Safety
1.
Who has ultimate responsibility for safety matters within his or her unit?
a.
2.
Whose duty is it to make sure all personnel understand all prescribed safety precautions?
a.
3.
The Safety Officer or Safety Manager (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
Who serves as the chairperson of the enlisted safety committee?
a.
6.
The Safety Officer or Safety Manager (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
Who is responsible for managing the Safety Occupational Health program?
a.
5.
The Safety Officer or Safety Manager (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
Whose duty is it to enforce all prescribed safety precautions?
a.
4.
Commanding Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
The Safety Officer or Safety Manager (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
Who shall ensure that all assigned workspaces are inspected and maintained free of hazards and are in
compliance with applicable SOH standards?
a.
Department head, Division officer, and Work center supervisor (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety
Supervisor)
7.
Who shall take prompt action to abate/correct any identified deficiency?
a.
Department head, Division officer, and Work center supervisor (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety
Supervisor)
8.
Who shall advise the division officer on the status of the SOH program within the division including any
safety-related items revealed through maintenance?
a.
9.
Safety Petty Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
Who shall keep the division officer informed of safety training needs within the division?
a.
Safety Petty Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
10. Who shall conduct division Safety Occupational Health training and ensure documentation of the training is
maintained?
a.
Safety Petty Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
11. Who is in charge of the Safety Occupational Health program?
a.
Executive Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
12. How often does the Safety Council convene?
a.
Quarterly (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
13. Who is the chairperson of the Safety Council?
a.
Executive Officer (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
14. The _____ program makes recommendations about the command’s safety program to the Safety Council.
a.
Enlisted Safety Committee (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
15. Who is the senior member of the Enlisted Safety Committee?
a.
The Safety Officer or Safety Manager (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
16. What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
a.
The purpose of a mishap investigation is to determine the primary and contributing causes of the
mishap. From those causes we can then plan corrective action to prevent a recurrence of the
mishap (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Supervisor)
17. Who is responsible for conducting a mishap investigation?
a.
Investigation of mishaps is the responsibility of all levels of supervision, from the first-line
supervisor to the commanding officer. An investigation is best conducted by the lowest level of
supervision involved in the job or event that resulted in the mishap. (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval
Safety Supervisor)
18. Where can you find the standards for design, construction, testing, and use of eye protection?
a.
American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z87.1. (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
19. Hazardous noise areas are defined as any work area where the time weighted average sound level is
expected to be greater than?
a.
84dB(A). (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
20. Personnel shall wear hearing protection when they enter or work in an area where the operations generate
sound greater than?
a.
84dB(A) or peak 140dB. (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
21. Personnel shall wear double hearing protection when they enter or work in an area where the operations
generate sound greater than?
a.
104 dB(A) or peak 165dB. (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
22. What is the definition of a temporary electric power source?
a.
Any electrical power sources (construction power pole boxes or generators) used during the period
of construction, remodeling, repair, or demolition of structures or similar activities. A receptacle in a
building with existing power used to supply electricity for construction is also considered temporary
power. (COMFIRSTNCGINST 5100.2)
23. Explain the inspection requirements of temporary power sources.
a.
All temporary power sources will be inspected, certified safe in accordance with the current
National Electric Code (NEC), and tagged with the inspector’s name, company, and date prior to
first use. Thereafter, the temporary electrical source will be inspected monthly, upon turnover, and
start of new projectand certified safe for continued use on the tag attached to the power source and
must be recorded ina log maintained by the Energy Control Program Manager.
(COMFIRSTNCGINST 5100.2)
24. Explain when Ground Fault Circuit Interruption (GFCI) protection is required.
a.
All 120V, single-phase, 15 and 20 ampere receptacle outlets on construction sites, which are not
part of the permanent wiring of the building or structure and which are in use by employees, shall
have approved GFCI for personnel protection. (29 CRF, 1926)
25. Define “Confined Space”
a.
Confined spaces are enclosures that have a limited means of entry and exit, and although they are
large enough to get into , they are not designed for continuous employee occupancy. (OPNAVINST
1500.23)
26. Who can certify that a confined space is safe for entry?
a.
Gas Free Engineer. (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
27. State the three types of respirators.
a.
Air purifying, supplied air, and self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
28. When can personnel use air purifying respirators?
a.
Personnel shall only use this respirator where adequate oxygen (19.5 to 23.5 percent by volume) is
available. (OPNAVINST 1500.23)
29. List and describe the four general classes of fires as well as the types of extinguishers that can be used on
each.
a.
Class A: wood, paper, trash
i.
b.
Class B: flammable liquids
i.
c.
Foam, carbon dioxide, sodium or potassium bicarbonate (PKP), multi-purpose ABC
Class C: electrical
i.
d.
Water, foam, multi-purpose ABC
Carbon dioxide, sodium or potassium bicarbonate (PKP), multi-purpose ABC
Class D: combustible metals
e.
(29 CRF, 1926)
30. At a minimum how often must a command conduct a safety stand-down?
a.
At least once a year (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety Officer)
31. What are the five steps of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
a.
Identify the hazard
b.
Assess the hazard
c.
Make risk decisions
d.
Implement controls
e.
Supervise
32. What are the four principles of ORM?
a.
Accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost
b.
Accept no unnecessary risk
c.
Anticipate and manage risk by planning
d.
Make risk decision at the right level
33. Define hazard severity.
a.
The worst credible consequence that can occur as a result of a hazard. (OPNAVINST 3500.39)
34. Define mishap probability.
a.
The probability that a hazard will result in a mishap or loss. (OPNAVINST 3500.39)
Naval History
1.
Following the disbandment of the Continental Navy; discuss the three circumstances that led to the
formation of the U.S. navy.
a.
Smuggling was diverting desperately needed tax money from our almost empty treasury. Alexander
Hamilton, the first Secretary of the Treasury, proposed and Congress authorized in 1790 a fleet of
ten boats for the collection of revenue. It became known as the Revenue Marine.
b.
The seizure of U.S. merchant shipping by predatory French privateers and pirates from the
Mediterranean’s Barbary Coast. In 1795 Congress authorized the Department of War to construct
six frigates, for the protection of american merchanctment against Barbary Corsairs.
c.
In response to renewed aggression by France during its war with Great Britain, Congress
established the Department of the Navy, authorized the Marine Corps, and began the first
significant buildup of naval forces.
d.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
(Naval Doctrine Publication 1, Warfare)
What are the four qualities that represent the characteristics of the Naval Forces>
a.
Readiness
b.
Flexibility
c.
Self-sustainability
d.
Mobility
e.
(Naval Doctrine Publication 1, Warfare)
What are the three levels of naval operational planning?
a.
Strategic
b.
Operational
c.
Tactical
d.
(Naval Doctrine Publication 5, Planning)
State the seven principles of planning for naval operations.
a.
Relevance
b.
Clarity
c.
Timeliness
d.
Flexibility
e.
Participation
f.
Economy of Resources
g.
Security
h.
Coordination
What are the strategic missions assigned to the Navy?
a.
Freedom of the seas
b.
Deterrence
c.
Forward presence
d.
Power projection
What are the Navy’s Core Values?
a.
Honor
7.
b.
Courage
c.
Commitment
Discuss the conditions that led to the creation of the Seabees?
a.
As WWII drew near, there was an urgent need for more overseas bases. Airfields and landing
strips had to be rushed into existence on far away islands. There was a need for a combat military
organization trained to construct these advanced bases. Even before the outbreak of hostilities, the
Bureau of yards and Docks had conceived the idea of naval construction battalions. The first
construction units were organized early in January 1942. Highly skilled construction workers were
recruited, and whole construction companies volunteered men and equipment.
8.
When is the Seabees birthday?
a.
9.
05 March 1942
Who is the father of the Seabees?
a.
Admiral Ben Moreell
10. What was Admiral Ben Moreell’s position in 1942?
a.
Chief of the Navy’s Bureau of Yards and Docks.
11. Discuss the significance of Marvin Shields.
a.
In Vietnam, Marvin E. Shields, was posthumously awarded the Medal of Honor for his heroic efforts
in the defense of a Special Forces camp and Vietnamese District Headquarters at Dong Xoai.
12. What rate was Marvin Shields?
a.
CM3
13. What unit was Marvin Shields assigned to?
a.
Seabee unit 1104
14. Discuss the significance of Robert Stetham.
a.
SW2 Robert Stetham was killed in June 1985 during the hijacking of a TWA jet in Lebanon.
Stetham, a passenger on the flight, was singled out by the terrorists because of his military status.
He was badly beaten and ultimately executed after the terrorist’s demands were not met. The
hijackers dumped his body on an airport runway in Beirut. “Throughout the ordeal, Petty Officer
Stetham did not yield, instead he acted with fortitude and courage and helped his fellow
passengers to endure by his example”, said U.S. Navy Vice Admiral David Robinson.
15. During WWII how many airstrips did the Seabees build in the Pacific?
a.
111 major airtrips
16. During WWII how many advanced bases did the Seabees build in the Pacific?
a.
400
17. Before the “Seabees” name was officially adopted, what were the construction battalions called?
a.
Bobcats
18. How many Seabees participated in WWII?
a.
325,000
19. How many Seabee battalions made deployment to Vietnam?
a.
21
20. State the purpose of the Civil Engineer Corps (CEC)
a.
Modern day CEC is responsible for planning construction and public works functions at Navy and
Marine Corps bases worldwide and for leading the Naval Construction Force (NCF).
21. Discuss the Air Force units
a.
RED HORSE - responsible for heavy horizontal and vertical construction projects; site
development; construction and repair of runways, taxiways, aprons, roads, and revetments heavy
earthwork; and construction and repair of facilities and infrastructure
b.
Prime BEEF - responsible for site surveys, bare-base construction using mobility assets, concrete
and asphalt paving, utility system installation and maintenance, EOD operations, and readiness.
c.
Discuss Marine units
i.
Engineer Support Battalion (ESB) - provides combat engineering and limited general
engineering, bulk liquid, and utility support to the MAGTF.
ii.
Marine Wing Support Squadrons (MWSS) - has the capability to survey, design, construct,
repair, and improve expeditionary airfields and bases.
iii.
Combat Engineer Battalion (CEB) - Tasks include: engineer recon; emplacing obstacle
systems; breaching operations; mine.countermine; demolitions; assault bridging;
expedient bridge construction and repair; limited combat road and trail construction; and
providing provisional infantry.
Administration
1.
Define Command and Control (C2)
a.
The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over
assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission. (NWP 4-04 Naval
Civil Engineer Operations)
2.
3.
List the four executive staff (X-Codes) inan NMCB.
a.
X1 - Chaplain
b.
X2 - Dental Officer
c.
X3 - Legal Officer
d.
X4 - Medical Officer
e.
(NTRP 4-04.2.1 Doctrinal Reference for Naval Construction Forces)
The four X-Codes report directly to whom?
a.
4.
Executive Officer NTRP 4-04.2.1 Doctrinal Reference for Naval Construction Forces)
Describe “Confidential” security clearance.
a.
Confidential is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized
disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security.
5.
Describe “Secret” security clearance.
a.
Secret is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure
could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security.
6.
Describe “Top Secret” security classification.
a.
Top Secret is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure
could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
7.
How often must you update a “Confidential” security clearance?
a.
8.
How often must you update a “Secret” security clearance?
a.
9.
Every 15 years (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
Every 10 years (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
How often must you update a “Top Secret” security clearance?
a.
Every 5 years (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
10. Who can grant access to classified materials?
a.
The Commanding Officer (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
11. Who can grant an interim security clearance?
a.
The Commanding Officer (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
12. What does the Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS) provide?
a.
JCAVS provides data such as civilian position sensitivity levels, PSI history,status of
current adjudicative actions, security clearance eligibility and access determinations, nondisclosure execution dates, indoctrinated dates, to assist in local command program
management. (SECNAV M5510.30 Personnel Security Program)
13. Discuss the control measures for “Top Secret” classified information.
a.
Top Secret material shall be continuously accounted for, individually serialized, and
entered into a command Top Secret register or log. Top Secret information shall be
physically signed or accounted for at least annually. (SECNAV M5510.36 Information
Security Program)
14. Discuss the control measures for “Secret”classified information.
a.
Commanding Officers shall establish administrative procedures for the control of Secret
information appropriate to their local environment, based on an assessment of the threat,
the location, and mission of their command. (SECNAV M5510.36 Information Security
Program)
15. Discuss the control measures for “Confidential” classified information.
a.
Commanding Officers shall establish administrative procedures for the control of
Confidential information appropriate to their local environment, based on an assessment
of the threat, the location, and mission of their command. (SECNAV M5510.36 Information
Security Program)
First Aid
1.
2.
Describe the acronym MARCH as it pertains to first aid
a.
M - Massive hemorrhaging
b.
A - Airways
c.
R - Respiration
d.
C - Circulation
e.
H - Head to toe evaluation
Describe the symptoms of shock
a.
Weak and rapid pulse
3.
b.
Breathing is shallow, rapid, and irregular
c.
The face, arms, and legs feel cold to the touch
d.
Sweating
e.
Very pale, may be a bluish or reddish color to skin
f.
Pupils are dilated
g.
Feeling of weakness
h.
Faintness or dizziness
Describe the treatment for shock.
a.
Keep patient calm
b.
Moisten lips or give small amounts of warm water with 1 tsp of salt
c.
Keep patient warm
d.
Place the injured person on his back on a bed, cot, or stretcher. You should raise the lower end of
the support about 12 inches so their feet are higher than their head.
4.
Explain why you should not give an unconscious person anything by mouth.
a.
The victim may vomit and get some of the material into their lungs when they breathe, causing
choking.
5.
Describe the three types of bleeding
a.
Capillary - blood is usually brick red in color, blood oozes out slowly.
b.
Venous - Blood from the veins is dark red, escapes in a steady flow.
c.
Arterial - Blood from arteries is bright red, gushes out for a surface cut, steady stream when cut is
deeply buried.
6.
7.
What are the four methods for controlling bleeding?
a.
Direct pressure
b.
Elevation
c.
Indirect pressure
d.
Tourniquet
How many pressure points are on the human body?
a.
8.
22 (11 each side)
What are the symptoms of a sucking chest wound?
a.
Victims with open chest wounds gasp for breath, have difficulty breathing out, and may have a
bluish skin color to their face. Frothy-looking blood may bubble from the wound during breathing.
9.
Describe the first aid treatment for a sucking chest wound.
a.
Immediately seal the wound with a hand or any airtight material available.
b.
Firmly tape the material in place and secure it with a pressure dressing.
c.
Give the victim oxygen if it is available.
d.
Lay the victim on a stretcher on the affected side.
e.
Watch the victim closely for signs of shock, and treat accordingly.
f.
Transport victim to medical facility immediately.
10. Describe the first aid treatment for a person with a suspected spinal injury.
a.
Do not move the victim unless absolutely necessary.
b.
The victim must be transported lying flat on their back with their face up. Place pillows or sandbags
by the head so it cannot be turned to either side.
c.
Do not put pillows or padding under the neck.
d.
Use a firm hand to support the victim.
e.
Hold the injured person by their clothing; then pull the victim onto the support.
f.
Do not lift the victim unless you have adequate assistance.
11. Describe the degrees of burns.
a.
FIRST DEGREE - burns are the mildest. These produce redness, increased warmth, tenderness,
and mild pain
b.
SECOND DEGREE - burns redden and blisters the skin. They are characterized by severe pain.
c.
THIRD DEGREE - burns destroy the skin. They can destroy muscle tissue and bone in severe
cases.
12. Describe the first aid treatment of white phosphorus burns.
a.
Superficial burns caused by simple skin contact or burning clothes can be flushed with water and
treated like thermal burns.
b.
Partially embedded white phosphorous particles must be continuously flushed with water while the
first aid tender removes them with whatever tools available, such as tweezers and needle-nose
pliers.
c.
Firmly or deeply embedded particles that cannot be removed by the tender must be covered with a
saline-soaked dressing, which must be kept wet until the victim reaches medical personnel.
13. Describe the symptoms of heat cramps
a.
Excessive sweating may result in painful heat cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and
arms.
b.
Heat cramps may also result from drinking ice water or other cold drinks too quickly or in too large
quantities after exercise.
14. Describe the treatment of heat cramps.
a.
Move the victim to a cool place.
b.
Give plenty of water and add 1 tsp of salt to a quart of water.
c.
Apply manual pressure to the cramped muscle
d.
If condition does not lessen, treat injury as a heat exhaustion casualty.
15. Describe the symptoms of heat exhaustion
a.
Weakness, fatigue, headache, loss of appetite, and nausea.
b.
Ashen gray appearance.
c.
Skin is cold, moist, and clammy.
d.
Pupils are dilated.
e.
The vital signs are usually normal; however, the victim may have a weak pulse, together with rapid
and shallow breathing.
f.
The body temperature may be below normal.
16. Describe the treatment of heat exhaustion.
a.
Care for the victim as if he were in shock.
b.
Move victim to a cool area.
c.
Loosen clothing, applying cool wet cloths to the head, axilla, groin, and ankles.
d.
Do not allow the victim to become chilled.
e.
Transport to medical facility as soon as possible.
17. Describe the symptoms of a heat stroke
a.
Extremely high body temperature (105°F or higher)
b.
Headache, nausea, dizziness, or weakness.
c.
Breathing is deep and rapid at first, then becomes shallow and almost absent.
d.
Victim is usually flushed, very dry, and very hot.
e.
Pupils are dilated.
f.
Pulse is fast and strong.
18. Describe the treatment of a heat stroke.
a.
Move the victim to the coolest place possible and remove as much clothing as possible.
b.
Immerse the victim in a cold-water bath if possible or a sponge bath.
c.
Exposing to cooling fans if possible.
d.
If cold packs are available, place them under his arms, around his neck and ankles, and in their
groin.
e.
Get to the medical facility as soon as possible.
19. Describe frostbite.
a.
Occurs when ice crystal from in the skin or deepers tissues after exposure to temperatures of 32℉
or lower.
20. What are the two classifications of frostbite?
a.
Superficial and deep
21. Describe the treatment of superficial frostbite.
a.
Can be usually thawed with body heat.
b.
Hands can be rewarmed by placing them under the armpit, against the abdomen, or between the
thighs.
c.
Feet can be rewarmed byu using the armpit or abdomen of a buddy.
d.
Other areas of superficial frostbite can be rewarmed by warm water immersion, skin to skin contact,
or covered hot water bottles.
e.
Never rub a frostbitten area.
22. Describe the treatment for deep frostbite.
a.
Make no attempt to thaw the frostbitten area when there is a possibility of refreezing.
b.
Boots and clothing frozen to the body should be thawed by immersing them in warm water before
removal.
c.
Rapidly rewarm frozen areas by immersion in water at 100℉ to 105℉.
d.
Never rub a frostbitten area.
23. Describe the signs of hypothermia.
a.
Shivering
b.
Feelings of listlessness, drowsiness, and confusion.
c.
Unconsciousness
d.
Signs of shock
e.
Death
24. Describe the first aid treatment for snake bites.
a.
Identify type of snake
b.
Gently wash the wound
c.
Place the victim in a comfortable position
d.
Start an IV
e.
Monitor vital signs
f.
Ensure victim lies quietly
g.
Do not allow victim to smoke, eat, or drink
h.
Transport victim to hospital
i.
Do not use a tourniquet
j.
Do not elevate the extremity
25. Describe the first aid treatment for fractures.
a.
If an open fracture treat wound first
b.
Do not move victim until the injured part has been splinted
c.
Treat for shock
d.
Do not attempt to locate the fracture
e.
Do not attempt to set the bone
f.
Carefully straighten the bone
g.
Apply splint
HAZMAT
1.
Define Hazardous Material (HAZMAT)
a.
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics,
may pose a real hazard to human health or the environment. (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval Safety
Supervisor)
2.
Define Hazardous Waste (HW)
a.
Any discarded material that meets the definition of hazardous material. (NAVEDTRA 14167 Naval
Safety Supervisor)
3.
What general information is contained on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
a.
A MSDS tells users how to use, store, and dispose of hazardous material. (NAVEDTRA 14167
Naval Safety Supervisor)
4.
Where can you find the identity, hazardous ingredients, reactivity, health hazards, precautions for safehandling and use, and emergency and first aid procedures for exposure to a specific material?
a.
5.
6.
7.
What are the six categories of hazardous materials (HAZMAT)?
a.
Aerosols
b.
Compressed gases
c.
Oxidizing materials
d.
Toxic or poisonous materials
e.
Flammable or combustible materials
f.
Corrosive materials
What are the 9 different hazard classification codes?
a.
Explosive
b.
Hazardous gases
c.
Flammable liquids
d.
Oxidizers
e.
Toxic materials
f.
Radioactive materials
g.
Corrosive materials
h.
Miscellaneous
What does CHRIMP stand for?
a.
8.
The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization Inventory
What is the purpose of CHRIMP?
a.
CHRIMP includes centralized inventory management, procurement, storage, issue/receipt/reissue,
and collection/consolidation/offloa of hazardous material.
9.
What does the acronym HAZMINCEN stand for?
a.
Hazardous Material Minimization Center
10. What is the purpose of HAZMINCEN?
a.
HAZMINCENs are storage areas used to consolidate the storage of hazardous materials in
compliance with CHRIMP.
11. What does the acronym HICS stand for?
a.
Hazardous Material Inventory Control System
12. What is the purpose of HICS?
a.
Chemical tracking system providing “cradle-to-grave” tracking of the hazardous material used at a
facility.
Supply
1.
What does COSAL mean?
a.
2.
What does COSBAL mean?
a.
3.
5.
90 days or 1800 construction hours
What are the 10 classes of supply?
a.
I - Subsistence
b.
II - Clothing, individual equipment
c.
III - POLs
d.
IV - Construction material
e.
V - Ammunition
f.
VI - Personal demand items
g.
VII - Major end items
h.
VIII - Medical material
i.
IX - Repair parts
j.
X - Non-military program support items
What does the acronym OPTAR mean?
a.
6.
Consolidated Shorebase Allowance List
The COSAL contains enough equipment to allow a unit to be self sufficient for how many days?
a.
4.
Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List
Operating target.
What does BOR mean?
a.
Budget OPTAR Report
7.
What does the acronym DRMO mean?
a.
8.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office
Discuss DRMO.
a.
Excess material is to be turned into the DRMO. This material can be a way to save valuable
resources by routinely screening requirements against DRMO’s available assets. Material turned
into DRMO fall into one of three categories: items that need inventory manager disposal authority;
items that do not need inventory manager disposal authority; or scrap and waste.
9.
Define “Plant Property”
a.
Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more and a useful life of over two years
10. Define “Minor Property”
a.
Personnel property acquired for immediate use and having a unit cost between $2,500 and
$100,000
11. What qualifies as a controlled item?
a.
Any classified items
b.
Firearms
c.
Ammunition
d.
Pilferage items
e.
Hand tools and shop equipment
f.
Nuclear propulsion iems
g.
Airplane engine parts
h.
Drugs
i.
Precious metals
j.
Individual clothing
k.
Office machines
l.
Photographic equipment and supplies
m. Communication equipment
n.
Vehicular equipment
12. Explain the purpose of the Allowance Change Request (ACR)
a.
An ACR is submitted to recommend a change to the battalion’s TOA.
13. What is the purpose of a NAVSUP 1250-1?
a.
To requisition National Stock Number (NSN) items
14. What is the purpose of a NAVSUP 1250-2
a.
To requisition Non-National Stock Number (Non-NSN) items.
15. What is the purpose of a DD Form 1348?
a.
DD Form 1348 is an Issue/Receipt Release Document (IRRD) that shows the transfer of ownership
of requisitioned items
16. What is the purpose of a DD Form 1149?
a.
DD Form 1149 is a requisition and invoice shipping document normally used to requisition only the
types of material and service specified in par. 3022 or par. 3031. When receiving material on a DD
Form 1149, technical inspection by the ordering department will be accomplished if required.
(NAVSUP P-485 Afloat Supply Procedures Manual)
17. What is the purpose of a DD Form 200?
a.
DD Form 200 is used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when
government property is lost, gained, damaged, or destroyed.
18. What is the purpose of a SF 364?
a.
A SF 364 is a Report of Deficiency (ROD) form used to record item and packaging discrepancies
(quantity)
19. What is the purpose of a SF 368?
a.
A SF 368 is a Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR). It is used to provide feedback to activities
responsible for the design, development, purchasing, production, supply, maintenance, contract
administration, and other functions so that action can be taken to determine cause, take corrective
action, and prevent recurring deficiencies.
Communications
1.
Define EKMS
a.
Electronic Key Management System
b.
The logistics and accounting system through which electronic key is accounted, distributed,
generated, controlled, destroyed and safeguarded.
2.
Define COMSEC
a.
Protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from
telecommunications of the U.S. Government concerning National Security: protective measures
taken to ensure the authenticity of such telecommunications.
3.
Define CCI
a.
Controlled Cryptographic Item
b.
A secure telecommunications or information handling equipment, or associated cryptographic
component, which is unclassified but controlled.
4.
What are Practices Dangerous to Security (PDS)?
a.
PDS’s, while not reportable to the national level (NSA), are practices, which have the potential to
jeopardize the security of COMSEC material, if allowed to perpetuate.
5.
6.
7.
Discuss EAP
a.
Emergency Action Plan
b.
A written plan for safeguarding COMSEC or CCI in the event of an emergency
Discuss EDP
a.
Emergency Destruction Plan
b.
A written emergency plan for destroying COMSEC or CCI in the event of an emergency
Define “DTD” as it applies to communications
a.
Data Transfer Device
b.
The DTD is an integral component of EKMS. The DTD provides cryptographic security for the
storage and transfer of all types of key and protective storage for related data.
8.
What is the primary DTD used by the Navy?
a.
9.
AN / CYZ-10
Define “CIK” as it applies to communications
a.
Crypto Ignition Key
b.
The information contained in a key storage device (KSD) that is used to electronically lock and
unlock the secure mode of crypto equipment. WHen the KSD containing a CIK is inserted in the
DTD and the DTD is powered on, the cryptographic capabilities of the DTD are unlocked to allow
for the input/output and handling of key and other information.
10. Define “Supersession” as it applies to communications
a.
Supersession refers to a time when a particular item of COMSEC material is no longer eligible for
use.
11. Describe the three types of supersession
a.
Regular - based on a specific, predetermined date for each edition of material
b.
Irregular - not predetermined but occurs as a result of use.
c.
Emergency - an unplanned change of supersession, usually as a result of a compromise
12. Define “CEOI” as it applies to communications
a.
Communications-Electronics operating Instructions
b.
The CEOI contains the technical guidance required to establish and maintain communications
support of operations
i.
Call sign assignment
ii.
Frequency assignments
iii.
Radio guard charts
iv.
Radio net identifiers
v.
Telephone directory
vi.
Identification and marking panel codes
vii.
Signal panel message instructions
viii.
Pyrotechnic and smoke codes
ix.
Ground-to-air signals
x.
Sound warning signals
13. Define “CCIR”
a.
Commander’s Critical Information Requirements
b.
The information regarding the enemy and friendly activities and the environment identified by the
commander as critical to maintaining situational awareness, planning future activities, and
facilitating timely decision making
Weapons
1.
2.
State the four weapon safety rules
a.
Treat every weapon as if it were loaded
b.
Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot
c.
Keep your finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire
d.
Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire
State the four weapon conditions
a.
1 - magazine inserted, round in chamber, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed
3.
4.
b.
2 - Not applicable
c.
3 - Magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed
d.
4 - Magazine removed, chamber empty, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed
What weapon systems are in the NCF?
a.
M-2
12
b.
M-4
420
c.
M-9
175
d.
MK-19
12
e.
M-203
40
f.
M-240B 28
g.
M-500
Define “Misfire”
a.
5.
40
A misfire is a complete failure to fire (The weapon functions properly but the round does not fire)
Define “Malfunction”
a.
A malfunction occurs because of a stoppage caused by a mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine, or ammunition
6.
Define “Stoppage”
a.
A stoppage is any interruption in the cycle functioning caused by faulty action of the weapon or
faulty ammunition
7.
8.
State the eight steps of operation in a firing cycle
a.
Feeding
b.
Chambering
c.
Locking
d.
Firing
e.
Unlocking
f.
Extracting
g.
Ejecting
h.
Cocking
Define “Trajectory”
a.
9.
The path by a projectile in flight
Define “Breech”
a.
The rear end of the barrel
10. Define “Bore”
a.
The hole in the barrel
11. Define “Chamber”
a.
The enlarged part of the bore at the breech that hold the cartridge
12. Define “Muzzle”
a.
The front or forward end of the barrel
13. Define “Muzzle Velocity”
a.
The speed at which a bullet travels when it leaves the muzzle of the barrel.
14. Define “Maximum Range:
a.
The greatest distance that the projectile will travel
15. Define “Maximum Effective Range”
a.
The greatest distance at which a weapon may be expected to inflict damage.
16. Discuss the colors of small arms ammunition
a.
Green
Ball
b.
Orange or Red
c.
Violet
Blank
d.
Aluminum
Armor Piercing Incendiary
Tracer
17. M-9 Service Pistol
a.
Maximum Range
1800 meters
b.
Maximum Effective Range 50 meters
c.
Type of Ammunition
9mm
18. M-240B machine Gun
a.
Belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position
b.
Rates of Fire
i.
Sustained
100 rounds per minute
ii.
Rapid
200 rounds per minute
iii.
Cyclic
650-950 rounds per minute
c.
Maximum Range
3725 meters
d.
Maximum Effective Range Area 1100 meter (tripod) 800 meters (bipod)
e.
Maximum Effective Range Point 800 meters (tripod) 600 meters (bipod)
f.
Grazing Fire Range
600 meters
g.
Ammunition
7.62mm
19. MK19B Machine Gun
a.
Air cooled, blowback operated, belt fed, vehicle mountable
b.
Rates of Fire
i.
Sustained
40 rounds per minute
ii.
Rapid
60 rounds per minute
iii.
Cyclic
325-375 rounds per minute
c.
Maximum Range
2212 meters
d.
Maximum Effective Range Area 2212 meters
e.
Maximum Effective Range Point 1500 meters
f.
Arming Range
18-30 meters
g.
Ammunition
40mm
20. M2HB .50 cal Machine Gun
a.
Belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crew served machine gun
b.
Rates of Fire
i.
Sustained
less the 40 rounds per minute
ii.
Rapid
greater than 40 rounds per minute
iii.
Cyclic
400-550 rounds per minute
c.
Maximum Range
6767 meters
d.
Maximum Effective Range 1829 meters
21. M-203
a.
Maximum Range
400 meters
b.
Maximum Effective Range Area 350 meters
c.
Maximum Effective Range Point 150 meters
d.
Ammunition
40mm
22. M-500
a.
Manually operated (pump action) repeating, magazine fed, shoulder fired weapon
b.
Ammunition
12 gauge
c.
Ammunition Capacity
6 (5 magazine, 1 chamber)
d.
Length
39.5” (barrel - 18.5”_
e.
23. What are the six types of grenades
a.
M-67
Fragmentation
b.
MK-1
Illuminating
c.
MA-25
Chemical
d.
M-14
Incendiary
e.
M-8
Smoke
f.
M-57
Practice
24. Claymore Mine
a.
60 degree fan shaped pattern
b.
50 meters killing zone
c.
100 meters moderately effective
d.
250 meters dangerous
e.
1 ½ pounds of C4 is used
f.
100 ft of firing wire is used
g.
Uses M57 firing device
h.
Anti-personnel mine
25. Define “Grazing Fire”
a.
The center of the cone does not rise above 1 meter. The entire cone of fire does not rise more than
1.8 meters (Knees to chest).
26. Define “FPL”
a.
Final Protective Line
i.
An FPL is a predetermined line along which grazing fire is placed to stop an enemy
assault. If an FPL is assigned, the machine gun is sighted along it except when other
targets are being engaged. An FPL becomes a part of the unit’s final protective fires.
27. Define “PDF”
a.
Principle Direction of Fire
i.
A PDF is a direction of fire assigned priority to cover an area that has good fields of fire or
has a likely dismounted avenue of approach. It also provides mutual support to an
adjacent unit. Machine guns are sighted using the PDF if a FPL has not been assigned.
28. What must be included in a range card for a crew served weapon?
a.
The machine gun number
b.
Unit designation
c.
Date and time the range card was prepared
d.
The Machine gun position
e.
A magnetic north arrow
f.
The left and right lateral limits
g.
The assigned PDF or FPL
h.
Magnetic azimuth of the machine gun to a prominent terrain feature(s)
i.
Dead space
j.
Areas signifying grazing fire
k.
Specified targets numbered in sequence with their direction in mils, elevation in mils, and range in
meters
General Military Tactics
1.
Describe the key components of a standard battle load.
a.
2.
Pistol belt, magazine case, E-tool with carrying case, canteen with cover and cup, first aid kit
Describe a hast/skirmishers position.
a.
This shallow pit type of emplacement provides a temporary, open, prone firing position for the
individual rifleman.
3.
Describe an improved one man fighting position
a.
Wide enough to accommodate a man’s shoulders, a sump should be built below the firing step to
catch rainwater at one end. The firing step should be deep enough to protect most of a man’s body
while firing. A circular grenade sump, large enough to accept the largest known enemy grenade, is
sloped downward at an angle of 30 degrees and is excavated under the fire step.
4.
Describe an improved two man fighting position
a.
Essentially two one-man hoes. By being in such close proximity, each man gains a feeling of more
security, and it allows one man to rest while the other is observing the area.
5.
Define camouflage
a.
Camouflaging is nothing more than hiding or concealing your position or equipment by blending it in
with the natural or local surroundings to avoid detection by the enemy
6.
Define cover
a.
7.
Define concealment
a.
8.
Cover is protection from the fire of hostile weapons
Concealment is protection from hostile ground or air observation, but not from hostile fire
State the 11 general orders of a sentry
a.
To take charge of this post and all government property on view
b.
To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert, and observing everything that
takes place within sight or hearing
c.
To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce
d.
To repeat all calls from post more distant from the guard house than my own
e.
To quit my post only when properly relieved
f.
To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the Commanding
Officer, Command Duty Officer, Officer of the Deck, and Officers and Petty Officers of the Watch
only
g.
To talk to no one except in the line of duty
h.
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder
i.
To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instructions.
j.
To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
k.
To be especially watchful at night, and, during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on
or near my post and to allow no one to pass without proper authority.
9.
What does KOCOA stand for?
a.
Key terrain
b.
Observations and fields of fire
c.
Cover and Concealment
d.
Obstacles to movement
e.
Avenues of approach
10. Define True North
a.
A line from any position on the surface of the earth to the North Pole
b.
It is symbolized by a star on a map
11. Define Magnetic North
a.
The direction to the magnetic North Pole is indicated by the north-seeking needle of a magnetic
instrument
b.
It is symbolized by a half arrowhead on map
12. Define Grid North
a.
North established by the vertical grid lines on a MGRS map
b.
It is symbolized by the letters GN
13. How many degrees are there in each click of the lensatic compass’ bezel ring?
a.
3
14. Grid coordinate accuracies
a.
4 digit - 1000 meters
b.
6 digit - 100 meters
c.
8 digit - 10 meters
15. When is “intersection” used?
a.
Intersection is used to locate an unknown point by using two or more known positions and sighting
in on the unknown point
16. When is “resection” used?
a.
Resection is used to locate the unknown position of the user by sighting two or more known
features
17. State the 12 steps of patrol planning
a.
Study the mission
b.
Plan use of time
c.
Study terrain and situation
d.
Organize the patrol
e.
Select people, weapons, and equipment
f.
Issue WARNO
g.
Coordinate
h.
Make reconnaissance
i.
Complete detailed plans
j.
Issue patrol order
k.
Supervise, inspect, rehearse, and re-inspect
l.
Execute the mission
18. What does SMEAC stand for?
a.
Situation
b.
Mission
c.
Execution
d.
Admin and Logistics
e.
Command and Signal
19. Define SALUTE
a.
Size
b.
Activity
c.
Location
d.
Unit
e.
Time
f.
Equipment
20. What does the acronym SAFE stand for?
a.
Security
b.
Automatic Weapons
c.
Fields of Fire
d.
Entrenchment
21. What are the three echelons of defense?
a.
Security area, forward defense area, and reserve area
22. What does the acronym ADDRAC stand for?
a.
Alert
b.
Direction
c.
Description
d.
Range
e.
Assignment
f.
Control
23. Define “Sector of Fire”
a.
A sector of fire is an area of responsibility assigned to a squad, platoon, or crew-sized weapon to
be covered by fire.
24. Define Forward Limit
a.
The range at which the weapon will open fire
25. What are the three different firing positions?
a.
Primary, Alternate, Supplementary
26. What does the acronym PDF stand for?
a.
Principle Direction of Fire
27. What does the acronym FPL stand for?
a.
Final Protective Line
28. What are the three characteristics of an FPL?
a.
FIG
i.
Flanking
ii.
Interlocking
iii.
Grazing
29. What are the three classifications of wire entanglement?
a.
Tactical wire
i.
Breaks up enemy attack formation and holds the enemy in areas covered by the most
intense defensive fire, placed along the friendly side of the FPL.
b.
Protective wire
i.
Prevents surprise assaults from points close to the defense area. It should be placed
close enough to the defense area for day and night observation but also far enough away
to prevent the enemy from using hand grenades effectively. A good practice is to position
it where your weapons interlock in fields of fire.
c.
Supplementary wire
i.
Conceals the exact line of tactical wire
30. What are the four basic fire team combat formations?
a.
Column
i.
Used when speed and control are governing factors. This formation is favorable for fire
and maneuvers to either flank but is vulnerable to fire from the front because its own fire is
impeded.
b.
Wedge
i.
Used when the enemy situation is unknown but contact is possible. This formation
provides all-around protection and flexibility and is also easy to control
c.
Skirmishers (left and right)
i.
Used most effectively when you are assaulting a known enemy position. It is also useful
for “mopping” up operation and crossing short, open areas. This formation provides
maximum firepower to the front but is difficult to control.
d.
Echelon (left and right)
i.
Used primarily to protect an exposed flank. This formation permits heavy firepower to both
the front and direction of the echelon. This formation is difficult to control and generally
very slow.
31. What are the 9 lines of a MEDEVAC request?
a.
Location of pickup site
b.
Radio frequency / call sign
c.
Number of patients by precedence (Urgent, Urgent Surgical, Priority, Routine, Convenience)
d.
Special equipment needed
e.
Number of patients by type (Litter, Ambulatory)
f.
Security at pickup site
g.
Method of marking pickup site
h.
Number of patients by nationality
i.
CBR contamination in area (if applicable)
Contingency Operations
1.
Discuss Engineer Support Plans (ESP)
a.
The ESP identifies the minimum essential facilities and engineering capabilities needed to support
the commitment of military forces
2.
Discuss the Request for Forces (RFF) process
a.
Naval civil engineering force units and individual augments must be requested through the Request
for Forces process to augment a component or Joint Task Force (JTF) organization
3.
When are initial/expedient construction standards used?
a.
In a tactical environment when response times are at a premium for rapidly deploying engineering
resources to limited support locations
4.
When are temporary construction standards used?
a.
When a location requires that it extend the efficiency of operations for use for as long as 24 months
and when the naval civil engineering forces are required to provide sustained operations.
5.
When are permanent construction standards used?
a.
Naval civil engineering forces build permanent construction standard facilities for Host Nation (HN)
supporting stability and security operations for U.S. forces with increased efficiency for long-term
sustained operations
6.
What are the three types of engineering Battlespace functions assigned to the Seabees?
a.
7.
8.
Define MPF
a.
Maritime Prepositioning Force
b.
There are 3 Maritime Prepositioning Ship Squadrons (MPSRONs) forward deployed.
What is the minimum distance between a latrine and messing facilities?
a.
9.
General, Combat, Special
100 yards
What is the minimum distance between a latrine and water supplies?
a.
100 yards
10. What is the distance between garbage pits and messing facilities?
a.
Not more than 30 yards
11. What is the minimum distance between a garbage pit and water supplies?
a.
Not less than 100 yards
12. What is the purpose of a leach field?
a.
Leaching fields are used for sewage treatment processes where common sewers are not available.
13. Where is the facility's history jacket maintained?
a.
The trouble desk
14. Describe the three categories of work that camp maintenance is responsible for?
a.
Emergency Service Work
i.
b.
Requires immediate action or any minor work requiring less than 16 man-hours
Specific Job Order
i.
Work that exceeds 19 man-hours
c.
Standing Job Order
i.
Work that is highly repetitive in nature
CBR
1.
What is the purpose of chemical warfare?
a.
2.
Chemical agents are used to produce death, injury, temporary incapacitation, or irritating effects.
What is the purpose of biological warfare?
a.
Biological operations use living organisms to cause disease or death. They act on living matter
only. Most organisms that produce disease enter the body of the victim and grow in tissue.
3.
How do chemical agents enter the body?
a.
4.
They enter the body through the victim's breathing or swallowing or absorption through the skin.
How do biological agents enter the body?
a.
The most efficient means of delivering biological agents on a large scale is through aerosols, which
generally are invisible and odorless. Animals and insects can be used as carriers to spread
biological agents. Another method of quickly infecting a large number of people is through
contaminating a water supply.
5.
What are the three broad types of anti personnel agents used during chemical warfare?
a.
Casualty
i.
Blister agents cause severe burns, blisters, and general destruction of body tissue. When
they are inhaled, the lungs are injured.
b.
ii.
Choking agents inflame the nose, throat, and lungs.
iii.
Blood agents interfere with the distribution of oxygen by the blood
Incapacitating
i.
Reactions vary among individuals. One person might go into shock while another might
have a feeling of extreme fatigue
c.
Harassing
i.
6.
Tear and vomiting agents cause temporary disability
What are the different classifications of nuclear explosions?
a.
Airburst
7.
b.
High-Altitude
c.
Surface Burst
d.
Underwater Burst
e.
Underground Burst
Define MOPP
a.
8.
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
MOPP levels
a.
MOPP 0+
i.
b.
c.
d.
e.
9.
Mask carried, everything else in arms reach
MOPP 1
i.
Mask carried
ii.
Over-garments worn
iii.
Boots and gloves in arms reach
MOPP 2
i.
Mask carried
ii.
Over-garments worn
iii.
Boots worn
iv.
Gloves in arms reach
MOPP 3
i.
Mask carried
ii.
Over-garments worn
iii.
Boots worn
iv.
Gloves worn
MOPP 4
i.
Mask worn
ii.
Over-garments worn
iii.
Boots worn
iv.
Gloves worn
What does the nomenclature M-9 depict in CBR?
a.
Chemical agent detector tape
b.
Detects liquid nerve or blister agents
c.
Turns a red or reddish color in the presence of a nerve agent (G and V) or a blister agent (H and L)
10. What does the nomenclature M-8 depict in CBR?
a.
Chemical agent detector paper
b.
Detects liquid nerve or blister agents
i.
G Nerve Yellow
ii.
V Nerve Green
iii.
H Blister Red
11. In reference to CBR what does the nomenclature M-291 depict?
a.
Individual Skin Decontamination Kit
12. In reference to CBR what does the nomenclature M-295 depict?
a.
Individual Equipment Decontamination Kit
13. What stations are included in the Detailed Equipment Decontamination (DED) process?
a.
1 - primary wash
b.
2 - DS2 application
c.
3 - contact time / interior decon
d.
4 - rinse
e.
5 - check
14. What stations are included in the Detailed Troop Decontamination (DTD) process?
a.
1 - individual gear decon
b.
2 - boot and hood decon
c.
3 - over garment removal
d.
4 - over boot and glove removal
e.
5 - monitor
f.
6 - mask removal
g.
7 - mask decon
h.
8 - reissue
15. What type of standard decontamination agent reacts violently with liquid mustard agent?
a.
Super tropical Bleach (STB)
16. What chemical agents does the M256 kit detect?
a.
Mustard (H and D)
b.
Phosgene Oxime (CX)
c.
Lewisite
d.
Hydrogen Cyanide (AC)
e.
Cyanogen Chloride (CK)
f.
Nerve (V and G)
Embarkation
1.
Define “ACL”
a.
Allowable Cabin Load
i.
The amount of cargo and passengers that may be transported by specified aircraft
determined weight, cubic displacement, and distance to be flown
2.
Define TALCE
a.
Tanker Airlift Control Element
i.
Describes a composite organization deployed to any location where Air Mobility Command
(AMC) command and control, and mission support is required but nonexistent
3.
Define Marshalling
a.
The process of assembling, holding, and organizing supplies and/or equipment for onward
movement
4.
Define AACG and DACG
a.
Arrival Airfield Control Group
i.
The organization that receives transported units from the Air Force carrier and controls
them until released to their parent unit
b.
Departure Airfield Control Group
i.
The organization provided by the command which will control the unit to be airlifted from
the marshalling area until release to the TALCE at the ready line
5.
Describe the standard pallet used by Air Mobility Command?
a.
Nomenclature: 463L Pallet
b.
Material: Aluminum with balsa wood core
c.
Dimension: 88” x 108”
d.
Usable dimension: 84” x 104”
6.
e.
Maximum cargo height: 96” @ 10,000 lbs and 100” @ 8,000 lbs
f.
Maximum load capacity: 10,000 lbs
g.
Desired load capacity: 7,500 lbs
h.
Weight: 290 lbs and 355 lbs with two side nets (green) and one top net (yellow)
i.
Tie down rings: 22 (5 on short side, 6 on long side)
j.
Dunnage: 4” x 4” x 88”
Weighing and Marking definitions:
a.
Reference Datum Line (RDL)
i.
b.
Center of Balance (CB)
i.
c.
The distance measured from the most forward edge of a vehicle to the CB of a vehicle
Front Overhang (FOH)
i.
7.
The weight of the last axle from the RDL
From Forward End (FFE)
i.
h.
The weight of the axle between the front and rear axle
Rear Axle Weight (RAW)
i.
g.
The weight of the first axle from the RDL
Middle Axle Weight (MAW)
i.
f.
The total weight of an item of cargo
Forward Axle Weight (FAW)
i.
e.
The distance from the RDL to the point of balance of a piece of cargo
Gross Weight (GW)
i.
d.
A line from which all measurements are taken
The distance in inches from the front bumber to the center of the front axle
Shoring
a.
Rolling
i.
Used to protect the aircraft parking ramp, cargo floor, and loading ramps of cargo
airplanes from damage when transporting a vehicle across it
b.
Parking
i.
Used to protect the aircraft floor from damage during flight. Any vehicle that requires
rolling shoring requires parking shoring
c.
Sleeper
i.
Used under the frame or axles of vehicles that weigh over 20,000 lbs and are equipped
with soft, low pressure, balloon-type off-road tires
d.
Special Approach
i.
8.
9.
Used to decrease the approach angle of aircraft loading ramps
Aircraft
a.
C-130 Hercules
b.
C-17 Globemaster III
c.
C-5 Galaxy
What are the four types of sixcons?
a.
Water tank
b.
Fuel tank
c.
Water pump
d.
Fuel pump
CESE Fundamentals
1.
What is NAVFAC form 9-11240/13?
a.
Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report
i.
2.
Also called a “hard Card”
What is DD Form 1970?
a.
Motor Vehicle Utilization Record
i.
b.
Also called a “Trip Ticket”
Information required
i.
Date
ii.
Type of vehicle
iii.
USN
iv.
Organization
v.
Fuel and oil
vi.
Operator’s name and signature
vii.
Dispatcher’s name and signature
viii.
Odometer or hour reading “out” and “in”
3.
What are the three categories of maintenance?
a.
Organization
i.
Consists of proper equipment operation, safety and serviceability inspections, lubrication,
minor adjustments and services in accordance with the MRC
b.
Corrective
i.
Maintenance which is the responsibility of, and performed in, any designated maintenance
shop. The extent of corrective maintenance encompasses the removal, replacement,
repair, alteration, calibration, modification, and the rebuild and overhaul of individual
assemblies, subassemblies, and components
c.
Depot
i.
Maintenance performed on equipment that requires major overhaul or comprehensive
restoration to a degree necessary to restore the entire unit to a like-new condition
4.
What is include in an NCF Mishap “Crash” package?
a.
Standard Form (SF) 91
i.
b.
DD 518
i.
c.
5.
6.
7.
Motor Vehicle Accident Report
Accident Identification Card
Detailed instructions on what to do in case of an accident
What is on OF-346
a.
U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator’s Identification Card
b.
Must renew every four years
What is NAVFAC Form 11260/1
a.
Construction Equipment Operator License
b.
Every 2 years
Describe the two types of collateral equipment.
a.
Component
i.
Consists of items such as hoses for pumps and bits for earth augers. These items are
normally procured on the same contract as the basic machine
b.
Tactical
i.
Consists of items common to the equipment, such as top canvas and tarpaulin, bows and
side racks, spare tire and rim.
8.
Classes of Vehicles
a.
Class “A”
i.
This category is the full-time assignment of a vehicle to an individual. This can only be
authorized by the CNO
b.
Class “B”
i.
Recurring assignment of the same vehicle to a department, officer, or project. Class “B”
shall not be used if pool vehicles are available.
ii.
c.
Class “B” vehicles will have trip tickets renewed on a weekly basis
Class “C”
i.
All CESE not dispatched under Class “A” or Class “B” shall be assigned as pool vehicles.
Vehicle pools provide Operations Department maximum control over equipment and
ensure efficient and economical vehicle use.
ii.
Class “C” vehicles are dispatched on an “as needed” basis for authorized daily or
individual trips