bTrue
Human resource planning systematically forecasts an organization's future demand for
and supply of workers, and matches the supply to the demand.
True
Organizational survival depends upon effective human resource planning
False
Human resource planning is strictly focused on matching the supply and demand of
employees.
True
Organizational strategies define the human resource objectives
False
While all organizations benefit from detailed human resource planning, small firms
usually benefit more than larger ones
True
A firm's strategic plans are often actually executed through a number of tactical or
operational plans
True
One of the factors that has an impact on the demand for human resources is the
organization's strategic plan.
False
Organization factors affecting the demand for human resources include both
technological changes and strategic plans.
True
Past experience can usually be a reasonable guide to future human resource demands
as long as managers are sensitive to changes that could upset past trends.
True
Expert forecasts rely on those people who are knowledgeable to estimate future human
resource needs
True
Two methods for estimating the future demand for human resource s are expert
forecasting and trend projection forecasting.
False
The Nominal Group Technique (NGT) for forecasting the demand for human resources
involves the repeated use of surveys until a general opinion occurs
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True
Extrapolation and indexation are short-run forecasting tools that assume that the causes
of demand don't change.
False
A staffing table lists current employees for tax, payroll, and benefit purposes
False
Internal supply estimates of human resources are most often done using trend
projection forecasting, replacement charts, and human resource audits
True
Human resource audits are designed to summarize an individual employee's skills,
abilities, and potential
False
Replacement summaries are visual replacements of who will replace whom, while
replacement charts are more detailed and include strengths and weaknesses
False
Despite its usefulness Markov analysis cannot be used for "what if" analysis to access
the impact of possible future scenarios
True
Labour market analysis and demographic trends are two methods for estimating the
external supply of human resources.
True
The Canadian Occupational Projection System (COPS) provides a highly detailed
projection of the Canadian economy up to 10 years in the future
True
Attrition is the normal separation of employees from an organization as the result of
resignations, retirement, or death.
False
Attrition and layoffs are identical means of reducing the supply of labour
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False
When one employee does two or more jobs within a single organization this is called
employee sharing.
False
ob sharing involves two or more full-time workers doing the same job together at the
same time.
False
Retiring employees in groups based on occupation is referred to as phased
True
Some companies have found that reducing the number of work hours per employee has
improved productivity
True
One reason that part-time employment is advantageous to an employer is that it
increases flexibility so that employers can match the workforce with peak demands.
False
Senior workers are less likely to accept layoffs of a short duration, despite receiving
almost the same take-home pay without working
True
Ways to overcome employee shortages include overtime, contract workers, and new
hires.
False
Contract workers usually provide unskilled labour for organizations.
True
To optimize an organizations' human resources talent pool they will capitalize on their
internal HR related processes for succession planning
True
Various and flexible alternatives to the traditional workplace or workweek are referred to
as work arrangements.
False
In the field of human resource management, work arrangements refer to the ability of an
employee to select a job from a list of available jobs
True
Enterprise-wide systems link an organization's entire software application environment
into a single enterprise solution
True
Referential integrity in an HRIS refers to the fact that employee information only needs
to be entered into the system once and all employee files will be updated.
True
A key feature of any HRIS system is how effective it is at providing the tools with which
to manage security issues.
False
The most common components of an HRIS system are recruitment and applicant
tracking, time and attendance, training and development, performance management,
career planning, compensation, benefits and pension administration, employment equity
information, performance evaluation, health and safety, and labour relations. However,
the number of data fields, where information can be stored is greatly limited due to the
functionality of the system
True
By leveraging the automation and system capabilities of an HRIS, HR professionals can
spend more time working at the strategic level, rather than at the transactional level. As
a result, the HR role has evolved in several ways to enhance its service delivery to the
organization
False
In terms of technology and efficiency, HRIS have resulted in information that is less
readily available, and also less accurate and timely
True
Information that is generated from the HRIS help managers and HR leverage
employees' capabilities and skills and to design opportunities for development.
True
Certain progressive organizations are contemplating reviewing the impact of human
resource capital development in organizations using a financial model. This approach
considers "human resources" as an asset and an investment and measures from a
financial perspective the return of those investments
C.
a novel way for companies to meet their resource requirement
Crowdsourcing is:
A.
the management of work teams
B.
a means of distributing surplus employees to various internal departments
C.
a novel way for companies to meet their resource requirement
D.
similar to outsourcing, but in the terms of human resources, when an organization
sends a working group to another entity to work
E.
a new social networking site for human resources management professionals to access
and utilize as a means of hiring for single positions
E.
external/internal supply of human resources
When designing a HRIS, the following factors are relevant, EXCEPT:
A.
size and breadth
B.
types of outputs
C.
access to HRIS information
D.
security
E.
external/internal supply of human resources
B.
one or more employees do the same job, but work different hours, days, or even weeks
Job sharing refers to a plan whereby:
A.
two or more people do the same job at the same time
B.
one or more employees do the same job, but work different hours, days, or even weeks
C.
an employee allows another employee to do their job for them
D.
one employee does a job while the other collects compensation for it
E.
employees engage in social loafing
E.
all of the choices
Human resource planning involves forecasting future human resource requirements by:
A.
making decisions on how to effectively acquire and utilize the firm's human resources
B.
determining the current availability of human resources
C.
analyzing the business' future demands on the organization
D.
aligning to future business demands
E.
all of the choices
B.
establish program priorities
Which of the following is NOT a step in the human resource planning process?
A.
develop HR objectives
B.
establish program priorities
C.
assess internal and external supply of resources
D.
forecast demand for resources
E.
design and implement HRM programs
C.
automated; downloaded
With technology and HRIS, HR has successfully __________ the day-to-day activities
and, where possible __________, the data entry at the source.
A.
improved; imported
B.
expedited; secured
C.
automated; downloaded
D.
automated; uploaded
E.
expedited; uploaded
B.
severance pay
Money given from the organization to employees who are being permanently separated
is usually referred to as:
A.
buy-out money
B.
severance pay
C.
baksheesh
D.
unemployment insurance
E.
performance rewards
E.
skills inventories
Which of the following is NOT a technique for estimating future human resource
demand?
A.
extrapolation
B.
nominal group technique
C.
budget and planning analysis
D.
the Delphi technique
E.
skills inventories
C.
career planning and employee equity goals
Greater knowledge of current employees allows a human resource department to more
effectively plan:
A.
product development
B.
sales goals
C.
career planning and employee equity goals
D.
organizational mission statement
E.
market entry timing
E.
change in recruiting policies
Which of the following is NOT a major cause of human resource demand?
A.
social-political-legal challenges
B.
technological changes
C.
competitors
D.
economic developments
E.
change in recruiting policies
E.
future; growth
Indexation is a method of estimating __________ employment needs by matching
employment __________ with a selected index.
A.
future; patterns
B.
past; patterns
C.
current; patterns
D.
past; growth
E.
future; growth
A.
Markov analysis
Means of identifying an internal supply of candidates for future human resource
demands include:
A.
Markov analysis
B.
labour market analysis
C.
demographic analysis
D.
job analysis
E.
economic analysis
C.
demographic impacts
Which of the following external causes (causes outside of the organization's control)
may drive the demand for human resources in the future?
A.
budgets
B.
changes in management staff
C.
demographic impacts
D.
strategic plans
E.
sales forecasts
B.
hiring freeze
The most common first response to an employee surplus is usually:
A.
job sharing
B.
hiring freeze
C.
early retirement offers
D.
termination
E.
overtime
E.
it is easy to convert full time worker to part time workers
Which of the following is NOT true of part-time workers?
A.
it is a method of cutting labour costs
B.
very often part-time workers are paid no benefits
C.
employers can match workforce numbers with peak demand periods
D.
service industries prefer part-time workers
E.
it is easy to convert full time worker to part time workers
C.
expand business flexibility, save costs, increase employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
Flexible work arrangements can:
A.
expand business flexibility, increase costs, increase employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
B.
minimize business flexibility, save costs, increase employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
C.
expand business flexibility, save costs, increase employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
D.
expand business flexibility, save costs, decrease employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
E.
expand business flexibility, increase costs, decrease employee engagement, and
demonstrate a concern for people and recognition as to the diverse nature of their
needs
A.
seniority or merit
Most promotions are based on:
A.
seniority or merit
B.
age
C.
family connections
D.
personal relationships with management
E.
factors external to the organization
E.
all of the choices
Which of the following may be considered when creating flexible work arrangements?
A.
overtime
B.
flexible retirements
C.
floats
D.
transfers
E.
all of the choices
C.
forecasting
Estimating the future resource needs and changes is called:
A.
retrospection
B.
introspection
C.
forecasting
D.
supply projections
E.
demand sourcing
A.
Human resource accounting
__________ can be a blessing to salary administrators, trainers, human resource
planners, and union-management negotiators if it provides them with the kind of
objective and reliable information they have long needed to plan these functions.
A.
Human resource accounting
B.
Human resource auditing
C.
Human relations accounting
D.
Human relations accountability
E.
Human relations auditing
B.
human resource planning
Having the right people with the right skills at the right time is a major objective of:
A.
human relations planning
B.
human resource planning
C.
human relations management
D.
human resources management
E.
human resource allocation
C.
human resource information system
In the human resource business, HRIS stands for:
A.
human resource information standards
B.
human relations information system
C.
human resource information system
D.
human relations information standards
E.
human resource identification system
C.
human resource surplus
If a firm's internal supply of workers exceeds its demand, a __________ exists.
A.
human resource shortage
B.
demographic challenge
C.
human resource surplus
D.
labour market division
E.
human resource division
B.
separation of employees from the organization for economic or business reasons
Layoffs can be defined as:
A.
attrition due to an internal employee surplus
B.
separation of employees from the organization for economic or business reasons
C.
identical to employee termination
D.
outplacement
E.
hiring on a temporary basis
E.
identification; deployment; value
Talent Management refers to "a systemic attraction, __________, development,
engagement/retention, and __________of those individuals with high potential who are
of particular __________to the organization.
A.
aptitude; deployment; surplus
B.
aptitude; deployment; value
C.
identification; selection; value
D.
identification; deployment; surplus
E.
identification; deployment; value
A.
useful, because tendencies are usually known years in advance of their impacts
In estimating external supply for human resources, demographic trends analysis is:
A.
useful, because tendencies are usually known years in advance of their impacts
B.
less than useful, as demographic projections tend to be reactive and unreliable
C.
ineffective, as information about trends is not often available and hard to obtain
D.
in contravention of the Canadian human rights act
E.
legal, but socially unacceptable
D.
it usually presents the fewest problems to the organization
The advantage of attrition as a means of reducing an employee surplus is that:
A.
it is a fast process
B.
it guarantees the loss of the most expendable employees
C.
it does not involve resignation or retirement
D.
it usually presents the fewest problems to the organization
E.
it does not include employees who die at work
D.
it is unclear how it will impact the demand
Current and future impacts of the Canadian Human Rights Acts will have what effect on
the demand for human resources?
A.
it will increase the demand
B.
it will decrease the demand
C.
it will not impact the demand
D.
it is unclear how it will impact the demand
E.
human rights acts is over 20 years old and is not applicable to the demand for human
resources
C.
jobs do not fluctuate rapidly due to external or internal change
Markov analysis is particularly useful in organizations where:
A.
the external environment is unstable and unpredictable
B.
internal (strategic) changes are complex and on-going
C.
jobs do not fluctuate rapidly due to external or internal change
D.
rapid response is needed to social and legal challenges
E.
economic conditions are changing quickly
E.
transition matrices
The means of identifying the internal potential supply of human resources for an
organization includes:
A.
performance evaluations
B.
extrapolation
C.
labour market analysis
D.
a staffing table
E.
transition matrices
C.
Markov analysis
Employee transition matrices are more popularly known as:
A.
replacement charts
B.
feedback charts
C.
Markov analysis
D.
Poisson distributions
E.
labour market analysis
A.
extrapolation
Methods of trend projection forecasting include:
A.
extrapolation
B.
budget analysis
C.
nominal group technique
D.
the Delphi technique
E.
staffing tables
D.
outsourcing
Firms can deal with a human resource surplus in the following ways, EXCEPT:
A.
loaning employees to other departments
B.
job sharing
C.
part-time workers
D.
outsourcing
E.
termination
E.
Predictive analysis
__________ is the process of selecting, exploring, analyzing, and modelling data to
create better business outcomes.
A.
Predictive tactics
B.
Proactive planning
C.
Predictive planning
D.
Proactive analysis
E.
Predictive analysis
D.
strategic success
In the long run, effective human resource planning can determine an organization's:
A.
physical design
B.
mission
C.
product line
D.
strategic success
E.
market position
E.
job sharing
A strategy for dealing with a human resource shortage includes all of the following
EXCEPT:
A.
overtime
B.
transfers
C.
promotions
D.
contract workers
E.
job sharing
A.
organizational strategy
Which of the following has a direct impact on human resource objectives?
A.
organizational strategy
B.
mechanization
C.
regulatory environment
D.
social expectations
E.
task significance
A.
aggressive training
An organization's growth or expansion strategy is usually accompanied by:
A.
aggressive training
B.
early retirement
C.
salary increases
D.
salary freezes
E.
task variety
A.
labour market trends
When estimating external supplies for human resources, HR departments examine:
A.
labour market trends
B.
possible promotions
C.
sales projections
D.
replacement charts
E.
the internal workforce
B.
present performance and promotability
Replacement status is made up of which two variables?
A.
current job level and seniority
B.
present performance and promotability
C.
seniority and promotability
D.
current job level and present performance
E.
skills and training requirements
A.
job positions of at least 50 employees
Markov analysis is more effective for:
A.
job positions of at least 50 employees
B.
job positions of less than 20 employees
C.
service industries
D.
manufacturing industries
E.
not for profit organizations
D.
internal sources
Which of the following is a source of supply for projected human resource needs?
A.
internet sources
B.
physical sources
C.
social sources
D.
internal sources
E.
financial sources
A.
some jobs are entry level
Reasons why an organization may not be able to fill human resource demands
internally include:
A.
some jobs are entry level
B.
a corporate strategy that prevents internal job promotions
C.
some jobs cost too much to fill internally
D.
union contracts usually prevent employees being promoted
E.
most employees normally refuse promotions
E.
new ventures
Causes of demand for human resources over which an organization has control include:
A.
competitors
B.
legal changes
C.
technological changes
D.
retirements
E.
new ventures
D.
that retirees can extend their contributions and continue their engagements with the
organization
An advantage of flexible retirement can be:
A.
that the organization has an advance notice of a future position vacancy
B.
that the employer can begin reducing the benefits the employee is entitled to
C.
that company is able to speed up the rate of the flexible retirement schedule
D.
that retirees can extend their contributions and continue their engagements with the
organization
E.
that it is a politically correct way of enforcing a mandatory retirement age
D.
the employee, the human resource department, and the immediate supervisor
Human resource audits are usually completed by:
A.
the human resource department
B.
the human resource department and the immediate supervisor
C.
the human resource department and the employee
D.
the employee, the human resource department, and the immediate supervisor
E.
the employee and the immediate supervisor
B.
people who provide goods or services to another entity under the terms of a specific
contract
Contractors are:
A.
another name for part-time employees
B.
people who provide goods or services to another entity under the terms of a specific
contract
C.
the same as contingent workers
D.
permanent employees who have been marked for layoffs
E.
full-time employees who telecommute for more than 50% of the work week
A.
the summaries are more detailed
The advantage of replacement summaries over replacement charts is that:
A.
the summaries are more detailed
B.
the summaries are less detailed, thus easier to read
C.
the summaries are produced daily
D.
the summaries use simpler language
E.
replacement charts cannot be computerized
A.
a staffing table
listing of anticipated employment openings for each type of job is:
A.
a staffing table
B.
a random list
C.
written opinions
D.
a formal expert survey
E.
an extrapolated listing
Recruitment is the process of finding and attracting capable individuals to apply for
employment.
True
One of a recruiter's first steps after identifying job openings is to review job analysis
information.
True
Job requirements influence the recruiter's method of finding satisfactory applicants.
True
In today's global knowledge economy highly skilled and motivated workers can be a real
competitive advantage.
True
The strategic choice of internal versus external recruitment has far reaching implications
for a company.
True
A successful recruiter is one who has ignored recruitment constraints placed in his/her
way by the organization.
False
Among environmental conditions that constrain recruiting are compensation and internal
promotion policies.
False
Establishing pay ranges helps reduce compensation policy constraints on recruiting.
False
Employees are likely to be loyal to their employer only if they believe the organization
values them. Nevertheless, there may be generational differences in the extent to which
workers plan to spend their careers with their current organizations.
True
International hiring policies are seen as an organizational restraint on recruiting.
True
Job requirements are considered an organizational constraint to recruiting.
True
Demanding a high degree of experience in certain jobs as an artificial requirement could
be seen as discriminating against some applicants.
True
Recruiting for several job openings simultaneously can increase recruiting costs.
False
The key thing to know is the needs and motivations of the target recruits as the
inducements offered to them will appeal to their needs and motivations differently.
True
Some recruiters employ databases where resumes are stored and easy access is
provided through key word searches.
True
Recruiters regard a formal job application form as usually redundant and only useful for
those applicants who do not bring in their own written information.
False
Because most job applications are standardized forms, it is difficult for a recruiter to
match an applicant's objective with the organization's needs.
False
Experienced recruiters can use the work history section in a job application to determine
if listed job duties and responsibilities may have been exaggerated.
True
Human rights legislation has made recruiting by use of employee referrals illegal due to
its discriminatory nature.
False
Recruiting via employee referrals generally tends to be an effective technique.
True
Recruiting by means of employee referrals could bring charges of discrimination under
the Human Rights Act.
True
The following are a few attributes of good job ads: they attract attention, use short
sentences with familiar action-oriented words and contain all relevant information about
the job and the firm.
True
Although advertising is inexpensive it is ineffective as a means of seeking job
False
Traditionally recruitment advertisements are sufficient, particularly when recruiting
people with hard-to-find skills or when labour markets are tight.
False
Recruiting on television is seldom done because the results rarely justify the expense.
True
One way to target potential recruits of specific demographic or ethnic groups could be
specific transit advertising placed at particular bus or subway stops.
True
The advantage of LinkedIn over Google+ for recruiting is that a greater number of
conversations and engagement can take place on LinkedIn.
False
Two services offered by ESDC are the Job Bank and Jobs and the Workplace websites.
True
In many provinces it is illegal for a private employment agency to charge applicants a
fee.
True
Professional search firms are the same as private employment agencies except that
they are federally licensed and regulated.
False
Perhaps the most significant difference between search firms and placement agencies
is their approach. Professional search firms hope to attract applicants through
advertising, but placement agencies actively seek out recruits from among the
employees of other companies.
False
Public employment agencies are sometimes called "headhunters."
False
Unlike placement agencies, search firms tend to be more specialized in the skill
level of people they look for.
True
It is not unusual for search firms to charge expenses plus 30% of the candidate's gross
starting salary as their fees for a successful hire.
True
Studies have indicated that the age and title of a recruiter may be factors in creating a
favourable impression in campus recruiting.
True
One problem with campus recruiting is the difficulty of assessing applicants who usually
possess little or no relevant experience.
True
There are no circumstances under which a professional recruiter would look to a labour
union as a source of potential applicants seeking jobs.
False
Departing employees could be a source of job recruits if they could be persuaded to
stay.
True
Recruiting abroad can be much more time consuming with tasks such as acquiring
employment visas.
True
The budget will determine the methods the recruiter can afford to use. For instance,
television advertising may be too expensive to use for filling two positions in a small
organization.
True
Tracking over time how well certain recruitment sources have worked will help guide
future recruitment efforts.
True
In competitive recruitment environments, recruiters will often employ a single
recruitment method and then track that method to see the number of applicants, the
quality of applicants, and the number who eventually accept and perform the job well,
and even retention rates.
False
The costs of recruiting could outweigh the benefits.
True
One of the indices used to measure the recruiting function is "quality of hires and costs"
and that is based on the number of hires compared with the direct costs of recruiting
(recruiter's salary, travel expenses, and job advertising costs).
False
One of the better indices to measure the recruiting function is "offers-applicants ratio"
and this compares the number of job offers extended with the total number of applicants
received for each recruiting method.
True
. The selection process begins
A. with a job vacancy
B. once the recruiting process has provided a pool of applicants
C. as soon as the human resource department becomes involved
D. between job analysis and recruiting
E. with the hiring of the best applicant
B
2. Proper selection processes are integral to a firm's success because of all the
following except
A. an organization's success depends on the calibre of its employees
B. the skills and qualifications of new hires need to match the organization's culture
C. improper hiring can cause legal problems
D. poor selection can be expensive
E. often it is necessary to utilize employment agencies to get the best employees
E
3. Rejecting applicants, especially those with foreign qualifications, because they are
"overqualified" has resulted in
A. a breakdown of barriers against immigrants
B. evidence that selection tools are valid
C. systemic discrimination
D. evidence of the use of performance-based job descriptions
E. selection board members being allowed to use assumptions to reject an applicant
C
4. An organization's selection decisions
A. are not usually based on job descriptions
B. are generally made after the hiring decision
C. must reflect job requirements
D. are less important when the organization is in a dynamic, expanding environment
E. usually tend to be made randomly
C
5. The selection process
A. is a means for an organization to achieve its objectives
B. occurs after the orientation of staff
C. will have no impact on the external realities of the organization
D. is unnecessary in smaller firms
E. occurs prior to recruitment practices
A
6. Selection strategy should do all the following except
A. reflect job requirements
B. be linked to the organization's stage in its life cycle
C. recognize organizational constraints
D. recognize labour market realities
E. reflect the strategy of the competition
E
7. All of the following have an impact on the selection process except
A. human resource plans
B. organizational policies and constraints
C. results of job analysis
D. quality and number of recruits
E. the number of employees already in the organization
E
8. A selection ratio is defined as
A. the number of applicants available to the number of applicants hired
B. the number of applicants available to the number of jobs available
C. the number of applicants hired to the number of applicants available
D. the number of applicants hired to the number of jobs available
E. the number of applicants hired to the number of permanent employees
C
9. A selection ratio of 2:50 would normally be considered
A. a sign that the company did not get enough applicants
B. a sign that the company did not recruit from appropriate sources
C. a large selection ratio
D. impossible (it could not exist)
E. irrelevant, as selection ratios are not considered important to the selection process
C
10. Which one of the following would not be considered as an unethical selection
practice?
A. hiring based on friendship or relationship rather than suitability
B. taking bribes
C. accepting gifts from a placement agency
D. hiring on suitability and merit
E. taking age and gender information into consideration when not required by the nature
of the job
D
11. There are a number of sequential steps in the selection process, which are fairly
generic to most organizations. The following are five of these steps in sequence, except
for one that is out of sequence. Select it.
A. preliminary reception of applications
B. realistic job preview
C. employment interview(s)
D. contingent assessments
E. hiring decision
B
12. All the following are steps in the selection process except
A. applicant screening
B. employment interview(s)
C. verification of reference(s)
D. building an applicant pool
E. realistic job preview
D
13. Some factor(s) that define the type of selection procedure used by an organization
include
A. the size of the organization, and the stage in the organizations growth
B. the stage of organizational growth and the specific jobs involved
C. the specific jobs involved only
D. the size of the organization, the stage of organizational growth, and the specific jobs
involved
E. both the size of the organization and the specific jobs involved
D
14. One study of Canadian companies has indicated that letters of reference are used in
the selection process over 75% of the time for all the following classes of employees
except
A. managerial
B. professional
C. white collar
D. blue collar
E. both managerial and professional
D
15. In most organizations Step 1 in the selection process is
A. the preliminary reception of applicants
B. administration of employment test(s)
C. verification of reference(s)
D. employment interview(s)
E. realistic job preview
A
16. According to one study, regardless of organizational size one of the most commonly
used selection tools is
A. application blanks
B. personality tests
C. honesty tests
D. weighted application blanks
E. interests inventories
A
17. The weighted application blank technique has been found to be a particularly
valuable tool in predicting a number of indicators including all of the following except
A. accident rates
B. turnover
C. co-worker conflict
D. job performance
E. absenteeism
C
18. Weighted application blanks
A. are used for positions that require short and basic training
B. are job application forms that contain sections which reliably distinguish groups of
satisfactory and unsatisfactory job incumbents
C. are job applications which weigh the importance of reference checks more heavily
than personal information
D. are used when there are only a few applicants applying for a large number of job
openings
E. are valuable when there is low employee turnover
B
19. A type of application blank that uses a multiple-choice format to measure a job
candidate's education, experiences, opinions, attitudes, and interests is called a(n)
A. weighted application blank
B. biographical information blank
C. weighted information application
D. biographical information application
E. weighted indicator blank
B
20. A well-designed application form will do all the following except
A. identify gaps in an applicant's record
B. target in on specific work and educational skills and experience
C. be designed to avoid illegal or intrusive questions
D. reveal potential problems or difficulties
E. reveal applicant's age and birth place
E
21. Regardless of the résumé, information in an application form or the type of
application form used, they may contain elements of exaggeration and even outright
fabrication. In recent years this __________ (as it is called) has become a major
concern of recruiters
A. résumé diversion
B. application diversion
C. human resources misconduct
D. résumé fraud
E. application fraud
D
22. Reliability in the framework of testing means that a test
A. yields consistent results over time
B. if taken by more than one person will show all scores to be closely related
C. is always held at a certain time and place
D. relates significantly to job performance
E. measures what it is supposed to measure
A
23. Included among the variety of employment tests are all the following except
A. knowledge tests
B. integrity tests
C. selection tests
D. personality tests
E. systemic tests
E
24. Which of the following is not an application of personality tests?
A. Measures personality and is used to provide vocational guidance, hiring, and
promotion recommendations
B. Measures the factors affecting personality and the relationship to environmental
working conditions
C. Measures the Big 5 personality factors in 12-99-year-olds
D. Measures normal personality and is used to predict job performance
E. Measures 6 factors of personality including honesty/humility
B
25. Assessment centre testing is
A. used to measure intellectual ability and management potential
B. a form of performance testing
C. a central testing centre that large employers conduct pre-screening interviews at
D. utilized when organizations are conducting recruiting for specialized, technical
positions
E. one comprehensive test that has 3 parts, lasting at least 2 hours each and is
conducted away from an organization's head office
A
26. One popular procedure that uses a variety of tools for assessing a candidate's future
job behaviour and managerial performance potential that is employed by some
organizations in the selection process is
A. psychological testing
B. the assessment centre
C. honesty and integrity testing
D. realistic job previews
E. drug testing
B
27. One method of integrity testing is the use of graphic responses tests. A method that
is prohibited in some provinces by the Employment Standards Act is
A. handwritten tests
B. attitude tests
C. polygraph testing
D. computer interactive testing
E. employment testing
C
28. Drug tests as an employment-related test would be considered to be a
A. integrity evaluation
B. discriminatory test
C. medical evaluation
D. performance test
E. psychological test
C
29. The testing of job applicants for drugs in Canada is
A. illegal
B. justifiable if it is a bona fide occupational requirement for the job
C. used at the discretion of the employer
D. taken voluntarily only if the applicant offers
E. required by law for many jobs
B
30. In defending drug testing of all new employees, executives at TD Canada Trust
argued that drug users are more likely to
A. miscount their cash
B. associate with criminal elements
C. injure themselves at the TD Centre
D. misbehave in the staff lunchroom
E. attempt to assassinate senior bank economists
B
31. The Canadian Civil Liberties Association maintains that drug testing should be
banned because
A. Canadian society has a serious drug problem among blue collar workers
B. drug tests are not indicators of safe performance in the here-and-now as they only
measure past drug use
C. it discriminates against the protected classes in the Employment Equity Act
D. there is no evidence that drugs cause any harm
E. drug dependant users are not a protected class of employees
B
32. In one case involving TD Canada Trust, the Federal Court determined that the
bank's drug testing policy
A. was not indirect discrimination against drug-dependent employees
B. resulted in a safer workplace and was therefore completely acceptable
C. had a direct negative impact on a protected class of individuals, namely drug
dependent users
D. was a situation the Court felt was illegal but permissible under the circumstances
E. though mandatory, was not personally intrusive
C
33. Recent court decisions indicate that, today, employers, in regards to drug testing
and medical evaluations, must
A. refuse to do any testing regardless of job descriptions and specifications
B. delicately balance individual rights against employer liability and workplace safety
C. under all circumstances test for drugs and physical limitations for liability reasons
D. accommodate all employees regardless of situation or circumstances, making testing
irrelevant
E. enforce employees to do mandatory self-testing for drug use
B
34. One problem with personal references is that
A. they are often too long
B. they tend to be biased
C. they are almost always poorly written
D. the writers do not provide enough information
E. they are usually not signed, therefore illegal
B
35. Studies seem to indicate that the reasons for employment reference letters to often
be less than candid include all except
A. fear of legal reprisal
B. requirements (particularly in the U.S.) to show reference letters to the applicant
C. a reluctance to pass (particularly unfavorable) judgment on another person
D. a desire to build another's self-esteem
E. a desire to get rid of an employee
D
36. The advantage(s) of obtaining reference checks by telephone rather than in writing
can be all the following except
A. a faster response is obtained
B. it often can be done at less cost
C. the person requesting the information doesn't have to leave their desk
D. voice inflections in the answers may tip off the interviewer to possible problems
E. hesitation in providing direct answers may tip off the interviewer to possible problems
C
37. Background checks can now involve the use of social networking websites. This
includes
A. the recruiter posting questions on the company's HR blog seeking input on applicants
B. conducting searches through Google, other search engines and social media sites
C. getting the applicant to provide access to their Facebook page
D. creating personal profiles using age, race and political affiliations in order to make
more informed hiring decisions
E. HR specialists posing as friends to gain access to personal information about
potential candidates
B
38. Among the ways to getting more truth out of references is to
A. inquire in writing
B. ask direct questions
C. seek information on personality traits rather than on job-related behaviour
D. rely more heavily on personal references
E. assume the opposite of whatever you are being told
B
39. Giving a recruit an insight into how a job's actual environment looks, feels and
sounds is called a(n)
A. employee environment preview
B. realistic job preview
C. practical interview technique
D. employee matrix analysis
E. Dewey Decimal interview
B
40. Effects of the realistic job preview, particularly where work conditions do not appear
appealing, can include
A. far less recruits refusing job offers
B. less turnover of new employees
C. improved employee satisfaction with unpleasant working conditions
D. facilitating employment equity programs
E. paying lower wages
B
41. The hiring decision marks the
A. beginning of the selection process
B. the end of the recruitment process
C. the end of the first stage in the job analysis process
D. the end of the selection process
E. the beginning of the realistic job preview
D
42. In which of the following approaches does a decision maker look at the scores
received by various applicants on predictors, and then use his/her judgment to evaluate
the results?
A. multiple cutoff approach
B. judgmental approach
C. compensatory approach
D. subjective approach
E. non-discriminatory approach
D
43. What type of companies use the subjective approach to the hiring decision the
most?
A. small, owner-managed firms
B. large firms with large HR departments
C. firms with only one or two people in a formalized permanent HR role
D. service firms
E. manufacturing firms
A
44. A benefit of the multiple cutoff approach to hiring is
A. it can result in legal challenges
B. one predictor can be compensated by superior performance in another predictor
C. public relations will increase
D. the organization can reject a number of applications who may be qualified to do the
job
E. it is easy for managers to understand
E
45. The multiple cutoff approach to hiring is used when
A. scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis
B. management predetermines the number of applicants that will proceed on to the next
round
C. there is first a group interview followed by individual interviews
D. there is first a group interview followed by a panel interview
E. the testing all takes place in the same day
A
46. The compensatory approach to hiring is used when
A. predictors are assumed to be independent
B. scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis
C. the applicant is hired based on what their expected compensation package
(pay) would be
D. affordability of the applicants compensation package (pay) is a predictor in the
selection process
E. performing well on one predictor can compensate for performing poorly on
another
E
47. The multiple hurdle approach is best used
A. in small, owner-operated business
B. in the first half of the selection process
C. when newly hired employees are given little to no training programs
D. when predictors are expensive
E. when the compensatory approach is used
D
48. A weakness of having co-workers participate in the selection process of new
employees is
A. it may reduce diversity
B. validity of the selection process is increased
C. multiple views and experiences are considered
D. the probability that the new hire will be productive decreases
E. the group acts hostile towards employees hired using their input
A
49. A good employment contract includes all of the following except
A. specific probationary period if applicable
B. start date of employment
C. reasonable restrictive covenants
D. termination procedures
E. questions regarding the applicants age, sex, and race
E
50. Employment tests that unintentionally discriminate against people
A. are all right to use so long as the discrimination is unintentional
B. can violate the Canadian Human Rights Act
C. are legal so long as they state that they are not following human rights legislation
D. are allowed for BFOQ situations
E. are only illegal if the discrimination is intentional
B
51. Validity in testing refers to the fact that the test scores
A. significantly relate to some relevant criterion such as job performance
B. match across a cross-section of people writing the test
C. yield consistent results over repeated measures
D. compare favourably to the scores on other test taken by the same person
E. do not vary across applicants
A
52. Common approaches to test validation include which of the following?
A. empirical approaches
B. equity approaches
C. non-rational approaches
D. continuous indexing approaches
E. relative approaches
A
53. Empirical approaches to test validation rely on such method(s) as
A. predictive validity
B. content validity
C. construct validity
D. structural validity
E. reliable validity
A
54. Rational approaches to test validation include
A. content validity
B. concurrent validity
C. predictive validity
D. reliable validity
E. structural validity
A
55. Some testing experts advise separate validation studies for different demographic
subgroups. These studies are referred to as
A. minority validity
B. construct validity
C. predictive validity
D. differential validity
E. demographic validity
D
56. Without differential validity a test
A. will not be valid for anyone
B. is invalid regardless of any other circumstances
C. may be valid for one group but not for another
D. is not legal
E. will not be reliable
C
57. During employment interview
A. the immediate supervisor should be involved as s/he will ultimately be responsible for
the employee
B. the immediate supervisor should not be involved as s/he is too close to the job
C. the immediate supervisor should only be involved if there is no human resource
department
D. the immediate supervisor should be involved only if s/he has had professional
interview training
E. the immediate supervisor should not be informed of the interview until it is completed
A
58. Involving the immediate supervisor in the employment interview process can
A. tend to be an annoyance to the supervisor
B. prevent the recruit from asking too direct work-related questions
C. tend to make the supervisor more likely to accept some responsibility for employee
errors and problems
D. often be against labour rights legislation
E. only be permitted if the supervisor has formal HR training in interviewing techniques
C
59. The purpose of the employment interview is to seek answers to a few broad
questions including
A. can the applicant do the job?
B. how many applicants are there?
C. has the job analysis process been successful?
D. the applicant's sex, family status, religion, and age
E. when is their last day of work?
A
60. Among all selection techniques the most widely used technique is
A. written test
B. reference
C. in-depth interview
D. psychological testing
E. résumé
C
61. Though interviewing is a popular selection technique, interviews do have some
shortcomings including
A. they allow the company to sell itself to the candidate
B. they allow the employer to assess personal suitability of the candidate
C. they vary measurably in reliability and validity
D. they can be a public relations tools for the organization
E. they allow the candidate to make an impression
C
62. Interviewing is still widely used for all the reasons below except
A. they allow for a personal impression
B. they allow the firm to sell itself to a candidate
C. they allow the firm to answer questions
D. they are highly reliable and valid in almost all circumstances
E. they allow the firm to sell the job to the candidate
D
63. For interviews to have high validity means that the interpretation of interview results
should
A. not vary from one interviewer to another
B. not correlate with job performance
C. be done on time as scheduled
D. be reviewed immediately by an human resource professional
E. be held in confidence until the candidate is actually hired
A
64. Employment interviews can be conducted in a number of applicant-interviewer
combinations including all the following except
A. panel interviews
B. group interviews
C. one-on-one interviews
D. blind-secluded interviews (via one way mirror)
E. group panel interviews
D
65. Employment interviews can be held in a variety of formats including all the below
except
A. structured interview
B. behavioural description
C. stress-producing
D. Markov construct interview
E. unstructured interview
D
66. Behavioural oriented interviews are based on the principle that
A. people will tell you how they would like to behave
B. past behaviour is one of the best predictors of future behaviour
C. they are legal while polygraph testing sometimes is not
D. watching how a person behaves while they are being interviewed is informative
E. some demographic will behave differently than others
B
67. Situational interviews include questions that
A. attempt to identify how a job applicant responded to specific work situations in the
past
B. align with the theory that the best predictor of future actions is past actions
C. try to focus on behaviour that has occurred most recently
D. assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they may or
may not have encountered in the past
E. assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they have
encountered in the past
D
68. The selection interview process includes all of the following steps except
A. information exchange
B. creation of rapport
C. evaluation
D. workforce analysis
E. interviewer preparation
D
69. The interviewer should
A. review the application during the interview to ensure that they can ask questions of
the applicant's family as they arise
B. prepare for an interview by developing specific questions
C. not allow an applicant to ask specific questions, in the interest of time, until the
second interview
D. refrain from asking questions to gain specific applicant information because it is too
difficult to compare responses between applicants
E. not record impressions of an applicant because that can bias the interviewers
decision
B
70. The "halo effect"
A. refers to an interviewer's ability to make immediate and correct judgments
B. is a situation where applicants are asked to discuss their strengths only
C. often means that people are judged on information that is irrelevant
D. occurs only when the very best candidates are interviewed
E. is not a perceptual bias that has any impact in the interviewing process
C
71. Common interviewing mistakes made by candidates include all the below except
A. playing games
B. being unprepared
C. asking about the company and the job
D. talking too much
E. not listening
C
72. The following list contains things an interviewer should not do except
A. ask leading questions that imply a desired answer
B. be guided by initial impressions
C. collect only job-related information
D. attempt to predict personality traits from one interview
E. exhibit personal biases even if based on experience
C
73. Successful execution of an organization's strategy depends on the calibre of its
employees. True False
T
74. The selection process and the recruiting process always run concurrently for any
given job opening. True False
F
75. Selection decisions must reflect job requirements, specifications, and standards.
True False
T
se
F
77. To be successful, the selection strategy must ignore organizational constraints. True
False
F
78. Selection strategies that take the external labour market into consideration apply
artificial constraints on themselves. True False
F
79. The relationship between the number of applicants hired and the total number of
applicants available is called a selection ratio. True False
T
80. The ratio of applicants hired to total number of applicants provided by recruiting is
known as the applicant-employment ratio. True False
F
81. The type of selection procedures used depends on a variety of organizational
factors including size, life cycle, and the jobs involved. True False
T
82. In most organizations the selection process is usually a single step. True False
F
83. In most organizations the employment interview would come after a realistic job
preview. True False
F
84. In organizations that use medical or drug testing this would likely be done before the
employment interviews. True False
F
85. The first steps in the selection process involve the preliminary reception of
applicants and on occasion a "courtesy interview." True False
T
86. Letters of reference are among the most popular selection techniques/tools used in
most Canadian organizations. True False
T
87. Because application forms are so basic, they provide only limited job-related
information. True False
F
88. Properly designed weighted application and biographical information blanks have
been found to be especially useful for certain occupations such as insurance agents,
engineers, and sales clerks. True False
T
89. Assessment centres are able to predict managerial potential. True False
T
90. Through the use of multiple assessment techniques and multiple assessors,
assessment centres are able to predict a candidate's future job behaviour and
managerial potential. True False
T
91. Computer interactive tests are another form of employment testing that is becoming
more common. True False
T
92. Integrity tests are tests that measure an applicant's honesty and trustworthiness.
True False
T
93. Early integrity test attempts used polygraphs. Despite being such an old form of
testing you will occasionally see it used in practice today. True False
F
94. Overt integrity tests have been found to predict job performance with a validity
coefficient of .33, and to predict counter-productive behaviours (including theft,
accidents, disciplinary problems, and absenteeism) with a validity of .39. True False
T
95. Employment tests are only one of several techniques used in the selection process
because they are limited to factors that can be tested and validated easily. Other items,
not measurable through testing, may be equally important. True False
T
96. Many organizations have done away with a medical test for job applicants because
of the possibility of facing charges of discrimination under various human rights acts.
True False
T
97. Drug-dependence is considered to be a disability, and no Canadian is to be
discriminated against on the basis of a disability according to the Canadian Charter of
Human Rights and Freedoms. True False
T
98. Personal references are highly regarded by human resource managers because
they are often written by people with intimate knowledge of the applicant and thus
provide practical insight into the applicant's potential. True False
F
99. Many human resource professionals feel that the employment reference is one of
the most useful tools in the selection process. True False
F
100. Some HR specialists suggest using the telephone for reference checking of
potential hires because they may provide a quicker and more informative response.
True False
T
101. Two of the "do's" of telephone reference checking are: ask indirect questions that
allow for a lot of leeway in answering, and ask for details on personality traits rather
than on job-related performance. True False
F
102. There is no point in recruiters using social networking such as Facebook because
reviewing posted material is considered discriminatory. True False
F
103. The immediate supervisor should be involved in the employment interview at some
point. True False
T
104. Involving immediate supervisors in the interviewing process increases their
commitment to, and sense of responsibility for, the new employee. True False
T
105. The realistic job preview is often done at the beginning of the selection process to
weed out candidates, particularly where there are a large number of applicants for only
a few jobs. True False
F
106. The adverse effect of RJPs may be more candidates declining job offers when the
working conditions do not appear appealing. True False
T
107. Companies that do not use the realistic job preview tend to show lower employee
turnover. True False
F
108. The subjective approach to hiring is also referred to as the clinical approach. True
False
T
109. The judgmental nature of decisions using the subjective approach can reduce
confusion and potential problems. True False
F
110. The multiple cutoff approach allows applicants to make up for a poor score in one
predictor by a strong score in another predictor. True False
F
111. Managers generally prefer statistical and non-subjective approaches to hiring
decisions. True False
F
112. The underlying assumption of the multiple hurdle approach is that a high score on
one predictor does not compensate for a low score on another. True False
T
113. With the emergence of empowered self-managed work teams, the responsibility for
hiring may be delegated to the team. True False
T
114. In close knit teams, there may be a tendency to select applicants that decrease the
diversity in the team. True False
T
115. Reliability in testing refers to the fact that all the tests being used have been
checked for validity. True False
F
116. Reliability in testing means that any specific test yields consistent results over time.
True False
T
117. Rational approaches include both content and construct validity. True False
T
118. There are a wide variety of employment tests available, though each type of test
has only limited usefulness. True False
T
119. Psychological, integrity, and knowledge tests are all types of employment-related
tests. True False
T
120. Validity in testing refers to the fact that the test scores relate significantly to job
performance or other relevant criterion. True False
T
121. Validity refers to a form of testing used with employment equity programs to
determine demographic data. True False
F
122. The fact that a test is reliable does not ensure validity. True False
T
123. Two approaches to test validation are the empirical approach and the rational
approach. True False
T
124. Empirical approaches rely on either predictive or construct validity. True False
F
125. Both empirical and rational approaches to test validation rely on the concept of
concurrent validity. True False
F
126. Construct validity allows the human resource department to test present
employees and correlate these scores with measures of their performance. True False
F
127. Differential validity refers to separate test validation studies done for different
subgroups such as women or minorities. True False
T
128. Despite all forms of testing, including computer generated tests, the employment
interview is still the most widely used selection technique. True False
T
129. Though employment interviews have shortcomings, their one strength is their
constant high level of reliability and validity. True False
F
130. Group, panel, and one-on-one are all forms of employment interviewing. True
False
T
131. Behavioural description interviews work on the basis that a person's past
behaviour is a good predictor of their future behaviour. True False
T
132. Structured questions that are job relevant and assess a job applicant's future
behavioural intentions are critical for gaining valid insights. True False
T
133. There are generally five stages to the employment interview. True False
T
134. The evaluation stage should immediately follow the termination stage of an
employment interview. True False
T
135. When applicants are judged using the halo effect, they are accepted or rejected for
reasons that may bear no relation to their potential performance. True False
T
TRUE
Successful execution of an organization's strategy depends on the calibre of its
employees.
TRUE
Selection decisions must reflect job requirements, specifications, and standards.
FALSE
An organization's stage in its life cycle should not be used to determine its selection
strategy.
FALSE
Selection strategies that take the external labour market into consideration apply
artificial constraints on themselves.
TRUE
The relationship between the number of applicants hired and the total number of
applicants available is called a selection ratio.
TRUE
The type of selection procedures used depends on a variety of organizational factors
including size, life cycle, and the jobs involved.
FALSE
In most organizations the selection process is usually a single step.
FALSE
In most organizations the employment interview would come after a realistic job
preview.
FALSE
In organizations that use medical or drug testing this would likely be done before the
employment interviews.
TRUE
The first steps in the selection process involve the preliminary reception of applicants
and on occasion a "courtesy interview."
FALSE
Because application forms are so basic, they provide only limited job-related
information.
TRUE
Properly designed weighted application and biographical information blanks have been
found to be especially useful for certain occupations such as insurance agents,
engineers, and sales clerks.
FALSE
Reliability in testing refers to the fact that all the tests being used have been checked for
validity.
TRUE
Validity in testing refers to the fact that the test scores relate significantly to job
performance or other relevant criterion.
FALSE
Validity refers to a form of testing used with employment equity programs to determine
demographic data.
TRUE
Involving immediate supervisors in the interviewing process increases their commitment
to, and sense of responsibility for, the new employee.
TRUE
The adverse effect of RJPs may be more candidates declining job offers when the
working conditions do not appear appealing.
FALSE
There is no point in recruiters using social networking such as Facebook because
reviewing posted material is considered discriminatory.
TRUE
Through the use of multiple assessment techniques and multiple assessors assessment
centres are able to predict a candidate's future job behaviour and managerial potential.
TRUE
Computer-interactive tests are another form of employment testing that is becoming
more common.
TRUE
Integrity tests are tests that measure an applicant's honesty and trustworthiness.
FALSE
Overt integrity tests have been found to predict job performance with a validity
coefficient of .33, and to predict counter-productive behaviours (including theft,
accidents, disciplinary problems, and absenteeism) with a validity of .39.
TRUE
Employment tests are only one of several techniques used in the selection process
because they are limited to factors that can be tested and validated easily. Other items,
not measurable through testing, may be equally important.
TRUE
Drug-dependence is considered to be a disability, and no Canadian is to be
discriminated against on the basis of a disability according to the Canadian Charter of
Human Rights and Freedoms.
FALSE
Many human resource professionals feel that the employment reference is one of the
most useful tools in the selection process.
FALSE
Two of the "do's" of telephone reference checking are: ask indirect questions that allow
for a lot of leeway in answering, and ask for details on personality traits rather than on
job-related performance.
FALSE
Companies that do not use the realistic job preview tend to show lower employee
turnover.
TRUE
The subjective approach to hiring is also referred to as the clinical approach.
FALSE
The judgmental nature of decisions using the subjective approach can reduce confusion
and potential problems.
FALSE
The multiple cutoff approach allows applicants to make up for a poor score in one
predictor by a strong score in another predictor.
TRUE
The underlying assumption of the multiple hurdle approach is that a high score on one
predictor does not compensate for a low score on another.
TRUE
Rational approaches include both content and construct validity.
TRUE
There are a wide variety of employment tests available, though each type of test has
only limited usefulness.
TRUE
The fact that a test is reliable does not ensure validity.
FALSE
Construct validity allows the human resource department to test present employees and
correlate these scores with measures of their performance.
TRUE
Differential validity refers to separate test validation studies done for different subgroups
such as women or minorities.
FALSE
Though employment interviews have shortcomings, their one strength is their constant
high level of reliability and validity.
TRUE
Group, panel, and one-on-one are all forms of employment interviewing.
TRUE
Behavioural description interviews work on the basis that a person's past behaviour is a
good predictor of their future behaviour.
TRUE
Structured questions that are job relevant and assess a job applicant's future
behavioural intentions are critical for gaining valid insights.
TRUE
There are generally five stages to the employment interview.
TRUE
The evaluation stage should immediately follow the termination stage of an employment
interview.
TRUE
When applicants are judged using the halo effect, they are accepted or rejected for
reasons that may bear no relation to their potential performance.
C.
a large selection ratio
A selection ratio of 2:50 would normally be considered:
A.
a sign that the company did not get enough applicants
B.
a sign that the company did not recruit from appropriate sources
C.
a large selection ratio
D.
impossible (it could not exist)
E.
irrelevant, as selection ratios are not considered important to the selection process
E.
all of the choices
The weighted application blank technique has been found to be a particularly valuable
tool in predicting a number of indicators including which of the following?
A.
accident rates
B.
turnover
C.
absenteeism
D.
job performance
E.
all of the choices
D.
hiring on suitability and merit
Which one of the following would NOT be considered as an unethical selection
practice?
A.
hiring based on friendship or relationship rather than suitability
B.
taking bribes
C.
accepting gifts from a placement agency
D.
hiring on suitability and merit
E.
taking age and gender information into consideration when not required by the nature of
the job
B.
requirements that selection tools are valid
Rejecting applicants, especially those with foreign qualifications, because they are
"overqualified" has resulted in:
A.
a breakdown of barriers against immigrants
B.
requirements that selection tools are valid
C.
an increase in opportunities for visible minorities
D.
evidence of the use of performance-based job descriptions
E.
selection board members being allowed to use assumptions to reject an applicant
B.
can violate the Canadian human rights act
Employment tests that unintentionally discriminate against people:
A.
are all right to use so long as the discrimination is unintentional
B.
can violate the Canadian human rights act
C.
are legal so long as they state that they are not following human rights legislation
D.
are allowed for BFOQ situations
E.
are only illegal if the discrimination is intentional
B.
once the recruiting process has provided a pool of applicants
The selection process begins:
A.
with a job vacancy
B.
once the recruiting process has provided a pool of applicants
C.
as soon as the human resource department becomes involved
D.
between job analysis and recruiting
E.
with the hiring of the best applicant
E.
reveal applicant's age and birth place
A well-designed application form will do all the following EXCEPT:
A.
identify gaps in an applicant's record
B.
target in on specific work and educational skills and experience
C.
be designed to avoid illegal or intrusive questions
D.
reveal potential problems or difficulties
E.
reveal applicant's age and birth place
A.
not vary from one interviewer to another
For interviews to have high validity means that the interpretation of interview results
should:
A.
not vary from one interviewer to another
B.
not correlate with job performance
C.
be done on time as scheduled
D.
be reviewed immediately by an human resource professional
E.
be held in confidence until the candidate is actually hired
C.
collect only job-related information
The following list contains things an interviewer should not do EXCEPT:
A.
ask leading questions that imply a desired answer
B.
be guided by initial impressions
C.
collect only job-related information
D.
attempt to predict personality traits from one interview
E.
exhibit personal biases even if based on experience
D.
subjective approach
In which of the following approaches does a decision maker look at the scores received
by various applicants on predictors, and then use his/her judgment to evaluate the
results?
A.
multiple cutoff approach
B.
judgmental approach
C.
compensatory approach
D.
subjective approach
E.
non-discriminatory approach
A.
predictive validity
Empirical approaches to test validation rely on such method(s) as:
A.
predictive validity
B.
content validity
C.
construct validity
D.
structural validity
E.
reliable validity
D.
workforce analysis
The selection interview process includes all of the following steps EXCEPT:
A.
information exchange
B.
creation of rapport
C.
evaluation
D.
workforce analysis
E.
interviewer preparation
B.
conducting searches through google, other search engines and social media sites
Background checks can now involve the use of social networking websites. This
includes:
A.
the recruiter posting questions on the company's HR blog seeking input on applicants
B.
conducting searches through google, other search engines and social media sites
C.
getting the applicant to provide access to their Facebook page
D.
creating personal profiles using age, race, and political affiliations in order to make more
informed hiring decisions
E.
HR specialists posing as friends to gain access to personal information about potential
candidates
A.
can the applicant do the job
The purpose of the employment interview is to seek answers to a few broad questions
including:
A.
can the applicant do the job
B.
how many applicants are there
C.
has the job analysis process been successful
D.
the applicant's sex, family status, religion, and age
E.
when is their last day of work
D.
weighted application blanks
Commonly used selection tools which can help an employer learn more about a
candidate and place value on the candidate's previous work experience include:
A.
biographical review
B.
personality tests
C.
honesty tests
D.
weighted application blanks
E.
interests inventories
D.
résumé fraud
Regardless of the résumé, information in an application form or the type of application
form used, they may contain elements of exaggeration and even outright fabrication. In
recent years this __________ (as it is called) has become a major concern of recruiters:
A.
résumé diversion
B.
application diversion
C.
human resources misconduct
D.
résumé fraud
E.
application fraud
E.
often it is necessary to utilize employment agencies to get the best employees
Proper selection processes are integral to a firm's success because of all the following
EXCEPT:
A.
an organization's success depends on the caliber of its employees
B.
the skills and qualifications of new hires need to match the organization's culture
C.
improper hiring can cause legal problems
D.
poor selection can be expensive
E.
often it is necessary to utilize employment agencies to get the best employees
B.
less turnover of new employees
Effects of the realistic job preview, particularly where work conditions do not appear
appealing, can include:
A.
far less recruits refusing job offers
B.
less turnover of new employees
C.
improved employee satisfaction with unpleasant working conditions
D.
facilitating employment equity programs
E.
paying lower wages
C.
in-depth interview
Among all selection techniques the most widely used technique is:
A.
written test
B.
reference
C.
in-depth interview
D.
psychological testing
E.
résumé
B.
associate with criminal elements
In defending drug testing of all new employees, executives at TD Canada Trust argued
that drug users are more likely to:
A.
miscount their cash
B.
associate with criminal elements
C.
injure themselves at the TD Centre
D.
misbehave in the staff lunchroom
E.
arrive late for work
A.
yields consistent results over time
Reliability in the framework of testing means that a test:
A.
yields consistent results over time
B.
if taken by more than one person will show all scores to be closely related
C.
is always held at a certain time and place
D.
relates significantly to job performance
E.
measures what it is supposed to measure
B.
drug tests are not indicators of safe performance in the here-and-now as they only
measure past drug use
The Canadian Civil Liberties Association maintains that drug testing should be banned
because:
A.
Canadian society has a serious drug problem among blue collar workers
B.
drug tests are not indicators of safe performance in the here-and-now as they only
measure past drug use
C.
it discriminates against the protected classes in the employment equity act
D.
there is no evidence that drugs cause any harm
E.
drug dependent users are not a protected class of employees
C.
may be valid for one group but not for another
Without differential validity, a test:
A.
will not be valid for anyone
B.
is invalid regardless of any other circumstances
C.
may be valid for one group but not for another
D.
is not legal
E.
will not be reliable
B.
measures the factors affecting personality and the relationship to environmental working
conditions
Which of the following is NOT an application of personality tests?
A.
measures personality and is used to provide vocational guidance, hiring, and promotion
recommendations
B.
measures the factors affecting personality and the relationship to environmental working
conditions
C.
measures the big five personality factors in 12-99-year-olds
D.
measures normal personality and is used to predict job performance
E.
measures six factors of personality including honesty/humility
A.
empirical approaches
Common approaches to test validation include which of the following?
A.
empirical approaches
B.
equity approaches
C.
non-rational approaches
D.
continuous indexing approaches
E.
relative approaches
B.
prepare for an interview by developing specific questions
The interviewer should:
A.
review the application during the interview to ensure that they can ask questions of the
applicant's family as they arise
B.
prepare for an interview by developing specific questions
C.
not allow an applicant to ask specific questions, in the interest of time, until the second
interview
D.
refrain from asking questions to gain specific applicant information because it is too
difficult to compare responses between applicants
E.
not record impressions of an applicant because that can bias the interviewers decision
E.
all of the choices
Common interviewing mistakes made by candidates include which of the following?
A.
playing games
B.
being unprepared
C.
not listening
D.
talking too much
E.
all of the choices
D.
group panel interviews
Employment interviews can be conducted in a number of applicant-interviewer
combinations including which of the following?
A.
panel interviews
B.
group interviews
C.
one-on-one interviews
D.
group panel interviews
E.
all of the choices
C.
polygraph testing
One method of integrity testing is the use of graphic responses tests. A method that is
prohibited in some provinces by the Employment Standards Act is:
A.
written tests
B.
attitude tests
C.
polygraph testing
D.
computer interactive testing
E.
employment testing
A.
content validity
Rational approaches to test validation include
A.
content validity
B.
concurrent validity
C.
predictive validity
D.
reliable validity
E.
structural validity
D.
differential validity
Some testing experts advise separate validation studies for different demographic
subgroups. These studies are referred to as:
A.
minority validity
B.
construct validity
C.
predictive validity
D.
differential validity
E.
demographic validity
E.
all of the choices
A good employment contract includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
specific probationary period if applicable
B.
start date of employment
C.
reasonable restrictive covenants
D.
termination procedures
E.
all of the choices
E.
all of the choices
Which of the following should the selection strategy do?
A.
reflect job requirements
B.
be linked to the organization's stage in its life cycle
C.
recognize organizational constraints
D.
recognize labour market realities
E.
all of the choices
D.
Markov construct interview
Employment interviews can be held in a variety of formats including all the below
EXCEPT:
A.
structured interview
B.
behavioural description
C.
stress-producing
D.
Markov construct interview
E.
unstructured interview
E.
performing well on one predictor can compensate for performing poorly on another
The compensatory approach to hiring is used when:
A.
predictors are assumed to be independent
B.
scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis
C.
the applicant is hired based on what their expected compensation package (pay) would
be
D.
affordability of the applicants compensation package (pay) is a predictor in the selection
process
E.
performing well on one predictor can compensate for performing poorly on another
D.
the end of the selection process
The compcision marks the:
A.
beginning of the selection process
B.
the end of the recruitment process
C.
the end of the first stage in the job analysis process
D.
the end of the selection process
E.
the beginning of the realistic job preview
A.
the immediate supervisor should be involved as s/he will ultimately be responsible for
the employee
During employment interviews:
A.
the immediate supervisor should be involved as s/he will ultimately be responsible for
the employee
B.
the immediate supervisor should not be involved as s/he is too close to the job
C.
the immediate supervisor should only be involved if there is no human resource
department
D.
the immediate supervisor should be involved only if s/he has had professional interview
training
E.
the immediate supervisor should not be informed of the interview until it is completed
A.
scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis
The multiple cutoff approach to hiring is used when:
A.
scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis
B.
management predetermines the number of applicants that will proceed on to the next
round
C.
there is first a group interview followed by individual interviews
D.
there is first a group interview followed by a panel interview
E.
the testing all takes place in the same day
B.
past behaviour is one of the best predictors of future behaviour
Behavioural oriented interviews are based on the principle that:
A.
people will tell you how they would like to behave
B.
past behaviour is one of the best predictors of future behaviour
C.
they are legal while polygraph testing sometimes is not
D.
watching how a person behaves while they are being interviewed is informative
E.
some demographic will behave differently than others
C.
they vary measurably in reliability and validity
Though interviewing is a popular selection technique, interviews do have some
shortcomings including:
A.
they allow the company to sell itself to the candidate
B.
they allow the employer to assess personal suitability of the candidate
C.
they vary measurably in reliability and validity
D.
they can be a public relations tools for the organization
E.
they allow the candidate to make an impression
D.
assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they may or
may not have encountered in the past
Situational interviews include questions that:
A.
attempt to identify how a job applicant responded to specific work situations in the past
B.
align with the theory that the best predictor of future actions is past actions
C.
try to focus on behaviour that has occurred most recently
D.
assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they may or
may not have encountered in the past
E.
assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they have
encountered in the past
B.
delicately balance individual rights against employer liability and workplace safety
Recent court decisions indicate that, today, employers, in regards to drug testing and
medical evaluations, must:
A.
refuse to do any testing regardless of job descriptions and specifications
B.
delicately balance individual rights against employer liability and workplace safety
C.
under all circumstances test for drugs and physical limitations for liability reasons
D.
accommodate all employees regardless of situation or circumstances, making testing
irrelevant
E.
enforce employees to do mandatory self-testing for drug use
B.
justifiable if it is a bona fide occupational requirement for the job
The testing of job applicants for drugs in Canada is:
A.
illegal
B.
justifiable if it is a bona fide occupational requirement for the job
C.
used at the discretion of the employer
D.
taken voluntarily only if the applicant offers
E.
required by law for many jobs
D.
building an applicant pool
Which of the following are NOT steps in the selection process?
A.
applicant screening
B.
preliminary reception of applicants
C.
verification of reference(s)
D.
building an applicant pool
E.
realistic job preview
B.
biographical information blank
A type of application blank that uses a multiple-choice format to measure a job
candidate's education, experiences, opinions, attitudes, and interests is called a:
A.
weighted application blank
B.
biographical information blank
C.
weighted information application
D.
biographical information application
E.
weighted indicator blank
D.
when predictors are expensive
The multiple hurdle approach is best used:
A.
in small, owner-operated business
B.
in the first half of the selection process
C.
when newly hired employees are given little to no training programs
D.
when predictors are expensive
E.
when the compensatory approach is used
C.
written references usually emphasize only positive points
Problems with personal references include:
A.
they are often too long
B.
they tend to be overused
C.
written references usually emphasize only positive points
D.
the writers do not provide enough information
E.
they are usually not signed, therefore illega
T
Formal orientation programs are intended to familiarize new employees with their roles,
other employees, and the organization.
T
Onboarding can reduce employee turnover, reduce errors, and increase productivity.
F
Most organizations conduct group orientation programs to be more cost effective.
T
An employee handbook is a common tool for explaining benefits, policies, and general
information about the organization to the new employee.
T
Successful organizational entry and maintenance is the key objective of employee
socialization.
T
The "buddy system" is an informal orientation system used by some organizations
where a new employee is paired with a senior worker who shows the new person
around.
T
Responsibility for orientation is usually shared between the human resource department
and the immediate supervisor.
T
Socialization is about introducing the culture of an organization.
T
Reactions from new employees, effects of socialization on job attitudes and roles, and a
positive cost-benefit are all methods for measuring the effectiveness of an orientation
program.
T
Canadian companies must increasingly compete in a global market and a fast-changing
environment, which in turn makes training an important part of organizational strategy.
T
Canadian managers will increasingly have to work with colleagues who often have very
different cultural values.
T
Benefits of training for the individual can include skill improvement and selfdevelopment.
T
Benefits of training for the organization can include higher productivity, improved
morale, and a better corporate image.
T
Knowledge management can be defined as the ability to utilize the information and
knowledge stored in employees' heads.
T
Training prepares people for their present jobs while development prepares them for
future jobs.
F
The order of activities in planning a training program is to decide on the content and
learning principles to be used, then do a needs assessment, and finally determine
objectives.
T
In training, needs assessment diagnoses present problems and environmental
challenges that training might facilitate.
F
Recommending a good employee for a training course as a reward is one reason why
human resource departments regard supervisory suggestions for employee training as
valid.
T
Training objectives should state three things: desired behaviour, conditions under which
it should occur, and acceptable performance criteria.
T
A training program's content is shaped by the needs assessment and the learning
principles.
T
Three of the five learning principles that can be included in training are participation,
relevance, and transference.
F
Repetition and relevance are learning principles, but feedback is not.
T
Active participation usually makes learning quicker and more long-lasting.
T
The use of feedback can allow motivated learners to modify their behaviour to achieve
the quickest possible learning curve.
T
As the learning curve indicates, learning is not linear but takes place in bursts separated
by plateaus.
T
In selecting a particular training technique no one technique is always best, for there are
always trade-offs between desired content, cost, and personal capabilities.
F
Off-the-job training techniques include lecture and video presentations, apprenticeships,
and self-study.
F
Coaching as a training technique is seldom if ever done by the immediate manager or
supervisor, but rather by the human resource department.
T
One advantage of role-playing as a training technique is that can create greater
empathy and tolerance of individual differences.
T
The drop-out rates that plague higher education MOOCs may not be a concern, as
many corporate learners use MOOCs to address a specific issue or problem instead of
completing the full course.
T
A competency-based performance management allows trainers to offer programs that
focus on specific employee strengths and invest training and development effort where
it maximizes value for the company.
T
Strategic human resource development can be defined as the identification of essential
job skills and the management of employee learning for long-range in relation to
corporate strategy.
T
An organization that plans to change its strategy should allocate funds for training.
T
Employee development can be defined as the process of enhancing an employee's
future value to the organization through career planning.
T
The three basic developmental strategies for organizations are cognitive, behavioural,
and environmental.
F
Because they use passive techniques, cognitive development strategies tend to be the
most effective as a developmental tool.
T
Behavioural developmental strategies are more concerned with changing employee
behaviour than changing attitudes and values.
T
Job rotation, matrix management, and project teams are all environmental strategies for
employee development.
T
The learning organization creates a knowledge network where employees can share
ideas and learn more about content that is important to their development.
T
All the following are training evaluation criteria: reaction, knowledge, behaviour, and
organizational results.
T
Job performance, exposure, and organizational loyalty are all possible career
development actions.
T
One advantage of career planning is that it gives the human resource department a
larger pool of job applicants from which to fill internal job openings.
F
The starting point for any career planning and development is the organization.
T
Organizationally sponsored career planning can further employee growth, tap employee
potential, and satisfy employee needs.
T
No matter how professional they are, to be successful, career counsellors must first get
employees to assess themselves and their environment.
C
A competency framework is:
A.
an organizational process for defining corrective discipline in situations of incompetence
B.
used to identify quality problems in production
C.
a list of skills and abilities that are needed to get to the next level or which add value to
the business
D.
a test that human resource specialists give employees to determine job standards
E.
a physical structure designed to house organizational knowledge
B
Strategic human resource development involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
identifying essential job skills
B.
attempting to change employee behaviour
C.
actively managing an employee's learning
D.
linking the development needs and activities to an organization's strategy and mission
E.
being future oriented with regards to employee development
E
"Desirable behaviour" as a development strategy includes reinforcing which of the
following?
A.
proper leadership style
B.
conflict resolution techniques
C.
appropriate types of communication
D.
interactions with customers
E.
all of the choices
C
The involvement of human resource departments in employee career planning has
grown in recent years mainly because career planning does all of the following
EXCEPT:
A.
taps employee potential
B.
reduces management hoarding of key employees
C.
automatically filters out and removes unacceptable employees
D.
develops promotable employees
E.
assists employment equity plans
E
To assist in their career development, employees expect organizations to provide the
following EXCEPT:
A.
career equity
B.
supervisory concern
C.
awareness of opportunities
D.
career satisfaction
E.
job design
B
Some human resource departments offer career counselling, although to be truly
successful, counsellors must:
A.
be able to inform employees exactly where their career path lies at any time
B.
get employees to assess themselves and their environment
C.
be able to persuade employees to go in the direction the organization, not where the
employee wants
D.
have direct experience in the jobs and careers that they are counselling about
E.
avoid using attitudes and skills tests at this stage
B
As far as costs go, training should be considered to be:
A.
too important to be analyzed on a cost-benefit basis
B.
the same as any other organizational decision and assessed for cost-effectiveness
C.
by its very nature immeasurable in any practical way for cost-effectiveness
D.
too future oriented to be measured in current costs
E.
a non-cost item
B
Developmental strategies that desire to change employee attitudes and values would
generally fall under the heading of ______.
A.
behavioural
B.
environmental
C.
cognitive
D.
normative
E.
managerial
B
Matrix management, cross-cultural management, and diversity training are all
instruments used in the __________ strategy to employee development.
A.
behavioural
B.
environmental
C.
cognitive
D.
normative
E.
participative
E
Which of the following apply to computer-based training?
A.
it allows the student to control the pace of learning
B.
positive reinforcement occurs during the training
C.
courses can be offered through tutorial packages
D.
training packages are of a modular type format
E.
all of the choices
A
The reaction criterion for training evaluation has as an advantage that it evaluates:
A.
the set-up of the program
B.
the effectiveness of the program
C.
desired behavioural changes
D.
attitude and behaviour changes effected by the training
E.
overall organizational results and benefits
D
The first step in any training program is to:
A.
set a specific space as a permanent training area
B.
determine what the training program will be about
C.
determine training objectives
D.
assess the needs of the organization
E.
initiate a job redesign program
C
In training, to do a needs assessment means to:
A.
assess the costs of training programs
B.
suggest possible methods to evaluate training programs
C.
diagnose environmental challenges that could be met through training
D.
develop an external workforce analysis to fill training needs
E.
review recruiting and selection procedures
B
The skills, knowledge, and behaviours that distinguish high performance in a board role,
function, or level of the organization is known as:
A.
level of development
B.
competencies
C.
employee talent
D.
job skills
E.
talent profile
B
The use of such instruments as role-playing, sensitivity training, team building, and
mentoring would indicate an organizational strategy based on the:
A.
cognitive approach
B.
behavioural approach
C.
environmental approach
D.
job analysis approach
E.
assessment approach
D
There is a trend towards online orientation instruments, the benefits of which are all the
following EXCEPT:
A.
compressed delivery time
B.
reduced workload for trainers
C.
greater cost-effectiveness
D.
employees can do internet searches for more information
E.
ability to deliver to geographically dispersed workforces
C
The organizational benefits of employee career planning do NOT include:
A.
lower turnover
B.
promotable employees
C.
increased benefits levels
D.
tapping employee potential
E.
meeting legal requirements
A
Knowledge management has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A.
it focuses on making information available to managers for decision making
B.
it translates an organization's ability to utilize employee knowledge
C.
it determines which employees will receive additional career development
D.
it attempts to leverage knowledge within the organization
E.
it endeavors to increase knowledge systematically to apply knowledge in a profitable
manner
C
Human resource departments encourage career planning through all the following
EXCEPT:
A.
information
B.
career education
C.
job analysis
D.
counselling
E.
employee self-assessment
C
Orientation programs often cover a number of topics including all of the following
EXCEPT:
A.
employee benefits
B.
job duties
C.
job analysis issues
D.
organizational issues
E.
introduction to other employees
D
On-the-job training techniques do NOT include:
A.
coaching
B.
job rotation
C.
job instruction training
D.
role-playing
E.
apprenticeships
C
Cross-training employees by moving them through a variety of jobs within the
organization is called:
A.
job enrichment
B.
job enlargement
C.
job rotation
D.
job mentoring
E.
job learning
E
Training evaluation criteria can include which of the following?
A.
organizational results
B.
reaction
C.
knowledge
D.
behaviour
E.
all of the choices
B
Methods and instruments used in environmental strategies for employee career
development include which of the following:
A.
videos
B.
job rotation
C.
leadership grid
D.
mentoring
E.
team building
E
Approaches to evaluating the effectiveness of an orientation program include which of
the following?
A.
randomly interview new employees who have completed the program
B.
randomly select new employees and have them complete surveys
C.
measure job satisfaction and work motivation after employees have been in their new
roles
D.
conduct cost-benefit studies on orientation activities
E.
all of the choices
C
In a perfect world, the best criteria of evaluating a training program would be ______.
A.
reaction
B.
behaviour
C.
organizational results
D.
knowledge
E.
attitudes
A
When employers encourage career planning, one benefit often is:
A.
employees set goals and are more motivated
B.
increased creative anxiety
C.
poor employees resign
D.
expanded learning curve charts
E.
employees will decertify unions and set up team based self-management equity
systems
D
A poor new-employee onboarding program may:
A.
increase organizational stability
B.
reduce employee anxiety
C.
reduce labour grievances
D.
encourage employees to do things his or her own way and not to be bound by
organizational norms
E.
develop clear-cut organizational expectations
B
Job hopping:
A.
is rarely done by younger workers
B.
is considered to be okay by younger workers provided the benefits outweigh the
potential bad reputation
C.
refers to how many interviews it takes a candidate to secure a position
D.
is a stigma which should be avoided
E.
involves lateral moves within an organization and demonstrates loyalty to the employer
E
Which of the following are learning principles?
A.
relevance
B.
commitment
C.
repetition
D.
participation
E.
all of the choices
E
An individual can take a number of actions to develop a career, including all the
following EXCEPT:
A.
exposure
B.
job performance
C.
resignations
D.
mentors
E.
not learn from mistakes
B
An evaluation of training needs will result in training objectives, including:
A.
employees' future career plans
B.
acceptable performance criteria
C.
revised job descriptions
D.
training costs
E.
where training will take place
B
Case study, simulation, and programmed learning are all examples of:
A.
on-the-job training techniques
B.
off-the-job training techniques
C.
role-playing
D.
transference
E.
participation learning
C
The process by which a new employee begins to understand and accept the values,
norms, and beliefs held by others in an organization is known as ______.
A.
familiarization
B.
adaptation
C.
socialization
D.
orientation programs
E.
participation
D
The term ________ is used to describe a series of aligned strategic processes that take
into account all the new employees early experiences.
A.
orientation
B.
socialization
C.
succession planning
D.
onboarding
E.
teamwork
B
Effective onboarding activities include which of the following?
A.
hiring
B.
socialization
C.
succession planning
D.
start-up costs
E.
wikis
C
One responsibility of a human resource department is to plan for the unexpected
vacancy in key positions. Such planning is known as:
A.
emergency planning
B.
replacement planning
C.
succession planning
D.
resignation planning (though it can include employee departure due to death or
retirement)
E.
insurance planning
C
In most organizations, coaching (as a training approach) is almost always done
by:
A.
senior management
B.
the human resource department
C.
the immediate supervisor or manager
D.
a professional trainer or coach
E.
a virtual-reality coach
C
Although none of the following are scientific methods of evaluating training, select the
one that would likely be the most effective as a practical measurement.
A.
the post-test design
B.
the pre-test design
C.
the pre-test/post-test design
D.
elimination of uncertainty (the Heisenberg test)
E.
Markov analysis
C
Employee development can be defined as:
A.
training employees how to do their job better
B.
increasing an employee's level of productivity
C.
the process of providing employees with opportunities to grow within the organization
D.
using job analysis to enhance job descriptions
E.
developing personal systems for increasing an employee's cognitive dissonance
C
Training pilots in flight simulators because the simulators closely resemble the actual
cockpits and flight characteristics of the airplane is an example of the learning principle
of ______.
A.
relevance
B.
repetition
C.
transference
D.
feedback
E.
participation
A
When an employee is moved to another position in the same class, or to a different
class with substantially the same duties and salary this is called a:
A.
lateral transfer
B.
horizontal transfer
C.
vertical transfer
D.
departmental transfer
E.
job progression transfer
Strategic human resource development involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A identifying essential job skills
B attempting to change employee behaviour
C actively managing an employee's learning
D linking the development needs and activities to an organization's strategy and mission
E being future oriented with regards to employee development
B
"Desirable behaviour" as a development strategy includes reinforcing which of the
following?
-proper leadership style
-conflict resolution techniques
-appropriate types of communication
-interactions with customers
-all of the choices
All of the choices
The involvement of human resource departments in employee career planning has
grown in recent years mainly because career planning does all of the following
EXCEPT:
-taps employee potential
-reduces management hoarding of key employees
-automatically filters out and removes unacceptable employees
-develops promotable employees
-assists employment equity plans
automatically filters out and removes unacceptable employees
To assist in their career development, employees expect organizations to provide the
following EXCEPT:
-career equity
-supervisory concern
-awareness of opportunities
-career satisfaction
-job design
Job design
Some human resource departments offer career counselling, although to be truly
successful, counsellors must:
-be able to inform employees exactly where their career path lies at any time
-get employees to assess themselves and their environment
-be able to persuade employees to go in the direction the organization, not where the
employee wants
-have direct experience in the jobs and careers that they are counselling about
-avoid using attitudes and skills tests at this stage
get employees to assess themselves and their environment
As far as costs go, training should be considered to be:
-too important to be analyzed on a cost-benefit basis
-the same as any other organizational decision and assessed for cost-effectiveness
-by its very nature immeasurable in any practical way for cost-effectiveness
-too future oriented to be measured in current costs
a non-cost item
the same as any other organizational decision and assessed for cost-effectiveness
Developmental strategies that desire to change employee attitudes and values would
generally fall under the heading of ______.
-behavioural
-environmental
-cognitive
-normative
-managerial
environmental
Matrix management, cross-cultural management, and diversity training are all
instruments used in the __________
strategy to employee development.
-behavioural
-environmental
-cognitive
-normative
-participative
environmental
Which of the following apply to computer-based training?
-it allows the student to control the pace of learning
-positive reinforcement occurs during the training
-courses can be offered through tutorial packages
-training packages are of a modular type format
-all of the choices
all of the choices
The reaction criterion for training evaluation has as an advantage that it evaluates:
-the set-up of the program
-the effectiveness of the program
-desired behavioural changes
-attitude and behaviour changes effected by the training
-overall organizational results and benefits
the set-up of the program
The first step in any training program is to:
-set a specific space as a permanent training area
-determine what the training program will be about
-determine training objectives
-assess the needs of the organization
-initiate a job redesign program
assess the needs of the organization
In training, to do a needs assessment means to:
-assess the costs of training programs
-suggest possible methods to evaluate training programs
-diagnose environmental challenges that could be met through training
-develop an external workforce analysis to fill training needs
-review recruiting and selection procedures
diagnose environmental challenges that could be met through training
The skills, knowledge, and behaviours that distinguish high performance in a job ,
function, or level of the organization is known as:
-level of development
-competencies
-employee talent
-job skills
-talent profile
competencies
The use of such instruments as role-playing, sensitivity training, team building, and
mentoring would indicate an organizational strategy based on the:
-cognitive approach
-behavioural approach
-environmental approach
-job analysis approach
-assessment approach
behavioural approach
There is a trend towards online orientation instruments, the benefits of which are all the
following EXCEPT:
-compressed delivery time
-reduced workload for trainers
-greater cost-effectiveness
-employees can do internet searches for more information
-ability to deliver to geographically dispersed workforces
employees can do internet searches for more information
The organizational benefits of employee career planning do NOT include:
-lower turnover
-promotable employees
-increased benefits levels
-tapping employee potential
-meeting legal requirements
increased benefits levels
Knowledge management has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
-it focuses on making information available to managers for decision making
-it translates an organization's ability to utilize employee knowledge
-it determines which employees will receive additional career development
-it attempts to leverage knowledge within the organization
-it endeavors to increase knowledge systematically to apply knowledge in a profitable
manner
it focuses on making information available to managers for decision making
Human resource departments encourage career planning through all the following
EXCEPT:
-information
-career education
-job analysis
-counselling
-employee self-assessment
job analysis
Orientation programs often cover a number of topics including all of the following
EXCEPT:
-employee benefits
-job duties
-job analysis issues
-organizational issues
-introduction to other employees
job analysis issues
On-the-job training techniques do NOT include:
-coaching
-job rotation
-job instruction training
-role-playing
-apprenticeships
role-playing
Cross-training employees by moving them through a variety of jobs within the
organization is called:
-job enrichment
-job enlargement
-job rotation
-job mentoring
-job learning
job rotation
Training evaluation criteria can include which of the following?
-organizational results
-reaction
-knowledge
-behaviour
-all of the choices
all of the choices
Methods and instruments used in environmental strategies for employee career
development include which of the following:
-videos
-job rotation
-leadership grid
-mentoring
-team building
job rotation
Approaches to evaluating the effectiveness of an orientation program include which of
the following?
-randomly interview new employees who have completed the program
-randomly select new employees and have them complete surveys
-measure job satisfaction and work motivation after employees have been in their new
roles
-conduct cost-benefit studies on orientation activities
-all of the choices
all of the choices
In a perfect world, the best criteria of evaluating a training program would be ______.
-reaction
-behaviour
-organizational results
-knowledge
-attitudes
organizational results
When employers encourage career planning, one benefit often is:
-employees set goals and are more motivated
-increased creative anxiety
-poor employees resign
-expanded learning curve charts
-employees will decertify unions and set up team based self-management equity
systems
employees set goals and are more motivated
increased creative anxiety
A poor new-employee onboarding program may:
-increase organizational stability
-reduce employee anxiety
-reduce labour grievances
-encourage employees to do things his or her own way and not to be bound by
organizational norms
-develop clear-cut organizational expectations
encourage employees to do things his or her own way and not to be bound by
organizational norms
Job hopping:
-is rarely done by younger workers
-is considered to be okay by younger workers provided the benefits outweigh the
potential bad reputation
-refers to how many interviews it takes a candidate to secure a position
-is a stigma which should be avoided
-involves lateral moves within an organization and demonstrates loyalty to the employer
is considered to be okay by younger workers provided the benefits outweigh the
potential bad reputation
Which of the following are learning principles?
-relevance
-commitment
-repetition
-participation
-all of the choices
all of the choices
An individual can take a number of actions to develop a career, including all the
following EXCEPT:
-exposure
-job performance
-resignations
-mentors
-not learn from mistakes
not learn from mistakes
An evaluation of training needs will result in training objectives, including:
-employees' future career plans
-acceptable performance criteria
-revised job descriptions
-training costs
-where training will take place
acceptable performance criteria
Case study, simulation, and programmed learning are all examples of:
-on-the-job training techniques
-off-the-job training techniques
-role-playing
-transference
-participation learning
off-the-job training techniques
The process by which a new employee begins to understand and accept the values,
norms, and beliefs held by others in an organization is known as ______.
-familiarization
-adaptation
-socialization
-orientation programs
-participation
socialization
The term ________ is used to describe a series of aligned strategic processes that take
into account all the new employees early experiences.
-orientation
-socialization
-succession planning
-onboarding
-teamwork
onboarding
Effective onboarding activities include which of the following?
-hiring
-socialization
-succession planning
-start-up costs
-wikis
socialization
One responsibility of a human resource department is to plan for the unexpected
vacancy in key positions. Such planning is known as:
-emergency planning
-replacement planning
-succession planning
-resignation planning (though it can include employee departure due to death or
retirement)
-insurance planning
succession planning
In most organizations, coaching (as a training approach) is almost always done by:
-senior management
-the human resource department
-the immediate supervisor or manager
-a professional trainer or coach
-a virtual-reality coach
the immediate supervisor or manager
Although none of the following are scientific methods of evaluating training, select the
one that would likely be the most effective as a practical measurement.
-the post-test design
-the pre-test design
-the pre-test/post-test design
-elimination of uncertainty (the Heisenberg test)
-Markov analysis
the pre-test/post-test design
Employee development can be defined as:
-training employees how to do their job better
-increasing an employee's level of productivity
-the process of providing employees with opportunities to grow within the organization
-using job analysis to enhance job descriptions
-developing personal systems for increasing an employee's cognitive dissonance
the process of providing employees with opportunities to grow within the organization
Training pilots in flight simulators because the simulators closely resemble the actual
cockpits and flight characteristics of the airplane is an example of the learning principle
of ______.
-relevance
-repetition
-transference
-feedback
-participation
transference
When an employee is moved to another position in the same class, or to a different
class with substantially the same duties
and salary this is called a:
-lateral transfer
-horizontal transfer
-vertical transfer
-departmental transfer
-job progression transfer
lateral transfer
True
The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms gives every Canadian the right to live
and work anywhere in Canada
True
The Charter of Rights and Freedoms specifically discusses aboriginal rights but not
rights of gay/lesbians.
True
The Charter can override any existing law or statute
True
When the Charter came into effect it was hoped the impact would be substantial in
strengthening human resource and industrial relations issues, but the impact has
actually been modest so far
True
The Supreme Court has held that the Canadian Charter does not include the right to
strike or to collectively bargain
True
One problem with human rights legislation is that it makes it very difficult for employers
to reward performance or penalize poor productivity.
False
The Canadian Human Rights Act seeks to guarantee equality before the law for every
Canadian.
True
The Canadian Human Rights Act seeks to provide equal employment opportunities
without regard to sex, race, religion, colour, or disability.
True
Legal direct discrimination is called bona fide occupational requirement
False
Legal intentional discrimination is often referred to as occupational pro forma
employment requirements
False
Human rights legislation prohibits discrimination in employment under all circumstances
True
An example of indirect discrimination could be weight or height requirements for
employment
True
A lack of explicit anti-harassment policies in an organization could be an example of
indirect discrimination
True
Asking for women only to apply for the position of attendant in a women's health club is
an example of a BFOQ
False
Every human rights act in Canada specifically prohibits discrimination based upon
political belief.
True
If a supervisor is abusive to all employees, it is more difficult for a single employee to
prove discrimination
False
Allowing an employee who has just joined a relatively obscure religious organization to
take off on a busy work day for a special religious observance would be considered
"undue hardship" and can be safely refused.
False
Although it is unlawful to discriminate in recruiting or hiring men and women, it is not
unlawful to have separate policies for men and women
True
Ontario Human Rights Commission's discrimination policy on the basis of pregnancy
now includes protection for women trying to become pregnant.
False
It is illegal to have separate measurement and performance standards for men and
women, regardless of the reason
True
The choice of words that an organization uses in its job ad can often impact the gender
of applicants
False
One problem with the Canadian Human Rights Act is that when a job standard
discriminates against a person under the Act, the burden of proof rests with the
individual, not the organization
True
Nepotism can be a form of discrimination based on family status
True
Firing an employee for drug or alcohol dependency can be considered as discrimination
in some cases.
False
Ostracism, whether subtle or overt, is a form of bullying against which most
organizations have harassment policies
True
Having embarrassing photos or videos taken at a work event then uploaded to a social
media site is an example of cyber-bullying
True
Protection against harassment can exist even outside the workplace if the incidents are
employment-related.
False
An employer who retaliates against an employee for exercising rights under the Human
Rights Act is wrong but cannot currently be charged with any offence under the law
True
It is an offence punishable by jail time to obstruct or fail to comply with a human rights
tribunal
False
Employment Equity has designated six target (or protected) groups within Canada
False
Recruiting, selection, and compensation are the three human resource functions
affected by employment equity plans
False
Pay equity legislation is concerned with the concept of "equal pay for equal work."
False
Despite their purpose, employment equity programs are considered as being legally
guilty of reverse discrimination when they give preference to people based upon their
race, sex, or colour
False
Despite the existence of the old boys' network, women within the judicial system do not
find themselves subject to this form of harassment
False
The existing values, norms, and patterns of interactions among managers may also act
as a pathway that enhances the career growth of women and minority persons beyond
a certain level.
True
Several secondary dimensions of diversity inclusive of education, family status,
language, and even income levels play important roles in shaping our values,
expectations, behaviours, and experiences
False
Cultural conventions and values create a "system" when interacting with others and
reduce uncertainty for individuals in a society. These largely unwritten rules themselves
are not changing and the cultures that follow them are resistant to change
True
Task accomplishments that have been assigned to work teams have enabled firms to
distance themselves from the competitors and safeguard their longevity.
True
Tying diversity initiatives to business goals and incorporating diversity goals into
performance standards ensures the accountability of managers for diversity
True
In order to manage and motivate a diverse workforce current industry practices have
several forms of training including diversity training programs, awareness training, and
skill-building training
true
In order to avoid offending members of different sex/gender, racial, ethnic, age, or other
groups several organizations have established communication standards
B.
reasonable accommodation
No person should be denied employment because of a disability and voluntary
adjustments to a workplace are made for special needs employees. This is referred to
as:
A.
BFOQ
B.
reasonable accommodation
C.
adjusted requirements
D.
systemic changes
E.
reverse discrimination
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C.
analyze the model that will be followed
Which of these is NOT one of the steps in managing diversity?
A.
change systems, policies, and structures
B.
identify ideal future state
C.
analyze the model that will be followed
D.
evaluate results and follow up
E.
analyze present systems and procedures
E.
they have been told to by the courts or fall under government regulations
Which of the following are reasons that employers often voluntarily enact employment
equity programs?
A.
open discrimination can lead to negative publicity
B.
excluding an entire group of people limits the number of people available to work
C.
apparent or perceived discrimination can lead to government intervention
D.
perceived discrimination can lead to consumer boycott
E.
they have been told to by the courts or fall under government regulations
B.
employment practices exclude specific groups for reasons that cannot be shown to be
job-related.
Indirect or systemic discrimination occurs when:
A.
discrimination is intended but hidden and applied subtly.
B.
employment practices exclude specific groups for reasons that cannot be shown to be
job-related.
C.
bona fide occupational requirements are permitted.
D.
particular groups may not be hired because there are specific safety or efficiency
related reasons.
E.
organizational policies forbid the hiring of people based solely on race or sex.
D.
bona fide occupational requirement
Under certain circumstances direct intentional discrimination is acceptable. In Canada,
such legal discrimination is called:
A.
systemic discrimination
B.
affirmative action
C.
bona fide special case employment
D.
bona fide occupational requirement
E.
ad hoc accommodation
C.
can be interpreted as disabilities under the act
Federal Court rulings have indicated that drug and alcohol dependencies:
A.
can be grounds for immediate dismissal
B.
are not covered in any sense under the Canadian human rights act
C.
can be interpreted as disabilities under the act
D.
are not an excuse for behaviour that could otherwise result in dismissal
E.
may be allowed to indulge their dependencies in the workplace
B.
affects nearly every human resource function
Human rights legislation differs from other employment related laws and regulations in
that it:
A.
is limited in scope and application
B.
affects nearly every human resource function
C.
can only be applied if organizations wish
D.
is not relevant in most cases
E.
cannot supersede any organization's current policies
E.
being legally responsible for all of an organization's activities
Human Resource specialists are concerned with legislation and regulations for all of the
following reasons EXCEPT:
A.
its necessity to stay informed or their knowledge becomes useless to the organization
B.
interpretation by regulatory bodies and court rulings affect hr activities
C.
company programs must be legally compliant
D.
poor public relations or law suits can occur against an organization without legislation in
place
E.
being legally responsible for all of an organization's activities
E.
all of the choices except pay all costs associated with hearing and/or reviewing the case
The Canadian Human Rights Tribunal has several remedies at its disposal. Which of
the following can it order a violator to do?
A.
pay all costs associated with hearing and/or reviewing the case
B.
restore the rights, opportunities, and privileges denied the victim
C.
compensate the victim for wages lost and any expenses incurred as a result of the
discriminatory practice
D.
compensate the victim for pain and suffering
E.
all of the choices except pay all costs associated with hearing and/or reviewing the case
B.
skill-building training
Educating employees on specific cultural differences and how to respond to differences
in the workplace is the process of:
A.
diversity management training
B.
skill-building training
C.
conflict management training
D.
awareness training
E.
mentor training
B.
Constitution Act of 1982
The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is contained in the:
A.
BNA act of 1867
B.
Constitution Act of 1982
C.
Declaration of Independence
D.
Canadian Human Rights Act (1977)
E.
Canadian Immigration Act
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B.
are not identical but generally mirror one another
Federal and provincial human rights legislation:
A.
are completely identical
B.
are not identical but generally mirror one another
C.
differ to a fair degree
D.
have no common elements between them
E.
actually contradict each other
C.
equal employment opportunities
The difference between the Charter and the Canadian Human Rights Act is that the
Charter guarantees equality before the law, while the Human Rights Act seeks to
provide:
A.
women's rights
B.
aboriginal rights
C.
equal employment opportunities
D.
equal language rights
E.
social welfare rights
D.
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The wage gap is __________ for unionized women aged 25-54 earning on average
__________ for every dollar earned by men.
A.
less; $0.98
B.
more; $0.79
C.
equal; $0.85
D.
less; $0.94
E.
equal; $1.00
C.
family status
The following prohibited grounds for discrimination are common to all human rights acts
in Canada EXCEPT:
A.
race or colour
B.
sex
C.
family status
D.
sexual orientation
E.
religion
D.
both federal and provincial acts
Canadian human rights legislation consists of:
A.
federal acts only
B.
provincial acts only
C.
federal, international, and united nations acts
D.
both federal and provincial acts
E.
federal, provincial, and international acts
E.
a human being
Sexual harassment only applies if the complainant is:
A.
female
B.
female, gay, or lesbian
C.
female, gay, lesbian, or a member of a protected class
D.
female, gay, lesbian, or a member of a protected class, plus male if harassed by
another male
E.
a human being
C.
freedom from hunger and want
Which of the following fundamental rights is NOT addressed in The Canadian Charter of
Rights and Freedoms?
A.
freedom of conscience and religion
B.
freedom of thought, belief, opinion, and expression
C.
freedom from hunger and want
D.
freedom of peaceful assembly
E.
freedom of association
C.
gays and lesbians
The Employment Equity Act of 1987 is specifically intended to remove employment
barriers and promote equity for all the following groups EXCEPT:
A.
women
B.
aboriginal peoples
C.
gays and lesbians
D.
people with disabilities
E.
visible minorities
A.
in order to avoid flooding the courts (with often minor issues) as the workplace becomes
increasingly regulated
Governments often create special regulatory commissions and boards:
A.
in order to avoid flooding the courts (with often minor issues) as the workplace becomes
increasingly regulated
B.
in order to make jobs for the unemployed regulators
C.
in order to do a preliminary organizing of cases before sending them to the courts
D.
because courts are refusing to hear cases regarding minor issues
E.
because courts did not know enough to make reasonable judgments
C.
is not discriminatory if the person has reached the normal retirement age for that
profession
The courts have ruled that terminating someone's employment due to their age:
A.
is always discriminatory
B.
is not discriminatory for anyone over the age of 55
C.
is not discriminatory if the person has reached the normal retirement age for that
profession
D.
is only discriminatory for minority groups
E.
is not a factor to be considered
E.
it indicates that the organization is not responding to employment equity requirements
All the following can result from a charge of reverse discrimination in enacting
employment equity EXCEPT:
A.
it may place a human resource department in a difficult position
B.
it can raise questions about intrinsic fairness
C.
it can be irrelevant providing the CHRC has made a ruling for a quota to the company,
even if they result in reverse discrimination
D.
it can be seen by the human rights act to be non-discriminatory when fulfilling the spirit
of the law
E.
it indicates that the organization is not responding to employment equity requirements
A.
are committing a criminal act
Managers or supervisors who retaliate in any way against employees who have brought
complaints under the Human Rights Act:
A.
are committing a criminal act
B.
may legally do so
C.
may legally do so as long as the employee doesn't complain
D.
may do so with the approval of the firm's human resource department
E.
may do so with the approval of the human rights commission
C.
mentors; protégés
Organizations can bring greater predictability into diversity outcomes by establishing
formal mentoring systems since they result in greater tangible results and accountability
on the part of both __________ and __________.
A.
organizations; mentors
B.
protégés; organizations
C.
mentors; protégés
D.
mentors; senior management
E.
senior management; protégés
B.
requirements that an attendant in a women's locker room must be female
All the following are examples of indirect discrimination EXCEPT:
A.
psychological inability of people to deal with persons with disabilities
B.
requirements that an attendant in a women's locker room must be female
C.
minimum scores on certain employment tests
D.
minimum height or weight requirements for police forces
E.
internal or word-of-mouth hiring policies
E.
employer's reluctance to accommodate
Relevant considerations of the principle of "undue hardship" include all the following
EXCEPT:
A.
financial cost
B.
disruption of a collective agreement
C.
morale problems with other employees
D.
interchangeability of work force and facilities
E.
employer's reluctance to accommodate
D.
anytime or anyplace if they are employment-related
Legally actionable workplace harassment includes incidents or behaviours that occur
A.
anytime or anyplace
B.
only during working hours
C.
only at the workplace
D.
anytime or anyplace if they are employment-related
E.
only between supervisors and their immediate subordinates
E.
all of the choices
Which of the following is a suggested approach when employing a transgendered
person?
A.
meet with the employee beforehand to determine how and what should be
communicated
B.
hold information sessions with other employees before the transgendered employee
commences work
C.
permit the employee to use the washroom consistent with the person's gender identity
D.
inform employees to call the employee by his or her chosen name and pronoun
E.
all of the choices
E.
all of the choices except probationary processes and procedures
Systems and practices requiring modification during a diversity effort include which of
the following?
A.
benefits policy
B.
employee counselling practices
C.
probationary processes and procedures
D.
performance management
E.
all of the choices except probationary processes and procedures
C.
provide fundamental rights to Canadians
The purpose of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms is to:
A.
provide moral guidance
B.
provide a structure for human resource specialists
C.
provide fundamental rights to Canadians
D.
provide a framework for lawyers and their families
E.
provide a safe working environment
B.
putting in an elevator to the third floor of a home office to provide for a disabled job
applicant
The Employment Equity Act specifies that an employer shall provide "reasonable
accommodation to correct...under-representation." The following are examples of
"reasonable accommodation" EXCEPT:
A.
providing a sign language interpreter to interview a deaf candidate
B.
putting in an elevator to the third floor of a home office to provide for a disabled job
applicant
C.
providing a step-stool or ladder for an employee who is a dwarf
D.
altering dress codes to permit aboriginal people to wear braids
E.
providing special telephone or computer equipment for a person who is hearing or
visually impaired
E.
all of the choices
In order to effectively develop an employment equity program an organization should:
A.
exhibit strong employer commitment
B.
appoint a high-ranking director to indicate commitment
C.
publicize commitment both internally and externally
D.
set goals that require specific timetables
E.
all of the choices
D.
training; laws; human resource management
Following legal requirements also has implications for __________. Managers and
supervisors have to be familiar with the __________ as they apply to __________.
A.
training; laws; human relations movement
B.
reputation; laws; human resource management
C.
reputation; Canadian human rights commission; human resource management
D.
training; laws; human resource management
E.
reputation; laws; human relations management
B.
age, ethnicity and culture, sex/gender, race, religion, sexual orientation, and capabilities
Which of the following is the list of core dimensions of diversity?
A.
ethnicity and culture, sex/gender, race, language, status, and religion
B.
age, ethnicity and culture, sex/gender, race, religion, sexual orientation, and capabilities
C.
sex/gender, sexual orientation, language, education, status, income levels, and
capabilities
D.
age, gender, race, status, religion, education, and capabilities
E.
age, education, ethnicity and culture, status, sex/gender, language, and race
A.
sexual orientation is a prohibited ground for discrimination
The Supreme Court has decided in regards to same-sex couples that:
A.
sexual orientation is a prohibited ground for discrimination
B.
only married same-sex couples must be treated the same way as heterosexual couples
C.
sexual orientation is not a human rights issue
D.
like heterosexual couples, businesses may refuse to hire both partners to work together
E.
individual gays and lesbians are not protected, but gay and lesbian couples are
D.
the organization or individuals within the organization
If an organization has been charged with non-compliance by the Human Rights
Commission, who can the charge be against?
A.
the CEO alone
B.
individuals within the organization
C.
shareholders
D.
the organization or individuals within the organization
E.
the HR department only
C.
somewhat limited so far
A review of the application of the Charter to human resources and industrial relations
issues reveals that its impact has been important, but:
A.
has caused the supreme court to be flooded with these cases
B.
needs for better efficiency
C.
somewhat limited so far
D.
has the cases appearing in the supreme court too fast and requires additional
processes
E.
its application to human resources likely to be phased out over the next decade
A.
of "undue hardship"
An employer has a duty to accommodate an employee's human rights up to the point:
A.
of "undue hardship"
B.
where the employer spends up to $3000 per employee
C.
that the employer feels they want to
D.
that the employee demands
E.
stated specifically in the Human Rights Act
C.
the American term carries too many negative associations with it
The term "employment equity" has been officially used in Canada rather than the U.S.
term "affirmative action" mainly because:
A.
the Americans have copyrighted their term and Canada would have to pay to use it
B.
the American term cannot be easily translated into French
C.
the American term carries too many negative associations with it
D.
Canadians tend to be less "affirmative" than Americans
E.
Canadian law forbids the use of the word affirmative
B.
the BFOQ standard was established in an honest belief that it was rationally connected
to the proper performance of the job
In a recent ruling the Supreme Court established new criteria to define a bona fide
occupational qualification, including that:
A.
the BFOQ standard must be unconnected to job performance
B.
the BFOQ standard was established in an honest belief that it was rationally connected
to the proper performance of the job
C.
the BFOQ standard must be an unnecessary requirement to successful job
performance
D.
the BFOQ standard must only apply to certain groups
E.
the BFOQ standard cannot apply to target groups listed in the employment equity act
B.
cases end up in the judicial system
Section 1 of the Charter guarantees rights and freedoms, but qualifies with adjectives
such as "reasonable" and "demonstratively justified", which is one reason why:
A.
the charter is no longer valid
B.
cases end up in the judicial system
C.
the charter doesn't apply to non-human resource managers
D.
the charter is seen as anti-union
E.
it is easier for employees to defend their rights in Canada
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E.
federal and provincial governments and agencies under their jurisdiction
The Charter of Rights and Freedoms applies only to individuals dealing with:
A.
agencies working under the united nations jurisdiction
B.
federal and provincial governments (excluding the Northwest Territories and Nunavut)
and agencies under their jurisdiction
C.
the federal government and agencies under their jurisdiction
D.
provincial governments and agencies under their jurisdiction
E.
federal and provincial governments and agencies under their jurisdiction
A.
the glass ceiling
An invisible, but real obstruction to career advancement of women and people of visible
minorities, resulting in frustration, career dissatisfaction, and increased turnover is
known as:
A.
the glass ceiling
B.
the old boys' club
C.
the glass roof
D.
the old boys' network
E.
the glass cap
B.
the right to having all cost of a hearing covered by a third party
Below are rules in the concept of natural justice EXCEPT:
A.
the right to a fair hearing
B.
the right to having all cost of a hearing covered by a third party
C.
the right to legal representation
D.
the right to an impartial hearing
E.
the right to a hearing within a reasonable time
C.
the segregated processes within work groups
Participants in a process-oriented diversity training program develop an understanding
of how diversity is affected by the following except:
A.
management style
B.
the interpersonal communication process
C.
the segregated processes within work groups
D.
teamwork
E.
other managerial issues
C.
they have been convicted of an offence for which a pardon has been issued
The Canadian Human Rights Act prohibits discriminating against a person if:
A.
they have ever been convicted of an offence
B.
they have ever been arrested, even if not convicted of anything
C.
they have been convicted of an offence for which a pardon has been issued
D.
they have served time in jail or prison
E.
they have ever filed a complaint with the police
C.
to have bona fide occupational qualifications
While it is illegal to recruit, hire, and promote employees based upon a person's sex, it
is not illegal:
A.
to have separate policies for men and women
B.
to reserve some jobs for men only (ex. male welders)
C.
to have bona fide occupational qualifications
D.
to have similar standards for men or women even if such standards are arbitrary
E.
to hire on the basis of sex so long as this has been made clear from the beginning
E.
innocent compliments
Harassment may include all the following EXCEPT:
A.
practical jokes
B.
leering or related gestures
C.
unwelcome remarks, jokes, or innuendo
D.
unnecessary physical contact
E.
innocent compliments
C.
workplace diversity
Important human characteristics that influence employee values, their perceptions of
self and others, behaviours, and interpretations of events is the definition of:
A.
diversity paradigm
B.
managing diversity
C.
workplace diversity
D.
diversity implementation
E.
systemic diversity
The reasons most often cited by HR professionals for engaging in unethical behaviours are: a
need to follow the boss's orders, pressure to meet overly aggressive business objectives, and
helping the organization to survive.
True
False
Question 2
In highly technical or extremely routine situations, the human resources department may be
given the right to make decisions usually made by line managers or top management. This is
called functional authority.
1) True
2) False
Which technological force trend has led to the development of mechatronics programs at some
post-secondary institutions?
1) knowledge management
2) connectivity
3) mechanization
4) flexible work design
5) none of the choices
Question 4
Which of the following is TRUE about a department which has staff authority?
it has no input to any department other than its own
2) it has the power to advise but not direct managers in other departments
3) it has power over the organization's entire staff
4) it directs managers how to best handle staffing issues
5) none of the choices
"Works in a well ventilated office" would be included under effort factors on a job specification.
True
False
In competency-based management competencies are identified after careful analysis of work of
the high performers.
1) True
2) False
Autonomy, in a job context, is having control over one's work. It's the freedom to control one's
response to the environment resulting in an increased sense of recognition, self-esteem, job
satisfaction, and performance.
1) True
2) False
Which of the following is a nonhuman source of job data?
1) job experts
2) subordinates
3) videos/films supplied by appliance/machine manufacturers
4) job incumbent
5) supervisors
The Canadian Occupational Projection System (COPS) provides a highly detailed projection of the
Canadian economy up to 10 years in the future.
1) True
2) False
Information that is generated from the HRIS help managers and HR leverage employees'
capabilities and skills and to design opportunities for development.
1) True
2) False
Greater knowledge of current employees allows a human resource department to more
effectively plan:
1) career planning and employee equity goals
2) market entry timing
3) product development
4) organizational mission statement
5) sales goals
Question 12
Estimating the future resource needs and changes is called:
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
retrospection
2) forecasting
3) supply projections
4) demand sourcing
5) introspection
Ch4
Expand section feedback
Question 13
Employment Equity has designated six target (or protected) groups within Canada.
1) True
2) False
forms of training including diversity training programs, awareness training, and skill-building
training.
1) True
2) False
The Employment Equity Act of 1987 is specifically intended to remove employment barriers and
promote equity for all the following groups EXCEPT:
Women
Visible minorities
Gays and lesbians
People with disabilities
Aboriginal peoples
Systems and practices requiring modification during a diversity effort include which of the
following?
1) employee counselling practices
2) probationary processes and procedures
3) performance management
4) benefits policy
5) all of the choices except probationary processes and procedures
Ch5
Question 17
Perhaps the most significant difference between search firms and placement agencies is their
approach. Professional search firms hope to attract applicants through advertising, but
placement agencies actively seek out recruits from among the employees of other companies.
1) True
2) False
Tracking over time how well certain recruitment sources have worked will help guide future
recruitment efforts
1) True
2) False
The multiple cutoff approach allows applicants to make up for a poor score in one predictor by a
strong score in another predictor.
1) True
2) False
Internal factors that constrain the recruiting function include all the following EXCEPT:
costs
2) environmental conditions
3) recruiter habits
4) human resource plans
Among the fundamental objectives of Employment and Social Development Canada is:
1) enforcing a safe, stable, fair, and productive work environment for all Canadians
2) directly enforcing employment equity legislation
3) permitting workers to find work in the own communities regardless of cost
4) working to improve the standard of living and the quality of life for all Canadians
5) promoting international labour legislation organizational policies
A well-designed application form will do all the following EXCEPT
reveal potential problems or difficulties
2) reveal applicant's age and birth place
3) target in on specific work and educational skills and experience
4) identify gaps in an applicant's record
5) be designed to avoid illegal or intrusive questions
What is a se Occupational Requirement? List five prohibited grounds of discrimination in
Canada.
Discrimination for business reasons (must be reasonable)
Prohibited grounds
Race or color
Religion
Physical or mental disability
Dependence of alcohol or drugs
Age
Sex
Marital status
Family status
Sexual orientation
National or ethnic origin
Ancestry or place of origin
Language
Social condition or origin
Source of income
Assignment attachment or seizure of pay
Based on association
Political beliefs
Criminal record
Pardoned conviction
Applicants recruited through employee referrals are typically less attracted to the organization
than applicants who walk in to apply for a job
1) True
2) False
Public employment agencies are sometimes called "headhunters."
1) True
2) False
Since internet recruiting has taken off, what tool do most organizations now use to convey
detailed information about the job and the organization to recruits?
inducements
job board sites
write-ins
social media
careers section on their corporate website
Which of the following is a key job of the recruiter?
to sell the company as a potential place of work to eligible recruits
to use a reactive approach to deal with emerging trends
to avoid using monetary incentives to stimulate recruits' interest
to develop job standards based upon the applicant pool
to create a large uniform pool of candidates for job vacancies
Establishing pay ranges to attract new hires helps reduce compensation policy constraints on
recruiting.
1) True
2) False
Private employment agencies charging applicants a fee for placements is illegal or regulated in
most provinces.
1) True
2) False
The benefits of recruiting from within include which of the following?
it allows novel ways of solving problems to emerge
performance evaluations from past jobs can predict performance in new jobs
employee is "known" to the firm
it stimulates new ideas
it allows the organization to acquire new knowledge
Which of the following is a drawback associated with advertising?
using ads creates too large of a pool of qualified candidates for organizations to manage
ads can lack a certain secrecy that may be required on occasion
only billboards can include a lot of detail
small print ads are the most expensive forms of recruiting
most ad types do not attract many applications
If an organization uses medical or drug testing, these tests should be administered before a
hiring decision is made.
1) True
2) False
Rational approaches to test validation include both content and construct validity.
1) True
2) False
In the preparation stage, interviewers should do which of the following?
establish a relaxed rapport with the recruit
develop interview questions designed to capture the applicant's general interests, attitudes, and
background.
establish two-way communication by asking applicants if they have any questions
create trust by projecting an image of confidence, competence, and concern
consider which questions the applicant is likely to ask
Which of the following is a method of integrity testing that is prohibited in some provinces by
the Employment Standards Act is:
computer interactive testing
employment testing
attitude tests
polygraph testing
Which of the following describes the purpose of situational interviews?
to apply the theory that the best predictor of future actions is past actions
to use questions about applicants' past responses to typical situations to assess applicants'
future responses
to focus on behaviour that has occurred most recently
to identify how a job applicant responded to specific work situations in the past
to assess an applicant's likely future responses to specific incidents which they may or may not
have encountered in the past
Assessment centres use multiple assessment techniques to predict candidates' future job
behaviour, managerial potential, and training needs
1) True
2) False
Rejecting applicants with foreign qualifications, because they are overqualified is an example of
which of the following?
a mismatch between job analysis information and the selection criteria
an increase in opportunities for visible minorities
a breakdown of barriers against immigrants
evidence of the use of performance-based job descriptions
selection board members being allowed to use assumptions to reject an applicant
Which of the following internal factors can expand existing challenges or simply add more
constraints to an organization's selection strategy?
organizational policies
labour market realities
job requirements
organization's life cycle stage
calibre of employees
The rate at which an individual learns depends upon the person, but using learning principles
speeds up the learning process.
1) True
2) False
The role-playing training technique can change the attitudes that trainees have towards people
in different circumstances.
1) True
2) False
Managing the development of future talent requires the commitment of financial resources to
talent development.
1) True
2) False
Cross-cultural management training, and diversity and inclusion training are both programs used
in which employee development strategy?
cognitive
employability
environmental
behavioural
advancement
Which of the following HR tools raises awareness of career options by informing employees of
changes that may affect their career choices and actively helping them to explore the various
opportunities that exist?
hosting seminars
offering an internal job posting process
conducting workshops
creating career paths
career counselling
For new hires, the onboarding process builds knowledge of the organization at the individual,
department, and job level.
1) True
2) False
New employees' reactions to orientation and socialization activities can tell the HR department
whether the activities were effective.
1) True
2) False
Benefits of training for the organization can include higher productivity, improved morale, and a
better corporate image.
1) True
2) False
Learning principles outline the ways that people learn most effectively.
1) True
2) False
The rate at which an individual learns depends upon the person, but using learning principles
speeds up the learning process.
1) True
2) False
The use of such instruments as behavioural modelling, sensitivity training, team building, and
mentoring would indicate a developmental strategy based on the:
environmental approach
behavioural approach
cognitive approach
cost-benefit approach
assessment approach
An employer that only hires workers on occasion will likely use which method to deliver
orientation programs?
an online orientation program
a formal program
an orientation program available on the organization's intranet
a senior worker who will show the new person around
a group orientation program
Question 30
A needs assessment would recommend training in which of the following situations?
there is high morale within the organization
supervisors want to reward good workers
employees seem motivated
new procedures are being introduced
accident rates are declining
Information about the job environment, such as health and safety
hazards, is included in working conditions on a job description.
1) True
2) False
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Job analysis questionnaires are checklists that seek to collect
information about positions in a uniform manner.
1) True
2) False
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The critical incident method involves identifying and describing specific
events where an employee performed very well and when they
performed poorly.
1) True
2) False
Question 4
"Display and stock merchandise on shelves" is an example of a
responsibility on a job description.
1 / 1 point
1) True
2) False
Question 5
1 / 1 point
Job specifications should be generic so as not to limit employee job
tasks. For example, it would be better to include "must lift heavy
materials" than "lifts 10-pound boxes."
1) True
2) False
Question 6
1 / 1 point
When competencies become too broad, with few specific duties or
tasks supporting them, any decisions made based on these
competencies may not be legally defensible.
1) True
2) False
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Worldwide competition and complex technology has resulted in job
elimination due to automation, making human resources less important
for organizations today.
1) True
2) False
Question 8
1 / 1 point
When police officers know that a community values their work, their job
can be considered to have high levels of task significance.
1) True
2) False
Question 9
1 / 1 point
In the past, many Canadians were willing to work for long hours doing
difficult jobs such as laying rail lines. However, today industrial workers
are more highly educated and expect a higher quality of work life. This
example highlights the importance of considering which of the following
factors when designing jobs?
1) Work practices
2) Social expectations
3) Environmental considerations
4) Task significance
5) Job specifications
Question 10
0/1
point
Likely targets of job analysis are jobs:
1) For which the work environment has not been recently altered
2) That are easy to learn or perform
3) For which the firm rarely hires
4) That have existed since the organization began
5) That are affected by new technology
Question 11
1/1
point
According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following
outcomes occurs when employees do meaningful work, have high
levels of responsibility, and are knowledgeable about the outcomes of
their work?
1) Low motivation
2) High absenteeism
3) Low Satisfaction
4) High Turnover
5) High performance
Question 12
1/1
point
In the context of human resources, what does the acronym NOC stand
for?
1) National Organization of Cosmetologists
2) National Optometrists Conference
3) Norwegian Organic Commission
4) National Organizational Classification
5) National Occupational Classification
Question 13
1/1
point
Jobs are at the core of every organization's productivity. Which of the
following is TRUE about jobs which are not well designed?
1) Employee output suffers
2) The organization is less able to meet the demands of society
3) Profits fall
4) Meeting customer needs becomes more difficult
5) All of the choices
Question 14
Which of the following is TRUE about job performance standards?
1) Once established, they are set and cannot be changed
1/1
point
2) They become objectives or targets for employee efforts
3) They are susceptible to change, based upon an employee's gender
4) They are defined by the Canadian Standards Association
5) They are based solely on industry standards
Question 15
1/1
point
Job analysis information is usually sufficient for jobs with which of the
following features?
1) Performance that requires substantial interpretation
2) Performance that is supported by multiple certificates and diplomas
3) Performance standards that are only fully understood by supervisors
4) Performance that is difficult to measure
5) Performance that is quantified