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Test Bank
for
Campbell Biology
Tenth Edition
Reece • Urry • Cain • Wasserman
Minorsky • Jackson
Edward J. Zakisko, Blackburn College
Diane Jokinen, Loyola University Chicago
Rebecca Orr, Collin College
Melissa Fierke, State University of New York,
College of Environmental Science and Forestry
Boston Columbus Indianapolis New York San Francisco Upper Saddle River
Amsterdam Cape Town Dubai London Madrid Milan Munich Paris Montréal Toronto
Delhi Mexico City São Paulo Sydney Hong Kong Seoul Singapore Taipei Tokyo
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Vice President/Editor-in-Chief: Beth Wilbur
Senior Acquisitions Editor: Josh Frost
Senior Editorial Manager: Ginnie Simione Jutson
Editorial Project Editor: Brady Golden
Executive Marketing Manager: Lauren Harp
Managing Editor, Production: Shannon Tozier
Production Project Manager: Jane Brundage
Image & Text Permissions Coordinator: Alison Bruckner
Manufacturing Buyer: Jeffrey Sargent
Composition: S4Carlisle and Tamarack Software, Inc.
Cover Design Production: Seventeenth Street Studios
Text and Cover Printer: Edwards Brothers Malloy
Cover Photo Credit: Martin Turner / Getty Images
This work is protected by United States copyright laws and is provided solely
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ISBN 13: 978-0-321-82371-7
ISBN 10: 0-321-82371-0
Copyright © 2014, 2011, 2008. Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. Manufactured in
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Preface
Welcome to the Test Bank for the tenth edition of Campbell Biology. What you will find
is a thoroughly revised collection of questions based on the strong foundation established
in the nine previous editions. Each member of the Test Bank team, along with editors, has
reviewed each question carefully to ensure that the content and terminology of that question accurately reflects the material in the new edition of the text. We hope that you will
find ample questions from which to choose in compiling your tests and assignments. We
also hope that you will be guided by the assignment of skill levels.
The Test-Your-Understanding multiple-choice questions found in the review section of
each textbook chapter have also been included in the Test.
We tried to classify each question according to the complexity of the mental processes
involved. The model we used is modified from Bloom, Benjamin et al., Taxonomy of
Educational Objectives: The Classification of Educational Goals, Handbook I: Cognitive
Domain. New York: Longmans, Green, 1956. The categories in the cognitive domain that
we used to classify questions are
Level 1: Knowledge/Comprehension Recognizing or recalling information;
understanding of facts and ideas by organizing, comparing, contrasting, translating, and
interpreting; giving descriptions; explaining and stating main ideas; using information to
deduce a best answer.
Level 2: Application/Analysis Applying previously learned information in new
situations to answer questions that have single or best answers; examining and breaking
information into parts by identifying motives or causes; making inferences and finding
evidence to support generalizations; applying knowledge to new situations; interpreting
data; finding connections from one chapter to another.
Level 3: Synthesis/Evaluation Compiling information in a different way by combining
elements in a new pattern or proposing alternative solutions; making judgments about information, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on internal evidence or a set of criteria.
We recognize that you may interpret our classifications of the questions differently;
therefore, these classifications should be considered only as a rough guide to the
knowledge and skills required for answering each question.
Preface
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Acknowledgments
The questions in the tenth edition of the Test Bank are built upon questions authored by
others. We are grateful to the following biologists who have contributed questions to
previous editions of the Test Bank (edition numbers are shown in parentheses):
William Barstow, University of Georgia (2, 3, 6, 7, 8); Neil Campbell, UC Riverside (3);
Angela Cunningham, Baylor University (5); Michael Dini, Texas Tech University
(6, 7, 8, 9); Jean DeSaix, University of North Carolina (7, 8); Richard Dohrkopf, Baylor
University (4, 5); Gary Fabris, Red Deer College (4); Eugene Fenster, Longview
Community College (6); Conrad Firling, University of Minnesota (6, 7); Peter Follette,
Science Writer (7); Mark Hens, University of North Carolina (7); Frank Heppner,
University of Rhode Island (1); Walter MacDonald, Trenton State University (2); Janice
Moore, Colorado State University (7); Thomas Owens, Cornell University (7); Rebecca
Pyles, East Tennessee State University (4); Kurt Redborg, Coe College (4, 5, 6); Marc
Snyder, Colorado College (5); Richard Storey, The Colorado College (4, 5); Marshall
Sundberg, Emporia State University (6, 7); Martha Taylor, Cornell University (3);
Margaret Waterman, Harvard Medical School (3); Dan Wivagg, Baylor University
(3, 4, 5); Catherine Wilcoxson Ueckert, Northern Arizona University (5, 6); Betty Ann
Wonderly, J. J. Pearce High School (3); Robert Yost, Indiana State University–Purdue
University (6, 7); Edward Zalisko, Blackburn College (7); Louise Paquin, McDaniel
College (8, 9); John Zarnetske, Hoosick Falls Central School (8, 9); John Lepri, University of North Carolina, Greensboro (8, 9); C.O. Patterson, Texas A&M University (8);
Ronald Balsamo, Villanova University (9); Jung Choi, Georgia Institute of Technology (9)
We would like to thank Edzard J. Zalisko, Diane Jokinen, Rebecca Orr, and Melissa Fierke
for their work on the tenth edition of the Test Bank.
The authors wish to thank Beth Wilbur, vice president and editor-in-chief for Pearson,
and Josh Frost, senior acquisitions editor for Pearson, for assembling and supporting the
work of our writing team. Also Brady Golden, supplements project editor, for his immense help in coordinating the entire project. Thanks also to Jane Brundage, production
project manager at Pearson Benjamin Cummings; and Denise Covelli, David Blazina
and the staff at Tamarack for their expertise and hard work on the production side of
the project.
Josh Frost
Senior Acquisitions Editor
Pearson Education
Acknowledgments
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Contents
Chapter 1
Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
1
Chapter 2
The Chemical Context of Life
12
Chapter 3
Water and Life
27
Chapter 4
Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
41
Chapter 5
The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules
56
Chapter 6
A Tour of the Cell
72
Chapter 7
Membrane Structure and Function
86
Chapter 8
An Introduction to Metabolism
103
Chapter 9
Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
121
Chapter 10
Photosynthesis
136
Chapter 11
Cell Communication
153
Chapter 12
The Cell Cycle
168
Chapter 13
Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
184
Chapter 14
Mendel and the Gene Idea
199
Chapter 15
The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
216
Chapter 16
The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
232
Chapter 17
Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein
247
Chapter 18
Regulation of Gene Expression
263
Chapter 19
Viruses
276
Chapter 20
DNA Tools and Biotechnology
291
Chapter 21
Genomes and Their Evolution
306
Chapter 22
Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
317
Chapter 23
The Evolution of Populations
335
Chapter 24
The Origin of Species
355
Contents
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Chapter 25
The History of Life on Earth
375
Chapter 26
Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
398
Chapter 27
Bacteria and Archaea
422
Chapter 28
Protists
445
Chapter 29
Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
463
Chapter 30
Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
479
Chapter 31
Fungi
498
Chapter 32
An Overview of Animal Diversity
521
Chapter 33
An Introduction to Invertebrates
542
Chapter 34
The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
561
Chapter 35
Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
578
Chapter 36
Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
593
Chapter 37
Soil and Plant Nutrition
605
Chapter 38
Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
615
Chapter 39
Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
629
Chapter 40
Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
642
Chapter 41
Animal Nutrition
657
Chapter 42
Circulation and Gas Exchange
672
Chapter 43
The Immune System
686
Chapter 44
Osmoregulation and Excretion
701
Chapter 45
Hormones and the Endocrine System
716
Chapter 46
Animal Reproduction
730
Chapter 47
Animal Development
747
Chapter 48
Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
760
Chapter 49
Nervous Systems
774
Chapter 50
Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
787
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Contents
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Chapter 51
Animal Behavior
801
Chapter 52
An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
821
Chapter 53
Population Ecology
839
Chapter 54
Community Ecology
867
Chapter 55
Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
886
Chapter 56
Conservation Biology and Global Change
906
Contents
ix
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Chapter 1
Evolution, the Themes of Biology,
and Scientific Inquiry
1) Cells are _____.
A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
B) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
2) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes _____.
A) are more structurally complex
B) are larger
C) are smaller
D) do not have membranes
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
3) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic
material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
A) animal
B) plant
C) archaean
D) fungi
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
4) To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular
structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of
biology?
A) evolution
B) emergent properties
C) reductionism
D) feedback regulation
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
1
5) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a _____.
A) community
B) population
C) ecosystem
D) family
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the complexity of biological
systems?
A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a living
system is a key goal of a systems biology approach to understanding biological
complexity.
B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insight into its
structure and organization.
C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioning
of a living cell.
D) An ecosystem displays complex properties not present in the individual
communities within it.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
7) When a person gets dehydrated while exercising on a hot day, their pituitary gland
releases ADH, a hormone that signals the kidneys to retain more water. This is an
example of
A) Positive feedback regulation
B) Negative feedback regulation
C) Chemical cycling
D) Emergent properties
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
8) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Archaea and Monera
C) Bacteria and Protista
D) Bacteria and Archaea
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
2
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
9) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A) near universality of the genetic code
B) structure of the nucleus
C) structure of cilia
D) structure of chloroplasts
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
10) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A) informatics
B) taxonomy
C) genomics
D) evolution
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
11) The phylogenetic tree below _____.
A) depicts the three major domains of life
B) includes unicellular but not multicellular life
C) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals
and plants
D) includes noncellular life‐forms
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
3
12) In the diagram below, ʺAʺ is _____ ; ʺBʺ is _____.
A) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group ʺAʺ
B) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea
and Eukarya
C) the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and Archaea
D) the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
13) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you
and the rose have in common?
A) You both are multicellular.
B) You both lack a membrane‐bound nucleus.
C) You are both prokaryotic.
D) You and the rose have nothing in common.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
14) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?
A) It requires genetic variation.
B) It results in descent with modification.
C) It involves differential reproductive success.
D) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and involves
differential reproductive success.
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
15) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated that
organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess
_____.
A) non‐heritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment
B) non‐heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment
C) heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment
D) heritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local
environment
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
4
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
16) Which of the following best describes what occurred after the publication of Charles
Darwinʹs On the Origin of Species?
A) The publisher was pressured to cease distribution.
B) The book was banned from schools.
C) The book was widely discussed and disseminated.
D) The book was discredited by most scientists.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
17) Darwinʹs finches, collected from the Galápagos Islands, illustrate which of the following?
A) mutation frequency
B) ancestors from different regions
C) adaptive radiation
D) vestigial anatomical structures
E) the accuracy of the fossil record
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
18) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads.
While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more
opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having
longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should _____.
A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C) determine if hair length is heritable
D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
5
The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct
times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering
is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But
caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different‐looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and
collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs
hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and
light conditions listed below.
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves.
Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
19) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible
hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this
population?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.
B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike
caterpillars.
C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development
of different types of caterpillars.
D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
6
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
20) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look
like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like
twigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different
types of caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars
or all twig‐like caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
21) Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to
each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of
the following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different
types of caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars
or all twig‐like caterpillars.
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
22) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like
flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely
selective advantage for this difference in body shape?
A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their
environment more efficiently.
B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs
than like flowers.
C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings,
reducing predation.
D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillarsʹ feeding efficiency; this
would increase their growth rate and survival rate.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
23) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.
B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses
typically address more specific issues.
C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories
typically address more specific issues.
D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories.
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
7
24) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your
help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump‐starting the car
from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are _____.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not start
B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
25) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine
how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the
following experiments will provide the best data to address that question?
A) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different
concentrations of an antibiotic.
B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various
concentrations of Agrobacterium.
C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the
plants grow.
D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to
Agrobacterium for different lengths of time.
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
26) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor
formation requires a large amount of the plantʹs energy for tissue formation. How might
this change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely
explanation for this change?
A) The number of offspring should increase, because in general, illness increases the
reproductive output of organisms.
B) The number of offspring should increase, because the bacteria will provide energy
for the plant.
C) The number of offspring should decrease, because the plant will divert energy from
reproduction to tumor formation.
D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy for
reproduction is independent of infection.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
8
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by
putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were
sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars
completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be
exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots
(young flies) appeared in the meat.
27) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. What hypothesis was being tested in the
initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
28) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all
of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in
rotting meat.
D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by
adult flies.
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
29) The best experimental design _____.
A) includes a large sample size for each condition
B) includes a control
C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D) includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition between
the controls and the experimental condition
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
30) In the process of science, which of these is tested?
A) a result
B) an observation
C) a hypothesis
D) a control group
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
9
31) A controlled experiment _____.
A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
B) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental
treatment
C) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables
D) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
32) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable.
II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data.
IV. It produces results that can be replicated.
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) III and IV
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
33) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most of
their measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their
data points are ʺoutliersʺ and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. What
should they do?
A) Do not show these points because clearly something went wrong in the experiment.
B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the
final work.
C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers.
D) Change the details of the experiment until they can obtain the expected results.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 1.3
34) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?
A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.
B) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one
experimental variable.
C) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.
D) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
10
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
35) Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?
A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are
photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic.
B) These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using photosynthesis.
C) If protists are all single‐celled, then they are incapable of aggregating.
D) If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of
them could be to a different genus.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
36) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as _____.
A) technology
B) deductive science
C) inductive science
D) pure science
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.4
37) Which of the following best describes a model organism?
A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine.
B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.
C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.
D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists.
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.4
38) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, from
different subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures?
A) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking.
B) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways.
C) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.
D) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because
everyone has a right to an opinion in science.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 1.4
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry
11
Chapter 2
The Chemical Context of Life
1) About twenty-five of the ninety-two natural elements are known to be essential to life.
Which four of these twenty-five elements make up approximately 96 percent of living
matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.1
2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the
following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by
other organisms such as bacteria or plants?
A) calcium
B) iodine
C) sodium
D) phosphorus
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.1
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living
matter.
B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C) All life requires the same essential elements.
D) Iron is needed by all humans.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.1
4) Which of the following are compounds?
A) H2 O, O2 , and CH4
B) H2 O and O2
C) O2 and CH 4
D) H2 O and CH4 , but not O 2
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.1
12
2, The Chemical Context of Life
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A) the number of electrons in the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus electrons in the element
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
6) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same? They have
the same number of _____.
A) protons
B) electrons when neutral
C) electrons in their valence shells when neutral
D) electron shells when neutral
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
7) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass
numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
8) Carbon‐12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However,
the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12
daltons. Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
2, The Chemical Context of Life
13
9) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described
below?
Atom 1
Atom 2
1
H
1
3
H
1
A) They are isomers.
B) They are isotopes.
C) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
D) They each contain only 1 neutron.
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
10) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen‐15 has a greater mass number than
nitrogen‐14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen‐15 contains _____.
A) 7 neutrons
B) 8 neutrons
C) 8 protons
D) 15 protons
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
11) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
_____.
A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons
B) 15 neutrons and 15 protons
C) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell
D) 15 protons and 15 electrons
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
12) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9. Which of the following would you do to a neutral
fluorine atom to complete its valence shell?
A) add 1 electron
B) add 2 electrons
C) remove 1 electron
D) Nothing. If fluorine is neutral, it has a complete valance shell.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
14
2, The Chemical Context of Life
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
13) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a magnesium
ion?
A) a +1 charge
B) a +2 charge
C) a ‐1 charge
D) a ‐2 charge
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.
14) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What element has
properties most similar to carbon?
A) boron
B) silicon
C) nitrogen
D) phosphorus
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 2.2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
2, The Chemical Context of Life
15
15) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus‐32 ( 32P) atom (see the
figure above)?
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 32
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
16) How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds have in its
valence shell (see the figure above)?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
17) Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure above would exhibit
a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur
D) phosphorus
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
16
2, The Chemical Context of Life
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
18) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
2, The Chemical Context of Life
17
19) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of
‐1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
20) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus,
what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?
A) approximately 8 grams
B) approximately 8 daltons
C) approximately 16 grams
D) approximately 16 daltons
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
18
2, The Chemical Context of Life
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
21) If you change the number of neutrons in an atom, you create _____.
A) a cation
B) an anion
C) an isotope
D) a different element
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
22) Can the atomic mass of an element vary?
A) No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element.
B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.
C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a
different element.
Answer: D
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
23) Which of the following is the best description of an atomʹs physical structure?
A) An atom is a solid mass of material.
B) The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.
D) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of
the bubble.
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
24) A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, a
salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a _____.
A) slightly damp surface
B) surface of hydrocarbons
C) surface of mostly carbon‐oxygen bonds
D) surface of mostly carbon‐nitrogen bonds
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 2.3
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
2, The Chemical Context of Life
19
25) A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.
A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the
two atoms become oppositely charged
B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of
both atoms
C) outer‐shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their
respective orbitals
D) outer‐shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of
another atom
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
26) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic
number 8 can make with hydrogen?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Answer: B
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
27) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a
correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH 3 )?
A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial
negative charge.
B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial
negative charge.
Answer: A
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
28) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are _____.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) polar covalent bonds
C) nonpolar covalent bonds
D) ionic bonds
Answer: C
Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
20
2, The Chemical Context of Life
Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.
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