MSB 101 MOI UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF MEDICINE END OF TERM I EXAMINATION (ETE I) 2006/2007 COURSE CODE: MSB 101 COURSE TITLE: CELL BIOLOGY SKIN AND GENETICS PROGRAMME: M.B.Ch.B. YEAR OF STUDY: 1(ONE) DATE: 17TH APRIL 2007 TIME: 9.00 A.M. - 12.00 NOON GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:(i) Write your University Registration Number on every piece of paper you use. (ii) Do not write your names on any piece of paper you use. (iii) This paper consist of four (4) sections, headed Section A: Human Anatomy, Section B: Biochemistry, Section C: Physiology and Section D: Immunology. All to be answered in a total time of three (3) hours. (iv) For M.B.Ch.B and Nursing students, each section constitutes a Continuous Assessment Test CAT in the respective discipline. (v) Questions in each section must be answered in separate answer booklets or answer sheets, so that they can be handed in separately at the end of the examination. (vi) Read carefully any additional instructions preceeding each station or subsection. 1 MSB 101 SECTION A: HUMAN ANATOMY (65 minutes) SUBSECTION AI: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (20 minutes) TYPE III INSTRUCTIONS: (I) THIS SECTION CONTAINS TWENTY (20) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (II) THERE IS ONLY ONE WRONG STATEMENT AMONG FOUR RIGHT IN EACH QUESTION (III) FIND WRONG STATEMENT AND MARK IT WITH X IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 1. Concerning plasma membrane (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2. About functions of plasma membrane (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 3. Its thickness is 75 angstroms The hydrophilic heads of the lipid bilayer consist of fatty acids The integral proteins are transmembraneous Na- K ATPase membrane proteins have Na- binding site on a P-face The cell coat or glycocalyx is attached to the external surface of the membrane Exocytotic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane and release their content to the exterior (exocytosis) Cell take up fluid by pinocytosis Protein clathrin facilitates the process of formation of an endosome Phagosome is the secondary lysosome Diameter of the phagosome is more than 250nm Regarding endoplasmic reticulum (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Basophily of the cytoplasm in light microscope corresponds to the ribosomes of RER in Electron microscope Smooth endoplamic reticulum is well developed in the protein producing cells The polysomes are sites of active protein synthesis for the cell itself Smooth endoplasmic reticulum detoxificates toxic substances The membrane of cisternae of RER have a higher protein concentration than the plasma membrane 2 MSB 101 4. Concerning Golgi apparatus (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 5. About mitochondria (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 6. The diameter of lysosomes varies from 0,5 to 0,8 micrometer The lysosomes originate from the RER The lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes The peroxisomes contain enzyme catalase The peroxisomes participate in gluconeogenesis and detoxification Concerning cytoskeleton (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 8. They are visible under the light microscope Outer mitochondrial membrane is continuous The oxysomes contain enzymes of Krebs cycle The intermembranous space contains ATP The mitochondria are capable to self-reproduction due to presence of DNA in the matrix Regarding lysosomes and peroxisomes (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 7. Only external lamella of the “forming face” is of the fenestrated type Secretory cells have extremely well developed Golgi apparatus The Golgi complex is active in lysosome production The Golgi apparatus repairs the cell membrane During passage through the lamellae of Golgi complex, the proteins and lipids are enriched with sugar residues Microtubules form mitotic spindle Microfilaments are actin filaments Tonofilaments are found in the epithelial cells The cilia have a central doublet of microtubules surrounded by nine triplets of microtubules Centrioles produce basal bodies of cilia About nucleus (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The ribosomes are attached to the external nuclear membrane Pars granulosa of the nucleolus contains ribosomes The nuclear pores are closed by the thin membrane The perinucleolar chromatin is composed of RNA bound to histones An euchromatin is more active than heterochromatin 3 MSB 101 9. Regarding mitosis (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 10. Concerning cell death (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 11. The chromatin pattern is not visible in the piknotic nucleus The cytoplasm of dead cell is acidophilic and homogenuous Karyorexis means lysis of the nuclear fragments The mitochondria become swollen in the dying cell The number of ribosomes is reduced in the dying cell About epithelial tissue (a) (a) (b) (c) (d) 12. The chromosomes become visible during prophase The mitotic spindle is formed during metaphase The microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the kinetochores The splitting of the kinetochores occurs during anaphase Movement of the chromatids during anaphase is due to pulling forces of the mitotic spindle Epithelia are nonvascular, receiving nutrients by diffusion from the blood vessels of the connective tissue Examples of simple epithelia: alveolar, mesothelium, endothelium, columnar ciliated Cornea is covered with stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium The secretory cells of the mammary gland release their secretion by the merocrine type The myoepithelial cells are inserted between the base of the secretory cells and the basement membrane Regarding connective tissue (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The plasma cells produce antibodies Elastic fibers anastomose among each other The bone collar is developed at the periphery of the epiphyseal cartilage during fetal period The osteoclasts are located within Hauship lacunae The isogeneous groups of cartilage are surrounded by the capsules 4 MSB 101 13. About muscle tissue (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 14. Concerning nervous tissue (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 15. The Nissl substance occupies the perikaryon and dendrites of the nerve cells The myelin sheath of the nerve fibers in the CNS is formed by the Sehwann cells Vater-pacinian corpuscle is a pressure receptor Meissner corpuscles are located within the papillary layer of the epidermis Ependymal neuroglia cells line the central canal of the spinal cord, ventricles of the brain stem, and hemyspheres Regarding fertilization (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 16. The sarcomere is part of the myofibril between two M-lines The nuclei of the skeletal muscle fibers are located under the sarcolemma The triads of the skeletal musculature are situated at the A-I junction The smooth muscle tissue is innervated by the autonomic nervous system The smooth muscle cells establish contacts among each other by the gap junctions It takes place within ampulla of the oviduct It is possible during menstruation It is possible in one day before or after ovulation The zona reaction prevents polyspermy Duplication of the DNA of both pronuclei occurs before their fusion About cleavage and implantation (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The morula, consisting of 16 blastomers, enters the uterine cavity on the 4th day after fertilization The inner cell mass of morula is transformed into the embryoblast The blastocyst is composed of more than 100 blastomers The blastocyst is attached to the uterine mucosa on the 5th day after fertilization The embryonic pole of the trophoblast, embedded into the uterine mucosa, is divided into the cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast 5 MSB 101 17. Concerning second week of development (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 18. Regarding third week of development (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 19. All three germ layers develop from the epiblast during gastrulation The primitive streak is formed by the condensation of the cells of epiblast The allantois is formed on the 20th day after fertilization The tertiary chorionic villi have the mesenchymal core pierced by the capillaries Outer cytotrophoblast shell is developed at the end of the III week Ectoderm gives origin to (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 20. Heither’s membrane is formed by the hypoblast The amnioblasts originate from the epiblast The extraembryonic mesoderm is formed by the delamination of the amnion cells Implantation bleeding may occur on 13th day after fertilization The definitive yolk sac is formed at the end of the 2nd week Central and peripheral nervous system Epidermis of the skin and its derivates Thyroid, parathyroids glands, and thymus Pituitary gland and epiphysis Epithelial lining of the oral cavity About derivatives of the endoderm (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Epithelial lining of the GIT Cornea, retina, lens of the eye Respiratory system Epithelial lining of the urinary passages Prostate, bulbourethral glands, epithelial lining of the vagina 6 MSB 101 SUBSECTION AII: MATCHING QUESTIONS INSTRUCTIONS: I) II) III) THERE ARE FOUR (4) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION ANSWER ALL THE FOUR (4) QUESTIONS TO EACH NUMBERED ITEM (1-5) CHOOSE THE APPROPRIATE LETTERED ONE (a-h) AND MARK X IN THE BOX PROVIDED I. Concerning cell 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. II. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) Glycogen synthesis Synthesis of ribosomes Synthesis of protein Glycocalyx Phagocytosis Oxisomes Chromatin Hydrogen peroxide (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) Endocrine secretion Microvilli Production of mucus Gap junction Trachea Holocrine type Urinary bladder Desmosome (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) Ribosomes Sarcomere Myosin filaments Actin filaments Histamine Axon hillock Incisure of Schmidt-lantermann T-tubule About epithelia 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. III. Plasma membrane DNA SER Nucleolus Peroxisomes Columnar ciliated pseudostratified epithelium Macula adherens Transitional epithelium Brush border Goblet cells Concerning tissues 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Mast cells Myelin sheath Nissl substance A- band Z-line 7 MSB 101 IV. Regarding skin 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Stratum granulosum of epidermis Langerhans cells Reticular layer of dermis Sweat glands Meissner’s corpuscles 8 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) Merocrine secretion Touch reception Keratohyalin granules Pressure receptors Reticular fibers Birbeck granules Holocrine secretion Collagen fibers (type I) MSB 101 SECTION B: BIOCHEMISTRY (25 Minutes) SUB-SECTION B I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (25 minutes) TYPE III INSTRUCTIONS:(I) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/QUESTION WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE COMPLETION/ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e). (II) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED. (III) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU ONE MARK. 1. The genetic code is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2. Degeneracy in the genetic code means (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 3. A 4-letter alphabet A collection f codons A 3-letter code A regulatory gene A structural gene That the genetic code comprises 64 codons That the genetic code consists of 3-letter words That the start and stop signals are called nonsense codons The existence of multiple codons for one amino acid Difference amino acids have different number of codons Initiation of protein synthesis requires all of the following except (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ATP Initiation factors mRNA Initiation codon GTP 9 MSB 101 4. Termination of protein synthesis occurs when (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 5. Which of the following reactions is not included in protein processing? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 6. Are all involved in protein synthesis Are as many as the number of amino acids required Act as enzymic system catalyzing all amino acids Are involved in sequential activation of amino acids Require ATP for their activity The following is not involved in modification of protein structure (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 8. Cleavage by protease Hydroxylation Elongation Glycosylation Phosphorylation Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 7. Nonsense or terminating codon of mRNA appears GTP combines with water The protein is released from tRNA 40s or 60s ribosomes dissociates Releasing factor appears Deformylase enzyme Signal peptidase enzyme Addition of carbohydrate residue Deletion of unusual amino acid derivatives Addition of prosthetic group Which of the following codons is the only methionine codon? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) AUU AUC AUA AUG AGU 10 MSB 101 9. Which of the following amino acids has six codons? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 10. Which of the following factors would determine the acidic nature of nucleic acids? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 11. Phosphodiester bonds Electrostatic bonds Covalent bonds Hydrophobic bonds Hydrogen bonds DNA polymerase enzyme system includes all of the following except (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 13. Phosphate unit Adenine base Ribose sugar Pyrimidine base Deoxyribose residue Which of the following holds complimentary antiparallel strands in DNA together? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 12. Tryptophan Valine Lysine Glycine Arginine DNA repair activity Nucleotide polymerization activity Topoisomerase activity 5’3’ Exonuclease activity 3’5’ Exonuclease activity Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the joining of nucleic acid strands together? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Ligase Primase Restriction enzyme Gyrase Helicase 11 MSB 101 14. Which of the following triplet codons are made of termination codons? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 15. Which of the following forms the 5’ cap on mRNA? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 16. Adenosine Guanosine Cytosine Uridine Cytidine The type of RNA with both structural and regulatory roles is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 18. 7-Ethyladenosyl triphosphate 7-Ethylguanosyl triphosphate 7-Methylguanosyl triphosphate 7-methyladenosyl triphosphate Polyadenylate residues All of the following are nucleosides except (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 17. UUU, UAG, UGA UUG, UAG, UGC UUC, UAG, UGA UUA, UAC, UGA UUA, UAG, UGA snRNA hnRNA mRNA tRNA rRNA The type of RNA with a sedimentation coefficient of 4s is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) mRNA tRNA rRNA snRNA hnRNA 12 MSB 101 19. Which of the following modification is not involved in posttranscriptional processing of RNA? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 20. Activated amino acids are carried to the ribosome for peptide-bond formation by (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 21. hnRNA snRNA rRNA tRNA mRNA Primary transcripts (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 23. rRNA mRNA tRNA hnRNA snRNA Which of the following nucleic acid is most rapidly degraded in mammalian cells? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 22. Methylation of ribonucleotide in tRNA precursor Methylation of ribose sugar Attachment of amino acids Hydrolysis of terminal nucleotide of RNA chain Addition of phosphate units Are larger than the final RNA molecule Have no modification on the bases and sugars Contain only A,G,C and U residues Are by-products of RNA molecule Are immediate products of RNA transcription RNA transcription is facilitated by (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) DNA polymerase RNA transcriptase DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase 13 MSB 101 24. RNA polymerase requires all of the following except (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 25. CTP UTP GTP ATP TPP The direct carrier of genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasmic ribosome is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) rRNA tRNA mRNA hnRNA snRNA 14 MSB 101 SECTION C: PHYSIOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (66 minutes) MCQ TYPE II: TRUE/FALSE INSTRUCTIONS: (I) (II) (III) THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF TTHIRTY-THREE (33) QUESTIONS ANSWER ALL THE THIRTY-THREE (33) QUESTIONS EACH QUESTION CONSISTS OF A STEM STATEMENT FOLLOWED BY FIVE (5) COMPLETIONS NUMBERED (a) TO (e). (IV) A GIVEN COMPLETION, WHEN ADDED TO THE STEM STATEMENT MAY PRODUCE A COMPLETE STATEMENT WHICH IS TRUE OR FALSE. (V) INDICATE AGAINST THE APPROPRIATE NUMBER IN THE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED WHETHER THE COMPLETE STATEMENT IS TRUE OR FALSE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE BOX IN THE COLUMN HEADED T FOR “TRUE” OR F FOR “FALSE”. (VI) IF YOU DO NOT KNOW WHETHER THE COMPLETE STATEMENT IS TRUE OR FALSE, PRINT THE X IN THE COLUMN HEADED D FOR “DO NOT KNOW”. (VII) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU PLUS (+) ONE MARK. (VIII) AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS (-) ONE HALF OF A MARK. (IX) AN X IN THE ‘D’ COLUMN EARNS YOU ZERO MARK. (X) ANY UNASWERED OPTION WILL COUNT AS INCORRECT AND WILL THEREFORE EARN YOU MINUS (-) ONE HALF (½) OF A MARK. 1. Regarding nucleic acids (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 2. DNA is composed of a pentose sugar, phosphate group and only pyrimidines DNA is composed of only pyrimidines They are composed of nitrogenous bases only DNA molecule consists of two long chains of deoxyribonucleic coiled into a double-helix shape In DNA the base pairs hold the two chains Deoxyribonucleic acids (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Function sa the molecule of heredity Only undergo semiconservative replicantion Form only double stranded molecules during transcription In one individual are identical and different from those of all other individuals In humans may have upto 100 million base pairs in a single molecule 15 MSB 101 3. Regarding ribonucleic acid molecules (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 4. Regarding cell connections (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 5. Fibrous, Bone, Cartilage and blood Fibrous, Adipose, Cartilage and blood Adipose, areolar, cartilage and blood Hyalina, Fibrocartilage, blood and bone Blood, Bone, reticular and fibrous Regarding the bone tissue (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 7. Immunoglobulins allow communication between cells Desmosomes hold together the adjacent skin cells Belt desmosomes appear to completely encircle the cells Gap junctions are formed through adherence of membrane channels of adjacent plasma membranes Gap junctions occur in cardiac muscle cells so that a single impulse can cause stimulation of many cells at the same time The four main types of connective tissues are (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 6. They poses ribose pentose sugar in addition to purines and phosphate groups Some are temporary copies of segments of DNA code Some are involved in the synthesis of proteins in the body They are crucial in regulatory mechanisms and some act as enzymes They are the main components of the human genome It is regarded as the least specialized connective tissue which has osteocytes embended in a calcified matrix Inorganic component of the matrix account for 65% of the total tissue It serves as a reservoir for minerals It only supports the blood forming tissues under disease conditions It provides the point of attachment for muscles and also gives support and protection The epithelial tissues (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Are divided into glandular and membraneous epithelia Lines only the serous cavities and the blood and lymphatic vessels Also form the secretory units of the endocrine and exocrine glands Serve the protection, sensory, secretion and absorption functions of the body Have their cells in close proximity, with desmosomes and tight junctions 16 MSB 101 8. In cell communication (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 9. The stages involved in cell signaling include (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 10. (d) (e) The primary messenger molecules have no functional value The primary messengers are mainly steroid in nature Molecules that cross the cell membranes are regarded as the secondary messengers The reaction stops when the first signal receptor complex activates a transducer protein There is activation of amplifier proteins at the plasma membrane The following are parts of neuron (a) (b) (c) (d) 12. Reception Retraction Ejection Transduction Response In the secondary messenger system (a) (b) (c) 11. The parracrine signaling involves local regulator chemical messengers that target non specific receptors Receptor specificity has no significance except in cases where the cells have impermeable plasma membrane The endocrine signaling does not require specialized cells Specialized cells release molecules into the circulatory system which transports them to distant target cells Signaling can be more direct with cell-to-cell contact as in the case of gap junctions but not desmosomes Cell body Dendrites Axoplasm Centromere A neuron that is not conducting an impulse (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Has no ability for registering an action potential Has a membrane potential of about -70-mV Maintains a net positive change outside the cell due to the presence of potassium ions Maintains a net negative change inside the cell due to the presence of large negatively changed proteins Maintains a potential difference through the activity of membrane channels 17 MSB 101 13. In the depolarization of nerve cells (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 14. At a neuromuscular junction (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 15. The arrival of an impulse at the nerve ending stimulates the release of chemical transmitters which have receptors on the pre-synaptic membrane only The neurotransmitters are released from the muscle tissue Binding of the neurotransmitters to their receptors increases the membrane permeability to Na+ When the muscle membrane permeability is increased, the membrane potential becomes more negative An action potential is usually developed in the muscle cells without the threshold potential criterion Characteristics of muscles include (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 16. Sodium ion channels are open The large proteins move out of the neurons There is no net movement of ions Both sodium and potassium ion channels open in the opposite direction The cell interior become more negative Extensibility Elasticity Attachment to bones Movement of skeleton Striations Regarding the nervous tissue (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) These have a role in the rapid regulation of body activities with limited integration The characteristics of the specialized cells include excitability and conductivity The specialized cells are localized in the brain and the spinal cord Neuroglia are specialized in connecting supporting and coordinating the activities of the neurons The cells have limited capacity to repair themselves 18 MSB 101 17. Parts of a long bone include (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 18. The following are types of bone cells (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 19. Is also known as a diffuse connective tissue Is also known as the myeloid tissue Is the site for the process of hemopoiesis Is found in the medullary cavities of long bones but not in the spongy bone Occur in two forms namely the red marrow and the brown marrow The functions of the skin includes (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 21. Osteoblasts Osteohepatocytes Osteoclast Osteomyeloblast Osteocytes The bone marrow (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 20. Epiphyses Diaphysis Periosteum Articular cartilage Sarcomere Barrier against infection and injury Removal of waste products from the body Providing protection against ultraviolet radiation from the sun Production of vitamin D Retention of body fluids The muscle cells (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Are called fibers because of their threadlike shape Have sarcolemma which is the plasma membrane of the muscle fibers Have sarcoplasmic reticulum whose function is to pump calcium in from the sarcoplam into sacs for later release Contain numerous mitochondria and nuclei in the fibers Are non-contractile tissues of the body 19 MSB 101 22. Transverse tubules of muscles (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 23. In cell division (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 24. (e) Transverse tubules are absent The sarcoplasmic reticulum is loosely organized Calcium ion from outside the cell binds to calmodulin instead of troponin The arrangements of the thin and thick filaments produce organized striations The sarcomeres are more couspicous Facilitated diffusion (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 26. Mitosis has two phases unlike meiosis which has only one phase The interphase stage is only found in mitosis but not meiosis Prophase usually occur after the metaphase stage Mitotic daughter cells are diploid (n) The meiotic daughter cells are usually gamates In the smooth muscles (a) (b) (c) (d) 25. Extend across the sarcoplasm at right angles to the long axis of the muscle fiber Are formed by inward extension of the sarcoplasmic reticulum Have membrane pumps that continually transport calcium ions inward from the sarcoplasm Allow electrical impulses traveling along the sarcolemma to move deeper into the cell Plays a major role in muscle cell replication Is a type of passive transport Moves molecules down the concentration gradient Is made possible by specific molecules within the membrane Requires no expenditure of energy All of the above Ion channels (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Only open in response to a signal of some kind Require input of energy in order to function Have no limit to the rate at which they can transport ions Can transport both negative and positive ions through Allow passage of ions in both directions 20 MSB 101 27. Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes that (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 28. The sequence of stages in mitosis are (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 29. Phosphate groups are hydrophobic Fatty acids tails are ionized Fatty acid tails are hydrophilic Proteins are located only between the two layers Phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm The following cellular process is coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 31. Prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase Prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase Anaphase, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase In a phospholipid bilayer the (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 30. Are found only in identical twins Are formed during mitosis Split apart during meiosis I Resemble one another in shape, size and function Determine the sex of an organism Facilitated diffusion Active transport Chemiosmosis Osmosis Na+ influx into a nerve cell All of the following are involved in thermal regulation (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Arteriovenous anastomoses Accrine sweat glands Papillary vascular plexus Hair Sebaceous 21 MSB 101 32. The Golgi complexes (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 33. Consist of stacks of saccules In animal cells have a forming face and a maturing face Modify molecules within its lumen of saccules Bind lysosomes vesicles to enter its saccules Contains enzymes The most reliable feature distinguishing prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The presence of a plasma membrane The presence of a nucleus The eukaryotic cell’s larger size The presence of DNA The presence of cell organalles 22 MSB 101 SECTION DI: IMMUNOLOGY (25 MINUTES) INSTRUCTIONS:(I) THIS PAPER IS MADE OF TWO (2) SUBSECTIONS: I AND II. SUBSECTION I CONSISTS OF FIFTEEN (15) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) TO BE ANSWERED IN FIFTEEN (15) MINUTES. SUBSECTION II CONSISTS OF ONE (1) SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (SAQ) TO BE ANSWERED IN TEN (10) MINUTES. (II) FOR THE MCQs, EACH QUESTION CONSISTS OF STATEMENT/STEM WHOSE MOST CORRECT RESPONSE PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED A TO E. (III) FOR EACH MCQ, SELECT ONLY ONE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY CIRCLING IT. A IS EXAMPLE:C1 - esterase inhibitor deficiency is associated with (a) Reccurent Neisserial infections and SLE (b) Hereditary neurotic angiodema (c) Selective Ig G4 deficiency (d) X - linked agammaglobulinaemia (e) CD 8+ T cell dysfunctions The appropriate response is (b) (iv) A CORRECT RESPONSE IN THE MCQs EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (+1) MARK. AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS HALF (-½ ) A MARK. NO PENALTY FOR UNATTEMPTED MCQ. (v) ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS IN THE TWO SUBSECTIONS. SUB-SECTION DI: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (15 minutes) 1. The locational map of Ig locus on chromosome 14 includes the following regions (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) V, D, J & C regions MHC I, II & III regions The region 6p21.1 to 6p21.3 Transporter genes (TAP) 2- microglobulin 23 MSB 101 2. The most polymorphic MHC region is (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 3. MHC genes are specifically located on the (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 4. Complement proteins coded for by class II genes HLA-DP, DM, DO, DQ and DR code for class II molecules HLA-B, C, E, A, G and F code for class II molecules Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) coded for by class I genes Lymphotoxin and heatshock proteins coded for by class II genes T cell receptor is co-expressed with (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 6. Long arm of chromosome 6 Short arm of chromosome 14 Shorter arm of chromosome 6 Long arm of chromosome 2 Short arm of chromosome 16 On chromosome 6, MHC molecules are coded as follows (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 5. HLA-C HLA-B HLA-A HLA-DR HLA-DQ CD19 CD20 CD3 CD5 CD6 Class III MHC regions does not code for (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) Lymphotoxin (LT) Factor B 21-hydroxylaxe enzyme TAP 1 & TAP 2 24 MSB 101 7. Members of immunoglobulin superfamily molecules EXCLUDE (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 8. The following cells present antigen EXCEPT (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 9. CD 3….L FA – 3 LFA-1….ICAM CD28….B7 (CD80/CD86) CD2…..LFA – 3 CD45R…..CD22 HLA alleles in strong linkage disequilibrium are (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 11. Platelets Follicular dendritic cells Macrophages Langerhan cells Dendritic cells T cell-antigen presenting cell (APC) interaction is NOT mediated by the following adhesion molecules (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 10. BCR and TCR CDI thymocytes -2 microglobulin MHC molecules (I + II) CD2 and C-reactive protein A1 and B9 A11 and B8 A29 and B5 A1 and B5 A1 and B8 Class II molecules are located on (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Mesenchymal tissue Epithelial cells All nucleated cells All T ells B cells, dendritic & thymic epithelial cells 25 MSB 101 12. Antigen presenting cells (APC) selectively express (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 13. Characterization of HLA alleles is NOT (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 14. Essential to ensure successful organ/tissue transplantation Important in paternity identity Valuable in resolving blood group typing complications Well established in dental plagues Considered in susceptibility to autoimmune disease Cytotonic T lymphoctytes are (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 15. HLA – class II gene products HLA – class I gene products HLA – class III proteins HLA – A, B and DR molecules HLA – DP, DR and F molecules MHC class I restricted MHC class III restricted MHC class II restricted Express surface IgM & IgD Similar to natural killer (NK) cells in MHC restriction Epidermis of the skin is NOT equipped with the following cell types (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Kuppfer cells Langerhans cells Keratinocytes Epithelial cells Dendritic cells 26 MSB 101 SUBSECTION D11: SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (10 minutes) INSTRUCTIONS: I) II) SAQ 1. THERE IS ONE (1) SHORT ANSWER QUESTION IN THIS SUBSECTION ANSWER THE QUESTION Explain with the aid of annotated diagram describe the structure of MHC class I molecule. (10 marks) 27