Exercise 1:
1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
2. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management
3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison
4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the
customer’s business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1) Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2) Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above
1 only
2 only
None of the above
8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product
9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics, as defined in Continual Service
Improvement (CSI)?
1) Process Metrics
2) Supplier Metrics
3) Service Metrics
4) Technology Metrics
5) Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
10. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in
time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident
11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT
components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization
12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1) Incident Management
2) Problem Management
3) Access Management
4) ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Event management and Request Fulfillment
Event Management and Service Desk
Facilities Management and Event Management
Change Management and Service Level Management
13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Design phase
of the Lifecycle?
1) Hardware and Software design
2) Environmental design
3) Process design
4) Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
16. The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service
Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery of
services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement
program
17. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of
resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing that required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services
18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT
infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
19. The following options are considered within which process?
1) Big bang vs. Phased
2) Push and Pull
3) Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service
21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service
should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology
22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the
Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control
action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices
24. Consider the following statements:
1) CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2) CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3) CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle
4) CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1) They provide structure and stability to organizations
2) They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3) They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4) They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to
happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery
of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy
through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement
28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT
systems to make it appear that they are in the same location
29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the
change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.
30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release
31. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
32. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure
when Operators are not available
33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?
1) It is measurable
2) It is timely
3) It delivers a specific result
4) It responds to a specific event
5) It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an
application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of
approved options
35. A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period
36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services
38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process
data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can
measure
40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
Exercise 2:
1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1) The design of services
2) The design of Service Management systems and tools
3) The design of technology architecture and management systems
4) The design of the processes required
5) ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?
1) Service Owner
2) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3) Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only
4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the
Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the
infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external
business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value
is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined
by Service Design
6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1) The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its
users for all operational issues
2) The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1) Service Portfolio Management
2) Demand Management
3) Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service
Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with Service
Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any other
phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the
Service Lifecycle
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process
11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost
12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in the CSI
program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise
be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement
CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning
13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1) To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2) To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3) To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4) To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1) Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2) Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3) Defining security policies for system access
4) Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support
Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business
17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition
phase of the lifecycle?
1) Data mining and workflow tools
2) Measurement and reporting systems
3) Release and Deployment technology
4) Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL
21. Consider the following statements:
1) A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2) A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only
22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in
order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate
configuration records
24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services
25. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network
access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain
the infrastructure
26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the
following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem
management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and
business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages
27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled
manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made
29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery
model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s)
resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal
resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application
service provisioning
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a)
b)
c)
d)
To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
To help enable different applications to work together
To help implement architectures that support the business strategy
34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service
Management
35. Consider the following statements:
1) Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production
2) Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3) Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external
service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
37. An Incident occurs when:
1) A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2) An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3) A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4) A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and
using it to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
Exercise 3:
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
a) Internal Sourcing-.
b) External Sourcing
c) Co-Sourcing
d) Managed Services
2. Major Incidents require?
a) Separate procedures
b) Less urgency
c) Longer timescales
d) Less documentation
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
a) Knowledge
b) Information
c) Wisdom
d) Data
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The
Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is
responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Release Management
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management
Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
e) There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple
times to Implement Continual Improvement
f) Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
g) The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
h) There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to Implement Continual improvement
6. Consider the following statements:
1) “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an
organization are defined
2) The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 Only
Both of the above
Neither of the above
2 only
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
a) Application Management
b) Operations Management
c) Service Desk
d) Availability Management
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment
Management?
a) To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design
and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
b) To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
c) To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested,
verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
d) To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1) Roles
2) Activities
3) Functions
4) Guidelines
5) Standards
6) Governance Framework
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) All of the above
c) 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
10. A Service Provider is?
a) An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
b) An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external customers
c) An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
d) An organization supplying IT services
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a
logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Financial Management for IT services
12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality
solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities
included in this role?
a) Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
b) B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and
future IT requirements of the organization
c) C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service designs that are produced
d) D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting
processes
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
a) IT Service Continuity Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Problem Management
d) Availability Management
14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
a) The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other Assets.
b) Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets
by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets.
c) Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity
Management.
d) All of above
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?
a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk
b) The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
c) The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
d) The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
a) Services and Resources
b) Services and Business Processes
c) Resources and Business Processes
d) Services, Resources and Business Processes
17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
a) A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
b) A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.
c) A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop
when the objective is met.
d) In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI)
Model?
a) Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution;
continually improve
b) Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we
keep the momentum going?
c) Identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement
the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution
d) What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?;
Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
a) The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
b) The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
c) The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts
d) The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied
with
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that
the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced
within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced within
three hours?
a) Availability Management
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Service Level Management
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a) The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
b) The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
c) The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
d) The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management.
What information is this?
a) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can
generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors
c) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?
a) Application Service Provision
b) Business Process Outsourcing
c) Knowledge Process Outsourcing
d) Co-Sourcing
24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
a) Service Catalogue
b) Service Improvement Program
c) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
d) Service Quality Plan (SQP)
25. Changes are divided into categories.
What criterion defines a category for a change?
a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
b) The speed with which the change is made
c) The sequence in which the change is made
d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example
using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity management
c) Change Management
d) Incident Management
27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
a) Replacement Request
b) Request for Change
c) Request for Release
d) Service Request
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a
Configuration Item?
a) Availability Manager
b) Incident Manager
c) Problem Manager
d) Service Level Manager
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1) What is the vision?
2) Where are we now?
3) Where do we want to be?
4) How do we get there?
5) Did we get there?
6) ?
a) What is the ROI
b) How much did it cost?
c) How do we keep the momentum going?
d) What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management Process?
a) To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively
managed in all service and Service Management activities’.
b) To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise
information resources are used responsibly.
c) To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.
d) To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct?
1) A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their
Lifecycle.
2) The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3) It’s never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4) Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 1, 2 & 3
c) 1, 2 & 4
d) All of above
32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?
1) Perspectives
2) Positioning
3) Plan
4) ???
a) People
b) Product
c) Patterns
d) Partners
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
a) Average uptime of a service
b) Average downtime of a service
c) Average time between two consecutive incidents
d) Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
a) A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
service.
b) The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service,
configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
c) Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents
being logged
d) All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library
(DML)?
a) Copies of all software versions that are needed
b) Copies of all live software programs
c) Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
d) Software awaiting user acceptance testing
36. Application Portfolio
1) A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.
2) The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3) The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as
part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 & 3only
c) All of above
d) 1 & 2 only
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
a) The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after
Failure of a Component part.
b) The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract
will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting
service or component.
c) A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to
normal working after a failure.
d) A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without
interruption
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
a) Capacity Forecasts
b) Recommendations
c) Components and resource forecasts
d) Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process?
a) By checking contracts with suppliers
b) By measuring customer satisfaction
c) By defining service levels
d) By reporting on all incidents
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
a) Designing and building a release
b) Testing a release
c) Compiling the release schedule
d) Communicating and preparing the release
Exercise 4:
1. The ITIL life-cycle phase that provides guidance on creating and maintaining value for customers
through better strategy, design, transition and operation of services is:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
2. The ITIL life-cycle phase that provides guidance for the development and improvement of
capabilities for introducing new and changed services into supported environments is:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
3. The ITIL life-cycle phase that describes best practice for managing services in supported
environments is:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
4. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about governance?
a) Ensures that policies and strategy are actually implemented, and that required processes
are correctly followed.
b) Includes defining roles and responsibilities, measuring and reporting, and taking actions to
resolve any issues identified
c) Provides guidance on creating and maintaining value for customers through better strategy,
design, transition and operation of services
d) All of the above
5. Knowledge Management is a process in which phase in the ITIL life-cycle:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
6. Supplier Management is a process in which phase in the ITIL life-cycle:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
7. Request Fulfillment is a process in which phase in the ITIL life-cycle:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
8. Service Catalogue Management is a process in which phase in the ITIL life-cycle:
a) Service Strategy d. Service Operation
b) Service Design e. CSI
c) Service Transition
9. Services can be classified into:
a) Internal and External d. a and b
b) Core and Enhancing e. a and c
c) Core, Enabling and Enhancing
10. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about functions?
a) May be broken out and performed by several departments, teams, and groups
b) May be embodied within a single organizational unit
c) Multiple functions may be performed by one person or group
d) A team or group of people and the tools (resources) they use to carry out one specific
process or activity
11. RACI model stands for:
a) Repeatable, Accredited, Controlled, Improved
b) Responsible, Accountable, Controlled, Informed
c) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the scope of Service Strategy?
a) Defining a strategy whereby a service provider will deliver services to meet a customer’s
business outcomes
b) Defining a strategy for how to operate services
c) Defining a strategy for how to manage services
d) None of the above
13. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the Utility of a service?
a) Refers to those aspects of a service that contribute to tasks associated with achieving
outcomes
b) Represents any attribute of a service that removes, or reduces the effect of, constraints on
the performance of a task
c) Determine whether a service is able to meet its required outcomes, or is ‘fit for purpose’
d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a service value?
a) Defined by customers
b) Affordable mix of features
c) Calculated in financial terms
d) Value changes over time and circumstance
15. Value is defined not only strictly in terms of the customer’s business outcomes; it is also highly
dependent on Customers’ preferences and:
a) Customer’s perceptions
b) Customer’s budget
c) Customer’s needs
d) Customer’s business volume
16. Which of the following is CORRECT about Business Cases:
a) It is a decision support tool
b) It is a planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action
c) It focuses on both the financial and non-financial impacts of the proposed service
d) All of the above
17. PBA stands for:
a) Process for Business Analysis
b) Process for Business Automation
c) Patterns for Business Analysis
d) None of the above
18. A service that is under consideration or development should be placed in:
a) Service Pipeline
b) Service Catalogue
c) Configuration Management System
d) None of the above
19. Financial management consists of three main processes:
a) Budgeting, Accounting, Charging
b) Budgeting, Finance, Business
c) Budgeting, Finance, Charging
d) None of the above
20. Which of the following is an objective for the BRM?
a) Ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
b) Establish and maintain a constructive relationship between the service provider and the
customer
c) Establish and articulate business requirements for new/changed services
d) All of the above
21. Which of the following is not a process in the Service Design phase?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Supplier Management
Service Level Management
Service Portfolio Management
Information Security Management
22. SDP stands for:
a) Service Deign Patterns
b) Service Development Practice
c) Service Development Package
d) None of the above
23. Which of the following is included in the SDP of a service?
a) Service functional requirements
b) Organizational readiness assessment
c) Service transition plan,
d) Service acceptance criteria
e) All of the above
24. An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that
assists with the provision of services is called:
a) SLA
b) OLA
c) UC
d) None of the above
25. A written agreement between an IT service provider and the IT customer(s), defining the key
service targets and responsibilities of both parties is called:
a) SLA
b) OLA
c) UC
d) None of the above
26. The sourcing option in which a formal arrangements between two or more organizations to
work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT service(s) is
known as:
a) Co-sourcing
b) Partnership
c) Business Process Sourcing
d) Multi-vendor Sourcing
27. Which of the following is NOT part of the SLM process?
a) Negotiation and agreement of current and future SLRs and targets
b) Documentation and management of SLAs for all operational services
c) Development and management of appropriate OLAs
d) Negotiation of UCs and agreements
28. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services they use is known as:
a) Service-based SLA
b) Group-based SLA
c) All-services Covered SLA
d) Customer-based SLA
29. The ability of a service, component or CI to perform its agreed function when required is known
as:
a) Availability
b) Maintainability
c) Reliability
d) Serviceability
30. VBF stands for:
a) Valuable Business Facts
b) Viable Business Features
c) Variable Business Feature
d) None of the above
31. The supplier category that includes relationships involving significant commercial activity and
business interaction is known as:
a) Strategic
b) Tactical
c) Operational
d) Commodity
32. BIA stands for:
a) Business Improvement Activity
b) Business Impact Analysis
c) Business Improvement Actions
d) Business Impact and Achievements
33. Which of the following is not a process in the Service Transition phase?
a) Release and Deployment Management
b) Change Management
c) Information Management
d) Service Asset and Configuration Management
34. Which of the following is in the scope of the Service Transition phase?
a) Release planning, building, testing, evaluation and deployment
b) Design and development of capabilities for transitioning new and changed services into
supported environments
c) Retiring services and transferring services between service providers
d) All of the above
35. Changes may arise due to:
a) Improvements and enhancements to service cost
b) Need to increase ease and effectiveness of support of services
c) Need to resolve errors
d) All of the above
36. A change that must be implemented as soon as possible is known as:
a) Standard Change
b) Urgent Change
c) Normal Change
d) Emergency Change
37. RFC stands for:
a) Request for Comments
b) Request for Change
c) Request for Correction
d) Request for Consideration
38. A set of predefined steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change in an agreed
way is known as:
a) Standard Change
b) Change Model
c) Normal Change
d) Change Procedure
39. Which of the following is INCORRECT in the Change Proposal?
a) Is used to communicate a high-level description of the change
b) It includes a full business case
c) It includes an outline schedule for design and implementation of the change
d) It must be created by the change management team
40. Which of the following is INCORRECT about a Standard Change?
a) Is a pre-approved change that is low risk?
b) It follows a procedure or work instruction
c) It can be triggered by the request fulfillment process
d) It requires no authorization
Exercise 5:
1. CAB stands for:
a) Change Authority Board
b) Change Approval Board
c) Change Advisory Board
d) Change Authorization Board
2. The following is NOT a phase in the Release and Deployment Management process:
a) Release and deployment planning
b) Release build and test
c) Deployment
d) Validation and Testing
3. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Knowledge Management process:
a) Is a whole lifecycle-wide process in that it is relevant to all lifecycle stages
b) It oversights the management of knowledge, the information and data from which that
knowledge derives
c) It Maintain a service knowledge management system (SKMS)
d) It provides in details guidelines and techniques for the capturing, maintenance and use of
configuration data
4. DML stands for:
a) Data Management Layer
b) Data and Medial Library
c) Data Middle Layer
d) Definitive Media Library
5. Which of the following is CORRECT about the SACM process:
a) It ensures that CIs are identified, baselined and maintained
b) It ensures that the assets required to deliver services are properly controlled Data
c) It covers non-IT assets and work products used to develop the services and CIs required to
support the service
d) All of the above
6. Which of the following is a CORRECT example of a CI:
a) Business Case
b) SDP
c) People
d) All of the above
7. Which of the following is not a process in the Service Operation phase :
a) Service Desk
b) Event Management
c) Request Fulfillment
d) Problem Management
8. Which of the following is in the scope of the Service Operation phase:
a) The services themselves
b) Service management processes
c) People
d) All of the above
9. The single point of contact for users when there is a service disruption or for service requests is:
a) Service Desk
b) Technical Management Team
c) Service Manger
d) Help Desk
10. Which of the following is CORRECT about functions?
a) A logical concept that refers to the people and automated measures that execute a defined
process
b) May be broken up and performed by several departments, teams and groups, or it may be
embodied within a single organizational unit
c) A logical concept that refers to the people and automated measures that execute an activity
d) All of the above
11. Which of the following is within the scope of the Service Desk function:
a) Logging all relevant incident/service request details, allocating categorization and
prioritization codes
b) Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
c) Communication with users
d) All of the above
12. The groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overall management of
the IT Infrastructure is grouped under a function called:
a) Service Desk
b) Technical Management
c) Application Management
d) IT Operation Management
13. A notification that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred is known as:
a) Informational Event
b) Exception Event
c) Alert
d) Warning Event
14. An event that is generated when a service or device is approaching a threshold is called:
a) Informational Event
b) Exception Event
c) Alert
d) Warning Event
15. Notifying appropriate IT managers about incidents of a serious nature is known as:
a) Functional escalation
b) Management escalation
c) Hierarchic escalation
d) Emergency escalation
16. Which of the following is CORRECT about service requests?
a) May include a request for information or advice
b) May be linked to a request for change as part of fulfilling the request
c) May be managed by the Service Desk
d) All of the above
17. Which of the following is CORRECT about the scope of the Problem Management process:
a) Diagnose the root cause of incidents and determine the resolution to those problems
b) Maintain information about problems and the appropriate workarounds and resolutions
c) Identify and solve problems and known errors before further incidents related to them can
occur again All of the above
d) All of the above
18. A problem with a documented root cause and workaround is called:
a) Resolved Problem
b) Defined Problem
c) Known Error
d) None of the above
19. Which of the following is CORRECT about Access Management?
a) Enables the organization to manage the confidentiality, availability and integrity of the
organization’s data and intellectual property
b) Ensures that users are given the right to use a service
c) Can be initiated by a service request
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following is not within the scope of the CSI phase :
a) Continual improvement of all aspects of the IT service and the service assets that support
them
b) The continual alignment of the service portfolio with the current and future business needs
c) The maturity and capability of the organization, management, processes and people utilized
by the services
d) All of the above
21. The first four letters in the word DEMING stands for:
a) Design, Enhance, Manage, Improve
b) Design, Evaluate, Manage, Improve
c) Design, Evaluate, Manage, Innovate
d) None of the above
22. The four stages in the DEMING cycle are:
a) Plan, Do, Check, Act
b) Plan, Develop, Check, Approve
c) Plan, Design, Change, Analyze
d) None of the above
23. The CSI register should be held and regarded as part of the:
a) CMS
b) CMBD
c) SKMS
d) CSI Log
24. The four reasons to monitor and measure are to:
a) Validate, Direct, Justify, Intervene
b) Analyze, Direct, Change, Correct
c) Analyze, Design, Evaluate, Improve
d) None of the above
25. Types of metrics include:
a) Technology metrics
b) Process metrics
c) Service metrics
d) All of the above
26. Tension metrics include:
a) Resources
b) Functionality
c) Schedule
d) All of the above
27. The seven-step improvement process include: identify the strategy for improvement, define
what you will measure, gather the data, process the data, analyze the information and data,
____________________, and implement improvement.
a) Derive knowledge and wisdom
b) Present and use the information
c) Approve improvement
d) None of the above
28. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of service Change
Management?
a) Changes to a mainframe computer
b) Changes to business strategy
c) Changes to a Service Level Agreement (SLA)
d) The retirement of a service
29. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
30. What does the term Operations Control refer to?
a) Managing the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
c) It is the tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) It is the Service Desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not
available
31. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
a) Service Level Management
b) Service Portfolio Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Incident Management
32. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service management
33. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Strategic service
Delivered service
Internal service
External service
34. What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known
as?
a) Service management
b) Incident management
c) Resource management
d) Service support
35. Which of the following is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization
that assists in the provision of services
b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key
targets and responsibilities of both parties
c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the
customer
d) An agreement between a 3rd party Service Desk and the IT customer about fix and response
times
36. What is the MAIN goal of Availability Management?
a) To monitor and report availability of components
b) To ensure that all targets in the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
37. Which of the following does Service Transition provide guidance on?
1) Moving new and changed services into production
2) Testing and Validation
3) Transfer of services to or from an external service provider
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
38. Learning and Improvement is the PRIMARY concern of which of the following phases of the
Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service
Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition, and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
39. Which of the following is an activity of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
a) Account for all the financial assets of the organization
b) Specify the relevant attributes of each Configuration Item (CI)
c) Design service models to justify ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization
40. A service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?
1) A new IT service
2) A major change to an IT service
3) An emergency change to an IT service
4) An IT service retirement
a) 2,3 and 4 only
b) 1,2 and 4 only
c) 1,3 and 4 only
d) all of the above
Exercise 6:
1. Which of the following statements about the service owner is incorrect?
a) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
b) Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
c) Is a stakeholder in all of the It processes which support the service they own
d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
2. Which of the following basic concepts are included in Access Management?
1) Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2) Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3) Defining security policies for system access
4) Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
3. Which of the following would be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
1) Copies of purchased software
2) Copies of internally developed software
3) Relevant license documentation
4) The Change Schedule
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Which process is responsible for reviewing Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular
basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Demand Management
5. Which of the following is a process owner responsible for?
a) Purchasing tools to support the process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) are met
c) Carrying out all activities defined in the process
d) Ensuring that the process is performed as documented
6. Which of the following are aims of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1) To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2) To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations and
support
3) To authorize changes to support the process
a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
7. Which of the following is not an objective of service transition?
a) To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
b) To provide training and certification in project management
c) To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
d) To plan and manage the resource requirements to manage a release
8. Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
a) To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current It services
b) To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
c) To create and populate a service catalogue
d) To ensure that an agreed level of It service is provided for all current It services
9. Which of the following can be described as "Self-Contained units of organizations"?
a) Roles
b) Processes
c) Functions
d) Procedures
10. Agreeing business requirements and service levels for a new service is part of ?
a) Service Operation
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Service Design
11. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff only
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Information Security Manager only
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
12. Which of the following are valid elements of a Service Design Package?
1) Agreed and documented business requirements
2) A service definition for transition and operation of the service
3) Requirements for new or changed services
4) Metrics to measure the service
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
13. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the Service Transition phase of
the Lifecycle?
1) A tool to store definitive versions of software
2) A workflow tool for managing changes
3) An automated software distribution tool
4) Testing and validation tools
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
14. Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: the total cost of ownership
(TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the
technology are considered during development?
a) Service design
b) Service strategy
c) Service operation
d) Continual service improvement
15. Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data
center?
a) Technical management
b) Service desk
c) Application management
d) Facilities management
16. Which of the following statements about Problem Management is/are CORRECT?
1) It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a Configuration Item
(CI) are submitted through Change Management
2) It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
17. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dealing with service requests from the users
Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
Ensuring fulfillment of change requests
Making sure the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is met
18. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
a) The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service
19. Plan, Do, Check, Act are the four stages of which quality improvement method?
a) Business Knowledge Management Framework
b) Benchmarking
c) Continual Service Improvement
d) The Deming Cycle
20. Which of the following should IT services deliver to customers?
a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value
21. Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
a) Service catalogue management
b) Service asset and configuration management
c) Change management
d) Information security management
22. Which one of the following is the best definition of reliability?
a) The availability of a service or component
b) The level of risk that affects a service or process
c) How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
d) How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
23. Which of the following activities is part of the Service Level Management (SLM) process?
a) Designing the Configuration Management system from a business perspective
b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Discussing service achievements with customers
d) Training Service Desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
24. Which statement BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control
action
b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the
adverse impact on business operations
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices
25. Which of the following should a service catalogue contain?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services
26. "Warranty of a service" means?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
27. A technician uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as the incident has been seen
before.
This is an example of which of the following?
a) A workaround
b) A standard change
c) A service capability
d) An alert
28. 41) Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the
change is unsuccessful?
a) a) Remediation planning
b) b) Categorization
c) c) Prioritization
d) d) Review and close
29. Hierarchic escalation is Best described as?
a) Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
b) Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
c) Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an incident to maintain customer
satisfaction
d) Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
30. Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
b) It means known incident types never recur
c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve
31. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
a) Identification, Logging, Categorization, Prioritization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation,
Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
b) Prioritization, Identification, Logging, Categorization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation,
Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
c) Identification, Logging, Initial Diagnosis, Categorization, Prioritization, Functional Escalation,
Resolution and Recovery, Investigation and Diagnosis, Closure
d) Identification, Initial Diagnosis, Investigation, Logging, Categorization, Functional Escalation,
Prioritization, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
32. Which of the following are objectives of Continual Service Improvement?
1) To improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2) To improve services
3) To improve all phases of the Service Lifecycle EXCEPT Service Strategy
4) To improve international standards such as ISO/IEC 20000
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of Demand Management?
a) Increasing customer value
b) Understanding patterns of business activity
c) Increasing the value of IT
d) Aligning the business with IT cost
34. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets?
a) Operational level agreement (OLA)
b) Capacity plan
c) Service level agreement (SLA)
d) SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)
35. Which of the following statements about communication within service operation are correct?
1) All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2) Communication should not take place without a clear audience
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both of the above
None of the above
36. The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
a) Continual service improvement
b) Service strategy
c) Service design
d) Service transition
37. Which of the following is NOT a type of metric described in Continual Service Improvement
(CSI)?
a) Process Metrics
b) Service Metrics
c) Personnel Metrics
d) Technology Metrics
38. Which statement about the relationship between the Configuration Management System (CMS)
and the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is CORRECT?
a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS forms part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS
39. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether they
should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur
40. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk is/are CORRECT?
1) The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its
users for all operational issues
2) The Service Desk should be the owner of the Problem Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
41. Which of the following are the Four Ps of Service Design?
a) Planning, Products, Position, Processes
b) Planning, Perspective, Position, People
c) Perspective, Partners, Problems, People
d) People, Partners, Products, Processes
42. Which of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem
workaround is found?
a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all
related incident records
d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a Request
for Change (RFC)
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Exercise 6
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Exercise 5
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Exercise 3
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Exercise 2
Exercise 1
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