Questions for the exam.
Yellow marked correct answers.
1.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cell membrane rest potential changed from -85 to -90 mV. It can be caused by activation of the
following cell membrane channels:.
Potassium
Sodium
Potassium and sodium
Calcium
Potassium and calcium
A.
Inherited diseases, such as mucopolysaccharidoses, manifest in metabolic disorders of
connective tissue, bone and joint pathologies. The sign of this disease is the excessive urinary
excretion of the following substance:
Glycosaminoglycans
B.
C.
D.
E.
Amino acids
Lipids
Glucose
Urea
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A patient with pneumonia has body temperature of 39,2oC. What cells are the main producers
of endogenous pyrogen that had caused such temperature rise?
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Endotheliocytes
Fibroblasts
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cytochrome oxidase is a hemeprotein that is an end component of the mitochondrial
respiratory chain. What reaction is catalyzed with this enzyme?
Transfer of reduced equivalents to molecular oxygen
Cytochrome synthesis
Transfer of reduced equivalents to ubiquinone
Cytochrome splicing
Adenosine triphosphate synthesis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 2-year-old child presents with acute psychomotor retardation, vision and hearing
impairment, sharp enlargement of the liver and spleen. The child is diagnosed with hereditary
Niemann-Pick disease. What genetic defect is the cause of this disease?
Sphingomyelinase deficiency
Glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency
Amylo-1,6-glucosidase deficiency
Acid lipase deficiency
Xanthine oxidase deficiency
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Histological specimen of the ovary shows large hollow structures. Primary oocyte within these
structures is surrounded with transparent membrane and radiating crown and is situated in the
cumulus oophorus, the wall is made of follicular cell layer and theca. What ovarian structure
can be characterized by these morphological features?
Mature (tertiary) follicle
Primordial follicle
Primary follicle
Сorpus luteum
Corpus atreticum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A patient has decreased concentration of magnesium ions that are required for ribosomes
connection to granular endoplasmic reticulum. This condition is known to disturb the process of
protein biosynthesis. Disturbance occurs at the following stage:
Translation
Transcription
Replication
Amino acids activation
Processing
A.
B.
C.
In the life cycle of a cell during mitosis a natural change in the amount of genetic material
occurs. The DNA doubles at the following stage:
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
D.
E.
Anaphase
Telophase
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 3-year-old child has eaten some strawberries. Soon he developed a rash and itching. What
was found in the child’s leukogram?
Eosinophilia
Hypolymphemia
Neutrophilic leukocytosis
Monocytosis
Lymphocytosis
A.
Cells of healthy liver actively synthesize glycogen and proteins. What organelles are the most
developed in them?
Granular and agranular endoplasmic reticulum
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cell center
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Mitochondria
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 12-year-old patient has white nonpigmented spots on the skin. The spots appeared after the
patient became 10 years old, and they constantly grow. This spots appeared due to the lack of
the following skin cells:
Melanocytes
Adipocytes
Fibrocytes
Plasmocytes
Labrocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cells of a person working in the Fukushima Exclusion Zone have undergone a mutation in
DNA molecule. However, with time the damaged interval of DNA molecule has been restored
to its initial structure with a specific enzyme. In this case the following occurred:
Repair
Replication
Transcription
Reverse transcription
Translation
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A microslide contains the specimen of a gland composed of several secretory saccule-shaped
parts that open in the common excretory duct. What gland is it?
Simple branched alveolar gland
Compound branched alveolar gland
Simple unbranched alveolar gland
Compound unbranched alveolar gland
Simple branched tubular gland
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Human red blood cells contain no mitochondria. What is the main pathway for ATP production
in these cells?
Anaerobic glycolysis
Aerobic glycolysis
Oxidative phosphorylation
Creatine kinase reaction
Cyclase reaction
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
An infant has been diagnosed with microcephaly. Doctors suspect that this brain disorder
developed due to the fact that the mother had been taking actinomycin D during her
pregnancy. What germinal layers have been affected by this teratogen?
Ectoderm
Entoderm
Mesoderm
Entoderm and mesoderm
All germinal layers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Determining a patient’s blood group with monoclonal test-reagents revealed positive
agglutination reaction to anti-A and anti-B reagents, and negative reaction to anti-D. What
blood group does this patient have?
IV (АВ) Rh (-)
II (А) Rh (+)
III (В) Rh (-)
IV (АВ) Rh (+)
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
E.
I (0) Rh (+)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Students study the stages of gametogenesis. They analyze a cell with haploid number of
chromosomes, whith each chromosome consisting of two chromatids. The chromosomes are
located in the equatorial plane of the cell. Such situation is typical of the following stage of
meiosis:
Metaphase of the second division
Metaphase of the first division
Anaphase of the first division
Anaphase of the second division
Prophase of the first division
17.
18.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ionizing radiation or vitamin E deficiency affect the cell by increasing lysosome membrane
permeability.What are the possible consequences of this pathology?
Partial or complete cell destruction
Intensive protein synthesis
Restoration of cytoplasmic membrane
Intensive energy production
Formation of maturation spindle
Genetic information is stored in DNA but does not participate directly in protein synthesis within
DNA cells. What process ensures transfer of genetic information into polypeptide chain?
Translation
Formation of rRNA
Formation of tRNA
Formation of iRNA
Replication
A.
Amino acids join to each other in ribosomes of granular endoplasmic reticulum. Knowing the
sequence of amino acids and applying genetic code, it is possible to determine the sequence
of nucleotides in:
mRNA
B.
C.
D.
E.
Introns
Proteins
Carbohydrates
rRNA
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microscopy of an oval cell, 150 micron in size, revealed the following: cytoplasm has yolk
inclusions but no centrioles. Name this cell:
Oocyte
Myocyte
Leucocyte
Fibroblast
Macrophage
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cytochemical investigation revealed high content of hydrolytic enzymes in the cytoplasm. This
phenomenon indicates the activity of the following organelles:
Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Polysomes
Cell center
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Electron diffraction pattern of a spermatozoon clearly presents a sheathlike structure localized
in the spermiocalyptrotheca and participating in dissolution of ovular membranes. Name this
structure:
Acrosome
Centriole
Microtubules
Axoneme
Segmented columns
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
During investigation of skin epithelium it was determed, that it consists of several cellular
layers. Epithelial cells of the external layer have no nuclei. What type of epithelium is it?
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Multirow ciliary epithelium
Multirow columnar epithelium
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Along with normal hemoglobin types there can be pathological ones in the body of an adult.
Specify one of them:
HbS
HbF
HbA1
HbA2
HbO2
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In the skin biopsy material in the epidermis there are cells with processes and cytoplasm that
contains dark brown granules. Name these cells:
Melanocytes
Intraepidermal macrophages
Keratinocytes
Merkel’s cells
Lymphocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
At a certain stage of human ontogenesis, physiological bond occurs between circulatory
systems of the mother and the fetus. This function is being carried out by the following
provisory organ:
Placenta
Yolk sac
Amnion
Serous tunic
Allantois
26.
27.
28.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
A microslide presents a tissue with spherical cells, each of them containing a large fat drop
covered with thin cytoplasm layer in its center. Nucleus is compressed and situated at the cell
periphery. What tissue is it?
White adipose tissue
Brown adipose tissue
Mucous tissue
Pigmented tissue
Reticular tissue
Throughout a year a 37-year-old woman periodically got infectious diseases of bacterial origin,
their course was extremely lingering, remissions were short. Examination revealed low level of
major classes of immunoglobulins. The direct cause of this phenomenon may be the following
cell dysfunction:
Plasmocytes
Phagocytes
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
A.
A 32-year-old patient has purulent wound in the lower third of forearm. Smear of purulent
wound content has been made. What cells will be generally detected, if it is stained using
Romanovsky-Giemsa stain?
Neutrophil
B.
C.
D.
E.
Eosinophil
Lymphocyte
Erythrocyte
Basocyte
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Experimental studies revealed steroid hormones to have an effect on proteosynthesis. They
influence synthesis of the following substances:
A. B. C. D. E.
Specific messenger RNA
Adenosine triphosphate
Specific transfer RNA
Guanosine triphosphate
Specific ribosomal RNA
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
As a result of a development anomaly a newborn has malformation of major salivary glands.
This anomaly is caused by the damage of the following embryonal structure:
Ectoderm
Splanchnotom
Somites
Entoderm
Mesenchyme
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A patient with damaged muscles of the lower limbs has been delivered to a first-aid center.
What cells enable reparative regeneration of muscle fibers and restoration of muscle function?
Myosatellitocytes
Adipocytes
Fibroblasts
Endotheliocytes
Plasmocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A diet must include fats. Fats perform plastic function in an organism due to their inclusion in:
Cell membranes
Cell ion channel
Cell ion pumps
Cell end-organs
Glycocalyx
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Motor end plate is:
synapse between neuron and striated muscle fiber;
synapse between interneuron and motor neuron;
synapse between sensory neuron and interneuron;
synapse between two interneurons;
any synapse in the central nervous system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A blood test was performed for a patient with allergic rhinitis. Blood smear stained after
Romanowsky reveals large number of cells with the following structure: segmented nucleus
consists of 2-3 segments; cytoplasm is filled with bright-pink oxyphil granularity; granules are
large. Name these cells:
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Basocytes
Neutrophils
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A 36-year-old patient consulted an ophthalmologist about eye ache. The examination revealed
the erosion of the cornea, specifically, the lack of superficial and spinous layers of the
epithelium. What cells will provide regeneration of the damaged epithelium?
Cells of the stratum basale
Cells of the stratum corneum
Cells of the the stratum granulosum
Cells of the stratum lucidum
Cell of the stratum superficiale
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A connective tissue preparation stained with hematoxylin-eosin shows isogenous cell groups
surrounded with basophilic intercellular substance. No fibrous structure can be detected. What
type of connective tissue is it? A. B. C. D. E.
Hyaline cartilage tissue
Elastic cartilage tissue
Dense fibrous tissue
Loose fibrous tissue
Splenial bone tissue
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
A
B
C
D
E
40.
A
B
C
D
E
41.
One of the authors of the cell theory is:
M. Malpighi
R. Hooke
T. Schwann
R. Brown
N. Grew
The part of the optical system of the microscope is:
arm
objective lens
stage
fine adjustment
nose piece
One of the physical methods of fixation is:
A
B
C
D
E
42.
A
B
C
D
E
43.
A
B
C
D
E
44.
A
B
C
D
E
45.
A
B
C
D
E
46.
A
B
C
D
E
47.
A
B
C
D
E
48.
A
B
C
D
E
49.
A
B
C
D
E
50.
A
B
C
D
E
51.
Infiltration with acetone
Infiltration with formaldehyde
Infiltration with glutaraldehyde
freezing with liquid nitrogen
Infiltration with ethanol
Equipment for the preparation of paraffin sections:
scalpel
microscope
thermostat
automatic tissue processor
microtome
The sections are deparaffinized with
glutaraldehyde
xylene
formaldehyde
water
glycerol
Haematoxylin staining of the liver cells results in:
dark blue nuclei
dark blue cytoplasm
red nuclei
brown cytoplasm
brown nuclei
What is the colour of pigment cells of Rana’s skin?
dark blue
red
green
brown
orange
This part of the cell is NOT present in plant cells:
nucleus
glycocalyx
cell walls
mitochondrion
cytoskeleton
The microscope resolution (if λ=400nm) is about
1200nm
800nm
700nm
400nm
200nm
The Tindal’s effect is used in
polarized light microscopy
interference microscopy
differential interference contrast microscopy
dark field microscopy
ultraviolet microscopy
Ultraviolet illumination is used in
fluorescent microscopy
dark field microscopy
interference microscopy
phase-contrast microscopy
high-voltage electron microscopy
Numerical aperture equals to:
0,61 λ/A
λ/A
n × sina
sina /n
λ/2
Which of the following can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:
A
B
C
D
E
52.
A
B
C
D
E
53.
A
B
C
D
E
54.
A
B
C
D
E
55.
A
B
C
D
E
56.
A
B
C
D
E
57.
A
B
C
D
E
58.
A
B
C
D
E
59.
A
B
C
D
E
60.
A
B
C
D
E
61.
lysosome
mitochondrion
nucleus
ribosome
golgi apparatus
Which of the organelles has more than one membrane:
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum
centriole
peroxisome
mitochondrion
Human cells do NOT have:
vacuole
cell membrane
cytoplasm
ribosome
cytoskeleton
The part of the cell that is responsible for storing the majority of the cellular DNA is:
mitochondrion
nucleus
vacuole
cytoplasm
golgi apparatus
To improve the resolution of a microscope, one should:
use the light with longer waves
use the light with shorter waves
use more powerful eyepieces
use less powerful eyepieces
open the condenser diaphragm
Which of the following affects the total magnification of the microscope:
stage
arm
nosepiece
condenser
binocular head
All of the following is the part of the optical train, except:
light source
eyepiece
nosepiece
objective
condenser
The part of a microscope that is used to bring the specimen into a general focus, is called:
arm
stage
coarse adjustment
fine adjustment
aperture diaphragm
Which of the following substances can be used to dehydrate the specimen:
alcohol
formalin
benzene
paraffin
xylene
The initial step in preparation of a histological specimen is:
embedding
staining
fixation
dehydration
mounting
One of the fixatives is:
A
B
C
D
E
62.
A
B
C
D
E
63.
A
B
C
D
E
64.
A
B
C
D
E
65.
A
B
C
D
E
66.
A
B
C
D
E
67.
A
B
C
D
E
68.
A
B
C
D
E
69.
A
B
C
D
E
70.
A
B
water
formaldehyde
paraffin
xylene
glycerol
Histological samples that are prepared for electron microscopy are stained with:
haematoxylin
eosin
formalin
osmium tetroxide
sodium chloride
If only one substance passes through the membrane, then this type of transport is called:
uniport
symport
antiport
multiport
teleport
Which second messenger is needed to mediate the effect of steroid hormones?
cyclic AMP
cyclic GTP
nitrogen (ii) oxide
diacylglycerol
no second messenger is needed
Active transport:
doesn’t require membrane transport proteins
doesn’t require energy
substances only move down concentration gradient
substances can move against concentration gradient
carried out through receptors
A vesicle moves to the plasma membrane and releases its contents into the extracellular space.
Name this process.
exocytosis
clathrin-dependent endocytosis
pinocytosis
phagocytosis
clathrin-independent endocytosis
In how many layers are the lipids molecules organized in the cell membrane?
one
two
tree
four
five
If a protein spans the cell membrane completely, then it is called:
peripheral protein
integral protein
semi-integral protein
non-integral protein
non-peripheral protein
Membranous carbohydrates are attached to the plasma membrane:
on the one side of the membrane, facing the cytoplasm
on the one side of the membrane, facing the intercellular space
on the both sides of the membrane
between the layers of lipid bilayer
between hydrophobic tails of lipids
Which cell junction links the cytoskeletal intermediate filaments of two cells?
adherens junction
desmosome
C
D
E
71.
A
B
C
D
E
72.
A
B
C
D
E
73.
A
B
C
D
E
74.
A
B
C
D
E
75.
A
B
C
D
E
76.
A
B
C
D
E
77.
A
B
C
D
E
78.
A
B
C
D
E
79.
A
B
C
D
E
hemidesmosome
gap junction
tight junction
Which cell junction isolates one part of the intercellular space from another?
adherens junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
tight junction
Which cell junction is a communicating junction?
adherens junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
tight junction
Which protein is associated with the plasma membrane, but is not embedded within the lipid
bilayer?
peripheral protein
integral protein
semi-integral protein
non-integral protein
non-peripheral protein
Passive transport:
requires energy
doesn’t require energy
requires ATP
substances can move against concentration gradient
substances can move both against and along the concentration gradient
Concentration of which ion is bigger at the P-surface of a plasma membrane, comparing to the Esurface?
Na+
K+
ClCa2+
Mg2+
The simultaneous transport of two molecules in one direction by a single transport protein is
called:
symport
antiport
uniport
pumping
diffusion
Choose a communicative junction:
tight junction
plasmodesma
focal adhesion
hemidesmosome
desmosome
Which type of transmembrane transport requires ATP hydrolysis?
facilitated diffusion
transport through ion channels
transport with ionophores
pinocytosis
simple diffusion
Which of the following protein families does NOT mediate any type of cell junctions?
immunoglobulins
selectins
clathrins
integrins
cadherins
80.
A
B
C
D
E
81.
A
B
C
D
E
82.
A
B
C
D
E
83.
A
B
C
D
E
84
A
B
C
D
E
85.
A
B
C
D
E
86.
A
B
C
D
E
87.
A
B
C
D
E
88.
A
B
C
D
E
Which of the following molecules can NOT cross the plasma membrane with a simple diffusion?
oxygen
carbon (IV) oxide
nitrogen
water
glucose
Chose a cell-matrix (cell-substrate) type of junction:
hemidesmosome
adherens junction
plasmodesma
gap junction
desmosome
Which ion can act as a second messenger?
Na+
K+
ClCa2+
HCO3-
Which protein forms microfilaments?
actin
tubulin
desmin
keratin
vimentin
Which protein forms intermediate filaments in the cells of connective tissue?
glial fibrillary acidic protein
protein of neurofilaments
desmin
keratin
vimentin
Which nucleotide is needed for the assembly of microtubules?
ATP
TTP
GTP
CTP
UTP
Which structures can be formed with intermediate filaments?
cilia and flagella
microvilli and pseudopodia
cilia and pseudopodia
microvilli and flagella
none of the above
Which motor protein can move along microfilaments?
myosin
tropomyosin
kinesin
dynein
desmin
Which microtubule-associated protein packs microtubules into bundles?
protein MAP-2
gamma-tubulin
plectin
dynein
kinesin
89.
A
B
C
D
E
90.
A
B
C
D
E
91.
A
B
C
D
E
92.
A
B
C
D
E
93.
A
B
C
D
E
94.
A
B
C
D
E
95.
A
B
C
D
E
96.
A
B
C
D
E
97.
A
B
C
D
E
98.
A
B
C
Which actin-binding protein attaches microfilaments to the cell membrane or to intermediate
filaments?
fimbrin
filamin
sequestrin
spectrin
sphingosine
How many microtubules are present in a centriole?
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and two microtubules in the centre
nine doublets of peripheral microtubules and two microtubules in the centre
nine doublets of peripheral microtubules and no microtubules in the centre
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and no microtubules in the centre
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and three microtubules in the centre
Outer dynein arms in axonemes of flagella extend…
from A-microtubule to B-microtubule
from A-microtubule to C-microtubule
from B-microtubule to C-microtubule
from B-microtubule to A-microtubule
from C-microtubule to A-microtubule
Microfilaments can move in the cytoplasm due to the process called “treadmilling”. The molecular
basis of the treadmilling is:
molecules of actin are added at the minus-end and removed at the plus-end
molecules of actin are added at the plus-end and removed at the minus-end
molecules of actin are only added at the plus-end
molecules of actin are only removed at the minus-end
molecules of actin are added at the plus-end and molecules of actin are added at the minus-end.
Which protein forms microtubules?
actin
tubulin
desmin
keratin
vimentin
Which protein forms intermediate filaments in striated muscle cells?
glial fibrillary acidic protein
protein of neurofilaments
desmin
keratin
vimentin
Choose the function of intermediate filaments:
form mitotic spindle
form peripheral cytoskeleton
move chromosomes during cell division
mechanical support
move cell organelles
Which processes can be formed by microfilaments?
cilia and flagella
microvilli and pseudopodia
cilia and pseudopodia
microvilli and flagella
microvilli and cilia
Which motor protein can move along microtubules?
myosin
kinesin
сalmodulin
tropomyosin
troponin
Which microtubule-associated protein attaches microtubules to intermediate filaments?
protein MAP-2
gamma-tubulin
plectin
D
E
99.
A
B
C
D
E
100.
A
B
C
D
E
101.
A
B
C
D
E
102.
A
B
C
D
E
103.
A
B
C
D
E
104.
A
B
C
D
E
105.
A
B
C
D
E
106.
A
B
C
D
E
107.
A
B
C
D
E
dynein
kinesin
Which actin-binding protein packs microfilaments into bundles?
fimbrin
filamin
sequestrin
spectrin
sphingosine
How many microtubules are present in a cilium?
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and two microtubules in the centre
nine doublets of peripheral microtubules and two microtubules in the centre
nine doublets of peripheral microtubules and no microtubules in the centre
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and no microtubules in the centre
nine triplets of peripheral microtubules and three microtubules in the centre
Which motor protein is responsible for the constriction of muscles?
Musclin
Dynein
Myosin
Keratin
Kinesin
Which cytoskeletal protofilaments are made of globular proteins?
keratin protofilaments
laminin protofilaments
tubulin protofilaments
peripherin protofilaments
desmin protofilaments
Choose a trophic inclusion:
glucose
glycogen
glycolysis
sucrose
lipofuscin
The example of an excretory inclusion is:
yolk
lipid droplets
glycogen
hemoglobin
lipofuscin
Which structure is responsible for the destruction of proteins in the cytosol?
ribosome
nucleus
proteasome
chaperone
tRNA
Which inclusions cannot be stored in the animal and human cells?
glycogen
lipofuscin
melanin
lipid drops
starch
Which inclusion in plant cells is a carbohydrate?
glycogen
lipofuscin
melanin
lipid drops
starch
108.
A
B
C
D
E
109.
A
B
C
D
E
110.
A
B
C
D
E
111.
A
B
C
D
E
112.
A
B
C
D
E
113.
A
B
C
D
E
114.
A
B
C
D
E
115.
A
B
C
D
E
116.
A
B
C
D
E
117.
A
B
C
How many ATP molecules are formed during the glycolytic degradation of one glucose
molecule?
1
4
8
16
40
The process of obtaining a specific three-dimensional conformation by a newly synthesized
protein is called:
folding
proteolysis
chaperone
translation
transcription
Choose the aging pigment:
melanin
fat inclusion
lipofuscin
carotene
yolk
Which type of RNA carries the aminoacids to ribosome during protein synthesis?
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
iRNA
cRNA
What is the name of the first stage of protein synthesis?
indication
invitation
initiation
immigration
introduction
Chemically, the main part of the cytosol is:
fat
water
proteins
carbohydrates
ions
Which protein takes part in the proteolysis of other proteins?
ubiquitin
actin
tubulin
clathrin
connexin
Which process is NOT normally conducted in the cytosol of animal cells?
DNA replication
ATP synthesis
glycolysis
protein synthesis
protein post-translational modifications
Which of the following cytosol inclusions is a protein-lipid complex?
chlorophyll
yolk
tannin
hemoglobin
starch
Which inclusion in animal cells is a carbohydrate?
glycogen
lipofuscin
melanin
D
E
118.
A
B
C
D
E
119.
A
B
C
D
E
120.
A
B
C
D
E
121.
A
B
C
D
E
122.
A
B
C
D
E
123
A
B
C
D
E
124.
A
B
C
D
E
125.
A
B
C
D
E
126.
A
B
C
D
E
lipid drops
starch
Which of the following cytosol inclusions in plant cells is NOT a protective one?
saponins
phenolic glycosides
tannins
starch
cardiotonic glycosides
Which type of RNA is used as a template during protein synthesis?
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
iRNA
cRNA
The process of obtaining a specific three-dimensional conformation by a newly synthesized
protein is called:
folding
proteolysis
chaperone
translation
transcription
Choose a trophic inclusion in animal cells:
melanin
flavonoids
rhodopsin
yolk
starch
Which organelle synthesizes secretory proteins?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
On the electronogram we see cisternae whose membranes are connected to the outer nuclear
membrane. This organelle is:
mitochondrion
rER
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
Peptidyl disulfide isomerase can be detected in:
rER
outer mitochondrial membrane
matrix of mitochondrion
peroxisomes
lysosomes
The organelle which takes part in the synthesis of steroids is
ribosome
sER
peroxisome
lysosome
Golgi apparatus
The cell has a highly developed sER and peroxisomes. The function of this cell is:
detoxication
synthesis of mucus
synthesis of protein hormone
synthesis of steroid hormone
heat production
127.
A
B
C
D
E
128.
A
B
C
D
E
129.
A
B
C
D
E
130.
A
B
C
D
E
131.
A
B
C
D
E
132.
A
B
C
D
E
133.
A
B
C
D
E
134.
A
B
C
D
E
135.
A
B
C
D
E
136.
A
B
C
D
E
We have detected cytochrome P450 inside the single-membrane organelle. This is
ribosome
sER
peroxisome
lysosome
Golgi apparatus
What is a “dictyosome”?
immature lysosome
a vesicle that carriers newly synthesized proteins from the ER
a vesicle that carriers proteins from the Golgi apparatus
a stack of Golgi cisternae
mature lysosome
Primary lysosomes are formed by
peroxisomes
mitohondria
rER
sER
Golgi apparatus
Vesicles which go to cis-pole of Golgi apparatus are coated with:
COP-I
COP-II
COP-III
COP-IV
clathrin
Which organelle is responsible for the lysis of the old or damaged cellular structures?
mitochondria
ribosome
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
A vesicle that contains lytic enzymes only (no molecules to destroy) is called:
endosome
phagosome
primary lysosome
secondary lysosome
tertiary lysosome
The pH of single-membrane organelle is 5. This organelle is
mitochondrion
sER
rER
lysosome
peroxisome
Which organelle contains oxidative enzymes (oxidases and peroxidases)?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
In a single-membrane organelle D-amino acid oxidase is detected. This organelle is called:
sER
rER
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
Which of the following is NOT the part of the mitochondrion:
outer membrane
inner membrane
intermembrane space
matrix
stroma
137.
A
B
C
D
E
138.
A
B
C
D
E
139.
A
B
C
D
E
140.
A
B
C
D
E
141.
A
B
C
D
E
142.
A
B
C
D
E
143
A
B
C
D
E
144.
A
B
C
D
E
145.
A
B
C
D
E
146.
A
B
C
D
Which of the following is NOT the part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain:
ubiquinone
cytochrome C
cytochrome bc1-complex
NADH-dehydrogenase
cytochrome p450
The main function of mitochondria is
synthesis of ADP
synthesis of ATP
synthesis of carbohydrates
phagocytosis
glycolysis
ATP is synthesized in
peroxisomes
rER lumen
sER lumen
mitochondrial matrix
mitochondrial intermembrane space
Which organelle can accumulate Ca2+ ions?
peroxisome
lysosome
Golgi apparatus
mitochondrion
rER
The propagation of the Tay-Sachs disease is due to the accumulation of an undigested material
in:
mitochondria
lysosomes
sER
rER
Golgi apparatus
Which organelle synthesizes lysosomal enzymes?
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
The main function of the rough ER is
synthesis of proteins
synthesis of DNA
synthesis of ATP
synthesis of GTP
synthesis of RNA
Phosphatidylcholine is synthesized in:
sER
rER
Golgi apparatus
lysosomes
peroxisomes
On the electronogram we see cisternae in which scramblase is detected. This organelle is:
mitochondrion
sER
Golgi apparatus
lysosome
peroxisome
Smooth ER does NOT contain:
ribosomes
calreticulin
calsequestrin
dolichol
E
147.
A
B
C
D
E
148.
A
B
C
D
E
149.
A
B
C
D
E
150.
A
B
C
D
E
151.
A
B
C
D
E
152.
A
B
C
D
E
153.
A
B
C
D
E
154.
A
B
C
D
E
155.
A
B
C
D
E
156.
A
B
Са2+-channel
Secretory vesicles are made at:
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
rough endoplasmic reticulum
vesicle-tubular cluster
trans-Golgi network
lysosomes
Acid phosphatase is detected in a single-membrane organelle. This organelle is probably:
sER
rER
mitochondrion
lysosome
peroxisome
Vesicles which go to lysosomes are coated with:
COP-I
COP-II
COP-III
COP-IV
clathrin
The major part of lysosomal proteins is correctly sorted in the Golgi apparatus due to the
presence of:
mannose-1-phosphate marker
mannose-6-phosphate marker
glucose-6-phosphate marker
mixtrose-6-phosphate marker
various oligosaccharides
Cells can destroy their organelles through the process that is called:
autopsy
denaturation
degradation
lysis
autophagy
Which peroxisomal enzymes use the H2O2 to oxidize specific organic substrates?
peroxidases
oxidases
catalase
ATP-synthases
hydrolytic enzymes
Crystalloid core consists of
microtubules
microfilaments
intermediate filaments
spectrin
cilia
Which part of mitochondria contains Krebs cycle enzymes?
outer mitochondrial membrane
inner mitochondrial membrane
intermembrane space
matrix
stroma
Choose the correct direction of the H+-flow through the mitochondrial ATP-synthase during the
ATP synthesis:
cytosol → intermembrane space
intermembrane space → cytosol
intermembrane space → matrix
matrix → intermembrane space
cytosol → matrix
Which organelle has its own DNA?
peroxisome
lysosome
C
D
E
157.
A
B
C
D
E
158.
A
B
C
D
E
159.
A
B
C
D
E
160.
A
B
C
D
E
161.
A
B
C
D
E
162.
A
B
C
D
E
163.
A
B
C
D
E
164.
A
B
C
D
E
165.
A
B
C
Golgi apparatus
mitochondrion
smooth ER
Porin can be detected in:
inner mitochondrial membrane
outer mitochondrial membrane
matrix of mitochondrion
peroxisome
lysosome
The derivative of sER is:
secretory granule
ribosome
sarcoplasmic reticulum
peroxisome
lysosome
The disappearance of nuclei due to complete dissolution of DNA is called:
karyolysis
karyopyknosis
karyorrhexis
karyodestruction
karyodegeneration
A receptor that recognizes proteins which should be transporter into the nucleus through nuclear
pores is called:
nuclear localization signal (NLS)
importin
exportin
nuclear export sequence (NES)
this type of receptors does not exist
Which enzyme unwinds DNA during replication?
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
DNA ligase
primase
helicase
Constitutive heterochromatin is:
always highly condensed and inactive
inactive and highly condensed, but may transform into euchromatin
active and not highly condensed
inactive and not highly condensed
active and highly condensed
The second stage of RNA processing is:
polyadenylation
capping
trimming
splicing
elongation
How many nucleolus organizer regions (NORs) can be normally found in human leukocytes?
2
5
10
23
46
Barr body is present in the nuclei of:
all somatic cellscells of female organism
all somatic cells of male organism
all white blood cells
D
E
166.
A
B
C
D
E
167.
A
B
C
D
E
168.
all epithelial cells
all gametes
Every chromosome inside the nucleus is located at the specific region which is called:
chromosome scaffold
chromosome territory
chromosome subdomain
chromosome loop
chromosome area
Choose the correct structure of the nucleosome core:
2 molecules of histone H2A + 2 molecules of histone H1B + 2 molecules of histone H3 + 2
molecules of histone H4
1 molecule of histone H2A + 1 molecule of histone H2B + 1 molecule of histone H3 + 1 molecule
of histone H4
2 molecules of histone H2A + 2 molecules of histone H2B + 2 molecules of histone H3 + 2
molecules of histone H4
3 molecules of histone H2A + 3 molecules of histone H2B + 3 molecules of histone H3 + 3
molecules of histone H4
2 molecules of histone H1A + 2 molecules of histone H2B + 2 molecules of histone H3 + 2
molecules of histone H4
Which of the following stoichiometric relations is NOT observed in the DNA molecule?
A
B
C
D
E
169.
A
B
C
D
E
170.
A
B
C
D
E
171.
A
B
C
D
E
172.
A
B
C
D
E
173.
A
B
C
D
E
174.
A
The condensation of chromatin leading to shrinkage of the nuclei called:
karyolysis
karyopyknosis
karyorrhexis
karyodestruction
karyodegeneration
To be transported into the nucleus, a protein should have a specific signal sequence that is
called:
nuclear localization signal (NLS)
importin
exportin
nuclear export sequence (NES)
no signal need
Which enzyme replaces RNA primer with DNA sequence during replication?
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase III
DNA ligase
primase
helicase
Euchromatin is:
always highly condensed and inactive
inactive and highly condensed, but may transform into heterochromatin
active and not highly condensed
inactive and not highly condensed
active and highly condensed
The first stage of RNA processing is:
polyadenylation
capping
trimming
splicing
elongation
The main function of nucleolus is:
transfer RNA synthesis and initial ribosomal assembly
B
C
D
E
175.
A
B
C
D
E
176.
A
B
C
D
E
177.
A
messenger RNA synthesis and initial ribosomal assembly
ribosomal RNA synthesis and initial ribosomal assembly
ribosomal RNA synthesis only
initial ribosomal assembly only
Specific regions located at the ends of every human chromosome are called:
distal appendages
telomeres
satellites
centromeres
chromomeres
What is the “nuclear basket”?
scaffold of the nucleolus
nucleus with a barrel-like shape
part of the nuclear pore complex turned into cytoplasm
part of the nuclear pore complex turned into nucleus
part of the nuclear pore complex turned into lumen
The direction of synthesis of new DNA strand is:
and
B
only
C
only
D
only
E
only
178.
A
B
C
D
E
179.
A
B
C
D
E
180.
A
B
C
D
E
181.
A
B
C
D
E
182.
A
B
C
D
E
183.
A
At what stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the equatorial plate?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis do the chromosomes condense?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis do the chromosomes decondense?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis do the chromosomes diverge to the poles of the cell?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis does the nucleus envelope disintegrate into small membrane vesicles?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis do the nucleoli disappear?
prophase
B
C
D
E
184.
A
B
C
D
E
185.
A
B
C
D
E
186.
A
B
C
D
E
187.
A
B
C
D
E
188.
A
B
C
D
E
189.
A
B
C
D
E
190.
A
B
C
D
E
191.
A
B
C
D
E
192.
A
B
C
D
E
193.
A
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
At what stage of mitosis is the new nuclear envelope formed?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis
Which of these events occurs during prophase?
chromosomes move to the poles of the cell
condensation of chromosomes
decondensation of chromosomes
chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate
chromosomes line up at the poles of the cell
Which of these events occurs during metaphase?
chromosomes move to the poles of the cell
condensation of chromosomes
decondensation of chromosomes
chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate
chromosomes line up at the poles of the cell
Which of these events occurs during telophase?
chromosomes move to the poles of the cell
condensation of chromosomes
decondensation of chromosomes
chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate
chromosomes line up at the poles of the cell
Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
chromosomes move to the poles of the cell
condensation of chromosomes
decondensation of chromosomes
chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate
chromosomes line up at the poles of the cell
Which of these structures is present during the interphase?
mitotic spindle
nuclear envelope
nuclear reticulum
X-shaped chromosomes
V-shaped chromosomes
Which of these structures is present during the anaphase?
nucleolus
nuclear envelope
X-shaped chromosomes
V-shaped chromosomes
euchromatin
Which of these structures is present during the metaphase?
nucleolus
nuclear envelope
X-shaped chromosomes
V-shaped chromosomes
euchromatin
At which period of cell cycle does DNA duplicate?
G1-period
S-period
G2-period
G0-period
S0-period
At which period of cell cycle do cells pass the restriction point?
G1-period
B
C
D
E
194.
A
B
C
D
E
195.
A
B
C
D
E
196.
A
B
C
D
E
197.
A
B
C
D
E
198.
A
B
C
D
E
199.
A
B
C
D
E
200.
A
B
C
D
E
201.
A
B
C
D
E
202.
A
B
C
D
S-period
G2-period
G0-period
S0-period
The synaptonemal complex begins to form at:
pachytene
diakinesis
leptotene
diplotene
zygotene
The number of chromosomes in the human spermatozoon is:
12
23
46
69
92
According to the amount of yolk, human egg cells can be classified as:
alecithal
mesolecithal
isolecithal
telolecithal
polylecithal
In humans, oogenesis begins:
before birth
in the first ten days after birth
in the first year after birth
at the beginning of puberty
at the end of puberty
Which of these events is needed for the slow block to polyspermy?
depolarization of the sperm cell membrane
depolarization of the egg cell membrane
formation of the fertilization envelope
formation of zona pellucida
egg activation
The entry of the sperm cell’s head into the egg cell is the result of:
lysis of the egg cell’s plasma membrane
fusion of the egg and sperm plasma membranes
endocytosis of the sperm cell by the egg cell
polar body-mediated transport
follicular cells-mediated transport
The very first, unicellular, stage of the embryonal development is called:
blastomere
blastocyst
germ disk
zygote
implant
Cortical granules contain:
Na+
actin
pronucleus
lysosomal enzymes
ZP-III
Choose the pattern of cleavage that is typical for embryos of frogs:
holoblastic equal
holoblastic unequal
meroblastic discoidal
meroblastic superficial
E
203.
A
B
C
D
E
204.
A
B
C
D
E
205.
A
B
C
D
E
206.
A
B
C
D
E
207.
A
B
C
D
E
208.
A
B
C
D
E
209.
A
B
C
D
E
210.
A
B
C
D
E
211.
A
B
C
D
E
212.
A
B
C
holoblastic discoidal
Which type of blastula forms in frogs?
coeloblastula
amphiblastula
stereoblastula
morula
discoblastula
Cells that are formed as a result of the first mitotic division in an embryo are called:
zygotes
balstulas
blastomeres
cleavages
gonocytes
In humans, cleavage happens:
after the implantation and under the fertilization envelope
after the implantation and out of the fertilization envelope
before the implantation and under the fertilization envelope
before the implantation and out of the fertilization envelope
during the implantation and under the fertilization envelope
When a sheet of cells turns over the basal surface of an outer layer during gastrulation, this is
called:
invagination
involution
ingression
delamination
epiboly
Morula in humans transforms into:
coeloblastula
amphiblastula
stereoblastula
blastocyst
discoblastula
Which of the following can NOT be found during gastrulation of a frog:
yolk plug
dorsal lip of blastopore
ventral lip of blastopore
lateral lip of blastopore
central lip of blastopore
Primary cavity of embryos is called:
blastocoel
coelom
archenteron
gastrocoel
blastopore
Somites consist of:
sclerotome, dermatome, nephrotome
sclerotome, dermatome, gonotome
sclerotome, dermatome, splanchnotome
sclerotome, dermatome, myotome
sclerotome, dermatome, nephrogonotome
Which of the following germ layers do NOT take part in the formation of the digestive tract:
ectoderm and mesoderm
ectoderm only
mesoderm only
ectoderm and endoderm
all three germ layers participate in the formation of digestive tract
Which extraembryonic structure in humans consists of maternal and embryonal parts?
amnion
yolk sac
allantois
D
E
213.
A
B
C
D
E
214.
umbilical vesicle
placenta
Chorion consists of two layers:
Inner mesodermal, outer ectodermal
Inner ectodermal, outer mesodermal
Inner mesodermal, outer endodermal
Inner endodermal, outer mesodermal
Inner endodermal, outer ectodermal
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
The formation and development of tissues is called
Ontogenesis
Phylogenesis
Embryogenesis
Histogenesis
Organogenesis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate the characteristic feature of epithelial tissues:
Contains a dense capillary network.
Consists of highly specialized cells that can not regenerate
It has a large amount of extracellular matrix.
The cells are closely adjacent to each other, forming a layer.
The cells are lacquered and washed with tissue fluid.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Choose special structural modifications that can be found at the apical domain:
Surface ectoderm.
Neuroectoderm (neural crest).
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Neuroectoderm (neural tube)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The apical domain exhibits special structural surface modifications:
Microvilli
Stereocilia
Microvilli and cilia
Stereocilia and cilia
Microvilli, cilia and stereocilia.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The epithelium of vascular system (endothelium) is
Simple squamous epithelium.
Simple cuboidal epithelium.
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
215
216
217.
218.
219.
C.
D.
E.
Transitional epithelium is a specific type of
stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium lines a cornea of the eye, oral cavity and
esophagus
stratified epithelium, lining the lower urinary tract and has specific morphologic characteristics
that allow it to distend
stratified squamous keratinized epithelium forms the skin epidermis
stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Small ducts of exocrine glands is lined by
Stratified squamous epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
A.
B.
By the method of secretion from the cell of the gland is divided into:
Pigmentary, trophic, secretory
Simple and complex
A.
B.
220.
221
C.
D.
E.
Alveolar, tubular and tubular alveolar
Merocrine, apocrine and holocrine
Protein, mucous, mixed, sweat and greasy
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Type of secretion in which the complete destruction of the glandular cell occurs:
Merocrine
Holocrine
Alveolar
Apocrine
Mixed
222
223
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
224.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
225.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
226.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
228.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
230.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
231
A.
What is NOT true for unicellular glands:
The simplest in structure
The secretory component consists of single cells distributed among other nonsecretory cells.
A mucus-secreting cell positioned among other columnar cells.
The simplest arrangement of them is a cellular sheet in which each surface cell is a secretory
cell.
Located in the surface lining and glands of the intestines and in certain passages of the
respiratory tract
Choose a statement that describes the term "histogenesis":
The science about tissue
The combination of cellular forms of the one tissue
The microscopic structure of the organs and systems of the organism
The process of tissues formation and development
The process of hematopoiesis in the red bone marrow
Terminal bar is a histological term given to
the apical domain special structural surface modifications
the structural and functional asymmetry of epitheliocytes.
the unresolved group of junctional complexes that attach adjacent epithelial cells on their
lateral surfaces: the Zonula Occludens, Zonula Adherens, Macula Adherens and Macula
Communicans.
the basement membrane
the glandular epithelia
The source of development of epidermis and its derivatives is:
Surface ectoderm
Neuroectoderm (neural crest).
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Neuroectoderm (neural tube).
What epithelium is called simple?
In which not all cells lie on the basal membrane.
In which cells do not lie on the basal membrane
Non-keratinized.
In which all the cells lie on the basement membrane.
Keratinized
Respiratory spaces in lung is a typical location for
Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium consists of such layers:
Superficial layer and Basal layer
Superficial layer, Intermediate layer and Basal layer
Intermediate layer and Basal layer
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum and stratum
basale
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum and stratum basale
______________lines a cornea of the eye, oral cavity and esophagus.
Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Pseudostratified epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Typical location of simple branched tubular glands is:
Large intestine: intestinal glands of the colon
B.
C.
D.
E.
232.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
233.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
234.
What kind of connective tissue cells are able to store neutral fat (triglycerides) and produce a
variety of hormons?
A. Adipocytes
B. Myofibroblast
C. Plasma cells
D. Mast cells
E. Histiocytes
235.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The source of development of loose connective tissue is:
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Neuroectoderm (neural tube).
All of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is NOT the function of the white adipose tissue?
Metabolic energy storage
Insulation
Hormone production
Source of metabolic water
Heat production
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of hormone produced of adipose tissue is linked to obesity?
Glucagon
Resistin
Peptide YY
Ghrelin
Insulin
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is NOT skeletal connective tissue?
Hyaline Cartilage
Bone
Tendon
Fibrocartilage
All of the above are skeletal connective tissue
236.
237.
238.
239.
Skin: eccrine sweat gland.
Stomach: mucus-secreting glands of cardia
Uterus: endometrial glands
Urethra: paraurethral and periurethral glands
Type of secretion in which there is no destruction of the cellular membrane of glandulocyte:
Merocrine
Holocrine
Alveolar
Apocrine
Mixed
Type of secretion in which the destruction of the apical pole of the glandulocyte is observed
Merocrine
Holocrine
Alveolar
Apocrine
Mixed
Which type of collagen are widely distributed in dense irregular connective tissue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
I
II
IV
VI
IX
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of connective tissue contains parallel arranged collagen fibers?
Loose
Dense regular
Dense irregular
Areolar
All of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the function of endotendineum?
Store energy
Allows the organ to resist excessive stretching and distension
It contains the small blood vessels and nerves
A and B
None of above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which amino acids provide bonding of elastic fibers?
Cysteine
Isodesmosine
Proline
Leucine
B, C, D
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the reason of development of the Alport’s syndrome?
Mutations in the gene of collagen type I
Mutations in the gene of collagen type II
Mutations in the gene of collagen type III
Mutations in the gene of collagen type IV
None of above
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
What kind of tissue is the peritendineum?
Loose connective tissue
Dense regular connective tissue
Dense irregular connective tissue
Cartilage
Skeletal connective tissue
A.
What type of adipose tissue tends to increase its share as humans age?
Brown adipose tissue
B.
C.
D.
E.
White (unilocular) adipose tissue
Multilocular adipose tissue
All the above
None of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which one of these cells is not a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue?
Fibroblast
Macrophage
Mast cell
Microglia
Plasma cell
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What kind of connective tissue cell diveloped from the bone marrow and contain abundant
basophilic granules?
Fibroblast
Myofibroblast
Plasma cells
Mast cells
Histiocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The source of development of dense irregular connective tissue is:
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Neuroectoderm (neural tube).
All of the above
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the function of the reticular cells?
Heat production
Insulation
Source of metabolic water
Provide structural support
None of the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of hormone produced of adipose tissue is linked to type 2 diabetes?
Glucagon
Resistin
Peptide YY
Ghrelin
Insulin
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is NOT embryonic connective tissue?
Reticular
Mucous
Wharton’s jelly
Mesenchyme
All of the above are embryonic connective tissue
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of collagen are widely distributed in dense regular connective tissue?
I
II
IV
VI
IX
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of proper connective tissue contains randomly arranged collagen fibers?
Loose
Dense regular
Dense irregular
Skeletal
All of the above
250.
251.
252.
253.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.
A.
B.
C.
What is the most abundant part of cartilage?
Cells
Fibers
Graund substances
Intercellular water
All of the above consist in equal part
How many blood vessels in cartilage?
Absent
Solitary
Numerous
Plenty
All of the above
Which type of cartilage growth is formation of new cartilage within an existing cartilage (in
width)?
Appositional
Interstitial
Appositional and interstitial
Radial
None of above
What does the term “isogenous group” means in cartilage tissue?
It is bundle of fibers from collagen type I
It is group of cells that divided from one and lie in one lacuna
It is group of extracellular molecules that form hyaline cartilage
All the above
None of the above
What is compact bone?
Dense bone
Woven bone
Immature bone
D.
E.
259.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
260.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
263.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
Cancellous bone
Spongy bone
What are the mineral crystals in tooth enamel?
Hydroxyapatite
Calcite
Tourmaline
Rubellite
Indicolite
What is the covering of a bone?
Perimysium
Periosteum
Perichondrium
Perineurium
Endosteum
The noncollagenous proteins found in the bone matrix which is produced exclusively by
osteocytes in response to mechanical stress.
osteonectin
glycosaminoglycans
podoplanin (E11)
growth factors
cytokines
Which zone of epiphyseal cartilage exhibits no cellular proliferation or active matrix
production?
zone of reserve cartilage
zone of proliferation
zone of hypertrophy
zone of calcified cartilage
zone of resorption
Which cells are the precursor of osteoblasts?
mesenchymal cells
osteoprogenitor cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
Which type of cartilage does NOT exist?
Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrocartilage
Reticular
None of the above
Which type of tissue is perichondrium?
Loose
Dense irregular
Dense regular
Reticular
None of the above
Which type of cell is cartilage cells?
Adipocytes
Fibroblasts
Chondroblasts
Reticulocytes
Myofibroblasts
Which type of collagen molecules is specific for cartilage?
I
II
III
IV
VIII
What cell is involved in bone resorption?
A.
Osteoclast
B.
Osteon
C.
Osteocyte
D.
Osteoblast
E.
Osteoid
269.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
270.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
271.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
272.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
273.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
274.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
275.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
276.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
277.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
278.
What is the cylindrical structure in compact bone, also called a Haversian system?
Osteoclast
Osteon
Osteocyte
Osteoblast
Osteoid
What is the lining of the inner bone (the side which abuts the medullary cavity)?
Perimysium
Periosteum
Perichondrium
Perineurium
Endosteum
Which of the following describes the metaphysis?
an area where the epiphysis joins the diaphysis
it consists of two layers, essential for bone growth and repair
it is formed by lacunae and canaliculi
it lines the medullary cavity, contains osteoprogenitor cells
in adults, lipids are stored in it.
Which zone of epiphyseal cartilage contains the cartilage cells, that can divide and organize
into distinct columns?
zone of reserve cartilage
zone of proliferation
zone of hypertrophy
zone of calcified cartilage
zone of resorption
Which cells are the precursor of osteoprogenitor cells?
mesenchymal cells
osteoprogenitor cells
osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts
What is the most abundant component of blood?
Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Platelets
Plasma
Coagulation factors
What is the function of nonimmune globulins of blood plasma?
Maintaining the osmotic pressure within the vascular system
Transport of the hemoglobin
Transport of the iron
Transport of the copper
All of the above
Which blood cells are anucleated?
Leukocytes
Lymphocytes
Granulocytes
Erythrocytes
Agranulocytes
Which gas is very dangerous for human because it competes with oxygen for hem binding
with a much higher affinity
CO
CO2
N2
NH3
All of the above
What is the cause of polycythemia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A response to reduced availability of oxygen as at high altitudes
An insufficient number of red blood cells
Decreased hemoglobin content
Abnormal hemoglobin
All of the above
Which people have a blood type that potentially can be successfully transferred to anybody?
With blood type O(-)
With blood type A (-)
With blood type AB (-)
With blood type B (-)
With blood type A (+)
Which type of leukocytes does NOT contain segmented nucleus?
Basophil
Eosinophil
Monocyte
Neutrophil
Fibrocyte
Which type of neutrophilic granules is primary?
Azurophilic
Specific
Liposomes
Tertiary
None of the above
Which type of leukocytes first appears in zone of bacterial infections and phagocytes
bacteria?
Eosinophil
Basophil
Neutrophils
Adipocyte
Lymphocyte
What does the term chemotaxis mean?
Synthesis of antibody
Exocytosis
Slip out of the capillary (extravasation)
Phagocytosis
Migration toward zone of inflammation
Which component of granules of basophils causes dilation of small blood vessels?
Cationic protein
Meyloperoxidase
Major basic protein
Histamine
All the above
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which component of platelets contains platelet-derived growth factor?
Cytoplasm
α-Granules
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which is characteristic of precursor cells?
Able for self-renewal
Able for differentiation in all type of cells of blood
Have low sensitivity to growth factors
Have low mitotic activity
Have a high mitotic activity
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which cells of erythropoiesis have large EUCHROMATIC nucleus with 1-2 nucleolus and
MODERATE basophilic cytoplasm, cell size up to 20 µm?
Proerythroblast
Basophilic erythroblast
Polychromatophilic erythroblast
Orthochromatophilic erythroblast
Polychromatophilic erythrocytes
A.
What cytokine activates differentiation of hematopoietic cells towards monocytes?
Thrombopoietin
279.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
280.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
282.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Erythropoietin
Granulocyte-Macrophage Growth Factor
Lymphopoietin
Stem cell factor
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which cells of granulocytopoiesis contain segmented nucleus?
Neutrophils
Promyelocytes
Myelocytes
Myeloblast
Metamyelocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which type of bone marrow cells produces platelets?
Proerythroblast
Lymphoblast
Megakaryoblast
Myeloblast
Megakaryocytes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the approximate realtive amount of neutrophils (in %) in the blood of healthy persons?
1
10
50
90
100
289.
290.
291.
292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
295.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
296.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
297.
A.
B.
C.
Which type of cells of granulocytopoiesis contains round nucleus and only azurophilic
granules?
Proerythroblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocytes
Myeloblast
Metamyelocytes
What substance directly causes vascular smooth muscle cells to contract, thereby reducing
local blood flow at the site of injury?
prothrombin activator
fibrinogen
fibrin
serotonin
Ca2+
Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue?
Skeletal
Reticular
Cardiac
Smooth
None of the above
The whole muscle is surrounded by …
Endochondrium
Periosteum
Endomysium
Perimysium
Epimysium
Thin filaments are mainly composed of:
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Alpha-actinin
What does the term “sarcolemma” mean?
Subunit of the muscle fiber
Plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
Cytoplasm of the muscle fiber
D.
E.
298.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
299.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
300.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
301.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
302.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
303.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
304.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
305.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
306.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
308.
A.
B.
Muscle fiber
Endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fiber
The borders of the sarcomer are defined by…
M-line
I-band
A-band
Z-line
H-zone
Which of the following is true about fast fibers of skeletal muscle?
Contract very quickly
Contract very slowly
Have large diameter
Both A and C
Both B and C
What is different in cardiac muscle tissue in comparison to skeletal muscle tissue?
Nuclei are in the center of the fibers
Nuclei are at peripheral part of the fibers
Intercalated discs are absent
Both A and C
Both B and C
Which of the following is true for cardiac muscle fibers?
Small size
Numerous nuclei
T tubules are absent
Triads are present
Sarcomeres are absent
The fibers of smooth muscle tissue may be stimulated by…
Neurotransmitter
Hormone
Autorhythmic signal
All of the above
Only A and B
In smooth muscle cells contraction is initiated by Ca++ that comes mainly from…
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Interstitial fluid
Both A and C
Both B and C
Which of the following is NOT a type of striated muscle tissue?
Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth
None of the above
All of the above
Which structure is surrounded by endomysium?
Skeletal muscle
Muscle fascicle
Muscle fiber
All of the above
None of the above
Which protein does form thick filaments?
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Alpha-actinin
What does the term “sarcoplasmic reticulum” mean?
Subunit of the muscle fiber
Plasma membrane of the muscle fiber
Cytoplasm of the muscle fiber
Muscle fiber
Endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fiber
The center of the A-band is the…
M-line
I-band
C.
D.
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
310.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
312.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
316.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
317.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
318.
A.
B.
C.
Zone of overlapping
Z-line
H-zone
Which of the following is true about slow fibers of skeletal muscle?
Contract very quickly
Contract slowly
Have large diameter
Both A and C
Both B and C
What is different in skeletal muscle tissue in comparison to cardiac muscle tissue?
Nuclei are at peripheral part of the fibers
Intercalated discs are absent
Diads are present
Both A and B
Both A and C
Which of the following is NOT true for cardiac muscle fibers?
Small size
Single nucleus
Triads are absent
All of the above
None of the above
The smooth muscle tissue can be found in…
Walls of arteries
Walls of veins
Walls of hollow organs
All of the above
Only A and B
Which protein does bind Ca++ during the contraction in smooth muscle fiber?
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Calmodulin
Desmin
What is the functional unit of the nervous system
Glia
Differon
Osteon
Neuron
Nerve
Neuroglia is
Neurotransmitter
Supporting cells that help neurons to maintain their functions
Dendrites and axons
Process that conducts impulses
Terminations of axons
The part of neuron that contain nucleus and the majority of organelles is called
Stroma
Pericyte
Perikaryon
Sinus
Initial segment
The cytoskeleton of neuron is represented mainly with
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Transport globulins
Microtubules and intermediate filaments
Glia cells
ADP and ATP
What are the Nissl bodies?
Points of contact between membranes of glial cell
Cytoskeletal components
Spherocytes
D.
E.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
324.
Ribosomal complexes stained with basic dyes
None of the above
By the number of processes neurons can be classified as
A. Unipolar, bipolar, tripolar
B. Descendent, ascendant
C. Pseudounipolar, bipolar, multipolar
D. Cannot be classified be this feature
E. Apolar, polar, multipolar
Cytoskeletal components of neurons become especially visible after
A. Gymsa staining
B. Brilliant green staining
C. Hematoxylin and eosin staining
D. Silver-based staining
E. None of the above
Branched processes that conduct information to the perikaryon from their endings are
A. Axons
B. Dendritic spines
C. Dendrites
D. Axon hillocks
E. Mesaxons
Which of the following statements about axon is true?
A. Conducts impulses from the perikaryon
B. Every neuron has only one axon
C. There are also anaxonic neurons
D. Each axon begins at the axon hillock
E. All of the abovementioned
What is the trigger zone of neuron?
A. A part of neuron, where action potentials are faded
B. A part of neuron, where action potentials are formed
C. A myelin sheath around the neuron’s process
D. The ending of axon
E. The ending of dendrites
At rest, membrane is highly permeable to
A. H+ ions
B. Na+ ions
C. K+ ions
D. Cl- ions
E. OH- ions
325.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the ions constantly passively leaks from the cell
H+ ions
Na+ ions
Cl- ions
K+ ions
OH- ions
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Concentration of which ion is bigger inside the axon, comparing to the extracellular fluid?
Na+;
K+;
Cl-;
Mg2+;
Ca2+.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Resting membrane potential of neuron is close to
-70 mV
+70 mV
+140mV
-35 mV
+35 mV
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The concentration gradient is maintained by the activity of
Na+/ Cl--cotransporter
Ca2+/ K+-pump
Ca2+pump
Na+/ K+-pump
Passive diffusion of K+
326.
327.
328.
329.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following forms myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system?
Schwann cells
Myeloblast
Ganglion
Basket cells
Neuroglia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?
Receptors
Brachial plexus
Spinal cord
Ganglia
Nervus reccurens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Motor neurons are
Bipolar
Pseudounipolar
Unipolar
Multipolar
Both A and B
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The majority of neurons in human are
Unipolar
Pseudopolar
Bipolar
Multipolar
Doth A and B
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is the term for collection of cell bodies outside the CNS?
Ganglion
Perikaryon
Astrocyte
Nissl
Terminal bouton
330.
331.
332.
333.
1.
A
B.
C.
D.
E.
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.