for the social contract and envisions an
initial situation
known as?
A. Perfect obligation
B. Imperfect obligation
C. Original position
D. Artificial position
ANSWER: C
Original position is designed to promote rational choice and fairness. In this position all individuals are
free and equal.
Session 10
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 15 minute.
1. “Right to bear arms” are example under what kind of legal right?
A. Human rights
B. Personal right
C. Negative rights
D. Positive rights
ANSWER:C
List of negative legal rights that have been afforded by the sanction of law.
- Equal opportunity in employment
- Freedom of Religion
- Right to bear arms
- Right to personal property
- No taxation without representation
- Right to an abortion
2. Which of the following characteristics commonly attributed to legal person?
A. Person can be benefitted
B. Person can be injured
C. Person can be thought to have interest
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Only legal persons can receive legal rights. The characteristics commonly attributed to a legal person
include that.
- Person can be injured
- Person can be thought to have interest
- Person can be benefitted
3. _____________ can be thought of as recipient or welfare rights as they require
goods or service provided.
A. Positive rights
B. Negative rights
C. Human rights
D. Natural rights
ANSWER: A
Positive rights or also known as welfare rights is about provision of goods and services.
4. A power, privilege, or immunity guaranteed under a constitution, statutes, or decisional law.
A. Legal Rights
B. Justice
C. Confidentiality
D. Natural rights
ANSWER: A
Legal Rights are clearly, rights which exist under the rules of legal systems or by virtue of decisions
suitably authoritative
bodies within them. Legal rights are created through constitutional guarantees, legislative statutes,
judicial review and
government agencies.
5. Right to a public education is under what type of legal rights?
A. Natural Rights
B. Positive Rights
C. Negative Rights
D. Human Rights
ANSWER: B
Positive rights examples (US based)
Session 11
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for (ten) 10 minutes.
1. The two basic principles found to be in conflict in the tarasoff case were confidentiality and ________.
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Role fidelity
D. Veracity
ANSWER: A
The two basic principles that to be in conflict in the Tarasoff case is confidentiality and beneficence.
Because the health
care practitioner strictly maintains a patient confidentiality despite there is a potential danger to another
person (Tatiana)
because of his patient (Prosenjit) statement/ threat and also the health care practitioner instead of
giving warning to Tatiana
for him to prevent his patient to do harm or evil, he did not do a single effort that’s why Tatiana died.
2. The ________ requires that healthcare providers refrain from acts of omissions that foreseeably result
in harm to others,
especially in cases in which the individuals are particularly vulnerable to the risk.
A. HIPAA privacy rule
B. Tarasoff law
C. Harm principle
D. Right to Privacy Act
ANSWER: C
Harm principle requires that healthcare providers refrain from acts of omissions that foreseeably result
in harm to others,
especially in cases in which the individuals are particularly vulnerable to the risk. Harm principle is
modified by the level of
vulnerability.
3. Which of the following invasion of privacy issues usually deals with the unpermitted use of a person’s
name or likeness
for another’s benefit or advantage?
A. Slander
B. Libel
C. Misappropriation
D. Fraud
ANSWER: C
Misappropriation usually deals with the unpermitted use of other person’s identity or name for
another’s benefit.
4. The allowance of unessential or lay personnel to be present during a surgical procedure examination
in a clinical is an
example of?
A. Slander
B. Libel
C. Intrusion
D. Misappropriation
ANSWER: C
Intrusion is the act of intruding or act of wrongfully entering upon, seizing, or talking possession of the
property of another.
5. Common legal reporting in most American jurisdictions include which of the following?
A. Drug abuse
B. Child abuse
C. Blood transfusion reaction
D. All of these apply
ANSWER: D
Common legal reporting requirements in most American Jurisdiction are mention above and includes
Communicable diseases, births and deaths, Injuries with guns and knives, poison and industrial
accidents,
misadministration of radioactive materials.
6. The author of the book “On The Ethics of Concealment and Revelation”?
A. Sissela Bok
B. Suraj Achar
C. Katherine Briggs
D. Carol Gilligan
ANSWER: A
In Sissela Bok on the ethics of concealment and revelation book, she cites several instances in which
confidentiality is
overridden by more compelling obligations.
7. In modern health care not only clinicians and patients have a need to view the records, but also those
who function in
an administrative, clerical, research or monitoring capacity?
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
The patient’s record is not only accessible to physician but also readily available to technical and
administrative staff who
generate and handle patient data. During an average five days of inpatient care within a teaching
hospital as many as 150
staff—from nursing, respiratory care, radiology, and billing clerks—have legitimate access to a patient’s
record to provide
both direct and/ or supportive services.
8. This usually involves the publication of information that leads to the public regarding the plaintiff
falsely.
A. Public disclosure of facts
B. Intrusion
C. Misappropriation
D. Presenting someone in a false light to the public
ANSWER: D
Presenting someone in a false light to the public usually involves the publication of information that
leads to the
public regarding the plaintiff falsely. An example would be the use of a stock photo of a surgical team in
an article about
Medicare fraud. The intent was to show a generic picture of practitioners: however, the implication of
associating them
with the article would place them in a false light.
9. Invasion of privacy is a breach of what health care principle?
A. Beneficence
B. Maleficence
C. Confidentiality
D. Veracity
ANSWER: C
Invading of patient’s privacy will result in breach of confidentiality. It can create distrust between patient
and practitioner.
10. A review of the appropriateness of care and the various types of patient care provided within an
institution.
A. Institutional Review Board
B. Utilization review
C. Privacy review
D. Third party payers
ANSWER: B
Utilization review is the use of managed care techniques such as prior authorization that allow payers,
particular health
insurance companies to manage cost of health care benefits by assessing its appropriateness before it is
provided using
evidence-based criteria
Session 12
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 10 minutes.
1. Congress in US enacted HIPAA in 1996 to encourage electronic transmission of health information.
HIPAA stands for?
A. Health Indigent Patient and Action Act
B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C. Health Insured Patient and Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Possibility Action Act
ANSWER: B
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) encourage the use of electronic transmission
of health
information (to assist in cost containment) and provide new safeguards to protect the security and
confidentiality of the
information.
2. All but one is TRUE about a medical record?
A. Property of hospital or clinic
B. Patient has legal interest and right to information
C. Record is confidential
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention about medical record is true. This contains patient’s information and this record
is
considered confidential and it should be limited to patient, authorized representatives of the patient.
The attending
physician and hospital staff members who have a legitimate interest.
3. When it comes to Health Records and Legitimate Access what level is direct patient care?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
ANSWER: A
Health Records and Legitimate Access level one is direct patient care which includes the physician, nurse,
Institutional
service and Therapist/ technologies.
4. With regards to medical record maintenance which of the following is NOT true?
A. Draw single line to cross out incorrect entry, enter correction, error initialed and dated
B. Mistakes should be erased or unreadable
C. If legal suit threatened, no changes in medical record without consulting risk management
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
In medical records mistake should not be erased or unreadable. If you enter an incorrect word all you
need to do is draw
single line, enter correction, error initiated and dated.
5. What is level three of health records and legitimate access?
A. Supportive services
B. Direct Services
C. Social services
D. Direct patient care
ANSWER: C
Social services are in level three which includes insurance, licensing, employment decision, civil/ criminal
judicial review,
education, research etc.
6. In 1996 Congress enacted the ____________________ to encourage the use of electronic
transmission of health
information and provide new safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the information.
A. Harm principle
B. HIPAA
C. Right privacy act
D. Tarasoff act
ANSWER: B
Please refer answer to number 1 question
7. HIPAA has three self-declared major purposes which includes?
A. To protect and enhance the rights of consumers by providing them access to their health information
and controlling the inappropriate use of information.
B. Safeguards to protect the patient’s privacy will be part of the research protocol
C. Only those involved in the study will have access to the raw data
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
Option B and C are minimum standards of institutional review board and it’s not included in HIPAA.
8. In Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule. Without the patient authorization health care providers
generally cannot?
A. Give information to the patient’s employer
B. Share the patient’s information for marketing purposes
C. Share private notes about the patient’s mental health counselling sessions.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention is included because this support the rights of a patient to privacy.
9. Which of the following is not included in Level one of Health Records and Legitimate Access?
A. Risk management
B. Physicians
C. Therapist
D. Nurse
ANSWER: A
Risk management belong to the level two which is the supportive services.
10. Supportive services of Health Records and Legitimate Access which includes service payers, risk
management and
quality care reviews is at what level?
A. Level one
B. Level two
C. Level three
D. Level four
ANSWER: B
There’s only three levels in of Health Records and Legitimate Access
Level one—direct patient care
Level two—supportive services
Session 13
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 15 minutes.
1. Basic ethical principles in planning research protocol involving human subjects includes?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. All the above
ANSWER: D
It also includes confidentiality and justice.
2. This are defined as the living individuals about whom an investigator whether professional or student
conducting
research?
A. Human subjects
B. Research topic
C. Research subject
D. Research proposal
ANSWER: A
Human subject is a living individual about whom an investigator (whether professional or student)
conducting research:
Obtains information or bio specimens through intervention or interaction with the individual, and uses,
studies, or
analyzes the information.
3. Which of the following is NOT considered a minimum standard set by institutional review boards?
A. Research results should be presented in such a fashion as to protect the anonymity of the patients.
B. Safeguards to protect the patient’s privacy will be part of the research protocol.
C. Any member of the public will have access to the raw data collected from the study.
D. The same level of obligation to maintain patient confidentiality in the practice of health care is
expected in the
conduct of medical research.
ANSWER: C
One of the minimum standards of IRB is to safeguard to protect the patient’s privacy will be part of the
research protocol.
Therefore, option C is not included because only part of the research team will have access to the raw
data collected
from the study. Confidentiality must be maintained.
4. A research committee set up to examine the protocol design for research to ensure that the research
conforms to
appropriate standards for humans.
A. Board of trustees
B. Utilization review
C. Institutional review board
D. HIPAA
ANSWER: C
Institutional review board a research committee set up to examine the protocol design for research to
ensure that the
research conforms to appropriate standards for humans. These boards are established to protect the
rights and
welfare of human subjects recruited to participate in research activities under the auspices of the
institution with which
a board is affiliated.
5. Human subject research generally requires, EXCEPT:
A. Risks to subjects are minimized by using procedures consistent with sound research design that can
expose subjects to risk
B. Risks to subjects are reasonable in relation to anticipated benefits
C. Selection of subjects is equitable
D. All are correct
ANSWER: A
Risk to subjects are minimized by using procedures consistent with sound research design that do not
unnecessarily
expose subjects to risk. Whenever appropriate, the research will use procedures already being
performed on the
subjects for diagnostic or treatment purposes.
Session 14
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 15 minutes.
1. The consideration of how one provides for the fair and equitable division of scarce resources.
A. Utilitarianism
B. Procedural Justice
C. Egalitarianism
D. Distributive Justice
ANSWER: D
Distributive Justice is a concept that addresses the ownership of goods in society. It assumes that there is
a
large amount of fairness in distribution of goods. Equal work should provide individuals with an equal
outcome in terms of goods acquired or the ability to acquire goods.
2. This deals with the personal determination of who will receive scarce resources such as intensive care
bed?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Micro-allocation
D. Macro-allocation
ANSWER: C
Micro-allocation of health care deals with the personal determination of who will receive scarce
resources
such as an intensive care bed. Triage system that evaluate medical utility issues (such as best prognosis)
seen more acceptable than systems such as social utility, in which there is a subjective determination of
an individual’s
worth in making these decisions.
3. The process of allocating scarce resources has been commonly practiced and justified in the crises of
war or
disaster?
A. Utilitarianism
B. Libertarianism
C. Triage
D. Social utility
ANSWER: C
Triage is the assignment of degrees of urgency to wounds or illnesses to decide the order of treatment of
a large number
of patients or casualties. This is commonly practiced in the emergency room, if there is crises of war or
disaster.
4. The allocation of scarce resources to those with the best prognosis.
A. Distributive justice
B. Libertarianism
C. Medical utility
D. Social utility
ANSWER: C
In medical utility the allocation of scarce resources is that of best prognosis. Like for example, which
patient
is most likely to survived? It from the criterion that questions emerge as to whether patients with a DNR
order truly
belong in intensive care, if in fact we do not intend to treat them intensively.
5. When it comes to allocation of resources the most common neutral system is?
A. First come, first served
B. Social utility
C. Medical utility
D. Lifeboat
ANSWER: A
For the reason that social and medical utility invites problem when it comes to allocation of resources
the most
common neutral system is First come, first served or random selection that treats all patients as
essentially equal.
6. This principle of Micro-allocation of invites problems of racism, ageism, sexism, bias against retarded
and mentally
ill?
A. Libertarianism
B. Utilitarianism
C. Macro-allocation
D. Social utility
ANSWER: D
Social utility is based on the principle of social worth. However social utility has inherent problems such
as
racism, ageism, sexism bias against retarded and mentally ill.
7. Which of the following is not included in common methods for distribution of good and resources?
A. To each person an equal share
B. To each person according to need
C. To each person according to merit
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention are included in common methods of distribution of good and resources and
also included
are:
To each person according to contribution
To each person according to effort
To each person according to social worth
8. It is the useful formulation to satisfy the requirements of material justice?
A. Two tier system
B. Fair opportunity rule
C. Social utility
D. Medical utility
ANSWER: B
Material justice requires that the criteria used to distribute a scarce resource be morally relevant. In this
sense, it is more useful than formal justice, which requires only that the criteria be equally. To satisfy the
requirement we make use of:
FAIR OPPORTUNITY RULE
– No persons granted social benefits on basis of undeserved advantage
– No persons denied social benefits on basis of undeserved disadvantages
9. This deals with the larger societal issues of what kind of health care will be provided as a whole?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Micro-allocation
D. Macro-allocation
ANSWER: D
Macro-allocation is usually the province of Congress, state legislatures, insurance companies, private
foundations, and health organizations.
10. Under this approach, everyone guaranteed coverage for basic care and catastrophic health needs.
A. Two-tier system
B. Utilitarianism
C. Libertarianism
D. Fair opportunity rule
ANSWER: A
Two tier system one of the interesting position in regard to the macro-allocation of health care good and
services. Everyone is guaranteed coverage for basic care and catastrophic health needs
Session 15
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 10 minutes.
1. This theory of justice emphasizes equal access to goods and services.
A. Libertarianism
B. Utilitarianism
C. Egalitarianism
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
Egalitarian Theories emphasize equal access to goods and services. Egalitarian thinkers believe that an
affluent society
such as ours must find a way to provide universal health care to all its citizens.
2. He proposed the natural life span argument?
A. Daniel Callahan
B. Dylan Thomas
C. Gary Pakingham
D. Paul Ramsy
ANSWER: A
Daniel Callahan is known for his natural life span argument. Callahan argues that a natural life span is
one that ends
with a natural death and that this occurs at the end of a life cycle.
3. This is a health insurance law, and generally does not deal with other problematic issues facing access
to health
care?
A. HIPAA
B. Affordable Care Act
C. Institutional Regulation Board
D. Patient Protection Act
ANSWER: B
ACA is essentially a health insurance law, and generally does not deal with other problematic issues
facing access to
health care, such as the national shortage of primary care physicians and the substantial disparity in
reimbursement
levels between Medicare and Medicaid.
4. This is a national health care program that primarily serves indigent populations.
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Micro-allocation
D. Macro-allocation
ANSWER: B
Medicare and Medicaid are national health care programs. Medicare primarily serves the elderly while
Medicaid serves
indigent people.
5. It is one of the general system model where generally health care providers are private but the payer
is governmentrun insurance program that all citizens pay into?
A. Bismarck Model
B. Beveridge Model
C. Out of pocket model
D. National Health Insurance Model
ANSWER: D
National Health Insurance Model is the system used in Canada, Australia, Taiwan, and South Korea.
Generally, health
care providers are private, but the payer is a government-run insurance program that all citizens pay
into. All insured
residents are entitled to the same level of health care, which includes hospitals, physicians, and the
surgical dentists.
6. This major theory of justice use free-market system operates on material principle of ability to pay?
A. Libertarian
B. Utilitarian
C. Egalitarian
D. Distributive
ANSWER: A.
Libertarian emphasize personal rights to social and economic liberty. They are not concerned with, nor
do they outline
the requirements of, how the material goods and services are to be distributed, only that the choice of
allocation system
be freely chosen.
7. According to the Historical Look at U.S Health Care, what year did the Medicare Prescription Drug
Improvement
and Modernization Act added new prescription benefits for the elderly?
A. 1983
B. 2001
C. 2003
D. 1993
ANSWER: C
It was year 2003 when Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act added new
prescription benefits
not just for the elderly but also for people with disabilities, and those with end-stage renal cancer.
8. It is the health care model found in Germany, France, Japan, Belgium and Switzerland. The plan uses
private notfor-profit health insurance plans called “sickness funds” usually financed jointly by employees and
employers
through payroll deduction.
A. Bismarck Model
B. Beveridge Model
C. Out of pocket model
D. National Health Insurance Model
ANSWER: A
This model is named after Chancellor Otto von Bismarck, the statement who unified and modernized
Germany in the
late nineteenth century. It is the health care model found in Germany, Japan, Belgium, and Switzerland.
Unlike the
British system health care providers and players are private entities.
9. In Egalitarian theories, Daniel’s uses a concept of veiled prudence. Veiled prudence consists of
ignorance of four
key elements, which are?
A. The prudent planner does not know her age.
B. The prudent planner is guided by a time neutral concern for her well-being over the lifespan.
C. The prudent planner has to plan for each stage of her life under the assumption that she will live
through.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Veiled prudence consists of ignorance of four elements which are mentioned above, including the
prudent planner is
ignorant to her conception of the good, although she knows she might want to alter her conception of
the good in the
course of her life, therefore she keeps her options open for revisions in the future.
10. In QALYs which is also known as Quality Adjusted Life Years, what score is associated if you are
already dead?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
ANSWER: A
QALYs is a formula that can be used to establish the value of an individual’s life and assign each year a
numerical
value. One QALY equates to one year of perfect health. If an individual’s health is below this maximum,
QALYs are
accrued at a rate of less than 1 per year. To be dead is associated with 0 QALYs, and in some
circumstances it is
possible to accrue negative QALYs to reflect health states deemed “worse than dead”.
Session 16
LESSON REVIEW/PREVIEW (10-15 minutes)
The instructor will let the student answer the following:
Options:
A. Beverage Model
B. Bismarck Model
C. National Health Insurance
D. Out of Pocket
1. This health care model is of nonprofit motive, no need to advertise, no expensive underwriting.
Answer: National Health Insurance
2. Only well connected and rich get medical care.
Answer: Out of Pocket
3. Payer is government-run insurance program all citizens pay into.
Answer: National Health Insurance
4. Private not-for-profit health insurance (“sickness funds”) financed jointly by employees and employers
through
payroll deductions
Answer: Bismarck Model
5. Health care financed by government and taxed based rather than insurance based
Answer: Beverage Model
6. This health care model is used in Taiwan, Canada and Australia.
Answer: National Health Insurance
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 15 minutes.
1. The physician assistant who certifies who certifies that an elderly patient with bunions needs a
handicapped parking
stickers, when in fact the severity of the problem does not meet the standard for authorizing the sticker.
What moral
problem is involved in this situation?
A. Disparagement
B. Gaming the system
C. Gatekeeping
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Gaming the system is attempting to get around the system and is willing to lie in the process. Often the
gaming is not
often done to practitioner’s benefit but is being done in behalf of the patient or at a patient’s request.
2. The common problems associated with professional codes are as follow EXCEPT?
A. Incompleteness as to duties
B. Vagueness as to duties and prohibitions
C. Excessive concern with prestige of profession
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention are common problems associated with professional code and includes:
vagueness in regard to self- regulation and peer enforcement
Excessive concern with financial and business interest
3. One looks out for the interests of the profession or of others in a similar practice is known as?
A. Disparagement
B. Gaming the system
C. Gatekeeping
D. Code of conduct
ANSWER: C
Gatekeeping function where one looks out for the interest of the profession or of others in similar
practice, comes as a
result of our professional obligation and training which lead to a strong sense of collegiality with others
in our practice.
4. Code of conducts and ethics include the following EXCEPT?
A. Serving best interest of patients
B. Ethics of research
C. Incompleteness to duties
D. Appropriate scope of practice
ANSWER: C
Incompleteness to duties is included in the common problems with professional code and not in the
code of conduct
and ethics.
5. What are the ways of a health care professional to avoid disparagement?
A. Offer professional courtesy to others
B. Avoid sexual and conflict of interest
C. Look after the welfare of the profession
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
All of the above mention are ways to avoid disparagement thus this will create a harmonious relationship
with your
colleagues and build a strong one.
Session 17
LESSON REVIEW/PREVIEW (10-15 minutes)
TRUE OR FALSE
1. One of the common problems of professional code is the excessive concern for prestige and
promotion.
TRUE
2. It is our responsibility as health care provider to be truthful, fair and to keep our promises.
TRUE
3. Disparaging is one who looks out for the interest of others in similar practice.
FALSE
4. Gaming the system is done on behalf of a colleague’s request.
FALSE
5. Serving best interest of a patient is included in the code of conduct and ethics.
TRUE
Multiple Choice
(For 1-10 items, please refer to the questions in the Rationalization Activity)
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY (DURING THE FACE TO FACE INTERACTION WITH THE STUDENTS)
The instructor will now rationalize the answers to the students and will encourage them to ask questions
and to discuss
among their classmates for 15 minutes.
1. Which of the following statement about sexual misconduct is INCORRECT?
A. Between practitioners and patients unethical
B. Relationship between practitioner and patient always equal
C. When practitioner feels potential for misunderstanding or mutual feelings of romantic interest, it is
time to end
professional relationship
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Relationship between practitioner and patient is always unequal. Because the nature of the practitionerpatient
relationship places the practitioner in a position of advantage in the critical areas of knowledge, power,
status and
personal vulnerability.
2. Sheryl is a respiratory therapy technician in a small town in Michigan. The town has a small hospital
and a small
durable medical supply company. She is known locally as an entrepreneur ball of fire and has managed
to
become both the head of the hospital respiratory care department and the owner of the small durable
medical
supply company. What code of ethics and professional conduct best describe the scenario?
A. Role fidelity
B. Conflict of interest
C. Moral duty
D. Duty to treat
ANSWER: B
Conflict of interest is a situation in which a person or organization is involved in multiple interest,
financial or otherwise,
and serving one interest could involve working against another.
3. What universal principle requires remaining within the scope of legitimate practice. Scope of practice
is clear, and
one does not cross the line without willful intention?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Role Fidelity
D. Veracity
ANSWER: C
Role fidelity is the faithful practice of the duties contained in the particular practice. Scope of practice is
an important
consideration in the determination of questions regarding role fidelity.
4. The nature substance abuse is such that even fine practitioners begin to experience behavioral
difficulties such as
EXCEPT.
A. Behaves naturally
B. Absenteeism
C. Illogical decision making
D. Excessive error
ANSWER: A
Substance abuse results in negative behavior such as absenteeism, illogical decision making, excessive
error that
makes a patient at risk because of impaired colleagues.
5. An example of conflict of interest where a group of individuals join together performing a business
venture.
A. Self-referral
B. Business partners
C. Joint -venturing
D. Stark law
ANSWER: C
Joint-venture a commercial enterprise undertaken jointly by two or more parties which otherwise retain
their distinct
identities.