Updated 9/12/06
LSSG Green Belt Exam Question Bank
Introduction/Overview
1
Which best reflects the Six Sigma view of achieving good quality?
C`
A
Have your product viewed as the premium product in the marketplace.
B Providing the best features in the marketplace at the lowest possible cost.
C Reducing the number of defects in a production system to optimize profits.
D Eliminating all defects in the production system.
2
Lean requires greater mathematical sophistication compared to Six Sigma.
B
A True
B False
C
D
3
Six Sigma is about Quality, while Lean is about:
D
A Utilizing “belts”
B Improving processes using statistical techniques
C Thorough analysis of complex problems
D Increasing speed and reducing complexity
4
Continuous Improvement using Six Sigma methodologies requires the use of the _______________
process.
D
A DMADV
B DMAIV
C DMADC
D DMAIC
5
What is the meaning of Kaizen?
D
A continuous incremental improvement
B Standardization of existing processes
C Use of control charts
D Increasing the capability index of a process
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6
While the Traditional View of quality states that "Errors are inevitable", the Six Sigma view of quality states
that "Errors can be _______________".
A
A eliminated
B reduced
C exorcised
D managed
7
The sigma in the term 'six sigma' stands for:
D
A mean
B mode
C variance
D standard deviation
8
Many companies have attempted to imitate the Toyota model of LEAN operations. However, what does
analysis of the Toyota operation indicate as the primary reason for its success with the LEAN initiative?
B
A All manufacturing employees are certified at least at a Six Sigma green belt equivalency.
B They have a culture of practicing the scientific method at all levels of the workforce.
C Production lines are constructed to remain flexible and responsive.
D Processes remain flexible to allow variation in the ways suppliers and customers connect.
9
Who is credited with inventing lean?
C
A Henrry Ford (Ford Motor Co.)
B Jack Welch (GE)
C Taiichi Ohno and Shigeo Shingo (Toyota)
D Paul and Joseph Galvin (Motorola)
10
The Analyze phase of the DMAIC process has the characteristic of:
C
A identifying the problem statement and creating a project charter
B identifying the voice of the customer
C quantifying relationships between the x's and y's
D collecting data and checking if the current process is capable of meeting customer specifications
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11
In addition to keeping the workplace clean in a lean organization, _______________ refers to keeping only
the necessary items in a work area, that there is a place for everything, and that everything is in a
constant state of readiness.
B
A Spatial planning
B Good housekeeping
C Inventory sorting
D Facilities location
12
The correct order of phases in a six sigma project is
B
A DAMIC
B DMAIC
C DIMAC
D DMIAC
13
In the context of quality management, the definition of the word "quality" is not
D
A Meeting customer requirements
B Continuous improvement
C Consistency/reliability
D Adding features to a product or service
14
Six Sigma uses DMAIC; Lean uses DMADV.
B
A True
B False
C
D
15
A ________________ is a notification system for communicating the need for additional parts to an
internal or external supplier.
D
A Pokayoke
B Flowchart
C SIPOC
D Kanban
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16
The 5 "S"s that are part of the Lean toolkit are:
A
A "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Sustain"
B "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Sell"
C "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Soften"
D "Sort", "Straighten", "Shine", "Standardize", and "Simulate"
18
______________ brings action and intuition to the table, quickly attacking low hanging fruit with kaizen
(continual improvement) events. ______________ uses statistical tools to uncover root causes and
provide metrics as mile markers.
C
A Six Sigma, Lean
B Lean, Kaizen
C Lean, Six Sigma
D Six Sigma, Six Sigma
19
What is the key concept of the Six Sigma core philosophy?
B
A Six Sigma is a business improvement approach that seeks to perform the "5S"s
B Six Sigma is a business improvement approach that seeks to find and eliminate causes of defects and errors
C Six Sigma is a cost cutting approach that seeks to identify and eliminate unnecessary workers
D Six Sigma is a revenue generating approach that seeks to find ways to produce in greater quantity
20
From where did the term “six sigma” originate?
A
A It is based on a statistical measure that equates to 3.4 or fewer defects per million opportunities
B IIt is based on a statistical measure that equates to 5% or fewer defects per million opportunities
C It is based on a statistical measure that equates to 1% or fewer defects per million opportunities
D It is based on a statistical measure that equates 0.26% or fewer defects per million opportunities
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21
How the rules of the Toyota Production System (TPS) are transmitted can best be described as follows:
C
A Supervisors state the explicit rules repeatedly until the workers have them memorized.
B Workers are required to read the TPS Manual and memorize the rules before the start of a new process.
C Workers discover the rules as a consequence of solving problems facilitated by supervisors using the Socratic
method.
D Workers learn the system by visiting one of the training facilities in Japan.
22
The Senior Manager responsible for the overall success of a Six Sigma project is the
________________________.
C
A Black Belt
B Master Black Belt
C Champion
D Green Belt
23
Who pioneered Six Sigma?
D
A Microsoft pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to measuring product and service quality.
B Toyota pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to lean production
C Ford pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to reaching their slogan of "Quality is job 1".
D Motorola pioneered the concept of Six Sigma as an approach to measuring product and service quality.
24
Lean addresses visible problems in processes, while Six Sigma is more concerned with less visible ones
like variation in performance
A
A True
B False
C
D
25
When comparing TQM and Six Sigma,
D
A Only Six Sigma has a structured Tollgate process for moving from one phase to another
B Only Six Sigma uses the DMAIC process to guide improvement projects
C Only Six Sigma uses fulltime Black Belts to facilitate the process
D All of the above
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26
Which of the following is true of the role of a Black Belt in Lean Six Sigma?
C
A He/she is the senior manager that is responsible overall, including providing resources, aligning with mission
B He/she works part time on LSS in his/her own work area
C He/she is a full time LSS employee, responsible for coaching, tracking progress and mentoring
D He/she is a subject matter expert
27
In the Lean philosophy, overproduction, inventory, rework and motion away from the work area are
examples of
C
A Noise
B Value-added activities
C Waste
D Necessary costs
28
What does Lean add to Six Sigma?
C
A Defect reduction to 3.4 per million
B Statistical Methods
C Speed
D All of the above
29
TQM lacked the ________________ aspect of continuous improvement, leading to regression back to
original problem states.
B
A Improve
B Control
C Define
D Value Stream Mapping
30
The best response to those who criticize Lean Six Sigma (LSS) projects would be as follows:
C
A You’re right. Most LSS projects fail.
B Lean alone is better.
C What would you rather do instead?
D Six Sigma alone is better.
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31
How is the application of Six Sigma to service industries different from manufacturing?
B
A There is no difference
B The service processes are often invisible, complex, and not well defined or well documented.
C Work in service businesses requires less human intervention
D The culture of a service organization is usually more scientific.
32
What are the four key measures of performance that must be examined when applying Six Sigma to
services?
A
A Accuracy, Cycle Time, Cost, Customer Satisfaction
B ROA, ROE, ROI, and Risk
C Revenue, Cost, Quality, and Cycle Time
D Accuracy, Revenue, Cost, and Customer Satisfaction
33
Which of the following is NOT among the fourteen points suggested by Deming for Quality Management?
B
A Remove barriers that prevent pride of workmanship
B Use exhortations and awards to motivate employees
C Institute modern methods of training
D Eliminate numerical quotas
34
3.4 Defects per million opportunities for 6-sigma quality assumes a 1.5 sigma shift.
A
A True
B False
C
D
35
Why should a business use Lean Six Sigma?
D
A eliminate defects
B optimize process flow
C utilize advanced statistical processes to achieve full potential
D all of the above
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36
TQM is based largely on worker empowerment and teams; Six Sigma is owned by business leader
champions.
A
A True
B False
C
D
37
Fujio Cho, President of Toyota Motor Company, said that "... no mere process can turn a poor performer
into a star. Rather, you have to address ____"
A
A employees' fundamental way of thinking
B the training of employees in Six Sigma
C political issues that get in the way
D appropriate compensation for the best workers
38
The Lean Six Sigma methodology helps an organization to_________________.
A
A develop their next generation of leaders.
B keep their functions and locations working with separate vocabularies.
C do things slower than their competition.
D measure their processes only in a qualitative manner.
39
Lean Six Sigma can only be applied to manufacturing companies.
B
A True
B False
C
D
40
Lean Six Sigma projects goals should be set based on the _____________ voice.
C
A shareholder's
B supplier's
C customer's
D manager's
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41
The combination of Lean and Six Sigma provides the tools to create _________________ business
improvement.
D
A eventual
B one-time
C minimal
D ongoing
42
Six Sigma quality level implies no more than 3.4 defects per ____________ opportunities
C
A hundred
B thousand
C million
D billion
43
What is the most significant change in the quality movement in recent times?
B
A re-emergence of the TQM movement
B emphasis on the impact of quality improvement on the “bottom line” results
C emphasis on reengineering as opposed to continuous improvement
D focus on making American companies as quality conscious as the Japanese
44
TQM is focused on improvement with little financial accountability; Six Sigma requires a verifiable return
on investment and focus on the bottom line.
A
A True
B False
C
D
45
TQM activities are truly crossfunctional; Six Sigma projects focus on a single functional area.
B
A True
B False
C
D
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46
If there are 50 defects out of 1000 opportunities, what is the value of dpmo?
D
A 0.05
B 50
C 5000
D 50000
47
What is "defects per million opportunities (dpmo)"?
D
A A typcial way that customers express their requirements
B [Opportunities for Error] / 1,000,000 * [Defects per unit]
C [Defects per unit] / 1,000,000 * [Opportunities for Error]
D A measure of Six Sigma quality
48
What is a defect?
C
A A part that is rejected because it does not meet customer standards
B A product that is more than one standard deviation away from the process mean
C Any mistake or error that is passed on to the customer
D Anything that occurs once in a million opportunities
49
During which phases of the Six Sigma process can you adjust the scope of the project?
D
A Define and Measure
B Analyze and Improve
C Control
D Both a) and b)
50
The design process does not contribute to value creation, since it does not involve the actual production.
B
A True
B False
C
D
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51
A metric is a verifiable measurement of some particular characteristic, stated either numerically (e.g.,
percentage of defects) or in qualitative terms (e.g., level of satisfaction – “poor” or “excellent”).
A
A True
B False
C
D
52
Why are metrics vital to Six Sigma applications?
D
A because the metric system is now used worldwide for scientific applications
B because it is a requirement of the Lean philosophy
C because they guarantee an optimal solution to business problems
D because they facilitate fact-based decisions.
53
What is the DMAIC Process?
A
A define, measure, analyze, improve, control
B decide, manage, authorize, instigate, critique
54
C
discuss, moderate, advise, invest, counsel
D
data study, mediate, assign, inform, centralize
The goal of the define phase is to
D
A Identify customers and their priorities
B Identify a project suitable for Six Sigma efforts
C Identify CTQ’s
D All of the above
55
The goal of the Improve phase is to identify means to remove the causes of defects
B
A True
B False
C
D
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56
How does a process focus differ from a traditional organization’s focus?
B
A The process focus emphasizes silos
B The process focus adopts a cross-functional view
C The process focus creates several layers of hierarchy
D The process focus takes the "vertical" organization chart view of things
57
The goal of the measure phase is to
C
A Identify CTQ’s that the customer considers to have the most impact on quality.
B Understand why defects are generated by identifying the key variables
C Identify the Xs in a process and collect data on them
D Modify the process to stay within the acceptable range
58
What is a process?
D
A any random sequence of activities
B a set of rules that must be followed in order to communicate ideas
C activities that reduce cost
D a sequence of activities that is intended to achieve some result.
59
The goal of the analyze phase is to
B
A Draw charts and graphs
B Determine the most likely causes of defects
C Identify means to remove the causes of the defects
D Use the most advanced statistical methods possible
60
The goal of the control phase is to determine how to maintain the improvements put in place
A
A True
B False
C
D
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61
__________ means doing the right things to create the most value for the company.
A
A Effectiveness
B Efficiency
C Productivity
D Value
62
Which is not considered when developing your company's balanced scorecard?
C
A historical picture of typical financial reporting measurements
B how quickly your customer wants to receive your product or service
C national economic indicators
D employee healthcare programs
64
Adding DSS to the Lean Six Sigma enables _______________ updating of decisions.
A
A dynamic
B top down
C traditional
D static
65
Support processes are those that contribute to the successful performance of an organization’s valuecreation processes, employees, and daily operations.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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66
What are the key determinants of profitability that underline Six Sigma?
C
A The Best Quality possible at any cost
B The highest productivity at minimally acceptable quality standards
C Productivity, Cost, and Quality that satisfies customers
D The smallest workforce possible
67
Value-creation processes (sometimes called core processes), are those which are most important to
“running the business” and maintaining or achieving a sustainable competitive advantage.
A
A True
B False
C
D
68
Explain the role of quality in improving a firm’s profitability
D
A Differentiation from competitors, permitting higher prices, increasing revenue
B Improves firm's reputation and perceived value of product, thus increasing sales and revenue
C Saves on rework, scrap, warranty expenses, thus reducing costs
D All of the above
69
In total quality, individuals inside an enterprise can be viewed as suppliers who work for internal or external
customers.
A
A True
B False
C
D
70
The ability to identify and transfer best practices within the organization is known as Internal Benchmarking.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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71
Distinguish betweeen descriptive and inferential statistics
B
A Descriptive statistics is graphical, inferential is not
B Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential helps make decisions about a population based on a
sample
C Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential helps forecast the future
D Descriptive statistics summarize existing conditions, inferential describes imaginary ones
72
A population is a complete set or collection of objects of interest. A sample is a subset of objects taken
from a population.
A
A True
B False
C
D
73
Statistics is the science concerned with “the collection, organization, analysis, interpre¬tation, and
presentation of data.”
A
A True
B False
C
D
74
Which of the following is true regarding the Balanced Scorecard
A
A It is a measurement system that looks at the organization from different perspectives.
B It is a measurement system that emphaizes a balance between increasing revenue and reducing costs.
C It is a statistical tool to improve the quality of a process.
D Is a qualitative tool that assumes that measurement is overrated, and intuitive decisions are the best.
75
3.4 defects per million opportunities, which we normally define as 6 sigma, really corresponds to a sigma
value of 4.5, to account for a 'drift' of 1.5 sigma.
A
A T
B F
C
D
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Define
76
When using the Normal Probability Plot to check for normality in a data set, what should the analyst look
for?
B
A data points that fall within the two outer blue lines on the Minitab chart and p-values that are relatively low
B data points that fall witih the two outer blue lines on the Minitab chart and p-values that are relatively high
C data points that follow a symmetrical bell-shape - ignore p values
D data points clustered at one end of the plot - ignore p values
77
Six Sigma is about analysis, and corporate culture is an irrelevant issue where Six Sigma is concerned.
B
A True
B False
C
D
78
Data are collected on several variables at one point in time. This is an example of
A
A Cross-sectional data
B Time series data
C Discrete data
D Continuous data
79
A graph that shows the distribution of a variable is a ______________________________.
A
A histogram
B scatterplot
C matrix Plot
D pie chart
80
The primary purpose of a graph is to
A
A communicate visually what would otherwise be difficult to do
B show data in at least 3 colors and no more than 5
C display data in a 3-dimensional image
D impress a client with the capability of the software package
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81
Assuming normal distribution, Mean = 80 and Std deviation = 10, approximately ______________% of the
data will fall between 60 and 100.
B
A 67%
B 95%
C 99%
D 99.99%
82
A median is preferred over the mean when
B
A There are too many observations
B There are outliers in the data
C The data are normally distributed
D The population standard deviation is known
83
The interquartile range is equal to
C
A The distance between two consecutive quartiles
B The distance between the largest and the smallest number in the sample
C The distance between quartile 1 and quartile 3
D A quarter of the distance between the largest and the smallest number
84
The standard deviation is
A
A a standardized measure of the deviation from the mean
B The square of the variance; it is measured in squared units
C It is identical to the interquartile range
D It is equal to 68% of the range
85
Consider the following 13 observations: 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, 15, 16, 17, 20, 23; The median value is
equal to:
D
A 10
B 17
C 15
D 14
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86
If the mean of a normal distribution is 30 and the standard deviation is 5, then 95% of the observations lie
between 25 and 35.
B
A True
B False
C
D
87
If you needed to analyze the number of phone calls a crisis hotline center received throughout a 24 hour
period in order to determine staffing needs, which of the following would you use to graphically represent
your findings?
C
A Pie Chart
B Line Chart
C Histogram
D Scatter Plot
88
Consider the following sample of 5 numbers: 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; The sample standard deviation used to estimate
the population standard deviation is equal to:
D
A 100
B 10
C 2.5
D 1.58
89
Consider the following 13 observations: 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, 15, 16, 17, 20, 23; The range is equal to:
C
A 5
B 23
C 18
D 15
90
On a given box plot, what does the box itself represent?
B
A the box represents one standard deviation from the mean
B the box represents the interquartile range
C the box represents half of the interquartile range
D the box represents all observations that are not outliers
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91
Which of the following measures is often misleading because of skewness?
B
A Median
B Mean
C Mode
D Range
92
Consider the following 5 numbers: 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; The mean value is equal to:
C
A 6
B 6.5
C 7
D 7.5
93
If the left tail of a distribution is more pronounced than the right, the function is said to have positive
Skewness.
B
A True
B False
C
D
94
______________ analysis means looking at data one variable at a time.
C
A Regression
B Variance
C Univariate
D Multivariate
95
The observation that occurs most often in a sample is called the
B
A Mean
B Mode
C Median
D None of the above
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96
What is the difference between a Pareto Chart and a Histogram?
C
A There is no difference
B A histogram is used for nominal data, Pareto chart for continuous data
C Pareto charts are used for finding the most significant items, histograms to look at a distribution
D Histograms group the data in a sequence from largest frequency to the smallest, Pareto charts go from smallest to
largest
97
Skewness is the degree of asymmetry of a distribution
A
A True
B False
C
D
98
A scatter plot helps visualize relationships between variables
A
A True
B False
C
D
99
If there are outliers on the high side in a set of data, then the mean will be greater than the median.
A
A True
B False
C
D
100
Which of the following characterize(s) a good graphic?
D
A having something to say
B multidimensional data (or at least enough data in one dimension)
C putting data in context
D All of the above.
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101
A distribution with a higher Kurtosis measure is more peaked.
A
A True
B False
C
D
102
In samples where there is a regular (timed) pattern in the data outside the normal trend, we must adjust for
_______________________.
D
A outliers
B sensitivity
C data corruption
D seasonality
103
The arithmetic mean of the errors in time series forecasts is called___________.
A
A Bias
B MAD
C MAPE
D MSE
104
The average magnitude of error in a time series forecast is called ___________.
B
A Bias
B MAD
C MAPE
D MSE
105
In Time Series Forecasting, the average of the errors expressed as percentages of the actual value is
called the ____________.
C
A Bias
B MAD
C MAPE
D MSE
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106
The ___________ penalizes larger errors more heavily than smaller errors, and is similar to variance.
D
A Bias
B MAD
C MAPE
D MSE
107
If data are stationary, then
A
A the means show no trend
B any curvature in the plot of the means must be predictable within a specified range
C standard deviation is used in forecasting process averages
D both a and b
108
A seasonal index of 1.2 means that
C
A The observations for that season are 1.2 times the value for the previous season
B The observations for that season grew at a rate of 20% each year
C The observations for that season are 20% above the expectation based on the underlying trend
D The observations for that season are 120% of the season with the lowest index
109
Time series forecasting helps determine the root causes of the variation in Y
B
A True
B False
C
D
110
If the seasonal indices for quarters 1, 2, and 3 are 1.20, 1.05, and 1.00 respectively, what can you say
about the seasonal index for quarter 4?
B
A It will be greater than 1
B It will be less than 1
C It will be equal to 1
D There is insufficient data to conclude anything
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111
Which of the following statement is true regarding Bias and MAD from a time series forecast?
A
A MAD is always greater than or equal to the BIAS
B BIAS tells you the magnitude of error, while MAD tells you the direction
C MAD can sometimes be negative
D MAD can never be greater than the Bias
112
For a certain set of time series data, forecasts were done using a moving average. The Bias is - 4.00. If
every single error term is negative, which of the following can you say with certainty?
C
A The MAD value will be greater than +4.00
B The MAD value will be less than -4.00
C The MAD value will be exactly + 4.00
D The MAD value will be between -4.00 and +4.00
113
Sales for the past 4 quarters are (in $ million): 5, 8, 7, 12. A 3-period moving average forecast for period 5
sales is:
C
A 8
B 12
C 9
D 10.66
114
Six Sigma quality is reflected by a process capability index that is
C
A at least 1.00
B at least 1.50
C at least 2.00
D exactly equal to 0
115
The proportion of the output of a process that is within specifications is called:
D
A Process Control
B R-squared
C Standard Error
D Process Capability
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116
A product specification is 24.00 + or - 0.03. The process mean is 24.0014, with a standard deviation of
0.00967. What is the Cpk value? [you should be able to answer such questions with numbers changed]
A
A 0.9875
B 1.0806
C 1.034
D 1.523
117
Roles and responsibilities are tracked using a ___________________ chart.
A
A RASCI
B Gantt
C SIPOC
D PIMS
118
"Project Scoping" refers to
A
A Defining the beginning and end of a process
B The process of aligning the project to the company's mission
C The process of deciding on the team members for the project
D The process of expanding the scope of a project based on new information
119
Financial return should not be a factor in choosing a Six Sigma project. The focus should only be on
quality.
B
A True
B False
C
D
120
Probability of success is not an issue one should consider when choosing a Six Sigma project
B
A True
B False
C
D
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122
What is a team?
A
A A small number of people with complementary skills, committed to a common purpose
B A minimum of 10 people from a department
C A large number (typically more than 25) of individuals from across the organization
D A legal entity that has its own rights and previleges within an organization
123
The ______________ establishes the preliminary objectives of a Six Sigma project.
C
A Mission Statement
B Team Agenda
C Project Charter
D Voice of Customer
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126
The project chosen should have a fit with the strategy of the firm
A
A True
B False
C
D
127
The purpose of a Gantt Chart is to:
A
A Track the scheduling of the project phases
B Create a communication channel with suppliers and customers.
C Track the roles and responsibilitites of the team members
D Map a process from beginning to end
128
What are the steps in the Project Planning process?
D
A project initiation, deployment, control
B creation of plan, execution
C definition, execution, tracking
D project definition, resource planning, scheduling, tracking/control
129
During the Define phase of a six sigma project, the following problem statement was formed. "During the
last 12 months, the time to process customer x's invoices has been too long." This problem statement:
C
A is inappropriate as a Six Sigma project
B is easy to tie to a goal statement
C lacks specificity
D contains all the elements of the SMART checklist
130
_____________ is a technique for including customer input in the design process of a product or service.
C
A Concurrent engineering
B Action Register
C House of Quality
D Pareto Analysis
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131
In addition to external customers, every employee also has an _____________ who receives goods or
services within the company. For example, manufacturing is a _______________ of purchasing, and a
nursing unit is a ____________ of a hospital laundry.
A
A Internal customer, customer, customer
B Internal supplier, supplier, supplier
C External supplier, supplier, supplier
D External supplier, customer customer
132
Inputs and outputs of a process are identified in the following stage of a Six Sigma process:
A
A Define
B Measure
C Analyze
D Control
133
Why is it important to identify Critical To Quality (CTQ) characteristics in the design stage of a new
product?
C
A CTQs come from detailed engineering analysis, hence are more important than any other design issues
B CTQs determine the cost of the project, and minimizing cost is the most important goal
C Incorporating the Voice of the Customer in the design stage is the best way to satisfy a customer
D The Voice of the Employees determines what goes into the design, and treating employees well is important
134
The House of Quality helps to:
B
A provide a single quality metric for the organization
B prioritize areas for improvement
C implement the results of a Six Sigma project
D clarify the costs associated with quality
135
According to Kano Analysis, "Dissatisfiers" are
A
A aspects of the product that are taken for granted; if absent, they cause dissatisfaction
B features of the product that help you stand out from the competition
C negative aspects of a product; when removed, they delight your customers
D the presence of features on a product that the customer did not ask for
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136
SIPOC is a high-level process map that defines the boundaries of a Six Sigma project
A
A True
B False
C
D
137
The PIMS model of Customer Satisfaction looks for customer feedback on the following dimensions
C
A Quality and Performance
B Performance and Cost
C Performance and Importance
D Cost and Quality
138
Kano analysis is a way to prioritize customer requirements based on their impact on:
C
A Quality
B Cost
C Customer Satisfaction
D Speed of Delivery
139
A tool for organizing a large number of ideas, opinions, and facts relating to a broad problem or subject
area is called
B
A Response Surface Methodology
B Affinity Diagram
C Box Plot
D Residual Plot
140
The purpose of an affinity diagram is to
B
A show the relationship between dependent and independent variables
B organize data into logical categories
C show which data is most important for the project
D map a process from beginning to end
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141
A SIPOC diagram is used to
C
A standardize the inputs and outputs of a process.
B create a communication channel with suppliers and customers.
C identify the relevant elements of a process improvement project.
D visualize quantitative data regarding inputs and outputs of a process.
142
What are CTQs?
C
A They are key characteristics of products or processes that cannot be measured.
B They are the Cost to Quality ratios of competing alternatives for improvement of a process in order to satisfy the
customer.
C They are key measurable characteristics whose specifications must be met to satisfy the customer.
D They are characteristics of a product or service that are least important to the customer, and should be ignored.
143
______________ is a graphic tool for defining the relationship between customer desires and the
firm/product capabilities in meeting them.
A
A House of Quality
B Fishbone Diagram
C SIPOC
D Frequency Histogram
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149
Focusing on one single measurement of a process is likely to promote
C
A good decisions
B value-added behavior
C dysfunctional behavior
D the benefits of Lean Six Sigma
150
Distinguish between a process map and a value stream map
D
A A value stream map highlights only non-value added activities, a process map highlights the value added ones
B A value stream map highlights all activities, a process map shows the times that activities take.
C A process map highlights all activities, and the times that activities take, a value stream map does not
D A value stream map highlights all activities, and the times that activities take, a process map does not
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151
Which of the four types of Costs of Quality will have the greatest negative impact?
D
A prevention cost
B appraisal cost
C internal failure
D external failure
152
In Cost of Quality (COQ), Lean Six Sigma implementation will lead to a shift of spending from External
Failure costs to _______________________.
C
A Appraisal Costs
B Internal Failure Costs
C Prevention Costs
D Return Costs
153
A downside of mesuring Cost of Quality is that:
C
A It measures only prevention costs, ignoring all others
B It measures the cost of external failure, but ignores internal failure costs
C It only measures a company's costs, not the customer's.
D It measures costs in Yen instead of Dollars.
154
Dissatisfiers are qualities expected in a product. Their absence causes dissatisfaction.
A
A True
B False
C
D
155
Service Family Analysis may be conducted to determine if:
C
A Different families of customers should receive different service
B The family of services offered will meet customer specifications
C Processes are similar enough to be flowcharted and analyzed together
D Which process control charts are appropriate for a given project
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156
The goal(s) of getting the Voice of the Process is (are):
D
A Eliminate blame/fear
B See if process is predictable
C Identify causes of problems
D All of the Above
157
__________________________is a visual tool that helps identify, demonstrate, and hence help decrease
the waste in a process.
B
A A Frequency Histogram
B Value Stream Mapping
C House of Quality Mapping
D Designing for Six Sigma
158
According to Prof. Kano's definitions, a radio in an automobile should be classified as:
A
A Dissatisfiers
B Satisfiers
C Exciters/Delighters
D All of the above
159
According to Prof. Kano's definitions, antilock brakes in an automobile should be classified as:
B
A Dissatisfiers
B Satisfiers
C Exciters/Delighters
D Outliers
160
According to Prof. Kano's definitions, unexpected (and desirable) features in a product should be classified
as:
C
A Dissatisfiers
B Satisfiers
C Exciters/Delighters
D Outliers
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161
At a fast food restaurant, food is safe to eat. This characteristic would be classified by Prof. Kano as:
A
A Dissatisfiers
B Satisfiers
C Exciters/Delighters
D Outliers
162
When determining COQ (Cost of Quality), the cost to inspect and/or test the product or service is called
the __________________________.
B
A Prevention Cost
B Appraisal Cost
C Activity Based Cost
D External Failure Cost
163
Which of the following is true about Employee Suggestion Systems used to get the Voice of the Employee?
D
A They are useless in practice, and should never be used.
B They should be used to make employees feel better, even if you have no intention of implementing their suggestions.
C They will succeed only if the CEO reads and ensures that every suggestion is implemented without fail.
D They can work in a culture open to suggestions and where employees are told if a suggestion cannot be implemented.
164
Which of the following is (are) true about a Black Belt in Six Sigma?
D
A They are fully trained experts who perform much of the technical analyses in Six Sigma
B They help mentor the green belts
C They have advanced knowledge of the tools and DMAIC methods, and can apply them
D All of the above
165
A Green Belt in Six Sigma is typically a functional employee trained in introductory methods and works on
proojects on a part-time basis.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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166
The stages that teams typically go through in their life cycle are called Forming, Storming, Norming,
Performing.
A
A True
B False
C
D
167
Input variables in a decision support system or model can be described as
C
A environmental only
B exogenous and endogenous
C environmental and decision
D decision only
168
Which is not true about historical data (information from the past)?
B
A For short-term decision-making, historical data is frequently all we need.
B Without historical data we cannot create a model.
C Historical data are experiences that are quantified.
D There is no uncertainty about the past.
169
Which statement is true about the modeling process for LSSG
B
A Outputs are defined in the “Measure” stage of the DMAIC process
B An influence diagram construction process may reveal additional inputs not previously considered.
C External inputs are identified in the “Measure” stage, and decision inputs are identified in the “Define” stage.
D The “Control” step is a “nice-to-have” but not always necessary in the LSSG version of the DMAIC process.
170
Which is the best example of a problem statement?
C
A Shipping costs contribute 20% to the cost of the product.
B The number one customer complaint is product not meeting customer criteria, resulting in large volume of re-work each
year.
C Transaction errors cause $400,000 in wasted cost each year.
D Budget variance is $1,450,553 annually. A significant contributor to this is raw material variability.
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171
A characteristic whose value depends on the values of independent variables is a:
B
A Predictor Variable
B Dependent Variable
C Random Error
D Regression Analysis
172
One variable in your project can be described as DAYS OVERDUE (e.g., 7.2, 8.1, 9.3) or simply
OVERDUE (yes or no), which doesn’t factor in the magnitude of lateness. You decide to use DAYS
OVERDUE. Your choice can be described as:
C
A a discrete variable
B a prime number
C a continuous variable
D an integer variable
173
An improper calibration of the instrument will affect its:
A
A Accuracy
B Precision
C Reproducibility
D Efficiency
174
Which of the following concepts deals with the variance of repeated measurements?
B
A Accuracy
B Precision
C Reproducibility
D Bias
175
If data are ranked, intervals are constant, but a zero does not imply non-existence, data is considered to
be
A
A interval
B nominal
C ordinal
D ratio
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176
Give an example of a discrete variable and a continuous random variable, in that order.
D
A Age in years, Temperature categorized as above or below 100 degrees.
B Number of defects, Number of parts produced
C Weight of a part, Number fo defects
D True/False, Pressure
177
What is the difference between a discrete and a continuous measure?
B
A Discrete measures are done in secret; Continuous ones are open for all to see
B Discrete measures are countable; Continuous ones have infinite possible values
C Discrete measures are for samples; Continuous ones are for populations
D There is no difference - these are synonymous terms
178
You measure age as Under 30 or Over 30. What type of data scale is that?
C
A ordinal
B interval
C nominal
D ratio
179
Select the order of data classification types that represents increasing richness of data types.
A
A nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
B nominal, interval, ordinal, ratio
C ratio, nominal, ordinal, interval
D ratio, ordinal, interval, nominal
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Measure
181
A Gage R & R value of under 10% of the process variation indicates that:
C
A The gage needs repair
B The gage may or may not be working well, depending on several factors
C The gage does not require recalibration
D The operators need training
182
Acceptance sampling differs from Statistical Process Control (SPC) in that:
A
A Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch after a process; SPC checks if the process is in control during the
process.
B Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch during a process; SPC checks if the process is in control after
completion.
C Acceptance Sampling is used to measure process capability; SPC checks if the process is in control during the process.
D Acceptance Sampling is used to inspect a batch before a process; SPC is used to inspect a batch after the process.
183
The primary application of a control chart is to determine process capability.
B
A True
B False
C
D
184
A process that is governed only by common cause variation
C
A is out of control
B should be stopped and investigated for assignable causes
C is predictable within established statistical limits
D is not stable
185
Before calculating process capability, assignable (special cause) variation should be identified and
removed if possible.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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186
The control chart used to analyze attribute data is:
C
A U-chart
B X-bar and R chart
C p-chart
D C-chart
187
The control chart used to analyze count data with unequal samples:
B
A C-chart
B U-chart
C p-chart
D IMR chart
188
The Np chart plots the number of defectives while the C chart plots the number of defects.
A
A True
B False
C
D
189
A C chart is used for count data with a constant number of units inspected
A
A True
B False
C
D
190
A process is out of control when a control chart shows
D
A at least 3 points are outside of the control limits
B Four consecutive points are on the same side of the center line
C The points are all too close to the Mean (center line of the chart)
D One or more points are outside the control limits.
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191
Despite computational difficulty, the s chart is used in place of the R chart sometimes when
A
A A large sample size is available, and there is no need to use the range to estimate the standard deviation
B The sample size is small, making the range meaningless
C Observations are recorded indirectly
D When there is a greater amount of measurement error suspected
192
Automated inspection allows for every item produced to be inspected in some cases. The control chart
appropriate in such cases is the
C
A Np chart
B X-bar and R chart
C IMR chart
D C-chart
193
We can use + or - 2 standard deviations for a control chart when the consequence of missing a special
cause is very serious.
A
A True
B False
C 4.657
D 5.376
194
When the lower control limit is calculated to be a negative number, we use zero instead.
A
A True
B False
C
D
195
A process is said to be in control when variations in the process are due only to common causes
A
A True
B False
C
D
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196
If a process is in control, it is also capable
B
A True
B False
C
D
197
Which of the following is true regarding defects and defectives?
B
A A part with any defect is considered defective
B A defective part is one that has one or more defects in it.
C Both A and B are true.
D Neither A nor B is true.
198
Why are histograms alone inadequate to study process capability?
C
A Histograms are totally irrelevent to process capability
B Histograms do not show the proportion that falls within the specification limits
C Histograms do not show a time-sequenced progression of data
D Histograms are limited to count data only
199
Assume a process has a mean of 101.00 and a variance of 3.5. The customer specification is 102 plus or
minus 3. What is the Cpk and can the process be brought into compliance by simply recentering?
B
A 0.356 and yes
B 0.356 and no
C 0.712 and yes
D 0.712 and no
200
______________________________ shows if the process is able to meet the customers' specifications.
A
A Process Capability Index
B SIPOC
C Natural Variation
D UTL/USL
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201
There are 3 processes, Process A with Std Dev = .40, Process B with Std Dev = .04 and Process C with
Std Dev = .80. Which process has the best capability ?
D
A Process A
B Process B
C Process C
D Insufficient information to answer the question
202
Control Limits are the Voice of ___________ and Specifications are the voice of _________
B
A customer requirements, process variations
B process variations, customer requirements
C common cause variations, special cause variations
D None of the above
203
Rolled Throughput Yield is another way of measuring the ____________ of a process.
B
A Speed
B Quality
C Capability
D Profitability
204
Traditional Yield minus the Rolled Throughput Yield equals the ____________________________.
D
A First Pass Yield
B Throughput Rate
C Process Sigma
D Hidden Factory
205
A Correlation, or the square root of the coefficient of determination, is used to measure the strength of
_______ relationships:
B
A nonlinear
B linear
C linear and non-linear
D non of the above
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206
A correlation between Y and X of -0.92 means that
C
A There is no relationship between the variables
B There is a direct linear relationship between variables
C There is an inverse linear relationships between variables
D All of the above
207
A correlation of 1 indicates that two varibles are perfectly correlated with each other.
A
A True
B False
C
D
208
Correlation coefficients can range from
C
A 0 to 1
B 0 to 100
C -1 to +1
D -1 to 0
209
If X and Y have a strong significant correlation, then we can conclude that X causes Y.
B
A True
B False
C
D
210
Correlation is measure of a linear relationship between two variables, while Regression analysis is a tool
for building statistical models that characterize relationships between a dependent variable and one or more
independent variables.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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211
Multi-collinearity exists when:
D
A the correlation between the independent and dependent variables is high
B the correlation between the independent and dependent variables is low
C the correlation between two or more independent variables is low
D the correlation between two or more independent variables is high
212
A regression with independent variables X1 and X2 yields a coefficient of 3.0 for X1. This can be
interpreted as:
A
A Assuming X2 is constant, for a unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 3 units.
B For a unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 3 units, regardless of changes in X2.
C Assuming X2 is constant, for a unit increase in X1, Y will increase by exactly 3 units everytime.
D Assuming X2 is constant, for a 3 unit increase in X1, Y will increase on average by 1 unit.
213
A regression line is fitted on to a set of points on a scatterplot. The vertical distance between the line and
a point is called the
D
A Correlation
B Covariance
C Forecast
D Residual
214
The R-squared value in a regression varies between 0 and 1, inclusive.
A
A True
B False
C
D
215
A regression with several explanatory variables is called
B
A Simple Regression
B Multiple Regression
C Complete Regression
D Non-linear Regression
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216
Which of the following independent variable can be assumed to be a reliable predictor with at least 95%
confidence?
B
A Variable with p-value of 0.059
B Variable with p-value of 0.001
C Variable with p-value of 0.540
D Variable with p-value of 0.070
217
Scatterplots are one tool that can be used for identifying outliers before doing a regression.
A
A True
B False
C
D
218
The standard error of estimate in a regression is essentially the standard deviation of the residuals.
A
A True
B False
C
D
219
Regression analysis can be applied to both cross-sectional and time series data.
A
A True
B False
C
D
220
Which of the following is true of the regression line?
C
A It is line with the highest slope
B It is the line with no slope
C It is the line with the least squared errors
D It is the line with the sum of squared errors equal to 0.
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221
Comparing the Standard Errors of estimate is a good way to evaluate multiple regression models against
each other
A
A True
B False
C
D
222
In Regression analysis, an R-squared value of 0.84 means that
D
A There is a 0.84 correlation between Y and one of the Xs
B There is a relationship between Y and the Xs 84% of the time
C We have 84% confidence that a relationship exists between Y and the Xs.
D 84% of the variation in Y is explained by the Xs.
223
When we add extra explanatory variables to an equation and if these variables have no conceptual
relationship to the response variable, then the impact on R-squared is that:
C
A Adjusted R-square will increase
B R-square will decrease
C Adjusted R-square will decrease
D R-square will remain constant
224
Which of these statements about regression analysis is FALSE?
C
A It can be applied to a wide variety of fields
B It can help with root cause analysis
C It does not need quantitative data
D It helps predict the values of a variable of interest
225
What is multicollinearity?
B
A Lack of correlation among any of the variables.
B Strong correlation among 2 or more independent variables.
C Strong correlation between a Y and an X variable.
D Strong correlation between a Y and an X, and a weak correlation between 2 Xs.
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226
The amount (in inches) by which a steel cable elongates when a weight (in pounds) is hung on one end is
given by Y (predicted) = 0.01 X, where X is the weight and Y is the elongation. The 0.01 can be interpreted
as:
C
A The calbe elongates a total of 0.01 inches before it breaks.
B The cable elongates 1 inch for every 0.01 pounds of weight applied, on average.
C The cable elongates 0.01 inches per pound of weight applied, on average.
D None of the above
227
A simple regression equation is Y-hat = 5 + 2 X. When X = 3, Y-hat is
A
A 11
B 6
C 3
D 5
228
The purpose of a fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram) is to:
D
A see the process flow
B perform measurement systems analysis
C discover the interactions between various causes of the effect one is studying
D Identify and organize the possible causes of the issue one is studying
229
____________________________ is the language that gives clarity to vague concepts.
C
A Regression
B Analysis
C Measurement
D Intelligence
230
Studies indicate that many customer satisfaction efforts fail because:
D
A Satisfaction construct is measured poorly
B Incorrect quality dimensions included in survey
C Comparison to leading competitors is lacking
D All of the above
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231
Which of the following is (are) meaningful basic questions to ask before collecting data?
D
A What questions are we trying to answer?
B What type of data will we need to answer the questions?
C Where can we find the data?
D All of the above
232
If an outlier is caused by a one-time error in measurement, it is permissible to eliminate that value from
analysis, since it does not reflect the true nature of the data.
A
A True
B False
C
D
233
You wish to conduct a survey to estimate the proportion of customers that are satisfied with your product.
You want a 95% confidence level, and a margin of error of + or - 0.02. What sample size do you need
(assume p=0.5)? Assume Z = 1.96 for 95% confiden
A
A 2401
B 964
C 1124
D 1600
234
The purpose of work measurement is to:
D
A for scheduling work and allocating capacity
B for creating a baseline for improvement
C for determining requirements for outsourcing processes
D All of the above
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238
When doing time studies of processes, normal time is computed as
D
A Observed time / (1 + Performance Rating)
B Observed time / Performance Rating
C Observed time (1 - Performance Rating)
D Observed time (1 + Performance Rating)
239
An acceptable measurement system should have a Gage R&R that is no more than what percentage of
total variability?
D
A 5
B 15
C 25
D 30
240
In Measurement Systems Analysis (MSA) the two major types of measurement error that can occur are
D
A repeatability and accuracy
B reproducibility and accuracy
C precision and reproducibility
D precision and accuracy
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241
Repeatability is the ability of a gage to
B
A consistently give the same measurement no matter how many different operators perform that measurement
B consistently give the same measurement no matter how many times the same operator performs that measurement
C consistently give the same measurement as that obtained from another gage by the same operator
D consistently give the same measurement as that obtained from another gage by a different operator
242
Which of the following is TRUE ?
C
A Precise but not accurate means low variation, but off-center
B Accurate but not precise means high variation, but centered
C Both A and B
D None of the above
243
An inaccurate measurement tool is:
B
A imprecise
B biased
C not reproducible
D not repeatable
244
Repeatability and Reproducibility are categories of
C
A Errors of accuracy
B Biases
C Precision errors
D Standard errors
245
An example of high precision in measurement is:
C
A a clock not having any minute markings requiring approximate time readings
B measurements that center around the correct value, but have a high degree of variation
C an instrument that consistently has a very small variance from the mean value
D a car's speedometer always showing the car going at 30 mph
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247
A clock without any markings cause times to be noted approximately, creating greater variation. Such
errors are called
A
A precision errors
B biases
C forecasting errors
D environmental errors
Analyze
248
Pareto found that:
A
A 20% of the causes are responsible for 80% of the results.
B 80% of the causes are responsible for 20% of the results.
C 60% of the causes are responsible for 20% of the results
D 20% of the causes are responsible for 60% of the results.
249
Pareto analysis helps with
B
A Project timelines
B Prioritization of Inputs and Outputs
C Calculation of Correlation Coefficient
D Displaying interactions among variables
250
If there are 480 minutes in a shift and the workers take two 30 minute breaks during this shift, then what is
the takt time if the demand is 210 units/shift?
B
A 2.28 min/unit
B 2.00 min/unit
C 2.14 min/unit
D 0.50 min/unit
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251
The pace of customer demand in a Lean process is the _________________.
B
A throughput time
B takt time
C yield time
D work time
252
Which of the following is true regarding ANOVA?
C
A ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about equality of means of 2 or fewer samples
B ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about equality of variances of multiple populations
C ANOVA is a methodology for drawing conclusions about the equality of means of multiple populations
D ANOVA is a methodology for forecasting the means of multiple populations for 3 or more time periods into the future
253
In a test of normality, one typically wants to see a high p-value, as it indicates that there is no difference
between the distribution at hand and the normal distribution.
A
A True
B False
C
D
254
A One Way ANOVA compares means of observed responses of several different levels of a single factor
A
A True
B False
C
D
255
If you pick a sample of 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard deviation is 7.0, then the
sample mean is likely to be
A
A close to 60
B close to 100
C close to 7
D None of the above
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256
Assume n=64, Sample Mean = 80, and Population Standard Deviation = 8. The 95% confidence interval for
the population mean (assume Z=1.96) is:
C
A 80 + or - 15.68
B 80 + or - 0.245
C 80 + or - 1.96
D 80 + or - 8.00
257
In general, the paired-sample procedure is appropriate when the samples are naturally paired in some way.
A
A True
B False
C
D
258
From a sample of 200 items, 10 are found defective. The point estimate of the population proportion
defective is:
B
A 0.1
B 0.05
C 10
D None of the above
259
Other things being equal, to cut the margin of error in half, the sample size has to
C
A Halve in size
B Double in size
C Quadruple in size
D Remain the same
260
When the samples we want to compare represent before/after an intervention (such as process
improvement), we compare not the two separate samples, but their ___.
D
A Sum
B Product
C Ratio
D Difference
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261
If you pick a sample of 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard deviation is 7.0, then the
sample standard deviation is likely to be
C
A close to 60
B close to 100
C close to 7
D close to 0.7
262
Other things being equal, if you increase the sample size, the margin of error in a confidence interval will
A
A Decrease
B Increase
C Stay the same
D Cannot say
263
When we replace the population standard deviation with the sample standard deviation (s), we introduce a
new source of variability and the sampling distribution becomes the
A
A t-distribution
B z-distribution
C F-distribution
D Chi-Squared distribution
264
For a normal distribution, what percentage of the observations would fall within approximantely two
standard deviations of the mean?
C
A 47%
B 68%
C 95%
D 99%
265
As the sample size increases, the t - distribution approximates the ________ distribution.
A
A normal
B exponential
C chi-square
D binomial
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266
If you pick thousands of samples of size 100 from a population whose mean is 60.0 and standard
deviation is 7.0, then the standard error of the sampling distribution will be
D
A 60
B 7
C 100
D 0.7
267
Other things being equal, if you increase the confidence level, the margin of error in a confidence interval
will
B
A Decrease
B Increase
C Stay the same
D Cannot say
268
Standard Error is the standard deviation of the distribution of means from a large number of samples from
a population.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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272
To compute the p-value, it is unnecessary to know the level of significance, alpha.
A
A True
B False
C
D
273
A test for the difference between paired samples works essentially like the test for a single sample where
the measurement is the difference between the samples.
A
A True
B False
C
D
274
Statistical inference uses ___________statistics to estimate parameters of the
________________________.
B
A population, sample
B sample, population
C variable, sample
D sample, variable
275
According to the Central Limit theorem (CLT), the mean of the sampling distribution is less than the Mean
of the population
C
A No, CLT claims that the mean of sampling distribution is larger
B Yes, CLT claims that the mean of the sampling distribution is smaller
C No, CLT claims that the means of the sampling distribution and the population are equal
D CLT does not address this issue at all
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276
According to the Central Limit theorem, the larger the sample size, the more the sampling distribution of
the mean approaches the normal distribution.
A
A True
B False
C
D
277
The standard deviation is a measure of variability within a population, whereas the standard error of the
mean is a measure of the standard deviation of means within the sampling distribution
A
A True
B False
C
D
278
The following two statements can be evaluated as follows: 1. A type I error occurs when one rejects the
null hypothesis when it is true. 2. A type II error occurs when one fails to reject the null hypothesis when
the alternative hypothesis is true.
C
A false, false
B false, true
C true, true
D true, false
279
Distinguish between standard deviation and standard error
D
A The standard error of the mean is the term used for standard deviation of the population.
B The standard deviation is the standard error of the mean divided by the square root of n.
C The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the population multiplied by the square root of n.
D The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of n.
280
p-value is the probability that assumption of the test (the null hypothesis, which you wish to disprove) is
_____________.
B
A false
B true
C confused
D inconclusive
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282
If one switches to a different way of doing things believing it to be better when in fact the current way is
better, the error would be a
A
A Type I error
B Type II error
C Type III error
D None of the above
283
The alpha value in a hypothesis test is called the
C
A probability of error
B acceptance level
C significance level
D rejection level
284
Which of these is the correct interpretation of a p-value?
D
A It is the probability of making a type I error.
B It is the probability that the null hypotheses is actually correct, given the sample statistic obtained.
C It is the likelihood that we might be mistaken in accepting the alternate hypothesis in favor of the null.
D All of the above
285
Choosing a low alpha value (like 0.01) makes it harder to reject the null hypothesis.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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286
The alpha value in a hypothesis test is chosen by the researcher, whereas the p-value is computed from
the sample.
A
A True
B False
C
D
287
The null and alternate hypostheses are set up in such a way that
A
A Exactly one hypothesis must be true
B Both hypotheses must be true
C It is possible for both hypotheses to be true
D It is possible for neither hypothesis to be true
288
The null hypothesis usually represents the:
B
A preconceived ideas of the researcher
B status quo
C perceptions of the sample population
D theory the researcher would like to prove
289
Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in favor of the
B
A Null Hypothesis
B Alternate Hypothesis
C Either of the above
D None of the above
290
ANOVA assumes that the samples are independent, randomly selected from populations with equal
variances, and normally distributed.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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291
If a hypothesis is significant at the 0.01 level, it is also significant at the 0.05 level.
A
A True
B False
C
D
295
Monte-Carlo simulation can be used in Six Sigma to analyze and understand the effects of uncertainty on
the performance of processes and product designs
A
A True
B False
C
D
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296
Monte-Carlo simulation is based on repeated sampling from probability distributions of model inputs to
characterize the distributions of model outputs
A
A True
B False
C
D
297
The two types of inputs (or variables) that have an effect on outcomes are ________________ and
____________________.
B
A trended, forecasted
B environmental, decision
C external, environmental
D estimated, optimized
298
_______________________ inputs are uncontrollable and are therefore estimated.
B
A Decision
B External
C DSS
D Continuous
299
A useful Decision Support System (DSS) is an effective tool for evaluation of environmental variables.
Which statement is false about our ability to analyze the impact of changes in environmental variables
using a DSS?
D
A We may test the sensitivity of the output due to changes in environmental variables
B We may determine potential outputs from a variety of scenarios (different combinations of environmental inputs)
C We may simulate a range of environmental inputs and determine the range of outputs resulting from these inputs
D We may optimize environmental inputs based on information from DSS optimization modeling.
300
Determining how a change in one x (independent) variable affects one y (dependent) variable is usually
addressed by using the following analytical technique:
C
A hypothesis testing
B goal seek
C sensitivity analysis
D scenario analysis
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301
Why is it recommended to conduct univariate analysis prior to conducting other tests on your data?
A
A univariate analysis provides insight into your data, and helps ensure that it is 'clean'
B often the primary driver to the dependent variable can be determined with simple univariate tests
C it is a requirement of the six sigma DMAIC process
D without it, regression analysis cannot be performed
302
The rate at which items are completed for some process stage defines the
C
A Throughput time
B Waiting time
C Cycle time
D Production run time
303
What of the following questions are meaningful to ask after creating a process map, in order to analyze
the process?
D
A Are the steps in a logical sequence?
B Do all steps add value?
C Are there bottlenecks?
D All of the Above
304
The time for an item to pass through the entire transformation process in an operation is called
A
A Throughput time
B Waiting time
C Cycle time
D Production run time
305
In a line flow process design, the bottleneck is the process stage with the highest cycle time.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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306
Task 2 comes after Task 1 in a process, and sits idle while Task 1 is completed. Task 2 is said to be:
C
A blocked
B buffered
C starved
D having continuous flow
Improve
307
What is the Deming Cycle?
C
A Plan, Do, Study, Summarize
B Plan, Act, Control, Study
C Plan, Do, Study, Act
D Act, Plan, Study, Do
308
Which of the following is (are) part of Kaizen philosophy?
D
A Improvement in all aspects of a business - cost, delivery schedules, supplier relations - not just product quality
B Continuous improvement - small improvements over time, rather than drastic measures
C Minimal financial investment, participation by everyone in the process
D All of the Above
309
In Kaizen philosophy, improvements should take place in all aspects of a business, not just product quality
A
A True
B False
C
D
310
The Kaizen philosophy relies on radical technological change to make improvements.
B
A True
B False
C
D
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311
Poka-yokes are designed to prevent errors of this type:
D
A Task errors - incorrect work, work in wrong sequence, slow work
B Treatment errors - errors in contact with customer, such as lack of courtesy, inappropriate reactions
C Tangible errors - unclean facilities, dirty uniforms, inappropriate temperature
D All of the Above
312
In Six Sigma terminology, the approach to mistake-proofing is called
B
A Kaizen
B Poka-yoke
C Kano
D Keiretsu
313
Mistake proofing requires the following 3 steps: Eliminate possibility of errors; minimize the frequency of
errors; plan a response if they should occur.
A
A True
B False
C
D
314
Poka-yoke is about recognizing that an error can occur in a situation, and providing a warning, or detecting
an error and stopping the process.
A
A True
B False
C
D
315
Service recovery is a very important activity because of all of these reasons, EXCEPT:
D
A It can turn a negative experience into a positive
B It reduces stress in the workplace
C It lowers the cost of remedies by planning appropriate responses
D it enables workers to obtain timely and effective assistance from managers to resolve customer problems when they
occur
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316
All of these tools are similar, EXCEPT
D
A Flowchart
B Process Map
C Value Stream Map
D Concept Map
318
How many combinations will a 2**K experiment with 5 factors yield?
D
A 4
B 8
C 16
D 32
319
Design of Experiments helps us to determine the levels of controllable factors to produce the best results.
A
A True
B False
C
D
320
In a regression, a significant interaction between variables X1 and X2 implies that
D
A X1 and X2 are correlated with each other
B The effect of X1 on Y is twice that of X2 on Y
C There is multicollinearity present, and neither X1 nor X2 is related to Y
D The impact of X1 on Y is different for different levels of X2
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321
What is a shortcoming of DOE?
C
A The experiments are generally expensive, requiring significant setup time
B They have to be done off-line, not during production
C Both A and B are true.
D Neither A nor B is true.
324
What is a 2**K factorial experiment?
B
A An experiment with 2 factors, each one measured K times
B An experiment with K factors, each varied at 2 levels
C An experiment with 2K factors, with any number of measurements
D An experiment with K/2 factors, each at 2 levels
Control
325
The 3 components of a control system are: setting of a standard, measurement of the actual results, and
comparison of results to the standard.
A
A True
B False
C
D
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326
In order to make change in corporate philosophy meaningful to all, management must
_________________________.
D
A Demand participation from all company staff.
B Create a revised employee handbook and require all staff to sign off on changes.
C Send an e-mail memo to all participating personnel.
D Enroll employees and process owners.
327
For an operator to truly be responsible for controlling a process, management must do the following:
D
A Tell all the operators that they are empowered from that day onwards.
B Create the right hierarchy of supervisors to whom the operator can go to for help whenever there is any error.
C Create a suggestion box that the operator can use to provide detailed feedback to management on the week's
activities.
D Give clear specifications, tools and training for measurement, and empower to correct errors when detected.
328
A process is said to be in control when at least 68% of the parts meet customer specifications
B
A True
B False
C
D
329
An advantage of using statistical process control is
A
A To immediately identify a defective process
B Identification by QC personnel to reject or rework a batch
C Defects are identified by the customer
D All of the above
330
Statistical Process Control is a methodology to assist operators / managers to
C
A monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate workers not doing their job correctly
B monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate common causes of variation
C monitor the output from a process to identify and eliminate special causes of variation
D None of the above
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Summary
331
Process Re-engineering using Six Sigma methodologies requires the use of the _______________ process.
C
A DMAIC
B DMADC
C DMADV
D DMAIV
332
The Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award is based on the following 3 dimensions:
A
A approach, deployment, results
B audits, process control, rework
C TQ, TQC, ASQC membership
D inspection, analysis, action
333
Approval at each phase of the project, modifications to project scope, and continuous updates to
management are all part of the ___________________.
A
A Role of Tollgates
B Selection of the project Champion
C Define Phase of Six Sigma
D Purpose of lean
334
To implement lean, you should work with vendors to do which of the following?
A
A Frequent deliveries
B Customer service
C Freeze Windows
D Bottom round management
335
When implementing a lean production system, you should try to do all of the following, EXCEPT:
C
A Reduce lead times with vendors
B Increase frequency of delivery with vendors
C Decrease the number of setups/changeovers
D Reduce the time for setups/changeovers
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