Uploaded by Ghosh Tirthankar


1. Cells .................................................................. 1
2. Tissue and Muscle ........................................... 3
3. Body Fluids ....................................................... 8
4. Blood ............................................................... 11
5. Digestive System ........................................... 21
6. Kidney ............................................................. 32
7. Endocrines and Reproduction ...................... 46
8. Cardiovascular System ................................. 54
9. Respiration ..................................................... 69
10. Nervous System: Special Senses ................. 78
Cell 1
1. Each chromosome is made up of supporting protein like:
2. The large constituent of a cell is:
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria
3. Power-generating unit of the cell is:
A. Nucleus
B. Lysosomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Mitochondria
4. Nucleus of most cells contain:
A. A neucleolus
B. A patch work of granules rich in ribonucleic acid (RNA)
C. Chromatin threads which carry genes
D. All the above
1 A
2 C
3 D
4 D
MCQS in Physiology
5. Golgi complex is a collection of:
A. Membranous tubules and vesicles
B. Granules
C. Rods
D. Reticular fibres
5 A
Tissue and Muscle 3
Tissue and
1. The matrix of connective tissue consists mainly of:
A. Phospholipids
B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Amioacids
D. Collagen
2. A sarcomere is a unit between two successive:
A. I Zones
B. Z Lines
C. A Zones
D. M Lines
3. Latent period is prolonged in all of the following except:
A. Increase of temperature
B. Decrease of temperature
C. Acidosis
D. Fatigue
1 D
2 B
3 A
MCQS in Physiology
4. Which of these is accompanied by shortening of muscle?
A. Isotonic contraction
B. Isometric contraction
5. In which of these tissues mitosis is not seen during adult life?
A. Epithelium
B. Adipose tissue
C. Neural tissue
D. Cartilage
6. Which of these ions is MOST important for beneficial effect of
successive stimuli?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Hydrogen
7. Which of these are phagocytic?
A. Macrophages
B. Fibroblasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. None of the above
8. The chemicals found in connective tissue are:
A. Chondroitin
B. Keratin
C. Both
D. Neither
9. Stratified squamous epithelium is found in:
A. Ureter
B. Urinary bladder
C. Skin
D. None of the above
10. Which of these cannot be tetanised ?
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac muscle
4 A
5 C
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 C
Tissue and Muscle 5
11. Haversian canals are found in:
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph node
D. Bone
12. The principal cell of connective tissue is:
A. The adipocyte
B. The hyalocyte
C. The fibroblast
D. The osteoblast
13. The immediate source of high energy phosphates is:
A. Creatine phosphate
B. Guanosine phosphate
C. Carbamyl phosphate
D. Glycerophosphate
14. In skeletal muscles, all or none principle applies to:
A. Single muscle fibre
B. Motor unit
C. Fasciculus
D. Muscle as a whole
15. Glial tissue is found in the:
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. Kidney
16. Bone reabsorption is due to the activity of:
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteclasts
C. Osteocytes
D. Monocytes
17. Which of these is concerned with oxidation ?
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi vesicles
C. Ribosomes
D. All of the above
11 D
12 C
13 A
14 A
15 B
16 B
17 A
MCQS in Physiology
18. Epithelium of the urinary bladder is:
A. Columar
B. Cuboidal
C. Squamous
D. Transitional
19. Which of these is NOT a contractile protein of the muscle ?
A. Actin
B. Fibrin
C. Myosin
D. Troponins
20. Alveolar epithelium is:
A. Columnar
B. Squamous
C. Neither
23. Chronaxie is presentation time of:
A. Rheobase
B. Twice rheobase
C. Half the rheobase
24. Which of these can block skeletal neuromuscular transmission ?
A. Curare
B. Atropine
C. Nicotine
D. Pilocarpine
25. Cilia are projections of:
A. Smooth muscle fibres
B. Nerve fibres
C. Epithelial cells
D. Fibroblasts
26. Jogging is an example of:
A. Isotonic contraction
B. Isometric contraction
18 D
19 B
20 A
23 B
24 A
25 C
26 B
Tissue and Muscle 7
27. Distinguishing feature of cardiac muscle is:
A. Presence of glycogen
B. Syncitium
C. Absence of sarcoplasmic triad
28. Ciliare are seen in:
A. Bronchi
B. Bronchiloes
C. Both
D. Neither
27 B
28 C
MCQS in Physiology
Body Fluids
1 . Internal environment of the cell is determined by:
A . Intracellular fluid
B. Tissue fluid
C . Plasma
D . Blood
2 . Components of ECF are:
A . Interstitial fluid
B. Blood
C . Hymph and serous fluids
D . All of the above
3 . Intracellular fluid water content is:
A . 2/3 rds of the total body water
B. 1/3 rd of the total body water
C . 1/5 th of the total body water
D . 1/8 th of the total body water
4 . Plasma volume can be measured by using:
A . Evans blue (T1824)
B. Sucrose
C . Methelene blue
D . Cresyl blue
1 B
2 D
3 A
4 A
Body Fluids 9
5 . Commonly used Radioactive element in measuring red
cell volume is:
A . 51 cr
B. 48 Ti
C . 238 U
D . 232 Th
6 . Transcellular fluid comprises:
A . Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Aqueous and vitreous humor
C . Digest time juices, serous and synovial fluids
D . All the above
7 . Proteins enter the cells by the process of:
A . Endocytosis
B. Active transport
C . Simple diffusion
D . Facilitated diffusion
8 . Total amount of body water in an average wt, of 70
A . 40 lits
B. 30 lits
C . 20 lits
D . 10 lits
9 . Insensible water loss is:
A . By urine
B. By faeces
C . By Sweat
D . By diffusion through skin
10. Intracellular fluid
A . 25 lits of fluid
B. 40 lits of fluid
C . 15 lits of fluid
D . 50 lits of fluid
11. Extracellular fluid compartment is composed of:
A . 25 lits
B. 40 lits
C . 15 lits
D . 50 lits
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 A
9 D
10 A
11 C
MCQS in Physiology
12. Extracellular fluid contains:
A . Large quantities of Na+, Cl¯
B. Large quantities of HCO3
C . Small quantities of K+, Ca+, Mg+,PO4¯, SO4¯
D . All are correct
13. Intracellular fluid contains:
A . Small quantities of Na+, Cl¯
B. Large quantities of K+, PO4¯
C . Moderate quantities of Mg+, SO4¯
D . All are correct
14. Hypotonic solution is:
A . Less than 0.9% of Nacl solution
B. More than 0.9% of Nacl solution
C . Same as that 0.9% of Nacl solution
D . 1.0% Nacl solution
15. Hypertonic solution is:
A . Less than 0.9% of Nacl solution
B. More than 0.9% of Nacl solution
C . Same as that 0.9% of Nacl solution
D . 0.8% Nacl solution
16. When hypertonic solution is added to ECF:
A . Osmolarity increases
B. Osmosis of water occurs from cell to ECF
C . Cell shrinks
D . All the above
17. When hypotonic solution is added to ECF:
A . Osmolarity of ECF decreases
B. Entry of water occurs from ECF in to cell
C . Cell swells
D . All the above
12 D
13 D
14 A
15 B
16 D
17 D
Blood 11
1 . The normal volume of blood of a man weighing 70 kgs is:
A . 2 lit
B. 4.5 lit
C . 5.6 1it
D . 6.0 lit
2 . In regulation of osmotic pressure the major role is played
D . Albumin
3 . The specific gravity of the plasma is due to:
A . The protein concentration
B. The ionic concentration
C . The water content present in it
4 . The RBCs are bound by:
A . Epithelium
B. Elastic membrane
C . Protein layer
D . Non-elastic membrane
1 C
2 D
3 A
4 B
MCQS in Physiology
5 . In a two-month old foetus the RBC are produced in:
A . Bone marrow
B. Liver
C . Spleen
D . Yolk sac
6 . Iron is transported in the blood as:
A . Iron oxidate
B. Transferrin
C . Haemoglobin
D . Siderin
7 . Iron is stored in liver in the form of:
A . Ferritin
B. Ferrous
C . Ferric oxide
D . Ferric sulphate
8 . Major buffer in blood is:
A . Haemoglobin
B. Haemosiderin
C . Platelets
D . Haemopoitin
9 . Lack of intrinsic factor causes:
A . Megaloblastic anaemia
B. Pernicious anaemia
C . Aplastic anaemia
D . Thalassaemia
10. Haem contains a pure pigment known as:
A . Porphyrin
B. Carotin
C . Chlorophil
D . Bile
11. Rericulocytes are increased in the following conditions:
A . Before haemorrhage
B. After haemorrhage
C . Lack of vitamin
D . Lack of proteins
5 D
6 B
7 A
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 B
Blood 13
12. Synthesis of Hb occurs in the:
A . Mitochondria
B. Gogi apparatus
C . Nucleus
D . Food vacuoles
13. The concentration of hb in each RBC per deciliter is:
A . 36 picograms
B. 32 picograms
C . 33 picogram
D . 30 picogram
14. The postpituitary hormone that is responsible for water
balance is:
A . Vasopressin
B. Oxytocin
C . Prothrombin
D . None
15. The hormone which regulates the water balance through
electrolytes is:
A . Aldosterone
B. Vasopressin
C . Oxytocin
D . Progesterone
16. The secretion of aldosterone is controlled by:
A . Angiotensin II
B. Low serum Na+
C . High serum K+
D . All
17. Platelets play an important role in the:
A . Haemolysis
B. Haemopoiesis
C . Haemostasis
D . Homeostasis
18. The normal life span of platelets is:
A . 8-10 days
B. 8-10 days
C . 8-10 weeks
D . 8-10 months
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 A
17 C
18 A
MCQS in Physiology
19. The anticoagulants which act both in vivo and vitro are:
A . Heparin
B. Oxalate
C . Citrate
D . All
20. Failure of maturation of RBC is due to poor absorption
A . Folic acid
B. Vit. B12
C . A and B
D . Zinc
21. Red bone marrow is absent in:
A . Pernicious anaemia
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C . Aplastic anaemia
D . Megaloblastic anaemia
22. In
Polycythemia the blood shows:
Increased volume
Increased viscosity
Decreased velocity
All the above
23. In
anaemia the blood shows:
Increased viscosity
Increased resistance
Decreased viscosity
Decreased velocity
24. Symptoms of erythroblastosis foetalis is:
A . Anaemia
B. Jaundice
C . Oedema
D . All
25. Cyanosis is caused when the reduced Hb concentration
of blood in capillaries is more than:
A . 3mg/dl
B. 5mg/dl
C . 10mg/dl
D . 12mg/dl
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 D
23 C
24 D
25 B
Blood 15
26. In
pernicious anaemia the colour index is:
More than one
Less than one
Equal to one
27. Pernicious anaemia is:
A . Microcytic hypochromica anaemia
B. Microcytic hyperchromic anaemia
C . Macrocytic hyperchromic anaemia
D . Macrocytic hypochromic anaemia
28. The metal which causes haemolysis is:
A . Lead
B. Copper
C . Iron
D . Chromium
29. Sickle cell anaemia is commonly seen in:
A . India
B. America
C . Europe
D . Africa
30. Total gastrectomy will lead to:
A . Aplastic anaemia
B. Megaloblastic anaemia
C . Sickle cell anaemia
D . Thalassemia
31. Secondary polycythemia results due to more supply of
O 2:
B. More supply of CO2
C . Less supply of O2
D . Less supply of CO2
32. Physiological polycythemia is seen in persons living at:
A . High altitudes
B. Low altitudes
C . Planes
D . Mines
26 A
27 C
28 A
29 D
31 C
32 A
MCQS in Physiology
33. A person having pinkish tint to the skin may be suffering
A . Anaemia
B. Eosinophillia
C . Leukaemia
D . Polycythaemia
34. The viscosity of blood depends on concentration of:
C . Platelets
D . None
35. Partial cell antibodies are detected in:
A . Aplastic anaemia
B. Thalassaemia
C . Pernicious anaemia
D . Sickle cell anaemia
36. The major constituent of plasma protein is:
A . α - globulin
B. Albumin
C . β-globulin
D . Fibrinogen
37. The albumin, globulin ratio is:
A . 2:1
B. 1:1.5
C . 1:2
D . 1:1
38. In
liver disease albumin globulin ratio is:
Not altered
39. Antibodies belong to the class:
A . Gamma globulins
B. β - globulins
C . Fibrinogen
D . α - globulin
33 D
34 A
35 C
36 B
37 A
38 C
39 A
Blood 17
40. The vitamin that is necessary for the formation of
prothrombin is:
A . Vit. E
B. Vit C
C . Vit K
D . Vit D
41. The protein exerting maximum smotic effect is:
A . Albumin
B. Globulin
C . Fibrinogen
D . Prothrombin
42. Gamma globulin is synthesized by:
A . Liver
B. Plasma cells
C . Reticuloendothelial
D . Kidney
43. The degraded albumin is eliminated by:
A . Blood
B. Kidney
C . Spleen
D . Lungs
44. The colloid osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins
is called:
A . Oncotic pressure
B. Blood pressure
C . Both
D . None
45. When fully saturated 1 gm of Hb combines with:
A . 1.15 ml of oxygen
B. 2.16 ml of oxygen
C . 1.30 ml of oxygen
D . 1.34 ml of oxygen
40 C
41 A
42 B
43 B
44 A
45 D
MCQS in Physiology
46. The haemoglobin, Oxyhaemoglobin buffer system is an
effective method for buffering:
A . Acetic acid
B. Amino acid
C . Carbonic acid
D . Hydrochloric acid
47. The relative proportion Hb in red cell is shown by:
A . Colour index
48. The synthesis of Hb begins in the:
A . Basophil erythroblast
B. Ortho erythroblast
C . Chromophil erythroblast
D . Reticulocyte
49. Blood group in human beings is classified by:
A . Landsteiner
B. Vernier
C . Boyels
D . Lewis
50. It is said to be agglutinated when the:
A . RBCs are seperated
B. RBCs are clumped together
C . WBCs are clumped together
D . Platelets are clumped together
51. The group which has no agglutinogen is:
A . A group
B. B group
C . O group
D . AB group
52. The chromosome responsible for the inheritance of blood
group ABO is:
A . 10th pair
B. 11th pair
C . 9th pair
D . 8th pair
46 C
47 A
48 C
49 A
50 B
51 C
52 A
Blood 19
53. Antigen of blood group is present:
A . Inside the RBC
B. In the plasma
C . On the surface of RBC
D . On the surface of WBC
54. In
tissue transplantation the rejection is because of:
55. The commonest Rh antigen is:
A. C
B. E
C. D
D. D
56. Prothrombin times in the plasma is prolonged by the
administration of:
A . Vit K
B. Calcium glycinate
C . Dicumerol
D . Folic acid
57. Substance which causes platelets activation is:
A . Fibrinogen
B. Damaged collagen
C . Prothrombin
D . Prothrombin activation
58. Edema is caused by the deficiency of:
A . Albumin
B. α-globulin
C . β-globulin
D . Fibrinogen
59. The main function of globulin is:
A . Maintenance of osmotic pressure
B. Defence mechanism
C . Water balance
D . Iron balance
53 C
54 A
55 C
56 C
57 B
58 A
59 B
MCQS in Physiology
60. During the immunization against infective diseases the
fraction of plasma which increases:
A . Albumin
B. Globulin
C . Fibrinogen
D . Prothrombin
61. During starvation plasma proteins are formed from:
A . Tissue proteins
B. Blood
C . Liver
D . Kidney
62. Osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins, influence
the exchange of:
A . Gasses between blood and tissues
B. Fluid between blood and tissues
C . Nutritive materials
D . Diapedisis
63. In plasmapheresis is repeated daily the amount of plasma
protein in blood:
A . Will increase
B. Will decrease
C . Remains the same
D . Will become zero
60 B
61 A
62 B
63 B
Digestive System 21
Digestive System
1 . Secretion from the parotid gland is:
A . Thin and watery
B. Thick viscous
C . Acidic in nature
D . None of the above
2 . Functions of saliva include all except:
A . It aids speech
B. Prevents dental caries
C . Helps mastication
D . Helps in digestion of proteins
3 . Which of the following substances
salivary secretion increases:
A . Sodium
B. Potassium
C . Calcium
D . Bicarbonate
1 A
2 D
3 D
MCQS in Physiology
4 . The Major stimulus for primary peristalsis
esophagus is:
A . Presence of food in the esophagus
B. Swallowing
C . Rgurgitation of food from stomach
D . Closing of the upper oesophageal sphincter
5 . Brain stem co-ordination is necessary for the following
A . Swallowing
B. Primary oesophageal peristalsis
C . Gastric emptying
D . Vomiting
6 . Gastric Parietal cells secrete:
A . Gastrin
B. Motilin
C . Cholecysto kilin
D . Intrinsic factor
7 . Secretion of pepsin is influenced by the following except:
A . Vagal stimulation
B. Insulin
C . Food in the stomach presence of protein
D . Secretin
8 . Acid secretion in the cephalic phase is stimulated by:
A . Histamine
B. Gastrine
C . Acetyl choline
D . Secretin
9 . The effective inhibitor of gastric secretion is:
A . Entero gastrone
B. Somatostatin
C . Gluca Gon
D . Cholecysto Kinin
10. Stimulus for receptive relaxation of the stomach is:
A . Food in the stomach
B. Food in the intestine
C . Secretin
D . Cholecysto Kinin
4 B
5 C
6 D
7 D
8 C
9 B
10 A
Digestive System 23
11. Amylase is secreted by:
A . Hepatocytes
B. Acinar cells of pancreas
C . Parietal cells of stomach
D . Goblet cells
12. Total removal of pancreas can cause:
A . Diabetes mellitus
B. Increase in faecal fat content
C . Increase in faecal nitrogen content
D . All of the above
13. Secretion of gastrin is inhibited by:
A . HCL in gastric lumen
B. Distension of gastric lumen
C . Plasma Epinephrine
D . All of the above
14. Presence of the fat in the duodenum:
A . Inhibits secretion of secretin
B. Stimulates CCK - Pz secretion
C . Stimulates gall bladder contraction
D . All of the above
15. Important function of the Brunner’s gland secretion is:
A . To protect the deodenal mucosa from ulceration
B. To provide water and electrolyte
C . To secrete Gitract hormones
D . All of the above
16. Saliva is:
A . Acidic
B. Alkaline
C . Neutral
17. Ptyalin acts on:
A . All carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C . Cooked starch
11 B
12 D
13 A
14 D
15 A
16 A
17 C
MCQS in Physiology
18. Bacterecidal action of saliva is due to:
A . Hyaluronidase
B. Amylase
C . Lysozymes
D . Peptidase
19. Saliva secreted from parotid gland is mainly:
A . Serous
B. Mucous
C . Mixed
20. The involuntary phase of deglutition is:
A . Oral
B. Pharyngeal
C . Oesophageal
21. Achalasiais:
A . Failure of stomach to relax
B. Failure of upper oesophagus to relax
C . Failure of cardia to relax
D . Failure of pyloric sphincter to relax
22. Parietal cells produce:
A . Hcl
B. Pepsin
C . Gastrin
D . Intrinsic factor
E . A and D
23. PH
of gastric juice is approximately:
24. Average gastric emptying time for a mixed meal is:
A . 3.5-5 hours
B. 1-2 hours
C . 2-3 hours
D . 7-8 hours
18 C
19 A
20 C
21 C
22 E
23 C
24 A
Digestive System 25
25. Which of the following has the maximum emptying time?
A . Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C . Fats
D . Water
26. Gastrin in produced by cells in the:
A . First part of the duodenum
B. Antrum
C . Fundus of stomach
D . Cardia of stomach
27. Actions of gastrin include all the following except:
A . Stimulation of acid secretion
B. Inhibition of gastric enzymes
C . Increasing time of sphincters of stomach
D . Contraction of gall bladder
28. Histamine stimulation of gastric acid is mediated by:
A . H1 receptors
B. H2 receptors
C . Both
D . Neither
29. Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated by:
A . Sympathetic nerves
B. Phrenic nerves
C . Vagus
30. The alkalinity of the pancreatic juice is due to:
A . OH¯
B. Cl¯
C . SO4¯
D . HCO3¯
31. Normal level of total serum bilirubin is:
A . 0.3-0.5 mg/100 ml
B. 2-5mg/100ml
C . 0.2-0.8 mg/100 ml
D . 3-6mg/100ml
25 C
26 B
27 B
28 B
29 C
30 D
31 C
MCQS in Physiology
32. Failure of bilirubin conjugation is seen in:
A . Dubin Johnson syndrome
B. Rotor syndrome
C . Gigglar - Najjar syndrome
D . Gilbert’s syndrome
33. In
haemolytic jaundice bilirubin in the blood is mostly:
Conjugated state
Unconjugated state
Oxidised state
34. Vitamin B12 is mostly adsorbed at the:
A . Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C . Ileum
35. Trypsonogen is activated by:
B. Streptokinase
C . Enterokinase
D . Pepsin
36. The principal action of secretin is to stimulate:
A . Pancreatic enzyme secretion
B. Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
C . Absorption of carbohydrate
D . Gall bladder contraction
37. Glucose is absorbed by:
A . Passive diffusion
B. Osmosis
C . Carrier - mediated transport
D . Pinocytesis
38. Lacteals transport all the following except:
A . Trigly cerides
B. Cholesterol esters
C . Short chain fatty acids
32 A
33 B
34 C
35 C
36 B
37 C
38 C
Digestive System 27
39. Iron is better absorbed in the:
A . Oxidised state
B. Reduced state
40. Obstructive jaundice is characterised
following except:
A . Raised plasma bilirubin
B. Raised serum alkaline phosphatase
C . Bile pigments in the urine
D . Haemolysis
41. Secretomotor nerves to the alimentary tract are:
A . Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
42. Colonic mucosa
A . Magnesium
B. Potassium
C . Sodium
D . Calcium
43. Defaecation reflex is:
A . Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
44. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A . Secretion
B. Cholecystokinin
C . Pankreozymin
D . Enterokinase
45. The function of bile salts include all of the following
A . Fat digestion
B. Fat absorption
C . Absorption of water soluble vitamins
D . Absorption of fat soluble vitamins
46. Tone of the gastro esophageal sphincter is decreased
A . Coffee
B. Gastrin
C . Secretin
39 B
46 D
40 D
41 A
42 B
43 A
44 D
45 C
MCQS in Physiology
47. Gastrin is produced from other than antrum, from:
A . The intestinal Villi
B. Appendix
C . D. cells of islets of Langerhans
D . Kupffer cells of liver
48. The cells of the intestinal mucosal wall include all of
the following except:
A . Enterochremaffin cells
B. Cryptic cells
C . Oxyntic cells
D . Paneth cells
49. Difference between vomiting of central and of peripheral
origin is:
A . The time of occurrence
B. The frequency
C . Presence of marked nausea
50. Parietal cells produce:
A . Hcl
B. Pepsin
C . Gastrin
D . Intrinsic factor
E . A and D
51. Which of the following movements is NOT seen in
normal individuals in the intestine?
A . Segmentation contraction
B. Peristaltic waves
C . Peristaltic rush
D . Movements of villi
52. Malabsorption syndrome occurs when:
A . Partial gastrectomy
B. Total gastrectomy is indicated
C . Twenty per cent of small intestine is resected
D . More then 50% of small intestine is resected
47 C
48 C
49 C
50 C
51 C
52 D
Digestive System 29
53. The following are true of saliva except:
A . Salivary digestion is completed in the stomach
B. Salivary amylase acts on cooked starch only
C . The enzyme is effective only in an alkaline pH
D . Saliva contains lysozymes
54. The following are true of lower oesophegeal sphiretor
A . It is a true anatomic sphirector
B. It relaxes when the oesophegeal peristalus reaches the cardia
C . Both
D . Neither
55. Achalesia cardia is due to degeneration of:
A . Musculari Mucodal
B. Meissner’s plexus
C . Auerbeach’s plexas
D . None of the above
56. Parietal cells produce all these except:
A . Intrinsic factor
B. Hydrogen ions
C . Bicarbonates
D . Chloride ions
57. Enzymes of the stomach include all these, except:
A . Pepsin
B. Trypsinogen
C . Cathepain
D . Gastric renin
58. Acid-neutralising mucus is produced mainly by:
A . Surface cells
B. Neck cells of gastric glands
C . Both
D . Neither
59. Which of these is not true of gastrocolic reflex?
A . It initiates mass persitalus in the cold
B. It is mediated by the sympathetic nerves
C . Myenteric plexus is involved in this reflex
D . None of the above
53 A
54 B
55 C
56 C
57 B
58 B
59 B
MCQS in Physiology
60. Which of these ions is in high concentration in the
pancreatic juice?
A . Chloridess
B. Bicarbonates
C . Sulfates
D . Hydrogen ions
61. Which of these is absorbed by Pinocytosis?
A . Proteins
B. Glucose
C . Iron
D . None of these above
6 2 Which of these forms iron is best absorbed?
A . Ferric salts
B. Organic iron forms
C . Ferrous salts
63. Which of these is true of obstructive jaundice:
A . High level of serum alkaline phosphatase
B. High levels of conjugated bilirubin
C . Both
D . Neither
64. Jaundice is clinically evident when the serum bilirubin
A . 0.5 mg%
B. 0.4 mg%
C . 2 mg %
D . 5mg%
65. Functions of colon include all these except:
A . Electrolyte absorption
B. B-complex synthesis
C . Transit of food residue
D . Absorption of aminoacids
66. Wllich of these substances is (are) absorbed by carriermediated transport?
A . Glucose
B. Aminoacids
C . Both
D . Neither
60 B
61 A
62 C
63 B
64 C
65 B
66 A
Digestive System 31
67. Secretion of pepsin is influenced by the following except:
A . Vagal stimulation
B. Insulin
C . Food in the stomach presence of protein
D . Secretin
68. The effective inhibitor of gastric secretion is:
A . Entro gastrone
B. Somatostatin
C . Glucagon
D . Cholecysto kinin
69. Stimulus for receptive relaxation of the stomach is:
A . Food in the stomach
B. Food in the intestine
C . Seceretin
D . Cholecysto kinin
70. Analyse is secreted by:
A . Hepatocytes
B. Aoniar cells of pancreas
C . Parietal cells of stomach
D . Goelet cells
71. Total Removal of pancreas can cause:
A . Diabetes mellitus
B. Increase in faecal fat content
C . Increase in faecal nitrogen content
D . All of the above
72. Important function of the Brunner’s gland secretion is:
A . To protect the duodenal mucosa from ulceration
B. To provide water and electrolyte
C . To secerete gitract hormones
D . All of the above
67 D
68 B
69 A
70 B
71 A
MCQS in Physiology
1 . The functional parts of a renal tubule are:
A . Proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle and distal
concoluted tubule
B. Glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle and
collecting duct
C . Bowman’s capsule, ascending segment of loop of henle,
descending segment and collecting duct
D . Proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle and collecting duct
2 . The cells present in between the endothelium and the
basement membrane in the nephron is:
A . Macula densa
B. Lacis cells
C . Podocytes
D . Mesangial
3 . The cells found at the angle of the afferent and efferent
arterioles are:
A . Lacis cells
B. Macula densa
C . Mesangial cells
D . Podocytes
1 A
2 D
3 B
Kidney 33
4 . The juxtra glomerular apparatus is formed by:
A . Juxtra glomerular cells , macula densa and lacis cells
B. Macila densa , mesangial cells and lacis cells
C . Juxtra medullary cells, podocytes and macula densa
D . Only macula densa and lacis
5 . The epithelial cells that make contact with the capillaries
A . Mesangial cells
B. Macula densa
C . Lacis cells
D . Podocytes
6 . Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by ::
A . Squamous cells
B. Cuboidal cells with brush broder
C . Columnar cells
D . Pseudostratified cells
7 . The capillary endothelium is lined by:
A . Carrier protein
B. Glycocylated protein
C . Conjugated protein
D . None of the above
8 . Cells in kidney that have a secretory function include:
A . Juxta glomerular cells
B. Type I medullary interstitial cells
C . Collecting ducts
D . All the above
9 . The rate of the blood flowing through both the kidneys
of a 70kg man is about:
A . 1400ml/min
B. 1600ml/min
C . 1300ml/min
D . 900ml/min
4 A
5 D
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 C
MCQS in Physiology
10. From the renal artery, Interlobular arteries and arcuate
artery arises:
A . Afferent arterioles
B. Peritubular capillarie
C . Efferent arterioles
D . Vasa recta
11. Capillaries of golmerular tuft coalesce to form:
A . Afferent arteriole
B. Efferent arteriole
C . Peritubular capillaries
D . Vasa recta
12. The medullary blood supply is by means of:
A . Capillary network of afferent arterioles of juxta-medullary
B. Capillary network of efferent arterioles of juxta-medullary
C . Peritubular vessels
D . None
13. ‘Vasa recta’ is the branch given off by:
A . The afferent arteriole descending into the medulla
B. The efferent arteriole descending into the pyramid
C . The efferent arteriole descending into the cortex
D . The efferent arteriole descending into the pyramid
14. The renal blood flow can be estimated by:
A . Plasma clearance of para aminohyppuic acid
B. Diodrast clearance
C . Both the above are correct (a and b)
D . Inulin clearance
15. PAH or diodrast test given the measurement of:
A . Renal plasma flow
B. Renal blood flow
C . Glomerular filtration rate
D . Urine formation
10 A
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 C
15 A
Kidney 35
16. The renal blood flow is constant over a range of:
A . 60 - 80 mm of Hg
B. 80-100 mm of Hg
C . 80 - 200 mm of Hg
D . 60-80 mm of Hg
17. The theories put forward to explain the autoregulation
of kidney are:
A . Cell separation theory
B. Intrarenal pressure theory
C . The myogenic theory
D . All the above
18. The arrangement of afferent and efferent arterioles
A . Low capillary pressure in the glomerular tuft
B. Moderate capillary pressure in the glomerular tuft
C . High capillary pressure in the glomerular tuft
D . None
19. Renin is secreted when blood flows to kidney:
A . Remains the same
B. Increased
C . Decreased
D . Intermittent
20. Autoregulation depends
macula densa of:
A . Sodium
B. Calcium
C . Potassium
D . Magnesium
21. The kidney is richly supplied by:
A . Parasympathetic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves
C . Splanchnic nerve
D . All the above
16 C
17 D
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
MCQS in Physiology
22. Prolonged standing:
A . Increases the renal blood flow
B. Decreases the renal blood flow
C . The renal blood flow remains the same
D . Fluctuates
23. The cortex of the kidney receives renal blood flow of:
A . 90% of total RBF
B. 80% of total RBF
C . 60% of total RBF
D . 70% of total RBF
24. Function of lymph is:
A . To return protein reabsorbed from tabular fluid to the blood
B. To utilise protein absorbed from blood
C . To carbohydrates reabsorbed from the tabular fluid to the
D . None
25. Decreased water absorption
occurs in:
A . Diabetes insipidus
B. Water diuresis
C . Osmotic diuresis
D . None of the above
26. Excepting one, all the
A . Sodium and chloride
B. Haemoglobin
C . Albumin
D . Glucose
27. Cell separation theory postulates that blood flow in
renal vessels is by:
A . Axial streaming of cells
B. Portal system
C . Under high pressure
D . Autoregulation
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 C
26 B
27 A
Kidney 37
28. In
which part of the kidney cell rich plasma flows?
Superficial parts of the kidney
Renal tubules
29. Intrarenal pressure theory prevents an increase in:
A . Glomerular filtration rate
B. Renal blood flow
C . Autoregulation
D . Systemic blood pressure
30. In
renal blood flow autoregulation forms the basis of:
Active vascular tone change in arterioles
Rise in blood pressure
All of the above
31. Renin-angiotensin mechanism
role in:
A . Autoregulation
B. Renal blood flow
C . Excretion
D . Acid-base balance
32. The kidney produces almost as much lymph per minute
A . Blood
B. Water
C . Urine
D . Creatinine
33. Afferent and efferent
pressure in:
B. Glomerular tuft
D . Henle’s loop
28 B
29 B
30 D
31 A
32 A
33 B
MCQS in Physiology
34. Special features of renal circulation are:
A . Portal system within
B. Autoregulation mechanism
C . A Shunts-arterio-venous
D . All of the above
35. Henle’s loop
A . Sodium
B. Chloride
C . Water
D . All
36. Which hormone acts on the distal tubule?
A . Antiduretic hormone or vasopressin
B. Thyroid hormone
C . Cortico sterone
D . Adrenaline
37. The permeability of the glomerular capillaries is:
A . Same as in other capillaries
B. Slightly higher than in other capillaries
C . Fifty times higher than other capillaries
D . Lower than in other capillaries
38. Capillary bed commonly referred to as ‘high pressure
bed’ is:
A . Glomerular capillary bed
B. Cortico medullary bed
C . Peritubular capillary bed
D . None of the above
39. Effective filtration pressure is:
A . 15 mm of Hg
B. 20 mm of Hg
C . 35 mm of Hg
D . 62 mm of Hg
40. Glomerular filtration rate is:
A . 60 ml/min
B. 120 ml/min
C . 300 ml/min
D . 35 ml/min
34 D
35 D
36 A
37 C
38 A
39 C
40 B
Kidney 39
41. Amount of glomerular fluid filtered per day is:
A . 120 litres
B. 180 litres
C . 200 litres
D . 50 litres
42. What is completely reabsorbed in the tubular cells?
A . Glucose
B. Urea
C . Uric acid
D . Protein
43. Average filtration fraction is approximately:
A . 19%
B. 25%
C . 80%
D . 60%
44. Average value of glomerular pressure is about:
A . 80 mm Hg
B. 75 mm Hg
C . 45 mm Hg
D . 10 mm Hg
45. Normal intracapular pressure is about:
A . 50 mm Hg
B. 75 mm Hg
C . 25 mm Hg
D . 10 mm Hg
46. During sympathetic stimulation of the kidneys:
A . Decreases the GFR
B. Increases the GFR
C . No change in GFR
D . Increases urine formation
47. Increases in arterial pressure:
A . Increases GFR
B. Decreases GFR
C . No change in GFR
D . First decreases then increase GFR
41 B
42 A
43 A
44 B
45 D
46 A
47 A
MCQS in Physiology
48. The basic mechanism of tubular secretion:
A . Active transport
B. Passive transport
C . Passive diffusion
D . None
49. Hydrogen ion secretion continue until pH of the tubular
fluids falls to:
A . 7.4
B. 4.5
C. 3
D . 6.5
50. The rate of H+ secretion is enhanced by:
A . Increased CO2 concentration
B. Decreased respiration
C . Increased metabolic rate
D . All of the above
51. The substances secreted
tubule are:
A . Creatinine
B. Drugs like sulpnamide
C . Para-amino hipuric acid
D . All of the above
52. The substance used for the study of X-ray contrast
study of urinary tract is:
A . Iodinated compounds
B. Radiopaque substance
C . Uropac
D . All
53. The secretion of Ammonia depends upon the:
A . PH of tubular fluid
B. PH of blood
C . Renal blood flow
D . Plasma flow
48 A
49 B
50 D
51 D
52 D
53 A
Kidney 41
54. Ammonia secretion mechanism in the kidney helps in:
A . Water balance
B. Acid-base balance
C . Temperature regulation
D . Maintaining oncotic pressure
55. The hormone influencing the absorption of Na+ in the
DCT is:
A . Aldesterone
B. Erythropoietin
C . Thyroxin
D . Renin-Angiotensin
56. The inulin is secret in:
C . Henle’s loop
D . None
57. The secretion of Ammonia helps to reduce:
A . The acidity of extracellular fluid
B. The alkalinity of extracellular fluid
C . The pH of intracellular fluid
D . The alkalinity
58. Angiotensin II is a:
A . Vasoconstrictor
B. Vasoregulator
C . Vascodilator
D . Coagulant
59. Angiotensin II causes:
A . Stimulation of RBC production
B. Thirst sensation by direct action on brain
C . Formation of vitamin D
D . Control of sodium excretion
54 B
55 A
56 D
57 A
58 A
59 B
MCQS in Physiology
60. 1:25 Dihydroxychole calciferol is called a hormone
A . It is produced in kidney and actions are on other target organs
B. It is produced in pancreas
C . It is produced Adrenal gland which is an endocrine gland
D . It is produced by kidney
61. Prostaglandins bring about:
A . Fall of medullary blood flow and increase in cortical blood
B. Fall of cortical blood flow and increase in medullary blood
C . Fall of both cortical and medullary blood flow
D . Increases blood flow of both cortex and medulla
62. Natriuretic hormone may be probably controlling:
A . Sodium excretion
B. Sodium secretion
C . Potassium
D . Potassium secretion
63. Pudendal nerves carry superficial
sensation from:
A . Distal bladder neck
B. Adjacent perineal structures
C . Dorsal root ganglion
D . Both a and b
64. Relaxation of detrusor contraction
sphincter helps in:
A . Emptying the bladder
B. Filling the bladder
C . Contraction of the bladder
D . All of the above
65. The sensation of pain, fullness and desire to empty the
urine travel through:
A . Automatic nervous system
B. Central nervous system
C . Peripherial nerves
D . None of the above
60 A
61 A
62 A
63 D
64 B
65 A
Kidney 43
66. The volume pressure curve of the bladder is known as:
A . Glomerular filtration curve
B. Angiogram
C . Cystometrogram
D . None
67. Sacral spinal center for the reflex control of micturition
exist in:
A . Second sacral segment of spinal cord
B. Third sacral segment of spinal cord
C . Fourth sacral segment of spinal cord
D . All the above
68. The visceral afferent endings in the posterior urethra
A . Contraction of ext. sphincter
B. Relaxation of ext. sphincter
C . Relaxation of int. sphincter
D . Contraction of int. sphincter
69. In
cystometrogram segment I shows:
Slight rise in pressure and initial increase in volume
Very slow rise in pressure over a considerable range of volume
A steep rise in pressure when the volume reaches a critical
D . Only increase in volume
70. The nervous reflex which causes the emptying of urinary
bladder is called:
A . Bain Bridge reflex
B. Micturition reflex
C . Abdominal reflex
D . Chemoreceptor reflex
71. The bladder receives its sympathetic innervation from:
A . Pelvic nerve
B. Hypogastric nerve
C . Both
D . Lumbar
66 C
67 D
68 B
69 A
70 B
71 B
MCQS in Physiology
72. External sphincter of the urinary bladder is made by:
A . Detrussor muscle
B. Perineum muscle-striated muscle
C . Smooth muscle
D . Myoepithelium
73. Nerves coming from sacral segment to urinary bladder
A . Sympathetic nerves
B. Parasympathetic
C . Somatic nerves
D . Parasympathetic and Somatic
74. Initial micturation urge is felt when the bladder gets:
A . 150ml of urine
B. 400ml of urine
C . Just before urination
D . 600ml of urine
75. Acidosis is:
A . Increase of H+ conc. in blood
B. Increase of HCO3 conc. in blood
C . Absorption of H+ in dct
D . Absorption of HCO3¯ in DCT
76. In
anterior hypothalamic lesion:
Starting of micturition is affected
Ending of micturition is affected
77. Normal Sp. gravity of urine:
A . 1.045
B. 2
C. 5
D . 2.045
78. Abnormality in kidney function can be tested by:
A . Urine analysis
B. Blood examination
C . Intravenous pylography
D . All the above
72 B
73 D
74 A
75 A
76 C
77 A
78 D
Kidney 45
79. Substance that retards reabsorption of water:
A . Osmotic diuretics
B. Na+
C . K¯
D . All the above
80. The cellophane allows all the constituents of plasma
A . H2O
B. Organic salts
C . Plasma proteins
D . None
81. The countercurrent multiple system in kidney helps:
A . To form hypertonic urine
B. To form dilute urine
C . To keep the renal medullary tissue
D . In tubular secretion
79 A
80 C
81 A
MCQS in Physiology
Endocrines and
1 . Which of the following substances is NOT essential for
synthesis of Thyroid Hormone?
A . Iodine
B. Thyroglobulin
C . Iodide
D . Protein-bound iodine
2 . Yellowish tint of the skin in Hypothyroidism is due to:
A . Jaundice
B. Carotenemia
C . Anaemia
D . Oedema
3 . Which of the following biological amines is NOT secreted
by adrenal medulla?
A . Epinephrine
B. Dopamine
C . Norepinephrine
D . Serotonine
1 D
2 C
3 D
Endocrines and Reproduction 47
4 . Zona glomerulosa is activated by:
A . Only Acth
B. Both Acth and Angiothensin
C . Only Angiotensin II
D . Increased ECF volume
5 . Excess androgen secretion causes:
A . Cushing’s syndrome
B. Anreno Genital syndrome
C . Conn’s Syndrome
D . Addison’s disease
6 . In a Surgically adrenalectomized patient pigmentation
of the skin is due to:
A . Increased MSH activity
B. Decreased cortisol levels in blood
C . Decreased ACTH levels in blood
D . MSH activity of increased ACTH level in blood
7 . Which of the following is NOT a glycoprotein?
C . Lh
D . Growth hormone
8 . The actions of growth hormones are:
A . Directly on the bone, cartilage and other tissues
B. By the inter action of growth hormones and somatomedin
C . Dependent on nutrition of the body
D . Through Ca++
9 . Which of the following hormone is essential for life?
A . Cortisol
B. Parathormone
C . Insulin
D . Adrenaline
10. Neuromoscular hyper sensitivity after parathroidectomy
is due to:
A . Absence of acetyle choline estrase
B. Lack of Na+
C . Decreased permeability to K+
D . Increased permeability to Na+
4 C
5 C
6 D
7 D
8 B
9 C
10 D
MCQS in Physiology
11. In
Untreated Adrenalectomized animal death is due to:
Mineral, corticoid deficiency
Glucocorticoid deficiency
Excess secretion of ACTH
Catechol amine deficiency
12. The major adrenal androgen excreted in normal adult
A . Dehydroopiandrosterone
B. 17 - Ketosteroid
C . Andro stenedione
D . Testosterong
13. Normal menstrual cycle in human is between:
A . 28-30 days
B. 3 -4 days
C . 30-40 days
D . One calender month
14. Duration of pregnancy in human is:
A . Nine calender months
B. Ten lunar months
C . 280 days
D . All of the above
15. Genadotropic Hormones act on the following EXCEPT:
A . Graffin follicle
B. Curpus luteum
C . Leydig cells
D . Ductal system of the mammary gland
16. Amenorrhoea is common:
A . In menopause
B. During lactation
C . During pregnancy
D . All of the above
17. Castration means:
A . Undesended testis
B. Absence of secondary sexual characters
C . Removal of testis
D . Removal of placenta
11 A
12 A
13 A
14 C
15 D
16 D
17 C
Endocrines and Reproduction 49
18. The following are the functions of oestroge except:
A . Proliferation of endometrium
B. Ductal growth in breast tissue
C . Alveolar growth in breast tissue
D . Growth of uttering muscle during pregnancy
19. To determine the time of ovulation which of the following
test is essential:
A . Basal body temperature
B. Cervical mucous secretion
C . Secretary pattern in biopsy
D . All of the above
20. Hormones of protenin in nature cannot be given orally
A . Adrenalin
B. Cortisol
C . Thyroxine
D . Oxytocin
21. Function of human chorionic gonado tropin is for:
A . Detecting pregnancy
B. Maintain pregnancy
C . Maintain corpus luteum
D . Induced abortion
22. Action of sequential contraceptive pill is:
A . Induce abortion
B. Prevent implantation
C . Prevent ovulation
D . Prevent fertilization of ova
23. Normal Sperm count is:
A . 20-40 million sperms/ml
B. 100-120 million sperms/ml
C . 15-16 million/ml
D . 10-20 million/ml
24. Which of the following factors regulates the pituitary
A . Releasing hormones from hypothalamus
B. Negative feedback mechanism
C . Positive feedback mechanism
D . All of the above
18 C
19 D
20 C
21 C
22 C
23 B
24 D
MCQS in Physiology
25. Actions of oxytocin include all the following except:
A . Milk injection
B. Water re-absorption
C . Facilitation of sperm transport
D . Parturition
26. Once released ovum is viable upto:
A . 48-72 hours
B. 5-6 hours
C . 5-6 days
27. Extraadrenal actions of ACTh include:
A . Stimulation of melanocytes
B. Eosinopenia
C . Both
D . Neither
28. Which of these hormones is not an anabolic hormone ?
A . Cortisol
B. Growth hormone
C . Insulin
D . Testosterone
29. Aldosterone seceretion is stimulated by -:
A . Hyponatraemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C . Both
D . Neither
30. Vanillylmandelic acid is a metabolite of:
A . Thyroxine
B. Adrenaline
C . Glucagor
D . None of the above
31. Peptide levels are indicators of—:
A . Insulin
B. Glucagon
C . Growth hormone
D . Cortisol
25 B
26 A
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 B
31 C
Endocrines and Reproduction 51
32. Which of these horomones has no action in carbohydrate
A . Cortisol
B. Parathoromone
C . Glucagor
D . Adrenalime
33. Which of these is known as sulation factor?
A . Somatostation
C . Somatomed in
D . Adrenaline
34. Which of these pairs is not an antagonistic pair?
A . Insulin and glucagon
B. Parathormone and calcitonin
C . Growth horomone and adrenaline
35. Which of the following are true of actions of growth
A . Hypoglycemia
B. Synthesis of proteins
C . Hyperglycemia
D . Breakdown of proteins
E . A and C
F . B and D
36. ACTH has all the following actions except:
A . Stimulation of aldosterone secretion
B. Stimulation of cortisol secretion
C . Eosinopenia
D . Stimulation of melonocytes
37. Which of these is an effective stimulus for growth
hormone secretion?
A . Plasma glucose
B. Plasma level of aminoacids
C . Plasma calcium
D . Plasma sodium
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 F
36 A
37 C
MCQS in Physiology
38. In
primary hypothyroidism, there is,:
Low thyroid hormone and low plasma TSH
High plasma TSH and low thyroid hormone
Normal plasma TSH and low thyroid hormone
39. Myxoedema is due to:
A . Subcutaneous fluid
B. Subantaneous fat
C . Subantaneous mucophysaceharile
40. Glucagon is secreted by:
A . Beta cells of islets
B. Alpha cells of islets
C . Delta cells of islets
41. Pheochromocytoma is a tumour of:
A . Adrenal medulla
B. Adrenal cortex
C . Testis
D . Neurohypephysis
42. Hyperkalaemia
A . ADH secretion
B. ACTH secretion
C . PTH secretion
D . Aldosterone secretion
43. Exophthalmos is said to be due to the action of:
A . T4
B. T3
44. In
crtinism, mental retardation is due to:
Sensory defects
Improper myelination
Vitamine B12 deficiency
45. Features of Addisson’s
following, except:
A . Muscle weakness
B. BP hypertension
C . Pigmentation
D . Hyponatraemia
38 B
45 B
39 C
40 B
41 A
42 D
43 D
44 B
Endocrines and Reproduction 53
46. In
spermatogenesis, meiosis occurs information of:
Primary spermatocytes
Secondary spermatocytes
Mature spermatosoa
47. In 28-day cycle, time of ovulation is best expressed as:
A . Fourteen days before the onset of next cycle
B. Fourteen days after the onset of menses
48. Implantation of the Zygots occurs during the:
A . First week after fertilization
B. Two weeks after fertilization
C . Three Hours after fertilization
49. Healthy sperms retain their motility in the cervical mucus
upto (Post-coital test):
A . 8 Hours
B. 2 hours
C . 48 hours
D . 24 hours
50. Ferning of the cervical mucus is due to:
A . Oestrogen
B. Progesterone
C . LH
51. At the time of ovulation in the basal body temperature
there is a:
A . Fall
B. Increase
C . No change
52. Which of these cells produce inhibin?
A . Sertoli cells
B. Spermatogonis
C . Leydig cells
D . ASpermatozon
53. Which of these is a natural method of contraception?
A . Rhythem (safe period) method
B. Oral contraceptives
C . Mechanical devices
D . Spermicides
46 D
53 A
47 B
48 A
49 C
50 A
51 A
52 A
MCQS in Physiology
1 . Cardiac muscle functions as a syncitium because:
A . Intercalated discs offer least resistance to the passage of impulse
B. There is continuity of protoplasm between individual cardiac
muscle fibres
C . Of increased number of mitochondria in the myocardium
D . Cardiac muscle fibres are interconnected by multiple side
2 . Summation and tetamisyation are not possible in cardiac
muscle because:
A . Relative refractory period extends throughout disastole
B. Absolute refractory period occupies almost whole of systole
C . Excitability of cardiac muscle is increased during supernormal
D . There is a long latent period in cardiac muscle
1 B
2 B
Cardiovascular System 55
3 . The duration of cardiac cycle with a hear rate of 75/mt
A . 2.0 sec
B. 0.3 sec
C . 0.8 sec
D . 1.5 sec
4 . Cholinergic sympathetic vasodilator fibers:
A . Innervate the blood vessels of skeletal muscles
B. Cause vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels
C . Innervate the renal blood vessels
D . Cause vasodilatation of pulmonary blood vessels
5 . Rapid ventricular filling:
A . Depends mainly on atrial systole
B. Marks the beginning of ventricular relaxation
C . Gives rise to third heart sound in healthy people
D . Responsible for the production of first heart sound
6 . A-C interval of the phlebogram:
A . Represents ventricular systole
B. Has a normal duration of 4 to 6 milliseconds
C . Is prolonged in atrial fibrillation
D . Corresponds to the P-R interval of ECG
7 . The blood flow to the brain in an adult is:
A . 300 ml
B. 750 ml
C . 1200 ml
D . 500 ml
8 . In the heart cardiac muscle is not found in the:
A . International septum
B. Interventricular septum
C . Valve msps
D . SA Node
9 . In the systemic circulation:
A . Artertoles convert the pulsatile blood flow of elastic arteries
into a smooth flow
B. Blood pressure is zero (atmospheric) in capillaries
C . The lowest blood flow is found in the veins
D . Energy for circulation is generated only by recoil of the elastic
fibres in the big arteries
3 C
4 A
5 C
6 D
7 B
8 C
9 A
MCQS in Physiology
10. The ‘C’ wave of atrial pressure curve is due to:
A . Atrial systole
B. Ventricular systole
C . Atrial Diastole
D . Ventricular Diastole
11. Chronotropism refers
A . Rhythmicity
B. Conductivity
C . Excitability
D . Contractility
12. When the heart rate is 100/min?
A . The duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 second
B. The duration of cardiac cycle is 0.6 second
C . The ratio of systole : diastole is likely to be 3:5
D . It is pathological
13. Which of the following is not seen during isovolumetric
A . Steep increase of intraventricular pressure
B. The Semilunar valves remaining closed
C . Ejection of blood from ventricules
D . C waves of JVP
14. In healthy ventricles, the force of contraction:
A . Decreases with sympathetic stimulation
B. Increase with increased end diastolic volume within
physiological limits
C . Does not influence the cardiac output
D . Is always the same
15. The P Wave in the electorcardiogram:
A . Is caused by atrial depolarization
B. Is due to atrial repolarisation
C . Is absent in atrial hypertrophy
D . Occurs during ventricular depolarization
10 B
11 A
12 B
13 C
14 B
15 A
Cardiovascular System 57
16. The principle of Einthoven’s triangle is utilized in:
A . Standard limb leads
B. Augmented limb leads
C . Chest leads
D . All of the above
17. When compared to the first heart sound, the second
heart sound:
A . Is less loud
B. Has a longer duration
C . Has a higher pitch
D . Is less likely to be split during inspiration
18. The vasomotor center:
A . Is a collection of neurons in the midbrain
B. Acts through the sympathetic nervous system
C . Is not active in a healthy person at rest
D . Activity is increased as a result of Baroreceptor stimulation
19. Mechanisms which regulate the blood pressure include
all the following excepts:
A . Baroreceptor reflex
B. Renin-Angiotensin mechanism
C . Maintance of circulating blood volume
D . Releases of substances P from peripheral nerve endings
20. The Peripheral resistance:
A . In the pulmonary circulation is less than that in the systemic
B. To circulation is mainly found in the capillaries
C . Is likely to rise when the sympathetic nervous system is blocked
D . Increases significantly during muscular exercise
21. Cutting of vagi in experimental animals results in:
A . Increase in heart rate
B. Sudden decrease of blood pressure
C . Decrease in cardiac output
D . A significant increase of peripheral resistance
16 A
17 C
18 B
19 D
20 A
21 A
MCQS in Physiology
22. The local factor which causes dilatation of arterioles is:
A . Increase in oxygen concentration
B. Decrease in tissue PH
C . Increase in local temperature
D . Stimulation of baroreceptors
23. The blood supply to left ventricle is increased abruptly
during which phase of the ventricular cycle?
A . Isovolumetric contraction
B. Isovolumetric relaxation
C . Isotonic contraction
D . Diastasis
24. In the triple response:
A . White reaction is the first response to be seen
B. The flare is due to arteriolar dilatation produced as a result of
axon reflexz
C . The wheal lasts for about one minute
D . Deneravation of the area abolishes all the components
25. Expected finding during muscular exercise include all
the following except:
A . Increased cardiac output
B. Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle
C . Decreased coronary blood flow
D . Decreased renal blood flow
26. When compared to normal subjects trained atheletes
have a:
A . Smaller stroke volume
B. Faster resting heart rate
C . Larger heart
D . Decrease in the number of mitochondrian skeletal muscle
27. The normal cerebral blood flow is:
A . 950 ml/min
B. 50 ml/100gm/min
C . 600 ml/min
D . 750 ml/min
22 C
23 B
24 B
25 C
26 C
27 D
Cardiovascular System 59
28. A patient in the initial compensatory phase following
haemorrhagic shock is likely to have the following
features except:
A . Cold and clammy skin
B. Bradycardia
C . Fall in systolic blood pressure
D . Decreased urinary output
29. The cushing reflex comes into play when:
A . There is increased viscosity of vlood
B. There is increased cranial pressure
C . There is decreased CSF pressure
D . There is increased mean Arterial pressure
30. The structures outside the Blood Brain Barrier are all of
the following except:
A . Neurohypophysis
B. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
C . Ovlt
D . Locus ceruleus
31. The Percentage of cardiac output to the heart is:
A . 5%
B. 10%
C . 25%
D . 50%
32. Veno Construction is likely to occur due to:
A . Circulating angiotension
B. Decrease in tissue PH
C . Increase of local temperature
D . Stimulation of Baro receptors
33. The tendency for blood flow to be turbulent increases
when there is a decrease I in Blood:
A . Vessel diameter
B. Density
C . Flow velocity
D . Viscosity
28 B
29 B
30 D
31 A
32 A
33 D
MCQS in Physiology
34 . All the features of Purkinje tissue cells in the heart are
true except:
A . Conduct impulses faster than some neurons
B. Are larger than ventricular myocardial cells
C . Lead to contraction of the base before the apex of the heart
D . Are responsible for the short duration of the QRS complex
35. Ventricular
A . Depends mainly on atrial contraction
B. Begins during isometric ventricular relaxation
C . Gives rise to a third heart sound in some healthy people
D . Can occur only when atrial pressure is greater than atmospheric
36. Microcirculation
A . Circulation through skeletal muscle
B. Circulation through the skin
C . Circulation through arterioles, meta arteriole, capillaries, small
D . Circulation through the cerebrum
37. Conditions that cause low resistance shock include the
following except:
A . Anaphylaxis
B. Pulmonary Embolism
C . Fainting
D . Sepsis
38. The property that is unique to myocardium is as:
A . Excitability
B. All or none response
C . Long absolute refractory period
D . Conductivity
39. Myocardial glicose metabolism is mainly:
A . Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C . Both
34 C
35 C
36 C
37 B
38 C
39 A
Cardiovascular System 61
40. Which of these increases the
myocardium at a given volume?
A . Acetylcholine
B. Norepinephrine
C . Dopamine
D . B and C
41. Which of these is responsible for the fourth heart sound?
A . Opening of mitral valve
B. Atrial Systole
C . Opening of semi-lunar Valves
D . Rapid ventricular filling
42. Which of these are inversely related, in a healthy heart?
(EF=Ejection fraction, EDV=End Diastolic Volume,
A . EF and EDV
B. EF and ESV
C . Both
D . Neither
43. Atrial contraction takes place during the:
A . Ventricular isometric relaxation
B. Late Ventricular Systole
C . Late Ventricular diastole
D . None of the above
44. Myocardium is most sensitive to:
A . Hypercapnia
B. Hypoxia
C . Acidemis
D . Hyperkalaemia
45. Which of these is a potent vasoconstrictor?
A . Bredykinin
B. Substance P
C . Carbondioxide
D . Serotonin
40 B
41 C
42 B
43 C
44 D
45 D
MCQS in Physiology
46. Which of the following is a potent vasodilator?
A . Serotonin
B. Dopomine
C . Bradykinin
D . Norepinenephrine
47. In juguler venous pulse wave is recorded during atrial
A . C Wave
B. V Wave
C . A Wave
48. Which of these is not true of an arterial pulse?
A . Expansile nature
B. Better felt than seen
C . Better seen than felt
D . Well localized
49. Which of these is a vasoconstrictor?
A . Renin
B. Angiotensinogen
C . Angiotensin I
D . Angiotensin II
50. Baro receptors of carotid sinus and aortic arch are
sensitve to:
A . Increase in systolic pressure
B. Increase in diastolic pressure
C . Increase in arterial pressure
D . Increase in pulse pressure
51. Nervous regulation of arteriolar tone is maximal in:
A . Coronary arterioles
B. Skeletal arterioles
C . Cerebral arterioles
D . Cutaneous and splanchnic arterioles
52. Which of these principle is mainly concerned
regulation of heart rate and blood pressure?
A . Munro-kelly Doctrine
B. Marey’s law
C . Starling’s law
D . None of the above
46 C
47 C
48 C
49 D
50 A
51 D
52 B
Cardiovascular System 63
53. All
or None law is applicable to:
Cardiac muscle
Single skeletal muscle fibre
Single nerve fibre
All of the above
54. Cardiac muscle functions as a single unit because of:
A . Automatic inervation
B. Gap junctions
C . Anatomical syncitium
D . Rich blood supply
55. Velocity of conductivity of impulse in the AV node is:
A . Decremental
B. Same as the ventricular muscle
C . Much faster than bundle of His
D . Not affected by vagal stimulation
56. Prepotential in SA node is due to:
A . Decrease in K+ efflux
B. Increase in permeability of Na+
C . Opening of long-lasting calcium channels
D . Decrease in K+ efflux and opening of transient calcium
57. AV nodal delay is:
A . 0.5 Sec
C . 0.1 Sec
B. 0.3 Sec
D . 0.05 Sec
58. Normal heart beat is due to:
A . Sinus rhythm
B. Nodal rhythm
C . Idioventricular rhythm
D . Atrial rhythm
59. In
Sinus arrhythmia the heart rate:
Is regular
Increase during inspiration
Decrease during inspiration
Increase during expiration
53 D
54 C
55 A
56 A
57 D
58 A
59 B
MCQS in Physiology
60. Sinus arrhythmia is a:
A . Pathological condition
B. Normal phenomenon
C . Disease condition of SA node
D . Congential deformity of conduction cyst
61. PA.
R interval is abnormally long in:
Ist degree heart block
Wolff-parkinson white syndrome
Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Stroke Adams syndrome
62. Cardiac catheterisation is useful for:
A . Collecting mixed venous blood sample
B. Recording HIS bundle electrogram
C . For Studying pressure changes
D . All of the above
63. One of the important factors that increases the end
diastolic volume is:
A . Increase in venous return
B. Increase in heart rate
C . Decrease in blood volume
D . Increase in Na+ conc. in ECF
64. End diastolic volume is:
A . 70 ml
C . 130 ml
B. 90 ml
D . 50 ml
65. Capacitance vessels
A . Capillaries
C . Arteries
B. Aorta
D . Veins
66. The pressure in the great veins at their entrance into
right atrium is known as:
A . Central venous pressure
B. Critical closing pressure
C . End arterial pressure
D . Effective prefusion pressure
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 A
64 C
65 D
66 A
Cardiovascular System 65
67. Blood flow velocity can be measured using:
A . Plethys mograph
B. Doppler flow meter
C . Sphygmo manometer
D . Indicator dilution technique
68. The Korotkow sounds are produced by:
A . Closure of heart valves
B. Rapid blood flow in hear chambers
C . Turbulence in the flow of blood in the blood vessle
D . Opening of AV valves
69. The normal electrical axis of the heart is?
A . 60
B. 0
C . -30
D . 90
70. Which is the fastest conducting part in the conduction
A . Purkinje fibre
B. Bundle of His
C . AV node
D . SA node
71. The term central venous pressure, refers to pressure
A . The pulmonary veins
B. The vanae cavae and the right atrium
C . The pulmonary capillaries
D . The left atrium
72. Stroke volume in an adult weighing 70 kg is:
A . 70-80 ml.
B. 5 lt.
C . 3.1 lt.
D . 200 ml.
73. Cardiac output in normal adult:
A . 2 lt.
B. 5 lt.
C . 3 lt.
D . 8 lt.
67 B
68 C
69 A
70 A
71 B
72 A
73 B
MCQS in Physiology
74. End systolic volume is:
A . 50-60 ml.
B. 130-150 ml.
C . 100-120 ml.
D . 200 ml
75. ‘a’
wave in jugular venous pressure curve:
Precedes QRS complex of ECG
Follows QRS complex of ECG
Precedes ‘p’ wave
Follows ‘T’ wave
76. Loven’s reflex is:
A . Vasodilatation in an active organ and vasoconstriction in other
B. Vasoconstriction is an active organ and vasodilatation in other
C . Vasodilatation in both active and inactive organs
D . No change in blood supply
77. Peripheral resistance is mainly present in the:
A . Veins
B. Arteries
C . Arterioles
D . Capillaries
78. Systolic pressure is directly proportional to:
A . Cardiac output
B. End systolic volume
C . End diastolic volume
D . Peripheral resistance
79. During Valsalva manoeuovre the intrathoracic pressure
A . More -ve
B. Less -ve
C . +ve
D . No change
74 A
75 A
76 A
77 C
78 A
79 C
Cardiovascular System 67
80. The tension developed in the heart is greatest when the
initial length of the sarcoma is:
A. 3 u
B. 2.2 u
C. 5 u
D . 10 u
81. Coronary blood flow is maximum during:
A . Isometric contraction
B. Isometric relaxation
C . Rapid ejection
D . Rapid filling
82. Which of the following factors relax the precapillary
A . Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C . Increase in (H+)
D . All of the above
E . None of the above
83. Starling’s law states that the force of contraction is
directly proportional to:
A . The tension
B. Pressure
C . Initial length of muscle fibre
D . End systolic volume
84. Third heart sound is due to:
A . Opening of AV valves
B. Diastolic flow of blood into ventricles
C . Opening of semilunar valves
D . Blood flow in aorta
85. Administration of adrenaline results in:
A . Cutaneous vasodilatation and coronary vasoconstriction
B. Cutaneous vasoconstriction and coronary vasodilatation
C . Cutaneous and coronary vasodilatation
D . Cutaneous and coronary vasoconstriction
86. Atrial contraction contributes to what per cent ventricular
A . 10%
B. 20%
C . 30%
D . 40%
80 B
81 B
82 D
83 C
84 A
85 B
86 A
MCQS in Physiology
87. Stimulation of sympathetic produces:
A . Vasoconstriction of coronary vessel
B. Vasodilatation of coronary vessel
C . No change
D . A and B
88. Hering nerve is a branch of:
A . Vagus
B. Glossopharengeal
C . Facial
D . None of the above
89. Axon reflex is due to:
A . Symphathetic vasodilators
B. Parasymphathetic vasodilators
C . Antidromic vasodilators
D . All of the above
90. First heart sound coincides (in cardiac cycle) with:
A . Isometric contraction phase
B. Isometric relaxation phase
C . Ejection phase
D . Proto diastole
91. ‘p’
wave in ECG is due to:
Ventricular depolarisation
Auricular repolarisation
Septal depolarization
Auricular depolarization
92. Stroke volume is:
C . Blood volume -EDV
D . Cardiac output-EDV
93. Change from the recumbent to erect posture results
after 1-2 minutes, in:
A . Increase of arterial blood pressure
B. Decrease of blood pressure
C . No change in blood pressure
D . Decrease in venous pressure
87 B
88 B
89 C
90 A
91 D
92 A
93 A
Respiration 69
1 . The normal respiratory rate in an adult is:
A . 12-16/min
B. 20-25/min
C . 6-10/min
D . 25-35/min
2 . The pulmonary surfactant lining the alveoli is produced
A . Type I alveolar epithelial cells
B. Type II alveolar epithelial cells
C . APUD cells present in the alveoli
D . Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
3 . The amount of air that moves into lungs with each
inspiration or the volume of air that moves out with
each expiration is called:
A . Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C . Tidal volume
D . Residual volume
1 A
2 B
3 C
MCQS in Physiology
4 . In a normal healthy individual, the physiological dead
space is:
A . More than anatomic dead space
B. Less than anatomic dead space
C . Identical with anatomic dead space
D . None of the above
5 . The respiratory quotient is the ratio of:
A . Volume of CO2 evolved to O2 absorbed per unit time
B. Minute volume to tidal volume
C . O2 consumption per minute to minute volume
D . O2 consumed to arterial O2 content
6 . Total lung capacity:
A . Tidal volume + residual volume
B. Residual volume + Vital capacity
C . Inspiratory capacity + residual volume
D . Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
7 . The normal alveolar ventilation/perfusion ratio is:
A . 0.6
B. 0.4
C . 0.2
D . 0.8
8 . The normal ventilation/perfusion distribution is as follows:
A . Ventilation more at the base of the lungs
B. Perfusion more at the apex of the lungs
C . Ventilation more at the apex and perfusion more at the base
of the lungs
D . Both ventilation and perfusion are uniform throughout the
lung fields
9 . CO2 is transported in blood:
A . In dissolved form in plasma as bicarbonate
B. In combination with plasma proteins
C . In combination with Hp
D . All of the above forms
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 D
9 D
Respiration 71
10. The partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood is:
A . 46 mm Hg
B. 40 mm Hg
C . 95 mm Hg
D . 130 mm Hg
11. The affinity of Hb for O2 is influenced by:
A . PH
B. Temperature
C . Concentral of 2,3, DPG
D . All of the above
12. Dyspnoea is usually present when the dyspnocic index is:
A . Less than 90%
B. Less than 80%
C . Less than 70%
D . None of the above
13. For cyanosis to occur reduced Hb concentration should
be at least:
A . 8 G%
B. 3 G%
C . 5 G%
D . 7 G%
14. The solubility of CO2 in the blood is about:
A . 0.5 times that of O2
B. 2 times that of O2
C . 20 times that of O2
D . 10 times that O2
15. Decompression sickness or Caisson’s disease is due to
bubbling of:
A . Oxygen in the tissues
B. CO2 in the tissue
C . Hydrogen in the tissues
D . Nitrogen in the tissues
10 C
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 C
15 D
MCQS in Physiology
16. Compensatory mechanism due to acclimatization at high
attitude involves:
A . Increased alveolar ventilation
B. Increased production of red blood cells
C . Production of alkaline urine
D . All of the above
17. Positive ‘G’ can be prevented by:
A . Pressurized bags applied around abdomen and legs
B. Tensing abdominal muscles
C . Positioning the body so that gravity acts perpendicularly
D . All of the above
18. If both vagi are cut:
A . Inspiration is prolonged
B. Expiration is prolonged
C . No change in rhythmic respiration
D . Respiration stops
19. The apneustic center stimulates:
A . Inspiration
B. Expiration
C . Vagus
D . Respiration muscles
20. In
histotoxia hypoxia:
O2 tension in blood is low
O2 content of blood is low
O2 utilization by tissues is excessive
O2 utilization by tissues is defective
21. Chemical regulation of respiration is maximally affected
A . O2
B. CO2
C . Bicarbonate
D . Lactic acid
22. Respiration during exercise is regulated by:
A . Cerebral cortex
B. Hypoxia in the muscles
C . Joint proprioceptors
D . All of the above
16 D
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 D
21 B
22 D
Respiration 73
23. Nitrogen wash out or simple breath oxygen method
directly measures:
A . Total lung capacity
B. Functional residual capacity
C . Vital capacity
D . Inspiratory capacity
24. Following are features of emphysema except:
A . Narrowing of airway due to lose of elastic tissue
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C . Hypoxia due to perfusion of underventilated alveoli
D . The vital capacity is increased
25. The respiratory centre:
A . Is situated in the reticular substance of lower part of pons
B. Is influenced by higher centers
C . Is inhibited during swallowing
D . All of the above statements are true
26. In
inspiration the following changes occur, except:
The diaphragmatic comes become flatter
The costal muscles are drawn in
The dimensions of thorax are increased
The intrapleural pressure falls
27. During forced expiration, which of these does not occur:
A . Intrapleural pressure rises
B. Small alveoli empties into big alveoli
C . Small airways is closed
D . Big alveoli empties into small alveoli
28. Hering-Breuer reflex is activated during:
A . Early inspiration
B. Maximal inspiration
C . Late expiration
D . None of the above
29. Acute hypoxia has all these effects, except:
A . Hyperventilation
B. Bone marrow stimulation
C . Vasoconstriction in tissues
D . Cardiac stimulation
23 B
24 D
25 D
26 B
27 B
28 B
29 C
MCQS in Physiology
30. If Va : Q is more than 1, it implies:
A . Venuous shunt
B. Physiological dead space
C . Neither
31. Stimulation of J receptors produces:
A . Bronocho-construction and hyperventilatory effort
B. Broncholdialation
C . Hypoventilation
D . Dyspnoed
E . A and D
F . B and C
32. Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in:
A . Carotid sinus
B. Carotid body
C . Aortic sinus
D . Aortic body
E . A and C
F . B and D
33. All
of these stimulate O2 dissociation, except:
2,3 DPG
Increase in PH
Fal in PH
34. Normal arterial PCO2 (PaCO2) is—:
A . 38 mmHg
B. 46mmHg
C . 52 mmHg
D . 40 mmHg
35. In
cheyne-stokes breathing aponoea results from:
30 B
31 B
32 F
33 B
34 D
35 D
Respiration 75
36. Pneumotaxic Centre:
A . Is situated in the medulla
B. Inhabits the apneustic centre
C . Stimulates the inspiratory center
D . Inhabits the expiratory center
37. Compliance of lungs and chest wall, together is about:
A . 0.5 1/cmH2O
B. 11/cm H2O
C . 0.221/cm H2O
D . 0.11/cm H2O
38. The intrapleural pressure, during quiet inspiration, is about:
A . -2 mm Hg
B. -0 mm Hg
C . -6 mm Hg
D . +4 mm Hg
39. Valsalva manouever is:
A . Forccd expiration against closed glott is
B. Doop inspiration with closed glott is
C . Both
D . Neither
40. A
respiratory unit consists of:
A terminal bronchiole and alveoli
A segmental bronchus and its branches and alveoli
A lobar bronchus, its branches and alveoli
None of the above
41. In
inspiration the following changes occur, except:
The diaphragmatic domes become flatter
The costal muscles are drawn in
The dimension of thorax are increased
The intrapleural pressure falls
42. Which of these muscles are involved in quiet inspiration:
A . Abdominal muscles
B. Serratus anterior
C . Internal intercostals
D . None of the above
36 C
37 B
38 C
39 A
40 A
41 B
42 D
MCQS in Physiology
43. In
airway obstruction, which of these occurs:
The FEV1 is prolonged
The residual volume is increased
44. Consolidation of the lungs involves:
A . Fluid in the lung parenchyma
B. Fibrosis of the lung tissue
C . Dilatation of alveoli
D . All of the above
45. “Airway irritation receptors” are responsible for:
A . Cough reflex
B. Enhanced depth of inspiration
C . Both
D . Neither
46. Which of these is not a useful test in detecting airway
A . Tidal volume
D . All the above
47. Haldane effect relates:
A . CO2 uptake on O2 dissociation
B. O2 dissociation on CO2 uptake
C . CO2 uptake and (H+)
D . O2 delivary and (H+)
48. Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in:
A . Carotid sinus
B. Carotid body
C . Aortic sinus
D . Aortic body
E . A and C
F . B and D
43 C
44 A
45 C
46 A
47 B
48 F
Respiration 77
49. All
of these stimulate O2 dissociation, except:
2,3 DPG
Increase in pH
Fall in pH
50. In
restrictive lung diseases:
FEV1 is normal
FEV1 is increased
VC is diminished
VC is normal
A and C
B and D
51. Normal residual volume is:
A . 0.5 l
B. 1.5 l
C . 11
D . 200 ml
49 B
50 E
51 C
MCQS in Physiology
Nervous System:
Special Senses
1 . The appetite center is located in:
A . Ventromedial hypothalamus
B. Lateral hypothalamus
C . Mamillary bodies
D . None of the above
2 . The “thermostate“ of the hypothalamus is situated in:
A . Mamillary bodies
B. Prooptic nudei
C . Porterior hypothalamus
D . Lateral hypothalamus
3 . Amacarine cells are found in the:
A . Internal ear
B. Skin
C . Retina
D . Muscle spindle
1 B
2 C
3 C
Nervous System: Special Senses 79
4 . Motor aphasia results from lesions in:
A . Area 4
B. Area 44
C . Area 6
D . Area 39
5 . Granular cells are predominant in:
A . Sensory cortical areas
B. Motor cortical areas
C . Both
D . Neither
6 . Which of these is not a strech reflex?
A . Ankle jerk
B. Crossed extensor reflex
C . Jaw jerk
D . Bicees jerk
7 . Demeyelination results from deficiency of:
A . Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C . Vitamin A
D . Vitamin D
8 . Rectilinear acceleration
A . Organ of corti
B. Utricle-saccule
C . Semicircular canals
D . None of the above
9 . The EEG rhythm of awake, relaxed, eyes closed state is:
A . Beta
B. Theta
C . Alpha
D . Delta
10. Functions of hypothalamus include all, except:
A . Control of temperature
B. Control of muscle tone
C . Control of autonomic functions
D . Control of food intake
4 B
5 A
6 B
7 A
8 C
9 C
10 B
MCQS in Physiology
11. Tuberal nuclei of hypothalamus are mainly concerned
with release of:
C . Both
D . Neither
12. Cortico-Fronto cerebellar tract is related to:
A . Paleocerebellum
B. Neocerebellum
C . Archicerebellum
13. Alpha block occurs when the eyes:
A . Close
B. Open
C . Both
D . Neither
14. Tremor of Parkinson’s disease is due to:
A . Hyperactivity of cholingergic neurons
B. Hyperactivity of dopaminergic neurons
C . Both
D . Neither
15. The neurotransmitters in bascal ganglia are:
A . Depamine
B. Acetyicholine
C . Seroterrin
D . All of the Above
16. Which of these is not a neutrotransmitter ?
B. Glutamic acid
C . Asportate
D . Tyrosine
17. Which of these is not a primary odour?
A . Ethireal
B. Musky
C . Putrefying
D . Camphorous
11 A
12 B
13 B
14 A
15 A
16 D
17 D
Nervous System: Special Senses 81
18. Which of these is not a primary colour ?
A . Red
B. Yellow
C . Green
D . Blue
19. The best audible frequency range for man is:
A . 150 - 500 hz
B. 500 - 2500 hz
C . 3000 - 5000 hz
D . 50 - 100 hz
20. Delta waves are characteristic of:
A . Stage 1 sleep
B. Stage 4 sleep
C . FfmM sleep
D . None of the above
21. Kluver-Buey syndrome results from lesions of:
A . Prefrontal
B. Cingulate gyri
C . Temporal lobes
D . Corpus callosum
22. Which of these is not true of right cerebral hemisphere?
A . It is non-dominant in right handed people
B. Its speech areas are non-functional
C . The parietal areas are responsible for spatial orientation sense
23. Myelin sheath is derived from:
A . Schwann cells
B. Oligo dendroglia
C . Both
D . Neither
24. Equilibrium potential for K+ is:
A . -90 mV
B. -70 mV
C . +35 mV
D . +40 mV
18 B
19 B
20 B
21 C
22 C
23 B
24 B
MCQS in Physiology
25. Positive action potential (after potential) is due to:
A . Entry of Ca++ ions
B. Efflux of K++ ions
C . Entry of Na++ ions
D . Entry of Cl¯ ions
26. C fibres -:
A . Conduct impulse much faster
B. Are non-myelinated
C . Are not susceptible to hypoxia
27. Saltatory conduction -:
A . Occurs in non-myelinated nerve fibres
B. Occurs in myelinated nerve fibres
C . Velocity is slower than non-salutatory conduction
28. Which of the following sensations is generated by nacked
nerve endings?
A . Pain
B. Cold
C . Hearing
D . Muscle tension
29. Pacinian corpuscles are -:
A . A type of temerature receptor
B. Pain receptor
C . Touch pressure receptor
30. Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease include all these except:
A . Intension tremor
B. Mask-like face
C . Pill-rolling movements
D . Drooping shuffling gait
31. Chronaxie is the duration of stimulus needed, when the
current strength is:
A . Twice the rheobase
B. Equal to rheobase
C . Twice or more than rheobase
D . Twice or less than rheobase
25 C
26 B
27 B
28 A
29 C
30 A
31 A
Nervous System: Special Senses 83
32. Which of these is not a superficial reflex?
A . Corneal reflex
B. Abdominal reflexes
C . Jaw jerk
D . Planter reflex
33. Which of these is seen in upper motor neuron lesions?
A . Babinski’s sign
B. Loss of abdominal reflex
C . Both
D . Neither
34. “Double decussation” relates to:
A . Ventral sprine - cerebellar tracts
B. Dentato - rubral and rubro - spinal
C . Medial Lemnesoi
D . Pyramidal tracts
35. Visceral pain:
A . Shows relatively rapid adaptation
B. Is mediated by B fibres in the dorsal roots
C . Is referred to superficial region
36. In
upper motor neuron lesion:
Muscle tone is increased
Muscle tone is decreased
Muscle tone normal
37. Infrafusal fibres are innervated by:
A . Alpha motor neuron
B. Gamma motor neuron
C . Reushaw cell
38. Doctrine of specific nerve energies was proposed by:
A . Henry head
B. Charles Sherrington
C . Muller
D . Penfield
32 C
33 C
34 D
35 C
36 A
37 B
38 C
MCQS in Physiology
39. All
these are true of cones, except:
They are responsible for photopic vision
They are responsible for colour vision
They have rhodopsin
They are maximal in the macula
40. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia results
lesions of:
A . Optic nerve
B. Occiptial cortex
C . Optic chiasma
D . Optic tract
41. All
these changes occur during dark adaptation, except:
Retinal sensitivity decreases
Purkinge shift occurs
Visual pigments regenerates
Pipils of dialates
42. Impedence matching is between:
A . External meatus and tympanic membrane
B. Tympanic membrane and oval window
C . Two ears
D . Oval window and round window
43. Which of these are first order neurons?
A . Optic nerves
B. Olfactory nerves
C . Tractus solitanus
D . Lateral lemniscus
44. Which of these are not true of rods?
A . They are responsible for scotopic vision
B. They are concentrated in the macula
C . They contain rhodopsin
D . They are absent in the fovea
45. Lateral lemsisous fibre relay in the:
A . Superior colliculi
B. Inferior colloculi
C . Medical gericulate bodies
D . Lateral gericulate bodies
39 C
40 D
41 A
42 B
43 B
44 A
45 C
Nervous System: Special Senses 85
46. The taste area in the thalamus is located in the:
A . VPM nucleus
B. VPL nucleus
C . Pulvinar
D . Dorsolateral thalamus
47. In
Aigyll Robertson pupil:
Light relax is intract
Accommodation reflex is intact
Both reflexes are lost
Both reflexes are intact
48. Function of tympanic membrane is regulated by:
A . Tensor tyampani
B. Tensor palati
C . Stapedius
D . Annuler ring of tympanic membrane
49. Complete dark adaption takes:
A . 5 mins
B. 20-30 mins
C . 10 seconds
D . 60 mins
50. Area 42 is located in the:
A . Superior temporal gyrus
B. Inferior temporal gyrus
C . Occupital cortex
D . Anterior post and temporal cortex
51. Pyramidal tract arises from:
A . Area 4
B. Area 4,6,8,3,1,2,19
C . Area 9,10,11,12
D . Area 41,42
52. Which thalamic nucleus is associated with the paper
A . Pulvinar
B. Ventro postero lateral nucleus
C . Medial genuiculate body
D . Anterior thalamic nucleus
46 B
47 B
48 A
49 B
50 A
51 B
52 D
MCQS in Physiology
53. The site of lesion in Parkinsonism is in the:
A . Subthalamic nucleus
B. Candate nucleus
C . Substantia nigra
D . Lateral thalamus
54. Righting reflexes are integrated at the level of:
A . Medulla
B. Spinal cord
C . Cerebral cortex
D . Mid brain
55. Decerebrate rigidity is due to the unbalancd action of:
A . Pyramidal tract
B. Vestibulo spinal tract
C . Recticule spinal tract
D . Rubro spinal tract
56. The site for short term memory is the:
A . Lateral temporal cortex
B. Hippocampus
C . Prefrontal cortex
D . Parietal cortex
57. Which of these cells forms a blood brain, barrier ?
A . Obgodendroglia
B. Microglia
C . Astroglia
D . Schwann cells
58. Resting membrane
equilibrium of:
A . Potassium
B. Sodium
C . Chlorides
D . Calcium
59. Which of these is not seen in upper motor neuron lesion?
A . Babinski’s
B. Clonus
C . Hypotonia
D . Exaggerated jerks
53 C
54 C
55 A
56 B
57 C
58 A
59 C
Nervous System: Special Senses 87
60. Hypertonia on pyramidal lesions is of the:
A . Lead pipe variety
B. Clasp knife variety
C . Cogwheel variety
D . None of the above
61. Neurotransmittor
junction is:
A . Acetyl choline
C . Dopamine
B. Noradeenaline
D . Astropine
62. Sensations carried in posterior columns include all these,
A . Epicritic
B. Deep pain
C . Vibration
D . Superficial pain
63. Rhomberg’s sign is positive in lesions of:
A . Posterior colums
B. Cerebellum
C . Both
D . Neither
64. In
Brown Sequard’s syndrome, below the level:
Touch is blunted on the side of lesion
Touch is blunted on the opposite side of lesion
65. Which of these is essential for nerve regeneration?
A . Schwann cell
B. Neurofibromma
C . Both
D . Neither
66. The velocity of conduction of nerve impulse myelinated
of fibres is about:
A . 0. 5-2 metres/sec
B. 1-2 km/sec
C . 20-100 metres/sec
D . 2-5 metres/sec
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 C
64 B
65 A
66 C
MCQS in Physiology
67. The sodium pump mechanism is located in the:
A . Cell nuclcus
B. Nacleolus
C . Cytoplasm
D . Cell membrane
68. The IPSP is due to:
A . Increased permeability to potassium
B. Decreased permeability to sodium
C . Increased permeability to chloride
D . Decreased permeability to chloride
69. Epicritic perception of pain occurs at the level of:
A . Thalamus
B. Area 3, 1, 2
C . Area 5,7
D . Pulvinar
70. Aphasia is often associated with hemiplegia in lesions
of the:
A . Right internal capsule
B. Left internal capsule
C . Both
D . Neither
71. Which of these is characteristic of pyramidal lesions?
A . Absence of abdominal reflex
B. Lead pipe rigidity
C . Clasp knife spasticity
D . A and c
72. The “putative“ neurotransmitter of pain is:
A . Substance P
B. Bradykinin
C . Actetylcholine
D . K+ ions
73. The neurotransmitter in nigro-striatal tract is:
A . Acetylocholine
B. Dopamine
C . Serotonin
D . Adrenaline
67 D
68 C
69 B
70 B
71 D
72 A
73 B
Nervous System: Special Senses 89
74. The most slowly adapting encapsulated cutaneous mechanoreceptors with no resting discharge are:
A . Ruffini nerve endings
B. Merkel disks
C . Pacinian corpuscles
D . Meissner corpuscles
75. Tactile sensibility includes each of the following except:
A . Tactile discrimination
B. Tactile localization
C . Appreciation of thermal sensibility
D . Appreciation of light, touch and pressure
76. In
the spinal cord, earliest to receive myelination is:
Fibres of posterior columns
Corticospinal tract fibres
Spinocerebellar tract fibres
Axons of association pathways
77. Concerning the generator potential, each of the following
is correct except that it is:
A . A graded non-propagatory potential
B. Abolished by removal of encapsulation of the receptor
C . Of either polarity
D . Generated at the first node Ranvier
78. Anterior hypothalamus is primarily associated with:
A . Sexual drive
B. Biological rhythms
C . Body temperature regulation
D . Regulation of feeding behaviour
79. Putative neurotransmitter associated with presynaptic
δ ) pain fibres in the
inhibition of (type C and type A-δ
spinal cord is:
A . Dopamine
B. Encephalin
C . Substance P
D . Serotonin
74 B
75 C
76 A
77 B
78 A
79 B
MCQS in Physiology
80. When blood flow to your arm is obliterated for a while, a
temporary loss of touch-pressure sensibility (with no loss
of prick pain and temperature sensibility) is often observed.
This could result from the conduction blockade of:
A . A-δ fibres
B. A-δ fibres
C . C- fibres
D . B-fibres
81. Which of the following conditions is regarded as primary
A . Herpes zoster
B. Trigemunal neuralgia
C . Sunburnt skin
D . Thalamic syndrome
82. Each of the following can elicit visceral pain, except:
A . Spasm of the ureters
B. Spillage of gastric juice into abdominal cavity
C . Obliteration of blood flow to viscera
D . Cutting through parietal peritoneum
83. Of the cutaneous mechanoreceptors, the best suited to
encode the information regarding vibration (at> 250
Hz) sense is:
A . The Ruffini endings
B. The Merkel disks
C . The meissner corpuscles
D . The Pacinian corpuscles
84. Each of the following is related to withdrawal reflex,
elicited by cutaneous nerve stimulation except:
A . Reciprocal contraction of contralateral extensors
B. Reciprocal inhibition of ipsilateral extensors
C . Involvement of group II primary afferents
D . After - discharges
85. The fast, sharp pain sensation, caused by thermal or
mechanical stimuli, is mediated by:
A . A-α fibres
B. A-δ fibres
C . B- fibres
D . C-fibres
80 A
81 C
82 B
83 D
84 C
85 B
Nervous System: Special Senses 91
86. In primates, which reflex recovers first from the spinal
A . Scratch reflex
B. Withdrawal reflex
C . Knee jerk
D . Positive supporting reaction
87. Pyramidal lesions are characterized by the:
A . Reeling gait
B. Spastic gait
C . Both
D . Neither
88. Endogenous chemical substances that excite pain fibres
directly include:
A . Serotonin
B. Histamine
C . Bradykinin
D . Prostaglandins
89. Brain receives somatosensory
A . Spinothalamic tract
B. Leminiscal system
C . Both
D . Neither
90. The REM-sleep may be evoked by the electrical stimulation of:
A . Raphe system
B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus
C . Preoptic area of hypothalamus
D . Ascending reticular activating system
91. Each of the following is associated with paradoxical
sleep except:
A . Very low muscle tone
B. Synchronized EEG
C . Increased brain metabolism
D . Rapid eye movements
86 C
87 B
88 D
89 C
90 A
91 B
MCQS in Physiology
92. The conditioned - stimulus in the classical experiments
of Pavlov was:
A . The secretion of saliva
B. The placement of meat in the mouth
C . The smell of meat
D . The ringing of bell
93. Each of the following regarding the anterior lobe of the
cerebellum (cat or dog) are correct except:
A . Its ablation results in extensor rigidity
B. Its stimulation abolishes pre-existing decerebrate rigidity
C . Its stimulation enhances decerebrate rigidity
D . Its regulator of reflex muscular activity
94. Pick the correct statement:
A . Mossy fibres originate from deep cerebellar nucleus
B. Purkinje cells project on to basket cells
C . Climbing fibres originate from inferior olivary nucleus
D . Granule cells receive climbing fibre input
95. Which of the following is least likely to occur, when
you are rotated about the vertical axis ?
A . Nystagmus and vertigo
B. Nausea, vomiting and pallor
C . Eyes move in the direction of rotation
D . Reactions of the neck and leg muscles
96. Spontaneous vertical nystagmus is suggestive of:
A . A disease of labyrinth
B. A lesion of the brain stem
C . A lesion of vestibular nerve
D . None of the above
97. If the midbrain reticular formation is destroyed, sparing
the main ascending sensory pathways, the animal:
A . Exhibits high amplitude slow waves in the EEG
B. May have regular sleep-wake cycles
C . May have spontaneous behavioural arousal
D . May run into a state of prolonged wakefulness
92 D
93 C
94 D
95 C
96 B
97 A
Nervous System: Special Senses 93
98. What happens when tension on biceps muscle is maximum?
A . The Ia afferents from the muscle are less active
B. The lb afferents discharge from the muscle increases
C . Both
D . Neither
99. Cholinergic postganglionic sympathetic
A . Sweat glands
B. Blood vessels in skeletal muscle
C . Both
D . Neither
100.The system of dopaminergic neurons:
A . Originate chiefly from subthalamic neurons
B. Inhabit neurons of caudate nucleus
C . Both
D . Neither
101.CSF pressure is the lying down posture is:
A . 20-50 mm
B. 50-150 mm
C . 150-200mm
D . 200-300mm
102.Energy for the brain in starvation is from:
A . Glucose
B. Ketones
C . Fatty acids
D . Amino acids
103.Neurotransmitter in Nigrostrial pathway is:
A . Dopamine
C . Acetyl chloride
D . Norepinephrine
104.The satiety center is located in the:
A . Dorsomedian nucleus of hypothalamus
B. Ventromedian nucleus of hypothalamus
C . Perifonical region
D . Lateral hypothalamic area
98 C
99 C
100 D
101 B
102 A,B 103 A
104 B
MCQS in Physiology
105.The frequency of alpha waves in EEG is:
A . 8 to 12 cycles/sec
B. 15 to 25 cycles/sec
C . 2 to 5 cycles/sec
D . None of the above
106.Crude touch sensations are carried by:
A . Lateral spinothalamic tract
B. Ventral spinothalamic tract
C . Posterior columns
D . Pyramidal tracts
107.Transection of medullary pyramid results in:
A . Hypotonia
B. Atrophy of muscles
C . Forced grasping
D . positive babinski sign
108.Temoporal lobe lesion causes:
A . Homonymus upper quadrantinopia
B. Homonymus lower quadrantinopia
C . Bitemporal hemianopia
D . Binasal hemianopia
109.Vomiting center is situated in the:
A . Hypothalamus
B. Amygdala
C . Pons
D . Medulla
110.Pain producing substance is:
A . Serotonin
B. Substance P
C . Histamine
D . Acetyl choline
111.CSF is principally secreted by:
A . Choroid plexus
B. Arachnoid granulation
C . Floor of fourth ventricle
D . periaqueductal grey
105 A
106 B
107 D
108 A
109 D
110 B
111 A
Nervous System: Special Senses 95
112.Paccinian corpuscles are major receptors for:
A . Pressure
B. Pain
C . Touch
D . Temperature
113.Delta waves in EEG are seen in:
A . Deep sleep
B. REM sleep
C . Awake with eyes open
D . Awake with eyes closed
114.CSF in comparison blood contains all except:
A . Lower calcium
B. Lower chloride
C . Lower sodium
D . Lower cells
115.The electroencephalographic (EEG) curves are called:
A . ABCDE Curves
B. Berger’s Rhythm
C . Neurogenic Rhythm
116.Which of the respiratory volumes cannot be measured
by simple spirometer?
A . Vital capacity
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C . Inspiratory capacity
D . Tidal volume
E . Functional residual capacity
117.The surfactant material lining the lung alveoli:
A . Decreases the surface tension of alveolar fluid
B. Increase the compliance of lungs
C . Has increasing less effect, the more lungs are inflated
D . Is decreased when pulmonary blood flow is interrupted
E . All the above
112 A
113 A
114 B
115 B
116 E
117 E
MCQS in Physiology
118.Normal hepatic blood flow per minute is:
A . 50 cc/100 gm of liver tissue
B. 100 cc/100 gm of liver tissue
C . 200 cc/100 gm of liver tissue
D . 300 cc/100 gm of liver tissue
119.The Hemlholz theory of colour vision states that:
A . There are three kinds of cones in the retina responding to the
three primary colours
B. There are two kinds of cones called dominators and modulators
C . There is only one kinds of cone and the colour is recognized
only in area 17
D . There are seven types of cones responding to the seven colours
of the spectrum
120.The cerebellum:
A . Has a totally inhibitory output from its cortex
B. Has only excitatory signal output from its deep nuclear layers
C . Has a conscious interpretation of motor activity
D . Has inhibitory influence on muscle tone in humans
121.The condition known as REM sleep is:
A . That point at which the individual becomes aware and alert
B. Referred to as paradoxical sleep
C . Characterized by total lack of all muscular activity
D . Characterized by slow high voltage regular EEG activity
122.Red colour blindness is called:
A . Deuteranopia
B. Protanopia
C . Protanomaly
D . Deuteranomaly
123.True visceral pain arise from:
A . Distension
B. Mechanical irritation
C . Excessive heat
D . Compression
E . Chemical stimulation
118 A
119 A
120 A
121 B
122 B
123 A
Nervous System: Special Senses 97
124.The receptors in retina for those of blue, green and red
waves lengths are called:
A . Modulators
B. Trichomators
C . Dominators
D . None of these
125.Which of the following statements is not true?
A . Decorticate rigidity is greater than decerebrate rigidity
B. Righting reflexes are absent in the decerebrate animal
C . Visual righting reflex is present in a thalamic animal
D . Decorticate rigidity is seen only when the animal is at rest
126.Where is motor activity probably initiated in the brain?
A . Motor cortex
B. Premotor cortex
C . Basal ganglia
D . Cerebellum
127.The optical power of the eye is:
A . 25 Dioptres
B. 50 Dioptres
C . 60 Dioptres
D . 75 Dioptres
128.The percentage of pyramidal fibres which are unmyelinated:
A . 20
B. 35
C . 50
D . 75
129.Blood brain barrier is made up of:
A . Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C . Oligodendroglia
D . Microglia
Parkinsonism, tremor is:
6 to 8 per second
2 per second
2 to 4 per second
124 A
125 A
126 C
127 C
128 C
129 A
130 A
MCQS in Physiology
131.Destruction of lateral nucleus of thalamus lead to:
A . Aphagia
B. Hyperphagia
C . Satiety
D . Somnolence
cerebral flow to be doubled, PCO2 should be:
40 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
100 mm Hg
200 mm Hg
133.Broca’s area: which is true:
A . Present bilaterally in brain
B. Supplied by MCA
C . Lesion causes Laryngeal palsy
D . Present in the temporal lobe
134.Hypothalamus regulates all except:
A . Food intake
B. Temperature
C . Anticipatory rise in heart rate
D . Hypophysis
135.First change to occur after nerve cut is:
A . Schwan cell mitosis
B. Axonal sprouting
C . Myelin sheath degeneration
D . Nuclear disintegration
131 B
132 B
133 B
134 C
135 C
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MCQs in Human Physiology
© 2002, NM Muthayya
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First Edition: 2002
Publishing Director: RK Yadav
ISBN 81-7179-882-9
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