Test Paper : II Test Subject : EARTH SCIENCE Test Subject Code : Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________ K-3216 Roll No. (Figures as per admission card) Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature : _________________________________ Name : _________________________________ Paper : II Subject : EARTH SCIENCE Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8 1. 2. 3. Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst Óܧ٨ Ü È Ü É ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ ®ÜíÃÜ®áÜ ° ÃæÀáÄ. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá ÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü IÊÜñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíw¨æ. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ±ÝÅÃíÜ »Ü¨È Ü É , ±ÜÅÍ° æ ±ÜâÔ¤P¿ æ á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÙÜ È Ü É ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤P¿ æ á®Üá° ñæÿ æ áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙXÜ ®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÆ Ü á PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ. Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. (i) ±ÜÅÍ°æ ±ÜâÔ¤PW æ æ ±ÜÅÊàæ ÍÝÊÜPÝÍÜ ±Üv¿ æ áÆá, D Öæã©Pæ ±Üâo¨Ü Aíb®Ü ÊæáàÈÃÜáÊÜ ±æà±Üà ÔàÆ®Üá° ÖÜÄÀáÄ. ÔrPÜRà ÔàÇ CÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ ñæÃæ¨Ü ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸàæ w. ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜááS±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ ÊÜáá©Åst ÊÜÞ×£Áãí©Wæ ñÝÙæ ®æãàwÄ. ±ÜâoWÜÙáÜ /±ÜÅÍW°æ ÙÜ áÜ PÝOæ¿Þ¨Ü, A¥ÜÊÝ ©Ì±ÜÅ£ A¥ÜÊÝ A®ÜáPÜÅÊÜáÊÝXÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ CñÜÃÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ¨Ü ¨æãàÐܱäÜ ÄñÜ ±ÜâÔ¤P¿ æ á®Üá° PÜãvÜÇæ 5 ¯ËáÐÜ¨Ü AÊÜ JÙÜW,æ ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÄÜ í¨Ü ÓÜÄ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ¨ÜÇÝÀáÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. B ÚPÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ¨ÜÇÝÀáÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ , ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÖæaáÜ c ÓÜÊáÜ ¿áÊÜ®ã Ü ° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍW°æ ã Ü (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ. ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸàæ PÜá. E¨ÝÖÜÃO Ü æ: A B C D (C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ. (ii) 4. Example : 5. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÃÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ , ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ II ÃÜÈÉ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ¯ÊÜá¾ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üá.ª OMR 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. B C D 5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circles in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet after the examination. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 12. Use of any calculator, Electronic gadgets or log table etc., is prohibited. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ AívÝPÜꣿáÆÉ¨æ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Ü᪠. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá°, ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWܨÜÈÉ Ãæ¨ÜÃæ, ¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖÜìñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝXÃÜᣤàÄ. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ ¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸàæ PÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR ®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜÖÜá¨Üá. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ ±ÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. PÝÂÆáRÇàæ oà , ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW pæàÇ CñÝ©¿á E±ÜÁãàWÜ樆 áÜ ° ¯ÐæàÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá PÜívÜáí¨ÜÈÉ , CíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá. K-3216 A where (C) is the correct response. 14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada translation of a question booklet the question in English version shall be taken as final. 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O. *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 EARTH SCIENCE Paper – II Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions. Each question carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory. 5. The average composition of the Earth corresponds to 1. Pallasite meteorite is a (A) Stony-iron meteorite with nickel, iron and olivine (B) Carbonaceous chondrite (C) Meteorite with sulphides and organic compounds 2. ___________ has the highest surface temperature. (B) Mercury (C) Pluto (D) Saturn (C) Siderite (D) Peridotite (A) Cenozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Palaezoic (D) Precambrian 7. A calcareous fossil is found to have 1 4 of its original 14C activity. (half life of 14C = 5, 730 years). Its age, therefore, is 3. Who proposed the principle of uniformitarianism ? (A) 5,730 years (B) 1,432.5 years (C) 11,460 years (D) 22,920 years (A) Alfred Wegener (B) Georgius Agricola 8. Reverse and thrust faults are common structures along ___________ plate margins. (C) Charles Darwin (D) James Hutton 4. Golitsyn’s layer corresponds to the (A) Upper part of SIMA (A) Divergent (B) Transform (C) Convergent (D) Transcurrent 9. Which of the following components of deformation indicates a change in shape ? (B) Lower part of the outer core (C) Lower part of the upper mantle (D) Boundary between the core and mantle Paper II (B) Chondrite 6. The ___________ represents the maximum time interval in the Earth’s history. (D) Meteorite with silicates, oxides, water and inorganic compounds (A) Jupiter (A) Harzburgite 2 (A) Translation (B) Distortion (C) Rotation (D) Dilation K-3216 *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 10. ___________ is the dominant rock type in the upper mantle. 14. The axial ratio for baryte a : b : c is (A) 1 : 1 : 1 (A) Basalt (B) Norite (B) 1 : 1 : 0 (C) Diorite (D) Peridotite (C) 1.629 : 1 : 1.312 (D) 1.218 : 1 : 1.729 11. When a rock layer bends in response to stress and does NOT recover its original shape when the stress is removed, its behavior is said to be 15. What is the position of the basal conglomerate in relation to unconformity ? (A) Plastic (B) Brittle (A) Above the unconformity (C) Elastic (D) Brittle and Elastic (B) Below the unconformity (C) Cutting across the unconformity 12. ___________ exhibits varying hardness. (A) Tremolite (B) Kyanite (C) Actinolite (D) Chlorite (D) Neither below nor above the unconformity 16. Mid-oceanic ridges are NOT characterized by 13. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below : a. Recumbent 1. Horizontal fold displacement of fractured ends of rock strata b. Reverse fault 2. Horizontal axial plane c. Chevron fold 3. Hanging wall has moved up d. Heave 4. Sharp crests and troughs Codes : (A) Shallow focus earthquakes (B) Deep focus earthquakes (C) Volcanic activity (D) Hydrothermal activity 17. Chemical weathering is governed by (A) Temperature and wind speed (B) Rainfall and wind speed (C) Temperature and rainfall (D) Temperature and wind direction 18. Alternating ridges and valleys in an area result because of a b c d (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 1 4 3 2 (C) 4 2 1 3 (C) Differences in elevation and lithology (D) 3 4 2 1 (D) Differences in age K-3216 (A) Differences in elevation (B) Differences in lithology 3 Paper II *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 19. Sedimentary rocks 23. Isostasy involves the Choose the WRONG answer from the options given below : (A) Core and mantle (A) Are compacted (C) Core and transition zone (B) Form because of deposition of sediments (D) Core and lower mantle (B) Crust and upper mantle (C) Are primary rocks 24. The strength of the Earth’s magnetic field is expressed in (D) Contain a matrix (A) Ampere meter/cm 20. Volcanoes do not occur along 2 (B) Milli Tesla (A) Island arcs (C) Ampere/meter (B) Mid-oceanic ridges (D) Volts/meter (C) The Pacific rim 25. Most deep-seated earthquakes are found at _________ plate boundaries. (D) Plate collision boundaries (A) Divergent 21. A point on the surface of the Earth directly above the focus of an earthquake and where the seismic waves arrived first is called (B) Transform (C) Divergent and transform (D) Convergent (A) Hypocenter (B) Epicenter 26. Which of the following is NOT a factor that causes global warming ? (C) Exocenter (D) Endoexocenter (A) Oceanic circulation (B) Fossil fuel combustion 22. ____________ is the likely driving force of plate motion. (C) Chloro-fluoro-carbons (D) Industrialization (A) Pressure difference due to the uneven land-ocean coverage 27. The part of the Earth’s atmosphere that lies above 80 km altitude with the highest concentration of ions and free electrons is called (B) Reversal of the Earth’s magnetic field (C) Convective motion set up by heat in the mantle (A) Mesosphere (B) Stratosphere (D) Gravitational effect of the cooler and denser material in and around the sinking slab Paper II (C) Ionosphere 4 (D) Biosphere K-3216 *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 32. Choose the WRONG statement given below about ocean upwelling. 28. __________ is NOT a green house gas. (A) Carbon dioxide (A) Upwelling takes place in the equatorial ocean (B) Methane (C) Water vapour (B) Upwelling takes place along western continental margins (D) Nitrogen (C) Upwelling takes place along eastern continental margins 29. What caused the dust and condensing material to accrete into planetesimals ? (D) Upwelling brings up nutrient-rich water (A) Gravitational attraction and collision (B) Heating of gases 33. Deep water circulation in the oceans is caused due to differences in the ___________ of sea water. (C) Nuclear fusion (D) Rotation of the proto-Sun (A) Temperature 30. What causes the formation of Aurora ? (B) Salinity (A) The interaction of solar wind, Earth’s magnetic field and the upper atmosphere (C) Density (D) Oxygen concentration (B) The interaction of the Earth’s magnetic field with the stratosphere 34. When vegetation captures rain water and prevents the latter from reaching the ground, it is called (C) The interaction of the Earth’s magnetic field with the solar wind (A) Transpiration (B) Absorption (D) The interaction of the Earth’s magnetic field with the mesosphere (C) Translocation (D) Interception 31. ___________ is the major constituent of the Earth’s atmosphere. 35. Marine sediments are composed of (A) Detrital minerals (A) Oxygen (B) Authigenic minerals (B) Nitrogen (C) Argon (C) Detrital, authigenic and biogenic materials (D) Carbon (D) Biogenic materials K-3216 5 Paper II *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 36. Hydrothermal solutions venting at the seafloor are rich in base metal elements. Such metal enrichment can be attributed to the 40. Match the following and select the correct answer using the code given below : (A) Hydrostatic pressure a. Cuddappah 1. BIF and Mn deposits b. Vindhyan 2. Coal c. Gondwana 3. Diamond d. Dharwar 4. Uranium (B) Low temperature of sea water (C) Low salinity of sea water (D) High salinity of sea water 37. Which of the following types of ocean waves generates tsunamis ? Codes : a b c d (B) Swell (A) 4 3 2 1 (C) Catastrophic wave (B) 1 2 3 4 (D) Internal wave (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 3 2 4 1 (A) Wind-generated wave 38. The uplift of the Himalayan mountain belt started during the 41. The Indo-Gangetic basin is a (A) Late Cretaceous-Eocene (A) Peripheral backland basin (B) Miocene-Pliocene (C) Pliocene-Pleistocene (B) Peripheral foreland basin (D) Early Cretaceous (C) Domal basin (D) Erosional basin 39. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the given mountain ranges from the youngest to the oldest ? 42. Choose the WRONG statement. (A) Deccan Traps are flood basalts (A) Himalaya, Deccan traps, Western Ghats, Vindhyan (B) Deccan Traps are 93 Ma old (B) Deccan traps, Western Ghats, Himalaya, Vindhyan (C) Deccan Traps are interspersed with intertrappean beds (C) Vindhyan, Deccan traps, Western Ghats, Himalaya (D) Deccan Traps occur at the Cretaceous-Paleogene boundary (D) Western Ghats, Himalaya, Deccan traps, Vindhyan Paper II 6 K-3216 *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 47. __________ does not promote the conservation of mineral resources. 43. Choose the WRONG statement with respect to the Himalaya. (A) It is a fold mountain (A) Use of high grade ore (B) It was produced because of the (B) Recycling of scrap metals collision of two continental (C) Substitution landmasses (D) Recycling and substitution (C) It represents a subduction zone 48. For safety reasons, a tunnel passing through dipping formations should be aligned ___________ the dip of the formations. (D) It is of volcanic origin 44. Guano is ____________ deposit of phosphate. (A) Along (A) A residual (B) Perpendicular to (B) An organic (C) Oblique to (C) An evaporite (D) With no relation to (D) A placer 49. Groundwater in Kolkata has an abnormal concentration of 45. Acid rain is caused due to the presence of __________ in the atmosphere. (A) Lead (A) CO2 (B) Zinc (B) O2 (C) Arsenic (C) CO (D) Mercury (D) SO2 50. __________ does not represent a source of contamination. 46. Solar energy is (A) Non-polluting and non-renewable (A) Sewage disposal (B) Polluting and non-renewable (B) Industrial effluent (C) Polluting and renewable (C) Radioactive waste (D) Hot water spring (D) Non-polluting and renewable _____________ K-3216 7 Paper II *3216* Total Number of Pages : 8 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work Paper II 8 K-3216 Test Paper : III Test Subject : EARTH SCIENCE Test Subject Code : Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________ K-3216 Roll No. (Figures as per admission card) Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature : _________________________________ Name : _________________________________ Paper : III Subject : EARTH SCIENCE Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 1. 2. 3. Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst Óܧ٨ Ü È Ü É ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ ®ÜíÃÜ®áÜ ° ÃæÀáÄ. 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B ÚPÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ¨ÜÇÝÀáÓÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ , ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÖæaáÜ c ÓÜÊáÜ ¿áÊÜ®ã Ü ° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . 4. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍW °æ ã Ü (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ. ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸàæ PÜá. E¨ÝÖÜÃO Ü æ: A B C D (C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ. 5. ±ÜÅÍW °æ ÚÜ Wæ EñܤÃWÜ ÙÜ ®Ü áÜ ° , ±Ü£ÅPæ III ±ÜâÔ¤PÁ æ ãÙÜWæ PæãqrÃáÜ ÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞñÜÅÊÜæà ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª. OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü AívÝPÜê£ ÖæãÃÜñÜá±ÜwÔ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Óܧ٨ Ü È Ü É WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃ,æ A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. (ii) 6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. 7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Ü᪠. 8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá° , ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWÜ¨È Ü É Ãæ¨ÃÜ ,æ ¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖì Ü ñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝXÃÜᣤàÄ. 9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ ¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸàæ PÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR ®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the question of Paper III are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Booklet. If you mark at any place other than in the circles in OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá. carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet after the examination. ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜÖÜá¨Üá. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ ±ÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. 12. Use of any calculator, Electronic gadgets or log table etc., 12. PÝÂÆáRÇàæ oà , ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW pæàÇ CñÝ©¿á is prohibited. E±ÜÁãàWÜ樆 áÜ ° ¯ÐæàÓÜÇÝX¨æ. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . 14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada 14. PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá translation of a question booklet the question in English PÜívÜáí¨ÜÈÉ , CíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá. K-3216 version shall be taken as final. 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O. *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 EARTH SCIENCE Paper – III Note : This paper contains seventy-five (75) objective type questions. Each question carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory. 4. Tsunami are generated in coastal areas 1. CO2 rich fluids are characteristics of due to (A) Sandstone (A) Large scale faulting in continental (B) Granites crust (C) Charnockites (B) Reverse faulting in shear zones (D) Quartzites (C) Block faulting in continents (D) Reverse faulting in ocean region 2. Petrogenesis of granites can be understood using the ternary diagram 5. Autocogens are (A) Qtz-Ab-An system (A) Fault bounded troughs (B) Ab-An-Diop system (B) Fault bounded domes (C) Diop-Oli-An system (C) Synclinal structures (D) Oli-Diop-An system (D) Anticlinal structures 6. Deposits of chromite, Cu-Ni-Sulfides, 3. Sub-ophitic texture in the intergrowth PGE are essentially hosted in between _________ rocks. (A) Olivine and pyroxene (A) Mafic-ultramafic (B) Diopside and plagioclase (B) Intermediate (C) Plagioclase and quartz (C) Felsic (D) Olivine and quartz Paper III (D) Metamorphic 2 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 7. Fluid inclusions that are randomly 10. Match the following distributed in 3-dimensions are 1. Cap rock (A) Primary 2. Reservoir rock b. Shale (B) Secondary 3. Structural trap c. Unconformity (C) Pseudo-secondary 4. Stratigraphic d. Sandstone a. Anticline trap (D) Homogeneous 1 2 3 4 8. For determining the optic sign in (A) b d a c minerals _________ is used. (B) a b c d (A) Interference figure (C) b c d a (B) Interference colours (D) c d b a (C) Universal stage 11. Jadeite is a gem variety of (D) Michael-Levy’s chart (A) Quartz (B) Feldspar 9. Crystallization of minerals from high temperature, resulting in expulsion of (C) Garnet certain phases due to cooling gives (D) Pyroxene raise to _________ texture. 12. Ruby is the gem variety of (A) Colloform (A) Kyanite (B) Cavity-filling (B) Beryl (C) Exsolution (C) Corundum (D) Replacement (D) Plagioclase K-3216 3 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 16. Match the following : 13. Rock/Ore pieces collected in a regular pattern is _________ sampling. 1. Steatite a. Abrasive (A) Grab 2. Mica b. Pigment 3. Garnet c. Insulator 4. Ochre d. Electrical (B) Chip (C) Planar Codes : (D) Mineralogical 14. Mineral exploration based on chemical analysis of plant organs is _________ method. 1 2 3 4 (A) c a b d (B) c d a b (C) b a c d (D) a b c d (A) Geobotanical 17. U-Pb method of isotopic dating is done in minerals like (B) Biogeochemical (A) Plagioclase (C) Geochemical (B) Hornblende (D) Organic (C) Zircon 15. Vitrain, durain, clarain and fusain are (D) Biotite _________ contents of coal. 18. Eutectic temperature of crystallization of Anorthite and diopside is (A) Microscopic (A) 750°C (B) Gaseous (B) 1435°C (C) Ash (C) 999°C (D) Macroscopic Paper III (D) 1270°C 4 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 23. In a dip-slip fault, the rake of net slip of an inclined fault is 19. High pressure polymorph of SiO2 is (A) α -Quartz (A) 80° (B) Crystabolite (B) 60° (C) Coesite (C) 25° (D) β -Quartz (D) 90° 20. Isothermal decompression P-T path in granulite indicate 24. What is the host rock copper deposit of Ingaldal area in Karnataka ? (A) Collisional tectonic event (A) Granite (B) Extensional tectonic event (B) Syenite (C) Both collisional and extensional tectonic event (C) Metabasalt (D) Plume tectonics (D) Phyllite 25. The largest deposits of Lead-Zinc-copper in India are located in 21. Low-P and Low-T in LIL elements is characteristics of (A) Chlorite schist (A) Dharwar craton (B) Granulites (B) Singhbhum craton (C) Gneiss (C) Bastar craton (D) Amphibolites (D) Aravalli craton 22. Stromatolites indicate early life in 26. Cuestas are characteristic of areas of (A) Proterozoic (A) Alluvial plains (B) Palaeozoic (B) Steep near vertical beds (C) Mesozoic (C) Rocks with gentle/moderate dips (D) Cenozoic K-3216 (D) Horizontal beds 5 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 27. Late Maastrichtian fresh water 30. Ozone not only act as a green house sediments in India is represented by gas to outgoing _________ radiation, _________ beds. but also intercepts and absorbs _________ radiation. (A) Bagh (A) Short wave, thermal (B) Zewan (B) Long wave, solar ultra-violet (C) Lameta (C) Microwave, near infrared (D) Niniyur (D) Microwave, far infrared 28. Invariant point in phase diagram indicate when 31. Khondalite has the following mineralogy (A) F = 0 (A) Qtz + plag + bio+ ilm (B) F = 1 (B) Plag + Hbl + bio + mag (C) F = 3 (C) Diop + Hbl + plag + ilm (D) F = 2 (D) Qtz + plag + sill + bio + ilm 29. Velocity of the water column is 32. The major and minor principal stresses reduced with depth and leads to are σ1 and σ3 respectively acting with _________ spiral and the net in a body. A plane is inclined at an angle movement of water is 90° to the wind θ to the direction of the minor principal direction is called _________ ⎡ σ1 − σ 3 ⎤ ⎥ sin θ is the ⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥ transport. stress σ . Then ⎢ (A) Sverdrup, Ekman (A) Normal stress (B) Stommel, Munk (B) Shear stress (C) Munk, Stommel (C) Tensile stress (D) Ekman, Ekman Paper III (D) Compressive stress 6 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 33. The term KD refers to 37. Arrange the following suture patterns in an ascending order of evolution. (A) Distribution of elements within a mineral (1) Ammonite (B) Site occupancy of elements in minerals (2) Goniatite (C) Structural disorder in minerals (3) Ceratite (D) Partitioning of elements between two co-existing minerals (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1 34. Mineral pigeonite belongs to (C) 2, 1, 3 (A) Amphibole group (D) 3, 1, 2 (B) Mica group 38. The term polymorphism is used for (C) Pyroxene group (A) Minerals having different (D) Epidote group composition and crystal structure 35. Baryte deposits occur in (B) Metamict minerals (A) Gulcheru quartzites (C) Minerals having different densities and composition (B) Vempalle limestones (C) Tadpatri shales (D) Minerals with same composition but different crystal structure (D) Kolamnala shales 39. _________ structure is formed in a tidal 36. The disecting plane of OAA in optically positive minerals is environment. (A) α (A) Stylolites (B) β (B) Herringbone (C) γ (C) Graded bedding (D) α and γ (D) Ripple marks K-3216 7 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 40. Identify the youngest stratigraphic unit from the following : 44. Choose the microfossil group which occurs in deep-sea below CCD. (A) Iron ore group (A) Foraminifera (B) Cuddaph Super group (B) Cocoliths (C) Talchir Formation (C) Ostrocoda (D) Subathu Formation (D) Radiolarians 41. Curved portions of the roof intersecting the top of the tunnel wall referred as 45. Tributaries join the main stream pointing upstream expressed by _________ drainage pattern. (A) Toe (A) Rectangular (B) Pay-line (B) Barbed (C) Spring-line (C) Trellis (D) Spill way (D) Dendritic 42. K-Ar method of dating rocks is used for 46. Choose the largest felsic volcanic province of India. (A) Granites (A) Rajmahal traps (B) Basalts (B) Sylthet traps (C) Peridotites (C) Deccan traps (D) Komatites (D) Panjal traps 43. Which of the following is non-clastic ? 47. Identify the correct genetic sequence of Karst landforms. (A) Siltstone (A) Doline → Polje → Uvala (B) Shale (B) Doline → Uvala → Polje (C) Limestone (C) Polje → Doline → Uvala (D) Sandstone (D) Uvala → Doline → Polje Paper III 8 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 52. Water mass mixing is critical for ecosystem productivity as it bring _________ to the surface and _________ to deeper waters. 48. The circum-pacific belt is also known as (A) Ring of corals (B) Ring of canyons (A) Sediments, CO2 (C) Ring of Trenches (B) Oxygen, nitrogen (D) Ring of Fire (C) Nutrients, oxygen (D) CO2, SO2 49. Fragmentation of Gondwana took place during 53. Pixel stands for (A) Cenozoic (A) Picture Element (B) Archean (B) Photo Element (C) Mesozoic (C) Picture Elevation (D) Precambrian (D) Photo Enhancement 50. The horizontal distribution of mean sea level pressure is shown by means of 54. In aerial photography, yellow, magenta and Cyan are referred to as complementary colours, because when paired, they produce _________ light. (A) Isohyet (B) Isobar (C) Isotherm (A) Yellow (D) Isocline (B) Blue (C) White 51. Seawater intrusion into the freshwater aquifer can controlled by (D) Magenta (A) Cultivation of Paddy, in the low lying coastal areas 55. _________ act as scavenging agents. (B) Limiting the extraction of ground water (A) Waves (C) Recharging through the wells along the coast (C) Currents (B) Tides (D) Tsunamis (D) Intense pumping along the coast K-3216 9 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 60. Match the following : 56. High grade manganese nodules are mainly concentrated between _________ in the central Indian basin. a. Sea wall 1. Protection of beach with sediment b. Break water 2. Coastal protection structure parallel to beach c. Groin 3. Coastal engineering structure perpendicular to beach d. Beach nourishment 4. Navigation channel (A) 10° N and 20° N (B) Equator and 16°N (C) Equator and 16°S (D) 10° S and 16°S 57. An electromagnetic wave is composed of both electric and magnetic vectors that are (A) Orthogonal to each other (B) Parallel to each other (C) Oblique to each other (D) Circular in shape a b c (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 3 2 1 4 (A) Ecological efficiency (C) 1 2 3 4 (B) Oligotrophication (D) 2 4 3 1 58. Which term represents the following phrase : A reduced nutrient availability which leads to low productivity ? d (C) Primary production 61. The two properties of an aquifer material related to its storage function are (D) Eutrophication 59. The “Black smokers” contain _________ and _________ (A) Porosity and specific yield (A) Barium, calcium (B) Permeability and specific yield (B) Silicon, magnesium (C) Porosity and permeability (C) Iron, sulphur (D) Porosity and rock type (D) Boron, crypton Paper III 10 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 62. The presence of melange is characteristic feature of 64. Sediments that have absolutely no oxygen are said to be (A) Layered complex (B) Metamorphic aureole (A) Anoxic (C) Skarn rocks (B) Hypoxia (D) Ophiolite (C) Shadow zone 63. Match the following : 1. Angular unconformity a. Irregular, eroded surface between parallel rock strata 2. Disconformity (D) Oxic 65. The folds that develop in an incompetent bed lying between the b. The lower order strata dip at a different angle to the younger upper strata two competent beds are called (A) Flexural folds (B) Parasitic folds 3. Non-conformity c. The strata either side of the unconformity dip in the same direction and by the same amount 4. Parallel unconformity Answers : 1 2 (A) c d (B) b a (C) d c (D) b d K-3216 3 a d a a (C) Similar folds (D) Drag folds 66. In a drainage basin, the ratio of the d. A sequence of strata overlies an eroded surface of igneous or metamorphic rock number of each order of streams to the number of the next higher order is known as the _________ ratio. (A) Bifurcation (B) Density 4 b c b c (C) Antecedent (D) Subsequent 11 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 67. The plunge of a fold is defined as 70. Match the following and select the correct option from the code given (A) Intersection of the axial surface with any bed below : (B) Angle between an axis and its horizontal projection a. Chemical 1. Ionosphere composition (C) The plane dividing the fold into two halves b. Thermal (D) Dip of the inverted limb of a fold 2. Chemosphere structure 68. The mid-oceanic ridges are formed and evolve as a result of spreading Earth’s lithosphere at the _________ boundaries between tectonic plates and cover a total distance of _________ km. c. Ionic structure 3. Homosphere d. Chemical 4. Stratosphere structure Codes : (A) Convergent; ~ 45,000 a b c (C) Marginal; ~ 45,000 (A) 2 4 1 3 (D) Centre of; ~ 50,000 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 3 1 2 (B) Divergent; ~ 65,000 69. Choose the typical sandy beach structures (a) Swash marks (b) Rill marks d 71. The water flows downward due to (c) Flute marks gravity but rises near _________ due (d) Browsing traces to its tendency to flow _________ to water level. Answers : (A) a, b and d (A) Valley; perpendicular (B) b, c and d (B) Radial; the centre (C) a, c and d (C) Valley; Parallel (D) b and d Paper III (D) Inclined; the plane 12 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 72. Which of the following elements of image are used in image interpretation ? 74. Match the following in Group I with those of Group II : Group I Group II (B) Texture and pattern a. Arthopoda i. Sponges (C) Shape and size b. Porifera ii. Gangampteris (D) All of the above c. Mollusca iii. Paradoxides d. Plant fossil iv. Conus (A) Tone and colour 73. Match the following and select the correct option from the codes given below : Electromagnetic Spectral Region a Wavelength b c d (A) iii, i, iv, ii 1. Ultraviolet a. 0.7 to 3.0 μ m (B) ii, iv, iii, i 2. Visible b. 0.3 to 0.4 μ m (C) iv, ii, i, iii 3. Infrared c. 3 to 5 μ m (D) i, iii, iv 4. Thermal infrared d. 0.4 to 0.7 μ m ii, 75. If the axis of a fold is undulatory, the high points on an axis are called Codes : 1 2 3 4 (A) a c b d (B) d b a c (C) c a d b (D) b d a c (A) Culminations (B) Depressions (C) Boudins (D) Mullions ____________ K-3216 13 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work Paper III 14 K-3216 *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work K-3216 15 Paper III *K3216* Total Number of Pages : 16 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work Paper III 16 K-3216 KSET - 2016 Subject: EARTH SCIENCE Code: 32 KEY - Paper - II Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ans A B D C B D C C B D A B A C A B C B C D Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Ans B C B B D A C D A C B C C D C D C A A A Q.No 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Ans B B D B D D A B C D KSET - 2016 Subject: EARTH SCIENCE Code: 32 KEY - Paper - III Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 Ans C A B D A A A A C A D C B B D B C D C B B A D C D Q.No 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Ans C C A D B D B D C B C B D B D C A C D B C B D C B Q.No 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 Ans B C A C B D A B C D C D B A D A B B A C C D D A A