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GE8077 Total Quality Management- 2

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DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY,
Opposite to Salem Airport, Salem - 636 309
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
VII SEMESTER
GE8077 – Total Quality Management
Regulation – 2017 (Batch: 2017 -2021)
Academic Year 2020 – 21
Prepared by
Course Coordinator
Mr.G.Madhankumar., AP/MECH
Module Coordinator
Mr.M.Chandru., SAP/MECH
Overall Coordinator
Dr.P.Senthilkumar., Prof & HOD/MECH
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1. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems
A.
B.
C.
D.
process flow analysis
histograms
pliers
control charts
Correct answer: (C)
2. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
internal costs
external costs
costs of dissatisfaction
societal costs
Correct answer: (A)
3. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person
Competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
Competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person
Communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Correct answer: (A)
4. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
correct
correct to some extent
correct to great extent
incorrect
Correct answer: (A)
5. ______________ is the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A.
B.
C.
D.
process areas
product Areas
private areas
preset areas
Correct answer: (A)
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6. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
A.
B.
C.
D.
customer dissatisfaction costs
inspection costs
maintenance costs
warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (C)
7. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A.
B.
C.
D.
An unrealistic definition of quality
A user-based definition of quality
A manufacturing-based definition of quality
A product-based definition of quality
Correct answer: (B)
8. TQM stands for ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Total Quality Management
Total Quantity Management
Total Qualitative Management
To question management
Correct answer: (A)
9. After E.deming, who is considered to have the greatest impact in quality management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kauro Ishikawa
Joseph M. Juran
W.E. Deming
Genichi Tagucchi
Correct answer: (B)
10. Deming's 4 step cycle for improvement is______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
plan, do, check, act
schedule, do, act, check
do, act, check, monitor
plan, control, act, sustain
Correct answer: (A)
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11. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Overall improvement
Continuous improvement
Permanent improvement
Immediate improvement
Correct answer: (B)
12. Quality practices must be carried out ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
at the start of the project
throughout the life of the project
at the end of the project
no need to carry out quality practices
Correct answer: (B)
13. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group dynamics
Motivation principles
Communications
All of the three. (Not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
14. Quality Trilogy includes
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality planning
quality improvement
quality control
All the three
Correct answer: (D
15. Inspection is part of the ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
quality control (not sure)
Quality Planning
Quality improvement
Quality circle
Correct answer: (A)
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16. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
organizational structure
responsibilities
procedures
all the three (not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
17. Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
inspection at the end of the production process
an increase in numerical quotas to boost productivity
looking for the cheapest supplier
training and knowledge
Correct answer: (D)
18. According to Deming most of the problems are related to systems and it is the responsibility
of the management to improve the systems
A.
B.
C.
D.
correct
correct to some extent
correct to great extent
Taguchi
Correct answer: (A)
19. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative
goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
A project completed in shortest possible time.
A product or service that conforms to the required specifications.
an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project
an innovative project that establishes qualification of the project team
Correct answer: (B)
20. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maintenance costs
Inspection costs
Scrap costs
Warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (A)
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21. Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term are assumed to produce
long-term defect levels below ______________ defects per million opportunities (DPMO).
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
2.4
3
3.4
Correct answer: (D)
22. ______________ are used in six sigma
A.
B.
C.
D.
black belt
green belt
both black belt and green belt
none of the Above
Correct answer: (C)
23. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person
Competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
Competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person
Communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Correct answer: (A)
24. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
correct
correct to some extent
correct to great extent
incorrect
Correct answer: (A)
25. ______________ is about supplying customers with what they want when they want it.
A.
B.
C.
D.
JUT
HET
JAT
JIT
Correct answer: (D)
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26. ______________ are the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A.
B.
C.
D.
process areas
product Areas
private areas
preset areas
Correct answer: (A)
27. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
customer dissatisfaction costs
inspection costs
maintenance costs
warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (C)
28. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A.
B.
C.
D.
An unrealistic definition of quality
A user-based definition of quality
A manufacturing-based definition of quality
A product-based definition of quality
Correct answer: (B)
29. In Six Sigma, a ______________ is defined as any process output that does not meet
customer specifications
A.
B.
C.
D.
error
cost
quality
defect
Correct answer: (D
30. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Overall improvement
Continuous improvement
Permanent improvement
Immediate improvement
Correct answer: (B)
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31. –––––––– are the charts that identify potential causes for particular quality problems.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Control Chart
Flow chart
Cause and Effect Diagram
Pareto chart
Correct answer: (C)
32. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Group dynamics
Motivation principles
Communications
All of the three. (Not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
33. Quality Trilogy includes
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality planning
quality improvement
quality control
All the three
Correct answer: (D)
34. Production issues should be addressed early
A.
B.
C.
D.
correct (not sure)
correct to some extent
correct to great extent
incorrect
Correct answer: (A)
35. QFD stands for ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quantity for deployment
Quality for deployment
Quality function deployment
Quality for decision
Correct answer: (C)
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36. Reliability is the degree to which a unit of equipment performs its intended function under
______________ for ______________ of time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
specified conditions; specified period
any condition; specified period
specified conditions; all periods
any condition; any period
Correct answer: (A)
37. Kaizen is a ______________ process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity
improvement.
A.
B.
C.
D.
weekly
daily
monthly
annual
Correct answer: (B)
38. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
organizational structure
responsibilities
procedures
all the three (not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
39. At the time of making a purchase agreement with a vendor, what is important to mention
about inspection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the characteristics of the product that are to be inspected
the tolerances that would be allowed
the reputation of the vendor
a & b both (not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
40. "Poka-yoke" is the Japanese term for ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Card
Fool proof
Continuous improvement
Fishbone diagram
Correct answer: (B)
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41. Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
inspection at the end of the production process
an increase in numerical quotas to boost productivity
looking for the cheapest supplier
training and knowledge
Correct answer: (D)
42. A fishbone diagram is also known as a .______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
cause-and-effect diagram
poka-yoke diagram
Kaizen diagram
Taguchi diagram
Correct answer: (A)
43. According to Deming most of the problems are related to systems and it is the responsibility
of the management to improve the systems
A.
B.
C.
D.
correct
correct to some extent
correct to great extent
Taguchi
Correct answer: (A)
44. A maturity model can be used as a benchmark for comparison and as an aid to understanding
A.
B.
C.
D.
TRUE
FALSE
depends
can't say
Correct answer: (A)
45. Fourteen points framework for quality and productivity improvement was suggested by
______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Crosby
Ishikawa
Deming
Juran
Correct answer: (C)
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46. Juran's Quality trilogy emphasizes the roles of quality planning, quality control and
______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Definition
Quality enhancement
Quality improvement
quality maintenance
Correct answer: (C)
47. Quality Circles members are ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Paid according to their contribution to quality
External consultants designed to provide training in the use of Quality tools
Always machine operators
None of the three.
Correct answer: (D)
48. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maintenance costs
Inspection costs
Scrap costs
Warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (A)
49. Costs of dissatisfaction, repair costs, and warranty costs are elements of cost in the
______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Taguchi Loss Function
Pareto Chart
ISO 9000 Quality Cost Calculator
Process Chart
Correct answer: (A)
50. Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
continuous improvement
Just-in-time (JIT)
a fishbone diagram
setting standards
Correct answer: (A)
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51. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative
goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
A project completed in shortest possible time.
a product or service that conforms to the required specifications.
an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project
an innovative project that establishes qualification of the project team
Correct answer: (B)
52. Establishing measurements based on customer needs for optimizing product design is known
as ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality planning
quality improvement
quality control
Quality planning (Actual answer is Quality planning roadmap)
Correct answer: (D)
53. DMAIC is ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
define, muliply, analyze, improve, control
define, measure, analyze, improve, control
define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control
Correct answer: (C)
54. Quality fulfills a need or expectation that is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Explicitly stated
Implied
Legally required
All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
55. The taste of burgers across all McDonald outlets should be same. This is an example of
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sensory critical to quality Characteristic
Physical critical to Quality Characteristic
Time Orientation critical to Quality Characteristic
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
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56. Check Sheet is used during ______________ stage of DMAIC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Correct answer: (B)
57. ______________ is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of products and
services are properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Assurance
Quality Planning
Quality Control
Quality Management
Correct answer: (A)
58. Presence of ______________ after every stage of DMAIC allows for review of project and
incorporation of suggestions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Review gate
Toll gate
Decision gate
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
59. The Toyota Production System is based on two pillars namely ______________ and
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Kaizen, Six Sigma
Lean, Six Sigma
Just in Time, Jidoka
Just in Time, Kaizen
Correct answer: (C)
60. Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer Satisfaction
Reducing manpower
Continuous Cost Reduction
Continuous Operational Improvement
Correct answer: (B)
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61. Let there be a data set {200,201,202,203,204,205,206,207,208}. This data set can be
represented using stem and leaf where the ______________ is 20 and the ______________ is
{0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stem, Leaf
Leaf, Stem
Tree, Stem
Tree, Leaf
Correct answer: (A)
62. A ______________ diagram shows the location of defects in any unit. This diagram is used
in the analyze step of DMAIC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Affinity
Relations
Defect Concentration
Scatter
Correct answer: (C)
63. The ______________ is used to identify what might go wrong in a plan under development.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto Chart
PDPC
Arrow Diagram
Matrix Diagram
Correct answer: (B)
64. The defect concentration diagram can be used in the ______________ stage of the DMAIC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Correct answer: (C)
65. The taste of the burger can be categorized as good or bad This is an example of which type of
data:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Variable
Attribute
Cannot be determined
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
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66. For a given sample size (n) and number of defects acceptable ©, the Average Total
Inspection (of units) should ______________ with increase in N (lot size).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase
Decrease
Remain Constant
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
67. The pattern of continuous movement in one direction in a control chart is termed as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mixture
Cyclic Pattern
Trend
Stratification
Correct answer: (C)
68. Juran's quality management philosophy is based on three pillars namely planning, control and
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Implementation
Improvement
Monitor
Design
Correct answer: (B)
69. For a point in the control chart to be out of control, it must lie
A.
B.
C.
D.
Above UCL or Below LCL
Between Central Line and LCL
Between Central Line and UCL
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
70. X bar should never be interpreted when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
R chart shows out of control points
X bar chart shows out of control points
The process mean is not known
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
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71. The average run length can be defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The beta risk for an x bar chart
The expected number of samples taken before any shift in process quality is detected
The number of samples used in the construction of x bar chart
The number of items per sample
Correct answer: (B)
72. Consider the first method of p bar estimation where each sample is of varying size. If the 3rd
sample has p bar =.01, and the sample size of the 3rd sample is 10, what will be the upper control
limit for the 3rd sample?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.5
0.6
0.1 ((p bar + 3∗ √p bar∗(1-p bar)/n) is a measure of the upper control limit)
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
73. A major assumption for p chart is that all units produced are ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Independent
Dependent
None of the above
Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (A)
74. Apart from Poisson distribution, another distribution that can be applied to events data is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Normal Distribution
Geometric Distribution
Lognormal Distribution
Continuous Distribution
Correct answer: (B)
75. Which of the following is not true regarding when to select a p, c or u chart?
A. The process is a complex assembly operation and product quality is measured in terms of
the occurrence of nonconformities, successful or unsuccessful product function, and so
forth.
B. Process control is necessary, but measurement data cannot be obtained.
C. A historical summary of process performance is necessary.
D. Destructive testing (or such other expensive testing procedures) is required.
Correct answer: (D)
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76. The dimension of reliability is concerned with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
How easy it is to repair the product
How long does the product last
Will the product do the intended job
How often does the product fail
Correct answer: (D)
77. From a consumer perspective quality is determined by ______________ while from a
producers perspective quality is determined by ______________.
A. Variability, Cost
B. Cost, Price
C. Price, Cost
D. Cost, Variability
Correct answer: (C)
78. The probability distribution function corresponding to tossing of a coin will be a:
A. Probability Density function
B. Probability Mass function
C. Probability Measurement function
D. Probability Cumulative Function
Correct answer: (B)
79. While the first generation of Six sigma focused on ______________, the third generation of
six sigma focused on ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Variability reduction, creating value
Variability reduction, improved business performance
Creating value, Improved business performance
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
80. The standard normal distribution has mean= ______________ and standard deviation=
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1,0
0,1
0,0
1,1
Correct answer: (B)
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81. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto
Ishikawa
Histogram
Scatter
Correct answer: (A)
82. The main aim of QFD is to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Listen to the voice of customer
Lower cost
Reduce errors
Reduce supplier defect
Correct answer: (A)
83. Average Total Inspection is defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Average of rejected lots and accepted lots
Average number of units inspected per lot
Average of rejected Lots
Average of accepted Lots
Correct answer: (B)
84. R charts are used for controlling ______________ of a process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Central Tendency
Dispersion
None of the above
Both a and b
Correct answer: (B)
85. If the Average outgoing Quality is plotted against the Incoming Fraction Defective, the
Average Outgoing Quality Limit is the ______________ point.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Highest
Lowest
Middle
Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (A)
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86. For the above table, what is the value corresponding to the central line for the x bar chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.08
10.05
9.89
9.78
Correct answer: (A)
87. The x bar chart monitors:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Between sample variability
Within sample variability
Instantaneous variability
Natural variability
Correct answer: (A)
88. In case someone is interested in process standard deviation, he should construct the
______________ chart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
X bar
R chart
S chart
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
89. If data for MR chat shows non-normality, it is better to determine the control limits for the
individuals control chart based on the ______________ of the correct underlying distribution.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Percentage
Percentiles
Rank
Mean
Correct answer: (B)
90. A sample of size 10 contains 50 non-conformities. The average number of non-conformities
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
7
4
5 (50/10 i.e. total non-conformities/sample size)
1
Correct answer: (C)
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91. When the number of defects is low, which of the following is true:
A.
B.
C.
D.
We should use c or u chart
Most samples will have non-zero defects
Create a time between occurrence control chart
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
92. Bias reflects the:
A. The differences in observed accuracy and/or precision experienced over the range of
measurements made by the system.
B. The difference between observed measurements and a "true" value obtained from a
master or gold standard
C. Different levels of variability in different operating regimes, resulting from warm-up
effects, environmental factors, inconsistent operator performance
D. None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
93. If variability of a product decreases, its quality ______________
A.
B.
C.
D.
remains unchanged
decreases
increases
may increase or decrease
Correct answer: (C)
94. The focal point of all quality control should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Price focus
Cost Focus
Customer Focus
Manufacturing Focus
Correct answer: (C)
95. The key process input variables (KPIV) and key process output variables are developed
during the ______________ phase.
A. Define
B. Analyze
C. Measure
D. Improve
Correct answer: (C)
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96. An unbiased dice is rolled once. The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is:
A. ¼
B. 1/6
C. ½
D. 1/3
Correct answer: (D)
97. Which of the following statement is false:
A. Important step of strategic quality management is identification of those dimensions in
which the organization will compete
B. Selection of suppliers should be based on quality, schedule, and cost, rather than on cost
alone
C. All of the individuals in the organization must have an understanding of the basic tools of
quality improvement
D. Manufacturing Unit should be the unit focusing on Quality Improvement among all units
in an organization
Correct answer: (D)
98. Cause and Effect Diagram can be used in the ____ and ____ step of DMAIC.
A. Define, Measure
B. Analyze, Control
C. Analyze, Improve
D. Define, Improve
Correct answer: (C
99. Which of the following is false regarding when acceptance sampling is useful:
A. When testing is destructive
B. When 100% inspection cost is very low
C. When there are potentially serious product liability risk
D. When 100% inspection is not technically feasible
Correct answer: (B)
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100. Let p0 be the incoming fraction defective and p1 be the outgoing fraction defective
(Assume both p1 and p0 is greater than 0). If rectifying inspection is performed then:
A. P0<p1
B. P1<p0
C. None of the above
D. Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (B)
101. A company wants to measure the length of a fan as a part of its quality control exercise. The
type of data collected will be:
A. Variable
B. Attribute
C. Cannot be determined
D. None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
102. If only ______________ causes of variation are present, the output of a process forms a
distribution that is table over time and is predictable.
A. Assignable
B. Non-Random
C. Natural
D. Cannot be said
Correct answer: (C)
103. For an x bar chart, β risk can be defined as:
A. The probability of detecting the shift in process mean from μo (in control value) to μ1
B. The probability of not detecting the shift in process mean from μ 0 (in control value) to μ1
C. The probability of detecting the shift in process range from μ 0 (in control value) to μ1
D. The probability of not detecting the shift in process range from μ0 (in control value) to μ1
Correct answer: (B)
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104. Consider that for a process s bar (average standard deviation of 50 samples each of size 4) is
found to be 10.04. The value of c4 (corresponding to sample size of .4) is .92. What is the
estimated value of process standard deviation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.91 (s bar/ c4 is an unbiased estimator of standard deviation)
11.89
12.67
9.67
Correct answer: (A)
105. The basic assumption of calculating the control limits based on average sample size (for a p
chart) will ______________ from/as those previously observed.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Greatly differ
Will be exactly the same
Not greatly differ
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
106. The g chart is the control chart for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Average number of events
Total number of events
Mean number of events
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
107. Attribute charts may be used when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Several characteristics can be jointly measured
When one particular quality characteristic is of importance
Specific information like process mean is required
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
108. The thickness of the blade of a fan is specified to lie between 4 cm and 6 cm. The length of
the blades must lie between 10 cm and 20 cm. A fan blade randomly selected from a sample of
100 blades has a thickness of 5cm and a length of 21cm. The number of defect(s) the blade has is
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
One
Two
There is no defect
Three
Correct answer: (A)
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109. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 on throwing a dice once is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/6
¼
½
1/3
Correct answer: (A)
110. Inspection of incoming/outgoing items is an example of ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prevention Cost
Appraisal Cost
Internal Failure Cost
External Failure Cost
Correct answer: (B)
111. Four basic characteristics of an optimal process are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Economy, efficiency, control, quality
Quality, Improvement, efficiency, productivity
Economy, efficiency, productivity, cost
Economy, efficiency, productivity, quality
Correct answer: (D)
112. ______________ diagram is used for identifying potential relationship between two
variables.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto
Ishikawa
Histogram
Scatter
Correct answer: (D)
113. Lots for acceptance sampling should be ______________ and ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Homogeneous, Large
Heterogeneous, Small
Homogeneous, Small
Heterogeneous, Large
Correct answer: (A)
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114. The roof of house of quality shows the interrelationship between:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Functional Requirements
Design Attributes
Service Process
Manufacturing Process
Correct answer: (B)
115. X bar charts are uses to control the ______________ of a process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dispersion
Central tendency
None of the above
Both a and b
Correct answer: (B)
116. Given that for the three samples, the value of R bar is .66 and value of d2 corresponding to
three is1.128, what is the estimated standard deviation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
.43
.67
.58
.75
Correct answer: (C)
117. Given L=3 and p=.03, estimate the sample size that can be used for construction of a p
chart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
534
321
123
291 ((1-p)∗L2/p gives us an estimate of sample size)
Correct answer: (D)
118. The chart used for tracking number non-conforming is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
P
Np
X bar
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
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119. For a c chart, the OC curve plots the ______________ against ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Probability of Type 2 error, true mean number of defects
Probability of Type 1 error, true mean number of defects
Probability of Type 1 error, true total number of defects
Probability of Type 2 error, true total number of defects
Correct answer: (A)
120. Identification of customers and listening to the Voice of Customer (VoC) are a part of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Assurance
Quality Planning
Quality Control and Improvement
Quality Execution
Correct answer: (B)
121. Ease of repair is associated with ______________ dimension of quality.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Serviceability
Performance
Durability
Perceived Quality
Correct answer: (A)
122. SIPOC diagram, used for understanding the flow in a process is used in ______________
stage of DMAIC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Correct answer: (A)
123. Two major components of fitness of use are Quality of Design and ______________.
A. Quality of Conformance
B. Quality of Service
C. Quality of Specification
Correct answer: (A)
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124. For new product development, the chosen methodology should be
A.
B.
C.
D.
DMADV
DMAIC
Structured Design Methodology
DMIE
Correct answer: (A)
125. In DMAIC, redesigning of process to either remove bottlenecks or to reduce waste takes
place in the ______________ stage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Improve
Control
Correct answer: (C)
126. The critical path method determines the ______________ path from the beginning to the
end of the project.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shortest
Quickest
Longest
Middle
Correct answer: (C)
127. The Operating characteristic curve shows the relationship between the probability of
acceptance (on y axis) and ______________ (on x axis).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Proportion defective
Proportion acceptable
Number of lots
Size of lot
Correct answer: (A)
128. In a double sampling plan, let d1 be the number of defects in the first sample and d2 be the
number of defects in the second sample. Let c2 be the acceptance number for both samples. The
condition for rejection is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
D1+d2<c2
D1+d2>c2
D1∗d2>c2
D1∗d2<c2
Correct answer: (B)
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129. While random variability in a system can be removed by ______________, non-random
variability requires ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Operator or management action, Improvement in the system
Improvement in the system, operator or management action
Statistical Quality Control, Quality Checks
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
130. The concept of rational sub group means that subgroups or samples be selected such that if
assignable causes are present the chances for differences between subgroups will be
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
minimized
maximized
neutralized
optimized
Correct answer: (B)
131. Q-Q plot is used to check:/p>
A.
B.
C.
D.
Normality of the dataset
Number of defects
Process mean
Process standard deviation
Correct answer: (A)
132. The OC curve provides a measure of the ______________ of the control chart.
A. Sensitivity
B. Duality
Correct answer: (A)
133. Which of the following is not a type of attribute chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
P chart
C chart
U char
X bar chart
Correct answer: (D)
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134. The thickness of aluminum sheet is specified to be of 6±2 mm. The Upper Specification
Limit and Lower Specification Limit for the sheet are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4mm, 8mm
8mm, 4mm
6mm, 8mm
4mm, 6mm
Correct answer: (B)
135. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis, which prioritizes different sources of error, is used in
______________ stage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Improve
Analyze
Correct answer: (D)
136. In a six sigma improvement project the least experienced individuals are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Green Belt
Black belts
Red Belts
Master Black Belts
Correct answer: (A)
137. The ______________ diagram starts with one item which then branches of into two or more
items. This diagram is used to breakdown broad categories into finer levels of detail.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Affinity
Tree
Relations
Matrix
Correct answer: (B)
138. Lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD) is a level of lot quality specified by the
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Consumer
Producer
Supplier
Sampling Plan
Correct answer: (A)
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139. Machine wear and tear is ______________ source of variation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Random
Natural
Assignable
Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (C)
140. Pattern in control charts which show the tendency to cluster around central line is termed as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stratification
Mixture
Cyclic pattern
Shift in process level
Correct answer: (A)
141. When output product of several sources is fed into a common stream, the pattern of the
control chart expected is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Stratification
Trend
Mixture
Cyclic Pattern
Correct answer: (C)
142. A fan blade is specified by length and thickness. While sampling, it was found that for one
particular blade, the length was non-conforming while the thickness was as per specifications.
Should the blade be considered non-conforming for construction of a p chart?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct answer: (A)
143. Consider that for a particular process, the p has shifted to .4 and the process has gone out of
control. The corresponding value of beta is found to be .3356. The value of Average Run Length
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.5
1.5 ((1/1-beta) provides us with average run length)
1.0
2.7
Correct answer: (B)
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144. Consider for a process in control, the value of alpha is .0015. What is the value of the
average run length?
A.
B.
C.
D.
666 ( 1/alpha gives us an estimate of average run length)
555
444
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
145. Identify the charts which might give an indication of process going out of control (before
the process has actually changed)
A.
B.
C.
D.
X bar and c
P and c
R and u
X bar and R
Correct answer: (D)
146. The four phases of the Shewart cycle are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan, Do, Scan, Implement
Plan , Act , Do, Control
Plan, Do, Act, Check
Implement, Design, Control, Plan
Correct answer: (C)
147. For a process which is six sigma complaint, the percentage of products within specifications
is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.20%
99.73%
99.10%
96.78%
Correct answer: (B)
148. Mistake proofing of process is done in the ______________ stage of DMAIC.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Improve
Control
Correct answer: (C)
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149. In ______________ step of Quality Function Deployment, product or service requirements
are collected and analyzed through techniques like market research.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Identify Customer Attributes
Identify Design Attributes / Requirements
Conduct an Evaluation of Competing Products.
Evaluate Design Attributes and Develop Targets
Correct answer: (A)
150. For a double sampling plan the probability of acceptance on the combined samples is
calculated as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Maximum of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
Product of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
Average of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
Sum of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
Correct answer: (D)
151. ______________ can be defined as small subset of a lot.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Defect
Fraction Acceptable
Sample
Acceptance Number
Correct answer: (C)
152. If the value of D4 = 2.547, D3=0, then what is the UCL and LCL for the R chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
UCL=1.5, LCL=.4
UCL= 1.2, LCL=.2
UCL=1.5, LCL=0
UCL=1.6, LCL=0
Correct answer: (D)
153. Process capability ratio is expressed as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
USL+LSL/6σ
USL-LSL/6σ
USL-LSL/3σ
USL-LSL/σ
Correct answer: (B)
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154. Which of the following is the correct combination of specifications while designing a
control chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sample size, Frequency of sampling, specification limit
Sample size, Frequency of sampling, Number of defects
Sample size, Specification limit, process standard deviation
Sample size, Process mean, specification limit
Correct answer: (A)
155. For a c chart, the LCL comes out to be -.7. The value of LCL that should be used is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
-.7
0
1
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
156. For a Poisson distribution:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The mean is greater than the variance
The mean is less than variance
The mean is equal to the variance
Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (C)
157. Effective quality control results in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase in customer satisfaction
Lower cost
None of the above
Both a and b
Correct answer: (D)
158. Effective quality improvement can be instrumental in:
A. Increasing productivity
B. Reducing cost
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
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159. Typically in a cause and effect diagram, the ______________ is used for classification of
causes in the service industry.
A.
B.
C.
D.
5Ms
8Ps
5Ss
6Ps
Correct answer: (C)
160. Producers risk can be defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The probability of rejecting a good lot
The probability of accepting a bad lot
The probability of accepting a good lot
The probability of rejecting a bad lot
Correct answer: (A)
161. In critical path method, earliest start is the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The largest Earliest Finish leading to that task
The smallest Earliest Finish leading to that task
Average of Earliest Finish leading to that task
Whenever the task can start
Correct answer: (A)
162. Which of the following is not a use of arrow diagram:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determining the best schedule for the entire project
Potential Scheduling problem and solution
Calculate critical path of the project
Identifying defects in a process
Correct answer: (D)
163. For an ideal OC curve the probability of acceptance for lot fraction defective less than .01 is
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equal to 1
Less than 1
Greater than 1
0
Correct answer: (A)
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164. If we want to detect small process shifts using x bar chart, we should use a sample size of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Less than 5
5-10
10-15
15-25
Correct answer: (D)
165. Factory A produces 100 pieces of wooden legs used in manufacturing tables in 1 hour. The
factory in total works for 3 hours. The quality manager decided to check the quality of the output
by measuring the length of the legs (in cms). He decides to collect three samples (one for each
hour). The sample size for each sample is fixed at 5. The data collected is present in the
following table:
Leg 1
Leg 2
Leg 3
Leg 4
Leg 5
Sample 1
10.2
10.5
9.8
9.7
10.3
Sample 2
10.4
9.9
10.1
10.2
9.8
Sample 3
9.9
9.8
10.2
10.1
10.4
What is the mean and range of leg length in sample 1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mean=10.3;Range=.3
Mean=10.1;Range=.8
Mean=10.2;Range=.6
Mean=9.9;Range=.5
Correct answer: (B)
166. The parameters of s2 chart is specified using:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Normal Distribution
Geometric Distribution
Binomial Distribution
Chi-square distribution
Correct answer: (D)
167. The focal point of all quality control should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Price focus
Cost Focus
Customer Focus
Manufacturing Focus
Correct answer: (C)
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168. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis, which prioritizes different sources of error, is used in
_________________ stage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Define
Measure
Improve
Analyze
Correct answer: (D)
169. Which of the following is the correct combination of specifications while designing a
control chart?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sample size, Frequency of sampling, specification limit
Sample size, Frequency of sampling, Number of defects
Sample size, Specification limit, process standard deviation
Sample size, Process mean, specification limit
Correct answer: (A)
170. The South African government is concerned about the high incidence of HIV/AIDS in
South Africa. They wish to estimate the true number of people in South Africa who are HIV
positive. A random sample of 5000 people was tested and 1980 of them were HIV positive. What
is the statistic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The 5000 people sampled
All the people in South Africa
Impossible to calculate from the given information
The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive
Correct answer: (D)
171. The thickness of aluminum sheet is specified to be of 6±2 mm. The Upper Specification
Limit and Lower Specification Limit for the sheet are:
A.
B.
C.
D.
4mm, 8mm
8mm, 4mm
6mm, 8mm
4mm, 6mm
Correct answer: (B)
172. In case someone is interested in process standard deviation, he should construct the
______________ chart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
X bar
R chart
S chart
None of these
Correct answer: (C)
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173. The value of Var (3 - 4X) is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
5120 / 9
1280 / 81
5120 / 81
1280 / 9
Correct answer: (C)
174. Suppose box A contains 4 red and 5 blue coins and box B contains 6 red and 3 blue coins. A
coin is chosen at random from the box A and placed in box B. Finally, a coin is chosen at
random from among those now in box B. What is the probability a blue coin was transferred
from box A to box B given that the coin chosen from box B is red?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15/29
14/29
1/2
7/10
Correct answer: (A)
175. A multiple-choice test has 30 questions. There are 4 choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer to each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the student's chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exponential
Normal
Poisson
Binomial
Correct answer: (D)
176. Which of the following is NOT true about the standard error of a statistic?
A. The standard error measures, roughly, the average difference between the statistic and the
population parameter.
B. The standard error is the estimated standard deviation of the sampling distribution for the
statistic.
C. The standard error can never be a negative number.
D. The standard error increases as the sample size(s) increases.
Correct answer: (D)
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177. A two-tailed test is one where:
A.
B.
C.
D.
results in only one direction can lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
negative sample means lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
results in either of two directions can lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
no results lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis
Correct answer: (C)
178. The chi-square test can be too sensitive if the sample is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
very small
very large
homogeneous
predictable
Correct answer: (B)
179. The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE). If the true means of the k
populations are equal, then MSTR/MSE should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
more than 1.00
a positive number close to 1.00
a positive number close to 0.00
a negative value between 0.00 and - 1.00
Correct answer: (B)
180. The error deviations within the residual sum of squares (SSE) statistic measure distances:
A.
B.
C.
D.
within groups
between groups
between each value and the grand mean
none of these
Correct answer: (A)
181. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a measurement of
the variance of individual observations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Sum of Square of Treatments (SSTR)
The Treatment Mean Square (MSTR)
The Residual Sum of Squares (SSE)
The Mean Sum of Squares (MSE)
Correct answer: (C)
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182. You obtained a significant test statistic when comparing three treatments in a one-way
ANOVA. In words, how would you interpret the alternative hypothesis H(a)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All three treatments have different effects on the mean response.
Exactly two of the three treatments have the same effect on the mean response.
At least two treatments are different from each other in terms of their effect on the mean
Response.
None of these
Correct answer: (C)
183. Two factors are said to interact when
A.
B.
C.
D.
The simple main effects of one factor are not homogeneous across all levels of the other.
The simple main effects of one factor are homogeneous across the levels of the other.
There are neither main effects nor simple main effects.
There are no main effects.
Correct answer: (A)
184. How many dependent variables does a two-way ANOVA have?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One
Two
Three
Four
Correct answer: (A)
185. A simple experimental design with two levels of an independent variable cannot
A.
B.
C.
D.
Detect a curvilinear relationship between variables.
Detect a monotonic relationship.
Reveal a positive relationship.
Show a negative relationship outcome.
Correct answer: (A)
186. If a researcher planned to have 20 participants in each condition of a 2 x 3 independent
group’s factorial design, how many participants would be needed for this experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40
60
80
120
Correct answer: (D)
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187. What are the factors in a factorial design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the independent variables
the dependent variables
the organism variables
the experimental variables
Correct answer: (A)
188. In a factorial design, a main effect is the ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the combined effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable
interaction effect of the independent variables and their effect on the dependent
the effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable
interaction of the independent variables
Correct answer: (C)
189. During experimental design, a variable is defined as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Treatment
Factor
Variance
None of these
Correct answer: (B)
190. A researcher conducted a 2 x 2 completely repeated measures factorial design and planned
15 participants in each condition. How many participants would be required to conduct this
experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15
30
45
60
Correct answer: (A)
191. For question 09 - 15, consider the model with the two factors, each at two levels:
A.
B.
C.
D.
40
20
10
5
Correct answer: (A)
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192. In a 3 x 3 factorial design, how many conditions are there in the experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
3
6
9
Correct answer: (D)
193. What is the Sum of Squares of Number of Fertilizers (B)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.075
39.48
7.19
3.89
Correct answer: (C)
194. What is the degree of freedom of B?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
Correct answer: (B)
195. A serious problem can occur in multiple regression analysis if an important variable is
omitted from the list of independent variables. This can lead to
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unbiased least squares estimators.
Biased least squares estimators.
A biased estimator of the variance.
All of these
Correct answer: (B)
196. What does the Adjusted R squared value tells us?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a positive relationship
The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a significant difference
The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a significant relationship
The Adjusted R squared value tells us how much of the variance in the dependent
variable can be accounted for by the independent variable
Correct answer: (D)
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197. ______________ is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of products and
services are properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Assurance
Quality Planning
Quality Control
Quality Management
Correct answer: (A)
198. The South African government is concerned about the high incidence of HIV/AIDS in
South Africa. They wish to estimate the true number of people in South Africa who are HIV
positive. A random sample of 5000 people was tested and 1980 of them were HIV positive. What
is the parameter of interest?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The number of people in South Africa
The 5000 people sampled
The number of people in South Africa who are HIV positive
The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive
Correct answer: (C)
199. Student's t-test is applicable only when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
n ≤ 30 and σ is known
n > 30 and σ is unknown
n = 30 and σ is known
All of these
Correct answer: (A)
200. An advertising executive is studying television-viewing habits of married men and women
during prime time hours. On the basis of past viewing records, the executive has determined that
during prime time, husbands are watching television 40% of the time. It has also been
determined that when the husband is watching television, 40% of the time the wife is also
watching. When the husband is not watching television, 30% of the time the wife is watching
television. Find the probability that the wife is watching television in prime time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.36
0.35
0.34
0.32
Correct answer: (C)
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201. A result is called "statistically significant" whenever
A.
B.
C.
D.
The null hypothesis is true.
The alternative hypothesis is true.
The p-value is less or equal to the significance level.
The p-value is larger than the significance level.
Correct answer: (C)
202. The ______________ sum of squares measures the variability of the observed values
around their respective treatment means.
A.
B.
C.
D.
treatment
error
interaction
total
Correct answer: (B)
203. What must you include when reporting an ANOVA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standard deviations, Degrees of freedom, Means, F statistic, P value
Standard deviations, Means, F statistic, P value
Standard deviations, Degrees of freedom, Means, F statistic
Degrees of freedom, F statistic, P value
Correct answer: (A)
204. As variability due to chance decreases, the value of F will
A.
B.
C.
D.
increase
stay the same
decrease
can't tell from the given information
Correct answer: (A)
205. When conducting an ANOVA, the F-Value calculated from the data will always fall within
what ‘range?
A.
B.
C.
D.
between negative infinity and infinity
between 0 and 1
between 0 and infinity
between 1 and infinity
Correct answer: (C)
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206. Two factors are said to be orthogonal when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
they are correlated, that is, they cannot vary independently
there are equal numbers of participants in all groups
they are uncorrelated, that is, they vary independently
there is a single control group, with which all the other groups can be compared
Correct answer: (C)
207. If we add together the sums of squares for the simple main effects of one factor at all the
different levels of another factor, we shall obtain:
A. The interaction sum of squares for the complete experiment
B. The main effect sum of squares for the second factor, plus the sum of squares for its
interaction with the first factor
C. The main effect sum of squares for the first factor
D. The main effect sum of squares for the first factor, plus the sum of squares for its
interaction with the second factor
Correct answer: (D)
208. In a factorial design, a main effect is the ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
the combined effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable
interaction effect of the independent variables and their effect on the dependent variable
the effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable
interaction of the independent variables
Correct answer: (C)
209. You have carried out a Kruskal-Wallis test. There are significant differences between the
three groups you are testing. How might you conduct your pair wise comparisons?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Use the Mann Whitney test
Use the Wilcox on test
Use a t-test
None of the above. Post hoc analyses cannot be carried out with non parametric data
Correct answer: (A)
210. A 2 X 2 factorial
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is essentially two designs that have been combined into a single study.
Contains four factors.
Does not have enough factors to show interactions.
Is extremely difficult to interpret if interactions are found.
Correct answer: (A)
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211. In factorial designs, the number of times a condition is noted is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Randomization
Factorization
Replication
None of These
Correct answer: (C)
212. A factorial design is one in ______________
A. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent variable
B. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variables
C. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
D. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
Correct answer: (C)
213. What is the Interaction between memory and cache (MIPS)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40
20
10
5
Correct answer: (D)
214. A researcher is conducting a 3 x 2 factorial experiment. In variable 1 participants are
randomly assigned to one of 3 conditions. In variable 2 participants respond to both levels of the
independent variable. Which of the following best describes this study?
A.
B.
C.
D.
it
it
it
it
is an independent groups design
is a repeated measures group design
is a mixed factorial design
is a simple main effect design
Correct answer: (C)
215. Dr. AB is conducting a 2 x 3 factorial experiment. He is interested in the impact of college
major and study method on exam performance. He found that study method effected exam
performance regardless of the participants' major. Which of the following is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. AB found a main effect for study method.
Dr. AB found a main effect for college major.
Dr. AB found a significant interaction between college major and study method.
There is not enough information provided to answer this question.
Correct answer: (A)
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216. What is the value at the position of (III)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.04
0.85
0.15
0.033
Correct answer: (B)
217. What are residuals?
A. Residuals are the differences between the observed and expected dependent variable
scores
B. Serendipitous findings
C. Extreme scores
D. Uncontrolled variables
Correct answer: (A)
218. An unbiased dice is rolled once. The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1/4
1/6
1/2
1/3
Correct answer: (D)
219. Which of the following statement is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Only factor A is significant; factor B and the two-factor interaction are not significant.
Only factor B is significant; factor A and the two-factor interaction are not significant.
Only the two-factor interaction is significant; factor A and factor B are not significant.
Factor A and factor B is significant; the two-factor interaction is not significant.
Correct answer: (B)
220. What is the purpose of a simple linear regression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single independent variable
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a single dependent variable
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
Correct answer: (A)
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221. Attribute charts may be used when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Several characteristics can be jointly measured
When one particular quality characteristic is of importance
Specific information like process mean is required
None of these
Correct answer: (A)
222. Two events, A and B, are said to be mutually exclusive if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
P(A | B) = 1
P(B | A) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = 0
Correct answer: (D)
223. Assume the cholesterol levels in a certain population have mean μ = 200 and standard
deviation σ = 24. The cholesterol levels for a random sample of n = 9 individuals are measured
and the sample mean x-bar is determined. What is the z-score for a sample mean x = 180?
A.
B.
C.
D.
-3.75
-2.50
-0.83
2.50
Correct answer: (D)
224. In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when
A.
B.
C.
D.
The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
Correct answer: (C)
225. Student's t-statistic is applicable in case of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Equal number of samples
Unequal number of samples
Small samples
All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
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226. Which of the following assumptions must be met to use an ANOVA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is only one dependent variable
The data must be normally distributed
There is homogeneity of variance
All of these
Correct answer: (D)
227. Which of the following is an assumption of one-way ANOVA comparing samples from
three ‘or more experimental treatments?
A. All the response variables within the k populations follow Normal distributions.
B. The samples associated with each population are randomly selected and are independent
from all other samples.
C. The response variable within each of the k populations has equal variances.
D. All of the above.
Correct answer: (D)
228. When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the ______________ the between-treatment
variability is when compared to the within-treatment variability, the ______________ the FValue calculated from the data will tend to be.
A.
B.
C.
D.
smaller, larger
smaller, smaller
larger, larger
smaller, larger
Correct answer: (B)
229. You carried out an ANOVA on a preliminary sample of data. You then collected additional
data from the same groups; the difference being that the sample sizes for each group were
increased by a factor of 10, and the within-group variability has decreased substantially. Which
of the following statements is NOT correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The degrees of freedom associated with the error term has increased
The degrees of freedom associated with the treatment term has increased
The Residual Sum of Squares (SSE) has decreased
The F-Value calculated from the data (F-Value) has changed
Correct answer: (B)
230. In the two-factor, between subjects (or two-way) ANOVA:
A.
B.
C.
D.
The three F tests always have the same power to reject the null hypothesis.
The test for an interaction always has more power than the test for a main effect.
The power of the F test is not necessarily increased by having larger samples.
The three F tests do not always have the same power to reject the null hypothesis.
Correct answer: (D)
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231. A ______________ effect(s) analysis examines mean differences at each level of the
independent variable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
main
simple main
interaction
simple interaction
Correct answer: (B)
232. Factorial designs allow us to study both ______________ effects of the independent
variables on the dependent variables.
A.
B.
C.
D.
main and interactive
dependent and independent
symbiotic and dichotomous
rank order and correlation
Correct answer: (A)
233. A researcher conducted a 2 x 2 completely repeated measures factorial design and planned
15 participants in each condition. How many participants would be required to conduct this
experiment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15
30
45
60
Correct answer: (A)
234. Consider two factors A and B, each with two levels. If there is no interaction between these
two factors, the difference in the response variable between the two levels of factor A would be
______________ the difference between the two levels of factor B.
A.
B.
C.
D.
unrelated to
equal to
half
twice
Correct answer: (B)
235. Dr. RNS conducted a ______________ factorial design to examine the effects of music and
room temperature on participant's memory. Participants were randomly assigned to study a list of
nonsense words either listening or not listening to music in either a warm or cold room.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1x2
2x4
2x2
4x4
Correct answer: (B)
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236. In factorial designs, the response produced when the treatments of one factor interact with
the treatments of another in influencing the response variable is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
the main effect
interaction
replication
none of these
Correct answer: (B)
237. What is the Variation due to Cache?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84%
76%
19%
5%
Correct answer: (C)
238. A three-way interaction is said to occur when:
A. All three possible two-way interactions, plus main effects of all three factors, are present
in the data
B. There are simple main effects of each factor at every level of either of the other two
factors
C. The simple interactions between two factors are not homogeneous across all levels of the
third factor
D. All three possible two-way interactions are present in the data
Correct answer: (C)
239. What is the value at the position of (V)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.85
0.15
0.97
0.33
Correct answer: (D)
240. The standard error of regression is
A.
B.
C.
D.
the square root of the variance of the error term
an estimate of the square root of the variance of the error term
the square root of the variance of the dependent variable
the square root of the variance of the predictions of the dependent variable
Correct answer: (D)
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241. What is the purpose of a multiple regression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single independent variable
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a single dependent variable
To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
Correct answer: (C)
242. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pareto
Ishikawa
Histogram
Scatter
Correct answer: (A)
243. Two events, A and B, are said to be independent if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B)
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B)
P(A | B) = P(B)
P(B | A) = P(A)
Correct answer: (A)
244. The value of E[X] is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
52/18
28/9
52/9
28/18
Correct answer: (C)
245. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rejection region
Acceptance region
Both (a) and (b)
Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct answer: (A)
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246. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
significance of sample statistics
difference between population means
normality
probability
Correct answer: (C)
247. What do ANOVA calculate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Z-scores
F ratios
Chi square
T-scores
Correct answer: (B)
248. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be
compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical
value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sample size, number of groups
Mean, sample standard deviation
Expected frequency, obtained frequency
MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
Correct answer: (A)
249. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A,
or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The
appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the correlation coefficient
chi square
the t-test
the analysis of variance
Correct answer: (D)
250. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 0.9, the result is statistically significant
A.
B.
C.
D.
Always
Sometimes
Never
Illogical Question
Correct answer: (C)
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251. Which statement is true of an experiment of factorial design?
A. Independence or orthogonality is unaffected by the sizes of the participant samples in the
various treatment combinations.
B. There are always at least two control groups.
C. Control over an independent variable is achieved by orthogonal variation with respect to
the other independent variables.
D. There is always a single control group.
Correct answer: (C)
252. What would the levels of the independent variables be for a two-way ANOVA investigating
the effect of four different treatments for depression and gender?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4 and 1
2
4 and 2
6
Correct answer: (C)
253. In ANOVA, a factor is defined as the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dependent variable.
Independent variable.
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
Correct answer: (A)
254. A 2 X 2 factorial design
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is called a one-way ANOVA.
Results in a four-cell matrix.
Cannot yield interactions.
Must include an organism independent variable.
Correct answer: (B)
255. The critical path method determines the ______________ path from the beginning to the
end of the project.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Shortest
Quickest
Longest
Middle
Correct answer: (C)
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256. Two events, A and B, are said to be independent if:
A.
B.
C.
D.
P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B)
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B)
P(A | B) = P(B)
P(B | A) = P(A)
Correct answer: (A)
257. Which of the following distributions is suitable to model the length of time that elapses
before the first employee passes through the security door of a company?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Exponential
Normal
Poisson
Binomial
Correct answer: (A)
258. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rejection region
Acceptance region
Both (a) and (b)
Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct answer: (A)
259. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the null hypothesis
the alternative hypothesis
the quality of the researcher
further testing
Correct answer: (B)
260. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ______________ of several
populations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
standard deviations
variances
means
proportions
Correct answer: (C)
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261. If the Mean Square Error MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is known, you can
compute
A.
B.
C.
D.
degrees of freedom, df1
the standard deviation of each treatment group
the pooled standard deviation
all answers are correct
Correct answer: (C)
262. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A,
or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The
appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
the correlation coefficient
chi square
the t-test
the analysis of variance
Correct answer: (D)
263. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 5.0, the result is statistically significant
A.
B.
C.
D.
Always
Sometimes
Never
Illogical Question
Correct answer: (B)
264. What is the Effect of Memory (MIPS)?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Correct answer: (B)
265. Two factors are said to interact when
A.
B.
C.
D.
The simple main effects of one factor are not homogeneous across all levels of the other.
The simple main effects of one factor are homogeneous across the levels of the other.
There are neither main effects nor simple main effects.
There are no main effects.
Correct answer: (A)
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266. Which of these characterizes a factorial design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One in which there is a single independent variable.
One in which there is more than one independent variable
One in which the researcher wants to investigate the interactions between variables
Both B and C
Correct answer: (D)
267. What statistic is used to check the significance of the Kruskal-Wallis test?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mean rank
Partial
t-value
Chi squared
Correct answer: (D)
268. What is the appropriate statistical test for a factorial design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Modes test
ANOVA
t-test
chi-square
Correct answer: (B)
269. Give the F test for the interaction effect of factors A and B.
A.
B.
C.
D.
F = (SSABB )/MSE
F = (SSA)/MSE + (SSB)/MSE
F = (MSA)/MSE + (MSB)/MSE
F = (MSAB)/MSE
Correct answer: (D)
270. The Kruskal-Wallis is based upon the ______________ test.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pearson's r
Wilcoxon
Mann Whitney
Friedman
Correct answer: (C)
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271. In a factorial experiments, we
A.
B.
C.
D.
test one factor at a time
cannot estimate interactions
test all possible combination of factor levels are tested
all of these
Correct answer: (C)
272. What is the Variation due to Memory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84%
76%
19%
5%
Correct answer: (B)
273. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent
variable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
main effect
factorial effect
interaction
moderation
Correct answer: (C)
274. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
significance of sample statistics
difference between population means
normality
probability
Correct answer: (C)
275. What is the Sum of Squares of the interaction (AB)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.075
39.48
7.19
3.89
Correct answer: (D)
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276. How many replicates of the experiment were performed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 Replicate
2 Replicates
3 Replicates
4 Replicates
Correct answer: (C)
277. You conduct a hypothesis test and you observe values for the sample mean and sample
standard deviation when n = 25 that do not lead to the rejection of Ho (null hypothesis). You
calculate a p-value of 0.0667. What will happen to the p-value if you observe the same sample
mean and standard deviation for a sample n>25?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase
Decrease
Stay the same
May either increase or decrease
Correct answer: (B)
278. What does a beta of 0.478 mean?
A.
B.
C.
D.
That the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is not linear
That the regression is not significant
That the correlation is significant
This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
variable increases by 0.478 units
Correct answer: (D)
279. Which of the following points are not true when conducting a multiple regression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Multiple regression can be used to assess quadratic relationships
Data must be homogeneous for a multiple regression
Data must be normally distributed for multiple regression
Multiple regression can be used to assess linear relationships
Correct answer: (A)
280. Which of the following definitions is correct?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An activity, which results in an outcome, is called an event.
The probability of an event is expressed in decimal form ranging from -1 to +1.
The sample space refers to all possible outcomes of an experiment.
The probability that an event will occur is called the experiment.
Correct answer: (C)
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281. The discrete random variable X has the probability function (k is a constant): Answer
question 8 - 10 based on the information given above. The value of k is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 point
1/18
1/12
1/6
Correct answer: (B)
282. The value of E[X] is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
52/18
28/9
52/9
28/18
Correct answer: (C)
283. A larger standard deviation for a normal distribution with an unchanged mean indicates that
‘the distribution becomes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
narrower and more peaked
flatter and wider
more skewed to the right or left
a change in the standard deviation does not change the shape of the distribution
Correct answer: (B)
284. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely that the average
error deviation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is relatively large compared to the average treatment deviations.
Is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations.
Is about equal to the average treatment deviation.
Differ significantly between at least two of the populations.
Correct answer: (B)
285. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 0.9, the result is statistically significant
A.
B.
C.
D.
Always
Sometimes
Never
Illogical Question
Correct answer: (C)
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286. ______________ designs are research designs with more than one independent variable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Simple
Monotonic
Factorial
Multi
Correct answer: (C)
287. What statistical procedure is used to assess the statistical significance of the main effects
and the interaction(s) in a factorial design?
A.
B.
C.
D.
t-test
correlation
analysis of covariance
analysis of variance
Correct answer: (D)
288. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent
variable.
A.
B.
C.
D.
main effect
factorial effects
interaction
collaboration
Correct answer: (C)
289. Scatter diagrams show the relationship between:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Two variables
The dependent variable along the y axis
The dependent variable along the x axis
None of these
Correct answer: (A)
290. How would an interaction be indicated in a line graph? 2/5
A.
B.
C.
D.
as parallel lines
as intersecting lines
as overlapping lines
as diagonal lines
Correct answer: (B)
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291. What is the Effect of Cache (MIPS)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40
20
10
5
Correct answer: (C)
292. What is the Variation due to Interaction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84%
76%
19%
5%
Correct answer: (D)
293. Dr. AB is designing a 3 x 7 factorial experiment. Which of the following is true about AB's
study?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. AB has 21 subjects.
Dr. AB's study has 2 independent variables: one with 3 levels and one with 7 levels
Dr. AB's study has 21 independent variables.
Dr. AB's study has 3 independent variables: one with 3 levels, one with 7 levels, and one
with 21 levels.
Correct answer: (B)
294. How many levels were used for factor B?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 Level
2 Levels
3 Levels
4 Levels
Correct answer: (C)
295. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
variable increases b 0.478 units What degrees of freedom do you report in a multiple regression?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Residual degree of freedom
Error and residual degree of freedom
Regression and residual degrees of freedom
Adjusted R squared and regression degrees of freedom
Correct answer: (C).
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296. Our forecasted value of y is
A.
B.
C.
D.
7
9
25
impossible to determine
Correct answer: (B)
297. What do ANOVA calculate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Z-scores
F ratios
Chi square
T-scores
Correct answer: (B)
298. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be
compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical
value?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sample size, number of groups
Mean, sample standard deviation
Expected frequency, obtained frequency
MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
Correct answer: (A)
299. The mean square is the sum of squares divided by
A.
B.
C.
D.
the total number of observations
its corresponding degrees of freedom - 1
its corresponding degrees of freedom
none of these
Correct answer: (C)
300. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Total Quality Management
International Standard Organization
Total Productive Maintenance
Total Quality Control
Correct answer: (A)
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301. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Top level management
Middle level management
Frontline management
All of the above
Correct answer: (A)
302. Match The Following
A. TQM promotes
B. Kaizen is
C. Quality circle can solve problem
related to
D. Quality circle benefit to
1. Small change
2. Continuous improvement
3. Employee participation
4. Employee
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Correct answer: (A)
303. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. Deming believes
Ishikawa development
Type of variation is due to
Crosby’s objective of quality
1.
2.
3.
4.
Common causes
To prevent defect
Cause & effect diagram
Histogram
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Correct answer: (C)
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304. Service Assurance is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Confidence with customer
Customer has trust
Employee has knowledge
All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
305. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISO emphasis on
ISO
International organization for standard
Prevention
1.
2.
3.
4.
ISO - 9000 -2000
Qualified personnel
Employee participation
Employee
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Correct answer: (C)
306. Common elements of winners are
i.
ii.
iii.
Senior management was actively involved
Control of overall process
Focus on customer
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
i, ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
307. For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
63
2700
45500
Correct answer: (B)
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308. Continual improvement is in
i.
ii.
iii.
Environmental objective
Audit Result
Corrective action
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i & ii
i & iii
i, ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
309. The process mapping is a ______________ diagram.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Data flow
Work flow
Circular
Audit
Correct answer: (B)
310. By applying basic principle the process improvement will be in organizations
i.
ii.
iii.
Focus on work process
Maintain self esteem of other
Tone initiative
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
311. Diamond represents ______________ while plotting flow chart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Step in activity
Decision making
Direction of flow
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
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312. PP & PPK is calculated for
i.
ii.
iii.
Initial production run
Future production
Initial process setting
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i & ii
ii & iii
i & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (C)
313. According to Deming, Quality problems are
A.
B.
C.
D.
Due to management
Due to method
Due to machine
Due to material
Correct answer: (A)
314. Common features of CMM is how to produce software product which are
i.
ii.
iii.
Consistence
Repeatable
Predictable
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
ii only
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (D)
315. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer need
Organizational need
Supplier need
Worker need
Correct answer: (A)
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316. Match The Following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Bureaucratic
Leadership from top
Excellence mean
Team work mean
1.
2.
3.
4.
Satisfy all customer need
Working together for excellence
Provide consistent vision direction
Unlimited thinking
1.
2.
3.
4.
Productivity quality - cost -Delivery
Continual improvement management
Employee
Cut throat competition
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Correct answer: (B)
317. When cpk is less than one
A.
B.
C.
D.
Process is not capable
Process is stable
Process if highly capable
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
318. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality approach
Pillar of TQM
Need for TQM is due
TQM focuses on
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Correct answer: (A)
319. ISO emphasis on
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prevention
Inspection
Rejection
All of the above
Correct answer: (A)
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320. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dr. Deming believes
Ishikawa development
Type of variation is due to
Crosby’s objective of quality
1.
2.
3.
4.
Histogram
Common causes
Cause #38; effect diagram
To prevent defect
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Correct answer: (C)
321. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Circle symbol
Pareto analysis is
X bar means
LCT means
1.
2.
3.
4.
Data analysis told
Average of reading
Binging or end of operation
Lower control limit
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Correct answer: (B)
322. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Material quality
Customer need
Market demand
All of the above
Correct answer: (B)
323. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Customer satisfaction
Employee satisfaction
Skill enhancement
Environmental issues
Correct answer: (A)
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324. Control chart is
i.
ii.
iii.
Process monitoring tool
Process control tool
Process planning tool
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
i, ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
325. Employee should be involved in
i.
ii.
iii.
Decision making
Participation
Union
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i & ii
i & iii
i, ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
326. Does TQM approach have relevance to Indian industry in context to
i.
ii.
iii.
Customer satisfaction
People involvement
Policy management
The correct order is
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
327. The following is (are) the machine down time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Waste
No material
Breakdown
All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
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328. Special characteristic means
i.
ii.
iii.
Product characteristic which affect fit/ function / Regulation
Characteristic of product which are regulatory requirement
Characteristic in Specification
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
329. HRD at organizational level talks of
Organization’s manpower planning
Training
Performance appraisal
i.
ii.
iii.
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
I & ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (D)
330. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
How TQM helps in reducing cost
Calibration activity carried in company is
Quality planning is
Vender assessment is
1.
2.
3.
4.
By reducing external sale
Prevention cost
Appraisal cost
Appraisal cost
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Correct answer: (D)
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331. The main business process objective(s) are
i.
ii.
iii.
Customer service
Profit & loss
Employee satisfaction
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
i, ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
332. Benefit(s) of model based improvement is (are)
i.
ii.
Establish common language
Models are comprehensive
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
ii only
i & ii
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
333. Reliability of product means
i.
ii.
iii.
Consistency of performance
Performance over period
Free of technical errors
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i & iii
i & ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (D)
334. Which of the following is for Environment management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISO-9000
ISO-14000
ISO-26000
ISO-31000
Correct answer: (B)
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335. Rectangle represents ______________ While plotting flow chart.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Step in activity
Decision making
Direction of flow
None of the above
Correct answer: (A)
336. ISO - 14001 gives stress on
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plan - Do -check -Act
Environmental protection
Prevention rather than detection
All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
337. Match the following
A. MBQA is eligible for
B. Malcolm balding award seeks improvement
in
C. European quality award is for
D. Common elements of winners are
1.
2.
3.
4.
Quality & productivity
Manufacturing organization
Senior management was activity involved
Improving efficiency
The correct order is
a.
b.
c.
d.
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Correct answer: (A)
338. The customer requirement to be reviewed
i.
ii.
iii.
Before supply of product
After supply of product
Before commitment of supply of product
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i & ii
i & iii
ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
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339. Process evaluation is to identify
i.
ii.
iii.
Validation of product
Potential failure prevention
Correctness of product
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
ii & iii
None of the above
Correct answer: (C)
340. The competence of the employee means
i.
ii.
iii.
Competence of personnel performing work effective quality
Evaluate the effectiveness of action taken
Maintain appropriate Record
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & ii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (D)
341. Match the following
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dimension
Service characteristic
Customer satisfaction survey
Poor service is due to
1.
2.
3.
4.
To assess customer satisfaction
Inadequate resource
Vary from time to time
Physical facility
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Correct answer: (C)
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342. Cause & Effect diagram used to
i.
ii.
iii.
Identify & organize possible causes of problem
Identify possible causes of solution
Identify possible causes of problem & determining its relation
The correct order is
A.
B.
C.
D.
i only
i & iii
ii & iii
i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
343. CIP is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Continuous improvement process
A sustained, gradual change
Includes constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
a and b
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
344. Cost of quality includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
Training programs
Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirements
a and b
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
345. Cost of quality includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
Training programs
Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirements
a and b
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
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346. Control chart theory is based on the differences of the causes of variations in
quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following
are examples of assignable causes except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Differences among machines
Differences among workers
Differences among materials
Differences in each of these factors over time
None of the above (all are examples)
Correct answer: (E)
347. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and
specifications
B. The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are
manufacturing the product
C. Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality
is low
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct answer: (A)
348. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control
is:
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid
quality problems
B. The company's quality control manager who must work with the project
members to ensure the quality control program is effective
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control
responsibility for all the company's projects
D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project
E. The customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the
vendor
Correct answer: (D)
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349. Most quality problems
A. originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality
rests
B. originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework
C. are the result of management's lack of attention to potential quality
improvement ideas
D. could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closely
E. A and B
Correct answer: (C)
350. Quality assurance is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
top management's intention regarding quality
functions determining implementation of the quality policy
actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements
responsibilities and processes which implement quality management
all of the above
Correct answer: (C)
351. Quality planning is:
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining
how to satisfy them
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance
C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to
provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project
customer
E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury
Correct answer: (A)
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352. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk
reduced productivity and no change to cost effectiveness or cost risk
reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness and increased cost risk
Correct answer: (A)
353. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increased productivity, increased costeffectiveness, and decreased cost risk
reduced productivity and no change to costeffectiveness or cost risk
reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
increased productivity, decreased costeffectiveness and increased cost risk
Correct answer: (A)
354. Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation, can be
directly reduced by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
improving the overall system of production
increasing the number of quality inspectors
making use of run charts
making better use of Pareto charts
identifying patterns of variance using control charts
Correct answer: (E)
355. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________ costs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
manufacturing / building
advertising
overhead
post-completion support
A and D
Correct answer: (E)
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356. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________ costs.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
manufacturing / building
advertising
overhead
post-completion support
A and D
Correct answer: (E)
357. The primary components of quality management are quality ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
inspections, certifications, and validations
philosophy, assurance, and control
form, fit, and function
reliability, maintainability, and availability
insurance, assurance, and warranty
Correct answer: (B)
358. Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in a
product. The advantages of self-inspection include ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the process
early identification of errors prior to further integration
minimization of end product repairs and material waste
reduction in the number of end product inspections and tests
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
359. Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for
some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is that it
______________.
A. does not require an expenditure of resources
B. is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percent
C. does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory
inference of the population
D. needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end
product or when the customer has some rejects
E. is a good tool o gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects
Correct answer: (C)
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360. In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In relationship
to the others, quality should be ranked ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
first as the prime driver for a project
second behind cost but ahead of schedule
second behind schedule but ahead of cost
equal to cost and schedule
third behind cost and schedule
Correct answer: (D)
361. In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs
contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ______________ costs
determine whether an effective program is fully implemented.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
direct, indirect, and overhead
one-time, recurring, and variable
variable, fixed, and semi-fixed
prevention, appraisal, and failure
build, repair, and test
Correct answer: (D)
362. Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the
attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be
______________.
A. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the year
B. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deed
C. a non-monetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is
identified
D. a non-monetary award presented in private
E. a combination of monetary and non-monetary award presented in private
Correct answer: (C)
363. Quality control includes inspections to ensure the standards of performance are
being met. Inspection includes ______________ examinations of ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
visual and non-visual; processes and components
visual and aural; processes and materials
visual and technical; material and end products
aural and tactile; materials and end products
aural and tactile; processes and procedures
Correct answer: (C)
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364. Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a
quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is used to
______________.
A. collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the
output can be enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions
B. validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information
on equipment servicing intervals
C. provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and
actual measurements of a product
D. generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the
number on nonconforming products
E. ensure the products are within tolerances and to identify those products that
require reworking or crapping
Correct answer: (B)
365. The key to quality is to design and build to the requirements and avoid attempts to
inspect quality into the product. There is a need, however, to conduct inspections a
critical junctures in the assembly process to ensure defective items are identified prior to
making a costly interface or concealing a physical attribute that cannot be inspected at a
later time. Inspection plan will identify the points at which examinations of processes,
materials, or assemblies are required. However, inspection plans normally do not include
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
examining the vendor's quality procedures
examining surfaces
testing personnel skills
checking dimensions
witnessing destructive and nondestructive tests
Correct answer: (E)
366. Which of the following is not part of the Total Quality Approach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
holistic thinking
focus on short-term financial performance
focus on desirability
team thinking
Correct answer: (A)
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367. The majority of advertisers appeal the public on thebasis of which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality of product
Quality of staff
Inferiority of product
Inferiority of service
Correct answer: (A)
368. Learn how to tell when nothing can be gained from further discussion. This refers
to which of the following discussion skills in meetings?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Acting as gatekeepers
Closing the discussion
Asking for clarification
Testing for consensus
Correct answer: (B)
369. The job characteristic of quality professionals is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Educating others
Achieving personal targets
Consultative work with other departments
None of the above
Correct answer: (D)
370. ______________ is a graphic tool for defining the relationship between customer
desires and the firm/product capabilities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
House of Quality
Affinity diagram
Arrow diagram
None of the give option
Correct answer: (A)
371. Tools and techniques used during the Quality Planning process include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Benefit / cost analysis
Benchmarking
Quality audits
a and b
all of the above
Correct answer: (D)
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372. Quality is:
A. Zero defects found
B. Conformance to requirements
C. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its
ability to satisfy stated or implied needs
D. b and c
E. all the above
Correct answer: (D)
373. 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Edward Deming
Philip Crosby
Juran
Pareto
Correct answer: (D)
374. All of the following statements about control charts are true except:
A. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control
B. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are
stipulated by the product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits
dictated by the specification
C. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by
D. A and B
E. B and C
Correct answer: (E)
375. The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in
many ways. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC
circle participant?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Improving the performance of the company
Self-Improvement
Financial Incentives
Recognition among co-workers
Strengthening of relationships between co-workers
Correct answer: (A)
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376. Which are the best two charts to show trends in a process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pareto and Control
Control and Run
Histogram and Run
Gantt and Pert
Gantt and CPM
Correct answer: (B)
377. The process of determining that technical processes and procedures are being
performed in conformance with scope requirements and quality plans is called quality:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
management
assurance
process review
control
checks
Correct answer: (D)
378. You are sampling items from a batch and plotting the results on a control chart.
How will an increase in the number of items sample affect the value of the standard
deviation used to set the control limit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increase it
decrease it
no effect on it
first increase it, then decrease it
first decrease it, then increase it
Correct answer: (B)
379. From a high level perspective, quality:
A.
B.
C.
D.
is ensured by having inspectors
cannot be quantitatively measured
and productivity are inconsistent objectives
is primarily (85 - 95%) a management problem
Correct answer: (D)
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380. The project management teams for quality should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
extend beyond the completion of the project
stop at the point of delivery
be significantly reduced by a good warranty
be ignored by the project manager
A and C
Correct answer: (A)
381. From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involves:
A. conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality
requirements
B. identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must
comply with
C. monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified
D. A, B, and C
E. A and C
Correct answer: (E)
382. The quality management tool that can be described as "a diagram that rank and
displays defects in order of frequency of occurrence (from left to right)" is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
control chart
vertical bar chart
histograms
Pareto chart
run chart
Correct answer: (D)
383. The ISO 9000 series is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a set of instructions for preparing control charts
a set of guidelines for quality
a set of forms and procedures to ensure quality
an international standard that describes a recommended quality system
intended to be applied only to manufactured products
Correct answer: (D)
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384. Quality control is the technical processes that ______________ the project's progress
against the performance standards.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
inspect, certify, and verify
examine, analyze, and report
inspect, examine, and determine
identify, measure, and report
reveal, establish, and record
Correct answer: (B)
385. When data is plotted on the control charts, the data is of two types: R and -bar.
The R data represent points of a ______________ while the X-bar data represent points of a
(n) ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
random sample; cross-matrix sample
real sample; simulated sample
100 percent sampling; 10 percent sampling
sampling run; average of several runs
random sampling; continuous sampling
Correct answer: (D)
866. A quality program within a project should be based on ______________ of errors to
improve productivity along with quality levels.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
early detection
early correction
late detection
late correction
prevention
Correct answer: (E)
877. Trend charts reflect the relative status of a program. Trend charts are effective
means of ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
visibility reinforcing the growth of quality improvements to the workers
reflecting the precise status of quality failures
identifying to customers the failure rates of products
setting standards and goals for acceptable levels of quality
showing that all goals have been achieved
Correct answer: (A)
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388. As one of its goal the project organization has quality to specified performance
measures. When compared with the functional organization, the project organization
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
achieves higher levels of quality
is always tailored to meet the specific quality goals
is less disciplined in the implementation of quality
is more disciplined in the implementation of quality
none of the above
Correct answer: (C)
389. In a quality management information system, there is a need to collect data and
format such data into an information output that is useful to the project manager. In
developing such an information system, it is good to remember that an optimum
system does not supply all the information because ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
there is never enough information collected
the system is incapable of processing all the required information
some information costs more to collect than it is worth
some information is not available for collection and input
most information relies on related data to generate the proper output
Correct answer: (E)
390. Which of the following is typically viewed to lie between fully vertically integrated
firms?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Supply chain management
Production chain management
Value chain management
Demand chain management
Correct answer: (A)
391. What was the primary concern of managers during 1980s?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Detection
Strategic impact
Control
Coordination
Correct answer: (B)
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392. The use of CAD (computer-aided design) is emerging as a new technology with the
goal of reducing the time and money spent to produce and update design drawings. In
some cases, the CAD is being used to control other computers and machines to
manufacture basic components of equipment. Because the CAD software has the
capability to perform checks of the design and make changes to designs as they are
approved, there has been ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a significant reduction in engineering errors
less rework required because of design errors
improved updating of designs over the former manual methods
more timely posting of changes to designs
all of the above
Correct answer: (C)
A. of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of completion
within seven days following the test
B. notify the project manager, in writing, of the date and time for witnessing the test
C. retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following
completion of the project
D. have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are
qualified in destructive testing procedures
E. report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation
and validation of the procedures
Correct answer: (B)
393. All of the following are the elements of a TQM system EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leadership
Communications
Measurement
Detentions
Correct answer: (D)
394. The 'Father' of statistical quality control is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
F. W. Taylor
Joseph M. Juran
Philip Crosby
Walter Shewhart
Correct answer: (D)
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395. Crosby’s approach to management is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A problem that can never be solved
Absolutes of Quality Management
Interim Management
ISO
Correct answer: (B)
396. The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is
credited to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Edward Deming
Philip Crosby
Juran
Pareto
Correct answer: (A)
397. The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities
and under different conditions determines its:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Usability
Flexibility
Operability
Availability
Correct answer: (B)
398. All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true except:
A. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspections is high
and the resulting loss of passing non-conforming units is not great
B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are
required
C. Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting non-conforming
units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious
D. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots;
they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality
E. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of
custom-made products
Correct answer: (C)
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399. Quality management deals with all of the following topics except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Conformance to requirements / specifications
Satisfying the needs of the customer
Making products more desirable and luxurious
A and C
B and C
Correct answer: (C)
400. The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if
manufacturers would do the following:
A. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma
control charts
B. Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the
design stage
C. Create a quality control department
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct answer: (B)
401. In order to achieve long-term quality improvements, management must do the
following:
A. Motivate the employees with seminars, contests, and institution of programs such
as "Quality Improvement" day
B. Create a quality control department and give the head of the department
ultimate responsibility for quality improvement
C. Implement a formal quality control program with worker and management
involvement
D. Establish financial incentive packages for workers
E. A and D
Correct answer: (C)
402. The ______________ of a product or service mostly affects its reliability and
maintenance characteristics.
A. design
B. concept
C. fabrication
D. performance
E. cost
Correct answer: (A)
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403. The primary driver(s) behind the demand for continual qualify improvements is /
are:
A. an increase in the number of projects being worked
B. the government cost improvement reports that have created widespread public
interest in quality
C. the prevalence of media reports on quality circles and other quality improvement
techniques
D. the need to both reduce costs and ensure consistency in the performance of
products and services
E. B and D
Correct answer: (E)
404. Quality control is:
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining
how to satisfy them
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance
C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to
provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project
customer
E. assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury
Correct answer: (B)
405. Of the following statements, which one(s) is / are true?
A. Quality is the usual result when skilled designers and skilled implementers work
on the project
B. Quality is 10% skill and 90% luck
C. Quality can be achieved with the proper combination of personnel, materials,
methods, and time to do the work
D. None of the above
E. A and C
Correct answer: (E)
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406. Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management
practice called benchmarking?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The ISO term for progress measurement
Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects
A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment
The difference between grade and quality
The measurement of customer satisfaction
Correct answer: (B)
407. Zero Defects is an element of the quality management philosophy that is a
______________ for all workers to be achieved ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
slogan; whenever possible
slogan; most of the time
standard; at all times
standard; whenever possible
standard; during critical operations
Correct answer: (C)
408. Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects, regardless of the lack of
repetitive processes, because ______________.
A. projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual
specifications to conform to the requirements
B. purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the project
C. services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lots
D. it looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to quality
E. statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projects
Correct answer: (A)
409. Customers are the driving force in any project and determine the requirements to
be met. In dealing with customers' complaints, it is important to ______________.
A. avoid commitment to correction on an "out of warranty" item
B. talk to them until they see the reason the complaints are trivial
C. give them something more than they contracted to receive to suppress any
feelings of dissatisfaction
D. provide them with the full scope of the contracted product or service
E. realize that customers ask for too much and to change their perceptions about
the product or service requirements
Correct answer: (D)
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410. One of the advantages of team work is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It breaks down barriers between internal
customers and suppliers
It results in promotion
It results in salary increment
None of the given options
Correct answer: (A)
411. Crosby’s approach to management is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
A problem that can never be solved
Absolutes of Quality Management
Interim Management
ISO
Correct answer: (B)
412. A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results
were generated by each identified cause is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Statistical Histogram
Juran Histogram
Fishbone Diagram
Pareto Diagram
Correct answer: (B)
413. A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Run
Trend
Outliers
Cycle
Correct answer: (A)
414. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of
required steps has been performed is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Policy
Check list
Trend analysis
Pareto diagram
Correct answer: (B)
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415. Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following
management theories or programs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Zero Defects program
Theory X management
Theory Y management
Quality Control Circles
A and C
Correct answer: (B)
416. The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which
quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process
should be corrected. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophy
employed by this principle?
A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems
which have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected
B. The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable
problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for those few vital problems
C. In order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those
which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected
D. Generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via
cost benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of
improvement efforts
E. A and D
Correct answer: (B)
417. The pillars of quality is (are)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Quality is free
Doing it right the first time
Zero defects
Process improvement
B and C
Correct answer: (E)
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418. According to current quality management thinking, which of the following
approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increased inspection
continuous improvement
quality circles
statistical quality control
use of worker suggestion systems
Correct answer: (A)
419. Which is not a commonly used quality management tool?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fishbone diagram
CSSR report
Pareto chart
Control chart
None of the above (all are commonly used)
Correct answer: (E)
420. 100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable, When is
sampling for defects likely to be most useful?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
When destructive testing is required
When the cost of 100% inspection is high
When we believe there are not many defects
A, B, and C
A and B
Correct answer: (E)
421. From the project manager's perspective, quality management is ______________
limited to assessing the attributes of the tools provided to do the work.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
always
usually
not
seldom
intermittently
Correct answer: (C)
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422. Quality assurance is defined as the managerial process that determines
______________ that provide the customers with performance standards and feedback on
the performance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
time, scope, cost, and resources
human resources, dollars, materials, and duration
time, location, duration, and completion
organization, design, objectives, and resources
management, staff, workers, and contractors
Correct answer: (D)
423. Statistical Decision Making includes Pareto Analysis as a means of reducing errors
in the total project process. Pareto Analysis ______________.
A. is a method of rejecting errors or variances from standards following selfinspection
B. is a procedure for ranking the errors to identify those contributing the most to
failures [PMBOK p. B-2]
C. counts errors or failures to determine the added cost of all operations that do not
meet the requirements
D. compares the error rate with the pass rate to determine the allowable number of
errors per 1,000
E. compares the error rate of individuals to determine the compensation for
bonuses
Correct answer: (B)
424. When errors that affect quality are discovered, the procedure to improve the
situation should be to ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
identify the specific error
correct the specific error
determine the root causes of the error
correct the root cause of the error
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
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425. Which of the following models value stability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organism model
Mechanistic model
Cultural model
Total Quality model
Correct answer: (B)
426. Quality in a project's product is essential for the enhancement of the project
manager and the selling organization. To ensure that the customer perceives a quality
product, the project manager must inform the ustomer of the ______________ to be used
so the customer will not have a perception of ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
materials; inferior fabrication
standards; gold plating
practices; poor workmanship
pricing; gouging
warranty; poor service after product sale
Correct answer: (B)
427. In the quality area, process control is becoming an important element of the
manufacturing to rigorous specifications to provide a consistently uniform output. The
control of a process is divided into controlling temperatures, pressures, flows,
______________, and levels in terms of rates and time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
directions, elasticity’s
volumes, distances
speeds (velocities), volumes
distances, speeds (velocities)
lengths, widths
Correct answer: (D)
428. Reworking ______________ the cost of quality.
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Neutralizes
Correct answer: (B)
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429. The inspection of the project through the implementation phase is critical to
ensure that quality standards are being met. The use of vendors is most often required
to obtain critical materials, components, or sub-assemblies. To determine a vendor's
capabilities to produce to the specifications, a "shop survey" or audit of the vendor may
be required. e areas for the audit should include ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
facilities and shop space
experience and capability with similar work
quality assurance an control procedures
organization and quality of work in process
all of the above
Correct answer: (C)
430. Taguchi suggested that loss in a process is'increased with increase in which of the
following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Specifications
Standards
Competition
Variability
Correct answer: (D)
431. Some organizations emphasizes the use of quality tools but failed to do which of
the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Focus on what is truly important to the distributors
Incorporate continuous improvement efforts
Make fundamental changes in their processes and culture
Focus on what is truly important to the customer
Correct answer: (B)
432. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Deming’s philosophy?
A. It is based on improving products and services by reducing uncertainty and
variability in the design and manufacturing processes
B. Quality is either or not present in the whole organization; that quality is the
responsibility of everyone in the organization
C. Increasing conformance to specifications through elimination of defects,
supported extensively by statistical tools for analysis
D. Increasing loss, for the producer, the customer, and society, associated with
increasing variability from a target value
Correct answer: (B)
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433. Nonconformance is an expense of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit of quality
Defects of quality
Quality of product
Cost of quality
Correct answer: (D)
434. Best price or zero cost is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To keep defective products aside, ensuring they
do not reach the customers
Prerogative cost
To count, grade, and rework
Cost leadership
Correct answer: (C)
435. The concept that it is easier and less costly to do the work right the first time is
called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Zero defects
Continuous improvement
DTRTRTFT
The customer is the next person in the process
Correct answer: (C)
436. Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?
A. Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.
B. The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.
C. Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can
adequately determine conformance and nonconformance.
D. If the number of defects found in the sample exceeds the predetermined amount,
the entire lot is rejected.
E. All of the above are true
Correct answer: (E)
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437. Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the
following reasons except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The use of quality control circles
Small, continuous improvements in quality control
The use of worker suggestion systems
The use of quality control charts
Focusing quality control efforts on production output
Correct answer: (E)
438. Quality attributes
A. are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goals
B. can be objective or subjective in nature
C. are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and
tested
D. A and B
E. B and C
Correct answer: (E)
439. When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirements:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
quality is achieved
cost of quality is high
cost of quality is low
the customer pays the minimum price
A and B
Correct answer: (A)
440. The concept that states: "the optimal quality level is reached at the point where the
incremental revenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to secure
it" comes from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
quality control analysis
marginal analysis
standard quality analysis
conformance analysis
systems analysis
Correct answer: (B)
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441. An assignable variance tells us:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
our equipment is becoming obsolete
top management should initiate increased worker training
there is an identifiable problem that must be fixed
schedule variances will be reduced
our use of quality circles is inadequate
Correct answer: (C)
442. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most
likely to be achieved:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
by planning it into the project
by developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality
by developing prestigious products and processes
by striving to do the best job possible
by conducting quality circle activities
Correct answer: (A)
443. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective
project team supportive of quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Commitment to the project
Team member flexibility
Frequent turnover of personnel
Team interest in workmanship
Clearly defined goals
Correct answer: (C)
444. Quality management is defined as the process of ensuring that a project meets the
______________ of the project's clients, participants, and shareholders.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
specifications and statements of work
legal and financial obligations
expectations and desires
needs and expectations
legal and moral requirements
Correct answer: (D)
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445. Statistical Process Control is used in quality programs to determine whether
repetitive operations meet predictable standards. The process uses ______________ to
permit accurate monitoring of the operation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
100 percent inspection and random rejection
acceptance sampling and automatic rejection
continuous sampling and error detection methods
random sampling and corrective procedures
statistical sampling and control procedures
Correct answer: (E)
446. Quality control methods extend beyond the external characteristics of the product
or components of the product. The types of testing of the product or components
include ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
operator, maintainer, and environmental
stress, destructive, and operating
in-house, public, and private
laboratory, destructive, and non-destructive
laboratory, fabrication, and product
Correct answer: (C)
447. In the area of quality, project managers are struggling with the training and
indoctrination of individuals in the need to do the work right the first time to conform to
the requirement. Occasionally, the project manager will discover an individual, either in
the planning or actual work, doing more than is called for in the specification. These
individuals need training to reduce the level of "over building" because ______________.
A. the extra value given to the customer is not recognized or needed to complete
the project
B. the increase to the system specifications place that portion out of balance with
the other system components
C. it leads to increased customer requirements for other parts of the system
D. exceeding the specified requirement is asting time and money at no value added
to the project
E. the project must be reworked in other areas to increase the level of "goodness"
to the same as the "over build"
Correct answer: (D)
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448. The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as
formally expressed by top management is a:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Plan
Quality Statement
Quality Policy
TQM
Correct answer: (C)
449. Which of the following is not considered a cost of nonconformance to quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Scrap
Rework
Expediting
Process control
all of the above are considered nonconformance costs
Correct answer: (D)
450. The same quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from
three to six. The size of the control band will:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Increase
Decrease
Remain unchanged
Not determinable from given data
None of the above
Correct answer: (B)
451. An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the specification limits for
the product rather than limits which differentiate between random and assignable
causes. Under which if the following circumstance should a QC manager consider using
an acceptance control chart?
A. When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural
dispersion of the manufacturing process
B. When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too
costly and cumbersome to investigate
C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wear
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct answer: (E)
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452. Cost of quality is a concept that includes:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements
the life cycle cost of the project
al research and development costs related to the project
only the cost of the quality control function
A and B
Correct answer: (A)
453. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a
qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a project completed in the shortest possible time
a product or service that conforms to the requirement specification
an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project
an innovative project that establishes the qualifications of the project team
B and C
Correct answer: (B)
454. If the level of confidence directly increases as a result of new processes, different
resources, or changed methods, the required cost of monitoring is likely to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
increase as well
remain the same
decrease
decrease initially then increase slightly
increase then tend to level off
Correct answer: (C)
455. A project manager notices that all the measurements recorded on a control chart
lie within the control band range. However, most of the measurements are below the
midpoint (negative variance). Quality management practice offers us what guidance in
dealing with this situation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The project manager should apply the "rule of seven"
There is no problem as long as the variances lie within the control band
Negative variance indicates a problem which should be remedied
These variances are most likely caused by random factors
Increased worker ownership should be encouraged
Correct answer: (A)
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456. Just-in-time (JIT) is the concept of reducing inventories to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
25% of former stock
Less than half of former stock
75% of peak stock
zero stock
15% of the cost of the product for a planned stock
Correct answer: (D)
457. Unless evidence indicates otherwise, a process is assured to be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
in control
out of control
working at full capacity
working at less than full capacity
operating within required engineering tolerances
Correct answer: (A)
458. Statistical Process Control uses diagrams called "Control Charts." These charts
depict horizontal, parallel lines to represent ______________ standard deviations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
six
five
four
three
two
Correct answer: (D)
459. A quality audit is a powerful tool in any quality improvement program. For a
project that is starting a quality improvement program, the initial audit is used to
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
identify all the faculty work that has been completed
identify all the work that has been correctly accomplished
determine the single most urgent area for improvement
determine the quality baseline from which improvements will be made
evaluate the quality audit's effectiveness in identifying errors
Correct answer: (D)
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460. The 14-step process to quality improvement is a progressive to total involvement
of everyone in a company toward the production of quality products and services. The
14-steps do not include ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
management commitment
quality improvement team
quality measurement
goal achievement measures
supervisor training
Correct answer: (D)
461. Each project needs a quality program plan to define the parameters of the overall
approach to meeting quality requirements. As a minimum, the quality program plan
addresses ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the required processes and procedures
the inspection plan
the types of test to be conducted
The documentation requirements for actions (testing, inspections, etc.)
all of the above
Correct answer: (D)
462. Which of the following is not a benefit of long-term suppler relationships?
A.
B.
C.
D.
supplier involvement in design
information system linkages to customer facilities
capacity and facility plans favorable to their customers
all of the above are benefits
Correct answer: (D)
463. Which of the following models has the viewpoint that change and learning are
valued in themselves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Organism mode
Mechanistic model
Cultural model
Total Quality model
Correct answer: (C)
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464. The standards for output based on quality and customer- service requirements that
originate at the organizational and process levels include requirements for all of the
following EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Accuracy
Innovation
Timeliness
Turnover
Correct answer: (D)
465. Why the factory managers created inspection departments?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
To keep defective products aside, ensuring
they do not reach the customers
To ensure quantity of goods/services
To count, grade, and rework
All of the above
Correct answer: (A)
466. Nonconformance is an expense of
A.
B.
C.
D.
Profit of quality
Defects of quality
Quality of product
Cost of quality
Correct answer: (D)
467. The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality Assurance
Quality Control
Quality Planning
Quality Review
Correct answer: (B)
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468. What percentage of sales is estimated to be the cost of non-quality?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3-5%
12-20%
30-40%
6-8%
Correct answer: (B)
469. The zero defects concept
A. is a performance standard for management
B. is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time"
C. is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should
do things right the first time
D. A and C
E. B and C
Correct answer: (D)
470. Which of the following statements regarding quality is false?
A. Quality improvements depends upon better definition and increased awareness
of the requirements specifications
B. Future gains in quality will often rely on advanced technology
C. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet
quality objectives
D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only a the expense of
an increase in the cost of design
E. A and C
Correct answer: (B)
471. Quality is often influenced by all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fabrication processes and methods
supervision
inspection
cost of materials
design
Correct answer: (C)
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472. From the project perspective, quality attributes:
A. are used to determine how effectively the performing organization supports the
project
B. can be objective or subjective in nature
C. are specific characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and tested
D. B and C
E. A and B
Correct answer: (D)
473. Primary responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
project engineer
purchasing agent
quality manager
project manager
company president
Correct answer: (D)
474. The cost of quality has been argued as being primarily driven by the workers.
When items were produced that did not meet the customers' expectations, the workers
were "found" to be at fault. Current thinking is that management has at least
______________ percent of the responsibility for the cost of quality.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
85
75
65
55
50
Correct answer: (A)
475. The technical performance of the project is derived from the quality program
instituted by the project manager. Quality control is one part of the uality program that
______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
defines requirements and performance standards
measures results of operations
compares measured results to performance standards
initiates corrective actions for variances
all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
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476. Quality is one part of the three major parameters of a project. When the quality in
a project exceeds the specifications, that is called ______________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
excellence
superior quality
deviation plus quality
gold plating
silver plating
Correct answer: (C)
477. During which century, the manufacturers began to include quality processes in
quality practices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17th century
18th century
19th century
20th century
Correct answer: (D)
478. Which of the following was developed by Motorola to improve its processes by
minimizing defects?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ISO 9000
Six sigma
QS 9000
TQM
Correct answer: (B)
479. You can ask direct questions to quiet people'and try to control talkative people",
for which of the following purpose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mobilizing the group
Keeping the group focused
Restating purpose
Starting punctually
Correct answer: (A)
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480. Total quality costs include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prevention costs
Appraisal costs
Failure costs
All of the given options
Correct answer: (D)
481. Example of prevention costs is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Quality improvement projects
Downgrading
To link outcomes to uses
Warranty claims
Correct answer: (A)
482. The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Innovation
Continuous improvement
Just in time
Paradigm
Correct answer: (A)
483. The concept of zero inventory is called:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Six sigma
Continuous improvement
Just in Time
Zero defects
Correct answer: (C)
484. Quality is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
zero defects
a problem
a specification
a cost
A, C, and D
Correct answer: (C)
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485. On a project, quality should generally be of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
equal priority with cost and schedule
lower priority than cost and schedule
equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule
equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost
higher priority than cost and schedule
Correct answer: (A)
486. Some organizations today are using "six sigma", to set the upper and lower limits
on control charts rather than the traditional sigmas.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
two
three
four
five
twelve
Correct answer: (B)
487. Responsibility within the project for quality must be defined and promulgated to
everyone contributing to the end product. First and foremost, the ______________ has the
ultimate responsibility for conformance to requirements when provided with the tools,
skills, knowledge, and opportunities.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
corporate president
director of project management
quality assurance manager
project manager
individual
Correct answer: (E)
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