Test-9(Subject)
Total Marks : 200
( INSTA Prelims Test Series 2021 )
1. Consider the following statements regarding 73rd amendment act of 1992
1. The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution.
2. It has brought the Panchayati raj institutions under the purview of the justiciable part of the
Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
73RD AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
Significance of the Act
This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as ‘The
Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also
added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items
of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.
The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that,
“The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such
powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of selfgovernment.”
This article forms a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
The act gives a constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions. It has brought
them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new
Panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the
formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of
the state government any more.
2. Which of the following is/are the compulsory provisions under Part IX of the Constitution?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
3. Granting financial powers to the Panchayats.
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4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district
levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution:
Compulsory Provisions
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages. Hence Statement 1 is
correct.
2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and
district levels. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
5. Voting rights of the chairperson and other members of a panchayat elected directly or
indirectly.
6. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
7. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all
the three levels.
8. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at
all the three levels.
9. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six
months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
10. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
11. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial
position of the panchayats.
Voluntary Provisions
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1. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
2. Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat.
3. Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy,
collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
Hence, statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
3. Which of the following functions were endowed to Gram Sabha under PESA Act?
1. The power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the consumption of any intoxicant
2. The ownership of minor forest produce
3. The power to manage village markets
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to the Panchayats are not applicable to
the Fifth Schedule areas. However, the Parliament may extend these provisions to such areas,
subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the
Parliament has enacted the “Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act”, 1996, popularly known as the PESA Act or the Extension Act.
While endowing Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas with such powers and authority as may be
necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, a State Legislature
shall ensure that the Panchayats at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha are endowed
specifically with–
(i) the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the consumption of any intoxicant
(ii) the ownership of minor forest produce
(iii) the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to take appropriate
action to restore any unlawfully alienation land of a Scheduled Tribe
(iv) the power to manage village markets
(v) the power to exercise control over money lending to Scheduled Tribes
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(vi) the power to exercise control over institutions and functionarie all social sectors
(vii) the power to control local plans and resources for such plans including tribal sub-plans
4. Consider the following statements regarding Jute
1. It thrives in tropical lowland areas with humidity of 60% to 90% and it is a rain-fed crop with
little need for fertilizer or pesticides.
2. India is the world’s largest producer of raw jute and jute goods.
3. At present, 20% of the food grains and 100% of the sugar shall be mandatorily packed in
diversified jute bags.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Mandatory Packaging in Jute Materials:
Cabinet approves Extension of Norms for Mandatory Packaging in Jute Materials.
Now, 100% of the foodgrains and 20% of the sugar shall be mandatorily packed
in diversified jute bags. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Benefits:
Nearly 3.7 lakh workers and several lakh farm families are dependent for their livelihood on
the jute sectors.
This decision will give an impetus to the diversification of the jute industry.
It will also benefit farmers and workers located in the Eastern and North Eastern
regions of the country.
Background:
Under the Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory use in Packing Commodities) Act,
1987, the Government is required to consider and provide for the compulsory use of jute
packaging material in the supply and distribution of certain commodities in the interest of
production of raw jute and jute packaging material and of persons engaged in the production
thereof.
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About Jute:
Known as the ‘golden fibre’, jute is one of the longest and most used natural fibre for various
textile applications.
It thrives in tropical lowland areas with humidity of 60% to 90%. Jute is a rain-fed
crop with little need for fertilizer or pesticides.
India is the world’s largest producer of raw jute and jute goods.
The cultivation of jute in India is mainly confined to the eastern region of the country.
The first jute mill was established at Rishra (Bengal – now in West Bengal), on the
river Hooghly near Calcutta in the year 1855, by Mr. George Aclend.
In 1959, the first power driven weaving factory was set up.
5. Under 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, at the Central level, the subject of ‘urban local government’
is dealt by which of the following three ministries?
1. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
2. Ministry of Defence
3. Ministry of Home Affairs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
There are eight types of urban local governments in India– municipal corporation,
municipality, notified area committee, town area committee, cantonment board, township, port
trust and special purpose agency.
The system of urban government was constitutionalized through the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. At the Central level, the subject of ‘urban
local government’ is dealt with by the following three ministries:
(i) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
(ii) Ministry of Defence in the case of cantonment boards
(iii) Ministry of Home Affairs in the case of Union Territories
All the above statements are correct.
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6. Consider the following statements regarding Municipalities
1. All the members of a municipality shall be elected indirectly by the people of the municipal
area.
2. The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in
the municipalities for SCs, STs and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
74TH AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
The salient features of the act are:
Three Types of Municipalities
The act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in every
state.
1. A nagar panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area.
2. A municipal council for a smaller urban area.
3. A municipal corporation for a larger urban area.
Composition
All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people of the municipal area.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
For this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be
known as wards.
The state legislature may provide the manner of election of the chairperson of a municipality.
It may also provide for the representation of the following persons in a municipality.
1. Persons having special knowledge or experience in municipal administration without the
right to vote in the meetings of municipality.
2. The members of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assembly representing
constituencies that comprise wholly or partly the municipal area.
3. The members of the Rajya Sabha and the state legislative council registered as electors
within the municipal area.
4. The chairpersons of committees (other than wards committees).
Reservation of Seats
The act provides for the reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes
in every municipality in proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal
area. Further, it provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of
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seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for woman belonging to the SCs and
the STs).
The state legislature may provide for the manner of reservation of offices of chairpersons in
the municipalities for SCs, STs and women. It may also make any provision for the reservation
of seats in any municipality or offices of chairpersons in municipalities in favour of backward
classes.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Township
1. This type of urban government is established by state legislature.
2. The township form of urban government has no elected members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Township
This type of urban government is established by the large public enterprises to
provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built
near the plant. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The enterprise appoints a town administrator to look after the administration of the township.
He is assisted by some engineers and other technical and non-technical staff. Thus, the
township form of urban government has no elected members. In fact, it is an extension
of the bureaucratic structure of the enterprises. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Administration of union territories
1. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator
appointed by him.
2. An administrator of a union territory is head of union territory like a governor.
3. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for
the union territories.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Administration of union territories
Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories. Even though
all the union territories belong to one category, there is no uniformity in their administrative
system.
Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an
administrator appointed by him. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of
state like a governor. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The President can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor
or Chief Commissioner or Administrator. At present, it is Lieutenant Governor in the case of
Delhi, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh and
Administrator in the case of Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu and
Lakshadweep.
The President can also appoint the governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining
union territory. In that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his council of
ministers.
The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963), Delhi (in 1992) and Jammu and Kashmir (in
2019) are provided with a legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief
minister. The remaining six union territories do not have such popular political institutions.
But, the establishment of such institutions in the union territories does not diminish the
supreme control of the president and Parliament over them.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State
List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry, Delhi
and Jammu and Kashmir, which have their own local legislatures. This means that, the
legislative power of Parliament for the union territories on subjects of the State List remain
unaffected even after establishing a local legislature for them. Hence Statement 3 is
correct.
9. Consider the following statements regarding Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project
1. Financial Assistance for this project is being provided by the World Bank (WB) and Asian
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Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
2. Its objective is to strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States /
Implementing Agencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project:
Cabinet approves Externally Aided Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project – Phase
II and Phase III.
Key points:
Financial Assistance is being provided by the World Bank (WB), and Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
The Project will be implemented over a period of 10 years duration in two Phases, each
of six years duration with two years overlapping from April, 2021 to March, 2031.
DRIP Phase II & Phase III envisages the following objectives:
1. To improve the safety and performance of selected existing dams and associated
appurtenances in a sustainable manner.
2. To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup in participating states as well as at
central level.
3. To explore the alternative incidental means at few of selected dams to generate the
incidental revenue for sustainable operation and maintenance of dams.
Need for the Scheme:
India ranks third globally after China and the United States of America, with 5334 large
dams in operation. In addition, about 411 dams are under construction at present. There are
also several thousand smaller dams.
Indian dams and reservoirs play an important role in the economic and agricultural
growth of our country by storing approximately 300 billion cubic meter of water
annually.
These dams present a major responsibility in terms of asset management and safety.
The consequences of dam failure can be catastrophic, in terms of loss of human life and
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property, and damage to ecology.
About DRIP:
The project was launched in 2012 by Central Water Commission (CWC) with assistance from
World Bank.
The objectives of DRIP:
1. To improve the safety and operational performance of selected existing dams and
associated appurtenances in a sustainable manner, and
2. To strengthen the dam safety institutional setup of participating States / Implementing
Agencies.
Phase 1 of the Project:
The first phase of the DRIP programme covered 223 dams in 7 states.
Facts for Prelims:
DHARMA (Dam Health and Rehabilitation Monitoring) is a system to monitor the health
of dams. At present, it is being used by 18 states.
A seismic hazard analysis information system (SHAISYS) has also been
developed.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Sixth Schedule
1. Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 20 members.
2. The autonomous districts fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
3. The governor is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The various features of administration contained in the Sixth Schedule are as follows:
1. The tribal areas in the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram have been
constituted as autonomous districts. But, they do not fall outside the executive authority
of the state concerned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
2. The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts. Thus, he
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can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so
on.
3. If there are different tribes in an autonomous district, the governor can divide the district
into several autonomous regions.
4. Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members, of whom
four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of
adult franchise. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years (unless the council is dissolved
earlier) and nominated members hold office during the pleasure of the governor. Each
autonomous region also has a separate regional council.
5. The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. They can
make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation,
village administration and inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and
so on. But all such laws require the assent of the governor.
6. The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village
councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them.
The jurisdiction of high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.
11. Consider the following statements regarding Election commission
1. According to the Constitution, Election Commission shall consist of the chief election
commissioner and a maximum of two election commissioners.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other
election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Composition
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the
composition of election commission:
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1. The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such
number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to
time fix. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall
be made by the president.
3. When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall
act as the chairman of the election commission.
4. The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such
regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.
5. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional
commissioners shall be determined by the president.
The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers
and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites, which are similar to those of a
judge of the Supreme Court. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election
Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the
Commission by majority.
They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is
earlier. They can resign at any time or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
1. The Supreme Court held that a selection by the UPSC does confer a right to the post upon the
candidate.
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions has power to reject the advice of the
UPSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters, the
aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any
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irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate
the decision of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory. Similarly,
the court held that a selection by the UPSC does not confer any right to the post upon
the candidate. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
However, the government is to act fairly and without arbitrariness or mala fides.
The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The President
places this report before both the Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining
the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such nonacceptance. All such cases of nonacceptance must be approved by the Appointments
Committee of the Union cabinet. An individual ministry or department has no power to
reject the advice of the UPSC. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
UPSC is only a central recruiting agency while the Department of Personnel and
Training is the central personnel agency in India.
The role of UPSC is not only limited, but also recommendations made by it are only of
advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is upto the Union
government to accept or reject that advise. The only safeguard is the answerability of the
government to the Parliament for departing from the recommendation of the Commission.
Further, the government can also make rules which regulate the scope of the advisory
functions of UPSC.
13. Consider the following statements regarding State Public Service Commission
1. All the members of the commission should be such persons who have held office for at least
ten years either under the government of India or under the Government of a state.
2. The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or until they
attain the age of 62 years.
3. The chairman or any other member can be removed by the president on same grounds and in
the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
A State Public Service Commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by
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the governor of the state. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission
but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor. Further, no qualifications are
prescribed for the commission’s membership except that one-half of the members of
the commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten years
either under the government of India or under the Government of a state. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution also authorizes the governor to determine the conditions of service of the
chairman and members of the Commission.
The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six years or
until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier (in the case of UPSC, the
age limit is 65 years). However, they can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing
their resignation to the governor.
The president can also remove the chairman or any other member of SPSC for
misbehavior. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the
Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the
cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a
member. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this
regard is binding on the president. However, during the course of enquiry by the Supreme
Court, the governor can suspend the concerned chairman or member, pending the final
removal order of the president on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court.
14. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Meri Saheli
1. It was launched by Ministry of Education.
2. Its objective is to promote menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Operation “Meri Saheli”:
Indian Railways has launched “Meri Saheli” initiative for focused action on security
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of women across all zones with an objective to provide safety and security to lady
passengers travelling by trains for their entire journey from starting station to
destination station.
An initiative of RPF, the Strategy of the entails interaction with lady passengers
especially those travelling alone by a team of young lady RPF personnel at the
originating station.
Hence, both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
15. The qualifications of the chairman of the Finance Commission as specified by Parliament is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
A person who has special knowledge of economics.
A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
A person having experience in public affairs.
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by
the president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They
are eligible for reappointment.
The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the
commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament has
specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission.
The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four
other members should be selected from amongst the following:
1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2. A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
16. Which of the following statement is not correct about GST council?
A. One-half of the total number of members of the Council is the quorum for conducting a
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meeting.
B. Every decision of the Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than one-half of the
weighted votes of the members present and voting.
C. The vote of the central government shall have a weightage one-third of the total votes.
D. The votes of all the state governments combined shall have weightage of two-thirds of
the total votes.
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for the introduction of a new tax regime (i.e.
goods and services tax - GST) in the country. The smooth and efficient administration of this
tax requires co-operation and coordination between the centre and the states. In order to
facilitate this consultation process, the amendment provided for the establishment of a Goods
and Services Tax Council or the GST Council.
The amendment inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution.
This Article empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order1. Accordingly,
the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
The decisions of the Council are taken at its meetings. One-half of the total number of
members of the Council is the quorum for conducting a meeting. Every decision of
the Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted
votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
The decision is taken in accordance with the following principles:
(i) The vote of the central government shall have a weightage one-third of the total
votes cast in that meeting.
(ii) The votes of all the state governments combined shall have weightage of twothirds of the total votes cast in that meeting.
Any act or proceedings of the Council will not become invalid on the following grounds:
(i) any vacancy or defect in the constitution of the Council; or
(ii) any defect in the appointment of a person as a member of the Council; or
(iii) any procedural irregularity of the Council not affecting the merits of the case.
17. Consider the following statements regarding Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)
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1. The JPC is an ad-hoc body.
2. In order to set up a JPC, a motion is passed in one House and supported by the other House.
3. A JPC is authorized to collect evidence in oral or written form or demand documents in
connection with the matter.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What is a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)?
The Joint Committee of Parliament on the Data Protection Bill sought an affidavit from
Twitter Inc., the U.S.-based parent company of the social media platform, asking them to
explain why it had shown Ladakh as a part of China.
What’s the issue?
Display of wrong map is not only a question of the sensitivity of India or Indians. It is a
question about national integrity and sovereignty of the country, and not respecting
that is a criminal offence.
And displaying Indian map improperly and incorrectly is an offence of treason and
attracts imprisonment of seven years.
What is a JPC?
A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up to examine a particular bill presented
before the Parliament, or for the purpose of investigating cases of financial
irregularities in any government activity.
The JPC is an ad-hoc body.
It is set up for a given period of time and is aimed at addressing a specific issue.
Composition:
In order to set up a JPC, a motion is passed in one House and supported by the
other House.
The committee’s members are decided by Parliament.
The number of members can vary. There are twice as many Lok Sabha members as
the Rajya Sabha.
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Powers and Functions:
A JPC is authorized to collect evidence in oral or written form or demand
documents in connection with the matter.
The proceedings and findings of the committee are confidential, except in matters of
public interest.
The government can take the decision to withhold a document if it is considered
prejudicial to the safety or interest of the State.
The Speaker has the final word in case of a dispute over calling for evidence.
The committee can invite interested parties for inquiry and summon people to
appear before it.
The committee gets disbanded following the submission of its report to
Parliament.
18. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for SCs and STs
1. Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special Officer for
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
2. The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990, bifurcated the combined National
Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for the appointment of a Special
Officer for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to investigate all matters
relating to the constitutional safeguards for the SCs and STs and to report to the President on
their working. He was designated as the Commissioner for SCs and STs and assigned the said
duty. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Later, the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the establishment
of a high-level multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs in the place of a
single Special Officer for SCs and STs. This constitutional body replaced the Commissioner
for SCs and STs as well as the Commission set up under the Resolution of 1987.
Again, the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined
National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies, namely, National
Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled
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Tribes (under Article 338-A).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
19. Which of the following are functions of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs)?
1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards
for the STs and to evaluate their working.
2. To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of
the STs.
3. To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or a state for
the effective implementation of safeguards of the STs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs)
FUNCTIONS OF THE COMMISSION
The functions of the Commission are:
(a) To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other
legal safeguards for the STs and to evaluate their working;
(b) To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and
safeguards of the STs;
(c) To participate and advise on the planning process of socioeconomic development of the STs
and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union or a state;
(d) To present to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports
upon the working of those safeguards;
(e) To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union
or a state for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures
for the protection, welfare and socio-economic development of the STs; and
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(f) To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development
and advancement of the STs as the President may specify.
The Central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on
all major policy matters affecting the STs.
20. Consider the following statements regarding Powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes
(NCBC)
1. The President is vested with the power to regulate the affairs of commission.
2. The Commission, while investigating any matter or enquiring into any complaint, has all the
powers of a civil court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
Powers of the commission
The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
The Commission, while investigating any matter or enquiring into any complaint, has
all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following
matters:
(a) Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and
examining him on oath
(b) Requiring the discovery and production of any document
(c) Receiving evidence on affidavits
(d) Requisitioning any public record from any court or office
(e) Issuing summons for the examination of witnesses and documents
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(f) Any other matter which the President may determine
The central government and the state governments are required to consult the Commission on
all major policy matters affecting the socially and educationally backward classes.
21. Annual State of Education Report (ASER) survey is conducted by
A.
B.
C.
D.
NITI Aayog
NGO Pratham
Ministry of Education
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Annual State of Education Report (ASER) survey:
Findings of the Annual State of Education Report (ASER) survey conducted in
September.
The survey provides a glimpse into the levels of learning loss that students in
rural India are suffering, with varying levels of access to technology, school and
family resources, resulting in a digital divide in education.
About ASER:
ASER is a nationwide survey of rural education and learning outcomes in terms of
reading and arithmetic skills.
It has been conducted by the NGO Pratham for the last 15 years. This year, the survey was
conducted via phone calls. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Key findings- impact of Covid- 19 Pandemic:
About 20% of rural children have no textbooks at home. In Andhra Pradesh, less
than 35% of children had textbooks. More than 98% had textbooks in West Bengal,
Nagaland and Assam.
In the week of the survey, about one in three rural children had done no learning
activity at all.
About two in three had no learning material or activity given by their school that
week, and only one in 10 had access to live online classes.
3% of rural children aged 6-10 years had not yet enrolled in school this year, in
comparison to just 1.8% in 2018.
Enrolment patterns also show a slight shift toward government schools, with private
schools seeing a drop in enrolment in all age groups.
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22. Consider the following statements regarding Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
2. At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
3. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications and tenure of the officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special
Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganization Commission (1953–55) made
a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of
1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. This article contains the
following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the
President of India.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may
direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send
to the governments of the states concerned.
It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications,
tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions
and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Hence, he submits the annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union
Minority Affairs Minister.
23. Consider the following statements regarding independence of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
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1. He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state.
2. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence
of CAG:
1. He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the president only
in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not
hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
2. He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any
state, after he ceases to hold his office.
3. His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is
equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement
can be altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.
5. The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department
and the administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the president after consultation
with the CAG.
6. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and
pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Thus, they are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can
be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
24. Consider the following statements regarding colors from firecrackers
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1.
2.
3.
4.
Red: Strontium salts
Blue: Copper salts
Green: Sodium salts
Yellow: Barium salts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Govt. green-lights ‘green’ firecrackers this year:
The Delhi government scheduled to launch an anti-firecracker campaign on November 3.
Now, only ‘green’ firecrackers can be manufactured, sold and used in the national
capital.
Background:
A ban on fireworks was imposed in 2018 and in 2019 only ‘green’ crackers were allowed, but
the permission had come too late for manufacturers to ensure their availability on time.
What are Green Crackers?
They are known as ‘green’ firecrackers because they have a chemical formulation that
produces water molecules, which substantially reduces emission levels and absorbs dust.
They are the crackers with reduced emission and decibel level.
Benefits of Green Crackers:
They promise a reduction in particulate matters and harmful gases, like nitrous
oxide and sulfur oxide, by 30- 35 per cent.
They will be 25-30 per cent cheaper to manufacture and manufacturers would not
have to make any changes in their facilities.
What gives colour to the firecrackers?
Red: Strontium salts (Nitrates, carbonates and sulphates of strontium).
Orange: Calcium salts (Carbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium).
Yellow: Sodium salts (Nitrates and oxalates of sodium).
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Green: Barium salts (Nitrates, carbonates, chlorides and chlorates of barium).
Blue: Copper salts (Carbonates and oxides of copper).
Purple: A combination of copper and strontium compounds.
White: The burning of metals like magnesium, aluminium and titanium).
Hence, option (a) is correct.
25. Which of the following reports are submitted by CAG?
1. Audit report on appropriation accounts
2. Audit report on finance accounts
3. Audit report on public undertakings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The CAG submits three audit reports to the President–audit report on appropriation
accounts, audit report on finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings.
The President lays these reports before both the Houses of Parliament. After this, the Public
Accounts Committee examines them and reports its findings to the Parliament.
The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:
1. He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India,
consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a
Legislative Assembly.
2. He audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of
India as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state.
3. He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other
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subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and state
governments.
4. He audits the receipts and expenditure of the Centre and each state to satisfy himself that
the rules and procedures in that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the
assessment, collection and proper allocation of revenue.
5. He audits the receipts and expenditure of the following:
(a) All bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues;
(b) Government companies; and
(c) Other corporations and bodies, when so required by related laws.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Advocate General of the State
1. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court.
2. The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Advocate General of the State
The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the
states. He is the highest law officer in the state. Thus, he corresponds to the Attorney General
of India.
The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified
to be appointed a judge of a high court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and
must have held a judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a high court for ten years.
The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the
Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office
during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the governor at
any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the governor.
Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced,
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as he is appointed on its advice.
The remuneration of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such
remuneration as the governor may determine.
27. Consider the following statements regarding Central Council of Local Government
1. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
2. It has been dealing with matters of urban local government only.
3. The Union Minister for Urban Development acts as the Chairman of the Council.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
CENTRAL COUNCIL OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT
The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was constituted under
Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India.
Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-Government. However, the term
‘self-government’ was found to be superfluous and hence was replaced by the term
‘government’ in the 1980s.
Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after 1958
it has been dealing with matters of urban local government only. The Council is an
advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban Development in the Government of India
and the ministers for local self-government in states.
The Union minister acts as the Chairman of the Council.
The Council performs the following functions with regard to local government:
(i) Considering and recommending the policy matters
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(ii) Making proposals for legislation
(iii) Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states
(iv) Drawing up a common programme of action
(v) Recommending Central financial assistance
(vi) Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the Central financial assistance
28. Consider the following statements regarding SOFIA Project
1. It is a ground based Infrared observatory.
2. It is a joint project of NASA and the German Aerospace Center.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
SOFIA – Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy
NASA, Universities Space Research Association (USRA) and the German Aerospace Center,
DLR, are working together to develop SOFIA, a 2.5-meter infrared telescope mounted in a
modified Boeing 747SP aircraft.
The SOFIA Project
Built into a converted Boeing 747SP, SOFIA’s 2.5-meter (8.2-foot)-diameter telescope
will make it the world’s largest and most sensitive airborne observatory. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
Flying at 39,000 to 45,000 feet, it will enable scientific observations that are impossible for
even the largest and highest of Earth-based telescopes. Peering out through an open cavity in
the side of the aircraft, the telescope will allow astronomers to obtain sharper infrared images
than ever before. The astronomers, technicians, engineers, educators, and flight crew will
work in a comfortable airliner environment during a typical eight-to-nine-hour flight.
Based at NASA’s Ames Research Center near Mountain View, California, SOFIA is scheduled
to make scientific flights two to three times per week. Expected to operate for at least 20
years, it will fly primarily from Ames’ Moffett Field and for one or two months per year from a
base in the southern hemisphere; it will occasionally fly from other locations around the world,
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including Germany.
About SOFIA:
SOFIA is a modified Boeing 747SP jetliner that flies at altitudes up to 45,000 feet.
It is a joint project of NASA and the German Aerospace Center.
It has an infrared camera that picks up the wavelength unique to water molecules.
SOFIA’s mission is to look at dark and distant objects. The Moon, on the other hand,
is so close and bright that it fills the SOFIA guide camera’s entire field of view.
29. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog
1. The Prime Minister is the Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog.
2. The Governing Council comprises of the Chief Ministers of all the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows:
(a) Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
(b) Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief
Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu
and Kashmir) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the
Chairperson:
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(i) Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. H enjoys the rank of a Cabinet
Minister.
(ii) Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
(iii) Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading universities research organizations and
other relevant institutions. Part-time members would be on a rotation.
(iv) Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be
nominated by the Prime Minister.
(v) Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure,
in the rank of Secretary to the Government India.
(vi) Secretariat: As deemed necessary.
30. Consider the following statements regarding Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO)
1. It was established by the Government in 2015 as an attached office of the NITI Aayog.
2. The DMEO is headed by the Secretary of NITI aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was established by the
Government in 2015 as an attached office of the NITI Aayog by merging the erstwhile
Programme Evaluation Organization and the Independent Evaluation Office. Hence
Statement 1 is correct.
The DMEO is headed by the Director General who is equivalent to an Additional
Secretary to the Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
To ensure that DMEO is able to function independently and effectively, it has been provided
with separate budgetary allocations and manpower in addition to complete functional
autonomy.
The DMEO has been mandated to actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of the
programmes and initiatives of the Government of India, including the identification of the
needed resources so as to strengthen the probability of the success and scope of delivery.
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31. Consider the following statements regarding IndiGen Program
1. It was initiated by CSIR.
2. It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing
diverse ethnic groups from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
IndiGen Program:
Results from the extensive computation analysis of the 1029 sequenced genomes from India
were published recently.
This analysis was carried out under IndiGen Program.
Key findings:
The analysis led to the identification of 55,898,122 single nucleotide variants in the
India genome dataset.
Comparisons with the global genome datasets revealed that 18,016,257 (32.23%)
variants were unique and found only in the samples sequenced from India. This
emphasizes the need for an India centric population genomic initiative.
Why this genome data is significant? What can it be used for?
It helps to classify variants involved in mendelian disorders and improve
precision medicine outcomes.
The resource can also enable the identification of markers for carrier screening,
variations causing genetic diseases, prevention of adverse events and provide
better diagnosis and optimal therapy through mining data of clinically actionable
pharmacogenetic variants.
The data will allow researchers to build Indian-specific reference genome dataset
and efficiently impute haplotype information. This resource can provide useful
insights for clinicians and researchers in comprehending genetics not only at the
population level but at the individual level.
About the Genomics for Public Health in India (IndiGen) programme:
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CSIR initiated the Program in April 2019.
It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing
diverse ethnic groups from India.
The objective is to enable genetic epidemiology and develop public health technologies
applications using population genome data.
What is Gene Sequencing?
A genome is the DNA or sequence of genes in a cell.
Most of the DNA is in the nucleus and intricately coiled into a structure called the
chromosome.
Every human cell contains a pair of chromosomes, each of which has three billion base
pairs or one of four molecules that pair in precise ways
The order of base pairs and varying lengths of these sequences constitute the “genes”.
Sequencing a genome means deciphering the exact order of base pairs in an individual.
32. Who is the Chairman of National Development Council (NDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
President of India
Prime Minister
Minister of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Minister of Finance
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 by an executive
resolution of the Government of India on the recommendation of the First Five Year Plan (draft
outline). Like the erstwhile Planning Commission, it is neither a constitutional body nor a
statutory body.
Composition
The NDC is composed of the following members.
1. The Prime Minister of India (as its chairman/head). Hence, option (b) is correct.
2. All Union Cabinet Ministers (since 1967).
3. The Chief Ministers of all the states.
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4. The Chief Ministers/administrators of all union territories.
5. Members of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
The secretary of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) acts as the secretary to the NDC.
It (NDC) is also provided with administrative and other assistance for its work by the Planning
Commission (now NITI Aayog).
33. Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission
1. The functions of the commission are recommendatory in nature.
2. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from
the date on which the act was committed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was
established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993.
The commission’s headquarters is at Delhi and it can also establish offices at other places in
India. It is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil
court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
The commission has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into complaints of
human rights violations. Besides, it is empowered to utilize the services of any officer or
investigation agency of the Central government or any state government for the purpose. It
has also established effective cooperation with the NGOs with first-hand information about
human rights violations. The commission is not empowered to inquire into any matter
after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of
human rights is alleged to have been committed.
The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has no
power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including monetary
relief to the victim. Notably, its recommendations are not binding on the concerned
government or authority. But, it should be informed about the action taken on its
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recommendations within one month.
Moreover, the commission has limited role, powers and jurisdiction with respect to the
violation of human rights by the members of the armed forces.
34. Consider the following statements regarding Coal India Limited (CIL)
1. CIL is the single largest coal producer in the world.
2. CIL is a Navratna company.
3. It produces around 83% of India’s overall coal production in India
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Coal India Limited (CIL) the state owned coal mining corporate came into being in November
1975. With a modest production of 79 Million Tonnes (MTs) at the year of its inception CIL
today is the single largest coal producer in the world and one of the largest corporate
employer with manpower of 272445 (as on 1st April, 2020). CIL functions through its
subsidiaries in 84 mining areas spread over eight (8) states of India. Coal India Limited has
352 mines (as on 1st April, 2020) of which 158 are underground, 174 opencast and 20 mixed
mines. CIL further operates 12 coal washeries, (10 coking coal and 2 non-coking coal) and also
manages other establishments like workshops, hospitals, and so on. CIL has 26 training
Institutes and 84 Vocational Training Centres. Indian Institute of Coal Management (IICM) as
a state-of-the-art Management Training ‘Centre of Excellence’ – the largest Corporate Training
Institute in India - operates under CIL and conducts multi -disciplinary programmes.
CIL is a Maharatna company - a privileged status conferred by Government of India to
select state owned enterprises in order to empower them to expand their operations
and emerge as global giants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The select club has only ten members out of more than three hundred Central Public Sector
Enterprises in the country.
Unmatched Strategic Relevance
Produces around 83% of India’s overall coal production in India where approximately
57% of primary commercial energy is coal dependent, CIL alone meets to the tune of
40% of primary commercial energy requirement. The share of coal is expected to remain
high at 48-54% till 2040 and accounts for 76% of total thermal power generating capacity of
the Utility sector. Supplies coal at prices discounted to international prices and insulates
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Indian coal consumers against price volatility. Makes the end user industry globally
competitive and plays a key role in “Make in India” and making India incorporate globally
competitive.
Coal sector in India:
Despite having the world’s fourth largest coal reserves, India imported 235 million
tonnes (mt) of coal last year, of which 135mt valued at Rs.171,000 crore could have been
met from domestic reserves.
India’s state-run coal giant has been unable to meet growing demand despite
abundant resources.
The South Asian nation depends on Coal India for more than 80 per cent of its
domestic production and the miner has consistently fallen short of production targets
in the last few years.
The government has been progressively liberalizing the coal sector over the last
several months to attract new investments, and getting rid of this archaic end-use
restriction was a key step.
35. Consider the following statements regarding State Human Rights Commission
1. The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of State Human Rights
Commission.
2. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of
subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II).
3. The chairperson and members hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of
70 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the
National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at
the state levels. Accordingly, twenty-six states have constituted the State Human Rights
Commissions through Official Gazette Notifications.
A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in
respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (ListIII) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights
Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission
does not inquire into that case.
The chairperson and members hold office for a term of three years or until they attain
the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
They are eligible for re-appointment. After their tenure, the chairperson and members are not
eligible for further employment under a state government or the Central government.
Although the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed by
the governor, they can be removed only by the President (and not by the governor). The
President can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove
the chairperson or a member of the National Human Rights Commission.
36. Who among the following is not a member in selection committee of Chief Information Commissioner?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prime Minister
Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Union Home Minister
Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005. It
was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to
Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body. The Central Information
Commission is a high-powered independent body which inter alia looks into the complaints
made to it and decide the appeals.
The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten
Information Commissioners. The Commission, when constituted initially, had five
commissioners including the Chief Information Commissioner. At present (2019), the
Commission has six Information Commissioners apart from the Chief Information
Commissioner.
They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee
consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok
Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Hence, option
(c) is correct.
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37. Consider the following statements regarding State Chief Information commission
1. State Chief Information Commissioner is removed by Governor.
2. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information
Commissioner shall be such as prescribed by the state Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold
office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65
years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any State
Information Commissioner from the office under the following circumstances:
(a) if he is adjudged an insolvent; or
(b) if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Governor)
involves a moral turpitude; or
(c) if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties
of his office; or
(d) if he is (in the opinion of the Governor) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity
of mind or body; or
(e) if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect
prejudicially his official functions.
In addition to these, the Governor can also remove the State Chief Information Commissioner
or any State Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an
enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so,
then the Governor can remove him.
The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information
Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall be such as prescribed by
the Central Government. But they cannot be varied to his disadvantage during
service. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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38. The jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) extends to which of the following?
1. Members of All India Services
2. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI
3. Managers and above in General Insurance Companies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the
Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central
government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention
of Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a
statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the
CVC.
The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the following:
1. Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union
and Group A officers of the Central Government.
2. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
3. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI.
4. Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-8 and above in
Schedule ‘A’ and ‘B’ Public Sector Undertakings.
5. Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-7 and above in
Schedule ‘C’ and ‘D’ Public Sector Undertakings.
6. Managers and above in General Insurance Companies.
7. Senior Divisional Managers and above in Life Insurance Corporation.
8. Officers drawing salary of ₹8700/- per month (pre-revised) and above on Central
Government D.A. pattern, as may be revised from time to time, in societies and local
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authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government.
39. Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
1. Under UAPA, only Indian nationals can be charged.
2. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a
foreign land, outside India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967:
Eighteen more individuals declared as terrorists under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967.
Please note, the Central Government had amended the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967 in August 2019, to include the provision of designating an individual as a
terrorist.
Prior to this amendment, only organizations could be designated as terrorist
organizations.
About the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act:
Passed in 1967, the law aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in
India.
The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre
deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.
Key points:
Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
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It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is
committed on a foreign land, outside India.
Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum
180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after
intimating the court.
As per amendments of 2019:
The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant
approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said
agency.
The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to
investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above
rank officer in the state.
40. Consider the following statements regarding Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
1. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee.
2. The CBI is a statutory body.
3. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office by the Delhi
Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of
Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the
status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance
cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI. The establishment of the CBI was
recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption
(1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
The Director of CBI as Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is
responsible for the administration of the organisation. With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003,
the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment vests with the Central Government
save investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the
superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission. The Director of CBI has
been provided security of two-year tenure in office by the CVC Act, 2003. Hence,
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statement 3 is incorrect.
41. Who among the following is/are members in selection committee of the Lokpal?
1. Prime Minister
2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4. Chief Justice of India
5. An eminent jurist
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above are correct.
The salient features of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) are as follows.
1. It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the
level of the State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map
for the nation both at the Centre and at the States. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the
Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and
officials of the Central Government.
2. The Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be
judicial members.
3. 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs,
minorities and women.
4. The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall be through a
Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha,
the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting
Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to
be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first
four members of the selection committee.
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42. Consider the following statements regarding Cat Que virus
1. It is an arthropod-borne virus (arboviruses).
2. Its natural host is a Cat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Cat que virus:
Context:
Scientists have warned India of another virus — cat que virus — largely reported in China
and having the potential to cause disease in India.
The presence of this virus in culex mosquitoes and pigs has been reported in China and
Vietnam.
What is Cat Que virus?
It is one of the arthropod-borne viruses (arboviruses).
Spread:
Its natural host is a mosquito. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Domestic pigs are the primary mammalian host of CQV.
Why India is more vulnerable?
Availability of vector, primary mammalian host (swine) and confirmation of CQV from
jungle myna.
Besides, National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune researchers have found antibodies for
the virus in two out of the 883 human serum samples which were taken from various
Indian states, indicating that people at some point contracted the virus.
Effects on Humans:
It can cause febrile illnesses, meningitis and paediatric encephalitis in humans.
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43. Consider the following statements regarding Lokpal
1. Lokpal can Suo motu proceed against any public servant.
2. Anonymous complaints are not allowed.
3. Heavy punishment for false and frivolous complaints has been provided.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The following are the drawbacks (shortcomings) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 20133a:
1. Lokpal cannot suo motu proceed against any public servant. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
2. Emphasis on form of complaint rather than substance.
3. Heavy punishment for false and frivolous complaints against public servants may
deter complaints being filed to Lokpal.
4. Anonymous complaints not allowed -Can’t just make a complaint on plain paper and
drop it in a box with supporting documents.
5. Legal assistance to public servant against whom complaint is filed.
6. Limitation period of 7 years to file complaints.
7. Very non-transparent procedure for dealing with complaints against the PM.
The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter
exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.
44. Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority
1. The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
National Disaster Management Authority
The Government of India, recognising the importance of disaster management as a national
priority, had set up a High-Powered Committee in 1999 and a National Committee in 2001
after the Gujarat earthquake, to make recommendations on the preparation of disaster
management plans and suggest effective mitigation mechanisms. However, after the Indian
Ocean tsunami of 2004, the Government of India took a defining step in the legislative history
of the country by enacting the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The
Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA. The other members are
nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of
the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a
Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works under the
administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
45. Consider the following statements regarding co-operative societies
1. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 made the right to form co-operative societies
a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the
conduct of elections to a co-operative society shall vest in state election commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
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The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to
co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies
(Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies”
(Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Number and Term of Members of Board and its Office Bearers: The board shall consist
of such number of directors as may be provided by the state legislature. But, the maximum
number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-one.
The state legislature shall provide for the reservation of one seat for the Scheduled Castes or
the Scheduled Tribes and two seats for women on the board of every co-operative society
having members from such a category of persons. The term of office of elected members of the
board and its office bearers shall be five years from the date of election.
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and
the conduct of elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such body, as may be
provided by the state legislature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
46. Which of the following are foundational agreements between India and the US?
1. The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA).
2. The Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA).
3. The General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The U.S. is expecting India to sign the last foundational agreement, Basic Exchange and
Cooperation Agreement for Geo-Spatial cooperation (BECA), at the next India-U.S. 2+2
ministerial dialogue likely to held in October end.
Foundational agreements between India and the US:
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So far, India has signed three foundational agreements:
1. The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA).
2. The Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA).
3. The General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) was signed a long
time ago. An extension to the GSOMIA, the Industrial Security Annex (ISA), was
signed at the last 2+2 dialogue.
What is BECA?
This agreement would facilitate exchange of geospatial information between India and United
States for both military and civilian use.
Significance and benefits for India from BECA:
BECA will allow India to use US expertise on geospatial intelligence and to enhance military
accuracy of automated hardware systems and weapons like cruise, ballistic missiles and
drones.
47. Consider the following statements regarding official language
1. Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union.
2. The Official Languages Act lays down that English should be used for purposes of
communication between the Union and the non-Hindi states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The Constitution contains the following provisions in respect of the official language of the
Union.
1. Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union. But,
the form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union has to be the
international form of Indian numerals and not the Devanagari form of numerals.
2. However, for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., from
1950 to 1965), the English language would continue to be used for all the official purposes of
the Union for which it was being used before 1950.
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3. Even after fifteen years, the Parliament may provide for the continued use of English
language for the specified purposes.
Subsequently, the Parliament enacted the Official Languages Act in 1963. The act provides for
the continued use of English (even after 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official purposes of
the Union and also for the transaction of business in Parliament.
Notably, this act enables the use of English indefinitely (without any time-limit). Further, this
act was amended in 1967 to make the use of English, in addition to Hindi, compulsory in
certain cases.
For the time being, the official language of the Union (i.e., English) would remain the link
language for communications between the Union and the states or between various states.
The Official Languages Act (1963) lays down that English should be used for purposes
of communication between the Union and the non-Hindi states (that is, the states
that have not adopted Hindi as their official language).
48. Which of the following Indian languages have Classical language status?
1. Tamil
2. Telugu
3. Kannada
4. Malayalam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Classical language status
In 2004, the Government of India decided to create new category of languages called as
“classical languages”. In 2006, it laid down the criteria for conferring the classical language
status. So far (2019), the six languages are granted the classical language status.
1. Tamil 2004
2. Sanskrit 2005
3. Telugu 2008
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4. Kannada 2008
5. Malayalam 2013
6. Odia 2014
All the above statements are correct.
Benefits
Once a language is declared classical, it gets financial assistance for setting up a centre of
excellence for the study of that language and also opens up an avenue for two major awards
for scholars of eminence. Besides, the University Grants Commission can be requested to
create - to begin with at least in Central Universities - a certain number of professional chairs
for classical languages for scholars of eminence in the language.
Sl. No. Languages Year of Declaration
49. Consider the following statements regarding All-India Services
1. Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can be taken by both the
Central and state governments.
2. Their salaries and pensions are met by the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorized the Central government to make rules in
consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service
conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited
and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They
belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard. They
serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go
back to their respective states. The Central government obtains the services of these officers
on deputation under the well-known tenure system. It must be noted here that irrespective of
their division among different states, each of these all-India services form a single service with
common rights and status and uniform scales of pay throughout the country.
Their salaries and pensions are met by the states. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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The all-India services are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments. The ultimate
control lies with the Central government while the immediate control is vested in the state
governments.
Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can only be
taken by the Central government. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
50. Consider the following statements regarding Property of the union and the states
1. A state near the ocean can claim jurisdiction over the lands, minerals and other things of value
under the waters.
2. The Parliament as well as the state legislatures are empowered to make laws for the
compulsory acquisition and requisitioning of private property by the governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Property of the union and the states
Sea-Wealth
All lands, minerals and other things of value under the waters of the ocean within the
territorial waters of India, the continental shelf of India and the exclusive economic zone of
India vests in the Union. Hence, a state near the ocean cannot claim jurisdiction over
these things. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Compulsory Acquisition by Law
The Parliament as well as the state legislatures are empowered to make laws for the
compulsory acquisition and requisitioning of private property by the governments.
Further, the 44th Amendment Act (1978) has also abolished the constitutional obligation to pay
compensation in this regard except in two cases:
(a) when the government acquires the property of a minority educational institution; and (b)
when the government acquires the land held by a person under his personal cultivation and
the land is within the statutory ceiling limits.
51. Consider the following statements regarding immunities to certain persons
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1. No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of
their personal acts.
2. The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
President and Governor
The Constitution confers certain immunities to the president of India and governor of states
with regard to their official acts and personal acts. These are:
(a) Official Acts
The president and the governors cannot be sued during the term of their office or thereafter,
for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.
However, the official conduct of the president can be reviewed by a court, tribunal or any
other body authorised by either House of Parliament to investigate charges for impeachment.
Further, the aggrieved person can bring appropriate proceedings against the Union of India
instead of the president and the state instead of the Governor of that state.
(b) Personal Acts
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in
respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. This immunity is
limited to the period of the term of their office only and does not extend beyond that. However,
civil proceedings can be started against them during their term of office in respect of their
personal acts after giving two months’ advance notice.
Ministers
The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
But, since they are not required to countersign (as in Britain) the official acts of the president
and the governors, they are not liable in the courts for those acts. Moreover, they are not
liable for the official acts done by the president and the governors on their advice as the courts
are debarred from inquiring into such advice. However, the ministers do not enjoy any
immunity for their personal acts, and can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary
courts like common citizens.
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52. Oaxaca Khadi is produced in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brazil
South Africa
Pakistan
Mexico
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Oaxaca Khadi:
It is the khadi being woven in Oaxaca, a place in Mexico, about which PM Modi
mentioned in Mann ki Baat.
Khadi reached this place after a local resident became influenced by a film on Mahatma
Gandhi.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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53. Consider the following statements regarding Anglo-Indians
1. The Constitution has not defined the persons who belong to the Anglo-Indian community.
2. The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Government of India Act, 1935.
3. The Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill has done away with the provision for nomination of
Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and some state Assemblies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Unlike in the case of SCs, STs and OBCs, the Constitution has defined the persons
who belong to the Anglo-Indian community. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The President can nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha, if
the community is no adequately represented. Similarly, the governor of a state can nominate
one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the state legislative assembly, if the community
is not adequately represented.
Parliament passed the Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill, extending reservation for
SC/STs but doing away with the provision for nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and
some state Assemblies.
Who are Anglo-Indians?
The Anglo-Indian community in India traces its origins to an official policy of the British East
India Company to encourage marriages of its officers with local women.
The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Government of India Act, 1935. In the
present context, Article 366(2) of the Constitution Of India states: “An Anglo-Indian means a
person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of
European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within
such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary
purposes only…”
Under what provisions was reservation in legislature granted?
Provision for nomination of two Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha was made under Article 331 of the
Constitution. It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 81, the President may, if he is of
opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House of the
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people, nominate not more than two members of that community to the House of the People.”
The idea of such nominations is traced to Frank Anthony, who headed the All India AngloIndian Association. Article 331 was added in the Constitution following his suggestion to
Jawaharlal Nehru.
Article 333 deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian community in Legislative Assemblies.
It says: “Notwithstanding anything in Article 170, the Governor of a State may, if he is of
opinion that the Anglo-Indian community needs representation in the Legislative Assembly of
the State and is not adequately represented therein, [nominate one member of that community
to the Assembly].”
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/anglo-indian-quota-history-mps-6164232/
54. Which of the following are components of Global Hunger Index?
1. Undernourishment
2. Child wasting
3. Child stunting
4. Child mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What is the Global Hunger Index and what determines its ranking?
It is an annual peer-reviewed publication by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.
It tracks hunger at global, regional and national levels.
It uses four parameters to calculate its scores:
1. UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is,
whose caloric intake is insufficient).
2. CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is,
who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition).
3. CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is,
who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition).
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4. CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a
reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
0 to 100 point scale:
Zero means no hunger at all.
1. Countries scoring 9.9 and less are classified as having a low severity.
2. A score between 10 and 19.9 is considered moderate, that from 20 to 34.9 is serious, and
a score of 35 or more is alarming.
Findings from the 2020 Global Hunger Index (GHI):
1. Nearly 690 million people in the world are undernourished; 144 million children suffer
from stunting, a sign of chronic undernutrition; 47 million children suffer from wasting,
also a sign of acute undernutrition.
India’s performance in various parameters (Have a general overview):
1. Overall undernourishment: 14% of India’s population does not get enough calories, an
improvement from almost 20% in 2005-07.
2. The child mortality rate is 3.7%, a significant drop from 9.2% in 2000.
3. Child stunting: Almost 35% of Indian children are stunted, and although this is much
better than the 54.2% rate of 2000, it is still among the world’s worst.
4. Child Wasting: 17.3% of Indian children under five are wasted, which is the highest
prevalence of child wasting in the world.
States that usually fare poorly on development indices, such as Bihar, Rajasthan and Odisha,
actually do better than the national average, with 13-14% rates of wasting.
55. Consider the following statements regarding political party
1. If a political party is treated as a recognized political party in four or more States, it shall be
known as a `National Party’ throughout the whole of India.
2. If a political party is treated as a recognized political party in less than four States, it should
be known as a `State Party’ in the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
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All the above statements are correct.
What are the criteria for recognition of a party?
Ans. A political party shall be treated as a recognised political party in a State, if and only if
either the conditions specified in Clause (A) are, or the condition specified in Clause (B) is,
fulfilled by that party and not otherwise, that is to say(A) that such party –
has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years; and
has, at the last general election in that State to the House of the People, or, as the case may
be, to the Legislative Assembly of the State, returnedeither ( i ) at least one member to the House of the People for every twenty-five members of
that House or any fraction of that number from that State;
or (ii) at least one member to the Legislative Assembly of that State for every thirty members
of that Assembly or any fraction of that number;
(B) that the total number of valid votes polled by all the contesting candidates set up by such
party at the last general election in the State to the House of the People, or as the case may
be, to the Legislative Assembly of the State, is not less than six per cent of the total number of
valid votes polled by all the contesting candidates at such general election in the State.
2. The conditions in Clause (A) or Clause (B) above shall not be deemed to have been fulfilled
by a political party, if a member of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the
State becomes a member of that political party after his election to that House or, as the case
may be, that Assembly.
3. 'State’ includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of
Pondicherry.
4. If a political party is treated as a recognised political party in four or more States,
it shall be known as a `National Party’ throughout the whole of India, but only so long
as that political party continues to fulfill thereafter the conditions for recognition in four or
more States on the results of any subsequent general election either to the House of the
People or to the Legislative Assembly of any State.
5. If a political party is treated as a recognised political party in less than four States,
it should be known as a `State Party’ in the State or States in which it is so recognised,
but only so long as that political party continues to fulfill thereafter the conditions for
recognition on the results of any subsequent general election to the House of the People or, as
the case may be, to the Legislative Assembly of the State, in the said State or States.
56. Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting machine
1. An EVM being used by ECI can record a maximum of 20,000 votes.
2. At present, the totalizers are in use to aggregate votes without revealing the candidate-wise
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count of individual EVM used at a particular polling station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
What is an Electronic Voting machine? In what way its functioning is different from
the conventional system of voting?
Ans. Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) is an electronic device for recording votes. An
Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined
by a five-meter cable. The Control Unit is placed with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer
and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot
paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will release a ballot by pressing the
Ballot Button on the Control Unit. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the
blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice.
When was the EVM first introduced in elections?
Ans. EVMs were first used in 70-Parur Assembly Constituency of Kerala in the year 1982.
What is the maximum number of votes which can be cast in EVMs?
Ans. An EVM being used by ECI can record a maximum of 2,000 votes. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
With ballot boxes counting is done after mixing the ballot papers. Is it possible to
adopt this system when EVMs are used?
Ans. Yes, through the use of a device called 'Totalizer' which can accommodate upto 14
Control Units at a time to aggregate votes without revealing the candidate-wise count of
individual EVM used at a particular polling station. However, totalizers are not in use at
present as its technical aspects and other related issues are under examination and it
is also the subject of a court case. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
57. The terms Gaza strip and West Bank, often seen in news is located in
A. Sudan
B. France
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C. Israel
D. Jordan
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Israel-Palestine Conflict:
The Israeli-Palestinian conflict dates back to the end of the nineteenth century, primarily as a
conflict over territory.
After the 1948 Arab-Israeli war, the Holy Land was divided into three parts: The
State of Israel, the West Bank (of the Jordan River), and the Gaza Strip.
The 1993 Oslo Accords mediated the conflict, to set up a framework for two state
solution. It recognized the Palestinian Authority tasked with limited self-governance
of parts of the West Bank and Gaza Strip.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
58. Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct
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1. It is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have
consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code.
2. It is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What is the Model Code of Conduct?
Ans. The Model Code of Conduct for guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of
norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to
abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe
it in its letter and spirit.
From which date the Model Code of Conduct is enforced and operational upto which
date?
Ans. The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election
schedule by the Election Commission and is operational till the process of elections are
completed.
What is the role of Election Commission in the matter?
Ans. The Election Commission ensures its observance by political party(ies) in power,
including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the
discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the
Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also
ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also
ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation,
bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all
means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.
What is applicability of code during general elections and bye-elections?
Ans.
During general elections to House of People (Lok Sabha), the code is applicable
throughout the country.
During general elections to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), the code is
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applicable in the entire State.
During bye-elections, in case the constituency is comprised in State Capital/Metropolitan
Cities/Municipal Corporations, then the code would be applicable in the area of
concerned Constituency only. In all other cases the MCC would be enforced in the entire
district(s) covering the Constituency going for bye-election(s).
59. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission
1. Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after
every census.
2. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2011 census figures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
There are 543 Parliamentary constituencies in India each electing one member. Who
demarcates the boundaries of these constituencies?
Ans. Delimitation Commission
Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act
after every census. After coming into force commencement of the Act, the Central
Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission. This Delimitation Commission demarcates
the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 census
figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to
have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present
Constituencies carved out on the basis of 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the
first census after 2026.
What is the main basis for allocation of seats to various States in the Lok Sabha?
Ans. Population of the State
Population is the basis of allocation of seats of the Lok Sabha. As far as possible, every
State gets representation in the Lok Sabha in proportion to its population as per census
figures.
Is there any reservation of seats for any special category in Lok Sabha?
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Ans. Yes
In Lok Sabha there is reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Here
also census figures are taken into account.
60. Consider the following statements regarding overseas elector
1. An NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in electoral roll in India.
2. There is no minimum period prescribed for which one should be out of country so as to apply
for registration as overseas elector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Who is an overseas (NRI) elector? Can an NRI settled in foreign land become an
elector of electoral roll in India?
Ans.- An overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of India and who has not acquired
citizenship of any other country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is
absenting from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or
otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the constituency in which his place of
residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located. According to the provisions of
Section 20A of the Representation of People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in foreign land
can become an elector in electoral roll in India.
Who is eligible to be registered as a voter?
Ans.- Every Indian citizen who has attained the age of 18 years on the qualifying date i.e. first
day of January of the year of revision of electoral roll, unless otherwise disqualified, is eligible
to be registered as a voter in the roll of the part/polling area of the constituency where he is
ordinarily resident.
What is the relevant date for determining the age of 18 years? Can I get myself
registered as a voter on the day when I have completed 18 years of age?
Ans.- According to Section 14 (b) of the Representation of People Act, 1950 the relevant date
(qualifying date) for determining the age of an applicant is the first day of January of the year
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in which the electoral roll is finally published. For example, if you have completed or are
completing 18 years of age on any date from and after 2nd January 2013 but upto to 1st
January 2014, you will be eligible for registration as a voter in the elector roll going to be
finally published in January, 2014.
Whether there is any minimum period for which one should be out of country so as to
apply for registration as overseas elector?
Ans.- No such period is prescribed.
61. Mount Girnar is located in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gujarat
Rajasthan
Maharashtra
Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Mount Girnar:
Lord Dattatreya performed penance at the top of the hill.
Also a kshetra where 22nd Tirthankar Lord Neminath attained Nirvana.
Located near Junagadh in Junagadh district, Gujarat.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Why in News?
A 2.3-km-long ropeway project was recently launched by PM Modi on Mount Girnar in
Junagadh city.
The ropeway project is being touted as the longest temple ropeway in Asia.
The ropeway has been developed by Usha Breco Limited at an investment of ₹130
crore.
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62. Integrity pact as a tool was developed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Vigilance Commission
Transparency International
Ministry of Law and Justice
NITI aayog
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Integrity Pact in govt. organisations:
Why in News?
The Central Vigilance Commission has amended the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
on adoption of “Integrity Pact” in government organisations for procurement activities.
This order revises the SOP issued in January 2017.
As per the amended SOP:
For appointment as Integrity External Monitors (IEMs), the Ministry, department
or organisation concerned has to forward a panel of suitable persons to the CVC, of
those persons who are in the panel maintained by the Commission.
Maximum tenure of IEMs: 3 years in an organisation.
What is an integrity pact?
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The pact is to ensure transparency, equity and competitiveness in public procurement.
They were developed as a tool for preventing corruption in public contracting.
It is a vigilance tool that envisages an agreement between the prospective
vendors/bidders and the buyer, committing both the parties not to exercise any corrupt
influence on any aspect of the contract.
It is a tool developed by Transparency International. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Who are IEMs?
The Integrity Pact envisages a panel of Independent External Monitors (IEMs) for each
organisation.
IEM reviews independently and objectively, whether and to what extent parties have
complied with their obligations under the pact.
They may submit a report to the chief executive of the organisation concerned or
directly to the CVO and the CVC, if they find serious irregularities attracting the
Prevention of Corruption Act provisions.
63. Who among the following is responsible for the conduct of elections in any Parliamentary or Assembly
constituency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chief Electoral Officer (CEO)
District Election Officer (DEO)
Returning Officer (RO)
Electoral Registration Officer (ERO)
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Who supervises the election work in a State ?
Ans. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO).
As per section 13A of the Representation of the People Act 1950, read with section 20 of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Chief Electoral Officer of a State/ Union Territory
is authorised to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall
superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission.
Who appoints the Chief Electoral Officer?
Ans. Election Commission of India (ECI)
The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an Officer of the Government of the
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State/Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation with that State
Government/Union Territory Administration.
Who is responsible for the conduct of elections in any Parliamentary or Assembly
constituency?
Ans. Returning Officer (RO). Hence, option (c) is correct.
The Returning Officer of a parliamentary or assembly constituency is responsible for the
conduct of elections in the parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned as per section
21 of the Representation of the People Act 1951.
Who appoints Observers?
Ans. Election Commission of India (ECI)
Under section 20B of the Representation of the People Act 1951, the Election Commission of
India nominates officers of Government as Observers (General Observers and Election
Expenditure Observers) for parliamentary and assembly constituencies. They perform such
functions as are entrusted to them by the Commission. Earlier, the appointment of Observers
was made under the plenary powers of the Commission. But with the amendments made to the
Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 1996, these are now statutory appointments. They
report directly to the Commission.
64. The jurisdiction of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) extends to
1. Central civil services
2. Civilian employees of defence services
3. Officers and servants of the Supreme Court
4. Secretarial staff of the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at
Delhi and additional benches in different states. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in
relation to recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it.
Its jurisdiction extends to the all-India services, the Central civil services, civil posts
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under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services. However, the members
of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the secretarial
staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
Hence, both statement 3 and 4 are incorrect.
The CAT is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and members.
Originally, the CAT consisted of a Chairman, Vice-Chairman and members. Later, in 2006, the
provision for the Vice-Chairman was removed by the Administrative Tribunals (Amendment)
Act, 2006. Hence, there are now no Vice-Chairman in the CAT.
At present (2019), the sanctioned strength of the Chairman is one and sanctioned strength of
the Members is 65. They are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams and are
appointed by the president.
They hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years in case of
chairman and 62 years in case of members, whichever is earlier.
The appointment of Members in CAT is made on the basis of recommendations of a highpowered selection committee chaired by a sitting Judge of Supreme Court who is nominated by
the Chief Justice of India.
65. Anti-defection law is not invoked when
A. An independent member of a House joins any political party after election.
B. A nominated member of a House joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
C. A member of a House belonging to any political party voluntarily gives up his
membership of such political party.
D. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives
up the membership of his party.
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Disqualification
Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party
becomes disqualified for being a member of the House, (a) if he voluntarily gives up
his membership of such political party; or (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such
House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission
of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days. From the above
provision it is clear that a member elected on a party ticket should continue in the party and
obey the party directions.
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Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being
set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member
of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for
being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six
months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may
join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this
disqualification.
Exceptions
The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following two
cases:
(a) If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. A
merger takes place when two thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
(b) If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily
gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office.
This exemption has been provided in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
66. Consider the following statements
1. The population of vertebrate species declined by around 68 per cent between 1970 and 2016.
2. India has lost 12 per cent of its wild mammals, 19 per cent amphibians and 3 per cent birds
over last five decades.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Living Planet Report 2020:
Released by international non-profit World Wide Fund for Nature.
This year’s Living Planet Report, a collaboration between WWF International and
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the Zoological Society of London, is the 13th edition of the biennial publication
tracking wildlife populations around the world.
Key findings:
1. The population of vertebrate species declined by around 68 per cent between
1970 and 2016. Living Planet Index was used by the report to calculate this decline.
2. Wildlife populations in freshwater habitats suffered a decline of 84 per cent,
equivalent to four per cent per year, particularly in Latin America and the Caribbean.
3. The average two-thirds decline in global populations of mammals, birds, amphibians,
reptiles and fish in less than 50 years in large parts is due to the same environmental
destruction, which is contributing to emergence of zoonotic diseases such as Covid-19.
4. 75 per cent of earth’s ice-free land has been significantly altered, most of the
oceans polluted and over 85 per cent area of wetlands lost ~ all due to human activity.
5. One in five plants is threatened with extinction.
Factors responsible for this decline:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Land-use change.
Use and trade of wildlife.
Natural habitat loss.
Degradation and deforestation driven by food production processes.
India’s scenario:
India has 2.4 per cent global land share, about eight per cent global biodiversity and
around 16 per cent global population
However, it has lost 12 per cent of its wild mammals, 19 per cent amphibians and 3 per
cent birds over last five decades.
India’s ecological footprint per person is less than 1.6 global hectares (gha) / person
(smaller than that of many large countries). But, its high population size have made the
gross footprint significantly high.
67. Anti-Corruption Working Group was hosted under
A.
B.
C.
D.
OECD
United Nations Convention against Corruption
World Economic Forum
G20
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The Anti-Corruption Working Group:
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Context:
Saudi Arabia is hosting the first-ever Ministerial Meeting of the G-20 Anti-Corruption
Working Group (ACWG) virtually.
About ACWG:
Established by G20 Leaders at the Toronto Summit in 2010. Hence, option (d) is
correct.
Responsible for updating and implementing the G20 Anti-corruption Action Plan.
Reports to G20 Leaders.
It cooperates closely with and supports the work of relevant international organizations,
including the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development, the
United Nations, the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund and the
Financial Action Task Force.
What is the G20?
The G20 is an annual meeting of leaders from the countries with the largest and
fastest-growing economies. Its members account for 85% of the world’s GDP, and twothirds of its population.
The G20 Summit is formally known as the “Summit on Financial Markets and the
World Economy”.
Genesis of G20:
After the Asian Financial Crisis in 1997-1998, it was acknowledged that the participation
of major emerging market countries is needed on discussions on the international financial
system, and G7 finance ministers agreed to establish the G20 Finance Ministers and
Central Bank Governors meeting in 1999.
Full membership of the G20:
Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan,
Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the
United States and the European Union.
What is G20+?
The G20 developing nations, also called G21/G23/G20+ is a bloc of developing nations
which was established on August 20, 2003.
Its origins can be traced to the Brasilia Declaration signed by the foreign ministers of India,
Brazil and South Africa on 6th June 2003.
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The G20+ is responsible for 60% of the world population, 26% of the world’s
agricultural exports and 70% of its farmers.
68. Which of the following techniques are used by pressure groups?
1. Electioneering.
2. Lobbying
3. Propagandizing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The term ‘pressure group’ originated in the USA. A pressure group is a group of people who
are organised actively for promoting and defending their common interest. It is so called as it
attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the government. It acts
as a liaison between the government and its members.
According to Odegard, pressure groups resort to three different techniques in securing their
purposes. First, they can try to place in public office persons who are favourably disposed
towards the interests they seeks to promote. This technique may be labelled electioneering.
Second, they can try to persuade public officers, whether they are initially favourably disposed
toward them or not, to adopt and enforce the policies that they think will prove most beneficial
to their interests. This technique may be labelled lobbying. Third, they can try to influence
public opinion and thereby gain an indirect influence over government, since the government
in a democracy is substantially affected by public opinion. This technique may be labelled
propagandizing.
69. Consider the following statements regarding National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH)
1. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment.
2. It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in 1992. It is an
autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration. The vision and
mission of the NFCH are as follows:
Vision: India free from communal and all other forms of violence where all citizens especially
children and youth live together in peace and harmony.
Mission: Promoting communal harmony, strengthening national integration and fostering
unity in diversity through collaborative social action, awareness programs, reaching out to the
victims of violence especially children, encouraging interfaith dialogue for India’s shared
security, peace and prosperity.
70. Secularism is opposed to
1. Inter-religious Domination
2. Intra-religious Domination
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Inter-religious Domination
In our own country, the Constitution declares that every Indian citizen has a right to live with
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freedom and dignity in any part of the country. Yet in reality, many forms of exclusion and
discrimination continue to persist.
In each case members of one community are targeted and victimized on account of their
religious identity. In other words, basic freedoms of a set of citizens are denied. Some might
even say that these incidents are instances of religious persecution and they reflect interreligious domination. Secularism is first and foremost a doctrine that opposes all such forms of
inter-religious domination. This is however only one crucial aspect of the concept of
secularism. An equally important dimension of secularism is its opposition to intra-religious
domination.
Religious fundamentalism in parts of the US has become a big problem and endangers peace
both within the country and outside. Many religions fragment into sects which leads to
frequent sectarian violence and persecution of dissenting minorities. Thus religious
domination cannot be identified only with interreligious domination. It takes another
conspicuous form, namely, intra-religious domination. As secularism is opposed to all
forms of institutionalized religious domination, it challenges not merely
interreligious but also intra-religious domination.
71. Which of the following best defines Peace?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absence of war.
Absence of violent conflict of all kinds.
Opposition to war or violence as a means of settling disputes.
None of the above.
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Pacifism preaches opposition to war or violence as a means of settling disputes. It
covers a spectrum of views ranging from a preference for diplomacy in resolving international
disputes to absolute opposition to the use of violence, or even force, in any circumstance.
Peace is often defined as the absence of war. The definition is simple but misleading. This
is because war is usually equated with armed conflict between countries. However, what
happened in Rwanda or Bosnia was not a war of this kind. Yet, it represented a violation or
cessation of peace. While every war leads to absence of peace, every absence of peace need
not take the form of war.
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The second step in defining peace would be to see it as absence of violent conflict of
all kinds including war, riot, massacre, assassination, or simply physical attack.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
This definition is clearly better than the earlier one. Yet, it does not take us very far. Violence
is often rooted in the very structure of society. Social institutions and practices that reinforce
entrenched inequalities of caste, class and gender, can also cause injury in subtle and invisible
ways. If any challenge is made to these hierarchies by oppressed classes it may also breed
conflict and violence. ‘Structural violence’ of this
kind may produce large-scale evil consequences.
72. Consider the following statements regarding monoclonal antibodies
1. They are man-made proteins that act like human antibodies in the immune system.
2. They are cheap to produce when compared to polyclonal antibodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
What are monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?
Why in News?
Serum Institute of India (SII) and the International AIDS Vaccine Initiative (IAVI)
have announced an agreement with pharmaceutical major Merck to develop SARSCoV-2 neutralising monoclonal antibodies (mAbs).
What are monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?
They are man-made proteins that act like human antibodies in the immune system.
These antibodies are co-invented by IAVI and Scripps Research as ‘innovative
interventions’ to address the COVID-19 pandemic.
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Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
73. The base year for Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is
A.
B.
C.
D.
2001
2012
2016
2019
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
CPI-IW base year revised to 2016:
The Labour and Employment Ministry has revised the base year of the Consumer Price Index
for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) from 2001 to 2016. Hence, option (c) is correct.
This was revised to reflect the changing consumption pattern, giving more weightage to
spending on health, education, recreation and other miscellaneous expenses, while
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reducing the weight of food and beverages.
Uses of CPI-IW: It is used for measuring inflation in retail prices and is also used to regulate
the dearness allowance (DA) of government staff and industrial workers, as well as to revise
minimum wages in scheduled employments.
74. Consider the following statements
1. Classical liberalism always privileges rights of the individuals over demands of social justice
and community values.
2. The liberalism of the Indian Constitution was always linked to social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Social Justice
When we say that the Indian Constitution is liberal, we do not mean that it is liberal only in the
classical western sense. In the book on Political Theory, you will learn more about the idea of
liberalism.
Classical liberalism always privileges rights of the individuals over demands of social
justice and community values. The liberalism of the Indian Constitution differs from
this version in two ways. First, it was always linked to social justice.
The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of
the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups
or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special constitutional measures were required to
advance their interests.
Therefore, the constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the
interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in
legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector
jobs for these groups.
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75. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Constitution
1. The Indian Constitution reflects a faith in political deliberation by Constituent Assembly
2. The Indian Constitution reflects a spirit of compromise and accommodation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
PROCEDURAL ACHIEVEMENTS
There are some procedural achievements of Indian Constitution.
First, the Indian Constitution reflects a faith in political deliberation. We know that
many groups and interests were not adequately represented in the Constituent Assembly. But
the debates in the Assembly amply show that the makers of the Constitution wanted to be as
inclusive in their approach as possible. This open-ended approach indicates the willingness of
people to modify their existing preferences, in short, to justify outcomes by reference not to
self-interest but to reasons. It also shows a willingness to recognise creative value in
difference and disagreement.
Second, it reflects a spirit of compromise and accommodation. These words,
compromise and accommodation, should not always be seen with disapproval. Not all
compromises are bad.
If something of value is traded off for mere self-interest, then we naturally have compromised
in the bad sense. However, if one value is partially traded off for another value, especially in
an open process of free deliberation among equals, then the compromise arrived in this
manner can hardly be objected to.
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We may lament that we could not have everything but to secure a bit of all things important
cannot be morally blameworthy. Besides, a commitment to the idea that decisions on the most
important issues must be arrived at consensually rather than by majority vote is equally
morally commendable.
76. Consider the following statements regarding Citizens' Charters
1. The concept was first articulated and implemented in the United States of America.
2. The concept of Citizens' Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and its
users.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Basic Concept, Origin and Principles
It has been recognised world over that good governance is essential for sustainable
development, both economic and social. The three essential aspects emphasised in good
governance are transparency, accountability and responsiveness of the administration.
Citizens' Charters initiative is a response to the quest for solving the problems which a
citizen encounters, day in and day out, while dealing with the organisations providing public
services.
The concept of Citizens' Charter enshrines the trust between the service provider and
its users. The concept was first articulated and implemented in the United Kingdom
by the Conservative Government of John Major in 1991 as a national Programme with
a simple aim: to continuously improve the quality of public services for the people of
the country so that these services respond to the needs and wishes of the users. The
Programme was re-launched in 1998 by the Labour Government of Tony Blair which
rechristened it Services First. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The basic objective of the Citizens Charter is to empower the citizen in relation to public
service delivery. Six principles of the Citizens Charter movement as originally framed, were: (i)
Quality: Improving the quality of services; (ii) Choice : Wherever possible; (iii) Standards
:Specify what to expect and how to act if standards are not met; (iv) Value: For the taxpayers
money; (v) Accountability : Individuals and Organisations; and (vi) Transparency : Rules/
Procedures/ Schemes/Grievances. These were later elaborated by the Labour Government as
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following nine principles of Service Delivery (1998) :- Set standards of service ; Be open and
provide full information ; Consult and involve ; Encourage access and the promotion of choice ;
Treat all fairly ; Put things right when they go wrong ; Use resources effectively ; Innovate and
improve ; Work with other providers.
77. Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information Act
1. It replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
2. The RTI Act requires Suo motu disclosure of information by each public authority.
3. The RTI Act also provides for disclosure of information exempted under Official Secrets Act,
1923 if larger public interest is served.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The Right To Information Act, 2005:
Context:
October 12 marks 15 years since the implementation of the Right to Information Act.
A look at its performance:
More than 2.2 lakh cases are pending at the Central and State Information Commissions,
which are the final courts of appeal under the law.
The increasing backlog is exacerbated by the fact that most commissions are functioning
at a reduced capacity, including the Central Information Commission (CIC), which has
been headless since August.
Maharashtra had the highest number of pending appeals, with over 59,000 cases,
followed by Uttar Pradesh (47,923) and the CIC (35,653).
About the RTI Act, 2005:
It sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information.
It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
This act was enacted in order to consolidate the fundamental right in the Indian
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constitution ‘freedom of speech’. Since RTI is implicit in the Right to Freedom of
Speech and Expression under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it is an implied
fundamental right.
Key Provisions:
Section 4 of the RTI Act requires suo motu disclosure of information by each
public authority.
Section 8 (1) mentions exemptions against furnishing information under RTI
Act.
Section 8 (2) provides for disclosure of information exempted under Official
Secrets Act, 1923 if larger public interest is served.
Information Commissioners and PIOs:
The Act also provides for appointment of Information Commissioners at Central and
State level.
Public authorities have designated some of its officers as Public Information Officer.
They are responsible to give information to a person who seeks information under the
RTI Act.
Time period:
In normal course, information to an applicant is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt
of application by the public authority.
If information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied within
48 hours.
In case the application is sent through the Assistant Public Information Officer or it is
sent to a wrong public authority, five days shall be added to the period of thirty days or
48 hours, as the case may be.
78. Which of the following is/are the duties of the CAG?
1. To audit and report all receipts into and spending from the Consolidated Fund of the Union
and State Governments.
2. To audit and report all transactions relating to the Emergency expenses.
3. To audit and report accounts of all autonomous bodies and authorities receiving Government
money.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
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Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
What are the duties of the CAG?
As envisaged in Article 149 of the Constitution, the Parliament enacted a detailed legislation
called the CAG’s Duties, Powers and Conditions Act in 1971 which describes his mandate and
puts almost every spending, revenue collecting or aid/grant receiving unit of the Government
(the Centre and the States) under his audit domain. His duties are to audit and report upon:
All receipts into and spending from the coffers (called the Consolidated Fund) of
the Union and State Governments.
All transactions relating to the Emergency expenses (called Contingency Funds)
and relating to the monies of the public held by the Government e.g. Postal
savings, Vikas Patras (called Public Accounts) at Central as well as State levels.
All trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other
subsidiary accounts kept in any Government department.
All stores and stock accounts of all Government offices and departments.
Accounts of all Government companies and Corporations e.g. ONGC, SAIL etc.
Accounts of all autonomous bodies and authorities receiving Government money
e.g. municipal bodies, IIM's, IIT's, State Health societies.
Accounts of any body or authority on request of the President/Governor or on his
own initiative.
The Act also provides for compilation of accounts of the State Governments from the
subsidiary accounts maintained by the State Governments.
Whom do we audit?
The organisations subject to the audit of the CAG are:All the Union and State Government departments including the Indian Railways,Defence
and Posts and Telecommunications.
About 1500 public commercial enterprises controlled by the Union and State
governments, i.e. government companies and corporations.
Around 400 non-commercial autonomous bodies and authorities owned or controlled by
the Union or the States.
Bodies and authorities substantially financed from Union some of the local bodies and
Panchayati Raj Institutions which are critical grass root agencies for implementation of
developmental programmes and delivery of services.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Solicitor General of India
1. The posts of the Solicitor General is statutory in nature.
2. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet appoints the Solicitor General.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Solicitor General of India
The Solicitor General of India is the government’s chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in
the Supreme Court of India. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary law officer of the
country, assists the Attorney-General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitors
General of India. Like the Attorney-General for India, the Solicitor General and the Additional
Solicitors General advise the government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms
of the Law Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972.
However, unlike the post of Attorney-General for India, which is a Constitutional post under
Article 76, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are
merely statutory. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet appoints the Solicitor
General.
80. Civil Services Board is headed by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cabinet Secretary
Prime Minister
President of India
Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
For posts of Joint Secretary and equivalent, an independent evaluation of the annual
confidential reports is initially made by four Secretaries to the Government of India. The
evaluation is then considered by a “Civil Services Board” (CSB), headed by the
Cabinet Secretary, which makes recommendations to the ACC for the empanelment of
suitable officers. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Placements in the State Governments, at the levels equivalent to Joint Secretary, Additional
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Secretary, and Secretary to the Government of India, are generally decided by the Chief
Secretary and the Chief Minister after consultation with the respective head of the relevant
service (DGP for IPS/ Principal CCF for IFoS) and the concerned departmental Minister. There
is no civil service board or other similar committee. In general the capabilities of officers are
well known to the State authorities, and officers are placed on the basis of their known
competencies.
https://dopt.gov.in/committeereports/current-system
81. Consider the following statements
1. An average Indian woman spends 50% of her time engaged in either unpaid domestic work or
unpaid care-giving services.
2. In rural areas, the proportion of women engaged in employment and related activities was
higher at 19 per cent compared to 16.5 per cent in cities.
3. Around 57 per cent males were engaged in employment and related activities while the
proportion was 18 per cent for females in the country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
NSO time-use survey:
Context:
The National Statistical Office (NSO), which is a wing of Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation, has conducted the first Time Use Survey (TUS) in India
during January to December 2019.
About the Survey:
The primary objective is to measure participation of men and women in paid and unpaid
activities.
It is an important source of information on the time spent in unpaid caregiving activities,
volunteer work, unpaid domestic service producing activities of the household members.
It also provides information on time spent on learning, socializing, leisure activities, selfcare activities, etc., by the household members.
Average time spent:
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Average Indian woman spends 243 minutes, a little over four hours, on these, which is
almost ten times the 25 minutes the average man does.
An average Indian woman spends 19.5% of her time engaged in either unpaid
domestic work or unpaid care-giving services. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Men spend just 2.5% of a 24-hour period on these activities. In every other group of
activities – from employment and learning to socializing, leisure, and self-care activities
like sleeping and eating – men spend a higher share of their daily time than women.
There seems to be an inverse relationship between age and the amount of time
spent by women on household chores, but a direct one between age and the time
spent by men on these.
While women above the age of 60 see a sharp fall in their domestic work burden, men
tend to devote a greater time to domestic work when they cross 60.
Other Key findings:
Total percentage of employed population: As much as 2 per cent of persons who
were of the age of six years or above were engaged in employment and related
activities in the country in 2019.
Proportion of males and females: 57.3 per cent males were engaged in employment
and related activities while the proportion was 18.4 per cent for females in the country.
Women in rural areas: In rural areas, the proportion of women engaged in
employment and related activities was higher at 19.2 per cent compared to 16.7 per cent
in cities.
Gainful employment: Proportion of males above the age of six years engaged in gainful
employment or related activities was higher in cities at 59.8 compared 56.1 per cent in
rural areas.
Unpaid domestic services: 53.2 per cent of participants in the survey were engaged in
unpaid domestic services for household members. The proportion of females in the
category was higher at 81.2 per cent compared to 26.1 per cent for males. This figure
for both men and women is higher in rural areas.
People engaged in production of goods for own final use: 1 per cent in the country.
The proportion of such males was 14.3 per cent while it was 20 per cent for women in
the country.
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82. Uniting for Consensus movement is associated with
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reform in the United Nations
Deal between Afghanistan and Taliban
Resolution on migrant crisis
Fight against Terrorism
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Who are G4 Nations?
The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which
support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security
Council.
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Basis for these demands:
Each of these four countries have figured among the elected non-permanent members of
the council since the UN’s establishment.
Their economic and political influence has grown significantly in the last decades,
reaching a scope comparable to the permanent members (P5).
Support:
The United Kingdom and France have backed the G4’s bid for permanent seats on the
United Nations Security Council.
Japan has received support from the United States and the United Kingdom.
All the permanent members of P5 have supported India’s bids for permanent seat on the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC) but China had previously implied that it is only
ready to support India’s bid for a permanent seat on United Nations Security Council if
India did not associate its bid with Japan.
Brazil has received backing from three of the current permanent members, namely
France, Russia, and the United Kingdom.
Opposition:
There has been discontent among the present permanent members regarding the
inclusion of controversial nations or countries not supported by them.
For instance, Japan’s bid is heavily opposed by China, Russia and South Korea who think
that Japan still needs to make additional atonement for war crimes committed during
World War II.
Under the leadership of Italy, countries that strongly oppose the G4 countries’ bids
have formed the Uniting for Consensus movement, or the Coffee Club, composed
mainly of regional powers that oppose the rise of some nearby country to permanent
member status. Hence, option (a) is correct.
83. Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Secretariat
1. The Cabinet Secretariat is a staff agency to the Union Cabinet.
2. It operates under the direction and leadership of the Cabinet secretary of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
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The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head
of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil
Services Board. The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat is (i) secretarial assistance to
the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) rules of business.
The constitution of India provided for a Parliamentary system of government with Cabinet as
the real executive. The Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister is responsible for the entire
administration of the Government of India (i.e. Central administration). In this task, the
Cabinet is assisted by the Cabinet Secretariat.
Thus, the Cabinet Secretariat is a staff agency to the Union Cabinet. It operates under
the direction and leadership of the Prime Minister of India. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
It has an important coordinating role in the process of policy-making at the highest level in the
Central Government. The Cabinet Secretariat enjoys the status of a department of the
Government of India under the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961. It is headed politically, by
the Prime Minister and administratively, by the Cabinet Secretary.
The Central Secretariat comprises of all the ministers and departments of the Central
Government. In other words, Central Government, for the purpose of administration, is divided
into various ministries and departments.
84. Which of the following is/are functions of Cabinet Secretary?
1. He is a Chairman of the Senior Selection Board
2. He presides over the Conference of Chief Secretaries which is held annually.
3. He acts as a chief advisor to the Prime Minister on all aspects of administration and policy.
4. He acts as an advisor and conscience-keeper to all the civil servants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The following points highlight the role, powers and functions of a Cabinet Secretary. He is the
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chief coordinator of Central administration. But, he has no supervisory function over
ministries/departments.
He is a Chairman of the Senior Selection Board which selects officers for the
post of Joint Secretary in the Central Secretariat.
He himself selects the officers for the posts of Secretary and Additional Secretary in the
Central Secretariat.
He is the Chairman of the Committee of Secretaries on Administration which is set up to
resolve inter-ministerial disputes.
He presides over the Conference of Chief Secretaries which is held annually.
He acts as a chief advisor to the Prime Minister on all aspects of administration
and policy.
His sanction should be obtained by a minister before launching prosecution against the
publisher or editor of newspaper in cases of defamation.
He serves on occasions as a factotum when the Prime Minister deems necessary and
calls him to be so.
He acts as an advisor and conscience-keeper to all the civil servants.
He advises and guides them on cases of inter-departmental difficulties.
He acts as a link between the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and various administrative
agencies and also between the civil service and the political system.
85. Consider the following statements regarding Chief Secretary
1. It was created in 1799 by Lord Wellesley.
2. The chief secretary is chosen by the Chief Minister from the senior IAS officers of the state
cadre.
3. The office of a Chief Secretary had its origin in the Central Government during the British
rule.
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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
The office of a Chief Secretary had its origin in the Central Government during the
British rule. It was created in 1799 by Lord Wellesley, the then Governer-General of
India. G.H. Barlow was the first occupant of this office. However, in course of time, this office
disappeared from the Central Government and was adopted by state governments much before
the attainment of Independence.
The Chief Secretary is the executive head of the State Secretariat. He is the administrative
head of the state administration and stands at the apex of the state administrative hierarchy.
His position visa-vis other secretaries is more than primus inter pares (first among equals). He
is, in fact, chief of the secretaries and his control extends to all the Secretariat departments.
He leads, guides and controls the entire state administration. He holds a pivotal, pre-eminent
and coveted position and assumes different roles in the administrative system of the state.
The chief secretary is chosen by the Chief Minister from the senior IAS officers of the
state cadre.
Generally, the Chief Minister takes into account three factors in this regard: seniority of the
officer; service record, performance and merit of the officer; and his trust and confidence in
the officer. Further, the office of Chief Secretary has been excluded from the operation of the
tenure system. In other words, there is no fixed tenure for this post.
86. Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act
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1. It was originally enacted by Lord Curzon.
2. It is the government’s discretion to decide what falls under the ambit of a “secret” document.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Official Secrets Act:
Context:
Delhi journalist arrested under Official Secrets Act for passing on information such as the
deployment of Indian troops on the border to Chinese intelligence officers.
About the Official Secrets Act:
Originally enacted during the time of Lord Curzon, Viceroy of India from 1899 to
1905.
One of the main purposes of the Act was to muzzle the voice of nationalist publications.
The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act No XIX of 1923) replaced the earlier Act, and was
extended to all matters of secrecy and confidentiality in governance in the country.
Ambit of the Act:
It broadly deals with two aspects:
1. Spying or espionage, covered under Section 3.
2. Disclosure of other secret information of the government, under Section 5.
Is “secret information” defined?
The Act does not say what a “secret” document is. It is the government’s discretion to decide
what falls under the ambit of a “secret” document.
It has often been argued that the law is in direct conflict with the Right to Information
Act, 2005.
However, please note that if there is any inconsistency in the Official Secret Act with
regard to furnishing of information, it will be superseded by the RTI Act.
But, under Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act, the government can still refuse
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information.
87. Consider the following statements regarding Indus Water Treaty
1. It is a Water-Distribution Treaty, signed in Karachi in 1960, between India and Pakistan,
brokered by the World Bank.
2. Under the treaty, India has control over the western rivers– Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.
3. Under the treaty, India has control over the western rivers– Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Indus Water Treaty:
Context:
September 19 marks the 60th anniversary of the Indus Water Treaty (IWT) between India
and Pakistan.
About the Indus Water Treaty:
It is a Water-Distribution Treaty, signed in Karachi in 1960, between India (PM
Jawaharlal Nehru) and Pakistan (President Ayub Khan), brokered by the World Bank.
Who has control over what?
Under the treaty, India has control over water flowing in the eastern rivers–
Beas, Ravi and Sutlej.
Pakistan has control over the western rivers– Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.
Hence, both statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Water for other purposes:
India is allowed to use 20% water of the western rivers for irrigation, power generation
and transport purposes.
It also granted 3.6 million acre-feet (MAF) of “permissible storage capacity” to India on
the western rivers.
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Key features of the treaty:
As per the treaty, the water commissioners of Pakistan and India are required to meet
twice a year and arrange technical visits to projects’ sites and critical river head works.
Both the sides share details of the water flow and the quantum of water being used
under the treaty.
The treaty sets out a mechanism for cooperation and information exchange between the
two countries regarding their use of the rivers.
88. Who among the following is regarded as Father of tenure system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lord Curzon
Lord Cornwallis
Lord Lytton
Lord Wellesley
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Tenure System
As defined by S.R. Maheshwari, “the superior positions in the Secretariat are as a rule
managed by officers who come from the states (and also from certain Central services) for a
specified period and who, after serving their ‘tenure’ would (or should), revert to their
respective states or services. In official parlance, this arrangement is known as the tenure
system.” Thus, under tenure system of staffing, every official so deputed has to work in the
Central Secretariat for a fixed period, which differs from one grade to another in the
Secretariat hierarchy as mentioned below.
Secretary and Joint-Secretary 5 years
Deputy Secretary 4 years
Under Secretary 3 years
The tenure system was introduced in India in 1905 by Lord Curzon, the then GovernorGerneral of India. He believed that “India may be governed from Simla or Calcutta; but is
administered from the plains.” The tenure system originated from such a belief of Lord
Curzon who came to be regarded as the “father of tenure system.” Hence, option (a)
is correct.
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89. Consider the following statements regarding District Rural Development Agency (DRDA)
1. It is the principal organ at the district level to manage and oversee the implementation of
different anti-poverty programmes of the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The DRDA would be headed by the District Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
A District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) is the principal organ at the district
level to manage and oversee the implementation of different anti-poverty
programmes of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
The primary objective of the scheme of DRDA administration is to strengthen and
professionalize the DRDAs so that they are able to effectively enhance the quality of
implementation of anti-poverty programmes of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
The DRDAs are also expected to coordinate effectively with the line departments, Panchayati
Raj institutions, banks and other financial institutions, the NGOs as well as technical
institutions with a view to gathering support and resources required for poverty reduction
effort in the district.
The role of DRDAs will be to facilitate the implementation of programmes, to
supervise/oversee and monitor progress, to receive and send progress reports and maintain
accounts of funds received for various rural development programmes.
Each district will have its own DRDA. The DRDA would be headed by a project
director, who should be of the rank of an Additional District Magistrate. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
90. Which of the following are recommendations of Macauley Committee?
1. An open competition system should be adopted for recruitment to the civil services.
2. The competitive examinations should be held in both London and India.
3. The age of candidates for admission to the tests should be 18 to 23 years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Macauley Committee
The Charter Act of 1853 abolished the patronage system and introduced an open Competition
system as a basis of selection and recruitment of civil servants of the Company. Thus, the
Court of Directors was deprived of its patronage power and the covenanted civil service was
thrown open to competition to the Indians also under the rules to be framed by the Board of
Control. Accordingly, the Macauley Committee (the committee on the Indian civil service) was
appointed in 1854 to suggest measures to give effect to the above provisions of the Act. The
committee made the following recommendations in its report submitted in 1854.
An open competition system should be adopted for recruitment to the civil
services.
The age of candidates for admission to the tests should be 18 to 23 years.
The competitive examinations should be held in London. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
There should be a probationary period for the candidates before they are finally
appointed.
The East India College at Hailleybury should be abolished. The competitive examination should
be of a high standard and should ensure the selection of candidates with thorough knowledge.
All the above recommendations were accepted and implemented by the Board of Control. The
first competitive examination was held in London in 1855 under the Board of Control.
91. Consider the following statements regarding scheduled areas
1. The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
2. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the
administration of such areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The scheduled areas are treated differently from the other areas in the country because they
are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward, and special
efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Therefore, the whole of the normal
administrative machinery operating in a state is not extended to the scheduled areas and the
Central government has somewhat greater responsibility for these areas’. The various features
of administration contained in the Fifth Schedule are as follows:
1. Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The president is empowered to declare an area to
be a scheduled area. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or
make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the
state concerned.
2. Executive Power of State and Centre: The executive power of a state extends to the
scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas.
He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas,
annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre
extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
3. Tribes Advisory Council: Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes
advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist
of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in
the state legislative assembly. A similar council can also be established in a state having
scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the president so directs.
92. Consider the following statements regarding independence of Election Commission
1. The Constitution has prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Constitution has specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
3. Any election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except
on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
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Answer Justification :
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the
independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission:
1. The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be
removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the
Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a
resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either
on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Thus, he does not hold his office till the
pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
2. The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his
disadvantage after his appointment.
3. Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed
from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
Though the constitution has sought to safeguard and ensure the independence and impartiality
of the Election Commission, some flaws can be noted, viz.,
1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational,
administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
2. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election
Commission. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any
further appointment by the government.
93. Consider the following statements regarding solar cycle
1. The solar cycle is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11
years.
2. The solar minimum for Solar Cycle 25 will occur in December 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
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What is Solar Cycle 25?
Context:
Scientists from NASA and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
(NOAA) have announced their predictions about the new solar cycle, called Solar Cycle 25,
which they believe has begun.
Key findings:
The solar minimum for Solar Cycle 25 occurred in December 2019. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Scientists predict a solar maximum (middle of the solar cycle) will be reached by July
2025.
This solar cycle will be as strong as the last solar cycle, which was a “below-average
cycle” but not without risks.
But first, what is a solar cycle?
The Sun is a huge ball of electrically-charged hot gas. This charged gas moves, generating
a powerful magnetic field. This magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle.
Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips. This means that the Sun’s
north and south poles switch places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north
and south poles to flip back again.
So far, astronomers have documented 24 such cycles, the last one ended in 2019.
How do scientists track solar activity?
Scientists track a solar cycle by using sunspots.
The beginning of a solar cycle is typically characterised by only a few sunspots and is
therefore referred to as a solar minimum.
What is solar minimum and maximum?
One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots.
The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the Sun has the least
sunspots. Over time, solar activity—and the number of sunspots—increases.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most
sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle
begins.
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Impacts of Solar Cycle on Earth:
Solar eruptions can cause lights in the sky, called aurora, or impact radio
communications. Extreme eruptions can even affect electricity grids on Earth.
Solar activity can affect satellite electronics and limit their lifetime.
Radiation can be dangerous for astronauts who do work on the outside of the
International Space Station.
94. Consider the following statements regarding Policy on Promotion of City Compost
1. It was announced by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. Under the policy, assistance of Rs 10,000 per tonne of city compost will be provided to
fertilizer companies for marketing and promotion of city compost.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
About the Policy on Promotion of City Compost:
Key points:
To process and use city waste as compost, the Policy on Promotion of City Compost was
approved in 2016.
Under the policy, assistance of Rs 1,500 per tonne of city compost will be provided to
fertilizer companies for marketing and promotion of city compost. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
Announced by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
What’s the issue now?
The lack of an appropriate market and ineffective implementation hasn’t given this muchneeded practice the desired popularity.
Besides, the high manufacturing and selling cost of the compost, questionable product
quality, no direct incentive/subsidy to farmers and lack of knowledge among other
concerns, ensured city compost didn’t become a popular option for farmers.
Potential for city compost:
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India currently produces close to 1.5 lakh tonnes of solid waste every day and its
biodegradable fraction ranges between 30 per cent and 70 per cent for various Indian cities.
This means there is a huge potential for compositing, the most natural form of
processing wet waste.
Why this is a serious issue?
Uncontrolled decomposition of organic waste in dumpsites also leads to emission of
potent greenhouse gases. So, it is imperative that necessary actions be taken to promote
appropriate disposal mechanisms for solid waste management.
95. Consider the following statements regarding Mission Shakti
1. It is a mission to test Anti-Satellite (A-SAT) missile.
2. India is only the 3rd country to acquire such a specialized and modern capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Postage Stamp released on A-SAT:
A Customized My Stamp on India’s First Anti Satellite Missile (A-SAT) launch was released
by the Department of Posts on the occasion of Engineers Day.
Background:
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted an
Anti-Satellite (A-SAT) missile test ‘Mission Shakti’ from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island in
Odisha on 27th March 2019.
A DRDO developed A-SAT Missile successfully engaged an Indian orbiting target satellite
in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) in a ‘Hit to Kill’ mode.
The interceptor missile was a three-stage missile with two solid rocket boosters.
Significance:
India is only the 4th country to acquire such a specialised and modern capability, and
Entire effort is indigenous. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
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Till now, only the US, Russia and China had the capability to hit a live target in space.
Does the test create space debris?
The test was done in the lower atmosphere to ensure that there is no space debris. Whatever
debris that is generated will decay and fall back onto the earth within weeks.
What is the international law on weapons in outer space?
The principal international Treaty on space is the 1967 Outer Space Treaty. The Outer
Space Treaty prohibits only weapons of mass destruction in outer space, not ordinary
weapons.
India is a signatory to this treaty, and ratified it in 1982.
96. Consider the following statements regarding Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC)
1. The Government of India Act of 1919 provided for the establishment of Joint Public Service
Commission for two or more provinces.
2. JSPSC can be created by an order of President on the request of the state legislatures
concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
JOINT STATE PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service
Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly
by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of
the state legislatures concerned. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. The two states of Punjab and
Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. They hold office for a
term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. They can be
suspended or removed by the president. They can also resign from their offices at any time by
submitting their resignation letters to the president. The number of members of a JSPSC and
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their conditions of service are determined by the president.
A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors.
Each governor places the report before the state legislature. The UPSC can also serve the
needs of a state on the request of the state governor and with the approval of the president.
As provided by the Government of India Act of 1919, a Central Public Service Commission was
set up in 1926 and entrusted with the task of recruiting civil servants. The Government of
India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service
Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service
Commission for two or more provinces. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
97. Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission
1. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding in nature.
2. The Constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal
federalism in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the president of India on
the following matters:
1. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the
states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of
the consolidated fund of India).
3. The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the
resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the
recommendations made by the state finance commission.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the president in the interests of sound finance.
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It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission
are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union
government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. Hence,
statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel
of fiscal federalism in India.
98. National Commission for SCs investigate matters related to
1. Scheduled Caste
2. Anglo-Indian Community
3. Other backward classes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
National Commission for SCs
The Commission is required to discharge functions with regard to the Anglo-Indian Community
as it does with respect to the SCs. In other words, the Commission has to investigate all
matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the Anglo-Indian
Community and report to the President upon their working.
Till 2018, the commission was also required to discharge similar functions with
regard to the other backward classes (OBCs). It was relieved from this responsibility
by the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect
99. Consider the following statements regarding Kharai Camel
1. They are found only in Gujarat’s Bhuj area and are known as Swimming Camels.
2. It grazes on saline / mangrove trees and is tolerant to high saline water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
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C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
All the above statements are correct.
Kharai Camel:
Also known as Swimming Camels.
Found only in Gujarat’s Bhuj area.
It has been recognized as a separate breed (one among nine such breeds found in India)
of camel for better conservation.
This camel is adapted to the extreme climate of Ran of Kachh where shallow seas and
high salinity is prevalent.
It can live in both coastal and dry ecosystems. It grazes on saline / mangrove trees and is
tolerant to high saline water.
It can swim up to three kilometers into the sea in search of mangroves, their primary
food.
100. Mekedatu project is executed on the river
A.
B.
C.
D.
Krishna
Godavari
Cauvery
Mandovi
Correct Answer : C
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Answer Justification :
Mekedatu project:
Context:
The Karnataka government is likely to take a delegation to bring pressure on the Centre to
approve the construction of the Mekedatu balancing reservoir that has been proposed to
store water for drinking purposes.
Present status of the project:
The ₹9,000 crore project was approved by Karnataka State government in 2017.
It has received approval from the Union Water Resources Ministry for the detailed
project report and is awaiting approval from the Ministry of Environment and Forests
(MOEF).
However, Tamil Nadu has approached the Supreme Court against the project.
About Mekedatu dispute:
Mekedatu is a location along Cauvery in Kanakapura Taluk of Ramanagara District of
Karnataka. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Karnataka wants a reservoir across Cauvery at Mekedatu, to meet Bengaluru’s water
problem.
What Tamil Nadu says?
Tamil Nadu objected saying Karnataka had not sought prior permission for the project.
Its argument was that the project would affect the flow of Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu.
Tamil Nadu also argues that the reservoir violates the decisions of the Supreme Court
and the Cauvery Tribunal.
The Supreme Court had noted that the existing storage in the Cauvery basin of
Karnataka should be taken into account for ensuring water releases to Tamil Nadu
during the period of June to January.
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