Chapter 7
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1) Temporarily organized groups that are formed to achieve particular goals or solve particular problems
are called
A) task forces.
B) work groups.
C) self- managed teams.
D) informal groups. E) committees.
Answer: A
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2) According to behavioural scientists,
A) groupshaveat least fivemembers.
B) group members must interact face- to- face.
C) group members have a common goal and interact with each other. D) members of larger groups tend
to report higher levels of satisfaction. E) informal groupsareshown on organizational charts.
Answer: C
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3) Asagroup sizeincreases
A) members become less inhibited about participating in group activities.
B) the group becomes more socially elaborate.
C) members become more satisfied with group membership. D) performance on conjunctive tasks
improves.
E) the group consistently performs better.
Answer: B
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4) Identify the proper sequence of group development activities. A) Forming, storming, norming,
performing, adjourning. B) Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning. C) Storming, forming,
norming, performing, adjourning. D) Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning. E) Forming,
storming, performing, norming, adjourning.
Answer: A
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5. 5) During which stage of group development is conflict likely to develop? A) Performing
B) Forming
C) Norming D) Adjourning E) Storming
Answer: E
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6. 6) Which of the following equations is accurate?
A) Process losses = potential performance + actual performance
B) Potential performance = actual performance + process losses C) Potential performance =
actual performance - process losses D) A ctual performance = potential performance - process
losses E) Process performance = actual performance - process losses
Answer: D
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7. 7) A group performing a disjunctive task will perform at the level of A ) the relative process loss.
B) itsworst member.
C) the average performance of all its members.
D) themember who ismost friendly to other members. E) itsbest member.
Answer: E
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8. 8) One reason for members reporting less satisfaction in larger groups is A) people are less
inhibited about participating in larger groups.
B) they havemoretimeto develop friendshipswith other group members. C) conflict and dissension
are less likely in larger groups.
D) opportunities for participation increase in larger groups.
E) individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.
Answer: E
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9. 9) Which of the following is a primary feature of virtual teams? A) Diversity of members.
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B) Small group size.
C) Team member stability.
D) Superordinategoals.
E) Lack of face- to- face contact.
Answer: E
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Answer: B
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10) A manager recommends an employee for a promotion because the employee stood up for the
manager during a leadership crisis. Which reward allocation norm led the superior to recommend this
employee for promotion?
A) Social responsibility B) Reciprocity
C) Equity
D) Equality
E) Performance
Answer: B
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11) On which task isthepresenceof only onepoor performer most likely to damagegroup performance? A)
Additive
B) Disjunctive C) Conjunctive D) Reflexive
E) Complexive
Answer: C
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12) A televisionnewsteam consistsof areporter,acameraoperator,and asound technician.Their jobistoget
good news reports to the station in time to make the evening news. A bad story, a bad picture, or bad
sound means they have failed. This is a(n) __________ task.
A) complexive B) additive
C) reflexive
D) disjunctive E) conjunctive
Answer: E
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13) Which of thefollowing statementsismost indicativeof aprocessloss?
1. A) Carly was clearly the star of the group and they could not have completed the project on time
without her
participation.
2. B) Asthetask forcegot bigger,it encountered morecoordination problems.
3. C) Nan experienced role conflict when her boss told her to do something that she felt was
4.
5.
unethical.
D) Bill forgot how to program FORTRA N computer language because he hadn't used it in ten
years.
E) Zeke worked harder when his colleagues were present than when he was alone.
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14. 14) The relationship between group size and group __________ is particularly complex and
highly contingent upon thetask being performed.
A) member satisfaction B) cohesiveness
C) performance
D) norms
E) member participation
Answer: C
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15. 15) Which of the following is an example of process loss?
A) The source of the quality problems could have originated in any one of three separate
departments.
B) A fter they failed to land the big contract, the status of the sales staff decreased. C) Because
the group was so large, communication became a problem.
D) After losing thegame, theteam wasmuch lesscohesive.
E) No one in the group could remember how to work the video machine.
Answer: C
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16. 16) A s a group performing an additive task gets bigger A) potential group productivity
decreases.
B) process losses decrease.
C) the average productivity per member decreases.
D) group cohesiveness should increase.
E) the performance of the best member becomes more critical to group success.
Answer: C
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17. 17) Which of thefollowing isan additivetask for agroup?
A) Looking for a single error in a complicated computer program.
B) Passing water buckets along a human chain. C) Picking grapes at harvest.
D) Working in a self- managed group.
E) Writing a short story.
Answer: C
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18. 18) Diverse groups tend to develop more __________ than less diverse groups. A) poorly
B) loyalty norms C) quickly
D) slowly
E) roles
Answer: D
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19. 19) Tasks that depend on the performance of the best group member's performance are A)
disjunctive.
B) conjunctive. C) complexive. D) injunctive. E) reflexive.
Answer: A
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20. 20) Which of the following is an example of a process loss? A) reduced status
B) performance norm C) loyalty norm
D) social loafing
E) disjunctivetask
Answer: D
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21. 21) The group had trouble coordinating its efforts because it was so big. This is an example of A)
aconjunctivetask.
B) punctuated equilibrium. C) aprocessloss.
D) roleambiguity.
E) social loafing.
Answer: C
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22. 22) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, a critical point occurs A) when
thegroup entersthestorming stage.
B) toward theend of Phase2.
C) at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline.
D) at the midpoint of the volume of work that has to be accomplished. E) at the middle of Phase
1.
Answer: C
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23. 23) In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, the midpoint transition occurs A)
at thebeginning of Phase1.
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B) as the group enters the storming stage. C) at theend of Phase2.
D) when half thegroup'swork isdone. E) when half thegroup'stimeiselapsed.
Answer: E
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24) In the stage model of group development, conflict is a particular problem A) in thestageafter norming.
B) in theforming stage.
C) in the stage before norming. D) in the performing stage.
E) in theadjourning stage.
Answer: C
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25. 25) Lisa is a very religious person whose boss tells her to offer an illegal bribe to a government
official to obtain a lucrative contract. What kind of role conflict is she experiencing?
A) Interrole B) Intersender C) Intrasender
D) Person- role
E) Roleambiguity
Answer: D
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26. 26) Darlene is a physician who is employed as the director of research for a large drug company.
She often worries that her actions as a manager could possibly violate the physicians' code of
professional conduct. This is most clearly an example of __________ conflict.
A) intersender B) interrole C) intrasender
D) role ambiguity E) person- role
Answer: B
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27) Who is experiencing interrole conflict?
1. A) The plant manager debated in his mind whether he should open the valve and risk polluting
the
environment.
2. B) Jack is vice- president of sales and marketing.
3. C) The head of engineering told Jan to do one thing and the head of design told her to do the
opposite.
4. D) Michael's boss told him to relax as he handed him another report to finish by the end of the
day.
E)Thestraw bossontheconstructionjobwasunsureifhewasaworkerorasupervisor.
Answer: E
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Answer: D
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28) The members of a work group are paid a group bonus according to the productivity of the group.
Because of this, each member expects the other to perform at the highest level. This expectation is an
example of which aspect of group structure?
A) A role
B) A norm
C) Cohesiveness
D) Status
E) A disjunctivetask
Answer: B
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29) Which of thefollowing statementsabout normsistrue? A) Normsaregenerally unrelated toattitudes.
B) Roles are made up of "packages" of norms.
C) Norms cannot be targeted at a specific individual.
D) A person can have his or her own private, personal norm.
E) Norms are not an aspect of group structure.
Answer: B
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30) The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece rate basis. Which reward
allocation norm do theworkersfavour?
A) Loyalty
B) Social responsibility C) Equality
D) Reciprocity E) Equity
Answer: E
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31) The boss who constantly changes his mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put this
another way, A) role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict.
B) role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict. C) intersender role conflict can cause interrole
conflict. D) intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity. E) person- role conflict can cause role
ambiguity.
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32. 32) Which aspect of group structuremost closely reflectstheway membersevaluateeach other? A)
Roles
B) Diversity C) Norms D) Status
E) Size
Answer: D
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33. 33) Higher status group members __________ than lower status members. A)
havemoreinfluence
B) communicate more
C) are addressed more frequently D) participate more
E) all of theabove
Answer: E
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34. 34) Which of the following statements about status and communication is true?
A) Most peopleliketo communicatewith othersat their own statusor lower.
B) Peoplecan beinhibited from communicating upward if statusdifferencesarelarge. C)
Communication has a tendency to move down the status hierarchy.
D) Lower- status members do more talking.
E) Status has very little relation to communication in organizations.
Answer: B
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35. 35) Janice thought that her summer job as a municipal garbage collector would be easy.
Unfortunately, her supervisor tells her to do one thing one day and the exact opposite the next
day. Janice's role ambiguity
A) isinherent in thejob sheperforms. B) stemsfrom arolesender.
C) is a function of person- role conflict.
D) is a function of intersender role conflict. E) stems from the social facilitation effect.
Answer: B
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36. 36) Which of thefollowing statementsabout statusistrue?
1. A) All organizationshaveboth formal and informal statussystems.
2. B) In organizations, status symbols are more a part of the informal status system than
3.
4.
5.
the formal status system.
C) In most organizations, formal and informal status systems are equivalent.
D) Most organizationstry not to tiestatussymbolsto assigned roles.
E) Informal status in the organization is more likely than formal status to carry over into
the community.
Answer: A
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37. 37) Which of thefollowing statementsistrue?
A) Equity normsallocaterewardsequally to everyonein thegroup.
B) Peoplewith similar attitudesarelesslikely to form agroup than thosewith different attitudes. C)
The "class clown" fills an emergent role in his or her school.
D) A group has at least three members.
E) Moving aheavy crateisadisjunctivetask.
Answer: C
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38. 38) Positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviours are called A)
norms.
B) roles.
C) status symbols. D) conjunctive tasks. E) attributes.
Answer: B
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39. 39) Robin is a member of a task force that may do away with her own department. Robin is most
obviously experiencing
A) person-roleconflict.
B) intrasender role conflict. C) interrole conflict.
D) intersender role conflict. E) roleambiguity.
Answer: C
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40. 40) Which of thefollowing typesof roleconflict ismost likely to provokeroleambiguity? A)
Interroleconflict
B) Intrasender role conflict C) Status- role conflict
D) Intersender role conflict E) Person- role conflict
Answer: B
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41. 41) Thefirst-linesupervisor who servesastheinterfacebetween "management" and "theworkers"
ismost likely to experience __________ role conflict when labour relations are poor.
A) intersender B) boundary C) status
D) intrasender E) person- role
Answer: A
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42. 42) Which of thefollowing factorsismost influential in achieving formal organizational status? A)
Assigned rolein theorganization
B) Nationality and religion
C) Ability to perform disjunctivetasks D) Age
E) Loyalty norms
Answer: A
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43. 43) The task force is large, successful, and experiencing moderate threat. Which factor would
most likely prevent the task force from being cohesive?
A) Thethreat
B) Itstough initiation procedures C) Its homogeneous makeup
D) Itssuccess E) Itssize
Answer: E
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44. 44) Highly cohesivework groupsalmost always A) accomplish their own goals effectively.
B) produce more than less cohesive groups.
C) accomplish the goals of the organization effectively. D) produce less than less cohesive
groups.
E) have high levels of turnover.
Answer: A
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45. 45) Which factor is least likely to promote group cohesiveness? A) Small group size
B) Losing a contest
C) Competing in a contest
D) Experiencing a tough initiation into the group E) Winning a contest
Answer: B
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46. 46) Highly cohesivegroupstend tobe__________than lesscohesivegroups. A) larger
B) more or less productive C) moreconflict-ridden D) less productive
E) moreproductive
Answer: B
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A) tasks
B) aspirations C) roles
D) values E) norms
Answer: C
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47) Which of the following statements concerning group cohesiveness is false?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A) Smaller groupsgenerally haveamoredifficult timebecoming and staying cohesive.
B) Under extreme threat or loss of a contest, group cohesiveness is likely to suffer.
C) Groups that are tough to get into should be more attractive than those that are easy to join.
D) Voluntary turnover from highly cohesive groups should be low .
E) A group becomesmoreattractiveto itsmemberswhen it hassuccessfully accomplished
someimportant
goal.
Answer: A
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48) Organizationsthat allocaterewardsto thosewho truly need therewardshaveadopted areward system
that is based on a(n) __________ norm.
A) loyalty
B) social responsibility C) reciprocity
D) equity E) equality
Answer: B
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49) Social loafing is an example of A) punctuated equilibrium.
B) adisjunctivetask C) roleambiguity. D) aprocessloss.
E) roleconflict.
Answer: D
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50) Conventional specialized __________ usually disappear when effective self- managed teams are
used by organizations.
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51. 51) A successful self- managed work team would probably not be A) high in expertise.
B) high in social skills.
C) performing an interesting task. D) extremely large.
E) highly cohesive.
Answer: D
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52. 52) Which factor is most important in leading to the success of a self- managed work team? A)
Largesize
B) An interesting task
C) Great similarity of members D) Extrapay
E) Great diversity of members
Answer: B
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53. 53) Self-managed work groupstypically
A) areused only for white-collar work.
B) suffer from the free rider effect.
C) have highly specialized, carefully defined roles within the group. D) must have stable
membership to be effective.
E) perform best when assigned to very routinetasks.
Answer: D
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54. 54) What kind of tasks are most appropriate for self- managed work groups? A) Conjunctive
B) Blue-collar
C) Complex and challenging D) Routine and boring
E) White-collar
Answer: C
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55. 55) All relevant specialtiesshould beincluded when designing A) virtual teams.
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B) self- managed teams. C) cross- functional teams. D) task forces.
E) any kind of team.
Answer: C
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56) The technologies used by virtual teams tend to be A) asynchronousones.
B) synchronousones.
C) chat and groupware.
D) email, faxes, and voice mail.
E) either asynchronous or synchronous ones.
Answer: E
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57) Virtual teamsare
1. A) groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and
organizational
boundaries.
2. B) groupsof individualswho arealwaysavailablewhen theorganization needsto form ateam.
3. C) groups that use technology to accomplish their tasks and communicate with other groups in
the
organization.
4. D) groupsof peoplewho haveexpertisein technology and arealwaysavailablewhen needed to
completea
task.
5. E) groups that exist throughout an organization and include customers and suppliers.
Answer: A
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58) Which of thefollowing isthemost accuratestatement about virtual teams?
A)
B) C) D ) E)
Although thewereonceadream,it now appearsthat they will never deliver thebenefitsthat many had hoped
for.
Although they wereonceadream,they arenow beingused by asmall and select group of companies.
A lthough they still remain a dream, some companies plan to begin using them in the next five to ten
years. A l t h o u g h t h ey st i l l r em ai n a d r eam , so m e co m p an i es ar e n o w ex p er i m en t i n
g w i t h t h em .
A lthough the w ere once a dream, they are now spreading and are used by numerous companies.
Answer: E
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59) Which one of the following is not an advantage of virtual teams? A) Reduced travel time.
B) Trust.
C) Around- the- clock work. D) Larger talent pool.
E) Reduced cost.
Answer: B
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60. 60) Research on virtual teams has found that they reduced instances of A) discrimination.
B) personality conflicts.
C) stereotyping.
D) the formation of cliques. E) All of theabove.
Answer: E
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61. 61) A major disadvantage of virtual teams is that they increase A) personality conflicts.
B) instances of discrimination. C) miscommunication.
D) stereotyping.
E) the formation of cliques.
Answer: C
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62. 62) Work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent,
design, or deliver a product or service are called
A) virtual teams.
B) task forces.
C) self- managed teams.
D) cross- functional teams. E) formal teams.
Answer: D
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63. 63) What does Rubbermaid, Thermos, Ford, and Rolls- Royce have in common? A) They haveall
used task forces.
B) They have all used self- managed teams.
C) They have all used virtual teams.
D) They haveall had bad experienceswith teams. E) They have all used cross- functional teams.
Answer: E
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64. 64) Superordinate goals are an important factor that contribute to the effectiveness of A) informal
groups.
B) virtual teams.
C) cohesive groups.
D) cross- functional teams. E) self- managed teams.
Answer: D
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65. 65) What is the most important function of norms?
A) to provide regularity and predictability of behaviour
B) to prevent social loafing
C) to increase group cohesiveness
D) to prevent intersender role conflict E) to prevent interrole conflict
Answer: A
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66. 66) ConnieGersick'sresearch resulted in which of thefollowing? A) model of group cohesiveness
B) punctuated equilibrium model
C) typical stages of group development
D) model of factors that influence work group effectiveness E) model of the role assumption
process
Answer: B
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67. 67) What did Connie Gersick study to learn about the development of groups?
A) workersat Federal Expressimproving billing accuracy and reducing lost packages
B) student groups doing class projects
C) teams at Rubbermaid that invent and design innovative household products D) a team at
Thermos that invented an ecologically friendly electric barbecue grill E) salesteamsat UPSthat
sell and deliver productsand services
Answer: B
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68. 68) You have been assigned a group project in your organizational behaviour course. You have
six weeks to complete it. When will the midpoint transition occur?
A) at about threeweeks B) at about fiveweeks C) at about oneweek
D) at about two weeks E) at about four weeks
Answer: A
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69. 69) Diversegroupsareleast likely to perform better when A) thetask isroutine
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B) the task is creativity- demanding C) the task is cognitive
D) the task involves problem solving E) all of theabove
Answer: A
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70) What kinds of roles develop in organizations? A) designated roles and informal roles
B) formal roles and informal roles
C) designated roles and emergent roles D) assigned roles and informal roles
E) designated roles and assigned roles
Answer: C
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71) Selma and Sam have just started new jobs at the same company. After one month, Selma has
become known by hercoworkersasthenew
softwareengineerandSamhasbecomeknownastheofficegossip.Whatkindofroles are these?
A) Selma'sroleisassigned and Sam'sroleisdesignated B) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is
assigned C) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is emergent
D) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is designated E) Selma's role is emergent and Sam's role is
emergent
Answer: C
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72) What elements can lead to role ambiguity?
A) organizational factors, role senders, focal person
B) organizational factors, individual factors, role senders, C) organizational factors, individual factors,
focal person D) individual factors, group factors, organizational factors E) individual factors, role senders,
focal person
Answer: A
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73) A ll of the following are frequent outcomes of role ambiguity except A) absenteeism
B) dissatisfaction
C) intentions to quit
D) reduced organizational commitment E) job stress
Answer: A
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74)
Employees who straddle the boundary between the organization and its clients or customers are
especially likely to encounter what form of roleconflict?
A) interroleconflict
B) intrasender role conflict C) intersender role conflict
D) person- role conflict E) all of theabove
Answer: C
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Whistle- blowing is often a signal of what form of role conflict? A) intrasender roleconflict
B) person- role conflict
C) intersender role conflict D) interrole conflict
E) none of the above
Answer: B
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T h e e x e c u t i v e t e a m a t L e v i St r a u s s & C o . w e a r s e x a m p l e s o f i t s o w n i n f o r m a
l c l o t h i n g l i n e i n o r d e r t o A) lower roleambiguity
B) create group cohesiveness C) lower roleconflict
D) communicate dress norms E) reduce status barriers
Answer: E
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What arethetwo formsof social loafing?
A) the free rider effect and the sucker effect
B) the free rider effect and the loafer effect
C) the free loader effect and the sucker effect D) the free loader effect and the free rider effect E) the free
rider effect and the solo effect
Answer: A
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All of thefollowing arewaysto counteract social loafing except A) establish asuperordinategoal
B) increase feelings of indispensability
C) make sure that the work is interesting
D) increaseperformancefeedback
E) make individual performance more visible
75)
77)
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76)
78)
Answer: A
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79)
What do 3M, Federal Express, Kodak, and General Mills have in common? A) they make extensive use of
cross- functional teams
B) they make extensive use of virtual teams
C) they downplay statusbarriers
D) they make extensive use of self- managed teams E) they have strong group norms
Answer: D
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A ll of the following are common areas of training for self- managed teams except for A) technical training
B) language skills training C) business training
D) social skills training
E) quality control training
Answer: E
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The punctuated equilibrium model only works for groups that successfully manage the midpoint transition.
Answer: True False
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Se l f - m a n a g e d w o r k t e a m s a r e m o s t e f f e c t i v e w h e n t h e t a s k s t h a t t h e y a r e r
e q u i r e d t o p e r f o r m a r e s i m p l e r a t h e r than complex.
Answer: True False
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The most important function that norms serve is to increase group cohesiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 232 Skill: Recall
Self-managed work teamsaremost effectivewhen themembersdevelop avery high degreeof role
specialization.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 244 Skill: Recall
The production manager tells Louis to do one thing and the sales manager says to do the opposite. Louis
is experiencing intersender role conflict.
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80)
81)
82)
83)
84)
85)
Answer: True False
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86. 86) On an additive task, the presence of an especially strong group member can compensate for
a weak group member.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Applied
87. 87) On a conjunctive task, the presence of an especially strong group member can compensate
for a weak group member.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Applied
88. 88) Potential group performance minus process losses equals actual group performance.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
89)OneofthemembersofJim'sself-managedworkteamhadforgottenhow touseExcel.Thisisanexampleofa
process loss.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Applied
90. 90) A ccording to the text, norms are personal, individual standards of conduct.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 232 Skill: Recall
91. 91) Seniority is the most important criterion in a formal status system.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 236 Skill: Recall
92. 92) Thebosswho isconstantly changing hismind islikely to provokeintrasender roleconflict in
employees.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
93. 93) Self-managed work teamsaremost effectivewhen they experienceafairly high degreeof
member turnover. This prevents the team from becoming "stale."
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 244 Skill: Applied
94. 94) The controller told Jan to do one thing and the controller's secretary told Jan to do the
opposite. Jan is experiencing interrole conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
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95. 95) The self- managed work teams at Excelsior Widgets were so large that confusion and poor
coordination existed within every team. This is an example of a process loss.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Applied
96. 96) Tough initiation into a group increases group cohesiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 239 Skill: Recall
97. 97) Role conflict is defined as a lack of clarity of job goals or methods.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Recall
98. 98) Jim is quiet and shy. He takes a job as a bouncer in a nightclub. This may provoke personrole conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
99. 99) On disjunctive tasks, potential group performance should depend on the performance of the
best member.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
100.
100) The performance of cohesive groups is consistently better than that of uncohesive
groups.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 240 Skill: Recall
101.
101) The informal status system of an organization involves status symbols such as
company cars, large offices, and first class air travel.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 236 Skill: Recall
102.
102) Large groups promote greater member satisfaction than small groups.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
103.
103) A sequential assembly line type of task is an example of a conjunctive task.
Answer: True False
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104.
104) To increase group cohesiveness, make the group extremely difficult to get into.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 239 Skill: Applied
105.
105) Role ambiguity is defined as the presence of incompatible role expectations.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 233 Skill: Recall
106.
106) Themanager who can't makeup her mind will likely causeher employeeto
experienceintrasender role conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
107.
107) Virtual teams are often cross- functional in nature.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
108.
108) Reward allocation norms, such as equity norms, means that all group members
expect to be treated equally.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 233 Skill: Recall
109.
109) Up to a point, threat promotes group cohesiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 238 Skill: Recall
110.
110) High status persons tend to initiate and receive less communication than low status
persons.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 236 Skill: Recall
111.
111) Theperformanceof individual group membersincreasesasgroup sizegetsbigger.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
112.
112) Process losses damage group performance.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
113.
113) The proper sequence of group development activities is forming, storming, norming,
performing, adjourning.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 227 Skill: Recall
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114.
114) Conflict is particularly likely to develop during the norming stage of group
development.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 228 Skill: Recall
115.
115) The punctuated equilibrium theory of group development has five phases.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 228 Skill: Recall
116.
116) Higher levels of diversity on a team will lead to higher cohesiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 231 Skill: Recall
117.
117) Disjunctive tasks depend on the performance of the best group member.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
118.
118) The technologies of virtual teams are usually just asynchronous ones.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
119.
119) Virtual teams reduce instances of discrimination.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 251 Skill: Recall
120.
120) Oneof theprimary featuresof virtual teamsisthelack of face-to-facecontact between
team members.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
121.
121) The recruitment of members for virtual teams should focus on good technical
expertise rather than interpersonal skills.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 251 Skill: Recall
122.
122) An important characteristic of virtual teams is that the members do not need to get
to know each other.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 252 Skill: Recall
123.
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123) A cross- functional team can also be self- managed.
Answer: True False
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124.
124) Superordinate goals are especially important for the effectiveness of self- managed
teams.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
125.
125) A t Sabre, cooperation and interpersonal skills were rated much higher in
importance than technical skills by virtual team members.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 251 Skill: Recall
126.
126) Social loafing is a motivation problem.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 241 Skill: Recall
127.
127) Diverse groups sometimes perform better when the task involves routine work.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 231 Skill: Recall
128.
128) Group processes are the best predictors of group effectiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 247 Skill: Recall
129.
129) When working on a disjunctive task the potential performance of a group depends
on the performance of its __________ member.
Answer: best
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
130.
130) "Oneweak link in thechain" severely damagesagroup'sperformanceon a(n)
__________task.
Answer: conjunctive
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Applied
131.
131) Expectations that social units have regarding the behaviour of others are called
__________.
Answer: norms
Page Ref: 232 Skill: Recall
132.
132) __________ are positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected
behaviours.
Answer: Roles
Page Ref: 233 Skill: Recall
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133.
133) Jim's boss tells him to do one thing one minute and the opposite thing the next
minute. Jim is experiencing __________.
Answer: intrasender roleconflict
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134.
134) The controller tells Tina to do one thing and the firm's legal counsel tells her to do
the opposite. Tina is experiencing __________.
Answer: intersender roleconflict
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
135.
135) Jason had trouble balancing the demands of work with the needs of his family.
Jason is experiencing __________.
Answer: interroleconflict
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
136.
136) Stanley decided that he just didn't have the right personality for sales. In terms of
role dynamics, Stanley is experiencing __________.
Answer: person-roleconflict
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
137.
137) One's rank or social position in a group is called __________.
Answer: status
Page Ref: 236 Skill: Recall
138.
138) __________ provide their members with the opportunity to do challenging work
under reduced supervision.
Answer: Self-managedworkteams
Page Ref: 243 Skill: Recall
139.
139) For a(n) __________ task, the potential performance of the group equals the sum
of the individual members' p er f or m an ces.
Answer: additive
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
140.
140) Conventional highly specialized __________ generally disappear in effective selfmanaged work groups.
Answer: roles
Page Ref: 244 Skill: Recall
141.
141) __________ occurs when job goals or the method of performing one's job is
unclear.
Answer: Roleambiguity
Page Ref: 233 Skill: Recall
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142.
142) By definition, a group has at least __________ members.
Answer: two
Page Ref: 229 Skill: Recall
143.
143) Groups that are especially attractive to their members are labeled __________
groups.
Answer: cohesive
Page Ref: 238 Skill: Recall
144.
144) By definition, incompatible role expectations cause __________.
Answer: roleconflict
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Recall
145.
145) Virtual teams are often __________ in nature.
Answer: cross-functional
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
146.
146) Competition, success, small size, and a tough initiation are part of the recipe for
forming a(n) __________ group.
Answer: cohesive
Page Ref: 238 Skill: Applied
147.
147) The term for a team composed of individuals from several different departments is
a __________ team.
Answer: cross-functional
Page Ref: 247 Skill: Recall
148.
148) A ctual group performance equals potential performance minus __________.
Answer: processlosses
Page Ref: 230 Skill: Recall
149.
149) Virtual teams are w ork groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate
across time, space, and organizational __________.
Answer: boundaries
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
150.
150) Along with their reliance on computer and electronic technology, the primary feature
of a virtual teams the lack of __________ contact between team members due to geographic
dispersion.
Answer: face-to-face
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151.
151) When recruiting members for virtual teams , it is important to find people with good
__________ skills, not just technical expertise.
Answer: interpersonal
Page Ref: 251 Skill: Recall
152.
152) Superordinate goals are attractive outcomes that can only be achieved by
__________.
Answer: collaboration
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
153.
153) Cross- functional team leaders need especially strong __________ skills in addition
to task expertise.
Answer: people
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
154.
154) __________ refers to the characteristics of the stable social organization of a
group.
Answer: Group structure
Page Ref: 229 Skill: Recall
155.
155) The most basic structural characteristics along which groups vary are size and
__________.
Answer: member diversity or diversity
Page Ref: 229 Skill: Recall
156.
156) __________ groups have a more difficult time communicating effectively and
becoming cohesive.
Answer: Diverse
Page Ref: 231 Skill: Recall
157.
157) Social loafing is a __________ problem.
Answer: motivation
Page Ref: 241 Skill: Applied
158.
158) M anagers are most likely to develop norms regarding the performance and
__________ of employees.
Answer: attendance
Page Ref: 232 Skill: Recall
159.
159) __________exitswhen thegoalsof one'sjob or themethodsof performing it
areunclear.
Answer: Roleambiguity
Page Ref: 233 Skill: Recall
160)Inthe__________,peoplelowertheirefforttogetafreerideattheexpenseoftheirfellowgroup members.
Answer: freerider effect
Page Ref: 241 Skill: Recall
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161.
161) In the__________,peoplelower their effort becauseof thefeeling that
othersarefreeriding,that is,they are trying to restore equity in the group.
Answer: sucker effect
Page Ref: 241 Skill: Recall
162.
162) __________ are attractive outcomes that can only be achieved by collaboration.
Answer: Superordinate
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
163.
163) Gary Lee is the supervisor of the sheet metal shop at Kaptser Enterprises. He is
known for his friendly, easygoing manner and mild temperament. Recently, he was asked by his
boss to introduce several new policies designed to tighten- up break times and reduce
unnecessary overtime. Gary has always considered himself to be a friend as well as a supervisor
to his employees; in fact he often socializes with them just as he did before he
waspromotedtosupervisor.Now
hisbosswantshimtostartadoptingatougher,morecontrollingleadership style. His workers, on the
other hand, want Gary to "cut them some slack" and give them more freedom in their duties.
Discuss the three types of role conflict which Gary is experiencing.
Answer: Gary islikely experiencing intersender roleconflict (what thebosswantsversuswhat
thesubordinates want), interrole conflict (he is both a friend and a supervisor to his workers), and
person- role conflict (he may not have it in him to become tough on his employeesor anyone else,
for that matter).
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Applied
164.
164) Distinguish between formal and informal work groupsin organizations. Givean
exampleof each.
Answer: Formal work groupsareestablished tofacilitatetheachievement of organizational
goals.Examples include departments, task forces, and committees. Informal groups emerge
naturally in response to the common interests of organizational members. Examples might
include a softball team, a fitness group or a wine tasting club.
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165.
165) Describethefivestagesof group development. At which stageisconflict most likely to
emerge?
Answer:
Forming,storming,norming,performing,andadjourning.Conflictemergesinthestormingstage.
Page Ref: 227 Skill: Recall
166.
166) Explain thedifferencebetween additivetasks,disjunctivetasksand
conjunctivetasks.Givean exampleof each.
Answer: Additivetasksarethosein which group performanceisdependent on thesum of
theperformanceof individual members (e.g. moving a heavy crate). Disjunctive tasks are those in
which group performance is dependent on the performance of the best group member (e.g.
debugging a software program). Conjunctivetasksarethosein which theperformanceof thegroup
islimited by itspoorest performer (e.g. sequential tasks such as assembly lines).
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167.
167) JuliaFranco,theVPof Operationsat ZetaManufacturing,isconcerned about
theconsistently low levelsof productivity in the assembly plant. At a meeting with company
executives, she proposes that the company introducesomesocial
activitiestoincreasecohesivenessamongtheworkers,and thereby improveproductivity. Gordon
Wong, the VP of Human Resources disagrees. "This group of workers is known to frequent the
local pub everyday after work and vacation together on long weekends. If you increase
cohesiveness any further, productivity will probably cometo acompletehalt!" Who do you think
iscorrect?Explain your answer.
Answer: This question is intended to test students' understanding of the relationship between
cohesiveness,
n o r m s , a n d p e r f o r m a n c e . L i k e Ju l i a , m a n y s t u d e n t s a u t o m a t i c a l l y a
s s u m e t h a t h i g h c o h e s i v e n e s s w i l l lead to improved performance; however, this is
only true if the group productivity norms support the goals of the organization. If, as Gordon
suggests, cohesiveness is high and group productivity norms are poor from an organizational
standpoint, then increasing cohesiveness will not lead to improved performance. Julia may have
to reduce the cohesiveness of the group first (e.g. by removing key members, adding new
members, or perhaps introducing competition or conflict into the group) and then encourage the
adoption of better performance norms (e.g. perhaps through an incentive program) before trying
to increase cohesiveness.
Page Ref: 240 Skill: Applied
168.
168) Describefour typesof reward allocation normswhich may affect how workersarepaid
and rewarded in organizations. Which one do you think is the fairest, overall? Why?
Answer: Equity, equality, reciprocity, and social responsibility. The second part of the question
challenges students to consider the merits of each norm, and take a position in support of one. Of
course, they all have merit depending on the circumstances, but most organizations would
officially support reward allocation
based on some combination of equity and equality norms.
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169) Describethetwo main formsof social loafing. What aresomewaysto counteract them?
Answer: Freeridereffectandsuckereffect.Waystocounteractthemincludeincreasingthevisibilityofindividual
performance, making thework moreinteresting, increasing workers' feelingsof indispensability, increasing
performance feedback, and rewarding group performance.
Page Ref: 241 Skill: Applied
170) What are self- managed teams and how should they be designed in terms of tasks, composition,
and support.
Answer: Self- managed teams are groups that have the opportunity to do challenging work under reduced
supervision. The tasks assigned to self- managed teams should be complex and challenging, requiring
high interdependence among team members for accomplishment. The tasks should have the qualities of
enriched jobs. The composition of self- managed teams should focus on: stability of membership; small
size; high level of task expertise and social skills; similar enough to work well together but also have a
diversity of perspectives and skills. In terms of supporting self- managed teams, they require: training in
variousareas,rewardstied toteam accomplishment,and management support that encourages
i n d ep en d en ce.
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171.
171) What are cross- functional teams and the factors that contribute to their
effectiveness?
Answer: Cross-functional teamsarework groupsthat bring peoplewith different functional
specialtiestogether to better invent, design, or deliver a product or service. The factors that
contribute to their effectiveness include: composition that consists of all relevant specialties;
superordinate goals; close physical proximity of team members; autonomy from the larger
organization; some basic decision rules and procedures; and leaderswith strong peopleskillsin
addition to task expertise.
Page Ref: 247 Skill: Recall
172.
172) What arethelessonsand thingsthat managersshould consider when developing
virtual teams?
Answer: Recruitment in terms of attitude and personality and good interpersonal skills in addition
to technical expertise; invest in training for both technical and interpersonal skills; personalization
(encourage team members to get to know each other); goals and ground rules should be clearly
defined as well as rules for communication standards and responses, and provide feedback to
keep team members informed of progress and the big picture.
Page Ref: 251 Skill: Recall
173.
173) Define virtual teams and discuss the advantages and challenges of virtual teams.
Answer: Virtual teamsarework groupsthat usetechnology tocommunicateand
collaborateacrosstime,space, and organizational boundaries. The have many advantages
including: around- the- clock work; reduced travel time and cost; and larger talent pool. The
disadvantages include: miscommunication; trust is difficult to develop; feelings of isolation; the
costs of cutting- edge technology; and new challenges for management such asdealing with
employeewho areno longer in view.
Page Ref: 249 Skill: Recall
174.
174) What are the different kinds of role conflict and w hat can managers do to help
prevent employee role conflict?
Answer: Intrasender roleconflict occurswhen asinglerolesender
providesincompatibleroleexpectationsto a role occupant; intersender role conflict occurs when
two or more role senders provide a role occupant with incompatibleexpectations;interroleconflict
occurswhen several rolesareheld by aroleoccupant that involveincompatibleexpectations;and
person-roleconflict occurswhen roledemandscall for behaviour that isincompatiblewith
thepersonality or skillsof aroleoccupant.Managerscan help prevent employee role conflict by
avoiding self- contradictory messages, conferring with other role senders, being sensitive to
multiple role demands, and fitting the right person to the right role.
Page Ref: 235 Skill: Recall
175.
175) Membersof your organization arecomplaining that they arenot surehow they should
beperforming their job and what methodsthey should beusing to perform it. You havebeen
assigned thetask of finding out more
aboutthisproblemintermsofwhatitis,thecausesofit,theconsequencesofit,andhowtopreventit. What
will you tell management about theseissues?
Answer: Theproblemisroleambiguitywhichreferstoalackofclarityofjobgoalsormethods.A numberof
factors or elements can cause role ambiguity including: organizational factors, role senders, and
the focal person.Theconsequencesincludejobstress,dissatisfaction,reduced organizational
commitment,lower performance, and intentions to quit. M anagers can reduce role ambiguity by
providing clear performance expectations and performance feedback, especially for new
employees and for those in more intrinsically ambiguous jobs.
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176) You have just formed a group as a part of a class assignment to complete a group project. You have
four weeks to complete the project and present it to the class. What can you tell the other group members
about how the group will develop and how they should proceed?What advicewill you givethem?
Answer: Accordingtothepunctuatedequilibriummodel,thegroupwillexperiencestretchesofgroupstability
punctuated by a critical first meeting (Phase 1), a midpoint change (midpoint transition) in group activity,
and a rush to task completion (Phase 2). Based on the model, you can offer group members the following
advice: Prepeare carefully for the first meeting; as long as people are working, do not look for radical
progress during Phase 1; manage the midpoint transition carefully; be sure that adequate resources are
available to execute the Phase 2 plan; and resist deadline changes.
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Chapter 11
1. 1) The well- structured problem does not exhibit which of the following characteristics? A)
existing state is clear
B) uncertainty about what to do
C) certainty about what to do
D) desired state is clear
E) problem is repetitive and familiar
Answer: B
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2. 2) Which of the following is another name for a programmed problem solution technique? A)
rules of thumb
B) routines
C) rules
D) standard operating procedures E) All of the above
Answer: E
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
3. 3) One is most likely to see a program used to make a(n) __________ decision. A) important
B) executive- level C) routine
D) ill- structured E) unique
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Applied
4. 4) Which of the following most clearly involves a decision program? A) A task force to improve
company image
B) A corporate merger
C) A standing order to a supplier
D) A medical ethics committee
E) A billion dollar investment decision
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Applied
5. 5) The ill- structured problem is one where the
A) existing state is unclear, desired state is clear.
B) existing state is clear, desired state is clear.
C) existing state is unclear, desired state is unclear.
D) existing state is clear, desired state is unclear.
E) existing state is clear but the method of getting to the desired state is unknown.
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Answer: C
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6. 6) At what part of an organization would an ill- structured problem most likely be encountered?
A) The top of the hierarchy
B) The bottom of the hierarchy
C) Ill- structured problems are equally likely throughout the organizational hierarchy D) Where
the bottom of the hierarchy meets the middle
E) The middle of the hierarchy
Answer: A
Page Ref: 376 Skill: Recall
7. 7) Which of the following problems would most likely be solved with a program (that is, using
programmed decision- making)?
A) In which part of the country should we locate our new business?
B) Which candidate should we choose to be vice- president of marketing?
C) How many workers should we call out to staff the assembly line next week?
D) Should this convict be granted parole?
E) Should we merge with this company or not?
Answer: C
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Applied
8. 8) Which of the following is characteristic of well- structured problems? A) They often entail
high risk.
B) They frequently arouse controversy and conflict among those interested in the problem. C)
They are unusual and have not been encountered before.
D) The existing state and the desired state are understood.
E) They tend to be complex and involve a high degree of uncertainty.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
9. 9) A program would most likely be used A) to solve a risky problem.
B) to solve problems dealt with by top management. C) to justify group decision- making.
D) to solve an ill- structured problem.
E) to solve a well- structured problem.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
10. 10) Which of the following is an example of an ill- structured problem?
A) The sales manager must decide what to do about sales that seem sluggish.
B) The production manager must decide how many workers to schedule on the line next week.
C) The assistant bank manager must decide which automobile loan applications to approve.
D) The retailer must decide whether to reorder lawn chairs.
E) The welfare officer must decide how much assistance a particular client should receive.
Answer: A
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11. 11) Economic Person does not
A) have adequate information to make good decisions.
B) use logic in making decisions.
C) use economic gain to evaluate the correctness of decisions. D) make rational decisions.
E) make decisions like the average consumer or manager.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 376 Skill: Recall
12. 12) Nonprogrammed decision- making
A) is most likely to be required at lower levels of the organizational hierarchy.
B) is used to solve well- structured problems.
C) may stimulate strong political considerations. D) tends to involve much certainty.
E) is used to solve repetitive problems.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
13. 13) Managers who exhibit bounded rationality
A) might be operating under time constraints.
B) might be factoring political considerations into decisions.
C) might be subject to cognitive biases.
D) might be limited in their capacity to acquire and process information. E) all of the above.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
14. 14) In evaluating alternative solutions, decision- makers with bounded rationality A) tend to
exhibit maximization.
B) often consider the political acceptability of the solution to other organizational members. C)
rarely engage in satisficing.
D) know the ultimate value of each alternative.
E) know the probability that each alternative will work.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 381 Skill: Recall
15. 15) When he heard that turnover was increasing, the human resource manager immediately told
the president that salaries would have to be raised. Unfortunately, low pay wasn't the cause of
the turnover. Which
decision- making error did the manager commit?
A) He treated sunk costs improperly.
B) He defined the problem in terms of a solution. C) He exhibited the knew- it- all- along effect.
D) He revealed a confirmation bias. E) He escalated commitment.
Answer: B
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16) Information overload is likely to lead to
A) lower satisfaction with the ultimate decision.
B) only relevant information influencing decision- making. C) higher quality decisions.
D) fast decision- making.
E) greater confidence by managers in their decisions.
Answer: E
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17) Mark has two alternatives. There is a 50 percent chance that he will earn $120,000 if he accepts a
government contract. If he decides not to accept the contract and instead continues on his present project
he has an 80 percent chance of earning $100,000. If Mark is a perfectly rational decision- maker which of
the following statements is true?
A) He will accept the government contract.
B) His expected value of continuing on the present project is $80,000.
C) He will revise his earnings estimate on the government contract to make it more attractive.
D) He will ignore economic criteria in making his decision. E) He will attempt to satisfice.
Answer: B
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18) At which stage of the rational decision- making model is information overload a particular problem?
A) Problem identification
B) Implement chosen solution
C) Monitor and evaluate chosen solution D) Evaluate alternative solutions
E) Search for relevant information
Answer: E
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19) Which of the following is an example of faulty hindsight?
1. A) The small business owner who had been let down by a supplier gave the supplier another
2.
3.
4.
5.
large order.
B) Suki decided to spend more money upgrading her old computer instead of buying a new one.
C) Alan erroneously predicted that his superiors would favour the reorganization plan.
D) The small business owner could never forget how she had been let down by a particular
supplier.
E) When it became clear that the investment was a poor one, Pierre realized that he had known it
was bad all
along.
Answer: E
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A) Evaluation of alternative solutions
B) Development of alternative solutions C) Solution implementation
D) Solution choice
E) Information search
Answer: C
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20) Which of the following is an example of diffusion of responsibility?
1. A) The surgery team decided on a more conservative operating technique when they discussed
the operation
face- to- face.
2. B) A firing squad of ten soldiers was used to execute the prisoner.
3. C) After her boss's decision turned out to be wrong, Sally said she knew all along that it was
4.
5.
wrong.
D) Paul allows his secretary to make certain decisions without consulting him.
E) As Douglas accepted the award on behalf of his department he made a point of
acknowledging the
contributions of his colleagues.
Answer: B
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21) Escalation of commitment
A) is the most common outcome of information overload.
B) runs counter to the general tendency for decision- makers to try to justify their actions. C) only occurs
when the decision- maker is responsible for beginning a course of action. D) involves committing more
and more resources to a failing course of action.
E) illustrates how decision- makers often ignore sunk costs.
Answer: D
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22) Escalation of commitment to a failing course of action
A) only occurs if the decision- maker was personally responsible for the initial loss.
B) is the most common outcome of information overload. C) only occurs in highly competitive situations.
D) is what defines the occurrence of a risky shift.
E) shows how people may treat sunk costs improperly.
Answer: E
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23) Managers must often rely upon others when making decisions and solving problems. At what stage
of the rational decision- making process does reliance upon others often cause special problems?
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24) Who failed to treat sunk costs properly?
A) The manager who escalated commitment
B) The leader of the group that exhibited groupthink
C) The devil's advocate in the meeting
D) The politician who cancelled the public works project E) The salesperson who acted unethically
Answer: A
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25) Which of the following is probably an example of the irrational treatment of sunk costs?
1. A) The company president decided to cancel the expansion project even though construction
work had
already begun.
2. B) Jim studied the computer output for two hours before the big meeting, but he couldn't use the
information. Before the next meeting he studied the output for four hours.
3. C) The pilot feared landing on the remote airstrip because there had been an accident there the
day before.
4. D) Mary obtained much more information than she needed in order to make a decision on the
leasing
arrangement.
5. E) Janine had her travel agent book two flights for her to New York so that she was certain not to
miss the big
meeting.
Answer: B
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26) Decision- makers who establish an adequate level of acceptability for a solution and then screen
solutions until one that exceeds this level is found are
A) diffusers. B) optimizers. C) satisficers.
D) rationalizers. E) maximizers.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 381 Skill: Recall
27) Satisficing is a concept that is most associated with A) implementing a solution.
B) searching for information. C) choosing a solution.
D) monitoring a solution.
E) identifying a problem.
Answer: C
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28. 28) According to the anchoring effect, people
A) don't adjust successive estimates enough in the face of new information.
B) rely too much on the most recent information received.
C) depend too much on problem solutions developed by others.
D) resist problem solutions developed by others.
E) tend to invest additional resources in an apparently failing course of action.
Answer: A
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29. 29) Which of the following is a problem frame? A) How the decision- makers are rewarded
B) How the solution is evaluated
C) How the solution is implemented D) How the problem is solved
E) How the problem is stated
Answer: E
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30. 30) Sharon framed the problem as a choice between two losses. What is she likely to do now? A)
Ignore economic considerations
B) Make a risky decision
C) Make a conservative decision D) Ignore sunk costs
E) Ignore sample sizes
Answer: B
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31. 31) After group discussion, group members tend to make decisions that are __________ the
positions of individual members before discussion.
A) more risky or more conservative than B) equal to the average risk of
C) more risky than
D) less risky or less conservative than E) more conservative than
Answer: A
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32. 32) Diffusion of responsibility might contribute to A) conservative shifts.
B) information overload. C) confirmation bias.
D) risky shifts.
E) hindsight.
Answer: D
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33. 33) Which of the following is not a characteristic of groupthink?
A) Group members censor themselves from bringing up issues which are contrary to the group
consensus.
B) The group constructs unfavourable stereotypes of outsiders. C) Much conformity occurs in the
group.
D) The group experiences much dissension and argument.
E) The group sees itself as morally correct.
Answer: D
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34. 34) The manager who wishes to diffuse responsibility for a potentially incorrect decision should
A) use nonprogrammed decision- making.
B) make the decision herself.
C) be prepared to accept the sunk costs associated with the decision. D) use a group to make the
decision.
E) disregard the rational decision- making model.
Answer: D
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35. 35) A devil's advocate is
A) a group member that everyone dislikes.
B) a group member who bullies other members into accepting the group consensus. C) a
genuinely evil person.
D) a person who intentionally stimulates controversy.
E) a person who smoothes over conflict.
Answer: D
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36. 36) According to the groupthink theory, group members who are overconfident and willing to
assume great risks are suffering from
A) the knew- it- all- along effect.
B) an illusion of unanimity.
C) the conservative shift phenomenon.
D) an illusion of invulnerability. E) an escalation of commitment.
Answer: D
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37. 37) What is a strong cause of groupthink? A) Conflict exists within the group.
B) The group contains a devil's advocate.
C) The group leader favours a particular decision.
D) The absence of mindguards.
E) Group members feel too free to speak their minds.
Answer: C
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Answer: A
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38) After meeting together, the members of the venture capital group decided not to fund any more
projects for the year. Before the meeting, some members had been cautiously in favour of funding. What
happened?
A) Hindsight
B) Groupthink
C) Diffusion of responsibility
D) Risky shift
E) Conservative shift
Answer: E
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39) Illusion of invulnerability, illusion of morality, and illusion of unanimity are all characteristics of A)
risky shift.
B) maximization.
C) hindsight.
D) confirmation bias. E) groupthink.
Answer: E
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40) Which of the following is a potential example of the risky shift?
1. A) Steve decided to take an elective course in statistics even though he wasn't very good at
quantitative
subjects.
2. B) A manager quit her secure job in a large company to start her own business even though she
had to
mortgage her house.
3. C) The board of directors voted to proceed with the expansion even though it would cost $10
million more
than originally planned.
4. D) Three partners were uncertain about expanding their business. After discussing the matter,
they decided
to expand even though the economy was bad.
5. E) A drug company put a new drug on the market even though it was possible that the drug
would provoke
bad side effects.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 393 Skill: Applied
41) Which is an example of a conservative shift?
1. A) The individual city councilors were moderately opposed to the expensive bond issue. During
the council
meeting, so many negative points were raised that the bond issue was soundly defeated.
2. B) After reading an article about the economy in Business Week Frank decided not to expand his
small
business.
3. C) Because of the recession, the construction firm lowered its profit margin to get more of its bids
accepted.
4. D) Coach Smith decided to play it safe and kick a field goal rather than having the injured
quarterback try a
pass.
5. E) Several board members were cautiously optimistic about the merger proposal before the
meeting. During
the board meeting, so many problems were cited that the proposal was unanimously defeated.
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42. 42) When people can brainstorm electronically, entering their ideas at computer terminals, A)
group brainstorming is superior to individual brainstorming.
B) brainstorming is superior to the nominal group technique.
C) less flaming is likely to occur.
D) individual brainstorming is superior to group brainstorming.
E) group brainstorming works as well as individual brainstorming.
Answer: E
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43. 43) A key advantage of the use of electronic brainstorming groups is that A) as group size
increases, so does flaming.
B) as group size increases, so does the idea generation. C) as group size increases, so do
individual inhibitions. D) as group size increases, so does social loafing.
E) None of the above.
Answer: B
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44. 44) Conventional (i.e. nonelectronic) brainstorming
A) is a decision- making technique in which the decision- makers do not meet face- to- face.
B) is not a very effective technique for generating ideas.
C) is more effective at generating ideas than the nominal group technique.
D) is a method of training discussion leaders to help groups make more effective decisions. E) is a
technique for evaluating solutions to problems.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
45. 45) If we employ __________ to improve decisions, the participants never meet face- to- face. A) a
devil's advocate
B) the nominal group technique C) brainstorming
D) group discussion
E) the Delphi technique
Answer: E
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46. 46) Which technique of improving decision- making involves the use of several waves of
questionnaires and requires a lot of time?
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A) The nominal group technique B) Brainstorming
C) Group discussion
D) The Delphi technique
E) Electronic brainstorming
Answer: D
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47. 47) Which of the following is a benefit of using electronic brainstorming systems? A) Less risky
decisions than face- to- face groups.
B) The ability to "flame" someone anonymously.
C) Impulsive communication.
D) People feel more accountable for electronic decisions.
E) Participation is more equally distributed among members.
Answer: E
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48. 48) In what kind of decisions does mood have its greatest impact? A) Certain and wellstructured.
B) Uncertain and ambiguous.
C) Well- structured and unambiguous. D) Uncertain and ill- structured.
E) Certain and unambiguous.
Answer: B
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49. 49) Which of the following accurately describes the effect of moods on decision making? A)
Mood affects what but not how people think when making decisions.
B) Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions.
C) Only a positive mood has an affect on how people think when making decisions. D) Mood
does not affect what or how people think when making decisions.
E) Mood affects how but not what people think when making decisions.
Answer: B
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50. 50) What is most likely to lead one to adopt a simplified, short- cut decision- making strategy
that is likely to violate the rational model?
A) A positive emotion. B) A negative emotion. C) A positive mood.
D) The lack of emotion. E) A negative mood.
Answer: C
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51. 51) What three things are noteworthy about the definition of decision making? A) choice,
problem, and resources
B) choice, problem, and program C) choice, problem, and process
D) problem, process, and resources E) choice, process, and resources
Answer: E
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52) Ineffective hiring decisions are a good example of A) confirmation bias
B) escalation of commitment
C) the difficulties of nonprogrammed decision making D) bounded rationality
E) the difficulties of programmed decision making
Answer: E
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53) What did Nobel Prize winner Herbert Simon recognize?
A) the perfectly rational characteristics of Economic Person do not exist in real decision makers
B) the existence of groupthink
C) the characteristics of Economic Person
D) the usefulness of programmed decision making
E) the usefulness of nonprogrammed decision making
Answer: A
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54) The following illustrate the operation of bounded rationality except A) political considerations
B) emotions and moods C) framing
D) cognitive biases
E) maximization
Answer: E
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55) You have just applied for a job and when completing the application form you were surprised to see
questions about your age and marital status. Such questions would seem to violate equal employment
and human rights legislation and not likely to be related to the job. It made you wonder why a company
would ask these questions. What is a good explanation for this?
A) cognitive biases
B) difficulties of programmed decision making
C) difficulties of nonprogrammed decision making
D) bounded rationality E) information overload
Answer: B
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Answer: E
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56) Which of the following is an example of an ill- structured problem? A) Which of these 10 car loan
applications should I approve?
B) How much weight should I carry?
C) In which part of the country should we build a new plant? D) How much assistance should this client
receive?
E) all of the above
Answer: C
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57) The following are difficulties that can result from bounded rationality in problem identification except
A) problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms
B) perceptual defence
C) problem defined as ill- structured
D) problem defined in terms of solution
E) problem defined in terms of functional specialty
Answer: C
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58) Sales at the Smelly Cheese Company had been down all year. Management met to try and identify the
problem. The marketing manager which convinced that the problem was poor marketing. The manager
of human resources believed the problem was employee motivation. What is the difficulty they are
having?
A) too little information
B) perceptual defence
C) problem defined in terms of solution
D) problem defined in terms of functional specialty E) problem diagnosed in terms of symptoms
Answer: D
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59) When Thelma's boss said, "What we have here is a morale problem" what was she doing? A)
confirmation bias
B) hindsight
C) defining a problem in terms of solution
D) defining a problem in terms of functional specialty E) diagnosing a problem in terms of symptoms
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60) Which of the following is a cognitive bias that contributes to decision makers failure to acquire
enough information to make a good decision?
A) perceptual defence B) anchoring effect
C) satisficing
D) confirmation bias E) hindsight
Answer: D
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61) Decision makers violate statistical principles at what stage of the decision making process? A)
solution evaluation
B) alternative development, evaluation, and choice C) information search
D) solution implementation
E) problem identification
Answer: B
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62. 62) After graduating from university your are planning to get a job as an accountant. Your best
friend Jay is planning on opening his own restaurant. He says he has thought a great deal about
his this and believes he will be very successful and it is a good decision. You explain to him the
fact that most new restaurants fail but it does factor into Jay's decision. What does this
demonstrate?
A) perceptual defence B) sunk costs
C) hindsight
D) anchoring effect E) base rates
Answer: E
Page Ref: 381 Skill: Applied
63. 63) Absenteeism has become a problem at the Smelly Cheese Company so the human resource
manager has decided to do something about it. He has decided to choose the first solution he
comes across that will get the level to what it was in the previous year. What is this an example
of?
A) anchoring effect B) framing
C) confirmation bias
D) satisficing E) sunk costs
Answer: D
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A) one third
B) over 50 percent C) one quarter
D) 10 percent E) half
Answer: E
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64) Research by Daniel Kahneman and Amos Tversky shows that
A) when people view a problem as a choice between gains, they tend to make risky decisions
B) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make poor decisions
C) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make better decisions
D) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make risky decisions
E) when people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make conservative decisions
Answer: D
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65) Which of the following accurately depicts the relationship between personality and escalation? A)
people high on neuroticism and low on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate
B) people low on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate C) people high
on neuroticism and high on negative affectivity are more likely to escalate D) people high on neuroticism
and high on negative affectivity are less likely to escalate E) people high on neuroticism and low on
negative affectivity are more likely to escalate
Answer: D
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66. 66) You and a friend have decided to study for your final exams together. However, time to
study for your organizational behaviour exam is running out. Your friend persuades you to only
study only the first five of the ten chapters to be covered on the exam. When you get to the exam
you quickly read through all of the questions and are surprised to see that in fact the majority of
the questions are from the first five chapters you studied. You and your friend both receive very
good grades on the exam. Your friend never misses an opportunity to remind you how smart it
was to only study the first five chapters. What is this an example of?
A) anchoring effect B) hindsight
C) framing
D) confirmation bias
E) escalation of commitment
Answer: B
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Applied
67. 67) A study of 356 decisions in medium and large organizations in the United States and Canada
found that __________ of the decisions made in organizations fail.
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68) What does brainstorming focus on?
A) the generation of ideas by individuals and evaluation of the ideas by groups
B) the generation of ideas rather than the evaluation of ideas
C) the generation and evaluation of ideas
D) the evaluation of ideas rather than the generation of ideas
E) the generation of ideas by groups and the evaluation of the ideas by individuals
Answer: B
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69) What does brainstorming and the nominal group technique (NGT) focus on? A) brainstorming and
NGT focus on the evaluation of ideas
B) brainstorming focuses on the generation of ideas; NGT focuses on the evaluation of ideas
C) brainstorming focuses on the generation of ideas; NGT focuses on the generation and evaluation of
ideas D) brainstorming and NGT focus on the generation of ideas
E) brainstorming and NGT focus on the generation and evaluation of ideas
Answer: C
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70) Which of the following best describes the nominal group technique (NGT) and the Delphi technique?
A) participants engage in face- to- face interaction in both
B) participants do not engage in face- to- face interaction in both
C) participants engage in face- to- face interaction in the Delphi technique but not the NGT
D) participants engage in face- to- face interaction for idea generation but not evaluation in both E)
participants engage in face- to- face interaction in the NGT but not the Delphi technique
Answer: E
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71) Which of the following represents the effectiveness of electronic brainstorming groups?
1. A) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face
groups in terms of quantity but not quality of ideas
2. B) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform worse than faceto- face
groups in terms of quantity but not quality of ideas
3. C) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face
groups in terms of both quantity and quality of ideas
4. D) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform the same as faceto- face
groups in terms of both the quantity and quality of ideas
5. E) once over the size of two members, electronic brainstorming groups perform better than faceto- face
groups in terms of quality but not quantity of ideas
Answer: C
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72. 72) Which of the following is most accurate about electronic brainstorming groups?
A) as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, but the ideas- per- person remains stable
B) as they get larger, they tend to produce less ideas and the ideas- per- person remains stable C)
as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, and the ideas- per- person increases
D) as they get larger, they tend to produce more ideas, but the ideas- per- person decreases
E) as they get larger, they tend to produce less ideas, and the ideas- per- person decreases
Answer: A
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73. 73) The knew- it- all- along effect is an example of faulty hindsight.
Answer: True False
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74. 74) The perfectly rational decision- maker tends to satisfice.
Answer: True False
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75. 75) Escalation of commitment to a losing course of action could be an example of the improper
treatment of sunk costs.
Answer: True False
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76. 76) Individual decision making generally results in higher quality decisions than group decisionmaking.
Answer: True False
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77. 77) Devil's advocates are people who have a difficult time making a decision and sticking to it.
Answer: True False
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78. 78) The Delphi technique is a form of face- to- face group decision- making.
Answer: True False
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79. 79) Although information overload damages decisions, decision- makers are usually eager to
collect a large amount of information.
Answer: True False
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80. 80) Programs should be used to solve ill- structured problems.
Answer: True False
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81. 81) Individuals who prefer a conservative solution to a problem will probably make an even
more conservative decision when they meet as a group.
Answer: True False
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82. 82) Brainstorming groups are very effective in generating ideas compared to people working
alone.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
83. 83) Participants in nominal decision- making groups actually meet face- to- face.
Answer: True False
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84. 84) Groups almost always make riskier decisions than individuals.
Answer: True False
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85. 85) A rule is an example of a program for making a decision.
Answer: True False
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86. 86) A characteristic of a well- structured problem is uncertainty.
Answer: True False
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87. 87) An ill- structured problem is one where the existing state is unclear and the desired state is
clear.
Answer: True False
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88. 88) Groupthink is a common phenomenon when groups are riddled with conflict and dissension.
Answer: True False
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89. 89) The existing and desired states of a well- structured problem are clear.
Answer: True False
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90. 90) Rules, routines, and rules of thumb are programmed solution techniques.
Answer: True False
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91. 91) As individuals, the five partners who own a business tend to favour a risky investment.
When they meet as a group to discuss the investment, we can expect a less risky course of action
to be adopted.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 393 Skill: Applied
92. 92) Participation is equally distributed with regular brainstorming techniques.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Applied
93. 93) Electronic brainstorming increases the number of ideas generated as group size increases.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 396 Skill: Applied
94. 94) Groupthink is defined as the tendency for a group to reach a unanimous decision.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 391 Skill: Applied
95. 95) Escalation of commitment refers to committing more and more resources to a failing course
of action.
Answer: True False
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96. 96) Sunk costs refer to resources that were knowingly committed to a failing course of action.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Recall
97. 97) Sally tended to make a more risky decision about investing in her small business after
reading an article in Fortune. This is an example of the risky shift phenomenon.
Answer: True False
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98. 98) Both ill- structured and well- structured problems can be solved with programmed problem
solving methods.
Answer: True False
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99. 99) Satisficing refers to making the best possible decision that can be made.
Answer: True False
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100) Tom excused his poor judgment in choosing the wording for the contract by saying
that he was under medication for an ulcer at the time. This is an example of diffusion of
responsibility.
100.
Answer: True False
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101) The decision process using the Delphi technique will normally require more time
than using the nominal group technique (NGT).
101.
Answer: True False
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102) Appointing a devil's advocate might be a way to prevent groupthink from
occurring in a decision- making group.
102.
Answer: True False
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103.
103) Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions.
Answer: True False
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104.
104) People in a positive and negative mood tend to remember positive information.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
105) People in a positive mood tend to evaluate objects, people, and events more
positively.
105.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
106) People in a good mood tend to overestimate the likelihood that good events will
occur and underestimate the occurrence of bad events.
106.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
107.
107) People in a good mood approach decisions in a deliberate, systematic, detailed way.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
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108.
108) A negative mood promotes more creative, intuitive decision making.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
109.
109) The impact of mood on decision making is usually dysfunctional.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
110.
110) Many of the problems encountered in organizations are well structured.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
111.
111) Ill- structured problems can entail high risk and stimulate political considerations.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 376 Skill: Recall
112) The perfectly rational characteristics embodied in Economic Persons exist in very
few decision makers.
112.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 376 Skill: Recall
113.
113) Confirmation bias occurs during problem identification.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 379 Skill: Recall
114) Too little information can damage the quality of decisions but you can never have
too much information for making a decision.
114.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 379 Skill: Recall
115.
115) Decision makers know that more information is not always better.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 380 Skill: Recall
116) When people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make
conservative decisions.
116.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 382 Skill: Recall
117) When people frame the alternatives as a choice between gains, they tend to make
conservative decisions.
117.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 382 Skill: Recall
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118) Escalation of commitment only happens when the current decision maker is
responsible for the previous sunk costs.
118.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Recall
119.
119) Escalation can occur in both competitive and noncompetitive situations.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Recall
120.
120) People high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are more likely to escalate.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Recall
121.
121) Individuals are more prone than groups to escalate commitment.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Recall
122) A study of 356 decisions in medium to large organizations in the United States and
Canada found that half the decisions made in organizations fail.
122.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 388 Skill: Recall
123.
123) Brainstorming was originally conceived as a group technique.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
124.
124) Individuals working alone generate more ideas than when in groups.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
125) Four people working independently will usually generate less ideas than the same
people working as a team.
125.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 396 Skill: Recall
126.
126) Face- to- face interaction usually reduces individual brainstorming performance.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 396 Skill: Recall
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127) As face- to- face brainstorming groups get bigger, fewer and fewer ideas per person
are generated.
127.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 396 Skill: Recall
128.
128) Some organizations have done electronic brainstorming with up to 50- member
groups.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 397 Skill: Recall
129.
129) The nominal group technique is concerned with the generation and evaluation of
ideas.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 397 Skill: Recall
130) __________ refers to the practice of accepting a solution to a problem that is not
optimal but is good enough to meet pre- established criteria.
130.
Answer: Satisficing
Page Ref: 381 Skill: Recall
131) Receiving more information than is necessary to make an effective decision puts a
person in a state of __________.
131.
Answer: information overload
Page Ref: 379 Skill: Recall
132) At the __________ stage of the rational decision- making model the assistance of
others is often a particularly critical issue.
132.
Answer: solution implementation
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Recall
133) Assuming after a decision has been made that one knew the decision was flawed
before it was made is an example of __________.
133.
Answer: the knew- it- all- along effect or hindsight Page Ref: 384
Skill: Applied
134.
134) A standardized way of solving a problem is a(n) __________.
Answer: program
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
135) The tendency for group members to feel less anxious about the consequences of a
decision because it was made by a group rather than an individual member is called __________.
135.
Answer: diffusion of responsibility
Page Ref: 390 Skill: Recall
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136) The tendency for a group to make a less risky decision than its individual members
favour is called the __________.
136.
Answer: conservative shift
Page Ref: 393 Skill: Recall
137) The decision- making strategy of choosing the alternative with the greatest expected
value is called __________.
137.
Answer: maximization
Page Ref: 380 Skill: Recall
138) Devoting more and more resources to a failing course of action is known as
__________.
138.
Answer: escalation of commitment
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Recall
139) Permanently lost resources that often enter inappropriately into subsequent
decision- making are called __________.
139.
Answer: sunk costs
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Recall
140) For a(n) __________ problem, the existing and desired states are clear, and it is
obvious how to get from one to another .
140.
Answer: well-structured Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
141) If group pressure leads to reduced mental efficiency, poor reality testing, and lax
moral judgments, __________ has probably occurred.
141.
Answer: groupthink
Page Ref: 391 Skill: Applied
142) When the existing state of a situation is well- known and the desired state is also
known, you are facing a __________ problem.
142.
Answer: well-structured Page Ref: 375
Skill: Recall
143) People who brainstorm alone generate __________ ideas than when brainstorming
in groups.
143.
Answer: more
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
144) The product planning group decided to sit around thinking up as many new names
for the new soap as it could. This is an example of __________.
144.
Answer: brainstorming
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Applied
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145) The decision- making process that involves several formal rounds of questionnaires
to gather information is __________.
145.
Answer: the Delphi technique
Page Ref: 397 Skill: Recall
146) A formal decision- making technique in which group members generate ideas
alone, share them without censure, and then discuss them systematically is called __________.
146.
Answer: the nominal group technique
Page Ref: 397 Skill: Recall
147) __________ refers to the often subtle aspects of the presentation of information
about a problem that are assumed by decision- makers.
147.
Answer: Framing
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
148) Political considerations, time constraints, and limited information processing
capacity mean that people exhibit __________ rather than perfect rationality.
148.
Answer: bounded rationality
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Applied
149) When a gap exists between an existing state and a desired state we have a(n)
__________.
149.
Answer: problem
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Recall
150) Tendencies to acquire and process information in an error- prone way are known as
__________.
150.
Answer: cognitive biases
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
151) __________ frequently arouse controversy and conflict among the people who are
interested in the decision.
151.
Answer: Ill- structured problems Page Ref: 376
Skill: Recall
152.
152) The perfect prototype for __________ is Economic Person.
Answer: perfect rationality
Page Ref: 376 Skill: Recall
153) __________ constitute assumptions and shortcuts that can improve decision making
efficiency but lead to serious errors in judgment.
153.
Answer: Cognitive biases
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
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154) __________ refers to the tendency to seek out information that conforms to one's
own definition of or solution to a problem.
154.
Answer: Confirmation bias
Page Ref: 379 Skill: Recall
155) When people view a problem as a choice between losses, they tend to make
__________ decisions.
155.
Answer: risky
Page Ref: 382 Skill: Recall
156) A person appointed to identify and challenge the weaknesses of a proposed plan or
strategy is known as a __________.
156.
Answer: devil's advocate
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Recall
157) Explain the difference between well- structured and ill- structured problems and
give an example of each. Which level of management and what kind of decision is most likely to
be made in response to each type of problem?
157.
Answer: Well- structured problems are those in which the existing state is clear, the desired state
is clear, and the means to get from one state to another is fairly obvious. Ill- structured problems
are those for which the existing and desired states are unclear, and the method for getting to the
desired state is unknown. A well- structured problem might be deciding whether to give a
customer a refund on a defective product. An ill- structured problem might involve a merger
with another company. Well- structured problems can be dealt with through programmed
decisions primarily at the lower levels of the hierarchy. Ill- structured problems require
nonprogrammed decisions which are usually made by higher level management.
Page Ref: 375 Skill: Applied
158) What is bounded rationality? How can it lead to difficulties in identifying potential
problems?
158.
Answer: Bounded rationality is a decision strategy that relies on limited information and reflects
time constraints and political considerations. It can lead to the following difficulties in problem
identification: perceptual defence, problems being defined in terms of either functional specialties
or solutions, and problems being diagnosed in terms of symptoms.
Page Ref: 377 Skill: Recall
159) Is it possible for a manager to have too much information when faced with an illstructured problem? Explain.
159.
Answer: Yes, and it is called information overload the reception of more information than is
necessary to make effective decisions. Information overload can lead to errors, omissions, delays
and cutting corners.
Page Ref: 379 Skill: Applied
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160) Suzie Desouza, the Manager of Industrial Relations at Zeta Manufacturing, has just
come from a ten hour marathon meeting with the union negotiators who represent the workers in
the assembly plant. The union leaders have tabled their final offer and are threatening to call a
strike if management does not accept it. Suzie now has to meet with her boss, Gordon Wong, and
brief him on the union's final offer. Suzie is hopeful that Gordon will accept the union's terms,
but she is not sure how to frame the cost arguments in order to achieve this objective. In her
meeting with Gordon the next morning she summarizes the impact of the union's offer as
follows: "If we accept their offer, it will cost us an extra $10 million over the next three years.
However, if we reject their offer, there's a 50 percent chance that it will cost us more than $10
million perhaps as much as $20 million; but also a 50 percent chance that it will cost us less
perhaps much less." Do you think Gordon will accept or reject the union's offer? Use your
knowledge of framing bias to explain why.
160.
Answer: According to the findings of Kahneman and Tversky cited in the text, Gordon will most
likely reject the union offer because it has been framed as a choice between two losses. To
improve her chances of getting Gordon's approval, she might try framing the union's offer in
terms of gains e.g. if we accept this offer, it could save as much as $10 million over three years; if
we reject this offer and engage in protracted negotiations, there is a 50 percent chance that we
will save more than $10 million.
Page Ref: 382 Skill: Applied
161) Robert Leung is the leader of a product development project at Kapster Enterprises.
He has spent nearly two years on the project, which is now nine months behind schedule and
approximately 50 percent over budget. In the meantime, a competitor has introduced a similar
product which is rapidly penetrating the market; thereby reducing the remaining market
potential for Kapster. Yet, Robert feels that their product will be superior to the competitor's, and
he is preparing a report for his boss to request additional funds in order to complete the
development phase and debug the product prototype. He is hoping that his boss will approve the
request, since he has supported the project this far. If you were Robert's boss what problems
associated with bounded rationality might you be concerned about?
161.
Answer: Robert's boss should be concerned with the possibility that this project should be
written- off as a sunk cost, and that any further investment in it may constitute an irrational
escalation of commitment.
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Applied
162) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making.
Answer: The main advantages of group decision making include higher quality decisions, higher levels of
decision acceptance and commitment, and diffusion of responsibility. The main disadvantages include
conflict, domination by one or a few members, and groupthink.
Page Ref: 389 Skill: Recall
163) What is groupthink? What are its symptoms? How can it be prevented?
Answer: Groupthink is the capacity for group pressure to damage the mental efficiency, reality testing
and moral judgment of decision making groups. Symptoms include the illusion of invulnerability,
rationalization, the illusion of morality, stereotyping of outsiders, pressure to conform, self- censorship,
the illusion of unanimity, and mindguards. Leaders can prevent it by not exerting undue pressure for a
particular decision outcome and by encouraging dissent (e.g. appointing a devil's advocate).
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164) Comment on the following statement: "Good old- fashioned brainstorming is still
the best way to achieve highly creative solutions because of the large number of ideas generated."
164.
Answer: Research on brainstorming suggests that the statement is false; individuals working
alone tend to generate more ideas than when in groups.
Page Ref: 395 Skill: Applied
165) Discuss the techniques that can be used to improve decision making in
organizations.
165.
Answer: Techniques to improve decision making in organizations include training discussion
leaders, stimulating and managing controversy, traditional and electronic brainstorming, the
nominal group technique, and the delphi technique.
Page Ref: 394 Skill: Recall
166) Discuss the effect of mood on decision making. What kind of decisions most likely
to be affected by mood, and what does research reveal about moods and decision making?
166.
Answer: Mood affects what and how people think when making decisions. Mood has its greatest
impact on uncertain and ambiguous decisions. Research on mood and decisions making reveals
the following: people in a positive mood remember positive information; people in a positive
mood evaluate objects, people, and events more positively; people in a good mood overestimate
the likelihood that good events will occur and underestimate the occurrence of bad events;
people in a good mood adopt simplified, short- cut decision- making strategies, more likely
violating the rational model; positive mood promotes more creative, intuitive decision making.
Page Ref: 386 Skill: Recall
167) Give an example of escalating commitment and discuss four ways to prevent the
tendency to escalate commitment to a failing course of action.
167.
Answer: An example is the executive who authorizes the purchase of several new machines to
improve plant productivity. The machines turn out to be very unreliable, and they are frequently
out of commission for repairs. Perfect rationality suggests admitting to a mistake. However, the
executive might authorize an order for more machines from the same manufacturer to "prove"
that he was right all along, hoping to recoup sunk costs with improved productivity from an
even greater number of machines. Four ways to prevent escalation include: encourage
continuous experimentation with reframing the problem to avoid the decision trap of feeling
more resources have to be invested; set specific goals for the project in advance that must be met
if more resources are to be invested; place more emphasis in evaluating managers on how they
made decisions and less on decision outcomes; separate initial and subsequent decision making
so that individuals who make the initial decision to embark on a course of action are assisted or
replaced by others who decide if a course of action should be continued.
Page Ref: 383 Skill: Applied
168.
168) What is escalation of commitment and what are the reasons for why it occurs?
Answer: Escalation of commitment refers to the tendency to invest additional resources to an
apparently failing course of action. There are a number of reasons for why it occurs including:
dissonance reduction; a social norm that favours consistent behaviour by managers; decision
makers might be motivated to not appear wasteful; the way that decision makers frame the
problem once some resources have been sunk; personality, moods , and emotions can also affect
escalation. People high on neuroticism and negative affectivity are less likely to escalate.
Page Ref: 384 Skill: Recall
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Test Bank for Johns/Saks, Organizational Behaviour, Ninth Edition Chapter 5
1) Effort, persistence, and direction are basic components of a. equity.
b. expectancy.
c. motivation.
d. performance. e. attitude.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 154
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
2) According to the text, which of the following is not a basic characteristic or component of
motivation?
a. Effort
b. Performance
c. Persistence d. Direction e. Goals
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 154
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
3) Which of the following is most likely to stimulate intrinsic motivation? a. High pay
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b. Challenging job
c. Close supervision
d. Generous fringe benefits e. Company policies
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
4) The extent to which an organizational member contributes to achieving the objectives of the
organization is called
a. effort.
b. performance.
c. intrinsic motivation. d. extrinsic motivation. e. expectancy.
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
5) Al told his friends that “the job makes me feel good about myself. I feel a real sense of
accomplishment at the end of the day.” Al is probably
a. intrinsically motivated.
b. extrinsically motivated.
c. fulfilling his relatedness needs on the job. d. experiencing inequity.
e. self-actualized.
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Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
6) “An interesting job that pays well” suggests that the job a. meets the motivational
requirements of equity theory.
b. is high in intrinsic motivation.
c. is high in extrinsic motivation.
d. is high in intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
e. is high in extrinsic but low in intrinsic motivation.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
7) Some researchers have argued that intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are incompatible. By
this, they mean that
a. intrinsic rewards may decrease extrinsic motivation.
b. extrinsic rewards may decrease intrinsic motivation.
c. extrinsic rewards usually lead to better performance than intrinsic rewards. d. intrinsic rewards
usually lead to better performance than extrinsic rewards. e. when used in combination, they
result in lower levels of performance.
3
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Applied
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Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
8) Which of the following statements about motivation and performance is FALSE? a. A person
could be highly motivated and, yet, perform poorly.
b. A person could perform fairly well despite low motivation.
d. Task understanding is important for motivation to be converted into performance.
e. General cognitive ability and emotional intelligence are important for motivation to be
converted into performance.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 154
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
9) Two process theories of motivation include
a. Maslow's Need Hierarchy and McClelland's theory of needs. b. Equity and ERG.
c. Maslow's Need. Hierarchy and Expectancy.
d. Equity and Expectancy.
e. Maslow's Need Hierarchy and ERG.
Answer: d Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
10) According to Maslow, once an individual has fulfilled his or her belongingness needs, the
________ needs become motivating.
4
c. Motivation is defined as the extent to which workers contribute to achieving
organizational objectives.
a. affiliation
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b. esteem
c. safety
d. relatedness e. physiological
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
11) Which of the following theories proposes that individuals have basic needs, which are
associated with extrinsic motivation, and higher-order needs, which are associated with intrinsic
motivation?
a. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
b. Expectancy theory c. Equity theory
d. Goal setting theory e. Valence theory
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
12) According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a given worker at a given point in time is most
motivated by
a. self-actualization because all persons seek to fulfill their highest potential. b. physiological
needs because these are most basic and important.
c. the highest level unsatisfied need.
d. the lowest level unsatisfied need.
e. belongingness needs because everyone needs some form of social interaction.
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Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
13) According to Maslow, the ________ level ________ need is most motivational.
a. lowest; unsatisfied
b. lowest; satisfied
c. highest; unsatisfied d. highest; satisfied
e. highest; emotional
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
14) Alderfer's existence needs correspond closely to Maslow's a. self-actualization needs.
b. belongingness needs.
c. physiological needs.
d. esteem needs. e. growth needs.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
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15) Other things equal, which ERG theory need should be of particular interest in a highly
collective culture?
a. Existence b. Resistance c. Growth
d. Relatedness e. Safety
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 176
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
16) Alderfer differs from Maslow in that his ERG theory assumes
a. growth needs can be completely satisfied just as existence and relatedness needs can be.
b. a lower level need must be gratified before a less concrete need becomes operative. c. a rigid
hierarchy of needs exists.
e. the least concrete needs become more desired as they are fulfilled.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
17) If Steve desires friendly and supportive supervision, he is trying to fulfill a. his existence
needs.
b. his relatedness needs.
c. his growth needs.
d. any one of his needs, depending on which is operative.
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d. if higher level needs are strong but ungratified, individuals will increase their desire for
the gratification of lower level needs.
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e. his safety needs.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
18) Paul has a secure, well-paying, but boring job. He gets along well with his boss and his coworkers. Recently, he has put in a bid for several more interesting jobs that have opened up, but
each time the job has been given to someone with more seniority. According to Alderfer's ERG
theory, Paul will probably
a. seek support and additional attention from his boss and co-workers.
b. continue to pursue a more interesting job indefinitely. c. exhibit frequent absenteeism.
d. press for higher pay.
e. quit his job and leave the company.
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
19) Which theory proposes a weak or flexible hierarchy of needs? a. Expectancy
b. Equity
c. ERG
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d. Maslow e. Adams
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 161
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
20) In McClelland's theory of needs sales jobs are attractive to those high in need for ________,
and management jobs are attractive to those high in need for ________.
a. achievement; power
b. affiliation; power
c. power; achievement
d. achievement; achievement e. achievement; affiliation
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
21) A person who is high in need for achievement will tend to favour ________ goals. a. fairly
easy
b. moderately difficult
c. very difficult
d. fairly easy or very difficult e. moderately easy
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
22) McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to Alderfer's ________ need. a.
resistance
b. existence
c. growth
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d. relatedness
e. esteem
Answer: d Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
23) According to McClelland, which need profile characterizes the most effective managers?
a. High achievement, high affiliation
b. High power, low affiliation
c. High achievement, low power
d. Low affiliation, high achievement e. High power, high affiliation
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
24) McClelland's need for affiliation is most closely related to (or an example of) Maslow's
________ needs.
a. belongingness
b. esteem
c. safety
d. self-actualization e. physiological
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
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Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
25) Which of the following statements about persons with high need for achievement is least
accurate?
a. High need achievers tend to excel in sales jobs.
b. High need achievers tend to seek out performance feedback.
c. High need achievers tend to set extremely difficult goals for themselves.
d. High need for achievement can be acquired through training.
e. High need achievers prefer situations in which they can take personal responsibility for
outcomes.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
26) Maurice sees his organization's performance evaluation system as arbitrary, capricious, and
unreliable. In motivational terms, this performance evaluation system has reduced
a. instrumentality.
b. the valence of second-level outcomes. c. expectancy.
d. the valence of first-level outcomes.
e. both levels of valence.
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 165
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
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27) The manager who tells an employee “I'll recommend you for a promotion if you implement
the new system by January” is attempting to strengthen which expectancy theory component?
a. Instrumentality
b. Valence of second-level outcomes c. Expectancy
d. Needs
e. Relatedness
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
28) In expectancy theory, the valence of first-level outcomes is the sum of the product of a.
second-level valences and expectancies.
b. force and instrumentalities.
c. expectancies and instrumentalities.
d. second-level valences and instrumentalities.
e. second-level instrumentalities and expectancies.
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
29) According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that workers feel that they are
unable to perform at a high level, we are dealing with a problem of
a. instrumentality.
b. expectancy.
c. valence.
d. second-level outcomes.
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a. instrumentality.
b. expectancy.
c. first-level valence.
d. second-level valence. e. relatedness.
Answer: b Diff: 2
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e. relatedness.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 165
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
30) Mike, a production worker, reports on a research questionnaire that high performance has a
valence of 10, average performance a valence of 5, and low performance a valence of 1. Also, he
reports that he is certain that he can perform at low or average levels but only 40 percent sure
that he can perform at a high level. According to expectancy theory, at which level should Mike
perform?
a. High
b. Average
c. Low
d. High if task complexity is low to moderate
e. Instrumentalities are also needed to answer this question.
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 167
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
31) Cassandra's boss has not had time to clearly explain her new job to her. According to
expectancy theory, this should have a direct impact on
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Type: MC
Page Reference: 165
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
32) According to the expectancy theory of motivation, if we find that employees don't like the
rewards the firm offers, we are dealing with a problem of
a. instrumentality.
b. expectancy.
c. inputs.
d. second-level outcomes. e. first-level outcomes.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
33) The consultant said to a client company “Look, you people offer the highest pay in the
industry! If you tied it to performance you'd get some motivational punch.” The consultant is
saying that
a. expectancy is low.
b. instrumentality is low and second-level valence is high.
c. second-level valence is low and instrumentality is high. d. expectancy is high.
e. second-level valence is low and instrumentality is low.
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
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34) Which theory suggests that a social comparison process which affects perceived fairness can
have an impact on motivation?
a. ERG theory
b. McClelland's need theory
c. Equity theory
d. Need hierarchy theory
e. Maslow's hierarchy of needs
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 168
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
35) Which theory of work motivation most explicitly involves a comparison with others?
a. Equity
b. Expectancy c. ERG
d. Maslow
e. Alderfer
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 168
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
36) According to equity theory, an underpaid individual would not ________ to achieve equity.
a. accept a job in another organization
b. reduce his or her inputs
c. reduce his or her outcomes
d. perceptually distort his or her inputs or outcomes
e. perceptually distort the inputs or outcomes of a comparison person
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Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
37) According to equity theory, the overpaid worker a. should not experience inequity.
b. may increase inputs to achieve equity.
c. may reduce inputs to achieve equity.
d. may increase outcomes to achieve equity.
e. may reduce inputs and increase outcomes to achieve equity.
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
38) According to equity theory, individuals compare themselves with others when determining if
the company is treating them fairly. Which of the following comparisons is likely to happen?
a. Men tend to make equity comparisons with men.
b. Men tend to make equity comparisons with women.
c. Men tend to make equity comparisons with both men and women. d. Women tend to make
equity comparisons with men.
e. None of the above
16
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
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Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
39) How might equity theory explain employee theft? a. High work expectancies
b. Low need for achievement
c. High work instrumentalities
d. Low work outcomes
e. Low work inputs
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
40) Which motivation theory seems to translate across cultures best? a. ERG theory
b. Expectancy theory
c. Equity theory
d. Maslow's need hierarchy
e. McClelland's theory of needs
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
41) Expectancy theory
a. applies across cultures because it was formulated to be explicitly cross-cultural. b. applies
across cultures because of its flexibility.
c. is most relevant to the Western cultures because of its need-based philosophy. d. is most
relevant to North America because of its rigid hierarchy.
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e. applies to nearly as many cultures as Maslow's need hierarchy.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
42) In collective cultures it is often observed that groups favour an equality norm for reward
allocation. Which theory's motivational premises does this norm most clearly contradict?
a. ERG theory
b. Expectancy theory
c. Equity theory
d. Maslow's need hierarchy
e. McClelland's theory of needs
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
43) A person's overall capacity and efficiency for processing information is called a.
performance.
b. motivation.
c. emotional intelligence.
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d. general cognitive ability.
e. intelligence.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
44) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between general cognitive
ability and performance?
a. General cognitive ability predicts performance only on mental tasks.
b. General cognitive ability predicts performance only on manual tasks.
c. General cognitive ability does not predict performance.
d. General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for more complex tasks. e.
General cognitive ability predicts performance to the same degree on all tasks.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 157
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
45) General cognitive ability predicts
a. learning, training, career success, and job satisfaction.
b. learning, training, job satisfaction, and job performance.
c. motivation, training, job satisfaction, and job performance. d. learning, training, career
success, and job performance.
e. motivation, training, career success, and job performance.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 157
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
46) From bottom to top, what is the correct order of Salovey and Mayer's model of emotional
intelligence?
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a. Perception of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions;
management of emotions
b. Management of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions;
perception of emotions
c. Perception of emotions; management of emotions; understanding of emotions; use and
assimilation of emotions
e. Understanding of emotions; perception of emotions; use and assimilation of emotions;
management of emotions
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
47) What step is the most basic level of emotional intelligence? a. Use and assimilation of
emotions
b. Perception of emotions
c. Understanding of emotions
d. Management of emotions e. It depends on the situation
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
48) Being able to calm oneself when angry or lower the anxiety of another person is an example
of
a. management of emotions.
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b. perception of emotions.
c. understanding of emotions.
d. use and assimilation of emotions. e. general cognitive ability.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
49) Emotional intelligence is especially important in jobs a. that are complex.
b. that involve mental tasks.
c. that involve social interaction.
d. that involve manual tasks.
e. at higher organizational levels.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
50) Research has found that emotional intelligence
a. does not predict job performance.
b. predicts job performance and academic performance.
c. predicts job performance but not academic performance. d. does not predict academic
performance.
e. predicts academic performance but not job performance.
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Answer: b
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a. management of emotions.
b. understanding of emotions.
c. perception of emotions.
d. use and assimilation of emotions. e. diagnosis of emotions.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
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Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
51) Research has found that general cognitive ability
a. predicts learning and training success but not job performance. b. predicts learning and job
performance but not training success. c. predicts training success and job performance but not
learning. d. does not predict learning, training success, or job performance. e. predicts learning,
training success, and job performance.
Answer: e Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
52) The ability to accurately identify emotions in people's faces and nonverbal behaviour is an
example of the
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Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
53) Sandra is a sales rep working for a bottled water distribution company whose clients are
large companies in her city. Each quarter, she meets with her sales manager to jointly set a
quarterly (3 month) sales target as well as create a road map of weekly goals to help her reach
her quarterly numbers. Her quarterly sales benchmark is a ________ goal and the weekly targets
are ________ goals.
a. proximal; distal b. intrinsic, extrinsic c. automatic; guided d. distal; proximal e. distal; intrinsic
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
54) Which of the following is a good practical example of goal challenge?
a. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Cs in the coming semester
b. To encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving Bs in the coming semester c. To
encourage a D student to set a goal of achieving As in the coming semester d. To encourage a D
student to set a goal of achieving Ds in the coming semester e. It depends on the student.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
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55) Which of the following is most accurate concerning participation in goal setting? a.
Participation in goal setting always increases performance.
b. Participation in goal setting never increases performance.
t.
d. Participation should never be used for goal setting in a climate of distrust between employees
and management.
e. Participation in goal setting almost always results in the setting of less difficult goals.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
56) Research shows that participation in goal setting
a. can reduce performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt.
b. can improve performance by lowering the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. c. can
improve performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. d. can reduce
performance by increasing the difficulty of goals that employees adopt. e. has no effect at all on
performance or goal difficulty.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
57) What is the relationship between monetary incentives in goal setting and performance?
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c. Participation in goal setting sometimes increases performance and sometimes it does
no
a. Goal setting has led to performance increases without monetary incentives for goal
accomplishmen
t.
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b. Goal setting has led to performance decreases with monetary incentives for goal
accomplishment.
c. Goal setting has led to performance decreases when monetary incentives are not provided for
goal accomplishment.
d. Goal setting only leads to performance increases when monetary incentives for goal
accomplishment are provided.
e. It depends on the employees and the incentive.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
58) Goals that focus attention on the achievement of specific performance outcomes are called
a. learning goals.
b. outcome goals.
c. performance goals. d. specific goals.
e. challenging goals.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
59) Goals that focus on knowledge and skill acquisition are called a. process goals.
b. performance goals.
c. task goals.
d. strategy-oriented goals.
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e. learning goals.
Answer: e Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
60) If your goal in this course is to achieve a particular grade, what kind of goal have you set?
a. A challenging goal b. A learning goal
c. A performance goal d. An outcome goal
e. A proximal goal
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
61) What are the mechanisms of goal setting?
a. Goal specificity, participation, rewards, supportiveness b. Goal specificity, challenge, effort,
persistence
c. Direction, effort, persistence, feedback
d. Goal specificity, challenge, commitment, and feedback e. Direction, effort, persistence, and
task strategies
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 170
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
62) You have two good friends who are about to graduate and begin working full-time. Omar
wants to open his own small business and Jason wants to be a social worker. According to
McClelland's theory of needs, what are the needs of your friends?
a. Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for affiliation.
b. Omar has a high need for power and Jason has a high need for achievement.
c. Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for affiliation.
d. Omar has a high need for achievement and Jason has a high need for achievement. e. Omar
has a high need for affiliation and Jason has a high need for power.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
63) According to one study, the importance of emotional intelligence for job performance
depends on one’s
a. intrinsic motivation.
b. extrinsic motivation.
c. cognitive ability.
d. controlled motivation. e. autonomous motivation.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
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64) Emotional intelligence has been found to be most important for the job performance of
employees with
a. lower levels of cognitive ability.
b. higher levels of cognitive ability.
c. higher levels of intrinsic motivation. d. lower levels of intrinsic motivation. e. higher levels of
extrinsic motivation.
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
65) Which of the following best represents the relationship between emotional intelligence and
job performance?
a. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability but not the Big Five
personality variables.
b. It does not predict job performance above and beyond cognitive ability or the Big Five
personality variables.
c. It predicts job performance above and beyond the Big Five personality variables but not
cognitive ability.
d. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability and the Big Five personality
variables.
e. It predicts job performance above and beyond cognitive ability and motivation.
Answer: e Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
66) You have two co-workers who you like to work with because they are hard workers. Sal says
he works hard because of the pay and benefits. Trisha says she works hard
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because the job gives her feelings of achievement and accomplishment. What can you say about
your two co-workers?
a. Sal has intrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation.
b. Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has extrinsic motivation.
c. Sal has autonomous motivation and Trisha has controlled motivation. d. Sal has intrinsic
motivation and Trisha has extrinsic motivation.
e. Sal has extrinsic motivation and Trisha has intrinsic motivation.
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
67) Motivation means
a. working hard.
b. working smart.
c. working smart as well as working hard. d. working fast as well as working hard. e. working
hard as well as working soft.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
68) Self-determination theory seeks to determine whether a person's motivation is ________ or
________.
a. autonomous; controlled. b. need based; extrinsic.
c. expectant; controlled.
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d. valent; autonomous. e. valent; equitable.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
69) The ________ theory of motivation seeks to help a person understand whether their
motivation is either autonomous or controlled.
a. equity
b. goal setting
c. expectancy
d. ERG
e. self-determination
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
70) As a manager, you need to evaluate the performance of your employees. Stan seems to be
working hard because he wants to get a pay raise. Sue seems to work hard because she finds her
work interesting and fun. What can you say about each of these employees?
a. Stan’s motivation is controlled and Sue’s motivation is controlled.
b. Stan’s motivation is autonomous and Sue’s motivation is autonomous. c. Stan’s motivation is
controlled and Sue’s motivation is autonomous. d. Stan’s motivation is autonomous and Sue’s
motivation is controlled. e. Stan’s motivation is extrinsic and Sue’s motivation is controlled.
30
Answer: c
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Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
71) After several months on your new job, you find that your motivation is controlled. What does
this mean?
a. You are motivated because you like what you are doing. b. You are motivated because the
boss likes you.
c. You are motivated because you like your boss.
d. You are motivated because of the rewards you receive. e. You are motivated because you have
to be.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
72) Process theories of motivation are concerned with
a. how various factors motivate people.
b. why various factors motivate people.
c. when various factors motivate people.
d. what various factors motivate people.
e. what various factors motivate people, and how they motivate people.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
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73) Need theories of motivation are concerned with a. how various factors motivate people.
b. why various factors motivate people.
c. when various factors motivate people.
d. what various factors motivate people.
e. what various factors motivate people, and how they motivate people.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
74) According to Maslow,
a. self-actualization needs become weaker as they are gratified.
b. self-actualization needs become stronger as they are gratified.
c. self-actualization needs are seldom gratified.
d. when self-actualization needs are gratified, physiological needs become motivating. e. when
self-actualization needs are gratified, people are no longer motivated.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
75) N-Ach is an example of
a. belongingness or relatedness need. b. growth or relatedness need.
c. growth or belongingness need.
d. growth or self-actualization need. e. growth or self-esteem need.
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Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation
76) What kind of goals result in more frequent feedback? a. Learning goals
b. Performance goals
c. Proximal goals
d. Distal goals e. Specific goals
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
77) If you are learning a complex task and you do not have the required knowledge and skills,
what kind of goal will be most effective for you?
a. Do your best goal
b. Specific and challenging performance goal c. Specific performance goal
d. Specific high learning goal
e. Specific high performance goal
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Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
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Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
78) What is the performance impact of specific, challenging goals? a. The same for all kinds of
jobs
b. Stronger for simple jobs
c. Weaker for simple jobs
d. Stronger for complex jobs e. Weaker for complex jobs
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
79) When a task is novel or complex and individuals need to acquire new knowledge and skills
for good performance, which of the following is most accurate?
a. Setting a high performance goal will be most effective.
b. Setting a specific learning goal will be most effective.
c. Setting a high performance goal and a high learning goal will be most effective. d. Setting a do
your best goal will be most effective.
e. Setting a high performance goal and a low learning goal will be most effective.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
80) You have just been hired to perform a job that you have done before and have the ability to
perform effectively. What kind of goal should your boss set for you?
a. A specific learning goal
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b. A do your best goal
c. A high performance goal and a high learning goal d. A high performance goal
e. A high learning goal and a low performance goal
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
81) Which of the following about the relationship between goals and performance is most
accurate?
a. When a task is novel, a specific challenging performance goal will increase performance.
b. When a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal will increase performance. c. When a
task is complex, a specific learning goal can decrease performance.
d. When a task is straightforward, a specific learning goal can decrease performance. e
Answer: e Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
82) Which of the following is true about the classic goal setting study conducted at
Weyerhaeuser Company?
a. The results were achieved with driver participation. b. The results were achieved with
monetary incentives. c. Drivers were assigned a specific learning goal.
d. The effects were short-lived.
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. When a task is complex, a specific challenging performance goal can decrease
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e. Drivers were assigned a specific challenging performance goal. Answer: e
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
83) When will setting a specific learning goal be more effective than setting a high performance
goal?
a. When the job is simple.
b. When individuals have the knowledge and skills to perform the task effectively. c. When the
task is straightforward.
d. When the task is complex.
e. When the task is intrinsically motivating.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
84) Equity theory predicts that someone who is underpaid on a piece rate basis will produce a
high volume of low quality output.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
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85) Motivation means working smart as well as working hard.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
86) Controlled motivation has to do with being in control of your own motivation.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
87) Autonomous motivation has been shown to facilitate effective performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
88) When motivation is autonomous, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to
be.
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Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
89) When motivation is controlled, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to be.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
90) Motivation is the extent to which an organizational member contributes to achieving the
objectives of the organization.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 154
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
91) Emotional intelligence is most important for the job performance of employees with high
levels of cognitive ability.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
92) If you have a friend who has low cognitive ability, then his/her emotional intelligence will be
important for job performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
93) Need theories are concerned with how various factors motivate people.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
94) Process theories of motivation are concerned with when various factors motivate people.
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
95) The goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company involved drivers participating in
goal setting.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
96) In the goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, the drivers did not receive
monetary incentives.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
97) In the goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, the drivers were assigned a
specific high learning goal.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
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Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
98) When individuals lack the knowledge or skill to perform a task, a specific challenging goal
can decrease performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
99) If you are learning to perform a new task, your boss should set a specific challenging
performance goal for you.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
100) If you are performing a task that is straightforward, your boss should set a specific high
learning goal for you.
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Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
101) When a task is straightforward, a specific high performance goal results in higher
performance than a do-your-best goal.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
102) A specific high learning goal is more effective than a specific high performance goal and a
do your best goal when individuals are learning to perform a simple task.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
103) The need theories of motivation are particularly universal in their applicability across
cultures.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 175
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
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a. True b. False
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104) According to Maslow, self-actualization is the most potent motivator.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
105) According to Maslow, physiological needs are the strongest motivators.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
106) In more collective cultures, there is a tendency to favour reward allocation based on
equality rather than equity.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
107) Of all the motivation theories studied in the chapter, expectancy theory handles crosscultural differences best.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
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Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
108) Natasha wants a promotion to a more interesting and challenging job but doesn't get it.
According to Alderfer's ERG theory and its frustration-regression hypothesis, she may now seek
more social support from her boss.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: TF
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
109) High need for achievement is the need profile most consistently predictive of success as a
manager.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 163
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
110) The text defines performance as the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a
goal.
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a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
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Page Reference: 156 Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
111) Gina sees herself as having identical job outcomes to Rob but having fewer inputs than
Rob. According to equity theory, Gina should feel a sense of inequity.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
112) “Choosing another comparison person or group” is a reaction that is associated with
McClelland's theory of need for achievement.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
113) In expectancy theory, the variable that links first and second level outcomes is
instrumentality.
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Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
114) Ray's boss and mentor showed him in great detail how to write a marketing plan. In
expectancy theory terminology, the boss increased Ray's expectancy.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 165
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
115) Need for achievement and equity concepts are more applicable in collective societies than
in individualistic societies.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 176
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
116) Some potential motivators might have both extrinsic and intrinsic qualities.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
117) People high in need for achievement tend to set remarkably difficult performance goals.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 3
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
118) According to Maslow, once a person has experienced self-actualization, he or she will no
longer be motivated by needs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
119) According to Alderfer's ERG theory, a satisfied need is no longer a motivator.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
120) Researchers have argued that making intrinsic rewards contingent upon performance can
reduce extrinsic motivation.
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a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Recall
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Type: TF
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
121) Expectancy theory is concerned with specifying how an employee might attempt to choose
one first level outcome instead of another.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
122) Valence is the expected value of outcomes.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
123) Equity theory predicts that a person who is underpaid on an hourly basis will reduce inputs
and perform at a low level.
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Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
124) People with high achievement needs are consistently better performers than people with
high affiliation needs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
125) McClelland's affiliation need is essentially equivalent to Maslow's belongingness need.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
126) High performance could occur despite fairly low motivation.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
127) According to McClelland, people with high needs for affiliation are likely to be good
salespersons.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
128) According to ERG theory, a person whose existence needs are frustrated is likely to regress
to a concern with growth needs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
129) General cognitive ability is only related to performance on complex tasks.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 157
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
130) The most basic step in emotional intelligence is the knowledge and understanding of
emotions.
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Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
131) The highest level of emotional intelligence is the perception of emotions.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
132) Emotional intelligence predicts academic performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
133) Emotional intelligence is most important for complex and higher-level jobs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 158
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
134) For goals to be challenging, they should be based on past performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
135) The effect of goals on performance is strongest when individuals have high goal
commitment.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
136) Participation in goal setting is necessary for goals to improve performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
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137) Participation can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of the goal that
employees adopt.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
138) Individuals with a learning goal orientation are most concerned about demonstrating their
competence in performing a task.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
139) Distal goals provide clear markers of progress and result in more frequent feedback.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
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140) A performance-prove goal orientation is related to learning and performance outcomes.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
141) A performance-avoid goal orientation is positively related to learning and job performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
142) Proximal goals provide clear markers of progress towards a distal goal because they result
in more frequent feedback.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
143) Goal orientation refers to an individual’s goal preferences in achievement situations.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
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144) The effect of group goal setting on performance is similar to the effect of individual goal
setting.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
145) Motivation means working smart as well as working hard. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
146) When motivation is autonomous, individuals are engaged in a task because they choose to
be.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
147) When motivation is controlled, individuals feel they have no choice and they have to
engage in a task.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
148) After a few weeks on the job, you feel that your motivation is controlled because the boss is
watching you.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
149) After a few weeks on the job, you feel that your motivation is autonomous because the
work is interesting and fun.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation
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150) General cognitive ability is an even better predictor of performance for more complex and
higher-level jobs.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 157
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
151) Emotional intelligence is most important for the job performance of employees with lower
levels of cognitive ability.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
152) Need theories are concerned with what motivates workers. Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
153) In the classic goal setting study conducted at Weyerhaeuser Company, truck drivers were
assigned a specific, challenging performance goal.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
154) When a task is straightforward, a specific, high performance goal results in higher
performance than a do your best goal.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
155) A specific, high learning goal is more effective than a specific, high performance goal or a
do your best goal when a task is novel.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
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156) If you have just started a new job and must perform a complex task, then your boss should
set a specific high learning goal.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
157) When individuals lack the knowledge or skills to perform a complex task effectively, a
specific and challenging performance goal can decrease performance relative to a do your best
goal.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
158) When a task is straightforward, a specific high performance goal results in higher
performance than a do your best goal.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
159) Because of its flexibility, expectancy theory is the motivation theory that seems to hold up
well or translate best across cultures.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
160) Maslow developed a motivation theory that is hierarchical, meaning that one need must or
might be filled before higher level needs can be filled.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
161) The text defines motivation as the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a
goal.
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Page Reference: 154 Skill: Recall
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Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
162) The text defines performance as the extent to which a member contributes to achieving the
objectives of the organization.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
163) In Maslow's hierarchy, belongingness needs fall between esteem needs and safety needs.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 160
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
164) Belongingness needs in Maslow's hierarchy correspond most closely to relatedness needs in
Alderfer's ERG theory.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
165. Bob gives his employees clear instructions and training and then gives them feedback to
improve their performance. In expectancy theory terminology, he is boosting expectancy.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 165
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
166) According to David McClelland, the most effective managers have a high need for power.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 163
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
167) Alice promises her employee a promotion if he can land a big contract. In expectancy
theory terminology she is boosting instrumentality.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
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168) A controversy exists as to whether the provision of extrinsic rewards for task performance
might damage intrinsic motivation.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
169) People with a high need for achievement prefer to set moderately difficult goals. Difficulty:
2
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
170) Lew's boss promised him more vacation days if he completed the project on time, but Lew
said he just wasn't interested in vacation days. In expectancy theory terminology, Lew is talking
about valence.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
171) Clarence has been unable to establish friendly, supportive relationships at work. According
to Alderfer's ERG theory, this may cause his existence needs to become stronger.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 161
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
172) Equity theory and expectancy theory are two prominent process theories of motivation.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
173) Intrinsic motivation is self-applied and stems from a direct relationship between the person
and the task.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
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174) McClelland's need for affiliation corresponds most closely to Alderfer's relatedness needs.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
175) At his quarterly meeting, the sales rep met with his sales manager to discuss the next
quarter and set the sales target. They both agreed on a number. This is the sales rep's distal goal
for the quarter.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
176) After meeting with her sales manager, Susan began to break down her quarterly sales target
into monthly and then weekly benchmarks. These are proximal goals.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
177) The theories of Maslow, Alderfer, and McClelland are classified as need theories of
motivation.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
178) According to David McClelland, a sales job is particularly suited to a person who is high in
need for achievement.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
179) In collective cultures, equal rewards for all in spite of individual performance may be the
preferred mode of compensation. This preference actually violates the prescriptions of equity
theory.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 177
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
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180) Imagine workers who are underpaid on an hourly basis. According to equity theory, if these
people remain employed their productivity will be low.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 169
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.6 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
181) General cognitive ability is a term used to refer to a person's basic information processing
capabilities.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
182) General cognitive ability is a better predictor of performance for complex jobs. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 157
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
183) Perception of emotions is the first and most basic level of emotional intelligence. Difficulty:
1
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
184) Management of emotions is the highest level of emotional intelligence. Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
185) Emotional intelligence is particularly important in jobs that involve a lot of emotional
labour.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
186) Specific goals are goals that specify an exact level of achievement for people to accomplish
in a particular time frame.
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Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
187) Specific and challenging goals are most beneficial when they are accompanied by ongoing
feedback.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
188) Participation can improve performance by increasing the difficulty of the goals that
employees adopt.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
189) Learning goals focus on knowledge and skill acquisition. Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
190) Goal orientation is a stable individual difference. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
191) The mechanisms of goal setting include direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 170
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals
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192) Gordon Wong, the VP of Human Resources at Zeta Manufacturing, is concerned about the
apparent lack of motivation among Zeta's employees. At a meeting with company executives, he
proposes that workers' wages be immediately increased by 20% in order to improve motivation
levels. Julia Franco, the VP of Operations disagrees. “If you throw more money at them, they
will become even less motivated!” she exclaims. Who is correct? Explain your answer.
Answer:
As discussed in the text, there is considerable debate about the relationship between extrinsic and
intrinsic motivators. In support of Julia's position, there is research evidence which suggests that
the proposed increase in pay (an extrinsic reward) may lead to reduced levels of intrinsic
motivation stemming from the workers' tasks. Other studies suggest that intrinsic motivation is
only negatively affected by extrinsic rewards in certain circumstances, and therefore, Julia's
argument may not be relevant at Zeta. Either way, pay is only one type of reward and Zeta's
management would be well advised to develop a strategy which includes both intrinsic and
extrinsic motivators. It should also be noted that according to self-determination theory, more
pay will simply increase controlled motivation. Autonomous motivation facilitates effective
performance and is also associated with other work outcomes. Thus, they should consider
increasing autonomous motivation as well.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 155
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation
193) What is the main difference between the need theories and process theories of work
motivation?
Answer:
Need theories are concerned with what motivates workers (e.g., needs and their associated
goals). Process theories are concerned with how various factors motivate people.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
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194) Compare and contrast the motivation theories of Maslow and Alderfer. What advice would
you have for a Canadian manager with respect to applying these theories in their workplace?
Answer:
Both theories are based on need hierarchies. Alderfer's ERG theory (existence, relatedness, and
growth) is a compressed version of Maslow's five-category need system (physiological, safety,
belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization). Alderfer's theory is more flexible than Maslow's
in that it does not assume that a lower level must be gratified before a higher level need becomes
operative. It also suggests that frustration of a higher level need will lead a worker to regress to a
lower, more concrete need category. Good advice for Canadian managers might be to focus
relatively more attention on workers' higher level needs (i.e., appreciate intrinsic motivation),
and remember that these models do not apply evenly across all employees or cultures (i.e.,
appreciate diversity).
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
195) According to McClelland's theory, what are the main characteristics of individuals who are
high in need of achievement? What types of jobs would likely motivate them?
Answer:
People who are high in need for achievement prefer situations in which they can take personal
responsibility, tend to set moderately difficult goals, and have a desire for performance feedback.
They should be strongly motivated by sales jobs or entrepreneurial positions.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 162
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
196) David Lucero is the Regional Sales Manager for Western Canada at Kapster Enterprises.
He enjoys his job and earns a good enough salary to comfortably support his wife and two
children in an upscale area of Calgary. He was recently offered a promotion to General Sales
Manager for Canada based in Toronto. The promotion would have increased his salary by
$10,000 per year and placed him a notch higher on the
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organization chart. However, the move to Toronto would have resulted in much higher housing
expenses, and David's wife would have had to go back to work if they wanted to maintain the
same overall living standards. David knew that he would make an excellent GM, but, after some
consideration, he declined the offer. Use expectancy theory to explain why David may have
turned down the promotion.
Answer:
David's expectancy is high (i.e., he is certain that he can do the job) but the combination of both
attractive and unattractive second level outcomes has resulted in low valence, overall.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 164
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
197) What are proximal and distal goals? How are they related? Please provide examples of
each.
Answer:
Distal goals are long-term or end goals, such as achieving a level of sales revenue in a month or
quarter. Proximal goals are short-term or sub-goals that provide the stepping stones for attaining
greater distal goals. So for example, if a sales rep meets with her sales manager and they jointly
set a quarterly target of $500,000 in closed business (distal goal), the sales rep may work out a 3month plan with weekly targets (proximal goals) that together will build upon each other to reach
the distal goal at the end of the quarter.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
198) What advice would you give to a manager about the effective use of expectancy theory as a
model to improve motivation in their workplace?
Answer:
The manager should utilize strategies which boost expectancies, clarify reward contingencies,
and address the diverse needs of the workers.
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Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 167
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “expectancy theory.”
199) What are the basic characteristics of highly motivating goals?
Answer:
Goals are most motivational when they are specific, challenging, and organizational members are
committed to them. In addition, feedback about progress towards goal attainment should be
provided.
Diff: 1
Type: ES
Page Reference: 171
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
200) From bottom to top, what are the levels in Salovey and Mayer's model of emotional
intelligence?
Answer:
Perception of emotions, use and assimilation of emotions, understanding emotions, emotional
language, and the signals conveyed by emotions, and management of emotions.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 158
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
201) What is the difference between a learning goal orientation, a performance-prove goal
orientation, and a performance-avoid goal orientation, and what effect do they have on learning
and performance?
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Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 172
Skill: Recall
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A learning goal orientation is a preference to learn new things and develop competence in an
activity by acquiring new skills and mastering new situations. A performance-prove goal
orientation is a preference to obtain favourable judgments about the outcome of one’s
performance. A performance-avoid goal orientation is a preference to avoid negative judgments
about the outcome of one’s performance. A learning goal orientation has been found to be
positively related to learning and academic, task, and job performance. A performance-avoid
orientation is negatively related to learning and lower task, and job performance. A performanceprove orientation is not related to learning or performance outcomes.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 173
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
202) What are the mechanisms that explain the relationship between goals and performance?
Answer:
The mechanisms of goal setting are direction, effort, persistence, and task strategies.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 170
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
203) Discuss some of the factors that might affect commitment to challenging, specific goals.
Answer:
The factors that might affect commitment to challenging and specific goals are participation,
rewards, and supportiveness.
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Page Reference: 156
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Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
204) Discuss the extent to which each of the theories of motivation translate across cultures.
Answer:
Most theories that revolve around human needs will come up against cultural limitations to their
generality. Equity theory will depend on how rewards are allocated in a particular culture.
Because of its flexibility, expectancy theory is very effective when applied cross- culturally.
Goal setting has been found to translate in numerous countries and cultures; however, the goal
setting process must be adjusted in each culture.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 175
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.8 Discuss the cross-cultural limitations of theories of motivation.
205) Describe self-determination theory and discuss its implications for motivating employees.
Answer:
Self-determination theory is a theory of motivation that considers whether people’s motivation is
autonomous or controlled. When motivation is autonomous, individuals are engaged in a task
because they choose to be, and their actions are internally regulated. People are self-motivated by
intrinsic factors. When motivation is controlled, individuals feel they have no choice and they
have to engage in a task, so their behaviour is externally regulated. People are motivated to
obtain a desired extrinsic reward. Autonomous motivation has been shown to facilitate effective
performance, especially on complex tasks. It is also related to positive attitudes and
psychological well-being. The implications of the theory for motivating employees are that it is
probably not a good idea to just use extrinsic factors to motivate employees because their
motivation will be controlled. Intrinsic factors should be used so that motivation is autonomous
since autonomous motivation facilitates effective performance and is related to other positive
work outcomes.
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Objective: 5.2 Compare and contrast “intrinsic” and “extrinsic motivation,” and describe selfdetermination theory, autonomous motivation, and controlled motivation.
206) What is general cognitive ability and what role does it play in the motivation- performance
relationship?
Answer:
General cognitive ability refers to a person’s basic information processing capacities and
cognitive resources. It has been found to predict learning, training, career success, and job
performance in all kinds of jobs and occupations. In terms of the motivation- performance
relationship, it can either enhance or lower a person’s performance. For example, if a person has
high cognitive ability but low motivation, they still might have high performance. On the other
hand, a person with high motivation might not perform well if they have low cognitive ability.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 156
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.3 Explain and discuss the different factors that predict performance, and define
general cognitive ability and emotional intelligence.
207) Describe what makes equity theory a theory of motivation and the tactics that people might
be motivated to employ.
Answer:
Equity theory is a theory of motivation (in addition to job satisfaction) because individuals are
motivated to maintain an equitable exchange relationship. People will devote considerable
energy to reducing inequity and achieving equity. The tactics they might use to do this include:
perceptually distort one’s own inputs or outcomes; perceptually distort the inputs or outcomes of
the comparison person or group; choose another comparison person or group; alter one’s inputs
or alter one’s outcomes; and leave the exchange relationship.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 168
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.5 Explain and discuss “equity theory.”
208) As a manager who is responsible for employee performance, you are considering using goal
setting to motivate employees to improve their performance. However, you are
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not sure what kinds of goals to set. You have new employees who are learning to perform
complex tasks and you also have experienced employees who can perform their tasks effectively.
In the past, you have just told all employees to do their best. What kinds of goals should you set
to motivate your employees?
Answer:
For new employees who do not have the knowledge or skill to perform novel and complex tasks,
you should set a specific high learning goal which will be more effective than a specific high
performance goal or a do your best goal. In fact, for these employees a specific high performance
goal might decrease performance. For the more experienced employees, for whom the task is
now straightforward, you should set a high performance goal which will result in higher
performance than a do your best goal.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 174
Skill: Applied
Objective: 5.7 Explain and discuss “goal setting theory,” “goal orientation,” and “proximal” and
“distal” goals.
209) What is motivation and what are its basic characteristics?
Answer:
Motivation refers to the extent to which persistent effort is directed towards a goal. The basic
characteristics of motivation are effort, persistence, direction, and goals.
Diff: 1
Type: ES
Page Reference: 154
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.1 Define “motivation,” discuss its basic properties, and distinguish it from
“performance.”
210) What are need theories of motivation? Give two examples of a need theory of motivation
and discuss the managerial implications of need theories for motivating employees.
Answer:
Need theories are motivation theories that specify the kinds of needs people have and the
conditions under which they will be motivated to satisfy these needs in a way that contributes to
performance. Examples of need theories are Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, Alderfer’s ERG
Theory, and McClelland’s Theory of Needs. The managerial implications
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of need theories for motivating employees are to appreciate diversity and to appreciate intrinsic
motivation.
Diff: 1
Type: ES
Page Reference: 159
Skill: Recall
Objective: 5.4 Explain and discuss “need theories” of motivation.
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Test Bank for Johns/Saks, Organizational Behaviour, Ninth Edition Chapter 6
1) Piece rate pay systems
a. usually increase cooperation among workers on peripheral, nonproduction tasks (for example,
keeping the shop clean).
b. have generally been supported by unions.
c. are especially useful when few objective performance criteria exist. d. generally lead to
increased productivity unless restriction occurs.
e. are most effective when applied to white-collar jobs.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 191
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
2) Restriction of productivity is a phenomenon associated with a. piece rate pay.
b. hourly pay.
c. MBO.
d. job enrichment. e. merit pay.
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
3) Managers have a tendency to ________ the pay of their boss and ________ the pay of their
employees.
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a. underestimate; underestimate
b. underestimate; overestimate
c. overestimate; overestimate
d. overestimate; underestimate
e. correctly estimate; underestimate
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
4) As discussed in the book, the rationale for removing the secrecy surrounding salaries is that
a. we should be honest with employees, and this is a good place to start.
b. they know salaries anyway, via the grapevine, but secrecy reduces confidence in the company.
c. positive motivational consequences may occur if the pay system is well designed. d.
consumers should understand that labour costs contribute greatly to retail prices. e. a more open
pay policy will expose the inadequacy of the merit system.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 197
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
5) The systematic mis-estimates that managers make of the pay of others in their firm suggests
that they will often
a. underestimate the pay of employees.
b. experience equity with regard to peers. c. underestimate the value of a promotion.
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d. overestimate the value of a promotion.
e. experience equity with regard to employees.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 197
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
6) The Scanlon Plan is a type of ________ system. a. job enrichment
b. MBO
c. gain-sharing
d. piece rate pay e. skill-based
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
7) Alice, a middle manager in an oil company, makes $35,000 a year. Her boss makes $41,000,
her peers average $33,000, and her employees average $29,000. Alice doesn't know the pay of
these co-workers, but we ask her to guess. Research suggests that she will say
a. the employees average $28,000. b. the boss makes $43,000.
c. the peers average $34,000.
d. the boss makes $45,000.
e. the peers average $30,000.
Answer: c Diff: 3
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Type: MC
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Type: MC
Page Reference: 197
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
8) Joe, Margaret, and Denise are co-workers. Joe produces five widgets and is paid $5. Margaret
produces twenty widgets and is paid $20. Denise produces fifty widgets and is paid $50. These
workers are being paid according to a(n)________ pay plan.
a. merit
b. hourly
c. Scanlon d. piece rate e. lump sum
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
9) One reason why merit pay plans are employed with a much greater frequency than wage
incentive plans is that
a. white-collar workers particularly believe that performance should be an important determinant
of pay.
b. blue-collar jobs more often offer objective performance criteria with which pay can be linked.
c. blue-collar workers tend to perceive a strong link between rewards and performance. d. merit
pay plans that are actually in use are very effective.
e. substantial evidence indicates that merit plans are very effective for improving performance.
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Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
10) The owner of Acme Manufacturing Company is thinking about introducing the Scanlon Plan.
This plan will most likely have the greatest impact on his employees'
a. job design.
b. autonomy.
c. working hours. d. pay.
e. skill level.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
11) Which system is specifically based on cost reduction? a. Gain-sharing
b. MBO
c. Merit pay
d. Goal setting
e. Skill-based pay
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
12) Under a skill-based pay plan, people are paid according to a. their personal productivity.
b. the number of tasks they know how to perform.
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c. their contribution to product or service quality.
d. how skillfully they can perform their main job function. e. the goals which have been
established through MBO.
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
13) An organization wishes to base pay on objective, measurable performance data, but the
performance of individual workers cannot be isolated and measured. Which system should it
adopt?
a. Piece rate
b. Gain sharing
c. Merit pay
d. Hourly pay
e. Skill-based pay
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
14) Which pay system is intentionally designed to motivate groups of employees rather than
individual employees?
a. Gain-sharing b. Goal setting c. Piece rate pay d. Merit pay
e. Skill-based pay Answer: a
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Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
15) The practices of Scientific Management seem LEAST compatible with a. job enrichment.
b. piece rate pay.
c. high specialization.
d. goal setting.
e. close supervision.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
16) In general, we would not expect a high scope job to ________ than a low scope job. a. have
higher “motivating potential”
b. pay more
c. conform more closely to the principles of Scientific Management
d. involve more task variety e. have more job depth
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Recall
17) Debbie's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. She is most likely a(n) a. manager.
b. physician.
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c. assembly line utility worker. d. quality control inspector.
e. professor.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Applied
18) Al's job is very broad, but it has almost no depth. Al has a(n) ________ job. a. high-scope
b. high MPS
c. low-scope
d. enriched
e. high autonomy
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Applied
19) Which motivational technique is most closely associated with goal setting? a. Job enrichment
b. Wage incentives
c. MBO
d. Flextime
e. Job sharing
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 210
Skill: Recall
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Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
20) Which job enrichment technique would prove most threatening to workers with poor social
skills?
a. Reducing supervision
b. Combining tasks
c. Making feedback more direct
d. Establishing client relationships e. Reducing reliance on others
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
21) Very strict union rules about who does what work are most likely to pose a problem for
installing which system?
a. Merit pay
b. Flextime
c. Job enrichment d. Scanlon plan e. Gain-sharing
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
22) What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for this job profile? Variety = 1; identity = 2;
significance = 3; autonomy = 3; feedback = 5.
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a. supervision
b. autonomy
c. pay
d. company policy e. workplace safety
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b. 28 c. 30 d. 45 e. 90
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
23) According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristic Model, employees should respond
most favourably to jobs high in motivating potential when growth need strength is ________ and
satisfaction with job context factors is ________.
a. high; high
b. high; low
c. low; high
d. low; low
e. moderate; low
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
24) In terms of job design, satisfaction with ________ would not be an example of context
satisfaction.
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
25) When an organization faces a slow-down in business activity, there may be a reduction in the
number of hours employees work in order to avoid layoffs. This is called
a. reduction contingency. b. job contingency.
c. work sharing.
d. work sustainability.
e. layoff avoidance.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
26) Which of the following is both a core job characteristic and a necessary condition for goals
to motivate performance?
a. Pay
b. Identity
c. Growth need strength d. Feedback
e. Context satisfaction
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
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27) The book cites several examples of companies that have engaged in work sharing. Their
workers accepted a reduction in their weekly hours in order to avoid
a. excessive retraining costs.
b. wage increases.
c. compliance with government workforce diversity policy. d. layoffs.
e. Both C and D
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
28) A company is thinking about enriching a certain job. Which of the following factors would
suggest that this strategy is incorrect?
a. The current job has a very high Motivating Potential Score (MPS). b. The workers have very
high growth need strength.
c. Context satisfaction among the workers is very high.
d. The job knowledge and skills of the workers are very high.
e. Task significance is low.
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 203
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
29) The degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the lives of other people, whether
those people are in the immediate organization or in the world at large is called
a. task identity.
b. skill variety.
c. task significance.
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a. Feedback
b. Skill variety
c. Task identity
d. Autonomy
e. Task significance
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
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d. autonomy. e. feedback.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
30) In Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which of the following is not a
psychological state?
a. Meaningfulness of work
b. Significance of task
c. Responsibility for outcomes d. Knowledge of results
e. None of the above
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
31) Veronica doesn't feel responsible for the outcomes of her work. According to Hackman and
Oldham's Job Characteristics Model, which core job characteristic is low?
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Page Reference: 203
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
32) What is the motivating potential score (MPS) for a job in which all five core characteristics
are scored “4” on the Job Diagnostic Survey?
a. 20 b. 48 c. 64 d. 80 e. 96
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
33) According to the Job Characteristics Model, what should be done to increase experienced
responsibility for work outcomes?
a. Increase skill variety
b. Increase task significance c. Reduce feedback
d. Increase autonomy
e. Reduce task identity
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
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34) Ross's job is very low in feedback. According to Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics
Model, which psychological state will be most affected by this low feedback?
a. Knowledge of results of the work
b. Experienced meaningfulness of the work
c. Experienced responsibility for work outcomes d. Experienced identity of the work
e. Experienced autonomy
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
35) Establishing client relationships is an example of which motivational strategy? a. Goal
setting
b. Flextime
c. Gain-sharing
d. Job enrichment e. Job sharing
Answer: d Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
36) Which motivational strategy is most clearly associated with written agreements and
paperwork?
a. Job enrichment
b. Management by Objectives c. Flextime
d. Compressed workweek
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e. Job sharing
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 211
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
37) One problem that may cause MBO to fail is that
a. top management gets too involved in the MBO program.
b. MBO may lead to problems in achieving adequate supervisory coverage. c. performance
reviews may become an exercise in punishing employees. d. workers may become fatigued
because of longer working days.
e. the objectives are too specific.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 211
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
38) “Core time” is
a. a term associated with the compressed workweek.
b. the time under which pay is calculated at a base rate rather than an overtime rate. c. the time
when employees working under flex-time are all in the office.
d. the time frame over which goals are set in a Management by Objectives program. e. the
overlap in shifts between two workers who are job sharing.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 212
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
39) In a flex-time system, the period when all employees must be present at work is called
a. full force.
b. flexband.
c. core time.
d. nonflex.
e. compressed time.
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
40) In a flex-time system, core time is
a. the total amount of time per week that each employee must work.
b. the time of the day when all employees must be present at work.
c. the time period within which employees are free to exercise flextime privileges. d. the amount
of time an employee must work to acquire flextime privileges.
e. the time in excess of a normal work shift.
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
41) Which of the following consequences is least likely to occur as a result of flex-time? a.
Increased job satisfaction
b. Decreased turnover
c. Decreased absenteeism
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
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d. Increased satisfaction with work schedule e. Increased productivity
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
42) In its most simple form, people who work under a compressed workweek work a. fewer days
per week than normal.
b. less weeks per year than normal.
c. less hours per day than normal.
d. fewer hours per week than normal. e. fewer hours per month than normal.
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
43) Research on financial incentives and pay-for-performance plans have found that they a.
increase performance but have no effect on turnover.
b. increase performance and lower turnover.
c. lower performance and lower turnover.
d. lower performance and increase turnover. e. have no effect on performance or turnover.
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44) What is job sharing?
a. Two people do one job.
b. Two people do the work of three people.
c. Two people help each other do their separate jobs.
d. Two jobs are given to one individual.
e. Two jobs are combined into one and shared by two people.
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
45) The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with his/her work and the
importance of work to one's total self-image is known as
a. job enrichment.
b. job involvement.
c. experienced meaningfulness.
d. task significance.
e. experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
46) A lump sum bonus is
a. a payment that employees receive as part of the Scanlon plan.
b. a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay.
c. a wage incentive that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay. d. merit pay
that is awarded in a single payment and not built into base pay.
e. merit pay that is awarded in a single payment and built into base pay.
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Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 204
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Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 195
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
47) Recent research into the Job Characteristics Model has confirmed that in addition to the
original outcomes provided by the use of the model (e.g., job satisfaction and internal work
motivation), all of the following were discovered to be beneficial outcomes except
a. supervisor satisfaction.
b. co-worker satisfaction.
c. compensation satisfaction. d. promotion satisfaction.
e. career satisfaction.
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
48) What is task identity?
a. It is the opportunity to do a variety of job activities using various skills and talents.
b. It is the impact that a job has on other people.
c. It is the extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with his/her job.
d. It is the extent to which a job involves doing a complete piece of work, from beginning to end.
e. It is the extent to which an individual can identify the core tasks of a job.
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
49) Which of the following is most accurate about the importance of pay as a motivator? a.
Employees overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
b. Employees and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
c. Employees and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
d. Employees overestimate and managers underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
e. Employees underestimate and managers overestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
50) In order to increase the scope of employees' jobs and help them build greater skills and
expertise by performing different jobs, many organizations have implemented ________
programs.
a. career scouting b. career ramping c. job splicing
d. job rotation
e. job scouting
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 202
Skill: Recall
51) As the size of the team ________, the relationship between any individual's productivity and
his or her pay ________.
a. increases; increases b. decreases; decreases;
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c. increases; decreases
d. decreases; will approach zero e. increases; becomes stable
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
52) In a study in a unionized auto parts manufacturing plant, a Scanlon gain-sharing program had
a positive effect on the
a. scrap and waste reduction.
b. labour required.
c. number of suggestions provided by employees. d. number of errors made by employees.
e. quality and quantity of parts.
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
53) If your boss has given you a stretch assignment, what does this mean? a. You have many
more tasks to perform as part of your job.
b. You will have to get more accomplished in a shorter period of time.
c. You will have to share your job with another employee.
d. You will be working on a variety of tasks with new responsibilities. e. You will be working on
a new task for an extended period of time.
Answer: d Diff: 2
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Type: MC
Page Reference: 202
Skill: Applied
54) Where do the moderator variables in the Job Characteristics Model intervene?
a. Between job characteristics and the critical psychological states
b. Between the critical psychological states and outcomes
c. Between job characteristics and the critical psychological states, and between the critical
psychological states and outcomes
d. Between job characteristics and outcomes
e. Between job characteristics and growth need strength
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
55) What does prosocial motivation refer to?
a. The desire to expend effort to benefit one’s co-workers
b. The desire to expend effort to benefit other people
c. The desire to expend effort to benefit the organization
d. The desire to expend effort to improve one’s performance e. The desire to expend effort to
improve group effectiveness
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
56) Where does the Job Characteristics Model falter in its predictions? a. Growth need strength
and knowledge and skill
b. Growth need strength and context satisfaction
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c. Knowledge and skills and context satisfaction
d. Task identity and the critical psychological states e. Feedback and knowledge of results
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
57) If your boss has decided to redesign your job using job enlargement, what does this mean?
a. You will have more job scope.
b. You will have more job breadth and less job depth. c. You will have more job breadth.
d. You will have less job breadth and more job depth. e. You will have more job depth.
Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
58) If your job has been redesigned so that you are given more boring, fragmented, routine tasks
to do, what has happened?
a. Job enrichment b. Job derichment c. Job engorgement d. Job shrinkage
e. Job enlargement
Answer: e Diff: 2
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Type: MC
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
59) If your organization has just offered you the opportunity to work at a telework centre, what
does this mean?
a. You can work out of an office located near your home.
b. You can work at home and telecommute.
c. You will no longer be able to have your own office.
d. You can spend part of the week working anywhere you want. e. You can work anywhere you
want all the time.
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
60) If you work for a company that has a distributed work program, what does this mean? a. You
can either work at home and telecommute, or work at the company's offices.
b. You must work at home and telecommute.
c. You can arrive and leave work when you want within certain time periods.
d. You can work at home, at a satellite office, or at the company's offices. e. You can work at a
satellite office near your home.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
61) If your company allows employees to work at their business office, a satellite office, and/or a
home office, what kind of program do they have?
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a. Telecommuting program
b. Telework centre program
c. Flexible work program
d. Distributed work program
e. Alternative work office program
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
62) At Bell Canada, employees are eligible to participate in the company's ________ program.
a. telework centre
b. job sharing
c. distant staffing
d. distributed work
e. compressed workweek
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
63) What is the most common compressed workweek system? a. the 5-40 system
b. the 4-40 system
c. the 4-50 system
d. the 3-40 system e. the 5-50 system
Answer: b
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Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
64) A review of research on the compressed workweek concluded that a. there is a positive effect
on absenteeism.
b. there is a positive effect on productivity.
c. there is a positive effect on job satisfaction.
d. there is a positive effect on satisfaction with one's boss. e. there is a positive effect on life
satisfaction.
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
65) What does task variety refer to?
a. The extent to which a job requires an individual to perform a wide range of tasks on the job
b. The extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a
job
c. The extent to which a job involves performing specialized tasks or possessing specialized
knowledge and skill
d. The extent to which the tasks on a job are complex and difficult to perform
e. The extent to which a job requires an individual to learn to perform a variety of tasks
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
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66) What does skill variety refer to?
a. The extent to which a job requires an individual to perform a wide range of tasks on the job
b. The extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of different skills to perform a
job
c. The extent to which a job involves performing specialized tasks or possessing specialized
knowledge and skill
d. The extent to which the tasks on a job are complex and difficult to perform
e. The extent to which a job requires an individual to learn to perform a variety of tasks
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
67) Morgeson and Humphrey developed a scale to measure work design characteristics. What is
it called?
a. Job Diagnostic Survey
b. Work Design Survey
c. Job Diagnostic Questionnaire d. Work Design Questionnaire e. Work Design Scale
Answer: b Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
68) Which of the following best represents the categories associated with work design
characteristics?
a. Motivational characteristics, task characteristics, social characteristics
b. Motivational characteristics, task characteristics, work context characteristics
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a. Interaction inside the organization
b. Social support
c. Interdependence
d. Interaction outside of the organization e. Feedback from others
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
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c. Task characteristics, social characteristics, work context characteristics
d. Motivational characteristics, social characteristics, work context characteristics e.
Motivational characteristics, social characteristics, job characteristics
Answer: d Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
69) The motivational characteristics associated with work design include a. task characteristics
and knowledge characteristics.
b. task characteristics and social characteristics.
c. task characteristics and work context characteristics.
d. social characteristics and work context characteristics. e. job characteristics and task
characteristics.
Answer: a Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
70) Which of the following is not associated with the social characteristics of work design?
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Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
71) Compared to motivational characteristics, social characteristics have been found to be more
strongly related to
a. job satisfaction and organizational commitment.
b. job satisfaction and turnover intentions.
c. organizational commitment and turnover intentions. d. job satisfaction and turnover.
e. turnover intentions and turnover.
Answer: c Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
72) After graduating from university, Sara told her friends that she wants to find a job where she
can make a difference in other people’s lives. What is this an example of?
a. Job involvement
b. Prosocial motivation c. Task identity
d. Social support
e. Growth need strength
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
73) The idea that work can be designed to provide opportunities to connect and interact with
other people is known as
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a. work design.
b. job design.
c. social architecture of jobs.
d. relational architecture of jobs. e. prosocial motivation.
Answer: d Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
74) Which of the following is an example of the relational architecture of jobs?
a. A student has just found out that she will receive a scholarship.
b. A call centre employee has been told about a scholarship recipient.
c. A call centre employee has been given the opportunity to interact with other employees.
d. A call centre employee has been given a university scholarship. e. A call centre employee has
been given more job autonomy.
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
75) After graduating from university, Gwen decided to find a job that was consistent with the
relational architecture of jobs. Which of the following would be a good job for her?
a. A job that involves doing a whole piece of work and the results can easily be identified b. A
job that provides opportunities for advice and assistance from others
c. A job that provides opportunities to connect and interact with other people
d. A job in which others in the organization provide information about one’s performance
e. A job that provides direct and clear information about the effectiveness of task performance
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a. Job complexity
b. Information processing c. Problem solving
d. Specialization
e. Task variety
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
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Answer: c Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
76) If Kayla is concerned about the degree to which her new job allows correct or appropriate
posture and movement, what should she ask about?
a. Physical demands of the job b. Ergonomics
c. Equipment use
d. Work conditions
e. Interdependence
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
77) Which of the following is not an example of knowledge characteristics of work design?
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a. Autonomy
b. Task variety
c. Skill variety
d. Job complexity
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Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
78) The model of relational job design was developed by a. Adam Grant.
b. Frederick Morgeson and Stephen Humphrey.
c. J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham.
d. Frederick Winslow Taylor. e. Peter Drucker.
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
79) Who, in the following list, is not associated with job design? a. Adam Grant
b. Frederick Morgeson and Stephen Humphrey
c. J. Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham
d. Frederick Winslow Taylor e. Peter Drucker
Answer: e Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 203
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
80) Luke wants a job where he will be able to use many of his skills. What work design
characteristic should he be asking about during his job interview?
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e. Specialization
Answer: c Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
81) The awareness and inclusion of motivational characteristics, social characteristics, and work
context characteristics when designing how work gets done is known as ________.
a. Job Characteristics Model b. work design characteristics c. relational job design
d. job enrichment
e. relational architecture of jobs
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
82) Task variety refers to the extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of
different skills to perform a job.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
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a. True b. False
Answer: a
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83) Skill variety refers to the degree to which a job requires employees to perform a wide range
of tasks on the job.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
84) The Scientific Management movement strongly supported job enrichment.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Recall
85) “Establishing internal client relationships” is a motivational strategy advocated by
Management by Objectives.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 210
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
86) The Scanlon Plan is a group-oriented rather than an individual-oriented pay plan.
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Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
87) June works a compressed workweek. This means that she works fewer total hours a week
than normal.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
88) Managers habitually underestimate the pay that their bosses receive.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
89) Sydney works under a gain-sharing plan. In other words, he is paid according to individual
piece rate.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 198
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Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
90) In the Job Characteristics Model, autonomy is the core job characteristic that leads to the
critical psychological state known as “experienced responsibility for outcomes of work.”
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
91) Tanya's work group restricts its productivity. According to the text, this is a pretty good sign
that the group members are paid an hourly wage.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
92) Skill-based pay is a motivation system whereby people are paid on the basis of how many
skills they have mastered.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
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a. True b. False
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93) According to the Job Characteristics Model, people with low growth need strength should
respond best to jobs with a high motivating potential.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
94) Hackman and Oldham developed a questionnaire called the Work Design Questionnaire to
measure the core characteristics of jobs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
95) Both job enrichment and goal setting theory stress the value of performance feedback to
employees.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
96) Job enrichment is said to improve job context satisfaction.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 193
Skill: Recall
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
97) Managers are more supportive than blue-collar employees of the idea that pay should be
closely tied to performance.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 193
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
98) Financial incentives and pay-for-performance have no effect on turnover.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
99) Merit pay plans attempt to link pay to performance on blue-collar jobs.
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a. True b. False
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Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
100) Generally, managers underestimate the pay of their employees and peers and overestimate
the pay of their superiors.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
101) The traditional view of job design stressed job simplification.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Recall
102) Job breadth refers to the number of different activities performed in a job.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Recall
103) The notion of job depth corresponds very closely to what Hackman and Oldham call skill
variety.
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 203
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
104) According to the Job Characteristics Model, context satisfactions is a moderator variable.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
105) The compressed workweek holds the number of days worked constant but reduces the
number of hours worked each day.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
106) The primary purpose of alternative working schedules is to motivate employees to work
harder.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
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Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
107) When workers are paid according to the performance of their work group, the relationship
between individual pay and productivity decreases as the group gets bigger.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
108) Core time is the period when employees working under flex-time are all in the office.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
109) A low scope job would have a low motivating potential score.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
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110) Unions have traditionally been very active in demanding job enrichment.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
111) Restriction of productivity has been a problem with wage incentive plans.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
112) Employees, but not managers, underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
113) Pay is one of the most important and effective motivators of performance.
a. True b. False
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
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Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
114) Wage incentive plans are employed with much greater frequency than merit pay plans.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 193
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
115) Merit pay plans have become one of the most common forms of motivation in Canadian
organizations.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 193
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
116) Wage incentive plans have become one of the most common forms of motivation in
Canadian organizations.
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Page Reference: 191 Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
117) Profit sharing seems to work best in larger firms that regularly turn a handsome profit.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
118) Stretch assignments give employees more tasks at the same level to perform but leave other
core characteristics unchanged.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 202
Skill: Recall
119) Among the five core job characteristics, only skill variety is related to all of the outcomes in
the Job Characteristics Model.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
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a. True b. False
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120) Research on the Job Characteristics Model supports the role of growth need strength as a
moderating variable.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
121) In general, job enrichment involves increasing the motivating potential of jobs via the
arrangement of the critical psychological states.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
122) Employees who have challenging and enriched jobs tend to have higher levels of job
involvement.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
123) Job enrichment and job enlargement both involve increasing the depth of a job.
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Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
124) If your boss gives you more tasks to perform along with more responsibility and autonomy,
then you are experiencing job enlargement.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
125) Job enlargement involves increasing the breadth and depth of a job.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
126) A good example of job enlargement would be to give workers more boring, fragmented,
routine tasks to perform.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 207
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
127) Research evidence on management by objectives shows that MBO programs rarely result in
productivity gains.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 211
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
128) The most common compressed workweek is the 4-50 system.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
129) Research on the compressed workweek has found that there is a positive effect on
absenteeism.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
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a. True b. False
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130) A telework centre refers to the office in an individual's home used by employees who
telecommute.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
131) Employees who can work at their company's office, a satellite office, or a home office
participate in a distant staffing program.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 215
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
132) Task characteristics are similar to the core job characteristics of the Job Characteristics
Model.
a. True b. False
Answer: a Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
133) The motivational characteristics category of work design includes task characteristics and
social characteristics.
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a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 209
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Answer: b Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
134) Task variety and skill variety refer to the same thing.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
135) The relational architecture of jobs has to do with designing jobs so that employees have
opportunities to connect and interact with their co-workers.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
136) One of the objectives of job enrichment is to increase prosocial motivation.
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
137) Providing employees more opportunities to interact and connect with each other is an
example of the relational architecture of jobs.
a. True b. False
Answer: b Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
138) Gain-sharing is a group incentive pay system that is based on cost reductions. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
139) Piece rate pay plans can stimulate productivity, but they can also lead to restriction of
productivity.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.
140) When asked to make estimates of the pay of various organizational members, managers
tend to underestimate the pay of their superiors.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.
141) In the Job Characteristics Model, the core job characteristic of autonomy is most likely to
lead to the psychological state of experienced responsibility for work outcomes.
51
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 205
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Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
142) Management by Objectives is an elaborate, on going, systematic program designed to
facilitate goal establishment, goal accomplishment, and employee development.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 210
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
143) Combining tasks, establishing client relationships, and reducing supervision are examples
of how to accomplish job enrichment.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
144) In terms of job design, the Scientific Management movement advocated simple jobs.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
145) The compressed workweek reduces the number of days per week worked but not the
number of hours per week.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
146) Flex-time is a system that permits employees to choose their own work arrival and
departure times.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
147) The system of pay which pays on the basis of the number of job skills acquired is called
skill-based pay.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
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148) The extent to which an individual identifies psychologically with his or her work and the
importance of work to one's total self-image is called job involvement.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
149) A variable that influences the extent to which a job that is high in motivating potential will
lead to favourable outcomes is called a moderator.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
150) In the Job Characteristics Model, the psychological states intervene between the core job
characteristics and work outcomes.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
151) Profit sharing works best in smaller firms that regularly turn a profit. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
152) A job in which a whole piece of work is done from beginning to end is said to be high in
task identity.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 204
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
153) Gigantico Insurance is interested in reducing lateness among its staff. This might be
accomplished by installing the alternative working schedule called flex-time.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
154) Goal setting theory provides the theoretical foundation for Management by Objectives.
53
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 210 Skill: Recall
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Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
155) When asked to estimate the pay of their peers and employees, managers tend to
overestimate the correct figure.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.
156) Merit pay plans are used to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs. Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 193
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.
157) Employees and managers seriously underestimate the importance of pay as a motivator.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 190 Skill: Recall Objective:
158) Financial incentives and pay-for-performance plans have been found to increase
performance and lower turnover.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 190 Skill: Recall Objective:
159) Pay may well be the most important and effective motivator of performance. Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 190
Skill: Recall
Objective:
160) Your boss has just given you merit pay in the form of a one time payment that will not be
built into your base pay. This is known as a lump sum bonus.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 195
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.
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161) Recent research into the Job Characteristics Model suggests that experienced
meaningfulness is the most critical psychological state. Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
162) Your organization is considering offering an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP), but
they are hesitating because ESOPs lose their motivational potential in a weak economy when a
company's share price goes down.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
163) If your boss asks you to work on a variety of tasks with new responsibilities, you have been
given a stretch assignment.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 202 Skill: Applied Objective:
164) Stretch assignments offer employees challenging opportunities to broaden their skills.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 202 Skill: Recall Objective:
165) Among the five job characteristics, autonomy is important for experienced responsibility
for outcomes of the work.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
166) The job characteristics model seems to falter in its predictions about growth needs and
context satisfaction.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
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167) Employees who have challenging and enriched jobs tend to have higher levels of job
involvement. Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
168) All of the job characteristics have been found to be positively related to job involvement.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
169) In general, job enrichment involves increasing the motivating potential of jobs via the
arrangement of their core characteristics.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
170) In order to redesign your jobs, your boss has just given you more boring, fragmented,
routine tasks to perform at the same level. This is known as job enlargement.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
171) When job enrichment results in increasing job breadth but leaves other core characteristics
unchanged, it is known as job enlargement.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
172) The term job engorgement has been used to refer to the enrichment of jobs that are already
perceived as too rich by their incumbents.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
173) The research evidence shows that management by objectives (MBO) programs result in
clear productivity gains.
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Difficulty: 2
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Page Reference: 211
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
174) The purpose of modifications to working schedules is not to produce direct performance
benefits, but rather to promote job satisfaction.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
175) If an organization is facing a difficult financial period but does not want to lay off
employees, one cost cutting measure they can implement and still keep everyone's jobs is work
sharing.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Recent developments in job design and “work design characteristics.”
176) The most common compressed workweek is the 4-40 system. Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 213
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
177) Research on the compressed workweek has found that there is a positive effect on job
satisfaction and satisfaction with work schedule.
Difficulty: 3
Page Reference: 214
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
178) Work design characteristics consists of three categories: motivational characteristics, social
characteristics, and work context characteristics.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
179) Your organization has decided to provide workers with an office close to their home that
provides all of the amenities of a home office. This is known as a telework centre.
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Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 216 Skill: Applied
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Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
180) Your organization has decided to provide workers with a combination of remote work
arrangements that will allow them to work at the company's office, a satellite office, or their
home office. These arrangements are a part of what constitutes distributed work programs.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
181) The most common gain-sharing plan is the Scanlon Plan. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 199
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork. 182) Training costs can be high
with a skill-based pay system. Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 200
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork
183) The goal of job design is to identify the characteristics that make some tasks more
motivating than others and to capture these characteristics in the design of jobs.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 200
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
184) Work design characteristics refer to the attributes of the task, job, and social and
organizational environment.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
185) Task variety involves the degree to which a job requires employees to perform a wide range
of tasks on the job.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs
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186) Skill variety reflects the extent to which a job requires an individual to use a variety of
different skills to perform a job.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
187) Task characteristics are similar to the core job characteristics of the Job Characteristics
Model.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
188) Social characteristics have to do with the interpersonal and social aspects of work.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
189) Work context characteristics refer to the context within which work is performed.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
190) Knowledge characteristics refer to the kinds of knowledge, skill, and ability demands
required to perform a job.
Difficulty: 1
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
191) The desire to expend effort to benefit other people is known as prosocial motivation.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
192) Structural properties of work that shape employees’ opportunities to connect and interact
with other people is known as the relational architecture of jobs.
Difficulty: 2
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
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193) What are the two main factors which determine job scope? Give examples of jobs which
have low job scope and high job scope.
Answer:
Job breadth and job depth. A traditional assembly line job would have low job scope. A manager
or professor would generally have high job scope.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 201
Skill: Applied
194) Describe three types of incentive plans which use pay to motivate teamwork. Which one do
you think is probably the most effective, overall? Explain your reasons.
Answer:
There are four types of plans described in the text: Profit sharing, ESOPs, Gain-sharing
(including the Scanlon Plan), and skill-based pay. The second part of the question requires
students to weigh the advantages and disadvantages of each incentive plan and to defend their
position on one. In reality, there is evidence to support the merits of each. The key point is that
each one has a different motivational focus and should support the strategic needs of an
organization.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 198
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.3 Understand how to use pay to motivate teamwork.
195) Describe four programs which utilize alternative work schedules as motivators. Give
examples of jobs which might apply to each program.
Answer:
Flex-time, compressed workweeks, job sharing, and telecommuting. There are several examples
of jobs cited in the text on pages 212-216. Generally, examples for compressed workweeks and
job sharing can be blue or white collar jobs from almost any industry, while flex-time and
telecommuting programs tend to apply more toward white collar jobs.
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Type: ES
Page Reference: 212
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
196) Explain the relationship between the core job characteristics and the critical psychological
states in the Hackman and Oldham Job Characteristics Model.
Answer:
The core job characteristics affect the meaningfulness, responsibility, and knowledge of results
experienced by the worker. Specifically, skill variety, task identity, and task significance all
affect the experienced meaningfulness. Autonomy affects the level of responsibility, and
feedback gives the worker knowledge of the results.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 205
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.4 Describe the details of the “Job Characteristics Model.”
197) Describe several job enrichment strategies which a manager might try to implement,
depending on the organizational context.
Answer:
Combining tasks, establishing internal and external client relationships, reducing supervision,
forming work teams, and making feedback more direct.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
198) What is Management by Objectives (MBO)? What advice would you give to a manager
who is considering MBO for her workplace?
Answer:
MBO is an elaborate, systematic ongoing program designed to facilitate goal establishment, goal
accomplishment, and employee development. MBO is a time- consuming process which must
have the full commitment of top management. Goals
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Page Reference: 191
Skill: Recall
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must be as specific and measurable as possible and periodic appraisal meetings should be held to
diagnose the reasons for success or failure.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 210
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
199) Describe the factors that an organization needs to consider when choosing to implement a
motivational practice.
Answer:
The general approach to this issue is one of fit. The motivational practices implemented by an
organization should fit with the organization’s culture and system of management practices. The
choice of motivational practices requires a thorough diagnosis of the organization and the needs
and desires of employees. More specifically, the choice of motivational practices should consider
four key factors: the needs of employees, the nature of the job, the characteristics of the
organization, and the motivational outcomes that an organization desires. The most effective
motivational system will depend on these factors. Motivational systems that make use of a
variety of motivators are likely to be most effective.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 216
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.9 Describe the factors that organizations should consider when choosing
motivational practices.
200) Discuss some of the potential problems of wage incentive plans.
Answer:
Lowered quality; differential opportunity; reduced cooperation; incompatible job design; and
restriction of productivity.
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Page Reference: 216
Skill: Recall
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Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
201) Discuss some of the potential problems of merit pay plans.
Answer:
Low discrimination; small increases; and pay secrecy.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 195
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
202) Discuss some of the potential problems of job enrichment.
Answer:
Poor diagnosis; lack of desire or skill; demand for rewards; union resistance; and supervisory
resistance.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 207
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
203) Discuss the benefits and potential problems of telecommuting.
Answer:
Benefits include greater flexibility in work schedules; distant staffing; lower costs; a potential
increase of employee productivity; stress reduction when grinding commutes are eliminated;
greater work-life balance.
Problems can include damage to informal communication; decreased visibility when promotions
are considered; problems handling rush projects; workload spillover for non- telecommuters;
distractions at home; feelings of isolation; overwork.
Diff: 2
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Objective: 6.8 Explain how alternative work schedules respect employee diversity.
204) Two organizations are considering job redesign in order to improve employee motivation.
One organization is planning on job enrichment and the other is going to use job enlargement.
Each organization has asked you to explain how they should proceed and the likely outcomes of
their job redesign programs. What will you tell them?
Answer:
Job enrichment is the design of jobs to enhance intrinsic motivation, quality of working life, and
job involvement. Job enrichment procedures can include combining tasks, establishing client
relationships (internal and external), reducing supervision, forming teams, and making feedback
more direct. The organization can expect an improvement in employees' intrinsic motivation and
job involvement. Job enlargement involves increasing job breadth by giving employees more
tasks at the same level to perform but leaves the other core job characteristics unchanged. As a
result, it is unlikely to improve intrinsic motivation especially if employees are just given more
boring, fragmented, routine tasks to do.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 206
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.5 Describe the motivational properties of “job enrichment.”
205) What is restriction of productivity and why does it occur?
Answer:
It is the artificial limitation of work output that can occur under wage incentive plans. Workers
come to an informal agreement about what constitutes a fair day's work and limit their output
accordingly. It can occur for a number of reasons: Sometimes workers feel that increased
productivity due to the incentive will lead to reductions in the workforce or they fear that if they
produce at an especially high level, the organization will reduce the rate of payment to cut labour
costs (rate-cutting).
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 192
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.1 Discuss how to tie pay to performance on production jobs and the difficulties of
“wage incentive plans.”
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206) Your organization is considering implementing a merit pay plan. However, you are
concerned about this because many such systems are in fact ineffective. You have arranged to
meet with management to discuss this and you need to provide them with some evidence of why
merit pay plans are often ineffective and what can be done to make them more effective. What
will you tell them?
Answer:
Merit pay plans are often ineffective because workers do not see a link between their job
performance and their pay and, in many cases, pay is, in fact, not related to performance.
Evidence for this includes findings that show that pay increases in a given year are often
uncorrelated with pay increases in adjacent years, which seems unlikely if organizations are truly
tying pay to performance. Furthermore, in most organizations, seniority, the number of
employees, and job level account for more variation in pay than performance does. The main
problems with merit pay plans are low discrimination, small increases, and pay secrecy. To make
the program effective, you need to emphasize the importance of ensuring that performance is
linked to pay and that the best performers do in fact receive the most or highest merit pay
rewards.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 195
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
207) Your organization is considering implementing a merit pay plan in the hopes of increasing
employee's and manager's motivation and satisfaction. However, you are concerned about this
because they want to maintain pay secrecy. You have arranged to meet with management to
discuss this with them. What will you tell them about pay secrecy and how it might impact the
effectiveness of the merit pay plan?
Answer:
Pay secrecy can threaten the effectiveness of merit pay plans. The problem is that even if merit
pay is administered fairly, is contingent on performance, and is generous, employees might
remain ignorant of these facts because they have no way of comparing their own merit pay with
that of others. As a consequence, such secrecy might severely damage the motivational potential
impact of a well-designed merit plan. To make matters worse, in the absence of better
information, employees are inclined to “invent” salaries for other members and this can reduce
both satisfaction and motivation. Several studies have found that managers have a tendency to
overestimate the pay of their employees and their peers and to underestimate the pay of their
superiors. This can reduce satisfaction with pay, damage perceptions of the linkage between
performance and rewards, and reduce the valence of promotion to a higher level of management.
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Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 196
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.2 Explain how to tie pay to performance on white-collar jobs and the difficulties of
“merit pay plans.”
208) Your organization is considering implementing a management by objectives (MBO)
program in the hopes of increasing employee motivation and productivity. However, you are
concerned about this because a number of factors can cause MBO programs to fail. You have
arranged to meet with management to discuss this with them. What will you tell them about the
effectiveness of MBO programs and the reasons they sometimes fail?
Answer:
MBO programs can result in clear productivity gains. However, a number of factors can cause
them to fail. For example, it is an elaborate, difficult, and time-consuming process and its
implementation requires the full commitment of top management—programs without such
commitment are much less effective than those with it. Without such commitment, managers at
lower levels simply go through the motions of practising MBO. This can also lead to the
haphazard specification of objectives and thus subvert the very core of MBO—which is goal
setting. A frequent symptom of this degeneration is the complaint that MBO is “just a bunch of
paperwork.” Setting specific, quantifiable objectives can be a difficult process that results in an
overemphasis on measurable objectives at the expense of more qualitative objectives. As well, an
excessive short-term orientation can be a problem. A final reason for failure can occur if the
performance review becomes an exercise in punishing employees for failing to achieve
objectives.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 211
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.7 Understand the connection between goal setting and “Management by
Objectives.”
209) Work design characteristics acknowledges both the job and the broader work environment.
They include the attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational environment and
consist of three categories. Identify and describe each of the three categories and give an
example of each.
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The motivational characteristics category includes task characteristics (similar to those of the Job
Characteristics Model) as well as knowledge characteristics that refer to the kinds of knowledge,
skill, and ability demands required to perform a job.
Social characteristics are the interpersonal and social aspects of work and include social support,
interdependence, interaction outside of the organization, and feedback from others.
Work context characteristics refer to the context within which work is performed and consist of
ergonomics, physical demands, work conditions, and equipment used. Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
210) What does the relational architecture of jobs mean and what are its implications for job
design?
Answer:
It refers to the structural properties of work that shape employees’ opportunities to connect and
interact with other people. The idea is to design putting an emphasis on strong relational aspects
and to consider their social impact and value. In effect, this involves designing jobs so that
employees have contact with those who benefit from their work.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
211) Describe how you would design a job in accordance with the relational architecture of jobs
and provide an example of such a job.
Answer:
If you were to design a job in accordance with the relational architecture of jobs you would want
to ensure that employees have opportunities to connect and interact with other people. You
would emphasize the relational aspects of the job and you would design it so that employees
have contact with those who benefit from their work. Examples from the text include call centre
employees who raise funds for a university. The callers in one study were provided with a brief
exposure to a scholarship recipient
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who benefited from their work. In another study, callers read stories about how former callers
helped to finance student scholarships.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 209
Skill: Applied
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
212) Describe two new developments in job design.
Answer:
Two new developments in job design: work design and relational job design.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
213) What are work design characteristics and how do they extend the Job Characteristics
Model?
Answer:
Work design characteristics refer to attributes of the task, job, and social and organizational
environment. They extend the Job Characteristics Model by including additional characteristics
besides the core job characteristics (task characteristics). In addition to task characteristics, work
design characteristics include knowledge characteristics, social characteristics, and work context
characteristics.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 208
Skill: Recall
Objective: 6.6 Discuss work design characteristics and the relational architecture of jobs.
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Chapter 13
1. 1) In order to stimulate conflict, a manager might A) clarify goals.
B) make resources scarcer.
C) assign a superordinate goal. D) ignore controversy.
E) stop networking.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Applied
2. 2) One way to stimulate conflict is to
A) make lower status individuals dependent on those of higher status.
B) make the parties independent of each other. C) invoke a superordinate goal.
D) make resources scarce.
E) clarify ambiguous jurisdictions.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Applied
3. 3) Which of the following events is least likely to happen when conflict begins between two
groups? A) Each group becomes more cohesive.
B) On each side, conciliatory persons who are skilled at conflict resolution emerge as leaders.
C) The parties begin to conceal information from each other.
D) Informal contact with the opposite party is discouraged.
E) While the opposite party is negatively stereotyped, the image of one's own position is boosted.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Applied
4. 4) Which of the following is not a distributive negotiation tactic? A) Verbal persuasion
B) Threats
C) Concessions
D) Promises
E) Enlarging the pie
Answer: E
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
5. 5) Which of the following are integrative negotiation tactics? A) Framing differences as
opportunities
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B) Cutting costs
C) Copious information exchange D) Increasing resources
E) All of the above
Answer: A
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Answer: D
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Applied
10) By definition, which event occurs first? A) Burnout
B) Stress reaction C) Stress
D) Stressor
E) Anxiety
Answer: D
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6. 6) Which of the following statements concerning compromise is false?
1. A) Compromise involves each party giving up something with the expectation that it
will receive something
in exchange.
2. B) Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from power
3.
4.
5.
differences.
C) Compromise is especially useful for resolving conflicts that stem from scarce
resources.
D) Effective compromises are highly dependent on the bargaining skills and the good
will of the bargainers.
E) The goal of compromise is to establish rules of exchange to resolve conflict.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 449 Skill: Recall
7. 7) Superordinate goals are
A) goals that can only be achieved through distributive negotiation.
B) goals that have the highest priority in the organization.
C) goals that are most likely to provoke dysfunctional organizational politics. D) goals that are
used to stimulate conflict.
E) goals that can only be achieved by collaboration between conflicting parties.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Recall
8. 8) A superordinate goal is a goal that requires A) competition
B) conflict
C) compromise
D) accommodation E) collaboration
Answer: E
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Recall
9. 9) In the labour dispute, a third party was assigned to decide on the wage rate the company
would have to pay the union. In this case, we can be fairly certain that
A) the appointment of a mediator has been mandated by law.
B) an arbitrator was assigned because integrative negotiation failed. C) a mediator was assigned
because integrative negotiation failed.
D) an arbitrator was assigned because distributive negotiation failed. E) a mediator was assigned
because distributive negotiation failed.
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11) Environmental events or conditions that have the potential to induce stress are called A) defence
mechanisms.
B) stressors.
C) stress reactions. D) burnout.
E) anxiety episodes.
Answer: B
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12) The three stages of a stress episode are, in order, A) frustration, stress, conflict.
B) stress, anxiety, conflict.
C) stress reactions, stressor, stress. D) stressor, stress, stress reactions. E) stress, stressor, stress reactions.
Answer: D
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13) An individual's __________ often determines the extent to which a potential stressor becomes an
actual stressor. A) personality
B) frustration quotient
C) anxiety reduction factor D) stress reaction
E) reaction formation
Answer: A
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Applied
14) Which stress reaction has the best potential to permanently terminate a stress episode? A) Temporary
withdrawal
B) Rationalization C) Displacement D) Problem solving E) Projection
Answer: D
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15) Professionals are most likely to experience stress from job insecurity and change for which of the
following reasons?
1. A) The boundary roles they occupy tend to be insecure positions.
2. B) Increasing pressures for corporate performance have led to the recruitment of many
professionals in
recent years.
3. C) They tend to be overqualified or too specialized to easily obtain jobs in related industries
should social or
economic forces change.
4. D) The great amount of authority they possess in the organization may make them the targets of
much
hostility.
5. E) They face the constant threat of automation.
Answer: C
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16) When the goals of one's job or the methods of performing it are unclear to an employee, __________
exists. A) role ambiguity
B) job insecurity C) role overload D) role conflict
E) a boundary role
Answer: A
Page Ref: 465 Skill: Recall
17) Burnout seems especially likely to occur to
A) people who occupy organizational boundary roles.
B) those who experience role overload.
C) those who experience excessive role ambiguity.
D) those with Type B personalities.
E) people who make excessive use of defense mechanisms.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
18) Compared with people having Type B personalities, people with Type A personalities A) are more
relaxed and easy going.
B) achieve higher occupational success.
C) exhibit more job dissatisfaction.
D) are less effective in situations requiring persistence, endurance or speed. E) are less prone to coronary
heart disease.
Answer: B
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19) Jack has so much work to do that he doesn't even know where to begin. We can be sure that Jack A) is
a boundary role occupant.
B) is experiencing burnout.
C) is a Type A personality.
D) is experiencing role ambiguity. E) is encountering role overload.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
20) Role overload is a potential example of A) a stress reaction.
B) a stressor.
C) role ambiguity. D) burnout.
E) stress.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
21) Angela is a vice- president of public relations while Peter is a telephone installer. Both occupy A)
boundary roles.
B) operative roles. C) professional roles. D) conflicting roles. E) ambiguous roles.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
22) People who occupy boundary role positions in organizations are especially likely to experience stress
because
1. A) they tend to work longer hours under poor physical conditions.
2. B) their roles as organizational members may be incompatible with the demands made by the
public or other organizations.
3. C) their roles tend to be boring and unchallenging.
4. D) they are inherently unable to deal with the causes of their anxiety.
5. E) their roles lead to increased work- family conflict.
Answer: B
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23) It was clear to everybody that the advertising campaign designed by Edwin had been a flopsales had
fallen rather than risen. Although under considerable stress and embarrassed, Edwin put up a false front,
smiling and speaking positively about the campaign. What defense mechanism was he exhibiting?
A) Rationalization B) Compensation C) Displacement
D) Projection
E) Reaction formation
Answer: E
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
24) Which of the following statements concerning defence mechanisms is false?
1. A) Defence mechanisms actually confront the stressor directly.
2. B) Used occasionally to temporarily reduce anxiety, they appear to be a useful reaction.
3. C) When the use of defense mechanisms becomes a chronic reaction to stress, individuals may
not be able to
accurately assess the true reason for their anxiety.
4. D) Stress might increase with the knowledge that a defense mechanism has been ineffective.
5. E) Individuals who do not use defense mechanisms may be incapacitated by anxiety and resort
to dysfunctional withdrawal or addiction.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
25. 25) Tanya is a nurse who has been stealing medical supplies from the hospital where she works.
To cope with the stress provoked by her guilt, she tells herself that "all the nurses steal supplies."
In fact, they don't. Tanya is exhibiting
A) displacement.
B) compensation.
C) reaction formation.
D) projection.
E) rationalization
Answer: D
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
26. 26) Diana's first job was as an air traffic controller, a position she found very stressful. Realizing
that this wasn't for her, she found another job as a management trainee and resigned from her air
traffic controller position. Her reaction to stress was one of
A) rationalization.
B) reaction formation. C) time management.
D) displacement.
E) problem solving.
Answer: E
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27. 27) After Alex was fired from his job he went home and ripped up his small tomato patch. His
reaction to stress was one of
A) projection.
B) reaction formation. C) problem solving.
D) rationalization. E) displacement.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
28. 28) The most studied physiological reaction to stress is A) cardiovascular risk.
B) drinking.
C) cigarette use. D) drug abuse.
E) kidney disease.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
29. 29) Which of the following is not a core characteristic of burnout? A) Low personal
accomplishment
B) Severe memory loss
C) Feeling fatigued and frustrated D) Emotional exhaustion
E) Depersonalization
Answer: B
Page Ref: 461 Skill: Recall
30. 30) According to the text, which is the most likely order of burnout stages?
A) Depersonalization Emotional exhaustion Reduced accomplishment B) Emotional exhaustion
Depersonalization Reduced accomplishment C) Depersonalization Reduced accomplishment
Emotional exhaustion D) Emotional exhaustion Reduced accomplishment Depersonalization E)
Reduced accomplishment Depersonalization Emotional exhaustion
Answer: B
Page Ref: 461 Skill: Recall
31. 31) Which aspect of the Type A behaviour pattern is most responsible for adverse physiological
reactions that lead to heart disease?
A) Persistence B) Impatience C) Hostility
D) Work involvement E) Competitiveness
Answer: C
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32. 32) In everyday language, role overload refers to A) too much work.
B) competing role demands. C) a boundary role.
D) ambiguous role demands. E) lack of authority.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
33. 33) Clarise's self- esteem was threatened when she lost several court cases in her law practice. To
make up for this stressful reality, she concentrated on becoming a competitive amateur sailing
champion. Which defense does this illustrate?
A) Displacement B) Rationalization C) Compensation
D) Reaction formation E) Projection
Answer: C
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
34. 34) In the realm of job burnout, depersonalization means
A) ignoring one's own needs for the sake of client welfare.
B) taking an administrative job where one doesn't have to deal with clients.
C) that the individual experiencing burnout feels like a machine instead of a person. D) treating
clients like objects.
E) that the individual experiencing burnout lacks social support.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 461 Skill: Recall
35. 35) Extreme hostility and cynicism are the physiologically risky components of A) approachavoidance conflict.
B) burnout.
C) locus of control. D) rationalization.
E) Type A behaviour.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
36. 36) Burnout is a form of stress particularly associated with A) Type A behaviour.
B) Type B behaviour.
C) poor job design.
D) working in isolation from others. E) boundary role occupancy.
Answer: E
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37. 37) Alexis, a writer, experienced much stress when she could not get her novel published. In
response, she resolved to become a superior literature teacher. Which defense mechanism is at
work here?
A) Rationalization
B) Reaction formation C) Displacement
D) Compensation E) Projection
Answer: D
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
38. 38) Which of the following statements about social support and stress is least accurate? A) The
family is the best source of social support for dealing with work stress.
B) Social support helps people cope with stress when it is encountered.
C) co- workers and superiors are good sources of support for dealing with work stress. D) Social
support refers to having close ties with other people.
E) Social support improves physical and psychological well- being.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 470 Skill: Recall
39. 39) The Type A behaviour pattern is a good example of how
A) strong defence mechanisms can reduce the physiological reactions to stress.
B) people can cope effectively with stress.
C) job dissatisfaction and poor performance are caused by stress. D) all humans respond very
similarly to stressors.
E) personality is involved in stress.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Applied
40. 40) Which job demand pattern seems to produce the most stress and heart disease risk? A)
Moderate demand, high control
B) High demand, low control C) Low demand, low control D) Low demand, high control E) High
demand, high control
Answer: B
Page Ref: 459 Skill: Applied
41. 41) Which of the following is targeted directly at the stressor itself? A) Physiological reactions
B) Problem solving
C) Defence mechanisms D) Work/life programs E) Social support
Answer: B
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42. 42) Bob's boss criticizes him for turning in a report late. The stressed- out Bob responds "I'm not
the only one. Everyone else around here turns in late reports too." This is probably an example of
A) reaction formation. B) projection.
C) displacement.
D) rationalization. E) compensation.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
43. 43) __________ are the key factors that make the Type A more prone to heart disease than the
Type B. A) Time urgency and strict deadlines
B) Impatience and competitiveness
C) Repressed anger and hostility
D) Endurance and persistence
E) Job involvement and work overload
Answer: C
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
44. 44) The book suggests that conflict can promote organizational survival by A) creating a strong
organizational culture.
B) removing poor performers.
C) creating stress which triggers individual defence mechanisms. D) signaling the organization's
strength to outside parties.
E) provoking change and adaptation.
Answer: E
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
45. 45) Which job characteristics are most highly associated with increased risk for heart disease? A)
Heavy work demands coupled with little decision authority.
B) Those that are typical of enriched jobs.
C) The job characteristics sought by those with Type A personalities. D) Those that are typical of
executive and managerial jobs.
E) Those that involve boundary roles.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 459 Skill: Applied
46. 46) What seems to be a key factor that is associated with the occurrence of burnout? A) Poor job
design
B) Dealing with distressed clients
C) Being overqualified educationally and stuck in a dead- end job D) Job insecurity
E) Role overload
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Answer: B
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47) Which of the following best depicts the connection between conflict and survival? A) Conflict Change
Survival Adaptation
B) Change Conflict Survival Adaptation C) Conflict Change Adaptation Survival D) Survival Conflict
Change Adaptation E) Change Conflict Adaptation Survival
Answer: C
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
48. 48) A strategy of increasing conflict in order to motivate change is called A) conflict strategy.
B) conflict situation.
C) conflict management. D) conflict stimulation. E) conflict adaptation.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
49. 49) Introducing a superordinate goal is an example of A) third party involvement.
B) distributive negotiation tactics. C) integrative negotiation tactics. D) arbitration.
E) mediation.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Recall
50. 50) In conventional arbitration,
A) the arbitrator can choose any outcome.
B) each party meets separately with the arbitrator to choose an outcome.
C) the arbitrator and parties choose an outcome together.
D) the parties choose the outcome together and then present it to the arbitrator. E) each party
makes a final offer.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
51. 51) In final offer arbitration,
A) each party decides on a final offer together and then presents it to the arbitrator.
B) the arbitrator meets with each party and then makes a final offer.
C) the arbitrator makes a final offer to each party and they can accept or reject it. D) each party
makes a final offer, and the arbitrator chooses one of them.
E) the arbitrator can choose any outcome on his/her own and it is final.
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Answer: D
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52. 52) One of the most commonly arbitrated disputes between employers and employees is A)
dismissal for excessive lateness.
B) dismissal for tardiness.
C) dismissal for excessive absenteeism. D) dismissal for conflict.
E) dismissal for theft.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
53. 53) Which of the following is a critical factor associated with intergroup bias? A) Negative
affectivity.
B) Self- esteem.
C) Locus of control. D) Type B behaviour. E) Type A behaviour.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 445 Skill: Recall
54. 54) What is a process conflict?
A) Disagreements about the relationships among group members.
B) Disagreements about the nature of work to be done.
C) disagreements about how the organization should function.
D) Disagreements about how work should be organized and accomplished. E) Disagreements
about conflict should be managed.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 447 Skill: Recall
55. 55) Disagreements about the nature of the work to be done are called A) work conflicts.
B) process conflicts.
C) relationship conflicts. D) task conflicts.
E) organization conflicts.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 447 Skill: Recall
56. 56) After a few days on a new job, you find yourself arguing with members of your group over
who has authority and responsibility and who should do what. What is this an example of?
A) A process conflict.
B) A relationship conflict. C) Conflict dynamics.
D) A task conflict. E) Intergroup bias.
Answer: A
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57. 57) Different approaches to managing conflict are a function of A) assertiveness and
cooperativeness.
B) assertiveness and communication. C) aggressiveness and cooperativeness. D) aggressiveness
and communication. E) assertiveness and aggressiveness.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Recall
58. 58) A conflict management style characterized by low assertiveness of one's own interests and
low cooperation with the other party is called
A) collaborating.
B) accommodating. C) avoiding.
D) compromise. E) competing.
Answer: C
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Recall
59. 59) A conflict management style in which one cooperates with the other party, while not
asserting one's own interests is called
A) collaborating.
B) accommodating. C) avoiding.
D) competing. E) compromise.
Answer: B
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Recall
60. 60) A conflict management style that combines intermediate levels of assertiveness and
cooperation is called A) compromise.
B) accommodating. C) avoiding.
D) competing.
E) collaborating.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 449 Skill: Recall
61. 61) A conflict management style that maximizes assertiveness and minimizes cooperation is
called A) compromise.
B) accommodating. C) avoiding.
D) collaborating.
E) competing.
Answer: E
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62. 62) A conflict management style that maximizes both assertiveness and cooperation is called A)
avoiding.
B) accommodating. C) compromise.
D) collaborating.
E) competing.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 450 Skill: Recall
63. 63) Distributive negotiation occurs on the axis between A) collaboration and accommodation.
B) collaboration and compromise. C) competition and collaboration. D) competition and
accommodation. E) competition and avoiding.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
64. 64) Integrative negotiation occurs on the axis between A) avoiding and collaborating.
B) avoiding and competing.
C) avoiding and accommodating.
D) avoiding and compromise.
E) competition and accommodating.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
65. 65) Which of the following is a manifestation of interpersonal conflict? A) role ambiguity
B) bullying
C) sexual harassment D) burnout
E) work- family conflict
Answer: B
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66. 66) A repeated negative behaviour directed toward one or more individuals of lower power or
status that creates a hostile work environment is known as
A) violence B) bullying C) stressor
D) sexual harassment E) burnout
Answer: B
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67. 67) When Jerome asked Larry about his new job he was surprised to learn that Larry's coworkers
have been teasing him and sabotaging his tools and equipment. What is this an example of?
A) bullying
B) sexual harassment C) relationship conflict
D) avoiding
E) interpersonal conflict
Answer: A
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Applied
68. 68) An essential feature of bullying is A) its persistence
B) its hostility
C) its demeaning D) its harmfulness E) its harshness
Answer: A
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
69. 69) Which of the following is an example of bullying?
A) Martin's boss was upset about a mistake he made and called him an idiot
B) Martin's co- workers are always teaching and criticising him
C) One of Martin's co- workers punched him in the face
D) One of Martin's co- workers stole his lunch and nobody would admit to it E) Martin arrived at
work one day to find that his tools were missing
Answer: B
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Applied
70. 70) When a group of individuals, usually direct coworkers, "gang up" on a particular employee,
it is called A) sexual harassment
B) relationship conflict C) conflict stimulation D) interpersonal conflict E) mobbing
Answer: E
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
71. 71) Which of the following are examples of hindrance stressors? A) heavy workload and
responsibility
B) heavy workload and role ambiguity
C) heavy workload and interpersonal conflict D) responsibility and interpersonal conflict E) role
ambiguity and interpersonal conflict
Answer: E
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72) Which of the following are examples of challenge stressors? A) heavy workload and interpersonal
conflict
B) responsibility and interpersonal conflict C) heavy workload and role ambiguity
D) heavy workload and responsibility
E) role ambiguity and interpersonal conflict
Answer: D
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
73) Which of the following represents the relationship between the type of stressor and performance?
1. A) hindrance and challenge stressors can damage but not stimulate performance
2. B) hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance but only hindrance stressors can
3.
4.
stimulate performance
C) hindrance stressors can damage performance and challenge stressors stimulate performance
D) hindrance and challenge stressors can damage performance but only challenge stressors can
stimulate
performance
5. E) hindrance and challenge stressors can damage and stimulate performance
Answer: D
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
74) People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands of
A) work- family conflict
B) poor physical working conditions C) interpersonal conflict
D) poor job design
E) a heavy workload
Answer: E
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
75) There is growing evidence that providing more __________ in how service is delivered can alleviate
stress and burnout.
A) resources B) feedback C) autonomy
D) time
E) support
Answer: C
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76) How can personality influence the stress experience?
1. A) it can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful
2. B) it can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the extent to which
3.
4.
5.
stress reactions are effective
C) it can affect the extent to which stress reactions are effective
D) it can affect the types of stress reactions that occur
E) it can affect the extent to which stressors are perceived as stressful and the types of stress
reactions that occur
Answer: E
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
77) Most formal job redesign efforts have involved enriching A) managerial jobs
B) operative- level jobs
C) boundary role positions D) executive jobs
E) all types of jobs
Answer: B
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
78) Stress reactions can be
A) cognitive, psychological, and behavioural
B) emotional, cognitive, and behavioural
C) emotional, behavioural, and physiological
D) behavioural, psychological, and physiological E) cognitive, psychological, and physiological
Answer: D
Page Ref: 456 Skill: Recall
79) Taren has a new job and she never stops complaining about the demanding workload and how
stressed she feels about it. What kind of personality does Taren have?
A) internal locus of control B) high negative affectivity C) Type A behavour pattern
D) low self- esteem
E) external locus of control
Answer: B
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80. 80) Which of the following is most accurate about the relationship between personality and
stress? A) internals are more likely to feel anxious in the fact of potential stressors
B) People low in negative affectivity feel stressed in response to the demands of a heavy
workload C) People high in negative affectivity report more objective but less subjective stress
D) People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment
E) externals are more likely to confront stressors directly
Answer: D
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
81. 81) Competition is an example of conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 449 Skill: Recall
82. 82) Stressors are the behavioural, psychological, and physiological consequences of stress.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 456 Skill: Recall
83. 83) Type A personalities tend to achieve better occupational success than Type B personalities.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Applied
84. 84) Role overload is an example of a stress reaction.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
85. 85) A computer programmer probably occupies a boundary role.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
86. 86) Defence mechanisms provide effective short- term stress reduction because they directly
attack the source of stress.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
87. 87) Type A personalities experience less job satisfaction than Type B personalities.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
88. 88) People have remarkably similar levels of toleration for stress.
Answer: True False
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89. 89) Professionals may experience stress because their profession and their employing
organization make incompatible demands.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
90. 90) Many burnout- prone jobs involve the performance of a boundary role.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
91. 91) Role overload is often a source of stress for executives.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
92. 92) Jobs with heavy workloads and considerable decision- making authority seem to prompt
heart disease.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 459 Skill: Applied
93. 93) Working with clients who have severe emotional or physical problems is a prime cause of
burnout.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
94. 94) Burnout is an example of a stressor.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Recall
95. 95) The key component of Type A behaviour that contributes to physiological problems is
hostility and repressed anger.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Applied
96. 96) Careful time management to deal with stress is an example of using a defence mechanism.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 466 Skill: Applied
97. 97) Research shows that dentistry is a fairly stressful occupation.
Answer: True False
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98. 98) Ambition and competitiveness are the key aspects of Type A behaviour that contribute to
physiological problems.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Applied
99. 99) Conflict stimulation can promote organizational effectiveness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 455 Skill: Recall
100) People with strong social networks experience less stress and cope with stress better
than those with weaker social networks.
100.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 470 Skill: Recall
101) In trying to cope with a stressful situation at work, Chad smiles and acts relaxed in
spite of inner tension. This an example of reaction formation.
101.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
102) The text defines stress as a syndrome that includes depersonalization, emotional
exhaustion, and perceptions of low accomplishment.
102.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 456 Skill: Recall
103.
103) Too much work is a good example of role overload.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
104) North American organizations have consistently failed to recognize the role of
physical fitness in stress reduction and coping.
104.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 472 Skill: Applied
105) As discussed in the text, quitting one's stressful job would be an example of
withdrawal, a behavioural reaction to stress.
105.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Applied
106.
106) Defence mechanisms are targeted at anxiety reduction rather than the source of
stress.
Answer: True False
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107) The individual who uses the most defence mechanisms against stress is exhibiting
the best pattern of coping with stress.
107.
Answer: True False
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108) The writer who could not get his novels published experienced much stress. He
decided to become a superb teacher of literature to reduce his stress. This is an example of
displacement.
108.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
109) Conflict is especially likely when those of low status are dependent upon those of
high status.
109.
Answer: True False
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110) A ready supply of resources is especially likely to prompt conflict among
organizational subunits.
110.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 447 Skill: Applied
111.
111) Superordinate goals require collaboration for their achievement.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Recall
112) Distributive negotiation assumes a zero- sum, win- lose situation in which a fixed
pie is divided up between the parties.
112.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
113) Distributive negotiation assumes that mutual problem solving can result in a winwin situation in which the pie is actually enlarged before distribution.
113.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
114.
114) Distributive and integrative negotiations can take place simultaneously.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
115.
115) Integrative negotiation is essentially single- issue negotiation.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
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116.
116) Bullying always involves physical aggression.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
117) Bullying is most commonly a subtle form of psychological aggression and
intimidation.
117.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
118.
118) An essential feature of bullying is its harshness.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
119.
119) A single harsh incident is a good example of bullying.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
120.
120) Managers have often been identified as bullies by subordinates.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
121.
121) Mobbing is a form of interpersonal conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
122.
122) Similar factors provoke stress and lead to similar reactions around the globe.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
123.
123) The stress model presented in the text is only relevant in certain cultures.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
124.
124) Men and women are equally victimized by stress due to work- family conflict.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
125.
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125) Stress but not stressors frequently cause reduce job performance.
Answer: True False
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126.
126) Hindrance stressors directly damage goal attainment.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
127.
127) Hindrance stressors can sometimes stimulate performance via added motivation.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
128.
128) Hindrance stressors can damage and stimulate performance.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
129.
129) Role ambiguity is an example of an hindrance stressor.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
130.
130) Heavy workload is an example of an hindrance stressor.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
131.
131) Personality can affect the extent to which stress reactions are effective.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
132) Most formal job redesign efforts have involved enriching executive and managerial
positions to make them more stimulating and challenging.
132.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
133) Especially for operative- level jobs, there is growing evidence that more autonomy
can alleviate stress and burnout.
133.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
134) Externals are more prone to simple anxiety- reduction strategies that only work in
the short run.
134.
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Answer: True False
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
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135) People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response
to the demands of poor job design.
135.
Answer: True False
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
136) The key factor in the Type A behaviour pattern that contributes to adverse
physiological reactions is __________.
136.
Answer: hostility or repressed anger or cynicism
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
137) When too many tasks must be performed in too short of a time period __________ is
likely to occur.
137.
Answer: role overload
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
138) Terry is a sales clerk who serves as an interface between her department store and
the buying public. As such she holds a(n) __________ role position.
138.
Answer: boundary
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
139) The nurse said "I'm emotionally exhausted, I don't care about the patients, and I'm
not accomplishing anything." The nurse appears to be suffering from the form of stress called
__________.
139.
Answer: burnout
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
140) Conditions or environmental events that have the potential to induce stress are
__________.
140.
Answer: stressors
Page Ref: 456 Skill: Recall
141) Poor physical working conditions are most likely to be a stressor for __________
employees.
141.
Answer: operative level or blue- collar Page Ref: 459
Skill: Recall
142) Burnout is a common stress reaction among people who occupy organizational
__________ roles.
142.
Answer: boundary
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Recall
143) Stanley accused his secretary of being lazy, even though it is he who is lazy. Stanley
used the defence mechanism of __________.
143.
Answer: projection
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
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144) Although Sylvester was terrible in the finance department he resolved to be the best
personnel manager in the history of the firm. This illustrates the defence mechanism of
__________.
144.
Answer: compensation
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
145) Susan was angry at her boss but afraid he would fire her. She yelled at her
subordinate. This illustrates the defence mechanism of __________.
145.
Answer: displacement
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
146) The ability to rely on others can serve as a buffer against stress. This illustrates the
role of __________ in coping with stress.
146.
Answer: social support
Page Ref: 470 Skill: Recall
147.
147) Delegation, time management, and asking for help illustrate __________ reactions to
stress.
Answer: problem solving
Page Ref: 466 Skill: Recall
148) Role overload and heavy responsibility can be particular stressors for __________
personnel.
148.
Answer: managerial
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
149) People who exhibit the __________ tend to be aggressive, ambitious, impatient,
competitive, and preoccupied with their work.
149.
Answer: Type A behaviour pattern
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
150) Police officers, nurses, and social workers are especially prone to the form of stress
labeled __________.
150.
Answer: burnout
Page Ref: 460 Skill: Applied
151) Timothy was very scared that he would be laid off due to the recession, but he went
around the office acting happy and relaxed. This "false front" is an example of __________.
151.
Answer: reaction formation
Page Ref: 468 Skill: Applied
152.
152) __________ exists when assertiveness and cooperativeness are both high.
Answer: Collaboration
Page Ref: 450 Skill: Recall
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153) Paula resolved the conflict between her employees by giving them a very attractive
assignment that neither could accomplish on his own. Paula used a(n) __________ to resolve the
conflict.
153.
Answer: superordinate goal
Page Ref: 454 Skill: Applied
154) When cooperativeness is low and assertiveness is high the mode of conflict
management is __________.
154.
Answer: competition
Page Ref: 449 Skill: Recall
155) When cooperativeness is high and assertiveness is low the mode of conflict
management is __________.
155.
Answer: accommodation
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Recall
156.
156) Ambiguous jurisdictions and scarce resources cause __________.
Answer: conflict
Page Ref: 447 Skill: Recall
157) Repeated negative behaviour directed toward one or more individuals of lower
power or status that creates a hostile work environment is known as __________.
157.
Answer: bullying
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
158) __________ can take many forms such as incessant teasing, demeaning criticism,
social isolation, or sabotaging others' tools and equipment.
158.
Answer: Bullying
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
159.
159) An essential feature of bullying is its __________.
Answer: persistence
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Applied
160) __________ occurs when a number of coworkers "gang up" on a particular
employee.
160.
Answer: Mobbing
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
161) Victims of bullying and mobbing experience __________ because they feel
powerless to deal with the perpetrator(s).
161.
Answer: stress
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Recall
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162.
162) __________ stressors directly damage goal attainment.
Answer: Hindrance
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
163) __________ stressors can damage performance, but they sometimes stimulate it via
added motivation.
163.
Answer: Challenge
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
164) Especially for __________ jobs, there is growing evidence that providing more
autonomy in how __________ is delivered can alleviate stress and burnout.
164.
Answer: service
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
165) Personality can affect the extent to which potential stressors are perceived as
stressful and the types of __________ that occur.
165.
Answer: stress reactions
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
166) Most formal job redesign efforts have involved enriching __________ jobs to make
them more stimulating and challenging.
166.
Answer: operative-level Page Ref: 469
Skill: Recall
167) People high in negative affectivity are particularly likely to feel stressed in response
to the demands of a __________.
167.
Answer: heavy workload
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
168.
168) What are the main causes of organizational conflict?
Answer: Group identification, intergroup bias, interdependence, ambiguity, scarce resources, and
differences in power, status and culture.
Page Ref: 445 Skill: Recall
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169) What are the five modes or styles of managing conflict? Give an example which illustrates the
relationship between assertiveness and cooperativeness for each mode.
Answer: The five modes are avoiding, accommodating, competing, compromising and collaborating.
Examples: 1) avoiding (low assertiveness, low cooperativeness) a manager who postpones meeting with
an employee who wants a raise; 2) accommodating (low assertiveness, high cooperativeness) going to the
movie that your date wants to see instead of the one that you would rather see; 3) competing (high
assertiveness, low cooperativeness) most transactions where buyer and seller do not expect to meet again;
4) collaborate (high assertiveness, high cooperativeness) two department managers in the same company
must share limited resources to achieve their individual departmental objectives, and jointly contribute to
the attainment of the company's goals; 5) compromise (moderate assertiveness, moderate
cooperativeness) when it becomes clear to union negotiators and management that neither is going to get
the maximum deal they had hoped for, they settle for a deal that is adequate (satisficing).
Page Ref: 448 Skill: Applied
Answer: Distributive negotiation win- lose negotiation in which a fixed amount of assets is divided
between the parties. Integrative negotiation win- win negotiation in which it is assumed that mutual
problem solving can enlarge the assets to be divided between parties. Distributive tactics may include the
use of threats and promises, firm posturing, small concessions offered strategically, and verbal
persuasion. Integrative tactics may include exchanging large amounts of information, reframing
differences as opportunities, cutting costs for agreement, increasing resources and introducing
superordinate goals.
Page Ref: 451 Skill: Recall
171) Suzie Desouza, the Manager of Industrial Relations at Zeta Manufacturing, has just been informed
that the union representing the assembly workers has rejected management's latest offer and has issued a
strike notice. Suzie is very angry at both her superiors and the union representatives for their
intransigence on key negotiation issues, but she tries to keep her cool as she prepares for yet another
marathon bargaining session. She is concerned that the strike will lead to layoffs in other areas of the
company, and she worries about those individuals who will be adversely affected if the next round of
negotiations fail. She has been told by her boss to try to avoid a strike at all costs; yet her boss was the one
who recommended countering the union's previous offer with the current failed offer. Based on the pace
of negotiations to date, she predicts that even
round- the- clock negotiations will not result in a settlement soon enough to avert the strike. As she sits at
her desk, she glances at the pictures of her two children who she has hardly seen since negotiations
started last month. She also notices that the in- basket of her mail tray is overflowing and she has nearly
100 unopened email messages · half of them marked "URGENT". As she pops another pill for her high
blood pressure problem, she sighs, "Where do I start?" Analyze Suzie's situation in terms of stressors,
stress, and stress reaction.
Answer: The managerial stressors affecting Suzie are role overload (e.g. too much to do in too little time)
and heavy responsibility (e.g. she is worried about the layoffs which will result if she cannot reach an
agreement). There is also evidence of role ambiguity (e.g. the boss's directive to avoid a strike at all costs,
and yet he rejected the union's previous offer), and work- family conflict (e.g. she has not seen much of
her children lately). In addition, Suzie exhibits a Type A behaviour pattern, and her repressed anger for
her boss and the union representatives may be contributing to her high blood pressure problem.
170) What is the difference between distributive and integrative negotiation? Discuss the main tactics
used in each.
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Applied
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172) According to the job demands- job control model, what types of jobs are prone to
increased risk of heart disease? Give some examples.
172.
Answer: Jobs involve high psychological demand and low decision control are prone to increased
risk of heart disease. Examples include telephone operators, cooks, food servers, and assembly
line workers.
Page Ref: 459 Skill: Applied
173.
173) Describe some common defence mechanisms and give an example of each.
Answer: Rationalization, projection, displacement, reaction formation, and compensation. The
text provides good examples of each on page 437.
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Applied
174.
174) Discuss several strategies for reducing or coping with stress.
Answer: Job redesign techniques, social support networks, "family friendly" human resource
policies, stress management programs, and work- life programs.
Page Ref: 469 Skill: Recall
175) George Walters works in the accounting department at Kapster Enterprises.
Recently, the department introduced a new computer system and adopted new documenting
procedures which have had a considerable impact on George's job. As a result, George is feeling a
bit "stressed- out" and needs to talk to someone in his social support network. Should he talk to a)
his wife Judy; b) his co- worker Bill; or c) his old high school buddy Mike who is a bartender?
Explain your rationale.
175.
Answer: Evidence suggests that the buffering aspects of social support are most potent when
they are directly connected to the source of the stress; therefore, George might find that his
coworker Bill is the best source of support for his work- related woes. Note that this does not
mean that George could not or should not also discuss these matters with his wife and his old
high school buddy · they can still offer comfort and bolster his self- esteem even though they may
not be knowledgeable about the specific work- related problems he is dealing with.
Page Ref: 470 Skill: Applied
176.
176) Describe burnout its stages.
Answer: Burnout is a form of stress that is experienced by some boundary role occupants. It
follows a process that begins with emotional exhaustion, leads to depersonalization, and then to
low personal accomplishment.
Page Ref: 461 Skill: Recall
177) Describe the link between Negative Affectivity and stress and the factors
responsible for it.
177.
Answer: People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in the work environment and
feel more subjective stress. They are particularly likely to feel stressed in response to the demands
of a heavy workload. Several factors that might be responsible for their susceptibility to stress
include: a predisposition to perceive stressors in the workplace; hypersensitivity to existing
stressors; a tendency to gravitate to stressful jobs; a tendency to provoke stress through their
negativity; or the use of passive, indirect coping styles that avoid the real sources of stress.
Page Ref: 458 Skill: Recall
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178) Discuss the role of personality on the experience of stress and three personality traits associated with
stress.
Answer: Personality can affect both the extent to which potential stressors are perceived as stressful and
the types of stress reactions that occur. Three personality traits associated with stress are locus of control,
Type A behaviour pattern, and negative affectivity. Externals are more likely to feel anxious in the face of
potential stressors and prone to simple anxiety- reduction strategies. Type A individuals encounter or
perceive to encounter more stressful situations then Type B individuals and they exhibit adverse
physiological reactions in response to stress. People high in negative affectivity report more stressors in
the work environment and feel more subjective stress.
Page Ref: 457 Skill: Recall
179) What is bullying and what factors distinguish it as a stress- inducing form of conflict?
Answer: Bullying refers to repeated negative behaviour directed toward one or more individuals of lower
power or status that creates a hostile work environment. Factors that distinguish it include the following:
Although it can involve physical aggression, it is most commonly a more subtle form of psychological
aggression and intimidation that can take many forms such as incessant teasing, demeaning criticism,
social isolation, or sabotaging others' tools and equipment. An essential feature of bullying is its
persistence - a single harsh incident would not constitute bullying. It is the repeated teasing, criticism, or
undermining that signals bullying. Another key feature of bullying is some degree of power or status
imbalance between the bully and the victim. Managers are often identified as bullies by subordinates.
However, there is power in numbers and subordinates might team up to harass their boss, a phenomenon
known as mobbing. Victims of bullying and mobbing experience stress because they feel powerless to
deal with the perpetrator(s).
Page Ref: 463 Skill: Applied
180) Discuss the relationship between stressors and job performance and give examples
of hindrance and challenge stressors.
180.
Answer: Stressors frequently cause reduced job performance, however, the nature of the
relationship depends on the type of stressor. Some stressors are hindrance stressors, such as role
ambiguity and inteterpersonal conflict and they damage performance. Other stressors are
challenging such as heavy workload and responsibility. While they can also damage performance
they sometimes stimulate it via added motivation.
Page Ref: 467 Skill: Recall
181) Carl has a good friend who seems to be reacting badly to the stress of his new job.
You are starting to worry about the toll it is taking on him and realize that he would be better off
he used problem solving as a way to cope with his stress. You have arranged to meet him for
lunch and to propose this to him. What will you tell him about problem solving and what
examples of problem solving can you suggest he consider trying?
181.
Answer: Problem solving is directed toward terminating the stressor or reducing its potency
rather than just making the person feel better in the short run. It is reality oriented and most
examples of it are just routine, sensible, and obvious approaches that an objective observer might
suggest. Examples that Carl can suggest to his friend include: delegation, time management,
talking it out, asking for help, and searching for alternatives.
Page Ref: 466 Skill: Applied
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