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Earth Sceiences

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Test Paper
: II
Test Subject
: EARTH SCIENCE
Test Subject Code :
Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________
OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________
K-3216
Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature : _________________________________
Name
: _________________________________
Paper
: II
Subject : EARTH SCIENCE
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8
1.
2.
3.
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to
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Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
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5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet kept inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circles in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
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liable to disqualification.
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at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT
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K-3216
A
where (C) is the correct response.
14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada
translation of a question booklet the question in English
version shall be taken as final.
1
±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
EARTH SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note :
This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions. Each question carries
two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
5. The average composition of the Earth
corresponds to
1. Pallasite meteorite is a
(A) Stony-iron meteorite with nickel, iron
and olivine
(B) Carbonaceous chondrite
(C) Meteorite with sulphides and
organic compounds
2. ___________ has the highest surface
temperature.
(B) Mercury
(C) Pluto
(D) Saturn
(C) Siderite
(D) Peridotite
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Palaezoic
(D) Precambrian
7. A calcareous fossil is found to have
1
4 of
its original 14C activity. (half life
of 14C = 5, 730 years). Its age,
therefore, is
3. Who proposed the principle of
uniformitarianism ?
(A) 5,730 years
(B) 1,432.5 years
(C) 11,460 years (D) 22,920 years
(A) Alfred Wegener
(B) Georgius Agricola
8. Reverse and thrust faults are common
structures along ___________ plate
margins.
(C) Charles Darwin
(D) James Hutton
4. Golitsyn’s layer corresponds to the
(A) Upper part of SIMA
(A) Divergent
(B) Transform
(C) Convergent
(D) Transcurrent
9. Which of the following components of
deformation indicates a change in
shape ?
(B) Lower part of the outer core
(C) Lower part of the upper mantle
(D) Boundary between the core and
mantle
Paper II
(B) Chondrite
6. The ___________ represents the
maximum time interval in the Earth’s
history.
(D) Meteorite with silicates, oxides,
water and inorganic compounds
(A) Jupiter
(A) Harzburgite
2
(A) Translation
(B) Distortion
(C) Rotation
(D) Dilation
K-3216
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
10. ___________ is the dominant rock type
in the upper mantle.
14. The axial ratio for baryte a : b : c is
(A) 1 : 1 : 1
(A) Basalt
(B) Norite
(B) 1 : 1 : 0
(C) Diorite
(D) Peridotite
(C) 1.629 : 1 : 1.312
(D) 1.218 : 1 : 1.729
11. When a rock layer bends in response
to stress and does NOT recover its
original shape when the stress is
removed, its behavior is said to be
15. What is the position of the basal
conglomerate in relation to
unconformity ?
(A) Plastic
(B) Brittle
(A) Above the unconformity
(C) Elastic
(D) Brittle and Elastic
(B) Below the unconformity
(C) Cutting across the unconformity
12. ___________ exhibits varying
hardness.
(A) Tremolite
(B) Kyanite
(C) Actinolite
(D) Chlorite
(D) Neither below nor above the
unconformity
16. Mid-oceanic ridges are NOT
characterized by
13. Match the following and select the
correct answer using the code given
below :
a. Recumbent
1. Horizontal
fold
displacement
of fractured
ends of rock
strata
b. Reverse fault 2. Horizontal axial
plane
c. Chevron fold 3. Hanging wall
has moved up
d. Heave
4. Sharp crests
and troughs
Codes :
(A) Shallow focus earthquakes
(B) Deep focus earthquakes
(C) Volcanic activity
(D) Hydrothermal activity
17. Chemical weathering is governed by
(A) Temperature and wind speed
(B) Rainfall and wind speed
(C) Temperature and rainfall
(D) Temperature and wind direction
18. Alternating ridges and valleys in an area
result because of
a
b
c
d
(A) 2
3
4
1
(B) 1
4
3
2
(C) 4
2
1
3
(C) Differences in elevation and
lithology
(D) 3
4
2
1
(D) Differences in age
K-3216
(A) Differences in elevation
(B) Differences in lithology
3
Paper II
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
19. Sedimentary rocks
23. Isostasy involves the
Choose the WRONG answer from the
options given below :
(A) Core and mantle
(A) Are compacted
(C) Core and transition zone
(B) Form because of deposition of
sediments
(D) Core and lower mantle
(B) Crust and upper mantle
(C) Are primary rocks
24. The strength of the Earth’s magnetic
field is expressed in
(D) Contain a matrix
(A) Ampere meter/cm
20. Volcanoes do not occur along
2
(B) Milli Tesla
(A) Island arcs
(C) Ampere/meter
(B) Mid-oceanic ridges
(D) Volts/meter
(C) The Pacific rim
25. Most deep-seated earthquakes are
found at _________ plate boundaries.
(D) Plate collision boundaries
(A) Divergent
21. A point on the surface of the Earth
directly above the focus of an
earthquake and where the seismic
waves arrived first is called
(B) Transform
(C) Divergent and transform
(D) Convergent
(A) Hypocenter
(B) Epicenter
26. Which of the following is NOT a factor
that causes global warming ?
(C) Exocenter
(D) Endoexocenter
(A) Oceanic circulation
(B) Fossil fuel combustion
22. ____________ is the likely driving force
of plate motion.
(C) Chloro-fluoro-carbons
(D) Industrialization
(A) Pressure difference due to the
uneven land-ocean coverage
27. The part of the Earth’s atmosphere that
lies above 80 km altitude with the
highest concentration of ions and free
electrons is called
(B) Reversal of the Earth’s magnetic
field
(C) Convective motion set up by heat
in the mantle
(A) Mesosphere (B) Stratosphere
(D) Gravitational effect of the cooler and
denser material in and around the
sinking slab
Paper II
(C) Ionosphere
4
(D) Biosphere
K-3216
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
32. Choose the WRONG statement given
below about ocean upwelling.
28. __________ is NOT a green house gas.
(A) Carbon dioxide
(A) Upwelling takes place in the
equatorial ocean
(B) Methane
(C) Water vapour
(B) Upwelling takes place along
western continental margins
(D) Nitrogen
(C) Upwelling takes place along
eastern continental margins
29. What caused the dust and condensing
material to accrete into planetesimals ?
(D) Upwelling brings up nutrient-rich
water
(A) Gravitational attraction and collision
(B) Heating of gases
33. Deep water circulation in the oceans
is caused due to differences in the
___________ of sea water.
(C) Nuclear fusion
(D) Rotation of the proto-Sun
(A) Temperature
30. What causes the formation of Aurora ?
(B) Salinity
(A) The interaction of solar wind,
Earth’s magnetic field and the
upper atmosphere
(C) Density
(D) Oxygen concentration
(B) The interaction of the Earth’s
magnetic field with the
stratosphere
34. When vegetation captures rain water
and prevents the latter from reaching
the ground, it is called
(C) The interaction of the Earth’s
magnetic field with the solar wind
(A) Transpiration
(B) Absorption
(D) The interaction of the Earth’s
magnetic field with the
mesosphere
(C) Translocation
(D) Interception
31. ___________ is the major constituent
of the Earth’s atmosphere.
35. Marine sediments are composed of
(A) Detrital minerals
(A) Oxygen
(B) Authigenic minerals
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Argon
(C) Detrital, authigenic and biogenic
materials
(D) Carbon
(D) Biogenic materials
K-3216
5
Paper II
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
36. Hydrothermal solutions venting at the
seafloor are rich in base metal elements.
Such metal enrichment can be attributed
to the
40. Match the following and select the
correct answer using the code given
below :
(A) Hydrostatic pressure
a. Cuddappah
1. BIF and Mn
deposits
b. Vindhyan
2. Coal
c. Gondwana
3. Diamond
d. Dharwar
4. Uranium
(B) Low temperature of sea water
(C) Low salinity of sea water
(D) High salinity of sea water
37. Which of the following types of ocean
waves generates tsunamis ?
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(B) Swell
(A) 4
3
2
1
(C) Catastrophic wave
(B) 1
2
3
4
(D) Internal wave
(C) 2
3
4
1
(D) 3
2
4
1
(A) Wind-generated wave
38. The uplift of the Himalayan mountain
belt started during the
41. The Indo-Gangetic basin is a
(A) Late Cretaceous-Eocene
(A) Peripheral backland basin
(B) Miocene-Pliocene
(C) Pliocene-Pleistocene
(B) Peripheral foreland basin
(D) Early Cretaceous
(C) Domal basin
(D) Erosional basin
39. Which is the correct chronological
sequence of the given mountain ranges
from the youngest to the oldest ?
42. Choose the WRONG statement.
(A) Deccan Traps are flood basalts
(A) Himalaya, Deccan traps, Western
Ghats, Vindhyan
(B) Deccan Traps are 93 Ma old
(B) Deccan traps, Western Ghats,
Himalaya, Vindhyan
(C) Deccan Traps are interspersed with
intertrappean beds
(C) Vindhyan, Deccan traps, Western
Ghats, Himalaya
(D) Deccan Traps occur at the
Cretaceous-Paleogene boundary
(D) Western Ghats, Himalaya, Deccan
traps, Vindhyan
Paper II
6
K-3216
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
47. __________ does not promote the
conservation of mineral resources.
43. Choose the WRONG statement with
respect to the Himalaya.
(A) It is a fold mountain
(A) Use of high grade ore
(B) It was produced because of the
(B) Recycling of scrap metals
collision of two continental
(C) Substitution
landmasses
(D) Recycling and substitution
(C) It represents a subduction zone
48. For safety reasons, a tunnel passing
through dipping formations should be
aligned ___________ the dip of the
formations.
(D) It is of volcanic origin
44. Guano is ____________ deposit of
phosphate.
(A) Along
(A) A residual
(B) Perpendicular to
(B) An organic
(C) Oblique to
(C) An evaporite
(D) With no relation to
(D) A placer
49. Groundwater in Kolkata has an
abnormal concentration of
45. Acid rain is caused due to the presence
of __________ in the atmosphere.
(A) Lead
(A) CO2
(B) Zinc
(B) O2
(C) Arsenic
(C) CO
(D) Mercury
(D) SO2
50. __________ does not represent a
source of contamination.
46. Solar energy is
(A) Non-polluting and non-renewable
(A) Sewage disposal
(B) Polluting and non-renewable
(B) Industrial effluent
(C) Polluting and renewable
(C) Radioactive waste
(D) Hot water spring
(D) Non-polluting and renewable
_____________
K-3216
7
Paper II
*3216*
Total Number of Pages : 8
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
Paper II
8
K-3216
Test Paper
: III
Test Subject
: EARTH SCIENCE
Test Subject Code :
Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________
OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________
K-3216
Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature : _________________________________
Name
: _________________________________
Paper
: III
Subject : EARTH SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
1.
2.
3.
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to
open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of the cover page. Do not accept a
booklet without sticker seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
A
B
C
D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the question of Paper III are to be indicated
in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Booklet. If you mark at any
place other than in the circles in OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT
Pæãívæã¿áÂPÜãvܨÜá.
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of
OMR Answer Sheet after the examination.
¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWܟÖÜá¨Üá.
11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ ±ÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ.
12. Use of any calculator, Electronic gadgets or log table etc.,
12. PÝÂÆáRÇàæ oà , ˨Üá®ݾ®Ü E±ÜPÜÃÜ| A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW pæàŸÇ CñÝ©¿á
is prohibited.
E±ÜÁãàWÜ樆 áÜ ° ¯Ðæà—ÓÜÇÝX¨æ.
13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ .
14. In case of any discrepancy found in the Kannada
14. PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Äࣿá ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜWÜÙÜá
translation of a question booklet the question in English
PÜívÜáŸí¨ÜÈÉ , CíXÉàÐ BÊÜ꣤WÜÙÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜâ¨æà Aí£ÊÜáÊæí¨Üá ±ÜÄWÜ~ÓܸæàPÜá.
K-3216
version shall be taken as final.
1
±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
EARTH SCIENCE
Paper – III
Note :
This paper contains seventy-five (75) objective type questions. Each question
carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
4. Tsunami are generated in coastal areas
1. CO2 rich fluids are characteristics of
due to
(A) Sandstone
(A) Large scale faulting in continental
(B) Granites
crust
(C) Charnockites
(B) Reverse faulting in shear zones
(D) Quartzites
(C) Block faulting in continents
(D) Reverse faulting in ocean region
2. Petrogenesis of granites can be
understood using the ternary diagram
5. Autocogens are
(A) Qtz-Ab-An system
(A) Fault bounded troughs
(B) Ab-An-Diop system
(B) Fault bounded domes
(C) Diop-Oli-An system
(C) Synclinal structures
(D) Oli-Diop-An system
(D) Anticlinal structures
6. Deposits of chromite, Cu-Ni-Sulfides,
3. Sub-ophitic texture in the intergrowth
PGE are essentially hosted in
between
_________ rocks.
(A) Olivine and pyroxene
(A) Mafic-ultramafic
(B) Diopside and plagioclase
(B) Intermediate
(C) Plagioclase and quartz
(C) Felsic
(D) Olivine and quartz
Paper III
(D) Metamorphic
2
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
7. Fluid inclusions that are randomly
10. Match the following
distributed in 3-dimensions are
1. Cap rock
(A) Primary
2. Reservoir rock b. Shale
(B) Secondary
3. Structural trap
c. Unconformity
(C) Pseudo-secondary
4. Stratigraphic
d. Sandstone
a. Anticline
trap
(D) Homogeneous
1
2
3
4
8. For determining the optic sign in
(A) b
d
a
c
minerals _________ is used.
(B) a
b
c
d
(A) Interference figure
(C) b
c
d
a
(B) Interference colours
(D) c
d
b
a
(C) Universal stage
11. Jadeite is a gem variety of
(D) Michael-Levy’s chart
(A) Quartz
(B) Feldspar
9. Crystallization of minerals from high
temperature, resulting in expulsion of
(C) Garnet
certain phases due to cooling gives
(D) Pyroxene
raise to _________ texture.
12. Ruby is the gem variety of
(A) Colloform
(A) Kyanite
(B) Cavity-filling
(B) Beryl
(C) Exsolution
(C) Corundum
(D) Replacement
(D) Plagioclase
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3
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
16. Match the following :
13. Rock/Ore pieces collected in a regular
pattern is _________ sampling.
1. Steatite
a. Abrasive
(A) Grab
2. Mica
b. Pigment
3. Garnet
c. Insulator
4. Ochre
d. Electrical
(B) Chip
(C) Planar
Codes :
(D) Mineralogical
14. Mineral exploration based on chemical
analysis of plant organs is _________
method.
1
2
3
4
(A) c
a
b
d
(B) c
d
a
b
(C) b
a
c
d
(D) a
b
c
d
(A) Geobotanical
17. U-Pb method of isotopic dating is done
in minerals like
(B) Biogeochemical
(A) Plagioclase
(C) Geochemical
(B) Hornblende
(D) Organic
(C) Zircon
15. Vitrain, durain, clarain and fusain are
(D) Biotite
_________ contents of coal.
18. Eutectic temperature of crystallization of
Anorthite and diopside is
(A) Microscopic
(A) 750°C
(B) Gaseous
(B) 1435°C
(C) Ash
(C) 999°C
(D) Macroscopic
Paper III
(D) 1270°C
4
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
23. In a dip-slip fault, the rake of net slip of
an inclined fault is
19. High pressure polymorph of SiO2 is
(A) α -Quartz
(A) 80°
(B) Crystabolite
(B) 60°
(C) Coesite
(C) 25°
(D) β -Quartz
(D) 90°
20. Isothermal decompression P-T path in
granulite indicate
24. What is the host rock copper deposit of
Ingaldal area in Karnataka ?
(A) Collisional tectonic event
(A) Granite
(B) Extensional tectonic event
(B) Syenite
(C) Both collisional and extensional
tectonic event
(C) Metabasalt
(D) Plume tectonics
(D) Phyllite
25. The largest deposits of
Lead-Zinc-copper in India are
located in
21. Low-P and Low-T in LIL elements is
characteristics of
(A) Chlorite schist
(A) Dharwar craton
(B) Granulites
(B) Singhbhum craton
(C) Gneiss
(C) Bastar craton
(D) Amphibolites
(D) Aravalli craton
22. Stromatolites indicate early life in
26. Cuestas are characteristic of areas of
(A) Proterozoic
(A) Alluvial plains
(B) Palaeozoic
(B) Steep near vertical beds
(C) Mesozoic
(C) Rocks with gentle/moderate dips
(D) Cenozoic
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(D) Horizontal beds
5
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
27. Late Maastrichtian fresh water
30. Ozone not only act as a green house
sediments in India is represented by
gas to outgoing _________ radiation,
_________ beds.
but also intercepts and absorbs
_________ radiation.
(A) Bagh
(A) Short wave, thermal
(B) Zewan
(B) Long wave, solar ultra-violet
(C) Lameta
(C) Microwave, near infrared
(D) Niniyur
(D) Microwave, far infrared
28. Invariant point in phase diagram
indicate when
31. Khondalite has the following mineralogy
(A) F = 0
(A) Qtz + plag + bio+ ilm
(B) F = 1
(B) Plag + Hbl + bio + mag
(C) F = 3
(C) Diop + Hbl + plag + ilm
(D) F = 2
(D) Qtz + plag + sill + bio + ilm
29. Velocity of the water column is
32. The major and minor principal stresses
reduced with depth and leads to
are σ1 and σ3 respectively acting with
_________ spiral and the net
in a body. A plane is inclined at an angle
movement of water is 90° to the wind
θ to the direction of the minor principal
direction is called _________
⎡ σ1 − σ 3 ⎤
⎥ sin θ is the
⎣⎢ 2 ⎦⎥
transport.
stress σ . Then ⎢
(A) Sverdrup, Ekman
(A) Normal stress
(B) Stommel, Munk
(B) Shear stress
(C) Munk, Stommel
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Ekman, Ekman
Paper III
(D) Compressive stress
6
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
33. The term KD refers to
37. Arrange the following suture patterns in
an ascending order of evolution.
(A) Distribution of elements within a
mineral
(1) Ammonite
(B) Site occupancy of elements in
minerals
(2) Goniatite
(C) Structural disorder in minerals
(3) Ceratite
(D) Partitioning of elements between
two co-existing minerals
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1
34. Mineral pigeonite belongs to
(C) 2, 1, 3
(A) Amphibole group
(D) 3, 1, 2
(B) Mica group
38. The term polymorphism is used for
(C) Pyroxene group
(A) Minerals having different
(D) Epidote group
composition and crystal structure
35. Baryte deposits occur in
(B) Metamict minerals
(A) Gulcheru quartzites
(C) Minerals having different densities
and composition
(B) Vempalle limestones
(C) Tadpatri shales
(D) Minerals with same composition but
different crystal structure
(D) Kolamnala shales
39. _________ structure is formed in a tidal
36. The disecting plane of OAA in optically
positive minerals is
environment.
(A) α
(A) Stylolites
(B) β
(B) Herringbone
(C) γ
(C) Graded bedding
(D) α and γ
(D) Ripple marks
K-3216
7
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
40. Identify the youngest stratigraphic unit
from the following :
44. Choose the microfossil group which
occurs in deep-sea below CCD.
(A) Iron ore group
(A) Foraminifera
(B) Cuddaph Super group
(B) Cocoliths
(C) Talchir Formation
(C) Ostrocoda
(D) Subathu Formation
(D) Radiolarians
41. Curved portions of the roof
intersecting the top of the tunnel wall
referred as
45. Tributaries join the main stream
pointing upstream expressed by
_________ drainage pattern.
(A) Toe
(A) Rectangular
(B) Pay-line
(B) Barbed
(C) Spring-line
(C) Trellis
(D) Spill way
(D) Dendritic
42. K-Ar method of dating rocks is used
for
46. Choose the largest felsic volcanic
province of India.
(A) Granites
(A) Rajmahal traps
(B) Basalts
(B) Sylthet traps
(C) Peridotites
(C) Deccan traps
(D) Komatites
(D) Panjal traps
43. Which of the following is non-clastic ?
47. Identify the correct genetic sequence of
Karst landforms.
(A) Siltstone
(A) Doline → Polje → Uvala
(B) Shale
(B) Doline → Uvala → Polje
(C) Limestone
(C) Polje → Doline → Uvala
(D) Sandstone
(D) Uvala → Doline → Polje
Paper III
8
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
52. Water mass mixing is critical for
ecosystem productivity as it bring
_________ to the surface and
_________ to deeper waters.
48. The circum-pacific belt is also
known as
(A) Ring of corals
(B) Ring of canyons
(A) Sediments, CO2
(C) Ring of Trenches
(B) Oxygen, nitrogen
(D) Ring of Fire
(C) Nutrients, oxygen
(D) CO2, SO2
49. Fragmentation of Gondwana took place
during
53. Pixel stands for
(A) Cenozoic
(A) Picture Element
(B) Archean
(B) Photo Element
(C) Mesozoic
(C) Picture Elevation
(D) Precambrian
(D) Photo Enhancement
50. The horizontal distribution of mean
sea level pressure is shown by
means of
54. In aerial photography, yellow,
magenta and Cyan are referred to as
complementary colours, because
when paired, they produce
_________ light.
(A) Isohyet
(B) Isobar
(C) Isotherm
(A) Yellow
(D) Isocline
(B) Blue
(C) White
51. Seawater intrusion into the freshwater
aquifer can controlled by
(D) Magenta
(A) Cultivation of Paddy, in the low lying
coastal areas
55. _________ act as scavenging agents.
(B) Limiting the extraction of ground
water
(A) Waves
(C) Recharging through the wells along
the coast
(C) Currents
(B) Tides
(D) Tsunamis
(D) Intense pumping along the coast
K-3216
9
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
60. Match the following :
56. High grade manganese nodules are
mainly concentrated between
_________ in the central Indian basin.
a. Sea wall
1. Protection of
beach with
sediment
b. Break water
2. Coastal
protection
structure
parallel to
beach
c. Groin
3. Coastal
engineering
structure
perpendicular
to beach
d. Beach
nourishment
4. Navigation
channel
(A) 10° N and 20° N
(B) Equator and 16°N
(C) Equator and 16°S
(D) 10° S and 16°S
57. An electromagnetic wave is composed
of both electric and magnetic vectors
that are
(A) Orthogonal to each other
(B) Parallel to each other
(C) Oblique to each other
(D) Circular in shape
a
b
c
(A) 2
3
4
1
(B) 3
2
1
4
(A) Ecological efficiency
(C) 1
2
3
4
(B) Oligotrophication
(D) 2
4
3
1
58. Which term represents the following
phrase :
A reduced nutrient availability which
leads to low productivity ?
d
(C) Primary production
61. The two properties of an aquifer
material related to its storage function
are
(D) Eutrophication
59. The “Black smokers” contain
_________ and _________
(A) Porosity and specific yield
(A) Barium, calcium
(B) Permeability and specific yield
(B) Silicon, magnesium
(C) Porosity and permeability
(C) Iron, sulphur
(D) Porosity and rock type
(D) Boron, crypton
Paper III
10
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
62. The presence of melange is
characteristic feature of
64. Sediments that have absolutely no
oxygen are said to be
(A) Layered complex
(B) Metamorphic aureole
(A) Anoxic
(C) Skarn rocks
(B) Hypoxia
(D) Ophiolite
(C) Shadow zone
63. Match the following :
1. Angular
unconformity
a. Irregular,
eroded surface
between
parallel rock
strata
2. Disconformity
(D) Oxic
65. The folds that develop in an
incompetent bed lying between the
b. The lower order
strata dip at a
different angle
to the younger
upper strata
two competent beds are called
(A) Flexural folds
(B) Parasitic folds
3. Non-conformity c. The strata
either side
of the
unconformity
dip in the same
direction and by
the same
amount
4. Parallel
unconformity
Answers :
1
2
(A) c
d
(B) b
a
(C) d
c
(D) b
d
K-3216
3
a
d
a
a
(C) Similar folds
(D) Drag folds
66. In a drainage basin, the ratio of the
d. A sequence of
strata overlies
an eroded
surface of
igneous or
metamorphic
rock
number of each order of streams to the
number of the next higher order is
known as the _________ ratio.
(A) Bifurcation
(B) Density
4
b
c
b
c
(C) Antecedent
(D) Subsequent
11
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
67. The plunge of a fold is defined as
70. Match the following and select the
correct option from the code given
(A) Intersection of the axial surface with
any bed
below :
(B) Angle between an axis and its
horizontal projection
a. Chemical
1. Ionosphere
composition
(C) The plane dividing the fold into two
halves
b. Thermal
(D) Dip of the inverted limb of a fold
2. Chemosphere
structure
68. The mid-oceanic ridges are formed
and evolve as a result of spreading
Earth’s lithosphere at the _________
boundaries between tectonic plates
and cover a total distance of
_________ km.
c. Ionic structure
3. Homosphere
d. Chemical
4. Stratosphere
structure
Codes :
(A) Convergent; ~ 45,000
a
b
c
(C) Marginal; ~ 45,000
(A) 2
4
1
3
(D) Centre of; ~ 50,000
(B) 3
4
2
1
(C) 3
4
1
2
(D) 4
3
1
2
(B) Divergent; ~ 65,000
69. Choose the typical sandy beach
structures
(a) Swash marks
(b) Rill marks
d
71. The water flows downward due to
(c) Flute marks
gravity but rises near _________ due
(d) Browsing traces
to its tendency to flow _________ to
water level.
Answers :
(A) a, b and d
(A) Valley; perpendicular
(B) b, c and d
(B) Radial; the centre
(C) a, c and d
(C) Valley; Parallel
(D) b and d
Paper III
(D) Inclined; the plane
12
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
72. Which of the following elements of
image are used in image
interpretation ?
74. Match the following in Group I with
those of Group II :
Group I
Group II
(B) Texture and pattern
a. Arthopoda
i. Sponges
(C) Shape and size
b. Porifera
ii. Gangampteris
(D) All of the above
c. Mollusca
iii. Paradoxides
d. Plant fossil
iv. Conus
(A) Tone and colour
73. Match the following and select the
correct option from the codes given
below :
Electromagnetic
Spectral Region
a
Wavelength
b
c
d
(A) iii,
i,
iv,
ii
1. Ultraviolet
a. 0.7 to 3.0 μ m
(B) ii,
iv,
iii,
i
2. Visible
b. 0.3 to 0.4 μ m
(C) iv, ii,
i,
iii
3. Infrared
c. 3 to 5 μ m
(D) i,
iii,
iv
4. Thermal
infrared
d. 0.4 to 0.7 μ m
ii,
75. If the axis of a fold is undulatory, the
high points on an axis are called
Codes :
1
2
3
4
(A) a
c
b
d
(B) d
b
a
c
(C) c
a
d
b
(D) b
d
a
c
(A) Culminations
(B) Depressions
(C) Boudins
(D) Mullions
____________
K-3216
13
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
Paper III
14
K-3216
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
K-3216
15
Paper III
*K3216*
Total Number of Pages : 16
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
Paper III
16
K-3216
KSET - 2016
Subject: EARTH SCIENCE
Code: 32
KEY - Paper - II
Q.No
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans
A
B
D
C
B
D
C
C
B
D
A
B
A
C
A
B
C
B
C
D
Q.No
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Ans
B
C
B
B
D
A
C
D
A
C
B
C
C
D
C
D
C
A
A
A
Q.No
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Ans
B
B
D
B
D
D
A
B
C
D
KSET - 2016
Subject: EARTH SCIENCE
Code: 32
KEY - Paper - III
Q.No
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
Ans
C
A
B
D
A
A
A
A
C
A
D
C
B
B
D
B
C
D
C
B
B
A
D
C
D
Q.No
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Ans
C
C
A
D
B
D
B
D
C
B
C
B
D
B
D
C
A
C
D
B
C
B
D
C
B
Q.No
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans
B
C
A
C
B
D
A
B
C
D
C
D
B
A
D
A
B
B
A
C
C
D
D
A
A
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