Chapter 1: Thermodynamics
1. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of
_________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entropy
Internal energy
Temperature
Pressure
Answer: C.
2. Which of the following is the most efficient
thermodynamic cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brayton
Otto
Carnot
Diesel
Answer: C.
3. What is the first law of thermodynamics?
6. An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so
well insulated that there is essentially no heat
transfer. The temperature of the gas
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain constant
D. Is Zero
Answer: B
7. What is the Sl unit of Pressure?
𝐾𝑔
A.𝑐𝑚2
B.
𝐷𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠
𝑐𝑚2
C. Pascal
D. Psi
Answer: C.
A. Internal energy is due to molecular
motions
B. Entropy of the universe is increase by
irreversible processes
C. Energy can neither be created nor
destroy heat energy cannot be
completely transformed into work
D. None of these
Answer: C.
8. The equation 𝐶𝑝 = 𝐶𝑣 + R applies to which of
the following?
4. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally.
What is the enthalpy change?
9. In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and
potential energies, the integral of Vdp
represents what?
A. Always negative
B. Always positive
C. Zero
D. Undefined
A. Enthalpy
B. Ideal gas
C. Two phase states
D. all pure substance
Answer: B.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat transfer
Flow energy
Enthalpy change
Shaft work
Answer: C.
Answer: D.
5. Name the process that has no heat transfer.
A. Isothermal
B. Isobaric
C. Polytrophic
D. Adiabatic
Answer: D.
10. Mechanical energy of pressure transformed
into energy of heat.
A. Kinetic energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression
16. If the temperature is held constant and the
pressure is increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then the working medium must be:
Answer: B.
11. The Theory
mechanical work.
of
changing
heat
into
A. Thermodynamics
B. Kinetics
C. Inertia
D. Kinetics
Answer: A.
12. Average pressure on a surface when a
changing pressure condition exists.
A. Back pressure
B. Partial pressure
C. Pressure drop
D. Mean effective pressure
Answer: D.
13. Which of the following cycles consist two
isothermal and two constant volume processes?
A. Diesel cycle
B. Partial cycle
C. Stirling cycle
D. Otto cycle
Answer: C.
14. A control volume refers to what?
A. A fixed region in space
B. A reversible process
C. An isolated system
D. A specified mass
Answer: A.
A. Compressed liquid
B. Subcooled liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Saturated liquid
Answer: A.
17. Is one whose temperature is below the
saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.
A. Superheated vapor
B. Wet vapor
C. Subcooled liquid
D. Saturated liquid
Answer: C.
18. Number of molecules in a mode of any
substance is a constant called ________.
A. Rankine constant
B. Avogadro’s number
C. Otto constant
D. Thompson constant
Answer: B.
19. If the pressure of a gas is constant the
volume directly proportional to the absolute
temperature.
A. Boyle’s law
B. Joule’s law
C. Charles law
D. Kelvin’s law
Answer: C.
15. In the polytropic process, 𝑃𝑉 𝑛 = constant,
if the value of n is infinitely large, the process is
A. Isobaric
B. Isometric
C. Isothermal
D. Polytropic
Answer: B.
20. The number of protons in the nucleus of an
atom or the number of electrons in the orbit of
an atom.
A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass
Answer: B.
21. In a P – T diagram of a pure substance, the
curve separating the solid phase from the liquid
phase is:
A. Vaporization curve
B. Fusion curve
C. Boiling point
D. Sublimation point
Answer: B.
22. A water temperature of 18 ℉ in the water
cooled condenser is equivalent in ℃ to _____.
Answer: B.
26. If the condition of pressure and temperature
at which a liquid and its vapor are
indistinguishable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical point
Dew point
Absolute humidity
Relative humidity
Answer: A.
27. When a substance in gaseous state is below
the critical temperature, it is called _______.
A. 7.78
B. 10
C. 263.56
D. -9.44
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B.
23. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules per
kg is equal to ______.
Vapor
Cloud
Moisture
Steam
Answer: A.
28. Superheated vapor behaves
2
A. 5.4 x10
B. 4.13x103
C. 22.6x105
D. 3.35x105
A.
B.
C.
D.
Just as gas
Just as steam
Just as ordinary vapor
Approximately as a gas
Answer: C.
Answer: D.
24. Form of energy association with the kinetic
energy of the random motion of large number of
molecules.
A. Internal energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat
29. Which of the following provides the basis for
measuring
thermodynamic
property
of
temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: D.
Answer: A
25. If the temperature is held constant and the
pressure is increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then, the working medium must be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Saturated vapor
Compressed liquid
Saturated liquid
Subcooled liquid
30. Which of the following is commonly used as
liquid absorbent?
A. Silica gel
B. Activated alumina
C. Ethylene glycol
D. None of these
Answer: C.
31. Mechanism designed to lower
temperature of air passing through it.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the
Air cooler
Air defense
Air spill over
Air cycle
Answer: A.
36. The sum of the energies of all the molecules
in a system where energies appear in several
complex form.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Potential energy
Internal energy
Frictional energy
Answer: C.
32. A device for measuring the velocity of wind.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aneroid barometer
Anemometer
Anemoscope
Anemograph
Answer: B.
33. Heat normally flowing from a high
temperature body a low temperature body to
wherein it is impossible to convert heat without
other effects.
A.
B.
C.
D.
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
Answer: B.
34. The temperature at which its vapor pressure
is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absolute humidity
Calorimetry
Boiling point
Thermal point
Answer: C.
37. The total energy in a compressible or
incompressible fluid flowing across any section
in a pipeline is a function of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pressure and velocity
Pressure, density and velocity
Pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
Flow energy, kinetic energy, height
above datum and internal energy
Answer: D.
38. The ratio of the density of a substance to the
density of some standard substance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Relative density
Specific gravity
Specific density
Super heated vapor
Answer: B.
39. Is one whose pressure is higher than the
saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compressed liquid
Saturated liquid
Saturated vapor
Super heated vapor
35. A nozzle is used to
Answer: A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase velocity and decrease pressure
Decrease velocity as well as pressure
Increase velocity as well as pressure
Decrease velocity and increase pressure
Answer: A.
40. The changing of solid directly to vapor
without passing through the liquid state is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Evaporation
Vaporization
Sublimation
Condensation
Answer: C.
41. Weight per unit volume is termed as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific gravity
Density
Weight density
Specific volume
46. When a system deviates infinitesimally from
equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric process
Quasi- static process
Isometric process
Cyclic process
Answer: C.
Answer: B.
42. What is the S1 unit of force?
47. What is the force which tends to draw a body
toward the center about which it is rotating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pound
Newton
Kilogram
Dyne
A.
B.
C.
D.
Centrifugal force
Centrifugal in motion
Centrifugal advance
Centripetal force
Answer: B.
Answer: D.
43. The volume of fluid passing a cross-section
of steam in unit time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steady flow
Uniform flow
Discharge
Continuous flow
48. Which of the process that has no heat
transfer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reversible isometric
Isothermal
Polytropic
Adiabatic
Answer: C.
Answer: D.
44. What equation applies in the first law of
thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible
open steady-state system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q – W = 𝑈2 −𝑈1
Q + VdP = 𝐻2 − 𝐻1
Q – VdP = 𝑈2 −𝑈1
Q - PdV = 𝐻2 − 𝐻1
49. Which of the engine is used for fighter
bombers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Turbojet
Pulsejet
Rockets
Ramjet
Answer: B.
Answer: A.
45. A pressure of 1 milibar is equivalent to
50. Exhaust gases from an engine posses:
A. 1000
𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠
𝑐𝑚2
B. 1000 cm of Hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000
𝑘𝑔
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solar energy
Kinetic energy
Chemical energy
Stored energy
𝑐𝑚2
Answer: B.
Answer: A.
51. At critical point the latent enthalpy of
vaporization is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Temperature dependent
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Answer: B.
52. What is the force which tends to draw a body
toward the center about which it is rotating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Centrifugal force
Centrifugal in motion
Centrifugal advance
Centripetal force
Answer: D.
53. When a system deviates infinitesimally from
equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric process
Quasi – static process
Isometric process
Cyclic process
Answer: B.
54. A pressure of 1 milibar is equivalent to
A.
B.
C.
D.
1000 𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠⁄𝑐𝑚2
1000 cm of Hg
1000 psi
1000 𝑘𝑔⁄𝑐𝑚2
Answer: A.
55. Work done per unit charge when charged is
moved from one point to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equipotential surface
Potential at a point
Electrostatic point
Potential difference
Answer: B.
56. How many independent properties are
required to completely fix the equilibrium state
of a pure gaseous compound?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
Answer: B.
57. Which of the following relation defines
enthalpy?
A. h=u + p/T
B. h=u + pV
C. h=u + p/V
D. h=pV+ T
Answer: B
58. Which of the following is true for water at a
reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
A. Internal energy is negative
B. Entropy is non-zero
C. Specific volume is zero – zero
D. Vapor pressure is zero
Answer: A
59. On what plane is the Mollier diagram is
plotted
A. p-V
B. p-T
C. h-s
D. h-u
Answer: C
60. The compressibility factor z, is used for
predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How
is the compressibility factor defined relative to
an ideal gas? (subscript c refers to critical value)
A. z = P/Pc
B. z= PV/RT
C. z= T/Tc
D. z= (T/Tc)(Pc/P)
Answer: B
61. How is the quality x of a liquid – vapor
mixture defined?
A. The fraction of the total volume that is
saturated vapor
B. The fraction of the total volume that
saturated liquid
C. The fraction of the total mass that
saturated vapor
D. The fraction of the total mass that
saturated liquid
Answer: C
62. What is the expression for heat
vaporization?
is
is
is
of
A. Hg
B. Hf
C. Hg – hf
D. Hf – hg
Answer: C
63. What is the value of the work done for a
closed, reversible, isometric system?
A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Indeterminate
Answer: A
64. What is the equation for the work done by a
constant temperature system?
A. W = mRTln (V2 – V1)
B. W= mR (T2-T1) ln (V2/V1)
C. W= MRT ln (V2/V1)
D. W= RT ln (V2/V1)
Answer: C
65. What is true about the polytropic exponent
n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric
process?
A. n > 0
B. n < 0
C. n = ∞
D. n = 0
Answer: D
66. How does an adiabatic process compare to
an isentropic process?
A. Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic:
Heat transfer = 0
B. Adiabatic: heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic:
heat transfer = 0
C. Adiabatic: Reversible , isentropic: not
reversible
D. Both: Heat transfer = 0; isentropic:
reversible
Answer: D
67. During an adiabatic, internally reversible
process, what is true about the change in
entropy?
A. It is always zero
B. It is always less than zero
C. It is always greater than zero
D. It is temperature- dependent
Answer: A
68. For an irreversible process, what is true
about the change in entropy of the system and
the surroundings?
A. ds = dq/dt
B. ds = 0
C. ds > 0
D. ds < 0
Answer: C
69. For which type of process does the equation
dQ = Tds hold?
A. Irreversible
B. Reversible
C. Isobaric
D. Isothermal
Answer: B
70. Which of the following is true for any
process?
A. ∆S (Surrounding) + ∆S (system) > 0
B. ∆S (Surrounding) + ∆S (system) < 0
C. ∆S (Surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≤ 0
D. ∆S (Surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≥ 0
Answer: D
71. Which of the following Thermodynamic cycle
is the most efficient?
A. Brayton
B. Rankine
C. Carnot
D. Otto
Answer: C
72. The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves
four basic processes. What type of processes
are they?
A. All isothermal
B. All adiabatic
C. All isentropic
D. Two isothermal and two isentropic
Answer: D
73. What is the temperature difference of the
cycle of the entropy difference is ∆S, and the
work done is W?
A. W - ∆S
B. W / ∆S
C. ∆S / W
D. ∆S – W
Answer: B
74. Which of the following is not an advantage
of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over an
open Rankine cycle?
A. Lower equipment cost
B. Increased efficiency
C. Increased turbine life
D. Increased boiler life
Answer: D
75. Which of the following elements regarding
Rankine cycle is not true?
A. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle
increases the efficiency of the cycle
B. The temperature at which energy is
transferred to and from the working liquid
are less separated than in a Carnot cycle
C. Superheating increases the efficiency of
a Rankine cycle
D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the
engine materials to corrosion is not a key
limitation on the operating efficiency.
Answer: D
76. Which one of the following is standard
temperature and pressure (STP)
A. 0 K and 1 atm pressure
B. 0 F and zero pressure
C. 32F and zero pressure
D. 0 degree C and 1 atm pressure
Answer: D
77. A substance is oxidized when which of the
following occurs?
A. It turns red
B. It loses electrons
C. It gives off heat
D. It absorbs energy
Answer: B
78. Which of the following is not a unit of
pressure?
A. Pa
B. Kg/m-s
C. Bars
D. Kg/m2
Answer: B
79. Which of the following is the definition of
Joule?
A. Newton meter
B. Kg.m/s2
C. Unit of power
D. Rate of change of energy
Answer: A
80. Which of the following is the basis for
Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
A. The principle of conservation of energy of
mass
B. The principle of conservation of energy
C. The continuity equation
D. Fourier’s law
Answer: B
81. Equation of state for a single component can
be any of the following except:
A. The ideal gas law
B. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more
state functions
C. Relationship mathematically interrelating
thermodynamic properties of the material
D. A mathematical expression defining a
path between states
Answer: D
82. The state of a thermodynamic system is
always defined by its:
A. Absolute temperature
B. Process
C. Properties
D. Temperature and pressure
Answer: C
83. In any non quasi-static thermodynamic
process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will
A. Increase and then decrease
B. Decrease and then increase
C. Increase only
D. Decrease only
Answer: C
84. Entropy is the measure of:
A. The internal energy of a gas
B. The heat capacity of a substance
C. Randomness or disorder
D. The change of enthalpy of a system
Answer: C
85. Which of the following statements about
entropy is false?
A. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that
of its components under the same
condition
B. An irreversible process increase entropy
of the universe
C. Net entropy change in any closed cycle
is zero
D. Entropy of a crystal at 0 degree F is zero
Answer: D
86. Work or energy can be a function of all of
the following except:
A. Force and time
B. Power and time
C. Force and time
D. Temperature and entropy
Answer: C
87. Energy changes are represented by all
except which one of the following:
A. mCpdt
B. -∫ Vdp
C. Tds – Pdv
D. dQ / T
Answer: D
88. U + pv is a quantity called:
A. shaft work
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D. internal energy
Answer: C
89. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE
changes, ∫vdP represents which item below?
A. Heat transfer
B. Shaft work
C. Enthalpy change
D. Closed system work
Answer: B
90. Power may be expressed in units of
A. Ft – lb
B. Kw – hr
C. Btu
D. Btu/hr
Answer: D
91. Equilibrium condition exists all except which
of the following?
A. In reversible processes
B. In processes where driving forces are
infinitesimals
C. In a steady state flow process
D. Where nothing can occur without an
effect on the system’s surrounding
Answer: C
92. In a closed system (with a moving boundary)
which of the following represents work done
during an isothermal process?
A. W = 0
B. W = P(V2-V1)
C. W = P1V1 ln V2/V1
D. W = P2V2-P1V1/ 1 –n
Answer: C
93. A substance that’s exists, or is regarded as
existing, as a continuoum characterized by a
low resistance to flow and the tendency to
assume the shape of its container.
A. Fluid
B. Atom
C. Molecule
D. Vapor
Answer: A
94. A substance that is homogeneous in
composition and homogeneous and invariable
in chemical aggregation.
A. Pure substance
B. Simple substance
C. Vapor
D. Water
Answer: B
95. A substance whose state is defined by
variable intensive thermodynamic properties
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Isolated system
D. Nonflow system
Answer: B
97. A system that is completely impervious to its
surrounding or neither mass nor energy cross its
boundaries.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Open system
Closed system
Isolated system
Nonflow system
Answer: C
98. A system in which there is a flow of mass
across boundaries
A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. Isolated system
D. Steady flow system
Answer: A
99. The properties that are dependent upon the
mass of the system and are total values such as
total volume and total internal energy.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. State properties
Answer: B
100. The properties that are independent if the
mass the system such as temperature pressure,
density and voltage.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. State properties
Answer: A
101. The properties for a unit mass and
intensive by definition such as specific volume.
A. Intensive properties
B. Extensive properties
C. Specific properties
D. Thermodynamic properties
Answer: C
102. The condition as identified through the
properties of the substance, generally defined
by particular values of any two independent
properties.
A. State
B. Point
C. Process
D. Flow
Answer: A
103. The only base unit with a prefix kilo is
A. Kilogram
B. Kilometer
C. kiloJoule
D. kilopascal
Answer: A
104. The force of gravity on the body.
A. Weight
B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
Answer: A
105. The total mass per unit volume of any
substance
A. Density
B. Specific Volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
Answer: A
106. The force of gravity on unit in volume is
A. Density
B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific gravity
Answer: C
107. The reciprocal of density is
A. Specific volume
B. Specific weight
C. Specific gravity
D. Specific heat
Answer: A
108. Avogadro’s number a fundamental
constant of nature, is the number if molecules in
a gram-mole. This constant is
A. 6.05222 x 10^23
B. 6.02252 x 10^23
C. 6.20522 x 10^23
D. 6.50222 x 10^23
Answer: B
109. The ratio of the gas constant to Avogadro’s
number is:
A. Maxwell’s constant
B. Boltzmann’s constant
C. Naper constant
D. Joule’s constant
Answer: B
110. The absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale
is at
A. -459.7 degree F
B. 459.7 degree F
C. -273.15 degree C
D. 273.15 decree C
Answer: A
111. Absolute temperature on the Fahrenheit
scale are called:
A. Degrees Rankine
B. Degrees Kelvin
C. Absolute Fahrenheit
D. Absolute Celsius
Answer: B
112. The absolute zero on the Celsius scale is
at
A. -459.7 degree F
B. 459.7 degree F
C. -273.15 degree C
D. 273.15 degree C
Answer: C
113. What is the absolute temperature in
Celsius scale?
A. Degree Rankine
B. Degrees Kelvin
C. Absolute Fahrenheit
D. Absolute Celsius
Answer: B
114. The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by
Gabriel Fahrenheit of Amsterdam, Holland in
what year?
A. 1592
B. 1742
C. 1730
D. 1720
B. -38.87°C
C. 37.88°C
D. -37.88
Answer: 1720
Answer: -38.87°C
115. The centigrade scale was introduced by
Anders Celsius in what year?
120. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tim is at
what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1542
1740
1730
1720
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.- 38.87°C
38.87°C
231.9°C
231.9°C
Answer: 1740
Answer: 231.9°C
116. The Bureau of Standard uses, among
others, the liquid – vapor equilibrium of
hydrogen at.
121. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Zinc is at
what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
-196°C
196°C
253°C
-253°C
Answer:-253 °C
117. The Bureau of Standard uses, among
others, liquid – vapor equilibrium of Nitrogen at.
A.
B.
C.
D.
-196°C
196°C
253°C
-253°C
Answer: -196°C
118. The liquid – vapor equilibrium of Oxygen is
at what temperature?
A.
B.
A.
C.
197.82°C
197.82°C
C.182.97°C
-182.97°C
Answer: -182.97°C
119. the solid – liquid equilibrium of Mercury is
at what temperature?
A. 38.87°C
A.
B.
C.
D.
231.9°C
419.505°C
444.60°C
630.9°C
Answer: 419.505°C
122. The liquid – vapor equilibrium temperature
of Sulfur is at what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
231.9°C
419.505°C
444.6°C
630.5°C
Answer: 444.60°C
123. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Antimony
is at what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
630.5°C
419.505°C
444.60°C
231.9°C
Answer: 630.5°C
124. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Silver is at
what temperature?
A. 630.5°C
B. 960.8°C
C. 1063°C
D. 1774°C
C. priming
D. electro motive force
Answer: 960.8°C
Answer: Seebeck effect
125. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Gold is at
what temperature?
130. The device that measure temperature by
the electromotive force called thermocouple
was discovered by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
630.5°C
960.8°C
1063°C
1774°C
Answer: 1063°C
126. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tungsten
is at what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
630.5°C
960.8°C
1063°C
1774°C
Answer: 3370°C
127. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Platinum is
at what temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3730°C
3370°C
3073°C
3037°C
Answer: 1774°C
128. The device that measures the temperature
by the electromotive force.
A.
B.
C.
D.
thermometer
thermocouple
electro-thermometer
thermoseebeck
Answer: thermocouple
129. The emf is a function of the temperature
difference between a junctions, a phenomenon
called:
A. seebeck effect
B. stagnation Effect
A.
B.
C.
D.
Galileo
Fahrenheit
Celsius
Seebeck
Answer: Seebeck
131. When two bodies, isolated from other
environment, are in equilibrium with a third
body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with
each other.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
first law of thermodynamics
second law of thermodynamics
third law of thermodynamics
Answer: Zeroth law of thermodynamics
132. The total entropy of a pure substance
approaches
zero
as
the
absolute
thermodynamics temperature approaches zero.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
first law of thermodynamics
second law of thermodynamics
third law of thermodynamics
Answer: third law of thermodynamics
133. If any one or more properties of a system
change, the system is said to have undergone a
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cycle
process
flow
control
Answer: process
134. when a certain mass of fluid in particular
state passes through a series of process and
returns to its initial state, it undergoes a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
revolution
rotation
process
cycle
Answer: cycle
135. The term given to the collection of matter
under consideration enclosed within a
boundary.
A.
B.
C.
D.
system
matter
environment
atoms
Answer: system
136. The region outside the boundary or the
space and matter external to a system:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ex- system
surrounding
Matter
Extension
Answer: surrounding
137. The pressure measured above a perfect
vacuum.
A.
B.
C.
D.
absolute pressure
gage pressure
atmospheric pressure
vacuum pressure
Answer: absolute pressure
138. The pressure measured from the level of
atmospheric pressure by most pressure
recording instrument like pressure gage and
open – ended manometer.
A. gage pressure
B. atmospheric pressure
C. barometric pressure
D. vacuum pressure
Answer: gage pressure
139. The pressure obtained from barometric
reading.
A.
B.
C.
D.
absolute pressure
gage pressure
atmospheric pressure
vacuum pressure
Answer: atmospheric pressure
140. It is a form of energy associated with the
kinetic random motion of large number of
molecules.
A.
B.
C.
D.
internal energy
kinetic energy
Heat
Enthalpy
Answer: heat
141. The heat needed to change to change the
temperature of the body without changing its
phase.
A.
B.
C.
D.
latent heat
sensible heat
specific heat
heat transfer
Answer. Sensible heat
142. The heat needed by the body to change its
phase without changing its temperature.
A.
B.
C.
D.
latent heat
sensible heat
specific heat
heat transfer
Answer: latent heat
143. The measure of the randomness of the
molecules of a substance.
A. enthalpy
B. internal energy
C. entropy
D. heat
C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: entropy
Answer: Dalton’s law
144. The heat energy transferred to a substance
at a constant pressure process is ______.
149. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a
mixture of gasses is equal to the sum of the
pressure that each separate gas would exert if
it alone occupies the whole volume of the
vessel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
enthalpy
heat
internal energy
entropy
Answer: enthalpy
145. it is the energy stored within the body.
A.
B.
C.
D.
enthalpy
heat
internal energy
entropy
Answer: internal energy
146. A theoretical gas which strictly follows
Boyle’s law and Charle’s law of gasses.
A.
B.
C.
D.
universal gas
perfect gas
combined gas
imperfect gas
Answer: perfect gas
147. In a confined gas, if the absolute
temperature is held constant, the volume is
inversely proportional to the absolute pressure.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boyle’s law
Charles law
Dalton’s law
Avogadro’s law
Answer: Boyle’s Law
148. In a confined gas if the absolute pressure
is held constant the volume is directly
proportional to the absolute pressure.
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles law
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boyle’s law
Charles law
Dalton’s law
Avogadro’s law
Answer: Dalton’s Law
150. at equal volume, at the same temperature
and pressure conditions. The gas contains the
same number of molecules,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boyle’s law
Charles law
Dalton’s law
Avogadro’s law
Answer: Avogadro’s law
151. A process in which the system departs
from equilibrium state only infinitesimally at
every instant.
A.
B.
C.
D.
reversible process
irreversible process
cyclic process
quasi-static process
Answer: quasi – static process
152. A process which gives the same
states/conditions after the system undergoes a
series of process:
A.
B.
C.
D.
reversible process
irreversible process
cyclic process
quasi-static process
Answer: cyclic process
153. A thermodynamic system that generally
serves as a heat source or sink for another
system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
combustion chamber
heat reservoir
heat engine
stirling engine
Answer: heat reservoir
154. A thermodynamic system that operates
continuously with only energy (heat and work)
crossing its boundaries; its boundaries are
impervious to the flow of mass.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat engine
Steady flow work
Stirling engine
Ericson engine
Answer: heat engine
155. A surface that is impervious to heat is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isothermal surface
Adiabatic surface
Isochoric surface
Isobaric surface
Answer: adiabatic surface
156. one of the consequences of Einstein’s
theory relatively is that mass may be converted
into energy and energy into mass, the relation
being given by the famous equation, E = mc².
What is the value of the speed of light c?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.7797× 1010 𝑚⁄𝑠
2.9979× 1010 𝑚⁄𝑠
2.7797× 1010 𝑚⁄𝑠
2.9979× 1010 𝑚⁄𝑠
Answer: 2.9979× 1010 𝑚⁄𝑠
157. In the polytropic process we have 𝑝𝑣 𝑛 =
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 the value of n is infinitely large, the
process is called.
A. Constant volume process
B. Constant pressure process
C. Constant temperature process
D. Adiabatic process
Answer: constant volume process
158. The thermodynamic cycle used in a
thermal power plant is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ericson
Brayton
Joule
Rankine
Answer: rankine
159. for the same heat input and same
compression ratio:
A. Both Otto cycle and diesel cycle are
equally efficient
B. Otto cycle is less efficient than diesel
cycle
C. Efficiency depends mainly on the working
substance
D. None of the above is correct
Answer: efficiency depends mainly on working
substance
160. heat exchange process where in the
product of pressure and volume remains
constant called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat exchange process
Isentropic process
Throttling process
Hyperbolic process
Answer: hyperbolic process
161. Which of the following provides the basis
for measuring thermodynamic property of
temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: zeroth law of thermodynamics
162. 1 watt...
A.
B.
C.
D.
1Nm/s
1Nm/min
1 Nm/hr
1kNm/hr
Answer:1 Nm/s
163. Under ideal conditions, isothermal,
isobaric, isochoric, and adiabatic process are;
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dynamic process
Stable process
Quasi – static process
Static process
Answer: quasi-static process
164. Isentropic flow is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Perfect gas flow
Irreversible adiabatic flow
Ideal fluid flow
Reversible adiabatic flow
Answer: reversible adiabatic flow
165. exhaust gases from an engine possess
A.
B.
C.
D.
Solar energy
Kinetic energy
Chemical energy
Stored energy
Answer: kinetic energy
166. The extension and compression of helical
spring is an example of what process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isothermal process
Thermodynamic process
Adiabatic process
Reversible process
Answer: reversible process
167. At critical point the latent enthalpy of
vaporization is _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dependent on temperature
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Answer: zero
168. Which of the following relations is not
applicable in the free expansion process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat supplied is zero
Heat rejected is zero
Work done is zero
Change in temperature is zero
Answer: change in temperature is zero
169. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which:
A. The solid and liquid phases are in
equilibrium
B. The liquid and gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
C. The solid, liquid, and the gaseous phases
are in equilibrium
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does
not boil, and the gas does not condense
Answer: the solid does not melt, the liquid does
not boil, and the gas does not condense
170. according to Clausius statement
A. Heat flow from hot surface to cold surface
unaided
B. Heat cannot flow from cold substance to
hot substance
C. Heat can flow from cold substance to
substance with the aid of external work
D. A and C
Answer: heat flows from hot substance to cold
substance unaided and heat can flow from cold
substance to hot substance with the aid of
external work
171. A heat engine is supplied heat at rate of
30,000J/s gives an output of 9kW. The thermal
efficiency of the engine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
30%
43%
50%
55%
Answer: A
172. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at NTP
is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3838 m/s
1839 m/s
4839 m/s
839 m/s
Answer: B
173. Which of the following cycles has two
isothermal and two constant volume processes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Joule cycle
Diesel cycle
Ericsson cycle
Stirling cycle
Answer: D
174. “It is impossible to construct a heat engine
that operates in a cycle and receives a given
quantity of heat from a high temperature body
and does an equal amount of work”. The above
statement is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gay Lussac’s law
Kinetic theory
Kelvin-Planck’s law
Joule-Thompson’s law
Answer: C
175. For steam nozzle, which of the following
ratios will have the value less than unity?
A. Pressure at inlet/pressure at outlet
B. Specific volume at inlet/specific volume
at outlet
C. Temperature
of
steam
inlet/temperature of steam at outlet
D. None of the above
at
Answer: B
176. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stirling cycle
Brayton cycle
Joule cycle
Carnot cycle
Answer: C
177. Ericsson cycle consists of the following
processes:
A. Two isothermal &
processes
B. Two isothermal
isentropic
C. Two isothermal
pressure
D. Two adiabatic
pressures
two constant volume
and
two
constant
and
two
constant
two
constant
and
Answer: C
178. A steam nozzle changes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy into heat energy
Heat energy into potential energy
Potential energy into heat energy
Heat energy into kinetic energy
Answer: D
179. Which is not correct for calculating air
standard efficiency?
A. All processes are reversible
B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all
temperatures
C. No account of the mechanism of heat
transfer is considered
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
Answer: D
180. According to Pettlier Thompson effect:
A. It is impossible to construct a heat engine
that operates in a cycle and receives a
give quantity of heat from a high
temperature body and does an equal
amount of work
B. It is impossible to construct a device that
operates in a cycle and produces no
effect other than the transfer of heat form
a cooler body to a hotter body.
C. When two dissimilar metals are heated at
one end and cooled at other, emf that is
developed is proportional to difference of
temperatures at two ends
D. Work can’t be converted into heat
Answer: D
181. In actual gases the molecular collisions
are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plastic
Elastic
Inelastic
In plastic
Answer: C
182. The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of state is
quite accurate in cases of:
A. All pressures above atmospheric
pressure
B. Densities less than about 0.8 times the
critical density
C. Near critical temperature
D. None of the above
Answer: B
183. Which of the following statement about Van
der Waals equation is correct?
A. It is valid for all pressures and
temperatures
B. It represents a straight line on PV versus
V plot
C. It has three roots of identical value at the
critical point
D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases
only.
Answer: C
184. The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to:
A. 1 system in equilibrium
B. A change of state
C. A change of state when two phases are
in equilibrium
D. A change of state when water and water
vapor are involved
Answer: C
185. The vapor pressure is related to the
enthalpy of vaporization by the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Clausius-Clayperon equation
Dalton’s law
Rauolt’s law
Maxwell’s equation
186. Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small
concentration can be represented by which law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Henry’s law
Clausius-Clapeyron’s equation
Dalton’s law
Roult’s law
Answer: A
187. A compound pressure gauge is used to
measure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Complex pressures
Variable pressures
Average pressures
Positive and negative pressures
Answer: D
188. Which of the following is used for fighter
jets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Turbopop
Turbojet
Ramjet
Pulsejet
Answer: B
189. The thermal efficiency of gas vapor cycle
as compared to the steam turbine or gas
turbine:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Greater than
Less than
Not comparable
Equal
Answer: A
190. The process in which heat energy is
transferred to thermal energy storage device is
known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Adiabatic
Regeneration
Intercooling
Heat transfer
Answer: B
191. The absolute zero in Celsius scale is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
100
0
-273
273
Answer: C
192. What is the temperature when water and
water vapor are in equilibrium with the
atmospheric pressure?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ice point
Steam point
Critical point
Freezing point
Answer: B
193. The temperature of a pure substance at a
temperature of absolute zero is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unity
Zero
Infinity
100
Answer: B
194. When the number of reheat stages in a
reheat cycle is increased, the average
temperature:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases
Decreases
Is constant
Is zero
Answer: A
195. The temperature measurement in an
ordinary thermometer which has constant
specific humidity:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical temperature
Dew point temperature
Dry bulb temperature
Wet bulb temperature
Answer: B
196. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes
place, the temperature rises. Due to the rising
temperature, the pressure increases until an
equilibrium is established between the
temperature and pressure. The temperature of
equilibrium is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dew point
Ice point
Superheated temperature
Boiling point
Answer: D
197. When hot soup was served in a cup during
dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it.
Since it was hot he added cubes of ice to cool
the soup and stirred it. He noticed that dew
starts to form on the outermost surface of the
cup. What is this temperature equal to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Superheated temperature
Equal to zero
Standard temperature
Equal to air’s dew point temperature
Answer: D
198. Is a measure of the energy that is no longer
available to perform useful work within the
current environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absolute entropy
Absolute enthalpy
Fugacity
Molar value
Answer: A
199. A graph of enthalpy versus entropy for
steam:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mollier diagram
Moody diagram
Steam table
Maxwell diagram
Answer: A
200. The reaction of inertia in an accelerated
body is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic reaction
Endothermic reaction
Kinematic reaction
Dynamic reaction
Answer: C
202. The following are not included in the first
law of thermodynamics for closed system
EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
heat transferred in and out of the system
work done by or on the system
internal energy
kinetic energy
Answer: D
203. All processes below are irreversible except
one. Which one?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnetization with hysteresis
Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
Inelastic deformation
Heat conduction
Answer: B
204. The combination of conditions that best
describes a thermodynamic process is given by
which of the following?
I.
Has successive states through which
the system passes
II.
When reversed leaves no change in
the system
III.
When reversed leaves no change in
the system or the surroundings
IV.
States are passes through so quickly
that the surroundings do not change
A. I & II
B. I & III
C. I &IV
D. I only
Answer: A
Answer: D
201. A mollier chart of thermodynamic
properties is shown in which of the following
diagrams?
A.
B.
C.
D.
T-S diagram
P-V diagram
h-S diagram
p-h diagram
205. The sum of the energies of all the
molecules in a system where energies appear
in several complex forms is the:
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Frictional energy
D. Internal system
Answer: D
Answer: C
206. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all
of the following processes except:
211. The following terms are included in the first
law of thermodynamics for closed system
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isentropic expansion
Isothermal heating
Isenthalpic expansion
Isentropic compression
Answer: B
207. The maximum possible work that can be
obtained a cycle operating between two
reservoirs is found from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Process irreversibility
Availability
Carnot efficiency
Reversible work
Answer: C
208. The following factors are necessary to
define a thermodynamic cycle except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Working substance
High and low temperature
The time it takes to complete the cycle
The means of doing work on the system
Answer: C
209. All of the following terms included in the
second law for open system except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shaft work
Flow work
Internal energy
Average energy
Answer: D
210. All of the following terms included in the
first law for open system except:
A. Heat transferred in and out of the system
B. Work done by or in the system
C. Magnetic system
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat transferred in and out of the system
Work done by or in the system
Internal energy
Kinetic energy
Answer: D
212. Which of the following statements about a
path function is not true?
A. On a p-v diagram, it can represent work
done
B. On a t-s diagram, it can represent heat
transferred
C. It is dependent on the path between
states of thermodynamic equilibrium
D. It represents values for p, v, t and s
between states that are path functions
Answer: D
213. A constant pressure thermodynamic
process obeys:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Boyle’s law
Charles’ law
Amagat’s law
Dalton’s law
Answer: B
214. The first and
thermodynamics are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
second
Continuity equations
Momentum equations
Energy equations
Equations of state
Answer: C
laws
of
215. Represents the temperature an ideal gas
will attain when it is brought to rest adiabatically:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absolute zero temperature
Stagnation temperature
Boiling temperature
Critical temperature
Answer: B
216. Gauge pressure and absolute pressure
differ from each other by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The system units
Atmospheric pressure
The size of the gauge
Nothing they mean the same thing
Answer: B
217. Each of the following is correct values of
standard atmospheric pressure except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,000 atm
14.962 psia
760 torr
1013 mmHg
Answer: D
218. All of the following are properties of an ideal
gas except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Pressure
Viscosity
Temperature
Answer: C
219. Which of the following is not the universal
gas constant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1545 ft-lb/lbmol-R
8.314 J/mol-K
8314 kJ/mol-K
8.314 kJ/kmol-K
Answer: C
220. The following are all commonly quoted
values of standard temperatures and pressures
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
32F and 14.696 psia
273.15K and 101.325 kPa
0C and 760mm Hg
0F and 29.92in Hg
Answer: D
221. The variation of pressure in an isobaric
process is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Linear with temperature
Described by the perfect gas law
Inversely proportional to temperature
Zero
Answer: D
222. For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of
internal energy and:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Entropy
Work flow
Pressure
Temperature
Answer: B
223. A thermodynamic process whose deviation
from equilibrium is infinitesimal at all times is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reversible
Isentropic
In quasi-equilibrium
Isenthalpic
Answer: C
224. Which thermodynamic property best
describes the molecular activity of a substance?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enthalpy
Entropy
Internal energy
External energy
Answer: C
225. Stagnation enthalpy represents the
enthalpy of a fluid when it is brought to rest:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isometrically
Adiabatically
Isothermally
Disobarically
Answer: B
226. During stagnation process, the kinetic
energy of a fluid is converted to enthalpy which
results in an:
A. Increase in the fluid specific volume
B. Increase in the fluid pressure
C. Increase in the fluid temperature and
pressure
D. Increase in the fluid temperature
Answer: C
227. The properties of fluid at stagnation in state
are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stagnation property
Stagnation phase
Stagnation state
Stagnation vapor
Ans. C. the ambient pressure
230. A system composed of ice and water at 0ºC
is said to be _______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
a multiphase material
in thermodynamic equilibrium
in thermal equilibrium
all of the above
Ans. D. all of the above
231. The heat of fusion of a pure substance is:
E. the change in phase from solid to
gas
F. the change in phase from liquid to
gas
G. the energy released in a chemical
reaction
H. the energy required to melt the
substance
Ans. D. the energy required to melt the
substance
Answer: C
228. All of the following are thermodynamic
properties except_____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere
temperature
pressure
density
modulus of elasticity
Ans. D. modulus of elasticity
229. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure
equals.
A. the gage pressure
B. the critical pressure
232. The heat of vaporization involves the
change in enthalpy due to:
E. the change in phase is from solid
to gas
F. the change in phase in phase from
liquid to gas
G. the energy released in a chemical
reaction
H. the change in phase from solid to
liquid
Ans. B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
233. The sublimation involves the change in
enthalpy due to:
A. the change in phase from solid to gas
B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical
reaction
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid
Ans. A. the change in phase from solid to gas
Ans. A. subcooled liquid
237. If a substance temperature is equal to its
saturation temperature, the substance is a
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
subcooled liquid
wet vapor
saturated liquid and vapor
superheated vapor
Ans. C. saturated liquid and vapor
234. a specific property
A. defines a specific variable (e.g.,
temperature)
B. is independent of mass
C. is an extensive property multiplied by
mass
D. is dependent of the phase of the
substance
Ans. A. defines a specific variable (e.g.,
temperature)
238. if a substance temperature is greater than
the saturation temperature, the substance is a
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
subcooled liquid
wet vapor
saturated vapor
superheated vapor
Ans. D. superheated vapor
239. Critical properties refer to
A. extremely important properties, such as
temperature and pressure
235. A material’s specific heat can be defined
as;
A. the ratio of heat required to change the
temperature of mass by a change in
temperature.
B. being different for constant pressure and
constant temperature processes.
C. a function of temperature.
D. all of the above
Ans.all of the above
236. if a substance temperature is less than its
saturation temperature , the substance is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
subcooled liquid
wet vapor
saturated vapor
superheated vapor
a. heat required for phase change and
important for energy production
b. property values where liquid and gas
phase are indistinguishable
c. properties having to do with equilibrium
conditions, such as the Gibbs and
Helmholtz
Ans. D. property values where liquid and gas
phase are indistinguishable
240. for a saturated vapor, the relationship
between temperature and pressure is given by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the perfect gas law
Van der Waal’s equation
the steam stable
a Viral equation of state
Ans. C. the steam stable
241. Properties of a superheated vapor are
given by:
245. Which of the following is the best definition
of enthalpy?
A. the perfect gas law
B. a superheated table
C. a one to one relationship, such as the
properties of saturated steam
D. a Viral equation state
A. The ratio of heat added to the
temperature increases in a system
B. The amount of useful energy in a system
C. The amount of energy no longer
available to the system.
D. The heat required to cause a complete
conversion between two phases at a
constant temperature
Ans. B. a superheated table
242. Properties of non-reacting gas mixture are
given by:
A. geometric weighting
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular
weight and density, and geometric
weighting for all other properties except
entropy.
D. arithmetic average
Ans. volumetric weighting for molecular weight
and density, and geometric weighting for all
other properties except entropy.
243. The relationship between the total volume
of a mixture of non-reacting gases and their
partial volume is given by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
gravimetric fractions
Amagat’s law
Dalton’s law
mole fractions
Ans. B. Amagat’s law
244. The relationship between the total pressure
of a mixture of non-reacting gases and the
partial pressures of constituents is given by:
Ans. B. The amount of useful energy in the
system.
246. Which of the following statements is not
true for real gases?
A. Molecules occupy a volume not
negligible in comparison to the total
volume of gas
B. Real gases are subjected to attractive
forces between molecules (e.g. Van der
Waal’s forces)
C. The law of corresponding states may be
used for real gases
D. Real gases are found only rarely in
nature
Ans. D. Real gases ate found only rarely in
nature
247. The stagnation of state is called the
isentropic stagnation state when the stagnation
process is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
reversible as well dynamic
isotropic
adiabatic
reversible as well as adiabatic
Ans. D. Reversible as well as adiabatic
A.
B.
C.
D.
gravimetric fractions
volumetric fractions
Dalton’s law
mole fractions
Ans. Dalton’s Law
248. The entropy of a fluid remains constant
during what process?
A. polytropic stagnation process
B. unsteady stagnation process
C. combustion process
D. isentropic stagnation process
253. Adiabatic heat transfer within a vapor cycle
refers to:
Ans. D. Isentropic stagnation process
249. All of the following process are irreversible
except.
A. stirring a viscous fluid
B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving
perfect fluid.
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas
D. phase changes
Ans. B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving
perfect fluid
250. All of the following
irreversible except.
processes are
A. chemical reactions
B. diffusion
C. current flow through an electrical
resistance.
D. an isentropic compression of a perfect
gas.
A. Heat transfer that is atmospheric bit not
reversible
B. The transfer of energy from one stream
to another in a heat exchanger so that the
energy of the input streams equals the of
the output streams.
C. Heat transfer that is reversible but not
isentropic
D. There is no such thing as adiabatic heat
transfer
Ans. B. The transfer of energy from one stream
to another in a heat exchanger so that the
energy of the input streams equals the of the
output streams.
254. Which of the following gives polytropic
under n?
A.
Ans. D
B.
251. all of the following processes are
irreversible except:
C.
A.
B.
C.
D.
magnetization with hysteresis
elastic tension and release of a steel bar
inelastic deformation
heat conduction
Ans. B. elastic tension and release of a steel bar
252. Which of the following state(s) is/are
necessary for a system to be in thermodynamic
equilibrium.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chemical equilibrium
Thermal equilibrium
Mechanical equilibrium
Chemical, mechanical,
equilibrium
and
thermal
Ans. D. Chemical, mechanical, and thermal
equilibrium
D.
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Ans. A.
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255. The work done in an adiabatic process in a
system:
A. Is equal to the change in total energy in a
closed system
B. is equal to the net heat transfer plus the
entropy change
C. is equal to the change in total energy of
closed system plus the entropy change
D. is equal to the change in total energy of
closed system plus net heat transfer
Ans. D. is equal to the change in total energy of
closed system plus net heat transfer
256. Based on the first law of thermodynamics,
which the following is wrong?
A. the heat transfer equals the work plus
energy change
B. the heat transfer cannot exceed the work
done
C. the net transfer equal the net work of the
cycle
D. the net heat transfer equals the energy
change if no work done.
Ans. B. the heat transfer cannot exceed the
work done
257. Assuming real processes, the net entropy
change in the universe:
A.
B.
C.
D.
must be calculated
equals zero
is negative
is positive
Ans. D. is positive
258. Which of the following types of flowmeters
is most accurate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Venturi tube
Pitot tube
Flow nozzle
Foam type
Ans. B. Pitot tube
259. What is referred by control volume?
A.
B.
C.
D.
an isolated system
closed system
fixed region in space
reversible process only
Ans. C. fixed region in space
260. What is the most efficient thermodynamics
cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carnot
Diesel
Rankine
Brayton
Ans. A. Carnot
261. How do you treat a statement that is
considered scientific law?
A. We postulate to be true
B. Accept as a summary of experimental
observation
C. We generally observed to be true
D. Believe to be derived from mathematical
theorem
Ans. B. Accept as a summary of experimental
observation
262. An instrument commonly used in most
research and engineering laboratories because
it is small and fast among the other
thermometers.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mercury thermometer
Liquid-in-glass thermometer
Gas thermometer
Thermocouple
Ans. D. Thermocouple
263. In an actual gases, the molecular collisions
are
A.
B.
C.
D.
plastic
elastic
inelastic
in plastic
264. Which of the following is used in thermal
power plant?
A. Brayton
B. Reversed Carnot
C. Rankine
D. Otto
Ans. C
265. The elongation and compression of a
helical spring is an example of
A.
B.
C.
D.
irreversible process
reversible process
isothermal process
adiabatic process
Ans. B. reversible process
266. Otto cycle consist of
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant
pressure processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal
processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
Ans. A. Two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle
Ans. B. Joule cycle
269. A steam nozzle changes
A.
B.
C.
D.
kinetic energy into heat energy
heat energy into potential energy
heat energy into kinetic energy
potential energy into heat energy
Ans. C. heat energy into kinetic energy
270. The pitot tube is a device used for
measurement of
A.
B.
C.
D.
pressure
flow
velocity
discharge
Ans. C. velocity
271. The continuity equation is applicable to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Viscous, unviscous fluids
Compressibility of fluids
Conservation of mass
Steady, unsteady flow
Ans. C. Conservation of mass
267. Brayton cycle has
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant
pressure processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant
volume and two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume
and one constant pressure processes
Ans. B. Two isentropic and two constant
pressure processes
268. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed
A. Stirling cycle
272. The work done by a force of R Newton’s
moving in a distance of L meters is converted
entirely into kinetic energy and expressed by the
equation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
RL=2MV2
RL= 2MV
RL=1/2 MV2
RL=1/2 MV
Ans. C. RL=1/2 MV2
273. Gas being heated at constant volume is
undergoing the process of:
A. isentropic
B. adiabatic
C. isometric
D. isobaric
Ans. C. isometric
274. Dew point is defined as
A. The temperature to which the air must be
cooled at constant pressure to produce
saturation
B. The point where the pressure and
temperature lines meet
C. The temperature which dew is formed in
the air
D. The pressure which dew is formed in the
air.
Ans. A. The temperature to which the air must
be cooled at constant pressure to produce
saturation
275. What do you call the changing of an atom
of element into an atom of a different element
with a different atomic mass?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomization
Atomic transmutation
Atomic pile
Atomic energy
Ans. A. Dehydrator
278. What condition exist in an adiabatic
throttling process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enthalpy is variable
Enthalpy is constant
Entropy is constant
Specific volume is constant
Ans. B. Enthalpy is constant
279. The specific gravity of a substance is the
ratio of its density to the density of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
mercury
gas
air
water
Ans. D. water
280. A compound pressure gauge is used to
measure:
A.
B.
C.
D.
complex pressure
variable pressure
compound pressure
positive and negative pressure
Ans. D. positive and negative pressure
Ans. B. Atomic transmutation
281. Isentropic flow is
276. What do you call the weight of the column
of air above the earth’s surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air pressure
Aerostatic pressure
Wind pressure
Atmospheric pressure
Ans. D. Atmospheric pressure
277. What keeps the moisture from passing
through the system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dehydrator
Aerator
Trap
Humidifier
A.
B.
C.
D.
perfect gas law
ideal fluid flow
frictionless reversible flow
reversible adiabatic flow
Ans. D. reversible adiabatic flow
282. Under ideal conditions, isothermal,
isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
dynamic processes
stable processes
quasi-static processes
static processes
Ans. C. quasi-static processes
283. One watt is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1Nm/s
1Nm/ min.
1Nm/ hr
1kNm/s
Water
Electricity
Steam
Air
Ans. D. Air
Ans. A. 1Nm/s
284. A temperature above which a given gas
cannot be liquefied:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cryogenic temperature
Vaporization temperature
Absolute temperature
Critical temperature
A. Nitrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: B
Ans. D. Critical temperature
285. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal
radiator at a given temperature
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorptivity
Emissivity
Conductivity
Reflectivity
Ans. B. Emissivity
286. Which of the following occurs in a
reversible polytropic process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enthalpy remains constant
Internal energy does not change
Some heat transfer occurs
Entropy remains constant
Ans. C. Some heat transfer occurs
287. The instrument used
atmospheric pressure is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
289. which of the following gasses can be used
to measure the lowest temperature?
to
measure
Rotator
Manometer
Venturi
Barometer
Ans. D. Barometer
288. A pneumatic tool is generally powered by
290. The triple point of a substance is the
temperature and pressure at which:
A. The solid and liquid phase are in
equilibrium
B. The solid and gaseous phase are in
equilibrium
C. The solid liquid and gaseous phases are
in the equilibrium
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does
not boil and the gas does not condense
Ans: D
291. Which of the following relations is not
applicable in a free expansion process?
A. Heat rejected is zero
B. Work done is zero
C. Change in temperature is zero
D. Heat supplied is zero
Ans: C
292. Ericsson cycle has
A. Two isothermal and two constant
pressure processes
B. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy
process
D. Two adiabatic, one constant volume and
constant pressure process
Ans: A
293. A stirling cycle has
A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume
process
B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure
processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant
pressure processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
Ans: D
294. The temp of the fluid flowing under
pressure through a pipe is usually measured by:
A. A glass thermometer
B. An electric resistance thermometer
C. A thermocouple
D. All of the above
Ans: D
295. Specific heat capacity is an SI delivered
unit describe as
A. J/kg
B. W/mK
C. kJ/kgK
D. J/m
Ans: C
296. Which of the following is mathematically a
thermodynamic property?
A. A point function
B. Discontinuous
C. A path function
D. Exact differential
Ans: A
297. When the expansion or compression of gas
takes place “without transfer of heat” to or from
the gas, the process is called:
A. Reversible
B. Adiabatic
C. Polytropic
D. Isothermal
Ans: B
298. Another name for liquid valve is :
A. Freon valve
B. Shut-off valve
C. King valve
D. Master valve
Ans: C
299. A liquid whose temperature is lower than
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure:
A. Subcooled liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Pure liquid
D. Compressed liquid
Ans: A
300. The law that state “Entropy of all perfect
crystalline solid is zero at absolute zero
temperature”:
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Ans: D
301. What should be the temperature of both
water and steam whenever they present
together?
A. Saturation temperature for the existing
pressure
B. Boiling point of water at 101.325 kPa
C. Super heated temperature
D. One hundred degrees centigrade
Ans: A
302. A manometer is an instrument that is used
to measure:
A. Air pressure
B. Heat radiation
C. Condensate water level
D. Air volume
Ans: A
303. What is the area under curve of a
temperature entropy diagram?
A. Volume
B. Heat
C. Work
D. Entropy
Ans: B
304. What do bodies at a temperature above
absolute zero emit?
A. Energy
B. Heat of convection
C. Thermal radiation
D. Heat of compression
Ans: C
305. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a
thermoelectric generator, a device that
incorporates both thermal and electric effects,
will have the efficiency of a/an
A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Diesel cycle
D. Rankine cycle
Ans: A
B. External combustion engines
C. Carnot engines
D. Brayton engines
Ans: B
307. Nozzle does not involve any work
interaction. The fluid through this device
experiences:
A. No change in potential energy
B. No change in kinetic energy
C. No change in enthalpy
D. Vacuum
Ans: A
308. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka
and Ki is the maximum valve that can be
attained by an isentropic expansion from an
initial to final state, then the efficiency of the
nozzle is:
A. Ki/Ka
B. Ka-Ki/ Ka
C. Ka-Ki/ Ki
D. Ka/Ki
Ans: D
309. The convergent section of a nozzle
increases the velocity of the flow of the gas.
What does it to do on its pressure?
A. Pressure become constant
B. Pressure equal the velocity
C. It increases the pressure
D. It decreases the pressure
Ans: D
310. I a close vessel, when vaporization takes
place, the temperature rises. Due to the rising
temperature, the pressure increases until an
equilibrium
established
between
the
temperature and pressure. The temperature of
equilibrium is called______.
306. Both Stirling and Ericson engine are
A. Internal combustion engines
A. Dew point
B. Ice point
C. Boiling point
D. Super heated temperature
Ans: C
311. At steam point, the temperature of water
and its vapor at standard pressure are:
A. Extremes or maximum
B. Unity
C. In equilibrium
D. Undefined
Ans: C
312. When hot soup was served in a cup during
dinner, an engineer was so eager to drink it.
Since it was hot, he added cubes ice to cool the
soup and stirred it. He notice the dew starts to
form on the outermost surface of the cup. He
wanted to check the temperature of the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this
temperature equal to?
A. Superheated temperature
B. Equal to zero
C. Standard temperature
D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature
Ans: D
B. Specific weight
C. Viscosity
D. Density
Ans: C
315. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
tube in turbine?
A. Below atmospheric
B. Above atmospheric
C. Atmospheric
D. Vacuum
Ans: C
316. When changes in kinetic energy of a
compressed gas are negligible or insignificant,
the work input to an adiabatic compressor
is___________.
A. Negligible
B. Zero
C. Infinity
D. Equal to change in enthalpy
Ans: D
317. what is the area under the curve of a
pressure volume diagram?
313. What do you call the conversion
technology that yields electricity straight from
sun light without the aid of a working substance
like gas or steam without the use of any
mechanical cycle?
A. Nonflow work
B. Steady flow work
C. Heat
D. Power
Ans: A
A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
Ans: D
318. In Stirling and Ericson cycle, regeneration
can
314. Which of the following property of liquid
extend resistance to angular or shear
deformation?
A. Specific gravity
A. Increase efficiency
B. Decrease efficiency
C. Control efficiency
D. Limit efficiency
Ans: A
319. The first law of the thermodynamics is
based on which of the following principle?
A. Conservation of mass
B. Enthalpy-entropy relationship
C. Entropy-temperature relationship
D. Conservation of energy
Ans: D
320. In a two-phase system, 30% moisture
means
A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
Ans: B
A. 1 Joule
B. 1 Btu
C. 1 Calorie
D. 1 Ergs
Ans: A
325. Which of the following is the instrument
used to measure fluid velocity?
A. Pitot tube
B. Orsat apparatus
C. Anemometer
D. Viscosimeter
Ans: A
326. Cryogenic temperature ranges from:
321. At 101.325 kPa, the boiling point of water
is 100C. If the pressure is decrease, the boiling
temperature will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Drop to zero
Ans: B
322. Which of the following is equivalent to 1 hp
in btu/hr?
A. 778
B. 2545
C. 746
D. 3.41
Ans: B
323. What is the pressure above zero?
A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Vacuum pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
Ans: A
A. -150F to -359F
B. -250F to -459F
C. -100F to -300F
D. -200F to _400F
Ans: B
327. Steam at 2 kPa is saturated at 17.5C. In
what state will the state be at 40c if the pressure
is 2 kPa?
A. Superheated
B. Saturated
C. Subcooled
D. Supersaturated
Ans: A
328. Acceleration is proportional to force.
A. Newtons law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Law of gravitation
D. Theory of relativity
Ans: A
329. Which of the following could be defined as
simply push and pull?
324. One Newton-meter is equal to
A. Power
B. Inertia
C. Work
D. Force
Ans: D
330. the true pressure measured above a
perfect vacuum is:
temperature and the properties of the material,
composing the radiating body.
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
Ans: B
A. Absolute pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Gauge pressure
D. Vacuum pressure
Ans: A
335. For bodies in thermal equilibrium with their
environment, the ratio of total emissive power to
the absorptivity is constant at any temperature.
331. if an initial volume of an ideal gas is
compressed to one-half its original volume and
to twice its original temperature, the pressure:
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
Ans: C
A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Quadruplets
D. Triples
Ans: C
332. When the expansion or compression of gas
takes place without transfer of heat to or from
the gas, the process is called:
Chapter 2: FUELS AND COMBUSTION
1. Which is not a viscosity rating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Redwood
SSU
Centipoise
Entropy Degrees API
A. Isometric process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isobaric process
D. Adiabatic process
Ans: D
Answer: D
333. A body radiates heat proportional to the
fourth power of its absolute temperature:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
Ans: A
334. All substances emit radiation, the quantity
and quality of which depends upon the absolute
2. Percent excess air is the difference between
the air actually supplied and the theoretically
required divided by
The theoretically air supplied
The actually air supplied
The deficiency of air supplied
The sufficient air supplied
Answer: A
3. What is the apparatus used in the analysis of
combustible gases?
A. Calorimeter differential
B. Calorimeter gas
C. Calorimetry
D. Calorimeter
D. Carbon residue
Answer: D
8. What kind of bonding do ommon gasses that
exist in free state as diatomic molecules
experiences
4. Percent excess air is the difference between
the air actually supplied and the theoretical air
divided by
A.
B.
C.
D.
The sufficient air supplied
The deficiency air supplied
The actually air supplied
The theoretically air supplied
Answer: A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds
Metallic bonds
Nuclear bonds
Answer: B
Answer: D
9. An Orsat’s apparatus is used for
5. The viscosity of most commercially available
petroleum lubricating oil changes rapidly above
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
120 °F
180 °F
150 °F
130 °F
Volumetric analysis of the flue gas
Gravimetric analysis of the flue gas
Smoke density analysis of the flue gas
All of the above
Answer: A
6. When 1 mol carbon combines with 1 mol
oxygen
10. A theorem that states that the total property
of a mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the
properties that the individual gases would have
each occupied the total mixture volume alone as
the same temperature.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
2 mols carbon dioxide
1 mol carbon dioxide
1 mol carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide
1 mol carbon dioxide
Gibbs theorem
Dalton’s theorem
Boltzmann theorem
Maxwell’s theorem
Answer: B
Answer: A
7. What are the immediate undesirable
products from the petroleum based lubricating
oil when subjected to high pressure and
temperature
11. A small enough particles suspended in a
fluid will exhibit small random movements due
to the statistical collision of the fluid molecules
on the particle’s surface. This motion is called
______.
A. Gums, resins and acids
B. Sulfur
C. Soots and ashes
A. Boltzmann motion
B. Rectilinear motion
C. Kinetic gas motion
D. Brownian motion
Answer: C
Answer: D
16. Which of the following chemical reactions in
which heat is absorbed?
12. When two or more light atoms have sufficient
energy (available only at high temperatures and
velocities) to fuse together to form a heavier
nucleus the process is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
Fusion
Fission
The photoelectric effect
The compton effect
Heat reaction
Endothermic reaction
Exothermic reaction
Combustion reaction
17. A chemical reaction in which heat is given off
Answer: A
13. What is the residue left after combustion of a
fossil fuel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat reaction
Endothermic reaction
Exothermic reaction
Combustion reaction
Answer: C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Charcoal
Ash
Scraper
All of the choices
18. A colorless, odorless mixture if nitrogen and
oxygen with traces of other gases water vapor
and same impurities
Answer: B
14. What is formed during
combustion of carbon in fuels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
incomplete
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Oxygenated fuel
Answer: B
15. A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil
and cannot be found in the flue gases is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air
Helium
Water gas
Nitrite
Answer: A
19. The transfer of air and air characteristics by
horizontal motion is called ______.
A. Convection
B. Air transfer
C. Advection
D. Adhesion
Answer: C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide
20. Properties of non – reacting mixtures are
given by
A. Geometric weighting
B. Volumetric weighting
C. Volumetric weighting or molecular weight
and density and geometric weighting for all
other properties except entropy
D. Arithmetic average
B. Chemically correct air – fuel ratio by weight
C. Theoretical mixture of air for complete
combustion
D. Actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum
efficiency
Answer: C
Answer: B
21. The process of separating two or more
liquids by means of the difference in their boiling
point
25. A type of radiation consisting of singly
charged particles that generate to intermediate
distances.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Engler distillation
Fractional distillation
Gas scrubbing
Fractional crystallization
Nuclear radiation
Alpha radiation
Beta radiation
Gamma radiation
Answer: B
Answer: C
22. The gaseous products of combustion of a
boiler which contains carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor is
called ____.
26. The increase in velocity past the throat is
due to the rapid decrease in the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flue gas
Producer gas
Product gas
Universal gas
Answer: A
23. A substance whose burning with oxygen
yields heat energy such as coal, petroleum and
natural gas.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air
Fluid
Fuel
Gas
Answer: C
24. Stoichiometric ratio is
A. Chemically correct air – fuel ratio by volume
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluid density
Fluid specific volume
Fluid temperature
Fluid pressure
Answer: A
27. In an oxidation – reduction chemical
reaction, all of the following occur except:
A. The exchange of electrons between
elements
B. Elements becoming more positive
C. Elements becoming more negative
D. Nuclear fusion
Answer: D
28. The residual oil left after the distillation of
gasoline and kerosene from crude petroleum;
yellow to brown oil, used as a diesel fuel and for
enriching water gas.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diesel oil
Gasoline oil
LPG
Gas oil
Answer: D
29. A fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal is called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas scrub
Coal gas
Alcogas
Water gas
Answer: B
30. Removing of impurities from a gas by
bubbling it through a liquid purifying agent is
called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas scrubbing
Gas purifying
Gas liquefying
Gas bubbling
Answer: A
31. During the fusion process, mass is lost and
converted to energy according to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Heisenburg uncertainty principle
The Compton’s law
Einstein’s law
The second law of thermodynamics
Answer: C
32. A finely divided carbon deposit by he smoke
or flame is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fly ash
Soot
Residue
All of the choices
Answer: B
33. Rare gases such as helium, argon, kypton,
xenon and radon that are non – reactive are
called _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Non – reactants
Stop gases
Inert gases
Residual gases
Answer: C
34. Kinematics and dynamic viscosity vary from
each other only by a factor equal to the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fluid density
Temperature
Pressure
Specific gas constant
Answer: A
35. The following properties are different for
isomers of the same chemical compound
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Density
Melting point
Number of atoms in a mole of each isomers
Specific heat
Answer: C
36. Atomic weights of the elements in the
periodic table are not whole numbers because
of:
A. The existence of isotopes
B. Imprecise measurements during the
development of the periodic table
C. Round – off error in calculating atomic
weights
D. The exchange of reference of the atomic
mass unit from oxygen – 16 to carbon – 12 in
1961
D. Le Chatelier’s principle
Answer: A
41. What fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal?
37. The tendency of a pure compound to be
composed of the same elements combined in a
definite proportion by mass
A.
B.
C.
D.
Avogadro’s law
Boyle’s law
The law of definite proportions
Le Chatelier’s principle
Answer: C
38. How do you call the process of removing of
impurities from a gas by bubbling it through a
liquid purifying agent?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas scrubbing
Gas purifying
Gas liquefying
Gas bubbling
Answer: A
39. What is the effect of a catalyst in a chemical
reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorb the exothermic heat of reaction
Provide the exothermic heat of reaction
Lower the activation energy
Provide the heat of sublimation
Answer: C
40. The relationship between the concentration
of products and reactants in a reversible
chemical reaction given by
A. The ionization constant
B. The equilibrium constant
C. The solubility product
Answer: B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gas scrub
Coal gas
Alcogas
Water gas
Answer: B
42. The process of splitting the nucleus into
smaller fragments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fusion
Fission
The photoelectric effect
The Compton effect
Answer: B
43. The ash that is removed from the combustor
after the fuel is burn is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fly ash
Bottom ash
Scrapper ash
Top ash
Answer: B
44. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
made by passing steam over hot coke.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Water gas
Water vapor
Hydrocarbon
Air
Answer: A
45. All of the following are true of non –
stoichiometric reactions except
A. There is an excess of one or more reactants
B. The percentage yield measures the
efficiency of the reaction
C. Non – stoichiometric reactions are rare in the
combustion process
D. In combustion, air is often the excess
reactant to assure complete combustion of fuel
Answer: C
46. It is the ratio of the volume at the end of heat
addition to the volume at the start of heat
addition
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compression ration
Air fuel ratio
Volumetric ratio
Cut – off ratio
Answer: D
47. Piston rings are made of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Alloy steel
Carbon steel
Copper
Cast iron
Answer: D
48. Loss power is due to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Poor compression
Restricted exhaust
Clogging of air cleaner
Low injection pressure
A. Exhaust nozzle
B. Exhaust deflection pipe
C. Exhaust pipe
D. Exhaust manifold
Answer: D
50. The type of filter where the filtering elements
is replaceable
A.
B.
C.
D.
Paper edge filter
Metal edge filter
Pressure filter
Filter with element
Answer: B
51. When four events takes place in one
revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the
engine is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rotary engine
Steam engine
Two stroke engine
Four stroke engine
Answer: C
52. Which of the following does not belong to the
group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air injection system
Mechanical injection system
Time injection system
Gas admission system
Answer: C
53. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit
described as:
Answer: D
49. A branch system of pipes to carry waste
emissions away from the piston chambers of an
internal combustion engine is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
J/kg
W/m °K
J/m3
J/kg °K
Answer: B
Answer: D
54. A device whose primary function is to meter
the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sniffer valve
Equalizer
Thermostatic expansion valve
Crossover valve
58. The general chemical formula of a paraffin
fuel is
A.
B.
C.
D.
CnH2n
CnH2n-6
CnH2n+2
CnH2n-2
Answer: C
Answer: C
55. The internal combustion engines never work
in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rankine cycle
Diesel cycle
Dual combustion cycle
Otto cycle
Answer: A
56. The general chemical formula for all
hydrocarbons is CnHm. In different combinations
of interest, as internal combustion engine fuel, n
varies from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 26
2 to 54
2 to 26
1 to 54
59. Napthenes and olefins are types
hydrocarbons with chemical formula of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
of
CnH2n
CnH2n-6
CnH2n+2
CnH2n-2
Answer: A
60. Which of the following types of hydrocarbons
have chemical formula of CnH2n-2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diolefins
Aromatics
Asphaltics
Paraffins
Answer: A
Answer: A
61. Which of the following types of
hydrocarbons have the chemical formula,
CnH2n-4?
57. The general chemical formula for all
hydrocarbons is CnHm. In different combinations
of interest, as internal combustion engine fuel,
m varies from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
Answer: C
1 to 26
2 to 54
2 to 26
1 to 54
Diolefins
Aromatics
Asphatics
Paraffins
62. What is the chemical formula of an Aromatic
type of hydrocarbon fuels?
A. CnH2n-6
B. CnH2n-2
C. CnH2n
D. CnH2n+2
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
63. At atmospheric condition, hydrocarbon
molecules with a low number of carbon atoms,
1 to 4 are…
A.
B.
C.
D.
Liquids
Atomic
Gases
Light oils
more or less volatile light oils
referred to as Heavy oils
mixtures of many kinds of hydrocarbons
commercial fuels
A.
B.
C.
D.
valve tappet clearance incorrect
valve springs of defective material
valve guides gummed
lubricating oil of poor quality
A.
B.
C.
D.
early timing of fuel injection
late timing of fuel injection
head of piston carbonized
valve springs weak of broken
Answer: B.
Answer: A
65. Hydrocarbons with 16 to 26 carbon atoms
are referred to as:
light oils
heavy oils
commercial oils
lubricating oils
70. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine
with fixed compression ratio and fixed quantity
of heat and with increase in pressure ratio, will…
A.
B.
C.
D.
increase
remain the same
decrease
depends of other factors
Answer: A.
Answer: B
25o
66. In a four-stroke engine, if a valve opens
before B.D.C. and close 10o after T.D.C. the
valves should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
68. Sticking valves
69. Detonation of pinging noise is due to:
64. Hydrocarbons with 5 to 15 carbon atoms
are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: C
A.
B.
C.
D.
mass rate of flow
pressure
velocity of flow
all of the above
puppet valve
exhaust valve
inlet valve
spring valve
Answer: B
67. In a hot wire anemometer , the rate of heat
loss form the sensing element is a function of:
71. Scavenging efficiency of a four stroke diesel
engine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
in the range 80-95 percent
in the range 60-80 percent
below 60 percent
between 95% and 100%
Answer: D.
72. Volumetric efficiency of a well-designed
engine may be in the range of:
A. 75 to 90 percent
B. 60 to 75 percent
C. 30 to 50 percent
D. below 30 percent
Answer: A
73. During idling in a compression ignition
engine, the air fuel ratio may be of the order of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
30
200
150
100
.
74. Vapor lock is:
A. lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric
pressure
B. excess fuel supply to the engine because
of faster evaporation
C. complete or partial stoppage of fuel
supply because of vaporization of fuel in
supply steam
D. locking carburetor jets because of vapor
pressure.
Answer: C
75. Flash point of liquids is the temperature at
which:
A. the fuel emits vapors at a rate which
produces an inflammable mixture of air.
B. the fuel spontaneous ignites
C. the fuel ignites with clearly vicible flash
D. the fuel ignites without a spark
Answer: A
76. The mean effective pressure of a diesel
cycle having fixed compression ratio will
increase if cut-off ratio is:
increased
decreased
independent of compression ratio
depends on other factors
Answer: A.
A. do not exist in engines
B. are the hottest spots in engines
C. are the spots where heavier functions of
fuel are vaporized
D. are the defects in SI engines.
Answer: C.
Answer: A
A.
B.
C.
D.
77. Hot spots:
78. Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
maximum 49oC
Maximum 49oC
maximum 200oC
maximum 300oC
Answer: A
79. Morse test is conducted on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
single-cylinder engines
multi-cylinder engines
horizontal engines
vertical engines
Answer: B.
80. Prony brake test is used for testing of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
small engines
large engines
engines having small flywheel
high speed engines
Answer: A
81. Clog point of oil refer to:
A. the point of maximum contamination of oil
B. the level of impurities beyond which oil
causes to flow
C. the temperature at which oil solidifies
D. the temperature at which paraffin and
waxes in oil start precipitating
Answer: D.
82. Otto cycle consists of
A. two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal
processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
Answer: A
83. Diesel cycle consists of:
A. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume,
constant pressure process
B. two constant volume, one constant
pressure and one isothermal processes
C. two isentropic, one constant volume and
one constant pressure processes
D. two constant pressure, one constant
volume and one isentropic processes
B. piston pin
C. cam
D. crank
Answer: D
87. To measure the clearance between the
valve and tappet of an automobile engine, we
use a __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
88. By supercharging:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C.
84. Which is not correct for calculating air
standard efficiency?
vernier scale
feeler gauge
pneumatic gauge
slip gauge
power stroke becomes stronger
loss in exhaust gets reduced
engine can be made to run smoother
thermal efficiency of the engine can be
improved
Answer: D
89. Speedometer drive is generally takes from:
A. all processes are reversible
B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all
temperatures
C. No account of the mechanism of heat
transfer is considered
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
Answer: D.
85. The king pin inclination is generally:
A.
B.
C.
D.
less than 0.5”
between 1” and 2”
between 2” and 5”
more than 9”
Answer: C
86. For balancing a single cylinder engine, a
counter weight is added to the:
A. piston
A.
B.
C.
D.
dynamo
flywheel
fan belt
front wheel
Answer: D
90. Odometer is:
A. an instrument that indicates the condition
of the battery
B. an instrument used for measurement of
fuel consumption
C. an
instrument
used
for
BHP
measurement
D. an instrument used for distance
measurement
Answer: D.
91. Automobile radiator is filled with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
acidic water
alkaline water
hard water
soft water
Answer: B
97. The device that is used for reducing the
exhaust noise is called__________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D.
92. The ignition coil acts as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
a capacitor
an inductor
an RC circuit
step up transformer
Answer: C
Answer: D
93. The self-starting motor for automobiles is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
98. The device that is used to measure the
clearance between the valve and tappet of an
internal combustion engine is measured by
using:
A.
B.
C.
D.
universal motor
DC shunt motor
DC series motor
synchronous motor
Snap gauge
slip gauge
feeler gauge
micrometer
Answer: C
Answer: C.
99. Which of the following instrument is used in
measuring specific gravity?
94. Starting motor current may be about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
exhaust manifold
exhaust pipe
muffler
none of the above
0.15A
0.5A
5.1A
25A
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thermometer
Hygrometer
Anemometer
Hydrometer
Answer: D
Answer: D
95. As a rule before the pistons are removed, it
is essential to remove the:
100. Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling
system is most likely to occur because of a
defective:
A.
B.
C.
D.
gudgeon pin
high speed and worn engine
short trips and cold weather
frequent oil changes
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
96. Common causes
consumption include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
for
excessive
heavy oil and light bearings
high speed and worn engines
short trips and cold weather
frequent oil changes
oil
cylinder head gasket
manifold gasket
water pump
any of the above
Answer: A
101. Clutch slippage while clutch is engaged is
especially noticeable __________.
A. during idling
B. at low speed
C. during acceleration
D. during braking
Answer: C
102. To engage securely and prevent dragging
the clearance between release bearing and
release collar in a clutch is generally.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2-3mm
10-12mm
20-22mm
30-32mm
Answer: A
103. Gudgeon pins are made of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
same material as that of piston
cast iron
hardened and ground steel
none of these
Answer: D
104. Latex is:
A. a plastic
B. a cover on writes carrying current to
spark plugs
C. a variety of lubricant
D. a milky juice of rubber
Answer: D
105. Cross wire grooves on tires…
A. decrease the danger of skidding
B. absorb shocks because of road
unevenness
C. provide good traction
D. provide better load carrying capacity
Answer: B
106. The Diesel fuel pump is designed to supply
fuel
A. just sufficient against the demand of the
injection pump
B. in excess quantity than needed by the
injection pump
C. a constant quantity at all engine speeds
D. insufficient quantity in accordance with
the engine speed
Answer: D
107. The fuel is injected into the cylinder in
Diesel engine when the piston is:
A. exactly at BDC after compression cycle
B. exactly at TDC before compression
stroke
C. approaching
the
TDC
during
compression stroke
D. approaching BDC during exhaust stroke
Answer: C
108. In the cam, the distance between the base
circle and the noise is known as _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
flank
nose
lobe
lift
Answer: D
109. Dirt or gum in fuel nozzle or jets can
produce:
A.
B.
C.
D.
excessive fuel consumption
lack of engine power
smoky black exhaust
white exhaust
Answer: C
110. Oil pan is attached:
A. to the bottom of the cylinder block
B. in a separate unit away from the
crankcase
C. at the top of the cylinder block
D. at the outside wall of the crank case
Answer: A
Answer: A.
111. Excess oil consumption in engine may be
because of:
116. When not in use, the self-discharge of an
automobile battery in dry weather is generally:
A. leakage of oil through the oil pan gasket
B. poor quality or improper viscosity of
engine oil
C. excessive oil pressure
D. any of the above
Answer: D.
112. Wheel base of a vehicle is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
distance between front and rear axles
distance between the front tires
extreme length of the vehicle
width of tires
Answer: A
113. The percentage of heat released from fuelair ratio mixture in an internal combustion
engine which is converted into useful work is
roughly.
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 percent
10-20 percent
20-25 percent
40-45 percent
114. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
about 90 percent
60-80 percent
50-60 percent
40-50 percent
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5 to 1%
3 to 5%
5 to 7.5%
not more than 10%
Answer: A
117. A laminated glass on cracking:
A.
B.
C.
D.
bursts into sharp-edged fragments
bursts into granular pieces
sandwiched layer taps the fragments
breaks into the farm of crystals
Answer: C
118. Wax is applied on car body as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is it water repellent
it seals off the pores
the surface shines
any of the above
Answer: D
119. A spark voltage requires a voltage of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
112V
124V
220V
440V
Answer: C
120. The minimum cranking speed in petrol
engine is:
Answer: A
115. The instrument that is used to check the
state of charge of a battery is called a
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
hydrometer
battery charger
battery eliminator
anemometer
A.
B.
C.
D.
same as the normal operating speed
half of operating speed
one fourth of operating speed
60-80rpm
Answer: D
121. Which oil is more viscous?
A. SAE 30
B. SAE 50
C. SAE 80
D. SAE 40
Ans: D
127. The device for smoothing out the power
impulses from the engine is known as:
Ans: C.
122. Engine oil is changed generally changed
after:
A. 100 km
B. 1500 km
C. 1100 km
D. 2500 – 6000 km
Ans: D
123. The most probable cause for uneven wear
of tires for a truck is:
A. low tire pressure
B. excessive camber
C. tires overloaded
D. any of the above
Ans: D
124. In a vehicle the most probable cause for
hard steering may be:
A. low tire pressure
B. bent wheel spindle
C. tie rod ends tight
D. any of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
clutch
fly wheel
gear box
differential
Ans: B
128. The firing order in case of four cylinder inline engines is generally _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1-2-4-3
1-3-4-2
1-4-3-2
either B or C
Ans: D
129. In case of four cylinder opposed cylinder
engines, the firing order is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1-4-3-2
1-3-4-2
1-2-3-4
1-2-4-3
Ans: A
Ans: D
125. Poor compression in a two stroke engine
cannot be because of:
A. leaky valves
B. broken piston rings
C. leaking cylinder head gasket
D. poor fits between pistons, ringsand
cylinder
Answer: A
126. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V –
8 engine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
one
four
there is no exhaust manifold
two
130. In a four stroke engine, for the combustion
of one liter of fuel, the volume of air
needed would be approximately
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 cu. m
2 cu. m
5-7 cu. m
9-10 cu. m
Ans: D
132. Which of the following is the cause of loss
power?
A.
B.
C.
D.
poor compression
restricted exhaust
clogging of air cleaner
low injection pressure
Ans: D
138. In an Otto Engine, the heat is added during
133. A valve in the carburettor of an internal
combustion engine which regulates the
proportion of air gasoline vapors entering
the cylinder.
A.
B.
C.
D.
gate valve
choke valve
check valve
globe valve
Ans: B
134. What device contains air and fuel for
burning in cylinder?
A. intercooler
B. regenerator
C. fuel injection
D. carburettor
Ans: D
135. A passive restraint device consisting of
bags in front of the driver and the
passenger.
A.
B.
C.
D.
air buoy
air bag
air balloon
air duct
A.
B.
C.
D.
isothermal process
isometric process
isobaric process
isentropic process
Ans: B
139. Exhaust stroke of gasoline engine is also
known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
supercharging
choking
scavenging
knocking
Ans: C
140. The mechanical efficiency of a devices the
ratio of the
A. the mechanical energy input to the
mechanical energy output of the device
B. idea energy input to the actual energy
input
C. actual energy extracted to the ideal
energy extracted
D. actual to the ideal energy input
Ans: B
Ans: B
136. The heat exchanger used in an Ericsson
cycle is:
A. regenerator
B. combustion chamber
C. intercooler
D. recuperator
Ans: D
137. In Sterling Engine, the heat is added during
A.
B.
C.
D.
isothermal process
isometric process
isobaric process
isentropic process
141. The smallest subdivision of an element
that can take place in a chemical reaction
is a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atom
Molecule
Electron
Proton
Ans: A
142. The smallest subdivision of a compound
that can exist in a natural state is a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atom
Molecule
Electron
Proton
Ans: A
Ans: B
143. Elements with different atomic weights
but the same atomic number are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isomers
Isotropes
Isotopes
Isobars
148. Which of the following is not a prefix used
in naming isomers?
A. Para
B. Meta
C. Cis
D. Bi
Ans: D
Ans: C
144. All of the following are characteristics of
metals except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
High Electrical Conductivities
Tendency To Form Positive Ions
Tendency To Form Brittle Ions
High Melting Points
149. All of the following are types of chemical
bonds except:
A. Ionic Bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic Bonds
D. Nuclear bonds
Ans: D
150.
Ans: C
145. The following are all characteristics of
nonmetals except
A. having little or no luster
B. appearing on the right end of the
periodic table
C. having low ductility
D. being reducing agents
Ans: D
146. Graduations in the properties of elements
to the next are less pronounced in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the lanthanide series
periods
groups
active metals
Ans: C
147. All of the following are components of a
chemical element except:
A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. ions
Ans: D
The equilibrium distance between
elements in an ionic bond is function of
all the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic Charge
Coordination Number
Atomic weight
Temperature
Ans: C
151. Which of the following statements is not
a characteristic of ionic compounds?
A. They are usually hard, brittle,
crystalline solids
B. They have high melting points
C. They are non-volatile and have low
vapour pressures
D. They are good electrical conductors in
the solid phase
Ans: D
152. What kind of bonding do common gases
that exist in a free state as a diatomic
molecules experience?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds
Metallic bonds
Nuclear bonds
Ans: B
153. Measure the diffuser’s ability to increase
the pressure of the fluid is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
speed recovery factor
pressure recovery factor
volume recovery factor
diffuser recovery factor
Ans: B
154. A decrease in stagnation pressure will
decrease the max flux through the:
A. diverging nozzle
B. converging nozzle
C. converging – diverging nozzle
D. none of these
Ans: A
156. What is the main power generating plant
that produces the most electricity per unit
thermal energy in the fuel input and has
the greatest surplus of electricity for most
cogeneration system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steam engine
Steam turbine
Gas turbine
Diesel engine
D. Work required to raise a weight of 33,
000 lbs at a height of one foot in one
minute of time.
Ans: C
158. Average pressure on a surface when a
changing pressure condition exist
A.
B.
C.
D.
back pressure
partial pressure
pressure drop
mean effective pressure
Ans: D
159. What air pressure is needed for air
starting a diesel engine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
350 psi
250 psi
450 psi
150 psi
Ans: B
160.
Mechanical energy of pressure
transformed into energy of heat:
Ans: D
156. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine
depends on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
speed
compression ratio
fuel
torque
Ans: B
157. What is meant by brake horsepower?
A. Power developed in the engine cylinder
B. Final horsepower delivered to the
equipment
C. Actual horsepower delivered to the
engine drive shaft
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kinetic energy
Enthalpy
Heat Exchanger
Heat of compression
Ans: B
161. Ignition of the air-fuel mixture in the intake
of the exhaust manifold.
A. Backlash
B. Backfire
C. Exhaust Pressure
D. Back Pressure
Ans: B
162. The total sulphur content in a diesel fuel
must not exceed ___________.
A. 0.3 %
B. 0.5 %
C. 0.8 %
D. 0.11 %
B. Cetane number
C. Octane number
D. Diesel index
Ans: B
Ans: C
163. The sulphur content in a diesel fuel oil
must not exceed
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.2 %
0.5 %
0.15 %
0.1 %
169. Amount of heat liberated by the complete
combustion of a unit weight or volume of
fuel is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
heating value
latent heat
sensible heat
work of compression
Ans: B
Ans: A
165. There are two broad types in the
classification of lubricating oils, these are
straight and
A.
B.
C.
D.
active
inactive
crooked
additives
170. Air that controls the rate of combustion in
the combustion chamber is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
secondary air
excess air
control air
primary air
Ans: A
Ans: D
166. Most commercially available petroleum
lubricating oil deteriorates starting from
operating temperature of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
150 oF
200oF
300 oF
250 oF
Ans: B
167. An Orsat apparatus is used for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
volumetric analysis
gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
smoke density analysis of the gases
all of the above
Ans: A
168. The indicator used to determine the anti
– knock characteristics of gasoline.
A. Aniline point
171. Percentage of excess air is the difference
between the air actually supplied and the
theoretically required divided by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
actual air supplied
theoretical air supplied
theoretical less actual supplied
deficient air supplied
Ans: B
172. When fuel oil has a high viscosity then the
fuel oil
A. will evaporate easily
B. will have a low specific gravity
C. will burn without smoke
D. will flow slowly through pipes
Ans: D
173. Engines using heavy fuels require
heating of the fuel so that the viscosity at
the injector is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
around 200 SSU
100 SSU or less
200 SSU + 50
150 SSU or slightly higher
178. At what temperature where in an oil of
any grade becomes cloudy and it
freezes, thus its application is limited.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans: D
174. A gas produced by the combustion of fuel
oil and cannot be found in the flue gases
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbon di oxide
hydrogen
oxygen
nitrogen
Ans: A
179. Dry air can be approximated as ___%
oxygen and ___% nitrogen by mole
numbers.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans: B
175. Amount of heat liberated by the complete
combustion of a unit weight or volume of
fuel is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
heating value
latent heat
sensible heat
work of compression
180. When H2O in the products of combustion
is in liquid form, the heating value is
known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
176. The products of complete combustion of
gaseous hydrocarbons.
carbon di oxide and water
carbon monoxide
carbon monoxide, water and ammonia
Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
Ans: A
177. When the water in the products of
combustion is in the vapour state, the
heating value is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
lower heating value
higher heating value
gross calorific value
average heating value
Ans: A
30% and 70%
70% and 30%
21% and 79%
79% and 21%
Ans: C
Ans: A
A.
B.
C.
D.
cold point
flash point
Pour point
freezing point
higher heating value
lower heating value
low and medium heating value
average heating value
Ans: A
181.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flow of fluids wherein its particles do not
have definite paths and the paths of the
individual and distinct particles cross one
another is:
non- uniform flow
unsteady flow
laminar flow
turbulent flow
Answer: D
182.
If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is
known, the ratio between the nitrogen
and oxygen that is supplied in air is:
A. equal
B. constant
C. intensity
D. fixed
and gasoline in the combination of heat
transfer processes that is constant
pressure and constant volume.
Answer: D
183. The property of liquid in which they extend
resistance to angular or shear
deformation is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
specific gravity
specific weight
viscosity
density
Answer: C
184. A property of lubricating oil that measures
the thickness of the oil and will help
determine how long oil will flow at a given
temperature is known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
viscosity
flash point
cloud point
cloud point
Answer: A
185.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The minimum amount of air required for
a complete combustion of fuel is called
dry air
excess air
theoretical air
flue gas
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ericsson cycle
Dual cycle
Brayton cycle
Rankine cycle
Answer: B
188.
A.
B.
C.
D.
gm/cc
dimensionless numbers
degrees
none of the above
Answer: C
189.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The temperature at which lubricating will
form a cloud.
Cloud point
Pour point
Critical point
Boiling point
Answer: A
190.
API gravity of water is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
zero
10
1.0
100
Answer: B
191.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The ideal cycle based on the concept that
the combustion process is both diesel
Which of the following variety of coal has
highest ash content?
Lignite
Bituminous coal
Grade I steam coal
Coking coal
Answer: A
187.
ASTM coal classification is based on:
proximate analysis
orsat analysis
ultimate analysis
none of the above
Answer: C
186.
The unit used for expressing API gravity
is:
Answer: A
192.
Which of the following is a petroleum
fue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Benzol
Ethyl alcohol
Methyl alcohol
Naphta
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D
193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Diesel engine fuels are rated by:
Answer: C
4.
specific gravity
calorific value
cetane number
octane number
Answer: C
194.
Which of the following needs to be
filtered in a diesel engine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Air only
Lubricating oil only
Air and diesel oil only
Air, diesel oil and lubricating oil
5.
CHAPTER 3 – DIESEL PLANT
An engine in which the fuel is burned
outside of the power cylinder.
A. Internal combustion engine
B. External combustion engine
C. Compression ignition engine
D. Spark ignition engine
Answer: B
3.
An engine where the ignition is caused by
heat of compression.
In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air
into the cylinder is what stroke?
A. First stroke
B. Second stroke
C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke
Answer: A
7.
Answer: A
2.
What air pressure is required to produce
the required ignition temperature?
A. 350 to 500 psi
B. 250 to 400 psi
C. 450 to 600 psi
D. 150 to 300 psi
Answer: A
6.
An engine in which the fuel is burned
directly within the working cylinder.
A. Internal combustion engine
B. External combustion engine
C. Compression ignition engine
D. Spark ignition engine
What temperature is required to ignite the
fuel oil?
A. 800 to 1000 0F
B. 700 to 900 0F
C. 900 to 11000F
D. 1000 to 12000F
Answer: A
Answer: D
1.
Internal combustion engine
External combustion engine
Compression ignition engine
Spark ignition engine
Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is
A. First stroke
B. Second stroke
C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke
Answer: B
8.
Which of the following strokes
produced by the burning gases?
A. First stroke
B. Second stroke
C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke
is
Answer: C
9.
14.
Which of the following strokes expels the
burned gases?
A. First stroke
B. Second stroke
C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke
Answer: D
10.
Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by
forcing into it a current of air which
provides clean air for the next
compression stroke.
A. Scavenging
B. Supercharging
C. Choking
D. Knocking
Answer: D
15.
Answer: A
11.
Increasing the total amount of charging
air in the working cylinder of the engine.
A. Scavenging
B. Supercharging
C. Choking
D. Knocking
The portion of the piston which extends
below the piston pin and serves as a
guide for the piston and connecting rod.
A. Piston skirt
B. Piston ring
C. Piston scoring
D. Piston seizure
16.
Rings located in the grooves of the piston
usually near the top and near the bottom.
A. Piston skirt
B. Piston ring
C. Piston scoring
D. Piston seizure
Answer: B
A device which automatically governs or
controls the speed of an engine.
A. Servomotor
B. Governor
C. Indicator
D. Speedometer
Answer: B
17.
A combination of liquids which do not mix
– or combine chemically.
A. Emulsion
B. Deposition
C. Evaporation
D. Separation
Answer: A
Answer: A
13.
Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or
in both. It I caused by the piston scraping
the cylinder wall in its movement without
proper lubrication.
A. Piston skirt
B. Piston ring
C. Piston scoring
D. Piston seizure
Answer: C
Answer: B
12.
Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall
as a result of the lubrication having been
destroyed by excessive temperature and
friction.
A. Piston skirt
B. Piston ring
C. Piston scoring
D. Piston seizure
18.
What temperature should be the
maximum to which lubricating oil is
permitted to rise?
A. Not more than 1000F
B. Not more than 2000F
C. Not more than 3000F
D. Not more than 4000F
Answer: A
19.
What air pressure is needed for air
starting a Diesel engine?
A. 250 psi
B. 150 psi
C. 350 psi
D. 450 psi
C. Ante combustion chamber
D. Mixed combustion chamber
Answer: A
24.
Answer: A
20.
At what temperature will self igniting
cartridges ignite?
A. About 2000F
B. About 1900F
C. About 2100F
D. About 2500F
Answer: B
25.
Answer: B
21.
The fuel is supplied by the one pump and
switched to each cylinder by a multi outlet
rotating valve or distributor.
A. Distributor system
B. Injector system
C. Non injector system
D. Non distributor system
26.
This virtually a distributor two stage
pumping system that is, modified
distributor system.
A. Distributor system
B. Injector system
C. Non injector system
D. Non distributor system
Answer: B
23.
A chamber so proportioned with respect
to the clearance volume proper of the
cylinder that only about 30% of the
combustion takes place with in the
chamber itself.
A. Pre combustion chamber
B. Separate combustion chamber
A chamber so designed that injection
takes place directly opposite its outlet,
the chamber extending backward from
the outlet.
A. Pre combustion chamber
B. Separate combustion chamber
C. Ante combustion chamber
D. Air cell chamber
Answer: C
Answer: A
22.
The entire charge is ignited in the
separate combustion chamber before the
initial expansion takes place, forcing the
burning gases through the connecting
passages and against the moving piston.
A. Pre combustion chamber
B. Separate combustion chamber
C. Ante combustion chamber
D. Mixed combustion chamber
Fuel is injected only into the main
cylinder, during expansion of the burning
gases in the main chamber, when the
pressure therein drops below that of the
air in the cell.
A. Pre combustion chamber
B. Separate combustion chamber
C. Ante combustion chamber
D. Mixed combustion chamber
Answer: D
27.
What is the temperature of the air in the
cylinder when the Diesel engine is
operating at full load?
A. Between 800 and 11000F
B. Between 800 and 10000F
C. Between 900 and 12000F
D. Between 900 and 11000F
Answer: A
28.
33.
What are the exhaust gas temperatures
at normal operating conditions?
A. Between 400 and 7000F
B. Between 500 and 8000F
C. Between 300 and 6000F
D. Between 200 and 5000F
Answer: A
29.
How is high speed Diesel engines
started?
A. By an electric motor
B. By compressed air
C. By a diesel fuel
D. By an electric spark
Answer: B
34.
Answer: A
30.
What speeds are considered high speed
diesel engine?
A. 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm
B. 100 to 1000 rpm
C. 100 to 1500 rpm
D. 100 to 1750 rpm
It is a device used for atomizing of
cracking fuel oil and through which the
fuel oil is injected into the working
cylinders of Diesel engines.
A. Atomizer
B. Fuel spray nozzle
C. Injector
D. Cracker
35.
What is the proper seat width of a spray
valve?
A. 1/16 in
B. 1/8 in
C. 1/32 in
D. 1/4 in
Answer: A
Which of the following is an automatic
device used for keeping constant air
pressure?
A. Relief valve
B. Unloader
C. Strainer
D. Barometer
Answer: B
36.
What is the other term of the diameter of
the circular cylinder?
A. Bore
B. Stroke
C. Swept volume
D. Clearance
Answer: A
Answer: A
32.
How hot are the exhaust gases?
A. 400 to 700 0F
B. 300 to 600 0F
C. 200 to 500 0F
D. 500 to 8000F
Answer: A
Answer: A
31.
A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel
system to absorb the shock of the
injection pumps and to provide a
reservoir at high pressure for supplying
an even flow of fuel oil to the cylinders.
A. Absorber
B. Accumulator
C. Governor
D. Injector
37.
What do you call the maximum distance
traveled by the piston?
A. Bore
B. Stroke
C. Swept volume
D. Clearance
Answer: B
38.
Which of the following is the product of
the cylinder area and stroke?
A. Bore
B. Stroke
C. Swept volume
D. Clearance
Answer: C
39.
41.
43.
45.
Which of the following types of engine
where the expanding combustion gases
act on both ends of the piston?
In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency
was not much higher than about what
percent?
A. 35%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
Answer: A
46.
A closed heat exchanger that transfers
heat from compressed air to cooler air.
A. Regenerator
B. Intercooler
C. Aftercooler
D. Reheater
Answer: C
47.
Which of the following engines where the
expanding combustion gases act on end
of the piston?
A. Single acting engine
B. Double acting engine
C. Single expansion engine
D. Double expansion engine
Answer: A
The compression ratio of a Diesel engine
varies from about:
A. 13.5 to 17.5
B. 8 to 10
C. 14to 19
D. 10.5 to 14.5
Answer: A
The piston is closest to the crankshaft to
which of the following?
A. Top dead center
B. Bottom dead center
C. ¾ from top center
D. ¾ from bottom center
Answer: B
42.
44.
The piston is at maximum reach from the
crankshaft to which of the following?
A. Top dead center
B. Bottom dead center
C. ¾ from top center
D. ¾ from bottom center
Answer: A
Single acting engine
Double acting engine
Single expansion engine
Double expansion engine
Answer: B
The ratio of the clearance volume to the
swept volume.
A. Fractional clearance
B. Compression ratio
C. Expansion ratio
D. Cut off ratio
Answer: A
40.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is used to improve
cold weather starting?
A. Poppet valve
B. Glow plug
C. Check valve
D. Spark plug
Answer: B
48.
The rated power that the manufacture
claims the engine is able to provide on a
continuous basis without incurring
damage.
A. Brakepower
B. Continuous duty rating
C. Intermittent rating
D. Power rating
Answer: B
49.
What is the peak power rating that can be
produced on an occasional basis?
A. Brakepower
B. Continuous duty rating
C. Intermittent rating
D. Power rating
Answer: C
50.
Which of the following is the value of a
property that includes the effect of
friction?
A. Brake value
B. Friction value
C. Indicated value
D. Actual value
Answer: A
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines
only
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot
be efficiently handled in reciprocating
engines
Answer: D
3. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Otto cycle
Dual cycle
Carnot cycle
Brayton cycle
Answer: D
4. When r is the compression ratio, the
efficiency of Brayton cycle is given by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 – 1/𝑟 (𝑘−1)/𝑘
1 – 1/𝑟 𝑘−1
1 – 1/𝑟 𝑘
1 – 1/ 𝑟
Answer: A
Chapter 4 – Gas Turbine
1. Brayton cycle has:
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume
processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant
pressure processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant
volume, and two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermals, one constant volume
and a constant pressure process
Answer: B
2. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating
engines even for same adiabatic compression
ratio and work output because:
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
5. A regenerator in a gas turbine:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Reduces heat loss during exhaust
Allows use of higher compression ratio
Improves thermal efficiency
Allows use of fuels of interior quality
Answer: C
6. Which of the following compressor is
generally used for gas turbines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lobe type
Centrifugal type
Axial flow type
Reciprocating type
Answer: C
7. The constant pressure gas turbine works on
the principle of:
A. Carnot cycle
B. Bell – Coleman cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Brayton cycle
Answer: D
8. What type of gas turbine is used in an air
craft?
A. Open cycle type
B. Closed cycle type with reheating
C. Closed type with reheating and
regeneration
D. Open cycle type with reheating,
regeneration and intercooling
Answer: A
9. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste
heat boiler is used to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat air from intercooler
Gases from regenerator
Recover heat from exhaust gases
None of the above
Answer: C
10. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
Less than Diesel cycle efficiency
More than Otto of Diesel cycle efficiency
Answer: C
11. Which of the following turbine has least
weight per bhp developed?
A. Simple open cycle gas turbine
B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling
and reheating
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling,
reheating and regenerating
D. Closed cycle gas turbine
Answer: A
12. Which of the following is/are advantage of
closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas
turbine?
A. No containing of working substance with
combustion gases
B. Inferior quality fuel can be used
C. Low maintenance costs
D. All of the above
Answer: D
13. The range of compression ratio in a gas
turbine is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
3 to 5
5 to 8
8 to 12
12 to 20
Answer: B
14. A constant volume combustion gas turbine
operates on:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ericsson cycle
Joule cycle
Brayton cycle
Atkinson cycle
Answer: D
15. Past ME Board Question
Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer
between the exhaust gases and the air prior to
its entrance to the combustor.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Evaporator
Combustion chamber
Regenerator
Heater
Answer: C
16. Past ME Board Question
How does the value for work per unit mass flow
of air in the compressor and turbine influenced
by the addition of a generator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slightly increased
Unchanged
Greatly decreased
Greatly increased
A.
B.
C.
D.
8 MW
9 MW
10 MW
7 MW
Answer: B
Answer: C
17. Past ME Board Question
22. Large unit gas turbines regularly operate:
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Brayton cycle
Stag combined cycle
Bottom cycle
Ericsson cycle
Answer: A
18. Past ME Board Question
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocation
engines even for same adiabatic compression
ratio and work output because:
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines
only
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot
be efficient handled in reciprocating
engines
A.
B.
C.
D.
In 100 to 200 MW range
In 50 to 100 MW range
Over 150 MW
Below 150 MW
Answer: A
23. Small units gas turbine operate below
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 MW
12 MW
30 MW
24 MW
Answer: C
24. Heavy duty gas turbines typically have:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Double shafts
Single shafts
Triple shafts
Quadruple shafts
Answer: D
Answer: B
19. Past ME Board Question
25. Which of the following is basically a jet
engine that exhausts into a turbine generator?
In order to increase the gas velocity gas turbines
generally have fixed nozzles. This is to allow
the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compression of gases
Condensation of gases
Expansion of gases
Evaporation of gases
Answer: C
21. Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the
preferred combustion engines in application
much above ____________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Aeroderivative gas turbine
Industrial gas turbine
Brayton engine
Joule engine
Answer: A
26. Most aeroderivative combustion turbine
produce less than:
A.
B.
C.
D.
20 MW
30 MW
40 MW
50 MW
Answer: C
27. The compression ratio based on pressure in
the compression stage in a gas turbine is
typically:
A.
B.
C.
D.
11 to 16
5 to 8
12 to 18
8 to 14
Answer: A
28. The compression ratio based on pressure of
heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
14 to 15
19 to 21
11 to 16
16 to 18
D. 1300 C to 1390 C
Answer: A
32. The exhaust temperature which makes the
exhaust an ideal heat source for combined
cycles is typically:
A.
B.
C.
D.
540 C to 590 C
600 C to 650 C
300 C to 350 C
440 C to 490 C
Answer: A
33. The most combustion turbines have:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 to 3 expander stages
3 to 4 expander stages
4 to 5 expander stages
1 to 2 expander stages
Answer: A
Answer: B
29. Aeroderivative combustion turbine have
higher compression ratios typically:
34. The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty
turbines per 100 MW is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
14 to 15
19 to 21
11 to 16
16 to 18
A.
B.
C.
D.
240 to 250 kg/s
140 to 150 kg/s
340 to 350 kg/s
440 to 450 kg/s
Answer: B
Answer: A
30. Most heavy duty combustion turbines have
how many compression stages?
35. The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also known
as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
14 to 16
18 to 20
10 to 12
16 to 18
A.
B.
C.
D.
Joule cycle
Stirling cycle
Ericsson cycle
Atkinson cycle
Answer: D
Answer: A
31. The temperature of the gas entering the
expander section is typically:
36. Approximately how many percent of the
turbine power is used to drive the high efficiency
compressor?
A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
C. 1500 C to 1490 C
A. 50 to 75 %
B. 60 to 85 %
C. 45 to 70 %
D. 30 to 55 %
Answer: A
37. Depending on the turbine construction
details, the temperature of the air entering the
turbine will be between:
A.
B.
C.
D.
650 C to 1000 C
750 C to 1100 C
550 C to 950 C
850 C to 1200 C
Answer: A
38. Which of the following engines are typically
used by turbojet and turboprop?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Open combustors
Closed combustors
Turbo combustors
High combustors
Answer: A
39. The full load thermal efficiency of existing
heavy duty combustion turbines in simple cycles
is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
34 to 36 %
30 to 32 %
40 to 42 %
26 to 28 %
B. 38 %
C. 45 %
D. 35 %
Answer: A
42. Which of the following is the typical
backwork ratio of gas turbines?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 to 75 %
40 to 65 %
30 to 55 %
35 to 60 %
Answer: A
43. Which of the following is an example of a
regenerator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A counterflow heat exchanger
A cross flow heat exchanger
A mixed flow heat exchanger
A parallel flow heat exchanger
Answer: B
44. Which of the following is an effect of having
a regenerator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less heat is added
Compressor work is reduced
Turbine work is increased
Compressor work is increased
Answer: A
Answer: A
40. New combustion turbines on the cutting
edge of technology ( Advanced turbine systems
) are able to achieve
45. A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
38 to 38.5 %
36 to 36.5 %
40 to 40.5 %
34 to 34.5 %
Answer: A
41. Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieve
efficiency up to:
A. 42 %
A.
B.
C.
D.
Compressor and turbine work
Heat added
Thermal efficiency
Combustor
Answer: A
46. In a Brayton cycle multiple stages of
compression and expansion will _______.
A. Increase thermal efficiency
B. Decrease thermal efficiency
B. 𝑊𝑐 /𝑊𝑡
C. 𝑊𝑡 − 𝑊𝑐
D. 𝑊𝑡 + 𝑊𝑐
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency
Answer: A
47. In a Brayton cycle,
intercooling will ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
reheating
and
Increase thermal efficiency
Decrease thermal efficiency
Limit thermal efficiency
Control efficiency
Answer: A
48. In a Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Heat added
Thermal efficiency
Backwork ratio
Network
Answer: A
49. In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Turbine work
Thermal efficiency
Backwork ratio
Network
Answer: A
50. If 𝑊𝑡 is the turbine power and 𝑊𝑐 is the
compressor power then backwork ratio is
A. 𝑊𝑡 /𝑊𝑐
B. 𝑊𝑐 /𝑊𝑡
C.
D.
𝑊𝑡 −𝑊𝑐
𝑊𝑡
𝑊𝑡 −𝑊𝑐
𝑊𝑐
Answer: B
51. If 𝑊𝑡 is the turbine power and 𝑊𝑐 is the
compressor power then the network is:
A. 𝑊𝑡 𝑥 𝑊𝑐
Answer: C
52. Physical limitations usually preclude more
than how many stages of intercooling and
reheating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
3
4
5
Answer: A
Chapter 5: Steam Power Plant
1. Which of the following factors does bursting
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend?
A. Tensile strength of the shell
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Diameter of the shell
D. Shear strength of shell material
Answer: D
2. Which of the following factors does working
pressure boiler doesn’t depend?
A. Tensile strength of the shell
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Factor of safety
D. Type of fuel being fire
Answer: D
3. Total solid impurities in feed water for a
boiler depend upon
A. Boiler pressure
B. Quantity of steam to be generated
C. Type of fuel available
D. Quantity of steam
Answer: A
4. A high pressure chamber or a device in
which the paths of rapidly moving particles
can be observed and photographed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cloud chamber
Combustion chamber
Fission chamber
Air chamber
Answer: A
5. The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is
called
A. Bubbling
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Carryover
Answer: B
6. How many check valves should be provided
between any feed pump and boiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
7. The water level inside the boiler is indicated
by the
A. Baffles
B. Fusible plug
C. Water walls
D. Water column
Answer: D
8. What is the highest pressure under which
distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can
exist in equilibrium?
A. Maximum pressure
B. Atmosphere
C. Critical pressure
D. Peak pressure
Answer: C
9. What is the average fuel-oil temperature of
the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?
A. 180 – 200 oF
B. 240 – 260 oF
C. 160 – 180 oF
D. 140 – 160 oF
Answer: A
10. The lowest permissible water level of a boiler
without internal furnace is __ the height of
the shell?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/5
Answer: B
11. In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is
the ratio of
A. Pressure at cut off to supply pressure
B. Pressure at cut off to exhaust
pressure
C. Pressure at cut off to mean effective
pressure
D. Fraction of piston stroke which the
piston has traveled when cut off
occurs
Answer: D
12. In a condensing steam engine
A. Condensed steam is supplied
B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
C. Steam condenses as soon as it
leaves the cylinder
D. Exhaust steam is condensed in a
condenser
Answer: D
13. Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with
increasing fluid velocity will create an
equivalent
A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. Decrease in the internal energy of
fluid
D. Decrease in the dynamic energy of
fluid
Answer: A
14. The term V2/2Cp responds to the
temperature rise during such a process and
is called the
A. Kinetic temperature
B. High temperature
C. Dynamic temperature
D. Elevation temperature
Answer: C
15. All of the following mechanism can supply
heat to a thermodynamic system except
A. Conduction
B. Natural convection
C. Adiabatic expansion
D. Radiation
Answer: C
16. The flow through the nozzle is
A. Isentropic
B. Polytropic
C. Isobaric
D. Isovolumic
Answer: A
17. If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle
inlet velocity is
A. Maximum
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Zero
Answer: D
18. Which of the following is the pressure
applied at the nozzle discharge section?
A. Stagnant pressure
B. Critical pressure
C. Back pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
Answer: C
19. When the back pressure is reduced to lowest
exit pressure, the mass flow reaches a
maximum value and the flow is said to be:
A. Stacked
B. Choked
C. Stuck-up
D. Clog-up
Answer: B
20. An increase in stagnation pressure will
increase the mass flux through the:
A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging-diverging nozzle
D. None of these
Answer: B
21. A converging-diverging nozzle
standard equipment in:
A. Subsonic aircraft
B. Supersonic aircraft
C. Hypersonic aircraft
D. Trisonic aircraft
is
the
Answer: B
22. For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in
fluid properties occur in a very thin section of
converging-diverging
nozzle
under
supersonic flow conditions, creating
A. Sound wave
B. Tidal wave
C. Shock wave
D. None of these
Answer: C
23. Is the locus of states which have the same
value of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux
are called:
A. Fanno Line
B. Straight Line
C. Willan’s Line
D. Cross Cut Line
Answer: A
24. Combination of mass and momentum
equations into single equation and plotted in
h-s plane yield a curve called:
A. Fair Line
B. Freh Line
C. Cutting Line
D. Rayleigh Line
C. The ratio of ideal to actual energy
extracted
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Answer: A
25. Generally steam turbines in power station
operate at
A.
B.
C.
D.
3000 rpm
1000 rpm
4000 rpm
575 rpm
Answer: A
26. Which of the following shows the relationship
of the steam consumption and the load of
steam turbine-generator?
A. Dalton’s line
B. Willian’s line
C. Jonval’s line
D. Rankine line
Answer: B
27. An inventor proposes to develop electrical
power by withdrawing heat from the geyser
fields of northern California and converting it
all to work in power turbines. This scheme
will not work because:
A. The geyser fields have only a limited
lifetime
B. The salinity of the steam is too great
C. It violates the first law of
thermodynamics
D. It violates the second law of
thermodynamics
Answer: D
28. The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given
by
A. The ratio of actual to ideal energy
extracted
B. The ratio of actual of ideal energy
inputted
29. Which of the following is not a main part of a
typical coal burner?
A. Air registers
B. Nozzle
C. Atomizer
D. Ignitor
Answer: C
30. Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the
heat given by the furnace to the water and
steam is:
A. Grate efficiency
B. Stroke efficiency
C. Furnace efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency
Answer: D
31. A goose neck is installed in the line
connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to:
A. Maintain constant steam flow
B. Protect the gauge element
C. Prevent steam knocking
D. Maintain steam pressure
Answer: B
32. Which of the following is great advantage of
a fire tube boiler?
A. Steam pressure is not ready
B. Contains a large volume of water and
requires long interval of time to raise
steam and not so flexible as to
changes in steam demand
C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because
fire is inside the boiler and
surrounded by water
Answer: B
33. One of the following tasks which is an
example of preventive maintenance is
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup
burner
B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
C. Replacing a leaking valve
D. Replacing a blown fuse
Answer: A
34. The carbon dioxide (CO2) percentage in the
flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should
be approximately
A. 1 %
B. 12 %
C. 18 %
D. 20 %
Answer: B
35. When droplets of water are carried by steam
in the boiler.
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Embrittlement
Answer: A
36. The process in which heat energy is
transferred to a thermal energy storage
device is known as:
A. Adiabatic
B. Regeneration
C. Intercooling
D. Isentropic
Answer: B
37. When the boiler pressure increases or when
the exhaust pressure decreases, the amount
of moisture.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. Zero
Answer: A
38. When the number of reheat stages in a
reheat cycle is increased, the average
temperature
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. is constant
D. is zero
Answer: A
39. A heat transfer device that reduces a
thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to
its liquid phase such as in vapor
compression refrigeration plant or in a
condensing steam power plant.
A. Flash vessel
B. Cooling tower
C. Condenser
D. Steam separator
Answer: C
40. A simultaneous generation of electricity and
steam (or heat) in a single power plant.
A. Gas turbine
B. Steam turbine
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration
Answer: D
41. Is one whose pressure is higher than the
saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature?
A. Compressed liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor
Answer: A
42. In a steam generator with good combustion
control, what occurs if the load is increased?
A. Air temperature leaving air heater
decreases
B. Air temperature entering air heater
increases
C. Furnace pressure is approximately
constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature
decreases
Answer: C
43. Total solid impurities in feed water for a
boiler depend upon
A. Boiler pressure
B. Type of fuel available
C. Quantity of steam to be generated
D. Quantity of steam
Answer: A
44. The gaseous state of water.
A. Water gas
B. Blue gas
C. Water vapor
D. Yellow gas
Answer: C
45. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals
A. The gage pressure
B. The critical pressure
C. The ambient pressure
D. One standard pressure
Answer: C
46. What are the main components in a
combined cycle power plant?
A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
Answer: B
47. A change in the efficiency of combustion in a
boiler can usually be determined by
comparing the previously recorded readings
with the current readings of ____.
A. Stack temperature and CO
B. Over the fire draft and CO
C. Ringleman chart and CO2
D. Stack temperature and CO2
Answer: D
48. A boiler steam gauge should have a range of
at least
A. One half the working steam pressure
B. 1 and ½ times the maximum
allowable working pressure
C. The working steam pressure
D. Twice the maximum allowable
working pressure
Answer: B
49. In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of
combustion passed:
A. Through the combustion chamber
only
B. Through the tubes
C. Away from tubes
D. Around the tubes
Answer: D
50. A chemical method of feedwater treatment
which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonate as reagents.
A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
C. Demineralization process
D. Ion exchange treatment
Answer: B
51. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as
compared to steam turbine or gas turbine is
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Lower than
D. Equal to
Answer: A
52. A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs
when there is:
A. Moderate drop in steam load
B. Constant drop in steal load
C. Abrupt drop in steam load
D. Gradual drop in steam load
Answer: C
53. The most economical and low maintenance
cost condenser.
A. Water-cooled
B. Air-cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub-cooled
Answer: B
54. What is commonly used done to system
when the turbine has excessive moisture?
A. Frosting
B. Diffusing
C. Reheating
D. Dehumidifying
Answer: C
55. What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic
energy during a stagnation process is
transformed to enthalpy?
A. Decrease in fluid’s volume
B. Rise in the temp. and pressure of the
fluid
C. Rise the fluid’s volume
D. Decrease in the temp. and pressure
of the fluid
Answer: B
56. How can the average temperature during
heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be
decreased?
A. Increase boiler pressure
B. Increase turbine pressure
C. Increase condenser pressure
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure
Answer: D
57. Which of the following ascertains the
effectiveness and the size of a condenser?
A. Number of passes
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer
Answer: D
58. A boiler has a bursting pressure, BP, of 600
kPa and a factor of safety, FS, of 8 is
employed in design. As an engineer, would
you advice to have a working pressure, WP,
of 500 kpPa?
A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa
B. No, WP is only 75 kPa at a FS of 8
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency
Answer: B
59. What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam
power plant?
A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
Answer: D
60. Guage cock in the boiler is designed to
determine:
A. Level of steam
B. Specific heat
C. Level of water
D. Pressure
Answer: C
CHAPTER 6 – GEOTHERMAL PLANT
1. Refers to the internal heat from the earth.
A. Geothermal
B. Thermal energy
C. Molten heat
D. Tectonic heat
Answer: A
2. A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate
which constitute about 60% of the earth’s
surface.
A. Soil
B. Feldspar
C. Flux
D. Flint
Answer: B
3. A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline
form of silica, which is dens, tough,
breaking with a conchoidal fracture.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gravel
Stalactite
Flint
Flux
Answer: C
4. Is the process of using injection wells to
bubble air through groundwater.
A. Air stopping
B. Staged combustion
C. Sparging
D. Soil washing
usually light in the visible region.
Answer: C
5. A popular term used by utilities to mean
upgrading existing plant.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Replanting
Repowering
Recharging
Reorganizing
Answer: B
6. A dense, fine grained, light colored
igneous rock which is rich in silica.
A. Felsite
B. Feldspar
C. Flint
D. Flux
Answer: A
7. An opening in lava or in volcanic area
through which steam and other hot gases
are escaping into the air is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fumarole
Volcanic leaks
Seismic outlets
Seismic leaks
Answer: A
8. Tidal power is the power generated from:
A. Waves of the ocean
B. Rise and fall tides
C. Thermal energy of the ocean
water
D. Raw sea water
Answer: B
9. Converts chemical energy directly into
electrical energy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fuel cell
Magnetohydrodynamic generator
Battery
Thermoelectric generator
Answer: A
10. Generates a voltage from incident light,
A.
B.
C.
D.
Photovoltaic cell
Solar cell
Dry cell
A or B
Answer: D
11. All of the following terms
synonymous
with
quanta
electromagnetic theory except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
are
of
Packets
Corpuscles
X-rays
Photons
Answer: C
12. In geothermal power plants waste water
is:
A. Recirculated after cooling
cooling lowers
B. Discharged into sea
C. Evaporated in ponds
D. Discharged back to earth
Answer: D
in
13. Past ME Board Question
In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant,
what process occurs when the saturated
steam passes through the turbine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isobaric
Polytropic
Isometric
Isentropic
17. Past ME Board Question
Tidal power plant is attractive because it
has:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low head and intermittent power
High head
Cheap energy source
Expensive energy source
Answer: C
Answer: B
18. Tidal power is the power generated from:
14. Past ME Board Question
What do you call a conversion
technology that yields electricity straight
from sunlight without the aid of a
working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical
cycle?
A. Waves of the ocean
B. Rise and fall tides
C. Thermal energy of the ocean
water
D. Raw sea water
Answer: B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Power conversion
Stirling cycle conversion
Solar thermal conversion
Photovoltaic-energy conversion
Answer: D
15. Past ME Board Question
Tidal power plant is attractive because it
has:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Low head and intermittent power
High head
Cheap energy source
Expensive energy source
Answer: C
16. Past ME Board Question
What do you call a conversion
technology that yields electricity straight
from sunlight without the aid of a
working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical
cycle?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Power conversion
Stirling cycle conversion
Solar thermal conversion
Photovoltaic-energy conversion
Answer: D
19. Converts chemical energy directly into
electrical energy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fuel cell
Magnetohydrodynamic generator
Battery
Thermoelectric generator
Answer: A
20. Generates a voltage from incident light,
usually light in the visible region.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Photovoltaic cell
Solar cell
Dry cell
A or B
Answer: D
21. The statement that the product of the
error in the measured determination of a
particle’s position and its momentum is of
the order of Planck’s constant h is known
as:
A. Bohr’s theory
B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. The
Heisenberg
uncertainty
principle
D. Planck’s law
Answer: C
22. The flow process through shock wave is
highly irreversible and cannot be
approximated as being:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Polytropic
Isometric
Hyperbolic
Isentropic
27. How many percent of solar energy
survives absorption and reflection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40 to 70%
30 to 60%
50 to 80%
20 to 50%
Answer: A
28. Solar energy is captured in:
Answer: D
23. Beaufort scale is used for measuring
what?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Beta and gamma radiations
Wind speed
Insolation
Depth of sea
Answer: B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sun capturer
Solar collector
Sun collector
Greenhouse capturer
Answer: B
29. Which of the following solar collectors are
essentially wide, flat boxes with clear
plastic or glass coverings known as the
glazing.
24. Betz law is widely used in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
MHD systems
Solar cells
Geothermal power plants
Wind mills
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flat plate collectors
Concentrating collectors
Focusing collectors
Evacuated tube collectors
Answer: A
Answer: D
25. Rocks having excessive internal stresses
may produces spalling. This rocks are
called as _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stratified rocks
Popping rocks
Crushed rocks
Swelling rocks
30. Which of the following collectors use
mirrors and/or lenses to focus the suns
energy on a small absorber area.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flat plate collectors
Concentrating collectors
Non focusing collectors
Evacuated tube collectors
Answer: B
Answer: A
26. Solar energy arrives at the outside of the
earth’s atmosphere at an average rate of
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
kW/m2
1.354
1.543 kW/m2
2.354 kW/m2
2.543 kW/m2
Answer: A
31. Which of the following collectors are
more complex, but their efficiencies are
higher?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flat plate collectors
Concentrating collectors
Focusing collectors
Evacuated tube collectors
Answer: D
32. Which of the following collectors are
useful when extremely hot transfer fluid
is needed and are generally limited to
commercial projects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flat plate collectors
Concentrating collectors
Focusing collectors
Evacuated tube collectors
Answer: A
37. Central receiver system is also known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trough electric system
Distributed collector system
Power tower system
Dish/Stirling system
Answer: C
Answer: D
33. The shading factor in calculating the heat
absorbed by the solar collector has a
value of approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.95 to 0.97
0.85 to 0.87
0.75 to 0.77
0.65 to 0.67
Answer: A
34. The ratio of energy absorbed by the
transfer fluid to the original incident
energy striking the collector.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collector efficiency
Sun efficiency
Shading factor
Absorptance
Answer: A
35. As the difference between the ambient
air and average plate (or inlet)
temperatures increases, what happens
to the collector efficiency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases
Decreases
Constant
No effect
Answer: B
36. Distributed collector system is also
known as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trough electric system
Central receiver system
Power tower system
Dish/Stirling system
38. Which of the following main approaches
to solar energy generating systems
describes that parabolic tracking tough
concentrators
focus
sunlight
on
evacuated glass tubes that run along the
collectors focal lines.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trough electric system
Central receiver system
Power tower system
Dish/Stirling system
Answer: A
39. Trough electric technology is relatively
mature but due to the low temperatures,
average annual thermal efficiencies are
only:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 to 15%
5 to 10%
15 to 20%
25 to 30%
Answer: A
40. A field of heliostats or tracking mirrors
concentrates solar energy onto a
receiver on a central tower.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Trough electric system
Distributed collector system
Power tower system
Dish/Stirling system
Answer: A
41. In a power tower system typical thermal
efficiencies is in the range:
A. 10 to 15%
B. 5 to 10%
C. 15 to 20%
D. 25 to 30%
Answer: C
42. A dish engine system has an efficiency of
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 to 15%
5 to 10%
14 to 19%
24 to 28%
Answer: D
43. Practical and economic issues limit
trough electric systems to about:
A.
B.
C.
D.
200 MW
100 MW
300 MW
400 MW
Answer: A
44. Practical and economic issues limit tower
electric systems to approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
100 to 200 MW
150 to 250 MW
100 to 300 MW
150 to 400 MW
Answer: C
45. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power
plant is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
30%
22%
35%
15%
Answer: B
46. A flash steam cycle can be used if the hot
water temperature is approximately:
A.
B.
C.
D.
165 C or higher
150 C or higher
145 C to 200 C
Below 200 C
Answer: A
47. A binary cycle using a separate heat
transfer fluid if the temperature of the hot
water
is
between
approximately
_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
165 C and 200 C
200 C and 150 C
225 C and 175 C
300 C and higher
Answer: A
48. For every kilometer of depth, the
temperature of the earth’s crust increase
by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
30 F
40 F
50 F
20 F
Answer: A
49. Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to
820
kPa
and
temperature
of
___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
205 C
155 C
250 C
175 C
Answer: A
50. In a hot rock systems, water is injected
through injection wells into artificially
made fractured rock beds of how many
kilometers below the surface?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 6 km
3 to 9 km
4 to 10 km
6 to 11 km
Answer: A
CHAPTER 7 – NUCLEAR PLANT
1. Past ME Board Question
What is the suggested maximum
permissible dose (MPD) of gamma ray
exposure for general individuals not
working in a nuclear setting, by choice,
in rem/year?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
5
1/2
3
6. Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic unit
MeV
Dynes
Ergs
Answer: C
Answer: C
2. Past ME Board Question
The number of protons in the nucleus of
an atom of the number of electrons in
the orbit of an atom.
A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass
7. The process in which a nucleus splits into
smaller fragments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fusion
Fission
Photoelectric effect
Compton’s effect
Answer: B
Answer: B
3. The process in which a nucleus splits into
smaller fragments.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fusion
Fission
Photoelectric effect
Compton’s effect
Answer: B
4. The ability of a substance to absorb
neurons is dependent upon which
parameter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption cross section
Scattering cross section
Total cross section
Atomic number
Answer: A
5. What kind of bonding do common gases
that exist in free as diatomic molecules
experiences?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic bonds
Convalent bonds
Metallic bonds
Nuclear bonds
Answer: B
8. Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Calories
Joules
Pascals
MeV
Answer: C
9. The ability of a substance to absorb
neurons is dependent upon which
parameter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption cross section
Scattering cross section
Total cross section
Atomic number
Answer: A
10. Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic unit
MeV
Dynes
Ergs
Answer: C
11. An electrically charged atom or radical
which carries electicity through an
electrolyte is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ion
Isotope
Molecule
Hole
Answer: A
12. What is the smallest particle of an
element that can enter into a chemical
reaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Molecule
Ion
Atom
Isotope
Answer: C
13. Beryllium, magnesium, and calcium all
belong to which elemental grouping?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Noble elements
Halogens
Lanthanons
Alkaline earth metals
D. Gamma radiations
Answer: B
16. Radiation consisting of singly charged
particles that generate to intermediate
distances are called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fast neurons
Alpha radiations
Beta radiations
Gamma radiations
Answer: C
17. Radiation with no charge, which
produces no ionization, and which is
difficult to attenuate thus posing a major
health threat is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Slow neutrons
Alpha radiations
Beta radiations
Gamma radiations
Answer: D
18. The property of fluid at a location where
the Mach number is unity (at the throat)
are called:
Answer: D
14. The thickness of material required to
attenuate radiation to a particular level
depends on
A.
B.
C.
D.
The particle
The particle energy
The shielding material
The particle, its energy, and the
shielding material
Answer: D
15. Particles that are easily stopped within a
few millimeter because their double
charges generate path ionization and
because they are susceptible to
electrostatic interaction are:
A. Alpha neurons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
A.
B.
C.
D.
Critical properties
Sonic properties
Dynamic properties
Stagnation properties
Answer: A
19. Gamma attenuation is affected by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Their photoelectric effect
Pair production
Compton scattering
The photoelectric effect, pair
production,
and
Compton
scattering.
Answer: D
20. The amount of a radiation shield’s
dimensional geometry that reduces
radiation to half of its original value is
called the __________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half-value mass
Half-value thickness
Semi-cross section
Logarithmic decrement
Answer: B
21. The amount of a radiation shield’s
density that reduces radiation to half of its
original value is called the ___________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half-value mass
Half-value thickness
Semi-cross section
Logarithmic decrement
Answer: A
22. Radiation exposure, the measure of
gamma radiation at the surface of an
object, is measured in:
25. All of the following are practical
applications of Einstein’s principle of
special relativity except _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mass increase
Length of contraction
Time dilation
Space warping
Answer: D
26. The postulate that no signal or energy
can be transmitted with a speed greater
than the speed of light is consistent with
_______
A. The
Heisenburg
uncertainty
principle
B. The Compton effect
C. Einstein’s law
D. Newton’s second law
Answer: C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rems
Rads
Roentegens
Roentegens per second
Answer: C
23. Radiation exposure rate, the rate of
gamma radiation at the surface of an
object, is measured in
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rems
Rads
Roentegens
Roentegens per second
Answer: D
24. Exposure is a measure of ionization
surrounding a person, but biological
damage is dependent on the amount of
energy.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Striking the surface
Passing through the body
Absorbed
Reflected by the surface
Answer: C
27. The total energy of an electron in the
same shell is defined by the _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Principle quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Hund rule
Answer: A
28. The direction of an electron’s angular
momentum vector is defined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Principle quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Electron spin quantum number
Answer: C
29. The electron’s spin angular momentum
vector is defined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Azimuthal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Electron spin quantum number
Hund rule
Answer: C
30. The magnitude of an electron’s angular
momentum vector is defined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Principle quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Electron spin quantum number
Hund rule
Answer: B
31. The fact that each orbital of a set of
equal-energy orbitals must be occupied
with an electron before any orbitals has
two electrons is specified by which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Principle quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Hund rule
Answer: D
32. The statement that no two electrons can
have the same set of four quantum
numbers is known as the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Hund rule
Heisenburg uncertainty principle
Pauli exclusion principle
Schrodinger equation
Answer: C
33. All of the following terms describe the
radiation lines from transitions of
electrons in an atom except
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sharp
Principle
Obtuse
Fundamental
Answer: C
34. When electrons are not shared equally
between two elements, and electrons
spend more time with one elements than
with the other, the bonding is called:
A. Ionic bonding
B. Polar covalent bonding
C. Non-polar covalent bonding
D. Metallic bonding
Answer: B
35. When electrons are shared equally (e.g.,
when the atoms are the same as in
diatomic gases), the bonding is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ionic bonding
Polar covalent bonding
Non-polar covalent bonding
Resonance bonding
Answer: C
36. All of the following are units of energy
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atomic units
MeV
Dynes
Ergs
Answer: C
37. Einstein reasoned there was a discrete
amount of energy needed to remove an
electron from a surface, with the rest of
the incident photon’s energy contributing
to the kinetic energy of the photon., the
amount of energy is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Binding energy
Work function
Coulomb energy
Fermi energy
Answer: B
38. Which of the following is not a postulate
of Bohr’s theory of the hydrogen atom?
A. Electron orbits are discrete and
non-radiating and an electron may
not remain between these orbits
B. The energy change experienced
by an electron changing from one
orbit to another is quantized
C. Light waves exist simultaneously
as high frequency electrical and
magnetic waves
D. Angular momentum is quantized
Answer: C
B. Baffles
C. Fire tubes
D. Zone controls
CHAPTER 8 – BOILER
1. Which of the following is necessary to
generate steam in boiler?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A container
Heat
Water
All of the above
Answer: D
2. It is a part of the boiler with water on one side
and heat on the other side.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Furnace volume
Fire side
Heating surface
Water side
Answer: C
3. A __________ boiler has heat and gases of
combustion that pass through tubes
surrounded by water.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fire tube
Cast iron sectional
Water tube
Straight-tube
Answer: A
4. A __________ boiler has water in the tubes
and heat gases of combustion passing
around the tubes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fire tube
Cast iron sectional
Water tube
Firebox
Answer: C
5. Which of the following are used in boilers to
direct the gases of combustion over the
boiler heating surface?
A. Combustion control
Answer: B
6. The three-basic type of low pressure heating
boilers are _________, _________, and
_________.
A. Firebox; vertical; locomotive
B. Scotch marine; wet-top; dry-top
C. Straight-tube; bent-tube; multiple
pass
D. Fire-tube; water tube; cast iron
sectional
Answer: D
7. In a low pressure gas system, the gas
regulator reduces that city gas pressure to
___ psi.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
2
1
3
Answer: A
8. In the _________ air mixes with the fuel and
burns.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fire tubes
Combustion chamber
Water tubes
Breeching
Answer: B
9. The function of the steam boiler is to
_________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Produce condensate
Create heat
Produce steam
Burn fuel
Answer: C
10. Which of the following is the most common
type of water tube boiler?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Firebox
Scotch marine
Vertical
Straight-tube multiple pass
Answer: D
11. Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns
to the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combustion chamber
Fuel oil tank
Burner
Suction line
Answer: B
12. It is the system that provides the air
necessary for combustion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedwater
Steam
Draft
Fuel
Answer: C
13. The gases of combustion leave the boiler
through the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chimney
Blower
Air vent
Breeching
Answer: D
14. Which of the following boiler does not use
tubes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cast iron sectional
Water tube
Scotch marine
Firebox
Answer: A
15. Which of the following will make a boiler
work more efficiently?
A. More fuel is added
B. Fire tubes are decrease in size
C. The heating surface is increased
D. All of the above
Answer: C
16. What are the four systems necessary to
operate a boiler?
A. Combustion; draft; steam; boiler
water
B. Water; steam; combustion; stoker
C. Boiler water; fuel; draft; condense
D. Feedwater; fuel; draft; steam
Answer: D
17. The __________ forms a vacuum that draws
out of the condensate return line and into the
vacuum tank.
A. Suction line
B. Main header
C. Vacuum pump
D. Heating equipment
Answer: C
18. Which of the following can be a function of
the container in the boiler?
A. Holds the water
B. Connects the steam that is produced
C. Transfers heat to the water to
produce steam
D. All of the above
Answer: D
19. At what temperature will water normally
turns to steam?
A. 100℉
B. 200℉
C. 150℉
D. 212℉
Answer: D
20. Which of the following statements is true for
cast iron sectional boilers?
A. Cast iron sectional boilers have fire
tubes
B. Can be expanded in size
C. These boilers do not require water
D. None of the above
Answer: D
21. Which of the following is the most important
valve on a boiler?
A. Main steam stop valve
B. Automatic nonreturn valve
C. Safety valve
D. Feedwater stop valve
Answer: C
22. The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler
is _______ psi.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 30
Answer: C
23. Which of the following best defines a total
force acting on a boiler?
A. Area times diameter
B. Area times pressure
C. Area times distance
D. The MAWP times pressure
Answer: B
24. The ASME code states that the boiler with
over ______ square feet heating surface
must have two or more safety valve.
A. 200
B. 400
C. 400
D. 500
Answer: D
25. The area of a safety valve 4 in. diameter is
how many square inches?
A. 2.3562
B. 6.2832
C. 3.1416
D. 12.5664
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is the only valve
permitted between the safety valve and the
boiler?
A. Os&y gate
B. Os&y globe
C. Automatic nonreturn
D. No valves are permitted between the
boiler and the safety valve
Answer: D
27. The range of the pressure gauge should be
________ times the MAWP on the boiler.
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
1
C. 12 to 2
1
D. 22 to 3
Answer: C
28. The ASME code only allows ______ safety
valve on boiler.
A. Deadweight
B. Spring-loaded pop type
C. Lever
D. None of the above
Answer: B
29. How much is the total force on safety valve
1
22 in. diameter and with a steam pressure of
15 psi.
A. 19.5413
B. 73.63125
C. 29.4525
D. 93.7512
Answer: B
30. The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is
calibrated to read in:
A. Inches of vacuum
B. Absolute pressure
C. Pounds per square in.
D. Pressure
below
atmospheric
pressure
Answer: C
31. Live steam is prevented from entering the
Bourdon tube of the pressure gauge by
which of the following?
A. Automatic nonreturn valve
B. Os&y Valve
C. Inspector’s test cock
D. Siphon
Answer: D
32. What the pressure gauge that can be read
whether vacuum pressure or not.
A. Compound
B. Suction
C. Duplex
D. Vacuum
Answer: A
33. Which of the following best defines a
vacuum?
A. A pressure above gauge
B. A pressure below atmospheric
C. A pressure below gauge
D. A pressure equal to gauge
Answer: B
34. Safety valves are designed to pop open and
stay until there is a ______ psi drop in
pressure.
A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15
C. 2 to 4
D. Over 15
Answer: C
35. What type of boiler that uses safety valve?
A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. All of the above
Answer: D
36. The water column is located at the NOWL so
the lowest visible part of the gauge glass is
______ above the highest surface.
A. 2 in to 3 in
B. Just
C. 4 in to 5 in
D. Never
Answer: A
37. Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent:
A. Burner cycling
B. Premature popping
C. Chattering
D. Feathering
38. The boiler bottom blowdown line should
discharge to a(n)______.
A. Sewer
B. Atmospheric tank
C. Blowdown tank
D. Return tank or open sump
Answer: C
39. If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler is
6 psi and the desired cut-out pressure is 10
psi, the differential pressure setting must be
______ psi.
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
40. Impurities that build up on the surface of the
water in the boiler prevent _______ from
breaking through the surface of the water.
A. Air
B. 𝐶𝑂2
C. Oxygen
D. Steam
Answer: D
41. To prevent air pressure from building up in
the boiler when filling the boiler with water,
the _____ must be open.
A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Manhole cover
Answer: B
42. To prevent a vacuum from forming when
taking the boiler off-line, which of the
following must be opened when pressure is
still on the boiler?
A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Man hole cover
Answer: B
Answer: C
43. The operating range of the boiler is
controlled by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Squastat
Pressure control
Vaporstat
Modulating pressure control
Answer: B
44. The _______ regulates the high and low fire
of the burner.
A. Aquastat
B. Pressure control
C. Vaporstat
D. Modulating pressure control
Answer: D
45. The best time to blow down the boiler to
remove sludge and sediment is when the
boiler is at:
A. Its highest load
B. Half its load
C. Its lightest load
D. Anytime
Answer: C
46. The level of the water in the ______
indicates the water level in the boiler.
A. Condensate return tank
B. Gauge glass
C. Try cocks
D. Blowdown tank
Answer: C
47. When blowing a boiler, the quick opening
valve should always be opened ______ and
closed ______.
A. First; first
B. Last; first
C. First; last
D. Last; last
Answer: C
48. Which of the following is added to boiler so
that water changes scale-forming salts into a
non-adhering sludge?
A. Oxygen
B. Slag
C. Minerals
D. Chemicals
Answer: D
49. A _____ valve is installed before the _____
to allow the steam pressure gauge to be
changed if a malfunction occurs.
A. Globe; safety valve
B. Globe; U-tube siphon
C. Gate; siphon
D. Globe; pigtail siphon
Answer: C
50. What pressure gauge that reads more
pressure than is actually in the boiler.
A. Broken
B. Uncalibrated
C. Slow
D. Fast
Answer: D
51. According to the ASME code, safety
valves on low pressure boilers should
be tested by hand at least:
A. Once a month
B. Once a year
C. Once a shift
D. Twice a year
Answer: A
52. The purpose of the safety vale is
prevent the pressure in the boiler
from:
A. Exceeding its MAWP
B. Causing a boiler explosion
C. Dropping below its MAWP
D. Relieving water pressure
Answer: A
53. The term applied when a safety valve
opens and closes rapidly.
A. Feathering
B. Chattering
C. Pressuring
D. Huddling
Answer: B
54. The safety valve on a low pressure
boiler opens when pressure in the
boiler exceeds how many psi?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 10
D. 30
Answer: B
55. After the total force of the steam has
lifted the safety valve off its seat, the
steam enters the____
A. Huddling chamber
B. Steam holding tank
C. Combustion chamber
D. Main steam line
Answer: A
56. What causes false water
readings in the gauge glass?
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Blowing down
level
Answer: B
57. Fusible
plugs
are
required
on___boilers by the ASME code.
A. Coal-fired
B. Gas-fired
C. Fuel oil-fired
D. All of the above
Answer: D
58. Onb a pressure control, ____
pressure plus ____ pressure equals
____ pressure.
A. Differential; cut-out; cut-in
B. Cut-in; cut-out; differential
C. Cut-in; differential; cut-in
D. Cut-in pressures equals cut-out
pressure
Answer: C
59. A burner should always start up in
___ fire and shut down in ____ fire.
A. Low; low
B. High; low
C. Low; high
D. High; high
Answer: A
60. The water in the boiler is heated,
turns to steam, and leaves the boiler
through the:
A. Feedwater line
B. Main steam line
C. Main header
D. Main branch line
Answer: B
61. When steams gives up its heat in a
heat exchanger it turns to:
A. Low pressure steam
B. Makeup water
C. Condensate
D. Exhaust steam
Answer: C
62. A ____ pump discharges the return
water back to the boiler.
A. Feed
B. Gear
C. Return
D. Vacuum
Answer: D
63. How do you call a valve that controls
the flow of water in one direction
only?
A. Gate
B. Os&y
C. Globe
D. Check
Answer: D
64. The feedwater ___ valve should be
located as close to the shell of the
boiler as practical.
A. Check
B. Nonreturn
C. Stop
D. Regulating
Answer: C
65. A ____ after each radiator allows
____ to pass through to the return
line.
A. Steam tarp; steam
B. Water trap; steam
C. Steam trap; condensate
D. Water trap; condensate
Answer: C
66. A ____ valve should be located
between the boiler and the valve on
the feedwater line.
A. Stop; check
B. Stop; regulator
C. Check; stop
D. Check; regulator
70. Top test the vacuum pump, the
operator puts the selector switch in
the ____ position.
A. Float
B. Float or vacuum
C. Vacuum
D. Continuous
Answer: D
71. Water added to the boiler to replace
water lost due to leaks and blowing
down is known as ____ water.
A. Extra
B. Boiler
C. Makeup
D. Feed
Answer: C
Answer: A
67. The feedwater ___ valve opens and
closes automatically.
A. Return
B. Check
C. Bypass
D. Equalizing
Answer: B
68. The vacuum pump pumps water and
discharging air to the:
A. Expansion tank
B. Return tank
C. Compression tank
D. Atmosphere
Answer: D
69. The range of pressure on the vacuum
switch is usually
A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2” to 8”
C. 6 to 12 psi
D. 8” to 12”
Answer: B
72. Excessive use of cold city water
makeup reduces overall efficiency
because the water must be ___ use
in the boiler.
A. Vented
B. Filtered
C. Heated
D. Recirculated
Answer: C
73. The vacuum pump selector switch is
normally in the position during the
heating season.
A. Float or vacuum
B. Vacuum only
C. Float only
D. Continuous
Answer: A
74. The ____ shuts off the burner in the
event of low water.
A. Low water alarm
B. Low water fuel cut-off
C. Feedwater regulator
D. Automatic low water feeder
Answer: B
75. Water is supplied to the condensate
return tank by the ____ pump.
A. Vacuum
B. Feedwater
C. Condensate
D. Return
Answer: A
76. The feedwater regulator is located at
the ____ and is connected to the
boiler in the same manner as the
____
A. Right side; gauge glass
B. NOWL; water column
C. Bottom blowdown
D. NOWL; safety valve
Answer: B
77. What maintains a constant water level
in the boiler?
A. Gauge glass
B. Automatic city water makeup
feeder
C. Water column
D. Feedwater regulator
Answer: D
78. The low water fuel cut-off should be
tested:
A. Daily
B. Semiannually
C. Monthly
D. Annually
Answer: A
79. The burner should be____ when the
low water fuel cut-off is blown down.
A. Off
B. Tagged out
C. Firing
D. Tested
Answer: C
80. Which the following valves must be
used as boiler main steam stop
valve?
A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
D. Os&y gate
Answer: D
81. Gate valves should always be ____ or
____ closed.
A. Partially open; completely.
B. Completely open; completely
C. Wide open; partly
D. Throttled; completely
Answer: B
82. Steam header valves should be ____
valves.
A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
D. Os&y gate
Answer: C
83. When open the os&y valve offers
____ to the flow of steam.
A. No resistance
B. Velocity
C. Throttling action
D. Full resistance
Answer: A
84. Steam traps are ____ devices.
A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. Electrical
D. Semiautomatic
Answer: B
85. What valve should be used for
throttling flow of material?
A. Gate
B. Check
C. Globe
D. Non-return
Answer: C
86. Steam traps removed ____ and ___
from the steam lines.
A. Air; water
B. Water; oil
C. Air; oil
D. Air; steam
Answer: A
87. Condensate in the steam lines can
result in:
A. carryover
B. foaming
C. priming
D. water hammer
Answer: D
88. Two types of steam traps are the
____ steam trap and the ____ steam
trap.
A. Return; float
B. Nonreturn; thermostatic
C. Return; nonreturn
D. Nonreturn; float
Answer: C
89. The ___ steam trap is the most
common steam trap used.
A. Thermostatic
B. Inverted bucket
C. Return
D. Nonreturn; float
Answer: A
90. Condensate from the nonreturn
steam trap is pumped from the
condensate return tank of the:
A. Return tank
B. Feedwater heater
C. Vacuum tank
D. Boiler
Answer: D
91. Steam returning to the vacuum tank
could causes the condensate pump to
become:
A. Waterbound
B. Waterlogged
C. Steambound
D. Steamlogged
Answer: C
92. Steam strainers should be located on
the line____ the steam trap.
A. In front of
B. Above
C. After
D. Along sides of
Answer: A
93. As the steam pressure increases the
steam temperature:
A. Decreased
B. Remains the same
C. Increases
D. Fluctuates
Answer: C
94. When the os&y valve is open the
stem is in the ____ position.
A. Floating
B. Up
C. Locked
D. Down
Answer: B
95. The thermostatic steam trap opens
and closes the a(n):
A. Float
B. Electric sensor
C. Inverted bucket
D. Flexible bellows
Answer: D
96. In the float the thermostatic trap the
float rises to discharge:
A. Condensate
B. Feedwater chemicals
C. Steam
D. Water and steam
Answer: A
97. A steam trap that failed to open would
causes the heating unit to become:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steambound
Very hot
Waterlogged
All of the above
B. Condensate
C. Fuel oil
D. Circulating
Answer: C
Answer: C
98. Which of the following whose main
function is to remove dirt and
impurities that may cause the steam
trap to malfunction?
A. Vacuum pumps
B. Steam strainers
C. Globe valves
D. Steam separators
Answer: B
99. When a steam trap is functioning
properly there is a ____ difference in
temperature between the trap inlet
and discharge.
A. 5°F to 10°F
B. 20°F to 30°F
C. 10°F to 20°F
D. No
103. The ____ valve protects the fuel
lines and pump from excessive
pressure.
A. Safety
B. Relief
C. Bypass
D. Stop
Answer: B
104. A high vacuum on the fuel oil
suction gauge normally indicates
either ____ or ____.
A. Low viscosity; a clogged vent
B. A closed dischasrged valve; hot
fuel oil
C. Cold fuel oil; a dirty suction
strainer
D. Water in the fuel oil; a warm pump
Answer: C
Answer: C
100. When burning No. 6 fuel oil
strainers should be cleaned at least
once every ____ hours.
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 24
Answer: D
101. When cleaning the fuel oil
strainers the ___ must be carefully
replaced to prevent ____ from getting
into the system.
A. Gaskets; fuel oil
B. Cover; water
C. Gaskets; air
D. Cover; fuel oil
Answer: C
102. The ____ pump draws fuel oil from
the fuel oil tank.
A. Transfer
105. Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil
to the furnace in a:
A. Steady steam
B. Half spray, half steam
C. Fine spray
D. None of the above
Answer: C
106. The rotary cup burner uses ____
and ____ to atomize the fuel oil.
A. High temperature; pressure
B. High temperature; air
C. High pressure; steam
D. A spinning cup; high velocity air
Answer: D
107. In a low pressure gas burner gas
is mixed with air in the ____
A. Burner register
B. Combustion chamber
C. Mixing chamber before the burner
register
D. Boiler furnace
Answer: C
108. In a low pressure gas mixes with
the air on the inside of the:
A. Burner register
B. Combustion chamber
C. Mixing chamber
D. Boiler furnace
Answer: A
109. Regardless of the type of fuel oil
used the fuel oil must be ______
before it enters the boiler furnace.
A. Pressurized
B. Treated
C. Atomized
D. Measured
113. The butterfly on the low pressure
gas system is ______ valve.
A. Slow-opening
B. Screw
C. Quick-opening
D. Globe
Answer: A
114. The amount of gas supplied to the
burner in the low pressure gas system
is controlled by:
A. Gas pressure
B. Steam pressure
C. The boiler operator
D. The amount of air passing through
the butterfly valve
Answer: D
Answer: C
110. On the low pressure gas system
the manual reset cannot be opened
until the:
A. Vaporstat proves pressure
B. Pilot is lighted
C. Boiler is vented
D. All of the above
Answer: B
111. Before any repair is attempted on
any gas-fired boiler the:
A. Insurance inspector must be
notified
B. Main gas cock must be secured
C. State inspector must be notified
D. Main solenoid valve should be
secured
Answer: B
115. If low water develops in the boiler
having a low pressure gas system the
______ will secure the gas to the
burner.
A. Whistle valve
B. Manual reset valve
C. Vaporstat
D. Main gas solenoid
Answer: D
116. Combination gas/fuel oil burners
permit the operator to switch from one
fuel to another _______ .
A. For economy
B. Because of a shortage of fuel
being used
C. Because of a failure in the fuel
system being used
D. All of the above
Answer: D
112. In a low pressure gas system
when the vaporstat proves gas
pressure up to zero reducing
governor the _____ starts up.
A. Induced draft fan
B. Pressure
C. Force draft blower
D. Gas pump
Answer: C
117. Hard coal, known as ______, has
a ______ content.
A. Bituminous; high carbon
B. Anthracite; high volatile
C. Bituminous; high volatile
D. Anthracite; high carbon
Answer: D
118. Soft coal, known as ____,has a ____
content.
A. bituminous; high carbon
B. anthracite; high volatile
C. bituminous; high volatile
D. anthracite; high carbon
Answer : C
119. Boilers using soft coal must have ____
furnace
volume to reduce the danger of____.
A. small; overfiring
B. large; smoking
C. small; smoking
D. large; overfiring
Answer : B
120. When burning soft coal, If the volatile
gases reach the heating surface before they
have burned completely ____ and ____
develop.
A. smoke; soot
B. clinkers; ash
C. uneven heat; ash
D. high temperature; smoke
Answer : A
121. The ____ of fuel oils is the lowest temp. at
which it will flow as a liquid.
A. fire point
B. pour point
C. flash point
D. viscosity
Answer : B
122. The ____ is the temp. at which the fuel oil
gives off the flashes when exposed to an open
flame.
A. fire point
B. pour point
C. flash point
D. viscosity
Answer: C
123. The ____ is the temp. at which fuel oil will
burn continuously when exposed to an open
flame.
A. fire point
B. pour point
C. flash point
D. viscosity
Answer : A
124. It is defined as the internal resistance of
fuel oil flow?
A. fire point
B. pour point
C. flash point
D. viscosity
Answer: D
125. What must be done in order to lower the
viscosity of the fuel oil.
A. lower its temp.
B. increase its temp.
C. lower its pour point
D. viscosity
Answer : B
126. A leak on the fuel oil suction lie between
the tank and the suction side of the fuel oil
pump would result in :
A. the suction gauge pulsating
B. air entering the suction line
C. pulsating of the fire in the boiler
D. all of the above
Answer : B
127. Stokers were developed to:
A. increase efficiency of burning coal
B. keep furnace temp. constant to protect
brickwork
C. allow of development of larger coal-fired
boiler
D. all of the above
Answer : D
128. Any foreign matter in the coal feed
mechanism of the screw- feed stoker is best
removed by.
A. emptying the coal hopper
B. reversing the stoker
C. forcing it through with a heavy shear pin
D. using the cut-off gate to the bottom of the
hopper
Answer : D
129. In the event of obstruction clogging the
feed screw a ____ is used to prevent damage
to transmission.
A. slip clutch
B. shear pin or key
C. fuse
D. none of the above
Answer : B
130. In order to bank the stoker it is necessary
to secure
the ____ while the ____
continues to operate.
A. combination fan; coal feeder
B. coal feeder; forced draft fan
C. feedwater; induced draft fan
D. boiler stop valve; coal feeder
Answer : B
131. In a screw feed stoker, what fan draft
supplies air for combustion?
A. Induced
B. Forced
C. Combination
D. Natural
Answer : B
132. To prevent smoke and to aid in complete
combustion in the screw-feed stoker,____ is
provided using a separate damper control.
A. underfire air
B. retort air
C. overfire air
D. grate zone air
Answer : C
133. The ram-feed stoker is a(n) ___ stoker.
A. Overfeed
B. side feed
C. travelling gate
D. underfeed
Answer : D
134. The ram-feed stoker provides :
A. uniform feed
B. quick ash discharge
C. even coal distribution
D. all of the above
Answer : D
135. Combustion is rapid burning of fuel and
oxygen resulting in :
A. release of heat
B. oxidation
C. release of steam
D. nitrogen and oxygen
Answer : A
136. What combustion occurs when all the fuel
is burned using the theoretical amount of air?
A. incomplete
B. perfect
C. complete
D. imperfect
Answer : B
137. It is the burning of all the fuel using the
minimum amount of excess air.
A. incomplete combustion
B. complete combustion
C. perfect combustion
D. imperfect combustion
Answer : B
138.____ combustion occurs when all the fuel
is not burned resulting in formation of soot and
smoke.
A. incomplete
B. perfect
C. complete
D. imperfect
Answer : A
139.Which of the following is required to
achieve complete combustion ?
A. proper atomization
B. proper temp.of fuel
C. time of complete combustion
D. all of the above
Answer : D
140. The combustion process must be
complete before the gases combustion come in
contact with the :
A. atmosphere
B. superheater
C. heating surface
D. main steam outlet
Answer : C
141. Soot build up on heating surface:
A. acts an insulation
B. prevents heat transfer
C. increases temp. of gases of combustion
D. all of the above
Answer : D
142.The purpose of automatic combustion
control is to control ____ and ____.
A. high fire: low fire
B. stoker firing; fuel rate
C. overfire air; fuel mixture
D. proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate
Answer : D
143. At 0 psig, how many BTU are necessary
to change 1 lb of water at 212°F of steam?
A. 144
B. 970
C. 180
D. 1190
Answer : B
144. Radiation is :
A. the movements of liquids or gases
created by a temp. difference
B. the transfer of eat by direct molecular
contact
C. the weight of the substance compared to
unity
D. a form of heat transfer
Answer : D
145. Steam at 100 psi and 400°F is :
A. saturated
B. superheated
C. wet
D. none of the above
Answer : B
146. Which of the following most closely
defines sensible heat ?
A. an established relationship comparing
any substance to the heat content of
water
B. heat quantity that can be felt or measured
by a thermometer
C. heat quantity above the point of
saturation
D. measure of heat intensity
Answer : B
147. What is required to raise the temp.of 1 lb
of of water from 32° to 212°F ?
A. 144 Btu
B. 970.3 Btu
C. 180 Btu
D. saturated heat
Answer : C
148. Increasing the pressure has what effect of
the boiling point of water?
A. no change
B. temp.will be raised
C. temp.will be lowered
D. temp.will increase 2°F for every psi
Answer : B
149.Heat absorbed by water when it changes
from liquid to steam at the boiling point is
called :
A. sensible heat
B. specific heat
C. latent heat
D. superheat
Answer : C
150. Heat may be transferred in how many
ways?
A. one
B. three
C. two
D. four
Answer : B
Chapter 9
1. In turbine installation, the air is removed from
the condenser by
A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet
Answer: C
2. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid
loop is to:
A. Add energy to the flow
B. Add mass to the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. None of the above
Answer: C
3. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through
a hole in a plate is located approximately:
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole
B. At jet’s minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter
Answer: B
4. The following are all examples of indirect
(secondary) miscellaneous methods to
measure flow except:
A. Turbine and propeller meters
B. Magnetic flow meters
C. Positive displacement meters
D. Hot – wire anemometers
Answer: C
5. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs
Answer: D
6. One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow
Answer: D
7. One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Motion of a fluid jet
B. Flow over spillways
C. Surge and flood waves
D. Subsonic airfoils
Answer: D
8. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
mass and velocity
B. A scalar quantity equal to the product
mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
force and length of time is applied
D. The change in impulse
Answer: A
9. All of the following fluid phenomena are
based on the force momentum principle of a
flowing fluid except:
A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engine
Answer: C
10. The fact that a fluids velocity increases as
the cross sectional area of the pipe through
which it flow decreases is due to:
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum equation
D. The perfect gas law
Answer: B
11. In the absence of any heat and work
interactions and any changes in potential
energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid
remains constant during:
A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow
Answer: B
12. When a falling object reaches a speed at
which the drag force equals its weight, it has
achieved :
A. Mach one
B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity
Answer: C
13. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
the:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: A
14. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of
the:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: B
15. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge
and the coefficient of contraction
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical
velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge
and the coefficient of contraction
Answer: B
16. Which of the following is not a similarity
between a submerged culvert and a siphon
A. They both operate full
B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit
losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill
Answer: B
17. In parallel pipe system originating and
terminating in common junctions,
A. Mass flows through each branch are
equal
B. Pressure drops through each branch are
equal
C. Length of each branch are equal
D. Flow areas of each branch arre equal
Answer: B
18. Flows through multi – loop systems may be
computed by:
A. Any closed – from solution of
simultaneous equations
B. The hardy – cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above
Answer: D
19. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Venturi meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers
Answer: D
20. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Orifice plate meters
B. Hot – wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flow meters
D. Mercury barometers
Answer: D
21. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes
D. Precision tachometers
Answer: D
22. The following are examples of indirect(
secondary) measurements to measure flow
rates using obstruction meters except:
A. Variable area meters
B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzles
Answer: C
23. The following are examples of indirect(
secondary) measurements to measure flow
rates using obstruction meters except:
A. Pitot static meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scale
D. Direction – sensing probes
Answer: C
24. In series pipe systems, all of the following
parameters vary from section to section
except:
A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow
Answer: D
25. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice
meters, flow nozzles, and differential
manometers all depend upon
the
relationship between:
A. Flow velocity and friction
B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow
Answer: B
26. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic
energy of fluid is termed as:
A. Latent enthalpy
B. Heat enthalpy
C. Throttling enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy
Answer: D
27. The coefficient of velocity, Cv, accounts for
the:
A. Effects on the flow area of contraction,
friction and turbulence
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging
pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
Answer: B
28. Expansion factors take into account the:
A. Area of the vena contracta
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging
pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
Answer: D
29. The matching of scale model and full – scale
results for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of:
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
Answer: C
30. The matching of scale model and full – scale
results for a fluid dynamic phenomena
involving compressible fluids requires
equality of :
A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
Answer: D
31. The matching of scale model and full – scale
prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving
requires equality of:
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
surface
tension
Answer: B
32. The matching of scale model and full – scale
prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving a fully submerged
body requires equality of:
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Mach number
Answer: A
33. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily
what kind of fluid mechanics?
A. Static( a phenomena independent of
time)
B. Dynamic(
a
time
–
dependent
phenomena )
C. Compressible
D. Incompressible
Answer: B
34. All of the following are forms of drag on a
body moving through a fluid except:
A. Skin friction
B. Wake drag
C. Profile drag
D. D’ alembert’s paradox drag
Answer: D
35. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a
sphere in water is dependent upon all of the
following except:
A. Fluid density
B. Fluid velocity
C. Units of measure( SI or English
engineering system)
D. Drag force
Answer: C
36. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies
moving through an ideal (non- viscous) fluids
is known as:
A. Reynold’s analogy
B. D’ alemberts paradox
C. Newton’s second law
D. The second law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
37. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Submarines
B. Torpedoes
C. Seaplane hulls
D. Supersonic aircraft
Answer: C
38. The function of a turbine is to:
A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. Increase the total energy content of the
flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the
flow
Answer: C
39. Pitot tube is use to measure the:
A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow
Answer: D
40. Orifice coefficients are used to determine:
A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass loses
D. Energy losses and mass gains
Answer: A
41. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. Actual discharge velocity to the
theoretical discharge
D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: C
42. The volume flow
venturimeter is:
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. Varying
passes
through
a
Answer: C
43. What must be done to change the direction
of rotation of a 440 volt, 3 phase induction
motor?
A. Reverse lines to start winding
B. Interchange any two power leads
C. Replace any two wires to the rotor
D. Remove any power leads
Answer: B
44. A draft tube is a part of which power plants?
A. Diesel engine power plant
B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Steam power plant
D. Hydro – electric power plant
Answer: D
45. In the hydro – electric plant having a medium
head and using a Francis turbine, the turbine
speed may be regulated through:
A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Forebay
Answer: C
46. A Francis turbine has what flow?
A. Inward flow reaction
B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse
Answer: A
47. Which of the following is a type of water
turbine?
A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Bankl
Answer: C
48. What is the use of a hydraulic jump?
A. Increase the flow rate
B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow
Answer: D
49. A Kaplan turbine is:
A. A high head mixed flow turbine
B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine
D. Low head axial flow turbine
Answer: D
50. The locus of elevation is:
A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient
Answer: B
51. The locus of elevation to which water will rise
in the piezometer tube is termed:
A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path
Answer: C
52. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a
dam is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Tailrace
Spiral casing
Surge tank
Penstock
Answer: D
53. A type of water turbine where a jet of water
is made to fall on the blades or buckets and
due to the impulse of water, the turbine starts
to move.
A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
Answer: A
54. The lowest portion to storage basin from
where the water is not drawn is:
A. Bottom storage
B. Sub – soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
Answer: D
55. In a hydro – electric plant using a francis
turbine with medium head, the speed can be
regulated using the
A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
Answer: C
56. In the deep well installation or operation, the
difference between static water level and
operating water level is known as:
A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging
Answer: B
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of
an impulse turbine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steam striking blades on angle
No steam reaction to velocity
Steam striking blades at zero angle
Steam reversing direction
Answer: C
58. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
tube in a turbine?
A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage
Answer: C
59. An impulse turbine are used for:
A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
Answer: C
60. Which of the following is used as high head
turbine?
A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
Answer: A
61. In pumped storage plant
A. Power is produced by pumps
B. Water is stored by pumping to high
pressures
C. Pressure accumulators are used
D. Downstream water is pumped upstream
during offload periods
Answer: D
62. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft
tube in a turbine?
A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage
Answer: C
63. An impulse turbine has:
A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
Answer: C
64. High head turbine is a/an:
A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
Answer: A
65. The lowest portion to storage basin from
where the water is not drawn is
A. Bottom storage
B. Sub – soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
Answer: D
66. In a hydro electric plant using a Francis
turbine with medium head, the speed can be
regulated using the
A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
Answer: C
67. In the deep well installation or operation, the
difference between static water level and
operating water level is called:
A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging
Answer: B
68. Which of the following is a characteristic of
an impulse turbine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Steam striking blades on angle
No steam reaction to velocity
Steam striking blades at zero angle
Steam reversing direction
Answer: C
69. A type of water turbine where a jet of water
is made to fall on the blades or buckets and
due to the impulse of water, the turbine starts
to move.
A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
Answer: A
70. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a
dam is:
A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock
Answer: D
71. In the hydro – electric plant having a medium
head and using a Francis turbine, the turbine
speed may be regulated through:
A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Forebay
Answer: C
72. A Francis turbine has what flow?
A. Inward flow reaction
B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse
Answer: A
73. Which of the following is a type of water
turbine?
A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Bankl
Answer: C
74. Hydraulic jump is used to:
A. Increase the flow rate
B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow
Answer: D
75. A Kaplan turbine is:
A. A high head mixed flow turbine
B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine
D. Low head axial flow turbine
Answer: D
76. The locus of elevation is:
A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient
Answer: B
77. The locus of elevation to which water will rise
in the piezometer tube is termed:
A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path
Answer: C
78. In turbine installation, the air is removed from
the condenser by:
A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet
Answer: C
79. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid
loop is to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Add energy to the flow
Add mass to the flow
Extract energy from the flow
None of the above
Answer: C
80. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through
a hole in a plate is located approximately:
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole
B. At jet’s minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter
Answer: B
81. The following are all examples of indirect
(secondary) miscellaneous methods to
measure flow except:
A. Turbine and propeller meters
B. Magnetic flow meters
C. Positive displacement meters
D. Hot – wire anemometers
Answer: C
82. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs
Answer: D
83. One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow
Answer: D
84. One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the following cases
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Motion of a fluid jet
Flow over spillways
Surge and flood waves
Subsonic airfoils
Answer: D
85. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
mass and velocity
B. A scalar quantity equal to the product
mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
force and length of time is applied
D. The change in impulse
Answer: A
86. All of the following fluid phenomena are
based on the force momentum principle of a
flowing fluid except:
A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engine
Answer: C
87. The fact that a fluids velocity increases as
the cross sectional area of the pipe through
which it flow decreases is due to:
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum equation
D. The perfect gas law
Answer: B
88. In the absence of any heat and work
interactions and any changes in potential
energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid
remains constant during:
A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow
Answer: B
89. When a falling object reaches a speed at
which the drag force equals its weight, it has
achieved :
A. Mach one
B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity
Answer: C
90. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
the:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: A
91. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of
the:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: B
92. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge
and the coefficient of contraction
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical
velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge
and the coefficient of contraction
Answer: B
93. Which of the following is not a similarity
between a submerged culvert and a siphon
A. They both operate full
B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit
losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill
Answer: B
94. In parallel pipe system originating and
terminating in common junctions,
A. Mass flows through each branch are
equal
B. Pressure drops through each branch are
equal
C. Length of each branch are equal
D. Flow areas of each branch arre equal
Answer: B
95. Flows through multi – loop systems may be
computed by:
A. Any closed – from solution of
simultaneous equations
B. The hardy – cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above
Answer: D
96. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Venturi meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers
Answer: D
97. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Orifice plate meters
B. Hot – wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flow meters
D. Mercury barometers
Answer: D
98. Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:
A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes
D. Precision tachometers
Answer: D
99. The following are examples of indirect(
secondary) measurements to measure flow
rates using obstruction meters except:
A. Variable area meters
B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzles
Answer: C
100. The following are examples of indirect(
secondary) measurements to measure flow
rates using obstruction meters except:
A. Pitot static meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scale
D. Direction – sensing probes
Answer: C
101. In series pipe systems, all of the following
parameters vary from section to section
except:
A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow
Answer: D
102. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice
meters, flow nozzles, and differential
manometers all depend upon
the
relationship between:
A. Flow velocity and friction
B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow
Answer: B
103. The combination of kinetic energy of fluid
is
termed as :
A. latent enthalpy
B. heat enthalpy
C. throttling enthalpy
D. stagnation enthalpy
Answer : D
104. The coefficient of velocity, 𝐶𝑉 accounts for
the
A. effects on the floor area of contraction,
friction, and turbulence
B. small effect on friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. changes on the diameter of a converging
pipe
D. effects on compressibility
Answer : B
105. Expansion factors take into account the :
A. area of the vena contrata
B. small effect on friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. changes on the diameter of a converging
pipe
D. effects on compressibility
Answer : D
106. The matching of a scale model and full
scale results for fluid dynamic phenomena with
a free surface requires equality of :
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
Answer : C
107. The matching of a scale model and full
scale results for fluid dynamic phenomena
involving compressible fluids requires equality
of :
A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
Answer : D
108. The matching of a scale model and full
scale prototype results for fluid dynamic
phenomena involving surface tension requires
equality of :
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
Answer : B
109. The matching of a scale model and full
scale prototype results for fluid dynamic
phenomena involving a fully submerged body
requires equality of :
A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Mach number
Answer : A
110. The water hammer
phenomenon is
primarily what kind of fluid mechanics?
A. static (a phenomena independent of
time)
B. dynamic
(
a
time-dependent
phenomena)
C. compressible
D. incompressible
Answer : B
111. All of the following are forms of drag on a
body moving through a fluid except :
A. skin friction
B. wake drag
C. profile drag
D. d’Alembert’s paradox drag
Answer : D
112. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a
sphere in water is dependent upon all of the
following except:
A. fluid density
B. fluid velocity
C. units of measure(SI or English
Engineering System)
D. drag force
Answer : C
113.The fact that there is no resistance to
bodies moving through an ideal(non-viscous)
fluids is known as :
A. Reynolds number
B. d’Alembert’s paradox
C. Newton’s second law
D. the second law of thermodynamics
Answer : B
114. One could expect the possibility of
Reynolds number similarity in all of the following
cases
except :
A. submarines
B. torpedoes
C. seaplane hulls
D. supersonic craft
Answer : C
115. The function of turbine is to
A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. increase the total energy content of the
flow
C. extract energy from the flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the
flow
Answer : C
116.Pitot tube is use to measure the :
A. velocity of mass
B. velocity of pipe
C. flow
D. velocity of flow
Answer : D
117. Orifice coefficient are used to determine
A. energy losses
B. energy gains
C. mass losses
D. energy losses and mass gains
Answer : A
118. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the
A. area of vena contrata to the orifice area
B. actual discharge to the theoretical
discharge
C. actual discharge velocity to
theoretical discharge velocity
D. effective head to the actual head
Answer : C
the
119. The volume flow passes through a
venturimeteris :
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
D. varying
Answer : C
120. Which of the following devices used to
measure the discharge of outflow from a
vessel?
A. pitot tube
B. orifice
C. pump head
D. obstruction meter
Answer : B
CHAPTER 10 – VARIABLE LOAD &
ENVIRONMENTAL ENG’G
1. The maximum continuous power available from
a hydro-electric plant under the most adverse
hydraulic conditions is called ____.
A. base power
B. firm power
C. primary power
D. secondary power
Answer : B
2. The area under load curve divided by maximum
demand represents
A. load factor
B. connected load
C. average load
D. diversity factor
Answer : D
3. What is the reverse capacity of a plant?
A. maximum demand- average demand
B. plant capacity - maximum demand
C. plant capacity - average demand
D. plant capacity x (1- load factor)
Answer : B
Answer : B
4. Load curve refers to the plot of :
A. load vs. generating capacity
B. load vs. current
C. load vs. time
D. load vs. cost of power
Answer : C
9. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant
capacity.
A. load factor
B. utilization factor
C. maximum load factor
D. capacity factor
Answer : B
5. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant
capacity is called ____.
A. load factor
B. utilization factor
C. maximum load factor
D. capacity
Answer : B
10. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over
the designated period of time is called
A. load factor
B. reactive power
C. diversity factor
D. plant use factor
Answer : A
6. Peak load for a period of time divided by installed
capacity is :
A. capacity factor
B. demand factor
C. utilization factor
D. load factor
Answer : C
11. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
demands of the system to the overall maximum
demand of the whole system.
A. demand factor
B. diversity factor
C. power factor
D. utilization factor
Answer : B
7. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
demands of the system to the maximum depend of
the whole system is :
A. diversity factor
B. utilization factor
C. power factor
D. demand factor
Answer : A
8. The ratio between the actual power and the
apparent power in any circuit is known as the ____
of that circuit.
A. measured power
B. capacity
C. power factor
D. KVAR
12. Load curve refers to the plot of :
A. load vs. generating capacity
B. load vs. current
C. load vs. time
D. load vs. cost of power
Answer : C
13. Load curve refers to the plot of :
A. load vs. generating capacity
B. load vs. current
C. load vs. time
D. load vs. cost of power
Answer : C
14. The ratio of the maximum load to the rated plant
capacity
A. load factor
B. utilization factor
C. maximum load factor
D. capacity factor
Answer : B
15. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over
a designated period of time is called____.
A. load factor
B. reactive factor
C. diversity factor
D. plant use factor
Answer : A
16. Peak load for a period of time divided by installed
capacity is _____.
A. capacity factor
B. demand factor
C. utilization factor
D. load factor
E. Answer :C
17. The area under load curve divided by maximum
demand represents
A. Load factor
B. Connected load
C. Average load
D. Diversity factor
Answer : D
18. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
demands of the system to the overall maximum
demand of the whole system.
A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
Answer : B
19. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
demands of the system to the max. demand of the
whole system is known as ____.
A. Diversity factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Demand factor
Answer : A
20. The ratio between the actual power to the
apparent power in any circuit is known as the ____
of that circuit.
A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR
Answer : C
21. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to
the equipment called :
A. Fermenters
B. brew kettle
C. cooler
D. starting tube
Answer : A
22. A major cause of pollution resulting from the
burning fuel oil is :
A. nitrous
B. hydrogen
C. sulfur dioxide
D. silicon
Answer : C
23. Heavy water is :
A. B2 O
B. H2 O
C. W2 O
D. D2 O
Answer : D
24. Scintillation counter are used to detect :
A. Beta rays
B. X-ray
C. Gamma rays
D. All of the above
Answer : D
25. All of the following are common types of
chemical reactions except
A. Direct combination
B. Fission
C. Decomposition
D. Double replacement
Answer : B
26. Redox reactions can often be type of :
A. direct combination
B. fission
C. decomposition
D. double replacement
Answer : D
27. The fact that the amount of slightly soluble gas
absorbed in a liquid is proportional to the partial
pressure of the gas is known as :
A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Boyle’s law
Answer : B
28. All of the following pollutants are produced
because of decaying organic matter except:
A. Ammonia
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Methane
D. Hydrogen sulfide
Answer : B
29. The velocity of radiations(v) and the frequency
of radiations(f) are related to the wavelength of
radiations by :
A. v/f
B. f/v
C. vf
D. v 2 f
Answer : A
30. Swimming pool water needs
A. pre-chlorination
B. super-chlorination
C. dual- chlorination
D. de- chlorination
Answer : D
31. Aeration of water is done for all of the
following purposes except of :
A. removal of CO2
B. removal of bad taste
C. increasing the amount of oxygen in water
D. removal of temporary hardness
Answer : D
32. Which of the following area of works requires
lowest noise level?
A. Gymnasiums
B. Library
C. lecture halls
D. kitchens
Answer : B
33. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced
by :
A. Molds
B. Virus
C. Bacteria
D. Algae
Answer : B
34. Turbidity in water is due to :
A. Algae
B. fungi
C. organic salts
D. finally divide particles of clay, silt and
organic matter
Answer : D
35. Per- capita consumption of water is generally
taken as :
A. 50 -100 liters
B. 150 – 300 liters
C. 400 – 500 liters
D. 750 – 1000 liters
Answer : B
36. Which of the following industries have the
highest consumption of water for processing?
A. Foundry
B. Automobile industry
C. Paper mill
D. Aluminum industry
Answer : C
37. The ratio activity of water because of strontium
can be removed by :
A. Aeration
B. alum coagulation
C. phosphate coagulation
D. lime
Answer : C
38. Chemical used for checking the growth of algae
in reservoirs is
A. copper sulphate
B. alum
C. bleaching powder
D. brine
Answer : C
39. Which of the following is not the pollutant from
a sulfuric acid plants?
A. sulfur dioxide
B. sulfur trioxide
C. acid moist
D. hydrogen sulfide
Answer : D
40.Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp?
A. sodium vapor lamp
B. high pressure mercury vapor lamp
C. low pressure mercury vapor lamp
D. neon lamp
Answer : D
41. Which has an octane rating of more than 100?
A. gobar gas
B. methyl alcohol
C. benzol
D. ethyl alcohol
Answer : C
42. The part per million is identical to :
A. grains per gallon
B. pounds per cubic foot
C. milligrams per kg
D. tones per acre foot
Answer : C
43. In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is
installed between :
A. Forced draft fan and induce draft fan
B. Furnace and chimney
C. Primary air and secondary air
D. Furnace and forced draft fan
Answer : B
44. At present, the number of true elementary
particles which include leptons and quarks, is
thought to be :
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer : D
45. The effective size of a target atom that interacts
with a moving particle is called its
A. Length
B. Width
C. cross section
D. pseudo – area
Answer : C
46. Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in
several different ways including _____
A. absorption
B. scattering
C. absorption and scattering
D. reflection and absorption
Answer : C
47. The operation that produces highest noise level
is :
A. welding
B. riveting
C. machining
D. pressing
Answer : B
48. The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the
original incident energy striking the collector.
A. shading factor
B. collector efficiency
C. betz coefficient
D. transmittance
Answer : B
49. A swinging support constructed as part of the
vessel and that supports that manway cover when it
is bolted and moved aside.
A. Davit
B. Handhole
C. Nozzle neck
D. Manway arm
Answer : A
50. Is the subjective method in which the smoke
density is visually compared to the five standardized
white – black grids.
A. Ringelman scale
B. Dalton scale
C. Smoke spot scale
D. Dew point scale
Answer : A
51. The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the
fugacity at some reference state is known as :
A. Compressibility
B. Activity
C. Gravimetric coefficient
D. Saturation
Answer : B
a)
b)
c)
d)
Polyvinyl chloride(pvc)
Polystyrene (ps)
Low density poltethylene(lpde)
Polypropylene(pp)
Answer: c
54. a radioactive gas produced from the decay of
radium within the rocks beneath a building.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Spills
Radon
Smoke
Smog
Answer:b
55. consist of ground-level ozone and peroxyacyl
nitrate (pan)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Smog
Spills
Sulphur oxide
Smoke
Answer: a
56. a term used to mean the corrective steps
taken to return the environmenttoitsoriginal
condition.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stabilization
Remediation
Greenhouse effect
Opacity
Answer: b
52. A type of polymer used for detergents, milk
bottles, oil containers and toys.
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. High Density Polyethylene (HDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)
Answer : C
57. the burning of low-sulfur fuel is known as :
53. a type of polymer used for grocery bags and
food wraps.
58. the removal of particulate matterfromagas
flow by exposing the flow to a liquid or slurry is
known as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fuel switching
Fuel adding
Fuel binding
Fuel swapping
Answer: a
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stripping
Spraying
Scrubbing
Absorption
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dust or fugitive dusts
Dioxins
Fugitive emissions
CFCs
Answer: c
Answer: d
59. the drop in a solvent’s vapour pressure and
the increase in mole fraction as solute is addedis
described by:
63. equipment leaks from plant equipments are
known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dalton’s law
Henry’s law
Raoult’s law
Boyle’s law
Answer: c
60. all of the following statements are
characteristics of bases except
a) They conduct electricity in aqueous
solutions
b) They turn red litmus paper blue
c) They have a ph between 0 and 7
d) They neutralize acids forming salts and
water
Answer: c
61.all of the following statements about
conjugate acids and bases are true except
a) A conjugate acids results when a base
accept a proton
b) A conjugate base results when a base
accept a proton
c) Strong acids tend to give weak conjugate
bases
d) The bronsted-lowry theory defines bases
as proton acceptors
Answer: b
62. are any solid particulate matter that
becomes airborne, with the exception of
particulate matter emitted from the exhaust
stack of a combustion process.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fugitive leaks
Fugitive dust
Fugitive exhaust
Fugitiveemissions
answer: d
64. what is a substance that absorbs or retains
moisture?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Surface acting agent
Dry ultra-fine coal
Fossil fuel
Humectant
Answer: d
65. is a soluble compound that reduces a
liquid’s surface tension or reduces the
interfacial tension between a liquid and a solid.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Surface-acting agent or surfactant
Humectant
Oxygenated fuel
CFC
Answer: a
66. a material or substantce that is accidentally
or intentionally introduced to the environment
in a quantity that exceeds wthat occurs
naturally.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Waste
Sludge
Pollutant
Biosolids
Answer: d
67. refers to organic waste produced from
biological Waterwaste treatment processes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Toxic waste
Biosolids
Extrinsic waste
Process waste
Answer: b
68. a rule which states that any solid waste
mixedwith hazardous waste becomes
hazardous.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The moixture rule
The derived from rule
The environmental rule
The hazard rule
Answer: a
69. a rule which states that any waste derived
from the treatment of a hazardous waste
remains a hazardous waste.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The mixture rule
The treatment rule
The derived from from rule
The hazard rule
Answer: c
70. generally refers to sulphur trioxide SO3 in
the flue gas.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Acid rain
Acid gas
Hydrochloric acids
Stack gas
Answer: b
71. what consist of weak solutions of sulphuric,
hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent,nitric acids?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stack gas
Acid rain
Acid compound
Pollutant
Answer: b
72. a fibrous silicate mineral material that is
inert, strong and incombustible.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fiberglass
Plastic
Rubber
Asbestos
Answer: d
73. an insulator with superior tensile strength
but low heat resistance.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rubber
Plastic
Fiberglass
Asbestos
Answer: c
74. are highlyconcentrated liquid wastes
produced in landfills.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aerosols
Leachates
Nitrogen dioxide
Urea
Answer: b
75. what is the primary cause of smog
formation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Toxins
Dioxins
Oxidants
Nitrogen oxides
Answer: d
76. is a water soluble organic compound
prepared from ammonia. It has significant
biological and industrial usefulness.
a) Urea or carbamide urea
b) Nitrite
c) Chlorinated organics
d) Oxidants
Answer: a
77. are by products of reaction between
combustion products.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Photochemicals
Oxidants
Organics
Sediments
Answer: b
78. “particulate matter” is defined as all
particles that are emitted by a combustion
source .what is another term for particulate
matter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dust
Aerosol
Biosolids
Sediments
b) Polystyrene(ps)
c) Low density polyethelene(lpde)
d) Polypropylene(pp)
Answer: d
82. a type of polymer usedfor clear bottles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Polyvinyl chloride(pvc)
Polystyrene(ps)
Low density polyethelene(lpde)
Polypropylene(pp)
Answer: a
83. refers to the high-temperature removal of
tarry substances from the interior of the carbon
granule leaving a highly porous structure.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Absorbent
Activated
Breakthrough
Adsorbent
Answer: b
Answer: b
79. are organic compounds manufactured in
oily liquid and solid forms through the late
1970s and subsequently prohibited.
84. a substance high surface area per unit
weight, and intricateporestructure,and a
hydrophobic surface.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Polychlorinated biphenyls (pcbs)
Polyvinyl chloride(pvc)
Trihalomethanes
Plastic
a)
b)
c)
d)
Adsorbent substance
Adsorbent substance
Homogeneous substance
Activated substance
Answer: a
Answer: a
80. a type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups
and “clamshell”food containers.
85. is a high- temperature process that turns
incinerator ash into a safe , glass-like material.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Polyvinyl chloride(pvc)
Polystyrene(ps)
Low density polyethelene(lpde)
Polypropylene(pp)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Advance oxidation
Biofitration
Vitrification
Bioventing
Answer: d
Answer: c
81. a type of polymer used for labels,bottles and
housewares.
86. refers to the use of compoting and soil beds.
a) Polyvinyl chloride(pvc)
a) Biofiltration
b) Biomediation
c) Bioventing
d) Bioreactors
c) Pascals
d) MeV
Answer: a
Answer:c
87. are open or closed tanks containing dozens
or hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered
with a biological film of microorganisms.
92. what do you call the mixture if the solute
particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are
larger than molecules?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Biofilter
Bioreactor
Biomediator
Bioinventor
Answer: b
88. refersto the treatment of contaminated soil
in a large plastic-covered tank.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Bioventing
Biological recycling
Biocycle
Bioremediation
Answer: a
89. all the following occur during oxidation of a
substance except
a)
b)
c)
d)
Oxidation state increases
Loss of electrons
The substance becomes less negative
Oxidation of the oxidizing agent
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: b
93.what do you call the mixture when a solvent
has dissolve as much solute as it can?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
An increase in negative charge
Loss of electrons
An oxidation state decrease
Reduction of the oxidizing agent
answer: b
91. all of the following are units of energy
except:
a) Calories
b) Joules
Solution
Suspension
Hydration
Saturated solution
Answer: d
94.theequilibirium constant for weak solution is
known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer:d
90. all of the following occur during reduction
of a substance except
Solution
Suspension
Hydration
Saturated solution
Ionization constant
Arrhenius exponent
Solubility product
La Chatelier’s constant
Answer: A
95.what do you call the mixture if the solute
particles of solid suspended in a liquid are larger
than the molecules?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Solution
Suspension
Hydration
Saturated solution
Answer: B
96. what do you call the mixture when a solvent
has dissolved as much solute as it can?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Solution
Mild solution
Hydration
Saturatedsolution
Answer: D
97. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is
known as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ionization solution
Arrhenius exponent
Solubility product
La Chatelier’s constant
a)
b)
c)
d)
Normality
Molarity
Formality
Isotropy
Answer: D
102.The desirable temperature inside an air
conditioned auditorium is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
0 deg
5 deg
10 deg
20 deg
Answer: A
Answer D
98.If the solute particles of solid suspended in a
liquid are larger than molecules, themixture is
known as:
103. What of the following acts as ignition
accelerator forinternalcombustion engine fuels?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Solution
Suspension
Hydration
Saturated solution
Answer: B
99. When a solvent has dissolved as much as
solute as it can, the mixture is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Solution
Suspension
Hydration
Saturated solution
Answer: D
100. When excess solute in a solution settles to
the bottomof the container, the process is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Salvation
Deemulsification
Precipitation
Equation
Answer: D
101.Allthe following express units of
concentration exept:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Acetone peroxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Aromatic compounds
N- heptane
Anwer:
A
104. Which of the following does not use ambient
air for propulsion?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Turbo jet
Turbo-prop
Pulse jet
Rocket
Anwer: B
105.Most observed properties of light and other
radiant energy are consistent with waves in
nature, but in interactions with matter,
electromagnetic energy behaves as though its
consist of discrete pieces or
a)
b)
c)
d)
Blocks
Balls
Quanta
Atomic masses
Answer: C
106. The amount of energy absorbed when a
substance enters a solution is called the:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Heat of fusion
Heat of sublimation
Endothermic heat of solution
Exothermic heat of solution
Answer: C
107. The absorption of water by a dessicant often
demonstrates:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Heat of fusion
Heat of vaporization
Endothermic heat of solution
Exothermic heat of solution
Answer: D
108. A substance that absorbs moisture from the
air is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Deliquescent
Efflorescent
Effervescent
A precipitant
Anwer: A
109. The removal of a dissolved gas or other
volatile component from liquid by exposing the
liquid to air or steam is known as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stripping
Gas absorption
Spraying
Scrubing
Answer: A
110. Which of the following contribute to the
deterioration of the earth’s ozone layer?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Chlorofluorocarbons
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Refrigerants
Answer: b
111. Ozone filters out what type of radiation that
damages crops and causes skin cancer?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Tropospheric radiation
Atmospheric radiation
X-rays
Ultraviolet radiation
Answer:D
112. all of the following factors affect rates of
reaction except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Exposed surface area
Concentrations
Temperature
Pressure
Answer: d
113. lechatelier’s principle predicts the direction
of a state of chemical equilibrium based on all of
the following factors except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Temperature
Specific volume
Pressure
Concentration
Answer: b
114. the amount of energy necessary to cause a
reaction to occur is called the
a)
b)
c)
d)
Heat of formation
Heat of solution
Activation of energy
Heat of fusion
Answer: c
115. the equilibrium constant for weak solution
is known as
a) The ionization constant
b) The Arrhenius exponent
c) The solubility product
d) Le chatelier’s principle
Answer: a
116. the speed at which a reaction proceeds to
equilibrium is the purview of
a)
b)
c)
d)
Reaction kinetics
Le chatelier’s principle
Neutralization
Ionization
Answer: a
117. thecolor of water is measured :
a)
b)
c)
d)
In terms of pH value
In terms of degree of hardness
In terms of platinum cobalt scale
Ppm of dissolved solid
Answer:c
118. whatturbidimeter that gives direct readings
in ppm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Jackson turbidimeter
Helligeturbidimeter
Baylisturbidimeter
All of the above
Answer: a
119. which of the following is not a sound
absorptive material?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rugs
Mirrors
Carpets
Heavy drapes
Answer: b
120.the total cross section of a target atom is
made up of
a) The absorption across section
b) The scattering across section
c) The absorption and scattering cross
sections
d) The reflection and absorption cross
section
Answer: c
121. which of the following cannot be a
phenomenon of neutron interactions?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ineslastic scattering
elastic scattering
fission
fusion
answer: d
122. which of the following cannot be usedto
describe neutron kinetic energy level?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cold
Thermal
Slow
Freezing
Answer: d
123. all of the following are words used to
describe neutron kinetic energy levels except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Slow(resonant)
Fast
Supersonic
Relativistic
Answer: c
124.the reduction of nuclearradiation
intensity(called attenuation) is accomplished by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Matter
Antimatter
Shielding
Neurons
Answer: c
125. the ability of substance to absorb neurons
depends upon its
a) Absorption cross section
b) Scattering cross section
c) Total cross section
d) Atomic number
Answer a