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Contents
Puzzles .................................................................................................................................................................... 2
Logic ....................................................................................................................................................................... 7
Data Interpretation ............................................................................................................................................... 16
Quant New type .................................................................................................................................................... 27
RC New Type ......................................................................................................................................................... 36
Cloze Tests ............................................................................................................................................................ 44
Grammar............................................................................................................................................................... 49
Idioms ................................................................................................................................................................... 56
Sentence Connectors ............................................................................................................................................ 59
Match the following .............................................................................................................................................. 61
ParaJumbles .......................................................................................................................................................... 64
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Puzzles
B. D is not smallest but smaller than C. Size of plate F is
smaller than plate E but greater than plate B. It is given 3rd
largest plate is 132 cm. Smallest plate is 69 cm.
Short Puzzles
Q8. What may be the value of plate C?
Directions (1-3): Study the following information carefully and
117 cm 135 cm 169 cm 158 cm None of these
answer the questions given below:
Six friends have different weights. E is heavier than G and K
Q9. Which one is the greatest plate (according to size)?
but not as much as F. L is only lighter than M. The one who is
F B D E None of these
second heaviest is 56kg. The weight of third lightest is 47 kg. K
Solution: E>F>B(132)>C>D>A(69)
is 10kg lighter than E. G is of 18kg.
Q1. What can be the weight of F?
58 kg 70 kg 50 kg 45 kg None of these
Q2. If M is 13kg heavier than E then what will be the sum of
the weights of M and the second lightest person?
88 kg 90 kg 97 kg 105 kg None of these
Q3. Who among the following is the lightest person?
E F K G M
Solution: M > L (56) > F > E(47) > K(37) > G(18)
Q4. A person has some number of candies. He correctly
remembers that it is more than 31 but less than 37. He
remembers that it is not a multiple of 11. He also remembers
that it is an even number which is less than 36. He does not
have 32 candies. What number of candies he has?
33 32 34 35 can’t be determine
Directions (5-7): Study the following information to answer
the given questions:
Some person are sitting in a row such that all are facing
towards the north direction. Only two person sits between C
and M. Only seven person sits between R and M. More than
four person sits between M and W. Only three person sits
between R and W. C and W are not immediate neighbours. W
sits on the left of M. Only 14 person sits on the left of M. N
sits third to the right of M and sits at one of the end of the
row.
Q5. How many persons sit between C and R?
Three Four Five Two None of these
Q6. How many persons sit on the left of R?
Four Five Seven Six None of these
Q7. How many persons sits in the row?
20 17 18 19 None of these
Directions (10-12): Study the following information carefully
to answer the given questions.
Six persons M, N, O, P, Q, R are of different heights. Q is taller
than R but not as tall as O. R is taller than P and N. M is
shorter than P but he is not the shortest. The one who is
second tallest is 171cm and the one who is third shortest is of
169cm.
Q10. What can be the height of R?
174 cm 165 cm 167 cm 170 cm None of these
Q11. How many persons are taller than P?
None One Two Three More than three
Q12. Who among the following is the shortest?
R N M Q None of these
Solution: O>Q(171)>R>P(169)>M>N
Directions (13-15): Study the following information carefully
to answer the given questions:
Seven persons – A, B, C, D, K, L and N – are seated in
ascending order of their salaries. N earns more than L and D.
N earns more than A but he does not earn the highest. A
earns more than L. The person who earns the second highest
receives a salary of Rs. 35,000 while the third lowest earner
receives Rs. 23,000. K earn less than L but more than D. C
earns Rs. 18,000. D is not the lowest earner.
Q13. Who among the following earn(s) more than Rs. 23,000
but less than Rs. 35,000?
Only A Only L A and L K and L A and N
Q14. Who among the following may earn Rs. 21,000?
KDLCN
Q15. Who among the following earns Rs. 35,000?
ALBKN
Directions (8-9): Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions.
Six plates have different sizes. Size of plate F and B are greater
than plate A. Plate C is greater than A but smaller than F and
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Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who are sitting
around a circular table. Each of them belongs to different
occupations viz. Doctor, Engineer, Bank manager, Chef,
Architect, Painter, Musician and Dancer (not necessarily in the
same order). Four of them are facing towards the center while
others face outside the center.
G is fourth to the left of F. Neither G nor F is an immediate
neighbor of D. A is a Dancer and sits third to the left of the
one who is an Architect. C is a Bank manager and sits exactly
between A and F. The one who is a Painter sits second to the
right of the one who is a Bank manager. E sits third to the left
of A. C is facing the center and is to the immediate right of
both A and F. B and G faces the same directions. D is third to
the right of H. The one who is Architect is on the immediate
left of D, who is not a Musician. The one who is an Engineer
sits second to the left of the one who is a Dancer. The one
who is a Doctor sits second to the right of D.
Q1. Who among the following person is a Doctor?
C G E B None of these
Q2. E belongs to which of the following occupations?
Doctor Dancer Musician Bank manager None of these
Q3. The one who sits 2nd to left of B belongs to which
occupation?
Musician
Painter
Architect
Chef
None of these
Q4. Who among the following person is a Musician?
B G D H None of these
Q5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
D faces outside
G is an Engineer
H faces ouside
F faces inside
D is a Chef
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below:
Eight persons are sitting around a square table such that two
persons sit on each side of the table. Each of them either have
9 or 10 toffees. B who has 10 toffees sits 4th left to A. None of
the persons having 9 toffees sit together. Not more than one
person sit between H and E. Not less than three persons have
same number of toffees. F faces C and both have same toffees
as A. Only one person sit between F and G. G is not neighbor
of B. D has odd number of toffees and sits 2nd to the right of
A. E is not 3rd right to A. Two persons sit between B and H.
Q1. Who among the following has 9 toffees?
E F C B none of these
Q2. Who sit 4th left to the one who is immediate right to B?
E F C B none of these
Q3. How many persons sit between D and E, when counted
from right of D?
Two One Three Four None of these
Q4. Who among the following sit immediate right to A?
E F C B none of these
Q5. Four of the following belongs to a group find the one that
does not belong to that group?
EFCBG
Solution:
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held on the same day. W attend meeting in a month which
has less than 30 days. Only one person attend meeting
between W and Z. O attends meeting in March. M attend
meeting on even day of a month having 30 days. Equal
Number of meeting are between Z and X as there between Z
and V. Y attend meeting immediate before X.
Q1. M attends his Meeting on which of the following dates?
10th March 11th April 10th April 10th January None of these
Directions (1-5): Study the following information and answer
the questions given below:
There are eight employees i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who
work in different companies of a building which has eight
floor. All the companies is on different floor of the building.
First floor is grounded and eight floor is top most floor.
H does not work on odd numbered floor. E works on odd
numbered floor but above the floor on which F works. There
are 3 floor between the floor on which F works and C works. C
works below F who works on odd numbered floor. A works
just immediate above the floor on which H works. B works on
above the floor on which D works but not on Top most floor.
Q1. On which floor, A works? 3rd 2nd 5th 7th 1st
Q2. Who among the following works on 6th floor? C G H B A
Q3. How many employee works between the floor on which E
and D works? One Three Two Five Four
Q4. How many employee works below the floor on which F
works? Four Two Five Three No one
Q5. If B interchange his company to A’s company, then how
many floor is between G and A?
Two One Three Five No one
Q2. Which of the following persons attends his Meeting on
11th January?
W N M X None of these
Q3. How many persons attend the Meeting after W?
5 4 6 3 None of these
Q4. Who among the following persons attends the Meeting
on 10th March?
W M V Z None of these
Q5. How many persons attended Meeting after V?
5 4 7 No one None of these
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below:
Ten persons Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in two
rows with five persons in each row in such a way that one
person in the first row sits exactly opposite and facing a
person in the second row. Members of the first row are facing
North.
S sits in the 2nd row and sits at one of the extreme end. The
immediate neighbor of S faces R. V sits 2nd to the left of R. X
sits in row 1 but doesn’t sit at any extreme ends. U faces W
who doesn’t sits in row 2. Q sits second to the right of Z. T
does not faces north.
Q1. Which of the following pairs of persons are sitting at the
two ends of the first row?
WZ QY WY UZ None of these
Day Month Year Puzzle
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and Q2. Who is second to the left of X?
answer the question given below:
S W R V None of these
Eight persons M, N, O, V, W, X, Y and Z attend Meetings on
different months of the year viz. January, February, March
and April, such that not more than two persons attend their
Meetings in each of the months. Meetings can be held on
either 10th or 11th day of the month. No two Meetings can be
Q3. Who is third to the left of U?
T Y X S None of these
Q4. Q sits between which of the following persons?
TZ UT VR RY None of these
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Q5. Who sits exactly opposite of R?
Z Y W Q None of these
Study the following information carefully to answer the given
questions.
Eight persons are made to sit in two rows with four members
in each row. A, B, C, D are facing south and sit in row 1. P, Q,
R, T are facing North and sit in row 2.There are doctors,
engineers, judges and teachers in the group. No two persons
belonging to the same profession sit in the same row.
The Engineer of row 1 sits on the immediate right of D. The
doctor of row 2 faces the immediate neighbour of the
engineer in row 1. Q faces the immediate neighbour of C, who
is not an engineer. There is only 1 person between the judge
and the teacher in both rows. The teacher of row 1 faces the
engineer of row 2. R sits 2nd to the left of Q. C sits on
immediate left of D. T is not the judge and he does not sit at
any ends of the row. The judge of row 2 faces A. Q is not an
immediate neighbour of P. D sits 3rd from left end. T is not a
doctor.
Q11. Which of the following is the pair of Engineer ?
D, T A, Q
A, B
R, C
None of these
Q12. Who among the following sits between R and Q ?
T P C A None of these
Q13. Who among the following sits at the ends of the row ?
D, C R, B Q, A
P, D
None of these
Q14. Who among the following sits opposite to D ?
Judge Teacher Doctor Engineer None of these
Q15. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
C, T B, Q
A, P
A, Q
None of these
Solution:
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Logic
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below, a
group of digits is given followed by four combinations of
letters/ symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to
find out which of the four combinations correctly represents
the group of digits based on the letter/ symbol codes and the
conditions given below. If none of the four combinations
represents the group of digits correctly, give (e) ‘None of
these’ as the answer.
Condition for coding the group digits:
(i) If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes for
the first and the last digits are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to be
coded by the code for the last digit.
(iii) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be
coded as ‘X’.
Q6. 285961
@PD=S« @∆D=S« @PV=S« @PD=SV None of these
Q7. 972486
=∆@VPS S∆@VP= SD@VP= SA@«P= None of these
Q8. 834762
PMV∆SP PMV∆S@ @MVA∆SP @MV∆S@ None of these
Q9. 785291
∆PD@«X ∆PD@=X XPD@=X XPD@=« None of these
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Q13. If the position of the first and the sixteenth elements,
the second and the seventeenth elements, and so on up to
the eleventh and the twenty-sixth elements, are
interchanged, which letter/number/ symbol will be seventh to
the right of nineteenth letter / number / symbol from the
right?
# E V U None of these
Q14. If all the letters are arranged alphabetically from left end
but all the letters will be arranged only on the positions which
are already occupied by the letters, then which of the
following will indicate the position of L in the new
arrangement?
L is fourteenth from left
L is exactly between * and M
L is seventeenth from right
Both (a) and (c)
None of these
Q15. How many numbers are there in the series which is
immediately followed by a letter in the above sequence?
Four Five Three Six None of these
Directions (1-5): In these questions, relationship between
different elements is show in the statements. These
statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer
Q1. Statements: G>P>Q≥R, G=Y, G≤Z
Q10. 748956
AVP=DS SVP=DS ∆VP=D∆ S«P=D∆ None of these
Solution:
None of the conditions are applied.
Condition (i) Applies.
Condition (ii) applies
Condition (iii) applies.
Condition (i) applies.
Directions (11-15) : Study the following letter/number
/symbol sequence and answer the questions following it.
67#UVE?5*LH8SA9T4$F3%DGD8M2XZW
Conclusions:
I. Y>R
II. R>Z
If only conclusion I follows.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
If both conclusions I and II follow.
Solution:
I. Y>R(True)
II. R>Z(False)
Q2. Statements: O≥Q, S≤T, X=Y, X>Z
Conclusions:
Q11. How many symbols are there in the series which are
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed I. S=Q
II. X>Q
by a letter?
If only conclusion I follows.
One Two Three Four None of these
If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
Q12. If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
letter/number will be eleventh to the left of fifteenth
If both conclusions I and II follow.
letter/number from left?
Solution:
2 V 6 Z None of these
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I. S=Q(False)
II. X>Q(False)
Q3. Statements: V≤T, T>R, T=W
Conclusions:
I. R<V
II. V<W
If only conclusion I follows.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
If both conclusions I and II follow.
Solution:
I. R<V(False)
II. V<W(False)
Q4. Statements: N=Y≤Z>W
Conclusions:
I. Z=N
II. Z>N
If only conclusion I follows.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
If both conclusions I and II follow.
Solution:
I. Z=N(False)
II. Z>N(False)
Q5. Statements: K≥R, Y=X≤Z, K<Y
Conclusions:
I. Y>R
II. R>Z
If only conclusion I follows.
If only conclusion II follows.
If either conclusion I or II follows.
If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
If both conclusions I and II follow.
Solution:
I. Y>R(True)
II. R>Z(False)
Directions (6-10): Study the following information to answer
the given questions.
In a certain code language,
'vitu ritu Kitu nitu' is written as `ga mo ti su'
'jitu kinu vitu sinu vinu', is written as 'ki zo mo ye na'
'nitu kinu renu beki' is written as `zo ra ti da'
'renu reki ritu sinu' is written as `da ga nic ki'.
Q6. What is the code for 'vinu'?
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Ye na zo Either na or zo Either ye or na
Q7. What does `su' stand for?
Nitu vitu ritu Kitu None of these
Q8. What is the code for 'beki vitu reki'?
nic ye ti mo ra nic
ra ga mo
these
da ra nic None of
Q9. Which of the following does `ki ti na' stand for?
sinu ritu vitu
jitu vitu sinu
nitu sinu jitu
nitu sinu
vinu Either (c) or (d)
Q10. Which of the following may represent 'record rate ritu
vitu'?
ga zo ti da
ga ba mo nee
ga ba nic ki
mo ba ti
ra None of these
Solution:
Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully
and answer the questions given below.
C€OM3&D 2E K9$F@NIT41UW©H8%VJ5Y6«7
Z
Q11. How many such symbols are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and followed by an alphabet?
None One
Two
Three More than three
Q12. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped,
then which of the following will be the twelfth from the left
end?
2 U I
9
None of these
Q13. How many such numbers are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
consonant but not immediately preceded by an alphabet?
None One
Two
Three More than three
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Q14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
OM& D2K
9$@ NI4
4©8
Q15. Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the
twenty-first element from the right end of the above
arrangement?
H 9
%
E
None of these
Q2. Who among M, N, P, Q, R and S is the heaviest?
I. P is heavier than only two of them. S is heavier than R and
Q.
Solution: Number/letter Symbol Letter/Number 9 $ F, 3 & D
II. R is lighter than both Q and N but N is heavier than P but
and 8% V
lighter than both S and M.
After dropping all the symbols from the arrangement C O M 3 III. S is lighter than M.
D 2 E K 9 F N I T 4 1 U W H 8 V J 5 Y 6 7 Z. So, I is the 12th from Solution: From statement I, II, III we get the following
the left.
arrangement. M is the heaviest.
«7Z
4©8
Tenth to the right of the Twenty first element from the right
end. I.e. Eleventh from the right and = H
Q3. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sitting in a row
facing north. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of
C?
Directions (1-5): Each of the questions below, consist a
question and three statements numbered I, II and III. You have I. C sits 2nd to right of the one who sits at the left end of the
to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
row. A does not sit any of the extreme end.
sufficient to answer the question. Read the three statements II. A sits on the immediate left of B, who sits 4th to the right of
and Give answer.
C.
III. D sits 2nd to the left of E. D sits at one of the ends.
a) If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to Solution: From II and III we get the final sitting arrangement in
which F sits 2nd to the right of C.
answer the question, while the data in statement III are not
required to answer the question.
b) If the data in statement I and III together are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II are not
required to answer the question.
c) If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I are not required to
Q4. How many sons does M have?
answer the question.
d) If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are I. N is brother G. A is sister of N. K is mother of B.
II. G is the brother B, who is the son K.
necessary to answer the question.
e) If the data in all the statements, I, II and III even together III. M is married to K.
Solution: From statement II, and III, we get our final answer.
are not sufficient to answer the question.
M has two sons.
Q1. There are seven persons i.e. A, B, C, M, K, T and L in a
family. Find that K is paternal uncle of T?
I. M is brother of K and is married to L, who is mother of A. A
is sister of T.
II. B is brother of A. C is the only son of K.
III. B is the only son of K, who is the brother-in-law of L. C is
sister of B
Solution: Using statement I and III, we get our final relation.
Q5. What does the code ‘lz’ stands for in the given coded
language?
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I. In a language, ‘Sun water roof’ is coded as ‘am nl or’ and
‘food room plate’ is coded as ‘st od wa’
II. In a language, ‘stem plant leave’ is coded as ‘er az op’ and
‘food plate water’ is coded as ‘od st nl’
III. In the language, ‘flower air Sun’ is coded as ‘pa am lz’ and
‘food plant leave’ is coded as ‘az od er’
Solution:
All the three statements are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Directions (6-8): In each of the questions below consists of a
question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and Give answer
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are
not sufficient to answer the question.
e) If the data in both statement I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
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I. Sailesh did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after
that time.
II. Sailesh missed his usual train of 10.30 a.m. A train comes in
every 5 minutes.
(e) Both required
Directions (9-13): Each of the questions below consists of a
question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and give answer:
Q9. There are six members P, Q, R, S, T, and U in a family, how
is T related to S?
I. S is son of R. P and U are child of Q. T is grandfather of P.
II. R is mother-in-law of Q, who is a female member. S has no
brother.
Solution: From both the statements I and II we can find that T
is father of S.
Q10. What is the distance between point P and Q?
I. Point S is 4m away in east direction from point P. Point T is
Q6. How is T related to K?
in 2m north of point S.
I. K is the only daughter of L and J.
II. Point Q is in north-west of point T.
II. R's sister J has married to T’s brother L, who is the only son Solution: By combining both the statements together we
of his parents.
cannot find the distance between point P and Q.
Q11. What will be the code of ‘Engineer’?
I. ‘some smarts are wise’ is written as ‘HV3 HH5 ZV2 DV3’ in
that code language.
II. ‘scientists are genius’ is written as ‘HH9 ZV2 TH5’ in that
code language.
Solution: From statement I or II-Engineer code will be VI7.
Q7. How is M related to N?
I. P, who has only two kids M and N, is the mother-in-law of Q,
who is sister-in-law of N.
II. R, the sister-in-law of M, is the daughter-in-law of S, who
has only two kids M and N.
Q8. Which train did Sailesh catch to go to office?
Q12. Who among A, B, C, D, E earns highest salary?
I. C’s salary is higher than A’s salary, whose salary is higher
than E’s salary. D’s salary is in the denomination of 10.
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II. C is not getting the salary as much as B and D get. The one
who gets 2nd highest salary, his salary is 5568rs.
Solution: From both the statements we can find that D’s salary
is the highest salary. D > B (5568) > C > A > E
South-west
North-east
None of these
(d) North-east
Q13. M, N, O, P, R, and Q are sitting in a circular table. How
many persons are facing opposite to the centre?
I. There is only one person sit between P and Q. R is not an
immediate neighbour of Q, sits immediate left of P.
II. O sits second to the left of R. N is not an immediate
neighbour of R, but faces outside the centre. O faces inside
the centre.
Solution: From both the statements we cannot find that how
many persons are facing outside to the centre.
Q12. What is the shortest distance between G and E?
1 2 3 4 None of these
(d) 4
Q13. If a person walks 8 m towards North from point E to
reach point Q, then What will be the shortest distance
between point B and Q?
1 2 3 4 None of these
(e) None
Directions (14-15): Each of the questions below consists of a
question and some statements given below it. You have to
decide the data provided in which of the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions and choose your answer
accordingly.
Q14. Harsh walks a distance of 3 m towards west, then he
turns to his right and walks for 2 m. He again turns his left and
walks for 3 m. At this point he turns to his right and walks for
3 m and takes a turn of 45 degree in anticlockwise direction
and covers a distance of 4 m. He is in which direction from his
starting point?
Q14. B is in which direction with respect to A?
North
I. A is in north direction with respect to Z. Z is in north west
South-east
direction from X. B is in west direction with respect to X.
South-west
II. Z is south direction from A. X is in south west direction from North-east
Z. B is in east direction from X.
None of these
III. X is in east direction from Z. B is in south direction from X. Solution:
A is in north east direction from Z.
Only I and II
Only I and III
Any two of the three
All I, II and III
Data insufficient
Answer (e)
Q15. A is in which direction with respect to B?
I. A is to the East of M who is south of N.
II. A is to the North-East of R.
III. M is in north of R, who is to the West of B.
Only I & II
Only III
Any two of three All I, II &
III are necessary None of these
Q15. Starting from a point S, Harsha walked 10 meters
Answer (e)
towards East and reached a point Q. After which she turned
left and walked 40 meters. She then turned right and walked
Directions (11-13): Study the following information carefully 20 meters. She again turned right and walked 30 meters. She
to answer the given questions.
again turned right then walked 20 meters and reached point
P. How far and in which direction is the point S from the point
Point E is exactly midway between point C and point F. Point F P?
is 6 m towards the East of point C. Point B is exactly midway
20√2 meters North West
between point A and point C. Point A is 8 m North of Point C. 10√2 meters North West
Point D is 10 m to the South of point B. Point G is 3 m towards 10√2 meters East
the East of point B.
10 meters West
None of these
Q11. Point E is in which direction with respect to D?
North
South-east
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III. Some boy are Coins
IV. No toy is boy
Only IV follows
III and II follow
Only I follows
I and IV follow
None of these
Solution:
In each question below are given three statements followed
by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Q11. Statements
Some dices are phoenix.
No dice is a rice.
All phoenix are monks.
Conclusions
I. No rice is a monks
II. Some dices are monks
III. Some phoenix are rice.
IV. Some phoenix are not rice.
Only I follows
Only II follows
Either III or IV follows
I and either III or IV follow
II and IV follow
Solution:
Directions (13-15): In each of the questions below. Some
statements are given followed by conclusions/group of
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given two conclusions logically follows from the information
given in the statements.
Q13. Statements:
Some plants are tree
Some tree are fruit
All fruit are herbs
Conclusions:
I. Some tree are herbs
II. Some plants can be herbs
If only conclusion I follows
If only conclusion II follows
If either I or II follows
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
Q12. Statements
Some Coins are not old
Some Coins are boy.
No old is a toy
Conclusions
I. All boy are old
II. Some Coins are toys
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Q14. Statements:
All Green are Red
All Red are Black
All Black are Blue
Conclusions:
I. Some Red are Blue is a possibility
II. Some Blue are Green
If only conclusion I follows
If only conclusion II follows
If either I or II follows
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
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A word and number arrangement machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: 52 pillow 80 socks food 46 cream 12 hot 25 73 toast
Step I: 12 52 pillow socks food 46 cream hot 25 73 toast 80
Step II: 12 25 52 pillow socks food 46 cream hot toast 73 80
Step III: 12 25 46 pillow socks food cream hot toast 52 73 80
Step IV: 12 25 46 cream pillow socks food hot toast 52 73 80
Step V: 12 25 46 cream food pillow socks hot toast 52 73 80
Step VI: 12 25 46 cream food hot pillow socks toast 52 73 80
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules
followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input for
the questions.
Input: 66 health soft 11 beer 83 ice 49 african 77 cute 33
Q1. How many steps would be needed to complete the
arrangement?
X VIII IX VII None of these
Q2. Which Step number would be the following output? 11 33
49 african beer health soft ice cute 66 77 83
II VI V IV None of these
Q15. Statements:
Some Lines are Rows
All Rows are Columns
No Row is Graphs
Conclusions:
I. Some Lines are not Graphs
II. No Column is Graphs
If only conclusion I follows
If only conclusion II follows
If either I or II follows
If neither I nor II follows
If both I and II follow
Solution:
Q3. Which of the following would be the Step I?
29 33 49 health soft beer ice african cute 66 77 83
83 66 health soft beer ice 49 african 77 cute 33 11
11 66 african beer health soft ice 49 77 cute 33 83
11 66 health soft beer ice 49 african 77 cute 33 83
None of these
Q4. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
66 77 83 african beer cute health ice soft 11 33 49
11 33 49 african beer cute health ice soft 66 77 83
11 33 49 african ice beer cute health soft 66 77 83
11 33 49 african beer cute health soft 66 77 ice 83
None of these
Q5. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be
on 7th position (from the right)?
Soft beer 66 cute None of these
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer
the given questions:
Solution:
Students let us understand the Logic behind this Question and
lets understand how to solve it. As a first step lets first
understand the logic behind the Output. If you will see the
final output you will observe the following:
(i) There are six numbers and six words in the input. The three
numbers are arranged in the beginning and the remaining
three numbers are arranged in the last.
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(ii) The First three numbers are arranged in ascending order
from left to right with last three numbers are arranged in
descending order from right to left.
(iii) After that the six words are arranged in alphabetical order
in the middle. Now lets take the arrangement given in the
Question
Input: 66 health soft 11 beer 83 ice 49 African 77 cute 33
Step I: 11 66 health soft beer ice 49 African 77 cute 33 83
Step II: 11 33 66 health soft beer ice 49 African cute 77 83
Step III: 11 33 49 health soft beer ice African cute 66 77 83
Step IV: 11 33 49 African health soft beer ice cute 66 77 83
Step V: 11 33 49 African beer health soft ice cute 66 77 83
Step VI: 11 33 49 African beer cute health soft ice 66 77 83
Step VII: 11 33 49 African beer cute health ice soft 66 77 83
‘Step VII’ is the final step of this input.
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Q8. How many words and numbers are there between ‘under’
and ‘38’ in the sixth step of the output?
Six Three Four Five Seven
Q9. In which step are the elements ‘call 18 50 ape same 21’
found in the same order?
Fifth Seventh Fourth Sixth There is no such step
Q10. Which of the following represents the position of ‘37’ in
the last but one step?
Ninth from the left end
Tenth from the left end
Seventh from the right end
Sixth from the right end
Both (b) and (c)
Solution:
In step IV ‘11 33 49 African health soft beer ice cute 66 77 83’ The machine rearranges two numbers and two words in each
7th position from the right is the ‘soft’
step. The words and numbers are arranged alternatively in
each step from both right end and left end. The numbers are
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully
arranged as smallest even number from left to right and
and answer the given questions.
greatest odd number from right to left after that consonants
are arranged in increasing alphabetical order from left to right
A word and number arrangement machine when given an
and vowels are arranged decreasing alphabetical order from
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a right to left.
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input: call 40 37 ice land 50 25 under ape same 33 18 38
Input: 30 owl 56 raise 27 egg 23 still 20 holy 15 apple.
mango 21 open.
Step I: 20 30 owl 56 raise egg 23 still holy 15 apple 27.
Step I: 18 call 40 ice land 50 25 under ape same 33 38 mango
Step II: holy 20 30 56 raise egg 23 still 15 apple 27 owl.
21 open 37.
Step III: 30 holy 20 56 raise egg still 15 apple 27 owl 23.
Step II: call 18 40 ice land 50 25 ape same 33 38 mango 21
Step IV: raise 30 holy 20 56 still 15 apple 27 owl 23 egg.
open 37 under.
Step V: 56 raise 30 holy 20 still apple 27 owl 23 egg 15.
Step III: 38 call 18 40 ice land 50 25 ape same mango 21 open
Step VI: still 56 raise 30 holy 20 27 owl 23 egg 15 apple.
37 under 33.
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the Step IV: land 38 call 18 40 ice50 25 ape same mango 21 37
rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the under 33 open.
following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Step V: 40 land 38 call 18 ice 50 ape same mango 21 37 under
33 open 25.
Input: call 40 37 ice land 50 25 under ape same 33 18 38
Step VI: mango 40 land 38 call 18 50 ape same 21 37 under 33
mango 21 open.
open 25 ice.
Step VII: 50 mango 40 land 38 call 18 ape same 37 under 33
Q6. How many steps will be required to complete the above open 25 ice 21.
input?
Step VIII: same 50 mango 40 land 38 call 18 37 under 33 open
Eight Six Five Seven None of these
25 ice 21 ape.
Q7. In the seventh step of the rearrangement, ‘call’ is related
to ‘38’and ‘open’ is related to ‘33’ in a certain way. Which of
the following would ‘land’ be related to, following the same
pattern?
Mango ice same 40 37
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully
to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an
input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
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Input: say to 12 by 29 all 71 same 53 81 above 61
Step I: above say to by 29 all 71 same 53 81 61 12
Step II: above same say to by all 71 53 81 61 12 29
Step III: above same say all to by 71 81 61 12 29 53
Step IV: above same say all to by 71 81 12 29 53 61
Step V: above same say all to by 81 12 29 53 61 71
Step VI: above same say all to by 12 29 53 61 71 81
Step VI is the last step of the above input. Now, the following
questions are based on the given input.
Q6. Which of the following symbols should replace the
question mark in the given expression to make A ≥ D definitely
true?
A= G ≥ B ? F ? M = D
>, >
=, >
≤, ≤
≤, <
None of these
Input: toy 18 till 24 36 is of never 87 99 cut 73
Q7. Which of the following symbols should replace the
question mark(?) in the given expression in order to make the
expressions A < B definitely true and D ≤ A definitely true?
B?E=A?F≥N=D
>, ≤
=, >
<, >
>, =
≤, <
Q11. Which of the following will be the penultimate step?
Step VI Step V Step IV Step III None of these
Q12. What will be the position of ‘is’ in the last but one step?
Seventh from the left
Sixth from the right
Sixth from the left
Fifth from the left
None of these
Q8. Which of the following symbols should replace the
question mark in the given expression to make N ≥ D
Q13. Which word/number would be the fourth from the right definitely true?
end in Step IV?
A= G ≥ B, N ? F ? M = D, B > N
cut 18 24 99 73
>, >
=, >
Q14. How many steps will be required to give the final
≤, ≤
output?
≤, <
Five Four Six Seven Eight
None of these
Q15. Which step would give the following output: ‘never till
toy cut is of 87 99 73 18 24 36’?
Step IV Step III Step II Step V There will be no such step
Q9. Which of the following symbols should replace the
question mark(?) in the given expression in order to make the
expressions M < E false and B ≤ A definitely true?
M?B?E=A
Solution:
>, ≤
The machine rearranges the words and numbers in such a way =, >
that the words are arranged according to the length of words <, >
in descending order from left and words of the same length
=, =
are arranged in reverse English alphabetical order, while
≤, <
numbers are arranged in ascending order on the right end in
each step.
Q10. Which of the following symbols should replace the
Input: toy 18 till 24 36 is of never 87 99 cut 73
question mark in the given expression to make G ≥ F and M
Step I: never toy till 24 36 is of 87 99 cut 73 18
Step II: never till toy 36 is of 87 99 cut 73 18 24
>, >,>, ≤
Step III: never till toy cut is of 87 99 73 18 24 36
=, >,>, ≤
Step IV: never till toy cut of is 87 99 18 24 36 73
≤, ≤,>, ≤
Step V: never till toy cut of is 99 18 24 36 73 87
≤, <,>, ≤
Step VI: never till toy cut of is 18 24 36 73 87 99
None of these
Inequality
(e) None (d) > = (e) None (a) >≤ (e) None of these
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Data Interpretation
Directions (1-5): Study the pie charts carefully to answer
the questions that follow. Percent wise distribution of
players (Male and Female) and female players who play
five different sports-
players who play football, Hockey and Lawn Tennis
together?
620
333
230
630
340
Solution:
Q2. What is the difference between the number of the
male players who play football and the number of male
players who play Cricket?
94
84
216
240
184
Solution:
Number of males who play Football = 714 – 260 = 454
Number of males who play Cricket = 1470 – 800 = 670
Difference = 670 – 454 =216
Q3. What is the respective ratio of the number of male
players who play cricket and number of female players
who play Hockey?
20 : 7
4 : 21
20 : 3
3 : 20
None of these
Solution:
Note- Some values are missing, you have to calculate
these values as per given data.
Q1. What is the approximate average number of female
Q4. What is the total number of female players who play
football, cricket and Hockey together?
1224
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1334
1424
1564
Q6. Total number of females placed from University B in
2015 are what percent of total males placed from
University C in same year ?
54.8% 55%
58.8% 60%
62.5%
Solution:
1360
Solution:
Total number of females who plays Football, Cricket and
Hockey = 260 + 800 + 300
= 1360
Q5. Number of female players who play Lawn Tennis is
approximately what per cent more than the total number
of players who play Hockey?
4% 5%
4.8%
5.5% 6.5%
Solution:
Q7. Find the difference between total females placed
from D in both years and that of from E in both years.
7040 7470 7740 7570 7077
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Read the following graph carefully and
answer the questions given below: The line graph shows
the percentage distribution of total number of students
who got placed successfully in campus placement after Q8. What is the ratio of male students from F in 2015 and
that of from C in 2015 who got placement ?
their graduation from six different universities while the
3:4
3:1
4:3
1:3
1:6
table provides their female to male ratio.
Total placed students are 42500 and 44000 in 2015 and
2016 respectively.
Solution:
Q9. Find the average number of placed students from all
universities except D in 2015.
6790 6970 6975 7690 9670
Solution:
Q10. Female students placed from E in 2015 are what
percent less than that of from A in 2016 ?
25%
20%
15%
12%
None of the above
Solution:
Directions (11 - 15)∶ Given below the pie chart shows
percentage distribution of viewers of a Tv channel in five
different villages (A, B, C, D & E) and table shows
number of viewers who subscribed the channel. Read
the data carefully and answer the questions.
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Note – Total viewers = Total subscriber + Total
unsubscribe
Q13. Find the total unsubscribed viewers in B & C and
total subscribed viewers in E together?
825 475
655
745
780
Solution:
Q14. Out of total viewers in village C ,
are female
and 7/13 th of total female are subscribed viewers, then
find total unsubscribed male viewers from village C?
170 180
210
190
250
Q11. Total unsubscribed viewers from B & E together is
what percent more than total unsubscribed viewers from
C?
50%
55%
45%
40%
42%
Solution:
Solution:
Q15. Find the difference between the total number of
subscribed viewers from C and D together and the total
number of subscribed viewers from A and E together.
280 390
425
250
350
Solution:
Total subscribed viewers from village C and D together =
440+350 = 790
Q12. If total male unsubscribed viewers in D is 66.67%
Total subscribed viewers from village A and E together =
more than that of female unsubscribed viewers, then find 220 + 180 = 400
ratio of total male unsubscribed viewers in D to total
Required difference = 790 – 400 = 390
unsubscribed viewers in A & C together?
5:12
25:54 54:7
25:36 54:25
Directions (1-5): Bar graph shows total number of Students in
six different schools and the table shows percentage of girls in
Solution:
them. Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
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Q4. What is the average number of boys in schools P and Q
together ?
1425
1575
1450
1625
1265
Solution:
Q5. What is the ratio of the number of girls in school P to the
number of girls in school Q ?
27 : 20 17 : 21 20 : 27 21 : 17 None of these
Solution:
Q1. Find the percentage of boys in schools R and U together ?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
78.55 72.45 76.28 75.83 None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Given below is the bar graph showing the
production of cycles by 6 firms A, B, C, D, E and F in two
consecutive year 2016 and in 2017.
Q2. What is the total number of boys in School T ?
500 600 750
850
None of these
Solution:
Q3. The total number of students in school R is approximately
what per cent of the total number of students in school S ?
89 75 78
82
94
Solution:
Q6. What is difference between average production of cycle
by all six firms in 2016 and 2017?
160/3 170/3 215/3 335/6 343/6
Solution:
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Q7. If production of cycles of firm C in 2018 increase by 37 ½%
in comparison to previous year and production of firm D in
2018 increases by 17(11/17) % in comparison to previous year
then what is the sum of production of firm C and D together in
Q9. What is ratio of production by firm B in 2016 and firm F in
2018?
2017 together to the production of firm B in 2017 and C in
1140
1320
1480
1460
1840
2017 together?
Solution:
10 : 17 10 : 13 9 : 10 10 : 11 5 : 6
Solution:
Q10. Total production cost of firm D in 2016 is Rs. 787500 and
firm cost Rs. 125 on transporter cycle. In 2017 the total cost
price per cycle is increases by 21(7/8) % with respect to year
2016, then find cost price per cycle in 2017 of firm D? (in Rs.)
2437.5 2337.5 2415.5 2435.5 2459.5
Solution:
Q8. If 17(13/11)% of total production of firm A in 2016 and 36
(4/11) of total production of firm A in 2017 are unsold and ratio
between total sold to unsold cycle of firm C in both the years
together is 109: 27. Then total unsold cycle from both the
firms is what percent of total sold cycle from both the firm
taken together? (approximately)
30% 45%
22%
15%
60%
Solution:
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The following bar graph shows the percentage of male and
Dwarka is how much percent more/less than that in
females in five different localities of Delhi (Rest percentage is Connaught Place?
of children). Study the graph carefully and answer the related 150% 80%
75%
125% 120%
questions. Children are below 18years in age and are not
Solution:
classified as male and female.
Q15. Find the ratio of females in Mayur Vihar and Dwarka
together to the females of Laxmi Nagar and Connaught place
together
2:3 3:4
Can’t determined
4:5
5:3
Q11. If total population of Mayur Vihar is 24,000 and that of
Laxmi Nagar is 48,000 then what is the difference between no. Solution:
Here we cannot find the answer because total population of
of children in these localities?
any of the given localities is not given.
360 480 540
460
380
Solution:
The following table shows total no. of workers who worked
for Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in many sectors in five different
years and also the ratio of male workers to female workers.
Study the table and answer the questions.
Q12. If total population of ITO is 18,000 then what is the no.
of children who lives in ITO?
1240
1640 1440
1400
1340
Solution:
Q1. The female workers worked in the year 2014 are
Q13. What is the average of the number of males in Laxmi
approximately what percent of total no. of workers worked in
Nagar, ITO and Connaught Place if population of Laxmi Nagar, the year 2015?
ITO and Connaught Place is 48,000, 18,000 and 40,000
40% 48%
50%
55%
37%
respectively?
Solution:
17,920 18,220 16,720 17,820 18,020
Solution:
Q14. If total population of Connaught place and Dwarka be
40,000 and 60,000 respectively then total no. of children in
Q2. What is the average no. of male workers worked in the
years 2015 and 2016 together?
42,500 40,550 41,500 43,500 None of these
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Solution:
Q3. What is the difference between male workers and female
workers worked in the year 2017?
40,000 42,500 42,300 41,800 None of these
Solution:
Q4. In which year maximum no. of female workers is worked? Directions (1-5): The following table shows the total no. of
2014
2015
2016
2018
2017
students studying in five different colleges and ratio of boys
Solution:
and girls in that. Table also shows the percentage of students
who are involved in sports also. Study table carefully to
answer the following questions.
Q1. Find the total no. of students who are involved in sports
also from collages P, R and T together.
40,000 44,000 48,000 52,000 36,000
Solution:
Q2. Total no. of boys from collage Q is how much percent
Q5. The no. of male workers in the year 2016 is what percent
more or less than the total no. of girls from the college S?
more or less than the no. of female workers in the year 2018 ?
20% less 25% more 25% less 20% more 30 % more
35% 37%
30%
33%
27%
Solution:
Solution:
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Q3. What is the average no. of students from colleges P, Q
and R together who are involved in sports also?
20,000 24,000 30,000 26,000 18,000
Solution:
distributor. Total production price of whole stock of bottles
received by distributor to sell to retailers is Rs. 7.8 lakhs. The
commission received by distributor is Rs. 7000 and he made a
profit of Rs 1.4 lakhs on selling the bottles.
Q1. What is value ‘Y’ approx?
5% 6% 7%
8%
9%
Q4. What is the difference between total no. of boys and total
Solution:
no. of girls from colleges R and S together?
40,000 35,000 25,000 30,000 20,000
Solution:
Q5. If 20% and 25% students of collages P and T respectively,
out of those who are involved in sports also, are sent to a
state level game then find the no. of sport students form
these colleges who are not sent for the state level games.
18,500 16,500 14,500 20,500 15,800
Solution:
Q2. What will be ratio of (Y% of 100) : (X + 40)?
10 : 511 10 : 503 10 : 513
10 : 507 10 : 509
Solution:
Required no. of sport students who are not sent for state level
games
Q3. Instead of ‘Y’ distributor allow 10% discount on one
bottle, then percentage profit of distributor?
Directions (1 - 5): Read the data carefully and answer the
17% 15%
12%
10%
19%
questions.
Solution:
A company is the producer of bottles and it used to sell
bottles at production cost through distributor on a condition
that on selling the stock of every 50 bottles, distributor will
get Rs. 1000 as commission. The distributor is responsible to
Q4. If company added given commission in cost price and he
sell all those bottles to retailers. If distributor marks the
bottles at the price which is 30% above the production cost
give stock of (X + 450) bottles to another distributor who sold
(cost price) and allows a discount of Y%. Distributor sells total all stock, then find new cost price of one bottle?
2200 Rs.
2020 Rs.
2040 Rs.
of ‘X’ bottles which is 40 less than total received stock by
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2060 Rs.
Solution:
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2080 Rs.
Q5. If distributor allowed two successive discounts of 5% and
12.5% on marked price, then find the profit made by
distributor on selling of one bottle?
161.25 Rs.
162.25 Rs.
172.25 Rs.
176.25 Rs.
174.25 Rs.
Solution:
Q8. Total male farmers from both villages are how much more
or less than total population of village A
288 290 294
280
284
Solution:
Directions (6-10): Read the below given passage carefully and
answer the following questions.
There are two villages A and B whose population are 800 and
1200 respectively. 30% of total population of village A is
farmers and 60% of total population of village B is farmers.
Ratio of male to female farmers in village A and B is 2 : 3 and 7
: 5 respectively.
Q9. Male farmers in village A are what percent of female
farmers in village B.
35% 33%
30%
32%
34%
Solution:
Q6. Total number of female farmers from both villages is what
percent more or less than total population of village B.
65% 63%
66%
69%
60%
Solution:
Q10. What is the average of farmers from village A and village
B.
380 420 480
360
440
Solution:
Q7. What is the ratio of male farmers from village A to female
farmers from village B?
8 : 25 9 : 26 7 : 24 10 : 29 11 : 30
Solution:
Directions (11-15): Refer to the table given below and
answer the given questions.
Table shows the 5 colony and total population and
percentage of males, females and children in each
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colony in year 2016. Some data are missing, find the
missing data to answer the given questions.
ratio of males in colony B to children in colony C in year
2016 ?
9:8
8:9
2:3
3:5 3:2
Solution:
Note : Don‟t treat children as male or female. Treat them
separately.
Q11. If the ratio of population of females and children in
colony A in year 2016 is 3 : 7, and female in colony A in
year 2017 is increased by 20% from that of year 2016.
Then find the total number of males and children in
colony A in year 2017 so that overall population in year
2017 is same as in year 2016 ?
1752 1852 2752 3200 1527
Solution:
Q14. If ratio of males of colony D in year 2016 to the
females in colony A in year 2016 is 2 : 5 and population
of children in colony A is increased by 20% in year 2017
from year 2016. Then find the total population of children
in year 2017 in colony A ?
2000 1200 1500 cannot be determined
None of these
Solution:
Q12. If number of children in colony C in year 2016 is
180 and ratio of male and females in colony D in year
2016 is 1 : 2. Then find the difference of males in colony
C and colony D?
96 86 76
55
67
Solution:
Q15. If ratio of total population of colony C to colony E in
year 2016 is 5 : 4. Then number of males in colony E in
year 2016 is what percent more or less than the number
of children in colony C in year 2016 ?
5.67% 12%
10%
3.334%
6.67%
Solution:
Directions (6-10): There are total five departments in a
company. There are total 90 employees in Finance
Q13. If total population of colony B and colony C together department which is 25% of total employees in the company.
in year 2016 is 25% more than the total population of
2/9 of the total employees of the company are working in HR
colony A in year 2016 and ratio of total population of
department. Employees working in Sales department is 25%
colony B and colony C in year 2016 is 2 : 3. Then find the
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more than that in HR department. Ratio between employees
working in Security and Housing department is 4 : 5.
Q6. Find number of employees working in HR department is
what percent more than number of employees working in
Security department?
250% 200% 150% 100% 50%
Solution:
Q7. Find the average number of employees working in Sales,
Finance and Housing department?
60 70 80
90
100
Solution:
Q8. Number of employees in Housing department is how
much more than number of employees in Security
department?
10 20 30
40
50
Solution:
Q9. In Security department, 40% are female employees then
find total male employees working in Security department?
16 40 32
8
24
Solution: Total number of male employees working in Security
department = 60/100×40=24
Q10. Ratio between total number of male and female
employees in HR department is 2 : 3. Find total number of
female employees working in HR department?
32 48 64
40
56
Solution: Total number of female employees working in HR
department = 3/5 × 80=48
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Quant New type
Q3. What is the cost price of the book?
A. After allowing a discount of 18% on printed price
Directions (1-3): Each of the following questions consist shopkeeper charges Rs 516.60 for it.
of 3 statements A, B and C. You have to determine that B. If he had not allowed any discount, he would have a
profit of 25%.
which of the following statement/ statements are
C. If he had allowed only 10% discount on printed price
necessary to answer the questions:
then he would have 12.5% profit.
a) Any two of them
Q1. The cost of three pencils, four erasers and five
b) Either A and B or C
paperweights is Rs 28. What is the cost of an eraser?
A. The cost of a paperweight is 25 paisa less than that of c) Any one of them
d) All together is required
the pencil and eraser together.
e) A and either B or C
B. The cost of ten paperweights and 8 erasers is Rs
42.50.
C. The cost price of a pencil is 80% more than that of an Solution:
eraser.
a) Any two of them
b) Either B alone or A and C together
c) Any of them
d) Either C alone or A alone
e) None of these
Solution:
Q4. What is the cost of painting the two adjacent walls of
a hall which has no windows or doors?
I. The area of the base of hall is 24 sq. metres.
II. The breadth, length and the height of the hall are in
the ratio of 4: 6: 5.
III. Area of one wall is 30 square metres.
So, using any two of the 3 statements the cost of Eraser a) Only I
b) Only II
can be determined.
c) Only III
d) Data inadequate
Q2. X² : y²= ?
A. The sum of the sum of these two quantities and their e) Either I or III
difference is 12 whereas the difference of the sum of
Solution:
these two quantities and their difference is 6. (x>y)
Cost price per unit is not given.
B. y is 50% less than x.
C.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Only A and B are sufficient
Any two of A, B and C are sufficient
Any one of A, B and C is sufficient
Only B and C are sufficient
All together are sufficient
Solution:
Q5. 4 boys and 3 girls can complete a piece of work in
21/2 days. How many days will it take for 8 boys and 6
girls to complete the same work?
A. 4 boys can complete the work in 28 days.
B. 7 girls can complete the work in 63 days.
C. The amount of work done by a girl is four sevenths of
the work done by a boy in one day.
a) Any two of them
b) Any of them
c) Only C
d) Either A or B only
e) No need of any information
Solution:
So, anyone of the statements is sufficient to answer the
question.
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Q6. What is the salary of P, in a group of P, Q, R, S, T
and U, whose average salary is Rs. 35,000?
A. Total of the salary of Q and S is Rs. 54000.
B. Total of the salary of T and U is Rs. 58000.
a) A and B together
b) Answer can not be determined even using both
statements
c) Only B
d) Either A or B only
e) No need of any information
Q8. What is the number?
A. 20% of that number is one fifth of that number.
B. 5/6th of that number is less than that number by 15.
a) A and B together
b) Any of them
c) Only B
d) Either A or B only
e) No need of any information
Solution:
Solution:
Q7. What is the rate p.c.p.a. on an amount of Rs. 6,000
deposited in a Bank?
A. The simple interest for four years is Rs. 3600.
B. The difference between the simple interest and
compound interest is Rs. 894.0375.
a) Only A
b) Any of them
c) Only B
d) Either A or B only
e) No need of any information
Solution:
Directions (9-13): Each of the questions consists of a
question followed by three statements. You have to study
the questions and the statements and decide which of
the statements(s) is/are necessary to answer the
question.
Q9. What is the area of the hall?
I. Material cost of flooring per sq metre is Rs. 250
II. labour cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 3,500
III. Total cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 14,500
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) All I, II and III
d) Any two of the three
e) III and I only
Solution:
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Q10. What was the percentage of discount offered?
I. Profit earned by selling the article for Rs. 252 after
giving discount was Rs. 52.
II. Had there been no discount the profit earned would
have been Rs. 80
III. Had there been no discount the profit earned would
have been 40%.
a) I and II only
b) II and either I or III only
c) I and III only
d) I and either II or III only
e) None of these
Solution:
Q11. What is the speed of the train?
I. The train crosses a signal pole in 13 sec.
II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 m in 27
seconds.
III. The train crosses another train running in the same
direction in 32 seconds.
a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) Any two of the three
e) None of these
Solution:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
I only
II and III only
I and II only
Either only I or II and III
All I, II and III
Solution:
Q13. How many workers are required for completing the
construction work in 10 days?
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8
days
II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
III. One eighth of the work can be completed by 8
workers in 5 days
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I only
d) III only
e) Any one of three
Solution:
Q14. Find the height of an equilateral triangle.
A. Perimeter of the triangle is equal to the perimeter of
the rectangle whose length and breadth are in the ratio of
5 :3.
B. Perimeter of a square is known, which is twice the
perimeter of the triangle.
C. Area of the triangle is known.
a) Only A
b) Any of them
c) Only C
d) Either B or C alone
e) A and either B or C
Solution:
Q12. What is the population of State „A‟?
I. After increasing the population of State A by 15% it
becomes 1.61 lakhs
II. Ratio of population of State A to that of State B is 7 : 8
respectively
III. Population of State B is 1.6 lakhs
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Q7.
Q15. A boat takes 2 hours to travel from point A to B in
still water. To find out its speed upstream, which of the
following information is/are required?
A. Distance between point A and B.
B. Time taken to travel downstream from B to A.
C. Speed of the stream of water.
a) All are required
b) Any one pair of A and B, B and C or C and A is
sufficient.
c) Only A and B
d) Only A and C
e) None of these
Solution:
Q8.
Solution:
Directions: (6-10): In the following questions two equations in
x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations and
give the answer
If x > y If x < y If x ≤ y If x = y
If x ≥ y or relationship between x and y cannot be established
Q6.
Q9.
Solution:
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Q10.
Solution:
Q13. I. 6x²+41x+63=0
II. 12y²+55y+63=0
Solution:
Directions (11-15): In the following questions, two
equations in x and y are given. Solve these equations
and give answer
Q11. I. 2x+3y=14
II. 4x+2y=16
Solution:
I. 2x + 3y = 14
II. 2x + y = 8
Solving I and II,
we get x = 2.5, y = 3
y>x
Q14. I. 4x²+11x+6=0
II. 2y²+11y+15=0
Solution:
Q12. I. 6x²+77x+121=0
II. y²+9y-22=0
Solution:
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In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as
„Quantity 1‟ and another as „Quantity 2‟. You have to
determine relationship between two quantities and
choose the appropriate option:
Quantity 1 > Quantity 2
Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2
Quantity 2 > Quantity 1
Quantity 2 ≥ Quantity 1
Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or Relation cannot be
established
Q15. I. 10x²-7x+1=0
II. 35y²-12y+1=0
Solution:
Q1. A is twice as efficient as B. Both can complete a
work together in 7½ days.
Quantity 1: Time taken by B to complete the work alone.
Quantity 2: If C is 50% more efficient than A, then time
taken by C to complete the work alone.
Solution:
Q2.
Solution:
Solution:
Q3. Two dices are rolled simultaneously. Quantity 1:
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Probability that the sum of the numbers that appeared is
a multiple of 5. Quantity 2: 1/6
Solution:
Q4. Sum of height and diameter of the cylinder is 28
meter. Quantity 1: Curved surface area of the cylinder
whose respective ratio of height to diameter is 3 : 4
Quantity 2 : Curved surface area of the cylinder if height
of cylinder is 10 m.
Q11. Ravi alone can do a work in 16 days. Trisha’s efficiency is
20 % lesser than that of Ravi. If Archana and Trisha together
can do the same work in 12 days, then find the efficiency ratio
of Archana to that of Ravi?
6: 13
8: 15
15: 8
17: 9
12: 7
Solution:
Solution:
Q12. I have 4 coins of Rs. 1, 3 coins of Rs. 5 and 5 coins of Rs.
10 in my pocket. I buy a dozen banana and give Rs. 38 for it.
What is the probability of being all types of coins in the money
given by me?
40/99 35/99 25/99 23/99 70/99
Solution:
Q5. Product of digits of a two digits number „N‟ is 21
Quantity 1 : N Quantity 2 : 130–N
Solution:
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Q13. There is a mixture of alcohol and water in which the ratio
of alcohol to water is 4 : 5. A person wants to dilute it up to
30% of alcohol. What part of initial quantity of water he
should mix in it.
13/15 11/15 14/15 4/5
None of these
Solution:
Directions (6-10): What will come in place of question mark (?)
in the following number series?
Q14. The population of a colony was 3600 three years back. It Q6. 148, 152, 161, 177, ? , 238
208 214 202
198
192
is 4800 right now. What will be the population after three
Solution:
years, if the rate of growth of population has been constant
over the years and has been compounding annually?
6000
6400
7200
9600
4200
Solution:
Q7. 339, 355, 323, 371, 307, ?
407 354 328
387
388
Solution:
Q8. 5, 14, 40, 117, 347, ?
920 745 1124 1036
694
Solution:
Q15. A man can row 30 Km upstream and 44 Km downstream
in 10 hrs. Also, he can row 40 Km upstream and 55 Km
downstream in 13 hrs. The rate of the current is:
3 Km/h 3.5 Km/h
4 Km/h 4.5 Km/h
6 Km/h
Solution:
Q9. 12, 24, 96, 576, ? , 46080
3542
3890
4248
4608
Solution:
3246
Q10. 156, 468, 780, ? , 1404, 1716
1096
1092
1290
9610
1910
Solution:
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Directions (6 – 10): What will come in the place of
question (?) mark in the following number series:
Q6. 22, 26, 53, 69, 194, ?
248 265
258
230
Solution:
232
Q7. 4, 8, 24, 96, 480, ?
2780 2880 2680 2560 2820
Solution:
Q8. 11, 15, 21, 29, 39, ?
39 37 43
34
51
Solution:
Q9. 11, 14, 22, 40, 73, ?
139 126
143
314
Solution:
331
Q10. 112, 87, 67, 52, 42, ?
39 37 43
34
33
Solution:
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RC New Type
Directions (1-5) Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
India is still a cash economy but if anything managed to chip
away at that, even if just slightly, it has been the rapidly
innovating digital wallets industry. Startups including Paytm,
Oxigen Services and Mobikwik helped the Indian economy
take baby steps towards digitisation, handholding and enticing
customers with cashbacks and discounts to make the
transition from cash to digital.
On February 28, that Rs 12,000-crore digital wallets industry
got stranded unable to meet a Reserve Bank of India deadline
for collecting information on all customers. In effect,
customers who haven’t furnished all the information required
under RBI’s full know-your-customer norms will not be able to
use their digital wallets (except to use up whatever money
remains in their wallets).
Collecting all that information, including biometric details, is
cumbersome and so far digital wallet providers have managed
to gather full KYC details for fewer than 10% of their
customers. In other
words,………………………………(A)……………………………….. In the
tightly regulated world of banking and finance, mobile wallets
brought in a whiff of fresh air. As the first segment of financial
technology players in the country, these wallets disrupted
banks in more ways than one. For many young customers,
their first point of contact with formal banking was through a
mobile wallet.
Cetking
e) None of the Above
Solution:
Enticing: attractive or tempting; alluring.
Q2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
above?
a) While banks were still using National Electronic Fund
Transfer (NEFT), payment companies like Oxigen and ItzCash
(now EbixCash) latched on to IMPS.
b) the number of digital wallet transactions for buying goods
and services accounted for only a small fraction of all digital
wallet transactions.
c) Having excluded digital wallets from the interoperable
instant settlement system, banks got a huge leg-up.
d) India is still a cash economy and anything that has been
able to weaken it, even if just slightly, it has been the rapidly
innovating digital wallets industry.
e) None of the Above
Solution:
Refer first sentence of the first paragraph "India is still a cash
economy but if anything managed to chip away at that, even if
just slightly, it has been the rapidly innovating digital wallets
industry."
Q3. A blank is given in the passage in (A). Which of the
following phrases can complete the sentence correctly?
a) that 10% have benefitted the most from the digital wallet
industry.
b) that’s an overnight erosion of 90% of their customer
base.
c) the KYC details are difficult to manage and requires a lot
of funds.
d) thats a great advantage with addition of 90% of consumer
base.
e) None of the Above
The biggest advantage that digital wallets, or prepaid
Solution:
payments instruments (PPI), brought was the easy
onboarding. All a user had to do was download the app, verify The correct phrase is 'that’s an overnight erosion of 90% of
their customer base.' because in the former part of sentence
their mobile number, link a bank account through a debit or
it is written that KYC details of fewer than 10% have been
credit card, and begin transacting. It was as simple as that!
gathered which means 90% of consumer base has been
Now, customers have to submit photo ID proofs, link their
reduced or lost.
Aadhaar identity numbers, and submit biometric details,
making the process almost like opening a bank account. Even
so, RBI made full KYC mandatory for digital wallets to reduce Q4. Which of the following statements is/are true in context
of the passage?
fraud in the system and eventually bring in interoperability
(I) Customers had to furnish all the information required
among the wallets.
under RBI’s full know-your-customer norms to use their digtal
Q1. Which of the following words can replace the word given wallets.
(II) Mobile wallet had become a first point of contact with
in bold in the passage?
banking for many young customers.
a) dismissing
(III) Mobile wallet providers promise to stay firm and fight the
b) abandoning
next battle harder, hoping to eventually win the war against
c) dissuading
cash.
d) alluring
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a) Only (I)
b) Only (II)
c) Only (III)
d) Both (I) and (II)
e) Both (II) and (III)
Solution:
Both (I) and (II) are correct. For statement (I) refer the
following line 'In effect, customers who haven’t furnished all
the information required under RBI’s full know-your-customer
norms will not be able to use their digital wallets (except to
use up whatever money remains in their wallets).' in second
paragraph. For statement (II), refer the following line 'For
many young customers, their first point of contact with formal
banking was through a mobile wallet.' in paragraph 3.
cards the major chunk is from card swipes at merchant
outlets, debit cards still have 70% share of transactions
coming from ATMs, as per April data.
Q5. What is/are the reason behind RBI's decision to make full
KYC mandatory for digital wallets?
a) Reduce frauds inside the banks.
b) Reduce frauds and bring in interoperability among the
wallets.
c) To make digital transactions more easier and convenient.
d) To store large amounts of data easily.
e) Both (b) and (c)
Solution:
Refer the last line of the passage 'Even so, RBI made full KYC
mandatory for digital wallets to reduce fraud in the system
and eventually bring in interoperability among the wallets.'
Q6. What is the style of writing used in the passage above?
a) Narrative
b) Descriptive
c) Laudatory
d) Argumentative
e) None of the Above
Solution:
The writer has used descriptive style of writing as it offers a
detailed description of the subject and a detailed report of the
subject.
The number of PoS terminals in the country grew to 3.16
million against 3.13 million in March. Simultaneously debit
cards in the system also jumped 5.2% to 906 million in April
against 861 million in the previous month. Similarly, UPI— the
smartphone-based payment mechanism—has also retained its
growth rates having clocked 189 million transactions in April
as well. Last year April, UPI had clocked 7 million transactions.
In terms of the amount of money paid, cards still have
remained the dominant form of payment at Rs.355 crore for
April against Rs 133 crore for prepaid payment instruments.
Q7.Which of the following words can replace the word given
in bold without changing the meaning of the sentence?
Directions (6-9) Read the following passage carefully and
a) steady
answer the questions that follow.
b) irregular
c) sudden
Digital payments have shown a consistent growth trend in the d) harsh
month of April as well against the number of transactions
e) Both (a) and (b)
clocked in March, Reserve Bank of India data shows. While
Solution:
cards and IMPS transactions have maintained the similar
Both steady and consistent have the same meaning, i.e.,
trend, mobile wallets which had fallen in March have showing unchanging in nature, standard, or effect over time.
a smart pick up in April, having grown 11% in terms of number
of transactions. According to RBI data, in April wallets showed Q8. Which of the following statements is/are true in context
279 million transactions against 268 million in the previous
of the passage?
month. This, however, is still lesser than 310 million
(I) Credit cards have clocked 133 million transactions against
transactions wallets clocked in February, the month before
128 million in the previous month.
full KYC guidelines were enforced by the RBI. Further last year (II) In case of credit cards the major chunk of transactions is
April, wallets had seen more than 320 million transactions,
from card swipes at merchant outlets.
almost 15% higher.
(III) In case of debit cards, 70% share of transactions is coming
from ATMs.
Simultaneously cards have shown consistent growth. Credit
a) Only (I)
cards have clocked 133 million transactions against 128
b) Only (II)
million in the previous month. Similarly debit cards showed 1 c) Only (III)
billion transactions across both the months. Putting these
d) None is correct
figures in perspective against last year numbers, the growth is e) All are correct
obvious with cards clocking 20% more at 1.2 billion
Solution:
transactions against 1 billion last April. While in case of credit All are correct as per the passage.
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Q9. A line is given in bold and italics in the passage. There is
an error in one part of that sentence. Which of the following is
the part that has an error in it?
a) While cards and IMPS transactions have
b) maintained the similar trend, mobile wallets
c) which had fallen in March have showing a smart pick up
in April,
d) having grown 11% in terms of number of transactions.
e) None of the Above
Solution:
Error is in the part given in option (c). 'shown' must be used
here instead of 'showing'.
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mentions that digital transactions have got a boost post
demonetisation.
Directions (12-15) Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions that follow.
The Market Digital Payments Industry including net banking,
credit/debit card transactions, prepaid cash cards, mobile
wallet and IMPS was estimated at $14.51 Billion in 2013. Out
of 800 million online transactions made in 2013, 53% were
made using credit (21%) and debit cards (32%), while 44%
came from Internet banking. The rest were (A)………………… to
Mobile Wallet, Pre-Paid Cash cards and Immediate Payment
systems (IMPS). The current size of m-commerce – 4% of the
Directions (10-11) Read the following passage carefully and
market, is significantly low. At present, mobile payments form
answer the questions that follow.
a miniscule part of the overall digital payments industry in
India. However, contribution from phones and tablets is
Digital transactions got a leg-up post demonetisation, in turn expected to increase to 30% by 2020. Mobile Payments in
giving a hinder to mobile wallets, or e-wallets, and the Unified India is estimated to grow from $86 million in 2011 to $1.15
Payments Interface (UPI) platform. While mobile wallets
billion in 2016, with a compound annual growth rate (CAGR)
dominated the market immediately after the cash ban, since of 68%. The M-wallet market is projected to grow at a CAGR
November 2017, the UPI platform has beaten e-wallets hands of around 30% in the next five years from 2015-2019. Market
down in terms of the value of transactions. Also, the volume of m-wallet segment includes transferring of money, services
of UPI transactions has been steadily increasing; though the
related to banking transactions, value added services such as
volume of mobile wallet transactions is still higher, UPI
shopping, ticketing, recharging, and bill payments. In this
volumes have recorded higher growth month-on-month.
segment, the highest 38% market share is captured by money
transfer businesses, followed by recharge and bill payments,
Q10. Which of the following words, opposite in meaning,
and utility areas by 30% and 12% respectively.
should replace the word given in bold to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
Q12. Which of the following words should fill in the blank
a) rapid
given in (A) in the passage?
b) conquer
a) depicted
c) stability
b) attributed
d) boost
c) comendable
e) roast
d) reported
Solution:
e) Both (a) and (b)
Leg-up means to get an advantage over as used in first part of Solution:
sentence. So, 'hinder' is inappropriate here and 'boost' should Attribute means regard something as being caused by. Hence,
be used here.
'attributed' is the correct form of the word to be used here.
Q11. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
above?
a) Both (b) and (c)
b) Demonetisation was planned to make India a cashless
economy from a cash economy.
c) Demonetisation has given a boost to digital transactions
and UPI platform.
d) UPI platforms are far better than e-wallets in operations.
e) None of the Above
Solution:
'Demonetisation has given a boost to digital transactions and
UPI platform.' This is the theme of the passage as it clearly
Q13. A line is given in bold in the paragraph. Which of the
following can be correctly inferred from it?
a) The miniscule part of the overall digital payments
industry in India is of mobile payments due to the present
cirumstances.
b) At present, mobile payments form a substantial part of
the overall digital payments industry in India.
c) The part that mobile payments cover in the overall digital
payments industry in India is quite small.
d) Both (b) and (c)
e) The contribution of mobile payments is commendable in
the digital payments industry in India.
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Solution:
'Miniscule' means extremely small; tiny. So, the sentence
given in (c) gives the same meaning as the sentence given in
bold.
Q14. What is the style of writing used in the passage above?
a) Narrative
b) Satirical
c) Laudatory
d) Argumentative
e) None of the Above
Solution:
None of the Above. The style of writing used here is
descriptive because it offers a detailed description of the
subject and a detailed report of the subject.
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After many long discussions at night in their crowded family
bed, the two boys finally worked out a pact. (1) They would
toss a coin. The loser would go down into the nearby mines
and with his earnings, support his brother while he attended
the academy. The winner of the toss will attend the academy
first and complete his study. Once the first winner of the toss
completes his study, he will help the other brother to attend
the academy and support him financially by selling arts or
working at the mines, if necessary.
They tossed a coin on a Sunday morning after church.
Albrecht Durer, one of the brothers won the toss and went off
to Nuremberg. Albert, the other brother went to work at the
mines and for the next four years, financed his brother, whose
work at the academy was almost an immediate sensation.
Albrecht’s etchings, his woodcuts, and his oils were far better
Q15. Which of the following is incorrect in context of the
than most of his professors. By the time he graduated, he was
passage?
beginning to earn considerable fees for his commissioned
a) Out of 800 million online transactions made in 2013, 53% works.
were made using credit and debit cards together , while 44%
came from Internet banking.
When the young artist returned to his village, the Durer family
b) Remittances in developing countries is to grow by 5 per
held a festive dinner on their lawn to celebrate Albrecht’s
cent.
triumphant homecoming. After a long and memorable meal,
c) Million-dollar investments are being pumped into the
punctuated with music and laughter, Albrecht rose from his
mobile payments industry.
honoured position at the head of the table to drink a toast to
d) Both (b) and (c)
his beloved brother for the years of sacrifice that had enabled
e) All are correct
Albrecht to fulfil his ambition. His closing words were, “And
Solution:
now, Albert, blessed brother of mine, now it is your turn. Now
Both statement (b) and (c) are incorrect and have not been
you can go to Nuremberg to pursue your dream and I will take
mentioned in the paragraph.
care of you.” All heads turned in eager expectation to the far
end of the table where Albert sat, (2) tears streaming down
Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and
his pale face, shaking his lowered head from side to side while
answer the respective questions given below each of them.
he sobbed.
Certain words/phrases/sentences/Blanks have been printed in
bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
Finally, Albert rose and wiped the tears from his cheeks. He
questions.
glanced down the long table at the faces he loved, and then,
holding his hands close to his right cheek, he said softly, “No,
brother. I cannot go to Nuremberg. It is too late for me. Look
what four years in the mines have done to my hands! The
Back in the fifteenth century, in a tiny village near Nuremberg, bones in every finger have been smashed at least once, and
lived a family with eighteen children. Eighteen! In order
lately, I have been suffering from arthritis so badly in my right
merely to keep food on the table for his big family, the father, hand that I cannot even hold a glass to return your toast,
a goldsmith by profession, worked almost eighteen hours a
much less make delicate lines on parchment or canvas with a
day at his shop and any other paying work he could find in the pen or a brush. My brother, for me, it is too late.”
____A____. Despite their seemingly hopeless condition, two
of the eldest children had a dream. They both wanted to
More than 450 years have passed by today. By now, Albrecht
pursue their talent for art, but they knew well that their father Durer’s hundreds of masterful portraits, pen and silver-point
would never be financially able to send either of them to
sketches, watercolours, charcoals, woodcuts, and copper
Nuremberg to study at the academy.
engravings hang in every great museum in the world, but the
odds are great that you, like most people, are familiar with
only one of Albrecht Durer’s works. More than merely being
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familiar with it, you very well may have a reproduction
hanging in your home or office.
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Solution:
The first line of 6th paragraph clearly mentions that the story
told is 450 years old.
One day, to pay homage to Albert for all that he had
sacrificed, Albrecht Durer painstakingly drew his brother’s
abused hands with palms together and thin fingers stretched
skyward. He called his powerful drawing simply “Hands,” but
the entire world almost immediately opened their hearts to
his great masterpiece and renamed his tribute of love “The
Praying Hands.”
Q4. Why could Albert not attend the academy with Albrecht?
a) Because Albert was not talented enough to get admission
in the academy in Nuremberg.
b) Because his father did not have enough money to send
him to Nuremberg.
c) Because he had lost the toss which decided who of the
two brothers will go to Nuremberg.
d) Because Albrecht cheated on him.
e) Because one of the two brothers had to stay back home
Q1. Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to to take care of their ailing mother.
the word SENSATION given in the passage above?
a) Big
Solution:
b) Excitement
The second para describes that the two brothers had decided
c) Huge
to toss a coin in order to decide who of them would go to
d) Serious
Nuremberg, and Albert had lost that toss.
e) Small
Q5. In the passage above, a blank A has been given. Which of
Solution:
the following words fill the blank most accurately,
SENSATION - A widespread reaction of interest and
grammatically as well as contextually?
excitement.
a) Neighbourhood
b) Berlin
Q2. In the above passage, a line (1) is given in BOLD. Which of c) Slum
the following can be inferred from it?
d) France
a) The two boys had long discussion with their father before e) None of these
deciding who will go to Nuremberg.
b) Albert decided that he will sacrifice his dream for his
Solution:
brother Albrecht.
Neighbourhood fits perfectly in the given blank and maintains
c) Albert was the elder of the two brothers.
the continuity of the sentence.
d) The two boys worked out a plan to decide by tossing a
coin.
Q6. Which of the following best describes the moral of the
e) There were a lot of members in the family of the two
story mentioned in the above passage?
boys.
a) One must always remember and acknowledge the
contribution and sacrifice of others in one’s success.
Solution:
b) If someone has made sacrifices for your success then you
As the BOLD statement mentions ‘crowded family bed’, so it is must repay by making a painting.
very clear that there are a lot family members in the family of c) One who seizes the right opportunity at the right time
the two boys.
succeeds in life.
d) You win some and lose some in life.
Q3. According to the above passage, which of the following
e) All of the above.
statements is TRUE?
a) Albert was the elder brother of Albrecht.
Solution:
b) Albrecht named the painting of his brother’s hands, “The Of all the options, option (a) very vividly put out the moral of
Praying Hands”.
the story told in the passage. One must always remember and
c) The father of the Durer brothers worked in a mine.
acknowledge the contribution and sacrifice of others in one’s
d) The story told in the above passage is about 4.5 centuries success, just like Albrecht paid homage to Albert’s sacrifices.
old.
e) None of the above is true.
Q7. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect
to the above passage?
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a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Albrecht went to Nuremberg to pursue his talent.
Albert damaged his hands while working in the mines.
Albrecht’s work was an instant sensation.
Albert refused to go to Nuremberg to pursue his dream.
Albrecht’s father cried of happiness to see his success.
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Certain words/phrases/sentences have been printed in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Anna was a 9-year-old girl from the small village. She finished
Solution:
attending elementary school till 4th grade at her village. For
Sentence (e) is FALSE here. Nowhere in the passage has this
the 5th grade onwards, she had to get an admission in a
been mentioned, whereas, all other statements are clearly
school at a city nearby. She got very happy knowing that she
mentioned in the passage.
was accepted in a very reputed school in the city. Today was
the first day of her school and she was waiting for her school
Q8. In the above passage, a line (2) is given in BOLD. Which of bus. Once the bus came, she got in it quickly. She was very
the following can be inferred from it?
excited.
a) All the ladies sitting their turned towards Albert.
b) Albert sat on the far end of the table.
c) Albrecht sat on the other end of the table.
Once the bus reached to her school, all students started going
d) Albert cried at the offer made by Albrecht.
to their classes. Anna also made it to her classroom after
e) None of the above can be inferred from the BOLD
asking fellow students for direction. Upon seeing her simple
statements.
clothing and knowing she is from a small village, other
students started making fun of her. The teacher soon arrived
Solution:
and she asked everyone to keep quiet. She introduced Anna
The BOLD has clearly mentioned that Albert sat on the far end to the class and told that she will be studying with them from
of the table. Rest all statements cannot be inferred from the today. Then the teacher told the students to be ready for the
BOLD statement itself.
surprise test. She told everyone to write down the 7 wonders
of the world. Everyone started writing the answer quickly.
Q9. Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning Anna started to write the answer slowly.
to the word PAINSTAKINGLY given in the passage above?
a) Caring
When everyone except Anna had submitted their answer
b) Attentively
paper, the teacher came and asked Anna, “What happened
c) Enjoyable
Dear? Don’t worry! Just write what you know as other
d) Carelessly
students have learned about it just a couple of days back”.
e) Hateful
Anna replied, “I was thinking that there are so many things,
which 7 I can pick to write!” And, then she handed her answer
Solution:
paper to the teacher. The teacher started reading everyone’s
PAINSTAKINGLY - with great care and thoroughness. Hence,
answers and the majority had answered them correctly such
CARELESSLY is opposite in meaning to painstakingly.
as The Great Wall of China, Colosseum, Stonehenge, Great
Pyramid of Giza, Leaning Tower of Pisa, Tajmahal, Hanging
Q10. How many brothers did Albrecht have?
Gardens of Babylon etc.
a) Not mentioned in the passage.
b) 17
The teacher was happy as students had remembered what
c) 16
she had taught them. At last the teacher picked up Anna’s
d) 1
answer paper and started reading. She wrote, “The 7
e) 2
Wonders are – To be able to See, To be able to Hear, To be
able to Feel, To Laugh, To Think, To be Kind, To Love!” The
Solution:
teacher stood stunned and the whole class was dumbstruck.
The passage only mentions that the Durer family had 17
Today, a girl from the small village reminded them about the
children – it nowhere talks about the gender of them. Hence, precious gifts that god has given us, which are truly a wonder.
number of Albrecht’s brothers is not mentioned in the
passage.
Directions (11-15): Read the following passage carefully and
answer the respective questions given below each of them.
Q11. Why did Anna take more time to submit her answer?
a) Because she was nervous.
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b) Because she had not read the topic of seven wonders like
the other students.
c) Because she was confused in picking the 7 wonders.
d) She was handicapped in her writing hand.
e) Not mentioned in the passage
Solution:
Para 3 of the passage describes that Anna was confused,
when she says, “I was thinking that there are so many things,
which 7 I can pick to write!” Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer choice.
Q12. Which of the following is not one of the seven wonders
according to Anna?
a) Taj Mahal
b) Great Wall of China
c) Colosseum
d) Great Pyramid of Giza
e) None of the above
Solution:
None of Taj Mahal, Great Wall of China, Colosseum, or Great
Pyramid of Giza is a wonder according to Anna. Her 7 wonders
include - To be able to See, To be able to Hear, To be able to
Feel, To Laugh, To Think, To be Kind, To Love. Hence, option
(e) is the correct answer choice here.
Q13. Which of the following is MOST SIMILAR to the word
DUMBSTRUCK as used in the passage above?
a) Dumb
b) Happy
c) Hit
d) Speechless
e) None of these
Solution:
DUMBSTRUCK - So shocked or surprised as to be unable to
speak.
Q14. Why was Anna happy and excited?
a) Because she was given new dress and school bag by her
parents.
b) Because she had gotten admission in a reputed school in
the city.
c) Because she was appreciated by the teacher for her
answer.
d) Because she had never rode on a school bus before as her
previous school was in her neighbourhood.
e) None of the above.
Solution:
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The first paragraph clearly mentions that Anna had gotten
admission in a reputed school in the city and was very happy
and excited about it. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer choice here.
Q15. Why did the other students make fun of Anna?
a) Because she was wearing a colourful dress.
b) Because she did not know the answer to the question
asked in the surprise test.
c) Because she was from a village.
d) Because she came to the school in a bullock cart.
e) None of these.
Solution:
Para 2 of the given passage clearly mentions that the other
students started making fun of Anna upon seeing her simple
clothing and knowing she is from a small village. Also, the
passage nowhere mentions that she wore colourful dress.
Hence, option (c) is correct answer choice here.
Directions (1-4)- Read the following passage and answer the
questions as directed.
Paragraph 1- One of the easiest ways to establish a savings
habit is to participate in your employer's 401(k) plan. Funds
are withheld from each paycheck and deposited into your
account. If your employer matches part of your contribution
— and many do! — you will accumulate yet more. A second
way to consistently save is with an automatic savings transfer
program with your financial institution. You decide how much
and when you want funds transferred from your checking
account into a savings account. You can also use a payroll
deduction plan from your employer and get the same results.
Paragraph 2- Along with how much and how often you save,
what you earn on your funds will determine how fast your
money grows. You cannot control what happens with interest
rates or the stock market, but you can consider different types
of savings vehicles that provide different returns. The simplest
savings vehicle to consider is buying certificates of deposit
(CDs) instead of leaving funds in a savings account. CDs usually
offer higher interest rates, but they are time deposits and
have ............... for early withdrawal. If you can accept not
having immediate access to your funds, CDs can be an
attractive savings vehicle.
Q1. Which of the following can be inferred as the theme of
the passage?
a) Certificate of deposits is the best way to establish savings
habit.
b) Establishing a consistent saving habit and also smart
saving with CDs.
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c) Employer's 401(k) plan provides a convenient way for
consistent and smart savings.
d) Your savings decide how well you flourish and grow.
e) None of the Above
Solution:
The first paragraph of the passage is about the ways to
establish a consistent saving habit through various ways and
the second paragraph further gives a smarter way to save
through the use of certificates of deposit (CDs). Hence, option
(b) is the correct theme of the passage.
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increase expenses. Ensure that your income exceeds the
expenses with as wider a margin as possible. The surplus fund
after meeting all the expenses would be your saving. It is only
after you have assured savings that you can thinking about
investment.
Q5. Which of the followings is the correct chronology of steps
as can be inferred from the passage?
a) Saving-Budgeting-Investment
b) Investment-Budgeting-Saving
c) Budgeting-Saving-Investment
Q2. Which of the following can replace the word given in bold d) Budgeting-Investment-Saving
in the passage?
e) None of the Above
a) though
Solution:
b) even
The correct chronology of steps is Budgeting-Savingc) quiteLY
Investment.
d) accrue
e) more
Q6. Which of the following words, opposite of the word given
Solution:
in bold, should replace the word given in bold in the passage?
'Even' will be the correct word to replace 'yet'.
a) Enhance
b) Curtail
Q3. What is the tone of writing in the passage?
c) Damage
a) Satirical
d) Lengthen
b) Critical
e) Leverage
c) Didactic
Solution:
d) Sarcastic
The paragraph deals with improving savings and limiting
e) Nostalgic
expenses. 'Curtail' means reduce in extent or quantity; impose
Solution:
a restriction on. So, 'curtail' should replace 'increase'.
The tone of writing in the passage is Didactic because the
author tries to teach or instruct through his writing.
Q7. Which of the following is the best way of writing the line
given in italics in the paragraph, without changing its intended
Q4. Which of the following words can fill in the blank to make meaning?
it meaningful?
a) Surely, the income will exceed the expenses by a wider
a) gifts
margin.
b) lucrative
b) The income will be greater than the expenses is not a
c) causalities
possibility.
d) penalties
c) Make sure that the income is greater than the expenses
e) None of the Above
by a margin as wide as possible.
Solution:
d) If the income does not exceed the expenses by a wider
Before the blank it is given that CDs usually offer higher
margin, it will be useless.
interest rates, which is a positive phrase. Further, 'but' is used e) None of the Above
which means that next part of sentence will be something
Solution:
contradictory. Hence, 'penalties' will the correct word.
The correct way of writing the line without changing its
intended meaning is 'Make sure that the income is greater
Directions (5-7)- Read the following paragraph and answer the than the expenses by a margin as wide as possible.'
questions as directed.
Directions (8-10)- Read the following paragraph and answer
Budgeting is an important tool for saving. First, you need to
the questions as directed.
segregate all your income and expenses. Now, categorise your
expenses as least important, important and very important to The way most of us save is to put away whatever is left after
prioritise them while settling them through your income,
all expenses are taken care of, or put away any surplus
which is limited. Try to figure out ways in which you can
income. But that is not the best way of saving and there are
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chances of us falling short. A very stringent savings plan that
favours future demands over current aspirations is also likely
to fail. Instead, a better approach is where due consideration
is given to current and future needs. This will help divide the
available income between current consumption and future
saving. If an expense or a need is too large to be met out of
the regular income, earmark it for the future. So the
................. way to buy a coveted watch is not to swipe the
credit card and commit yourself to debt, but to set aside
money from your current income and buy the watch when
you have the required funds.
Solution:
"Expenses or needs that have to be met at a point of time in
the future are called goals." This will be the last line in
continuation to the last line of the passage as the last line is
an example to set aside money to buy a watch in the future.
Cloze Tests
Directions (1-10): Read the following passage and attempt the
questions as directed.
Q8. Which of the following can be best inferred from the
paragraph?
a) The better way to save is to give due consideration to
current and future needs and plan accordingly.
b) It's better to buy the things that you require at present
than to save money and buy them later.
c) Buying a watch is more important than saving for the
future.
d) A stringent savings plan will produce a good result for the
future.
e) None of the Above
Solution:
The paragraph tells about the better ways to save and what all
should be considered while spending or maintaining your
expenses. So, the statement in option (a) can be the best
inference from the passage.
It is now becoming clear that Cyclone Gaja is a major disaster,
and its economic impact in Tamil Nadu is comparable to that
of the tsunami of 2004. The (A) ……………… suffered by tens of
thousands of people in several districts of the State has been
severe, going well beyond the annual storm season losses. In
the initial days after November 16, when the cyclone struck,
the State heaved a sigh of relief
(B)……………………………………………………………... But it is now clear
that the suffering, the loss, and the displacement in large
parts of Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Pudukottai
districts is of an enormous magnitude. (C) Communities in the
affected areas are distraught as houses have collapsed, farms
lie ruined, water sources are contaminate and electricity
supply remains disrupted. Many areas remain inaccessible
because fallen trees have blocked roads. (D) In its report to
Q9. Which of the following word should fill in the blank in the the Centre, the Tamil Nadu government has destroyed the
paragraph?
number of people rendered homeless at 3.7 lakh, and houses
a) stringent
estimated at 3.4 lakh. The cyclone has crippled agriculture and
b) bad
livelihoods in a fertile region, felling thousands of productive
c) unethical
trees and (E) surviving livestock. Between 60% and 80% of the
d) moneywise
coconut trees in the region have fallen, (F) ………………. Tamil
e) Both (a) and (d)
Nadu’s farmers, who contribute a quarter of India’s coconuts
Solution:
with the highest unit yield. Unlike paddy or many other crops,
'Moneywise' here means in regard of money and so it is the
bringing coconut plantations (G)……………………………… will take
perfect fit for the blank.
years.
(H) The top priority for the Tamil Nadu government should be
Q10. Which of the following can be next line after the last line to restored administrative systems and service delivery in the
of the given paragraph?
affected areas. Only with physical access, electricity
a) Most of us never have enough money for immediate
connections and public health facilities can effective relief
expenses as well as saving.
work be undertaken. Solar power can get public facilities
b) There will be a lot of unwanted expenses that can creep running overnight. (I) It is equally important to compensation
in every now and then.
the large number of stricken farmers that there will be a
c) If we had enough money to meet our current expenses
moratorium on any agricultural loans that they have taken,
and future goals, there would be no problem.
while a fair assure scheme is prepared. Many of them have
d) Expenses or needs that have to be met at a point of time invested in trees and livestock expecting long-term returns,
in the future are called goals.
but have been rendered (J) rich overnight. The Tamil Nadu
e) Just as we segregate the essential and less important
government has given the Centre a memorandum seeking
things in our shopping list, do the same with your goals.
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nearly ₹15,000 crore for restoration, rehabilitation and
mitigation, besides ₹1,431 crore for immediate relief work.
a) estimated-report
b) estimated-destroyed
c) report-rendered
Q1. Which of the following words given in the options should d) estimated-rendered
come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to
e) No replacement required
make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word Solution:
should fill in the blanks given in the two sentences given
'estimated-destroyed' should replace each other to make a
below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
contextually correct and meaningful sentence.
(I) But on the whole there was no ruinous ..................... of the
land.
(II) In 1170 a great flood caused immense ..................... in the
north and helped to form the Zuider Zee.
a) devastation
b) development
c) rehabilitation
d) encroachment
e) Both (A) and (D)
Solution:
'Devastation' means great destruction or damage. Hence, it is
a perfect fit for all the blanks.
Q5. A word is given in bold in (E). Choose the word which
should replace the word given in bold to make the sentence
correct and meaningful. If no change is required, choose
option (E) as your answer.
a) killing
b) improving
c) raising
d) refusing
e) No change required
Solution:
As the passage is about the devastation caused due to the
cyclone, 'killing' is the correct word in context of 'livestock'.
Q2. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (B)
to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
a) as the cyclone was very strong and harsh.
b) since the death toll was relatively high.
c) since the death toll was relatively low.
d) since the infrastructure was badly damaged.
e) Both (C) and (D)
Solution:
Prior to the blank it is given that the State heaved a sigh of
relief, which clearly states that the blank requires something
positive. So, 'since the death toll was relatively low' correctly
maintains the continuity of the statement.
Q6. Which of the following words given in the options should
come at the place marked (F) in the above paragraph to make
it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word
should fill in the blanks givrn in the two sentences given below
to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(I) She looked once more at Dean, turned, and began
................down the road to her car.
(II) But suddenly, at a narrow place, they met a very old man,
............ slowly along over the stony way.
a) advancing
b) flattering
c) besmirch
Q3. In the passage given, a sentence (C) is given in BOLD.
d) hobbling
There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. e) dwelling
Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If
Solution:
there in no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
'Hobbling' means restrict the activity or development of. Also,
a) Communities in the affected areas are distraught
its other meaning is walk in an awkward way, typically
b) as houses have collapsed, farms lie ruined,
because of pain from an injury. Hence, it is the correct word
c) water sources are contaminate and electricity
to be filled in all the blanks.
d) supply remains disrupted.
e) No Error
Q7. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (G)
Solution:
to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
Error is in the part given in option (c). Use 'contaminated' in
a) and improving cultivation methods
place of 'contaminate'.
b) throughout the world
c) to fight inflation
Q4. The sentence given in (D) has four words given in BOLD.
d) back to life
Amongst the given BOLD words which of the following must e) None of the Above
replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct Solution:
and meaningful.
'back to life' is contextually correct and meaningful.
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even after the recent appreciation is down about 11% since
the beginning of the year, have been ....14...... linked to the
price of crude oil in the global markets. This is no surprise
since imported oil meets about 80% of India’s total demand.
The value of the rupee tanked amid the uptrend in oil prices
this year which lasted till early October. Since then, the rupee
has gained against the dollar in .....15..... with the fall in global
crude prices.
Q11.
a) with
b) of
c) against
d) for
e) None of these
Q9. The sentence given in (I) has four words given in bold.
Solution:
Amongst the given bold words which of the following must
'Against' makes the sentence contextually correct and
replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct meaningful.
and meaningful.
a) assure-compensation
Q12.
b) moratorium-stricken
f) energy
c) assure-stricken
g) fondness
d) compensation-moratorium
h) ground
e) No change required
i) admire
Solution:
j) None of these
Replace 'assure-compensation’ to get a contextually correct
Solution:
and meaningful sentence.
'Ground' is the correct word. 'Gain ground' means become
more popular or accepted.
Q10. A word is given in bold in (J). Choose the word which
should replace the word given in bold to make the sentence
Q13.
correct and meaningful. If no change is required, choose
option (E) as your answer.
a) render
a) drenched
b) reached
b) paupers
c) growth
c) sensation
d) behind
d) prosperous
e) None of these
e) No change required
Solution:
Solution:
'Reached' makes the sentence contextually correct and
'Pauper' means a very poor person. So, the statement means meaningful.
that the people were rendered poor overnight.
Q14.
Directions (11-15): In the passage given below there are
a) deep
blanks which are numbered from 11 to 15. They are to be
b) morally
filled with the options given below the passage against each
c) tightly
of the respective numbers. Find out the appropriate word in d) amicably
each case which can most suitably complete the sentence
e) None of these
without altering its meaning. . If none of the words given in
Solution:
options fits in, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer choice.
'Tightly' is correct in context of 'linked' and is the appropriate
choice.
After falling consistently ....11..... the U.S. dollar for most of
this year, the rupee has managed to gain some .......12..... over Q15.
the last few weeks. It has gained almost 5% from its lowest
a) tandem
levels ......13..... in October. The fortunes of the rupee, which b) culture
Q8. In the passage given, a sentence (H) is given in BOLD.
There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence.
Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If
there in no error then choose option (E) as your answer.
a) The top priority for the Tamil Nadu
b) government should be to restored
c) administrative systems and service
d) delivery in the affected areas
e) No error
Solution:
Error is in the part given in option (b). Use 'restore' in place of
'restored'.
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c) according
d) relating
e) None of these
Solution:
'in tandem' means alongside each other. Hence, 'tandem' is
the correct choice.
keep the schemes devolved (4). Huge budget pressures faced
by councils mean even authorities that have protected local
welfare in the past are proposing drastic cuts. West Sussex
county council recently unveiled plans for an 80% reduction in
its £800,000 crisis fund from next April. (I) Local welfare has
been controversially as most councils refuse to give cash
payments to clients in crisis, choosing instead to offer
Direction (1-10): Read the following passage and answer the supermarket food vouchers or refer them to food banks. In
questions as directed.
one case, Isle of Wight council offered a 62-year-old homeless
woman a voucher to buy a tent. Only two English councils –
The system of “local welfare” schemes set up less than five
Islington in north London and North Tyneside in the northyears ago to provide emergency help to England’s poorest
east – had higher local welfare budget cash totals year
families, often to help them cope with delays and sanctions to compared with 2013, by 12% and 4% respectively. Niall
their benefits, is on the (A) of collapse, say poverty
Cooper, the director of Church Action on Poverty, said: “The
campaigners. (B) A survey of more than 150 council-run
(J)…………… of the social fund was that people could stay afloat
schemes by Church Action on Poverty found that nearly a
and hopefully ride out a crisis, rather than sinking deeper into
quarter had been shutted down since 2013, while a further
poverty. A lifeline in times of emergency is a vital part of a
quarter have reduced spending by 85% or more. More are
compassionate society, but it has been withdrawn in many
expected to close in the next few months. (C)The destitution places and neglected almost everywhere.”
(1) of local welfare would put tens of thousands of
vulnerable(2) people at increased risk(3) of hunger, debt and Q1. Which of the following word given in the options should
demise (4), the charity said. The system was designed to help come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to
people on low incomes deal with unexpected hardship, (D)----- make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word
--------------, or domestic crises such as broken boilers, house
should fill in the two sentences given below to make them
fires and flooding. Huge cuts to council budgets have left the contextually correct and meaningful.
system, which replaced the old social fund, struggling to
(i) She stood out of his way, barely able to care for a child and
survive. Provision is so uneven that thousands of people
at a loss as to what to do with a boy on the …………………. of
cannot access emergency help from the state, Church Action becoming a teenager.
on Poverty said. “Local authority welfare schemes are
(ii) He found the country on the …………………. of revolution;
increasingly (E), leaving families in many areas with nowhere but the wisdom of the new monarch saved the situation and
to turn for help,” said the bishop of Manchester, David
won back the Magyars.
Walker. “It cannot be right for central and local government a) middle
to (F) abdicate responsibility for people in crisis when they
b) edging
need our help most.” In many areas, the most common
c) verge
reason for an application for crisis support is delays or
d) resemble
sanctions to benefits, with some councils noting that the five- e) terminate
week minimum wait for a first universal credit payment is an Solution:
emerging factor in rising demand. Universal credit claimants 'Verge' means an extreme limit beyond which something
facing hardship who contact Department for Work and
specified will happen. So, 'verge' is an appropriate choice
Pensions (DWP) helplines for help are routinely directed to
here.
local welfare schemes in their areas if they do not qualify for
official advance loans or hardship funds. Church leaders and Q2. In the passage given, a sentence (B) is given in italics.
anti-poverty charities called on ministers to make local
There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence.
welfare provision a legal duty for top-tier councils, and to
Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If
provide ringfenced funding to protect crisis services. The 153 there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
councils that responded to the survey collectively reduced
a) A survey of more than 150 council-run schemes by
spending on local welfare by an average of 72% between
b) Church Action on Poverty found that nearly a quarter
2013-14 and 2017-18. (G) Local welfare provision replaced the c) had been shutted down since 2013, while a further
discretionary social fund, which in its final year spent £240m d) quarter have reduced spending by 85% or more.
in crisis loans and community care grants. (H) It was going (1) e) No Error
to councils with DWP funding(2) in 2013 but that cash was
Solution:
stopped(3) in 2015, with councils left to decide whether to
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Error is in the part given in option (c). 'shut' is to be used in
place of 'shutted'. There is no such word as 'shutted' in English
dictionary. Further, 'has been' takes third form of verb and
third form of 'shut' is 'shut' itself.
Q3. The sentence given in (C) has four words given in bold.
Amongst the given bold words which of the following must
replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct
and meaningful.
a) 1-4
b) 1-3
c) 2-3
d) 2-4
e) 1-2
Solution:
'destitution' and 'demise' should replace each other. 'Demise'
means the end or failure of an enterprise or institution.
'Destitution' means poverty so extreme that one lacks the
means to provide for oneself.
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Solution:
'Threadbare' means (of an argument, excuse, idea, etc.) used
so often that it is no longer effective. Also, it means poor or
shabby in appearance. So, threadbare fits in all the sentences
correctly.
Q6. A word is given in bold in (F). Choose the word which
should replace the word given in bold to make the sentence
correct and meaningful. If no change is required, choose
option e as your answer.
a) renounce
b) abjure
c) surrendering
d) vacating
e) No Change
Solution:
No Change. 'Abdicate' means fail to fulfill or undertake (a
responsibility or duty). Hence, it is correct in context of the
sentence.
Q4. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (D)
to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
a) facing the severe impacts caused by the crisis
b) including job programmes and childcare, but also
transfers to other state programmes,
c) which are a cause of severe balance of payments
d) so some avoid them by limiting how many people are
eligible for welfare in the first place.
e) such as a lack of money caused by benefit payment
problems
Solution:
'such as a lack of money caused by benefit payment problems'
is the correct phrase her. the preceding statement talks about
hardships and this phrase explains the type of hardship, thus
maintaining the continuity of the sentence.
Q7. Two sentences are given in italics on both sides of (G).
Which of the following statements can come in between the
two sentences in place of (G) and maintain the continuity of
the paragraph?
a) The dynamic nature of our preferred model allows to
estimate the long‐term effect of a 1 per cent increase in social
spending, which is found to be in the order of a 0.057 points
increase in the IHDI.
b) Continuing investments in the social sectors have been
recognized by the international community.
c) Local authorities are responsible for using their funds to
best meet the needs of their residents, and over the next two
years we are providing them with £90.7bn to do so.
d) Together they spent £46m on local welfare last year,
compared with a national budget of £172m in 2013-14.
e) One million people have been lifted out of absolute
Q5. Which of the following word given in the options should poverty since 2010 and household incomes have never been
come at the place marked as (E) in the above paragraph to
higher.
make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word Solution:
should fill in the two sentences given below to make them
The correct option is (d) 'Together they spent £46m on local
contextually correct and meaningful.
welfare last year, compared with a national budget of £172m
(i) After living in the woods for a week without supplies, my
in 2013-14.' As the previous statement is about the councils
……………….. clothing was not protecting me from the
spending on local welfare and the statement in (d) also
elements.
discusses their collective spending. Hence, it is the correct
(ii) The Defence Department generally defended its existing
choice
programs, though the rationale for them was growing
……………………….
Q8. The sentence given in (H) has four words given in bold.
a) flawless
Amongst the given bold words which of the following must
b) threadbare
replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct
c) pristine
and meaningful.
d) unsullied
a) 1-4
e) Both (b) and (c)
b) 1-3
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c) 2-3
d) 2-4
e) 1-2
Solution:
1 and 4 should replace each other. 'Going' and 'devolved'
should replace each other to make the sentence correct.
'Devolve' means transfer or delegate (power) to a lower level,
especially from central government to local or regional
administration.
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Error is in part A. Use 'sworn' in place of 'sworned'. 'Was' itself
depicts past form and so past form of 'sworn' will not be used
here.
Q2. A student of civil engineering from the Delhi College of
Engineering (A)/ and M. Tech in systems management from
IIT-New Delhi, (B)/ Saxena was selected for the civil services
(C)/ and join the Indian Postal Service in 1978.(D)/
A B C
D
No Error
Solution:
Q9. In the passage given, a sentence (I) is given in italics.
Error is in part D. 'Joined' should be used in place of 'join' as
There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. the sentence is in past tense.
Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If
there in no error then choose option (e) as your answer.
Q3. Of national elections around the corner, (A)/ political
a) Local welfare has been controversially
parties are once again (B)/ gearing up to publish their official
b) as most councils refuse to give cash payments to clients (C)/ stances on key policy issues.(D)/
c) in crisis, choosing instead to offer supermarket
A
B C
D
No Error
d) food vouchers or refer them to food banks.
Solution:
e) No Error
Error is in part A. 'With' should be used in place of 'of' to make
Solution:
the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Error is in the part given in option (a). An adjective is to be
used here so 'controversial' should be used in place of
Q4. India has climbed an impressive (A)/ 55 rungs in the World
'controversially'
Bank’s (B)/ Ease of Doing Business (C)/ rankings of two
years.(D)/
Q10. Which of the following words should fill the blank given A
B C
D
No Error
in (J) to make it contextually correct and meaningful?
Solution: Error is in part D. Use 'in' in place of 'of' in part D.
a) caused
b) occasion
Q5. Most people have that one family (A)/ member who has
c) desires
been diagnosed with (B)/ a dreaded illness and finds (C)/ it
d) purpose
challenging to manage financially.(D)/
e) reasons
A
B C
D
No Error
Solution:
Solution: There is no error in any part of the sentence.
'Purpose' is the most appropriate word here.
Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions, a
sentence is given which may or may not have an error in it. In
the options given below each question, four ways of writing
Grammar
the same sentence are given. You have to choose the
sentence which is grammatically and contextually correct. If
Directions (1-5): Read each of the following sentences to find the sentence is correct as it is, choose option (e) as your
out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will answer.
be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of
this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, Q6. With three-quarters of tertiary healthcare being provided
by corporate hospitals, it becomes important to have a high
then mark option (e) as your answer choice.
health cover, given the high charging by these hospitals and
Q1. Senior civil servant Arvind Saxena was sworned in as the medical inflation of 20% per annum in India.
(A)/ Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) a) With three-quarters of tertiary healthcare being provided
by corporate hospitals, it becomes important to have a high
(B)/ on Thursday, the Ministry of Personnel, (C)/ Public
health cover, given the high charges by these hospitals and
Grievances and Pensions said.(D)/
medical inflation of 20% per annum in India.
A B
C
D
No Error
b) With three-quarters of tertiary healthcare being provide
Solution:
by corporate hospitals, it becomes important to have a high
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health cover, given the high charges by these hospitals and
medical inflation of 20% per annum in India.
c) With three-quarters of tertiary healthcare being provided
by corporate hospitals, it become important to have a high
health cover, given the high charges by these hospitals and
medical inflation of 20% per annum in India.
d) With three-quarters of tertiary healthcare been provided
by corporate hospitals, it becomes important to have a high
health cover, given the high charges by these hospitals and
medical inflation of 20% per annum in India.
e) No Change required
Solution:
The correct sentence is 'With three-quarters of tertiary
healthcare being provided by corporate hospitals, it becomes
important to have a high health cover, given the high charges
by these hospitals and medical inflation of 20% per annum in
India.'
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c) Speech and language are the first communication
technologies, and the main drives of human evolution.
d) Speech and language are the first communication
technologies, and the mainly drive of human evolution.
e) No Change required
Solution:
No Change required
Q9. The best way to handle a project too large for any one
organization is to asking lots of volunteers to help.
a) The best way to handle a project too large for any one
organization is to asked lots of volunteers to help.
b) The best way to handling a project to large for any one
organization is to ask lots of volunteers to help.
c) The best way to handle a project too large for any one
organization is too ask lots of volunteers to help.
d) The best way to handle a project too large for any one
organization is to ask lots of volunteers to help.
Q7. Take into account the inflation on medical expenses, a
e) No Change required
large health cover will really help in protecting your wealth as Solution:
it will pay for your expenses without you have to sell your
The correct sentence is 'The best way to handle a project too
assets or exhaust your savings.
large for any one organization is to ask lots of volunteers to
a) Take into account the inflation on medical expenses, a
help.'
large health cover will really help in protecting your wealth as
it will pay for your expenses without you having to sell your
Q10. For more than a year after demonetisation, the erratic
assets or exhaust your savings.
supply of currency and the recurring automated teller
b) Taking into account the inflation on medical expenses, a machines (ATM) calibrations impacted the transactions at the
large health cover will really help in protecting your wealth as ATMs.
it will pay for your expenses without you have to sell your
a) For more then a year after demonetisation, the erratic
assets or exhaust your savings.
supply of currency and the recurring automated teller
c) Taking into account the inflation on medical expenses, a machines (ATM) calibrations impacted the transactions on the
large health cover will really help in protecting your wealth as ATMs.
it will pay for your expenses without you having to sell your
b) For more than a year after demonetisation, the erratic
assets or exhaust your savings.
supply of currency and the recurring automated teller
d) Taking into account the inflation on medical expense, a
machines (ATM) calibrations impact the transactions on the
large health cover will really helps in protecting your wealth as ATMs.
it will pay for your expenses without you having to sell your
c) For more than a year after demonetisation, the erratic
assets or exhaust your savings.
supply of currency and the recurring automated teller
e) No Change required
machines (ATM) calibrations impacting the transactions on
Solution:
the ATMs.
The correct sentence is 'Taking into account the inflation on
d) For more than a year after demonetisation, the erratic
medical expenses, a large health cover will really help in
supply in currency and the recurring automated teller
protecting your wealth as it will pay for your expenses without machines (ATM) calibrations impacted the transactions in the
you having to sell your assets or exhaust your savings.'
ATMs.
e) No Change required
Q8. Speech and language are the first communication
Solution:
technologies, and the main drivers of human evolution.
No Change required
a) Speech and language is the first communication
technologies, and the main driver of human evolution.
Directions (11-15): Read each of the following sentences to
b) Speech and language are the first communication
find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
technology, and the main driver of human evolution.
any, will be in one part of the sentence and that part will be
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the answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark
option (e) as your answer choice.
Q11. Digital technologies are enabling firms to automating
and this will reduce employment in some old, typically lowand medium-skill sectors.
a) Digital technologies are enabling
b) firms to automating and this will reduce
c) employment in some old,
d) typically low- and medium-skill sectors.
e) No Error
Solution:
Use 'automate' in place of 'automating'. 'To' will be followed
by first form of verb.
Q12. The demand for certain skills is going up in today’s
labour markets. These skills include complex problem-solving
and analysis and social skills such as teamwork and
relationship management.
a) The demand for certain skills is going up in today’s
b) labour markets. These skills include complex
c) problem-solving and social skills such as
d) teamwork and relationship management.
e) No Error
Solution:
No Error
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Q15. Despite its recent economic advances, India’s gender
balance in entrepreneurship and start-ups remain among the
lowest in the world.
a) Despite its recent economic advances,
b) India’s gender balance in entrepreneurship
c) and start-ups remain
d) among the lowest in the world
e) No Error
Solution:
'Remains' will be used in place of 'remain' because here
'India’s gender balance' is the noun which is singular.
Directions (1-15): Read each of the following sentences to find
out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of
this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement,
mark option (e) as your answer choice.
Q1. The ICICI Bank Managing Director and the Chief Executive
Officer (A)/ have decided to resign from their posts (B)/ even
as the one-member committee that was set up to look into
(C)/ allegations of conflict of interest is yet to submit its
findings. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution:
There is no error in the given statement. When we talk about
two different personalities/positions/offices, we use separate
articles – like ‘the’ is used in the given statement - this
Q13. As the World Development Report 2019 argues, India
symbolises that there are two different persons who hold
needs to focus even more strongly on the quality of education these two positions. Hence, in the given statement, the ICICI
it offers to it’s greatest asset—its citizens.
Bank Managing Director and the CEO are two different
a) As the World Development Report 2019
personalities – therefore the subject of the given statement is
b) argues, India needs to focus even more
plural.
c) strongly on the quality of education it offers
d) to it’s greatest asset—its citizens
Whereas, if a single article is used before the first position
e) No Error
only, then the same person holds both the positions. For
Solution:
example, if the given statement had been as follows – ‘The
'Its' will be used in place of 'It's'. 'It's' denotes 'It is'.
ICICI Bank Managing Director and CEO....’, then the person
holding these two positions would have been a single person
Q14. Entrepreneurship and the rate of start-ups is more fluid and hence the subject of the statement would have been
in India compared to an advanced economy such as the US.
singular.
a) Entrepreneurship and the rate of
b) start-ups is more fluid in
Q2. Twenty-two channels of the Sony Pictures Networks India
c) India compared to an advanced
(SPN) (A)/ bouquet of channels has been dropped (B)/ from
d) economy such as the US
the Tata Sky network owing to disagreement over (C)/
e) No Error
revenue sharing between the broadcasters and the carrier.
Solution:
(D)/ No error (E)
'Are' will be used in place of 'is' because two there are two
A B
C
D
E
nouns 'Entrepreneurship and the rate of start-ups'.
Solution:
Part (B) of the given statement has an error. The subject of
the given statement is ’ Twenty-two channels’ (Plural) and the
helping verb must agree with it.
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Q7. Pakistan, Mr. Khan said, wants an early (A)/ completion of
these projects and is (B)/ in talks with the Chinese on who to
(C)/ focus on areas that are important to the new
government. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution: Here, in part (C) ‘how’ must replace ‘who’ to make
the sentence grammatically correct as the statement is about
Q3. Commercial negotiations with the broadcasters break
finding ways to focus on areas that are important to the new
down (A)/ as what they were seeking would have forced us to government.
hike (B)/ our prices. Hence, we had to drop a few channels
(C)/ while keeping the popular ones on,” said Harit Nagpal of Q8. India has gifted some of the greatest batsmen and spin
Tata Sky. (D)/ No error (E)
bowler (A)/ who have made it to the record books, but (B)/
A B
C
D
E
less has been spoken of the great pacemen who have (C)/
Solution:
added colour to Indian cricket throughout history. (D)/ No
Here, part (A) has an error. The given statement is in past
error (E)
tense and hence ‘break’ is grammatically incorrect; it should A B
C
D
E
be replaced by ‘broke’.
Solution: Part (A) has an error. The phrase ‘one/some of the’
always follows a plural form. Hence, ‘bowler’ must be
Q4. Fishermen have been warned not to (A)/ venture out to
replaced by ‘bowlers’
sea from Saturday and (B)/ those out in deep sea (C)/ fishing
expeditions advised to return to the coast. (D)/ No error (E)
Q9. Following the resurgence of the controversy, (A)/ she also
A B
C
D
E
accused Mr. Agnihotri of (B)/ behaving inappropriately with
Solution: In the given statement is about fishermen going on her (C)/ during the make of 2005 film Chocolate. (D)/ No error
fishing expeditions. ‘Expedition’ means a journey undertaken (E).
by a group of people. The usage of expedition in such
A B
C
D
E
sentence requires ‘on’ as a preposition and not ‘in’. Hence,
Solution:
‘Fishermen have been warned not to venture out to sea from In part (D) the correct usage of the verb ‘make’ requires a
Saturday and those out on deep sea fishing expeditions
gerund form, i.e. V1+ing, as the statement talks about an
advised to return to the coast’ is the correct statement.
action in continuation (during the making of the film).
Therefore, the correct statement would be – ‘Twenty-two
channels of the Sony Pictures Networks India (SPN) bouquet
of channels have been dropped from the Tata Sky network
owing to disagreement over revenue sharing between the
broadcasters and the carrier.’
Q5. A weather bulletin issued by the IMD on Thursday said
(A)/ the cyclonic circulation over the southeast Arabian Sea
was (B)/ likely to trigger the formation of a low pressure area
on Friday (C)/ having the potential to concentrate into a
depression. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution: The given statement is error free. Also, apart from
its usual meaning (in meteorological terms) ‘depression’ also
means ‘a region of low atmospheric pressure with the lowest
pressure at the centre.’
Q6. Teenage Prithvi Shaw became the seventh youngest (A)/
test centurion on day one of the series-opener (B)/ against the
West Indies at Rajkot (C)/ after he took 99 balls to score his
century. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution: Part (A) has an error here. Instead of an adjective, a
noun must be used here. Hence, ‘teenager’ should replace
‘teenage’ in the given statement, to make is grammatically
correct.
Q10. The meeting issued directions to equip all (A)/ damn
sites under the KSEBL and the Water (B)/ Resources
department with satellite (C)/ phones for communication in
emergency situations. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution:
DAMN: expressing anger or frustration.
DAM: A barrier constructed to hold back water and raise its
level.
Q11. On the eve of Independence, (A)/ Mahatma Gandhi saw
the lack of a “sense (B)/ of national or social sanitation” (C)/ as
the root of all diseases between Indians. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution:
Here, part (D) of the sentence has an error. Since more than 2
people (Indians in general) are talked about, instead of
‘between’, ‘among’ must be used to make the statement error
free.
Q12. Whether or not there was a larger political (A)/ purpose
behind Mr. Pawar’s statements (B)/ on Rafale, the clarification
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(C)/ were not a complete retraction of the original remark.
(D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution:
In the latter part of the given statement, ‘the clarification’ is
the subject, which is singular in form. Hence, instead of
‘were’, ‘was’ should be used in part (D).
Q13. Meanwhile, when many schools are putting across (A)/
requests for furniture and shelves, on their part, (B)/ the
common public of the area are also (C)/ trying to raise funds
for the same. (D)/ No error (E)
A B
C
D
E
Solution:
Just like the previous question, in part (C), the subject is ‘the
common public’ (a collective noun) – which is singular –
Hence, instead of ‘are’, ‘is’ must be used.
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Q1. People lined the route, showering rose petals and
chanting ‘long live Vajpayee’ as tens of thousands in mourners
took part in the procession.
a) thousands mourners took part
b) mourners in thousand take part
c) thousands of mourners took part
d) thousands at mourning taken part
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘thousands of mourners took part’ is the grammatically and
contextually correct replacement.
Q2. His body had to be put in stacks to tables and beds before
a few brave men took it across the ferocious currents on a
makeshift raft the next morning.
a) had to be put on stacks of tables
b) have to be put on stacks and tables
c) has to put in the stacks of the tables
Q14. The dog is training in a practice session for a (A)/ role her d) have to put on stack of tables
handlers say is unique to her (B)/ — sniffing out powders,
e) No correction required
tablets and liquids (C)/ used to by drug cheats to gain an
Solution:
advantage in sports. (D)/ No error (E)
‘had to be put on stacks of tables’ as the subject is singular, it
A B
C
D
E
will take singular form of the verb along with the past form of
Solution:
verb because the sentence is in past. Moreover, ‘on stacks of
‘used to’ is a phrasal verb meaning – ‘refer to things in the
tables’ is the correct phrase with the correct use of
past’, which is completely out of context in the given
preposition.
statement. Hence, in part (D), ‘used’ should be used in place
of ‘used to’.
Q3. The launchpad at the Sriharikota spaceport, the Satish
Dhawan Space Centre, would be enhance for the human
Q15. Ever since he failed on the recent tour to (A)/ England,
mission. The Space Applications Centre which makes
people from across platforms (B)/ are advicing him to focus
electronic devices and instruments for ISRO missions will also
(C)/ more on his batsmanship than on his looks. (D)/ No error get refurbished.
(E)
a) would enhanced to the mission
A B
C
D
E
b) would be enhance to the mission
c) will be enhancing to the mission
Solution:
d) would be enhanced for the human mission
ADVICE (noun): guidance or recommendations offered with
e) No correction required
regard to prudent action.
Solution:
ADVISE (verb): (to) offer suggestions about the best course of ‘would be enhanced for the human mission’ because ‘be’ will
action to someone.
be followed by the third form of the verb here.
In the given sentence the verb form is to be used. Hence, part Q4. If it rains even now, farmers may still go for paddy. I
(C) has an error.
would say there is a window of one more week. Otherwise,
they will have to go for pulses.
Direction (1-15): Which of the following phrases given below a) they would gone for pulses
each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold
b) they will go to the pulses
letters to make the sentence meaningfully correct? Choose
c) they will going for the pulses
the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect d) they won’t go to the pulses
the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically e) No correction required
correct sentence.
Solution:
No correction required
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Q5. The unprecedented deluge in Kerala leashed by heavy
rain, overflown rivers, brimming dams and massive landslips
has overwhelmed the State government and rescue agencies,
as they struggle to make a complete assessment of the
devastation.
a) leashing by heavy rains, overflown rivers
b) unleashed by heavy rain, overflowing rivers
c) unleashing by heavy rains, overflown rivers
d) leashed to heavy rains, overflew rivers
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘unleashed by heavy rain, overflowing rivers’ because
‘leashed’ is contrary to the contextual meaning. Along with,
‘overflown’ means fly beyond limits. Thus, ‘overflown’ is
against the context of rivers, and it should be replaced with
‘overflowing’.
Q6. Gone forward, the task of reconstruction will have to be
addressed, covering public buildings, residential homes, roads
and other infrastructure.
a) Go forwarded
b) Gone forwarding
c) Going forward
d) Going forwarding
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘Going forward’ is the grammatically and contextually fit
replacement for the bold phrase.
Q7. Operators should ensure that no corner is cut regarding
cybersecurity — after all, in a network environment we are
only as strong as the weakest link.
a) no corner of cut
b) corner of no cutting
c) corner which is going to be cut
d) corners of cut
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘No corner is cut’ or ‘Cut corners’ is an idiom which means to
skip certain steps in order to do something as easily or
cheaply as possible, usually to the detriment of the finished
product or end result. Thus, it should be used in its idiomatic
form only.
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d) is one of NPCI’s more successful products
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘is one of NPCI’s more successful products’ because article
‘the’ will not precede it as it is a case of degree of comparison.
Q9. The apex court said judges were none experts to frame a
disaster management plan or measure the dangers of water
levels in Mullaperiyar dam.
a) was none experts to frame
b) were neither experts of frame
c) was not experts to framed
d) were no experts to frame
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘were no experts to frame’ is the best suited replacement
here.
Q10. Since the start of this millennium, the nation has won
four medals on an average, including golds in each of the four
editions.
a) had win four medals in an average
b) have won four medals in an average
c) had won four medals in average
d) has win four medals on an average
e) No correction required
Solution:
No correction required
Q11. If Ram and Prajnesh can performs the way they have in
the last few months, there is a high chance that both may get
medals.
a) performed the way they had
b) performs the way they have
c) can perform the way they have
d) performing the way they used to
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘can perform the way they have’ because the given sentence
is a conditional sentence which follows a specified format.
Q12. In the foreground is a rural outpost in Haryana where
women gone ‘rogue’ take over a radio station and started
broadcasting their own up-tempo version of Akashwani,
Q8. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is one of NPCI’s the perhaps aligned with the aspirations unfurled by Chawla’s
more successful products as it powers multiple bank accounts ascent.
into a single mobile application thus enabling both immediate start broadcasting their own up-tempo version
fund transfers and a variety of payments without a user
start broadcast their own up-tempo version
having to part with sensitive information.
starts broadcasting their own up-tempo version
a) is the NPCI’s much more successful products
starting broadcasted their own up-tempo version
b) is NPCI’s much successful products
No correction required
c) is one of NPCI’s most successful products
Solution:
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‘start broadcasting their own up-tempo version’ because the
given sentence is in the present form of the tense.
Q13. Several testimonials based on conduct interviews made
it to Sapru’s initial draft, embedded into a fictitious
framework.
a) based to conducting interviews make it
b) based on conducted interviews made it
c) based on conduction interviews made it
d) basis of the conduction of the interviews making it
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘based on conducted interviews made it’ is the grammatically
correct alternative.
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Q1. We have to think what kind of society we are becoming. It
is our collecting responsibility to ensure such a thing does not
happen to any girl or woman.
(I) our collective responsibility to ensure
(II) our collection responsibility to ensured
(III) our collected responsibility to ensuring
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I)&(III)
(e) No correction required
Show Answer
S1. Ans.(a) Sol. ‘our collective responsibility to ensure’- The
Q14. Working in an old-style proscenium with all the trappings given statement is about responsibility which should be
of the professional stage allow the play and its actors to
preceded by an adjective rather than a verb i.e. ‘collective’
spread their wings far and wide into a larger space, after
weeks-long rehearsals at an intimate and hospitable space in Q2. Recently one child became the target of a heinous and
Andheri called Castiko.
barbaric crime, which nobody could ever imagined.
a) allowing the play and its actors to spread
(I) nobody can never imagine
b) allowed the play and its actors to spread
(II) none can ever imagine
c) allowed the play and its actors to spreading
(III) nobody could ever imagine
d) allow the play and its actors to spreading
(a) Only (I)
e) No correction required
(b) Only (II)
Solution:
(c) Only (III)
‘allowed the play and its actors to spread’ as the sentence is in (d) All are correct
the past form of tense.
(e) No correction required
Q15. The flow of bank credit to micro, small and medium
enterprises (MSMEs) that takes a hit in the aftermath of
demonetisation seems to have picked up again.
a) that take a hit of the aftermath
b) that taken a hit in the aftermath
c) that took a hit in the aftermath
d) that taking a hit at the aftermath
e) No correction required
Solution:
‘that took a hit in the aftermath’ is the best suited
replacement here.
Show Answer
S2. Ans.(c) Sol. ‘nobody could ever imagine’- as ‘nobody’ is
itself a negative pronoun so it shouldn’t be followed by the
‘never’. Moreover, modal is always followed by the first form
of verb.
Q3. It has created an impression in the minds of the general
public that corruption and other forms of malpractices are
adversely affects one of the most popular sports played in
India.
(I) have adversely affect
(II) are adversely affecting
Direction (1-15): Which of the following phrases (I), (II), and
(III) are adverse affected
(III) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
(a) Only (I)
printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically
(b) Only (II)
correct. Choose the best option among the five given
(c) Only (III)
alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the
(d) Both (II)&(III)
context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence (e) No correction required
is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No correction required” as the
answer.
Show Answer
S3. Ans.(b) Sol. ‘are adversely affecting’- Since, the subject is
‘forms’ which is plural, it should then be followed by the plural
verb .i.e. ‘are’. Moreover, the context of the latter part of the
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statement is in continuous tense. Thus, ‘affecting’ is the best
suited alternative here.
Solution:
Meaning: It is up to you to make the next decision or step
Q4. The decision is taking politically and we returned all the
security guards to the government today.
(I) The decision was taken politically
(II) The decision is taken politically
(III) The decision will be taken politically
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All are correct
(e) No correction required
Q2. Cut the mustard
a) To do something good for someone else
b) To perform an impossible task
c) To fail
d) To succeed
e) To remove all the obstacles
Solution:
Meaning: to come up to expectations; adequate enough to
compete or participate
Q3. Elvis has left the building
a) To leave the group
b) To get a new home
c) To leave a bad group
d) To be pessimistic
e) That the show has come to an end
Q5. The two sides also signing a statement of shared values, Solution:
emphasising support for a global outlook and commitment to Meaning: The show has come to an end. It's all over.
a rules-based international system.
(I) also signed a statement of
Q4. In the heat of the moment
(II) also signs a statement of
a) To be very much sad at a particular moment
(III) also sign a statement in
b) Overwhelmed by what is happening in the moment
(a) Only (I)
c) To stand still and not to do anything at the time of a
(b) Only (II)
problem
(c) Only (III)
d) To commit a crime
(d) Both (I)&(II)
e) To die every moment for someone/something
(e) No correction required
Solution:
Meaning: If you say or do something in the heat of the
Show Answer
moment, you say or do it without thinking because you are
S5. Ans.(d) Sol. ‘also signed a statement of/ also signs a
very angry or excited
statement of’- both given alternatives are the suitable which
are grammatically correct and make a meaningful sense.
Q5. Not a spark of decency
a) No manners
b) No attitude
Idioms
c) No love
d) No hatred
e) No professionalism
Directions (1-15): In each of the question given below a/an
Solution:
idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then followed by five
Meaning: refers to someone who has no or very rude
options which then tries to decipher its meaning as used in
the sentence. Choose the option which gives the meaning of manners
the given idiom/phrase.
Q6. Wouldn't be caught dead
a) Someone likes someone very much
b) Will always lack energy
Q1. Ball is in your court
c) Will always be free
a) Another person will have the opportunity to succeed
d) Someone dislikes something very much
b) It’s someone else who will bear the burnt
e) To be neutral towards someone/something
c) It’s up to you to make the decision
Solution:
d) To bear a heavy loss
Meaning: Would never like to do something
e) To change or hide the next move
Show Answer
S4. Ans.(b) Sol. ‘The decision is taken politically’- as the latter
part of the sentence is in simple past, so the preceding part
should be in simple present tense.
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Q7. Hit the books
a) To lack the habit of reading
b) To physically hit your books
c) To study, often intensely
d) To be a librarian
e) To be a book worm
Solution:
Meaning: To study, especially with particular intensity
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b) Warn someone of the danger
c) Complete the last task of the day
d) To be clamorous
e) To be a watch guard
Solution:
Meaning: To seem familiar, remind one of something, or
stimulate an incomplete or indistinct memory
Q13. Cut to the chase
a) Beat about the bush
b) To be supportive
c) To win a race
d) Come to the point
e) To be informal
Solution:
Meaning: To get to the point without wasting time
Q8. Twist someone’s arm
a) To commend
b) To censure
c) To encourage
d) To damage
e) To pressurize
Solution:
Meaning: pressurize someone into doing something that they Q14. Up in the air
are reluctant to do
a) To have hangover
b) To demand heavy amount from someone
Q9. Lose your touch
c) To be successful
a) To have butter fingers
d) To have too much proud about something
b) To no longer be skilled in doing something
e) Still to be settled/resolved
c) To be insensible
Solution:
d) To lose temper
Meaning: It means that things are uncertain or unsure.
e) To be skillful
Solution:
Q15. To have sticky fingers
Meaning: actually means that you lose an ability or talent you a) To be a thief
once had when dealing with things, people or situations
b) To be naughty
c) To have patience
Q10. Not playing with a full deck
d) To remain silent
a) To not to perform well
e) To slap someone
b) Physically handicapped
Solution:
c) Mentally deficient
Meaning: a propensity to steal
d) To be in sports
e) Lose the game
Solution:
Fill In the blanks
Meaning: Someone who lacks intelligence
Directions (1-15): In each of the following sentence, there are
Q11. Go cold turkey
two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five options
a) To be a coward
and each blank is to be filled with the same word given below
b) To stop doing or using something abruptly and
to make the sentence correct. Fill up the sentences with the
completely
correct word.
c) To be courageous
d) To be a traveller or the one who travels a lot
Q1. (i) The increased cost brought many ....... for the many
e) To remain neutral in any of the situation
young people deterred from going to the university.
Solution:
(ii) Anyone fearing ....... from the circumstantial evidence
Meaning: to suddenly quit or stop addictive or dangerous
merely has to tell their story to the DA.
behavior such as smoking or drinking alcohol.
(a) Outcomes
(b) Repercussions
Q12. Ring a bell
(c) Effects
a) Arouse an indistinct memory
(d) Changes
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(e) Modifications
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Repercussion means a consequence or ensuing result of
some action.
Q2. (i) Without a word, he lifted her into his arms and carried
her to the world of ....... they called their bedroom.
(ii) No prophet, it was declared, could speak in ......., that was
devilish; further, only false prophets accepted gifts.
(a) Happiness
(b) Ebullience
(c) Ecstasy
(d) Joy
(e) Sorrow
(d) Thwart
(e) Freeze
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Rapture means extreme pleasure; ravishment.
Directions: The following statements have two blanks which
are to be filled with the options given below. Choose the
correct combination which can most suitably complete the
sentence without altering the meaning of the statement. If
none of the combinations makes an impact, choose (e) i.e.
“No combination fits” as your answer.
Q1. The Indian political class is overwhelming male, but the
worrying thing is that it remains........... blind to its privilege
and entitlement. That reflects in policy as well as the ..........
S2. Ans.(c)
small number of women in Indian political life.
Sol. Ecstasy means intense pleasure.
(a) amazingly, decreasingly
(b) unhappily, joyfully
Q3. (i) The mention of Liszt has led us to anticipate the end of (c) distressingly, woefully
the story, and we must ....... to 1836, when the acquaintance (d) hardly, emotionally
began.
(e) No combination fits
(ii) The nation would never accept a Catholic king, a Stuart,
S1. Ans.(c); distressingly: to cause strain, anxiety and suffering
nor ........ as against England, to the ancient French alliance.
to
(a) Avert
woefully: in a manner expressing sorrow these two sentences
(b) Convert
fit correctly into the statement.
(c) Revert
(d) Counterstroke
Q2. India cannot have a banking sector which is ......... and a
(e) Reply
set of bankers who are ........ to lend when the upturn comes.
(a) active, willing
S3. Ans.(c)
(b) strong, cheerful
Sol. Revert means to turn to the contrary.
(c) unsteady, dislike
(d) hobbled, loath
Q4. (i) This was the ....... of my happiness, from which I was in (e) No combination fits
a little while dashed to earth.
S2. Ans.(d); hobbled: restrict the development of
(ii) The recalled parliament seemed at the ....... of power.
loath: unwilling or reluctant
(a) Plinth
(b) Foundation
Q3. If the airlines fail to inform their passengers of the ...........,
(c) Pinnacle
then such passengers will be entitled for a ............ in addition
(d) Startup
to the ticket refund.
(e) Commencement
(a) cancellation, compensation
(b) rejection, consumption
S4. Ans.(c)
(c) cancel, sum
Sol. Pinnacle means highest point of something.
(d) ticket, feedback
(e) No combination fits
Q5. (i) When the sedative put Helen in a state of ......., she
S3. Ans.(a); compensation: something that counterbalances a
started to profess her love for everyone
loss
(ii) John is a spiritual man who claims he experienced .......
during his baptism.
Q4. Going for a run may seem overwhelming or ........... just to
(a) Rapture
think about before you begin, but if you can ......... up the
(b) Shock
energy to start jogging, you'll often find that you become
(c) Confusion
more motivated to finish as you go.
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(a) disgusting, surpass
(b) exhausting, muster
(c) tiring, gather
(d) lucrative, compile
(e) No combination fits
S4. Ans.(b); exhausting: making one feel very tired
muster: collect or assemble
Q5. Exercising .......... and getting proper nutrition will help,
but these actions only ............ improve sleep intensity.
(a) constantly, slowly
(b) regularly, simply
(c) irregularly, intentionally
(d) consistently, indirectly
(e) No combination fits
S5. Ans.(d); consistently: in every case and in every occasion,
invariably
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The correct sentence after using the appropriate conjunction
will be –
Randeep has been a professional horse rider for 10 years now.
However, he is yet to win a horse riding competition.
Q3. A – Payal holds a Masters degree in English Language.
B – Payal holds a Masters degree in Hindi Language
a) Either... or
b) Also
c) As far as
d) Not only... but also
e) None of these
Solution:
The correct sentence after using the appropriate conjunction
will be –
Payal holds a masters degree not only in English Language but
also in Hindi Language.
Q4. A – Nikhil has been accused of misbehaving with the office
staff.
Sentence Connectors
B – Nikhil was caught red handed stealing from the office
store.
a) Rather
Directions (1-15): In the questions given below two
statements ‘A’ & ‘B’ are given which are grammatically correct b) Therefore
c) Further
and meaningful. Connect them by choosing the best
d) Not only... but also
connector from the options given below each question
e) None of these
without changing the intended meaning, forming a
grammatically correct and coherent sentence.
Solution:
The correct sentence after using the appropriate conjunction
Q1. A – Rahul has completed his homework.
will be –
B - Sonia has completed her homework.
Nikhil has been accused of misbehaving with the office staff.
a) So
Further, he was caught red handed stealing from the office
b) Although
store.
c) However
d) Yet
Q5. A – I was very tired and it was a sleepy Sunday morning.
e) Since
B – I went for my cricket practice.
a) Nevertheless
Solution:
The correct sentence after using the appropriate conjunction b) In contrast to
c) Owing to
will be –
d) Interestingly
Rahul has completed his homework and so has Sonia.
e) None of these
Q2. A – Randeep has been a professional horse rider for 10
Solution:
years now.
The correct sentence after using the appropriate conjunction
B – Randeep is yet to win a horse riding competition.
will be –
a) Since
I was very tired and it was a sleepy Sunday morning.
b) As
Nevertheless, I went for my cricket practice.
c) If
d) However
e) None of these
Solution:
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Directions (01-15): In the question given below few sentences
are given which are grammatically correct and meaningful.
Connect them by the word given above the statements in the
best possible way without changing the intended meaning.
Choose the best possible combination as your answer
accordingly from the options to form a correct, coherent
sentence.
Q1. LIKEWISE
(I) We are justified in concluding, therefore, that among the
Greeks and Romans
(II) The examination of the liver was the basis of divination in
the case of the sacrificial animal
(III) This is the crux of the draft Cauvery water management
scheme filed in the Supreme Court on Monday during the
short pause between polling
(IV) And counting in the crucial Karnataka Assembly elections
(a) (II)-(III)
(b) (I)-(II)
(c) (III)-(IV)
(d) (I)- (IV)
(e) (II)-(IV)
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(III) The Delhi police has filed the chargesheet on medico legal
and psychology analysis
(IV) Tomorrow I have plans to go back
(a) (II)-(IV)
(b) (IV)-(III)
(c) (I)-(II)
(d) (II)-(III)
(e) (I)-(III)
Show Answer
S3. Ans.(a) Sol. (II)-(IV): If you'd told me about it earlier, I
could've been free. However, tomorrow I have plans to go
back
Q4. HENCE
(I) As per the agreement, the consultancy will have the
responsibility of planning, designing, and management of each
project
(II) Any portion of the underground rhizome when broken off
is capable of producing a new plant
(III) The difficulty of eradicating them when once established
(IV) The contract period is for the next three years
(a) (I)-(IV)
Show Answer
(b) both (II)-(III) & (I)-(IV)
S1. Ans.(b) Sol. (I)-(II): We are justified in concluding,
(c) (II)-(IV)
therefore, that among the Greeks and Romans likewise the
(d) (III)-(IV)
examination of the liver was the basis of divination in the case (e) (II)-(III)
of the sacrificial animal.
Show Answer
Q2. BESIDES
S4. Ans.(e) Sol. (II)-(III): Any portion of the underground
(I) I should make too good a target for the French
rhizome when broken off is capable of producing a new plant;
(II) Those which the astronomers use
hence the difficulty of eradicating them when once
(III) I am afraid I should hardly be able to climb onto a horse
established.
(IV) There are a great many instruments
(a) (II)-(IV)
Q5. NEVERTHELESS
(b) (I)-(II)
(I) The school uniform was an unattractive green
(c) (I)-(III)
(II) I must tell you that we are alive
(d) both (I)-(III) & (IV)-(II)
(III) The headmaster refused to consider changing it to
(e) (IV)-(II)
another color
(IV) That we reached home safely, and that we speak of you
Show Answer
daily, and enjoy your interesting letters very much
S2. Ans.(d) Sol. (I)-(III): I should make too good a target for the (a) (IV)-(II)
French, besides I am afraid I should hardly be able to climb
(b) both (I)-(III) & (II)-(IV)
onto a horse.
(c) (III)-(I)
(IV)-(II): There are a great many instruments besides those
(d) (I)-(II)
which the astronomers use.
(e) (III)-(IV)
Q3. HOWEVER
(I) We have also submitted the concerned report in the
Supreme Court
(II) If you'd told me about it earlier, I could've been free
Show Answer
S5. Ans.(b) Sol. (I)-(III): The school uniform was an unattractive
green, nevertheless, the headmaster refused to consider
changing it to another color.
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(II)-(IV): Nevertheless, I must tell you that we are alive,--that
we reached home safely, and that we speak of you daily, and
enjoy your interesting letters very much.
Match the following
c) C-D and B-E
d) A-F and C-D
e) A-F
Solution:
A-F and C-D make meaningful sentences.
Q3.
Directions (1-15): In the following questions two columns are
given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first
column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A
sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not
connect with another sentence/phrase from the second
column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options, four of which
display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct
sentence after combination or none of them connects, mark
(e), i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
a) A-D
b) B-E
c) C-F
d) C-E
e) B-E
Solution:
C-E makes a correct and meaningful sentence.
Q1.
Q4.
a) A-E
b) B-D
c) C-F and A-E
d) B-F
e) B-D and C-E
Solution:
A-E is the correct choice here.
a) A-F and B-D
b) C-E
c) A-D, B-F and C-E
d) A-F, B-D and C-E
e) None of the Above
Solution:
A-F, B-D and C-E make correct and meaningful sentences.
Q2.
Q5.
a) B-D
b) C-E
a)
b)
c)
d)
A-D and B-F
C-E and A-D
C-E and B-F
B-D and A-F
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e) None of the Above
Solution:
C-E and A-D make correct and meaningful sentences.
Q6.
a) B-D
b) A-F and B-E
c) C-E
d) C-F and B-E
e) None of the Above
Solution:
A-F and B-E are correct here.
Directions (6-10): In the following questions two columns are
given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first
column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A
sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not
connect with another sentence/phrase from the second
column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options, four of which
display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct
sentence after combination or none of them connects, mark
(e), i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
a) A-E
b) B-D
c) C-D
d) B-F and A-E
e) None of the above
Solution:
B-F and A-E are the correct options here.
Q8.
a) C-E
b) A-F
c) A-F, C-E and B-D
d) C-D
e) None of the above
Solution:
A-F, C-E and B-D are the correct arrangements here.
Q9.
Q6.
a) B-D
b) A-E and C-D
c) B-F
d) A-E
e) None of the above
Solution:
B-F is the correct option here.
a) A-F
b) A-F and C-E
c) B-D
d) C-E
e) None of the above
Solution:
None of the above arrangements is correct
Q10.
Q7.
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a) B-F and C-D
b) A-E
c) A-D
d) B-E
e) None of the above
Solution:
B-F and C-D are correct.
Directions (11-15): In the following questions two
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases
each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C
and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D,
E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or
may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the
second column to make a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of
which display the sequence(s) in which the
sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically
and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options
given forms a correct sentence after combination or none
of them connects, mark (e), i.e. “None of the above” as
your answer.
Q11.
a) A-F
b) A-E, B-F and C-D
c) C-F
d) B-E
e) None of the above
Solution:
A-E, B-F and C-D make meaningful sentences.
Q13.
a) B-F
b) A-E
c) B-F and C-E
d) C-D
e) None of the above
Solution:
C-D makes a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence.
Q14.
a) A-F and B-D
b) A-F
c) C-D
d) C-D and B-F
e) None of the above
Solution:
A-F and B-D are correct options here which meaningful
sentences.
Q12.
a) A-E
b) A-F
c) B-D and C-E
d) B-F
e) None of the above
Solution:
B-D and C-E make contextually and grammatically
correct sentences.
Q15.
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Q1. How many sentences are in same position in when
compared with correct order?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
a) A-E
b) B-F
c) C-D
d) A-E and B-F
e) None of the above
Solution:
B-F makes a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence.
ParaJumbles
In the Question given below six statements have been
given. The statement D is fixed as the fourth statement.
Rearrange the remaining sentences to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions
that follow.
(A) Yet, the Paris Agreement, endorsed by 195 countries
under the UN Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC), has a long road ahead before carbon
emissions can be pegged at levels flagged by scientists.
(B) The UN Climate Conference held in Katowice, Poland,
has moved ahead with the implementation of the Paris
Agreement through a rule book, reflecting strong
support among citizens of all countries for urgent action
to avert dangerous climate change.
(C) This is a challenge for all big economies, including
India, which is among the top five emitters of carbon
dioxide.
(D) Recently, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC), in a special report, issued a stark warning
on man-made emissions.
(E) It said that to cap the rise in global average
temperature over pre-industrial levels at 1.5°C, a 45%
reduction in emissions over 2010 levels must be made
by 2030.
(F) Public pressure has ___ over scepticism, although the
outcome does not adequately reflect the short window
available to make deep greenhouse gas emissions cuts.
Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q5. In F statement what will come in blank?
(a) Absolved (b) Broken
(c) Caught
implemented (e) prevailed
(d)
Solution:
The correct rearrangement is BFADEC.
The UN Climate Conference held in Katowice, Poland,
has moved ahead with the implementation of the Paris
Agreement through a rule book, reflecting strong
support among citizens of all countries for urgent action
to avert dangerous climate change. Public pressure has
prevailed over scepticism, although the outcome does
not adequately reflect the short window available to
make deep greenhouse gas emissions cuts. Yet, the Paris
Agreement, endorsed by 195 countries under the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC),
has a long road ahead before carbon emissions can be
pegged at levels flagged by scientists. Recently, the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), in a
special report, issued a stark warning on man-made
emissions. It said that to cap the rise in global average
temperature over pre-industrial levels at 1.5°C, a 45%
reduction in emissions over 2010 levels must be made
by 2030.This is a challenge for all big economies,
including India, which is among the top five emitters of
carbon dioxide.
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Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) The severe cyclonic storm damaged infrastructure,
property and agriculture. Even so, the effort to
professionalise disaster management through a
dedicated national and State organisation initiated
(B) However, there is a lot to be done to upgrade
infrastructure and housing in coastal districts to meet
higher standards of resilience in an era of extreme
weather events.
(C) The National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project started
by the Ministry of Home Affairs has been working to
reduce the impact of such catastrophic events on
Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and
Gujarat, classified as States with higher vulnerability;
most western coastal States are in the next category.
(D) Tamil Nadu was more prepared than before to deal
with Cyclone Gaja when it made landfall between
Nagapattinam and Vedaranyam on November 16, ____
it still took a toll of at least 45 lives.
(E) more than 15 years ago appears to be paying off,
with bureaucracies acquiring higher efficiency in
providing early warning and in mitigating the impact of
cyclones.
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Solution:
The correct rearrangement is DAECB
Tamil Nadu was more prepared than before to deal with
Cyclone Gaja when it made landfall between
Nagapattinam and Vedaranyam on November 16, but it
still took a toll of at least 45 lives. The severe cyclonic
storm damaged infrastructure, property and agriculture.
Even so, the effort to professionalise disaster
management through a dedicated national and State
organisation initiated more than 15 years ago appears to
be paying off, with bureaucracies acquiring higher
efficiency in providing early warning and in mitigating
the impact of cyclones. The National Cyclone Risk
Mitigation Project started by the Ministry of Home
Affairs has been working to reduce the impact of such
catastrophic events on Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West
Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat, classified as States with
higher vulnerability; most western coastal States are in
the next category. However, there is a lot to be done to
upgrade infrastructure and housing in coastal districts to
meet higher standards of resilience in an era of extreme
weather events.
Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) in a proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
Q1. How many sentences are in same position in when
compared with correct order?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
(A) But why do business travellers even need access to a
lounge when airports across the world have become
fancier with multiple facilities?
(B) And while waiting, getting a meal in peace before the
Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence flight and some ____ internet is the undertone for most
after the rearrangement?
business travellers.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
(C) Those who do the Mumbai and Bengaluru circuit
regularly, like I do, will tell you they prefer to leave for
Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence
the airport early and wait there instead of missing the
after the rearrangement?
flight due to unpredictable traffic.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
(D) Airport lounges have always been fascinating. The
range is overwhelming—from bare basic restaurants in
Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence
the corner of an airport to mini luxury hotels, equipped
after the rearrangement?
with restaurants, spa and more.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
(E) If you have access to an airport lounge, reading
material, food and soft drinks come as a part of the
Q5. In D statement what will come in blank?
package, and it makes the wait so much more
(a) but (b) However (c) Therefore (d) It (e)
comfortable than wandering around looking for a quiet
whenever
spot.
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Q1. How many sentences are in same position in when
compared with correct order?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence
after the rearrangement?
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence
after the rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E (e) F
Q5. In D statement what will come in blank?
(a) negative
(b) shaken
(c) Caught
(d) implemented
(e) positive
Q5. In D statement what will come in blank?
(a) Absolved (b) Broken
(c) Caught
implemented (e) reliable
Solution:
The correct sequence is DBAEC.
In this modern day and age, the negative effects of
stress are unavoidable. People have tried various
methods to help cope with stress, everything from
exercise and diet to alternative methods like
biofeedback. However, the most effective method to
deal with stress is not one of these modern methods but
rather a 5,000 year-old idea: Meditation. Meditation not
only helps reduce the negative effects of stress, but also
leads to a better sense of well-being by uniting mind and
body. Meditation allows us to step outside the situation,
seeing ourselves as the observer rather than the victim,
and opens us up to other points of view.
(d)
Solution: The correct rearrangement is DACBE.
Reliable
Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following five
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then
answer the questions given below.
A. However, the most effective method to deal with
stress is not one of these modern methods but rather a
5,000 year-old idea: Meditation.
B. People have tried various methods to help cope with
stress, everything from exercise and diet to alternative
methods like biofeedback.
C. Meditation allows us to step outside the situation,
seeing ourselves as the observer rather than the victim,
and opens us up to other points of view.
D. In this modern day and age, the _____ effects of
stress are unavoidable.
E. Meditation not only helps reduce the negative effects
of stress, but also leads to a better sense of well-being
by uniting mind and body.
Q1. How many sentences are in same position in when
compared with correct order?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
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