Март 2016
General Pharmacology
1.
A patient with angina pectoris was helping himself with
nitroglycerin. One day the patient used nitroglycerin several times because of
frequent episodes of pain. So as the last sublingual administration of nitroglycerin
did not relieve pain, the patient addressed his doctor. Doctor advised him to
withdraw nitroglycerin for 8 hours and prescribed another drug. After 8 hours the
effect of nitroglycerin was restored. Which phenomenon did take place in this
case?
A.
Increase in nitroglycerin metabolism
B.
Increase in protein binding
C.
Decrease of absorption
D.
Drug dependence
E.
Tolerance*.
2.
Metabolism can render pharmacological activity to some initially
inert substances (pro-drug). Point out the substance, which is pro-drug, used for
treatment of hypertension.
A.
Enalapril*
B.
Salbutamol
C.
Verapamil
D.
Reserpine
E.
Propranolol.
3.
A patient who has been treated with diazepam on account of neurosis
complains of toothache. Doctor administered him an analgetic, but its dose was
lower than average therapeutic dose. What phenomenon did the doctor take into
account while prescribing the patient an underdose?
A.
Summation
B.
Potentiation*
C.
Cumulation
D.
Tolerance
E.
Drug dependence.
4.
A patient with frequent attacks of stenocardia was prescribed sustakforte to be taken one tablet twice a day. At first the effect was positive but on the
second day stenocardia attacks resumed. What can explain inefficiency of the
prescribed drug?
A.
Tachyphylaxis*
B.
Sensibilization
C.
Dependence
D.
Cumulation
E.
Idiosyncrasy.
5.
A man who has been taking a drug for a long time cannot withhold it
because this causes impairment of psychic, somatic and vegetative functions.
Name the syndrome of different disturbances caused by drug discontinuation:
A.
Idiosyncrasy
B.
Sensibilization
C.
Tachyphylaxis
D.
Abstinence*
E.
Cumulation.
6.
unionized?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the mechanism of absorption of drug which is lipophilic and
Active transport
Passive diffusion*
Filtration
Pinocytosis
Binding to protein.
7.
Which route of administration results in 100% bioavailability of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Oral
Subcutaneous
Inhalational
Intravenous*
Intramuscular.
drug?
8.
Chloramphenicol is highly toxic in newborn. What is the cause of
such toxicity?
A.
Intensive binding to protein
B.
Deficiency of metabolizing enzymes in liver*
C.
Penetration into the cell
D.
Inhibition of protein synthesis
E.
Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the result of tubular reabsorption of drug?
Increase in duration of action*
Increase in excretion
Increase in distribution
Decrease in duration of action
Loss of pharmacologic activity.
10. Anticoagulant drug warfarin is bounding to plasma albumin. How
its effect can be changed in case of hypoalbuminemia?
A.
Effect unchanged
B.
Increased*
C.
Decrease
2
D.
E.
Significant delayed onset of effect
Abolishing of effect .
11. Passive reabsorption from tubular urine (pH of 5) of a drug
administered IV would be reduced if the drug were
A.
A weak base*
B.
A weak acid
C.
Water soluble
D.
Protein bound
E.
None of the above.
12. Patient suffering from angina pectoris was helping himself by
sublingual usage of nitroglycerin. One day he used the drug several times. The
last use did not relieve his pain. What phenomenon does occur?
A.
Antagonism
B.
Tachyphylaxis*
C.
Hypersensitivity
D.
Cumulation
E.
Binding to protein.
13. Point out the kind of drug interaction that permits to use one of them
in lower dose.
A.
Antagonism
B.
Cumulation
C.
Potentiation*
D.
Tolerance
E.
Additive synergism.
14. Patient with infection of GIT was treated with antibiotic. Which type
of therapy is it?
A.
Symptomatic
B.
Pathogenetic
C.
Ethiotropic*
D.
Replacement
E.
Stimulating.
15. Alongside with therapeutic effect drugs can cause side effects. In
which dose they can occur?
A.
In overdose
B.
In therapeutic dose*
C.
In threshold dose
D.
In subthreshold dose
E.
At any dose.
3
16. Patient suffering from gastric peptic ulcer was treated with Mcholinoblocker. What is the mechanism of this drug action?
A.
Enzymatic
B.
Receptor*
C.
Direct chemical
D.
Physicochemical
E.
Action on ion channels of membrane.
17. A patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency was prescribed digoxin
in average therapeutic dose. After 2 weeks of treatment the symptoms of
intoxication (bradycardia, extrasystole, nausea) were developed. Point out the
phenomenon responsible for intoxication.
A.
Tachyphilaxis
B.
Material cumulation*
C.
Idiosyncrasy
D.
Functional cumulation
E.
Tolerance.
18. The patient with heart failure was using digitoxin. His condition
initially improved, but with time the manifestations of heart failure have increased
again, and symptoms of glycoside intoxication apeared. What is the cause of
patient's condition worsening?
A.
Potentiation
B.
Cumulation*
C.
Tachyphylaxis
D.
Sensitization
E.
Idiosyncrazy.
19. Analgesic effect of methamizole(analgin) in the dental pain develops
in 0.5 hour and lasts for 1.5-2 hours. Tablets "Piraminal" in the same situation are
faster and longer acting. What is the phenomenon responsible for difference in the
action of these drugs?
A.
Chemical antagonism
B.
Functional antagonism
C.
Undirectional antagonism
D.
Potentiation
E.
Summation*.
20. In the elderly patient with symptoms of senile atonic constipation
long-term treatment with drug buckthorn has led to a weaking effect. What is this
phenomenon?
A.
Tolerance*
B.
Cumulation
C.
Sensibilization
D.
Desensitization
4
E.
Tachyphylaxis.
21. During the barbituric anesthesia in a patient respiratory depression
occurred. After intravenous injection of 10 ml 0.5% solution of bemegride the
patient's condition improved, the volume of pulmonary ventilation inceased. Point
out the phenomenon responsible for curative effect of bemegride in this case
A.
Direct synergisnm
B.
Undirectional antagonism
C.
Direct antagonism*
D.
Indirect antagonism
E.
Indirect synergism.
22. A child of 2 years admitted to the infectious deseases hospital with a
diagnosis of bacillary dysentery. What a way of enteral administration of
antimicrobial agent polymyxin is the most rational, if child has uncontrollable
vomiting?
A.
Subcutaneous
B.
Intravenous
C.
Oral
D.
Rectal*
E.
Inhaled.
23. In a patient with traumatic brain injury there are such symptoms: the
obscured consciousness, inpaired respiration, filiform pulse, absence of reflexes.
Which route of drug administration for urgent aid is the most appropriate in this
case?
A.
Rectal
B.
Intravenous*
C.
Subcutaneous
D.
Oral
E.
Inhaled.
24. In poisoning with mushrooms containing muscarine atropine is used
as an antidote. Which of the following mechanisms, typical for atropine, leads to
the neutralization of the poison mushroom - muscarine?
A.
Antimetabolic
B.
Physical and chemical
C.
Antienzymatic
D.
Receptor*
E.
Enzymatic.
25. Prolonged use of certain drugs before pregnancy can disrupt fetal
development. What is the name of this action?
A.
Fetotoxic
B.
Embriotoxic
5
C.
D.
E.
Teratogenic
Mutagenic*
Carcinogenic.
26. With long-term treatment by antipsychotic drugs at therapeutic doses
in patient, along with the restoration of the psychic function, some undesired
effects such as tension in the skeletal muscles, stiffness of gait, and some
autonomic disorders occurred. What the type of drug’s effects should include
these?
A.
Aftereffect
B.
Overdose
C.
The main therapeutic effect
D.
Intoxication
E.
Side effects*.
27. After clinical and laboratory examination of a patient with diabetes
mellitus insulin was appointed for treatment.What is the type of this therapy?
A.
Etiotropic
B.
Replacement*
C.
Pathogenetic
D.
Symptomatic
E.
Functional.
28. In order to reduce toothache a patient was recommended to take
methamisol (analgin). What the type of pharmacotherapy was used?
A.
Functional
B.
Pathogenetic
C.
Causal
D.
Substitution
E.
Symptomatic*.
29. In 18 years old patient with shoulder phlegmon intramuscular
injection of penicillin was made, after which he developed tachycardia, filiform
pulse, fall of blood pressure to 80/60 mm Hg. What type of pathological response
was originated?
A.
Potentiation
B.
Anaphylaxis*
C.
Tolerance
D.
Antagonism
E.
Tachyphylaxis.
6
Local anesthetics
30. To lance abscess doctor performed local anesthesia with therapeutic
dose of anesthetic, but it was not sufficient. What was the cause of decrease in
anesthetic effect?
A.
Quick absorption of drug
B.
Quick metabolism of anesthetic
C.
Alkaline medium
D.
Acidic pH of tissues*
E.
Neutral medium.
31. Surgeon is going to perform the operation under local anaesthesia.
The probable duration of operation is more than 2 hours. In past patient was
complaining for ventricular extrasystole. Which anaesthetic is reasonable to chose
for local anaesthesia?
A.
Tetracaine(decaine)
B.
Procaine(novocaine)
C.
Benzocaine(anaesthesine)
D.
Trimecaine*
E.
Cocaine.
32. Dentist revealed that his patient is suffering from hypersensitivity to
procaine. Which of the following agents may be used for local anaesthesia?
A.
Benzocaine(anaesthesine)
B.
Piromecaine
C.
Dicaine(tetracaine)
D.
Lidocaine*
E.
Cocaine.
33. Which of the listed drugs is usually added to local anaesthetic to
prolong its action and to decrease toxicity?
A.
Noradrenaline
B.
Ephedrine
C.
Adrenaline*
D.
Reserpine
E.
Atropine.
34. A 25-year-old woman with red and itchy eczematoid dermatitis visits
your office, She had a dental procedure one day earlier with administration of a
local anesthetic. There were no other findings, although she indicated that she had
a history of allergic reactions. Which of the following drugs is most likely
involved?
A.
Procaine*
7
B.
C.
D.
E.
Etidocaine
Bupivacaine
Cocaine
Lidocaine.
35. For the patient with gastroenteritis doctor prescribed preparation of
tannin derivative with anti-inflammatory effect on the basis of the astringent
mechanism. Which of the following drugs was prescribed?
A.
Bismuth subnitrat
B.
Tannin
C.
Xeroform
D.
Tanalbin*
E.
De-nol.
36. Patient 75 years old suffers from chronic constipation. What the drug
of a group of emollients can be assigned to this patient?
A.
Senna leaf*
B.
Phenolphtalein
C.
Neostigmine
D.
Magnesium sulfate (enterally)
E.
Camphor spirit.
37. Bed sores appeared in patient on strict bed regiment. What the
irritating drug was prescribed by physician to improve blood circulation in the
area of bed sores
A.
Camphor spirit*
B.
Vishnevsky’s ointment
C.
Wilkinson's ointment
D.
A solution of potassium permanganate
E.
Talc.
38. A child with acute poisoning with datura seeds doctor prescribed oral
usage of activated charcoal. Specify the mechanism of its action.
A.
Adsorptions alkaloids on the surface*
B.
Insoluble salts formation
C.
Block of sensory receptors of the stomach
D.
Precipitation of proteins on the surface of gastric mucous membrane
E.
Formation of protective layer of the colloid on the mucous
membranes.
39. The drug from the group covering agents with antacid effect was
prescribed to patients with gastric ulcer. Which of the following medications was
prescribed?
A.
Tannin
B.
Decoction of oak bark
8
C.
D.
E.
Almagel*
Infusion of sage leaves
Bismuth subnitrate.
40. Athlete has a sharp muscular pain in the back after training. What the
irritating drug is helpful in this case?
A.
The turpentine oil*
B.
A solution of menthol
C.
Ammonia
D.
Validol
E.
Chloroform.
41. Gastric lavage with a solution of tannin was performed to the patient
with alkaloid poisoning. What the concentration of tannin solution should be used
for this purpose?
A.
0.5%*
B.
0.1%
C.
0,01
D.
0,05
E.
0,1.
42. The patient suffers from hemorrhoids. For pain relief doctor
prescribed rectal suppositories with local anesthetic. Point out anesthetic used in
this dosage form.
A.
Cocaine
B.
Tetracaine
C.
Novocaine
D.
Trimekaine
E.
Benzocaine (Anestesin)*.
43. Doctor applied paste with benzocaine to reduce the itching of the
forearm skin. Due to which of the following properties of benzocaine it is used in
soft dosage form?
A.
Good absorption
B.
Poor solubility*
C.
The high degree of distribution
D.
The good solubility
E.
Inadequate absorption.
44. The patient will have surgery on the limbs of more than 2 hours
duration, which anesthetist plans to hold under local anesthesia. Which of the
following drugs should be selected for long-term conduction anesthesia?
A.
Novocaine
B.
Cocaine
C.
Tetracaine
9
D.
E.
Benzocaine
Lidocaine*.
Cholinomimetics
45. Patient with complaints of dryness in the mouth, photophobia and
disturbances of vision was admitted to the reception-room. Skin is hyperemic and
dry, pupils are dilated, tachycardia. Poisoning with belladonna alkaloids was
diagnosed on further examination. What medicine should be prescribed as
antidote?
A.
Diazepam
B.
Prozerin (Neostigmine)*
C.
Atropine
D.
Pilocarpine
E.
Dipyroxim.
46. Patient with pin-point pupils, sweating, salivation, abdominal
cramps, disturbances in respiration was admitted to the emergency room.
Poisoning with what substance is the most likely occurred?
A.
Non-narcotic analgesics
B.
Sedatives
C.
Narcotic analgesics
D.
М-cholinergic antagonists
E.
Muscarine*.
47. In the patient, after the stroke, paralysis of hand and leg appeared. To
restore the movements of paralyzed extremities patient was treated with physical
exercises and cholinomimetics. Which of listed drugs was used for this purpose?
A.
Aceclidine
B.
Pilocarpine
C.
Physostigmine
D.
Ambenonium chloride (oxazyl)*
E.
Lobeline.
48. A known patient of myasthenia gravis came to you with his disease
well controlled by neostigmine; but he asked you to give him drug that needs more
rare usage. Choose the necessary drug.
A.
Physostigmine
B.
Atropine
C.
Ambenonium chloride*
D.
Armin
E.
Pralidoxime.
10
49. A49-year old frequent business traveler presents to his physician
requesting medication to help him with nausea and dizziness that he gets during
turbulent flights. A scolopamine patch is prescribed for his motion sickness.
Which of the following is the most likely side effects from this patch?
A.
Bradycardia
B.
Diaphoresis
C.
Diarrhea
D.
Salivation
E.
Urinary retention*.
50. In complex treatment of a child, suffering from cerebral palsy, a
doctor decided to include anticholinesterase drug moderately improving mental
development. Choose this drug.
A.
Physostigmine
B.
Neostigmine (Proserinum)
C.
Galanthamine*
D.
Pilocarpine
E.
Lobeline.
51. Analeptical remedy of reflective type from the N-cholinomimetics
group was given to the patient for restoration of breathing after poisoning with
carbon monoxide, What medicine was prescribed to the patient?
A.
Adrenalin hydrochloride
B.
Atropine sulphate
C.
Mesaton
D.
Pentamin
E.
Lobeline hydrochloride*.
52. A patient with complaints of dryness in the mouth, photophobia and
vision impairment was admitted in the reception-room. Skin is hyperemic, dry,
pupils, are dilated, tachycardia. Poisoning with belladonna alkaloids was
diagnosed on further examination. What medicine should be prescribed?
A.
Armine
B.
Dipiroxim
C.
Pilocarpine
D.
Diazepam
E.
Prozerin*.
53. On the 2-3rd day after stomach resection intestinal peristalsis wasn't
restored. What is to be administered for stimulation of gastrointestinal tract?
A.
Atropine sulfate
B.
Prasosin
C.
Acetylcholine
D.
Proserin(Neostigmine)*
E.
Cyclodole.
11
54. The patient developed postoperative intestinal atony. After injection
of M-cholinomimetic the patient's condition was improved. Point out the drug that
was used in this cvase
A.
Arminum
B.
Aceclidine*
C.
Ambenonium chloride (Oxazylum)
D.
Atropine
E.
Platyphylline.
55. After completion of abdominal surgery conducted with the use of
nondepolarizing myoreolaxant, the patient did not restored spontaneous
breathing. What kind of drug is able to restore breathing in this case?
A.
Scopolamine
B.
Aceclidine
C.
Pilocarpine
D.
Neostigmine*
E.
Izonitrozinum.
56. A child poisoned by mushrooms containing muscarine was brought
to the toxicological department Which drug should be used for emergency
assistance in the first place?
A.
Papaverine
B.
Sodium thiosulfate
C.
Atropine*
D.
Unitiol
E.
Dipiroxim.
57. A patient with signs of poisoning by organophosphorus insecticides
was delivered to the hospital emergency department What medication should be
applied as a first-aid?
A.
Atropine*
B.
Unitiol
C.
Panangin
D.
Chlorpromazine
E.
Glucose.
58. The patient was taken to the emergency department with complaints
of dryness in the mouth, photophobia and blurred vision. On examination
hyperemic dry skin, dilated pupils, tachycardia were revealed, and poisoning with
belladonna alkaloids was diagnosed. Which of the drugs is advisable to apply?
A.
Neostigmine*
B.
Pilocarpine
C.
Dipiroxim
D.
Diazepam
12
E.
Arminum.
59. The patient in the postoperative period to stimulate intestinal motility
and tone of the bladder has been appointed agent of a group of anticholinesterase.
Identify it among the following products:
A.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
B.
Mannitol
C.
Reserpine
D.
Dichlotiazid
E.
Neostigmine*.
60. The patient poisoned with carbon monoxide to restore breathing was
treated with analeptic of a reflex type from group of N-cholinomimetics. Which
drug was assigned to the patient?
A.
Adrenalin hydrochloride
B.
Pentamin
C.
Lobeline hydrochloride*
D.
Mezaton
E.
Atropine sulfate.
61.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Specify the M-cholinomimetic used for treatment of glaucoma:
Neostigmine methylsulfate
Pilocarpine*
Adrenaline
Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum).
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following medicines is anticholinesterase agent:
Clonidine
Atropine
Adrenaline
Acetylcholine
Neostigmine*.
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which group is pilocarpine?
M-cholinomimetics*
Anticholinesterase
Adrenomimetics
Adrenoblockers
Cholinoblockers.
64.
A.
B.
C.
Enter the N-cholinomimetic, which stimulates the reflex of breath:
Neostigmine
Pilocarpine
Lobeline*
13
D.
E.
Atropine
Adrenaline.
Cholinoblockers
65. Teenager with fracture of hand was presented to the emergency
room. To perform reposition of fractured bones it was necessary to relax skeletal
muscle. For this purpose myorelaxant causing sustained depolarization of the post
junctional membrane was administered. Which of the following agents was used?
A.
Pancuronium
B.
Atracurium
C.
D-tubocurarine
D.
Succinylcholine*
E.
Millectine.
66. Patient suffering from gastric peptic ulcer was treated with
cholinotropic drug selectively blocking M1 cholinoceptors of parietal gastric
glands. Point out this drug?
A.
Atropine
B.
Plathyphylline
C.
Metacine
D.
Pirenzepine*
E.
Hyoscine (scopolamine).
67. Young boy with burns is brought to emergency ward. There is
history of death of one of his family members due to succinylcholine induction.
So we will avoid succinylcholine because it
A.
Causes hyperkalemia
B.
Cause hepatotoxicity
C.
Causes muscle pains
D.
Can trigger malignant hyperthermia*
E.
Can cause spasm of masseter muscle.
68. A patient given succinylcholine for skeletal muscle relaxation during
an operation, is not recovered for the last 1 hour. What must be used to restore
spontaneous respiration?
A.
Carbogen
B.
Lobelin
C.
Neostigmine
D.
Blood transfusion*
E.
Caffeine.
14
69. A 59 year old man develops excessive salivation and sweating,
diarrhea, and bradycardia while being treated with neostigmine for myasthenia
gravis. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for these symptoms
and signs?
A.
Atropine*
B.
Carbachol
C.
Edrophonium
D.
Epinephrine
E.
Pralidoxime.
70. A patient with symptoms of phosphorganic poisoning was taken to
emergency department. Which of the following drugs mast be used as a drug of
first aid?
A.
Unithyolum
B.
Potassium chloride
C.
Atropine*
D.
Chlorpromazine (Aminazine)
E.
Glucose.
71. After abdominal surgery performed under general anaesthesia with
non- depolarizing myorelaxant spontaneous respiration was not restored. Which
of the following drugs is to be used as an antidote of non-depolarizing
myorelaxant?
A.
Aceclidinum
B.
Pilocarpin
C.
Neostigmine (Proserin)*
D.
Hyascine
E.
Isonitrosine.
72. A 5 years old child was taken to toxicological department with
Belladonna poisoning. Alongside with peripheral manifestations the CNS
symptoms were displayed. Which of the following agents has to be administered
as an antidote?
A.
Aceclidin
B.
Pilocarpin
C.
Neostigmine (Proserin)
D.
Adrenaline
E.
Galanthamine hydrobromide*.
73. For testing refraction of eye atropine was instilled into conjunctival
sac. On completion of the procedure another cholinergic drug was used to
counteract mydriasis and cycloplegia, caused by atropine. Point this drug.
A.
Pilocarpine*
B.
Lobeline
C.
Hyoscine (Scopolamine)
15
D.
E.
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
Pirenzepine.
74. Administration of pirenzepine in patients with gastric peptic ulcer is
not accompanied by numerous side effects characteristic for atropine and other
M-cholinoblckers due to
A.
Inability to penetrate through blood brain barrier
B.
Selective inhibition of M1 –cholinoceptors*
C.
Inhibition of all types of M –cholinoceptors
D.
Inhibition of cholinesterase
E.
Significant protein binding.
75. It is known that administration of tubocurarine during surgery can
enhance the development of postoperative paralytic ileus. What is the mechanism
of this side effect of tubocurarine?
A.
Inhibition of M –cholinoceptors
B.
Inhibition of cholinesterase
C.
Ganglion blocking activity*
D.
Stimulation of M –cholinoceptors
E.
Stimulation of both M – and N-cholinoceptors.
76. Which of the following conditions is alleviated by centrally acting
anti-cholinergic drugs?
A.
Depression
B.
Multiple sclerosis
C.
Mania
D.
Parkinsonism*
E.
Psychosis.
77. A 50-year-old male farm worker has been brought to the emergency
room. He was found confused in the orchard and since then has remained
unconscious. His heart rate is 45 and his blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. He is
sweating and salivating profusely. Which of the following should be prescribed?
A.
Pentamine
B.
Norepinephrine
C.
Physostigmine
D.
Atropine*
E.
Proserine.
78. Introduction of a pharmaceutical substance to an experimental
animal resulted in reduction of salivation, pupil mydriasis. Next intravenous
introduction of acetylcholine didn't lead to any significant changes of heart rate.
Name this substance:
A.
Proserin
B.
Atropine*
16
C.
D.
E.
Propranolol
Adrenaline
Salbutamol.
79. A patient had to go through an operation. Doctors introduced him
dithylinum (listenone) and performed intubation. After the end of operation and
cessation of anesthesia the independent respiration wasn't restored. Which
enzyme deficit prolongs the action of muscle relaxant?
A.
Pseudocholinesterase*
B.
K-Na-adenosine triphosphatase
C.
N - acetyltransferase
D.
Succinate dehydrogenase
E.
Carbanhydrase.
80. A patient with fracture of his lower jaw was admitted to the
maxillofacial department. It was decided to fix his bones surgically under
anaesthetic. After intravenous introduction of muscle relaxant there arose short
fibrillar contractions of the patient's facial muscles. What muscle relaxant was
applied?
A.
Dithylinum*
B.
Pipecuronium bromide
C.
Diazepam
D.
Melictine
E.
Tubocurarin chloride.
81. If a man has an attack of bronchiospasm it is necessary to reduce the
effect of vagus on smooth muscles of bronchi. What membrane cytoreceptors
should be blocked for this purpose?
A.
M-cholinoreceptors*
B.
beta-adrenoreceptors
C.
alfa- and beta-adrenoreceptors
D.
alfa-adrenoreceptors
E.
N-cholinoreceptors.
82. The patient with bronchial asthma uses inhaled form M holinoblocker. In this case, as a rule, characteristic side effects such as blurred,
constipation tachycardia do not appear. Point out the drug that patient uses.
A.
Platifillin
B.
Atropine
C.
Metacin
D.
Ipratropium Bromide*
E.
Pirenzepine.
83. For the treatment of patients with essential hypertension doctor
prescribed the drug from the group M – cholinoblocker. Enter the drug.
17
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Platyphylline*
Atropine
Scopolamine
Metacin
Gastrotsepin.
84. The drug selectively blocking M1 - cholinergic receptors was
assigned to patient suffering from gastric peptic ulcer. What this drug is?
A.
Pirenzepine*
B.
Atropine
C.
Platyphylline
D.
Methacinum
E.
Scopolamine.
85. A patient with a fracture of the mandible was delivered to the
Maxillofacial department. It was decided to connect the bones surgically under
general anesthesia. After intravenous injection of muscle relaxant transient
fibrillar contractions of facial muscles were observed. What kind of muscle
relaxant was used?
A.
Dithylinum*
B.
Tubocurarine chloride
C.
Pipecuroniub bromide
D.
Mellictinum
E.
Diazepam.
86. Dentist in order to reduce salivation during the filling of the tooth
prescribed the drug to the patient. What the medicine was prescribed?
A.
Adrenalin hydrochloride
B.
Phenylephrine (Mezaton)
C.
Neostigmine
D.
Pilocarpine hydrochloride
E.
Atropine sulfate*.
87. Iintroduction of the drug in experimental animals decreases
salivation, dilates pupils, and on the subsequent intravenous injection of
acetylcholine heart rate did not change significantly. Specify the name of the
substance:
A.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
B.
Neostigmine methylsulfate
C.
Adrenaline
D.
Salbutamol
E.
Atropine*.
88. Dithylinum was injected to the patient before surgery and intubation
was performed. After the operation, and termination of anesthesia spontaneous
18
breathing was not restored. Deficiency of which enzyme is responsible for
prolongation of this muscle relaxant action?
A.
Carbonic anhydrase
B.
Pseudocholinesterase*
C.
Succinate dehydrogenase
D.
K-Na-ATPase
E.
N-acetyltransferase.
89. The preparation of the depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
should be assign to the patient with a broken limb for short-lasting surgical
procedure. Choose the drug.
A.
Atropine sulfate
B.
Pentamin
C.
Dithylinum*
D.
Cytitonum
E.
Tubocurarine chloride.
90. In a patient with myasthenia after the treatment with neostigmine
nausea, diarrhea, and hypersalivation appeared. Point out the drug to eliminate
these side effects.
A.
Atropine Sulfate*
B.
Phenylephrine (Mezaton)
C.
Physostigmine
D.
Isoprenaline
E.
Pyridostigmine bromide.
91. In poisoned patient dryness of mucous membranes of the mouth and
dilated pupils were observed. What is the mechanism of these symptoms
development?
A.
Stimulation of N-cholinergic receptors
B.
Stimulation of the M-cholinergic receptors
C.
Adrenoceptor blockade
D.
M-cholinergic receptor blockade*
E.
Stimulation of adrenergic receptors.
92. In the patient with a forearm injury during the bone repositioning
Dithylinum was used for muscle relaxation. Full recovery of muscle tone and
function took more than an hour. What can be the cause of significant lengthening
of the drug’s action?
A.
Genetic deficiency of monoamine oxidase
B.
Genetic deficiency of butyrylcholinesterase*
C.
Inhibition of microsomal oxidation
D.
Genetic deficiency of hydroxylase
E.
Formation of the active metabolite.
19
Adrenomimetics and sympathomimetics
93. A patient with bronchial asthma is administered inhalation of 0,5
percent isadrine solution. Bronchospasm was relieved but the patient began
complaining of pain in the heart region and palpitation. It is connected with the
stimulation of :
A.
alpha one – adrenoreceptros
B.
Beta two – adrenoreceptros
C.
Beta one – adrenoreceptros*
D.
Acetylchloline synthesis
E.
M-chlolinoceptors.
94. Patient with bronchial asthma was taking tablets, which caused
insomnia, headache, increased blood pressure. What medicine can cause such
complications?
A.
Chromolin sodium
B.
Adrenaline
C.
Euphyline
D.
Ephedrine*
E.
Izadrine.
95. Spasm of smooth muscle of bronchi developed in the patient. Usage
of activators of what membrane cytoreceptors is physiologically valid to decrease
attack?
A.
alpha-аdrenoreceptors
B.
beta-adrenoreceptors*
C.
alpha-and- beta-аdrenoreceptors
D.
N-cholinoreceptors
E.
М-cholinoreceptors.
96. In the treatment of patient suffering from congestive heart failure
resistant to digitalis adrenomimetic was used as inotropic agent. Point out which
of the following drugs was administered.
A.
Phenylephrine
B.
Partusisten
C.
Dobutamine*
D.
Xylometazoline
E.
Naphazoline.
97. 63 years patient with symptoms of collapse was admitted into
emergency department. Doctor has chosen noradrenaline to overcome collapse.
What mechanism is responsible for therapeutic effect of this drug?
A.
Activation of alfa1 receptors*
20
B.
C.
D.
E.
Activation of beta adrenoceptors
Activation of dopaminergic receptors
Blockade of M –cholinoceptors
Activation of serotonin receptors..
98.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dopamine increases urine production in a shocked patient because it:
Increase cardiac output
Decreases aldosterone release
Decreases ADH release
Causes peripheral vasodilation
Causes renal arterial dilation*.
99. To perform fundoscopy ophthalmologist instilled in the eye an agent
capable of causing mydriasis without cycloplegia. Point out this agent.
A.
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)*
B.
Noradrenaline
C.
Atropine
D.
Pilocarpine
E.
Isoprenaline (Isadrinum).
100. A patient with bronchial asthma addresses his doctor with complaints
about unpleasant palpitations that occur after usage of inhalation form of
isoprenaline (isadrinum).What is the cause of this side effect?
A.
stimulation of alfa1– adrenoceptros
B.
stimulation of alfa2– adrenoceptros
C.
stimulation of beta1– adrenoceptros*
D.
stimulation of beta2– adrenoceptros
E.
inhibition of M-chlolinoceptors.
101. A patient with moderate hypertension was treated with the drug that
realizes its effect by decrease in noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve
endings. While treatment patient experienced drowsiness. What the drug was
used?
A.
Prazosin
B.
Reserpin*
C.
Drotaverine
D.
Atenolol
E.
Dichlorothiazide.
102. Surgical treatment of benign tumor of prostate in 67- year patient was
postponed instead pharmacotherapy with adrenergic drag was started. Point out
which of the drugs was most probably used.
A.
Adrenaline
B.
Ephedrine
C.
Prazosine*
21
D.
E.
Propranolol (Anaprilinum)
Atenolol .
103. A patient has got a spasm of smooth muscles of bronchi. Blockers of
what membrane cytoreceptors are physiologically reasoned to stop an attack?
A.
beta-adrenoreceptors
B.
M-cholinoreccptors*
C.
alpha- and beta-adrenoreceptors
D.
H-cholinoreceptors
E.
alpha -adrenoreceptors.
104. A patient ill with bronchial asthma didn't inform his doctor that he
had attacks of stenocardia. Doctor administered him a medication, which taking
resulted in less frequent attacks of bronchial asthma. but stenocardia attacks
became more frequent. What medication was administered?
A.
Cromolyn sodium
B.
Salbutamol
C.
Aminophylline
D.
Phenotherol
E.
Isadrin*.
105. An ophthalmologist used a 1% mesaton solution for the diagnostic
purpose (pupil dilation for eve-ground examination). What is the cause of
mydriasis induced by the drug?
A.
Activation of alfa1 adrenoreceptors*
B.
Activation of beta1 adrenoreceptors
C.
Activation of M-cholinoreceptors
D.
Block of alfa1 adrenoreceptors
E.
Activation of alfa2 adrenoreceptors.
106. At the doctor's the dentist- surgeon injected 1% - procaine for
conduction anesthesia. It caused the change in patient’s condition: the skin was
covered with sticky and cold sweat, the pulse became almost impalpable,
breathing became rare and weak. Realizing that anaphylactic shock is originated,
a doctor immediately introduced intravenously drug that promptly improved the
patient's condition. Which of the following drugs can be used for first aid in severe
allergic reactions?
A.
Ipratropium bromide
B.
Labetalol
C.
Fenoterol
D.
Adrenaline*
E.
Dobutamine.
22
107. A patient with heart failure, resistant to cardiac glycosides was
admitted to hospital. A doctor appointed adrenomimetic as inotropic (cardiotonic)
drug. Which of these adrenomimetic has inotropic (cardiotonic) action?
A.
Dobutamine*
B.
Phenylephrine (Mezaton)
C.
Naphazoline
D.
Fenoterol
E.
Halazolin.
108. In the maternity ward there is a pregnant woman with the danger of
miscarriage. Which of the following agents can be used to save the pregnancy?
A.
Reserpine
B.
Isoprenalin
C.
Nicergoline
D.
Ephedrine
E.
Fenoterol (Partusisten)*.
109. The patient went to the doctor for medical examination. In the queue
while waiting an attack of asthma originated. Which group of drugs is advisable
to use to provide first aid?
A.
N - cholinomimetics
B.
Sympathomimetics
C.
Beta-adrenomimetics*
D.
Beta-adrenoblockers
E.
M - cholinomimetics.
110. In anesthetic practice adrenaline is usually added to the local
anesthetics to prolong analgesia and reduce side effects. What the effect of
adrenaline contributes to this?
A.
Reducing the sensitivity of pain receptors
B.
Constriction of blood vessels*
C.
Increase in peripheral resistance
D.
Stimulation of the antinociceptive system
E.
CNS depression.
111. In the course of therapy of a patient a number of complications such
as mydriasis, tachycardia, and increased blood pressure have occurred. Which of
the listed drugs can cause such side effects?
A.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
B.
Adrenaline*
C.
Phentolamine
D.
Isoprenaline
E.
Norepinephrine.
23
112. A patient made an inhalation of medication to relieve an attack of
asthma it quickly improved patient condition but caused tachycardia. Which of
the following agents can lead to such a complication?
A.
Fenoterol
B.
Atenolol
C.
Metoprolol
D.
Isoprenaline*
E.
Salbutamol.
113. A pregnant woman with a danger of abortion is admitted to obstetric
department. Which of these drugs should be applied to save the pregnancy?
A.
Salbutamol*
B.
Oxytocin
C.
Neostigmine methylsulfate
D.
Dinoproston
E.
Quinine.
114. An ambulance was called to women 28 years old in connection with
an attack of asthma. After intramuscular injection of ephedrine her condition was
improved. However, after 49 minutes the attack was repeated, ephedrine injected
once more acted weaker, in the third attack of bronchospasm that occurred in half
an hour, ephedrine did not cause any effect.What is the name of this phenomenon?
A.
Addiction
B.
Biotransformation
C.
Elimination
D.
Adsorption
E.
Tachyphylaxis*.
115. In a patient during a visit to the dentist an acute hypotension
occurred. Which of the drugs that stimulate adrenergic structures should be used
to normalize blood pressure?
A.
Naphazoline
B.
Xylometazoline
C.
Phenylephrine (Mezaton)*
D.
Ergotamine
E.
Doxozasin.
116.
adrenaline
receptors.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the experimental modeling of mechanism of inotropic effect of
activation of one of listed receptors was revealed. Point out these
M-Cholinergic receptors
Beta-1 - adrenoceptors*
Beta 2 - adrenergic receptors
Alpha 2 - adrenergic receptors
Alpha 1 - adrenergic receptors.
24
117. A patient with acute rhinitis was often applying intranasally 5%
solution of ephedrine hydrochloride. The effectiveness of the drug was declining
with each usage and on the third day disappeared entirely? What is the cause of
rapid decrease in drug’s efficacy (tachyphylaxis)?
A.
The progressive decrease in noradrenaline storage in sympathetic
nerve endings*
B.
Violation of the synthesis of norepinephrine in the sympathetic nerve
endings
C.
The increase in the reuptake of neurotransmitter
D.
Adrenoceptor blockade
E.
Violation of the process of neurotransmitter release from the depot.
Antiadrenergic drugs sympatholytics
118. The patient with a history of asthma have developed atrial
fibrillation, that requires agent appointment. Which of the listed antiarrhythmic
drug is contraindicated in this case?
A.
Nifedipine
B.
Verapamil
C.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)*
D.
Procainainamide
E.
Ajmaline.
119. A patient with fibrillation, who has had bronchial asthma in his
anamnesis, should be administered antiarrhythmic drug. Which preparation from
the suggested group is contraindicated for this patient?
A.
Ajimaline
B.
Verapamil
C.
Novocainamide
D.
Nifedipine
E.
Propranolol (Anapriline )*.
120. 72-year woman suffering from angina pectoris was treated by
propranolol (anaprilinium). On the background of the treatment the cough with
bronchospastic components was developed. Doctor replaced propanolol by
atenolol. It results in abolishing of respiratory disturbances. What is the reason of
beneficial effect of atenolol ?
A.
Block of M-cholinoreceptors
B.
Absence of action upon beta2- adrenoceptors*
C.
Stimulating of M-cholonoreceptorsd
D.
Inhibition of m-cholinireceptors
E.
Absence of action on alfa- adrenoceptors.
25
121. Doctor prescribed selective alfa1-adrenoceptor blocker for treatment
of hypertensive patient. Which of the following drugs belongs to this group?
A.
Metoprolol
B.
Phentolamine
C.
Cordarone
D.
Tropaphan
E.
Doxazosine*.
122. Patient with angina pectoris was treated with drug decreasing oxygen
demands of myocardium. While treatment, patient starts to complain of
extremities coldness especially fingers. Which of the drug was used?
A.
Atenolol
B.
Propanol (anaprilin)*
C.
Reserpine
D.
Prazosin
E.
Labetalol.
123. Patient with Raynaud disease was treated with phentolamine. What
is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A.
Blockade of B-adrenoceptors
B.
Blockade of alpha adrenoceptors*
C.
Decrease in neurotransmitter amount
D.
D Stimulation of central alpha2 adrenoceptors
E.
Blockade of central M-cholinoceptors.
124. Patient with initial form of hypertension complains of pain in heart
and tachycardia. Which of the following drugs has to be used in the treatment of
this patient
A.
Phentolamine
B.
Dihydroergotamine
C.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)*
D.
Prazosin
E.
Guanethidine(Octadinum).
125. Patient having in the past episodes of bronchial asthma addressed
doctor with angina pectoris. Doctor decided to treat patient with B-adrenoblocker.
Which of B-adrenoblocker is not contraindicated in this case?
A.
Anapriline(Propranolol)
B.
Atenolol*
C.
Oxprenolol
D.
Pindolol
E.
Nadolol.
26
126. Middle aged woman addressed doctor complaining on the attack of
periodical headache. On examination migraine was diagnosed. Doctor prescribed
anti-adrenergic drug. Point out the most suitable drug.
A.
Phentolamine
B.
Dihydoergotamine*
C.
Atenolol
D.
Dopamine
E.
Reserpine.
127. For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed
antiadrenergic drug, first administration of which in therapeutic dose caused “first
dose syncope”. Which drug was most probably used?
A.
Metoprolol
B.
Atenolol
C.
Prazosin*
D.
Reserpin
E.
Propranolol.
128. A 43 year-old male patient is suffering from hypertension. His blood
pressure was successfully controlled by monotherapy with adrenoblocker. With
time treatment was complicated with diarrhoea and impotence. The patient
addressed his doctor and the drug was changed for another adrenoblocker. Which
of adrenoblockers can cause above listed side effects?
A.
Metoprolol
B.
Salbutamol
C.
Propranolol
D.
Dobutamine
E.
Prazosin*.
129. In the presence of a beta-blocker, administration of adrenaline is most
likely to cause:
A.
Hypoglycemia
B.
Hypokalemia
C.
Hypertension*
D.
Hyperglycemia
E.
Hypotension..
130. Doctor prescribed selective alfa1-adrenoceptor blocker for treatment
of hypertensive patient. Which of the following drugs belongs to this group?
A.
Metoprolol
B.
Phentolamine
C.
Cordarone
D.
Tropaphan
E.
Prazosin*.
27
131. A 62-year-old patient, prone to bronchoconstriction, addressed his
doctor with complaints of tachyarrhythmia troubling him several times a day. The
doctor prescribed anaprilin (propranolol). Administration of drug provoked
severe attack of bronchospasm. What is the mechanism of this side effect?
A.
Stimulation of M1- cholinoceptors
B.
Inhibition of alfa-adrenoceptors
C.
Inhibition of beta2 - adrenoceptors*
D.
Increase in n. vagus tone
E.
Stimulation of leukotriene release.
132. A young woman with 6 months pregnancy visited her doctor
complaining of periodical slight contractions of uterus. To prevent premature
labour doctor prescribed partusisten (fenoterol). What is the mechanism of action
of this drug?
A.
Stimulation of beta2 - adrenoceptors*
B.
Inhibition of beta2 - adrenoceptors
C.
Stimulation of alfa1 - adrenoceptors
D.
Inhibition of alfa1 - adrenoceptors
E.
Stimulation of M-cholinoceptors.
133. The patient with the initial form of hypertension complains of pain
in the heart and tachycardia. Which of the following drugs should be used in the
treatment of this patient?
A.
Prazosin
B.
Phentolamine
C.
Dihydroergotamine
D.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)*
E.
Reserpine.
134. A doctor prescribed the drug to the patient with hypertension. The
drug is acting by selective block of alpha 1 - adrenergic receptors. What the drug
was prescribed?
A.
Metoprolol
B.
Doxazosin*
C.
Phentolamine
D.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
E.
Reserpine.
135. The patient in case of angina chest pain regularly takes nitroglycerin,
however, recently angina pectoris complicated by extrasystoles and episodes of
bronchospasm. Which of beta - blockers better to appoint for such a patient?
A.
Timolol
B.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
C.
Oxprenolol
D.
Atenolol*
28
E.
Nadolol.
136. Patients with essential hypertension (stage II) used one of
antihypertensive drugs. After a while blood pressure decreased, but the patient
began to complain of fatigue, sleepiness, apathy. Later on, a pain in the stomach
occurred, and gastric peptic ulcer was diagnosed. What the drug was used?
A.
Reserpine*
B.
Verapamil
C.
Captopril
D.
Dibazol
E.
Furosemide.
137. A patient with ischemic heart disease was admitted to cardiology
department. To prevent attacks of angina pains drug of beta-1adrenoblockers was
assigned. Name this drug:
A.
Metoprolol*
B.
Morphine hydrochloride
C.
Furosemide
D.
Oxytocin
E.
Atropine sulfate.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypertensive patients is taking sympatholytic. Enter the drug.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
Reserpine*
Adrenaline
Atropine
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum).
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Note the non-selective beta-blocker.
Mezatonum
Atenolol
Adrenaline
Salbutamol
Propranolol (Anaprilin)*.
140. The patient with hypertension was appointed cardioselective betablocker. Which drug is assigned to the patient?
A.
Reserpine
B.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
C.
Metoprolol*
D.
Atropine
E.
Adrenaline.
141. To patient with a tachyarrhythmia doctor prescribed a beta-blocker.
Enter the drug.
29
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adrenaline
Propranolol (Anaprilin)*
Atropine
Isoprenaline
Salbutamol.
142. The patient suffering from angina takes a selective betaadrenoblocker. Enter the drug.
A.
Metoprolol*
B.
Prazosin
C.
Atropine
D.
Pilocarpine
E.
Propranolol (Anaprilin).
143. Non selective alpha-adrenoblocker is prescribed for diagnostic
purposes to a woman with a suspected pheochromocytoma. Point out this drug
A.
Fentolamin*
B.
Propranolol (Anaprilin)
C.
Salbutamol
D.
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
E.
Clonidine.
The drugs for general anaesthesia
144. To anaesthetize the manipulation connected with burn surface
treatment, a patient was intravenously injected a medication for short-acting
narcosis.1 minute later the patient being under anesthesia had elevated blood
pressure, tachycardia, increased tone of skeletal muscles; the reflex were reversed.
After awakening the patient had disorientation and the visual hallucination. What
medicine was injected to the patient?
A.
Sombrevin
B.
Thiopental sodium
C.
Nitrous oxide
D.
Ketamine*
E.
Diethyl ether.
145. The anaesthetic used along with halothane to give excellent analgesia
and rapid induction is
A.
Nitrous oxide*
B.
Thiopental
C.
Desflurane
D.
Propofol
E.
Choroform.
30
146. To anaesthetize the manipulation related to burn surface treatment, a
patient was intravenously injected a medication for short-acting narcosis. 1 minute
later the patient being under anaesthesia had increased blood pressure,
tachycardia, increased tone of sceletal muscles reflexes remained. After
awakening the patient had desorientation and visual hallucinations. What
medication was the patient injected?
A.
Nitrous oxide
B.
Thiopental sodium
C.
Ketamine*
D.
Diethyl ether
E.
Sombrevin.
147. Dental surgeon made tooth extraction in a patient under general
anesthesia. Which of the following medications can be used in this case for shortterm noninhalation general anesthesia?
A.
Ketamine*
B.
Predion
C.
Thiopental sodium
D.
Halothane
E.
Nitrogen oxide.
148. To make the treatment of burn surface painless intravenous general
anesthetic for short-term anesthesia was injected to patient. Anesthesia developed
in 1 minute during anesthesia increase in blood pressure, tachycardia, increase in
tone of skeletal muscles have occurred. On the recovery from anesthesia patient
experienced disorientation and visual hallucinations. What is the drug entered the
patient?
A.
Ether for anesthesia
B.
Sombrevin
C.
Ketamine*
D.
Thiopental sodium
E.
Nitrous oxide.
149. To do a biopsy of breast tumors in 35 years old woman analgesia is
required. What type anesthesia should be used?
A.
Potentiated anesthesia with muscle relaxants
B.
Combined mixed anesthesia
C.
Neurolept-analgesia*
D.
Basic anesthesia (Na-hydroxybutyrate)
E.
Inhalation anesthesia.
150. A 28 years old woman addressed the dentist about dental prosthetics.
Because she is allergic to local anesthetics, dental treatment was necessary to
31
carry out under general anesthesia. Which general anesthetic drug should be used
for this purpose, taking into consideration short duration of manipulation?
A.
Sodium hydroxybutyrate
B.
Ketamine*
C.
Thiopental
D.
Halothane
E.
Hexobarbital (Hexenalum).
151. To anesthetize the procedure of taking a biopsy in patient a drug that
causes a fast anesthesia lasting about 5 minutes was injected intravenously.
During anesthesia there were involuntary movements, slight decrease in blood
pressure, short-term respiratory arrest, which was quickly restored. What kind of
drug was used?
A.
Halothane
B.
Ketamine
C.
Predion
D.
Propanidid*
E.
Sodium hydroxybutyrate.
152. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures with loss of consciousness were
periodically occurring in a patient after an injury; these seizures were followed by
a general depression of central nervous system. What the drug should be assign
to prevent seizures?
A.
Trihexyphenidyl (Cyclodolum)
B.
Midantan
C.
Levodopa
D.
Disilfiram (Teturam)
E.
Phenobarbital*.
153. Identify the drug that has sedative, hypnotic, anesthetic, antihypoxic, myorelaxant actions and it is used as general anesthetic and hypnotic.
A.
Sodium hydroxybutyrate*
B.
Hexobarbital
C.
Chloral hydrate
D.
Diazepam
E.
Thiopental sodium.
154. The patient takes disulfiram (teturam). What is the indication for use
of this drug?
A.
Psychosis
B.
Preparation for surgery
C.
Fear and anxiety
D.
Neurosis
E.
Alcoholism*.
32
Hypnotic, antiepileptic and antiparkinsonian drugs
155. A 5 years old child from time to time have seizures with loss of
consciousness. The doctor diagnosed epilepsy (large seizures). Which drug is
advisable to appoint a patient?
A.
Phenobarbital*
B.
Benactizin(Amizulum)
C.
Trihexyphenidyl (Cyclodolum)
D.
Ethosuximide
E.
Levodopa.
156. A man aged 68 with trembling hands and incoordination diagnosed
with Parkinson's disease. Which drug is advisable to appoint a patient?
A.
Phenytoin
B.
Finlepsin
C.
Ethosuximide
D.
Phenobarbital
E.
Trihexyphenidyl (Cyclodolum)*.
157. 40 years woman addressed doctor with complaints of psychic
disturbances appeared with long-term usage of phenobarbital as a hypnotic. What
the drug should be used instead of phenobarbital?
A.
Sodium hydroxybutyrate
B.
Bromizoval
C.
Chloral hydrate
D.
Nitrazepam*
E.
Noxiron.
158. Due to emotional stress a man permanently is in a state of nervous
tension and has poor sleep. The doctor gave him a diazepam. Which of the
following effects of diazepam is the base for its clinical application in this case?
A.
Hypotensive
B.
Anxiolytic (Tranquilizing)*
C.
Analgesic
D.
Anticonvulsant
E.
Antidepressant.
159. A patient suffering from insomnia addressed his doctor. The main
problem was in the difficulties with sleep onset. Doctor prescribed zolpidem.
Which of the following characteristics is true for this agent?
A.
It belongs to benzodiazepine derivatives
B.
It belongs to barbiturates
C.
It has the ability to cause quick onset of sleep*
33
D.
E.
It’s poorly absorbed from GIT
It’s poorly bind to protein.
160. A 46- year-old patient with a history of epilepsy (grand mal)
developed status epilepticus. Choose the drug to arrest convulsions.
A.
Sodium valproate
B.
Diazepam*
C.
Levodopa
D.
Chlorpromazine
E.
Droperidol.
161. An antiepileptic drug, which prevents metabolism of GABA, was
included in complex therapy of patient with epilepsy (grand mal). Point out this
drug
A.
Phenytoin
B.
Phenobarbitone
C.
Carbamazepine
D.
Ethosuximide
E.
Sodium valproate*.
162. Patient with phenobarbital poisoning was presented to emergency
department. To promote kidney excretion of poison sodium bicarbonate was
administered intravenously. What mechanism is responsible for an increase in
barbiturate excretion?
A.
Increase in polarity of barbiturate*
B.
Increase in fat solubility of barbiturate
C.
Increase in barbiturate reabsorption
D.
Increase in rate of glomerular filtration
E.
Decrease in protein binding.
163. Deficiency in dopamine production by neurons of strio-pallidal
system is considered to be one of the main causes of Parkinson’s disease. Point
out the drug used for replacement therapy of this disease
A.
Atropine
B.
Dopamine
C.
Levodopa*
D.
Carbidopa
E.
Amantadine.
164. The patient was taken the mixture prescribed by neuropathologist for
neurasthenia for 2 weeks. Patient felt better but developed coryza, conjunctivitis,
rash, inertia, decrease of memory. Bromizm was diagnosed. What should be
prescribed to decrease symptoms?
A.
Glucose solution 5%
B.
Calcium chloride
34
C.
D.
E.
Natrium chloride*
Polyglucin
Asparcam.
165. The antiepileptic drug which causes nystagmus, ataxia and gum
hypertrophy is
A.
Phenytoin*
B.
Phenobarbitone
C.
Carbamazepine
D.
Ethosuximide
E.
Valproic acid.
166. A 16 years boy is a known as patient suffering from epilepsy.
Following several years of a drug therapy, gingival hyperplasia developed. For
which drug this side effect is characteristic?
A.
Alprazolam
B.
Carbamazepine
C.
Valproic acid
D.
Ethosuximide
E.
Phenytoin*.
167. A woman, which is on phenytoin, wants to conceive. What advice
you can give to her about drug?
A.
Increase the dose of phenytoin
B.
Change to valproic acid
C.
Addition of valproic acid
D.
Change to phenobarbitone*
E.
Decrease the dose of phenobarbitone.
168. An old epileptic patient on phenytoin is having status eplilepticus.
What will you give to this patient in emergency?
A.
Phenytoin
B.
Carbamazepine
C.
Diazepam*
D.
Valproic acid
E.
Primidone.
169. Disulfiram is widely used in medical practice to prevent alcocholism.
It inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. Increased level of what metabolite causes
aversion to alcochol?
A.
Propionic aldehyde
B.
Methanol
C.
Ethanol
D.
Acetaldehyde*
E.
Malonyc aldehyde.
35
Pharmacology of opioid analgesics
170. Very painful uterine contractions have been occurring in a pregnant
woman at normal term. To relieve the woman’s condition during labour, a doctor
decided to use opioid (narcotic) analgesic. Which of the listed drugs can be used
in this case?
A.
Trimeperidine (Promedolum)*
B.
Morphine
C.
Metamizole (Analginum)
D.
Papaverine
E.
Codeine.
171. A 60-year-old male is brought to emergency room. He is comatose
and his pupils are constricted. Physician suspects opium overdose. What is the
best drug to be administered?
A.
Flumazanil
B.
Calcium carbonate
C.
Sodium bicarbonate
D.
Naloxone*
E.
Atropine.
172. A young man was taken to emergency department with numerous
traumas of chest and head. Anesthesiologist proposed to inject morphine to relieve
patient’s condition, but traumatologist rejected proposition of his colleague. Why
morphine is contraindicated in this case?
A.
It increases intracranial pressure*
B.
It stimulates vagal center
C.
It decreases intraocular pressure
D.
It causes miosis
E.
It depresses center of cough reflex.
173. It is known that morphine can cause a shift of blood from pulmonary
to systemic circuit. It results in lowering of resistance in pulmonary vascular bed.
In which case in may be used?
A.
Bronchitis
B.
Pneumonia
C.
Pulmonary oedema*
D.
Bronchiectatic disease
E.
Emphysema.
174. Patient in unconscious state was admitted to the emergency room.
Skin is cold, pupils are pinpoint like, breathing is heavy, with cycles of the
36
Cheyne- Stokes type, blood pressure is decreased, urinary bladder is overloaded.
Poisoning with what substance is the most likely?
A.
Neosigmin (Proserinum)
B.
Sedatives
C.
M-cholinergic antagonists
D.
Nor-narcotic analgesics
E.
Narcotic analgesics*.
175. Examination of a patient revealed extremely myotic pupils,
sleepiness, infrequent Chain-Stoke's respiration. urinary retention, slowing-down
of heart rate, enhancement of spinal reflexes. What substance caused the
poisoning?
A.
Atropine
B.
Phosphacole
C.
Caffeine
D.
Morphine*
E.
Barbital.
176. A patient with acute morphine poisoning was delivered to a hospital.
What specific narcotic antagonist should be chosen in this case?
A.
Unithiol
B.
Paracetamol
C.
Digoxin
D.
Methacin
E.
Naloxone*.
177. A young man with an addiction to opioid drugs denies drug
dependence. Introduction of one of these drugs will help to prove drug
dependence. Point out this drug.
A.
Morphine
B.
Codeine
C.
Trimeperidine (Promedol)
D.
Fentanyl
E.
Pentazocine*.
178. A 30 years old patient was delivered to emergency department with
a fractured thigh bone after a car accident. The patient had dramatically reduced
blood pressure to 70/40 mm Hg, weak pulse, enhanced pain response to touch to
damaged area. What should be used for prevention of traumatic shock in patient?
A.
Metamizol (Analgin)
B.
Papaverine
C.
Morphine*
D.
Paracetamol
E.
Pentazocine.
37
179. The patient with inoperative lung cancer metastasizing in the spine
was suffering from severe pain. To relieve patient's condition analgesic is
required. Which drug should be administered?
A.
Analgine
B.
Codeine
C.
Paracetamol
D.
Morphine*
E.
Papaverine.
180. On arrival of ambulance a 25 years old patient was unconscious and
15 vials of morphine solution were found near him patient had periodic breathing,
slowed heart rate, suppressed reflexes except for the knee, and narrowed pupils
he was taken to the emergency department. What measure should be applied in
the first place?
A.
Gastric lavage*
B.
Diuretic
C.
Antiarrhythmic drug
D.
Enema
E.
Induction of vomiting.
181. A child of 4 years is hospitalized to the orthopedic department with
a fractured ankle with displacement. The reposition of bone fragments required
analgesia. What medication should be used?
A.
Analgin
B.
Promedol*
C.
Morphine hydrochloride
D.
Panadol
E.
Omnopon.
182.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choose a specific antagonist of narcotic analgesics.
Caffeine-sodium benzoate
Ethimizol
Bemegride
Strychnine
Naloxone*.
183. A patient with symptoms of renal colic is admitted to the urology
department. Which of these drugs should be advised to provide him first aid?
A.
Morphine
B.
Trimeperidine (Promedol)*
C.
Pentazocine
D.
Fentanyl
E.
Tramadol.
38
184. A patient with dislocation of shoulder was admitted to traumatologic
department. The reduction of dislocation should be performed under
neuroleptanalgesia. Chose the opioid analgesic used for this purpose.
A.
Naloxone
B.
Cordiamin
C.
Morphine
D.
Ethimizol
E.
Fentanyl*.
Pharmacology of nonopioid analgesics
185. A 67 year-old male patient suffering from arthritis was treating
himself with acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin). In 2 weeks patient addressed doctor
complaining of pain in epigastric area. On examination of the patient doctor
prescribed anti-inflammatory agent, selectively inhibiting COX–2. Point out this
drug.
A.
Paracetamole
B.
Diclophenac-sodium
C.
Celecoxib*
D.
Metamisole (Analginum)
E.
Indomethacine.
186. In complex treatment of a patient with angina pectoris non- narcotic
analgesic exerting antiplatelet activity was included. Point out this agent.
A.
Meperidine
B.
Morphine
C.
Tramadol
D.
Metamizole
E.
Aspirin*.
187.
except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Due to inhibition of COX aspirin exerts all the following effects
Anti-inflammatory
Antiplatelet
Increase in warfarin efficacy*
Antipyretic
Analgesic.
188. A patient with toothache was relieving his pain with help of
metamizole (analginum). Point out another useful effect of this drug that
contributes to the improvement of patient’s condition
A.
Sedative effect
B.
Anti-inflammatory effect*
39
C.
D.
E.
AntIplatelet effect
Antioxidative effect
Antimicrobial effect.
189. The usage of acetylsalicylic acid resulted in occurrence of epigastric
pain in patient. On examination of the patient gastric ulcer was revealed. What the
mechanism is responsible for ulcerogenity of this drug?
A.
Stimulation of pepsin secretion
B.
Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis*
C.
Increase in bile production and its reflux
D.
Spasm of vessels
E.
Spasm of gastric smooth muscles.
190. Doctor visited a 5-year-old child with fever and complaints of
headache. Doctor suspected the onset of viral infection. To relieve patient’s
condition doctor prescribed non-opioid analgesic, which additionally exerts
antipyretic effect but lacks anti-inflammatory action. Point out the prescribed drug
A.
Metamizole (Analginum)
B.
Celecoxib
C.
Aspirin
D.
Acetaminophen (Paracetamol)*
E.
Diclophenac-sodium.
191. After the usage of acetylsalicylic acid a patient developed epigastric
pain because of exacerbation of his ulcer. What is the mechanism of this drug
ulcerogenity?
A.
Stimulation of pepsin secretion
B.
Antiprostagladinic effect*
C.
Cholagogic effect
D.
Spasm of vessels
E.
Immunodepressive effect.
192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Point out non- narcotic analgesic, which exerts antiplatelet activity.
Meperidine
Morphine
Tramadol
Metamizole
Aspirin*.
193. A 2-year-old child is often catching a cold with fever. Which
antipyretic drug is safer at this age than acetylsalicylic acid?
A.
Analgin
B.
Indomethacin
C.
Paracetamol*
D.
Phenylbutazone
40
E.
Phenylbutasone.
194. A 7 year child have caught cold, he was shivering, fever up to 39,2 °
C, his respiratory rate - 45 per minute, pulse - 105 beats per minute. The doctor
diagnosed an acute viral infection, and appointed a baby aspirin. By means of
what mechanism the drug realized its antipyretic effect in this case?
A.
The overall calming effect
B.
Slowing down heartbeat
C.
Increase in heat output*
D.
Slowing of the respiratory rhythm
E.
Reduction of heat production.
Neuroleptics, antianxiety, and sedative agents
195. A patient was treated for psychosis for 2 weeks. The psychic patient's
condition improved but rigidity, tremor, and hypokinesia developed. Which of the
drugs can cause such complications?
A.
Diazepam
B.
Chlorpromazine (Aminazine)*
C.
Amytriptiline
D.
Piracetam
E.
Chlordiazepoxide.
196. A 60 years old woman addressed her doctor complaining of side
effects which appeared while treatment with chlorpromazine (aminazinum). She
was troubled with tremor and disturbances of movements. What is the mechanism
of this side effect?
A.
Activation of hyppocampus
B.
Inhibition of reticular formation (alfa1 - adrenoceptors)
C.
Inhibition of neostriatum (D2 receptors)*
D.
Inhibition of hypothalamus
E.
Inhibition of hyppocampus.
197. A 50 years old patient with chronic alcoholism became aggressive.
To abolish aggression, chlorpromazine was administered intramuscularly. The
patient’s attempt to rise soon after an injection resulted in loss of consciousness.
What is the probable cause of such complication?
A.
Blockade of reticular formation
B.
Disturbance of coronary blood circulation
C.
Blockade of alfa- adrenoceptors*
D.
Inhibition of hypothamus
E.
Blockade of M- cholinoceptors.
41
198. After emotional stress, patient was permanently in a condition of
nervous tension and had poor sleep. Doctor prescribed him diazepam. Which of
the listed effects of this drug is responsible for its clinical use?
A.
Hypotensive effect
B.
Analgesic effect
C.
Anticonvulsant
D.
Tranquilizing*
E.
Anti psychotic.
199. Point out the neuroleptic that is most commonly used in
neuroleptanalgesia.
A.
Chlorpromazine
B.
Droperidol*
C.
Diazepam
D.
Chlorprotixene
E.
Sulpiride.
200. A patient on a particular psychotropic medication complains of
severe dizziness. His blood pressure in a supine position is 115/80 mm hg on
standing it drops to 82/50 mm hg. Which of the following drugs is most likely
responsible for these symptoms?
A.
Carbamazepine
B.
Chlorprozamine*
C.
Chlordiazepoxide
D.
Cortisone
E.
Ibuprofen.
201. A patient has been taking a mixture prescribed by neuropathologist
for neurasthenia for two weeks. The patient feels better but has developed coryza,
conjunctivitis, rash, inertia, decrease of memory. She is diagnosed with bromizm.
What should be prescribed to decrease the
A.
Glucose solution 5%
B.
Polyglucin
C.
Asparcam
D.
Natrium chloride*
E.
Kalium chloride.
202. A patient who has been treated in a neural clinic and has been taking
a sedative for a long time got the following complication: cough, rhinitis,
epiphora. What drug caused these disturbances?
A.
Sodium bromide*
B.
Valerian
C.
Phenazepam
D.
Reserpine
E.
Diazepam.
42
203. Select the most appropriate drug for the systematic treatment of a
patient with severe productive psychotic symptoms (delirium and hallucinations).
A.
Trifluoperazine (Triftazin)*
B.
Clozapine
C.
Medazepam
D.
Amitriptyline
E.
Buspirone.
204. Neuroleptics have the properties of eliviating delusions,
hallucinations, reducing of aggression and psychomotor agitation. This action is
called:
A.
Antipsychotic*
B.
Hypodynamic
C.
Antihysteric
D.
Anxiolytic
E.
Antineurotic.
205. A 40 years patient delivered to psychiatric clinic in a state of
agitation, aggression, delusions. What medication should be administered?
A.
Sodium bromide
B.
Chlorpromazine*
C.
Reserpine
D.
Tincture of valerian
E.
Amitriptyline.
206. The patient with schizophrenia was appointed chlorpromazine. What
the pharmacological effect is the basis for assigning it to the patient?
A.
Hypothermic
B.
Hypotensive
C.
Antipsychotic*
D.
Antiemetic
E.
Myorelaxant.
207. A patient addressed a doctor complaining of anxiety, fear,
uneasiness, inner tension. Which drug should be assigned?
A.
Tincture of valerian
B.
Pavlov Medicine
C.
Diazepam*
D.
Tincture of leonuri
E.
Etaminal sodium.
208. On examination of the patient, unstable blood pressure, irritability,
emotional imbalance, poor sleep were revealed, and doctor has prescribed
43
chlordiazepoxide (elenium). Which of the following statements is ground for
prescription elenium in this case?
A.
Psychosis
B.
Cardiopathy
C.
Hypertention
D.
Coronary artery disease
E.
Neurosis*.
209.
diazepam?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The presence of which syndrome is the basis for the appointment of
Lingering paralysis
Inadequate perceptions (hallucinations)
Euphoric state of pathological origin
Anxiety*
Pathological thought disorder.
210. Patient 38 years old suffering from schizophrenia for a long time is
on the psychotropic drugs. He addressed the doctor with complaints of
disturbances of motor coordination, hand tremor, drowsiness. Which group of
drugs can cause such a condition?
A.
Antipsychotics*
B.
Antidepressants
C.
Analgesics
D.
Adaptogens
E.
Psychomotor stimulants.
211. A single parenteral administration of the drug in the patient with
schizophrenia caused severe hypotension. To which of these groups does drug
belong?
A.
Nootropics
B.
Antipsychotics*
C.
Tranquilizers
D.
Antidepressants
E.
CNS stimulants.
212. A patient with acute myocardial infarction experienced persistent
chest pain. The ineffectiveness of drugs previously designated gave the grounds
for doctor to use neuroleptanalgesia. Which antipsychotic agent is used for this
type of anesthesia?
A.
Chlorpromazine
B.
Triftazinum
C.
Metaperazine
D.
Droperidol*
E.
Thioridazine.
44
213. A patient with schizophrenia is taking typical neuroleptic. Which of
the effects is the basis for its application in schizophrenia?
A.
Antipsychotic*
B.
Antiemetic
C.
Hypothermic
D.
Myorelaxant
E.
Hypotensive.
214. A patient addressed the doctor with complaints of poor health,
depression, skin rashes. An interview revealed that the patient within three weeks
was taking sedative medicine, prescribed by a neurologist. With the admission of
which drugs complaints of patient were associated?
A.
Bromides*
B.
Lithium
C.
Tranquilizers
D.
Antipsychotics
E.
Preparations of valerianae.
Psychotropic
stimulating
agents.
Antidepressants.
Psychomotostimulants. Analeptics. Nootropic drugs
215. A patient with poisoning caused by carbon monoxide was
administered directly acting analeptic drug. What medicine was used?
A.
Codeine
B.
Ephedrine
C.
Caffeine*
D.
Atropine sulfate
E.
Lobeline.
216. A premature newborn was apnoic. Directly acting analeptic drug was
given to restore breathing. What medicine was most probably administered to the
patient?
A.
Ethymisolum*
B.
Phenylephrine (Mesatonum)
C.
Adrenaline hydrochloride
D.
Atropine sulfate
E.
Lobeline hydrochloride.
217. A psychiatrist was invited to a patient who made an attempt to
commit suicide. Doctor diagnosed endogenous depression. Choose the most
suitable drug for treatment of this patient.
A.
Nootropil (piracetam)
B.
Amytriptyline*
45
C.
D.
E.
Sydnocarbum
Ethymisolum
Caffeine.
218. A patient had a stroke. Which of the listed drugs is necessary to
include in the complex therapy in order to improve mental performance?
A.
Caffeine
B.
Piracetam*
C.
Diazepam
D.
Phenazepam
E.
Amitryptiline.
219. What is the main mechanism by which amitriptyline increases
amount of catecholamines in CNS synapses?
A.
Increase in catecholamines release from presynaptic membrane
B.
Increase in catecholamines synthesis in presynaptic membrane
C.
Prevention of catecholamines degradation in the synapse
D.
Inhibition of neuronal re uptake of catecholamines*
E.
Inhibition of MAO.
220. Analeptical directly acting drug was given to the patient for
restoration of breathing after poisoning with carbon monoxide. What medicine
was prescribed to the patient?
A.
Pentamin
B.
Mesaton
C.
Caffeine*
D.
Atropine sulphate
E.
Lobeline hydrochloride.
221. Which of the following characteristics of amphetamines is most
likely to be responsible for increasing blood pressure?
A.
Indirect release of endogenous catecholamines*
B.
Inhibition of catecholamines metabolism
C.
Metabolism to false neuro-chemical transmitters
D.
Potent alpha1 adrenergic transmitters
E.
Potent beta-2 adrenergic agonist.
222. The CNS stimulation produced by methylxanthines, such as caffeine,
is most likely due to the antagonism of one of the following recertors:
A.
Glycine receptors
B.
Adenosine receptors*
C.
Glutamate receptors
D.
GABA receptors
E.
Cholinergic muscarinic receptors.
46
223. A patient who has been treated with diazepam on account of neurosis
complains of toothache. Doctor administered him an analgetic, but its dose was
lower then average therapeutic dose. What phenomenon did the doctor take into
account while prescribing the patient an underdose?
A.
Drug dependence
B.
Cumulation
C.
Tolerance
D.
Summation
E.
Potentation*.
224. Pharmacological effects of antidepressants are connected with
inhibitionof an enzyme catalyzing biogenic amines noradrenaline and serotonine
in the mitochondrions of cerebral neurons. What enzyme participates in this
process?
A.
Lyase
B.
Monoamine oxidase*
C.
Transaminase
D.
Peptidase
E.
Decarboxylase.
225. A psychiatrist was called for the woman who tried to commit suicide
on examination the state of endogenous depression was diagnosed. Which drug is
most efficient for treatment of this patient?
A.
Piracetam (Nootropil)
B.
Amitriptyline*
C.
Sydnokarb
D.
Aethimizolum
E.
Caffeine.
226. Which agent will you choose for increase in mental performance and
decrease of tiredness?
A.
Buspirone
B.
Nialamide
C.
Sidnokarb
D.
Imipramine
E.
Caffeine*.
227. Doctor recommended taking caffeine the patient with pathological
sleepiness.Which of the following mechanisms of action provides its therapeutic
effect in this disease?
A.
The concentration and increased inhibition in the cerebral cortex
B.
Increased synthesis of dopamine
C.
Enhancement the processes of excitation in the brain*
D.
Inhibition of the midbrain reticular formation
E.
The weakening of the excitation in the brain.
47
228.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Point out preferable analeptic in acute barbiturate poisoning
Cordiaminum
Caffeine
Camphor
Bemegride*
Aethimizolum.
229. The patient had a stroke. Which of the following drugs should be
included in the combined therapy to improve the metabolism of the brain?
A.
Piracetam*
B.
Caffeine
C.
Diazepam
D.
Phenazepam
E.
Amitriptyline.
230. Which the drug from the group of psychomotor stimulants can cause
the development of drug addiction?
A.
Amphetamin (Phenaminum)*
B.
Meridil
C.
Sidnokarb
D.
Bemithylum
E.
Caffeine.
231. Which of the following effects of piracetam is used for chronic
vascular disorders of the brain?
A.
Anticonvulsant activity
B.
Improvement of mental performance*
C.
Antiwithdrawal effect
D.
Improvement of physical activity
E.
Antipsychotic effect.
232. The patient complains of fatigue, general weakness, decrease in
visual acuty, low blood pressure. Which drug is helpful in this case?
A.
Liquid extract of Eleutherococcus*
B.
Phenibut
C.
Piracetam
D.
Dry extract of Valeriana
E.
Amitriptyline.
233. The primary goal of medical aid in vascular collapse is an increase
in blood pressure. Which of the following medications can be used for this
purpose?
A.
Aethimizolum
B.
Diphenhydramine
48
C.
D.
E.
Bemegride
Caffeine-sodium benzoate*
Ketotifen.
234. A patient admitted to the neurological department complains of
memory loss and cognitive disability after trauma of the head. What kind of
medication is needed to improve the metabolism of the brain?
A.
Caffeine
B.
Metamizole (Analginum)
C.
Piracetam (nootropil)*
D.
Sidnokarb
E.
Meridil.
235. A psychiatrist was called for the woman who tried to commit suicide
on examination the state of endogenous depression was diagnosed. Which drug is
most efficient for treatment of this patient?
A.
Piracetam (Nootropil)
B.
Amitriptyline*
C.
Sydnokarbum
D.
Aethimizolum
E.
Caffeine.
236. Which agent will you choose for increase in mental performance and
decrease of tiredness?
A.
Nialamide
B.
Diazepam
C.
Imipramine
D.
Buspirone
E.
Caffeine*.
237. When should you expect for a specific therapeutic effect of
pantocrinum in its systematic application?
A.
After 9-15 days*
B.
After 30-60 minutes
C.
1-3 days
D.
After 30-45 days
E.
After 3-6 hours.
238. Doctor recommended taking caffeine the patient with pathological
sleepiness. Which of the following mechanisms of action provides its therapeutic
effect in this disease?
A.
Enhancement the processes of excitation in the brain*
B.
Increased synthesis of dopamine
C.
The concentration and increased inhibition in the cerebral cortex
D.
Inhibition of the midbrain reticular formation
49
E.
The weakening of the excitation in the brain.
239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Point out preferable analeptic in acute barbiturate poisoning
Caffeine
Bemegride*
Camphor
Cordiaminum
Aethimizolum.
240. The patient had a stroke. Which of the following drugs should be
included in the combined therapy to improve the metabolism of the brain?
A.
Caffeine
B.
Diazepam
C.
Piracetam*
D.
Phenazepam
E.
Amitriptyline.
241. The primary goal of medical aid in vascular collapse is an increase
in blood pressure. Which of the following medications can be used for this
purpose?
A.
Diphenhydramine
B.
Bemegride
C.
Caffeine-sodium benzoate*
D.
Aethimizolum
E.
Ketotifen.
242. A patient admitted to the neurological department complains of
memory loss and cognitive disability after trauma of the head. What kind of
medication is needed to improve the metabolism of the brain?
A.
Piracetam (nootropil)*
B.
Metamizole (Analginum)
C.
Caffeine
D.
Sydnokarbum
E.
Meridil.
243.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following tonics is derived from animal products?
Tincture ginseng
Pantocrine*
Saparalum
Ecdistenum
Securininum.
244. Among the antidepressant drugs there are those that inhibit neuronal
norepinephrine reuptake. Point out such drug.
A.
Fluoxetine
50
B.
C.
D.
E.
245.
analeptic.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nialamide
Chlorprothixene
Chlorpromazine
Maprotilime*.
Mark pharmacological effect, limiting the use of strychnine as
Stiffness in skeletal muscle, convulsions*
Hypercatharsis
Increased metabolism
Strengthening of sight and hearing
Impact on hematopoiesis.
246. What drug from the group of analeptics is preferable to use in
newborn asphyxia?
A.
Caffeine
B.
Aethimizolum*
C.
Camphor
D.
Cordiaminum
E.
Corazolum.
247. A 19 years old boy addressed doctor complaining of discomfort in
the heart area. Doctor asked him about smoking and other bad habits. Patient
denied all of mentioned bad habits, and sad he likes coffee and uses up to 8 glasses
of strong drink a day. Why coffee containing caffeine can worsen heart function?
A.
It causes tachycardia, increases in oxygen demand of the heart*
B.
It slows impulse conduction in the heart
C.
It weakens the force of heart contractions
D.
It causes a narrowing of the coronary vessels
E.
It decreases automaticity of the heart.
248.
(pirazidol)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the mechanism of action of antidepressant pirlindol
The reversible inhibition of MAO*
Irreversible inhibition of MAO
Selective inhibition of neuronal capture of catecholamines
Non-selective inhibition of neuronal capture catecholamines
Inhibitor of vesicular capture catecholamines.
249. A patient with symptoms of mental depression in the drug treatment
did not keep the doctor recommended a diet that caused the rise in blood pressure.
Which group of antidepressants requires compliance in this condition?
A.
Tricyclic antidepressant
B.
Nonselective MAO inhibitors*
C.
Selective inhibitors of catecholamines reuptake
51
D.
E.
Lithium preparations
Nonselective inhibitors of neuronal reuptake of catecholamine
52
Drugs acting on respiratory system
250.
Analeptic remedy of reflective type from the N-cholinomemetics
group was given to the patient for restoration of breathing after poisoning
with carbon monoxide. What medicine was prescribed to the patient?
A.
Adrenalin hydrochloride
B.
Lobeline hydrochloride*
C.
Mesaton
D.
Pentamin
E.
Atropine sulfate.
251.
In complex therapy of bronchial asthma myotropic spasmolytic drug
was added. Soon after its usage, nervousness and sleep disturbances
occurred. Which of the following drugs can cause above-mentioned side
effect?
A. Papaverine
B. Platyphilline
C. Aminophylline *
D. Drotaverine
E. Ephedrine .
252.
A 5 year-old –child was suffering from bronchitis, accompanied with
a productive cough with thick sputum. In addition to antimicrobial
treatment a mucolytic drug was prescribed. This drug was especially
beneficial for the child due to its ability to stimulate production of
surfactant. Point out this drug
A. Codeine
B. Ambroxolum*
C. Oxeladine
D. Ethylmorphine
E. Potassium iodide.
253.
Severe attack of bronchospasm and cough occurred in a patient with
bronchial asthma. Choose the best drug for quick relief of the patient
condition.
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Orciprenaline sulfate
C. Atropine
D. Adrenaline*
E. Noradrenaline.
254.
A patient with bronchial asthma had been taking tablets which caused
insomnia, headache, increased blood pressure. What medecine can cause
such complications?
A. Ephedrine*
B. Chromolin sodium
C. Euphyline
D. Adrenaline
E. Izadrine.
255.
A 13-year-old girl with history of asthma complained of cough,
dyspnea and wheezing. Her symptoms became so severe that her parents
brought her to the emergency room. Physical examination revealed
diaphoresis, dyspnea, tachycardia and tachypnea. Her respiratory rate was
42/min. pulse rate was 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure was l30/70
mm Hg. Choose from the following list the most appropriate drug to reverse
the bronchoconstriction rapidly:
A. Methylprednidsolone
B. Salbutamol*
C. Beclomethasone
D. Cromolyn
E. Ipratropium.
256.
Apnoic newborn was resuscitated by administration of respiratory
stimulant.Which agent is the drug of first choice in this case?
A. Bemegridum
B. Aethimisolum*
C. Lobeline
D. Codeine
E. Camphor.
257.
In complex treatment of patient with bronchial asthma cromolynsodium was included as antiallergic agent. What is the mechanism of this
drug action?
A. Inhibition of histaminic H1 receptors
B. Inhibition of histaminic H2 receptors
C. Prevention of mast cell degranulation*
D. Inhibition of antigen-antibody interaction
E. Blockade of D2 receptors.
258.
Severe attack of bronchospasm and cough occur in patient with
bronchial asthma. Choose the best drug for quick relieve of patient
condition.
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Orciprenaline sulfate
C. Atropine
D. Adrenaline*
E. Noradrenaline.
54
259.
Patient with bronchial asthma was taking tablets, which caused
insomnia, headache, increased blood pressure. What medicine can cause
such complications?
A. Izadrine
B. Adrenaline
C. Chromolin sodium
D. Euphyline
E. Ephedrine*.
260.
In complex therapy of bronchial asthma myotropic spasmolytic drug
was included. Soon after its usage nervousness and sleep disturbances
occurred. Which of the following drugs can cause above-mentioned side
effect?
A. Papaverine
B. Platyphilline
C. Aminophylline*
D. Drotaverine
E. Ephedrine.
261.
A patient suffering from chronic bronchitis takes a synthetic
mucolytic drug that facilitates the sputum thinning. What drug is it?
A. Acetylcysteine*
B. Diazepam
C. Heparin
D. Furosemide
E. Enalapril.
262.
A patient suffering from bronchial asthma didn't inform his doctor
that he had attacks of angina pectoris(stenocardia). Doctor administered
him a drug, which usage resulted in less frequent attacks of bronchial
asthma, but stenocardia (anginal) attacks became more frequent. What
medication was administered?
A. Isadrin (Isoprenalin)*
B. Salbutamol
C. Aminophylline
D. Cromolyn sodium
E. Phenotherol.
263.
A 70-year-old man, who suffered from chronic bronchitis, was
prescribed medicine for the cough - codeine. What is the mechanism of
antitussive effect?
A. Central*
B. Reflex
C. Competitive
D. Local effect
55
E. Peripheral effect.
264.
In long lusting usage of fenoterol in bronchial asthma its
bronchodilating effect is gradually decreasing. What is probable cause of
tolerance development?
A. Worsening of absorption
B. Decrease in numbers of beta-adrenoceptors*
C. Enhancement of binding with plasma albumin
D. Enhancement of elimination
E. Decrease in numbers of Gs-proteins.
265.
To terminate an attack of asthma patients used inhalation of the drug
that is used by inhalation as bronchodilators, and in injections it is used in
obstetric practice to prevent miscarriages. What drug was used by patient?
A. Fenoterol*
B. Atenolol
C. Adrenaline
D. Ephedrine
E. Euphylline.
266.
In patient with bronchial asthma attacks usually occur at night, they
are accompanied by bradycardia, spasmodic pains in the intestines,
diarrhea. Preparation of which group can eliminate these symptoms?
A. H2-histaminoblockers
B. N-cholinoblockers
C. M cholinoblockers*
D. Alpha-blockers
E. Beta-blockers.
267.
A patient with respiratory depression was admitted to hospital. Drugs
of which pharmacological group stimulate breathing in such case?
A. Antidepressants
B. Tranquilizers
C. Antipsychotics
D. Analeptics*
E. Analgesics.
268.
Asthmatic patient was assigned to inhalation of 0.5% solution
(isoprenalin) isadrinum. Bronchospasm was relieved, but the patient began
to complain of pain in the heart and heartbeat. This is due to the stimulation
of:
A. Beta2-adrenergic
B. Alpha1-adrenoceptor
C. M-cholinergic
D. Beta1-adrenergic*
56
E. Synthesis of acetylcholine.
269.
Patient suffering from bronchitis with poorly separated sputum
started taking acetylcysteine. Name the mechanism of mucolytic action of
the drug.
A. Reflex stimulates the secretion of bronchial glands
B. Stimulates the cough center
C. Increases the secretion of bronchial mucus
D. Depolymerizes sputum*
E. Increases bronchial contraction.
270.
A patient with severe attacks of asthma that was not stopped by
earlier effective beta-adrenoceptor agonists was admitted to the intensive
care unit Diagnosis: asthma, asthmatic status. What drug should be
administered the patient in the first place?
A. Adrenaline*
B. Acyclovir
C. Prednisone
D. Famotidine
E. Fenoterol.
271.
A 25 y.o. patient in the dental office suddenly developed an attack of
asthma. The doctor gave the patient salbutamol to inhale. What is the
mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Stimulates the alpha-adrenergic
B. Blocks histamine H1 receptors
C. Blocks M-cholinergic
D. Stimulates beta2-adrenergic receptors*
E. Blocks phosphodiesterase.
272.
For patient suffering of pneumonia and cough with thick poorly
separated sputum doctor prescribed expectorant drug that activates the
synthesis of surfactant in the lungs. What the drug was prescribed?
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Infusion of herb Thermopsis
C. Glaucin
D. Trypsin
E. Lasolvan (Ambroxol)*.
273.
To suppress dry cough in patient with chronic bronchitis doctor
prescribed antitussive - glaucine hydrochloride. What is the mechanism of
action of this drug?
A. Resorptive central*
B. M-cholinergic blockade
C. Reflex
57
D. Antienzymatic
E. Peripheral.
274.
Exhausting cough with fetid odor appeared in patient with lobar
pneumonia. Which of the following agents should be used in this case?
A. Famotidine
B. Mesaton
C. Fenoterol
D. Acyclovir
E. Trypsin*.
Cardiac glycosides and other inotropic drugs. Antiarrhythmic drugs.
275.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce positive
inotropic and negative chronotropic effects?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Furosemide
C. Diltiazem
D. Procainamide
E. Digoxin.*.
276.
Choose the inotropic drug for treatment of patient suffering from
congestive heart failure, not responding to digitalis.
A. Phenylephrine
B. Dobutamine*
C. Clonidine
D. Noradrenaline
E. Salbutamol.
277.
A patient who has been suffering from cardiac insufficiency for
several months has been taking digoxin on an outpatient basis. At a certain
stage of treatment there appeared symptoms of drug overdose. What
phenomenon underlies the development of this complication?
A. Functional cumulation
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Habituation
D. Sensibilization
E. Material cumulation*.
278.
A 50 y.o. patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency and
tachyarrythmia was prescribed
cardiotonic drug. What drug was
prescribed?
A. Dobutamine
58
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mildronate
Amyodarone
Digoxin*
Dopamine.
279.
A patient suffering from chronic cardiac insufficiency was
recommended to undergo a prophylactic course of treatment with a
cardiological drug from the group of cardiac glycosides that is to be taken
enterally. What drug was recommended?
A. Corglycon
B. Cordiamin
C. Strophanthine
D. Cordarone
E. Digoxin*.
280.
A patient that entered the admission office had the following signs of
acute cardiac insuffiency: paleness, acrocyanosis, frequent shallow
respiration. What drug is indicated in this case?
A. Corglycon*
B. Adrenaline hydrochloride
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Cordiamin
E. Digitoxin.
281.
To maintain normal sinus rhythm in patient with atrial fibrillation the
doctor prescribed an antiarrhythmic drug. After laboratory testing of
thyroid function administration of this drug was withdrawn. What drug was
initially prescribed?
A. Verapamil
B. Amiodarone*
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
E. Lidocaine.
282.
Patient suffering from tachyarrhythmia was treated with calcium
channel blocker. What drug was used?
A. Niphedipine
B. Verapamil*
C. Labetolol
D. Alprenolol
E. Nicardipine.
283.
A 52 year old patient with supraventricular tachyarrhythmia was
using antiarrhythmic drug of class III. For a long period it maintained the
normal cardiac rhythm, but with time dispnoe started to occur while going
59
upstairs. Patient addressed doctor. The examination revealed pulmonary
sclerosis. Which of the antiarrhythmic drug can cause such side effect?
A. Verapamil
B. Amiodarone*
C. Bretylium
D. Lidocaine
E. Procainamide.
284.
Digoxin in tablets was prescribed to patient with chronic congestive
heart failure. After 1 month of treatment decrease in heart rate was noted
doctor advised the patient to continue treatment with lower dose of digoxin.
In spite of this the bradycardia was soon transformed into A-V-block.
Choose the necessary drug for abolishing of this manifestation of glycoside
toxicity.
A. Potassium chloride
B. Phenytoin
C. Atropine*
D. Lidocaine
E. Propranolol.
285.
A pregnant woman addressed her doctor complying of frequent
heartbeats. Which of antiarrhythmic agents is contraindicated in this case?
A. Atenolol
B. Propranolol*
C. Metoprolol
D. Verapamil
E. Diltiazem.
286.
Patient with chronic congestive heart developed tachyarrhythmia.
Which of the listed drugs is contraindicated in this case?
A. Quinidine*
B. Lidocaine
C. Timecaine
D. Phenytoin
E. Ajmaline.
287.
In the treatment of patient suffering from congestive heart failure
resistant to digitalis adrenomimetic was used as inotropic agent. Point out
which of the following drugs was administered.
A. Phenylephrine
B. Partusisten
C. Dobutamine*
D. Xylometazoline
E. Naphazoline
60
288.
A 62-year-old patient, prone to bronchoconstriction, addressed his
doctor with complaints of tachyarrhythmia troubling him several times a
day. The doctor prescribed anaprilin (propranolol). Administration of drug
provoked severe attack of bronchospasm. What is the mechanism of this
side effect?
A. Stimulation of M1- cholinoceptors
B. Inhibition of α-adrenoceptors
C. Inhibition of β2 - adrenoceptors*
D. Increase in n. vagus tone
E. Stimulation of leukotriene release
289.
A patient with fibrillation, who has had bronchial asthma in his
anamnesis, should be administered antiarrhythmic drug. Which preparation
from the suggested drugs is contraindicated for this patient?
A. Ajimaline
B. Verapamil
C. Novocainamide
D. Nifedipine
E. Anapriline (Propranolol)*
290.
A 55-year-old patient with persisting ventricular arrhythmia was
admitted to the hospital. The patient is taking Timolol drops for glaucoma,
daily insulin injections for diabetes mellitus, and an ACE inhibitor for
hypertension. You have decided to use phenytoin instead of procainamide.
What is the reason?
A. The total anesthetic effect of procaninamide would aggravate the
hypertension
B. The anticholinergic effect of procainamide would aggravate
glaucoma*
C. The local aneathetic effect of procainamaide would potentiate diabetes
D. The hypertensive effects of procainamide would aggravate the
hypertension
E. The cholinergic effects of procainamide would aggravate the diabetes
291.
A patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency has been treated with
cardiotonic drugs and a thiazide diuretic, but in spite of it there are still
edemata and risk of ascites. What medication should be prescribed to
amplify diuretic effect of the applied drugs?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone*
C. Amyloride
D. Clopamide
E. Mannitol
292.
A patient takes digoxin for treatment of cardiac insufficiency. What
61
diuretic may increase digoxin toxicity due to the intensified excretion of
K+ ions?
A. Spironolactone
B. Hydrochlorothiazide*
C. Panangine
D. Siliborum
E. Lisinopril
293.
A patient suffers from chronic left-ventricular insufficiency. What
medication should be administered?
A. Digoxin*
B. Bemegride
C. Aethimizolum
D. Vinpocetine
E. Pyracetam
294.
Patient suffering from acute cardiac failure was treated with
nonglycoside inotropic drug inhibiting phosphodiesterase III. Which drug
was used?
A. Mildronate
B. Dopamine
C. Dobutamine
D. Amyodarone
E. Amrinone*
295.
Patient complains of weakness, dyspnea, low extremities oedema.
Diagnosis: chronic cardiac insufficiency. What medicine should be
prescribed first of all?
A. Caffeine
B. Digitoxin*
C. Papaverine
D. Propranolol
E. Raunatin
Diuretics.
296.
Point out antihypertensive agent that increases salts and H2O
excretion and can causes hyperglycemia and uric acid retention?
A. Nifedipine
B. Propranolol
C. Prazosin
D. Hydrochlorothiazide*
E. Acetazoleamide (Diacarbum).
62
297.
A 67- year-old man treated with hydrochlorothiazide for control of
mild hypertension visited his doctor complaining of pains in joints. Which
of the listed side effects is the most probable cause of patient’s complains?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyperuricemia*
C. Drug hypersensitivity
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Hypokalemia.
298.
A patient suffering from hypertension was treated with
hydrochlorothiazide. With time he addressed doctor complaining of
worsening of his condition. On examination of the patient hypokalemia was
diagnosed. Choose the drug, which has to be added aiming at enhancement
of diuretic effect and abolishing of hypokalemia.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Spironolactone*
E. Chlorothiazide.
299.
A patient with acute poisoning was admitted to emergency
department. It was established that poisonous substance was excreted by
kidney. Choose the best diuretic for forced diuresis.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide*
E. Hydrochlorothiazide.
300.
A 42-year-old man suffering from gout has increased level of urinary
acid in blood. Allopurinol was prescribed to decrease the level of urinary
acid. Competitive inhibitor of what enzyme is allopurinol?
A. Xanthine oxidase*
B. Guanine deaminase
C. Adenosine deaminase
D. Hypoxanthine phosphoribosiltransferase
E. Adenine phosphoribosiltransferase.
301.
A doctor administered Allopurinol to a 26-year-old young man with
the symptoms of gout. What pharmacological action of Allopurinol ensures
therapeutical effect?
A. By inhibiting leucocyte migration into the joint
B. By general analgetic effect
C. By increasing uric acid excretion
63
D. By general anti-inflammatory effect
E. By inhibiting uric acid synthesis*.
302.
The alternate usage or dichlotiazide, etacrin acid and lasex did not
influence diuretically upon the patient with marked peripheral edemata.
The aldosterone rate in the blood is increased. Indicate which medicine
should be prescribed:
A. Urea
B. Amilorid
C. Clopamid
D. Spironolacton*
E. Mannit.
303.
A patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency has been treated with
cardiotonic drugs and a thiazide diuretic, but in spite of it there are still
edemata and risk of ascites. What medication should be prescribed to
amplify diuretic effect of the applied drugs?
A. Spironolactone*
B. Furosemide
C. Manitole
D. Clopamide
E. Amyloride.
304.
A patient takes digoxin for treatment of cardiac insufficiency. What
diuretic may increase digoxin toxicity due to the intensified excretion of
K+ ions?
A. Lisinopril
B. Panangine
C. Siliborum
D. Spironolactone
E. Hydrochlorothiazide*
305.
Highly potent diuretic drug was prescribed to the patient with
pulmonary edema in the course of complex treatment. In a few days signs
of hypokaliemia were developed. What drug could cause such
complications?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)*
B. Spironolactone
C. Acetazolamide
D. Triamterene
E. Enalapril
306.
For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed diuretic
agent. It resulted in sufficient control of BP, but soon patient addressed
doctor, complaining of pain in joints. Which diuretic was used?
64
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Spironolactone
Hydrochlorothiazide*
Clonidine
Triamterene
Enalapril
307.
A patient with chronic cardiac insufficiency has been treated with
cardiotonic drugs and a thiazide diuretic, but in spite of it there are still
edema and risk of ascite. What medication should be prescribed to amplify
diuretic effect of the applied drugs?
A. Spironolactone*
B. Furosemide
C. Amyloride
D. Clopamide
E. Mannitol
308.
Diuretic drug was prescribed to the patient with hypertension in the
course of complex treatment. In a few days BP decreased but signs of
hypokaliemia developed. What drug could cause such complications?
A. Spironolactone
B. Clophelin
C. Lasix (Furosemide)*
D. Triamterene
E. Enalapril
309.
A 65 year old female patient suffers from chronic renal insufficiency
accompanied by evident edemata caused by chronic glomerulonephritis.
What diuretic should be administered for forced diuresis?
A. Furosemide*
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Chlorthalidone
D. Cyclometazide
E. Acetazolamide
Antihypertensive drugs. Antihyperlilpidemic agents
310.
A hypertensive patient was treated with the drug suppressing the
formation of angiotensin II and preventing degradation of bradykinine.
Point out the drug realizing antihypertensive effect by these mechanisms.
A. Nifedipine
65
B.
C.
D.
E.
Guanethidine
Clonidine
Enalapril*
Propranolol.
311.
A hypertensive patient was fond of meat dishes and did not keep
proper diet. In the course of complex antihypertensive treatment an acute
attack of gout developed. Which of the following agents is responsible for
worsening of patient condition?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide*
B. Prazosin
C. Allopurinol
D. Acetazolamide
E. Propranolol.
312.
The blood pressure of hypertensive patient is successfully controlled
by administration of enalapril. Which mechanism is responsible for
antihypertensive effect of this drug?
A. Inhibition of peripheral alpha1 - adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C. Inhibition of renin release
D. Inhibition of kallikrein – kinin system
E. ACE inhibition and stimulation of kalliкrein – kinin system*.
313.
Metabolism can render pharmacological activity to some initially
inert substances (pro-drug). Point out the substance, which is pro-drug,
used for treatment of hypertension.
A. Levodopa
B. Enalapril*
C. Verapamil
D. Reserpine
E. Propranolol.
314.
Hypertensive patient was treated with the drug that decreases
vascular tone. His treatment was complicated by persistent dry cough.
Which drug most probably was used?
A. Papaverine
B. Phentolamine
C. Lisinopril*
D. Prazosin
E. Clonidine.
315.
For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed captopril, but
soon patient addressed doctor, complaining of dry cough and rashes. Doctor
66
substituted captopril for losartan. What is the mechanism of the last drug
action?
A. Inhibition of renin release
B. Inhibition of ACE
C. Inhibition of angiotensinogen conversion to angiotensin I
D. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors*
E. Increase in bradykinin level.
316.
A patient with II stage hypertension has been taking one of
hypotensive medications for the purpose of treatment. After a time arterial
pressure decreased, but the patient started complaining of flaccidity,
sleepiness, indifference. A bit later he felt stomach pain. He was diagnosed
with ulcer. What hypotensive medication has the patient been taking?
A. Captopril
B. Dibazoie
C. Reserpine*
D. Furosemide
E. Verapamil.
317.
A patient taking clonidine for essential hypertension treatment was
using alcohol that caused intense inhibition of central nervous system.
What may it be connected with?
A. Intoxication
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Cumulation
D. Effect potentiating*
E. Effect summation.
318.
A patient with hypertensic crisis was admitted to the cardiological
department, he was injected intravenously with an antihypertensive drug salt of an alkaline-earth metal. What drug was injected?
A. Benzohexamethonium
B. Potassium chloride
C. C Sodium hydrocarbonate
D. Magnesium sulfate*
E. Caleium lactate.
319.
For treatment of hypertensive patient doctor prescribed
antiadrenergic drug, first administration of which in therapeutic dose
caused “first dose syncope”. Which drug was most probably used?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Prazosin*
D. Reserpin
E. Propranolol
67
320.
A 43 year-old male patient is suffering from hypertension. His blood
pressure was successfully controlled by monotherapy with adrenoblocker.
With time treatment was complicated with diarrhea and impotence. The
patient addressed his doctor and the drug was changed for another
adrenoblocker. Which of adrenoblockers can cause above listed side
effects?
A. Metoprolol
B. Salbutamol
C. Propranolol
D. Dobutamine
E. Prazosin*
321.
Which of the following antiadrenergic drugs used in the treatment of
hypertension is contraindicated in patients prone to bronchospasm?
A. Prazosin
B. Metoprolol
C. Reserpine
D. Atenolol
E. Propranolol (Anaprilinum)*
322.
Point out antihypertensive agent that increases salts and H2O
excretion and can cause hyperglycemia and uric acid retention?
A. Nifedipine
B. Propranolol
C. Prazosin
D. Hydrochlorothiazide*
E. Acetazoleamide (Diacarbum)
323.
A patient suffering from hypertension was treated with
hydrochlorothiazide. With time he addressed doctor complaining of
worsening of his condition. On examination of the patient hypokalemia was
diagnosed. Choose the drug, which has to be added aiming at enhancement
of diuretic effect and abolishing of hypokalemia.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Spironolactone*
E. Chlorothiazide
324.
A patient with moderate hypertension was treated with the drug that
realizes its effect by decrease in noradrenaline release from sympathetic
nerve endings. While treatment patient experienced drowsiness. What the
drug was used?
A. Prazosin
68
B.
C.
D.
E.
Reserpin*
Drotaverine
Atenolol
Dichlorothiazide
325.
Phenofibrate was prescribed for a patient with a history of angina
pectoris and high plasma cholesterol level. What is the mechanism of action
of this drug?
A. Activation of lipoprotein lipolysis*
B. Inhibition of lipoprotein lipase
C. Inhibition of hydroxymethyl glutaryl coenzyme A
D. Inhibition of DL oxidation
E. Bile acid sequestration
326.
In complex treatment of hypertensive patient antiatherogenic agent
that decreases synthesis of cholesterol was included. Point out this agent.
A. Cholestyramine
B. Colestipol
C. Fenofibrate
D. Simvastatin*
E. Probucol
327.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Point out the most atherogenic lipoproteins
Chylomicrons (Chy)
Low density lipoproteins (LDL)*
Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL)
328.
A 64 –year-old patient addressed doctor complaining of vertigo and
ringing in ears. On examination the disturbance of brain blood circulation
was diagnosed. Doctor prescribed the drug that is vinca alkaloid derivative.
Which drug was prescribed?
A. Cinnarizine
B. alfa-Tokopherol
C. Vinpocetine*
D. Xantinol nicotinate
E. Parmidin
329.
Point out the class of lipoprotein that facilitates the removal of
cholesterol from tissues
A. Chylomicrons (Chy)
B. Low density lipoproteins (LDL)
C. Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
D. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)*
69
E. Intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL)
330.
A 60 year-old patient with angina pectoris visited her doctor for
routine examination. Blood sampling revealed elevated level of cholesterol
in the plasma. Due to this antisclerotic drug was added to antianginal
therapy. The effect of prescribed drug is based upon the inhibition of
cholesterol synthesis by suppression of HMG-CoA reductase activity.
What the drug was prescribed?
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Probucol
C. Lovastatin*
D. Clofibrate
E. Colestipol
331.
Patient with moderate hypertension was treated with the drug,
decreasing heat work and renin release, and causing coldness of hands as a
side effect. What the drug was used?
A. Prazosin
B. Propranolol*
C. Spironolacton
D. Atenolol
E. Dichlorothiazide
332.
Blood pressure of hypertensive patient is successfully controlled by
administration of enalapril. Which mechanism is responsible for
antihypertensive effect of this drug?
A. Inhibition of peripheral alpha –1 adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C. Inhibition of renin release
D. Inhibition of kallikrein – kinin system
E. ACE inhibition and enhancement of kalliкrein – kinin system*
333.
A 60 year-old patient suffering from hypertension was prescribe drug
inhibiting RAS that inhibits rennin directly. Point out this drug.
A. Enalapril
B. Verapamil
C. Reserpine
D. Propranolol
E. Aliskiren*
334.
A 66 year old female patient got intravenous injection of magnesium
sulfate solution for the purpose of elimination of hypertensive crisis. But
arterial pressure didn't go down and after repeated introduction of the
same preparation there appered sluggishness, slow response, inhibition
of consciousness and respiration. What preparation is antagonist of
70
magnesium sulfate and can eliminate symptoms of its overdose?
A. Calcium chloride*
B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium chloride
D. Activated carbon
E. Potassium permanganate
Antianginal drugs
335.
A patient with angina pectoris was helping himself with
nitroglycerin. One day the patient used nitroglycerin several times because
of frequent episodes of pain. So as the last sublingual administration of
nitroglycerin did not relieve pain, the patient addressed his doctor. Doctor
advised him to withdraw nitroglycerin for 8 hours and prescribed another
drug. After 8 hours the effect of nitroglycerin was restored. Which
phenomenon did take place in this case?
A. Increase in nitroglycerin metabolism
B. Increase in protein binding
C. Decrease of absorption
D. Drug dependence
E. Tolerance *.
336.
A patient with Raynaud disease was treated with niphedipine. What
is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Blockade of B-adrenoceptors
B. Blockade of alpha adrenoceptors
C. Decrease in neurotransmitter amount
D. Calcium channels’ blockade*
E. Blockade of central M-cholinoceptors.
337.
To prevent the onset of myocardial infarction in a patient with angina
pectoris aspirin was used. Due to which of listed effects aspirin is beneficial
in this case?
A. Antiinflammatory
B. Antiplatelet*
C. Analgesic
D. Antipyretic
E. Ulcerogenic.
338.
After a tooth extraction a patient felt persistent pain behind his breast
bone. After sublingual intake of an antianginal drug the pain behind the
breast bone disappeared, but the patient complained of headache and
dizziness. What drug are these properties typical for?
A. Validol
B. Verapamil
71
C. Nitroglycerin*
D. Metoprolol
E. Propranolol.
339.
In complex treatment of a patient with angina pectoris non- narcotic
analgesic exerting antiplatelet activity was included. Point out this agent.
A. Meperidine
B. Morphine
C. Tramadol
D. Metamizole
E. Aspirin*
340.
A 72-year woman suffering from angina pectoris was treated by
propranolol (anaprilinium). On the background of the treatment cough with
bronchospastic components was developed. Doctor replaced propanolol
with metoprolol. This resulted in abolishing of respiratory disturbances.
What is the reason for the beneficial effect of metoprolol?
A. Block of M-cholinoceptors
B. Absence of action upon β2- adrenoceptors*
C. Stimulating of M-cholinoceptors
D. Inhibition of m-cholinireceptors
E. Absence of action on α- adrenoceptors
341.
A patient with myocardial infarction was treated with intravenous
infusion of heparin. What is the goal of this drug administration?
A. To cause the lysis of thrombus directly
B. To transform plasminogen into plasmin
C. To prevent further thrombosis*
D. To prevent platelets activation
E. To decrease the area of necrosis
342.
It is necessary to prevent the onset of myocardial infarction in
patient with angina pectoris. Choose the drug with antiplatelet and
vasodilating effects.
A. Ticlopidine
B. Dipiridamole*
C. Aspirin
D. Nifedipine
E. Verapamil
343.
Patient complains of weakness, dyspnea, low extremities oedema.
Diagnosis: chronic cardiac insufficiency. What medicine should be
prescribed first of all?
A. Digitoxin*
B. Caffeine
72
C. Papaverine
D. Propranolol
E. Raunatin
344.
Myocardial infarction patient was treated with streptokinase. What is
the mechanism of thrombolytic action of this drug?
A. Formation of active complex with proactivator of plasminogen*
B. Direct activation of plasminogen
C. Prevention of prothrombin conversion to thrombin
D. Prevention of fibrin formation
E. Direct lysis of thrombus
345.
72-year-old patient with angina pectoris was prescribed
dipyridamole. Administration of drug resulted in worsening of patient
condition and doctor substituted dipyridamole by long acting organic
nitrate. What was the most probable cause of worsening?
A. Lack of coronary vessels dilation
B. Increase in oxygen demand
C. “Coronary steal phenomenon”*
D. Decrease in arterial pressure
E. Decrease in venous pressure
346.
A patient who had myocardial infarction was prescribed 75 mg of
acetylsalicylic acid a day. What is the purpose of this administration?
A. Reduction of platelet (thrombocyte) aggregation *
B. Inflammation reduction
C. Pain relief
D. Temperature reduction
E. Coronary vessel dilatation
347.
Anapriline (Propranolol) therapy caused positive effect in the
dynamic of the disease of a 44-year-old woman suffering from stenocardia
(angina pectoris). What is the main mechanism of the effect of this
medicine?
A. Blockade of β-adrenoreceptors and decrease myocardial requirements
to the oxygen.*
B. Decrease of oxidative exchange in myocardium due to enzyme
blockade of Krebs' cycle
C. Decreased power inputs of myocardium due to reduced loading
D. Increased oxygen supply to the myocardium
E. Decreased need in increasing of oxygen supply to the myocardium
348.
A patient suffering from coronary artery disease had taken a certain
drug many times a day in order to arrest stenocardia attacks. Overdose of
this drug finally caused intoxication. Objectively: cyanotic skin and
73
mucous membranes, dramatic fall in the arterial pressure, tachycardia,
respiration inhibition. Blood has increased concentration of
methemoglobin. The drug the patient had taken relates to the following
group:
A. Organic nitrates*
B. Alpha-adrenoceptor blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Adenosine drugs
E. Myotropic spamolytics
349.
A patient suffers from stenocardia and takes isosorbide mononitrate.
He was prescribed a complementary drug with disaggregating effect. What
drug is it?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid*
B. Nitroglycerine
C. Propranolol
D. Nifedipine
E. Validol
350.
A patient with coronary artery disease was admitted to the
cardiological department. For stenocardia (angina pectoris) prevention a
drug from the group of beta-adrenoceptor blockers was administered. What
drug is it?
A. Metoprolol*
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Morphine hydrochloride
D. Oxytocin
E. Furosemide
351.
A patient with frequent attacks of stenocardia was prescribed sustakforte to be taken one tablet twice a day. At first the effect was positive but
on the second day stenocardia attacks resumed. What can explain
inefficiency of the prescribed drug?
A. Tachyphylaxis*
B. Cumulation
C. Sensibilization
D. Idiosyncrasy
E. Dependence
Drugs affecting GIT
74
352.
Patient with gastric peptic ulcer addressed his doctor. After
examination doctor prescribed famotidine aiming at inhibition of gastric
acid secretion. What is the mechanism of this drag action?
A. Inhibition of proton pump
B. Neutralization of gastric acid
C. Prevention of histamine release
D. Blockade of H1 histamine receptors
E. Blockade of H2 histamine receptors*.
353.
A young woman with breast cancer after surgery was treated with a
chemotherapeutic complex. At the very beginning of treatment the patient
experienced much distressing nausea and vomiting. Choose the best agent
to relieve patient’s condition
A. Hyoscine (Aeronum)
B. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrolum)
C. Validolum
D. Chlorpromazine (Aminazinum)
E. Metoclopramide*.
354.
Patient with gastric peptic ulcer was treated with omeprazole. This
agent is capable of decreasing in HCl production because it
A. Neutralizes gastric acid
B. Blocks H2 –histamine receptors
C. Inhibits the H+, K+-ATPase proton pump*
D. Coats gastric mucosa
E. Blocks muscarinic receptors.
355.
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with severe
epigastric pain. On the base of patient examination and laboratory findings
an acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the drugs is to be administered
in this case?
A. Pancreatin
B. Mezym forte
C. Contrycal*
D. Morphine
E. Fentanyl.
356.
A patient addressed doctor with complaints of heartburn often
troubling him. On examination ulcerative esophagitis was diagnosed and
inhibitor of proton pomp was prescribed. Which of the following drugs was
prescribed?
A. Cimetidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprazole*
D. Misoprostol
75
E. Metronidazole.
357.
A 37-year-old man was admitted to the surgical department with the
symptoms of acute pancreatitis: vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia,
hypotention, weakness, dehydration of the organism. What medicine
should be used first of all?
A. Ephedrine
B. Platyphylline
C. No-spa
D. Etaperazine
E. Contrycal*.
358.
A liquidator of a breakdown at a nuclear power plant who was
irradiated complained about vomiting that occurs all of a sudden. What
medication should be prescribed?
A. Metoclopramide*
B. Aeron
C. Reserpine
D. De-Nol
E. Atropine.
359.
Examination of a 35 year old patient revealed high acidity of gastric
juice. What receptors should be blocked in order to reduce it?
A. alpha 1-adrenoreceptors
B. beta2-adrenoreceptors
C. beta1 -adrenoreceptors
D. alpha2-adrenoreceptors
E. Histamine*.
360.
For treatment of biliary tract dyskinesia ( hypokinetic type) doctor
prescribed cholagogue, referring to the group holekinetics. Indicate the
drug
A. Magnesium sulfate (gavage)*
B. Alloholum
C. Cholenzymum
D. Oxafenamid
E. Cholosasum.
361.
Aged patient is suffering from constipation for a long time. Which
synthetic laxatives should be proposed in this case?
A. Atropine
B. Bisacodyl*
C. Castor oil
D. Liquid paraffin
E. Magnesium sulfate.
76
362.
A patient suffering from gastric ulcer with hyperacidic syndrome was
admitted to hospital. The drug of which group should be used in the
treatment of the patient?
A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D. Blockers H1 histamine receptor
E. H2 histamine receptors lockers*.
363.
For patients with peptic ulcer the drug inhibiting the growth and
reproduction of H.pylori was prescribed as a causal treatment. Name the
drug:
A. Corglyconum
B. Glauvent
C. Metronidazole*
D. Furosemide
E. Prazosin.
364.
A 46 years old patient was complained of stomach pain, heartburn.
During examination increased gastric acidity was revealed. What should be
assigned to neutralize the acidity of gastric juice?
A. Papaverine
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Almagel*
D. Neostigmine
E. Benzohexonium.
365.
Patients with peptic ulcer of the duodenum uses famotidine. What is
the group of this drug?
A. Beta-agonists
B. Alpha-adrenergic agonists
C. Antiholinesterase
D. H2-blockers of histamine receptors*
E. Irritant.
366.
A patient with exacerbation of duodenal peptic ulcer was admitted to
hospital The analysis showed an increased gastric secretion and acidforming function of the stomach. Choose a product that will reduce the
secretory function of the stomach by blocking histamine H2-receptor?
A. Famotidine*
B. Atropine Sulfate
C. Plathyphylline
D. Dry extract of belladonna
E. Metacin.
77
367.
A pregnant woman is suffering from heartburn. Which agent is the
best?
A. Ranitidine
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Omeprazole
D. Almagel*
E. Bismuth sulfate.
368.
The doctor prescribed bisacodyl for patient suffering from chronic
constipation. What pharmaceutical group is the drug?
A. Narcotic analgesics
B. Laxatives*
C. Antihypertensives
D. Blockers H2-histamine receptor
E. Diuretics.
369.
A 45 –year-old women is suffering from chronic pancreatitis. Doctor
prescribed her complex preparation containing pancreatic enzymes and
dried bile. Point out prescribed drug.
A. Allocholum
B. Pancreatin
C. Aprotinin
D. Festal*
E. Cholenzymum.
370.
A patient with cholecystitis relieves periodical attacks of pain with
myotropic spasmolytic drug. Which of listed agents is used?
A. Drotaverine(No-spa)*
B. Ephedrine
C. Pancreatin
D. Aprotinin
E. Atropine.
371.
Patient addressed doctor complaining of periodically occurring
dyspepsia. Laboratory tests did not reveal pathogens that can be responsible
for diarrhoea. Choose the drug the most beneficial in this case.
A. Atropine
B. Platyphylline
C. Papaverine
D. Bisacodyl
E. Loperamide*.
78
372.
Patient with chronic hepatitis was prescribed complex preparation
with hepatoprotecting properties. Preparation contains essential
phospholipids and vitamins. Point out this preparation
A. Legalon
B. Essentiale*
C. Liv-52
D. Siliborum
E. Papaverine.
373.
25 year-old man was hospitalized to gastroenterology department
with complaints of "hungry" pain, a feeling of heaviness in the stomach,
heartburn. Doctor prescribed gastrocepin (pirenzepine). What effect of
gastrocepin (pirenzepine) was the base for choice of a physician?
A. Relaxation of biliary tract muscle
B. Relaxation of smooth muscles of the stomach
C. Reduction of gastric acid secretion and gastrin*
D. Destruction of Helycobacter pylori
E. Reduction of trypsin secretion .
374.
Usage of sodium bicarbonate in peptic ulcer with high acidity gives
temporary relief. What is the cause of short lasting effect of drug in this
case?
A. The formation of carbon dioxide stimulating a secondary
hypersecretion*
B. Neutralization of hydrochloric acid
C. Stimulation of histamine H2-receptors
D. Stimulation of the gastric M-cholinergic receptors
E. Accumulation of histamine.
375.
The patient has hyperacidic gastritis. Specify the drug with the
mechanism realized by blocking of proton pump (H +-K +-ATPase) used
in the combined therapy.
A. Gastrocepin (pirenzepine)
B. Omeprazole*
C. Misoprostol
D. Atropine sulfate
E. Almagel.
376.
A patient with chronic hyperacidic gastritis to relieve heartburn is
using antacid, it gives prompt effect, but it is accompanied by unpleasant
feeling of fullness in the stomach. Which of the drugs can cause this side
effect?
A. Magnesium trisilicate
B. Aluminum hydroxide
C. Pepsin
79
D. Magnesium oxide
E. Sodium bicarbonate*.
377.
A complex treatment of gastric peptic ulcers includes famotidine.
What is the mechanism of this drug action?
A. M-cholinergic blockade
B. The blockade of proton pump (H +, K +-ATPase)
C. Blockade of H2 histamine receptors*
D. Antacid effect
E. Local anesthetic effect on the mucous membrane of the stomach..
378.
A patient has complex treatment of gastric peptic ulcers; concomitant
disease is glaucoma. Drugs of which group in this connection should not be
included in antiulcer therapy?
A. Myotropic antispasmodics
B. Blockers H2-histamine receptor
C. Antacid
D. Cholinoblockers*
E. Gastroprotectors.
379.
Almagel was prescribed for patient with gastric ulcer. What is the
mechanism of drug action?
A. The neutralization of hydrochloric acid*
B. Local anesthetic action
C. The blockade of the H2 histamine receptor
D. M-cholinergic blockade
E. Adsorption of alkaline foods.
Drugs acting on haemopoises and haemostasis
380.
The patient was using levomycetin for a long time without control,
his examination revealed a decrease in leukocyte count in the blood. Which
drug should be used for stimulation leukopoiesis?
A. Methotrexate
B. Prednisolone
C. Pentoxyluv*
D. Mercaptopurine
E. Cyanocobalamin.
381.
Severe anemia occurred in patients after gastric resection on account
of ulceration. What medicine has to be assigned along with improvement
of nutrition?
A. Ferroceronum
80
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cyanocobalamin*
Methyluracilum
Iron sulfate
Coamidum.
382.
Blood test revealed anemia in the patient with megaloblastic forms
of red cells, due to this cyanocobalamin was assigned for treatment. At what
type of anemia this vitamin preparation is indicated?
A. Hyperchromic anemia*
B. Hypoplastic
C. Hemolytic
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Hypochromic anemia.
383.
Hypochromic anemia appeared in patient due to internal bleeding.
Which of these drugs can provide rapid recovery of red blood cells?
A. Cobamamid
B. Heparin
C. Sirepar
D. Furosemide
E. Ferum-Lek*.
384.
After radiation therapy the myelo depressive reaction in the form of
leukopenia appeared in patient. Which of the following drugs should be
applied to stimulate leukopoiesis?
A. Vitogepat
B. Ferropleks
C. Hemostimulin
D. Sodium nucleinat*
E. Nicotinic acid.
385.
In the patient that had long history of stomach disease hyperchromic
anemia was found. Which of the following agents is to be prescribed for
this disease?
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Cyanocobalamin*
C. Unithiolum
D. Ferum-Lek
E. Oxyferriscorbone sodium.
386.
Iron deficiency anemia is very common among pregnant women,
complicating pregnancy, childbirth, adversely affects the fetus and
newborn. Propose for the treatment such anemia preparation of ferrous iron
for oral administration.
A. Ferkoven
81
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ferrum-lek
Hemostimulin
Koamidum
Iron ferrous lactate*.
387.
Patients suffering from angina and receiving isosorbide mononitrate,
was appointed an additional drug with antiplatelet effect. Identify the drug:
A. Validolum
B. Nitroglycerine
C. Nifedipine
D. Aspirin*
E. Inderal.
388.
The child emerged bleeding from the nose. Which of the following
drugs can stop it?
A. Thrombin*
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Vicasolum (Menadione)
D. Potassium chloride
E. Ethamzylatum.
389.
Massive bleeding began in woman after separation of the placenta.
Which of the drug you need to help in this case?
A. Thrombin
B. Fibrinolysin
C. Aminocapronic acid*
D. Fepromaronum
E. Vicasolum (Menadion).
390.
Gastric bleeding appeared in the patient. Which of these drugs can
stop it?
A. Folic acid
B. Thrombin
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium oxalate
E. Fibrinogen*.
391.
Anticoagulant therapy with heparin was performed in patient with
myocardial infarction. What preparation should be used to continue
treatment after withdrawal of heparin to prevent recurrence of thrombosis?
A. Neodikumarinum*
B. Calcium chloride
C. Furosemide
D. Fibrinolysin
E. Sodium hydrocitrate.
82
392.
Analysis of the patient's blood showed an increased number of red
blood cells and hemoglobin that is characteristic of polycythemia. Which
of these drugs should be prescribed for a patient?
A. Kobamamid
B. Contrycal
C. Vitogepatum
D. Imiphosum*
E. Pentoxylum.
393.
To stop heavy uterine bleeding ergot alkaloid that increases
myometrium tone was selected. Which of listed agents is of this group?
A. Oxytocin
B. Ergometrine*
C. Neostigmin
D. Aminocapronic acid
E. Fenoterol.
394.
Direct acting anticoagulant was prescribed for patients prone to
thrombosis. Point out the drug:
A. Aminocaproic acid
B. Vicasolum (Menadione)
C. Neodikumarin
D. Sinkumar
E. Heparin*.
395.
Before tooth extraction a patient was advised to take a certain drug
for hemorrhage prevention. What drug was advised?
A. Heparin
B. Vicasolum (Menadione)*
C. Asparcam
D. Magnesium sulfate
E. Dimedrolum.
396.
A patient with essential hypertension was recommended a drug that
prevents thrombosis. This drug exerts antiplatelet and coronary dilating
effects. What drug is it?
A. Heparin
B. Dipiridamole*
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Neodicumarin
E. Syncumar.
397.
In acute thrombosis intravenous heparin rlieves the patient's
condition. Which of these mechanisms is responsible for effect of heparin?
83
A. Dissolution of fresh thrombus
B. Inhibition of the transformation of prothrombin to thrombin in the
blood*
C. Inhibition of the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver
D. Reduction of the number of calcium ions in the blood
E. Influence on the retraction of the clot.
398.
In the laboratory experimental studies in vitro and in vivo antagonist
of direct anticoagulant was selected for the clinical use. What could be the
preparation of these?
A. Protamine sulfate*
B. Sodium citrate
C. Contrycal
D. Menadione
E. Calcium chloride.
399.
Massive uterine bleeding in woman was stopped by introducing
aminocaproic acid. Which of listed mechanisms contributed to hemostatic
effect of this drug?
A. Inhibition of fibrinolysis*
B. Activation of fibrinolysis
C. Increased prothrombin in the blood
D. Increasing calcium in the blood
E. Increased synthesis of prothrombin in the liver.
400.
8 year-old child is preparing for tonsillectomy. Blood analysis
showed clotting time increased to 7 minutes. What medication should be
included in a complex of drugs for preparation period of 5 days before
surgery in the first place?
A. Etamsylate
B. Vicasolum*
C. Calcium chloride
D. Fibrinogen
E. Aminocapronic acid.
401.
For the prevention of myocardial infarction doctor prescribed
nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug with antiplatelet effect - aspirin.
Choose the dose and regimen at which the drug will exert antiplatelet
effect.
A. 0.1 three times a day
B. 0.25 three times a day
C. 1.0 three or four times a day
D. 0.5 three times a day
E. 0.1-0.2 once a day for a long time*.
84
402.
For the treatment of hypochromic anemia patient takes iron ferrous
sulfate. Specify one of the side effects of this drug.
A. The darkening of the teeth*
B. Dyspepsia
C. Allergy
D. Itching
E. Dizziness.
403.
Vicasolum (Menadione) has been prescribed for patient a week
before tonsillectomy to prevent bleeding. Specify the mechanism of action
of this drug.
A. Inhibits fibrinolysis
B. Activates fibrinolysis
C. Increases the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver*
D. Inhibits ACE
E. Causes vasoconstriction.
404.
Indirect acting anticoagulant warfarin was prescribed for patient to
prevent thrombosis. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?.
A. Inhibition of fibrinolysis
B. Activation of fibrinolysis
C. Decrease in the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver*
D. Inhibition of ACE
E. Inhibition of platelets aggregation.
405.
On discontinuation of heparin treatment of patient with myocardial
infarction administration of warfarin was started. This drug exerts its
anticoagulant effect by
A. Blocking calcium binding to clotting factors
B. Forming a complex with clotting factors
C. Breaking down thrombin
D. Inhibiting of pro-clotting factor synthesis in the liver*
E. Depolymerization of fibrin.
406.
A patient with myocardial infarction was treated with intravenous
infusion of heparin. What is the goal of this drug administration?
A. To cause the lysis of thrombus directly
B. To transform plasminogen into plasmin
C. To prevent further thrombosis*
D. To prevent platelets activation
E. To decrease the area of necrosis.
407.
A patient with a history of angina pectoris and high plasma
cholesterol level was prescribed phenofibrate. What is the mechanism of
action of this drug?
85
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Activation of lipoprotein lipase*
Inhibition of lipoprotein lipase
Inhibition of hydroxymethyl glutaryl coenzyme A
Inhibition of LDL oxidation
Bile acid sequestration.
408.
Patient suffering from pernicious anemia is treated with folic acid.
Which agent is to be added to make effective the treatment of this disease?
A. Retinoli acetas
B. Cyancobalamin*
C. Thiamine bromide
D. Retabolil
E. Insulin.
409.
A patient ill with essential hypertension was recommended a drug
that prevents thrombosis. It is to be taken parenterally. What drug is it?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Amben
C. Heparin*
D. Neodicumarin
E. Syncumar.
Drugs acting on myometrium. Antigout drugs.
410.
Choose the hormonal drug for enhancement of uterine contraction
during labor
A. Dinoprost (PGF2)
B. Oxytocin*
C. Ergometrine
D. Salbutamol
E. Partusisten
411.
To stop postpartum bleeding doctor prescribed ergot alkaloid
derivative. Point out this drug
A. Oxytocin
B. Methylergometrine*
C. Neostigmin
D. Dinoprostone (PGE2)
E. Qinine
412.
Pregnant woman developed rhythmic uterine contractions at the
physiological term of delivery. But contractions were not progressing in
86
force and frequency. Cervix of uterus was neither softening nor opening.
Chose the drug, which is the most beneficial in this case.
A. Oxytocin
B. Pituitrin
C. Ergometrine
D. Dinoprostone*
E. Partusisten
413.
A pregnant woman developed rhythmic uterine contractions at the
physiological term of delivery. But contractions were not progressing in
force and frequency. Choose the drug for stimulation of uterine contraction.
A. Oxytocin*
B. Ergometrine
C. Partusisten
D. Physostigmine
E. Castor oil.
414.
Intake of oral contraceptives containing sex hormones inhibits
secretion of the hypophysiae hormones. Secretion of which of the indicated
hormones is inhibited while taking oral contraceptives with sex hormones?
A. Somatotropic
B. Oxytocin
C. Vasopressin
D. Follicle-stimulating*
E. Thyrotropic.
Vitamins
415.
There is an inhibited coagulation in the patients with bile ducts
obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of absorbtion of a vitamin. What
vitamin is in deficiency?
A. Carotene
B. E
C. K*
D. A
E. D.
416.
A patient suffers from vision impairment - hemeralopy (night
blindness). What vitaminpreparation should be administered the patient in
order to restore his vision?
A. Thiamine chloride
B. Tocopherol acetate
C. Retinol acetate*
87
D. Vicasol
E. Pyridoxine.
417.
Patients after long-term complex treatment that included vitamin
drug began to complain of muscular weakness, loss of appetite, nausea, and
diarrhea. On examination tachycardia, hypertension, weakening of the
heart sounds were revealed. In the urine protein, red blood cells,
hypercalciuria were revealed, in the blood - increasing the concentration of
Ca and P was found. What phenomenon was observed in a patient?
A. Hypovitaminosis vit. C
B. Hypervitaminosis vit. A
C. Hypervitaminosis vit. D*
D. Hypovitaminosis vit. A
E. Hypervitaminosis vit. K.
418.
The retardation of fontanelle closure and teeth appearance were
observed in child. The increase in activity of alkaline phosphatase and
decrease in the concentration of citrate in the blood were found. This
violation is related to deficiency of vitamin:
A. Vitamin D*
B. Vitamin A
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K.
419.
The patient with myocardiodystrophy appointed vitamin preparation
with a potent antioxidant effect. Which of these drugs has such action?
A. Rutin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Menadione
D. Riboflavin
E. Tocopherol*.
420.
The patient has dementia, diarrhea and dermatitis. Which of the
following drugs should be included in complex treatment of this patient?
A. Nicotinamide*
B. Cobalamin
C. Calcium pantothenate
D. Riboflavin
E. Thiamine nitrophosphate.
421.
In order to accelerate healing of a radiation ulcer a vitamin drug was
administered. What drug was it?
A. Levamisole
B. Retabolil
C. Prednisolone
88
D. Retinol acetate*
E. Methyluracil .
Hormonal, enzymatic and antienzymatic drugs
422.
A person has reduced diuresis, hypernatremia, hypokalemia.
Hypersecretion of what hormone can cause such changes?
A. Parathormone
B. Aldosterone*
C. Adrenalin
D. Vasopressin
E. Auricular sodiumuretic factor.
423.
A patient with infectious mononucleosis had been taking
glucocorticoids for two weeks. He was brought into remission, but he fell
ill with acute attack of chronic tonsillitis. What action of glucocorticoids
caused this complication?
A. Antiallergic
B. Immunosuppressive*
C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Antishock
E. Antitoxic.
424.
A patient had been taking glucocorticoids for a long time. When the
preparation was withdrawn he developed the symptoms of disease
aggravation, decreased blood pressure and weakness. What is the reason of
this condition?
A. Appearance of adrenal insufficiency*
B. Hyperproduction of ACTH
C. Cumulation
D. Sensibilization
E. Habituation.
425.
Examination of a 60 y.o. patient revealed hyperglycemia and
glucosuria. A doctor administered him a medication for internal use. What
medication is it?
A. Oxytocin
B. Corglycon
C. Furosemide
D. Pancreatine
E. Glibenclamid*.
89
426.
A patient ill with collagenosis has been taking prednisolone for a long
time. Hypokaliemia development caused spastic pain of skeletal muscles.
What medication should be used in order to correct potassium exchange?
A. Dithylinum
B. Panangin*
C. Thyrocalcitonin
D. Diazepam
E. Noshpa.
427.
In course of histidine catabolism a biogenic amin is formed that has
powerful vasodilatating effect. Name it:
A. Histamine*
B. Dopamine
C. Dioxyphenylalanine
D. Noradrenalin
E. Serotonin.
428.
Continious taking of a drug can result in osteoporosis. erosion of
stomach mucous membrane, hypokaliemia, retention of sodium and water,
reduced content of corticotrophin in blood. Name this drug:
A. Digoxin
B. Indometacin
C. Reserpine
D. Prednisolone*
E. Hydrochlorothiazide.
429.
Examination of a 70 year old patient revealed non insulin-dependent
diabetes. What drug should be administered?
A. Glibenclamid*
B. Parathyroidin
C. Insulin
D. Mercazolilum
E. Cortisone.
430.
Examination of a 60 year old patient revealed hyperglycemia and
glucosuria. A doctor administered him a medication forinternal use. What
medication is it?
A. Pancreatine
B. Furosemide
C. Oxytocin
D. Glibenclamid*
E. Corglycon.
431.
Doctor prescribed preparation of posterior pituitary for the woman
with the uterine inertia. Choose the preparation:
90
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dihydroergotamine
Vasopressin
Oxytocin*
Adrenocorticotropin
Dinoprost.
432.
The levorotatory isomer of thyroid hormone was assigned to the
patient with diagnosed myxedema. What drug was assigned?
A. Levodopa
B. L-thyroxine*
C. L-asparaginase
D. L-carnitine
E. Parathyroid hormone.
433.
Doctor prescribed the inhalation of drug with proteolytic action to
improve sputum discharge. Mark drug that has proteolytic effect.
A. Trypsin*
B. Lidaza
C. Pepsin
D. Streptokinase
E. Festal.
434.
Choose the drug that is a hormone produced by alpha-cells of
Langerhan’s islets of the pancreas.
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon*
C. Somatostatin
D. Natriuretic hormone
E. Testosterone.
435.
The patient complained of a acute girdle pain in area of pancreas
projection. Which of the following drugs should be selected to provide
emergency aid to him?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Contrykal (Aprotinin)*
C. Platyphylline hydrotartrate
D. Pancreatin
E. Bendazol.
436.
The patient with severe chest pain was admitted to the infarction
department. On the ECG extensive myocardial infarction caused by
thrombosis of the left coronary artery was revealed, and therefore the
administration of thrombolytic agent was started immediately. What the
drug was used in the treatment of this patient?
A. Collagenase
91
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hyaluronidase
Trypsin
Streptokinase*
Ribonuclease.
437.
The patient was diagnosed a myocardial infarction with thrombosis
of the left coronary artery. Which group of drugs is used to restore blood
flow?
A. Nonopioid аnalgesics
B. Fibrinolysis activators*
C. Beta-blockers
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Glucocorticoids.
438.
Doctor prescribed enzymatic preparation to the patient with
hypoacidic gastritis. Which of these preparations will improve digestion in
the stomach?
A. Pepsin*
B. Pancreatin
C. Trypsin
D. Medaza
E. Contrykal (Aprotinin).
439.
Replacement hormonal treatment was assigned for patient with
hypothyrosis. Which drug should be selected for treatment?
A. Merkazolil (Thiamazole)
B. Parathyreoidinum (Parathyreocrinum)
C. Dihydrotachysterol
D. Potassium perchlorate (Kalii perchloridi)
E. Thyroidin*.
440.
Patients aged 73 years has slovly healing fracture of the femoral
neck. What of hormones with anabolic effect can be assigned to him?
A. Parathyreoidin (Parathormon, Parathyreocrinum)
B. Prednisolone
C. Insulin
D. Retabolil (nandrolone)*
E. Thyroxine.
441.
Blood pressure and blood glucose level were increased in female
patients with low blood pressure after parenteral administration of the
hormone. Which hormone was injected?
A. Folliculin (Estrone)
B. Adrenaline*
C. Glucagon
92
D. Progesterone
E. Insulin.
442.
Hemostatic therapy that was assigned to a patient with a bleeding
gastric ulcer did not give desirable effect. The activation of the fibrinolytic
system was found in the patien’t blood. The administration of what drug is
beneficial in this case?
A. Aminocaproic acid*
B. Contrykal (Aprotinin)
C. Medical gelatin
D. Captopril
E. Fibrinogen.
443.
To remove necrotic tissue of wound the surgeon made a wound
dressing with chymotrypsin. Explain the mechanism of drug action.
A. Inhibits protease
B. Depolymerization of nucleic acids
C. Depolymerization of hyaluronic acid
D. Breaks peptide bonds in proteins
E. Breaks bonds formed by aromatic residues and / acids*.
444.
A woman addressed the pediatrician concerning illness of the 8
months child manifested by sweating, increased size of the crown, retarded
dentition (only 2 of the tooth), and anxiety. What medication should be
assigned at the first place?
A. Calcium pangamas
B. Folic acid
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Thiamin
E. Ergocalciferol*.
445.
The woman had several spontaneous miscarriages. The lack of which
vitamin can cause this?
A. Thiamine bromide
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E*
E. Ascorbic acid.
446.
The patient complains of increased vascular fragility (touch to the
skin are bruises), bleeding from the gums. Appointment of ascorbic acid
reduced these symptoms. Specify the mechanism of action of the drug on
vascular permeability.
A. Stimulates the synthesis of corticosteroids
B. Stabilizes the cell membrane
93
C. Improves oxidation-inflammatory processes
D. Increases collagen production*
E. Stimulates the conversion of folic acid to folinic.
447.
The patient developed a hypersensitivity to common cold after longterm use of one of the therapeutic agents. Which of these drugs could
reduce immunity?
A. Sustak forte (Nitroglycerin)
B. Prednisone*
C. Reserpine
D. Tincture Ginsengi
E. Clonidine.
448.
16 years old young man was suffering from diabetes mellitus for 10
years. He heard about the replacement of insulin by glibenclamide tablets.
However, the doctor refused to change insulin for glibenclamide tablets.
Why glibenclamide is not assigned in this case?
A. Rapidly degraded in the liver.
B. Deplete the function of beta cells of the pancreas.*
C. Causes hyperproduction of hydrocortisone.
D. Increased allocation of adrenaline.
E. Stimulates the alpha cells of the pancreas..
449.
Dermatologist for topical treatment of eczema selected ointment
containing fluorinated glucocorticoid, which provides a more expressed
antiinflammatory effect. Which of the following dermatological ointments
was applied?
A. Hydrocortisone ointment
B. Prednizolone ointment
C. Ointment "Sinaflan"*
D. Diclophenac ointment
E. Heparin ointment .
450.
Patient was on glucocorticoids for a long time, discontinuation of
usage caused exacerbation of the illness, decreased BP, weakness. How can
you explain it?
A. Insufficiency of adrenal glands*
B. Adaptation to the medicine
C. Sensitization
D. Hyperproduction of ACTH
E. Cumulation.
451.
Testosterone and it's analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles
that allows to use them for treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the
hormone with what cell substance is this action caused?
94
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Proteins- activators of transcription
Membrane receptors
Ribosomes
Chromatin
Nuclear receptors*.
452.
A patient ill with neurodermatitis has been taking prednisolone for a
long time. Examination revealed high level of sugar in his blood. This
complication is caused by the drug influence
A. Glycogenogenesis activation
B. Gluconeogenesis activation*
C. Intensification of glucose absorption in the bowels
D. Activation of insulin decomposition
E. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis.
453.
Continious taking of a drug can result in osteoporosis, erosion of
stomach mucous membrane, hypokaliemia, retention of sodium and water,
reduced content of corticotropin in blood. Name this drug:
A. Digoxin
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Prednisolone*
D. Indometacin
E. Reserpine .
454.
A patient suffers from diabetes melitus. After the regular insulin
injection his condition grew worse: there appeared anxiety, cold sweat,
tremor of limbs, general weakness, dizziness. What preparation can
eliminate these symptoms?
A. Adrenaline hydrochloride*
B. Butamide
C. Caffeine
D. Noradrenaline
E. Glibutide .
455.
Examination of a 60 y.o. patient revealed hyperglycemia and
glucosuri A doctor administered him a medication for internal use. What
medication is it?
A. Corglycon
B. Furosemide
C. Oxytocin
D. Pancreatine
E. Glibenclamid*.
456.
An elderly female patient suffers from the type 2 diabetes mellitus
accompanied by obesity,
95
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Insulin
Glibenclamid*
Retabolil
Lovastatin
Amlodipine .
Anti-inflammatory and antiallergic drugs. Immunomodulators
457.
A patient with continious bronchopneumonia was admitted to the
therapeutic department. Antibiotic therapy didn't give much effect. What
medication for improvement of immune state should be added to the
complex treatment of this patient?
A. Timaline*
B. Analgin
C. Sulfocamphocaine
D. Paracetamol
E. Benadryl.
458.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who had been treated with
indometacin has got signs of gastropathy. What activity of the drug can this
complication be connected with?
A. Anticyclooxygenase*
B. Antiserotonin
C. Antihistamine
D. Locally irritating
E. Antikinine.
459.
A 45-year-old woman suffers from seasonal allergic rhinitis caused
by the ambrosia blossoming. What medicine from the stabilizer of the
adipose cells group can be used for prevention of this disease?
A. Diazoline
B. Tavegyl
C. Phencarol
D. Dimedrol
E. Kromolin sodium*.
460.
A doctor administered a patient with allergic dermatitis a H1 histamine blocker as a part of complex treatment. Name this medication:
A. Prednisolone
B. Loratadine*
C. Cromolyn sodium
D. Hydrocortisone
E. Adrenaline.
96
461.
A 12 year old child has intolerance to some foodstuffs. Their
consumption causes an allergic reaction in form of itching skin eruptions.
What antihistaminic drug should be admistered so that the child could
attend school?
A. Loratadine*
B. Dimedrol
C. Ephedrine
D. Aminophylline
E. Diclofenac.
462.
Signs of gastropathy occurred in the patient with rheumatoid arthritis
who was treated with indometacin. With what activity of the drug can this
complication be connected?
A. Antikinine
B. Antiserotonin
C. Antihistamine
D. Anticyclooxygenase*
E. Local irritating.
463.
A female patient consulted a doctor about pain and limited
movements in the knee joints. Which of the following nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs should be administered taking into consideration that
the patient has a history of chronic gastroduodenitis?
A. Celecoxib*
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Promedol
D. Acetylsalicilic acid
E. Butadiounum .
464.
The patient suffering from arthritis was treated with prednisolone for
long period. Doctor decided to discontinue prednisolone administration and
change it for another drug. What is the right way of this drug
discontinuation?
A. It must be preceded by corticotropin administration*
B. It must be done in a vary short time
C. It must be preceded by administration of ADH
D. It must be performed on the background of mineralocortcoid
administration
E. It must be preceded by growth hormone administration.
465.
A 45-year-old woman suffers from allergic seasonal coryza caused
by the ambrosia blossoming. What medicine from the stabilizer of the mast
cells group can be used for prevention of this disease?
A. Tavegyl
97
B.
C.
D.
E.
Diazoline
Phencarol
Ketotifen*
Dimedrolum.
466.
Patient was on glucocorticoids for a long time, discontinuation of
usage caused exacerbation of the illness, decreased BP, weakness. How can
you explain it?
A. Sensitization
B. Adaptation to the medicine
C. Hyperproduction of ACTH
D. Insufficiency of adrenal glands*
E. Cumulation.
467.
Patient suffering from rheumatoid arthritis was treated with potent
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. The treatment was complicated by
gastric bleeding. What drug was used?
A. Paracetamol
B. Indomethacin*
C. Analgin
D. Prednisolone
E. Dexametasone.
468.
In complex treatment of patient with bronchial asthma cromolynsodium was included as antiallergic agent. What is the mechanism of this
drug action?
A. Inhibition of histaminic H1 receptors
B. Inhibition of histaminic H2 receptors
C. Prevention of mast cell degranulation*
D. Inhibition of antigen-antibody interaction
E. Blockade of D2 receptors.
469.
A patient who had myocardial infarction was administrated 75 mg of
acetylsalicylic acid a day. What is the purpose of this administration?
A. Coronary vessels dilatation
B. Temperature reduction
C. Inflammation reduction
D. Pain relief
E. Redaction of thrombocyte aggregation*.
470.
Continuous use of certain drug may cause osteoporosis, erosion of
gastric mucosa, hypokalemia, retention of sodium and water in the
organism, decreased concentration of corticotropin in blood. What drug is
it?
A. Reserpine
98
B.
C.
D.
E.
Digoxine
Hypothiazide
Prednisolone*
Indomethacin.
471.
A 33 –year-old female patient, who long treated for chronic
polyarthritis, complains of high blood pressure, changes in distribution of
body fat, menstrual disorders. Admission of which drug is related to these
complaints?
A. Prednisolone*
B. Beclomethasone
C. Phenylbutazone
D. Sinaflan
E. Indomethacin.
472.
Prolonged use of steroid and non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs in
patients with rheumatoid arthritis has not given effect. The doctor changed
non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs for the preparation of gold. Find this
preparation among the listed drugs.
A. Krizanol*
B. Hingamin
C. Prednisolone
D. Plaquenil
E. D-penicillamine.
473.
What pharmacological property of dimedrolum (diphenhydramine)
is used in the hives treatment?
A. Interference with formation of the antigen-antibody complex
B. Elimination of histamine action on the cell*
C. Sedative effect on the central nervous system
D. Violation of antibody synthesis
E. Inhibition of biologically active substances release by mast cell.
474.
The patient who received steroid anti-inflammatory drugs had a
complication in the form of hypokalemia. Which of these drugs should be
used for correction of potassium level?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Panangin*
D. Calcium lactate
E. Calcium chloride.
475.
Immune stimulant of animal origin was included in the complex
treatment of patients with severe bronchopneumonia. Which of these drugs
belong to this group of drugs?
99
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Timalin*
Pirogenal
Prodigiozan
Levamisole
Sodium nucleinat.
476.
Patient has got severe trauma in car accident due to this kidney
transplant was performed in emergency procedure. Which of the following
drugs should be included in the post-operative therapy for successful
engraftment of the transplanted organ?
A. Pirogenal
B. Levamisole
C. Timalin
D. Prodigiozan
E. Azathioprine*.
477.
Anaphylactic shock developed in patient after administration of
lidocaine. Which of the following medications must choose a doctor to
bring the patient out of shock?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Corticotropin
C. Azathioprine
D. Adrenaline*
E. Aminopyrine.
478.
A patient suffering from rheumatism was treated with prednisolone
for two months. After the abrupt discontinuation of the drug administration
patient’s blood pressure dropped dramatically, there was a severe
weakness, tachycardia, reappeared joint pain. Which condition was
developed in patient due to prednisolone discontinuation?
A. Orthostatic collapse
B. Withdrawal*
C. Allergic reaction
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Hyperglycemic coma.
479.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis was on non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug - diclofenac sodium. After some time worsening of
associated disease occurred in the patient that required withdrawal of
medication. What disease was associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Gastric ulcer*
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Hypertention.
100
480.
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis was on diclofenac sodium. After
blood test the doctor canceled the drug administration. What the
abnormality in blood test was the base for diclofenac sodium
discontinuation?
A. Enhancement of hemocoagulation
B. Eosinophilia
C. Leukopenia
D. Leukocytosis
E. Decrease in blood coagulation*.
481.
The 12-year-old child has intolerance of some food stuffs. Their use
causes an allergic reaction in the form of itchy skin rash. What
antihistamines should be appointed, not to interfere with school activities
of the child (not cause drowsiness)?
A. Loratadine*
B. Mezaton
C. Diclofenac sodium
D. Aminophylline
E. Diphenhydramine.
482.
To prevent transplant rejection after organ transplantation
immunosuppressive hormone therapy is compulsory. What group of
hormones is used for this purpose?
A. Catecholamines
B. Thyroid
C. Glucocorticoids*
D. Mineralocorticoids
E. Sex hormones.
483.
Student addressed the doctor to appoint a drug for the treatment of
allergic rhinitis occurred in lime blossoming. Which drug can be used?
A. Loratadine*
B. Losartan
C. Noradrenaline gidrotartrat
D. Inderal
E. Ambroxol.
484.
In the complex therapy of patient with allergic dermatitis doctor
prescribed H1-histamine blockers. Point out the drug.
A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisolone
C. Cromolyn sodium
D. Loratadine*
E. Adrenaline.
101
Antiseptics and disinfectants
485.
For the preparation of a patient`s burn skin surface a certain medication
was used. Its antiseptic action is provided by free oxygen that segregates in
presence of organic substances. Choose the right answer:
A.
Potassium permanganate*
B.
Chlorhexidine
C.
Sodium bicarbonate
D.
Boric acid
E.
Furacilin.
486.
Patient suffering from tonsillitis was recommended to gargle throat with
preparation of nitrofurans. What drug was recommended?
A. A solution of hydrogen peroxide,
B. Solution of furacilinum,*
C. Solution of silver nitrate,
D. Chlorhexidine
E. Alcoholic solution of iodine.
487.
Burned skin surface was treated with antimicrobial preparation. Its
antiseptic properties are provided by atomic oxygen that is formed in presence
of organic substances. What preparation was applied?
A. Potassium permanganate*
B. Furacillin
C. Chlorhexidine bigluconate
D. Alcoholic iodine solution
E. Boric acid .
488.
Patient with abscess of the cut wound applied to the traumatological
department. Doctor for the cleaning of the wound from the pus washed it with
3% hydrogen peroxide. Foam was absence. What is the cause of absence of the
drug activity?
A. Pus in the wound
B. Low concentration of H2O2
C. Inherited insufficiency phosphatdehydrogenase of erythrocyte
D. Shallow wound
E. Inherited insufficiency of catalase*.
489.
A group of students were traveling by countryside collecting medicinal
plants. It was a hot day and the students spent the entire drinking water. The
team leader offered the water of the pond, using the chlorine containing tablet
for its disinfection. Point the drug.
A. Chloramine-B
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Halozan*
D. Brilliant Green
E. Furacilinum.
490.
A nurse washed the patient’s contaminated wound with 3% hydrogen
peroxide solution that causes formation a lot of foam. What is the mechanism of
antiseptic effect of this drug?
A. The formation of molecular oxygen*
B. The formation of atomic form of oxygen
C. The interaction of hydrogen peroxide with fibrinolysine
D. Aggressive action of hydrogen peroxide on tissues
E. Formation of albuminates.
491.
Patient with burns was treated by application of antiseptic containing
halogen and polyvinyl pirrolidon. Point out this preparation.
A. Iodovidon*
B. Halozan
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Chloramine
E. Pantocide.
492.
The patient was admitted to the infectious disease clinic with complaints
of vomiting, diarrhea, fever, after errors in diet. What antiseptic should be used
for gastric lavage (washing out)?
A. Ethanol
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Methylene blue
D. Activated char coal
E. Potassium permanganate*.
493.
A patient has purulent wound with necrotic content. What medication
should be used to cleanse the wound?
A. Hydrogen peroxide*
B. Furacilinum (Nitrofurazone)
C. Sulfacyl sodium
D. Alcohol solution of iodine
E. Aetacridini lactas.
494.
In the patient with syphilis treated by, bismuth preparations gray patches
on the mucous membrane of the mouth and symptoms of kidney disturbances
appeared. Which agent is advisable for the treatment of bismuth poisoning?
A. Naloxone
B. Unitiol*
C. Methylene blue
D. Nalorphine
103
E. Bemegride.
495.
Dentist handled herpetic lesions of 7 years old child with halogen
antiseptic that has antimicrobial, antifungal and antiviral properties. Name the
drug.
A. Alcohol solution of iodine*
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Formaldehyde
D. Silver nitrate
E. Brilliant Green.
496.
The patient with gingivitis after using applications was assigned to rinse
oral cavity with antiseptic agent realizing its effect by atomic oxygen drug exerts
deodorant and astringent effects. Identify the drug.
A. Ethanol
B. Chlorhexidine bigluconate
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Potassium permanganate*
F. Hydrogen peroxide.
497.
To prepare the operative field surgeon used a solution of iodine in alcohol.
What is the chemical group of this antiseptic preparation?
A. Heavy metals
B. Halogen-containing compounds*
C. Alcohols
D. Detergents
E. Aliphatic substance.
498.
For disinfecting of metallic instruments in the surgical department the
formaldehyde solution is used. What is the chemical group of this antiseptic
preparation?
A. Halogenated compounds
B. Aromatic substance
C. Detergents
D. Aliphatic agent*
E. Alcohols.
499.
After extirpation of the tooth in the patient bleeding from the hole
emerged. What drug from the group of antiseptics should be used in this case?
A. A solution of hydrogen peroxide*
B. Solution of epinephrine hydrochloride
C. Solution of brilliant green
D. Iodinol
104
E. A solution of ethyl alcohol.
500.
Nitrofurane antiseptic was prescribed for mouth wash to patient with
stomatitis. Point out this agent
A. Hexamethylen tetraminum
B. Aethonium
C. Furacilinum*
D. Boric acid
E. Aethacridini lactates.
501.
Teenager addressed dermatologist complaining of acne. Doctor prescribed
him an antiseptic agent that gradually releases oxygen and is traditionally used
locally for treatment of acne. Point out prescribed drug.
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Benzoyl peroxide*
D. Boric acid
E. Methylenum coeruleum.
502.
To prevent pyodermia in 4-year-old girl with chickenpox mother was
recommended to apply a preparation of a group of dyes. Point out this
preparation.
A. Chlorhexidine
B. Alcoholic solution of iodine
C. Furacilinum
D. Alcoholic solution of of Brilliant Green*
E. Chloramine.
503.
Before the operation surgeon used degmicidum for disinfecting his hands.
Point the group of this antimicrobial agent
A. Group of detergent*
B. Group of dyes
C. Halogen containing antiseptic
D. Oxidizing agent
E. Group of nitrofuranes .
504.
Doctor prescribed oral rinse for patient with stomatitis. Which antiseptic
of oxidazinggroup is most suitable for this?
A. Boric acid
B. Potassium permanganate*
C. Alcoholic solution of iodine
D. Chloramine
E. Ethanol.
105
505.
Gastric lavage with a solution of potassium permanganate was performed
in patient due to food poisoning. Which group of antiseptics does this drug
belong to?
A. Aromatic substances
B. Halogens
C. Acid
D. Oxidizing agents*
E. Detergents.
506.
Solution of carbolic acid was used for disinfecting of instruments. To
which group does this antiseptic belong?
A. Oxidizing agents
B. Phenols*
C. Halogens
D. Acid
E. Detergents.
507.
For disinfecting of hand before operation surgeon used chlorine
containing antiseptic, that also widely used in dentistry. Point out this agent.
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Boric acid
C. Alcoholic solution of iodine
D. Chlorhexidine*
E. Ethanol.
508.
Surgeon was urgently summoned to the operating room. Choose the
antiseptic used for surgeon hands in emergency.
A. Boric acid
B. Ethyl alcohol 96%*
C. Ethacridine lactate
D. Hydrogen peroxide
E. Ethyl alcohol 70%.
Synthetic antimicrobial drugs. Fluoroquinolones. Sulfonamides.
509.
A 7 vear old child is ill with bronchitis. It is necessary to administer him
an antibacterial drug. What drug of fluoroquinolone group is CONTRAINDICATED at this age?
A. Cyprofloxacin*
B. Sulfadimethoxine
C. Ampiox
D. Ampicillin
106
E. Amoxicillin.
510.
Patient with pneumonia has intolerance to antibiotics. Which of the
combined sulfanilamide medicines should be prescribed to the patient?
A. Sulfacyl sodium
B. Aethazol
C. Biseptol*
D. Streptocid
E. Sulfadimethoxine.
511.
A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his
gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative
agent is an anaerobe?
A. Co-trimoxazole
B. Gentamicin
C. Oxacillin sodium
D. Metronidazole*
E. Nitroxoline .
512.
A patient with pneumonia had a complex treatment that included
sulfonamide preparation. What should doctor recommend to prevent cristaluria?
A. Decrease the dose of sulfonamide
B. Drinking of alkaline solution*
C. Administration of drugs before meal
D. Drinking of acidic solution
E. Use of vitamins.
513.
Gonorrhoea was revealed in the patient on bacterioscopy of the smear
from urethra. Taking into account that medicines for gonorrhea are
fluorquinolones, patient should be prescribed:
A. Ciprofloxacin*
B. Furazolidone
C. Fluorouracil
D. Urosulfan
E. Cefazoline.
514.
Patient with pneumonia has intolerance to antibiotics. Which of the
combined sulfanilamide medicine should be prescribed to the patient?
A. Trimethoprim
B. Aethazol
C. Natrium sulfacyl
D. Streptocid
E. Biseptol*.
107
515.
A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and
diarrhea for 5 days body temperature rise up to 37,5o C along with chills. The
day before patient had been in forest and drunk from open water reservoir.
Laboratory analysis enabled to make the diagnosis of amebic dysentery. What is
the drug of choice for its treatment?
A. Phthalazol
B. Furazolidonum
C. Emetine hydrochloride
D. Metronidazole*
E. Levomycetin.
516.
What is the mechanism of antimicrobial effect of sulfonamide?
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C. Competitive antagonism with para-aminobensoic acid*
D. Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis
E. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
517.
Combined sulfonamide preparation with bactericidal effect was
prescribed for treatment of sore throat in 13 years old child. Point out this drug.
A. Biseptol*
B. Eneroceptol
C. Sulfalen
D. Aethasolum
E. Urosulfanum.
518.
A HIV patient has bacterial dysentery. On the result of antimicrobial
sensitivity test doctor prescribed him cotrimoxazol (bactrim,biseptol). What type
of antibacterial action has this drug?
A. Virostatic
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Fungicidal
D. Fungistatic
E. Bactericidal*.
519.
A Bactrim was prescribed for 35-years old patient with bronchitis. What
is the mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Sequential block of two stages of bacterial folate metabolism*
B. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis
E. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
108
520.
For treatment of typhoid fever ciprofloxacin was prescribed. What is
mechanism of this drug action?
A. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of DNA gyrase*
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Competitive antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid
E. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.
521.
Due to which side effect ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in children?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Glucosuria
C. Cartilage damage*
D. Nausea
E. Insomnia.
522.
A doctor prescribed sulfonamide drug to patient with acute bronchitis.
After urinalyses he changed it for antibiotic of penicillin group. The possibility
of which side effect of sulfonamide was the base for changing it by other drug?
A. Mental confusion
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Allergic reaction
D. Crystalurea*
E. Glucosurea .
523.
Urinalyses revealed crystaluria in patient who used synthetic
antimicrobial drug for treatment of bronchitis. Which group of antimicrobial
drug can cause such side effect?
A. Sulfonamides*
B. Fluorochinolons
C. Tetracyclines
D. Penicillins
E. Macrolydes.
524.
Sulfonamides are the drugs of broad antimicrobial spectrum that includes
some protozoa. For complex treatment of which protozoal infection is it used?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Malaria*
C. Amebiasis
D. Otitis
E. Bronchitis.
525.
Why procaine is not compatible with sulfonamides?
A. It binds with sulfonamide
B. It forms paraaminobenzoic acid when metabolized.*
109
C. It inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
D. It interferes with sulfonamide absorption
E. It interfere with sulfonamide distribution.
526.
Synthetic antimicrobial drug of quinolones with moderate activity against
mycobacteria tuberculosis was recently included in second-line antitubercular
drugs. Point this drug.
A. Furozalidone
B. Sulfadimetoxine
C. Biseptol
D. Isoniazid
E. Ciprofloxacin*.
Antibiotics I
527.
A 60-year-old patient was admitted to the surgical department because of
infection caused by blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) which is
sensitive to penicillin antibiotics. Indicate which of the given penicillins has
marked activity to the Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Methicillin
B. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
C. Carbenicillin disodium*
D. Oxacillin
E. Benzylpeniciilin.
528.
A 50-year-old patient with typhoid fever was treated with Levomycetin,
next day his condition became worse, temperature rose to 39,6°C. What caused
the complication?
A. The effect of endotoxin agent*
B. Reinfection
C. Secondary infection addition
D. Irresponsiveness of an agent to the levomycetin
E. Allergic reaction.
529.
A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection.
What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephazolin
D. Benzylpenicillin
E. Amicacin sulfate*.
110
530.
Car driver has got into accident and was admited to emergancy
department. Surgical invasion in abdominal cavity was successfuly performed,
but postoperative period was complicated by peritonitis. Bacterial analysis
revealed Pseudomonas aeruginosa. For treatment of patient you may propose
any antibiotic leasted below with axception
A. Azlocillin
B. Genamycine
C. Cefotaxim
D. Imipenem (Tienam)
E. Tetracycline*.
531.
A 6-year boy was admitted to hospital with pneumonia. Treatment with
amoxycycline was not effective. Bacterial analysis revealed Micoplasma
pneumoniae. Choose the most suitable drug for treatment of this child.
A. Tetracycline
B. Azithromycine*
C. Bicillin 5
D. Nystatin
E. Oxacillin.
532.
A 20 years old man with gonorrhea was treated with penicillin G in
combination with probenecid. His state was improved, but 1 week later the
patient was still complaining of a persistent urethral discharge and pain on
urination. Laboratory test reveals chlamidia in discharge. Which of the listed
drugs effective both in gonorrhea and chlamidial infection must be used for
further treatment
A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline*
C. Oxacillincin
D. Gentamycin
E. Streptomycin.
533.
Patient with tuberculosis was on the complex treatment including
antibiotics.
At the end of first course doctor noticed significant decrease in
patient hearing. Which of the following drugs can cause such side effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin*
D. Paraaminosalicylic acid
E. Pirazinamide .
534.
Patient, with severe pneumonia was treated with the III generation
cephalosporin. Doctor warned him about the danger of alcohol usage while
treatment. What the drug was used for treatment of patient?
111
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Carbenicilin
Cefotaxim*
Cefalexin
Gentamycin
Doxycycline.
535.
Patient was admitted to the infection unit with diagnosis of bacterial
dysentery. On laboratory studies it was revealed that causative element is
sensitive to the many antimicrobial medicines, but patient has anemia. What
medicine is contra-indicated to the patient?
A. Levomycetin*
B. Phthalazol
C. Enteroseptol
D. Furazolidone
E. Ampicillin.
536.
Patient with pneumonia, prone to use alcohol, was treated with antibiotic
of wide spectrum. On the third day of treatment after alcohol usage severe
antabus-like reaction occurs. What was the group of antibiotic used for treatment
of patient?
A. Biosynthetic penicillin
B. Aminoglycoside
C. 3rd generation cephalosporin*
D. Penicilinse resistant penicillin
E. Tetracycline.
537.
Patient condition after long term atimicrobial treatment was complicated
by pseudomembranous enterocolitis. For it treatment vancomycin was
prescribed. What is the mechanism of its antimicrobial effect?
A. Disturbances of structure and function of cell membrane
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis*
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
E. Inhibition of folic acid metabolism.
538.
Patient was admitted to the infection unit with diagnosis of bacterial
dysentery. On laboratory studies it was revealed that causative element is
sensitive to the many antimicrobial medicines, but patient has anemia. What
antibiotic can be recommended for this patient?
A. Levomycetin
B. Amoxicillin*
C. Erythromycin
D. Cotrimoxazol
E. Oxacillin.
112
539.
A 5-year-old child has been diagnosed with acute right distal pneumonia.
Sputum inoculation revealed that the causative agent is resistant to penicillin,
but it is senstive to macrolides. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Azithromycin*
B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamycin
D. Streptomycin
E. Ampicillin .
540.
A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered
her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the
mechanism of action of this drug?
A. It blocks RNA synthesis
B. It blocks synthesis of cytoplasm proteins
C. It blocks thiol enzymes
D. It blocks synthesis of peptidoglycan of microbal wall*
E. It blocks DNA synthesis .
541.
A patient underwent appendectomy. In the postoperative period he has
been taking an antibiotic. The patient complains about hearing impairment and
vestibular disorders. What group of antibiotics has such side-effects?
A. Cephalosporins
B. Penicillins
C. Tetracyclines
D. Macrolides
E. Aminoglycosides*.
542.
A patient with bacterial pneumonia was prescribed benzylpenicillin. What
is the mechanism of its antibacterial effect?
A. Abnormal permeability of cytoplasmic membrane
B. Inhibition of intracellular protein synthesis
C. Inhibition of synthesis of microbial cell wall*
D. Inhibition of SH-groups of microorganism enzymes
E. Antagonism with p-amino-benzoic acid .
543.
A patient with gastric peptic ulcer was on complex treatment that includes
antibiotic of macrolide group. Point out this antibiotic.
A. Clarithromycin*
B. Tetracycline
C. Gentamycin
D. Streptomycin
E. Ampicillin .
113
544.
Antibiotic used for the treatment of typhoid fever is:
A. Oxacillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Benzylpenicillin
E. Levomicetin*.
545.
Patient has primary syphilis. What is the most effective antibiotic in this
case?
A. Penicillin*
B. Nystatin
C. Amphotericin
D. Streptomycin
E. Kanamycin.
546.
Why tetracycline is not recommended in pregnant women?
A. Due to ototoxicity
B. Due to the depressing effect on the respiration of the fruit
C. Due to the ability of the drug to increase uterine tone
D. Due to the teratogenic effect of the drug*
E. Due to the ability to cause anemia in pregnant.
547.
In the patient, who has long used tetracycline, there was mucosal
candidiasis. What medication should be appointed to treat it?
A. Nystatin*
B. Nizoral
C. Griseofulvin
D. Furadonin
E. Nitrofungin.
548.
Mother of 2 years old child addressed dentist with tooth abnormality in
her child. On child examination the destruction of the incisors, yellow enamel,
the brown rim on the necks of the teeth ware revealed. Mother informed doctor
that she had infection and used antibiotics. Which of the drugs has a strong
teratogenic effect, disrupting the development of teeth?
A. Polymyxin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline*
D. Cefrenol
E. Ampiox.
549.
The patient of 42 years old for the treatment of bacterial pneumonia was
appointed ampicillin. Specify the mechanism of bactericidal action of the drug
A. Inhibition of intracellular protein synthesis
114
B.
C.
D.
E.
Inhibition of the synthesis of the cell wall of the microorganism*
Violation of the permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Inhibition of SH - groups of enzymes of microorganisms
Antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid.
550.
Infectious patient is sensitized to benzylpenicillin. Which of the following
antibiotics would be the safest in this case?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Erythromycin*
D. Oxacillin
E. Bicillin 1.
551.
A 6 year child was admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of candidiasis
caused by Candida albicans, the mucous membrane of cheeks, palate and tongue
was cowered by fur of white and yellow color. Which of the drugs can be used
to treat the child?
A. Gentamicin
B. Ketoconazole*
C. Tetracycline
D. Cefran
E. Penicillin.
552.
A patient with impaired hearing has severe bacillary infection. Which
group of antibiotics is contraindicated in this case?
A. Aminoglycosides*
B. Penicillins
C. Cephalosporins
D. Tetracyclines
E. Rifamycins.
553.
A patient diagnosed with purulent pleurisy caused by penicillin resistant
staphylococcus. What preparation of penicillin resistant to beta-lactamase may
be used for the treatment of this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
D. Augmentin*
E. Carbenicillin.
554.
Use of which broad-spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated in liver disease?
A. Polymyxin
B. Lincomycin
C. Tetracycline*
115
D. Oxacillin
E. Penicillin G.
555.
Patient with staphylococcal sepsis was treated with benzylpenicillin.
Therapy was ineffective. What preparation of penicillin group should be
prescribed for the patient to continue treatment?
A. Oxacillin*
B. Polymyxin
C. Erythromycin
D. Phtalazol
E. Aztreonam.
556.
Child of 5 years with a staphylococcus infection was assigned penicillin
antibiotic without testing pathogen susceptibility to drugs of this group. Which
drug of penicillin group is resistant to beta-lactamase and effectively influences
on the penicillin-resistant staphylococci?
A. Carbenicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Bicillin-5
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Oxacillin*.
Antituberculous drugs, antiviral, antispirochetous
agents
drugs. Antimycotic
557.
A 35-year-old man under the treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis has
acute-onset of right big toe pain, swelling, and low-grade fever. The gouty
arthritis was diagnosed and high serum uric acid level was found. Which of the
following antituberculosis drugs are known for causing high uric acid levels?
A. Rifampicin
B. Aminosalicylic acid
C. Thiacetazone
D. Pyrazinamide*
E. Cycloserine.
558.
A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What
drug should be prescribed in the first place?
A. Ethionamide
B. Isoniazid*
C. Ethoxide
D. Sulfalen
E. Cyclocerine.
116
559.
A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis
of visual nerve occurred. What drug has caused this side effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol*
C. Kanamycin
D. Rifampicin
E. Streptomycin .
560.
Patient suffering from tuberculosis was treated with isoniazid. In the
course of treatment peripheral neuritis was developed. What is the mechanism
of this side effect?
A. Direct toxic effect of drug on peripheral nerves
B. Inhibition of myoneural junctions
C. Interference with pyridoxine metabolism*
D. Interference with folic acid synthesis
E. Inhibition of sodium channels.
561.
Patient with tuberculosis was on the complex treatment including
antibiotics. At the end of first course doctor noticed significant decrease in
patient hearing. Which of the following drugs can cause such side effect?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin*
D. Paraaminosalicylic acid
E. Pirazinamide .
562.
One of the problems in the treatment of tuberculosis is caused by existence
of metabolically dormant forms of mycobacterium (persister). Which of the
drugs is effective against all subpopulations of Mycobacteria tuberculosis and
causes sterilizing effect?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Kanamycin
D. Rifampicin*
E. Paraaminosalicylic acid.
563.
The patient suffering from tuberculosis was treated with combination of
antituberculous drugs, including isoniazid. Which drug should be added to
prevent neurological side effects of isoniazid?
A. Streptomycin
B. PASA
C. Rifampicin
D. Pyridoxine*
117
E. Ascorbic acid.
564.
A patient has herpetic rash. What medication should be administered?
A. Acyclovir*
B. Gentamycin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
E. Biseptol.
565.
Point out the antiviral agent used in influenza.
A. Oseltamivir.*
B. Streptomycine
C. Gentamycin
D. Clotrimazole
E. Pyridoxine.
566.
A patient with lung tuberculosis is treated with a drug that has a wide
antimicrobial spectrum; mycobacteria of tuberculosis are highly sensitive to it.
Its effect is realized by depression of bacterial RNA synthesis. Drug is staining
body liquids (urine, sputum, tears) in red color. What the drug is used?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Rifampicin*
E. Paraaminosalicylic acid.
567.
Treatment of tuberculosis is realized by means of combination
chemotherapy, including agents with different mechanisms of action. Which of
the antituberculosis drugs inhibit the transcription of DNA into RNA of
mycobacteria?
A. Rifampicin*
B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethionamide
E. PAS.
568.
The patient went to a doctor complaining of red staining of urine and tear.
From his case history it is known that he is treated on pulmonary tuberculosis.
Which of anti-TB drugs is responsible for this phenomenon?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethionamide
C. Ethambutol
D. Rifampicin*
E. Streptomycin .
118
569.
How do you explain the fact that the in treatment of tuberculosis with
isoniazid dose is adjusted individually, with mandatory measurement of its
concentration in the urine after the first drug?
A. Genetically determined differences in rate of drug acetylating*
B. Occurrence of hyperglycemia as a side effect
C. The development of renal failure
D. Irritant action of the drug
E. Development of hemolytic anemia.
570.
TB patient after prolonged treatment with effective anti-TB drug called
attention to breast enlargement. On this occasion he went to a doctor, who
confirmed gynecomastia. Identify the drug, which he used.
A. Cycloserine
B. Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid*
D. Rifampicin
E. Streptomycin sulfate .
571.
As a result of prolonged use of broad spectrum antibiotics intestinal
candidamycosis was developed. What should be prescribed to treat it?
A. Interferon
B. Remantadin
C. Itraconazole*
D. Rifampicin
E. Gramicidin.
572.
A patient with a diagnosis of AIDS was admitted to the infectious disease
hospital. To improve the immune status of patient, stabilizing body weight and
improwement of his condition, antiviral agent - an antagonist of thymidine,
which blocks the DNA polymerase of HIV was prescribed. Select the designated
agent.
A. Azidothymidine*
B. Acyclovir
C. Interferon
D. Rimantadine
E. Midantan.
573.
Patients with herpes doctor prescribed an antiviral drug, which the main
mechanism of action is inhibition of viral DNA polymerase, and the ability to
be integrated instead of deoxyguanosine into viral DNA. Name the drug.
A. Interferon
B. Azidothymidine
C. Acyclovir*
119
D. Midantan
E. Ethambutol.
574.
A 20 years old patient with primary syphilis is receiving combined
therapy, which includes the sodium salt of benzylpenicillin. What is the
mechanism of action of this drug?
A. Blockade of DNA synthesis
B. RNA synthesis blockade
C. Blockade of the SH- groups of enzymes
D. Blockade of the synthesis murein of cell wall of microorganisms*
E. Blockade of protein synthesis in cytoplasm.
575.
A patient addressed doctor with complaints on the damage of skin
between the fingers of foot, exudation and itching. Doctor prescribed paste
containing antifungal agent of wide spectrum. Point out this drug
A. Nystatin
B. Clotrimazole*
C. Streptomycin
D. Co-trimoxazol
E. Levorin.
576.
This drug is used for treatment of tuberculosis, rate of its inactivation in
the liver is genetically determined and is different in different persons. Point out
this drug
A. Acyclovir
B. Azidothymidine
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Isoniazid*
E. Rifampicin.
Antiprotozoal drugs
577.
To prevent of 4-day malaria a 42-year-old patient was prescribed
primaquine. On the 3-rd day from the begin of treatment there appeared stomach
and heart pains, dyspepsia, general cyanosis, hemoglobinuria. What is the cause
of side effects of the preparation?
A. Drug potentiation by other preparations
B. Cumulation of the preparation
120
C. Delayed urinary excretion of the preparation
D. Decreased activity of microsomal liver enzymes
E. Genetic insufficiency of glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase*.
578.
A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis
with involvement of intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
A. Enteroseptol
B. Tetracycline
C. Quiniofone
D. Quingamine
E. Metronidasol*.
579.
A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor
established symptoms of duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination
helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What medication should be
administered?
A. Tetracycline
B. Monomycin
C. Metronidazole*
D. Erythromycin
E. Chingamin.
580.
A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his
gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative
agent is an anaerobe?
A. Oxacillin sodium
B. Gentamicin
C. Nitroxoline
D. Co-trimoxazole
E. Metronidazole*.
581.
A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of
alcohol together with this drug is contra-indicated because the drug inhibits
metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?
A. Clonidine
B. Metronidazole*
C. Reserpine
D. Diazepam
E. Aminazine.
582.
Before the doctor’s business trip to foreign country he was proposed
histoschizontocidal antimalarial drug for the personal prevention of malaria.
Which drug has got a specialist?
A. Mefloquine
121
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chloroquine
Quinine
Doxycycline
Primaquine*.
583.
The patient with lovered immunity was examined concerning
helminthiasis. Laboratory studies have found ascariasis. Which drug should be
prescribed?
A. Niclosamide
B. Piperazine
C. Furazolidone
D. Gentamicin
E. Levamisole*.
584.
The patient addresed her gynecologist complaining of heavy vaginal
discharge with an unpleasant odor. After the smears bacterioscopy
trichomoniasis was diagnosed. What the drug is indicated in this case?
A. Sulfadimezin
B. Chloroquine
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Metronidazole*
E. Monomecinum.
585.
The patient has a mixed helminthic invasion: intestinal ascariasis and liver
trematodes. What anthelminthic drugis the most advisable for the treatment of
this patient?
A. Mebendazole*
B. Pyrantel B.
C. Chloxylum
D. Piperazine adipate
E. Levamisole.
586.
The drug has a devastating effect on the erythrocytic forms of malaria
parasites, dysenteric amoeba. It is used to treat and prevent malaria, the treatment
of amoebiasis and connective tissue diseases. Identify the drug.
A. Emetine hydrochloride
B. Chloroquine*
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
E. Quinine.
587.
The patient addressed doctor complaining of epigastric discomfort,
nausea, loss of appetite. The study of duodenal content revealed Giardia resistant
to metronidazole. Which drug should be appointed?
122
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Rifampicin
Chloroquine*
Metronidazole
Isoniazid
Acyclovir .
588.
Antiprotozoal agent of wide spectrum was included in complex treatment
of patient with gastric peptic ulcer. Doctor warned patient about prohibition of
alcohol usage during treatment with this drug. What the drug was used?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Metronidazole*
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Chloroquine
E. Praziquantel.
589.
Patient suffering from severe malaria caused by plasmodium falciparum
resistant to chloroquine was treated with the oldest antimalarial drug, obtained
from the bark of cinchona tree. Point out this drug.
A. Primaquine
B. Proguanil
C. Pyrimethamine
D. Quinine*
E. Emetine.
590.
Point out the drug of first choice for treatment of patient suffering from
kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis)
A. Metronidazole
B. Sodium stibogluconate*
C. Tetracycline
D. Pyrimethamine
E. Nystatin.
591.
For treatment of neck phlegmon caused by anaerobic infection
antimicrobial drug of imidasole group was included. Point out this drug
A. Norfloxacin
B. Clindamycin
C. Metronidazole*
D. Tetracycline
E. Ampicillin.
592.
A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and
diarrhea for five days body temperature rise up to 37,5oC along with chills. The
day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir.
123
Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery.
What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
A. Metronidazole*
B. Furazolidonum
C. Levomycetin
D. Phthalazol
E. Emetine hydrochloride .
593.
Amebiasis of hepatic localization was diagnosed in patient. Choose the
drug for treatment of patient.
A. Norfloxacin
B. Clindamycin
C. Chloroquine*
D. Tetracycline
E. Ampicillin.
594.
The drug with histoschizontocydal and gametocydal action was used for
causal prophylaxis of malaria. Point out this drug.
A. Metronidasole
B. Primaquine*
C. Chloroquine
D. Tetracycline
E. Emetine hydrochloride .
595.
Point out the antimalarial drug that exert erythrocytic schizontocidal effect
by changing pH in parasitic vesicles and prevention of haeme transformation to
hemozoin.
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine*
C. Metronidazole
D. Sulfadoxine
E. Pyrimethamine.
Anticancer drugs. Preparations of acids, bases and salts. Basic principles of
acute poisoning treatment
596.
A patient who was previously ill with mastectomy as a result of breast
cancer was prescribed radiation therapy. What vitamin preparation has marked
radioprotective action caused by antioxidant activity?
A. Ergocalciferol
B. Tocopherol acetate*
C. Thiamine chloride
124
D. Ribof1avin
E. Folic acid.
597.
In order to accelerate healing of a radiation ulcer a vitamin drug was
administered. What drug is it?
A. Methyluracil
B. Retinol acetate*
C. Levamisole
D. Prednisolone
E. Retabolil.
598.
An oncological patient was prescribed methotrexate. With the lapse of
time target cells of the tumour lost susceptibility to this drug. There is change of
gene expression of the folowing enzyme:
A. Thiaminase
B. Deaminase
C. Dehydrofolate reductase*
D. Folate decarboxylase
E. Folate oxidase.
599.
Patient after surgery for breast cancer chemotherapy with antiestrogen
agent was prescribed. Which of the following drugs belongs to antiestrogen with
anticancer activity?
A. Tamoxifen*
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Chlorbutin
D. Cisplatin
E. Fosfestrol.
600.
What is the basic mechanism of anticancer action of ethyleneimine
derivative?
A. Alkylation of RNA and DNA of tumor cells*
B. Inhibition of cell division in metaphase
C. Formation of stable complexes with DNA of tumor cells
D. Competitive inhibition of nucleic acid metabolism in tumors
E. Cytorecptors blockade on the cell membrane.
601.
In the intensive care unit a child was enrolled with pronounced signs of
acidosis, to relieve his condition immediate drip of infusion was started. Which
of the following drugs should be used in acidosis?
A. Potassium Chloride
B. Sodium Chloride
C. Sodium bicarbonate*
D. Glucose
125
E. Magnesium sulfate.
602.
Patients with chronic heart failure was using digoxin. To increase the
result of treatment additional drug was included in patient therapy. It resulted in
the development of symptoms of intoxication. Which drug can cause increase in
cardiac glycoside toxicity?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Magnesium chloride
C. Asparkam
D. Glucose
E. Calcium chloride*.
603.
A patient with acute poisoning was admitted to emergency department. It
was established that poisonous substance was excreted by kidney. Choose the
best diuretic for forced diuresis.
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide*
E. Hydrochlorothiazide.
604.
Choose the most beneficial agent for stomach wash in patient poisoned
with alkaloid
A. Physiological solution
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Potassium permanganate*
E. 5% solution of glucose.
605.
Point out the antidote used in poisoning with salts of heavy metals
A. Penicillamine
B. Unithiolum*
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Magnesium sulfate
E. Atropine.
606.
A patient in comatose state was admitted to emergency department. His
respiration was abnormal (Cheyn-Stoke’s respiration). Poisoning with opioid
analgesic was diagnosed. After intravenous administration of antidote
respiration was restored. What agent was used as antidote?
A. Pralidoxime
B. Naloxone*
C. Ethanol
D. Acetazolamide
126
E. Unithiolum.
607.
A patient with myocardium infarction was treated with heparin. On 6th
day of treatment nasal bleeding occurred. Overdose of heparin was diagnosed.
Point out the antidote of heparin
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Protamine sulfate*
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Unithiolum
E. Deferoxamine.
608.
Patient suffering from cancer of skin is treated with anticancer antibiotic.
Point out this drug
A. Neomycin
B. Danazol
C. Mercaptopurine
D. Phtoruracil
E. Bleomycin*.
609.
Radio protector was given to a worker of a nuclear power station. What
mechanism is considered to be responsible for radioprotection?
A. Increasing of respiration
B. Inhibiton of free radicals formation*
C. Activation of oxidation reactions
D. Prevention of tissue's hypoxia
E. Increasing of tissue blood supply.
610.
Patient suffering from acute leucosis was treated with agent that is
competitive antagonist of folic acid. Point out this agent
A. Phtoruracil
B. Methotrexate*
C. Mercaptopurine
D. Phtorafur
E. Cytarabine.
611.
Patient with gastric cancer is treated with drug that interferes with
synthesis of nucleic acids due to its resemblance with pirimidine. Point out this
drug
A. Mercaptopurine
B. Methotrexate
C. Phluorouracil (Phtoruracil)*
D. Neomycin
E. Bleomycin.
127
612.
Highly dehydrated patient with cholera was admitted to specialized
department. Which agent is necessary to use to normalize the volume of
circulating blood?
A. Solution KCl 4%
B. Solution of calcium chloride 10%
C. Solution of glucose 40%
D. Solution calcium gluconate
E. Solution of NaCl 0,9%*.
613.
A patient working at a chemical plant was admitted to the toxicological
department with mercury poisoning. What medicine should be used?
A. Isonitrozin
B. Naloxone
C. Enterosorbent
D. Unithiol*
E. Activated carbon.
128
Дополнения базы тестов 2015-2016 гг.
614. After surgical removal of the thyroid gland for patients assigned Lthyroxine. What type of pharmacotherapy achieved in such treatment?
A. Replacement*
B. Recovery
C. Etiological
D. Functional
E. Symptomatic
615. In the treatment of patients with antibiotics frequently occurs an allergy.
What is the mechanism lies at the basis of this complication?
A. Immune*
B. Enzyme
C. Metabolic
D. Physico-chemical
E. Receptor
616. Tobaco smoking - a consequence of nicotine addiction.
From what reaction begins its development?
A. Euphoria*
B. Passion
C. Addiction
D. Abstinence
E. Synergy
617. Emergency care in drugs overdose including primarily maintenance of
specific antidotes. What type of drug interaction provides their application?
A. Functional antagonism*
B. Summation
C. Incompatibility
D. Drug synergy
E. Compatibility
129
618. Long-term use of chlorpromazine in patients with schizophrenia, along with
the restoration of mind, led to the development of Parkinson's disease symptoms. For
what type of drug action should be attributed these manifestations?
A. Complication*
B. Allergic reaction
C. The main medicinal effect
D. Sensitization
E. Addiction
619. The young scientist after working in the archive library there was allergic
to book dust. What H1 histaminoblokator without long-acting hypnotic effect should
apply?
A. Loratadine*
B. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate
C. Metylmetyonynsulfonyya chloride
D. Enoxaparin calcium
E. Ropivakayin
620. For the treatment of arthritis celecoxib doctor has ordered. What group of
NSAIDs owned this vehicle?
A. Koksyby*
B. Adaptogens
C. Oxidizing
D.Trombolytic
E. Complexons
621. The 3-year old child with a fever over chickenpox. What antipyretic
medication is allowed in this case to avoid the development of Reye syndrome?
A. Paracetamol*
B. Menthol
C. Castor Oil
D. Ringer-Locke solution
E. Fish Oil
130
622. In patients after long-term use of aspirin as antiplatelet agents was dyspnea.
How is this difficulty?
A. Apirin asthma*
B. Euphoria
C. Functional cumulation
D. Dysbacteriosis
E. Idiosyncrasy
623. After myocardial infarction, the doctor scheduled the patient antyatherosclerotic drug that blocks the synthesis of cholesterol in liver and reduces the
risk of ischemic complications. Define a drug?
A. Atorvastatin*
B. Lobeline
C. Clonidine
D. Reserpine
E. Xylometazoline
624. In the intensive care unit delivered a man with a diagnosis of cardiogenic
shock. The introduction of any drug would be appropriate in this situation
A. Dobutamine*
B. Novocaine
C. Lovastatin
D. Phenytoin
E. Ranitidine
625. Determine the drug that the doctor prescribed for the treatment of a patient
who has history of angina, tachycardia and asthma?
A. Metoprolol*
B. Haloperidol
C. Bromocriptine
D. Tannin
E. Metronidazole
626. Select the drug has a hypotensive effect, reduces blood volume and displays
ions of sodium, potassium and magnesium from the body.
A. Furosemide*
B. Caffeine-sodium benzoate
C. Bemegride
D. Pantotsid
E. Magnesium sulfate
131
627. Elderly man suffering from bronchitis, was appointed drug with mucolytic
mucokinetic action. It is known that in addition to the drug expectorant action promotes
the synthesis of endogenous surfactant. What is this medicines?
A. Ambroxol*
B. Naphthyzinum
C. Omnoponum
D. Tubokurarіn
E. Rofecoxib
628. Patients with cystitis doctor appointed antimicrobial agent with broadspectrum fluoroquinolone group, mechanism of action is associated with blocking the
enzyme DNA gyrase? What kind of preparation we talking about?
A. Ciprofloxacinum*
B. Arbіdol
C. Furacillіnum
D. Holenzіmum
E. Tanalbіnum
629. The patient to complex treatment of hypertension was included long-acting
medicine (24 hour), mechanism of action is associated with the blocking an enzyme
that promotes the synthesis of angiotensin II. What is this drug?
A. Lizinopril*
B. Ergocalciferol
C. Mercaptopurine
D. Lavomax
E. Bromhexinum
630. After tooth extraction doctor prescribed to the patient for mouthwash
procedure an antiseptic drug from halogencontaining group. Determinate the drug?
А. Chlorhexidine *
B. Ampicillin
C. Fraxiparyn
D. Lobeline
E. Benzocaine
631. During stomatolodical procedure under conductive anesthesia in patient
with hypertension, blood pressure increased. Which of the following drugs should be
used to decrease blood pressure?
А. Magnesium sulfate *
B. Fizostihmin
132
C. Nafazolin
D. Haloperidol
E. Tramadol
632. During the root canal filling it’s important to irrigate a canal from necrotic
residual dentin by antiseptic solution. Determine which of the following agents will
contribute to mechanical cleaning.
А. Hydrogen peroxide *
B. Festal
C. Prazosin
D. Amoxiclav
E. Almagel
633. Dentist decided to conduct short-term anesthesia (neuroleptanalgesia).
Which of the psychotropic drugs in it combination?
A. Droperidol *
B. Sulpiride
C. Trioxazyn
D. Reserpine
E. Neuleptil
634. Before stomatological treatment, patient has got the tranquilizer –
diazepam. Identify the mechanism of its anxiolytic action.
А. Benzodiazepine receptor agonist *
B. M-cholinergic receptors agonist
C. β-adrenoceptor blocker
D. Histamine receptor blocker
E. Stimulator of redox processes
635. Anaphylactic shock appeared in patient after injection of local anesthetic in
dental department. Determine the hormonal agent for emergency medical aid.
А. Prednisolone *
B. Cermion
C. Vancomycin
D. Ribavirin
E. Probucol
636. A patient complained to a doctor about an appearance on the oral mucosa a
gray spots. He suffers from syphilis and takes bismuth preparation which causes
intoxication symptoms. What is the antidote should be used in this case?
А. Unithiol *
B. Artykain
C. Fenoterol
D. Reserpine
E. Sulpiride
133
637. During the tooth extraction preparation, doctor indicated for patient an
agent that prevents bleeding. Determine this drug.
А. Vikasol *
B. Diakarb
C. Ethonium
D. Analgin
E. Benzohexonium
638. Patient B. 45 years, previously was instal with amalgam seal. A month later,
she complained of unwell feeling and was diagnosed with acute mercury poisoning.
What is the antidote advisable to appoint in this case?
A. Unithiol *
B. Atenolol
C. Enalapril
D.Ceftriaxone
E. Zidovudine
639. For mandibular biopsy procedure doctor used a neuroleptanalgesia. What
is the opioid analgesic that should be used in combination with droperidol for this goal?
А. Fentanyl *
B. Emetine hydrochloride
C. Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate
D. Metylmetioninsulfonium chloride
E. Fish Oil
640. Lincosamide antibiotic have been prescribed to a patient with mandibular
osteomyelitis. Determine this agent.
А. Lincomycin *
B. Kanamycin
C. Byseptol
D. Fuzydin sodium
E. Vancomycin
641. Wide spectrum antibiotic have been prescribed by the dentist for
odontogenic sepsis prevention that well-penetrates into bone tissue. Determine this
drug.
A. Doxycycline *
B. Nystatin
C. Tubocurarinum
D. Ethambutol
E. Pyrazinamide
642. Before the tooth extraction procedure dentist have done an anesthesia by
articaine and epinephrine combined agent. What did the dentist used?
134
А. Ultracaine *
B. Novocaine
C. Cocaine
D. Benzocaine
E. Codeine
643. Facial nerve paresis appeared in patient during a stomatological procedure.
Which of the anticholinestherase agents should be prescribed to the patient?
A. Proserinum *
B. Fluoxamine
C. Sulmazole
D. Atenolole
E. Dipyridamole
644. For the xerostomia treatment have been prescribed a cholinestherase drug
that is widly use in ophtolmological practice in glaucoma. What is the drug above?
A. Pilocarpine hydrochloride *
B. Klopamid
C. Estrone
D. Bronhofit
E. Suprastin
645. A patient diagnosed with bacterial stomatitis, caused by anaerobic
microflora. What synthetic antimicrobial agent should be given?
А. Metronidazol *
B. Carbocholine
C. Terazosin
D. Cyklodole
E Amphetamine
646. During tooth extraction the patient developed collapse. What drug should
be used to increase blood pressure?
A. Phenylephrine *
B. Arduan
C. Halothane
D. Apisarthron
E. Enflurane
647. A patient developed acute bronchospasm during dental examination. Which
drug should be administered urgently?
A. Epinephrine *
B. Chingaminum
C. Lovastatin
D. Procaine
135
E. Phenythoin
648. A patient was prescribed fluconazole after dental examination. What
disease in the oral cavity is an indication for use of fluconazole?
А. Candidomycose
В. Dental caries
С. Periodontitis
D. Bacterial inflammation
Е. Allergic gingivitis
649. The complex jaw joint tuberculosis therapy insludes isoniazid and vitamin
preparation which prevents its side effects (neuritis). What vitamin is used for this
purpose?
А. Pyridoxine*
В. Papaverine hydrochloride
С. Plathyphylline
D. Piracetam
Е. Trimeperidine
650. The examination of dental patient revealed stomatitis with bleeding gums
and pain during chewing. What vitamin preparations should be assigned to him in the
first place?
А. Ascorbic acid*
В. Aceclidine
С. Ambroxolum
D. Acetylsalicylic acid
Е. Аmitriptyline
651. After poliomyelitis a patient was appointed agent for recovery of skeletal muscle
tone. Determine the drug:
A. Neostigmine *
B. Nyzatidin
C. Sukralfat
D. Estrone
E. Hutalaks
652. A man who is working at the factory got the minor injuries of his hands.
What antiseptic drug from the halogens group should be used for disinfecting hands
scratches?
А. Solution of iodine*
B. Dibazol
C. Kanamycin
D. Dipyridamole
E. Pirenzepine
136
653. For the treatment of hypertensive patient was appointed angiotensin II
receptor antagonist. Which of the following drugs was prescribed?
А. Losartan*
B. Nitrazepam
C. Cyclodolum
D. Erythromycin
E. Galantamine.
654. For the treatment stroke patient doctor prescribed nootropic agent. Point out
this drug.
А. Piracetam*
B. Askorutin
C. Sermion
D. Vecuronium
E. Itipromin
655. A patient has chronic fatigue due to hard physical and mental work. The
doctor appointed psychomotor stimulant. Select this agent.
А.Caffeine*
B. Nicergoline
C. Talinololum
D. Ipratropium bromide
E. Analginum
656. A patient with impaired heart rate for prevention of attack of angina pectoris
was prescribed Ca channel blockers. Determine this drug.
А. Amiodarone*
B. Nakom
C. Sodium bromide
D. Tavegil
E. Logest
657. A patient was diagnosed gastric peptic ulcer. Indicate which drug will
reduce the function of gastric glands by blockade of H2-histamine receptors?
A. Famotidine*
B. Syrepar
C. Trymetazyn
D. Analginum
E. Dyzopiramid
658. Patient with peptic ulcer was treated with omeprazole. The acidity of gastric
juice decreased significantly. What is the mechanism of this drug action?
A. Inhibition of Н+К+-АTPase*
137
B. Blockade of beta- adrenoceptors
C. Blockade of cyclooxygenase
D. Blockade of monoamineoxidase
E. Activation of Н-cholinoceptors
659. Aged patient is suffering from chronic constipation. Prescribe the drug for
treatment this condition.
А. Bisacodil*
В. Isoflurane
С. Leykohen
Д. Butorphanol
Е. Probucol
660. Patient is suffering from diarrhea. Prescribe the drug which acted by
binding with opioid receptors of intestine.
А. Loperamide*
В. Reaferon
С. Dihydroergotamine
Д. Amylnitrite
Е. Bismoverol
661. After gastric resection the megaloblastic anemia developed in patient. What
drug should be applied in this case?
А. Cyanocobalamin*
В. Pentoxifylline
С. Euphylline
D. Primaquine
Е. Phenobarbital
662. A pregnant woman with low generic activities was admitted to the hospital.
What preparation will be the most beneficial for stimulating of labor activity in this
case?
А. Oxytocin*
В. Aetacridini lactatis
С. Bupivacaine
D. Ephedrine
Е. Miconazole
663. A woman was admitted to the hospital with biliary colic. Which drug from
group of opioid analgesics with spasmolytic activity should be used?
А. Promedol*
B. Abciximab
C. Escitalopram
D. Oxandrolone
138
E. Zanamiviр
664. Patient after strok for prevention of thrombosis was treated with antiplatelet
agent from the group of nonselective cyclooxygenase inhibitors. Point out this drug:
А. Acetylsalicylic acid *
B. Groprynozyn
C. Bupivacaine
D. Venlafaxine
E. Amfoglukamin
665. For the treatment of pregnant woman with tonsillitis doctor prescribed
antibiotic of narrow spectrum. Point out this antibiotic.
А. Penicillin sodium*
B. Laevomycetin
С. Тetracycline
D. Furacilinum
Е. Trimethoprim
666. A 5-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia caused by
mycoplasma. Which antibiotic from macrolides group should be assigned for its
treatment?
А. Аzithromycin*
В. Tetracycline
С. Phthalazolum
D. Bactrim
E. Furacilinum
667. After applying eye drops in the patient with iris inflammation was mydriasis and
paralysis of accommodation. Which drug was prescribed by a doctor?
A. Аtropine *
B. Ferkoven
C. Аtenolol
D. Niridazol
E. Primaquine
668. A patient appealed to the doctor complaining of muscular rigidity, stiffness of
movement, permanent hand tremor. Diagnosis - Parkinson's disease. What preparation
is advisable to appoint a patient?
A. Levodopa *
B. Ferkoven
C. Sinestrol
D. Ketoprofen
E. Neomycin
139
669. A patient with rheumatism was prescribed antimalarial drug. Determine the
drug:
А. Chingaminum *
В. Tubocurarine hydrochloride
С. L-cet
D. Ferrum-lek
Е. Infusum Valerianae
670. A patient with chronic heart failure takes cardiac glycoside. Determine the
drug:
А. Digoxin *
В. Phenobarbitone
С. Heptral
D. Clindamycin
Е. Levamisole
671. A doctor prescribed a patient with acute heart failure digoxin. To which
pharmacological group this drug belongs to?
А. Cardiac glycosides *
В. Neuroleptics
С. Adrenoblokers
D. Antiprotozoal agents
Е. Cholinomimetics
672. According to medical examination a patient with ischemic heart disease
was found hyperlipidemia. A doctor prescribed a patient the drug that violates the
synthesis of cholesterol. Determine the drug:
A. Atorvastatin *
B. Nystatin
C. Pirenzepine
D. Reserpine
E. Xylometazoline
673. A patient suffers from hypertension and angina pectoris. Which of βadrenoblockers should be prescribed?
A. Propranolol *
B. Haloperidol
C. Bromocriptin
D. Tanninum
E. Levamisole
674. A man developed bronchospasm. What drug should be administered to
relieve bronchospasm?
140
A. Salbutamol *
B. Atenolol
C. Pindolol
D. Phetanolum
E. Timolol
675. A patient with acute pancreatitis was admitted to the surgical clinic. Which
drug should be administered urgently?
А. Contrycal *
В. Almagel
С. Pirenzepine
D. Norepinephrine
Е. Fraxiparine
676. A patient has impaired visual acuity, especially in the evening. What
vitamin preparation contribute to the restoration of vision?
А. Retinol *
В. Reserpine
С. Reparil
D. Retabolil
Е. Ranitidine
677. A child has bronchitis. The doctor appointed expectorant which stimulates
the synthesis of endogenous surfactant. Determine the drug:
А. Ambroxol *
B. Minizistone
C. Sitagliptin
D. Solutio Ringer-Locke
E. Nifuroxazide
678. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis was assigned non-steroidal antiinflammatory agent from selective cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors. Determine the drug:
А. Celecoxib *
B. Fluticasone propionate
C. Castor oil
D. Enoxaparin
E. Rosiglitazone
679. A 3-year-old child was diagnosed mixed helminthosis. Which drug should
be prescribed?
А. Mebendazole *
В. Riboflavine
С. Fraxiparine
D. Papaverine hydrochloride
141
Е. Ranitidine
142