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Power Series

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POWER SERIES
CALCULUS 3
MATH148
Maclaurin Polynomials
If 𝑓 can be differentiated 𝑛 times at 0, then we define the
π‘›π‘‘β„Ž π‘€π‘Žπ‘π‘™π‘Žπ‘’π‘Ÿπ‘–π‘› π‘π‘œπ‘™π‘¦π‘›π‘œπ‘šπ‘–π‘Žπ‘™ for 𝑓 to be
𝑛 0
𝑓"(0)
𝑓′′′(0)
𝑓
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓 ′ 0 π‘₯ +
π‘₯2 +
π‘₯ 3+ . . . +
π‘₯𝑛
2!
3!
𝑛!
Example 1. Find the Maclaurin polynomials
𝑝0 , 𝑝1 , 𝑝2 , 𝑝3 , and 𝑝𝑛 for 𝑒 π‘₯ .
Solution: Get the first, second, third, and nth derivative of the function,
Let 𝑓 π‘₯ = 𝑒 π‘₯
𝑓 ′ π‘₯ = 𝑒 π‘₯ ; 𝑓"(π‘₯) = 𝑒 π‘₯ ; 𝑓′′′(π‘₯) = 𝑒 π‘₯ ; 𝑓 𝑛 π‘₯ = 𝑒 π‘₯
Assign π‘₯ = 0, thus
𝑓 ′ 0 = 𝑓 ′′ 0 = 𝑓 ′′′ 0 =. . . = 𝑓 𝑛 0 = 𝑒 0 = 1
Therefore,
𝑝0 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 = 1
𝑝1 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓 ′ 0 = 1 + π‘₯
′′ 0 π‘₯ 2
2
𝑓
π‘₯
𝑝2 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓 ′ 0 π‘₯ +
=1+π‘₯+
2!
2!
𝑝3 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 +
𝑓′
0 π‘₯+
𝑓′′ 0 π‘₯ 2
2!
+
𝑓′′′ 0 π‘₯ 3
3!
=1+π‘₯+
π‘₯2
2!
+
π‘₯3
3!
′′ 0 π‘₯ 2
𝑛 0 π‘₯𝑛
2
𝑛
𝑓
𝑓
π‘₯
π‘₯
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = 𝑓 0 + 𝑓 ′ 0 π‘₯ +
+. . . +
= 1 + π‘₯ + +. . . +
2!
𝑛!
2!
𝑛!
Example 2. Find the nth Maclaurin
polynomials for sin x
Solution: let 𝑓 π‘₯ = sin π‘₯
𝑓 0 = sin 0 = 0
𝑓 ′ π‘₯ = cos π‘₯
𝑓 ′ 0 = cos 0 = 1
𝑓 ′′ π‘₯ = − sin π‘₯
𝑓 ′′ 0 = − sin 0 = 0
𝑓 ′′′ π‘₯ = − cos π‘₯
𝑓 ′′′ 0 = − cos 0 = −1
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 π‘₯ = sin π‘₯
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 0 = sin 0 = 0
𝑓 𝑣 π‘₯ = cos π‘₯
𝑓 𝑣 0 = cos 0 = 1
Observe that only the odd powers of x appears explicitly and the pattern 0, 1, 0,
-1 will repeat as we evaluate successive derivatives at 0. Thus, the nth Maclaurin
polynomial for sin x is
2𝑛+1
π‘₯3 π‘₯5
π‘₯
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = π‘₯ − + +. . . + −1 𝑛
𝑛 = 0, 1, 2, . . .
3! 5!
2𝑛 + 1 !
Example 2. Find the nth Maclaurin
polynomials for cos x
Solution: let 𝑓 π‘₯ = cos π‘₯
𝑓 0 = cos 0 = 1
𝑓 ′ π‘₯ = −sin π‘₯
𝑓 ′ 0 = −sin 0 = 0
𝑓 ′′ π‘₯ = − cos π‘₯
𝑓 ′′ 0 = − cos 0 = −1
𝑓 ′′′ π‘₯ = sin π‘₯
𝑓 ′′′ 0 = sin 0 = 0
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 π‘₯ = co𝑠 π‘₯
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 0 = cos 0 = 1
𝑓 𝑣 π‘₯ = −sin π‘₯
𝑓 𝑣 0 = −sin 0 = 0
Observe that only the odd powers of x appears explicitly and the pattern 1, 0, -1,
0, 1 will repeat as we evaluate successive derivatives at 0. Thus, the nth
Maclaurin polynomial for cos x is
2𝑛+1
π‘₯2 π‘₯4 π‘₯6
π‘₯
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = 1 − + −
. . . + −1 𝑛
𝑛 = 0, 1, 2, . . .
2! 4!
6!
2𝑛 + 1 !
Taylor Polynomials
If 𝑓 can be differentiated 𝑛 times at π‘₯0 , then we define the
π‘›π‘‘β„Ž π‘‡π‘Žπ‘¦π‘™π‘œπ‘Ÿ π‘π‘œπ‘™π‘¦π‘›π‘œπ‘šπ‘–π‘Žπ‘™ for 𝑓 about π‘₯ = π‘₯0 to be
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = 𝑓 π‘₯0
𝑛
𝑓"(π‘₯
)
𝑓′′′(π‘₯
)
𝑓
π‘₯0
0
0
+ 𝑓 ′ π‘₯0 (π‘₯ − π‘₯0 ) +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 )2 +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 )3 + . . . +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 )𝑛
2!
3!
𝑛!
Example 1. Find the first four Taylor
polynomials for ln π‘₯ about π‘₯ = 2
Solution: Let 𝑓 π‘₯ = ln π‘₯.
𝑓 2 = ln 2
1
𝑓 π‘₯ =
π‘₯
−1
′′
𝑓 π‘₯ = 2
π‘₯
2
′′′
𝑓 π‘₯ = 3
π‘₯
1
𝑓 2 =
2
−1
′′
𝑓 2 =
4
1
′′′
𝑓 2 =
4
′
′
1
1 π‘₯−2
𝑝3 π‘₯ = ln 2 + π‘₯ − 2 −
2
4
2!
2
1 π‘₯−2
+
4
3!
1
π‘₯−2
𝑝3 π‘₯ = ln 2 + π‘₯ − 2 −
2
8
2
π‘₯−2
+
24
3
3
Example 2. Find the nth Taylor polynomial for
1
about π‘₯ = 1
π‘₯
1
Solution: Let 𝑓 π‘₯ = = π‘₯ −1
π‘₯
𝑓 1 = 1 = 0!
𝑓 ′ π‘₯ = −π‘₯ −2
𝑓"(π‘₯) = 2π‘₯ −3
𝑓 ′′′ π‘₯ = −6π‘₯ −4
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 π‘₯ = 24π‘₯ −5
π‘₯−1
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ = 1 − π‘₯ − 1 + 2!
2!
𝑓 ′ 1 = −1 = −1!
𝑓"(1) = 2 = 2!
𝑓 ′′′ 1 = −6 = −3!
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 1 = 24 = 4!
2
3! π‘₯ − 1
−
3!
3
4! π‘₯ − 1
+
4!
4
𝑛! π‘₯ − 1
𝑛
+. . . + −1
𝑛!
𝑛
Sigma Notation for Taylor and Maclaurin
Polynomials
• Frequently we will want to express the Taylor polynomial formula in
sigma notation. To do this, we use the notation 𝑓 (𝑛) π‘₯0 to denote the
nth derivative of 𝑓 at π‘₯ = π‘₯0 and we make the convention that 𝑓 (0) π‘₯0
denotes
𝑓 π‘₯0 . This enables us to write
𝑛
𝑓
π‘˜=0
π‘˜
π‘₯0
𝑓"(π‘₯0 )
𝑓′′′(π‘₯0 )
𝑓 𝑛 π‘₯0
′
2
3
= 𝑓 π‘₯0 + 𝑓 π‘₯0 (π‘₯ − π‘₯0 ) +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 ) +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 ) + . . . +
(π‘₯ − π‘₯0 )𝑛
π‘˜!
2!
3!
𝑛!
• In particular, we can write the nth Maclaurin polynomial for 𝑓 π‘₯ as
𝑛
𝑛 0
𝑓 π‘˜ π‘₯0
𝑓"(0)
𝑓′′′(0)
𝑓
= 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 π‘₯ +
π‘₯2 +
π‘₯3+ . . . +
π‘₯𝑛
π‘˜!
2!
3!
𝑛!
π‘˜=0
Example 1. Find the nth Maclaurin polynomial
1
for
and express it in sigma notation.
1−π‘₯
Solution: Let 𝑓 π‘₯ =
𝑓′
1
1−π‘₯
= 1−π‘₯
π‘₯ = 1−π‘₯
𝑓 ′′′ π‘₯ = 6 1 − π‘₯
𝑛
𝑝𝑛 (π‘₯ −
𝑛=0
1)𝑛 =
π‘₯
𝑛
𝑓 0 = 1 = 0!
1
=
1−π‘₯ 2
2
−3
=
1−π‘₯ 3
6
−4 =
1−π‘₯ 4
−2
𝑓 ′′ π‘₯ = 2 1 − π‘₯
𝑝𝑛 (π‘₯ − 1)𝑛 =
−1
𝑓 ′ 0 = 1 = 1!
𝑓 ′′ 0 = 2 = 2!
𝑓 ′′′ 0 = 6 = 3!
π‘₯2
π‘₯3
π‘₯𝑛
= 1 + π‘₯ + 2! + 3! +. . . +𝑛!
2!
3!
𝑛!
𝑛
𝑛=0
π‘₯
𝑛
= 1 + π‘₯ + π‘₯ 2 + π‘₯ 3 +. . . +π‘₯ 𝑛
Example 2. Find the nth Taylor polynomial for
1
about π‘₯ = 1 and express it in sigma notation.
π‘₯
1
Solution: Let 𝑓 π‘₯ = = π‘₯ −1
π‘₯
𝑓 1 = 1 = 0!
𝑓 ′ π‘₯ = −π‘₯ −2
𝑓"(π‘₯) = 2π‘₯ −3
𝑓 ′′′ π‘₯ = −6π‘₯ −4
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 π‘₯ = 24π‘₯ −5
𝑛
𝑛=0
𝑛! π‘₯ − 1
𝑛
−1
𝑛!
𝑛
π‘₯−1
= 1 − π‘₯ − 1 + 2!
2!
𝑓 ′ 1 = −1 = −1!
𝑓"(1) = 2 = 2!
𝑓 ′′′ 1 = −6 = −3!
𝑓 𝑖𝑣 1 = 24 = 4!
2
3! π‘₯ − 1
−
3!
3
4! π‘₯ − 1
+
4!
4
𝑛! π‘₯ − 1
𝑛
+. . . + −1
𝑛!
𝑛
Exercises 1
1. Find the Maclaurin polynomials of orders n = 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, and then
find the nth Maclaurin polynomials for the function in sigma notation.
a. 𝑒 −π‘₯
b. sin πœ‹π‘₯
c. ln 1 + π‘₯
2. Find the Taylor polynomials of orders n = 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, about π‘₯ = π‘₯0
and then find the nth Taylor polynomials for the function in sigma
notation.
a. 𝑒 π‘₯ ; π‘₯0 = 1
b.
1
;
π‘₯
π‘₯0 = −1
Maclaurin and Taylor Series: Power Series
If 𝑓 has derivatives of all orders at π‘₯0 , then we call the series
π‘˜ π‘₯
0
∞ 𝑓
π‘˜=0
π‘˜!
= 𝑓 π‘₯0 +
𝑓′
π‘₯0 π‘₯ − π‘₯0 +
𝑓"(π‘₯0 )
2!
π‘₯ − π‘₯0
2
+
𝑓′′′ π‘₯0
3!
π‘₯ − π‘₯0
3+
𝑓 π‘˜ π‘₯0
...+
π‘˜!
π‘₯ − π‘₯0 π‘˜ +. . .
the π‘‡π‘Žπ‘¦π‘™π‘œπ‘Ÿ π‘ π‘’π‘Ÿπ‘–π‘’π‘  π‘“π‘œπ‘Ÿ 𝑓 π‘Žπ‘π‘œπ‘’π‘‘ π‘₯ = π‘₯0 . In the special case where π‘₯0 = 0,
this series becomes
∞
π‘˜ 0
𝑓 π‘˜ π‘₯0
𝑓"(0)
𝑓′′′(0)
𝑓
= 𝑓 0 + 𝑓′ 0 π‘₯ +
π‘₯2 +
π‘₯ 3+ . . . +
π‘₯π‘˜+ . . .
π‘˜!
2!
3!
π‘˜!
π‘˜=0
In which case we shall it the Maclaurin series for f.
Example: Find the Maclaurin series for
a) 𝑒 π‘₯
Solution: In the previous example (see slide 3), we found out that the nth
Maclaurin polynomial
𝑝𝑛 π‘₯ =
Thus, the
π‘˜
π‘₯2
π‘₯𝑛
= 1 + π‘₯ + +. . . +
2!
𝑛!
π‘₯ is
Maclaurin series
for
𝑒
𝑛
π‘˜
2
π‘₯
𝑛
π‘˜=0 π‘˜!
π‘˜=0
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯π‘˜
= 1 + π‘₯ + +. . . + + . . .
π‘˜!
2!
π‘˜!
Example: Find the Maclaurin series for
b) sin x
Solution: We found that the Maclaurin polynomials for sin x are given by
2π‘˜+1
π‘₯3 π‘₯5
π‘₯
𝑝2π‘˜+1 π‘₯ = 𝑝2π‘˜+2 π‘₯ = π‘₯ − + +. . . + −1 π‘˜
3! 5!
2π‘˜ + 1 !
Thus, the Maclaurin series for sin x is
∞
2π‘˜+1
3
5
2π‘˜+1
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
π‘₯
−1 π‘˜
= π‘₯ − + +. . . + −1 π‘˜
+. . .
2π‘˜ + 1 !
3! 5!
2π‘˜ + 1 !
π‘˜=0
π‘˜ = 0, 1, 2, . . .
π‘˜ = 0, 1, 2, . . .
Exercises 2
1. Use sigma notation to write the Maclaurin series for the function.
a. 𝑒 −π‘₯
b. ln(1 + π‘₯)
c.
1
1+π‘₯
2. Use sigma notation to write the Taylor series about π‘₯ = π‘₯0 for the
function.
a. 𝑒 π‘₯ ; π‘₯0 = −1
b.
1
;
π‘₯
π‘₯0 = −1
Radius and Interval of Convergence
If a numerical value is substituted for π‘₯ in a power series π‘π‘˜ π‘₯ π‘˜ , then the
resulting series of numbers may either converge or diverge.
This leads to the problem of determining the set of π‘₯ −values for which a
given power series in π‘₯ converges; this is called its convergence set.
THEOREM For any power series in π‘₯, exactly one of the following is true:
(a) The series converges only for π‘₯ = 0.
This theorem states that the convergence set of a power series in π‘₯ is
called the interval of convergence and the radius of convergence is 0.
Radius and Interval of Convergence
(b) The series converges absolutely for all real values of π‘₯.
This theorem states that the convergence set is −∞, +∞ and the radius
of converges is +∞.
(c) The series converges absolutely for all π‘₯ in some open interval (-R, R)
and diverges if π‘₯ < −𝑅 or π‘₯ > 𝑅.
This theorem states that the convergence set extends between –R and R
and the series has radius of convergence R.
Example 1. Determine the radius of convergence and
interval of convergence for the power series
Solution:
Using the ratio test for absolute convergence to the given series to obtain
= lim
𝑛→∞
−1 𝑛 𝑛+1 π‘₯+3 𝑛 π‘₯+3 4𝑛
4 𝑛 4 −1 𝑛 𝑛 π‘₯+3 𝑛
cancelling common factors
Factor |x+3|,
The ratio tells us that if:
a.
b.
1
4
1
4
π‘₯ + 3 < 1 π‘œπ‘Ÿ |π‘₯ + 3| < 4, the series converges
π‘₯ + 3 > 1 π‘œπ‘Ÿ |π‘₯ + 3| > 4, the series diverges
From here, the radius of converges is 4.
Now, let us get the interval of convergence by solving the first inequality
|π‘₯ + 3| < 4
−4 < π‘₯ + 3 < 4
−7 < π‘₯ < 1
The way to determine convergence at these points is to simply plug them into the original power series and see
if the series converges or diverges using any test necessary.
In this case substituting x = -7, the series is
.
This series is divergent by the Divergence Test since
Using the other endpoint of the inequality,
In this case the series is,
This series is also divergent by the Divergence Test since doesn’t exist.
So, in this case the power series will not converge for either endpoint. The interval of convergence is then,
Example 2. Determine the radius of convergence and
interval of convergence for the power series
Solution:
In this example the root test is more appropriate to use. So,
So, since
regardless of the value of x this power series will converge for every x.
In these cases we say that the radius of convergence is
.
The interval of convergence is
Example 3. Determine the radius of convergence and
interval of convergence for the power series
Solution: Using the ratio test for absolute convergence,
The limit is infinite, but there is that term with the x’s in front of the limit. We’ll have
provided
So, this power series will only converge if
In this case we say the radius of convergence is
and the interval of convergence is
Exercise 3
Find the radius of convergence and the interval of convergence.
1.
2.
3.
π‘₯π‘˜
∞
π‘˜=0 2π‘˜+3
−1 π‘˜ π‘₯ π‘˜
∞
π‘˜=0
π‘˜!
π‘˜
∞ 6
π‘˜
π‘₯
π‘˜=0 π‘˜ 2
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