Revision OB2
Chapter #1 foundation of group behaviour
1. A _____ is two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come
together to achieve particular objectives.
 clique
 task force
 cohesive unit
 group
2. A(n) _____ group is determined by the organization chart.
o interest
o informal
o command
o friendship
3. A _____ group can cross command relationships.

command
 informal
 task
 interest
4. Which is the first stage in the five stage group formation model?

Norming
o Storming
o Forming
o Performing
5. The _____ model describes the sequence of actions taken by temporary groups with
deadlines.

accelerated formation

groupthink

groupshift

punctuated equilibrium
6. _____ are acceptable standards of behaviour that are shared by a group's members.
o Rules
o Policies
o Norms
o Missions
7. _____ norms are associated with explicit clues on how hard to work, how to get the job
done, and the appropriate level of output.
 Appearance
 Social arrangement
 Performance
 Allocation of resources
8. Dress codes and unspoken rules about when to look busy would fall under _____ norms.
o social arrangement
o resource allocation
o performance
o appearance
9. Which of the following was NOT a conclusion of the Hawthorne studies?
o Worker's behaviour and sentiments were closely related.
o Output increases and decreases proportionately to changes in illumination.
o Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group
standards, sentiments, and security.
o Group influences were significant in affecting individual behaviour.
10. Groups differ in _____, the degree to which members are attracted to each other and
are motivated to stay in the group.
o status
o identity
o cohesiveness
o perception
11. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group decision making?
o Groups generate more complete information and knowledge.
o Group decisions save time.
o Groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution.
o Groups offer increased diversity of views.
12. Using the criteria of _____ to measure effectiveness, individual decisions more effective
than group decisions.
o acceptance of the final solution
o creativity
o speed
o accuracy
13. _____ refers to situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from
critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.
o Groupview
o Groupshift
o Group deviance
o Groupthink
14. When is groupthink LEAST likely to occur?
o When there is a clear group identity
o When a group perceives a collective threat to their image
o When the group is very small
o When members hold a positive image of the group that they want to protect
15. In a(n) _____ group, members meet face-to-face and rely on both verbal and nonverbal
interaction to communicate with each other.
o nominal
o geographic
o compressed
o interacting
16. _____ groups are defined by the organization's structure.
o Formal
o Informal
o Cliques
o Friendship
17. A(n) _____ group is composed of individuals who report directly to a given manager.
o task
o informal
o friendship
o command
18. A(n) _____ group is composed of people who may or may not be aligned into command or task
groups, but who affiliate to attain a specific objective.
o task
o friendship
o interest
o command
19. Betty and Fred meet for lunch, after hours, and sometimes on weekends. They enjoy each
others' company. What type of group do Betty and Fred comprise?
Task
o Interest
o Formal
o Friendship
20. In the Five-Stage Model, the _____ stage is associated with intergroup conflict.
o norming
o performing
o adjourning
o storming
21. In the Five-Stage Model, the _____ stage is associated with camaraderie and development of
group friendships.
o performing
o forming
o norming
o storming
22. In the Five-Stage Model, _____ is the last stage in their development.
o performing
o adjourning
o norming
o storming
23. In the Five-Stage Model, the _____ stage is associated with a great deal of uncertainty about the
group's purpose, structure, and leadership.
o forming
o norming
o adjourning
o storming
24. The _____ model is best at describing the process of temporary groups with deadlines.
o five-stage
o chaos
o transitional adoption
o punctuated equilibrium
25. Which of the following is a characteristic of the punctuated equilibrium model?
o five-stage
o chaos
o transitional adoption
o intermittent periods of inertia
26. There are certain attitudes and behaviours consistent with a role and they create the _____.
o role status
o role overload
o role perception
o role identity.
27. A _____ is an individual's view of how he is supposed to act in a given situation.
o role congruence
o role expectations
o role perception
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
o role status
The psychological contract between the employer and employee establishes role _____.
o ambiguity
o expectations
o identity
o perception
The Hawthorne experiments are associated with management scholar _____.
o Elton Mayo
o Douglas MacGregor
o Fred Herzberg
o Abraham Maslow.
______ was found to be the most significant variable in increased worker productivity in the
Hawthorne experiments.
o Pay
o Promotion
o Perks
o Attention
_____ norms come from informal work groups and primarily regulate social interactions within
the group.
o Appearance
o Allocation of resource
o Friendship
o Social arrangement
The Asch experiments demonstrated the power of _____.
o friendship
o social
o task
o conformity
Conformity is highest in _____ cultures.
o individualistic
o masculine
o collectivist
o feminine
According to status characteristics theory, which does NOT contribute to a person's status?
o The power a person wields
o A person's ability to contribute to a group's goals
o An individual's personal characteristics
o A person's social position
Approximately, _____ members is considered the optimal group size.
o 3
o 7
o 9
o 12
36. What of the following is NOT an advantage of group decision making?
o More complete information
o Increased diversity of views
o Increased acceptance of a solution
o Quicker decisions
37. Which is NOT true of group decisions?
o Group decisions are fast.
o Group decisions are more accurate than the average individual in a group.
o Group decisions are more creative.
o There is greater acceptance of group decisions.
38. _____ is a deterioration in an individual's mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment
as a result of group pressures.

Grouptest

Groupshift

Groupthink

Groupview
39. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink?
o Members apply direct pressures on those who momentarily express doubts about any
of the group's shared views.
o Group members rationalize any resistance to the assumptions that they have made.
o Members who have doubts or hold differing points of view are encouraged to voice
their concerns.
o There appears to be an illusion of unanimity.
40. _____ is a change in decision risk between the group's decision and the individual decision that
members within the group would make.
o Grouptest
o Groupshift
o Groupthink
o Groupview.
41. In a groupshift situation, the shift in the group's decision depends primarily upon _____.
o the risk aversion of the members
o the attitudes of the leader
o the dominant prediscussion norm
o the timing of the decision
42. _____ is an idea-generation process that encourages non-critical discussion of all alternatives.
o The nominal group technique
o Electronic meeting
o Brainstorming
o Delphi technique
43. _____ is a group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to
pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion.
o The nominal group technique
o Electronic meeting
o Brainstorming
o Delphi technique
44. A(n) _____ allows members to interact anonymously.
o nominal group
o electronic meeting
o brainstorming session
o Delphi technique
45. Where would social loafing be the most likely to occur
o United Kingdom
o China
o Israel
o Japan.
46. The _____ stage in group development which is characterized by uncertainty.

norming

storming

forming

performing
47. The _____ model is effective at describing decision-making within temporary groups,
particularly those with deadlines.
o punctuated-equilibrium
o authority structure
o formal regulation
o performance evaluation
48. ____ groups are defined by the organization's structure.
o Informal
o Formal
o Friendship
o Interest
49. _____ refers to the attitudes and behaviours that are consistent with a role.
o Role perception
o Role identity
o Role expectations
o Role conflict
50. _____ describe how others believe you should act in a given situation.
o
o
o
o
Norms
Stereotypes
Role expectations
Role perceptions
51. Which is NOT a common class of norms appearing in most work groups?
o Performance norms
o Appearance
o Termination
o Arrangement
52. What is the relationship between size and group performance?
o The larger the group, the greater the individual productivity.
o Increases in group size are inversely related to individual performance.
o Total productivity tends to decline in large groups.
o Group size is not a determinant of individual productivity.
53. Which of the following is a strategy to increase group cohesiveness?
o Make the group smaller.
o Encourage agreement with group goals.
o Decrease the perceived difficulty of attaining membership in the group.
o Both A and B are correct.
54. Which is NOT a weakness of group decision-making?
o Group decisions are time-consuming.
o Groups offer increased diversity of views.
o Group members suffer from ambiguous responsibilities.
o Groups can be dominated by one or a few members.
55. Which of the following best describes brainstorming?
o A strategy used to build group cohesiveness.
o A technique that tends to restrict independent thinking.
o A process for generating ideas.
o A strategy when group members cannot agree on a solution.
1. An interest group is made up of people who join together because they share one or more
common characteristics
 True

2.


3.
False
The stages of group development must occur sequentially and will never occur simultaneously
True
False
The punctuated-equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia
interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by their members' awareness
of time and deadlines.
 True
 False
4. All group members can be said to be actors, each playing a role.
 True
 False
5. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
 True
 False
6. High status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group
members.
 True
 False
7. Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive.
 True
 False
8. Group decisions lead to increased acceptance of the solution.
 True
 False
9. The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift
 True
 False
10. The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet
formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.
 True
 False
Chapter#2
1. A _____ occurs when a company hires a team of employees, rather than selected individuals, from
a competitor.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
 cross-functional team
 synergy
 group-sync
 lift-out
A ____ consists of two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come
together to achieve particular objectives.
 team
 liaison
 brainstorm
 group
A _____ interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member
perform within his or her area of responsibility.
 quality circle
 task force
 work group
 work team
_____ are teams from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways
of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment.
 Self-managed work teams
 Cross-functional teams
 Problem-solving teams
 None of the above
The effectiveness of self-managed work teams is dependent upon the _____.
 strength and make-up of the team norms
 type of tasks the team undertakes
 reward structure
 all of the above
Team effectiveness is dependent upon context, composition, work design, and process. _____
includes autonomy, skill variety, task identity, and task significance.
 Context
 Composition
 Work design
 Process
Team effectiveness is dependent upon context, composition, work design, and process. _____
includes common purpose, specific goals, team efficacy, conflict levels, and social loafing.
 Context
 Composition
 Work design
 Process
Which of the following is NOT a contextual factor affecting team effectiveness?
 adequate resources
 abilities of members
 leadership and structure
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
 climate of trust
A team member functioning as a(n) _____ fights external battles.
 producer
 controller
 maintainer
 promoter
Generally speaking, the most effective teams have _____ members.
 three to five
 five to seven
 less than ten
 ten to fifteen
Teams fit well in countries that have ____ cultures.
 individualistic
 communist
 democratic
 collectivist
_____ added an annual bonus based on achievement of team goals.
 Emerson Electric
 Trigon Blue Cross Blue Shield
 Verizon
 Hallmark Cards
When determining if a team fits the situation, managers must address all of the following
questions EXCEPT:
 Does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is
more than the aggregate of individual goals?
 Are the members of the group interdependent?
 Will teamwork require changes in the workplace?
 Can the work be done better by one person?
A major survey put the number of workers across the European Union who do part or all their
work in teams at _____.
 60 percent
 50 percent
 39 percent
 32 percent
15. ___ have the capability to quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband.
o Informal groups
o Departments
o Teams
o Profit centres
16. A _____ is two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to
achieve particular objectives.
o work team
o norm
o group
o cohort
17. A _____ generates positive synergy through coordinated effort.
o work team
o norm
o group
o cohort
18. On a _____, members share ideas or offer suggestions on how work processes or methods can be
improved, although they rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their
suggestions.
o task force
o problem-solving team
o cross-functional team
o self-managed work team
19. On a _____, employees perform highly related jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of
their former supervisors.
o task force
o problem-solving team
o cross-functional team
o self-managed work team
20. A team made of members from production, planning, quality, and engineering would most likely
be a _____.
o task force
o problem-solving team
o cross-functional team
o self-managed work team
21. Which type of team is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an
organization to exchange information, develop new ideas, and solve problems, and coordinate
complex projects?
o Self-managed work team
o Task force
o Virtual team
o Cross-functional team
22. ____ use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a
common goal.
o Cross functional teams
o Self-managed work teams
o Problem-solving teams
o Virtual teams
23. Companies tend to favour _____ because of their ability to overcome time and space constraints.
o virtual teams
o problem-solving teams
o cross-functional teams
o task forces
24. Team effectiveness is dependent upon context, composition, work design, and process.
____________ includes the presence of adequate resources, effective leadership and structure, a
climate of trust, and a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team
contributions.
o Context
o Composition
o Work design
o Process
25. _____ include factors that relate to how team should be staffed, such as the ability and
personality of team members, allocating roles and diversity, size of the team, member flexibility,
and the preference of the members for team work.
o Contextual variables
o Work design variables
o Process variables
o Composition variables
26. Which reward system is most consistent with encouraging team effort?
o Individually oriented evaluation
o Fixed hourly wages
o Group-based appraisals
o Individual incentives
27. To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills. Which of the following is
NOT one of these major skill categories?
o interpersonal skills
o decision-making skills
o conceptual skills
o technical expertise
28. _____ is the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute,
such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in the organization.
o Affirmative action
o Groupthink
o Organizational demography
o Demographic partitioning
29. A team member functioning as a(n) _____ coordinates and integrates the activities of team
members.
 linker
o organizer
o maintainer
o controller
30. A team member functioning as a(n) _____ offers insightful analysis of options.
o organizer
o controller
o adviser
o assessor
31. Which of the following is NOT associated with higher managerial ratings for team performance?
o conscientiousness
o openness to experience
o introversion
o agreeablenes
32. What is the most effective size for teams?
o 3-5 members
o 5-7 members
o 5-9 members
o 10-15 members
33. Effective teams show _____, meaning that they reflect on and adjust their master plan when
necessary.
 reflexivity
 efficacy
 consensus
 conflict
34. The text describes the training process at _____, where trainers focus on how a team goes
through the five stages of the group development model.
o Ford
o Wal-Mart
o Verizon
o the U.K. Royal Mail
35. To promote a team environment, companies should reward _____.
o training new colleagues
o mastering new skills
o helping to resolve team conflicts
o All of the above.
36. QM, or _____, has garnered increased attention from management in recent years.
o Quality Management
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
o Quorum Manners
o Quality Matters
o Quotient Modulation
The essence of Quality Management is process improvement and _____ is the linchpin of process
improvement.
o individual rewards
o personal development
o employee involvement
o team building
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
o More conflicts exist in teamwork.
o Teamwork requires more meetings.
o Teamwork takes less time than individual work.
o The costs of using teams may exceed the benefits.
Which of the following is important when deciding if a situation is well suited to team work?
o The complexity of the work
o Need for different perspectives
o Interdependence of the group
o All of the above
Teams make sense when _____.
o the success of the team depends on the success of each individual
o the success of each individual depends on the success of the team
o Both #1 and #2
o None of the above
Which of the following does NOT characterize successful team members?
o a manageable degree of conflict
o a common purpose
o a moderate amount of social loafing
o specific team goal
Which of the following does NOT explain the current popularity of teams?
o Teams outperform individuals when the tasks require multiple skills.
o Teams enable organizations to better utilize employee talents.
o Teams are a means to increase employee motivation.
o Teams outperform individuals in all situations.
43. _____ is an attribute of work teams which results in a level of performance that is greater than the
sum of the individual inputs.
o Synergy
o Enthusiasm
o Energy
o Initiative
44. _____ teams go farther than problem-solving teams in getting employees involved in work-related
decisions and processes.
o Problem identification
o Self-managed
o Virtual
o Cross-functional
45. Which is NOT one of the three primary factors that differentiate virtual teams from face-to-face
teams?
o The absence of nonverbal and paraverbal cues
o Limited social contact
o Increased social rapport
o The ability to overcome time and space constraints
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the key factors in creating effective teams?
o context
o composition
o cross-functional
o demographics
47. Which of the following skills is required for an effective team?
o Problem-solving skills
o Technical expertise
o Interpersonal skills
o All of the above
48. Which of the following statements is true concerning the climate of trust?
o Interpersonal trust among team members inhibits cooperation.
o Interpersonal trust among team members reduces the need to monitor each other's
behaviour.
o Interpersonal trust at team members bonds members at the belief that others will take
advice of them if given the opportunity.
o Interpersonal trust at team members increases members' aversion to risk.
49. Teams are most effective when staffed with people who are _____.
o extraverted
o homogeneous
o inflexible
o intraverted
50. _____ considers the age, sex, race, educational level, and length of service of team members.
o Diversity training
o Cognitive dissonance
o Cohorts
o Organizational demographics
51. _____ illustrates a process loss as a result of using teams.
o Synergy
o Social loafing
o Diversity
o Demographics
1. Teams are an effective means for management to democratize their organizations.
 True
 False
2. A work group generates positive synergy while a work team does not.
 True
 False
3. Problem-solving teams often meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving
quality, efficiency, and the work environment.
 True
 False
4. As a result of self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated.
 True
 False
5. Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work.
 True
 False
6. To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills: technical, conceptual, and
cognitive skills.
 True
 False
7. High-ability teams consistently outperform low-ability teams for complex tasks.
 True
 False
8. Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues but makes it more difficult to unify the
team and reach agreements.
 True
 False
9. The most effective teams have over 20 members.
 True
 False
10. When implementing teams, reward systems should eliminate individual incentives and focus
compensation on team performance.
 True
 False
Chapter#3
1. Individuals spend _____ of their waking hours communicating.
o 30 percent
o 50 percent
o 70 percent
o 90 percent
2. When employees are required to communicate grievances to their supervisor, communication is
performing a _____ function.
o information
o emotional expression
o control
o motivation
3. When communicating, a sender _____ a message and passes the message through a medium or
channel.
o feeds back
o decodes
o transfers
o encodes
4. _____ channels are established by the organization and transmit messages that are related to
the professional activities of members.
o Professional
o Informal
o Formal
o Member
5. _____ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs.
o Upward
o Lateral
o Downward
o Emotional
6. A(n) _____ network is used by self-managed work teams.
o wheel
o chain
o all-channel
o spoked
7. Which is NOT a characteristic of the grapevine?
o It is not controlled by management.
o It is perceived by most employees as being more believable.
o It largely serves the self-interests of the people within it.
o It is a highly accurate source of information.
8. Electronic communication includes _____.
o video conferencing
o e-mail
o instant messaging
o all of the above
9. _____ is an effective computer-aided form of communication, allowing messages to be sent to
one or thousands of people simultaneously.
o Videoconferencing
o Instant messaging
o E-mail
o An intranet
10. _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the
right information gets to the right people at the right time.
o E-mail
o Communication
o Knowledge management
o Filtering
11. _____ messages are likely to be complicated and have the potential for misunderstanding.
o Complicated
o Routine
o Nonroutine
o Rich
12. _____ refers to the purposeful manipulation of language so that it will be seen more favourably
by the receiver.
o Barrier making
o Deception
o Filtering
o None of the above
13. _____ is a barrier to effective communication - people receiving information tend to project
their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.
o Information overload
o Selective perception
o Filtering
o Language
14. A fear of speaking in front of groups or to other people is known as _____.
o fear of speaking
o speaking phobia
o selective perception
o communication apprehension
15. According to author Deborah Tannen, men use talk to emphasize _____, while women use it to
create _____.
o status, connection
o closeness, emotion
o intimacy, independence
o affiliation, power
16. must include both the transference and understanding of meaning.
o Writing
o Reading
o Speaking
o Communication
17. Teasing and verbal harassment are forms of _____ control.
o formal
o informal
o lateral
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
o normal
_____ is the process of converting a message to a symbolic form.
o Decoding
o Retranslation
o Encoding
o Receiving
Communication barriers that distort the clarity of a message are known as _____.
o noise
o conference
o static
o feedback
A memo is typically transmitted through a(n) _____ communication channel.
o formal
o corporate
o informal
o institutional
Communication from a supervisor to a subordinate is _____ communication.
o upward
o lateral
o downward
o cross-functional
A climate survey is an example of _____ communication.
o downward
o lateral
o upward
o informal
Which of the following is NOT true of oral communication
o Oral messages can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal
amount of time.
o Oral messages reduce distortion.
o Oral communication allows for rapid detection of unclear messages.
o The grapevine often communicates orally.
24. Which of the following is NOT true of written communication?
o Written communication is readily verifiable.
o With written communication, the message can be stored for an
indefinite period.
o People tend to be less careful in writing than in speaking.
o Written communication may be physically available for later reference.
25. _____ is the emphasis given to words or phrases.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
o Stress
o Inflection
o Tonal duration
o Intonation
The _____ network relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for the entire group's
communication.
o all-channel
o chain
o wheel
o spoke
A _____ network is appropriate if accuracy is most important.
o all-channel
o chain
o wheel
o spoke
According to a recent survey, _____ of employees hear about matters first through the
grapevine
o 25 percent
o 50 percent
o 75 percent
o 90 percent
Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face communication over e-mail?
o Personal touch
o Non-verbal cues
o Tone
o All of the above
_____ refers to real time e-mail.
o Rapid e-mail
o Close-up
o Instant messaging
o Instant Replay
31. Who are the fastest growing users of Facebook?
o elementary school students
o high school students
o people over 25
o college students
32. A _____ is an internet log.
o blog
o internal wheel
o intranet
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
o medium
_____ allows employees in an organization to have meetings with people at different locations.
o A network
o Videoconferencing
o A communication channel
o Networking
A _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the
right information gets to the right people at the right time.
o knowledge dissemination system
o knowledge management system
o cornucopia
o decision control system
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication
episode.
o Signal strength
o Interpersonal bandwidth
o Information load
o Channel richness
Managers that are _____ have the ability to match appropriate media richness with the
ambiguity involved in the communication.
o media-savvy
o techno-savvy
o media-sensitive
o filtered
Rob routinely withholds negative information in the weekly report he transmits to his
supervisor. In terms of communication, Rob is engaging in _____
o selective perception
o "muddying the waters"
o filtering
o information overload
38. _____ is the process of receivers projecting their interests and expectations into
communications as they decode them.
o Selective perception
o Noise
o Information overload
o Feedback
39. When individuals experience _____, they select out, pass over, or forget information.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
o selective perception
o information overload
o emotion
o filtering
Communication apprehension affects _____ of the population.
o 30 - 40 percent
o 20 - 25 percent
o 18 - 22 percent
o 5 - 20 percent
Which is NOT true of communication differences between men and women?
o Men use communication to emphasize status.
o Women use communication to emphasize connection.
o Men apologize more than women.
o Women tend to be less boastful than men.
Use of terms such as "physically challenged", "visually impaired", and "senior" reflects _____.
o selective perception
o cultural sensitivity
o political correctness
o filtered communication
Which of the following is a high-context culture?
o Great Britain
o Japan
o United States
o Germany
Which of the following is a low-context culture?
o Japan
o India
o China
o Europe
he _____ initiates a message by encoding a thought.
o channel
o sender
o receiver
o medium
46. The chief means of conveying messages is _____ communication.
o nonverbal
o interpersonal
o oral
o written
47. The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee.
o wheel
o all-channel
o interpersonal
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
o circle
Grapevine studies have shown that ____ percent of employees hear about matters first through
rumours on the grapevine.
o 50
o 75
o 60
Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:
o internet logs.
o telephone calls.
o videoconferencing.
o e-mail.
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication
episode.
o Feedback
o Filtering
o Perception
o Channel richness
Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in _____.
o filtering
o selective perception
o jargon
o feedback
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication?
o Filtering
o Channel richness
o Selective perception
o Language
Tannen's research indicates that men use talk to ___, while women use it to _____.
o emphasize status; create connection
o build relationships; get promotions
o establish blame; emphasize status
o Create networks; emphasize separateness
54. In _____ cultures, the words themselves are the primary conveyors of meaning.
o rich
o low-context
o symbolic
o semantic
1. In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding.
o
o
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
True
False
The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback.
o True
o False
The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command.
o True
o False
Rumours flourish in ambiguous situations.
o True
o False
Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications.
o True
o False
Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more
favourably by the receiver
o True
o False
Between 5 and 20 percent of the population suffers from debilitating communication
apprehension.
o True
o False
Oral apprehensives may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face.
o True
o False
Men are more direct than women in conversation.
o True
o False
Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating
with others
 True
 False
Chapter # 4
1. ____ is the capacity to influence behaviour.
o Coercion
o Potential
o Power
o Self-interest
2. The ability to influence another is a function of _____.
o organizational culture
o emotional intelligence
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
o dependency
o harassment
The ability to coerce or reward stems from _____ power.
o information
o referent
o personal
o formal
Power based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits is
known as _____ power.
o coercive
o personal
o referent
o formal
If something is plentiful, possession of it will not increase your power. A resource need to be
perceived as _____ to create dependency.
o nonsubstitutable
o scarce
o important
o coercive
The power tactic of _____ involves developing emotional commitment by appealing to a target's
values, needs, hopes, and aspirations.
o legitimacy
o rational persuasion
o inspirational appeal
o consultation
_____ involves relying on one's authority position or stressing that a request is in accordance
with organizational policies or rules.
o Consultation
o Rational persuasion
o Exchange
o Legitimacy
8. The power tactic of _____ involves using warnings, repeated demands, and threats.
o pressure
o exchange
o personal appeal
o consultation
9. _____ is any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual's employment and
creates a hostile work environment.
o Affirmative action
o Equal employment opportunity
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
o Sexual harassment
o Coalition building
_____ consists of activities that are not required as part of one's formal role in the organization.
o Lobbying
o Influence
o Political behaviour
o None of the above
_____ political activities include complaining to one's supervisor, bypassing the chain of
command, forming coalitions, obstructing organizational politics, excessively adhering to rules,
developing contacts outside the organization.
o Legitimate
o External
o Internal
o Illegitimate
Which of the following is NOT an individual characteristic associated with political behaviour?
o internal locus of control
o low self-monitor
o high need for power
o Machiavellianism
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizations with significant political activity?
o Declining or scarce resources
o Opportunities for promotion an advancement
o Role ambiguity
o Win-win approach to reward allocations
_____ includes avoiding action, avoiding blame, and avoiding change.
o Resource management
o Ingratiation
o Impression management
o Defensive behavior
15. _____ is a function of dependency, in that B is dependent on A to the extent that A controls
alternatives that B finds desirable.
o Power
o Leadership
o Emotion
o Anger
16. _____ power is based on an individual's position in an organization.
o Inspirational
o Reward
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
o Legitimate
o Formal
If A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, then A has _____ power over B.
o reward
o referent
o coercive
o inspirational
Each year, John recognizes the highest performing employee in his office with an all expenses
paid trip to Florida. Because of this recognition, John has _____ power over his employees.
o reward
o referent
o Information
o legitimate
_____ power represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources.
o Referent
o Legitimate
o Charismatic
o Expert
Mary Ann carefully follows the advice of her accountant on tax matters. In this situation, the
accountant has _____ power.
o reward
o expert
o referent
o legitimate
An individual may have _____ power because of charismatic dynamism or likeability.
o reward
o expert
o referent
o legitimate
22. The _____-dependency relationship can be seen in the power of occupational categories.
o information
o scarcity
o importance
o nonsubstitutability
23. Bill is the only member of the maintenance department who knows how to maintain the
company's heating and cooling system. Because of the _____ of Bill's knowledge, Bill has power
within the organization.
o nonsubstitutability
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
o currency
o relevancy
o legitimacy
A _____ is a strategy that an individual may use to influence his/her boss, coworker, and/or
employees.
o power tactic
o dependent
o politic
o consultation
_____ involves presenting logical arguments and factual evidence to demonstrate that a request
is reasonable.
o Inspirational appeal
o Consultation
o Rational persuasion
o None of the above
The power tactic of _____ involves increasing the target's motivation and support by involving
him or her in deciding how the plan or change will be done.
o inspirational appeal
o consultation
o legitimacy
o rational persuasion
______ includes asking for compliance based on friendship or loyalty.
o Exchange
o Coalitions
o Pressure
o Personal appeal
Which is the only power tactic that is effective across organizational levels?
o Ingratiation
o Exchange
o Rational persuasion
o Pressure
29. "Softer" power tactics include personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and
_____.
o pressure
o coalitions
o exchange
o consultation
30. Managers from Hong Kong rate _____ as being more effective in influencing others than do
managers in Taiwan or Mainland China.
 coalition building
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
 pressure
 ingratiation
 rational persuasion
____ refers to the ability to influence others in such a way as to enhance your own objectives.
o Coalition building
o Exchange
o Political skill
o Rational persuasion
_____ is any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual's employment.
o Coalition building
o Sexual harassment
o Ingratiation
o Pressure
A recent review concluded that ______ of women report having personally experienced
harassing behaviours.
 25 percent
o 36 percent
o 47 percent
o 58 percent
_____ encompasses activities outside of one's formal role and attempts to influence the
distribution of rewards.
 Role reversal
 Informal behaviour
 Self-serving behaviour
 Political behaviour
_____ includes sabotage, whistle blowing, and symbolic protests.
o Legitimate political activity
o Illegitimate political activity
o Lobbying
o None of the above
36. _____ occurs as a result of constrained departmental budgets, competition for scarce resources,
and a climate of ambiguity.
o Constraint
o Politicking
o Role reversal
o Dissonance
37. Which of the following individual factors would encourage political activity?
o High self-monitoring
o External locus of control
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
o Low Mach personality
o Low expectation of success
Which of the following organizational factors encourage political activity?
o Clear performance evaluation system
o High level of trust
o Limited promotion opportunities
o Reallocation of resources
Why are high self-monitors might be more successful with organizational politics?
o They are more sensitive to social cues.
o They exhibit higher levels of social conformity.
o They are more likely to be skilled in political behaviour.
o All of the above.
Which personality type is most comfortable using political power?
o Type A
o Machiavellian
o External locus of control
o Type B
Which of the following is NOT a response to organizational politics?
o Increased turnover
o Increased performance
o Increased anxiety and stress
o Decreased job satisfaction
Using the defensive strategy of _____, an employee tries to place the blame for a negative
outcome on external factors that are not entirely blameworthy.
o stalling
o buffing
o prevention
o scapegoating
43. A salesperson who brags to his boss about landing a large account may be using the impression
management technique of _____.
o self-promotion
o association
o conformity
o flattery
44. ____ research emphasizes style; whereas research on ____ focuses on tactics for gaining
compliance.
o Power; persuasion
o Communication; politics
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
o Leadership; power
o Politics; leadership
A has ____ power over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming that B values his or
her job.
o Referent
o Reward
o Legitimate
o Coercive
Avoidance of ______ is why most organizations develop multiple suppliers rather than give their
business to only one.
o knowledge
o dependency
o power
o independence
_____ is the only power tactic that is effective across organizational levels.
o Consultation
o Rational persuasion
o Pressure
o Exchange
Most studies confirm that the concept of _____ is central to understanding sexual harassment.
o Power
o Sex
o Politics
o Locus of control
______ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the
facts to support their goals and interests.
o Politicking
o Forming coalitions
o Playing hardball
o Facilitating teamwork
50. Which of the following is NOT an individual factor related to political behaviour?
o Personality traits
o Perceived alternatives
o Level of trust
o Expectations of success
51. _____ is the process by which individuals attempt to control the impressions others form of
them.
o Impression management
o Misdirection
o Defence behaviour
52.
53.
54.


55.


56.


57.


58.


59.


o Perception management
_____ are more likely to engage in impression management, moulding their image to fit the
situation.
o Individuals with an external locus of control
o High self-monitors
o Senior level managers
o Employees with high power distance
Each of the following is a question your text suggests to analyze ethical questions except:
o Is the action consistent with the organization's goal?
o Is the action legal?
o Does the action violate rights of other parties?
o Does the action conform to standards of equity and justice?
Power, unlike leadership, focuses on downward influence patterns.
True
False
You must have a formal position in an organization to have power.
True
False
To create dependency, the thing you control must be perceived as being important.
True
False
A resource needs to be perceived as scarce to create dependency.
True
False
It is not possible for a subordinate to sexually harass his or her supervisor.
True
False
When employee's in organizations convert their power into action, we describe them as being
engaged in politics.
True
False
60. Politicking by top management, in a sense, gives permission to those lower in the organization
to play politics by implying that such behaviour is acceptable.
 True
 False
61. Impression management has not been shown to be effective in job interviews.
 True
 False
62. Applicants using ingratiation during interviews were offered more positions than those using
self-promotion.
 True
 False
63. Ethical decisions may include concern about the privacy rights of others.
 True
 False
Chapter #5
1. Work specialization is also known as _____.
o span of control
o chain of command
o formalization
o division of labour
2. _____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.
o Formalization
o Specialization
o Departmentalization
o Chain of command
3. The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the
lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom.
o chain of command
o span of control
o formalization
o organizational structure
4. _____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one manager.
o Formalization
o Span of control
o Authority
o Centralization
5. _____ is the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the
organization.
o Chain of command
o Centralization
o Formalization
o Departmentalization
6. Most small businesses are organized as _____.
o simple structures
o matrix structures
o virtual organizations
o bureaucracies
7. The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____.
o flexibility
o decentralization
o standardization
o creativity
8. The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product.
o simple structure
o virtual organization
o bureaucracy
o matrix structure
9. Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization?
o Clear organizational structure.
o Coordination of complex and interdependent activities.
o Elimination of power struggles.
o All of the above.
10. A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing.
o team structure
o boundaryless organization
o virtual organization
o strategic alliance
11. The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information
network, and little participation by low-level members in decision making.
o mechanistic
o strategy
o organic
o routine
12. A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional teams, has low
formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and involves high participation
in decision making.
o mechanistic
o strategy
o organic
o routine
13. Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely to choose a(n) _____
structure.
o functional
o mechanistic
o departmentalized
o organic
14. _____ refers to how a firm converts its inputs to outputs.
o Environment
o Structure
o Routine
o Technology
15. _____ is the degree to which an environment can support growth.
o Instability
o Complexity
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
o Capacity
o Volatility
_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
o Chain of command
o Span of control
o Centralization
o Organizational structure
Division of labour is also known as _____.
o span of control
o departmentalization
o work specialization
o formalization
By the ____, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high
work specialization
o 1930s
o 1940s
o 1950s
o 1980s
Which of the following is true regarding specialization?
o Less time is spent in changing tasks.
o It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive tasks.
o Employee skills tasks at performing tasks increases through repetition.
o Training for specialization is less efficient.
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together.
o Compartmentalization
o Structured hierarchy
o Departmentalization
o Specialization
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority running from the top to the bottom of the
organization.
o chain of command
o span of control
o hierarchical line
o vertical structure
_____ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders
to be obeyed.
o Unity of command
o Authority
o Bureaucratic control
o Formalization
_____, to a large degree, determines the number of levels and managers an organization has.
o Hierarchy
o Authority
o Formalization
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
o Span of control
_____ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the
organization.
o Decentralization
o Formalization
o Centralization
o Span of control
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple structure?
o Wide spans of control
o Low degree of departmentalization
o Authority centralized in a single person
o Highly formalized rules and regulations
The simple structure is most widely practiced in _____.
o mid-range size businesses
o large corporations
o small businesses
o international organizations
A _____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks, very formalized rules, and tasks that
are grouped into functional departments.
o virtual organization
o bureaucracy
o boundaryless organization
o team structure
As size increases, decision making typically _____.
o becomes more efficient
o moves through fewer organizational levels
o becomes slower
o becomes more effective
Typically, a matrix structure combines _____ departmentalization.
o customer and geographic
o geographic and process
o functional and process
o functional and product
A matrix structure violates that _____ concept.
o span of control
o unity-of-command
o centralization
o contingency
In a _____ organization, a small, core organization outsources major business functions.
o vertical
o virtual
o boundaryless
o team
Virtual organizations are highly _____, with little or no _____.
o
o
o
o
centralized, departmentalization
formalized, centralization
departmentalized, formalization
decentralized, departmentalization
33. The boundaryless organization is also known as the _____.
o network organization
o cultural structure
o T-form
o modular organization
34. In a mechanistic organization, communication is _____.
o mostly upward
o both upward and lateral
o mostly downward
o both lateral and downward
35. _____ structures include cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams and a flat structure.
o Mechanistic
o Hybrid
o Routine
o Organic
36. Innovation, cost minimization, and imitation are examples of _____.
o corporate models
o formalization
o environments
o strategy
37. _____ need the flexibility of an organic structure, while _____ seek the efficiency and stability of
a mechanistic structure.
o Innovators, cost minimisers
o Cost minimisers, imitators
o Imitators, innovators
o Innovators, imitators
38. _____ is the process of transferring organizational inputs to outputs.
o Throughput
o Technology
o Transformation
o Transmutation
39. Size affects structure _____.
o at an increasing rate
o at a decreasing rate
o at a stable rate
o at an intermittent rate
40. Routine technology is accompanied by decentralization when _____.
o when formalization is low
o when formalization is high
o when the company is organized by customer
o when tasks are routine
41. The greatest degree of uncertainty is faced by organizations that are _____.
o robust, complex, and dynamic
o stable, complex, and scarce
o dynamic, stable, and robust
o scarce, dynamic, and complex
42. _____ refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.
o Volatility
o Complexity
o Dynamism
o None of the above
43. Work specialization is associated with _____.
o lower employee productivity and lower satisfaction
o higher employee productivity and higher satisfaction
o lower employee productivity and higher satisfaction
o higher employee productivity and lower satisfaction
44. Work specialization is also referred to as _____.
o span of control
o division of labour
o unity-of-command
o job grouping
45. The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization.
o matrix organization
o bureaucracy
o simple structure
o team structure
46. The ____ violates the unity-of-command concept.
o simple structure
o bureaucracy
o matrix structure
o virtual organization
47. The ____ is also called the network or modular organization.
o virtual organization
o team structure
o matrix
o bureaucracy
48. The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____.
o information technology
o
o
o
vertical boundaries
horizontal boundaries
external boundaries
49. The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a
limited information network, and centralization.
o mechanistic model
o organic model
o technology model
o boundaryless organization
50. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of an organization's structure?
o Strategy
o Organization size
o Industry
o Technology.
51. Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to _____.
o changes in the environment
o better communication
o increased productivity
o changes in an organization's structure
52. Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee
performance and satisfaction is MOST true?
o There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.
o There is no evidence that supports a relationship between span of control and
employee performance.
o The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to higher
productivity and reduced job satisfaction.
o No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine.
1. The unbroken line of authority that extends from top of the organization to the lowest echelon
is termed the chain of command.
o True
o False
2. Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and discourage employee
autonomy.
o True
o False
3. A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules.
o True
o False
4. The major disadvantages of the matrix structure lie in the confusion it creates, its propensity to
foster power struggles, and the stress it places on individuals.
o
o
5.
o
o
True
False
The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility.
True
False
6.
o
o
7.
Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization.
True
False
The organic structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a
limited information network, and centralization.
o True
o False
8. Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is likely to result in a shift
towards a more organic structure.
o True
o False
9. The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should
be.
o True
o False
10. Research supports the notion that employees prefer an organic structure.
o True
o False
Chapter #6
1. When an organization becomes _____, it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or
any of its members.
o institutionalized
o stabilized
o cultured
o mature
2. _____ is a shared system of meaning among employees.
o Organizational systems
o Collective sensemaking
o Organizational culture
o Cultural sensitivity
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization's culture?
o Outcome orientation
o Assertiveness
o Innovation and risk taking
o Attention to detail
4. The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job satisfaction" is _____.
o
o
o
o
evaluative, objective
subjective, descriptive
descriptive, evaluative
objective, subjective
5. Which of the following is NOT a function of culture?
o Enhances the stability of the social system
o Conveys a sense of identity
o Acceptance of diversity
o Generation of commitment
6. Individual-organizational fit refers to _____.
o an employee's pre-socialization
o whether an employee has an appropriate educational background
o the technical proficiency of employees
o whether the applicant or employee's attitudes and behaviour are compatible with the
culture.
7. _____ is known for its democratic culture.
o W. R. Gore
o K-mart
o BFI
o Wal-mart
8. The process of "onboarding" is a type of ____ at Limited Brands.
o training
o encounter
o socialization
o metamorphosis
9. The _____ stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes,
and expectations.
o selection
o prearrival
o metamorphosis
10. Which of the following is NOT associated with organizations with high ethical standards?
o high in risk tolerance
o high in innovation
o focus on means
o high aggressiveness
11. Employees will view the behaviour of _____ as a benchmark for defining appropriate behaviour.
o their immediate supervisor
o government officials
o top management
o new employees
12. A _____ is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more
than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.
o
o
o
o
positive organizational culture
centralized organizational culture
bureaucracy
matrix organization
13. _____ recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful
work that takes place in the context of community.
o Organizational culture
o Workplace spirituality
o Formalization
o Institutionalization
14. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
o Spirituality in organizations is inversely related to creativity.
o Opportunities for spirituality have little impact on economic performance.
o Spirituality in organizations is negatively associated with employee satisfaction and
organizational commitment.
o Spirituality based techniques improve productivity and significantly reduce turnover.
15. The origin of culture as an independent variable affecting an employee's attitudes and
behaviour can be traced back more than 50 years to the notion of _____.
o bureaucracy
o organizational structure
o institutionalization
o uniformity
16. _____ refers to the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of
outcomes on employees.
o Team orientation
o Attention to detail
o Outcome orientation
o People orientation
17. _____ is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the
techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes.
o Attention to detail
o Innovation and risk taking
o Outcome orientation
o Stability
18. Bureaucratic organizations tend to maintain the status quo and have cultures that emphasize
_____.
o stability
o mediocrity
o outcome orientation
o aggressiveness
19. A _____ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's
members.
o
o
o
o
weak
dominant
core
sub-
20. _____ tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or
experiences that members face.
o Groups
o Teams
o Weak cultures
o Subcultures
21. Microsoft's culture values _____ and risk taking.
o attention to detail
o team orientation
o people orientation
o aggressiveness
22. In a _____, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared.
o strong culture
o transitional culture
o weak culture
o intense culture
23. A strong culture can substitute for _____, which also creates predictability, orderliness, and
consistency.
o specialization
o formalization
o centralization
o authority
24. In a study of 230 organizations from different industries around the world, having a strong and
positive organizational culture was associated with increased organizational effectiveness.
However, the importance of different aspects varied from one country to another.
Empowerment is more important for performance in _____ and less important in ____.
o Japan, United States
o China, Japan
o Brazil, Japan
o France, Brazil
25. In its role as a _____ mechanism, culture creates distinctions between one organization and
others.
o control
o stabilization
o boundary-defining
o identification
26. At _____, employees almost universally appear attractive, clean, and wholesome looking.
o Dell
o
o
o
Anheuser-Busch theme parks
IBM
Disney
27. When is culture a liability?
o When the environment is stable
o When there is little competition
o When the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the
organization's effectiveness
o When employees come to the organization with similar cultural backgrounds
28. How is culture created?
o The founders indoctrinate new employees with their values and vision.
o The founders hire and retain only employees who think and feel the same way
that they do.
o The founders act as role models of acceptable behaviour and values.
o All of the above.
29. At _____, there no bosses, job titles, or chains of command.
o IBM
o BFI
o Delta
o W. R. Gore
30. _____ is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis.
o Socialization
o Selection
o Contrition
o Customization
31. During the _____ stage, the newly hired employee confronts the possible dichotomy between
her expectations and reality.
o prearrival
o encounter
o metamorphosis
o customization
32. Nike employees recount the story of how co-founder Bill Bowerman went to his workshop and
poured rubber into his wife's waffle iron to create a better running shoe. This story highlights
Nike's culture of _____.
o socialization
o innovation
o diversity
o aggressiveness
33. Which of the following is NOT likely to shape an ethical culture?
o High risk tolerance
o High aggressiveness
o
o
Focuses on means as well as outcomes
Support for innovation
34. _____ has a strong culture that emphasizes obligations to employees. This was evident during
their handling of the Tylenol contamination incident.
o Johnson and Johnson
o Enron
o Merck
o Glaxo Smith Kline
35. Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating a(n) _____.
o employee handbook
o organizational code of ethics
o performance standard
o quota system
36. To create an ethical organizational culture, performance appraisals should evaluate the ____ as
well as the extent to which goals are reached.
o importance
o economy
o environment
o means
37. Which of the following is NOT an example of a formal protective mechanism?
o ethical counsellors
o ethical officers
o ombudsmen
o auditors
38. A _____ organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than
it punishes, and emphasizes vitality and growth.
o positive
o centralized
o formalized
o functional
39. As CEO of Auglaize Provido, an agribusiness company, _____ built upon employee strengths to
turn the failing business around.
o Elzbieta Gorska-Kolodziejczyk
o Larry Hammond
o Philippe Lescornez
o Steve Jobs
40. Organizations that promote _____ recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit, seek to
find meaning and purpose in their work, and desire to connect with other human beings and be
part of a community.
o customer-responsiveness
o diversity awareness
o
o
productivity
workplace spirituality
41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spiritual organizations?
o humanistic work practices
o trust and respect
o low formalization
o strong sense of purpose
42. Which of the following is NOT a conclusion of research into workplace spirituality?
o Companies that introduced spiritually based techniques improved productivity
and significantly reduced turnover.
o Spirituality in organizations is positively correlated with creativity, employee
satisfaction, team performance, and organizational commitment.
o Workplace spirituality increases turnover and decreases profits.
o Organizations that provide their employees with opportunities for spiritual
development outperformed those that didn't.
43. Institutionalization is the process through which _____.
o individuals become a part of an organization
o an organization takes on a life of its own
o an individual is offered a life-time position
o an organization employs a critical mass of people
44. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational culture?
o Attention to detail
o Innovation
o Formalization
o Team orientation
45. A strong culture builds all of the following EXCEPT ____.
o cohesiveness
o loyalty
o quality
o organizational commitment
46. Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____.
o it increases consistency of behaviour
o the environment is dynamic
o management is incompetent
o it reduces ambiguity
47. Which of the following is NOT a way that culture is created?
o Founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do.
o Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and
feeling.
o Founders poll early employees to determine the appropriate cultural values.
o
The founders' own behaviour acts as a role model that encourages employees
to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs.
48. All of the following serve to sustain a culture EXCEPT _____.
o selection
o formalization
o socialization
o top management
49. _____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization's culture.
o Training
o Mentoring
o Socialization
o Communicating
50. Which of the following is NOT a common form by which culture is transmitted to employees?
o Stories
o Selection
o Rituals
o Language
51. Which of the following is NOT identified that managers can create a more ethical culture?
o Visibly reward ethical acts.
o Set aggressive performance goals.
o Communicate ethical expectations.
o Provide protective mechanisms.
52. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a spiritual organization?
o Focus on individual development
o Employee empowerment
o Censorship of employee expression
o Trust and openness
1. When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals become viewed as the
prime directive.
o True
o False
2. The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on
people within the organization is termed outcome orientation.
o True
o False
3. Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely shared.
o True
o False
4. Consistency of behaviour is an asset to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
o True
o False
The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization's culture since
they are so far removed from the employees.
o True
o False
Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices,
promotion policies, and socialization methods.
o True
o False
Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms
and jargon specific to the organization.
o True
o False
A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees then a weak one.
o True
o False
A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee
strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.
o True
o False
Workplace spirituality involves opportunities for organized religious practices within the context
of the workplace.
o True
o False