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EXAM 1
1. Agonist drugs mimic the actions of the body's endogenous biomediators on their receptors. Which of the following is an agonist drug? Choose
one answer.
Select one:
a. Milrinone (Primacor)
b. Atropine
c. Epinephrine
d. Theophylline (Theodur)
The correct answer is: Epinephrine
2. Administration of an antagonist drug results in: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. an immediate "wearing out" of the receptors that are blocked by the drug
b. enhanced interaction of the natural endogenous biomediator with the receptor
c. no direct pharmacologic action from the drug itself
d. a binding process that causes a permanent alteration in the shape of the drug receptor
The correct answer is: no direct pharmacologic action from the drug itself
3. Pharmacodynamics can be defined as: Select one:
a. The study of how genes affect a person’s response to drugs.
b. The mechanisms by which drug molecules influence target cells, or cellular environments.
c. The mechanisms by which the body handles (processes) drugs.
d. The study of harmful or toxic effects of drugs and their molecular targets.
The correct answer is: The mechanisms by which drug molecules influence target cells, or cellular environments.
4. Some medications work by interacting directly with a specific enzyme to decrease its action. Which scenario is an example of a drug-enzyme
interaction?
Select one:
a. . Stool softeners altering the surface of hard stool allowing water from the colonic lumen to enter the stool, making it softer
b. Activated charcoal binding to orally ingested drugs and toxins, preventing their absorption
c. Digoxin binding to Na/K ATPase inhibiting the exit of sodium ions from the cardiac muscle cells and enhancing the entry of calcium ions
into the cell
d. Antacids blocking the secretion of acid by gastric cells to reduce acidity in the stomach
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The correct answer is: Digoxin binding to Na/K ATPase inhibiting the exit of sodium ions from the cardiac muscle cells and enhancing the entry
of calcium ions into the cell
5. A drug's therapeutic index can be defined as: Choose at least one answer
Select one or more:
a. The drug dosage that produces 100% of the possible therapeutic effect
b. The ratio of the average lethal dose of the drug compared to the average effective therapeutic dose of the drug
c. A measurement of a drug's safety and toxicity
d. The time course of a drug's action
The correct answer is: The ratio of the average lethal dose of the drug compared to the average effective therapeutic dose of the drug, A
measurement of a drug's safety and toxicity
6. An adverse drug reaction characterized by a decreased response to a particular drug dosage when the drug is given repeatedly over time is
called: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. dependence
b. an idiosyncratic reaction
c. tolerance
d. a cumulative reaction
The correct answer is: tolerance
7. Which process explains why the recommended oral dose of some medications is much higher than the parenteral dose of the same
medications? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Competitive antagonism
b. Hepatic first-pass metabolism
c. Tolerance
d. Intrinsic activity
The correct answer is: Hepatic first-pass metabolism
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8. A drug half-life can be defined as: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. The time it takes, after a drug is administered, to reach an effective serum (or tissue) concentration that is capable of producing a minimal
clinical response.
b. The time it takes, after a drug is administered, to reach a serum (or tissue) concentration capable of producing its maximal clinical response.
c. The total time that a drug is present in the serum (or tissues) for it to produce any clinical effects (minimal or maximal).
d. The time it takes, after a drug is administered, to reach a serum concentration equal to one half of what it was at its peak.
The correct answer is: The time it takes, after a drug is administered, to reach a serum concentration equal to one half of what it was at its peak.
9. Which list of drug formulations are in the correct order based on the relative speeds of their absorption from fastest to slowest?
Select one:
a. elixir, capsule, enteric coated tablet, powder
b. suspension, elixir, syrup, aerosol
c. syrup, elixir, powder, tablet
d. tablet, capsule, powder, aerosol
The correct answer is: syrup, elixir, powder, tablet
10. Which statement is true concerning the relationship between absorption and the site of drug administration?
Select one:
a. Any drug administered directly into the blood stream (either venous or arterial) will cross a lipid cell membrane in order to be absorbed.
b. Application of drugs to the skin leads to variable rates of absorption and inconsistent serum drug concentrations.
c. With the intravenous or intra-arterial routes, the exact amount of drug "absorbed" is known.
d. Absorption of an oral medication is not affected by food in the digestive tract.
The correct answer is: With the intravenous or intra-arterial routes, the exact amount of drug "absorbed" is known.
11. MB, a 30 y/o new mother, presents to the emergency room with complaints of left lower leg swelling and pain in her leg when standing and
walking. An ultrasound confirms the patient has an acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is admitted to the hospital and prescribed enoxaparin
(Lovenox) 1 mg/kg every 12 hours (treatment dose). Mary weighs 154 lbs, is 5 ft 5 inches, does not have any known drug allergies, and has
normal renal function. Please calculate the dose of enoxaparin in whole mg for this patient.
70 mg Q12 hours
12. When treating patients with heart failure, which statement about digoxin (Lanoxin) is true?
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Choose at least one answer.
Select one or more:
a. Administration of digoxin concurrently with propranolol (Inderal) may cause a potentiative pharmacodynamic drug-drug interaction such
as severe bradycardia.
b. Administration of digoxin daily for weeks to a patient with compromised renal excretion can cause toxicity due to a cumulative intrinsic
adverse drug reaction.
c. . Measuring plasma drug levels is important because digoxin is a highly toxic dug with a very low therapeutic index; toxicity occurs in 25%
of patients receiving the drug.
d. Digoxin is not metabolized and is excreted unchanged in the urine.
The correct answer is: Administration of digoxin concurrently with propranolol (Inderal) may cause a potentiative pharmacodynamic drug-drug
interaction such as severe bradycardia., Administration of digoxin daily for weeks to a patient with compromised renal excretion can cause
toxicity due to a cumulative intrinsic adverse drug reaction., . Measuring plasma drug levels is important because digoxin is a highly toxic dug
with a very low therapeutic index; toxicity occurs in 25% of patients receiving the drug., Digoxin is not metabolized and is excreted unchanged in
the urine.
13. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is often used in combination with the thiazides because:
Select one:
a. The combination reduces the likelihood of adverse drug reactions.
b. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seem with the thiazides.
c. The antihypertensive efficacy is increased when the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism is activated.
d. The potential risk of reflex tachycardia is reduced.
The correct answer is: The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seem with the thiazides.
14. Beta blockers must be used with caution in patients who have heart failure. Which of the following statements describe possible
consequences of slowing the heart rate in a patient with HF? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. May increase perfusion of coronary arteries
b. May increase myocardial contractility
c. May increase myocardial oxygen supply
d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level
The correct answer is: May decrease cardiac output to a critical level
15. A disadvantage to the use of nicotinic acid (Niacin) for hyperlipidemia is: Choose one answer.
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Select one:
a. it is associated with constipation
b. it may cause a life-threatening myopathy
c. it commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
d. it will decrease the absorption of other oral drugs given simultaneously
The correct answer is: it commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
16. A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate has been shown to be beneficial in heart failure patients who are: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. African American
b. unable to tolerate an ACE inhibitor
c. >65 years old
d. NYHA class II
The correct answer is: African American
17. When planning therapy for hyperlipidemia, which of the following drug combinations require caution? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors and nicotinic acid
b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors and fibric acid derivatives
c. Bile acid sequestrants and nicotinic acid
d. Fibric acid derivatives and bile acid sequestrants
The correct answer is: HMG CoA reductase inhibitors and fibric acid derivatives
18. Which drug is an oral, direct factor Xa inhibitor that inhibits the first step in the common pathway similar to the low molecular weight
heparins?
Select one:
a. enoxaparin (Lovenox)
b. warfarin (Coumadin)
c. dabigatran (Pradaxa)
d. rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
The correct answer is: rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
19. To achieve a target blood pressure of less than 140/90 mm Hg, which agent is preferred for most patients with Stage I hypertension in the
absence of a compelling indication? Choose one answer.
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Select one:
a. ACE Inhibitor
b. Thiazide Diuretic
c. Calcium Channel Blocker
d. Loop Diuretic
Feedback The correct answer is: Thiazide Diuretic
Which lab test should be monitored to detect adverse drug reactions common with statins (HMG CoA reductase inhibitors)? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. glucose
b. potassium
c. white blood cell count
d. liver functions
The correct answer is: liver functions
19. Goal B/P in diabetics: <140/90
20. Calcium channel blockers cause constipation
21. AST & liver function- all of the above
22. Dobutamine
23. Live function- hyperlipidemias- all of the above
24. Headache- caused by nitrates
25. Plavix & _____ enzyme- inhibitory pharmacokinetics
26. Compare and contrast pharmacodynamics & pharmacokinetics: Pharmacodynamics = biochemical alterations, pharmacokinetics =
mechanism of how the body handles the medications
27. Which would you not give to a pregnant woman? Moexipril
28. What is safe in children & kids? Questran
29. Do not use statins & fibrates together
30. Alpha 2 blockers
31. Which medication causes tachycardia & hypertension?
32. Direct acting vasodilators
EXAM 2
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1. Which of the following drugs can be used as a mucolytic agent for patients with chronic bronchitis or cystic fibrosis?
Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. terbutaline (Brethine)
b. dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
c. budesonide (Pulmocort)
d. ipratropium (Atrovent)
The correct answer is: dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
2. Antihistamines have antagonist activity on cholinergic (muscarinic) receptors which leads to anticholinergic side effects. Examples of
anticholinergic side effects include:
Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. nasal stuffiness
b. bronchospasm
c. tachycardia
d. pruritis
The correct answer is: tachycardia
3. Although most asthmatics are controlled with a combination of medications, the class that provides the most effective bronchodilatation is:
Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. anticholinergic inhalants
b. methylxanthines
c. beta-2 adrenergic agonists
d. cromones
The correct answer is: beta-2 adrenergic agonists
4. Inhalational formulations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because: Choose one answer.
Select one:
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a. there is a small alveolar membrane surface area
b. there are no natural defenses against inhaled particles
c. they will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and the upper digestive tract
d. of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar-capillary membrane
The correct answer is: of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar-capillary membrane
5. Which of the following agents can be used for both nicotine withdrawal as well as an antidepressant?Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Amitriptylline
b. Buproprion (Zyban)
c. Nicotine Transdermal Systems
d. Varenicline (Chantix)
The correct answer is: Buproprion (Zyban)
6. All the following respiratory agents are safe to use in pregnancy except: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Brompheniramine
b. Potassium Iodide
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Dextromethorphan
The correct answer is: Potassium Iodide
7. When prescribing the first generation antihistamines to children, what potential problem should the prescriber remain alert for in this special
population? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Physical dependence
b. Extrapyramidal effects
c. Paradoxical excitation
d. Bronchospasm
The correct answer is: Paradoxical excitation
8. Which statement is true regarding the concurrent administration of inhalational respiratory steroids and inhalational Beta-2 adrenergic
agonists in the treatment of asthma? Choose one answer.
Select one:
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a. The Beta-2 agonists also have anti-inflammatory effects on the lung.
b. The steroids prevent the down-regulation of the Beta-2 receptors caused by continuous use of the Beta-2 drugs.
c. The steroids also have affinity for and intrinsic activity on the Beta-2 receptors.
d. The steroids increase the absorption of the Beta-2 agonists through the respiratory mucosa.
The correct answer is: The steroids prevent the down-regulation of the Beta-2 receptors caused by continuous use of the Beta-2 drugs.
9. Regarding cromones (cromolyn sodium or Intal) for treatment of mild asthma, which statement is true?Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Effective for relieving an acute episode of bronchospasm
b. Recommended to be dosed once daily
c. May be used synergistically with a beta-2 agonist
d. Least expensive option for initial treatment
The correct answer is: May be used synergistically with a beta-2 agonist
10. Although many antiemetics also produce sedation, which of the following is least likely to have this effect?
Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. promethazine (Phenergan)
b. ondansetron (Zofran)
c. dronabinol (Marinol)
d. trimethobenzamide (Tigan)
The correct answer is: ondansetron (Zofran)
11. The anti-emetic aprepitant (Emend) works by blocking: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. serotonin receptors
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b. chloride channels in the intestine
c. Substance P
d. dopamine receptors in the CTZ
The correct answer is: Substance P
12. Which H-2 blocker inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzymes in the liver? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. ranitidine (Zantac)
b. cimetidine (Tagamet)
c. nizatidine (Axid)
d. famotidine (Pepcid)
The correct answer is: cimetidine (Tagamet)
13. What is the main reason a patient with renal insufficiency should avoid the antacid Maalox and the laxative Milk of Magnesia? Choose one
answer.
Select one:
a. These patients cannot adequately metabolize these drugs.
b. These drugs increase the risk of metabolic acidosis in these patients.
c. These patients are at increased risk for neurotoxicity secondary to hypermagnesemia.
d. These drugs commonly cause water retention and hypertension in these patients.
The correct answer is: These patients are at increased risk for neurotoxicity secondary to hypermagnesemia.
14. In the treatment of early Parkinson's disease, which drug can be used alone as initial monotherapy for tremor?
Select one:
a. amantadine (Symmetrel)
b. bromocriptene (Parlodel)
c. entacapone (Comtan)
d. benztropine (Cogentin)
The correct answer is: benztropine (Cogentin)
15. Which drug for Parkinson's disease has been associated with liver failure?Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. tolcapone (Tasmar)
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b. levodopa
c. pergolide (Permax)
d. selegiline (Eldepryl)
The correct answer is: tolcapone (Tasmar)
16. Which class of drugs is recommended for the prophylactic management of asthma due to anti-inflammatory effects?Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. leukotriene modifiers (montelukast)
b. beta-2 agonists (albuterol)
c. antihistamines
d. anticholinergics (ipratropium)
The correct answer is: leukotriene modifiers (montelukast)
17. The only sedative hypnotic approved by the FDA for chronic use up to 6 months is: Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. eszopiclone (Lunesta)
b. zaleplon (Sonata)
c. zolpidem (Ambien)
d. ramelteon (Rozerem)
The correct answer is: eszopiclone (Lunesta)
18. Which of the following types of drugs would be most effective to abort a migraine headache? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Anticonvulsant
b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
c. Narcotic analgesic
d. Beta blocker
The correct answer is: Narcotic analgesic
19. To reduce the risk of excessive peripheral vasoconstriction, which drug would be the safest to use to treat hypertension in a known
substance abuser (drug of choice is cocaine)? Choose one answer.
Select one:
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a. propranolol (Inderal)
b. verapamil (Calan)
c. nadolol (Corgard)
d. sotalol (Betapace)
The correct answer is: verapamil (Calan)
20. Which of the following are advantages of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. no precaution required with hepatic or renal impairment
b. Minimal, if any sedation
c. No effect on libido and other sexual function
d. No need to monitor for suicide risk
The correct answer is: Minimal, if any sedation
21. Which of the following is the safest agent for treating nausea and vomiting in a 25 y.o. female at 6 weeks gestation? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. promethazine (Phenergan)
b. doxylamine + pyridoxine (Diclegis)
c. ondansetron (Zofran)
opping other antidepressants
d. metoclopramide (Reglan)
The correct answer is: doxylamine + pyridoxine (Diclegis)
22. According to the FDA, which drug for respiratory illness should not be given to children younger than 2 years of age? Select one:
a. prednisone
b. albuterol (Ventolin)
c. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
d. dextromethorphan (Delsym)
The correct answer is: dextromethorphan (Delsym)
23. Why are COMT inhibitors beneficial in treating Parkinson’s Disease?
Select one:
a. They block the enzyme responsible for metabolizing dopamine
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b. These drugs decrease the activity of acetylcholine
c. These drugs inhibit the enzyme that metabolizes levodopa
d. They stimulate release of dopamine from neurons in the mid-brain
The correct answer is: These drugs inhibit the enzyme that metabolizes levodopa
24. Which therapy for depression would be a preferred alternative for a middle-aged executive who experienced insomnia with 2 different
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
Select one:
a. monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
b. selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)
c. tricylic antidepressant (TCA)
d. benzodiazepine
The correct answer is: tricylic antidepressant (TCA)
25. CALCULATION: Emily, a 4 y.o. child with asthma, is admitted to the hospital with another flare of asthma. She is prescribed prednisolone
1mg/kg/day to be given as 2 divided doses. Prednisolone oral solution is available as 15 mg/5ml. If her weight is 33 pounds, how many milliliters
should she receive per dose? Enter number in the box below.
2.5ml
26. In a patient with a peptic ulcer due to Helicobacter pylori infection, which of the following medications could be part of an effective
multidrug regimen to eradicate the bacteria and promote healing?
Choose at least one answer.
Select one or more:
a. ciprofloxacin
b. metronidazole
c. a proton-pump inhibitor
d. sucralfate
The correct answer is: metronidazole, a proton-pump inhibitor
27. An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
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C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Ans: B
28. The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:
A. High-dose montelukast
B. Theophylline
C. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids
D. Long-acting beta-2-agonists
Ans: C
29. If a patient with H. pylori-positive peptic ulcer disease fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:
A. Proton pump inhibitor bid plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for 14 days
B. Test H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. Proton pump inhibitor plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for 14 days
D. Proton pump inhibitor and levofloxacin for 14 days
Ans: A
30. Migraines in pregnancy may be safely treated with:
A. Acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3)
B. Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
C. Ergotamine tablets (Ergostat)
D. Dihydroergotamine (DHE)
Ans: A
31. What not to use with SSRIs? Rametidine
32. Serotonin syndrome
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33. Tegretol
34. Ethanol withdrawal symptoms? Tremors, hallucinations
35. Moderate to persistent asthma: Corticosteroid
36. What is not used in COPD? Leuko
37. Dilantin: extended release
38. Advair dis: salmeterol & Fluticaasone
39. Drugs to treat cholinergic effects: Tricyclic & anti
40. Anticholinergic for parkinsons: Artane
41. Abortive therapy for migraine, which is not one? Apresoline
42. Criteria for migraines? All of the above
43. Antitussive with risk for hypersensitivity: Tesalon Perle
44. What is not contraindicated to treat migraine in pregnancy? Tylenol
45. Bipassing hepatic system: nasally
46. Motion sickness: scopolamine
47. Perks of scopolamine: all of the above, long term, onset 30-60 min
48. Antacids: hypercalcemia
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49. Which is a P-450 inhibitor? Tagamet
50. Prophylactic drug for ulcers: Carafate
51. Which is contraindicated in pregnancy? Cytotec
52. Migraine treatment that has increased bleeding or GI upset? Fironel
53. Migraine prophylaxis: beta blockers, Depakote, pain medicine, more than twice a week.
EXAM 3
1. Jaheem is a 10-year-old low-risk patient with sinusitis. Treatment for a child with sinusitis is:
A. Amoxicillin
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B. Azithromycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Levofloxacin
Ans: A
2. Jacob has been diagnosed with sinusitis. He is the parent of a child in daycare. Treatment for sinusitis in an adult who has a child in daycare is:
A. Azithromycin 500 mg q day for 5 days
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate 500 mg bid for 7 days
C. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg bid for 5 days
D. Cephalexin 500 mg qid for 5 days
Ans: B
3. Sarah is a 25-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and has a urinary tract infection. What would be the appropriate antibiotic to prescribe
for her?
A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B. Amoxicillin (Trimox)
C. Doxycycline
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra)
Ans: B
4. To prevent further development of antibacterial resistance it is recommended that fluoroquinolones be reserved for treatment of:
A. Urinary tract infections in young women
B. Upper respiratory infections in adults
C. Skin and soft tissue infections in adults
D. Community-acquired pneumonia in patients with comorbidities
Ans: D
5. When prescribing metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat bacterial vaginosis, patient education would include:
A. Metronidazole is safe in the first trimester of pregnancy.
B. Consuming alcohol in any form may cause a severe reaction.
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C. Sexual partners need concurrent therapy.
D. Headaches are a sign of a serious adverse reaction and need immediate evaluation.
Ans: B
6. Jamie is a 24-year-old female with a urinary tract infection. She is healthy, afebrile, and her only drug allergy is sulfa, which gives her a rash.
An appropriate first-line antibiotic choice for her would be:
A. Azithromycin
B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Ciprofloxacin
Ans: D
7. The first-line drug choice for a previously healthy adult patient diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia would be:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Doxycycline
Ans: B
8. The first-line antibiotic choice for a patient with comorbidities or who is immunosuppressed who has pneumonia and can be treated as an
outpatient would be:
A. Levofloxacin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Cephalexin
Ans: A
9. Samantha is 34 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with pneumonia. She is stable enough to be treated as an outpatient. What would
be an appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?
A. Levofloxacin
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B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Doxycycline
Ans: B
10. Which of the following antivirals used to treat influenza is metabolized by the liver and excreted in the urine?
Select one:
a. Amantadine (Symmetrel)
b. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
c. Rimantadine (Flumadine)
d. Zanamivir (Relenza)
The correct answer is: Rimantadine (Flumadine)
11. Which of the following corticosteroids LACK mineralocorticoid activity?
Select one:
a. Cortisone
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Prednisone
d. Triamcinolone
The correct answer is: Triamcinolone
12. Which of the following insulin preparations does not have a peak effect on blood sugar?
Select one:
a. Humulin N (NPH)
b. Humulin R (Regular)
c. Insulin Glargine (Lantus)
d. Insulin Aspart (Novolog)
The correct answer is: Insulin Glargine (Lantus)
13. With which of the following antibiotics should the patient be counseled about sun exposure?
Select one:
a. Penicillin G
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b. Cephalexin (Keflex)
c. Tetracycline
d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
The correct answer is: Tetracycline
14. With which of the following antibiotics should the patient be counseled to abstain from the use of alcohol?
Select one:
a. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
b. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
c. Minocycline (Minocin)
d. Penicillin G
The correct answer is: Metronidazole (Flagyl)
15. Empiric outpatient therapy with a single drug for community acquired pneumonia in a previously healthy adult includes which antibiotic:
Select one:
a. Penicillin G
b. Amoxicillin/Clavulanate (Augmentin)
c. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
d. Cephalexin (Keflex)
The correct answer is: Azithromycin (Zithromax)
16. Which of the following antimycobacterial drugs can be used BOTH prophylactically and therapeutically for tuberculosis?
Select one:
a. Ethambutol (Myambutol)
b. Isoniazid (INH)
c. Pyrazinamide (PZA)
d. Streptomycin
The correct answer is: Isoniazid (INH)
17. Which of the following would be considered advantages in the use of Intermediate-Acting Glucocorticoid Drugs?
Select one:
a. No impact on blood sugar levels
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b. No impact on blood pressure
c. No impact on weight
d. Potent anti-inflammatory effects
The correct answer is: Potent anti-inflammatory effects
18. Which of the following antibacterial agents would be the preferred agent to treat a UTI in a pregnant female? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
b. Doxycyline (Vibramycin)
c. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
d. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
The correct answer is: Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
19. Which of the following agents are the preferred method of managing Type 1 diabetes in the pregnant female? Select one:
a. Alpha Glucosidase Inhibitors (Acarbose)
b. Regular Insulin (Humulin R)
c. Metformin (Glucophage)
d. Sulfonylureas (Micronase, Glucotrol, Amaryl)
The correct answer is: Regular Insulin (Humulin R)
20. Which of the following agents would not be indicated to treat children who are diagnosed with Community Acquired Pneumonia?
Select one:
a. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
b. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
c. Erythromycin (EES)
d. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
The correct answer is: Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
21. Which antidiabetic medication has the potential to cause acute pancreatitis? Choose one answer.
Select one:
a. Sitagliptin (Januvia)
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b. Acarbose (Precose)
c. Repaglinide (Prandin)
d. Glimepiride (Amaryl)
The correct answer is: Sitagliptin (Januvia)
22. Which of the following antimicrobials has the least E. coli resistance in treating UTIs?
Select one:
a. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
b. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
c. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
d. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/Septra)
The correct answer is: Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
23. All of the following are acceptable choices for treating UTIs in the pregnant female EXCEPT: Select one:
a. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
b. Cefpodoxime (Vantin)
c. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
d. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
The correct answer is: Doxycycline (Vibramycin). The question on the test asked what medication to use to treat UTIs in the pregnant female:
Answer was Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
24. Which of the following agents would provide the broadest coverage for Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) in the pregnant female?
Select one:
a. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
b. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
c. Erythromcyin (EES)
d. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
The correct answer is: Azithromycin (Zithromax)
25. For a pediatric patient with a diagnosis of sinusitis, which is the first line antimicrobial choice?
Select one:
a. Amoxicillin 10 - 14 days (Amoxil)
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b. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin) for 7 - 10 days
c. Respiratory quinolone for 3 days
d. Beta-lactamase stable cephalosporin
The correct answer is: Amoxicillin 10 - 14 days (Amoxil)
26. All of the following categories of patients should receive a Hepatitis A vaccine series EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. 10 month old infant
b. Illegal drug user
c. Individuals with an occupational risk for infection
d. Individuals with chronic liver disease
The correct answer is: 10 month old infant
27. When using protease inhibitors to treat patients infected with HIV?
Select one:
a. Can be administered both orally as well as injectable
b. Can be used as monotherapy for the disease
c. Have the lowest cost of the available anti-retrovirals
d. May be prescribed in combination with another protease inhibitor
The correct answer is: May be prescribed in combination with another protease inhibitor
28. Treat oral candidias with Mystatin
29. Contraceptive with the highest risk of failure? Progesterone only
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30. What immunization is not safe during pregnancy? Tetanus
31. Acyclovir is not effective topically
32. Fluoroquinolones can cause tendon rupture
33. Second generation cephalosporins have better anaerobic coverage
34. What medication is okay to use to treat diabetes in pediatric patients? Metformin
35. Don’t use amoxicillin to treat something anymore?
36. An advantage of using premixed insulin (Humulin 70/30)? Less daily injections