Public Health Engineering
Unit - 1
1. The water obtained from
a. rivers
b. wells
c. infiltration galleries
d. springs
2. The water obtained from
a. artesian wells
b. reservoirs
c. rivers
d. rains
3. The horizontal tunnels constructed at shallow depths along the banks of
a river to intercept the ground water table are called
a. rivers
b. wells
c. springs
d. infiltration galleries
4. The vertical wells provided along the banks of a river to draaw ground
water in dry season are called
a. artesian wells
b. tube wells
c. infiltration wells
d. Open wells
When a pervious strata is sandwitched between two impervious strata
of cup shape, the well is called a tube well.
a. False
b. True
5.
6. A pipe sunk into the ground to tap the underground water is called
a. tube well
b. infiltration well
c. artesian well
d. open well
7. The earth's water circulatory system is known as hydrological cycle.
a. True
b. False
8. When in the pervious strata, the surface of water surrounding the well is
at atmospheric pressure, the well is known as gravity well.
a. True
b. False
9. The quality of tube well water is good.
a. True
b. False
10. Absolute pure water is good for health.
a. False
b. True
11. The continuous flow of water may be expected from artesian springs..
a. True
b. False
12. The artesian spring has too much hydraulic gradient and water flows
out automatically.
a. True
b. False
13. The water bearing strala i.e. layers of sand, gravel etc, is called an
acquifer.
a. True
b. False
14. The layers such as lime stone and snd store which do not allow the
water to pass through them are known as aquiclude.
a. True
b. False
Unit - 2
15. In secondary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place is
a. removal of fine dissolved organic material
b. removal of heavier suspended inorganic material
c. removal of harmful bacterias
d. all of the above
16. In preliminary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place, is
a. removal of fine suspended particles
b. removal of fine dissolved organic material
c. removal of harmful bacterias and other organisms
d. removal of lighter floating material
17. The treatment which employs mechanical and hydraulic separation
principles is referred as secondary treatment.
a. False
b. True
18. The secondary treatment of sewage is carried out by the use of
a. grit chambers
b. trickling filters
c. screens
d. chlorinators
19. In high rate activated sludge treatment, bacterias are removed from
80 to 95%.
a. False
b. True
20. In primary settling tank, suspended solids are reduced from a.
40 to 70%
b. 30 to 70%
c. 40 to 80%
d. 40 to 80%
21. Grit chambers are used to remove sand and other organic matter
from sewage.
a. False
b. True
22. Grit chambers of a sewage plant are usually changed after
a. 2 days
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 days
23. Biological action is used in
a. trickling filters
b. sedimentation tanks
c. screens
d. All of above
devices remove materials which would damage equipment or
interfere with a process.
a. Screening
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction
d. Grit
24.
25.
a. Debris
b. screens
c. waste
d. grit
represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
26. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?
a. Mechanical mixers
b. Screening devices
c. Grit removers
d. Sedimentation tank
27. Screening and comminution are preliminary treatment processes.
a. True
b. False
28. Supplemental means of aeration are often employed with an
equalization basin to provide better mixing.
a. False
b. True
29. Which process is employed to gain sufficient head for the
wastewater?
a. Pumping
b. Oxidation
c. Fermentation
d. Screening
30. What is the most common used coagulant?
a. Coal
b. Limestone
c. Ferric sulphate
d. Alum
31. Nitrification efficiency is significantly suppressed as the temperature is
decreased.
a. True
b. False
32. What is the intermediate zone composed of in aerobic-anaerobic
ponds?
a. Algae
b. Organic solids
c. Aerobic bacteria
d. Facultative bacteria
33.
is a process which involves further removal of the
nitrogen.
a. Reduction
b. Nitrification
c. Ammonification
d. Denitrification
34. In rotating biological contractors, what percent of corrugated plastic
discs are submerged?
a. 120
b. 80
c. 60
d. 40
35. The degradation of BOD is classified as what type of reaction?
a. Third Order Reaction
b. Second Order Reaction
c. Zero Order Reaction
d. First Order Reaction
36. Activity is the effective concentration term used to account for the
non-ideal conditions encountered due to ion-ion interaction. Activity is
defined at 1 atm pressure and 298.15 K temperature. It is measured in
mol/L (M).
a. True
b. False
37. I = (2.5×10-5) TDS .This correlation was defined by Stumm and
Morgan in 1996. The ionic strength can be found if the TDS is known.
TDS is measured in mg/L.
a. True
b. False
38. In water treatment which factor which has a major control over
reaction selectivity and product distribution?
a. Temperature
b. Ionic concentration
c. pH
d. Pressure
39. Photocatalysis is the combination of using a photocatalyst and UV or
visible light for the treatment of wastewaters and gaseous pollutants.
a. True
b. False
40. In case of Moving Bed Bioreactor and Activated Sludge process
which is the factor that limits the rate of the reaction?
a. pH
b. Ionic concentration
c. Temperature
d. Pressure
41. The chemical composition of wastewater naturally reflects the origin
from which it came.
a. False
b. True
42. The world’s available fresh water supply is about _
that total water supply.
a. 5
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
43. The sewage is treated by aerobic bacteria action in
a. oxidation pond
b. settling tank
percent of
c. crickling filter
d. None of above
44. In the freshly produced sewage, aerobic activity is maximum.
a. True
b. False
Unit - 3
45. Inferential meters can be used for both low and high flows.
a. True
b. False
46. Light gauge copper tubes are used for general purpose work where
the pressure is not more than 0.15 N/mm2.
a. True
b. False
is used to measure the flow velocity across a crosssection with a known area.
a. Anemometer
b. Inferential meter
c. Speedometer
d. Barometer
47.
48.
is used to measure flows to domestic buildings.
a. Rain gauge
b. Water tank
c. Drainpipe
d. Water meter
49. The diameter of main service pipe may vary from
a. 2-40 mm
b. 1-40 mm
c. 12-4 mm
d. 12-40 mm
50. Which of the following is not true about plastic pipes?
a. Plastic pipes are light in weight
b. Plastic pipes can be installed with ordinary tools
c. Plastic pipes are corrosive
d. None
51. Lead pipes have many advantages. They have a high hydraulic
coefficient of flow and are highly resistant to corrosion. Lead pipes are
highly flexible. Still, it is not preferred because when the lead goes into
solution, it has a cumulative poisoning effect.
a. True
b. False
52. According to the Indian Standard recommendations, a water
requirement of
buildings.
a. 155 litres
b. 145 litres
c. 135 litres
d. 165 litres
per head per day is assumed for residential
53. Which of the following is not a component of the plumbing drainage
system?
a. Water closets
b. Vent pipes
c. Taps
d. Urinals
54. The plumbing system consists of the entire system of piping fixtures
which are used for the supply and drainage of water. The various
components of plumbing water supply system are water supply and
distribution pipes, valves, storage tanks, etc.
a. True
b. False
55. Which of the following is not true about a gate valve?
a. It offers more resistance to the flow of water than the globe valve
b. It is preferred over globe valve where the resistance to the water flow is to be kept at the
minimum
c. It offers less resistance to the flow of water than the globe valve
d. It controls the flow of water equally well from either direction
56. The opening at the top of the intercepting trap is called as cleaning
eye.
a. True
b. False
57. Which of the following traps is commonly known as nahni trap?
a. Floor trap
b. Gully trap
c. Silt trap
d. Grease trap
58. Which of the following is not a characteristic of traps?
a. A trap should be of an absorbent material
b. A trap should be self-cleansing
c. It should be cheap and readily available
d. A trap should be simple in construction
59. The strength or effectiveness of a water seal is represented by its
a. depth
b. Thickness
c. Weight
d. Width
60. In a house drainage system, the pipe which is used to preserve the
water seal of traps is called
a. Water pipe
b. Rainwater pipe
c. Vent pipe
d. Anti-siphonage pipe
61. In a house drainage system, the pipe through which human excreta
flows is called
a. Water pipe
b. Rainwater pipe
c. Vent pipe
d. Soil pipe
62. According to the Indian Standard code recommendations, the
flushing storage capacity for factories and workshops is
litres per urinal seat and
litres per W.C. seat.
a. 170, 900
b. 180, 800
c. 180, 900
d. None of above
63. Which of the following components of a storage tank is used to clean the
tank periodically?
a. Inlet pipe
b. Ball valve
c. Scour pipe
d. Outlet pipe
64. Which of the following materials is not used to make storage tanks?
a. Mild steel pressed plates
b. Stone or brick masonry
c. Reinforced concrete
d. Soda ash
65. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by removal of dissolved oxygen.
a. False
b. True
66. Which of the following stress in pipe depends on temperature?
a. Internal water pressure
b. Stress due to foundation reaction
c. Longitudinal stress
d. Temperature stress
67.
causes hoop tension in pipe shell.
a. Water hammer
b. External water pressure
c. Internal water pressure
d. Longitudinal stress
68. According the mass curve method, the storage capacity is defined as
Maximum excess of supply + Maximum excess of demand.
a. False
b. True
69. The hourly demand rate is constant throughout the day.
a. False
b. True
70. In Intermittent supply, water is supplied to the consumer during fixed
hours of the day and is adopted when sufficient pressure is not available or
sufficient quantity of water is not available.
a. True
b. False
71. The velocity of water in the pipe is 1.8m/Sec. What is the diameter of
pipe used?
a. 43.43 cm
b. 43.88 cm
c. 43 cm
d. 40 cm
72. In which system of water supply, water is available for 24 hours but
uneconomically used?
a. Continuous supply
b. Low supply
c. Fixed supply
d. None of above
73. The purified water in gravity system flow entirely under gravity. It is
the most reliable and economical distribution system.
a. False
b. True
74. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on
a. Quality of water
b. Availability of funds
c. Fire fighting requirements
d. none of the mentioned
Unit - 4
75. What is night soil?
a. Human excreta, animal excreta and urea
b. Animal excreta
c. Human excreta
d. Soil containing urea
76. Wastewater from different sources like bathrooms, kitchens and
wash basins is called
a. Garbage
b. Sewage
c. Sullage
d. Discharge
77. Which of the following conditions is not suitable for the disposal of
excreta or sewage?
a. It should be accessible for children
b. It is not exposed to the atmosphere
c. The waste does not pollute the ground surface
d. It does not give odour nuisance
78. The system to collect night soil, garbage etc. in separate vessels or
deposited in pools and pits is called
a. Waste allocation system
b. Conservancy system
c. Waste deposition system
d. None of above
79. In urban cities like Bangalore, which of the water carriage system is
used?
a. Partially combined system
b. Combined system
c. Separate system
d. Partially separate system
80. Which of the following is an advantage of the conservancy system
over water carriage system?
a. Spread of epidemic
b. Compact house design
c. Water consumption
d. Labour force
81. The benefits of the society of managing human excreta are
considerable, for public health as well as for the environment.
a. True
b. False
82. The means of promoting hygiene through the prevention of human
contact with the hazards of wastes especially feces is called
a. Disease prevention
b. Hygiene
c. Sanitation
d. Hygiene control
83. The overall purpose of sanitation is to maintain the green
environment alone.
a. False
b. True
84. The relatively clean wastewater from baths, sinks, washing
machines and other kitchen appliances is called
a. Wastewater
b. Yellow water
c. Black water
d. Grey water
85. SORP stands for?
a. Storm Overflow Response Plan
b. Sanitary Overflow Response Plan
c. Sewage Overflow Response Plan
d. Sewer Overflow Response Plan
86. The legal entity that is responsible for the wastewater collection
system is called
a. Sewer system agency
b. Water collection agency
c. Storm collection agency
d. Collection system agency
87. For which of the following reason SSMP is not used?
a. All of above
b. Minimizing sanitary sewer overflows
c. Minimizing infiltration/ inflow
d. Reducing sewer size
88. SSMPs are used to minimize the number and impact of sanitary
sewer overflows that occur.
a. True
b. False
89. What is the abbreviation of SSMP?
a. Storm and Sewage Management Plan
b. Sewer System Management Plan
c. Soil and Storm Management Plan
d. Storm System Management Plan
90. The type of wastewater treatment process for treating wastewater or
industrial wastewater using aeration and biological flocs is called?
a. Biological aeration
b. Aeration
c. Active sludge process
d. Anaerobic digestion
91. Which of these is the most common pipeline installation method?
a. Storm sewer construction
b. Trench sewer construction
c. Pipeline construction
d. Tunnel construction
92. The abbreviation of SUE is?
a. Surface utility engineering
b. Subsurface utility engineering
c. Storm usage engineering
d. Storm utility engineering
Which of the following factors mentioned below marks essential for
planning sewer systems for a community?
a. Location
b. Terrain
c. Wastewater flow
d. Usage pattern
93.
is required to transport storm water runoff from roofs,
parking lots, streets, and highways to a point of discharge.
a. Wastewater sewers
b. Sanitary sewers
c. Storm sewers
d. Water sewers
94.
95. Combined sewer systems are no longer installed due to the water
pollution problems they present.
a. True
b. False
96. On which of the factors mentioned below, the type of the sewer
installed does not depend on?
a. Usage pattern
b. storm water
c. Terrain
d. Location
97. Sewer systems can also be referred as sewerage.
a. False
b. True
98. Pipeline networks are designed by engineers and installed by sewer
contractors in accordance with federal and state regulations.
a. True
b. False
99. The process that involves connecting pipelines and sewer
appurtenances to transport waste to sewage treatment centres is called?
a. Sewage construction
b. Sewer construction
c. Pipelines construction
d. Connecting pipelines
100. What is the preferred class of iron pipes?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D
101. What is the maximum specification for water cement ratio?
a. 0.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.6
d. 0.8
102. What is the preferred size of water closet pan?
a. 25”
b. 15”
c. 10”
d. None of above
103. What is the capacity of the preferred low level flushing cistern?
a. 55 litres
b. 25 litres
c. 10 litres
d. 15 litres
104. What is the number of coats of paint required for manhole covers?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2
Unit - 5
105. The pressure of free ammonia in sewage, is detected by
a. Adding suphuric acid
b. Adding potassium permanganate
c. Boiling
d. Phenol-di-sulphuricacid
106. The average temperature of sewage is taken as
a. 400 C
b. 300 C
c. 200 C
d. 100 C
107. The presence of ammonia in sewage is detected by boiling.
a. False
b. True
108. The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of
organic matter is used, are called
a. None
b. Imhoff tanks
c. Sludge sedimentation tanks
d. Tricking filters
109. Dried sewage often traetment is used as
a. Building material
b. Base material for paints
c. Chemical for lowering B.O.D
d. Fertilizer
110. The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment is
a. Alum
b. Ferric chloride
c. Ferric sulphate
d. Lime
111. For the detection of nitrites in the sewage, the matching colour may
be developed by adding
a. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
b. Potassium permanganate
c. Lime
d. Salt
112. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually
a. Equal to 7
b. More than 7
c. Less than 7
d. Equal to
113. The sewage treatment in septic tanks is due to
a. Parasitic decomposition
b. Aerobic decomposition
c. Anaerobic decomposition
d. None
114. In preliminary treatment of sewage the operation which takes place,
is
a. Removal of fine suspended particlkes
b. Removal of fine dissolved organic material
c. Removal of harmful bacvterias and other organisms
d. Removal of lighter floating material
115. The sewage is treated by aerobicbacteria action in
a. All
b. Trickling filter
c. Trickling filter
d. Oxidation pond
116. The secodary traetment of sewage is carried out by the use of
a. Screens
b. Grit chambers
c. Chlorinators
d. Trickling filters
117. The sewage means
a. Mixture of water and waste products
b. Waste inorganic products
c. Waste organic products
d. Waste water
118. The ratio of volume of recirculated sewage to volume of the raw
sewage is called recircultion ratio.
a. False
b. True
119. Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known skinning.
a. False
b. True
120. A well oxidized sewage contains nitrogen mainly as nitrates.
a. False
b. True
121. In sewage treatment plants, the bulky floating and suspended matter is
removed by screening.
a. True
b. False
122. The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is
1/3.
a. True
b. False
123. The grit chamber of a sewage plant is usually cleaned after two
weeks.
a. True
b. False
124. The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment, is alum.
a. False
b. True
125. The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is
alum.
a. True
b. False
126. The bottom of the sewage inlet chamber of septic tanks, provided an
outward slope 1 in 5.
a. True
b. False
127. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
a. All
b. Rivers, lakes, oceans and springs get water from the rains
c. Rain water is obtained by evaporation from rivers, lakes and oceans
d. Water remains in atmosphere as vapours
128. The theory of infiltration capacity was given by
a. Le-Roy K. Shermen
b. Robert E. Horten.
c. W.W. Horner
d. Merrill Bernard
129. Unit Hydrograph theory was enunciated by Le-Roy K. Shermen.
a. True
b. False
130. Hydrology helps in
a. predicting maximum flows
b. deciding the minimum reservoir capacity
c. forecasting the availability of quantity of water at reservoir site
d. All of above
131. Water contains
a. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
b. one hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
c. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
d. three hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
132. What is Palar pani?
a. Spring
b. Milk
c. River water
d. Rain rain
133.
western Himalayas is
a. Guls or Kuls
b. Johads
c. Phalodi
d. Khadins
The name given to the diversion channels of the
134. Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is
available in India?
a. Ocean water
b. River water
c. Pond water
d. Ground water
135. Which planet is also known as blue planet?
a. Mars
b. Earth
c. Venus
d. Mercury
136.
Andolan is related to
a. Tehri
b. Rihand
c. Bhakra Nangal
d. Sardar Sarovar
Narmada Bachao
137. At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India?
a. 9 p.m
b. 11 p.m
c. 10 p.m
d. 8 p.m
138.
he total surface of water in the earth surface is
a. 70 %
b. 75 %
c. 71 %
d. 95 %
139.
The rank of India in terms of water
availability per person p.a in the world is
a. 130th
b. 132nd
c. 133rd
d. 134th
140. The water supply system means
a. construction of reservoirs
b. the entire scheme of collection and disposal of liquid waste
c. the complete layout from the source of supply to the distribution
d. construction of canals
141. The water obtained from the tube wells is known as sub-surface
water.
a. False
b. True
T
142. The water obtained from a lake is known as surface water.
a. False
b. True