How many Blood is on the Human body?
0
1/5 of body’s weight
0
4 - 5% of body’s weight
0
13 - 14% of body’s weight
1
6 - 8% of body’s weight
0
1/2 of body’s weight
#
What kind of Hemolysis can be at the person after a sting of the snake?
0
Osmotic
0
Oncotic
1
Biological
0
Mechanical
0
Physical
#
The pigment in red blood cells that carries oxygen is
0
erythropoietin.
0
melatonin.
0
urobilinogen.
0
Erythropoietin and hemoglobin
1
hemoglobin
#
The Patient А. has 90 g/l, of common proteins, 35 g/l of albumins, 31 g/l of
globulins and 24 g/l of fibrinogens in the analysis of blood. What can happen with
sedimentation rate at the patient and Why?
1
increase, because the high molecular proteins increase too
0
increase, because the high molecular proteins decrease
0
decrease, because the low molecular proteins increase
0
decrease, because the high molecular proteins increase
0
increase, because the low molecular proteins increase
#
The percentage of blood cells in whole blood is called _____.
0
plasma
0
plasma and erythrocytes
1
hematocrit
0
erythrocytes
0
serum
#
Two days ago Tom had Bleeding. Now there are some Reticulocyts in a patient’s
Blood. Where do Reticulocyts synthesize?
0
the Liver
0
the Kidneys
1
the Bone Marrow
0
the Spleen
0
the Kidneys and the Liver
#
Iron is stored in the liver in the form of _____.
0
hemoglobin
0
plasmine
0
transferrin
0
bilirubin
1
ferritin
#
What endocrinology glands take place in regulation of Erythropoesis ?
0
the Thymus
0
the Thyroid
0
the Pineal gland
0
the Adrenal gland
1
the Thyroid, the Pituitary gland, the Adrenal gland, the Gonads
#
Red blood cells live around _____ before they disintegrate.
0
one month
1
120 days
0
21 days
0
three months
0
seven months
#
Which of the following are functions of the blood?
0
transportation
0
regulation
0
protection
0
regulation and protection
1
all of the above
#
How many Proteins are there in the Human Blood?
0
2-3%
0
90-92%.
0
18-10%
0
0,4%
1
7-8%
#
Which blood components transport most of the gases?
1
erythrocytes
0
platelets
0
leukocytes
0
granulocytes
0
plasma
#
What kind of Hemolysis can be after shakeing a bottle with the tinned blood?
0
Osmotic
0
Onkotic
0
Biological
1
Mechanical
0
Termical
#
Which of the following cells do NOT have a nucleus?
1
erythrocytes
0
granulocytes
0
granulocytes and erythrocytes
0
leukocytes
0
agranulocytes
#
The Patient B. has 57 g/l, of common proteins, 35 g/l of albumins, 21 g/l of
globulins and 0,5 g/l of fibrinogens in the analysis of blood. What can happen
with sedimentation rate at the patient and Why?
1
decrease, because the high molecular proteins decrease
0
increase, because the high molecular proteins decrease
0
decrease, because the low molecular proteins increase
0
increase, because the high molecular proteins increase too
0
increase, because the low molecular proteins increase
#
Damaged or old red blood cells are removed by the liver and
0
kidney
0
skeletal muscle
0
bone marrow
1
spleen
0
intestine
#
What pathological form of Hemoglobin forms has this worker? The man works
with aniline paints a lot .
0
Desoxyhemoglobin
0
Carbhemoglobin
0
Ca rboxyhemoglobin
1
Methemoglobin
0
Oxyhemoglobin
#
The blood volume of an averaged sized male is
0
1 to 2 liters
0
3 to 4 liters.
0
4 to 5 liters.
1
5 to 6 liters.
0
6 to 7 liters.
#
Where does Erythropoetin produce?
0
the Liver
0
the Kidneys
0
the Spleen
0
the Bone Marrow
1
the Kidneys and the Liver
#
Which of these factors will increase the RBC or RCC?
0
sleeping
0
decreased altitudes
0
low body temperature
0
dieting
1
exercise
#
The relatively clear liquid medium which carries the other cells of blood is called:
0
lipid
0
antibody
1
plasma
0
defense system
0
all of the above
#
Which of the following are likely to increase in quantities when the body is under
attack from bacteria?
0
erythrocytes
1
leukocytes
0
thrombocytes
0
erythroblasts
0
thromboblasts
#
Most of the volume of normal human blood is composed of:
0
red cells
0
hemoglobin
1
plasma
0
white cells
0
hemoglobin and red cells
#
Which of the following are functions of the blood?
0
transportation
0
regulation
0
protection
1
all of the above
0
all are incorrect
#
The blood volume of an averaged sized male is
0
3 to 4 liters
0
4 to 5 liters
1
5 to 6 liters
0
6 to 7 liters.
0
7 to 8 liters.
#
Which of the following belongs to agranular leukocytes?
0
neutrophil
0
Basophile
0
Platelet
1
monocyte
0
all are incorrect
#
Which of the following cells do NOT have a nucleus?
1
erythrocytes
0
Granulocytes
0
leukocytes
0
agranulocytes
0
all are incorrect
#
The patient with chronik renal insufficiency has the decreased general protein of
the blood? How will the oncotic blood pressure and water metabolism between
blood and tissues change?
0
the oncotic pressure will increase; dehydration of tissues
0
the oncotic pressure will decrease; dehydration of tissues
1
the oncotic pressure will decrease; edema of tissues
0
the oncotic pressure will increase; edema of tissues
0
no change
#
The blood serum of patient C. was received in the laboratory. What components
may be found in it?
1
albumen, globulin, calcium
0
albumen, fibrinogen, ferum
0
complex of fibrin-monomer with products of fibrin decomposition
0
factor XIII, albumen, sodium ions
0
globulin, ferum
#
The blood viscosity of the patient was 7,0. What factor has changed the blood
viscosity?
1
dehydratation of organism
0
physical overstrain
0
over dosage (superfluous dose) of liquid
0
food
0
hypodynamia
#
#
This is a result of group’s Blood test. Where can you see a result for the II group
of Blood?
Don’t forget! “+” – when the Agglutination is present, “0” –when the
Agglutination is absent
0
I gr. II gr. III gr.
0
0
0
+
0
0
+
0
0
+
+
+
1
+
0
+
#
The type of white blood cell that is often the first to arrive at the site of infection is
a granulocyte, and the member of this group that stains light purple is a
_______________.
0
basophil
0
eosinophil
1
neutrophil
0
monocyte
0
all answers are incorrect
#
The largest cells in the blood that leave the bloodstream to become macrophages
are the _______________.
0
basophil
0
eosinophil
0
neutrophil
1
monocyte
0
all answers are incorrect
#
A person with eosinophilia, or greater than normal numbers of eosinophils, is most
likely suffering from ____________.
1
allergies or internal parasites
0
anemia
0
an autoimmune disease
0
diabetes
0
bleeding
#
This is a result of group’s Blood test. Where can you see a result for the IV Blood
group?
Don’t forget! “+” – when the Agglutination is present, “0” –when the
Agglutination is absent
I gr. II gr. III gr.
0
0
0
0
0
0
+
0
1
+
+
+
0
+
0
+
0
+
0
0
#
An acute infection would show up in a blood count as ______.
0
leukopenia
1
leukocytosis
0
too few helper T cells
0
thrombocytopenia
0
thrombocytosis
#
What kind of white Blood cell can produce Pyrogen?
0
Mielocyte
0
Lymphocyte
0
Reticulocyte
0
Eosinophile
1
Monocyte
#
This is a result of group’s Blood test. Where can you see a result for the I group of
Blood?
Don’t forget! “+” – when the Agglutination is present, “0” –when the
Agglutination is absent
I gr I gr. III gr.
1
0
0
0
0
0
+
0
0
+
+
+
0
+
0
+
0
+
0
0
#
This is a result of group’s Blood test. Where can you see a result for the III group
of Blood?
Don’t forget! “+” – when the Agglutination is present, “0” –when the
Agglutination is absent
I gr.II gr.III gr.
0
0
0
0
0
0
+
0
1
+
+
0
0
+
0
+
0
+
0
0
#
Which leukocytes are the largest in the peripheral blood?
1
monocytes
0
basophils
0
lymphocytes
0
neutrophils
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Which leukocyte does not have phagocytic properties?
0
monocytes
0
eosinophil
1
lymphocytes
0
neutrophils
0
all answers are incorrect
#
There are 18% of Eosinophils in patient’s Blood. What pathological reactions can
be at him?
0
the sharp inflammation
0
the chronic inflammation
1
the allergic reaction
0
the autoimmunity reaction
0
There isn’t a right answer
#
#
The ability called _____ explains how a white blood cell could be found in the
urine.
0
phagocytosis
0
in sound sleep
0
ameboid movement
0
infection
1
diapedesis
#
One of the primary nonspecific effects that glucocorticoids have on the immune
response is:
0
inhibition of interleukin secretion
0
decreased activity of cytotoxic T cells
0
increased release of T and B cells
1
depression of the inflammatory response
0
activation of interleukin secretion
#
Fredʹs blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
1
There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
0
Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
0
His blood lacks Rh factor.
0
He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
0
Antibodies to A is present in the red cells.
#
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
1
They are nucleated.
0
They have cytoplasmic granules.
0
They are phagocytic.
0
They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood
0
They are live in the tissue
#
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.
1
monocytes
0
basophils
0
eosinophils
0
neutrophils
0
neutrophils and basophils
#
An individual who is blood type AB negative ________.
0
can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
0
can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
0
can receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O
0
can donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O
1
can receive SAME blood type
#
__________ are phagocytic, have a trilobed nucleus, and make up the largest
percentage of leukocytes.
0
Basophils
0
Eosinophils
0
Lymphocytes
0
Monocytes
1
Neutrophils
#
These leukocytes produce enzymes that reduce the inflammatory response and are
associated with allergies or parasitic infections.
0
basophils
1
eosinophils
0
lymphocytes
0
monocytes
0
neutrophils
#
These leukocytes produce heparin and histamine; they play a role in inflammatory
and allergic reactions.
1
basophils
0
eosinophils
0
lymphocytes
0
monocytes
#
__________ are the smallest leukocytes; some produce antibodies.
0
basophils
0
eosinophils
1
lymphocytes
0
monocytes
0
neutrophils
#
INCORRECT Which leukocyte's main function is phagocytosis?
0
basophils
0
lymphocytes
0
mast cells
1
neutrophils
0
eosinophils
#
A person with type AB blood would have ____________ antigens on red blood
cells, and ___________ antibodies carried in the plasma.
1
A and B; neither anti-A nor anti-B
0
Neither A nor B; both anti-A and anti-B
0
B; anti-A
0
A; anti-B
0
B; anti-B
#
Erythroblastosisfetalis, also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, most
often occurs in ______________ mothers carrying ______________ fetuses.
0
Rh+; Rh1
Rh-; Rh+
0
Type A; type O
0
Type B; Type A
0
Rh-; Rh#
Which of the following indicates a normal white blood cell count?
0
1 million per mm3
0
15,000 per cm3
1
10,000 per mm3
0
3,000 per mm3
0
2,000 per mm3
#
Antibodies are defense substances produced by the _____ cells.
0
T-lymphocyte
0
monocyte
0
B-lymphocyte
0
leukocyte
0
erythrocytes
#
Serum is
0
the same as blood plasma.
0
plasma minus the formed elements.
0
plasma minus the proteins.
1
plasma minus fibrinogen.
0
plasma minus the electrolytes.
#
Which of these statements about the lymphatic system is (are) true?
0
In the spleen, reticular cells form a blood-splenic barrier.
0
The thymus is an important filter for lymphatic fluid.
0
The tonsils are areas of diffuse lymphatic tissue that increase in size with age.
1
The spleen filters blood, removing microorganisms and other foreign substances.
0
all of these are true
#
Why does a patient have the Clotting Time decrease in Liver chronic disease?
0
The exchange of pigment is broken
0
Synthesis of bilious acids is reduced
0
Synthesis of Somatomedine is broken
1
Synthesis of Fibrinogen is reduced
0
The exchange of calcium is broken
#
Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis
0
blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm
0
0platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm
1
blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation
0
blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation
0all answers are incorrect
What substances are primary Anticoagulants?
0
Fibrin, Thrombin
0
Antithrombin III, Antithrombin I
0
Heparin, Thrombin
1
Heparin, Antithrombin III, &alpha1-Antitrypsin
0
Antithrombin I, Heparin
#
Which clotting factor is released from damaged tissue, and initiates a chain of
clotting events?
0
prothrombin
0
thrombin
0
prothrombin and thrombin
0
fibrin
1
tissue thromboplastin
#
The patient has a lot of Prothrombin active. What can a doctor use for Venous
Thrombosis stops?
1
Heparin transfuse
0
Sodium citrate transfuse
0
Fibrinogen transfuse
0
Thrombin transfuse
0
Sodium chloride transfuse
#
The liquid portion of blood is referred to as _____.
0
whole blood and plasma
0
hematocrit
1
plasma
0
hematocrit and plasma
0
serum
#
During two years a patient used Anticoagulants a lot. What laboratory Tests does
he have at a hospital?
0
examination of T-lymphocytes
1
examination of Coagulogramm
0
examination of Red Blood Cells
0
examination of White Blood Cells
0
examination of Fibrinogen
#
Suddenly the forty years old man died. He had an increase level of Blood
coagulation. What was Blood Factor active?
1
Fibrinogen
0
Prothrombin
0
Plazminogen
0
Factor Х
0
Factor ХII
#
Which of the following is a young platelet?
0
Progranulocyte
0
basophilic band cell
0
monoblast
1
megakaryoblast
0
erythroblast
#
What substances are secondary Anticoagulants?
0
Heparin , products of Fibrinolis
1
Antithrombin I, products of Fibrinolis
0
Hyrudin
0
Thrombin
0
Antithrombin III
platelet and serum
#
The woman had an intensive bleeding in long time. The level of Fibrinogen was
decrease in her blood. The doctor transfused donor's blood to her, but the bleeding
wasn't stop. What can a doctor use for bleeding stops?
0
Sodium chloride transfuse
0
Heparin. transfuse
0
Mass of the Red Blood cells transfuse
1
Fibrinogen transfuse
0
There are not right answers
#
What is a normal platelet count?
0
1 million per cubic cc
1
200,000 per cubic mm
0
1 million per cubic mm
0
10,000 per cubic mm
0
15000 per cubic mm
#
Arthur cut his chin while shaving. How long can the bleeding be at him?
0
about 3 -5 seconds
0
about 30 minutes
0
about 20 minutes
0
about 15 minutes
1
about 4 minutes
#
Which protein functions in coagulation?
1
fibrinogen
0
albumin
0
gamma globulin
0
alpha globulin
0
beta globulin
#
Which factor promotes the appearance of the platelet plug?
1
collagen
0
serotonin
0
fibrinogen
0
vasodilation
0
Factor Х
#
____________is a complex process by which blood forms clots.
0
Hemostasis
1
Coagylation
0
Hemolisis
0
Hemorrage
0
Coagylation and Hemostasis
#
The process of coagulation involves both a cellular (_____________) and a protein
(______________) component.
1
Platelet, coagulation factor
0
Erythrocytes, coagulation factor
0
Platelet, Hemostasis
0
Platelet, Hemorrage
0
Erythrocytes, Hemostasis
#
The primary hemostasis is______________
1
Platelets immediately form a plug at the site of injury
0
The clotting factors, respond in a complex cascade to form fibrin strands which
strengthen the platelet plug
0
The coagulation factors respond in a complex cascade to form fibrin strands which
strengthen the platelet plug.
0
The coagulation factors or clotting factors respond in a complex cascade to form
fibrin strands which strengthen the platelet plug
0
The Erythrocytes and Leucocytes immediately form a plug at the site of injury
#
The Secondary hemostasis is______________
0
Platelets immediately form a plug at the site of injury
0
The clotting factors, respond in a complex cascade to form compliment strands
which strengthen the platelet plug
0
The coagulation factors respond in a complex cascade to form fibrinolisin strands
which strengthen the platelet plug.
1
The coagulation factors or clotting factors respond in a complex cascade to form
fibrin strands which strengthen the platelet plug
0
The Erythrocytes and Leucocytes immediately form a plug at the site of injury
#
When the blood vessels are cut, the endothelium is damaged and the collagen is
exposed. The platelets adhere to this collagen, and get activated. The activated
platelets secrete __________ .
0
Melatonin
0
Fibrinolisin
0
Collagen
1
Serotonin
0
Willebrand factor
If you have some blood from which the formed elements have been removed, how
#
Blood cells all develop from a common stem cell in bone marrow, but early in
development they split into separate lineages. Which three of these cells develop
from the myeloblast lineage?
1
basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil
0
lymphocyte, monocyte, erythrocyte
0
thrombocyte, erythrocyte, lymphocyte
0
monocyte, erythrocyte, neutrophil
0
basophil, eosinophil, monocyte
#
If someone has no megakaryocytes, he/she will
0
not be able to make white blood cells
0
not be able to make red blood cells
1
have a reduced ability to prevent blood loss
0
not be able to phagocytize bacteria
0
not be able to make lymphocytes
#
Which statement is correct?
0
Thrombopoiesis occurs mainly in the lungs.
1
Thrombopoietin is a hormone that stimulates platelet production.
0
Platelets have a large nucleus containing many sets of chromosomes.
0
Megakaryocytes divide by mitosis to produce platelets.
0
Megakaryocytes divide by mitosis to produce monocytes
#
In which choice are the leukocytes correctly arranged in order from most common
to least common?
0
monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
0
lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
0
neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils
1
neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
0
neutrophils, lymphocytes, basophils, monocytes, eosinophils
#
In which choice are the proteins listed in the order in which they are activated?
1
prothrombin activator, thrombin, fibrin
0
fibrin, thrombin, prothrombin activator
0
thrombin, fibrin, prothrombin activator
0
thrombin, prothrombin activator, fibrin
0
fibrin, prothrombin activator, thrombin
#
Platelet plug formation is initiated when platelets come into contact with
0
undamaged endothelial cells
0
fibrinogen
1
collagen fibers in the connective tissue beneath the endothelium
0
antithrombin
0
wall of blood vessels
#
A blood clot that forms in an undamaged vessel is called a(n) _______, and if it
breaks loose and travels through the bloodstream it is called a(n) __________.
0
hematoma; thrombosis
0
thrombus; hematoma
1
thrombus; embolus
0
embolus; thrombus
0
hematoma; embolus
#
The production of prostacyclin by endothelial cells
1
means that blood clots do not normally form in healthy blood vessels
0
attracts platelets
0
exposes the collagen below the endothelial cells
0
reduces the synthesis of clotting proteins by the liver
#
During platelet plug formation, platelets release these substances, which cause
more platelets to adhere to the plug.
0
prostacyclin and NO
0
erythropoietin and bilirubin
0
heparin and plasmin
1
ADP and thromboxanes
0
acetylcholine
#
Vascular spasm
1
closes off small blood vessels when they are damaged, mainly in response to
chemicals released from the damaged cells
0
occurs in blood vessels when the pressure is too high
0
occurs when blood oxygen levels are low
0
occurs when a blood vessel dilates in response to pain
0
occurs in blood vessels when the carbon dioxygen levels are low
#
A person's blood type is determined by
0
mixing his blood with the blood of another person of known blood type—if there is
no reaction they are the same type
0
looking at red blood cells under a microscope to see what kind of antigens are on
their membranes
0
checking to see which plasma antibodies a person has—he won't have antibodies
against his own blood type
1
mixing the blood with different antibodies to see which ones cause the red blood
cells to agglutinate
0
mixing his blood serum with the serum of another person
#
What kind of risk exists when a woman who is Rh+ carries an Rh- fetus?
1
There is usually no risk during the first pregnancy, but it can harm the fetus during
a subsequent pregnancy if the mother is not treated
0
It always poses a serious risk to the fetus, even in the first pregnancy
0
Only in rare cases is there a risk to the fetus during the first pregnancy
0
There is never a risk to the fetus in any pregnancy
0
There is to the mother
#
How many mV of the Resting membrane potential are there in the individual
mammalian cardiac muscle cell?
0
about – 120 mV
0
about – 100 mV
1
about –90mV
0
about – 120 mV
0
about – 120 mV
#
What mechanism underlies of the Rapid initial depolarization of single Cardic
muscle?
1
is due to Na⁺⁺+ influx through rapidly opening Na⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to Ca₂+ influx through more slowly opening
Ca₂+ channels
0
is due to K⁺⁺+ effllux through multiple types of K⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to Na⁺⁺+ effllux through rapidly opening Na⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to K⁺⁺+ influx through multiple types of K⁺⁺+
channels
#
What conduction speed of Action potential has Heart across the SA node?
0
about 4 m/s
0
about 2 m/s
0
about 1 m/s
1
about 0,05 m/s
0
about 0,01 m/s
#
How long can Plateau phase last of the Action potential of single Cardic muscle?
0
about 2ms
0
about
0
about
0
about
1
about
20ms
25ms
50 ms
200ms
#
What mechanism underlies of the Rapid initial repolarization of single Cardic
muscle?
0
is due to Na⁺⁺+ influx through rapidly opening Na⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to Ca<sub>2<sub>+ influx through more slowly opening Ca<sub>2_{+
channels
1
is due to K⁺⁺+ effllux through multiple types of K⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to Na⁺⁺+ effllux through rapidly opening Na⁺⁺+
channels
0
is due to K⁺⁺+ influx through multiple types of K<sup>++}+
channels
#
Note symptoms of complete Heart block.
1
the ventricules beat at a low rate independently of the atrium
0
the ventricules beat at a low rate dependently of the atrium
0
the atrium beat at a low rate dependently of the atrium
0
all the atrium impulses reach the ventricules but the PR interval is abnormally long
0
all the atrium impulses reach the ventricules but the PR interval is abnormally short
#
Explain an origin of QRS complex on an electrocardiogram
0
the atrium depolarize prior to their contraction
0
the atrium repolarize
1
the ventriculus depolarize prior to their contraction
0
the ventriculus repolarize
0
there isn’t right answer
#
What conduction speed of Action potential has Heart across the Purkinje System?
1
about 4 m/s
0
about 2 m/s
0
about 1 m/s
0
about 0,05 m/s
0
about 0,01 m/s
#
The sarcomere of the cardiac muscle has
0
actin
0
Myosin
0
Troponin
0
Tropomyosin
1
All of the above
#
At the sides, the membranes of the adjacent muscle cells fuse together to form gap
junctions. The gap junction is permeable to ions. This facilitates the rapid
conduction of electrical activity from one fiber to another. Thus, because of the gap
junctions, all the muscle fibers act like a single unit called…….
0
Peremizium
1
Syncytium
0
Bundles
0
Branches
0
Pump
#
The resting membrane potential is not stable in the SA node. To start with, the
…… ions leak into the pacemaker fibers and cause slow depolarization. This slow
depolarization forms the initial part of pacemaker potential. Then, the ……
channels start opening. At the beginning, there is a slow influx of …… ions
causing further depolarization in the same slower rate.
0
Sodium, calcium, potassium
0
Potassium, sodium, calcium
1
Sodium, calcium, calcium
0
Calcium, potassium, sodium
0
Sodium, sodium, potassium
#
After depolarization, the repolarization occurs. Repolarization is due to the efflux
of …… ions from the pacemaker fibers.
0
Calcium
0
Sodium
0
Chlorine
1
Potassium
0
All are incorrect
#
Which of the following statements about the heart is false?
1
Contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse
0
Impulses are conducted from one muscle cell to the next
0
The heart contains a number of cells with an unstable membrane potential
0
The heart contains a number of cells with a stable membrane potential
0
The ventricles are inexcitable for most of the contraction period
#
The sinoatrial node is the pacemaker for the heart because the SA node
0
is the most richly enervated structure in the heart
0
is the only structure in the heart capable of generating action potentials
1
has the highest rate of automatic discharge
0
has the most stable transmembrane potential
0
is the cardiac cell least sensitive to catecholamines
#
An independence of the P waves and the QRS complexes of the ECG indicates
1
an early repolarization of ventricular fibers
1
a failure of the AV node to conduct
0
a depression of the sinoatrial node
0
slowing of conduction at the atrioventricular node
0
a conduction block in the left bundle branch
#
The P wave of a normal EKG is associated with
0
the dicrotic notch
0
an increase in atrial pressure
1
atrial contraction
0
ventricular contraction
0
none of the above
#
Which of the following events is represented on the EKG?
0
SA node depolarization
0
AV node depolarization
0
His Bundle depolarization
0
Depolarization of Bachmann's Bundle
1
Atrial muscle depolarization
#
An EKG is recorded with displays no P waves, but a normal appearing QRS and T
wave. The pacemaker most likely is located in the
0
SA node
1
AV node
0
His bundle
0
Purkinje system
0
ventricular muscle
#
The ventricles are depolarized or depolarizing during all of the following EKG
waves except
0
QRS complex
0
QT interval
0
ST segment
1
PR interval
#
The tendency to form edema will be increased by
0
arteriolar constriction
1
increased venous pressure
0
increased plasma protein concentration
0
dehydration
#
If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, which
will most likely occur?
1
The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease
0
Afterload will increase
0
The rate of atrial contraction will decrease
0
Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat
0
All of the above
#
If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect
the appearance of the EKG?
0
PR interval would be smaller
0
QRS interval would be shorter
1
There would be more P waves than QRS complexes
0
There would be more QRS complexes than P waves
0
The T wave would be absent
#
The T Wave on an EKG represents:
0
Ventricular Depolarization
1
Ventricular Repolarization
0
Atrial Depolarization
0
Atrial Repolarization
0
Ventricular Systole
#
In a cardiac muscle cell, the membrane potential increases rapidly...
0
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
1
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when calcium gates open and calcium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
#
In a cardiac muscle cell, the membrane potential begins to decrease...
0
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
1
when calcium gates open and calcium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
#
In a cardiac muscle cell, the membrane potential decreases rapidly...
0
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
1
when potassium gates open and potassium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when the sodium gates open and sodium diffuses out of the cardiac muscle fiber.
0
when calcium gates open and calcium diffuses into the cardiac muscle fiber.
#
through what in the membrane?
0
Tight junctions
0
Protein carriers
1
Gap junctions
0
Desmosomes
#
There are three channels essential for generating an action potential in
autorhythmic cells. Which of the following ion channels have ions that move out
of the cell?
0
Sodium
1
Potassium
0
Fast calcium
0
Chlorine
0
Magnesium
#
The pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an
autorhythmic cell) is caused by decreased efflux of what ion?
0
Calcium
1
Potassium
0
Sodium
0
Chlorine
0
Hydrogenium
#
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels
open, causing further depolarization of the membrane?
0
Sodium
0
Slow calcium
0
Potassium
1
Fast calcium
#
When does the Ventricular ejection Phase begin?
0
Mitral valve is open
0
the AV valves are open
1
the Pulmonary and Aortic valves are open
0
the AV valves are close
0
the Aortic valves are open
#
Release of norepinephrine from nerve fibers causes
0
decreased heart rate and force of contraction
and increased heart rate but decreased force of contraction
0
decreased heart rate and force of contraction
0
increased heart rate but decreased force of contraction
1
increased heart rate and force of contraction
0
decreased heart rate but increased force of contraction
#
Choose the correct description for the first heart sound.
1
the first sound is low; caused by vibrations set up by the sudden closure of the
Mitral and Tricuspid valves at the start of ventricular systole
0
the first sound is high
0
caused by vibrations set up by the sudden closure of the Mitral and tricuspid valves
at the start of ventricular systole
0
the first sound is shorter then second
0
caused by vibrations associated with closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
just after the end of ventricular systole
#
The first heart sound is associated with
0
pulmonary semilunar valves closing
1
both atrioventricular valves closing during ventricular systole
0
pulmonary semilunar and tricuspid valves closing during ventricular diastole
0
aortic semilunar and bicuspid valves closing during ventricular systole
0
both semilunar valves closing during ventricular diastole
#
.... is the electrical activity that stimulates the myocardium of the chambers of the
heart to make them contract.
0
Rapid filling is
0
Slow filling is
0
Systole is
1
Electrical systole is
0
Mechanical systole is
#
This ….. heart sound coincides with peak of 'R' wave in ECG
0
Second
0
Third
1
First
0
Fourth
0
Second and fourth
#
This ….. heart sound coincides with peak of ' T ' wave in ECG
1
Second
0
Third
0
First
0
Fourth
0
Second and fourth
#
This ….. heart sound coincides with peak of ' T ' and 'P' waves in ECG
0
Second
1
Third
0
First
0
Fourth
0
Second and fourth
#
This ….. heart sound coincides with the interval between the end of 'P' wave and
the onset of 'Q' wave.
0
Second
0
Third
0
First
1
Fourth
0
Second and fourth
#
Ventricular systole causes...
0
blood to flow into the ventricles.
0
blood to flow out of the atria.
1
the atrioventricular valves to close, and then the semilunar valves to open.
0
the semilunar valves to close, and then the atrioventricular valves to open.
0
pressure to become greater in the aorta and pulmonary trunk than in the ventricles.
#
When the pressure in the ventricles becomes lower than the pressure in the atria...
0
the ventricles contract.
0
blood flows into the pulmonary trunk.
0
blood flows into the aorta.
1
the atrioventricular valves open.
0
the semilunar valves open.
#
Which phase occurs during early diastole?
1
Isovolumetric relaxation
0
Ventricular systole
0
Isovolumetric contraction
0
Protodiastolic period
#
Aortic pressure is highest during
1
ventricular systole
0
ventricular diastole
0
atrial systole
0
atrial diastole
0
ventricular relaxation
#
More than one answer is correct. Ventricular pressure corresponds to the amount of
blood
1
in the ventricles
0
in the aorta
0
in the atria
0
in the vena cavae
0
pulmonary trunk
#
The stroke volume is closest to
0
75 ml
0
80 ml
0
85 ml
1
90 ml
0
95 ml
#
During ventricular systole:
0
The atria are contracting
1
The AV valves are closed
0
The intraventricular pressure is less than the intraatrial pressure
0
The mitral valve is open
0
Blood is forced into the ligamentum arteriosum
#
Where would you hear a mitral regurgitation?
0
On the right side of the chest over the 2nd intercostal space
1
On the left side of the chest over the apex of the heart.
0
On the left sternal border.
0
Over the tricuspid area
#
Where would you listen to hear pulmonic stenosis?
0
apex of the heart at 4th or 5th intercostal space along the mid clavicular line.
0
3rd to 5th intercostal space along the left sternal border.
0
Along the right sternal border.
1
2nd intercostal space along the left sternal border.
#
Which of these would be heard while auscultating the right side of the chest?
1
Aortic regurgitation
0
Ventricular septal defect
0
Mitral regurgitation
0
Pulmonic stenosis
#
Aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aorta) would cause which of the following?
1
a decrease in stroke volume
0
a decrease in atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion
0
a decrease in heart rate
0
a decrease in central venous pressure
0
no change in peak ventricular pressure
#
The cardiac cycle is regulated by the
0
spinal cord
0
cerebrum
0
thalamus
1
medulla oblongata
0
occipital lobe of cortex
#
Choose the correct answer. The Mitral valve……and Tricuspid valve …....in the
start of ventricular systole
0
Mitral valve is open; Tricuspid valve is open
0
Mitral valve is close; Tricuspid valve is open
0
Mitral valve is open; Tricuspid valve is close
1
Mitral valve is close; Tricuspid valve is close
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Internally, the right and left halves of the heart are separated by the
0
pulmonary semilunar valve
0
atrioventricular valve
0
A and B
0
papillary muscles
1
interatrial and interventricular septa
#
How long can Protodiastole period last in Cardiac Cycle?
0
about 5s
0
about 1s
1
about 0,04s
0
about 0,20s
0
about 0,08s
#
Tension in the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles during ventricular systole
prevent
0
contraction of the atria
0
blood flow into the great arteries
1
eversion of the AV valves
0
closing of the valves
0
contraction of the ventricle
#
When does the Period of isovolumic ventricular relaxation complete?
1
the ventricular pressure falls below the atrial pressure and AV valves open
0
the AV valves are open
0
the ventricular pressure is more then the atrial pressure
0
the Aortic valves are open
#
The closing of the semilunar valves
0
directs blood flow into the atria
1
produces the second heart sound
0
corresponds with atrial systole
0
produces the EKG P wave
0
produces the EKG T wave
#
Choose the correct description for the second heart sound characteristic.
0
the second sound is low
0
the second sound is high
0
caused by vibrations set up by the sudden closure of the Mitral and Tricuspid
valves at the start of
the second sound is shorter then first;…caused by vibrations associated with
closure of the aortic and ventricular systole
1
pulmonary valves just after the end of ventricular systole
0
caused by vibrations associated with closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
just after the end of ventricular systole
#
When the ventricles relax
1
the semilunar valves close
0
the EKG shows a QRS spike
0
blood is forced into the ventricles
0
coronary circulation slows
0
coronary circulation increase
#
The right atrium receives blood directly from 3 vessels. They are the
0
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and left internal jugular vein
1
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
0
superior vena cava, coronary sinus, and left internal jugular vein
0
coronary sinus, left internal jugular vein, and thoracic duct
0
coronary sinus
#
All the following statements are true concerning Poiseuille's Law EXCEPT
0
Flow is directly proportional to the pressure gradient
1
Flow is inversely proportional to radius to the fourth power
0
Flow is inversely proportional to viscosity
0
Flow is inversely proportional to tube length
#
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning resistance to flow
0
For vessels arranged in parallel, the individual resistance's are less than the total
resistance of the system
0
For vessels arranged in series, the total resistance is determined by summing the
reciprocals of the individual resistance's
0
An increase in hematocrit would decrease resistance to flow
1
The greatest resistance to flow in the cardiovascular system can occur in the
arterioles due to their thick muscle coat.
0
Flow is directly proportional to resistance
#
In polycythemia, the increase in red blood cell production will result in which of
the following:
0
flow is increased
0
resistance to flow would decrease
0
decrease in heart work
1
Reynold's number will decrease
0
viscosity is reduced
#
An individual with a blood pressure of 140/90:
1
has a pulse pressure of 50 mm Hg
0
has a mean arterial pressure of 140 mm Hg
0
systolic pressure has not been determined
0
has a diastolic pressure of 140 mm Hg
0
has a heart rate of 100 beats per minute
#
Venous return in exercise, would be increased by:
0
increased sympathetic nerve activity
0
increase heart rate
0
increased respiration
0
increased muscle activity
1
all of the above
#
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
0
The Law of Laplace relates wall tension, transmural pressure and vessel radius
0
Critical closing pressure is the pressure at which flow ceases
1
Critical closing pressure is not related to vessel radius
0
The Law of Laplace explains the rupture of aortic aneurysms with increased
arterial pressure
#
Resistance vessels have more ______ than similar sized capacitance vessels
1
smooth muscle
0
elastic tissue
0
endothelial cells
0
compliance
0
valves
#
Which of the following statements are correct?
0
a change in arterial compliance will result in a change in mean arterial pressure
0
pulse pressure increases with a decrease in compliance
0
pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure can change independently of each other
1
only b and c are correct
0
all of the above are correct
#
Which of the following statements is correct?
0
systolic pressure is the pressure attained at the peak of ventricular systole
0
mean arterial pressure is the difference between the highest and lowest aortic
pressures during one cardiac cycle
1
the dicrotic notch is due to closing of the mitral valve
0
diastolic pressure is decreased by an increase in heart rate
0
pulse pressure is determined by measuring the area under the curve and dividing by
the time interval
#
Which of the following is TRUE concerning capillaries?
0
at rest, all capillaries of a tissue are open
1
discontinuous capillaries allow cells to pass out of them
0
Fenestrated capillaries allow cells to pass out of them
0
pressures at the venous ends are greater than those at the arterial end of capillaries
0
precapillary sphincters control blood flow into venules
#
Which of the following are correct concerning the driving forces for filtration?
0
capillary hydrostatic pressure is directly proportional to arterial resistance
1
capillary hydrostatic pressure generally decreases along the length of the capillary
0
interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure is decreased in edema
0
capillary oncotic pressure is primarily determined by venous pressures
0
interstitial colloid osmotic pressure is a force that favors absorption
#
Edema results from a decrease in:
0
iltration
0
interstitial oncotic pressure
1
plasma oncotic pressure
0
capillary permeability
#
Capillary hydrostatic pressure is increased by:
0
decrease in venous pressure
0
decrease in arterial pressure
0
increased arterial resistance
1
increased venous resistance
#
Which of the following statements is true?
0
Endothelium-derived relaxing factor produces an initial vasodilation followed by a
long lasting vasoconstriction
0
In general, arterial ends are more permeable than venous ends of capillaries
0
All capillaries have the same permeability
0
All capillaries have discontinuous endothelium
0
Capillary oncotic pressure is defined by the van Hoff equation
#
Diffusion will decrease if there is an increase in
1
Thickness of the membrane
0
Surface area
0
Concentration of the molecule in blood compared to interstitial fluid
0
All of the above
0
None of the above
#
Lymph flow is increased by all of the following EXCEPT:
0
elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure
1
plasma protein concentration
0
elevated interstitial fluid protein concentration
0
histamine
0
exercise
#
The venous system can act as a reservoir for peripheral blood chiefly because of
the:
a. low compliance of veins
0
absence of smooth muscle layer in veins
0
superficial location of veins
1
large volume capacity of veins
0
low O2 saturation in veins
#
Venous return is increased by which of the following:
0
increase in intrathoracic pressure
0
Valsava maneuver
0
coughing
1
keletal muscle activity
0
centrifugal force
#
Coronary blood flow is increased by all of the following EXCEPT:
0
cardiac sympathetic nerve stimulation
0
adenosine
0
increased metabolic activity
1
increased myocardial wall tension
0
ncreased aortic pressure
#
Mean circulatory pressure is increased by:
0
increased arterial resistance
0
decreased arterial resistance
1
increased blood volume
0
decreased blood volume
0
all of the above
Which of the following locations has the largest sum cross-sectional area and thus
thelowest mean linear velocity (Velocity = Flow / Area or Flow = Velocity *
Area)?
0
Arteries
0
Arterioles
1
Capillaries
0
Venules
0
Veins
#
In which of the following locations does pressure decrease the most (dP/dt) due to
ahigh elastic modulus (dP/ddiameter)?
0
Arteries
1
Arterioles
0
Capillaries
0
Venules
0
Veins
#
Which of the following does NOT change in each segment of the circulatory
system?
0
Velocity
1
Flow
0
Area
0
Amount of oxygen
0
Compliance (dV/dP)
#
Which group of blood vessels contains the greatest percentage of the total blood
volume?
0
Arteries because they have the largest diameter
0
Capillaries because they have the greatest total cross-sectional area
0
Arterioles because they have the highest resistance
1
Veins because they are the most distensible
#
Arteriosclerosis (“hardening” of the arteries) would most likely cause:
1
Decreased compliance and increased palpable pulse pressure
0
Decreased compliance and decreased palpable pulse pressure
0
Increased compliance and increased palpable pulse pressure
0
Increased compliance and decreased palpable pulse pressure
#
What component of arterioles is most responsible for regulating capillary
hydrostatic pressure and delivery of nutrients to the tissue?
0
Location in body
0
Compliance
0
Number of branches
0
Length
1
Diameter
#
Regulatory factors of arterioles include sympathetic stimulation, which
causesvasoconstriction, and pre-capillary sphincters, which occlude flow. These
factors andothers are important as dilation and filling of all vessels would require:
0
1 liter of blood
0
3 liters of blood
0
5 liters of blood
0
15 liters of blood
1
30 liters of blood
#
Exchange of nutrients and waste products can occur at:
0
Arterioles
0
Venules
1
Capillaries
0
A&C
0
B&C
#
A patient presents with burns that breaks down fenestrae within the capillaries.
Whichof the following would most likely occur?
0
Tissue ischemia
0
Tissue hypoxia
1
Tissue edema
0
Arteriole backflow
0
Venous insufficiency
#
10Which of the following is NOT correct regarding percent of total blood volume?
0
Veins contain about 55%
0
Venules contain about 5%
0
Pulmonary circulation contains about 10%
1
Arteries contain about 25%
0
Capillaries and arterioles contain <10%
#
Normally, blood leaving the right ventricle immediately flows through the:
0
tricuspid atrioventricular valve
0
bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
0
ileocecal valve
1
pulmonary semilunar valve
0
aortic semilunar valve
#
Blood leaving the left atrium normally immediately flows through the:
0
tricuspid atrioventricular valve
1
bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
0
ileocecal valve
0
pulmonary semilunar valve
0
aortic semilunar valve
#
Deoxygenated blood is normally found only:
0
in the heart’s atria
0
in the heart’s ventricles
1
in the right side of the heart
0
in the left side of the heart
#
Closing of the _______ normally prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle:
0
tricuspid atrioventricular valve
0
bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
0
ileocecal valve
0
pulmonary semilunar valve
1
aortic semilunar valve
#
Closing of the _______ normally prevents backflow of blood into the right
ventricle:
0
tricuspid atrioventricular valve
0
bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
0
ileocecal valve
1
pulmonary semilunar valve
0
aortic semilunar valve
#
The influence of a blood vessel’s diameter on peripheral resistance is:
0
minimal since the diameter of a blood vessel’s lumen only has a minor affect on
peripheral resistance
1
very large since peripheral resistance is directly influenced by the diameter of a
blood vessel’s lumen
0
very small since the diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel does not vary
0
very large since the greater the diameter of the lumen of a blood vessel, the greater
amount of peripheral resistance will be present
#
When evaluating the dynamics of capillary blood flow, capillary blood hydrostatic
pressure:
0
does not play a role
1
is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than its venous end
0
forces fluid from the interstitial spaces into the capillary
0
is usually equal to and canceled out by capillary blood osmotic pressure
#
Which of the following structures are directly involved in the "pulmonary circuit"?
0
superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle
1
right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium
0
left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava
0
right atrium, aorta and left ventricle
#
Which of the following structures are directly involved in the "systemic circuit"?
0
superior vena cava, right ventricle and left ventricle
0
right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium
1
left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava
0
right atrium, pulmonary trunk and left ventricle
#
Blood transported by the pulmonary veins returns to the
1
left atrium.
0
right atrium.
0
right ventricle.
0
left ventricle.
#
The valve between the left ventricle and the blood vessel leaving the left ventricle
is the
0
bicuspid valve.
0
tricuspid valve.
0
pulmonary semilunar valve.
1
aortic semilunar valve.
#
The valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the
1
valve.
0
bicuspid valve.
0
mitral valve.
0
semilunar valve.
#
Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called
1
arteries.
0
veins.
0
capillaries.
0
All of the above.
#
The smallest type of blood vessels are
0
arteries.
0
arterioles.
0
venules.
1
capillaries.
#
Blood pressure is highest in the
1
arteries.
0
arterioles.
0
veins.
0
capillaries.
#
Which of the following increase(s) blood pressure?
0
increased cardiac rate
0
increased peripheral resistance
0
increased blood volume
1
All of the above.
#
The pulse is a direct reflection of the
0
cardiac output.
0
blood pressure.
0
venous return.
1
heart beat.
#
Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the _____ valve
1
tricuspid
0
aortic semilunar
0
bicuspid
0
pulmonary semilunar
0
carotid sinus
#
Choose the “capacitance vessels”?
0
an Aorta
0
an Arteria
0
an Arteriola
0
a Capillar
1
a Vein
#
What is the cardiac output of a patient with a stroke volume of 70 mL/ventricular
contraction whose pulse is 90 beats/minute?
0
70 mL/minute
0
90 mL/minute
0
100 mL/minute
0
160 mL/minute
1
6300 mL/minute
#
What kind of pulse pressure can you examine in healthy young man?
1
about 50 mm Hg
0
about 40 mm Hg
0
about 30 mm Hg
0
about 20 mm Hg
0
about 15 mm Hg
#
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that
1
the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole directly affects the force
of contraction at systole
0
a reduction in body temperature results in lowered heart rate
0
each period of systole must be followed by an equal period of diastole
0
the presence of positive inotropic substances increases myocardial contractility
0
each period of systole must be followed by an equal period of diastole and the
presence of positive inotropic substances increases myocardial contractility
#
Which of the following is a benefit of regular aerobic training?
0
decreased cardiac output at rest
1
increased maximal cardiac output during strenuous exercise
0
decreased stroke volume at rest
0
decreased size but increased efficiency of the heart
0
All are incorrect
#
…is the volume of blood being pumped by the heart, in particular by a ventricle in
a minute.
0
Blood pressure
0
Arterial pressure
1
Cardiac output
0
Venous output
0
Arterial output
#
… is regulated not only by the heart as it pumps, but also by the function of the
vessels of the body as they actively relax and contract thereby increasing and
decreasing the resistance to flow.
0
Blood pressure
0
Arterial pressure
1
Cardiac output
0
Venous output
0
Arterial output
#
The amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute is …..
1
Minute Volume
0
The stroke volume
0
Cardiac output
0
Venous output
0
Arterial output
#
Any mechanism that increases heart rate is said to have a positive ____ effect.
0
dromotropic
1
chronotropic
0
inotropic
0
Cholinergic
0
bathmotropic
#
Stroke volume is regulated by all of the following except
0
end-diastolic volume.
1
cardiac output.
0
contractility.
0
peripheral resistance.
0
venous return
#
The Frank-Starling law of the heart describes the proportional relationship between
0
stroke volume and cardiac output.
1
stroke volume and preload.
0
volume is and total peripheral resistance.
0
the left and right ventricles.
0
stroke volume and afterload.
#
A positive inotropic agent is something that
0
reduces the heart rate in positive feedback loop.
0
increases the heart rate in positive feedback loop.
1
increases the contractility of myocardial fibers.
0
decreases the contractility of myocardial fibers.
0
decreases of heart rate.
#
Parasympathetic nerve fibers
0
are carried to the heart through the Accessory nerve (XI).
1
extend to terminal ganglia within the wall of the heart.
0
release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
0
if stimulated, result in an increased heart rate.
0
if stimulated, greatly increase stroke volume.
#
Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart
0
increases the force of ventricular contraction.
0
opens a larger number of calcium slow channels.
0
increases the heart rate.
0
increases cardiac output.
1
all of these
#
Functionally, the bronchi are considered to be part of the _____ portion of the
respiratory system … .
0
upper
0
lower
1
conducting
0
respiratory
0
expiratory
#
How many ml of air are there in the total lung capacity at healthy adult?
0
about 5000ml
1
about 5800 ml
0
about 3700 ml
0
about 3500 ml
0
about 2000 ml
#
When the diaphragm lowers during breathing … .
0
alveolar pressure increases
1
volume in the thoracic cavity increases
0
external intercostal muscles relax
0
pleural cavity decreases in size
0
internal intercostal muscles relax
#
How many O2 per minute does Blood get in the pulmonary capillaries by simple
diffusion?
0
about 500ml
0
about 400 ml
0
about 300 ml
1
about 250 ml
0
about 200 ml
#
Where’s a right answer? The vital capacity equals … .
0
the expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume
0
the tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
1
the inspiratory reserve volume plus the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve
volume
0
the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve volume
0
the expiratory reserve volume minus the tidal volume
#
How many ml of air are there in inspiratory capacity at healthy adult?
0
about 5000ml
0
about 5800 ml
0
about 3700 ml
1
about 3500 ml
0
about 2000 ml
#
Surface tension of the alveolar fluid is reduced by the presence of … .
0
serotonin
0
histamine
0
hyaline cartilage rings
1
surfactant
0
adrenaline
#
During inspiration the muscular fibres of the diaphragm contract and its cupula
becomes flatter and descends, displacing the abdominal organs downward, to the
sides, and forward; the volume of the thoracic cavity is, ………….especially in the
………..direction.
0
decreased, vertical
0
increased, horizontal
0
decreased, horizontal
1
increased ,vertical
0
all are incorrect
#
During expiration the muscular fibres of the diaphragm relax and the volume of the
thoracic cavity is, ………….especially in the ………..direction.
1
decreased, vertical
0
increased, horizontal
0
decreased, horizontal
0
increased ,vertical
0
all are incorrect
#
During expiration, the volume of the thorax __________ as the diaphragm
__________ .
0
decreases, contracts
1
decreases, relaxes
0
increases, contracts
0
increases, relaxes
#
Lung recoil occurs because of elastic fibers in the alveolar walls and
0
barometric pressure
0
pleural pressure
1
surface tension of the fluid that lines the alveoli
0
surfactant secretion in the alveoli
0
the pneumothorax principle
#
Surfactant
1
reduces surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
0
increases pleural pressure
0
decreases alveolar pressure
0
makes inspiration more difficult
0
can cause a pneumothorax
#
If a pneumothorax occurs, pleural pressure and alveolar pressure become
__________ barometric pressure.
1
equal to
0
greater than
0
less than
0
unaffected
#
At the end of normal inspiration, which of these pressures is the most negative?
0
alveolar
0
barometric
0
partial
1
pleural
0
tracheal
#
Which of these conditions produces increased compliance of the lungs?
0
airway obstruction
1
emphysema
0
fibrosis of lungs
0
pulmonary edema
0
all of these
#
Which of these lung volumes/capacities is the largest?
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
inspiratory reserve volume
0
residual volume
0
tidal volume
0
vital capacity
#
If a person's vital capacity is 4000mL, her expiratory reserve volume is 1000mL,
and her inspiratory reserve volume is 2500mL, and her tidal volume is
0
3500mL
0
3000mL
0
1500mL
0
1000mL
1
500mL
#
Which of the following organs of the Lower Respiratory Track is involved in gas
exchange … .
0
larynx
0
trachea
0
bronchial tubes
0
bronchioles
1
alveolar Sacs
#
The major cell type in the Alveolar Sacs that remover particulate material and
bacteria
0
pneumocyte Type I
1
pneumocyte Type II
0
dust cells
0
macrophages
0
red blood cells
#
Compliance is the
0
degree of contraction of the Diaphragm
1
ability to expand and compress soft lung tissue
0
condition of the Intercostal Muscles
0
effect of fluid in the Pleural cavity
0
ability to contract lung tissue
#
Tidal volume of 27 years old woman is 450ml. The dead space volume is 150 ml.
The rate of breathing is 13 per minute. What is the alveolar ventilation?
1
3900 ml/min
0
4100 ml/min
0
1500 ml/min
0
3200 ml/min
0
3400 ml/min
#
During an experiment quiet inspiration is studied. How does intrapleural and
intraalveolar pressure change during inspiration?
1
negativity of intrapleural pressure increases, intraalveolar pressure decreases
0
negativity of intrapleural pressure decreases, intraalveolar pressure decreases
0
intrapleural and intraalveolar pressure increases
0
intrapleural and intraalveolar pressure and does not change
0
intrapleural and intraalveolar pressure equals zero
#
Where’s a right answer? The functional residual capacity equals ……
1
the expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume
0
the tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume plus the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve
volume
0
the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve volume
0
the expiratory reserve volume minus the tidal volume
#
We hold our breath by closing off the opening of the larynx using the
1
ventricular folds (false vocal cords)
0
vocal folds (true vocal cords)
0
epiglottis
0
soft palate
0
soft palate and epiglottis
#
What kind of physiological effects do Bronchial muscle and glands react to
activation of alpha1 – adrenergic receptors?
0
bronchial muscle is contraction
0
bronchial muscle is relaxation
0
bronchial glands are stimulation
1
bronchial glands are inhibition
0
bronchial muscle is relaxation but Bronchial glands are inhibition
#
When the diaphragm lowers during breathing
0
alveolar pressure increases
1
volume in the thoracic cavity increases
0
external intercostal muscles relax
0
pleural cavity decreases in size
0
internal intercostal muscles relax
#
How many times does healthy adult breath in a minute, at rest?
0
about 5 - 6 times a minute
0
about 7 - 8 times a minute
0
about 9 -1 0 times a minute
1
about 12 – 15 times a minute
0
about 18 – 20 times a minute
#
During internal and external respiration, gases move by
0
osmosis
0
active transport
0
endocytosis
0
pinocytosis
1
diffusion
#
Epithelial cells of the respiratory tract are ciliated. The function of the cilia is to
0
trap incoming bacteria and debris
0
secrete mucus
1
move mucus toward the pharynx
0
respond to olfactory stimuli
0
respond to tasty stimuli
#
Where’s a right answer? The vital capacity equals ……
0
the expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume
0
the tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
1
the inspiratory reserve volume plus the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve
volume
0
the tidal volume plus the expiratory reserve volume
0
the expiratory reserve volume minus the tidal volume
#
Lung compliance is affected mainly by the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs and
the
0
thickness of cartilage in the trachea
1
amount of surfactant
0
partial pressure of oxygen in inhaled air
0
diameter of the bronchioles
0
diameter of the trachea
How many mm /Hg of oxygen partial pressure are there in pulmonary capillaries at
healthy adult?
0
about 10 mm Hg
0
about 25 mm Hg
1
about 40 mm Hg
0
about 60 mm Hg
0
about 100 mm Hg
#
Carbon dioxide binds to the globin portion of hemoglobin to form
0
oxyhemoglobin
0
carbonic anhydrase
0
hemoglobin
0
myoglobin
1
carbaminohemoglobin
#
How many mm Hg carbon dioxide partial pressure are there in alveolar air at
healthy adult?
0
about 30 mm Hg
0
about 38 mm Hg
1
about 40 mm Hg
0
about 46 mm Hg
0
about 51 mm Hg
#
As blood enters the systemic capillaries
1
PO₂ is high in the blood and low in the tissues
0
PO₂ is low in the blood and high in the tissues
0
PCO₂ is high in the blood and low in the tissues
0
PCO₂ is high in the blood and high in the tissues
0
all answers are incorrect
#
When oxygen combines with heme, what is formed?
0
hemoglobin
0
carbaminohemoglobin
0
carbonic acid
1
oxyhemoglobin
0
myoglobin
#
Tidal volume is
0
the amount of air that can be forced from the lungs after normal exhalation
1
the volume of air in one breathe during normal relaxed breathing
0
about 5,800 mL
0
about 3,000 mL
0
about 5,700 mL
#
The amount of oxygen that can combine with heme is determined mainly by the
0
systolic blood pressure
0
concentration of hydrogen ions
0
concentration of carbonic anhydrase
1
partial pressure of oxygen
0
all answers are incorrect
#
How many mm /Hg of oxygen partial pressure are there in alveolar air at healthy
adult?
0
about 500 mm Hg
0
about 400 mm Hg
0
about 300 mm Hg
0
about 200 mm Hg
1
about 100 mm Hg
#
During inspiration
1
alveolar pressure decreases
0
the thoracic cavity decreases in size
0
external intercostal muscles pull ribs down and in
0
posterior intercostal muscles contract
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Internal respiration occurs
0
between atmosphere and blood
1
between systemic capillaries and tissue cells
0
in bronchi and trachea
0
in the lungs
0
in bronchi
#
Where’s a right answer? In the lower portions of the lungs alveolar pressure is
…….and blood flow is determined by the……….
0
alveolar pressure is lower than the pressure in all parts of the pulmonary circulation
0
alveolar pressure is above than the pressure in all parts of the pulmonary
circulation
0
blood flow is determined by the arterial –venous pressure difference
1
A and C
0
blood flow is determined by the arterial –alveolar pressure difference
#
The amount of oxygen released by the hemoglobin molecules in the blood to the
tissues
0
decreases as Parcial pressure carbon dioxyde increases
0
decreases as temperature increases
1
increases as blood pH decreases (acidity increases)
0
increases as Parcial pressure carbon dioxyde decreases
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Most carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
0
as carbonic anhydrase
0
as dissolved carbon dioxide gas
1
as part of a bicarbonate ion
0
bound to hemoglobin
0
bound to myoglobin
#
In the lungs
0
PCO₂ is high in the alveoli and low in the capillaries
1
PCO₂ is low in the alveoli and high in the capillaries
0
PO₂ is low in the alveoli and high in the capillaries
0
PO₂ is low in the alveoli and low in the capillaries
0
all answers are incorrect
#
An additional amount of air that can be inspired forcefully after the end of normal
inspiration beyond tidal volume is called the …………….Normal Value is 3300
ml (3.3 liters).
0
as the tidal volume
1
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
0
Functional residual capacity
#
Some amount of air always remains in the lungs even after the forced expiration.
The amount of air remaining in the lungs even after forced expiration is called
………..
0
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
1
Residual volume
#
This volume helps to aerate the blood in between breathing and during expiration
and maintains the contour of the lungs.Normal Value is 1200 ml (1.2 liter)
0
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
1
Residual volume
#
This is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after normal expiration (after
normal tidal expiration).
1
Functional residual capacity
0
the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
#
The surfactant is secreted by ………
0
Pneumocytes
0
Clara cells
0
B-lymfocytes
1
Pneumocytes and Clara cells
0
all are incorrect
#
If the total pressure of a gas is 700 mm Hg and its composition is 20% oxygen,
0.03% carbon dioxide, 75% nitrogen, and 5% water vapor, the partial pressure of
oxygen is
0
15 mm Hg.
0
20 mm Hg.
0
105 mm Hg.
1
140 mm Hg.
0
1600 mm Hg.
#
In which of these areas is the partial pressure of oxygen normally the greatest?
1
inspired air
0
alveolar air
0
expired air
0
pulmonary capillaries
0
tissue capillaries
#
Which of these conditions causes a decreased rate of diffusion through the
respiratory membrane?
0
increased fluid in the lungs
0
decreased diffusion coefficient
0
decreased respiratory surface area
0
decreased partial pressure gradient
1
all of these
#
Oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and
out of cells by the process of
0
active transport.
0
cotransport.
1
diffusion.
0
exocytosis.
0
facilitated diffusion.
#
Most carbon dioxide is transported as __________ in the blood.
1
bicarbonate ions
0
carbamino compounds (including carbaminohemoglobin)
0
dissolved in plasma
0
carbon monoxide
0
carbonic acid
#
Hemoglobin is red because the heme unit contains
0
zinc
1
iron
0
magnesium
0
hydrogenium
0
bicarbonate
#
Hemoglobin Saturation depends on all the following EXCEPT
0
Partial pressure of oxygen
0
atmospheric pressure
1
Plasma protein concentration pH
0
body temperature
0
partial pressure of carbon dioxide
#
Carbon dioxide is transported mostly as
0
bound to Hb in the red blood cell
0
free carbon dioxide in solution in the plasma
1
bicarbonate into the plasma
0
dissolved form
0
carbamino compounds
#
Which of the following is NOT true about Carbon dioxide transport
0
about 7% is transported in solution
0
about 25% bonded to Hb (carbaminohemoglobin) in the red blood cell
1
100% is transported in solution the red blood cell
0
about 68% is in solution as bicarbonate in the plasma
0
about 22% is transported in solution
#
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme in the RBC that
0
reacts with hemoglobin so it can bind with carbon dioxide
0
blocks the carbon dioxide from reacting with water
1
promotes water and carbon dioxide reaction into carbonic acid
0
decreases oxygen loss from hemoglobin
0
decreases carbon dioxide loss from hemoglobin
#
In respiration the Chloride Shift refers to
0
exchange of Chloride ion between the air in the alveolus and the dust cell
1
exchange of bicarbonate and Chloride ion between the RBC and the plasma
0
the chloride ion in Cystic Fibrosis that affects mucus secretion
0
exchange of carbon dioxide and Chloride ion between the RBC and the plasma
0
exchange of Chloride ion between the air in the tissue cell
#
#
What is the normal range for arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO₂)
when doing anarterial blood gas (ABG)?
0
40-60mmHg
0
60-80mmHg
1
80-100mmHg
0
100-120mmHg
0
120-140mmHg
#
What is the normal range for arterial blood carbon dioxide tension
(PaCO₂) whendoing an arterial blood gas (ABG)?
0
15-25mmHg
0
35-45mmHg
0
55-65mmHg
0
75-85mmHg
0
95-105mmHg
#
What is the normal range for arterial bicarbonate (HCO^3-) when
doing an arterial blood gas (ABG)?
1
21-28mmol/L
0
35-42mmol/L
0
49-56mmol/L
0
63-71mmol/L
0
77-85mmol/L
How many mm /Hg of oxygen partial pressure are there in pulmonary capillaries at
healthy adult?
0
about 10 mm Hg
0
about 25 mm Hg
1
about 40 mm Hg
0
about 60 mm Hg
0
about 100 mm Hg
#
Carbon dioxide binds to the globin portion of hemoglobin to form
0
oxyhemoglobin
0
carbonic anhydrase
0
hemoglobin
0
myoglobin
1
carbaminohemoglobin
#
How many mm Hg carbon dioxide partial pressure are there in alveolar air at
healthy adult?
0
about 30 mm Hg
0
about 38 mm Hg
1
about 40 mm Hg
0
about 46 mm Hg
0
about 51 mm Hg
#
Tidal volume is
0
the amount of air that can be forced from the lungs after normal exhalation
1
the volume of air in one breathe during normal relaxed breathing
0
about 5,800 mL
0
about 3,000 mL
0
about 5,700 mL
#
When can the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the left?
1
when temperature fell, when pH increased
0
when temperature fell
0
when pH increased
0
when pH fell
0
when concentration of 2,3-biphosphoglycerat increased
#
The amount of oxygen that can combine with heme is determined mainly by the
0
systolic blood pressure
0
concentration of hydrogen ions
0
concentration of carbonic anhydrase
1
partial pressure of oxygen
0
all answers are incorrect
#
How many mm /Hg of oxygen partial pressure are there in alveolar air at healthy
adult?
0
about 500 mm Hg
0
about 400 mm Hg
0
about 300 mm Hg
0
about 200 mm Hg
1
about 100 mm Hg
#
During inspiration
1
alveolar pressure decreases
0
the thoracic cavity decreases in size
0
external intercostal muscles pull ribs down and in
0
posterior intercostal muscles contract
0
all answers are incorrect
#
How many mm /Hg of carbon dioxide partial pressure are there in venous blood of
Lungs?
0
about 30 mm Hg
0
about 38 mm Hg
0
about 40 mm Hg
1
about 46 mm Hg
0
about 51 mm Hg
#
Where’s a right answer? In the lower portions of the lungs alveolar pressure is
…….and blood flow is determined by the……….
0
alveolar pressure is lower than the pressure in all parts of the pulmonary circulation
0
alveolar pressure is above than the pressure in all parts of the pulmonary
circulation
0
blood flow is determined by the arterial –venous pressure difference
1
A and C
0
blood flow is determined by the arterial –alveolar pressure difference
#
The amount of oxygen released by the hemoglobin molecules in the blood to the
tissues
0
decreases as Parcial pressure carbon dioxyde increases
0
decreases as temperature increases
1
increases as blood pH decreases (acidity increases)
0
increases as Parcial pressure carbon dioxyde decreases
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Most carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
0
as carbonic anhydrase
0
as dissolved carbon dioxide gas
1
as part of a bicarbonate ion
0
bound to hemoglobin
0
bound to myoglobin
#
At rest, man inspires and expires about 500 millilitres (300 to 600) of air, an
amount known
1
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
0
Functional residual capacity
#
An additional amount of air that can be inspired forcefully after the end of normal
inspiration beyond tidal volume is called the …………….Normal Value is 3300
ml (3.3 liters).
0
as the tidal volume
1
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
0
Functional residual capacity
#
The additional amount of air that can be expired out forcefully, after normal
expiration is called the …………Normal Value is 1000 ml (1 liter).
0
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
1
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
0
Functional residual capacity
#
Some amount of air always remains in the lungs even after the forced expiration.
The amount of air remaining in the lungs even after forced expiration is called
………..
0
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
1
Residual volume
#
This volume helps to aerate the blood in between breathing and during expiration
and maintains the contour of the lungs.Normal Value is 1200 ml (1.2 liter)
0
as the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
1
Residual volume
#
Inspiratory capacity includes ………. and ………..
1
Tidal volume and Inspiratory reserve volume
0
the tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume and dead space
0
Total lung capacity and dead space
#
This is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after normal expiration (after
normal tidal expiration).
1
Functional residual capacity
0
the tidal volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
Total lung capacity
#
Air fills not only the alveoli, but also the air passages (larynx, trachea, bronchi, and
bronchioles). The air in the air passages does not take part in respiratory exchange,
and for that reason is known as the……
0
Tidal volume
0
expiratory reserve volume
0
the inspiratory reserve volume
1
dead space
0
Total lung capacity
#
What does the reason for oxygen easily enter in the alveoli from atmospheric air?
1
Because of the pressure gradient of 55 mm Hg
0
Oxygen can’t to enters in the alveoli from atmospheric air
0
Because of the pressure gradient decreased
0
All are incorrect
#
The surfactant is secreted by ………
0
Pneumocytes
0
Clara cells
0
B-lymfocytes
1
Pneumocytes and Clara cells
0
all are incorrect
#
If the total pressure of a gas is 700 mm Hg and its composition is 20% oxygen,
0.03% carbon dioxide, 75% nitrogen, and 5% water vapor, the partial pressure of
oxygen is
0
15 mm Hg.
0
20 mm Hg.
0
105 mm Hg.
1
140 mm Hg.
0
1600 mm Hg.
#
In which of these areas is the partial pressure of oxygen normally the greatest?
1
inspired air
0
alveolar air
0
expired air
0
pulmonary capillaries
0
tissue capillaries
#
Most carbon dioxide is transported as __________ in the blood.
1
bicarbonate ions
0
carbamino compounds (including carbaminohemoglobin)
0
dissolved in plasma
0
carbon monoxide
0
carbonic acid
#
Hemoglobin Saturation depends on all the following EXCEPT
0
Partial pressure of oxygen
0
atmospheric pressure
1
Plasma protein concentration pH
0
body temperature
0
partial pressure of carbon dioxide
#
Carbon dioxide is transported mostly as
0
bound to Hb in the red blood cell
0
free carbon dioxide in solution in the plasma
1
bicarbonate into the plasma
0
dissolved form
0
carbamino compounds
#
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme in the RBC that
0
reacts with hemoglobin so it can bind with carbon dioxide
0
blocks the carbon dioxide from reacting with water
1
promotes water and carbon dioxide reaction into carbonic acid
0
decreases oxygen loss from hemoglobin
0
decreases carbon dioxide loss from hemoglobin
#
In respiration the Chloride Shift refers to
0
exchange of Chloride ion between the air in the alveolus and the dust cell
1
exchange of bicarbonate and Chloride ion between the RBC and the plasma
0
the chloride ion in Cystic Fibrosis that affects mucus secretion
0
exchange of carbon dioxide and Chloride ion between the RBC and the plasma
0
exchange of Chloride ion between the air in the tissue cell
#
#
What is the normal range for arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO₂)
when doing anarterial blood gas (ABG)?
0
40-60mmHg
0
60-80mmHg
1
80-100mmHg
0
100-120mmHg
0
120-140mmHg
#
What is the partial pressure of atmospheric nitrogen (0.79% N₂)?
0
760mmHg
1
600mmHg
0
563mmHg
0
160mmHg
0
150mmHg
#
An increase in __________ will stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors to initiate
respiration.
1
P О₂
0
РСО₂
0
Hemoglobin
0
Ca₂₊
0
H₊
#
When carbon dioxide binds to water, __________ are produced.
1
hydrogen ions
0
chloride ions
0
oxygen molecules
0
Ca₂₊
0
Na₂₊
#
Chemoreceptor inputs travel directly to the __________.
0
respiratory muscles
1
brainstem
0
blood
0
All answers are correct.
#
The respiratory centers that control the basic rhythm of breathing are located in the
1
pons and medulla.
0
cerebral cortex.
0
hypothalamus.
0
cerebellum.
#
When the inspiratory neurons fire, the nerve impulse travels along
1
the left and right phrenic nerves to the diaphragm.
0
the spinal accessory nerve to the trapezius muscle.
0
the vagus nerve to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
0
the intercostal nerves to the internal intercostals muscles.
#
Which statement is FALSE?
0
Nervous input to the inspiratory muscles results in automatic and rhythmic
breathing.
0
The nerve impulses to the inspiratory respiratory muscles continue for about 2
seconds.
0
The neurons stop firing for about 3 seconds, allowing the inspiratory muscles to
relax.
1
Nervous input is required for expiration.
#
The basic rhythm of breathing
0
cannot be modified by the nervous system.
0
All answers are correct.
0
occurs every 10 seconds regardless of other factors.
1
is established by the respiratory centers located in the medulla and pons.
#
Central chemoreceptors
0
All answers are correct.
1
synapse directly with the respiratory centers.
0
are located in the aortic arch and common carotid arteries.
0
monitor partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
#
Hydrogen ions
1
increase when the concentration of carbon dioxide increases.
0
are released when water dissociates from carbon dioxide.
0
All answers are correct.
0
bind to chemoreceptors in the aortic and carotid bodies.
#
Which statement is CORRECT?
0
All answers are correct.
1
The central chemoreceptors respond to changes in brain pH caused by changes in
blood PCO2.
0
Blood pH increases when oxygen levels increase.
0
Carbon dioxide diffuses from the cerebrospinal fluid of the fourth ventricle into the
respiratory centers of the brainstem.
#
Predict what would happen if a person's arterial PCO2 increases.
1
His or her breathing rate and the depth of breathing will increase.
0
His or her breathing rate will remain the same, but the depth will increase.
0
His or her breathing rate will decrease, but the depth will remain the same.
0
His or her breathing rate will increase, but the depth will remain the same.
#
Central chemoreceptors fire more rapidly when
0
РСО₂ decreases.
1
РСО₂ increases.
0
РО₂ decreases.
0
РО₂ increases.
#
Peripheral chemoreceptors
0
detect increased carbon dioxide levels in arterial blood.
1
All answers are correct.
0
are located within the aortic arch and common carotid arteries.
0
respond to low blood pH by sending more nerve impulses to the respiratory centers
to stimulate faster and deeper breathing.
#
Blood pH increases during _____.
1
hyperventilation
0
normal ventilation
0
hypoventilation
0
breath holding
#
Hypoventilation results in
0
All answers are correct.
0
an increase in arterial pH.
0
activation of РО₂ central chemoreceptors.
1
activation of both central and peripheral СО₂ chemoreceptors.
#
During hyperventilation carbon dioxide levels
0
are unimportant.
1
decrease.
0
increase.
0
remain unchanged.
#
Which region of the brain regulates breathing when a person experiences pain,
anger, fear, and/or 0
anxiety?
0
Cerebral cortex
0
All answers are correct.
0
Thalamus
1
Hypothalamus
#
The most important function of ________ is gas exchange (of oxygen and carbon
dioxide).
0
Hemoglobin
0
Respiratory system
1
Breathing
0
Hypoxia (medical)
#
Peripheral chemoreceptors act most importantly to detect variation of the
________ in the arterial blood, in addition to detecting arterial carbon dioxide and
pH.
1
Oxygen
0
Helium
0
Hydrogen
0
Nitrogen
#
There is further integration in the anterior horn cells of the ________.
0
Grey matter
0
Nervous system
1
Spinal cord
0
Human brain
#
Receptors play important roles in the regulation of respiration; central and
peripheral
0
chemoreceptors, and ________.
0
Nervous system
0
Nociceptor
0
Pain
1
Mechanoreceptor
#
Blood levels of ________ become important in hypoxia.
0
Helium
0
Nitrogen
0
Hydrogen
1
Oxygen
#
The upper airway receptors are responsible for reflex responses such as, sneezing,
coughing, closure of glottis, and ________.
0
Snoring
0
Pleurisy
0
Epistaxis
1
Hiccup
#
Afferent neurons from the carotid bodies and aortic bodies are via the
glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the ________ (CN X), respectively.
0
Head and neck anatomy
0
Cranial nerves
0
Accessory nerve
1
Vagus nerve
#
What kind of respiration had a patient after traumatic damage of Pneumotaxic
center?
1
inspiration and expiration became slower
0
inspiration became faster
0
expiration became faster
0
expiration became slower
0
respiration didn’t change
#
What are the most powerful stimuli for breathing?
0
high pH; high the partial pressure of carbon dioxide
0
low pH; low carbon dioxide
1
low pH; high carbon dioxide
0
high carbon dioxide
0
high pH: low carbon dioxide
#
What function does the Ventral respiratory group of neurons have in the Medulla
oblongata?
0
it is inspiratory function
1
it is inspiratory and expiratory function
0
it is rhythmical inspiration
0
it is rhythmical expiration
0
all answers are correct
#
Which principle normally prevents the alveoli from collapsing during expiration?
0
the thickness of the alveolar membranes
0
the amount of cartilage within bronchi
0
pressure within the thoracic cavity
0
1
secretion of surfactant
#
What group of neurons can control the rhythmical respiration?
1
Dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the Medulla oblongata
0
Ventral respiratory group of neurons in the Medulla oblongata
0
neurons of the Cortex brain
0
neurons of the Cerebellum
0
Pneumotaxic center
#
Within the blood, oxygen is primarily transported _____ while the bulk of carbon
dioxide is transported _________________.
0
in association with hemoglobin; as carbon dioxide, dissolved in the plasma
0
as deoxyhemoglobin; as carbaminohemoglobin
1
as oxyhemoglobin; as bicarbonate ions
0
as oxyhemoglobin; as bicarbonate ions and as deoxyhemoglobin; as
carbaminohemoglobin
0
dissolved in the plasma; as carbaminohemoglobin
#
The patient has got problem with mucus salivary glands during long time. What kind of saliva
don’t these glands produce?
1
viscus and thick saliva
0
viscus saliva
0
watery and thin saliva
0
viscus and watery saliva
0
watery saliva
#
What kind of enzymes does Alimentary tract use for digestion of starch in the
mouth?
0
Lingual lipase
0
Chymotrypsins
1
amylase
0
Lactase
0
Pepsins
#
Saliva decreases gingivitis and caries because it contains immunoglobulin A and
1
lysozymes.
0
mucus
0
salivary amylase
0
water
0
lysozymes and salivary amylase
#
Salivary secretion is stimulated
1
the salivary nucleus only
0
the salivary nucleus and gastrin.
0
gastrin only.
0
the salivary nucleus and local reflexes in the tunica mucosa and submucosa
0
all of the above
#
Saliva…….
0
contains enzymes that digest most of the food we chew
1
contains enzymes and antibodies that kill some of the bacteria in food
0
is produced by large glands located in the neck
0
is produced in excess at night when we sleep to help keep our mouths clean and
reduce tooth decay
0
all of the above
#
What can happen with salivation after stimulation of the parasympathetic nerve?
1
secretion of watery saliva
and a low concentration of organic material
0
secretion of small amounts of saliva
0
secretion of watery saliva
0
a low concentration of organic material
0
a high concentration of organic material
#
Which of the following is not correct?
0
Food leaves the oral cavity and enters the trachea, then travels to the stomach
0
The taste buds detect four basic flavors: sweet, sour, salty, and bitter
0
The epiglottis keeps food from entering the trachea during swallowing
0
Peristaltic contractions push food in the stomach into the small intestine
0
all of the above
#
The esophageal phase of swallowing is caused by the
0
peristaltic reflex
0
coughing reflex
0
swallowing center
1
enteric reflex
0
all answers are incorrect
#
The general term for foods required in minute quantities is
0
macronutrients
1
micronutrients
0
vitamins
0
coenzyme
0
all of the above
#
Chewing or mastication reflex originates in the _______________ and the ability
to initiate or stop chewing originates in the
0
pons; cerebrum
1
medulla oblongata; cerebrum
0
spinal cord; medulla oblongata
0
medulla oblongata
0
all answers are incorrect
#
Some nerve fibers of Auerbach's plexus accelerate the movements by secreting the
excitatory neurotransmitter substances like ………
0
Acetylcholine
0
serotonin
0
substance P
1
Acetylcholine, serotonin, substance P
0
Noradrenalin
#
These nerve fibers accelerate the secretory activities of the glands in the
gastrointestinal tract.
1
parasympathetic nerve fibers
0
Sympathetic nerve fibers
0
Auerbach's plexus
0
Giza plexus
0
Meissner's plexus
#
These nerve fibers increase the motility of gastrointestinal tract
1
parasympathetic nerve fibers
0
Sympathetic nerve fibers
0
Auerbach's plexus
0
Giza plexus
0
Meissner's plexus
#
This neurotransmitter takes place in mechanism of activation the motility of
gastrointestinal tract and secreted by the ……..fibers
1
Acetylcholine, parasympathetic nerve
0
Acetylcholine, Auerbach's plexus
0
Noradrenalin, Auerbach's plexus
0
Noradrenalin, sympathetic nerve
0
Serotonin, Meissner's plexus
#
This neurotransmitter takes place in mechanism of inhibition the movements of
gastrointestinal tract and decrease the secretions of gastrointestinal tract by
secreting the neurotransmitter ……..
1
Noradrenaline, sympathetic nerve
0
Acetylcholine, parasympathetic nerve
0
Acetylcholine, Auerbach's plexus
0
Noradrenalin, Auerbach's plexus
0
Serotonin, Meissner's plexus
#
Which of the following is a direct product of alpha-amylase digestion?
0
Galactose
0
Glucose
1
Maltose
0
Sucrose
0
Lactose
#
Ptyalin is a form of amylase in the saliva of humans and some animals that
catalyzesthe hydrolysis of starch into dextrin and:
0
Glucose
0
Galactose
1
Maltose
0
Sucrose
0
Asbestos
#
Which of the following is NOT true of salivary production?
0
VIP and acetylcholine are released from parasympathetic nerve terminals in
thesalivary glands
0
VIP and acetylcholine cause vasodilation during secretory activity
0
Excitation of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves stimulates secretion
1
Cutting sympathetic nerves causes a major defect in salivary function
0
Salivary glands atrophy without parasympathetic nervous supply
#
Which of the following would lead to saliva that is closest to plasma isotonicity?
0
Large amounts of saliva
0
Small amounts of saliva
1
Fast saliva flow rate
0
Slow saliva flow rate
#
Which of the following is true of actively secreting salivary glands?
1
High metabolism and high blood flow
0
Low metabolism and low blood flow
0
High metabolism and low blood flow
0
Low metabolism and high blood flow
#
Which of the following is NOT found within the intestinal lamina propria?
0
B & T cells
1
Goblet cells
0
Plasma cells
0
Macrophages
0
Eosinophils
#
Saliva contains the carbohydrate-digesting enzyme:
0
pepsin
0
carboxypeptidase
1
amylase
0
trypsin
0
lipase
#
Which of the following is characteristic of saliva？
1
Hypotonicity relative to plasma
（
）
0
A lower HCO3- concentration than plasma
0
The presence of proteases
0
Secretion rate that is increased by vagotomy
#
How does the autonomic nervous system affect salivary secretory rate?
1
Salivary secretory rate is increased in response to parasympathetic and sympathetic
stimulation.
0
Salivary secretory rate is decreased in response to parasympathetic and
sympathetic stimulation.
0
Salivary secretory rate is increased in response to parasympathetic stimulation and
decreased in response to sympathetic stimulation.
0
Salivary secretory rate is decreased in response to parasympathetic stimulation and
increased in response to sympathetic stimulation.
#
Select the TRUE statement:
1
Salivary alpha-amylase begins protein digestion in the mouth
0
The optimal pH for pepsin's enzymatic activity is ~5
0
In chronic pancreatitis there is increased secretion of amylase and trypsin
0
Pancreatic lipase requires a co-lipase to digest intestinal lipids
0
Disaccharides are secreted from the crypts of Lieberkuhn
#
Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides as products?
0
Lipase
1
Amylase
0
Trypsin
0
Phosphatase
0
Ligase
#
The enzyme amylase is secreted into the
0
Mouth.
0
Stomach.
0
Small intestine.
1
Mouth and small intestine.
0
Mouth and pancreas
#
What is the purpose of eating food?
0
Ingestion
0
Digestion
0
Absorbtion
0
Egestion
1
All of the above
#
How does food move through the oesophagus?
0
Cilia (small hairs) move it
0
Gravity
1
Peristalsis
0
Chest muscles contracting around the oesophagus
0
All of the above
#
Where does chemical digestion start?
0
Large intestines
0
Small intestines
0
Stomach
1
Mouth
0
Liver
#
How many ml of Gastric juice does healthy Stomach produce a day?
0
500- 600 ml
0
700- 900 ml
0
900- 1000 ml
1
1200- 1500 ml
0
2000- 2500 ml
#
The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is ___________ , which is controlled by
__________ muscle
0
involuntary; smooth
0
voluntary; smooth
1
involuntary; skeletal
0
voluntary; skeletal
0
voluntary; skeletal and smooth
#
Which one of the following cells in the gastric glands produce pepsinogen?
0
endocrine cells
0
mucous neck cells
0
parietal or oxyntic cells
0
all of the above cells
1
chief or zymogenic cells
#
What can substance inhibit Hydrochloric acid secretion?
0
Gastrin
1
Enterogastrone and adrenaline
0
Histamine
0
acetylcholine
0
adrenaline
#
What can substances stimulate the Pancreatic juice secretion in an Intestinal Phase?
0
Gastrin
1
Secretin; Cholecystokinin
0
Enterogastrone
0
Cholecystokinin
0
Pepsin
#
Which one of the following does not occur during swallowing?
0
The larynx rises
0
The epiglottis moves anteriorly to close the glottis
0
The vestibular folds move medially.
0
The larynx rises and the epiglottis moves anteriorly to close the glottis
1
The uvula and soft palate move inferiorly to block the oropharynx
#
What inactive enzymes does Stomach produce for Proteins digestion?
0
lipase
0
Chymotrypsins
0
alpha-amylase
1
Pepsinogens
0
Pepsins
#
The low level of this substance in gastric juice is cause for Pepsin deficiency. How
is it name?
0
Lipase
1
Hydrochloric acid
0
vitamin B12
0
vitamin B1
0
vitamin B6
#
The major food digested by gastric secretions is
0
fat
0
starch
0
nucleic acids
0
nucleic acids and fat
1
protein
#
What can substances stimulate the secretion of Pancreatic juice at Gastric Phase?
1
Gastrin
0
Enterogastrone
0
Secretin
0
Cholecystokinin
0
Pepsin
#
What kind of substances produce by chief cells of stomach?
0
mucoid secretion
1
enzymes of the gastric juice
0
hydrochloric acid
0
mucoid secretion and hydrochloric acid
0
All of the above
#
What kind of substances produce by parietal cells of stomach?
0
mucoid secretion
0
enzymes of the gastric juice
1
hydrochloric acid
0
mucoid secretion and hydrochloric acid
0
All of the above
#
This substances present in gastric juice and is necessary for the absorption of
vitamin B12
0
hydrochloric acid
0
mucoid secretion
1
factor of Castle
0
Pepsinogen
0
All of the above
#
This substance converts pepsinogen into pepsins
0
vitamin B12
1
hydrochloric acid
0
Vitamin B6
0
Vitamin D
0
All of the above
#
This substance provides the H ion concentration necessary for optimum pepsin
activity
0
vitamin B12
1
hydrochloric acid
0
Vitamin B6
0
Vitamin D
0
All of the above
#
This substance causes denaturation and swelling of proteins and in that way
facilitates their breakdown by enzymes
0
vitamin B12
1
hydrochloric acid
0
Vitamin B6
0
Vitamin D
0
All of the above
#
This substance contributes to the curdling of milk, i. e. to the conversion of
caseinogen into casein by the pepsins and rennin.
0
vitamin B12
1
hydrochloric acid
0
Vitamin B6
0
Vitamin D
0
All of the above
#
Gastric acid secretion is most likely to be stimulated by:
0
GIP
1
acetylcholine
0
norepinephrine
0
somatostatin
0
secretin
#
In a healthy human, the digestion of proteins is most likely to begin in the:
0
jejunum
0
duodenum
1
Stomach
0
ileum
0
mouth
#
The strength of gastric contractions can be reduced by all of the following
EXCEPT:
0
VIP
0
GIP
0
norepinephrine
0
secretin
1
acetylcholine
#
The progressive wave of muscle contractions that proceeds along the esophagus,
compressing the lumen and forcing food ahead of it is called:
1
primary peristalsis
0
segmentation
0
the migrating myoelectric complex
0
haustration
0
mass movement
#
Which of the following is most likely to stimulate the pancreas to secrete increased
amounts of bicarbonate?
0
somatostatin
1
secretin
0
CCK
0
gastrin
0
motilin
#
Which of the following is the site of secretion of gastrin?
1
Gastric antrum
0
Gastric fundus
0
Duodenum
0
Ileum
0
Colon
#
Secretion of which of the following substances is inhibited by low pH?
0
Secretin
1
Gastrin
0
Cholecystokinin（CCK）
0
Vasoactive intestinal peptide（VIP）
0
Gastric inhibitory peptide（GIP）
0
Administration of vasoactive intestinal peptide（VIP）
#
Cholecystokinin（CCK） has some gastrin like properties because both CCK and
gastrin
0
are released from G cells in the stomach
0
are released from I cells in the duodenum
0
are members of the secretin-homologous family
1
have five identical C-terminal amino acids
0
have 90% homology of their amino acids
#
Which of the following has the highest pH?
0
Gastric juice
0
Bile in the gallbladder
1
Pancreatic juice
0
Saliva
0
（
）
Secretions of the intestinal glands
#
Which of the following is true about the secretion from the exocrine pancreas?
0
It has a higher Cl- concentration than does plasma.
0
It is stimulated by the presence of HCO3- in the duodenum.
0
Pancreatic HCO3- secretion is increased by gastrin.
1
Pancreatic enzyme secretion is increased by cholecystokinin（CCK）.
0
It is hypotomic.
#
Which of the following abolishes “receptive relaxation”of the stomach?
0
Parasympathetic stimulation
0
Sympathetic stimulation
1
Vaotomy
0
Administration of gastrin
#
Which of the following is the site of secretion of intrinsic factor?
0
Gastric antrum
1
Gastric fundus
0
Duodenum
0
Ileum
0
Colon
#
Which of the following secretagogues or conditions is most likely to stimulate the
secretion of cholecystokinin (CCK) from the duodenal mucosa?
0
amino acids
1
free fatty acids
0
Glucose
0
high pH
0
hypotonicity
#
The patient uses specifically medicine. After that hypopolarization of intestine’s
muscles start.
What changes can wall tension of intestine have?
0
can’t change wall tension of intestine
0
decrease wall tension of intestine
1
increase tension of intestine
0
relax of intestine wall
0
all answers are not right
#
How many ml of Bile does Liver produce at a healthy person in a day?
0
500- 600 ml
0
100- 400 ml
1
800- 1200 ml
0
1500- 1600 ml
0
2000- 2500 ml
#
The small intestine contains fingerlike projections called ____________, whose
function is to
0
villi; secret mucus
0
rugae; allow for expansion
0
Crypts of Lieberkuhn; produce mucus, digestive enzymes and hormones
1
villi; increase surface area
0
villi; secret mucus and rugae; allow for expansion
#
What substance can increase the release of bile from gallbladder into the Intestine?
0
Acetylcholine
0
Gastrin
0
Bile salts
0
Histamine
1
Cholecystokinin
#
Absence of enterokinase in intestinal juice causes deficiency of …….
0
Lipase
1
Trypsin
0
vitamin B12
0
Cholesteryl ester hydrolase
0
Amylase
#
What substances can’t Large intestine absorb?
0
Water and Electrolytes
0
Lipids
0
Alcohol
0
Proteins
1
Lipids and Proteins
#
Gastrin secretion is stimulated by
1
duodenal pH greater than 3.
0
secretin
0
cholecystokinin
0
gastric inhibitory polypeptide
0
all of these
#
How many ml of Succus entericus does Small intestine produce at a healthy
person in a day?
0
500- 600 ml
0
100- 400 ml
0
800- 1200 ml
0
1500- 1600 ml
1
1800ml
#
What substance can stimulate the bile secretion from Liver?
1
Acetylcholine and Bile salts
0
Gastrin
0
Bile salts
0
Histamine
0
Cholecystokinin
#
Which one of the following hormones is released by both the stomach and small
intestine?
0
gastrin and secretin
0
secretin
0
holecystokinin
0
gastric inhibitory polypeptide
1
gastrin
#
Which one of the following parts of the GI tract has the following characteristics:
simple columnar epithelium, muscularis mucosa, Meissner's plexus, two layers of
smooth muscle in the tunica muscularis and Peyer's patches of lymph nodules?
0
duodenum
0
jejunum
1
ileum
0
colon
0
rectum
#
All of these occur in the large intestine EXCEPT:
0
large numbers of bacteria utilize undigested food
1
fatty acids are absorbed
0
vitamin K is produced
0
sodium and water are absorbed
0
mucus is produced
#
The major secretory product of the colon is
0
mucin
0
chlorides
0
bicarbonates
0
secretin
1
mucin, chlorides , bicarbonates
#
What kinds of enzymes are active for proteins digested in duodenum?
1
Trypsin
0
Chymotrypsinogen
0
Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsin
0
Pepsinogen
0
Pepsin
#
What kinds of enzymes are active for proteins digested in stomach?
0
Trypsin
0
Chymotrypsinogen
0
Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsin
0
Pepsinogen
1
Pepsin
#
What factors can arrest the action of pepsin in the duodenum?
1
by bile
0
by hydrogen ions
0
by water
0
by acid
0
all of the above
#
Substances, which increase the secretion of bile from liver, are known as …….
0
Cholemimetic
1
Choleretics
0
Cholagogues
0
Cholelitics
0
all of the above
#
This substance increases the release of bile from gallbladder into the intestine.
0
Cholemimetic
0
Choleretics
1
Cholagogues
0
Cholelitics
0
all not correct
#
The migrating myoelectric complex is most likely to:
1
sweep undigested material into the colon
0
slow down gastric emptying of solid foods
0
produce vomiting
0
enhance mixing of food within the stomach
0
interfere with swallowing of liquids
#
Surgical removal of the distal ileum is most likely to impair the absorption of:
0
peptides
0
sugars
0
iron
0
calcium
1
bile salts
#
Bile:
0
is secreted by the pancreas
0
enters the colon through the pyloric sphincter
1
contains cholesterol, lecithin, and bile salts
0
is stored in the salivary glands
0
impairs the digestion and absorption of fats
#
Which of the following substances must be further digested before it can be
absorbed by specific carriers in intestinal cells?
（ ）
0
Fructose
1
Sucrose
0
Alanine
0
Dipeptides
0
Tripeptides
#
Which of the following changes occurs during defecation?
1
Internal anal sphincter is relaxed
0
External anal sphincter is contracted
0
Rectal smooth muscle is relaxed
0
Intra-abdominal pressure is lower than when at rest
0
Segmentation contractions predominate
（
）
#
Which of the following is the site of Na+-bile acid cotransport?
0
Gastric antrum
0
Gastric fundus
0
Duodenum
1
Ileum
0
Colon
（
）
#
Bands of longitudinal smooth muscle that run the length of the colon are called
0
haustra.
0
epiploic appendages.
0
intestinal glands.
1
teniae coli.
0
vermiform appendixes.
#
In the liver, blood from the __________ and the hepatic artery flow into the
hepatic sinusoids and become mixed.
0
bile canaliculi
0
central vein
0
hepatic ducts
1
hepatic portal vein
0
hepatic vein
#
All of these are functions of the liver EXCEPT:
0
biotransformation of molecules.
1
production of digestive enzymes.
0
storage of glycogen, fat, vitamins, and iron.
0
synthesis of bile.
0
synthesis of blood components.
#
The most nutrient absorption takes place in the
1
duodenum and jejunum.
0
stomach and duodenum.
0
jejunum and ileum.
0
esophagus and stomach.
0
ileum and cecum.
#
The major duodenal papilla is
0
a location for nutrient absorption in the duodenum.
0
the opening for the accessory pancreatic duct in the duodenum.
0
a large collection of villi in the jejunum.
1
the opening of the hepatopancreatic ampulla in the duodenum.
0
the opening for the spleen in the colon.
#
An average person can maintain normal stores of protein, provided the daily intake
is above:
0
50 to 80 grams
0
80 to 100 grams
1
30 to 50 grams
0
100 to 120 grams
0
60 to 90 grams
#
Individuals in economically disadvantaged countries who consume cornmeal as the
principal source of protein sometimes develop the protein-deficiency syndrome
which consists of failure to grow, lethargy, depressed mentality and edema. It is
called:
0
Steatorrhea
1
Kwashiorkor
0
Celiac disease
0
Tropical sprue
0
Crohn's disease
#
Destruction of this hypothalamic nuclei causes lack of desire for food and
progressive inanition:
1
Lateral nuclei
0
Ventromedial nuclei
0
Arcuate nuclei
0
Paraventricular nuclei
0
Supraoptic nuclei
#
Electrical stimulation of this region can cause complete satiety, and even in the
presence of highly appetizing food, the animal refuses to eat:
0
Arcuate nuclei
0
Supraoptic nuclei
0
Lateral nuclei
0
Salivatory nuclei
1
Ventromedial nuclei
#
Stimulation of leptin receptors in the hypothalamic nuclei initiates multiple actions
that decrease fat storage, including all, except:
0
decreased production of appetite stimulators, such as NPY and AGRP
0
activation of POMC neurons, causing release of ?-MSH
0
increased production of corticotropin-releasing hormone
0
Increased sympathetic nerve activity
1
increased insulin secretion by the pancreatic beta cells
#
Deficiency of this vitamin causes scaliness of the skin, failure of reproduction,
associated especially with atrophy of the germinal epithelium of the testes and
keratinization of the cornea:
1
Vitamin A
0
Vitamin B1
0
Vitamin D
0
Vitamin E
0
Vitamin B12
#
Deficiency of this vitamin is called beriberi and is characterized by lesions of the
central and peripheral nervous systems (polyneuritis), cardiac failure and
gastrointestinal tract disturbances:
0
Vitamin A
1
Vitamin B1
0
Vitamin D
0
Vitamin E
0
Vitamin B12
#
Women on corn diet developed such symptoms as dementia, pigmented scaliness
in areas of the skin which were exposed to sun irradiation, painful aphthae in the
mouth. The reason for this condition is:
0
Deficiency of vitamin D
0
Deficiency vitamin E
1
Deficiency of nicotinic acid
0
Deficiency of vitamin C
0
Deficiency of folic acid
#
A patient suffers from hyperchromic anemia, loss of peripheral sensation, atrophy
of gastric mucosa in the fundus of the stomach. The first thing you suspect is:
0
Vitamin B1 deficiency
0
Vitamin C deficiency
0
Vitamin K deficiency
1
Vitamin B12 deficiency
0
Vitamin B2 deficiency
#
A patient suffers from petechial hemorrhages, lesion of the gums, long healing
wounds. You suppose:
1
Scurvy because of vitamin C deficiency
0
Pellagra because of niacin deficiency
0
Beriberi because of thiamine deficiency
0
Deficiency of vitamin A
0
Deficiency of vitamin B12
#
The BMR normally averages about … Calories per hour in an average 70-kilogram
man:
0
80 to 90
1
65 to 70
0
45 o 50
0
35 to 40
0
75 to 80
#
The BMR can be increased in such conditions:
0
Toxic goiter
0
Excess of testosterone
0
Acidophilic tumor of the anterior pituitary
0
Fever
1
All of the above
#
The respiratory coefficient of the patient is 1,0. What substance does mostly
oxidize in the cells of the patient?
1
carbohydrates
0
proteins
0
fat
0
proteins and carbohydrates
0
carbohydrates and fat
#
How many kilojoules does one gram of fat contain?
0
80 kilojoules
0
60 kilojoules
0
51 kilojoules
0
27 kilojoules.
1
37 kilojoules
#
The 38-year-old loader has energetic expense more than 5100 kkal a day. Which
component in his diet should be increased to renew such energetic expense?
0
Carbohydrates.
0
Liquid.
0
Proteins.
1
Fats.
0
Vitamins.
#
During the examination of 35-year-old man, who followed a meat diet for a long
time, the positive nitrogenous balance was revealed. What feature of his diet did
become the cause of this phenomenon?
0
Too much carbohydrates
0
Too much water
1
Inadequate amount of proteins
0
Inadequate amount of fat
0
Inadequate amount of fat and proteins
#
To lose weight a woman reduced the amount of products in her blood ration. Three
months later she developed edema, diuresis increased. The deficiency of what food
components was the cause of her condition?
0
Vitamins
0
Fats
0
Carbohydrates
1
Proteins
0
Mineral substances
#
The energy consumpotion of the patient is measures on an empty stomach, when
the patient lies in the room with comfort temperature. When will energy
consumption be the smallest?
1
3-4 a.m.
0
7-8 a.m.
0
10-12 a.m.
0
2-4 p.m.
0
5-6 h.m
#
The 40-year-old miner has energetic expense more than 5000 kkal a day. Which
component in his diet should be increased to renew such energetic expense?
1
Fats.
0
Liquid.
0
Proteins.
0
Carbohydrates.
0
Vitamins.
#
How are dietary fats used by the body?
0
To produce red blood cells, contribute to the manufacture of hair and keep bones
strong.
1
To provide energy, form part of cell membranes and help regulate cells
0
To produce red blood cells
0
To produce retina cells
0
To produce retina cells, nourish the spleen and help stabilize the body’s sleep-wake
cycle
#
The respiratory coefficient of the patient is 0,7. What substance can mostly oxidize
in the cells of the patient?
0
carbohydrates
0
proteins
1
fats
0
proteins and carbohydrates
0
carbohydrates and fats
#
The woman wanted to loss her weight, that’s why she decreased the consumption
of food. In 3 months her daily diuresis increased, edema appeared the deficit of
what components of food had caused this condition?
1
proteins
0
fats
0
carbohydrates
0
vitamins
0
minerals
#
The daily foot ration of the patient is normal, but he loses his weight. After the
medical examination it was found that he also suffers from tachycardia, increases
basal metabolic rate. The increased secretion of what hormone has caused this
condition?
0
insulin
0
somathostatic hormone
0
antidiuretic hormone
1
thyroxin
0
minerals
#
What sorts of fats should you eat?
0
A variety of mono-unsaturated and polyunsaturated oils
0
Only mono-unsaturated oils and fat spreads like olive and canola oil
0
Only polyunsaturated oils and fat spreads like sunflower, grape seed and safflower.
1
A variety of mono-unsaturated and polyunsaturated oils or fat spreads like peanut
oil, sunflower-based margarine, canola oil and olive oil.
0
Only polyunsaturated oils
#
During the examination of 35-year-old man, who followed a vegetable diet for a
long time, the negative nitrogenous balance was revealed. What feature of his diet
became the cause of this phenomenon?
0
Too much carbohydrates
0
Too much water
1
Inadequate amount of proteins
0
Inadequate amount of fat
0
Inadequate amount of fat and proteins
#
If blood glucose levels are low, then epinephrine and glucogon hormones are
secreted to stimulate the conversion of glycogen to glucose. This process is
called ………
1
Glycogenolysis
0
Glycogenesis
0
Anabolism
0
Dehydratation
0
Simbiosis
#
In the liver and muscles, most of the glucose is changed into glycogen. This
process is called ……
0
Glycogenolysis
1
Glycogenesis
0
catabolism
0
Dehydratation
0
Simbiosis
#
If glucose is needed immediately upon entering the cells to supply energy, it begins
the metabolic process called ……
0
glycolysis
0
Glycogenolysis
1
Glycogenesis
0
Dehydratation
0
Simbiosis
#
The end products of glycolysis are …….
0
pyruvic acid
0
ATP
1
pyruvic acid and ATP
0
Oxygen
0
Hydrogen
#
Basal metabolic rate …….. with age and with the loss of lean body mass.
0
Not changes
1
Decreases
0
Increases
0
All are incorrect
0
All are correct
#
Patient’s osmotic pressure of plasma is 350 mosmol/l (the normal is 300
mosmol/l). The secretion of what hormone will it stimulate?
0
ACTH
1
Aldosterone
0
Cortisol
0
Vasopressin
0
Atrial natriuretic peptide
#
A bladder containing _____ml of urine could be close to bursting point in an
average-sized human.
0
700
0
100
0
300
1
1000
0
500
#
A patient with the normal level of glucose in blood has glucosuria. What has
caused such a phenomenon?
0
Hyperthyroidism
0
Insulin insufficiency
0
Violation of secretion of glucose in proximal convoluted tubular
1
Violation of transport of glucose in proximal convoluted tubular
0
Violation of filtration of glucose in proximal convoluted tubular
#
A 45-year-old man has polyuria. The level of glucose in blood is 5,5 mmol/L.
There is glucose in the urine. What part of nephron is damaged?
0
Glomerulus
0
Loop of Henle
0
Distal convoluted tubule
1
Proximal convoluted tubule
0
Collecting duct
#
When the body has to get rid of excess water, the mechanism that is used is
0
sweating
0
diarrhea
0
increased respiratory rate and depth
0
decreased respiratory rate and depth
1
increased urine production
#
The reabsorption of Na+ in kidney increases if its concentration in plasma
decreases. What regulates this process?
1
Aldosterone
0
Sympathetic reflexes
0
Parasympathetic reflexes
0
Atrial natriuretic peptide
0
Parathormone
#
A patient has the permanent increase of arterial pressure. The examination
determines the chronic disease of kidney the violation of kidney’s of blood
circulation. What mechanism causes the increase of the arterial pressure?
0
Atrial natriuretic peptide
0
Sympathetic nervous system
1
Renin-angiotensin system
0
Vasopressin
0
Parasympathetic nervous system
#
A woman with the kidney’s blood flow discharge has a high arterial pressure.
What substance has caused the increased arterial pressure?
0
Vasopressin
0
Erythropoietin
1
Renin
0
Epinephrine
0
Norepinephrine
#
A patient’s diuresis is reduced. In the blood plasma the concentration of the ions
of Na+ is increased and concentration of the ions of К+ is reduced. The
hypersecretion of what hormone can be the reason of it?
1
Aldosterone
0
Epinephrine
0
Progesterone
0
Cortisol
0
Norepinephrine
#
Which of these substances normally cannot pass through the filtration membrane?
1
hemoglobin
0
water
0
sodium ions
0
bicarbonate ions
0
glucose
#
The tubular secretion is …
1
The transport of substances from blood in the tubule
0
The transport of substances which have been synthesized in kidneys into tubule
0
The transport of water from tubule into blood
0
The transport of ions from tubule into blood
0
The transport of substances from tubule into the blood
#
The most important regulator of blood osmolality is
0
aldosterone
1
ADH
0
atrial natriuretic hormone
0
renin
0
angiotensin II
#
A 35-year- old patient has had glomerulonephritis for 6 years. His arterial pressure
is very high. The concentration of rennin in blood is also very high. What
structures of kidney produce this substance?
0
Proximal convoluted tubule
0
Loop of Henle
1
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
0
Collecting duct
0
Distal convoluted tubule
#
Which of these is NOT a buffer found in the filtrate of the nephron?
0
ammonia
0
ammonia and bicarbonate
0
bicarbonate
0
phosphate
1
Protein
#
In glomerular filtration, what is the normal value for net filtration pressure?
0
55 mmHg
0
40mmHg
0
30 mm Hg
1
15 mm Hg
0
10 mm Hg
#
What parts of nephron reabsorb maximum water?
1
Proximal convoluted tubule
0
Distal convoluted tubule
0
Thin ascending segment of Loop of Henle
0
Collecting duct
0
Thin descending segment of Loop of Henle
#
Which of these events will occur when a normal person is given isotonic fluids
intravenously?
1
There is a net shift of fluid from plasma into interstitial fluid
0
There is a net shift of fluid from interstitial fluid into plasma
0
There is a net shift of fluid from interstitial fluid into blood
0
There is a net shift of fluid from the ECF into the cells
0
There is a net shift of fluid from the ICF out of the cells
#
Trace the flow of urine from nephrons to the renal pelvis
1
glomerulus-glomerular capsule-proximal tubules-loop of Henle-distal tubulescollecting duct-renal pelvis
0
glomerular capsule -glomerulus-loop of Henle-distal tubules-proximal tubulesdistal tubular-collecting duct-renal pelvis
0
loop of Henle-distal tubules-collecting duct-proximal tubules
0
loop of Henle-distal tubules-collecting duct-proximal tubules-glomerulusglomerular capsule-renal pelvis
0
none of the above is correct
#
During the surgical experiment the rabbit’s kidney artery has been narrowed. What
substance has caused the changes of the arterial pressure?
1
Angiotensin II
0
Vasopressin
0
Epinephrine
0
Norepinephrine
0
Serotonin
#
Patient’s osmotic pressure of plasma is 350 mosmol/l (the normal is 300
mosmol/l). The secretion of what hormone will it stimulate?
0
ACTH
1
Aldosterone
0
Cortisol
0
Vasopressin
0
Atrial natriuretic peptide
#
Nephrons directly regulate acid-base balance by
0
combining H⁺ ions with Cl^- ions
0
forming carbon dioxide
1
secreting H⁺ ions into the filtrate
0
producing carbonic anhydrase
0
producing protein buffers
#
Which fluid compartment contains about 67% (by volume) of all body water?
1
intracellular fluid
0
plasma
0
lymph
0
extracellular fluid
0
B and C
#
The capillary endothelium separates these two body fluid compartments
0
ICF and ECF
0
ICF and interstitial fluid
0
cerebrospinal and brain tissue fluid
1
plasma and interstitial fluid
0
plasma
#
Drinking too much water could cause each of these changes EXCEPT
0
decreased ECF osmolarity
1
decreased cell volumes
0
increased ECF volume
0
increased urine output
0
all are incorrect
#
The major cation in the extracellular fluid is
1
Na⁺
0
K^-
0
Cl⁺
0
Ca²⁺
0
Fe²⁺
#
The rate of water reabsorption from the proximal tubule is determined primarily by
the
1
rate of dissolved particle (solute) reabsorption from the proximal tubule
0
concentration of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) in the blood
0
osmotic pressure developed by plasma proteins in the proximal tubule
0
active transport of water molecules by the proximal tubule cells
0
passive filtration due to the high hydrostatic pressure in the proximal tubule
#
The antidiuretic hormone increases
1
Permeability of collecting ducts
0
Permeability of thick discending segment
0
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
0
Renal circulation
0
Permeability of proximal convoluted tubule
#
What is the principal function of the ureter?
0
transport blood to the efferent arterioles
1
transport urine from the renal pelvis into the urinary bladder
0
Transport glucose and protein into the renal pelvis
0
none of the above
0
All of the above
#
There are three basic renal processes for urine formation. Which of the following
is NOT one of these processes?
1
urine excretion
0
tubular reabsorption
0
tubular secretion
0
glomerular filtration
0
glomerular reabsorption
#
Filtration of blood in the glomeruli is promoted by
0
blood colloid osmotic pressure
1
blood hydrostatic pressure
0
capsular hydrostatic pressure
0
Both A and B.
0
none of the above
#
Which of the following would be in the highest concentration in normal urine?
0
urobilinogen
1
Creatinine
0
Urobilinogen and bilirubin
0
Bilirubin
0
Albumin
#
Vasopressin (ADH) acts at the level of the basolateral membrane in the distal
tubules and ____tubules
1
collecting
0
proximal
0
arterioles
0
glomerulus
0
veins
#
If a substance is filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted its renal clearance rate
0
is always greater than the GFR
0
is less than the GFR
0
does not affect the GFR
0
is increase than the GFR
1
equals the GFR
#
What is the term for urine discharge?
0
azotemia
0
enuresis
1
micturition
0
polyuria
0
anuria
#
At about what volume of urine does the bladder create strong action potentials to
be sent to the spinal cord for micturition?
0
100ml of urine
1
500ml of urine
0
200ml of urine
0
300ml of urine
0
150ml of urine
#
Of the filtrate that enters the nephron, about what percent is reabsorbed during
urine formation?
1
99%
0
95%
0
80%
0
65%
0
19%
#
The permeability of the distal tubule and the collecting duct is controlled by
1
ADH
0
Aldosterone
0
carrier molecules
0
atrial natriuretic factor
0
sodium ions
#
Which of these conditions increases the amount of urine produced?
0
increased ADH secretion
1
increased atrial natriuretic hormone secretion
0
increased aldosterone secretion
0
decreased blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries
0
sympathetic stimulation of the renal arteries
#
In the proximal tubule, penicillin is
1
actively secreted into the tubule
0
actively reabsorbed from the tubule
0
passively reabsorbed from the tubule
0
metabolized by the tubule cells
0
neither secreted nor reabsorbed nor metabolized
#
At which sites would the concentration of creatinine be expected to be highest?
(Note: assume the person is normally hydrated.)
0
glomerular filtrate
0
end of the proximal tubule
0
end of the loop of Henle
1
urine
0
the concentration would be the same in all of the above, since creatinine is neither
secreted or reabsorbed
#
A man has decreased diuresis, hypernatremia, hypokalemia. The hypersecretion of
what hormone can be the reason of such changes?
0
Parathormone
0
Vasopressin
0
Cortisol
0
Epinephrine
1
Aldosterone
#
After the prolonged starvation a person loses some plasma proteins. How does the
distribution of the fluid change?
0
the fluid moves from tissue to vessels
1
the fluid moves from vessels to tissue
0
distribution doesn’t change
0
tissue dehydration develops
0
no correct answer
#
Play(s) the main role in the creation of the oncotic pressure:
0
inorganic substances
0
organic substances
0
ibrinogen
0
inorganic substance
1
albumin
#
What is the major function of principle cells at the last segment of the distal
tubule(late distal tubule) and the collecting duct?
1
Reabsorb NaCl and water, secrete K+
0
Secrete either H+ or HCO30
Reabsorb K+, secrete Na+
0
Secrete Na+ and Ca++
0
Reabsorb water, secrete NaCl
#
What is the major function of intercalated cells at the last segment of the
distaltubule (late distal tubule) and the collecting duct?
0
Reabsorb NaCl and water, secrete K+
1
Secrete either H+ or HCO30
Reabsorb K+, secrete Na+
0
Secrete Na+ and Ca++
0
Reabsorb water, secrete NaCl
#
Which of the following does NOT get reabsorbed into the blood at the thick
ascending segment of the loop of Henle?
0
Na+
0
K+
0
Ca++
0
Mg++
1
H2O
#
Infusion of p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) would reduce secretion by the proximal
tubule of which of the following?
1
Penicillin
0
Atropine
0
Procainamide
0
Isoproterenol
0
Morphine
#
Which of the following is NOT true regarding protein filtration and the kidney?
0
Ultrafiltrate contains about 40mg/L of protein
0
Peptide hormones, small proteins, and even some large proteins (e.g. albumin)are
filtered by the glomerulus
1
Proteins leave the cell across the basolateral membrane back into the blood
0
Enzymes on the surface of the proximal tubule cells degrade proteins
0
Proteinuria is a common consequence of kidney disease
#
Which of the following can be found in the apical membrane, not the
basolateralmembrane?
0
Na+/3HCO3- symporter
1
Na+/H+ antiporter and SGLT2
0
Pi and lactate transporters
0
Na+/K+ ATPase transporter
0
Na+/amino acid, Na+/Pi, or Na+/lactate symporters
#
Inactivation mutations to the gene encoding which of the following would lead to
decreased glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule and glucosuria?
0
Cl-/HCO3- antiporter
0
Na+/3HCO3- symporter
0
Na+ glucose transporter (SGLT2)
1
Na+/K+ ATPase and glucose transporter (GLUT2)
0
Na+/amino acid, Na+/Pi, or Na+/lactate symporters