Test Bank Clinical Psychology 8th Edition By Trull Instant Download Click link below to buy: https://www.coursesexams.com/test-bank-clinicalpsychology-8th-edition-by-trull/ OR Email us at: [email protected] OR visit: https://www.coursesexams.com/ Chapter 5 Diagnosis and Classification of Psychological Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ALL BUT WHICH of the following statements is true regarding the definition of a. b. c. d. abnormal behavior? Mental health professionals once debated the definition of abnormal behavior, but the debate has ended. There is no single descriptive feature shared by all forms of abnormal behavior. There is no discrete boundary between normal and abnormal behavior. none of the above 2. “Cutoff points” are an advantage of the definition of abnormal behavior based a. b. c. d. upon statistical infrequency or the violation of social norms. subjective distress. disability, dysfunction, or impairment. more than one of the above 3. When a clinical psychologist uses a cutoff score on a test to determine a. b. c. d. abnormality, how is the cutoff score typically determined? The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based on his/her experience with previous clients. The authors of the test manual set the cutoff score, often using statistical deviance from the mean score as the primary criterion. The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based upon his/her expertise in the field. The cutoff score is determined by setting a range of +/- 1 standard deviation around the client’s performance on a previous administration of the same test. MSC: WWW 4. Which of the following terms refers to the idea that, in evaluating a behavior, one a. b. c. d. must consider the cultural context in which that behavior occurred? cultural relativity cultural analysis contextual analysis contextual deconstruction 5. A “psychopathologist” is a. an individual currently diagnosed with a mental disorder. b. a scientist who studies the development and causes of mental disorders. c. an individual currently diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. a clinical psychologist who endorses the “violation of social norms” definition d. of abnormality above all others. 6. Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the “subjective distress” definition of abnormality? a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees hate him/her b. a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work c. a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of d. his/her life a. 7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a disadvantage of using the subjective distress definition of abnormal behavior? a. It doesn’t recognize the validity of the individual’s own experience. b. Not everyone who appears “disordered” to others reports distress. c. It’s unclear how much distress is enough to be considered abnormal. It’s unclear how long distress must persist in order to be considered d. abnormal. 8. Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the “disability/dysfunction/impairment” definition of abnormality? a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees a. hate him/her b. a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work c. a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation d. a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of his/her life 9. Which of the following is a valid question regarding the a. b. c. d. disability/dysfunction/impairment definition of abnormal behavior? What should the standards for dysfunction be? Who establishes the standards for dysfunction? Both of the above are valid questions. Neither of the above is a valid question. 10. Recently, Elizabeth has felt anxious much of the time, and her anxiety has a. b. c. d. caused her to perform some compulsive rituals that are highly unusual. Her job and her friends, however, have not been affected. Elizabeth is “abnormal” according to the definition based on violation of social norms and disability/dysfunction/impairment. subjective distress. disability/dysfunction/impairment. violation of social norms and subjective distress. 11. The only definition of abnormal behavior that does not involve subjectivity is a. b. c. d. conformity to norms. subjective distress. disability or dysfunction. none of the above 12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between a. b. c. d. abnormal behavior and mental illness? An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior may not have a mental illness. An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior that persists for at least 6 months has a mental illness. Most of the mental illnesses listed in DSM-IV-TR are defined by isolated abnormal behaviors. all of the above 13. Which of the following is not accurate regarding the DSM-IV-TR definition of “mental disorder”? The syndrome must be associated with distress, disability, or increased risk a. of problems. A mental disorder is considered to represent a dysfunction within an b. individual. Not all deviant behaviors or conflicts with society are signs of a mental disorder. d. none of the above c. 14. Portia is a 33-year-old married woman working as an accountant at a large a. b. c. d. firm. Eight months ago, her father, with whom she was close, died unexpectedly, and a month ago, her firm announced that they would be laying off 40% of its accountancy staff within the next three months. At present, Portia is experiencing moderate depressive and anxious symptoms, and these symptoms appear to be taking a toll on both the quality of her work and the quality of her relationship with her husband. In the present case, which factor would be considered an etiological factor for her depression and anxiety? the downturn in the quality of her marital relationship. the downturn in her work quality. her father’s death. more than one of the above 15. DSM-I was published in the a. b. c. d. 1930s. 1940s. 1950s. 1960s. MSC: WWW 16. All editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) a. b. c. d. have been published by the American Psychological Association. the American Psychiatric Association. the American Psychological Society. the World Health Organization. 17. What is the DC 0-3R? a diagnostic classification system developed for children between birth and age 3 a shorthand diagnostic classification system developed for use by mental b. health paraprofessionals a simplified diagnostic classification system developed for use by primary c. care physicians and other health care providers outside the mental health field d. none of the above a. 18. The DSM manuals are based in large part upon the 19th century work of __________ in the area of psychiatric classification. a. Dix b. Binet c. Kraepelin d. Breuer 19. The most revolutionary changes in DSM, including the first application of explicit a. b. c. d. diagnostic criteria for the mental disorders and a multi-axial system, appeared in DSM-II. DSM-III. DSM-III-R. DSM-IV-TR. 20. Which edition of the DSM was the first to assume a theory-neutral approach to a. b. c. d. psychiatric classification and diagnosis? DSM-II. DSM-III. DSM-III-R. All editions of the DSM have used a theory neutral approach. 21. Changes incorporated in DSM-IV and maintained in DSM-IV-TR were based on __________ to a greater extent than changes incorporated in any previous edition. a. standard psychiatric practice b. empirical data c. cognitive-behavioral theory d. consensus of expert opinion 22. In DSM-IV-TR, clients are diagnosed along __________ axes. a. b. c. d. three four five six 23. In DSM-IV-TR, Axis I is used to a. indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation. indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders b. and mental retardation. c. list relevant medical conditions. d. quantitatively estimate an individual’s overall level of functioning. 24. In DSM-IV-TR, Axis V is used to a. indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation. indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders b. and mental retardation. c. list relevant medical conditions. d. quantitatively estimate an individual’s overall level of functioning. 25. In DSM-IV-TR, major depression is diagnosed on Axis a. b. c. d. I. II. III. V. 26. In DSM-IV-TR, paranoid personality disorder is diagnosed on Axis a. b. c. d. I. II. III. IV. 27. Nathan has a rather aggressive case of multiple sclerosis, one that is beginning to affect his mobility and threaten his independent functioning. If Nathan presented for treatment at a mental health facility, on what diagnostic axis would his MS be noted? a. b. c. d. III IV V As a strictly medical diagnosis, it wouldn’t be noted at all. 28. In DSM-IV-TR, cocaine dependence is diagnosed on Axis a. b. c. d. I. II. III. IV. 29. Problems with one’s occupation and housing would appear on Axis ___ of DSM- IV-TR. a. b. c. d. II III IV V 30. Which of the following would be an appropriate entry on Axis IV of the DSM-IV- a. b. c. d. TR? marital difficulty, financial strain 55 avoidant personality disorder social anxiety disorder 31. Nick is a patient in a psychiatric hospital who exhibits very poor personal hygiene. Recently, he has been physically attacking other residents, and he has attempted suicide. According to the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system, his Global Assessment of Functioning would probably approximate a. b. c. d. 90. 70. 40. 10. MSC: WWW 32. Jennifer is a college student seeing a psychologist in the university counseling a. b. c. d. center for test anxiety. The only other symptoms she reports are occasional verbal arguments with her boyfriend of 2 years. In the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system, Jennifer’s GAF would appear on Axis __________ as approximately __________. I; 50 V; 85 IV; 95 V; 10 33. DSM-IV-TR adopts a __________ approach to classifying psychopathology. a. b. c. d. six-axis dimensional biological categorical REF: General Issues in Classification 34. Which of the following is true of the categorical approach to diagnosis? a. b. c. d. It doesn’t accurately reflect the true nature of most diagnostic constructs. It makes it more difficult for people to earn a diagnosis and obtain treatment. It makes it less likely that clinicians will “fudge” when assigning a diagnosis. It makes it less likely that treatment-seekers will be stigmatized. REF: General Issues in Classification 35. The dimensional approach to the classification of psychopathology assumes that abnormal behavior is qualitatively different from normal behavior. b. was adopted by DSM-III-R, DSM-IV, and DSM-IV-TR. is consistent with the idea that abnormal and normal behaviors differ in c. degree, not in kind. d. none of the above a. REF: General Issues in Classification 36. The fact that DSM-IV-TR diagnoses can be based on a variety of assessment a. b. c. d. methods increases the reliability of the diagnoses. the number of diagnoses included in the manual. the heterogeneity of any one diagnostic category. all of the above REF: General Issues in Classification 37. Homosexuality a. has never been a DSM diagnosis. b. has always been a DSM diagnosis. is not a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was a diagnosis in early versions of c. DSM. is considered a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was not a diagnosis in early d. versions of DSM. REF: General Issues in Classification 38. For each Axis I and Axis II diagnosis, DSM-IV-TR includes information on all but a. b. c. d. which of the following? age of onset treatment of choice prevalence cultural considerations REF: General Issues in Classification 39. Structured diagnostic interviews a. increase diagnostic reliability over unstructured interviews. do not yet exist, but are being developed for both Axis I and Axis II b. disorders. c. yield equally reliable diagnoses for all DSM-IV-TR disorders. d. more than one of the above REF: General Issues in Classification 40. Which of the following is true regarding the reliability of diagnostic classification? Reliability provides us with important information about treatment and prognosis. b. Reliability is very similar across the diagnostic categories of the DSM-IV-TR. Reliability may vary between research- and non-research-oriented c. assessment contexts. If clinicians use structured diagnostic interviews, the reliability of diagnosis is d. assured. a. REF: General Issues in Classification 41. A psychiatric diagnosis is valid to the extent that it a. b. c. d. informs us about the etiology of the disorder. helps us predict the course of the disorder/prognosis. helps us choose an appropriate treatment for the disorder. All of the above suggest diagnostic validity. REF: General Issues in Classification 42. DSM-IV-TR includes approximately __________ possible diagnoses. a. b. c. d. 50 150 400 800 REF: General Issues in Classification MSC: WWW 43. Which of the following features has been most heavily criticized regarding DSM- a. b. c. d. IV-TR’s coverage of diagnostic conditions? over-inclusiveness the exclusion of childhood developmental disorders the placement of personality disorders on Axis II the limited number of schizophrenia subtypes REF: General Issues in Classification DIF: Conceptual 44. Some individuals have suggested that there is gender bias in psychiatric diagnosis. According to the paper by Widiger and Spitzer described in your textbook, which of the following situations would necessarily demonstrate the existence of such bias? if a disorder were found to be much more prevalent in one sex than in the a. other if men and women presenting with the same cluster of symptoms were b. assigned different diagnosis c. both of the above d. neither of the above REF: General Issues in Classification 45. According to the DSM-IV-TR, ALL BUT WHICH of the following should be a. b. c. d. addressed in a cultural formulation of a person’s problem? How strong is the person’s cultural identity? How does the person’s culture explain the problem at hand? How does the person’s culture regard the proposed treatment? All of the above should be included in a cultural formulation. REF: General Issues in Classification 46. According to Dr. A., specific phobias are the result of classical conditioning. a. b. c. d. According to Dr. B., they result from the displacement of intrapsychic conflict onto an external object that can then be avoided. According to Dr. C., they are the product of maladaptive, irrational beliefs about the feared object. Respectively, Drs. A., B., and C. endorse the __________ etiological models of psychopathology. learning, biological, and psychodynamic learning, humanistic, and cognitive biological, psychodynamic, and cognitive none of the above REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness 47. Dr. Siegfried believes that abnormal behavior, ranging from mood disorders to a. b. c. d. eating disorders to sleep disorders, is due to structural, functional, or chemical abnormalities in the central nervous system. We would say that he adheres to the _________ model of psychopathology. developmental cognitive biological learning REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness 48. A good synonym for the term “diathesis” is __________. a. b. c. d. stress consequence environment vulnerability REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness 49. According to the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology, a vulnerability or predisposition (such as genetics) is necessary and sufficient to develop psychopathology. a vulnerability or predisposition and some kind of stressor are both required b. to develop psychopathology. c. possessing a diathesis for a disorder guarantees its eventual occurrence. all human beings are born with the same likelihood of developing a d. particular disorder. a. REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness 50. Which of the following is an accurate statement about diatheses and stresses, as conceptualized by the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology? a. Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always environmental. b. Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always psychological. Diatheses are always biological or psychological, and stresses are always c. environmental. Diatheses may be biological or psychological, and stresses may be d. biological, psychological, interpersonal, or environmental. REF: Causes of Abnormal Behavior and Mental Illness ESSAY Identify three major purposes of psychiatric diagnosis. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the “statistical infrequency or violation of social norms” definition of abnormal behavior? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the “subjective distress” definition of abnormal behavior? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the “disability or dysfunction or impairment” definition of abnormal behavior? What are the major elements of “mental disorder,” as defined in the DSM-IV-TR? What is the function of each axis of DSM-IV-TR? 7. Compare and contrast the categorical and dimensional approaches to the classification of mental disorders. 8. Describe the history of homosexuality as a mental illness. What does this case suggest about psychiatric diagnoses? 9. Identify at least three ways that culture may impact diagnosis and/or treatment. 10. Describe the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology. Chapter 11 Psychological Interventions MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true regarding the overall efficacy of psychotherapy? a. Empirical evidence does not support the overall efficacy of psychotherapy. b. Empirical evidence supports the overall efficacy of psychotherapy. c. The overall efficacy of psychotherapy has not been empirically tested. Although psychotherapy is efficacious for some, it is not efficacious for the d. majority of clients. MSC: WWW 2. Dr. Hennepin is conducting a study on a new psychotherapy for depression. The a. b. c. d. depressed clients in his study are diverse, ranging greatly both in the presence of comorbid diagnoses and the severity of their depression; the therapists also are diverse, with different types of mental health training (clinical psychology, social work) and different levels of experience. Dr. Hennepin’s study has a high degree of external validity. What term is used for studies of this nature? a psychotherapy efficacy study a psychotherapy effectiveness study an analog treatment study a double-blind placebo trial 3. Dr. Pettigrew is conducting a study on a new psychotherapy for depression a. b. c. d. through the outpatient psychological services clinic at his university. The depressed patients in his study are all moderately depressed, and the therapists are clinical psychology interns and post-doctoral fellows who have received extensive training in the new technique. The clients, who are being paid to take part, are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group. Overall, the study has been designed to maximize internal validity. What term is used for studies of this nature? a psychotherapy efficacy study a psychotherapy effectiveness study a quasi-experimental treatment study an analog treatment study 4. The 1995 Consumer Reports study on the benefits of psychotherapy a. measured the efficacy rather than the effectiveness of psychotherapy. b. focused exclusively on treatment for alcohol and drug problems. suggested that psychiatrists, psychologists, and social workers were equally c. effective. d. all of the above 5. The 1995 Consumer Reports study on the benefits of psychotherapy found that a. psychotherapy resulted in improvement for about one-third of respondents. b. longer treatment was related to greater improvement. respondents who received psychotherapy plus medication improved more than those who received psychotherapy alone. d. none of the above c. 6. Which of the following terms is currently used to describe interventions or a. b. c. d. techniques that have produced significant change in clients and patients in controlled trials? empirically validated treatment (EVT) empirically supported treatment (EST) evidence-based practice (EBP) evidence-based treatment (EBT) 7. ALL BUT WHICH of the following are categories used to describe the usefulness a. b. c. d. of a therapeutic approach for reducing mental health symptoms? well-established certainly efficacious probably efficacious experimental 8. A few studies have found that Treatment A for anxiety, a manualized treatment, is not only superior to a placebo treatment, but produces outcomes at least as good as an existing well-regarded, widely used treatment for anxiety. These studies have been conducted by different investigators, and the client samples have been specified clearly. On the basis of this information, we would describe Treatment A as a. well-established. b. probably efficacious. c. possibly efficacious. d. empirically verified. 9. Two separate research groups have conducted studies investigating Treatment B a. b. c. d. for anxiety, and each has found that the treatment group experienced more improvement than a waitlist control group. On the basis of this information alone, we would describe Treatment B as experimental. possibly efficacious. probably efficacious. certainly efficacious. 10. A 2006 meta-analysis by Weisz, Jensen-Doss, and Hawley (2006) on the effects a. b. c. d. of psychotherapy administered to youth of various backgrounds, symptom types, and symptom severity, found that evidence-based treatment produced better outcomes both at the end of treatment and also at follow-up. evidence-based treatment produced better outcomes at the end of treatment, but not at follow-up. evidence-based treatment produced outcomes similar to treatment as usual at the end of treatment, but better outcomes at follow-up. evidence-based treatment produced outcomes similar to treatment as usual both at the end of treatment and also at follow-up. 11. Although their opinions may differ somewhat, most ers believe that common a. b. c. d. factors __________ therapeutic change. are responsible for the majority of play at least a major role in play only a minor role in play no role in 12. Lambert and Ogles’s (2004) conceptualization of common factors in a. b. c. d. psychotherapy suggests that __________ factors lay the groundwork for any subsequent changes. biological action learning support MSC: WWW 13. In Lambert and Ogles’s (2004) conceptualization of common factors in a. b. c. d. psychotherapy, risk taking and mastery are excluded. considered support factors. considered learning factors. considered action factors. 14. Which of the following is NOT among the common factors of psychotherapy a. b. c. d. effectiveness? the expert role of the therapist contingency management the therapeutic alliance none of the above 15. Gabrielle and her therapist are currently working to improve Gabrielle’s social a. b. c. d. skills and correct her faulty ways of thinking. Which common factor of therapy is highlighted here? the therapeutic alliance the achievement of insight the release of emotions the building of competence/mastery 16. Cal just started psychotherapy two weeks ago, and he has noticed increased a. b. c. d. hope and positive expectations as a result. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an accurate statement about such expectations? They fall under the category of nonspecific therapy factors. They likely increase the effectiveness of specific therapy interventions. They likely account for the bulk of therapeutic effectiveness. They are similar in function to a placebo. 17. Across the majority of approaches, successful psychotherapy tends to be a. b. c. d. associated with hope/positive expectations in the client. a strong therapeutic alliance. both of the above neither of the above 18. Many clinicians believe that older clients have a __________ prognosis than a. b. c. d. younger clients, and the research support for this idea is __________. poorer; strong poorer; weak better; strong better; weak 19. Research on client motivation and psychotherapy outcome a. b. c. d. shows mixed support for the necessity of high levels of client motivation. has had difficulty adequately defining and measuring client motivation. both of the above neither of the above 20. According to the conventional wisdom about various patient variables, which a. b. c. d. individual is most likely to benefit from psychotherapy? Bobby, who was referred to treatment by the courts after two separate instances of “road rage” Antonio, whose wife begged him to seek help after he’d spent the last two weeks unable to pull himself out of bed Ethan, who is trying to show that he is a “fit” parent in anticipation of an upcoming custody hearing Kirin, who wants to make sure that her “head is on straight” before she starts a rigorous graduate program 21. Most therapists view openness to the therapeutic process as a. b. c. d. a positive indication for outcome. a mild form of psychopathology. a symptom of Dependent Personality Disorder. none of the above 22. John is a man receiving psychotherapy; Jane is a woman receiving a. b. c. d. psychotherapy. Based on the average psychotherapy outcomes of men and women, we predict that John will experience a better outcome. we predict that Jane will experience a better outcome. we predict that both will experience excellent outcomes. we cannot predict who will experience a better outcome. 23. Two decades of research on therapeutic outcome for members of ethnic minority a. b. c. d. groups have shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have much poorer outcomes. shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have slightly poorer outcomes. shown conclusively that members of ethnic minority groups tend to have better outcomes. none of the above 24. Which of the following is true according to empirical research? There is a positive relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome. There is a negative relationship between social class of the client and b. therapy outcome. There is virtually no relationship between social class of the client and c. therapy outcome. The relationship between social class of the client and therapy outcome has d. not yet been empirically studied. a. 25. What is the term for the degree to which one integrates new cultural patterns into a. b. c. d. one’s original cultural patterns? cultural sensitivity acculturation accommodation cultural identification MSC: WWW 26. Dr. Haislip, a clinical psychologist, has just started seeing a client of a different a. b. c. d. cultural background than himself. Which of the following is good advice for Dr. Haislip? He should not assess the person’s level of acculturation. He should not view unfamiliar behaviors as pathological. He should collect massive amounts of data early in the treatment. all of the above 27. Which of the following variables is associated with better psychotherapy a. b. c. d. outcome? the degree to which the therapist likes or relates to the patient the attractiveness of the patient both of the above neither of the above 28. In comprehensive reviews, Beutler et al. (1994, 2004) concluded that older therapists tend to produce better therapy outcomes than younger therapists. female therapists tend to produce better therapy outcomes than male b. therapists. c. both of the above d. neither of the above a. 29. Dr. Chen, who is Asian American, is about to begin meeting with a young Latino man to administer behavior therapy for anxiety. Dr. Chen is concerned that their ethnic/racial differences will impede the progress of therapy. Being acquainted with the research on this issue, what would you tell him? He’s right; when the therapist and client are not matched with regard to a. ethnic background, it tends to have a negative effect on the therapeutic outcome. He’s wrong; although counterintuitive, when the therapist and client are not b. matched with regard to ethnic background, it tends to have a positive effect on the therapeutic outcome. He’s wrong; although counterintuitive, when the therapist and client are not matched with regard to ethnic background, it tends to have a positive effect c. on the therapeutic outcome, but only when the therapist makes an effort to be culturally sensitive. d. It is uncertain; the research conducted to date on the effect of therapist/client ethnic matching on therapeutic outcome is equivocal. 30. Rogers (1957) stated that empathy, warmth, and genuineness were __________ a. b. c. d. for therapeutic change. necessary and sufficient neither necessary nor sufficient necessary but not sufficient sufficient but not necessary MSC: WWW 31. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is consistent with current thinking about the a. b. c. d. therapist qualities of empathy, warmth, and genuineness identified by Rogers (1957)? They are necessary, but not sufficient, for successful therapy. They are considered untrainable skills. They are believed to reflect the quality of the therapeutic alliance. All of the above are consistent with current thinking on this matter. 32. Dr. Tierney is a clinical psychologist who has undergone personal psychotherapy a. b. c. d. in the past. Dr. Kellner, also a clinical psychologist, has never before received psychotherapy. Which individual is likely to be the more effective therapy provider? Dr. Tierney Dr. Kellner It’s hard to say; research on this topic has been mixed. It’s impossible to say; virtually no research has been devoted to this topic. 33. Which of the following is true? a. b. c. d. Several studies suggest that paraprofessionals produce therapy outcomes equivalent to, or at times exceeding, those produced by trained psychotherapists. Most of the research evidence on the topic supports the position that the more experience a psychotherapist has, the better therapy outcome he/she will produce. both of the above neither of the above 34. Which of the following is true? In the 1995 Consumer Reports study, people who saw a mental health a. professional reported higher satisfaction with their treatment than people who saw a family physician. Research evidence has generally found that psychiatrists and clinical psychologists produce better psychotherapy outcomes than social workers. Research evidence has generally found that clinical psychologists produce c. better psychotherapy outcomes than psychiatrists. d. all of the above b. 35. According to the informed consent form featured in the textbook (Handelsman & a. b. c. d. Galvin, 1988), which of the following questions does a client have the right to ask the therapist? How does your kind of therapy work? What other types of therapy or help are there? How can I reach you in an emergency? all of the above 36. The text talks about therapists and clients entering into a treatment “contract” a. b. c. d. after completion of the initial assessment. What is an accurate statement about such contracts? They usually specify the length and goals of therapy. They usually specify the client’s responsibilities while in treatment. They may be modified as needed over time. all of the above 37. Dr. Wicker is winding up treatment with a patient who initially presented for a. b. c. d. therapy with significant depressive and anxious symptoms. ALL BUT WHICH of the following interventions would be appropriate at this stage of treatment? Dr. Wicker and her client should discuss and address the client’s feelings about termination. Dr. Wicker and her client should evaluate the client’s progress within the current treatment. Dr. Wicker and her client should discuss the possibility of the client returning for additional sessions in the future, if necessary. All of the above would be appropriate at this stage of treatment. 38. Which of the following is NOT among the stages in the “” model proposed by a. b. c. d. Prochaska and Norcross (2002)? intention preparation action termination DIF: Factual 39. According to Prochaska and Norcross’s (2002) work on in psychotherapy, clients a. b. c. d. in the _______ stage have no intention of changing their behavior in the near future, and were probably pressured to enter therapy by others (e.g., the courts, family members, etc.). termination preparation precontemplation maintenance MSC: WWW 40. Maya is aware that her intense social anxiety is interfering with her goal of a. b. c. d. furthering her education, but at this point she is not ready to commit to addressing the issue. Maya is at what stage of the “” model proposed by Prochaska and Norcross (2002)? precontemplation contemplation preparation ambivalent DIF: Applied 41. In __________, a report written by __________ had a powerful impact on the a. b. c. d. psychotherapy establishment by suggesting that psychotherapy with neurotic clients was no more effective than no therapy at all. 1982; Eysenck 1952; Eysenck 1956; Bergin 1976; Bergin 42. Studies that seek to investigate the efficacy of psychotherapy typically include a treatment group, a pre-treatment assessment of client functioning, a posttreatment assessment of client functioning, and a. b. c. d. a control group. a manipulation check. an internal audit. none of the above 43. Which of the following is a type of control group used in ? a. b. c. d. waiting list control group attention-only control group both of the above neither of the above 44. Smith and Glass (1977) a. b. c. d. performed a comparative study involving 90 outpatients and found that psychodynamic and behavioral therapy produced better results than no treatment at all. performed a meta-analysis of nearly 400 psychotherapy studies and concluded that psychotherapy is generally effective. published a strong but non-empirical paper criticizing the general effectiveness of psychotherapy. published a strong but non-empirical paper supporting the general effectiveness of psychotherapy. 45. According to the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis of psychotherapy a. b. c. d. outcome studies, the average person who received psychotherapy obtained better outcomes than __________ of people who did not receive treatment. 100% 80% 50% 30% 46. Research that addresses the specific events that occur during therapy in the a. b. c. d. course of interaction between therapist and patient is best labeled __________ research. meta-analytic analogue outcome process 47. According to Orlinsky et al. (2004), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is associated with positive psychotherapy outcome? a. Therapists’ use of advice and guidance. b. Therapists’ competence and adherence to the treatment protocol. The degree to which clients reflect on, think about, and emotionally process c. material within sessions. d. All of the above are associated with good therapy outcome. DIF: Factual 48. Which of the following is an accurate statement about practice guidelines? They recommend specific forms of intervention for specific psychological disorders. They specify, in detail, the methods and procedures for each type of b. treatment. c. both of the above d. neither of the above a. 49. Which of the following is NOT true of manualized treatments? They have been used by ers to ensure that treatment protocols are standardized across patients. b. They have been used outside of the research context in clinical practice. c. They generally require less clinical skill than treatment as usual. d. more than one of the above a. 50. As a broad generalization about the effectiveness of psychotherapy, it is accurate a. b. c. d. to state that many forms of psychotherapy are somewhat more effective than unplanned or informal help. comparative trials have consistently demonstrated that psychodynamic psychotherapy is superior to other types of psychotherapy across most clinical conditions. both of the above neither of the above ESSAY What is psychological intervention? Generally speaking, is psychotherapy beneficial? Compare and contrast efficacy and effectiveness, in the context of . Outline four limitations of the 1995 Consumer Reports survey on the benefits of psychotherapy. In what respects does the therapeutic relationship differ from a supportive friendship? How would you respond to the claim that the “expert” status of the therapist introduces an authoritarian element into the relationship? Explain the difference between evidence-based treatment and evidence-based practice. According to the conventional wisdom, a client must be motivated in order to benefit from therapy. Explain why successful psychotherapy seems to require motivation. What is meant by “nonspecific factors” in psychotherapy? How do nonspecific factors contribute to therapy outcome? Describe at least three distinct challenges that arise in the context of providing psychotherapy to children that do not arise in psychotherapy with adults. Enumerate at least three common criticisms of manualized treatment, and provide responses to each. 10. In the concluding section of the chapter, the authors outline several worthwhile issues to be addressed by future . Describe at least three such issues. Chapter 19 Forensic Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Forensic psychology involves the application of the methods, theories, and a. b. c. d. concepts of psychology to violent criminal behavior. criminal behavior. the legal system. incarcerated individuals. MSC: WWW 2. ALL BUT WHICH of the following is true of forensic psychology? a. The field has not always been well-regarded. Currently, forensic psychology training programs are increasing in both b. number and kind. Many of the training programs, texts, and journals are interdisciplinary in c. nature, spanning both law and psychology. d. The applications of the field are relatively narrow in scope. 3. Appropriately qualified psychologists were first authorized to testify in court as experts on mental disorder in a. 1942. b. 1962. c. 1976. d. 1990. 4. The 1908 book On the Witness Stand was written by a. b. c. d. Hugo von Munsterberg. David Bazelon. John Wigmore. Lewis Terman. 5. Ashlee, who is wrapping up her undergraduate degree in psychology, is a. b. c. d. interested in becoming a forensic psychologist. ALL BUT WHICH of the following options are available to her (and others like her) for graduate training in this area? doctoral psychology programs with a law emphasis master’s programs in psychology with a law emphasis joint programs that award both law and psychology degrees All of the above training options are available to Ashlee and others. 6. According to the ethical standards specifically applicable to forensic psychology a. b. c. d. (e.g., Blau, 1998), the psychologist should accept a fee contingent upon the outcome of a case only if the case is criminal (rather than civil). the psychologist should receive all fees after testifying. the psychologist who regularly testifies as an expert witness should devote some professional time to “pro bono publico” (charity) cases. all of the above 7. Which of the following is true regarding lay witnesses and expert witnesses? a. b. c. d. A lay witness, unlike an expert witness, can offer opinions or inferences. An expert witness, unlike a lay witness, can offer opinions or inferences. Both lay witnesses and expert witnesses can offer opinions or inferences. Neither lay witnesses nor expert witnesses can offer opinions or inferences. 8. A psychologist working as an expert witness is required by the court to have a. b. c. d. a Psy.D. or Ph.D. board certification in his/her respective specialty. both of the above neither of the above 9. What is the significance of the 1993 Supreme Court decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow? a. It changed the criteria for the admissibility of expert testimony. It narrowed the scope of the opinions that may be offered by expert b. witnesses. c. It broadened the scope of the opinions that may be offered by lay witnesses. d. more than one of the above 10. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the 1993 Supreme Court a. b. c. d. decision in Daubert v. Merrell Dow? It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more liberal and flexible, and it has had that effect. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more liberal and flexible, and it has had the opposite effect. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more restrictive, and it has had that effect. It was intended to make the criteria for determining the admissibility of expert testimony more restrictive, and it has had the opposite effect. MSC: WWW 11. Dr. Beatty, a forensic psychologist, has been contacted to serve as an expert a. b. c. d. witness for an upcoming court case. How will it be determined whether her testimony is admissible in court? Her testimony will be admissible if she possesses all the necessary credentials (doctoral degree from an accredited program, postdoctoral training, board certification). Her testimony will be admissible if it is generally accepted by others in her professional field. Her testimony will be admissible if it is generally accepted by others in her own and other related professional fields (e.g., psychiatry). Her testimony will be admissible if the trial judge deems it to be relevant and valid. 12. According to Faust et al. (2010), ALL BUT WHICH of the following is an informal a. b. c. d. criterion that many trial judges rely upon to decide whether expert testimony is admissible? The testimony must be helpful to the jury. The testimony must be trustworthy and valid. The testimony must be nonredundant with other previous testimony. The testimony must help prove or disprove an important issue in the case. 13. Who is entitled to provide “ultimate opinion” testimony? a. b. c. d. lay witnesses only expert witnesses only both lay witnesses and expert witnesses neither lay witnesses nor expert witnesses 14. Regarding cross-examination of the expert witness, Schwitzgebel and a. b. c. d. Schwitzgebel (1980) suggest never admitting weaknesses. answering questions quickly rather than taking time to think. both of the above neither of the above 15. Insanity a. b. c. d. is a medical/psychiatric term, rather than a legal one. pleas are often successful. pleas are less common than questions about competency to stand trial. none of the above 16. Gerald robbed a bank early one morning and was caught by the authorities almost immediately afterwards. Now Gerald claims that he was not sane at the time of the crime. In most states and the District of Columbia, the burden of proof would be on Gerald to show that was not sane when he robbed the bank. the burden of proof would be on the prosecution to show that Gerald was b. sane when he robbed the bank. both the prosecution and the defense must address the question of sanity in c. their cases when the defendant enters an insanity plea. d. the “insanity” plea has been replaced by the “guilty but mentally ill” plea. a. 17. Gloria abused a neighbor’s child, who was under her care, so badly that the child a. b. c. d. ended up in the hospital in critical condition. Gloria asserts that she was mentally ill with post-partum depression at the time of the abuse and could not appreciate that what she was doing was wrong. Assuming that what she is saying is true, under which standard below would Gloria be considered “insane”? M’Naghten rule Durham ALI any of the above 18. Tommy was caught trying to steal a car, and now that he is in custody, he has a. b. c. d. been accused of stealing multiple cars in the area over the last three weeks. In his defense, Tommy says that he knows stealing cars is wrong, but that he can’t help himself from stealing them because of his bipolar disorder. Assuming that what he is saying is true, under which standard below would Tommy be considered “insane”? ALI Durham M’Naghten rule any of the above 19. The most liberal standard for judging a defendant insane is the a. b. c. d. M’Naghten rule. ALI standard. Durham standard. concept of biological defect. 20. The famous Hinckley case (regarding the attempted assassination of Ronald a. b. c. d. Reagan) resulted in more states placing the burden of proving the defendant’s insanity on the defense, rather than requiring the prosecution to prove the defendant’s sanity. the removal of the verdict “Guilty but Mentally Ill” from many state and federal statutes. a return to the ALI standard for criminal insanity. none of the above 21. Under which condition below will a person who has been shown to commit a a. b. c. d. crime be held for treatment rather than punishment? If that person is judged not guilty by reason of insanity. If that person receives a “guilty but mentally ill” verdict. both of the above neither of the above 22. ___________ was defined by the U. S. Supreme Court as “. . . sufficient present a. b. c. d. ability to consult with his [sic] attorney with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and whether he has a rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings against him.” Competency to stand trial Criminal insanity Involuntary commitment Legal intellectual capacity 23. Which of the following is true regarding competency to stand trial? It is possible for a defendant to have been insane when the crime was committed but later be competent to stand trial. It is possible for a defendant to have been sane when the crime was b. committed but later be incompetent to stand trial. c. both of the above d. neither of the above a. 24. The assessment of _____ focuses on present mental state. a. b. c. d. insanity competency to stand trial both of the above neither of the above 25. Seth has been charged with first-degree murder, but there is some question as to a. b. c. d. whether he is competent to stand trial. Which issue below was NOT among those identified by Greene and Heilbrun (2011) to be considered by clinicians determining competency? Can he appreciate the nature of the charges against him? Can he understand now that what he did was wrong? Can he cooperate in a reasonable way with counsel? Can he appreciate the proceedings of the court? 26. Sheryl is mentally ill. As such, she can be involuntarily committed to a mental a. b. c. d. institution by the court system if she is dangerous to self or others. is incapable of making responsible decisions about self-care and hospitalization. requires treatment or care in a hospital. any of the above 27. Who can petition the court for an examination of someone they believe requires a. b. c. d. commitment? anyone only the police only the patient’s family only the patient’s family or close associates MSC: WWW 28. The present norm in child custody cases is a. b. c. d. joint custody. maternal custody. paternal custody. foster care. 29. Research has suggested that joint custody is contraindicated when a. b. c. d. the distance between the two parents’ homes is greater than 150 miles. the parents have an emotionally charged, conflictual relationship. either parent has a history of psychological or psychiatric treatment. the child has a history of psychological or psychiatric treatment. 30. Which of the following was NOT one of the three primary issues that the a. b. c. d. American Psychological Association (1994) recommended be addressed in a child custody evaluation? The way each member of the family interacts with the others. The child’s ties to relatives on either side of the family. The child’s development and psychological needs. Each parent’s strengths and limitations. 31. The ultimate goal of a forensic psychologist’s report in a child custody case is to a. b. c. d. serve the best interests of the child. serve the best interests of the party who hired the forensic psychologist. balance the interests of all involved parties. promote the timely movement of the case through the legal system. 32. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the right of hospitalized mental patients to refuse medication? a. Only patients who are hospitalized voluntarily may refuse medication. b. Only patients who are capable of informed consent may refuse medication. Only patients who have been hospitalized voluntarily AND are capable of c. informed consent may refuse medication. d. none of the above 33. What is notable about the 2003 Supreme Court decision in Sell v. United States? It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily medicated if they pose a danger to self or others. It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily b. medicated for the purpose of making them competent to stand trial. It ruled that criminal defendants with mental illness may be involuntarily c. medicated if it is in their own best interests. d. more than one of the above a. 34. Relative to individuals without a mental disorder diagnosis, a history of violence a. b. c. d. is especially common among individuals with _____ disorders. anxiety learning mood substance use 35. Among individuals with mental illness, _____% have no history of violence. a. b. c. d. 20 50 70 90 36. Which of the following is true regarding the prediction of dangerousness? a. Violent acts tend to be underpredicted. The ability of laypersons to predict dangerousness is quite poor, and the b. ability of psychologists to predict dangerousness is quite strong. Psychological evaluations for the purpose of predicting dangerousness are c. frequently requested by the criminal justice system. d. none of the above 37. According to the text, the research on clinical versus actuarial prediction of dangerousness a. clearly indicates that the clinical method is superior. b. clearly indicates that the actuarial method is superior. does not lend itself to a clear conclusion of superiority for either the clinical c. or actuarial method. d. is virtually non-existent. 38. According to the text, when a prisoner wants to refuse psychological treatment, a. his/her refusal will not be honored. his/her family will have to hire a private attorney to represent his/her interests. the issue will be taken up by an institutional committee to protect the rights c. of prisoners. a committee of peers (fellow and former prisoners) will be assembled to d. consider the issue. b. MSC: WWW 39. Forensic psychologists who conduct psychotherapy with prisoners a. do so only in collaboration with the prison chaplain. do so only to restore an incompetent person to a state of mental b. competence. c. may only target behaviors that pertain to the relevant criminal act(s). d. none of the above 40. Dr. Kirk is a forensic psychologist who practices psychotherapy with prisoners. Which of the following is an accurate statement about his work? a. Dr. Kirk may be required to provide testimony in court regarding his patients. b. Due to confidentiality concerns, Dr. Kirk cannot see patients in groups. Dr. Kirk’s methods are limited to behavior therapy and cognitive-behavioral c. therapy. d. Dr. Kirk sees patients only when they are incarcerated. 41. During jury selection, a forensic psychologist who works with one group of attorneys must also offer similar services to the opposing groups of attorneys. ultimately tries to assemble a jury that is as favorably disposed toward the b. patient as possible. c. both of the above d. neither of the above a. 42. __________ refers to the part of a trial during which a jury is impaneled. a. b. c. d. Jurat Voir dire Vinculum juris Trial de novo 43. In jury “shadowing,” jury members undergo psychological evaluations by the consulting forensic a. psychologist to determine their motivations regarding the outcome of the trial. the consulting forensic psychologist speaks directly with jurors during b. breaks in the trial. the consulting forensic psychologist hires individuals similar to the jurors c. and monitors their reactions to the testimony as it is presented during the trial. the consulting forensic psychologist hires individuals similar to the jurors d. and obtains their reactions to the arguments that will be presented by the attorneys during the actual trial. 44. A forensic psychologist might conduct a public opinion survey for ALL BUT a. b. c. d. WHICH of the following purposes? To gather information that will be helpful for planning the presentation of evidence at a trial. To determine whether there is sufficient cause to request a change of venue for a trial. To help determine which juror characteristics should be considered in jury selection/deselection. Public opinion surveys may be used for all of the above purposes. 45. Which of the following forensic psychologists is behaving most unethically in a. b. c. d. his/her work on witness preparation? Dr. Hughes is telling a witness which facts of his testimony to emphasize and de-emphasize when he is on the stand. Dr. Leung is advising a witness on clothes, grooming and other appearancerelated matters. Dr. Jackson is helping a witness organize the facts she wishes to present to make her testimony clearer to the court. Dr. Sabin is coaching a witness on how to respond if/when his credibility as a witness is threatened. MSC: WWW 46. According to research on the topic, which of the following factors may distort eyewitness testimony? a. the witness’s expectations b. additional information received by the witness after the witnessed event c. questions asked of the witness prior to the trial d. all of the above 47. What is true of eyewitness testimony? It has been a powerful factor in the conviction of countless people over the years. b. It is often unreliable and inaccurate. c. both of the above d. neither of the above a. 48. Dr. Lacombe conducts a study where he recruits a group of 50 participants and a. b. c. d. has them watch a 10-second film clip of a man breaking into and entering a house. Afterwards, participants are asked about what they observed. Based on the available research on eyewitness testimony, what do you think Dr. Lacombe will find? If the participants provide their testimony immediately after the film clip, their reports will be accurate. The participants will not all agree on basic, specific details such as the subject’s height or hair color. None of the participants will provide correct eyewitness testimony. none of the above 49. In the 1990s, a subcommittee was appointed by the American Psychology-Law a. b. c. d. Society and Division 41 of the American Psychological Association to review scientific evidence regarding eyewitness testimony. According to the subcommittee’s recommendations, a person who conducts the lineup or photo spread in a case should know the identity of the suspect. should tell the eyewitness that the suspect in the case appears in the lineup or photo spread. should ensure that the suspect doesn’t stand out from the others in either appearance or dress. all of the above 50. Research on jury behavior suggests that when the judge writes instructions in active rather than passive sentences a. and elaborates on abstractions like “reasonable doubt,” jurors tend to apply the law with greater accuracy than they do otherwise. a defendant who is found guilty on several individual criminal charges tends b. to receive harsher verdicts than a defendant who is found guilty on a single indictment that joins all charges. the impact of the testimony of “dislikable” witnesses is similar to the impact c. of the testimony of “likable” witnesses. d. none of the above ESSAY How is forensic psychology defined? Identify at least four of the eight general activities of forensic psychologists identified in the textbook chapter. Describe at least three highlights in the historical development of forensic psychology. What did the Supreme Court decide in the 1993 Daubert v. Merrell Dow case regarding the admissibility of expert testimony? Compare the intent of the decision with its effects to date. Describe briefly the ALI standard for criminal insanity. Also, indicate at least two effects the Hinckley case (regarding the attempted assassination of Ronald Reagan) had on issues relating to insanity pleas and NGRI verdicts. What two general questions should guide a forensic psychologist’s evaluation for criminal insanity? Identify several factors the psychologist should examine in order to answer these two questions. Identify at least three rights of hospitalized mental patients. Identify at least one additional right over which hospital personnel tend to exercise much discretion. Under what conditions can an individual be involuntarily committed to a mental institution? Explain the textbook authors’ comment that even “voluntary” admission may not be as voluntary as it appears. Identify at least four questions a forensic psychologist should address when performing a child custody evaluation. Describe the three situations, identified by Greene and Heilbrun (2011), in which predictions of violent behavior are likely to be most accurate. 10. Describe at least three roles a forensic psychologist may play as a consultant to a trial attorney, making sure to highlight a couple issues relating to each role.