SMOLENSK STATE MEDICAL ACADEMY
PHARMACOLOGY DEPARTMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
ON PHARMACOLOGY
(for foreing students)
Smolensk, 2006
УДК 615-05
Тесты по фармакологии составлены в соответствии с Государственным
образовательным стандартом. Они содержат вопросы по всем темам общей и
частной фармакологии, которые включены в Программу по фармакологии для
студентов высших медицинских и фармацевтических учебных заведений.
Содержание тестовых заданий отражает базовые вопросы фармакологии и
современные достижения фармакологической науки.
Тесты составлены на кафедре фармакологии СГМА под редакцией
заведующего кафедрой профессора В.Е. Новикова, ряд заданий заимствовано из
сборника тестов Всероссийского учебно-научно-методического центра по
непрерывному
медицинскому
и
фармацевтическому
образованию.
Исчерпывающая информация, позволяющая квалифицированно решить
тестовые задания, представлена в лекциях, учебно-методической литературе
кафедры и учебниках по фармакологии.
Тестирование по данным заданиям является обязательным этапом (1 этап)
экзамена по фармакологии.
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) on pharmacology meet the requirements of the
training programme for medical schools of the Russian Federation. They consist of
questions devoted to all units of general and particular pharmacology. Their content
completely corresponds to basal questions of basic pharmacology and up-to-date
achievements of pharmacological science.
MCQs are made at the pharmacology department of Smolensk State Medical
Academy under the editorship of Professor V.E. Novikov. Some of the tasks are
adopted from the MCQs, which were developed by Russian training-scientificallymethodical center of medical and pharmaceutical educations. The information, which
allows to ably solve the MCQs are given in series of lectures, training-methodical
literature developed by teaching staff members of the pharmacology department of
Smolensk State Medical Academy and in textbooks on pharmacology.
The MCQs are for foreign students learning at the department of pharmacology and
are the first stage of final exam.
Тесты обсуждены и одобрены цикловой методической комиссией
физиологических дисциплин (протокол заседания ЦМК от 25.05.06 г.)
Multiple choice questions were discussed and approved by the methodical commission
of physiological disciplines (the journal of 25.05.2006)
2
1. GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY
1. Pharmacopoeia is:
a) a part of general pharmacology about routes of drug administration, drug absorption, their
distribution in an organism, biotransformation and routes of drug elimination
b) a part of general pharmacology about mechanisms of drug action and drug effects
c) state code of national standards and requirements for medicinal substances, medicinal raw
materials and drugs
d) official authority for drug quality control
e) a science about medicinal raw materials
2. Pharmacodynamics is:
a) state code of national standards and requirements for medicinal substances, medicinal raw
materials and drugs
b) a part of general pharmacology about mechanisms of drug action and drug effects
c) a part of general pharmacology about modes of drug administration, drug absorption, their
distribution in an organism, biotransformation and routes of drug elimination
d) a science about medicinal raw materials
e) a science about methods of drug trials
3. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) a part of general pharmacology about drug absorption, distribution in the body,
biotransformation and routes of drug excretion
b) a science about methods of drug trials
c) a science about medicinal raw materials
d) a part of general pharmacology about mechanisms of drug action and their effects
e) state code of national standards and requirements for medicinal substances, medicinal raw
materials and drugs
4. Elimination is:
a) accumulation of a medicinal substance in blood plasma
b) ability of a drug to penetrate through biological barriers
c) interaction of a drug with tissue receptors
d) removal of an active form of a medicinal substance out of the organism due to
biotransformation and excretion
e) distribution of a medicinal substance in biological liquids of an organism
5. Acquired tolerance is:
a) an increase in organism sensitivity to medicinal substance
b) insuperable attraction to repeated dose of a drug
c) perverted reaction of an organism on drug introduction
d) gradual weakening of therapeutic action of a drug
e) storage of a drug in certain tissues of an organism
6. Synergism is:
a) an abnormal reaction of an organism to drug administration
b) a one-way action of medicinal substances resulting in intensifying of their final effect
c) counteraction of medicinal substances resulting in weakening of their final effect
d) accumulation of a drug in tissues of an organism
e) a delay of drug elimination
7. Antagonism is:
a) a one-way action of medicinal substances, resulting in intensifying of their final effect
b) counteraction of medicinal substances, resulting in weakening of their final effect
c) gradual weakening of a therapeutic drug effect
d) impossibility of drug administration in a fixed medicinal form
3
e) a delay of drug elimination
8. Idiosyncrasy is:
a) quick development of tolerance to a medicinal substance
b) an acute exacerbation of an illness after a drug withdrawal
c) perverted rapid reaction of an organism for the first administration of a drug
d) a reaction of an organism which is due to excess of a therapeutic dose of a drug
e) a negative influence of a medicinal substance on a fetus
9. Agonists are:
a) medicinal substances blocking interaction of endogenic ligands with receptors
b) medicinal substances affecting receptors like endogenic ligands
c) medicinal substances able to bind with plasma proteins and to circulate in the blood for a long
time
d) drugs which are quickly eliminated from an organism
e) inducers of microsomal liver enzymes
10. Chronopharmacology studies:
a) dependence of pharmacological effects on a dose and concentration of a drug
b) routes of medicinal substance metabolic transformation
c) routes of drug excretion
d) dependence of drug bioavailability on physical and chemical properties of medicinal
substances
e) dependence of pharmacological effects on biological rhythms of an organism
11. Name mechanisms of drug absorption out of the intestines:
a) passive diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion
c) active transport
d) inversion secretion
e) all answers are correct
12. Drugs with more intensive absorption out of the gastrointestinal tract are:
a) non-polar (not ionized)
b) polar
13. The formula of a therapeutic index is:
a) LD/ED
b) ED/LD
c) mass of a substance (g) / mass of a body (kg)
14. What does therapeutic index characterize?
a) intensity of pharmacological effect
b) duration of drug effect
c) drug safety
d) possibility of allergic reaction development
15. Bioavailability is:
a) a route of drug administration
b) an amount of a drug absorbed into the systemic blood stream as compared with initial dose
c) a single dose of a drug
d) a course dose of a drug
16. In oral administration bioavailability of a drug achieves:
a) 100 %
b) less than 100 %
c) more than 100 %
17. Blood-brain barrier is:
a) penetrable for all medicinal substances
4
b) impenetrable for all medicinal substances
c) characterized by selective penetrability for different medicinal substances
18. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance is:
a) biochemical changes of a medicinal substance in an organism
b) accumulation of a medicinal substance in tissues
c) plasma protein binding
d) elimination of drugs and their metabolites out of an organism
19. Excretion is:
a) biochemical changes of a medicinal substance in an organism
b) accumulation of a medicinal substance in tissues
c) plasma protein binding
d) elimination of a drug and its metabolites out of an organism
20. Name ways of drug biotransformation in an organism (types of reactions):
a) not synthetic (metabolic transformation)
b) synthetic (conjugation)
c) anabolic
d) catalytic
21. Which of them are indices of elimination?
a) a period of half-elimination (half-life)
b) blood sedimentation rate
c) clearance
d) LD/ED
22. A period of half-elimination (half-life) is:
a) time showing 2 time decrease in a therapeutic effect
b) time of 50 % decrease in drug concentration in blood plasma
c) time during which a drug is present in blood plasma
23. Systemic action of a drug is:
a) its effect after absorption into the blood
b) its effect at the place of application
c) its effect on sensory receptors with the development of reflex effects in internal organs
24. Local action of a drug is:
a) its effect after absorption into the blood
b) its effect at the place of application
c) its effect on sensory receptors with the development of reflex effects in internal organs
25. Reflex action of a drug is:
a) its effect after absorption into the blood
b) its effect at the place of application
c) its effect on sensory receptors with the development of reflex effects in internal organs
26. What effects of drugs are called the main ones?
a) effects which provide a therapeutic action of a drug, relieve symptoms of a disease and
improve quality of life
b) all effects developing due to therapeutic doses
c) only those effects which develop due to minimal doses of a drug
27. Which pharmacotherapy is called etiotropic one?
a) directed to elimination of separate disease symptoms
b) directed to weakening of mechanisms of diseases development
c) directed to elimination of a cause of a diseases
28. What medicinal substances are called enzyme inducers?
a) drugs increasing synthesis of enzymes and their activity
b) drugs decreasing activity of enzymes
5
c) drugs used for replacement therapy in enzyme deficiency
29. What medicinal substances are called enzyme inhibitors?
a) increasing synthesis of enzymes
b) decreasing activity of enzymes
c) used for replacement therapy of enzyme deficiency
30. What is a prodrug?
a) a substance which is metabolized in an organism and losses pharmacological activity
b) a substance which is metabolized in an organism and gets pharmacological activity
c) a drug which does not undergo metabolic changes in an organism
31. Cumulation is:
a) accumulation (storage) of a drug in an organism
b) hypersensitivity of an organism to a drug
c) process of drug metabolism
32. Types of cumulation are:
a) physiological
b) pathological
c) material
d) functional
33. Which reactions can develop in sudden discontinuation of a drug after their long-term use?
a) allergic ones
b) withdrawal syndrome
c) rebound syndrome
d) idiosyncrasy
34. Immuno-alergic adverse effects (type B) are:
a) anaphylactic shock
b) cancerogenic effect
c) urticaria
d) drug dependence
e) dyspepsia due to aspirin application
35. Adverse effects dependent on pharmacodynamics (type A) are:
a) anaphylactic shock
b) cancerogenic effect
c) urticaria
d) drug dependence
e) dyspepsia due to application of aspirin
36. Choose adverse effects due to a long-term pharmacotherapy (type C):
a) anaphylactic shock
b) cancerogenic effect
c) urticaria
d) drug dependence
e) dyspepsia due to application of aspirin
37. Choose delayed adverse effects (type D):
a) anaphylactic shock
b) cancerogenic effect
c) urticaria
d) drug dependence
e) dyspepsia due to application of aspirin
38. Embryotoxic effect is:
a) a toxic drug action on an embryo observed during the first 3 weeks of pregnancy and resulting
in death of the embryo in most cases
6
b) a toxic drug action on a fetus observed from 3 up to 10-12 week of pregnancy and affecting
organogenesis of the fetus
c) a toxic drug action on a fetus in fetal period (after 3-4 months of pregnancy)
d) any toxic drug action during pregnancy
39. Teratogenicity is:
a) a toxic drug action on an embryo observed during the first 3 weeks of pregnancy and resulting
in death of the embryo in most cases
b) a toxic drug action on a fetus observed from 3 up to 10-12 week of pregnancy and affecting
organogenesis of the fetus
c) a toxic drug action on a fetus in fetal period (after 3-4 months of pregnancy)
d) any toxic drug action during pregnancy
40. Fetotoxic drug action is:
a) a toxic drug action on an embryo observed during the first 3 weeks of pregnancy and resulting
in death of the embryo in most cases
b) a toxic drug action on a fetus observed from 3 up to 10-12 week of pregnancy and affecting
organogenesis of the fetus
c) a toxic drug action on a fetus in fetal period (after 3-4 months of pregnancy)
d) any toxic action of drug during pregnancy
41. Minimal (threshold) therapeutic dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing marked therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing a maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
d) an amount of a drug for a single administration
e) daily dose of a drug
f) an amount of a drug for the whole course of the treatment
42. An average therapeutic dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing marked therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
d) an amount of a drug for a single administration
e) daily amount of a drug
f) an amount of a drug for the whole course of the treatment
43. Maximum therapeutic dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing marked therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
d) an amount of a drug for a single administration
e) daily amount of a drug
f) an amount of a drug for the whole course of the treatment
44. A single dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing expressed therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
d) an amount of a drug for a single administration
e) daily amount of a drug
f) an amount of a drug for the whole course of the treatment
45. A daily dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing expressed therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
7
d) an amount of drug for a single administration
e) daily amount of a drug
f) an amount of a drug for the whole course of the treatment
46. A course dose is:
a) an amount of a drug causing minimal therapeutic effect
b) an amount of a drug causing marked therapeutic effect in the majority of patients
c) an amount of a drug causing maximal therapeutic effect without toxic effects
d) an amount of a drug for a single administration
e) daily amount of drug
f) an amount of drug for the whole course of the treatment
47. What is the purpose of a knock-out dose of a drug?
a) to prevent adverse effects
b) to produce therapeutic concentration of a drug in an organism quickly
c) to prolong a pharmacological effect
48. What doses are called toxic ones?
a) exceeding an average therapeutic dose
b) exceeding a maximum therapeutic dose
c) causing lethal outcome
49. Pharmacological effect depends:
a) on a dose of a drug
b) does not depend on a dose of a drug
c) on drug concentration
d) does not depend on drug concentration
50. What factors influence drug action in an organism?
a) physicochemical properties of a drug
b) specific features of an organism
c) political factors
d) social factors
e) climatic conditions
2. DRUGS AFFECTING THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
Drugs acting on afferent innervation
1. Drugs reducing sensitivity of afferent nerves are:
a) local anesthetics
b) irritants
c) astringents
d) enveloping drugs
e) all listed groups
2. Drugs decreasing sensitivity of afferent nerves are:
a) menthol
b) solution of ammonia
c) tannic acid
d) lidocaine
e) all listed drugs
3. Drugs increasing sensitivity of afferent nerves are:
a) menthol
b) solution of ammonia
c) tannic acid
8
d) lidocaine
e) talc
4. What nerve fibres do local anesthetics block to suppress transmission of an excitation?
a) only sensitive
b) only motor
c) only autonomic
d) all nerve fibres
5. Local anesthetics:
a) prevent formation of action potential
b) block potassium channels
c) prevent spread of nervous impulses
d) bind ions of calcium within a nerve fiber membrane
e) inhibit synthesis of energy in neurons
6. The first local anesthetic was:
a) benzocaine
b) tetracaine
c) cocaine
d) lidocaine
e) procaine
7. Requirements for local anesthetics are:
a) high anesthetizing activity
b) high absorbability into the blood
c) absence of irritant effect
d) presence of vasodilating properties
e) low toxicity
8. Surface anesthesia develops as a result of:
a) anesthetic application on skin surface or mucous membrane
b) layer-by-layer impregnation of tissues with anesthetic solution
c) conduction block (anesthesia)
9. Infiltration anesthesia develops as a result of:
a) anesthetic application on skin or mucous membrane surface
b) layer-by-layer impregnation of tissues with anesthetic solution
c) conduction block (anesthesia)
10. Conduction anesthesia develops, as a result of:
a) anesthetic application on skin surface or mucous membrane
b) layer-by-layer impregnation of tissues by anesthetic solution
c) conduction block (anesthesia)
11. How can local anesthetics be classified according to their chemical structure?
a) weak acids
b) complex esters
c) amides
d) alcohols
12. A short-term anesthetic drug is:
a) articaine
b) lidocaine
c) bupivacaine
d) procaine
13. A long-term anesthetic drug is:
a) articaine
b) lidocaine
9
c) bupivacaine
d) procaine
14. Drugs used for surface anesthesia are:
a) benzocaine
b) tetracaine
c) lidocaine
d) bupivacaine
e) articaine
15. What drugs are used for surface anesthesia in stomatological practice?
a) procaine
b) pyromecaine
c) mepivacaine
d) metamizole sodium
e) articaine
f) benzocaine
16. Drugs used for infiltration anesthesia are:
a) benzocaine
b) tetracaine
c) lidocaine
d) procaine
e) trimecaine
17. Drugs used for conduction anesthesia are:
a) benzocaine
b) trimecaine
c) articaine
d) bupivacaine
e) lidocaine
18. How is a local anesthetic effect changed in the focus of inflammation?
a) is not changed
b) is intensified
c) is reduced
19. For a prolonged action of local anesthetics they are used with:
a) enveloping drugs
b) vasodilating drugs
c) vasoconstrictors
d) astringents
20. Why should local anesthetics be coadministered with epinephrine?
a) to prolong their action
b) to shorten their action
c) to decrease toxicity of anesthetic
d) to decrease secretion of salivary and bronchial glands
e) to prevent collapse
21. Procaine takes such effects as:
a) anesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) enveloping effect
d) irritant effect
e) softening effect
22. According to the intensity of anesthetic action lidocaine:
a) is less effective than procaine
10
b) is so effective like procaine
c) is more effective than procaine
23. Systemic effects of local anesthetics are:
a) depression of the CNS
b) stimulation of the CNS
c) decrease in smooth muscle tone
d) increase in smooth muscle tone
e) antiarrhythmic effect
f) cardiotonic effect
24. Pharmacological effects of lidocaine are:
a) anesthetic effect
b) anticonvulsant effect
c) antiinflammatory effect
d) antiarrhythmic effect
e) analeptic effect
25. The most toxic anesthetic drug is:
a) tetracaine
b) procaine
c) lidocaine
d) benzocaine
26. The least toxic anesthetic drug is:
a) tetracaine
b) procaine
c) lidocaine
d) cocaine
27. A poor water-soluble anesthetic is:
a) tetracaine
b) procaine
c) lidocaine
d) benzocaine
28. Why should not procaine be administered simultaneously with sulfonamides?
a) because of pharmaceutical incompatibility
b) because toxicity of procaine is increased
c) because anesthetic activity of procaine is decreased
d) because antimicrobial effect of sulfonamides is decreased due to formation of PABA from
Procaine
29. As opposed to infiltration anesthesia, in conduction anesthesia solutions of local anesthetics are
injected:
a) in less volumes
b) in more volumes
c) in less concentrations
d) in more concentrations
30. The mechanism of astringent action is based on:
a) adsorption of aggressive chemical substances
b) coagulation of superficially located (extracellular) proteins
c) stimulation of formation of protective mucus
d) softening of the skin due to its wetting
31. Groups of astringents are:
a) organic
b) inorganic
11
c) of bacterial origin
d) products of petroleum refining
32. Organic astringents are:
a) lead acetate
b) tannic acid
c) decoction of oak bark
d) silver nitrate
e) tanalbine
33. Inorganic astringents are:
a) lead acetate
b) tannic acid
c) decoction of oak bark
d) silver nitrate
34. Factors influencing the action of inorganic astringents are:
a) dose of a drug
b) concentration of a drug
c) drug exposure
d) time of a day
e) sex
35. Which of the astringents are more toxic?
a) organic
b) inorganic
c) both drug groups have equal toxicity
36. Which of the astringents can cause cauterizing effect:
a) organic astringents
b) inorganic astringents
c) both drug groups
d) none of the listed drug groups
37. Cauterizing effect is characterized by:
a) coagulation of superficially located (extracellular) proteins with formation of protective
colloidal film
b) coagulation of extracellular and intracellular proteins with formation of a scab
c) secretion of protective mucus and softening of the skin
38. Orally astringents are administered in:
a) inflammatory diseases of the gastrointestinal tract
b) constipations
c) dyspeptic disorders
d) decreased appetite
39. All listed below drugs have astringent action except:
a) menthol
b) bur-marigold herb
c) tannin
d) silver nitrate
e) salvin (drug made from salvia leaves)
40. An enveloping action is produced by:
a) menthol
b) mucilage from starch
c) mucilage from flax seeds
d) silver nitrate
e) activated charcoal
12
41. The mechanism of enveloping drug action is based on:
a) mechanical protection of sensory nerve endings from irritation
b) coagulation of superficially located (extracellular) proteins
c) suppression of sensitivity of receptors by means of an increase in excitability threshold
42. Name adsorbents:
a) zinc oxide
b) talc
c) silver nitrate
d) lead acetate
e) diosmectite (smecta)
43. The main effect of activated charcoal is:
a) anesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) enveloping effect
d) irritating effect
e) adsorbing effect
44. Drugs made of hydrolized lignine (polyphane, polyphepane) produce:
a) local anaesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) adsorbing effect
d) irritating effect
45. How do adsorbents influence absorption of drugs in the gastrointestinal tract?
a) do not change absorption
b) slow down absorption
c) stimulate absorption
46. Drugs for the treatment of meteorism (tympanites):
a) local anesthetics
b) adsorbents
c) emollients
d) enveloping drugs
47. Drugs of mustard take:
a) anesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) enveloping effect
d) irritant effect
48. Turpentine oil can take such effects as:
a) local anaesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) irritant effect
d) adsorbing effect
49. Drugs made from camphor in local use take:
a) local anaesthetic effect
b) astringent effect
c) irritant effect
d) antiseptic effect
50. All listed below drugs take irritating effect except:
a) menthol
b) solution of ammonia
c) tannin
d) tincture of eucalyptus
13
e) mustard plaster
51. Solution of ammonia stimulates the respiratory centre:
a) by reflex
b) after an absorption into the blood
52. How is solution of ammonia usually used in syncope (fainting)?
a) by rubbing hands
b) by inhaling vapours
c) orally (in drops)
53. Irritants are used for the treatment of:
a) sleeplessness
b) arthritis
c) myositis
d) allergy
e) prophylaxis of pressure bedsores ( decubital ulcers)
54. Irritants can produce such effects as:
a) counter-irritant effect
b) trophic effect
c) antiinflammatory effect
d) antiallergic effect
e) sedative effect
55. What does trophic effect of irritants mean?
a) burning sensation at the place of their application
b) improvement of microcirculation and metabolic processes in tissues
c) pain relief
56. The trophic effect of irritants results from the action of:
a) hormones
b) axon reflexes
c) dermatovisceral reflexes
d) histamine and kinins
57. How do irritants influence course of an inflammatory process?
a) do not change
b) slow down recovery
c) accelerate recovery
58. What glycoside is the precursor for mustard oil synthesis?
a) anthraglycoside
b) liquiritaside
c) sinigrin
59. Why should mustard plasters be moistened with warm water before their application on the skin?
a) it can make their use more comfortable for a patient
b) it can improve their adhesion to the skin
c) it is necessary to activation of the enzyme myrosin and formation of an essential oil
60. The main pharmacological effects of irritant drugs result from:
a) their reflex action
b) their systemic (resorptive) action
61. Drugs containing snake and bee venoms produce:
a) irritant effect
b) astringent effect
c) biostimulant effect
62. What drugs can take a softening effect on the skin?
a) solution of ammonia
14
b)
c)
d)
e)
petroleum jelly (vaseline)
vegetable oils
volatile oils
animal fats
Cholinergic drugs
63. Cholinomimetics are:
a) drugs facilitating transmission of impulses in cholinergic synapses.
b) drugs inhibiting transmission of impulses in cholinergic synapses.
c) drugs which do not change the transmission of nervous impulses in cholinergic synapses.
64. Name nonselective cholinomimetics:
a) acetylcholine
b) aceclidine
c) carbachol
d) lobeline
e) pilocarpine
65. Name M- cholinomimetics:
a) acetylcholine
b) aceclidine
c) carbachol
d) lobeline
e) pilocarpine
66. Name N- cholinomimetics:
a) acetylcholine
b) aceclidine
c) carbachol
d) cytitone
e) pilocarpine
67. Pilocarpine produces:
a) miosis
b) mydriasis
c) spasm of eye accommodation
d) paralysis of eye accommodation (cycloplegia)
e) decrease in intraocular pressure
f) increase in intraocular pressure
68. What drugs are instilled into eye in glaucoma?
a) acetylcholine
b) atropine
c) carbachol
d) lobeline
e) pilocarpine
69. How do M- cholinomimetics influence the work of the heart?
a) increase excitability and automatism
b) decrease excitability and automatism
c) accelerate conduction in the AV node
d) slow down conduction in the AV node
e) produce tachycardia
f) produce bradycardia
70. How do M- cholinomimetics influence the work of excretory glands?
15
a) do not change
b) increase secretion
c) decrease secretion
71. Name pharmacological antagonist of M- cholinomimetics:
a) acetylcholine
b) atropine
c) nicotine
d) lobeline
e) pilocarpine
72. Which of the drugs contribute to stop smoking?
a) scopolamine
b) lobeline
c) cytitone
d) atropine
e) pilocarpine
73. Name cholinomimetics with indirect action:
a) M- cholinomimetics
b) N- cholinomimetics
c) stimulants of presynaptic release of acetylcholine
d) anticholinesterases
74. Stimulants of presynaptic release of acetylcholine (ceruletide, cisapride) are used in:
a) postoperative atony of the intestine
b) atony of the stomach
c) X-ray axamination of the gastrointestinal tract
d) peptic ulcers of the stomach
e) pregnancy
75. Stimulants of presynaptic release of acetylcholine (ceruletide, cisapride) are contraindicated in:
a) postoperative atony of the intestine
b) bowel obstruction (ileus)
c) X-ray examination of the gastrointestinal tract
d) peptic ulcers of the stomach
e) pregnancy
76. Name anticholinesterases:
a) acetylcholine
b) aceclidine
c) galantamine
d) neostigmine
e) izonitrozine
f) pyridostigmine bromide
77. Common indications for M- cholinomimetic and anticholinesterase drug administration are:
a) postoperative atony of the intestine
b) postoperative atony of the urinary bladder
c) glaucoma
d) myasthenia
e) labor weakness
78. The mechanism of anticholinesterase action:
a) an increase in acetylcholinesterase activity and a decrease in acetylcholine level in cholinergic
synapses
b) inhibition of acetylcholinesterase and accumulation of acetylcholine in cholinergic synapses
c) increase in acetylcholine release out of presynaptic endings
16
d) inhibition of acetylcholine release out of presynaptic endings
79. Instilled into eyes anticholinesterase drugs produce such effects as:
a) miosis
b) mydriasis
c) spasm of eye accommodation
d) paralysis of eye accommodation (cycloplegia)
e) a decrease in intraocular pressure
f) an increase in intraocular pressure
80. Anticholinesterases produce:
a) an increase in skeletal muscle tone
b) an increase in smooth muscle tone
c) an increase in salivary gland secretion
d) a decrease in salivary gland secretion
e) a decrease in intraocular pressure
81. What drugs are used for the treatment of myasthenia?
a) M-cholinomimetics
b) muscarinic receptor blockers
c) anticholinesterases
82. Which of anticholinesterase drugs penetrate into the CNS well?
a) tertiary compounds
b) quaternary compounds
c) their penetrability into the CNS does not depend on chemical structure
83. Name anticholinesterase drugs with irreversible action:
a) neostigmine
b) pyridostigmine
c) physostigmine
d) galantamine
e) armine
84. Name cholinesterase reactivators:
a) trimedoxime bromide
b) izonitrozine
c) unithiol (dimercaprol)
d) trihexyphenidyl hydrochloride
e) alloxime
85. The mechanism of cholinesterase reactivator action results from:
a) recovery of acetylcholinesterase activity
b) stimulation of M-cholinoceptors
c) blockade of M-cholinoceptors
d) blockade of N-cholinoceptors
86. What drugs are used as pharmacological antagonists in poisoning with organophosphorous
compounds?
a) cholinesterase reactivators
b) inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase
c) atropine
d) pilocarpine
87. Anticholinergic drugs are:
a) drugs facilitating nervous impulse transmission in cholinergic synapses
b) drugs inhibiting nervous impulse transmission in cholinergic synapses
c) drugs which do not change the nervous impulse transmission in cholinergic synapses
17
88. Name muscarinic receptor blockers with sedative action:
a) metocinium iodide
b) platyphylline
c) atropine
d) homatropine
e) scopolamine
89. Which of pharmacological properties discriminate atropine from other muscarinic receptor
blockers?
a) it stimulate respiratory center
b) it takes sedative effect
c) it produces the longest mydriasis and paralysis of accommodation
d) it dilates bronchi
e) it produces tachycardia
90. Atropine produces:
a) miosis
b) mydriasis
c) spasm of eye accommodation
d) paralysis of eye accommodation (cycloplegia)
e) decrease in intraocular pressure
f) increase in intraocular pressure
91. What is the duration of mydriasis in atropine administration?
a) 1-2 hours
b) 1-2 day
c) 7-10 day
92. Name indications for the use of atropine:
a) glaucoma
b) iridocyclitis (inflammation of an iris of the eye)
c) preanesthetic medication (introduction before giving narcosis)
d) poisoning with anticholinesterases
e) tachycardia
93. Name muscarinic receptor antagonist taking direct myotropic spasmolytic effect on smooth
muscles:
a) atropine
b) metocinium iodide
c) platyphylline
d) pirenzepine
94. Name muscarinic receptor antagonist selectively blocking gastric secretion:
atropine
metocinium iodide
platyphylline
pirenzepine
95. Name muscarinic receptor antagonist for inhalations in bronchospasm:
a) atropine
b) ipratropium bromide
c) platyphylline
d) pirenzepine
96. Name muscarinic receptor antagonists belonging to alkaloids:
a) atropine
b) hyoscyamine
c) ipratropium bromide
18
d) pirenzepine
e) platyphylline
97. Synthetic drugs of muscarinic receptor antagonists are:
a) atropine
b) metocinium iodide
c) ipratropium bromide
d) pirenzepine
e) platyphylline
98. What plants contain an alkaloid atropine?
a) black henbane (Hyoscyamus niger)
b) thorn apple (Datura stramonium)
c) Atropa belladonna
d) digitalis
e) lily- of- the valley
99. Influence of muscarinic antagonists on function of the heart:
a) no changes
b) they produce tachycardia
c) they produce bradycardia
d) they increase atrioventricular conductivity
e) they decrease atrioventricular conductivity
100. Influence of muscarinic antagonists on tone of smooth muscles:
a) no changes
b) a decrease
c) an increase
101. Influence of muscarinic antagonists on secretion of excretory glands:
a) no changes
b) a decrease
c) an increase
102. The action of muscarinic antagonists on thermoregulation results in:
a) a decrease in heat emission and temperature rise
b) an increase in heat emission and temperature reduction
c) they do not change body temperature
103. Name the adverse effects in case of muscarinic antagonists use:
a) bradycardia
b) tachycardia
c) dry mouth
d) excessive saliva production
e) disorder of urination
104. Name pharmacological antagonists in poisoning with atropine:
a) muscarinic receptor antagonists
b) reversible anticholinesterases
c) irreversible anticholinesterases
d) nicotinic receptor antagonists
105. Which of the listed below drugs are ganglionic blockers?
a) hexamethonium benzosulfonate
b) trepirium iodide
c) metocinium iodide
d) suxamethonium chloride
e) pempidine tosylate
106. Name ganglionic blockers with short-term action:
19
a) hexamethonium benzosulfonate
b) trepirium iodide
c) imechinum
d) azamethonium bromide
e) pempidine tosylate
107. Ganglionic blockers are drugs, which block:
a) N- cholinergic receptors of neuromuscular synapses
b) N- cholinergic receptors of autonomic ganglia
c) M- cholinergic receptors on smooth muscles
d) all types of cholinergic receptors
108. Name indications for the use of ganglionic blockers:
a) collapse
b) hypertension stroke
c) pulmonary edema
d) controlled hypotension
e) atony of the gastrointestinal tract
109. Name adverse effects in case of ganglionic blocker use:
a) orthostatic collapse
b) hypokinetic constipation
c) urinary retention
d) hypertension
e) dry mouth
110. Neuromuscular blockers (curare-like substances) are drugs, which block:
a) N- cholinergic receptors of neuromuscular synapses
b) N- cholinergic receptors of autonomic ganglia
c) M- cholinergic receptors on smooth muscles
d) all types of cholinergic receptors
111. The first neuromuscular blocker is:
a) suxamethonium chloride
b) d- tubocurarine
c) atropine
d) pachycarpine
112. Name common properties of tubocurarine and suxamethonium:
a) they block autonomic ganglia
b) they block neuromuscular transmission
c) their action is eliminated by neostigmine action
d) their action is eliminated by atropine action
e) diethyl ether potentiates their action
113. Indications for the use of suxamethonium chloride are:
a) treatment of bronchospasm
b) relaxation of skeletal muscles
c) treatment of hypertension stroke
d) treatment of glaucoma
e) psychomotor agitation
114. What drug should be administered in overdose of nondepolarizing (competitive)
neuromuscular blockers?
a) atropine
b) neostigmine
c) izonitrozine
d) suxamethonium chloride
20
e) azamethonium bromide
115. Name nondepolarizing (competitive) neuromuscular blockers:
a) pipecuronium bromide
b) pancuronium bromide
c) tubocurarine chloride
d) suxamethonium chloride
e) dioxonium
116. Name neuromuscular blockers of short-term action (5-15 minutes):
a) pipecuronium bromide
b) pancuronium bromide
c) tubocurarine chloride
d) suxamethonium chloride
e) mivacurium chloride
117. Name neuromuscular blockers of long-term action:
a) pipecuronium bromide
b) pancuronium bromide
c) tubocurarine chloride
d) suxamethonium chloride
e) mivacurium chloride
118. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers produce:
a) stable depolarization of postsynaptic membrane of neuromuscular synapse and
desensitization of receptors
b) block of postsynaptic membrane receptors of neuromuscular synapse and prevent
depolarizing action of acetylcholine
c) supression of motoneurons in the CNS
119. Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers produce:
a) stable depolarization of postsynaptic membrane of a neuromuscular synapse and
desensitization of receptors
b) block of postsynaptic membrane receptors of neuromuscular synapse and prevent
depolarizing action of acetylcholine
c) supression of motoneurons in the CNS
120. How do diethyl ether and halothane change the effect of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?
a) increase and prolong
b) decrease and shorten
c) not change
121. How do nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers act on children of first years of life?
a) they act longer
b) they act shorter
c) children are less sensitive
d) children are more sensitive
122. Name the depolarizing neuromuscular blocker:
a) pipecuronium bromide
b) pancuronium bromide
c) tubocurarine chloride
d) suxamethonium chloride
e) mellictinum
123. What neuromuscular blockers are antagonists of anticholinesterase drugs?
a) depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
b) non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers of competitive type
c) all neuromuscular blockers
21
Adrenergic drugs
124. Which of listed below effects will be more probable when a moderate dose of norepinephrine
is given after a high dose of atropine?
a) bradycardia caused by direct cardiac effect
b) bradycardia caused by indirect reflex action
c) tachycardia caused by direct action on the heart
d) tachycardia caused by indirect reflex action
e) without changes on the heart
125. Name selective α1- adrenergic agonist:
a) atenolol
b) phenylephrine
c) clonidine
d) salbutamol
e) noradrenaline
126. What group of drugs increases blood pressure, accelerates pulse rate and AV conductivity,
increases glycogenolysis and decreases bronchus tone?
a) muscarinic antagonists
b) sympatholytics
c) α,β - adrenergic agonists
d) α - adrenergic agonists
e) ganglionic blockers
127. Name adrenergic agonists for the treatment of rhinitis (nasal decongestants):
a) dobutamine
b) isoprenaline
c) xylometazoline
d) naphazoline
e) fenoterol
128. Name the mechanism of naphazoline action in rhinitis:
a) astringent action and decrease in mucus secretion
b) vasoconstrictive action and decrease in mucus secretion
c) antiseptic action
d) immunomodulatory action
e) adsorption of mucus
129. How does epinephrine influence heart work?
a) increases frequency and force of heartbeats
b) decreases frequency and force of heartbeats
c) increases conduction in atrioventricular (A-V) node
d) decreases conduction in atrioventricular (A-V) node
e) increases myocardium oxygen demand
f) decreases myocardium oxygen demand
130. How does epinephrine influence vascular tone and blood pressure?
a) increases vascular tone and blood pressure
b) decreases vascular tone and blood pressure
c) does not change vascular tone and blood pressure
131. Name drugs for the treatment of acute hypotension:
a) adrenaline (epinephrine)
b) noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
c) phenylephrine
d) isoprenaline
22
e) clonidine
132. What is the cause of bradycardia development due to norepinephrine introduction?
a) reflex activation of the vagus nerve
b) block of β – adrenoceptors of the heart
c) block of sympathetic ganglia
133. Name main properties of dobutamine:
a) β1- adrenoceptor agonist
b) β2- adrenoceptor agonist
c) cardiotonic drug of non-glycoside structure
d) bronchodilator
e) sympathomimetic
134. Name main properties of isoprenaline:
a) selective β1- adrenoceptor agonist
b) selective β2- adrenoceptor agonist
c) nonselective β- adrenoceptor agonist
135. Isoprenaline produces:
a) relaxation of bronchial muscles
b) acceleration of heartbeats
c) an increase in myometrium tone
d) an increase in tone of the respiratory center and vasomotor center
e) a decrease in blood pressure
136. Name the routes of noradrenaline administration:
a) oral intake
b) sublingually
c) subcutaneously
d) intramuscularly
e) intravenously
137. What groups of drugs are administrated in bronchospasm?
a) β1- adrenoceptor agonists
b) β2- adrenoceptor agonists
c) α1- adrenoceptor agonists
d) α2- adrenoceptor agonists
e) β-adrenoceptor blockers
138. Name selective β2- adrenoceptor agonists:
a) salbutamol
b) fenoterol
c) isoprenaline
d) dobutamine
e) adrenaline (epinephrine)
139. Name indications for the use of salbutamol:
a) stomach ulcers
b) essential hypertension
c) atony of the intestine
d) bronchospasm
e) atony of the uterus
140. Name sympathomimetic (indirect adrenoceptor agonist):
a) adrenaline (epinephrine)
b) ephedrine
c) phenylephrine
d) reserpine
23
141. Name correct statement:
a) ephedrine depresses the CNS
b) ephedrine stimulates the CNS
c) ephedrine does not pass through the blood-brain barrier and does not influence the CNS
142. Name drugs for the treatment of angina pectoris:
a) propranolol
b) isoprenaline
c) adrenaline (epinephrine)
d) metoprolol
e) phentolamine
143. What drugs can cause an exacerbation of stomach ulcers?
a) atropine
b) hexamethonium benzosulfonate
c) galantamine
d) guanethidine
e) reserpine
144. Name cardioselective adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) β1- adrenoceptor antagonists
b) β2- adrenoceptor antagonists
c) β1, β2- adrenoceptor antagonists
145. Name cardioselective β- adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) oxprenolol
b) labetalol
c) metoprolol
d) atenolol
e) bisoprolol
146. Name the most selective β1-adrenoceptor antagonist:
a) oxprenolol
b) nebivolol
c) metoprolol
d) atenolol
e) bisoprolol
147. Name the drug, which does not belong to cardioselective adrenoceptor antagonist:
a) propranolol
b) bisoprolol
c) atenolol
d) metoprolol
e) talinolol
148. Name β- adrenoceptor antagonists with vasorelaxant properties:
a) oxprenolol
b) carvedilol
c) nebivolol
d) propranolol
149. Name β- adrenoceptor antagonists with intrinsic sympathomimetic action:
a) oxprenolol
b) carvedilol
c) nebivolol
d) propranolol
e) pindolol
24
150. Name indications for the use of β- adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) angina pectoris
b) essential hypertension
c) arterial hypotension
d) bronchial asthma
e) extrasystole
151. Name adverse effects limiting the use of adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) increase in intraocular pressure caused by β- adrenoceptor antagonist use
b) atrioventricular heart block caused by α-adrenoceptor antagonist use
c) cardiac insufficiency caused by β- adrenoceptor antagonist use
d) disorder of blood circulation caused by α-adrenoceptor antagonist use
e) bronchospasm caused by β- adrenoceptor antagonist use
152. Name adverse effects of β- adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) sinus bradycardia
b) exacerbation of bronchial asthma
c) withdrawal syndrome
d) tachycardia
153. Name alkaloids producing a marked inhibitory influence on the CNS and PNS, having sedative
and hypotensive effects, causing a depression:
a) atropine
b) sparteine
c) platyphylline
d) reserpine
e) physostigmine
154. What statements are correct for reserpine?
a) it decreases a release of catecholamines out of nerve endings of sympathetic fibres
b) it increases a release of catecholamines out of nerve endings of sympathetic fibres
c) it rises BP
d) it decreases BP
e) it depresses the CNS
155. What drugs should be recommended to a patient with glaucoma if he suffers from essential
hypertension too?
a) epinephrine
b) propranolol
c) guanethidine
d) pilocarpine
e) clonidine
156. Name α1- adrenoceptor antagonists:
a) atenolol
b) prazosin
c) doxazosin
d) terazosin
e) phentolamine
157. Prazosin is used in case of:
a) rhinitis (locally)
b) bronchospasm
c) essential hypertension
d) stomach ulcer
e) diarrhea
25
158. What pharmacological group of drugs does guanethidine belong to:
a) sympathomimetic
b) indirect adrenoceptor antagonist
c) adrenoceptor antagonist
d) cholinergic antagonist
159. Name adverse effects due to administration of propranolol:
a) tachycardia
b) bradycardia
c) bronchospasm
d) atrioventricular heart block
e) disturbances of eye accommodation
3. Drugs acting on the central nervous system
1. Name drugs for noninhalation narcosis:
a) halothane
b) ketamine
c) propofol
d) hexenal
e) sodium oxybate
f) isoflurane
2. Choose the correct statement regarding nitrous oxide:
a) it is an effective general anesthetic and can be used for mononarcosis
b) it does not undergo biotransformation
c) it has no analgetic properties
d) it is rarely used in modern surgery
e) it does not require simultaneous administration of neuromuscular blockers
3. Which of the listed below drugs can produce so called “dissociative anesthesia”?
a) ketamine
b) halothane
c) droperidol
d) thiopentone sodium
e) propanidid
4. Sodium oxybate produces narcosis, which continues:
a) 5-10 minutes
b) 20-30 minutes
c) 30-60 minutes
d) 2 hours
e) 4-6 hours
5. A dose of neuromuscular blockers can be decreased if a narcosis is performed with:
a) nitrous oxide
b) propanidid
c) halothane
d) diethyl ether
e) thiopentone sodium
6. Which of the drugs are used for the treatment of chronic alcoholism?
a) apomorphine hydrochloride
b) morphine hydrochloride
c) piracetam
d) naloxone
26
e) disulfiram (tetraethylthiuram disulfide)
7. The mechanism of disulfiram (tetraethylthiuram disulfide) is:
a) block of alcohol dehydrogenase and delay of ethanol biotransformation
b) activation of alcohol dehydrogenase and acceleration of ethanol biotransformation
c) block of aldehyde dehydrogenase and delay of acetaldehyde biotransformation
d) activation of aldehyde dehydrogenase and acceleration of acetaldehyde biotransformation
8. Name the drugs used as hypnotics:
a) zopiclone
b) zolpidem
c) nitrazepam
d) piracetam
e) carbamazepine
9. Name the derivatives of barbituric acid:
a) chlorpromazine
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) phenobarbital
e) zolpidem
10. Indications for the administration of phenobarbital are:
a) Parkinson′s disease
b) epilepsy
c) depression
d) insomnia
e) induction of microsomal liver enzymes
11. Which of the listed below drugs produce considerable induction of microsomal liver enzymes?
a) phenobarbital
b) diazepam
c) morphine
d) chlorpromazine
e) halothane
12. Name the hypnotic drugs from the group of benzodiazepine derivatives:
a) midazolam
b) zolpidem
c) nitrazepam
d) triazolam
e) zopiclone
13. Name the non-benzodiazepine agonists of benzodiazepine receptors:
a) midazolam
b) zolpidem
c) nitrazepam
d) triazolam
e) zopiclone
f) phenobarbital
14. Name the basic properties of zolpidem:
a) derivative of imidazopyridine
b) derivative of benzodiazepine
c) interacts with benzodiazepine receptors and activates GABAergic system
d) influences phases of sleep weakly
e) has high bioavailability
27
f) has low bioavailability
15. Name the basic properties of zopiclone:
a) derivative of imidazopyridine
b) derivative of cyclopyrrolone
c) interacts with GABAA - benzodiazepine - barbiturate receptors
d) considerably shortens the phase of "rapid eye movement"
e) the duration of sleep is 6-8 hours
f) the duration of sleep is 3-4 hours
16. Which of the drugs have anticonvulsant activity?
a) diclofenac sodium
b) chloropyramine
c) diazepam
d) sodium oxybate
e) clonazepam
17. Name the indications for lamotrigine administration:
a) generalized tonic-clonic seizures (grand mal)
b) absence seizures (petit mal)
c) psychomotor equivalents of epileptic seizures
d) Parkinson′s disease
e) schizophrenia
f) insomnia
18. The mechanism of lamotrigine action is:
a) activation of GABAA-BZD receptor complex
b) block of GABAA-BZD receptor complex
c) stimulation of release of excitatory amino acids out of presynaptic endings
d) inhibition of release of excitatory amino acids out of presynaptic endings
19. Name the drugs used to control status epilepticus:
a) trimethadione
b) clonazepam
c) valproic acid
d) diazepam
e) ethosuximide
20. Name the drugs for Parkinson′s disease treatment:
a) aethimizole
b) trihexyphenidyl
c) selegiline
d) levodopa
e) nakom
21. Name the mechanism of selegiline action:
a) an increase in dopamine synthesis
b) an increase in dopamine release out of nerve endings
c) an increase in dopamine receptor sensitivity
d) block of МАО-B enzyme
e) block of central muscarinic receptor
22. Effects of narcotic analgesics are due to:
a) their interaction with dopamine receptors
b) their interaction with opioid receptors
c) their interaction with cholinergic receptors
d) inhibition of cyclooxygenase
e) inhibition of prostaglandin-synthetase
28
23. Choose opium alkaloid drugs:
a) morphine
b) codeine
c) atropine sulfate
d) papaverine hydrochloride
e) fentanyl
f) trimeperidine
24. Choose synthetic narcotic analgesic drugs:
a) morphine
b) codeine
c) buprenorphine
d) tramadol
e) fentanyl
f) trimeperidine
25. Choose among opium alkaloids phenanthrene derivatives:
a) morphine
b) codeine
c) papaverine
26. Choose main differences between papaverine hydrochloride and morphine:
a) papaverine hydrochloride causes spasmolytic action on smooth muscles
b) papaverine hydrochloride does not cause dependence
c) papaverine hydrochloride causes more marked euphoria
d) papaverine hydrochloride has not analgesic effect
e) papaverine hydrochloride causes more considerable analgesic effect
f) papaverine hydrochloride causes psychostimulant effect
27. Full agonists of opioid receptors are:
a) buprenorphine
b) tramadol
c) morphine
d) trimeperidine
e) piritramide
f) fentanyl
28. Partial agonists of opioid receptors are:
a) buprenorphine
b) morphine
c) tramadol
d) fentanyl
e) pentazocine
f) butorphanol
29. Antagonists of opioid receptors are:
a) naloxone
b) piritramide
c) naltrexone
d) tramadol
e) morphine
30. A drug of choice for treatment of opioid drug overdosage is:
a) codeine
b) trimeperidine
c) naloxone
29
d) pentazocine
e) fentanyl
31. Adverse effects caused by narcotic analgesic administration are:
a) psychic and physical dependence
b) tolerance
c) atony of smooth muscles
d) increase of smooth muscle tone
e) respiratory depression
f) cough
32. In coma state the difference between cocaine and morphine addicts is:
a) value of blood pressure
b) pulse rate
c) size of pupils
d) respiratory rate
e) tone of skeletal muscles
33. Naloxone blocks:
a) muscarinic cholinoceptors
b) β- adrenoreceptors
c) opioid receptors
d) H2- histamine receptors
34. The pharmacological activity of paracetamol includes such effects as:
a) antipyretic effect
b) antiplatelet effect
c) analgesic effect
d) anti-inflammatory effect
e) spasmolytic effect
35. Adverse effects due to administration of paracetamol are:
a) allergic reaction
b) methemoglobinemia
c) disorder of liver function
d) crystalluria
e) hypochromic anemia
f) hyperchromic anemia
36. The main pharmacological effects of acetylsalicylic acid are:
a) antipyretic effect
b) antiaggregant effect
c) analgesic effect
d) anti-inflammatory effect
e) spasmolytic effect
37. The main pharmacological effects of metamizole sodium are:
a) antipyretic effect
b) antiplatelet effect
c) analgesic effect
d) anti-inflammatory effect
e) spasmolytic effect
38. Adverse effects of metamizole sodium are:
a) agranulocytosis
b) thrombocytopenia
c) leukocytosis
d) allergic reactions
30
e) hemorrhages
39. Relief of toothache with metamizole sodium is due to:
a) decrease in nerve impulse transmission in tooth pulp
b) decrease in edema and local inflammatory reaction
c) decrease in prostaglandin synthesis
d) activation of opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord
e) increase in an excitation threshold of nociceptors
40. Which of the drugs have analgetic and anti-inflammatory action:
a) diclofenac
b) indometacin
c) nitrazepam
d) selegiline
e) levodopa
f) nimesulide
41. The mechanism of analgesic action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is:
a) stimulation of opioid receptors
b) block of opioid receptors
c) inhibition of cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin synthesis
d) activation of cyclooxygenase and prostaglandin synthesis
42. The mechanism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptic drugs is based on their influence on:
a) GABA-BZD-barbiturate receptor complex
b) dopamine receptors
c) opioid receptors
d) histamine Н2-receptors
e) МАО and COMT enzymes
43. Name derivatives of phenothiazine:
a) chlorpromazine
b) diazepam
c) droperidol
d) perphenazine
e) haloperidol
44. Name typical adverse effects for the majority of phenothiazines:
a) increase in arterial pressure
b) muscle tension and tremor
c) decrease in prolactin release
d) decrease in the CNS sensitivity to the action of psychosedative drugs such as barbiturates,
etc
e) nausea
f) psychomotor agitation
45. Name adverse effects of chlorpromazine:
a) hyperexcitability
b) insomnia
c) extrapyramidal disorders
d) change of endocrine status
e) decrease in arterial blood pressure
46. Name antipsychotic drug, which does not cause extrapyramidal disorders:
a) chlorpromazine
b) levomepromazine
c) haloperidol
d) fluphenazine
31
e) clozapine
47. Name the main properties of “atypical” antipsychotic drugs:
a) marked antipsychotic activity
b) poor antipsychotic activity
c) extrapyramidal disorders often appear
d) extrapyramidal disorders appear rarely
e) have less adverse effects than typical antipsychotic drugs
f) have more adverse effects than typical antipsychotic drugs
48. Name “atypical” antipsychotic drugs:
a) chlorpromazine
b) sulpiride
c) haloperidol
d) fluphenazine
e) clozapine
f) quetiapine
49. How do antipsychotic drugs change the action of analgesic and general anaesthetic drugs?
a) do not change
b) increase their action
c) decrease their action
d) decrease their action only in long-term administration
50. What is neuroleptanalgesia?
a) inhibition of pain as a result of neuroleptic drug administration
b) anesthesia due to simultaneous administration of an antipsychotic and narcotic drug
c) anesthesia due to simultaneous administration of an antipsychotic drug and spasmolytic drug
d) inhibition of the CNS due to antipsychotic drug administration
51. Which combination of drugs is more often used to produce neuroleptanalgesia?
a) chlorpromazine + morphine
b) chlorpromazine + trimeperidine
c) droperidol + fentanyl
d) droperidol+ morphine
e) haloperidol + codeine
52. Name benzodiazepine derivatives:
a) chlorpromazine
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) phenobarbital
e) nitrazepam
53. Name the mechanism of diazepam action:
a) stimulates GABA-BZD receptor complex
b) stimulates dopamine receptors
c) stimulates cholinoceptors
d) stimulates histamine Н1-receptors
e) stimulates adenosine receptors
54. Name the main effects of diazepam:
a) anxiolytic effect
b) antidepressive effect
c) relaxation of skeletal muscles
d) sedative effect
32
e) anticonvulsant effect
55. Name the cause of skeletal muscle relaxant effect of benzodiazepines:
a) block of nicotinic cholinoceptors in neuromuscular synapses
b) block of acetylcholine release out of presynaptic membranes of motor nerves
c) inhibition of spinal polysynaptic reflexes
56. Name the antagonist of benzodiazepine tranquilizers:
a) flunitrazepam
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) flumazenil
e) nitrazepam
f) triazolam
57. Name long-term benzodiazepine tranquilizers:
a) chlordiazepoxide
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) lorazepam
e) midazolam
f) oxazepam
58. Name short- term benzodiazepine tranquilizers:
a) chlordiazepoxide
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) lorazepam
e) midazolam
f) oxazepam
59. Name mid-term benzodiazepine tranquilizers:
a) chlordiazepoxide
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) lorazepam
e) midazolam
f) oxazepam
60. Names adverse effects of benzodiazepines:
a) sleepiness
b) sleeplessness (insomnia)
c) memory impairment
d) slowing-down of motor reactions
e) weakness
61. Why are benzodiazepine derivatives dangerous for children and teenagers?
a) because of the development of dependence
b) because of an increase in skeletal muscle tone
c) because of memory impairment
d) because of the development of seizures
e) because of the development of nervous excitement
62. Why is the administration of diazepam dangerous during pregnancy and labour?
a) because preterm delivery is possible
b) because inhibition of newborn sucking reflex is possible
c) because of a danger of apnea in newborns
d) because of an increase in neurologic disorders in newborns
33
e) delay of labour
63. What drugs are called “day tranquilizers”?
a) having a significant hypnotic and sedative effects
b) having a slight hypnotic and sedative effects
c) not having an anxiolytic effect
64. Name “day tranquilizers”:
a) chlordiazepoxide
b) diazepam
c) phenazepam
d) medazepam
e) dipotassium clorazepate
f) tofisopam
65. Name the drugs causing medicinal dependence:
a) morphine
b) codeine
c) piracetam
d) diazepam
e) phenobarbital
66. Name sedative drugs:
a) gamma- aminobutyric acid (aminalone)
b) caffeine
c) piracetam
d) tincture of Valeriana
e) sodium bromide
f) tincture of Motherwort (Leonurus)
67. Name plants which have sedative action:
a) snowdon rose (rhodiola rosea)
b) valeriana
c) magnolia vine (schisandra)
d) motherwort (leonurus)
e) peppermint (mentha piperita)
68. Due to which of the causes given below do tricyclic antidepressants increase biogenic amine
concentration in the CNS synapses?
a) increase in biogenic amine release out of nerve endings
b) increase in biogenic amines synthesis in the nerve endings
c) inhibition of biogenic amine disintegration
d) inhibition of monoamine re-uptake
69. Name the mechanism of antidepressant action of МАО inhibitors:
a) inhibition of oxidative deamination of norepinephrine and serotonin, increase in their
concentration in presynaptic depot
b) stimulation of oxidative deamination of norepinephrine and serotonin, decrease in their
concentration in presynaptic depot
c) stimulation of norepinephrine synthesis and serotonin in the cerebral tissue
70. Name antidepressants (selective МАО-A inhibitors):
a) nialamide
b) fenelzin
c) moclobemide
d) amitriptyline
e) pirlindole
f) tetrindole
34
71. Name antidepressants (non-selective МАО inhibitors):
a) nialamide
b) fenelzin
c) moclobemide
d) amitriptyline
e) pirlindole
f) tetrindole
72. Name antidepressants (selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors):
a) trazodone
b) fluoxetine
c) imipramine
d) amitriptyline
e) fluvoxamine
f) sertraline
73. Name antidepressants (nonselective monoamines re-uptake inhibitors):
a) pipofezine
b) fluoxetine
c) imipramine
d) amitriptyline
e) trazodone
f) clomipramine
74. Name “atypical” antidepressants:
a) pipofezine
b) imipramine
c) tianeptine
d) mianserin
e) moclobemide
75. Name basic properties of nialamide:
a) selective МАО-A inhibitor
b) nonselective МАО-A inhibitor
c) selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor
d) nonselective monoamines re-uptake inhibitor
e) drug with a reversible action
f) drug with an irreversible action
76. Name adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants:
a) dryness of mouth
b) hypersalivation
c) tachycardia
d) bradycardia
e) constipation
f) retention of urination
77. Name the basic differences between mianserin and tricyclic antidepressants:
a) mianserin has antimuscarinic activity
b) mianserin has not antimuscarinic activity
c) mianserin has anxiolytic activity
d) mianserin has not anxiolytic activity
e) mianserin causes disturbance of the cardiovascular system
f) mianserin does causes disturbance of the cardiovascular system
35
78. Name antidepressants with stimulant action:
a) pipofezine
b) amitriptyline
c) nialamide
d) mianserin
e) moclobemide
f) tetrindole
79. Name antidepressants with sedative action:
a) pipofezine
b) amitriptyline
c) nialamide
d) mianserin
e) moclobemide
f) tetrindole
80. Name psychomotor stimulants:
a) gamma- aminobutyric acid (aminalone)
b) caffeine
c) piracetam
d) pyritinol
e) amphetamine
81. Name characteristic features of psychomotor stimulants:
a) increase in physical and mental activity
b) short-term action
c) long-term action
d) increase in energy consumption of the brain
e) decrease in energy consumption of the brain
f) decrease in need of sleep
82. Name basic properties of caffeine:
a) derivative of methylxanthines
b) derivative of phenylalkylamines
c) produces psychostimulant action
d) produces analeptic action
e) increases the basal metabolic rate
f) decreases the basal metabolic rate
83. Name the caffeine action on gastric secretion:
a) increases the secretion
b) decreases the secretion
c) does not influence the secretion
84. Name adverse effects of caffeine:
a) psychic excitement, anxiety
b) depression of the CNS
c) tachycardia
d) bradycardia
e) nausea, vomiting
f) sleepiness
85. Name nootropic drugs:
a) gamma- aminobutyric acid (aminalone)
b) caffeine
c) piracetam
d) hopatenic acid
36
e) pyritinol
f) picamilon
86. Name piracetam basic properties:
a) stimulates process of thinking in case of chronic vascular and degenerative disturbances of
the brain
b) has antihypoxant action
c) has anticonvulsant action
d) the effect is seen after the first dose taking
e) causes heart arrhythmias
87. Which of drugs listed below have analeptic action?
a) nikethamide
b) aethimizole
c) piracetam
d) caffeine
e) diazepam
4. Drugs acting on metabolism
1. What is the cause of the decrease in vascular permeability due to the action of drugs containing
ascorbic acid and bioflavonoids?
a) stimulation of collagen synthesis
b) activation of hyaluronidase
c) participation in metabolism of calcium and phosphorus ions
d) inhibition of collagen synthesis
e) inhibition of hyaluronidase
2. Preparations of vitamin B6 are:
a) riboflavin
b) cyanocobalamin
c) thiamine
d) pyridoxine hydrochloride
e) pyridoxal phosphate
3. Which of the drugs is coenzyme form of vitamin В6?
a) riboflavin
b) cyanocobalamin
c) phosphothiamine
d) pyridoxine hydrochloride
e) pyridoxal phosphate
4. Which of the vitamin preparations have antianemic action?
a) folic acid
b) cyanocobalamin
c) ergocalciferol
d) tocopherol
e) nicotinic acid
5. Which of the vitamin preparation has antirachitic action?
a) pyridoxine
b) cyanocobalamin
c) tocopherol
d) ergocalciferol
e) nicotinic acid
6. Preparations of vitamin B12 are:
37
a) riboflavin mononucleotide
b) thiamine
c) pyridoxine
d) cyanocobalamin
e) pantothenic acid
7. Preparations of vitamin B1 are:
a) riboflavin
b) thiamine
c) cyanocobalamin
d) phosphothiamine
e) pyridoxine
8. Which of the drugs is coenzyme form of vitamin В1?
a) riboflavin
b) thiamine
c) cyanocobalamin
d) phosphothiamine
e) pyridoxine
9. Which of the vitamin preparations has antioxidant action?
a) folic acid
b) cyanocobalamin
c) pyridoxal
d) tocopherol
e) ergocalciferol
10. Choose indications for tocopherol acetate use:
a) hemorrhagic diathesis
b) danger of miscarriage
c) rheumatoid arthritis
d) muscle dystrophia
e) hemeralopia
11. Choose indications for vitamin A use:
a) hemorrhagic diathesis
b) danger of miscarriage
c) skin burn
d) dermatitis
e) hemeralopia
12. Choose indications for therapeutic use of vitamin D:
a) hemorrhagic diathesis
b) danger of miscarriage
c) rickets
d) osteodystrophy
e) hemeralopia
13. Choose indications for vitamin K preparations use:
a) hemorrhagic diathesis
b) hypoprothrombinemia
c) rachitis
d) osteodystrophy
e) liver cirrhosis
38
14. Prothrombin index and blood coagulation should be periodically checked when such drugs are
used as:
a) menadione
b) ethyl biscoumacetate
c) tocopherol acetate
d) ergocalciferol
e) retinol acetate
15. What preparations are called retinoids?
a) preparations of ergocalciferol
b) preparations of cholecalciferol
c) preparations of tocopherol
d) metabolites and synthetic derivatives of retinol
16. What kind of hypervitaminosis is manifested by hypercalcemia, bone demineralization and
parenchymatous organ calcification?
a) hypervitaminosis A
b) hypervitaminosis D
c) hypervitaminosis Е
d) hypervitaminosis K
17. Name enzyme preparations to improve the process of digestion:
a) aprotinin
b) hyaluronidase
c) pancreatin
d) festal
e) panzinorm
18. Name enzyme preparations to destroy hyaluronic acid:
a) aprotinin
b) pancreatin
c) panzinorm
d) hyaluronidase
e) ronidase
19. Name enzyme preparation to improve tissue respiration:
a) hyaluronidase
b) cytochrome C
c) desoxyribonuclease
d) penicillinase
e) aprotinin
20. Inhibitors of proteolysis are:
a) hyaluronidase
b) pantripin
c) pancreatin
d) festal
e) aprotinin
21. Choose the correct statement. Danazol (danoval):
a) depresses secretion of ACTH
b) depresses secretion of TSH
c) depresses secretion of gonadotropins in the hypophysis
d) stimulates function of adrenal glands
e) stimulates synthesis of estrogens
22. Preparations of glucocorticoid hormones are used as:
a) anti-inflammatory drugs
39
b) antiallergic drugs
c) antiulcer drugs
d) antishock drugs
e) immunostimulant drugs
23. Choose synthetic corticoids:
a) cortisone
b) hydrocortisone
c) prednisolone
d) beclomethasone
e) dexamethasone
24. Drugs of gestagenic hormones are:
a) progesterone
b) estradiol
c) oxyprogesterone caproate
d) allylestrenol
e) clomifen
25. Choose antiestrogenic drugs:
a) synestrol
b) clomifen
c) desoxycorticosterone acetate
d) tamoxifen
e) flutamide
26. Which of the drugs demonstrate antiandrogenic action?
a) synestrol
b) clomifen
c) desoxycorticosterone acetate
d) tamoxifen
e) flutamide
f) cyproterone acetate
27. Choose the correct statements. Anabolic steroids:
a) have androgenic action
b) cause masculinisation in women
c) accelerate process of bone calcification
d) are used in thyrotoxicosis
e) increase excretion of potassium and phosphorus out of an organism
28. Name adverse effects of corticotropin:
a) tachycardia
b) decrease in arterial pressure
c) edemas
d) a delay of regeneration processes
e) sleeplessness
29. Estrogenic preparations can be used for the treatment of osteoporosis in women in the menopause
because:
a) they promote calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
b) they have antagonism with parathormone and reduce its action on bones
c) they completely restore osseous tissue in osteoporosis
d) they decrease excretion of calcium by kidneys
e) they increase calcitriol concentration in blood serum
30. Name synthetic hypoglycemic drugs:
a) thiamazole
40
b) insulin - actrapid
c) glibenclamide
d) buformin
e) methandrostenolone
31. Choose explanations for mechanism of biguanide hypoglycemic action:
a) inhibition of glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
b) stimulation of glycolysis in muscular tissue
c) inhibition of gluconeogenesis
d) increase in insulin secretion by - cells of the pancreas
e) inhibition of glucagon production by -cells of the pancreas
32. Choose the mechanism of acarbose hypoglycemic action:
a) inhibition of glucose absorption in the gastrointestinal tract due to inhibition of α-glucosidase
b) stimulation of glycolysis in muscular tissue
c) inhibition of gluconeogenesis
d) increase in insulin secretion by - cells of the pancreas
e) inhibition of glucagon production by -cells of the pancreas
33. Which of the drugs are administered for the treatment of hypoglycemic coma?
a) acarbose
b) glucose
c) neutral insulin
d) insulin zinc suspension (amorphous) (semilong)
e) glibenclamide
34. Mechanism of sulfonylurea hypoglycemic action is determined by:
a) inhibition of glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
b) increase in insulin secretion by - cells of the pancreas
c) inhibition of glucagon production by -cells of the pancreas
d) increase in insulin receptor activity
e) stimulation of glycolysis in muscular tissue
35. Name correct statements concerning glucocorticoids:
a) they interact with intracellular receptors
b) they stimulate activity of phospholipase A
c) they stimulate leukotriene synthesis
d) they are used for the treatment of severe infectious diseases
e) they stimulate release of lipocortin
36. What changes of metabolism does L-thyroxine cause?
a) it increases the destruction of proteins
b) it promotes hypercholesterinemia
c) it decreases the basal metabolism
d) it increases oxygen consumption by tissues
e) it promotes loss of weight
37. Which of the drugs are administered in thyroid gland hypofunction?
a) L-thyroxine
b) liothyronine (triiodothyronine)
c) thiamazole
d) potassium perchlorate
38. Which of the drugs are used in hyperfunction of the thyroid gland?
a) L-thyroxine
b) Triiodothyronine (triiodothyronine)
c) thiamazole
d) potassium perchlorate
41
39. Choose the wrong statement for desoxycorticosterone acetate:
a) it increases of Na+ reabsorption
b) it decreases arterial pressure
c) it is a preparation of choice in patients with chronic adrenal insufficiency
d) it increases a secretion of potassium ions
e) it is used in myasthenia
40. Choose an antithyroid drug:
a) triiodothyronine hydrochloride
b) levothyroxine sodium (L-thyroxine)
c) methandrostenolone
d) thiamazole
e) thyreocomb
41. Name a steroid anabolic drug:
a) glibenclamide
b) buformin
c) methandrostenolone
d) hydrocortisone
e) ethinyl estradiol
f) desoxycorticosterone acetate
42. Coagulation of blood is inhibited by:
a) heparin
b) protamine sulfate
c) ethyl biscoumacetate
d) nadroparin
e) menadione
43. Which of the drugs is heparin antagonist?
a) fibrinolysin
b) protamine sulfate
c) ethyl biscoumacetate
d) nadroparin
e) menadione
44. Direct coagulants stimulate coagulation of blood:
a) only in vitro
b) only in vivo
c) in vitro and in vivo
45. Coagulants of indirect action stimulate coagulation of blood:
a) only in vitro
b) only in vivo
c) in vitro and in vivo
46. Mechanism of indirect anticoagulant action is:
a) inhibition of conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
b) inhibition of conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
c) inhibition of aggregation factor release from thrombocytes
d) activation of fibrinolysin
e) inhibition of blood-coagulation factor synthesis in the liver
47. Name plants producing hemostatic effect:
a) urtica (nettle)
b) polygonum hydropiper (water peppe)
c) hypericum (St.-John's wort)
d) lagochilus inebrians Burge
42
e) rhodiola rosea (snowdon rose)
48. Which of the drugs inhibit fibrinolysis?
a) aminocaproic acid
b) acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
c) aprotinin
d) fibrinolysin
e) protamine sulfate
49. Drugs used in hypochromic anemia are:
a) ferrous sulfate
b) ferroplex
c) folic acid
d) cyanocobalamin
e) ferbitol
50. An antidote used in acute iron poisoning is:
a) protamine sulfate
b) deferoxamine (desferal)
c) ethylene diamine tetraacetate
d) heparin
e) immunoglobulin
51. Which of the properties does thromboxane A2 have?
a) it inhibits aggregation of thrombocytes
b) it induces aggregation of thrombocytes
c) it causes vasodilation
d) it increases cAMP content in thrombocytes
e) it decreases cAMP content in thrombocytes
52. Choose the mechanism of streptokinase action:
a) it stimulates activators of plasmin
b) it stimulates activity of plasmin
c) it has proteolytic effect on fibrin
d) it inhibits synthesis II, VII, IX, X blood-coagulation factors
53. Name indications for ethyl biscoumacetate administration:
a) thrombophlebites
b) thromboembolism
c) hemorrhagic diseases
d) use of heart-lung machines (pump oxygenators)
e) prophylaxis and treatment of thrombosis in myocardial infarction
54. Which of drugs are used for prophylaxis and treatment of thrombosis of face veins?
a) heparin
b) streptokinase
c) fibrinolysin
d) menadione
e) aminocapronic acid
f) fibrinogen
55. Choose the correct statements:
a) transport of iron is provided with ferritin
b) cyanocobalamin is used for the treatment of hypochromic anemia:
c) ferrous iron (Fe2+) is able to transport oxygen in a greater degree than ferric iron (Fe3+)
d) coamide is used for iron deficiency anemia treatment
e) ferric iron is a part of haemoglobin
56. Name the drugs promoting arrest of bleeding:
43
a) aminocapronic acid
b) thrombin
c) hemostatic sponge
d) ethyl biscoumacetate
e) heparin
57. Which of drugs are indicated in bleeding sickness?
a) ethyl biscoumacetate
b) dipyridamole
c) lagochilus inebrians Burge
d) calcium glycerophosphate
e) heparin
f) menadione
58. Choose direct coagulants:
a) menadione
b) medicinal gelatin
c) thrombin
d) fibrinogen
e) calcium chloride
59. Choose indirect coagulants:
a) menadione (vicasol)
b) medicinal gelatin
c) thrombin
d) fibrinogen
e) calcium chloride
60. Which of drugs inhibit aggregation of thrombocytes?
a) acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
b) menadione (vicasol)
c) dipyridamole
d) ethyl biscoumacetate
e) pentoxiphylline
61. Choose modes of thrombocyte aggregation inhibition:
a) inhibition of thromboxane synthesis in thrombocytes
b) stimulation of thromboxane synthesis in thrombocytes
c) activation of thromboxane receptors
d) block of thromboxane receptors
e) activation of prostacyclin systems
f) depression of prostacyclin systems
62. Chose indirect anticoagulants - coumarin derivatives:
a) ethyl biscoumacetate
b) acenocoumarol
c) warfarin
d) phenindione
e) enoxaparin
63. Choose direct anticoagulants - low molecular weight heparins:
a) ethyl biscoumacetate
b) heparin
c) warfarin
d) nadroparin
e) enoxaparin
64. Choose indications for the administration of protamine sulfate:
44
a) overdosage of heparin
b) overdosage of ethyl biscoumacetate
c) hemorrhagic diathesis
d) thrombophlebitis
e) allergic reaction of immediate type
65. The mechanism of nonsteroid antiinflammatory drug action (NSAIDs) is:
a) inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX)
b) inhibition of phospholipase A2
c) inhibition of lipoxygenase
d) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
e) inhibition of monoamine oxidase
66. The mechanism of steroid antiinflammatory drug action (SAIDs) is:
a) inhibition of cyclooxygenase
b) inhibition of phospholipase A2
c) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
d) inhibition of lipoxygenase
e) inhibition of monoamine oxidase
67. Choose acidic derivatives among NSAIDs listed below:
a) ibuprofen
b) diclofenac sodium
c) ketoprofen
d) indomethacin
e) nimesulide
f) celecoxib
68. Choose non-acidic derivatives among NSAIDs listed below:
a) indomethacin
b) diclofenac sodium
c) ketoprofen
d) nabumetone
e) nimesulide
f) celecoxib
69. Choose main effects of NSAIDs:
a) analgesic effect
b) antihistamine effect
c) hypotensive effect
d) antipyretic effect
e) antiinflammatory effect
f) hemostatic effect
70. Choose indications for NSAID administration:
a) rheumatoid arthritis
b) radiculitis
c) gastritis
d) hyperthermia
e) myalgia
f) bronchospasm
71. Name NSAIDs with a short-term action (less than 6 hours):
a) acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
b) piroxicam
c) ibuprofen
d) indomethacin
45
e) ketoprofen
f) meloxicam
72. Name NSAIDs with a long-term action (more than 6 hours):
a) celecoxib
b) piroxicam
c) ibuprofen
d) indometacin
e) ketoprofen
f) meloxicam
73. What adverse effects have NSAIDs got?
a) gastrotoxicity
b) ototoxicity
c) neurotoxicity
d) hepatotoxicity
e) cardiotoxicity
f) depression of the CNS
74. Which of NSAIDs have fewer adverse effects?
a) selective inhibitors of COX1
b) selective inhibitors of COX2
c) nonselective inhibitors (block COX1 and COX2 equally)
75. Choose NSAIDs - selective inhibitors of COX2:
a) indomethacin
b) phenylbutazone
c) acetylsalicylic acid
d) celecoxib
e) rofecoxib
f) diclofenac sodium
76. How do NSAIDs modify hypotensive effect of ACE inhibitors, β-blockers and diuretics in
essential hypertension?
a) do not change
b) stimulate hypotensive action
c) decrease hypotensive action
77. How do NSAIDs modify the activity of synthetic hypoglycemic drugs?
a) do not change
b) increase hypoglycemic effect
c) decrease hypoglycemic effect
78. How do NSAIDs modify the activity of indirect anticoagulants?
a) do not modify
b) increase anticoagulant activity
c) decrease anticoagulant activity
79. Which of the NSAIDs has a marked antiaggregant effect?
a) phenylbutazone
b) diclofenac sodium
c) acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
d) ketoprofen
e) nimesulide
80. Why administration of aspirin to children suffering from viral infections is dangerous?
a) because of a sharp decrease in body temperature and a worsen of a patient’s state
b) because of a suppression of immunity and exacerbation of infections
c) because of danger of Reye’s syndrom development (encephalopathy, liver damage)
46
81. What statements are correct for steroid AIDs?
a) they suppress immunity
b) they stimulate immunity
c) they stimulate synthesis of proteins
d) they inhibit synthesis of proteins
e) they decrease penetrability of capillaries and increase tone of arterioles
f) they increase penetrability of capillaries and decrease tone of arterioles
82. Choose the wrong statement:
a) therapeutic effect of D-penicillamine develops in 1.5-3 months
b) paracetamol inhibits leukotriene synthesis
c) salicylates at small doses can enhance manifestations of gout (podagra)
d) sulindac is a pro-drug
e) glucocorticoids have immunosuppressant action
83. Name the drugs – H1- histamine receptor blockers:
a) diphenhydramine (dimedrol)
b) loratadine (claritine)
c) chloropyramine (suprastin)
d) cromolyn sodium (intal)
e) nedocromil sodium (tilade)
84. How does loratadine (claritine) differ from diphenhydramine (dimedrol)?
a) it blocks H1- histamine receptors
b) it has sedative effect
c) it has not sedative effect
d) it penetrates through the blood-brain barrier
e) it does not penetrate through the blood-brain barrier
85. Which of the drugs prevent mast cell and basophile destruction?
a) ketotifen (zaditen)
b) loratadine (claritine)
c) chloropyramine (suprastin)
d) cromolyn sodium (intal)
e) nedocromil sodium (tilade)
86. Effect of cromolyn sodium (intal) in allergic reactions of immediate type is due to:
a) the block of H1- histamine receptors
b) the stabilisation of cellular membranes of basophils and mast cells
c) the spasmolytic effect
d) all listed properties
87. Which of the antihistaminic drugs have sedative effect?
a) diphenhydramine (dimedrol)
b) loratadine (claritine)
c) chloropyramine (suprastin)
d) promethazine (diprazin, pipolphen)
e) mebhydroline (diazolin)
f) acrivastine (semprex)
88. Which of the antihistaminic drugs have not sedative effect?
a) diphenhydramine (dimedrol)
b) loratadine (claritine)
c) chloropyramine (suprastin)
d) promethazine (diprazin, pipolphen)
e) mebhydroline (diazolin)
f) acrivastine (semprex)
47
89. Name antihistaminic drugs of long-term action:
a) quifenadine (fencarol)
b) loratadine (claritine)
c) chloropyramine (suprastin)
d) promethazine (diprazin, pipolphen)
e) fexofenadine
f) ebastine (kestine)
90. Which receptor blockers are used in allergic diseases?
a) H1- histamine receptor blockers
b) H2- histamine receptor blockers
c) H3- histamine receptor blockers
d) blockers of all types of histamine receptors
91. Choose the mechanism of chloropyramine (suprastin) action:
a) it inhibits synthesis of histamine
b) it inhibits release of histamine
c) it blocks histamine H1-receptors
d) it has all listed mechanisms
92. Choose the mechanism of zafirlukast and montelukast action:
a) inhibition of histamine synthesis
b) inhibition of histamine release
c) block of histamine H1-receptors
d) block of leukotriene LTD4 receptors
93. Name immunomodulators - preparations of the thymus gland:
a) prodigiosan
b) thymalin
c) T-activin
d) myelopid
e) levamisole
94. Choose a drug with a selective immunodepressive effect:
a) azathioprine
b) methotrexate
c) hydrocortisone
d) cyclophosphan
e) cyclosporin
95. Choose synthetic immunostimulants:
a) thymalin
b) T-activin
c) ribomunyl
d) levamisole
e) pentoxyl
96. Choose bacterial immunostimulants:
a) broncho-munal
b) pentoxyl
c) ribomunyl
d) prodigiosan
e) thymalin
97. Biostimulants of animal origin are:
a) extract of aloe
b) solcoseryl
c) splenin
48
d) gumisol
100. Name hypolipidemic agents:
a) lovastatin
b) fenofibrate
c) polysponin
d) allopurinol
e) potassium orotate
101. Mechanism of antiatherosclerotic action of statins (lovastatin) is determined by:
a) inhibition of lipid absorption from the GIT
b) binding of bile acids in the small intestine
c) competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA-reductase, key enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
d) activation of hepatic lipase and destruction of lipids
e) angioprotective influence
5. Drugs acting on functions of internal organs
Cardiotonic drugs
1. Name cardial effects of cardiac glycosides at therapeutic doses:
a) increase in force of heart beats
b) decrease in force of heart beats
c) acceleration of heart beats
d) bradycardia (rare heart beats)
e) increase in conduction
f) decrease in conduction
2. In patients with heart failure cardiac glycosides produce:
a) increase in systolic and minute volume of blood
b) decrease in systolic and minute volume of blood
c) increase in venous pressure
d) decrease in venous pressure
e) decrease in edemas
f) decrease in breathlessness
3. How is diuresis changed in patients with heart failure in cardiac glycoside administration?
a) it is increased
b) it is decreased
c) it is not changed
4. What determines high cardiotonic activity of cardiac glycosides?
a) accumulation of cardiac glycosides mainly in the myocardium
b) high sensitivity of the myocardium to cardiac glycosides
5. How is the content of free ions in myocardium cells changed due to action of cardiac glycosides?
a) the content of potassium ions is increased
b) the content of potassium ions is decreased
c) the content of ions of calcium is increased
d) the content of calcium ions is decreased
6. What cardiac glycosides are well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract?
a) digoxin
b) strophanthin
c) digitoxin
d) corglycon
e) isolanid
7. Name polar cardiac glycosides (not absorbing from the gastrointestinal tract):
49
a) strophanthin
b) digitoxin
c) digoxin
d) corglycon
e) isolanid
8. Name drugs of digitalis:
a) digoxin
b) strophanthin
c) digitoxin
d) corglycon
e) isolanid
9. Name drug of lily-of-the-valley (convallaria majalis)
a) digoxin
b) strophanthin
c) digitoxin
d) corglycon
e) isolanid
10. Typical characteristics of strophanthin are:
a) it is almost not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
b) it is completely absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
c) the beginning of its action in intravenous administration develops in 5-10 minutes
d) the beginning of its action in intravenous administration develops in 2-4 hours
e) the maximal effect is produced in 0.5-1.5 hours
f) the maximal effect is produced in 6-8 hours
11. Glycosides having maximal duration of action and circulating in blood for 2-3 weeks are:
a) digoxin
b) strophanthin
c) digitoxin
d) corglycon
e) isolanid
12. Indications for cardiac glycoside administration are:
a) essential hypertension
b) tachyarrhythmic form of cardiac fibrilation
c) acute heart failure
d) chronic heart failure
e) renal edema
13. Which of the glycosides are used in chronic heart failure?
a) digoxin
b) strophanthin
c) isolanid
d) corglycon
14. Positive inotropic action is:
a) an intensifying and a shortening of a systole
b) a prolongation of diastole
c) a delay of conduction in atrioventricular node
d) an increase in heart excitability
e) an increase in heart automatism and heart beat frequency
15. Negative chronotropic action of cardiac glycosides is:
a) an intensifying and a shortening of a systole
b) a prolongation of a diastole
50
c) an increase in heart beat frequency
d) a delay of conduction through cardiac pathways
e) an increase in myocardium excitability
16. Negative dromotropic action of cardiac glycosides is:
a) an intensifying and a shortening of a systole
b) a prolongation of a diastole
c) an increase in heart beat frequency
d) a delay of conduction through cardiac pathways
e) an increase in myocardium excitability
17. Positive bathmotropic action of cardiac glycosides is:
a) an intensifying and a shortening of a systole
b) a prolongation of a diastole
c) an increase in heart beat frequency
d) a delay of conduction through cardiac pathways
e) an increase in myocardium excitability
18. Cardiotonic action of cardiac glycosides results from:
a) an increase in activity Na +, K +-ATP-ase of cardiac histiocyte membranes
b) a decrease in activity Na +, K +-ATP-ase of cardiac histiocyte membranes
c) a stimulation of β1-adrenoceptors
d) an inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
19. Non-glycoside cardiotonic drugs are:
a) amrinone
b) epinephrine
c) corglycon
d) dopamine
e) strophanthin
f) dobutamine
20. How do adrenergic cardiotonics influence work of the heart?
a) they increase force of the heart beats
b) they decrease force of the heart beats
c) they increase frequency of the heart beats
d) they decrease frequency of the heart beats
e) they increase myocardium oxygen need
f) they decrease myocardium oxygen need
21. Mechanism of cardiotonic action of dopamine is determined by:
a) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
b) stimulation of β1-adrenoceptors
c) inhibition of β1-adrenoceptors
d) stimulation of dopamine receptors
e) block of dopamine receptors
22. What ECG changes are observed in administration of digoxin at therapeutic doses?
a) increase in complex QRS voltage
b) narrowing of complex QRS
c) prolongation of interval PQ
d) shortening of interval PP
e) prolongation of interval PP
23. Features of digoxin action and its administration as compared with digitoxin:
a) it is worse absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
b) its effect develops slower
c) its effect develops more rapidly
51
d) it is used for the treatment of acute and chronic heart failure
e) it is only used for the treatment of chronic heart failure
f) it is accumulated in a lesser degree
24. Choose symptoms of cardiac glycoside toxic action:
a) marked tachycardia
b) marked bradycardia
c) extrasystoles
d) nausea and vomiting
e) an inhibition of atrioventricular conduction
25. Main principles of pharmacotherapy at intoxication by cardiac glycosides:
a) a decrease in potassium ion content in myocardium cells
b) an increase in potassium ion content in myocardium cells
c) a decrease in calcium ion content in blood plasma
d) an increase in calcium ion content in blood plasma
e) administration of sulfhydryl group donors
f) administration of sulfhydryl group blockers
26. What agents are used at cardiac glycosides intoxication?
a) calcium chloride
b) potassium chloride
c) EDTA (ethylene diamine tetraacetate)
d) dimercaprol (unithiol)
e) phenytoin
Antiarrhythmic agents
27. Name drugs used in atrioventricular heart block:
a) neostigmine
b) isoprenaline
c) azamethonium
d) atropine
e) epinephrine (adrenaline)
28. Name indications for potassium chloride administration:
a) cardiac glycoside poisoning
b) ciliary arrhythmia, extrasystole
c) long-term administration of corticosteroids
d) use of ethacrynic acid
e) allergic diseases
29. Which of the drugs have antiarrhythmic activity?
a) procainamide
b) lidocaine
c) amiodarone
d) etamsylate
e) aminophylline (euphylline)
30. Name antiarrhythmic drugs from the group of membrane stabilizers (group I):
a) disopyramide
b) lidocaine
c) amiodarone
d) quinidine
e) ethacizin
f) verapamil
52
31. What changes in the myocardium are caused by quinidine antiarrhythmic action?
a) an increase in effective refractory period
b) a decrease in the effective refractory period
c) an increase in automatism
d) a depression of automatism
e) an inhibition of conduction in conductive system of the heart
f) a facilitation of conduction in conductive system of the heart
32. How does quinidine affect myocardium contractility?
a) decreases
b) stimulates
c) does not change
33. Name features of procainamide antiarrhythmic action:
a) it suppresses myocardium contractility less, than quinidine
b) it suppresses myocardium contractility more, than quinidine
c) it increases automatism
d) it decreases automatism
e) it suppresses conduction in conductive system of the heart
f) it facilitates conduction in conductive system of the heart
34. Name features of antiarrhythmic action of lidocaine:
a) it increases automatism
b) it suppresses the ectopic foci of activation in Purkinje’s fibers and ventricles without changing
of sinus node automatism
c) it increases the duration of action potential and the effective refractory period
d) it decreases the duration of action potential and the effective refractory period
e) it does not practically change myocardium contractility
f) it suppresses myocardium contractility
35. Name correct characteristics of lidocaine as antiarrhythmic drug:
a) it is administered intravenously
b) its effect develops quickly and continues for 10-20 minutes
c) it is administered orally
d) its effect develops slowly and lasts for 6-8 hours
e) it is used for relief of ventricular arrhythmias
f) it is used for the treatment of ciliary atrial arrhythmias
36. Name features of antiarrhythmic action of phenytoin:
a) it does not practically change conduction
b) it markedly inhibits conduction
c) it decreases the duration of action potential and the effective refractory period
d) it inhibits automatism of Purkinje’s fibers
e) it does not practically change myocardium contractility and blood pressure
37. Name antiarrhythmic agents - blockers of sodium channels:
a) propranolol
b) procainamide
c) verapamil
d) quinidine
e) moracizine
38. Which forms of arrhythmias are blockers of sodium channels administered in?
a) tachyarrhythmia
b) bradyarrhythmia
c) block of conduction
39. Name an antiarrhythmic drug - a blocker of potassium channels:
53
a) propranolol
b) procainamide
c) amiodarone
d) verapamil
e) ethacizin
f) disopyramide
40. Antiarrhythmic action of amiodarone is characterized by:
a) an increase in a duration of action potential and the effective refractory period
b) a decrease in the effective refractory period
c) an increase in automatism, conduction and excitability
d) a decrease in automatism, conduction and excitability
e) a decrease in heart rate
f) an increase in heart rate
41. Name antiarrhythmic agents from the group of β-adrenergic blockers:
a) propranolol
b) procainamide
c) quinidine
d) verapamil
e) metoprolol
f) moracizin
42. What is the mechanism of metoprolol antiarrhythmic action?
a) block of β1-adrenoceptors
b) block of M – cholinoceptors
c) block of calcium channels
43. What is the mechanism of verapamil antiarrhythmic action?
a) it blocks β1-adrenoreceptors
b) it blocks sodium channels
c) it blocks calcium channels
44. Name adverse effects of verapamil administration:
a) tachycardia
b) bradycardia
c) hypotension
d) a decrease in myocardium contractility
e) bronchospasm
45. Principles of pharmacotherapy of blocks of conducting system of the heart are:
a) an intensifying of cholinergic influences on the heart
b) a weakening of cholinergic influences on the heart
c) an intensifying of adrenergic influences on the heart
d) a weakening of adrenergic influences on the heart
46. Name drugs for the treatment of blocks of heart conducting system:
a) atropine
b) isoprenaline
c) propranolol
d) procainamide
e) ephedrine
Antihypertensive agents
47. Name antihypertensive agents of the central action:
54
a) clonidine
b) methyldopa
c) moxonidine
d) sodium nitroprusside
e) enalapril
48. Which of the antihypertensive drugs stimulates α 2-adrenoceptors of the CNS and decreases tone
of vasomotor centers, takes sedative effect and decreases cardiac output and total peripheral
resistance?
a) hydralazine
b) prazosin
c) clonidine
d) propranolol
e) captopril
49. Mechanism of hypotensive activity of clonidine is determined by:
a) block of angiotensin receptors
b) block of angiotensin converting enzyme
c) stimulation of α2-adrenoreceptors of the CNS and a decrease in vasomotor center activity
d) direct spasmolytic action on vessel myofibrils
e) peripheral adrenergic blocking action
50. Which of the adverse effects may develop in clonidine administration?
a) bradycardia
b) an increase in intraocular pressure
c) dry mouth
d) abundant salivation
e) constipation
f) withdrawal syndrome
51. What kind of action does clonidine produce on the CNS?
a) it depresses the CNS
b) it excites the CNS
c) it does not change the CNS function
52. Which of the drugs are agonists of imidazoline I1-receptors?
a) hydralazine (apressin)
b) methyldopa
c) moxonidine
d) rilmenidine
e) reserpine
53. How do agonists of imidazoline receptors differ from clonidine?
a) they have long-term action
b) they have not (or have weakly marked) sedative effect
c) they do not produce retention of sodium ions and water in an organism
d) they produce retention of sodium ions and water in an organism
e) they do not cause rebound hypertension
f) they cause rebounding hypertension
54. Which of the antihypertensive drugs are ganglionic blockers?
a) trepirium iodide
b) hexamethonium benzosulfonate
c) propranolol
d) reserpine
e) captopril
55. Which of the ganglionic blocking agents is the most convenient for controllable hypotension?
55
a) trepirium iodide
b) hexamethonium benzosulfonate
c) azamethonium bromide (pentamin)
d) pempidine tosylate (pyrilen)
56. Which of the antihypertensive drugs are sympatholytics?
a) trepirium iodide
b) guanethidine sulfate
c) nifedipine
d) reserpine
e) captopril
57. Which of the drugs may cause orthostatic hypotension?
a) ganglionic blocking agents
b) sympatholytics
c) myotropic spasmolytics
d) β-adrenergic blockers
e) α-adrenergic blockers
58. Which of the drugs may cause orthostatic hypotension?
a) hydrochlorothiazide
b) guanethidine sulfate
c) propranolol
d) bendazol
e) captopril
59. Name mechanism of guanethidine antihypertensive action:
a) block of angiotensin receptors
b) depletion of noradrenalin store in nerve endings
c) block of β-adrenoceptors
d) block of α-adrenoceptors
60. Choose the correct statements for reserpine:
a) it is an alkaloid of rauwolfia
b) it has sedative action
c) it has not sedative action
d) it is superior to guanethidine in hypotensive activity
e) it is inferior to guanethidine in hypotensive activity
f) it improves secretory and motor activity of the gastrointestinal tract
61. Name adverse effects of reserpine:
a) diarrhea
b) constipation
c) gastric pains
d) leukocytopenia
e) swelling of nasal mucous membrane
f) bradycardia
62. Which of the hypotensive combined agents contain reserpine?
a) adelphan
b) crystepin
c) triresid
d) brinerdine
e) tenoretic (tenoric)
63. Name antihypertensive drugs from the group of β-adrenergic blockers:
a) atenolol
b) metoprolol
56
c) propranolol
d) hydrochlorothiazide
e) methyldopa
64. Name possible mechanisms of hypotensive action of β-adrenergic blockers:
a) decrease in renin secretion
b) decrease in heart work, stroke volume and cardiac output
c) depression of angiotensin-converting enzyme activity
d) block of angiotensin receptors
e) block of sympathetic ganglia
65. β-adrenergic blockers have such adverse effects as:
a) an orthostatic hypotension
b) tachycardia
c) marked bradycardia
d) an increase in bronchus tone
e) a disturbance of sexual function in males
66. Name antihypertensive drugs from the group of α-adrenergic blockers:
a) atenolol
b) clonidine
c) prazosin
d) doxazosin
e) tropodifene hydrochloride
67. Name antihypertensive drugs producing myotropic action:
a) bendazol
b) doxazosin
c) moxonidine
d) hydralazine
e) minoxidil
f) molsidomin
68. Name peripheric myotropic nitrovasodilators:
a) bendazol
b) doxazosin
c) moxonidine
d) molsidomin
e) sodium nitroprusside
69. Mechanism of hypotensive action of bendazol (dibazol) is caused by:
a) block of angiotensin receptors
b) block of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c) stimulation of the CNS α2-adrenoreceptors
d) direct spasmolytic action on vessel myofibrils
e) peripheral α-adrenergic blocking action
70. Which of the drugs are blockers of calcium channels?
a) amlodipine
b) atenolol
c) nifedipine
d) diltiazem
e) lacidipine
71. Name indications for administration of calcium channel blockers:
a) assential hypertension
b) tachyarrhythmias
c) block of atrioventricular conduction
57
d) ischemic heart disease
e) chronic hypotension
72. Which of the calcium channel-blocking agents have greater tropism to vessels?
a) derivatives of dihydropyridine
b) derivatives of benzothiazepine
c) derivatives of phenylalkylamine
73. Which of the calcium channel-blocking agents have greater tropism to heart muscle?
a) derivatives of dihydropyridine
b) derivatives of benzothiazepine
c) derivatives of phenylalkylamine
74. Which of the calcium channel-blocking agents have identical tropism to vessels and the heart?
a) derivatives of dihydropyridine
b) derivatives of benzothiazepine
c) derivatives of phenylalkylamine
75. Name calcium channel-blocking agents - derivatives of dihydropyridine:
a) amlodipine
b) verapamil
c) nifedipine
d) diltiazem
e) lacidipine
f) isradipine
76. Which of the drugs are administered to relieve hypertensic crisis?
a) clonidine
b) propranolol
c) magnesium sulfate
d) furosemide
e) sodium nitroprusside
f) isradipine
77. Which of the drugs are blockers of angiotensin-converting enzyme?
a) captopril
b) propranolol
c) enalapril
d) lisinopril
e) trandolapril
f) isradipine
78. Mechanism of hypotensive action of enalapril is determined by:
a) block of angiotensin receptors
b) block of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c) a decrease in vasomotor center activity
d) direct spasmolytic action on vessels
e) peripheral α-adrenoblocking action
79. How do inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme influence exchange of bradykinin?
a) they delay its destruction
b) they activate its destruction
c) they do not change its metabolism
80. Name adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:
a) throat tickle and dry cough
b) increase in ABP
c) hyperkalemia
d) depression of the CNS
58
e) disturbance of gustatory sense
81. Which of the statements are correct for angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
a) they have nephroprotective and cardioprotective effects
b) they do not change lipid composition of blood
c) they have antiatherosclerotic effect
d) they do not depress functions of the CNS and autonomic nervous system
e) they are indicated in pregnancy
f) they improve quality of life
82. Which of the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are lipophilic prodrugs?
a) captopril
b) enalapril
c) fosinopril
d) trandolapril
e) lisinopril
83. Name indications for the administration of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors:
a) idiopathic hypertension
b) chronic hypotension
c) chronic heart failure
d) ischemic heart disease
e) bradyarrhythmia
84. Mechanism of losartan hypotensive action is determined by:
a) blockade of angiotensin receptors
b) blockade of angiotensin-converting enzyme
c) a decrease in vasomotor center activity
d) direct spasmolytic activity on vessels
e) peripheric α – adrenergic blocking action
85. Name specific blockers of angiotensin II receptors:
a) valsartan
b) enalapril
c) lisinopril
d) losartan (cozaar)
e) isradipine (lomir)
86. Choose correct statements for inhibitors of angiotensin receptors:
a) they disturb metabolism of bradykinin
b) they do not disturb metabolism of bradykinin
c) they have less adverse effect, than inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme
d) they have more adverse effects than inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme
e) they are not inferior to inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme in hypotensive effect
f) they are inferior to inhibitors of angiotensin-converting enzyme in hypotensive effect
Agents used for ischemic heart disease
87. Which of the drugs are used to control angina pectoris attack?
a) diltiazem
b) validol
c) nitroglycerine
d) dipyridamole
e) sustac
59
88. Name the antianginal drug which has the following mechanism of action: it decreases tone of
coronary vessels, increases coronary volume blood flow rate, increases adenosine concentration in
myocardium, decreases platelet aggregation and does not influence myocardium oxygen demand:
a) nitroglycerine
b) sustac
c) propranolol
d) verapamil
e) dipyridamole
89. Name the drug, which has the following adverse reactions: decrease in myocardium contractility,
bradycardia, hypotension development, bronchospasm, withdrawal syndrome:
a) nitroglycerine
b) dipyridamole
c) verapamil
d) propranolol
e) aminophylline (euphylline)
90. Name nitroglycerine preparations of a prolonged action:
a) trinitrolong
b) trinitrogranulong
c) nitrong
d) sustac
e) amiodarone
91. Name the mechanisms of nitroglycerine action in angina pectoris:
a) reflex coronary vasodilating action
b) a decrease in myocardium need in oxygen due to decrease in cardiac performance (decrease
in preload and afterload)
c) myotropic coronary vasodilating action
d) block of slow calcium channels
92. Name the mechanism of validol action in angina pectoris:
a) reflex coronary vasodilating action
b) a decrease in myocardium need in oxygen due to decrease in cardiac performance (decrease
in preload and afterload)
c) myotropic coronary vasodilating action
d) block of slow calcium channels
93. How do nitrates cause relaxation of smooth muscles of vessels?
a) they block α1-adrenoceptors
b) they block β2-adrenoceptors
c) they are NO donators
d) they block phosphodiesterase
e) they block adenosine receptors
94. Which of the drugs belong to organic nitrate group?
a) isosorbide mononitrate
b) isosorbide dinitrate (nitrosorbide)
c) nitroglycerine
d) amiodarone
e) dipyridamole
95. Choose adverse effects typical for nitroglycerine:
a) bradycardia
b) tachycardia
c) headache, dizziness
d) a decrease in arterial blood pressure
60
e) an increase in arterial blood pressure
96. Does tolerance to nitrates develop?
a) it does not develop
b) it develops only to nitroglycerine
c) it develops only to drugs with a prolonged action
d) it develops to all nitrates at a long-term administration
97. Choose correct statements for nitroglycerine:
a) it is administered to control angina pectoris attacks
b) it is administered for prevention of angina pectoris attacks
c) its effect develops in 2-3 minutes
d) its effect develops in 10-20 minutes
e) its effect duration is 4 hours
f) its effect is short- term (up to 30 minutes)
98. Choose β-adrenergic blockers among the antianginal agents:
a) verapamil
b) propranolol
c) diltiazem
d) metoprolol
e) dipyridamole
99. What is β –adrenergic blocker effect in angina pectoris determined by?
a) a decrease in myocardium need in oxygen due to a decrease in cardiac performance
b) direct myotropic coronary vasodilating action
c) reflex coronary vasodilating action
100. What is the advantage of metoprolol over propranolol as antianginal agent?
a) it does not decrease arterial blood pressure
b) it brings on bronchospasm less often
c) it does not disturb atrioventricular conductivity
101. Choose antianginal agents - blockers of calcium channels:
a) dipyridamole
b) verapamil
c) diltiazem
d) mibefradil
e) atenolol
102. Choose a blocker of calcium channels of T-type:
a) nifedipine
b) verapamil
c) diltiazem
d) mibefradil
e) nicardipine
103. Choose blockers of slow calcium channels of L-type:
a) isradipine
b) verapamil
c) diltiazem
d) mibefradil
e) nicardipine
104. Choose mechanisms of action of calcium channel blockers in angina pectoris:
a) a decrease in myocardium need in oxygen due to decrease in cardiac performance
b) dilatation of coronary vessels and an increase in oxygen delivery to the heart
c) reflex coronary vasodilating action
61
105. Choose the groups of drugs used for myocardial infarction:
a) narcotic analgesics
b) anticoagulants
c) hemostatic agents
d) antiaggregants
e) stimulators of thrombocyte aggregation
f) antiarrhythmic agents
106. The drug of choice to control ventricular arrhythmias in myocardial infarction:
a) lidocaine
b) quinidine
c) propranolol
107. Which of the drugs increases cardiac histiocyte resistance to ischemia?
a) propranolol
b) trimetazidine
c) amiodarone
d) verapamil
Diuretics
108. Choose characteristics of hydrochlorothiazide action:
a) its duration of action is 4-8 hours
b) its duration of action is 8-12 hours
c) it decreases arterial blood pressure in arterial hypertension
d) it weakens activity of antihypertensives
e) it potentiates activity of antihypertensive drugs
f) the effect develops in 10 minutes after administration
109. Choose characteristics of furosemide action:
a) slow development of effect
b) quick development of effect
c) short-term action (2-4 hours)
d) middle diuretic activity
e) high diuretic activity
110. Choose diuretics influencing mainly the ascending limb of Henle's loop:
a) torasemide
b) spironolactone
c) ethacrynic acid
d) furosemide
e) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
111. Choose thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics:
a) chlorothiazide
b) hydrochlorothiazide
c) indapamide
d) clopamide
e) torasemide
112. Potassium-sparing diuretics are:
a) mannitol
b) triamterene
c) spironolactone
d) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
e) furosemide
62
113. Choose osmotic diuretic:
a) ethacrynic acid
b) furosemide
c) hydrochlorothiazide (hypothiazide)
d) mannitol
e) spironolactone
114. Diuretic - inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase is:
a) spironolactone
b) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
c) furosemide
d) triamterene
e) hydrochlorothiazide (hypothiazide)
115. Which of the adverse effects have not thiazide diuretics got?
a) hyperkalemia
b) hypokalemia
c) hyperuricemia
d) hyperglycemia
e) hypochloremic alkalosis
f) hypercholesterinemia
116. Choose typical adverse effects of loop diuretics:
a) hyperkalemia
b) hypokalemia
c) hyperuricemia
d) ototoxicity
e) hypochloremic alkalosis
f) hypertension
117. Name adverse effects of spironolactone:
a) hyperkalemia
b) hypokalemia
c) gynecomastia and impotence in males
d) hirsutism and dysmenorrhea in females
e) hyperchloremic acidosis
f) hypercholesterinemia
118. Which of the drugs blocks aldosterone receptors?
a) spironolactone
b) hydrochlorothiazide
c) chlorthalidone (oxodoline)
d) amiloride
119. Which of the diuretic drugs has a steroid structure?
a) furosemide
b) hydrochlorothiazide (hypothiazide)
c) chlorthalidone (oxodoline)
d) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
e) spironolactone
120. Which of drugs produce diuretic effect by means of an improvement of renal blood flow and
glomerular filtration?
a) inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase
b) thiazide diuretics
c) xanthines
d) osmotic diuretics
63
e) aldosterone antagonists
121. Name plants which have diuretic action:
a) flowers of cornflower
b) bark of oak
c) leaves of salvia
d) leaves of manzanita
e) herb of common [field] horsetail
122. Which of the diuretics act mainly in proximal renal tubules?
a) osmotic diuretics
b) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
c) thiazide diuretics
d) potassium-sparing diuretics
123. Which of the diuretics act mainly in distal renal tubules?
a) osmotic diuretics
b) thiazide diuretics
c) potassium-sparing diuretics
d) loop diuretics
124. Which of the diuretics act mainly in the region of collecting tubes and distal renal tubules?
a) osmotic diuretics
b) inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase
c) potassium-sparing diuretics
d) loop diuretics
125. Which of the diuretics is administered in hypertonic crisis?
a) furosemide
b) hydrochlorothiazide (hypothiazide)
c) chlorthalidone (oxodoline)
d) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
e) spironolactone
126. Which of the diuretics are more often used for the treatment of idiopathic hypertension?
a) osmotic diuretics
b) thiazide diuretics
c) potassium-sparing diuretics
d) inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase
127. What is a mechanism of hypotensive effect of thiazide diuretics?
a) a decrease in blood circulation volume
b) a decrease in sodium concentration in vessel wall
c) an inhibition of phosphodiesterase and spasmolytic action on vessels
d) sympatholytic action
128. Name diuretics having a long-term action:
a) furosemide
b) hydrochlorothiazide (hypothiazide)
c) chlorthalidone (oxodoline)
d) mannitol
e) spironolactone
129. Which of the drugs are used in alkalosis?
a) dimephosphonum
b) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
c) trisamine
d) sodium hydrocarbonate
e) potassium chloride
64
130. Which of the drugs are used in acidosis?
a) dimephosphonum
b) acetazoleamide (diacarb)
c) trisamine
d) mannitol
e) sodium hydrocarbonate
131. Name colloidal drugs (plasma substituting) manufactured on the basis of dextran:
a) polyvidone (haemodesum)
b) polyglucinum (dextran)
c) rheopolyglucinum
d) rehydron
e) rheoglumanum
Agents influencing functions of respiratory system
132. What of the drugs can be used as stimulators of respiration?
a) nikethamide (cordiamine)
b) caffeine
c) orciprenaline sulfate
d) aethimizolum
e) codeine
133. What is typical for prenoxdiazine (libexin)?
a) depresses cough reflex, acting peripherally
b) it is equal to codeine on antitussive efficacy
c) depresses cough centre
d) decreases excitability of sensory nerve endings
e) does not produce tolerance and drug dependence
134. Antitussives of peripheral action are:
a) codeine
b) tusuprex (oxeladin)
c) prenoxdiazine (libexin)
d) glaucine hydrochloride
e) bithiodine (tipepidine)
135. Antitussives of central action are:
a) codeine
b) oxeladin (tusuprex)
c) prenoxdiazine (libexin)
d) glaucine hydrochloride
e) bithiodine (tipepidine)
136. Which of the antitussive drugs is an alkaloid of opium?
a) codeine
b) oxeladin (tusuprex)
c) prenoxdiazine (libexin)
d) glaucine hydrochloride
e) bithiodine (tipepidine)
137. Which of the drugs stimulate surfactant synthesis?
a) codeine
b) ambroxol
c) bromhexine
65
d) glaucine hydrochloride
e) aethimizolum
138. Which of the drugs have expectorant action?
a) drugs of marsh-mallow (althaea)
b) ambroxol
c) acetylcysteine
d) mucaltin
e) aethimizolum
139. Name expectorants with reflex action:
a) preparations of thermopsis
b) ambroxol
c) acetylcysteine
d) preparations of marsh-mallow (althaea)
e) sodium benzoate
140. Name mucolytics depolymerizing sputum due to free sulfhydryl groups:
a) carbocysteine
b) bromhexine
c) acetylcysteine
d) trypsin
e) sodium hydrocarbonate
141. Salbutamol is used for:
a) stimulation of the respiratory center
b) relief of angina pectoris attacks
c) decrease in bronchus tone
d) decrease in tone and contractive activity of the uterus
e) decrease in gastric secretion
142. Which of the effects has bromhexine got?
a) cardiotonic
b) broncholytic
c) mucolytic
d) it stimulates surfactant synthesis
e) it inhibits acetylcholinesterase
143. Broncholytic effect of ipratropium bromide (atrovent) is determined by:
a) inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
b) β2-adrenomimetic action
c) muscarinic receptor block
d) antileukotriene action
e) other mechanisms
144. Which of the bronchial spasmolytics are muscarinic receptor blockers?
a) ipratropium bromide
b) oxitropium bromide
c) formoterol
d) terbutaline
e) ketotifen
145. Which of the bronchial spasmolytics stimulate β2-adrenoceptors of bronchi?
a) ipratropium bromide
b) salbutamol
c) fenoterol
d) terbutaline
e) ketotifen
66
f) aminophylline (euphylline)
146. Choose glucocorticoid among the bronchodilators:
a) oxitropium bromide
b) beclomethasone (becotide)
c) fenoterol
d) terbutaline
e) aminophylline (euphylline)
147. Choose methylxanthines among bronchial spasmolytics:
a) theophylline
b) beclomethasone (becotide)
c) theobromine
d) terbutaline
e) aminophylline (euphylline)
148. Choose drugs having antileukotriene mechanism of action:
a) ketotifen (zaditen)
b) nedocromil
c) fenoterol
d) zileuton
e) zafirlukast (acolate)
149. Which of the drugs blocks 5-lipoxygenase and leukotriene synthesis?
a) ketotifen (zaditen)
b) nedocromil
c) fenoterol
d) zileuton
e) zafirlukast (acolate)
150. Name leukotriene receptor blockers:
a) montelukast
b) nedocromil
c) fenoterol
d) theophylline
e) zafirlukast (acolate)
151. Name drugs used as antifoaming agent in pulmonary edema:
a) antifomsilanum
b) nedocromil
c) fenoterol
d) aminophylline (theophylline)
e) ethanol
152. Name preparations used in distress-syndrome in newborns:
a) colfosceril palmitate (exosurf)
b) alveofact
c) ketotifen (zaditen)
d) cromolyn sodium
e) prenoxdiazine (libexin)
Agents acting on functions of digestive system
153. Inhibitors of gastric secretion are:
a) sodium bicarbonate
b) ranitidine
67
c) omeprazole
d) pirenzepine
e) sucralfate
154. Choose H2-histamine receptor blockers among antisecretory agents:
a) pirenzepine
b) cimetidine
c) famotidine
d) roxatidine
e) lansoprazole
f) misoprostol
155. What is typical for ranitidine?
a) it reduces hydrochloric acid secretion in parietal cell of the stomach mucosa
b) it is H2 -histaminic receptor blocker
c) it has antiandrogenic action
d) it influences cytochrome P450 system
e) it neutralizes hydrochloric acid in the stomach
156. Choose proton pump inhibitors among the antisecretory agents:
a) pirenzepine
b) cimetidine
c) famotidine
d) lansoprazole
e) omeprazole
157. Name the mechanism of omeprazole action:
a) it is H2 -histamine receptor blocker
b) it is M1 -receptor blocker
c) it has antacid effect
d) it is an inhibitor of the proton pump of the stomach accessory cells
e) it stimulates synthesis of prostaglandins in stomach mucosa
158. Antacids are drugs:
a) improving protective properties of stomach mucosa
b) depressing secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsin
c) neutralizing hydrochloric acid in the stomach
d) stimulating regeneration of stomach mucosa
159. Gastroprotectors are drugs:
a) improving protective properties of stomach mucosa
b) depressing secretion of hydrochloric acid and pepsin
c) neutralizing hydrochloric acid in the stomach
d) stimulating regeneration of stomach mucosa
e) depressing activity of Helicobacter pylori
160. Which of the drugs are gastroprotectors?
a) pirenzepine
b) colloidal bismuth subcitrate
c) famotidine
d) sucralfate
e) misoprostol
f) omeprazole
161. Mechanism of spasmolytic action of papaverine and drotaverine (no-spa) is:
a) an inhibition of COX
b) an inhibition of phospholipase A2
c) an inhibition of phosphodiesterase
68
d) M - anticholinergic activity
e) antihistaminic activity (blockade of Н1 histamine receptors)
162. Which of the drugs are hepatoprotectors:
a) magnesium sulfate
b) essentiale
c) silibinin
d) osalmide
e) allochol
163. Which of the drugs inhibit gall stone formation?
a) allochol
b) silibinin
c) ursodeoxycholic acid (ursofalk)
d) chenodesoxycholic acid (chenofalk)
e) bisacodyl
164. Herbal drugs improving bile secretion are:
a) buckthorn bark
b) immortelle flowers
c) rhubarb root
d) corn stigma
e) tansy flowers
f) sennas leave
165. Explain the mechanism of action of cholekinetics:
a) an irritation of the duodenum and activation of intestinal motility
b) contraction of the gallbladder and oddi's sphincter relaxation
c) gallbladder relaxation and oddi's sphincter contraction
d) increase in osmotic pressure in the intestine lumen
e) increase in osmotic pressure in the gallbladder and bile liquefaction
166. Choose the drugs having antiemetic effect:
a) magnesium sulfate
b) metoclopramide (cerucal)
c) domperidone (motilium)
d) thiethylperazine (torecan)
e) apomorphine hydrochloride
167. Which of the drugs have got antiemetic action due to block of serotonin 5HT3-receptors?
a) perphenazine
b) scopolamine (hyoscine)
c) ondansetron (zofran)
d) thiethylperazine (torecan)
e) tropisetron (navoban)
168. Choose correct statements for metoclopramide:
a) it stimulates D2-receptors of trigger -zone of the vomitive center
b) it blocks D2-receptors of trigger - zone of the vomitive center
c) it has antiemetic action
d) it produces development of vomiting reflex
e) it has prokinetic action
169. Purgative action may be caused by:
a) essentiale
b) magnesium sulfate
c) bisacodyl (dulcolax)
d) senade, senadexine
69
e) diosmectite (smecta)
170. Name vegetable purgatives containing anthraquinone glycosides:
a) lactulose
b) castor oil
c) oxyphenysatine
d) antrasennin
e) rhamnil
171. What is a purgative action of anthraquinone glycoside drugs caused by?
a) increase in osmotic pressure in the intestinal lumen
b) swelling of anthraquinone glycosides and mechanical stimulation of peristalsis
c) stimulation of chemoreceptors of the large intestine
d) formation of ricinoleic acids and activation of chemoreceptors of the intestine
172. What is a purgative action of castor oil caused by?
a) An increase in osmotic pressure in the intestinal lumen
b) formation of anthraquinone glycoside in the duodenum
c) stimulation of chemoreceptors of the large intestine
d) formation of ricinoleic acids and activation of chemoreceptors of the intestine
173. A purgative action of magnesium sulfate is related with:
a) blockade of Na +/K +-ATPase of the large intestine epithelium
b) rise in osmotic pressure in the intestine lumen
c) delay of water absorption
d) increase in intestinal content volume
e) distention of the intestine and stimulation of peristalsis
174. Which of the purgatives act primarily on the large intestine?
a) oxyphenysatine
b) magnesium sulfate
c) castor oil
d) liquid paraffin
e) extract of buckthorn bark
f) drugs of senna
175. Which of the purgatives act over the whole intestine?
a) oxyphenysatine
b) magnesium sulfate
c) castor oil
d) senade
e) extract of buckthorn bark
176. Choose symptomatic drugs for diarrhoea treatment:
a) attapulgite
b) diosmectite (smecta)
c) loperamide (imodium)
d) sulfaguanidine
e) dimeticone (simethicone, espumisan)
177. Which of the drugs reduces gas-formation and is used in meteorism?
a) oxyphenysatine
b) loperamide (imodium)
c) castor oil
d) dimeticone (simethicone, espumisan)
e) lactulose (duphalac, normase)
178. Name drugs normalizing intestine microflora:
a) bifidumbacterin
70
b) amoxicillin
c) bactisubtil
d) maalox
e) bificol
179. Name basic properties of dinoprost:
a) it increases myometrium construction despite of term and presence of pregnancy
b) it dilates pulmonary vessels
c) it increases motility of the gastrointestinal tract
d) it decreases tone of bronchi
e) it dilates cervix of the uterus
180. Which of the drugs are used to stimulate labour activity?
a) dinoprost
b) oxytocin
c) progesterone
d) fenoterol (partusisten)
e) ergometrine
6. Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs
1. The most characteristic features of antiseptics:
a) non-selective antimicrobial action
b) selective antimicrobial action
c) high toxicity
d) low toxicity
e) short latency period of their effect development
f) long latency period of their effect development
2. Which of the antiseptics are aliphatic substances?
a) nitrofural
b) ethyl alcohol
c) chloramine B
d) solution of formaldehyde
e) aethonium
3. Which of the antiseptics are stains?
a) nitrofural
b) aethacridinum lactate
c) potassium permanganate
d) methylene blue
e) brilliant green
f) silver nitrate
4. Which of the antiseptics are oxidants?
a) alcohol solution of Iodine
b) aethacridinum lactate
c) hydrogen peroxide
d) potassium permanganate
e) chlorhexidine
5. Which of the antiseptics are chlorine-containing?
a) nitrofural
71
b) chloramine B
c) potassium permanganate
d) methylene blue
e) chlorhexidine
f) silver nitrate
6. Which of the antiseptics are detergents?
a) roccal
b) aethonium
c) potassium permanganate
d) methylene blue
e) brilliant green
f) hydrogen peroxide
7. The activity of antiseptics and disinfectants depends on:
a) their concentration
b) their exposure
c) the presence of proteins in the focus of inflammation
d) their ability to interact with skin and mucous receptors
e) pH-value
8. Which of the antiseptics given below are used for washing surgeons’ hands?
a) nitrofural
b) ethyl alcohol
c) silver nitrate
d) alcohol solution of Iodine
e) roccal
f) permanganate of potassium
9. Which of the antiseptics are used for the treatment of stomatitis?
a) solution of formaldehyde
b) ethyl alcohol
c) solution of ammonia
d) permanganate of potassium
e) chlorhexidine
f) nitrofural
10. Nitrofural has such properties as:
a) irritatant effect
b) antibacterial effect
c) stimulation of regeneration
d) inhibition of regeneration
e) inhibition of fungus growth
11. Acid-resistant penicillins are:
a) phenoxymethylpenicillin
b) benzylpenicillin
c) bicillin-5
d) oxacillin
e) benzathine benzylpenicillin
12. Name the penicillin drugs protected from β-Lactamase action:
a) benzylpenicillin
b) ampicillin
c) unasyn
d) amoksiklav
e) bicillin-5
72
13. Choose specific features of ampicillin:
a) it has a broad spectrum of action
b) it has a spectrum of action similar to benzylpenicillin
c) it has a resistance to penicillinase
d) it has not a resistance to penicillinase
e) it isn’t disintegrated in the stomach
f) it is disintegrated in the stomach
14. What is typical for benzylpenicillin drugs?
a) they have bactericidal action
b) they have bacteriostatic action
c) they have resistance to penicillinase
d) they have not any resistance to penicillinase
e) they are not disintegrated in the stomach
f) they are disintegrated in the stomach
g) they have a broad spectrum of action
15. Name the indications for administration of benzylpenicillin drugs:
a) streptococcal sepsis
b) gonorrhoea
c) epidemic meningitis
d) epidemic typhus
e) gas gangrene
f) anthrax (Siberian plague)
16. Name semisynthetic penicillins:
a) benzylpenicillin-sodium
b) carbenicillin
c) phenoxymethylpenicillin
d) ampicillin
e) oxacillin
f) benzathine benzylpenicillin
17. Name cephalosporins:
a) cefotaxime
b) erythromycin
c) ceftriaxone
d) amikacin
e) cefuroxime
f) ciprofloxacin
18. What is typical for cephalosporins?
a) they have bactericidal action
b) they have bacteriostatic action
c) they belong to β-lactam antibiotics
d) they have a limited spectrum of action
e) they have high toxicity
19. Choose carbapenems among β-lactam antibiotics:
a) aztreonam
b) amoxicillin
c) azlocillin
d) imipenem
e) meropenem
f) cefixime
20. Name aminoglycoside antibiotics:
73
a) streptomycin
b) oxacillin
c) cefalexin
d) gentamicin
e) amikacin
21. Name aminoglycoside of the 3rd generation:
a) amikacin
b) streptomycin
c) tobramycin
d) gentamicin
e) neomycin
22. Name typical adverse effects of aminoglycosides:
a) nephrotoxicity
b) ototoxicity (cochlear damage)
c) hepatotoxicity
d) vestibular damage
e) neuromuscular block
f) bone marrow depression (hematotoxicity)
23. In simultaneous administration of streptomycin and gentamicin the development of all listed
below effects can be seen except:
a) enhancement of antimicrobial action
b) enhancement of ototoxicity
c) enhancement of neuromuscular blockage action (curarelike action)
d) enhancement of hepatotoxicity
e) enhancement of nephrotoxicity
24. Which of the drugs are semisynthetic macrolides?
a) erythromycin
b) spiramycin
c) josamycin
d) azythromycin
e) clarithromycin
f) roxithromycin
25. Name typical features of macrolides:
a) they have bacteriostatic action
b) they have bactericidal action
c) they have high toxicity
d) they have low toxicity
e) they impair protein synthesis in ribosomes of microorganisms
f) they impair the formation of cellular wall of microorganisms
26. Azithromycin differs from erythromycin because:
a) it is an aminoglycoside antibiotic
b) it has a prolonged action
c) it penetrates into host cells and acts on intracellular microorganisms
d) it has a broader spectrum of action
e) it has a poor absorptive ability from the gastrointestinal tract
27. Simultaneous administration of tetracycline and chloramphenicol can be responsible for:
a) the weakening of antimicrobial effect
b) the increase in bone marrow depression
c) the weakening of hepatotoxicity
d) the increase in dysbacteriosis
74
e) all the statements are correct
28. Chloramphenicol can produce all listed below complications except:
a) inhibition of haemopoiesis (blood formation)
b) dermatitis
c) acute psychosis
d) myocarditis
e) osteoporosis
29. The basic pharmacokinetic principles of antibiotic therapy are:
a) the choice of a proper drug dose
b) the choice of a proper route of administration
c) to reduce toxicity of an antibiotic minimal doses producing a proper effect should be
administered
d) the choice of a good scheme of an antibiotic therapy
30. Nalidixic acid is characterized by:
a) a broad spectrum of antimicrobial action
b) the influence on gram-positive bacteria
c) the influence on gram-negative bacteria
d) good absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
e) poor absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
f) excretion mainly through kidneys
31. Name the drugs that are fluoroquinolones:
a) ciprofloxacin
b) amoxicillin
c) norfloxacin
d) nalidixic acid
e) lomefloxacin
f) furazolidone
32. Name specific features of fluoroquinolones:
a) they are quickly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
b) they penetrate into tissues well
c) they bind with plasma proteins poorly
d) they disturb the process of cartilage tissue formation
e) they have a short-term action
33. Find a wrong statement regarding ofloxacin:
a) it has a bactericidal action
b) it disturbs the superhelix of DNA due to DNA-gyrase block
c) it has a broad antibacterial spectrum
d) it is widely used for respiratory tract, urinary bladder, biliary tract infections and bacterial
skin and soft tissue infections.
e) it inhibits synthesis of cellular wall of bacteria
34. Find a wrong statement regarding ciprofloxacin:
a) it has a bactericidal action
b) it has a significant systemic action
c) its action is limited (up to 2 hours)
d) it penetrates into organs and tissues well
e) it is highly effective at renal infections
35. Name preventive measures against crystalluria due to sulfonamide drug action:
a) sulfonamides are administered before meal
b) sulfonamides should be taken with a large amount of fluid and coadministered with
acetazolamide (diacarb)
75
c) sulfonamides should be taken with alkaline mineral water
d) sulfonamides should be administered with ascorbic acid
e) all the statements are correct
36. Antibacterial mechanism of action of sulfonamides is due to:
a) the impairment of penetrability of a cellular membrane
b) their competitive antagonism with PABA
c) inhibition of enzyme activity of microorganisms
d) coagulation of protoplasm proteins
e) all the statements are correct
37. The combined sulfonamides are:
a) sulfamethoxazole
b) sulfadimidine
c) sulfamonomethoxine
d) co-trimoxazole
e) sulfaton (sulfamonomethoxine/ trimethoprim)
38. Find a wrong statement regarding co-trimoxazole action:
a) co-trimoxazole impairs conversion of PABA into dihydrofolic acid
b) co-trimoxazole blocks dihydrofolate reductase and impairs synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid
c) co-trimoxazole inhibits the process of uridine methylation
d) co-trimoxazole blocks superhelix of DNA
e) co-trimoxazole impairs the process of cell replication
39. Why does trimethoprim increase antibacterial activity of sulfonamides?
a) trimethoprim provides uptake sulfonamides by microorganisms
b) trimethoprim inhibits synthesis of nucleotides in a microbial cell
c) trimethoprim slows down the process of sulfonamide elimination
40. Possible adverse effects due to sulfonamide administration:
a) anemia
b) thrombopenia
c) crystalluria
d) loss of hearing
e) loss of vision
41. Name systemic sulfonamides:
a) sulfamethoxypyridazine
b) phthalylsulfathiazole
c) sulfadimidine
d) sulfaguanidine
e) sulfalene
f) sulfacetamide (sulfacyl-sodium)
42. Name sulfonamides acting only in the intestinal lumen:
a) sulfamethoxypyridazine
b) phthalylsulfathiazole
c) sulfadimidine
d) sulfaguanidine
e) mesalazine (salazopyridazine)
f) sulfacetamide (sulfacyl-sodium)
43. Name furazolidone properties:
a) it has a good absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
b) it has a poor absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
c) it is used for gastrointestinal bacterial infections and lambliasis
d) it is used in urinary tract infections
76
e) it can cause an effect similar to the effect of teturam
44. Furazolidone is not administered in:
a) bacillary dysentery (shigellosis)
b) trichomoniasis
c) amebic dysentery
d) lambliasis
e) food toxicoinfections
45. Drugs used for the treatment of urinary tract infections:
a) nitroxoline
b) nalidixic acid
c) nitrofurantoin
d) furazolidone
e) furazidin
f) ambazone (faringosept)
46. Name a derivative of thiosemicarbazone:
a) nitroxoline
b) nalidixic acid
c) co-trimoxazole
d) furazolidone
e) ciprofloxacin
f) ambazone (faringosept)
47. Faringosept (Ambazone) is used for the treatment of:
a) tonsillitis
b) pneumonia
c) intestinal toxicoinfections
d) stomatitis (sore mouth)
e) genitourinary infections
48. Name an antituberculous drug inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in cellular wall of M.
tuberculosis:
a) rifampicin
b) streptomycin
c) isoniazid
d) p- aminosalicylic acid
e) cycloserine
49. Name antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis:
a) polymyxin
b) rifampicin
c) streptomycin
d) kanamycin
e) dactinomycin
50. Name specific features of isoniazid:
a) it has a broad antimicrobial spectrum of action
b) it has selective action on M. tuberculosis
c) it has a good absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract
d) it has a poor absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract
e) it has an ability to penetrate through the blood-brain barrier
51. Which of the antifungal drugs can be administered orally?
a) nitrofungin
b) nystatin
c) griseofulvin
77
d) levorin
e) clotrimazole
52. Which of the listed below antibiotics are antifungal?
a) amphotericin B
b) nystatin
c) griseofulvin
d) olivomycin
e) vincristine
53. Which of the drugs are used for the treatment of candidiasis?
a) griseofulvin
b) fluconazole (diflucan)
c) nystatin
d) clotrimazole
e) nitrofungin
54. For local treatment of oral cavity candidiasis are used:
a) griseofulvin
b) amphotericin B
c) nystatin
d) clotrimazole
e) dequalinium chloride
f) itraconazole
55. Name pathogens that are sensitive to nystatin:
a) pathogens of systemic mycoses
b) pathogens of dermatomycoses
c) pathogens of candidiasis
56. Name specific features of nystatin:
a) it has a good absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract
b) it has a poor absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract
c) it has a low toxicity
d) it has a high toxicity
e) it is used for the treatment of candidiasis
f) it is used for the treatment of dermatomycoses
57. Which of drugs are effective for the treatment of systemic mycoses?
a) amphotericin B
b) ketoconazole
c) fluconazole (diflucan)
d) nystatin
e) terbinafine (lamizyl)
f) clotrimazole
58. Name the drugs used for the treatment and prevention of malaria:
a) streptomycin
b) isoniazid
c) chloroquine (chingamin)
d) primaquine
e) pyrimethamine (chloridin)
59. Metronidazole acts against all microorganisms except:
a) lamblia
b) trichomonas
c) amoebas
d) campilobacteria
78
e) spirochetes
60. Dimercaprol (unithiol) is used as antidote in poisoning with such drugs as:
a) metronidazole
b) sulfalene
c) solyusurmin
d) bijochinol
e) furazolidone
f) isoniazid
61. Which of the drugs are used for enterobiosis?
a) mebendazole
b) pyrantel
c) piperazine adipate
d) phthalylsulfathiazole
e) metronidazole
f) nystatin
62. Drugs used for the treatment of intestinal cestodosis:
a) piperazine adipate
b) niclosamide
c) praziquantel
d) pyrantel
e) levamisole
f) metronidazole
63. Drugs used for prevention of the influenza:
a) co-trimoxazole (biseptol)
b) rimantadine (remantadine)
c) paracetamol
d) arbidol
e) interferon
f) aciclovir
64. Name drugs preventing adhesion of viruses on cell membranes and their penetration into the
cells.
a) rimantadine (remantadine)
b) zidovudine (azidothymidine)
c) amantadine (midantan)
d) oxoline
e) aciclovir
f) ganciclovir
65. Name a drug inhibiting formation of smallpox virions due to block of synthesis of structural
viral proteins:
a) zidovudine (azidothymidine)
b) aciclovir
c) methisazone
d) amantadine (midantan)
e) interferon
f) rimantadine (remantadine)
66. Name drugs for stimulation of interferon synthesis:
a) arbidol
b) bendazol (dibazol)
c) poludan
d) aciclovir
e) rimantadine (remantadine)
79
f) ganciclovir
67. Name drugs having antiherpetic action:
a) arbidol
b) rimantadine (remantadine)
c) aciclovir
d) valaciclovir
e) idoxuridine
f) zidovudine (azidothymidine)
68. Name reverse transcriptase inhibitors of oncornaviruses used for HIV treatment:
a) aciclovir
b) zidovudine (azidothymidine)
c) amantadine (midantan)
d) idoxuridine
e) arbidol
f) zalcitabine
69. Name antineoplastic antibiotics:
a) dactinomycin
b) doxorubicin
c) olivomycin
d) kanamycin
e) mercaptopurine
f) roxithromycin
70. The mechanism of mercaptopurine action is:
a) block of sulfhydryl groups
b) antagonism with purine bases
c) antagonism with folic acid
d) alkylating action
e) induction of free radicals
71. Cyclophosphamide is:
a) an antimetabolite
b) an antineoplastic antibiotic
c) an alkylating drug
d) a vegetable alkaloid
e) an antagonist of hormones
72. Which of the drugs are alkylating drugs?
a) thiotepa (thiophosphamide)
b) cyclophosphamide (cyclophosphane)
c) busulfan (myelosan)
d) methotrexate
e) cisplatin
f) demecolcine (colchamine)
73. Name mechanism of alkylating drug action:
a) disturbance of stability and replication of DNA
b) disturbance of nucleic acid synthesis
c) disturbance of ribosome function
74. Which of the antineoplastic drugs are antimetabolites?
a) vincristine
b) cyclophosphamide (cyclophosphan)
c) mercaptopurine
d) methotrexate
80
e) tegafur
f) 5-fluorouracil
75. Demecolcine (colchicine) is:
a) an alkylating drug
b) an antimetabolic drug
c) a mitotic inhibitor
76. Name the cytostatic of choice for the treatment of acute leukemias in children:
a) busulfan (myelosan)
b) methotrexate
c) dactinomycin
d) cisplatin
e) demecolcine (colchamine)
81
CORRECT ANSWERS
1. General pharmacology – p. 3
1. c
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. b
10. e
11. a,b,c
12. a
13. a
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. c
18. a
19. d
20. a,b
21. a,c
22. b
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. a
27. c
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. a
32. c,d
33. b,c
34. a,c
35. e
36. d
37. b
38. a
39. b
40. c
41. a
42. b
43. c
44. d
45. e
46. f
47. b
48. b
49. a,c
50. a,b,d,e
2. Drugs acting on the autonomic nervous system – p. 8
1. a,c,d
2. c,d
3. a,b
4. d
5. a,c
6. c
7. a,c,e
8. a
9. b
10. c
11. b,c
12. d
13. c
14. a,b,c
15. b,c,f
16. c,d,e
17. b,c,d,e
18. c
19. c
20. a,c
21. a
22. c
23. a,c,e
24. a,b,d
25. a
26. b
27. d
28. d
29. a,d
30. b
31. a,b
32. b,c,e
33. a,d
34. a,b,c
35. b
36. b
37. b
38. a,c
39. a
40. b,c
41. a
42. a,b,e
43. e
44. c
45. b
46. b
47. d
48. c
49. c,d
50. c
51. a
52. b
53. b,c,e
54. a,b,c
55. b
56. b,c,d
57. c
58. c
59. c
60. a
61. a,c
62. b,c,e
63. a
64. a,c
65. b,e
66. d
67. a,c,e
68. c,e
69. b,d,f
70. b
71. b
72. b,c
73. c,d
74. a,b,c
75. b,d,e
76. c,d,f
77. a,b,c,e
78. b
79. a,c,e
80. a,b,c,e
81. c
82. a
83. e
84. a,b,e
85. a
86. a,c
87. b
88. e
89. a,c
90. b,d,f
91. c
92. b,c,d
93. c
94. d
95. b
96. a,b,e
97. b,c,d
98. a,b,c
99. b,d
100. b
101. b
102. a
103. b,c,e
104. b
105. a,b,e
106. b,c
107. b
108. b,c,d
109. a,b,c,e
110. a
111. b
112. b,e
113. b
114. b
115. a,b,c
116. d,e
117. a,b,c
118. b
119. a
120. a
121. b,d
122. d
123. b
124. c
125. b
126. c
127. c,d
128. b
129. a,c,e
130. a
131. a,b,c
132. a
133. a,c
134. c
135. a,b
136. e
137. b
138. a.b
139. d
140. b
141. b
142. a,d
143. c,d,e
144. a
145. c,d,e
146. b
147. a
148. b,c
149. a,e
150. a,b,e
151. c,e
152. a,b,c
153. d
154. a,d,e
155. b,c,d,e
156. b,c,d
157. c
158. b
159. b,c,d
3. Drugs acting on the central nervous system – p. 26
1. b,c,d,e
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. c,d
6. a,c,e
7. c
8. a,b,c
9. d
10. b,d,e
11. a
12. a,c,d
13. b,e
14. a,c,d,e
15. b,c,e
16. c,d,e
17. a,b,c
18. d
19. b,d
20. b,c,d,e
21. d
22. b
23. a,b,d
24. c,d,e,f
25. a,b
26. a,b,d
27. c,d,e,f
28. a,c,e,f
29. a,c
30. c
31. a,b,d,e
32. c
33. c
34. a,c
35. a,b,c,e
36. a,b,c,d
37. a,c,d
38. a,b,d,e
39. b,c
40. a,b,f
41. c
42. b
43. a,d
44. b
45. c,d,e
46. e
47. a,d,e
48. b,e,f
49. b
50. b
51. c
52. b,c,e
82
53. a
54. a,c,d,e
55. c
56. d
57. a,b,c
58. e
59. d,f
60. a,c,d,e
61. a,c,e
62. b,c,d
63. b
64. d,e,f
65. a,b,d,e
66. d,e,f
67. b,d,e
68. d
69. a
70. c,e,f
71. a,b
72. a,b,e,f
73. a,c,d,f
74. c,d
75. b,f
76. a,c,e,f
77. b,c,f
78. c,e,f
79. a,b,d
80. b,e
81. b,d,f
82. a,c,d,e
83. a
84. a,c,e
85. a,c,d,e,f
86. a,b,c
87. a,b,d
4. Drugs acting on metabolism – p. 37
1. a,e
2. d,e
3. e
4. a,b
5. d
6. d
7. b,d
8. d
9. d
10. b,c,d
11. c,d,e
12. c,d
13. a,b,e
14. a,b
15. d
16. b
17. c,d,e
18. d,e
19. b
20. b,e
21. c
22. a,b,d
23. c,d,e
24. a,c,d
25. b,d
26. e,f
1. a,d,f
2. a,d,e,f
3. a
4. b
5. b,c
6. a,c,e
7. a,d
8. a,c,e
9. d
10. a,c,e
11. c
12. b,c,d
13. a, c
14. a
15. b
16. d
17. e
18. b
19.a,b,d,f
20. a,c,e
21. b,d
22.a,b,c,
e
23.a,c,d,f
24.b,c,d,
e
25. b,c,e
26.
b,c,d,e
27. b,d,e
28.
a,b,c,d
29. a,b,c
30.
a,b,d,e
31. a,d,e
32. a
33. a,d,e
34. b,d,e
35. a,b,e
36.
a,c,d,e
37. b,d,e
38. a
39. c
40. a,d,e
41. a,e
42. a
43. c
44. b,c,d
45. b,c
46. a,b,e
27. a,b,c,d
28. c,d,e
29. b,e
30. c,d
31. a,b,c
32. a
33. b
34. b,c,d
35. a,e
36. a,d,e
37. a,b
38. c,d
39. b
40. d
41. c
42. a,c,d
43. b
44. c
45. b
46. e
47. a,b,d
48. a,c
49. a,b,e
50. b
51. b,e
52. a
53. a,b,e
54. a,b,c
55. c,d
56. a,b,c
57. c,d,f
58. c,d,e
59. a,b
60. a,c,e
61. a,d,e
62. a,b,c
63. d,e
64. a,c
65. a
66. b
67. a,b,c,d
68. d,e,f
69. a,d,e
70. a,b,d,e
71. a,c,d,e
72. a,b,f
73. a,c,d
74. b
75. d,e
76. c
77. b
78. b
79. c
80.c
81. a,d,e
82. b
83. a,b,c
84. c,e
85. a,d,e
86. b
87. a,c,d
88. b,e.f
89. b,e,f
90. a
91. c
92. d
93. b,c
94. e
95. d,e
96. a,c,d
97. b,c
98. a,b,c
99. c
5. Drugs acting on functions of internal organs – p. 49
47. a,b,c
48. c
49. c
50 a,c,e,f
51. a
52. c,d
53.
a,b,c,e
54. a,b
55. a
56. b,d
57. a,b
58. b
59. b
60.
a,b,e,f
61. a,c,e,f
62.a,b,c,
d
63. a,b,c
64. a,b
65. c,d,e
66. c,d,e
67.
a,d,e,f
68. d,e
69. d
70.a,c,d,e
71. a,b,d
72. a
73. c
74. b
75. a,c,e,f
76.a,c,d,e
77.a,c,d,e
78. b
79. a
80. a,c,e
81.a,b,c,
d,f
82. b,c,d
83. a,c,d
84. a
85. a,d
86. b,c,e
87. b,c
88. e
89. d
90.a,b,c,
d
91. b,c
92. a
93. c
94. a,b,c
95. b,c,d
96. d
97. a,c,f
98. b,d
99. a
100. b
101. b,c,d
102. d
103.a,b,c,e
104. a,b
105.a,b,d,f
106. a
107. b
108. b,c,e
109. b,c,e
110. a,c,d
111.a,b,c,
d
112. b,c
113. d
114. b
115. a
116.b,c,d,
e
117.a,c,d,e
118. a
119. e
120. c
121. a,d,e
122. a,b
123. b
124. c
125. a
126. b
127. a,b
128. c,e
129. b,e
130. a,c,e
131. b,c,e
132. a,b,d
133. a,d,e
134. c,e
135. a,b,d
136. a
137. b,c,e
138.a,b,c,
d
139. a,e
140. a,c
141. c,d
142. c,d
143. c
144. a,b
145. b,c,d
146. b
147. a,c,e
148. d,e
149. d
150. a,e
151. a,e
152. a,b
153. b,c,d
154. b,c,d
155. a,b
156. d,e
157. d
158. c
159. a
160. b,d,e
161. c
162. b,c
163. c,d
164. b,d,e
165. b
166. b,c,d
167. c,e
168. b,c,e
169. b,c,d
170. d,e
171. c
172. d
173.b,c,d,
e
174. a,e,f
175. b,c
176. a,b,c
177. d
178. a,c,e
179. a,c,e
180. a,b
6. Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs - p. 72
1. a,c,e
2. b
3. b,d,e
4. c,d
5. b,e
6. a,b
11. a,d
12. c,d
13. a,d,e
14. a,d,f
15.a,b,c,
e,f
20. a,d,e
21. a
22.a,b,d,e
23. d
24. d,e,f
25. a,d,e
30. c,d,f
31. a,c,e
32.a,b,c,d
33. e
34. c
35. b,c
40. a,b,c
41. a,c,e
42. b,d,e
43. b,c,e
44. c
45.a,b,c,e
83
50. b,c,e
51. b,c,d
52. a,b,c
53. b,c,d
54. c,e
55. c
60. c,d
61. a,b,c
62. b,c
63. b,d,e
64. a,c,d
65. c
70. b
71. c
72. a,b,c
73. a
74. c,d,e,f
75. c
7.a,b,c,e
8. b,d,e
9. d,e,f
10. b,c,e
16. b,d,e
17. a,c,e
18. a,c
19. d,e
26. b,c,d
27. b,d
28. e
29. a,b,d
36. b
37. d,e
38. d
39. b
46. f
47. a,d
48. c
49. b,c,d
84
56. b,c,e
57. a,b,c
58. c,d,e
59. e
66. a,b,c
67. c,d,e
68. b,f
69. a,b,c
76. b